Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Sahana. S MDS
Reader
Department of Public Health Dentistry
Babu Banarasi Das College of Dental Sciences,
Babu Banarasi Das University
Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India
Foreword
Nagesh Lakshminarayan
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ISBN: 978-93-85891-48-9
Printed at
Nagesh Lakshminarayan
Professor and Head
Public Health Dentistry
Institute of Dental Sciences, Bareilly
Uttar Pradesh
This book presents facts about Public Health Dentistry topics in an objective and comprehensive
manner. Efforts have been taken for scientific construction and systematic presentations. Both MCQs
and viva points are written chapter wise looking into the finer details and for the ease of student’s
comprehension.
MCQs have high reliability, validity and manageability. They are a precise way of assessing students
knowledge. With over 1500 questions trying to cover the entire syllabus of Public Health Dentistry,
this book aims to provide students the subject in a nutshell.
Viva points helps students to brush up the subject at a glance and to easily memorize theoretical
concepts and fundamentals. It helps in providing an insight to the subject and to make it more
interesting.
MCQs and viva points are designed in such a fashion to maintain
• Objective
• Accuracy
• Structured format
We sincerely hope this book provides students with necessary contents and help them for exam
preparedness.
Sahana. S
Shivakumar. G.C
We would like to express our gratitude to some persons without whose help and inspiration this book
would have been a failed attempt.
Our deep felt thanks to our institution, Babu Banarasi Das College of Dental Sciences, Babu Banarasi
Das University, Lucknow for providing a scientifically conducive platform and helping us begin a
constructive journey.
Our heartfelt gratitude to our beloved Chairman, Dr. Akhilesh Das Gupta ji for his invaluable support
and divine blessings. Our deep felt gratitude for Dr. Alka Das Gupta ji for her affectionate stature
and encouragement. A sincere thanks to Prof. Dr. A.K. Mittal, Vice Chancellor, BBDU, for his all time
support. We extend our gratefulness to Dr. Sudharma Singh, Registrar, BBDU for his helping attitude
and appreciation for excellence.
We are grateful to Prof. Dr. Vivek Govila, Dean, BBDCODS, for his constant encouragement and
guidance.
We take this platform to thank all our teachers who supported and taught us in the journey of life.
We would like to thank all senior faculty members and our department colleagues for their constant
encouragement and support during this book.
We would particularly like to thank all students in our service. Their enthusiasm and energy in learning
something new inspired us to jot down this book.
Our deepest gratitude for our parents and family members without whom the journey would have never
begun. We wish to remember the support of our children for their time, affection and understanding.
A special thanks to Shri Jitender P Vij (CEO), Mr. Ankit Vij (Group President) and Dr. Priya Verma Gupta
(Editor in Chief) of M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd. New Delhi for considering this
book for Publishing. We are highly thankful to Dr. Ankit Sharma, Senior Editor, Jaypee Brothers
Medical Publishers for his constant endeavour to reshape the format and outlook of the book.
Above all, We thank the ALMIGHTY for His blessings and being with us for this endeavour.
Sahana. S
Shivakumar. G.C
10. The medieval period (500 – 1500 A.D.) (a) Indian medicine
is also called as: (b) Egyptian medicine
(a) Revival of medicine (c) Mesopotomian medicine
(b) Dark Ages of medicine (d) Greek medicine
(c) Sanitary awakening 17. Who quoted “ Where there is love for
(d) Birth of preventive medicine mankind, there is love for the art of
11. Chadwick’s report on “The Sanitary healing”?
Conditions of the Laboring Popula- (a) Aesculapius
tion” was on: (b) Marcus Aurelius
(a) The plague epidemic (c) Hippocrates
(b) The cholera epidemic (d) Galen
(c) The typhoid epidemic 18. Geomancy is the:
(d) The diphtheria epidemic (a) Interpretation of dreams
(b) Calling of demons
12. The concept of “risk factors” as deter-
minants of chronic diseases were rec- (c) Worshipping gods
ognized in: (d) Contaminated air
(a) Disease control phase 19. The Egyptian God of Health was:
(b) Health promotional phase (a) Aesculapius
(c) Social engineering phase (b) Horus
(d) Health for all phase (c) Hammurabi
13. Small pox vaccination was discovered (d) Babylon
by: 20. Which civilization was known for
(a) James Lind their well built sewerage systems and
hospital establishments?
(b) John Hunter
(c) Edwin Chadwick (a) Greek civilization
(d) Edward Jenner (b) Egyptian civilization
(c) Mesopotomian civilization
14. The slogan “A clean tooth never de-
cays” was given by: (d) Roman civilization
21. Galen proposed that disease is due to
(a) G V Black
three factors, namely:
(b) Leon Williams
(a) Predisposing, exciting and envi-
(c) McKay
ronmental factors
(d) Alfred Jones (b) Predisposing, risk and exciting
15. Which civilization is often referred to factors
as “Cradle of civilization”: (c) Predisposing, exploratory and
(a) Mesopotomian causative factors
(b) Egyptian (d) Predisposing, risk and explorato-
(c) Greek ry factors
(d) Roman 22. Which time period is known as the
16. Medical manuscripts, namely “Edwin “Dark ages of medicine”?
Smith Papyrus” and “Ebers Papyrus” (a) 500 BC – 1500 BC
belonged to which civilization? (b) 500 AD – 1000 AD
(c) Humoral theory (b) Francis Peabody
(d) Web of causation (c) Crew
24. What measures were undertaken (d) Rene Sand
in the disease control phase (1880 – 30. Deprofessionalization of medicine, or
1920)? laymen started to participate in health
(a) Control of man’s physical envi- care delivery by the practice of:
ronment (a) Health education
(b) Health promotion of individuals
(b) Primary health care
(c) Outlook into risk factors (c) Biostatistics
(d) Social and economic equality
(d) Clinical trials
25. The concept of health centre was first 31. The tool of dental public health con-
given in 1920 by: cerned with the management of per-
(a) Lord Mount Batten sonnel and operations in an efficient
(b) Lord Dawson manner is:
(c) Lord Chadwick (a) Principles of administration
(d) Lord Alfred (b) Social sciences
26. The concept of risk factors as deter- (c) Preventive dentistry
minants of disease was addressed in (d) Epidemiology
which phase of public health? 32. The two main areas under principles
(a) Disease control phase of administration are:
(b) Health promotional phase (a) Progam and analysis
(c) Social engineering phase (b) Planning and evaluation
(d) Health for all phase (c) Organization and management
27. Which of these is a unique characteris- (d) Biostatistics and epidemiology
tic of oral diseases? 33. The first step in the present day public
(a) They have a universal prevalence dental health procedure is:
(b) They undergo remission if left (a) Survey
untreated (b) Analysis
(c) They are less time consuming (c) Programme planning
professional treatment (d) Financing
(d) They are less expensive to treat 34. The step of analysis in dental public
28. A clean tooth never decays was the health is comparable to what for an
idea of: individual patient?
(a) Leon Williams (a) Examination
(b) GV Black (b) Diagnosis
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)
1. The study of disease distribution and (c) Clinical and laboratory examina-
causation in specified populations is: tions are performed
(a) Epidemiology (d) The unit of study is a case or cases
(b) Biostatistics 5. Which aspect of epidemiology tests
etiological hypothesis and identifies
(c) Psychology
the underlying cause?
(d) Sociology