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8. The plan of setting up of a Constituent Assembly to draw up the future Constitution for
India was given by
a) Independence Act, 1947 b) Government Committee
c) The Cabinet Mission Plan d) Government of India Act, 1935
9. Diarchy means
a) Double government b) Responsible government
c) Bureaucratic government d) all of the above
15. How much time did the Constituent Assemble took to prepare the Constitution of India
a) 1 year, 11 month & 18 days b) 2 year, 11 month & 18 days
c) 2 year, 11 month & 28 days d) 3 year, 11 month & 18 days
16. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee
a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) N.Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Dr.K.M.Munshi
17. The Constitution of India was adopted on and came into effect on
a) 26th Feb, 1946 & 26th Jan 1950 b) 26th Jan, 1950 & 26th Nov, 1949
c) 26th Nov, 1949 & 26th Jan, 1950 d) 26th Nov, 1949 & 15th Aug, 1947
18. Constituent assembly started its work in 1946 and completed its work in
a) Nov, 1949 b) Jan, 1949
c) Dec, 1948 d) Jan, 1950
22. The beginning word “WE THE PEOPLE” I Preamble to the Constitution of India is referred to
a) British Rulers b) Members of Constituent Assembly
c) Citizens of India d) All of the above
26. The three types of Justice referred in the Preamble of our Constitution
a) Economic, International, Political b) Economic, Religious and Social
c) Social, Economic and Political d) Social, Economic and Technical
27. Which amendment to the Constitution of India added the words “Socialist”, “Secular” and
“Integrity” to the preamble of Indian Constitution
a) 24th b) 44th
c) 42 nd d) 73rd
28. Which the following words added to the preamble of Indian Constitution by 42 nd Amendment
Act
a) Integrity b) Socialist
c) Secular d) All of the above
29. How many times the Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended so far?
a) Once b) Twice
c) Three times d) Never
30. Which of the following is the key to open the mind of the makers of Constitution of India
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties
c) Preamble d) Directive principles
32. A State which does not promote or interfere in the affairs of religion is referred to as
a) Secular b) Sovereign
c) Democratic d) Socialist
33. The Aims and the objectives of the Constitution have been enshrined in
a) Part III Fundamental Rights b) Part IV Directive Principles
c) Fundamental Duties d) Preamble
35. India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, democratic, republic. This expression occurs in
a) Fundamental Rights b) Citizenship
c) Directive principles d) Preamble
44. Under the Indian Constitution the subjects of administration have been divided in to
a) one list b) two lists
c) three lists d) four lists
45. Important test to identify the basic features of the Constitution of India
a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties
c) Preamble d) Directive principles
48. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to its Citizens cannot be
suspended
a) Except by the order of President during the National Emergency
b) Except through an order of the President during war
c) Except by an order of Supreme Court
d) None of the above
49. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to its Citizens can be
suspended
a) By President during the National Emergency
b) By President during all type of Emergency
c) By President with prior approval of Supreme Court
d) By President under any condition
51. Which of the following is not a FRs no more or Which of the following ceased to be
fundamental Rights in our Constitution
a) Right to Property b) Right to assemble peacefully
c) Right to move freely d) Right to Constitutional remedies
52. Right to Property was dropped from FRs and took shape of the legal Right (Art.300A) by way
of
a) 44th Amendment in 1978(Morarji Desai) b) 42nd Amendment
c) 40th Amendment d) 24th amendment
54. Under Art.368 Parliament has no power to repeal FRs because they are
a) Human Rights b) Basic structure of Constitution
c) Enshrined under Part.III d) All of the above
56. India derived inspiration from OR borrowed the Idea of incorporating FRs in the Constitution
of India from
a) USA b) France
c) China d) UK
57. FRs are can be restricted or abrogated by the Parliament to
a) the members of Armed forces b) Member of paramilitary forces
c) Police forces d) all of the above
59. A citizen can directly move to SC for the enforcement of FR under ARTICLE
a) 14 b) 30
c) 31 d) 32
62. Who enjoys the Right to impose reasonable restriction on FRs of Indian citizen?
a) Parliament b) Supreme Court
c) Prime Minister d) President
64. Who can abridge the Fundamental Rights without damaging or destroying the Basic features
of Indian Constitution?
a) Parliament b) Supreme Court
c) Prime Minister d) President
72. Constitution of India says ‘untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is
prohibited. This is provided under
a) Right to Equality b) Right to Liberty
c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to Constitutional remedies
79. Which provision authorize the Parliament to discriminate in favor of women against men?
a) Art.15(3) b) Art. 15(1)
c) Art.16(1) d) all of the above
85. Equal opportunity in the matter of public employment guaranteed under Article
a) 13 b) 14
c) 15 d) 16
94. Freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are suspended during emergency on the ground of
a) Internal disturbance b) failure of constitutional machinery
c) Financial crisis d) War or external aggression
99. Right to freedom of speech is subject to reasonable restriction in the grounds of protection of
a) Dignity of the council of minister b) Security of the state
c) Dignity of the office of Prime Minister d) Sovereignty and integrity of India
100. This is not a ground to impose restriction under Art.19(2) on Right to freedom of speech and
expression
a) Maintenance of Law & order b) Security of state
c) Morality & decency d) Contempt of court
102. Which of the following right conferred by Indian Constitution is also available to non-
citizens
a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
b) Freedom to acquire property
c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of India
d) Freedom of speech, assembly and association
106. FRs which cannot be suspended even during the emergency are under
a) 14 & 15 b) 29 & 30
c) 23 & 24 d) 20 & 21
107. Original Constitution classified FRs in to 7 categories, but now there are
a) Four b) five
c) Six d) Seven
110. This is no the ground to impose restriction on Right of freedom of Speech and Expression
a) Public Nuisance b) Friendly relation with foreign countries
c) Defamation d) Incitement to an offence
112. The prohibition ex-post facto-(effect from past date) law imposed by Art.20 is applicable to
a) Civil cases b) Criminal cases
c) Constitutional cases d) all types of cases
113. “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once” is the
principle called as
a) Double jeopardy b) Testimonial compulsion
c) Ex-Post facto Law d) single jeopardy
114. If an act is not an offence on the date of its commission, a law enacted on future cannot
make such act an offence- is the principle of
a) Double jeopardy b) Testimonial compulsion
c) Ex-Post facto Law d) single jeopardy
116. Art.21A was inserted under the Indian Constitution by way of _____ constitutional
amendments
a) 73rd b) 74th
c) 86th in 2002 d) 42nd
117. Earlier o 86th Amendment Art.21A is in the form of
a) DPSP b) FR
c) Fundamental Duties d) Rule of Law
119. Education guaranteed under Art.21A shall be between the age group of
a) 7 to 15 b) 6 to 14
c) 5 to 14 d) 1 to 14
124. Right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Art.21 implies
a) Right to survive b) Mere animal existence with dignity
c) Right to live full life d) Right of every human being to live with dignity
125. Any law depriving personal liberty guaranteed under Art.21 had to confirm with
a) Art.19 b) Art 20
c) Art.22 d) Both Art.20 and 22
126. Any law laid down by Parliament to deprive the personal liberty should be
a) Reasonable b) Just
c) Fair d) all of the above
127. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed
a) Of the time when he will be produced before the magistrate
b) On the ground for such arrest
c) Of the orders of the court
d) None of the above
136. Constitution grants right against exploitation to “(C)Children/ (W) Women/(D) Dalits/(T)
Tribles”
a) C & W b) C & T
c) C,W & T d) C, T & D
137. Exploitation of any sort is prohibited under the Article
a) 19 b) 22
c) 23 d) 20
138. A laborer is entitled to get at least minimum wages, otherwise violation of Article
a) 19 b) 22
c) 23 d) 20
139. Child labour is prohibited under Article
a) 19 b) 23
c) 24 d) 20
140. A laborer is entitled to get at least minimum wages, otherwise violation of Article
a) 19 b) 22
c) 23 d) 20
Right to Freedom of Religion: Art.25 to Art.28
141. India has recognized
a) No religion as national religion b) only one religion as national religion
c) Three religions as national religion d) five religions as national religion
143. The secular provisions under Indian Constitution provided under Article
a) 23 b) 24
c) 25 d) 26
146. The Constitution does not protect the right of Minority with regard to
a) Culture b) Language
c) Script d) Cult
147. Which among the following article guarantees the right of the minorities to establish and
administer the educational institution?
a) 30 b) 29
c) 27 d) 28
149. The main objective of the Cultural and educational right of the citizen to
a) Help minorities to conserve their culture
b) Evolve single and integrated Indian culture
c) To preserve the rich cultural heritage of India d) all of these
154. Which one of the following writs were issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a
person
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Mandamus
155. Which of the following writs issued by to public corporations, public authorities or inferior
courts directing them to perform their public duty?
a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus
c) Quo warranto d) Prohibition
156. Dr.Ambedkar describe one of the following FR as Heart & Soul of Indian Constitution
a) Right to Property b) Right to Constitutional remedies
c) Right to Religion d) Right to Freedom of speech
168. The writ in the form of order which removes a suit from an inferior court to superior court
to prevent an excess of jurisdiction is known as
a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus
c) Quo warranto d) Certiorari
173. Which writ of the following literally means ‘you may have the body”
a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus
c) Quo warranto d) Certiorari
IV Directive Principle of State Policy
176. Who describe the DPSP as the “novel features” of the Indian Constitution
a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) Jawaralal Nehru
c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Dr.K.M.Munshi
193. Which Article provides for uniform civil code to all citizens in India
a) 42 b) 43
c) 44 d) 45
199. Right to adequate means of livelihood is to be provided by the State under the Article
a) 37 b) 38
c) 39 d) 40
201. It is the obligation of the state to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or
historic interest and of national importance under the Article
a) 49 b) 51
c) 50 d) 48
203. In which part of the constitution does the concept of welfare finds elaboration?
a) DPSP b) FDs
c) Preamble d) FRs
204. If India has to provide Socio-economic welfare to its citizen, it should give enforceability to
a) DPSP b) FDs
c) Preamble d) FRs
205. The state imposing tax on capital and wealth according to taxation laws is protected under
Artcle
a) 37 b) 38
c) 39 d) 40
206. Who amongst the following wanted the DPSP to be the basis all future legislation
a) Dr.Ambedkar b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad d) Mahatma Gandhi
208. State is obligated to protect and improve the environment and safeguarding the forests and
wildlife of the country under the Article
a) 48 b) 48 A
c) 51 d) 51 A
210. The 42nd Amendment Act made additions to DPSP with regard to the following 3 matters
1) Participation of workers in the management of the industry
2) Minimizing inequality in income and status
3) Protection of environment
4) Free legal aid to the poor :
212. Which of the following factors responsible for the slow implementation of DPSP
a) All of these b) vastness of country
c) Lack of political will d) lack of resources with government
216. Which one of the following is not listed under liberal principles
a) Separation of executive and judiciary
b) To secure uniform civil code
c) Protection of monuments and places of artistic and historical importance
d) None of the above
218. Free legal aid for poor (article 39A) inserted under Indian Constitution by way of
______Amendment.
a) 41 b) 42
c) 43 d) 44
219. Village panchayath are best example for India’s_______ form of Government
a) Sovereign b) Democratic
c) Secular d) Republic
225. Which of the following are included in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution
a) DPSP b) FRs
c) FDs d) Local Self Government
229. FD demands to
a) Work sincerely b) abide by the constitution
c) Avoid corruption d) abide by moral rules
233. The protection & improvement of environment including forest and wild life is enshrined in
a) FRs b) FDs
c) DPSP d) both answer in b & c
234. The protection & improvement of environment including forest and wild life is enshrined in
a) Article 51-A (g) b) Article 51-A (f)
c) Article 51-A (e) d) Article 51-A (h)
235. Which of the following is a FD of an Indian Citizen
a) To develop scientific temper b) to cast his vote
c) To work for removal of literacy d) to respect the elected leaders
238. By what amendment and with year ‘child education is compulsory between the ages of 6 to
14 years’?
a) 86th Amendment Act and 2002 b) 86th Amendment Act and 2004
c) 42nd Amendment Act and 2002 d) 68th Amendment Act and 2002
239. The original text of the constitution doesn’t include FDs, however it is inserted by way of
a) 86th Amendment Act in 2002 b) 86th Amendment Act in 1976
c) 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 d) 42nd Amendment Act in 2002
241. The 11th FDs . Article 51-A (k) was inserted by _______Amendment Act, 2002
a) 86th b) 42nd
c) 84th d) 56th
V-PRESIDNET
244. Which of the following is not one of the organ of the Union /State
a) Judiciary b) Legislature
c) Executive d) Press
248. Parliamentary form of government the council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the
a) Parliament b) President
c) Prime Minister d) Supreme Court
250. All the Executive powers and the Defence forces of the union shall be vested with
a) Parliament b) President
c) Prime Minister d) Supreme Court
251. When can President can refer a matter to the Supreme Court for its opinion?
a) When a matter is of public importance b) When emergency promulgated
c) When cabinet is not functioning properly d) whenever President feels
252. Who represent the nation but does not rule the nation
a) Parliament b) President
c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS
257. How many times the President can seek re-election to his post
a) Once b) Twice
c) Thrice d) Infinite time
258. A bill for the purpose of re-organization of States shall be introduced in either of House of
the Parliament with the prior approval of
a) Vice-President b) President
c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS
259. Who is the commander-in-chief of all the armed forces
a) Vice-President b) President
c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS
260. What is the eligibility, age and tenure of office of the President and vice-President?
a) 40 and 5 b) 35 and 6
c) 35 and 5 d) 40 and 6
261. How many Anglo Indians and other members can be nominated by the President to the LS
& RS?
a) 2 and 22 b) 2 and 12
c) 12 and 22 d) 1 and 12
262. The President will decide the question as to disqualification of the MPs in consultation with
a) Vice-President b) Election Commissioner
c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS
264. Which article empowers the President to seek an advice from Supreme Court?
a) 143 b) 111
c) 52 d) 123
266. The President and Vice President are immune from the following during the term of Office
a) The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of
his duty of his office
b) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
c) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President shall be issued from any
court
d) all of the above
268. The Ordinance making power of the president is subjected to the control of the
a) Supreme Court b) Vice President
c) Prime Minister d) Parliament
272. Till now any President has been removed under the motion of Impeachment
a) Once b) Twice
c) Thrice d) No
280. The dispute regarding the election of President and Vice President is decided by
a) Supreme Court b) Election Commission
c) High Court d) Parliament
282. What is the maximum age for election to the office of President
a) 75 b) 85
c) 95 d) No age limit
283. This is not the legislative power of the President
a) To Assent legisalation b) To summon each of the house
c) To grant Pardon d) To nominate 12 members to RS
284. In the event of death or resignation of President who discharge the duties of President?
a) Prime Minister b) Vice President
c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Election Commissioner
285. Who discharge the duties of President if both President and Vice President seat are vacant?
a) Prime Minister b) Vice President
c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Election Commissioner
286. Who discharge the duties of President if President, Vice President & Chief Justice of India
are not available or vacant?
a) Prime Minister b) Next Senior Most Judge of Supreme Court
c) Speaker d) Chief Election Commissioner
287. When the office of the president is vacant, the same must be filled within
a) 4 months b) 8 months
c) 6 months d) 12 months
289. After a bill passed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his assent
a) He can sent it back for reconsideration b) He can withhold the bill
c) He cannot refuse his assent to money bill d) all of the above
292. The president of India is elected indirectly by the Electoral College. Which of the following
is not included in the Electoral College?
a) Elected members of assemblies of the union territories
b) Elected members of Lokasabha
c) Elected members of Rajyasabha
d) Elected members of state legislative assembly
304. No person shall be eligible for the election as President of India unless he is a
a) A member of RS b) Qualified to contest the Lokasabha
c) A member of LS d) Qualified to contest Rajyasabha
305. Who is having the power to summon and dissolve the House of LS ?
a) The Prime Minister b) The President
c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India
306. A bill presented in parliament after its pass in the parliament becomes an Act after
a) The President has given assent to it
b) Prime minister sign to it
c) it passed by both the houses
d) the court decision
307. Veto power is the power of ____ ________ to withhold or refuse to assent a legislation
a) The Prime Minister b) The President
c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India
308. Veto power is the power of ____ ________ to withhold or refuse to assent a legislation
a) Executive b) Legislature
c) Judiciary d) all of the above
313. Which of the following constitutional post is enjoyed for a fixed term?
a) The President b) Prime Minister
c) Governor d) all of the above
314. Which one of the following does not take part in the election of the President?
a) Members of Lokasabha b) Members of Rajyasabha
c) Members of Legislative assembly d) Members of Legislative Council
316. The President, the head of the State under Parliamentary system in India enjoys
a) Only nominal Power b) No power
c) Absolute power d) Real Power
317. To be eligible (age in years) for appointment as President of India, a candidate must be
a) Over 50 b) Age limit is not prescribed in Constitution
c) Over 35 d) over 30
318. When President has discretionary power in appointing the Prime Minister?
a) When LS is Dissolved b) when no political party enjoys majority in LS
c) Never d) When Prime minister Joins another Party
319. The ordinance pronounce by the President usually remain in force for
a) six weeks after the commencement of next session of Parliament
b) Six weeks from the date of issue
c) six months from the date of issue
d) six months after the commencement of next session of Parliament
320. The President address is prepared by
a) Special secretary of the President b) Parliamentary affairs Ministry
c) Prime Minister and his cabinet d) a cabinet Minister of President’s Choice
322. Vice President of Indic can be removed from office before expiry of his/her term by
a) Two houses of Parliament b) President at his discretion
c) RS with two-third majority d) President with the consent of majority of state MLAs
326. Which Article provide that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister?
a) 71 b) 72
c) 73 d) 74
327. The phrase under the Article 74 that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Prime
Minister is
a) Mandatory b) Directory
c) Discretion of President d) Discretion of LS
335. Collective responsible of the cabinet means all ministers are collectively responsible to
a) The Prime Minister b) The Lokasabha
c) The Speaker d) The President
336. The union ministers hold during the pleasure of President which in fact means during the
pleasure of
a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Speaker d) None of the above
338. Sole channel to communicate the President and his council of Ministers is
a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Speaker d) Vice-President
342. Who announces the government policies on the floor of the House?
a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Speaker d) Vice-President
347. A person can be a Prime Minister or Union Minister without being member of Parliament for
a maximum period of
a) 4 months b) 6 months
c) 5 Years d) 1 years
351. Who will determine the rank of different Ministers in Union and State council of Ministers?
a) The Prime Minister & Chief Minister b) Parliament and Assembly
c) The People d) The President and Governor
352. Who will allocate the portfolio to the Minsters in the Union Cabinet
a) The Prime Minister b) Parliament
c) The People d) The President
353. Who is regarded as ‘Key stone of the Indian Constitution or cabinet arch’ ?
a) The Prime Minister b) Senior Most Minister
c) The Home Minister d) The Defence Minister
356. Salary of which one of the following is not charged on consolidate fund of India?
a) President b) Chief Justice of India
c) Comptroller & Auditor general of India d) Prime Minister
357. Generally a union Minister should be a member of
a) Judiciary b) Union territory
c) Parliament d) none of the above
PARLIAMENT/Union Legislature
359. Legislate means
a) Make Constitutional amendment b) Make Law
c) Form Government d) Put administration authority in to action
360. The Parliament may confer by law any functions on the authorities concerned except
a) Prime Minister b) Council of Ministers
c) Attorney General d) President
363. The word Parliament is derived from the French word “PARLER’ which means
a) To vote b) To pass bill
c) To talk d) To assemble
365. The first session of the Parliament after the general election is
a) Mandatory b) discretionary
c) Directory d) No such Rule
368. The first session in every year of the Parliament is commence with the address of
a) President b) Prime Minister
c) Opposition Leader d) Speaker
369. The first Hour of the every sitting in both houses of the Parliament is devoted to
a) Zero Hour b) Question hour
c) one Hour d) none of the above
370. The Zero Hour of the Parliament is
a) An hour when money bill is introduced
b) A period exclusively reserved for introduction of private member
c) The period of recess intervening between the two bills sessions of the Parliament
d) The period immediately following the question hour when the members voice
their concerns on various matters of public importance
373. Which one among the following is identified as the ‘democratic chamber’
a) LS b) RS
c) Both LS & RS d) none of the above
374. Which one among the following is identified as the ‘Knowledge House’
a) LS b) RS
c) Both LS & RS d) none of the above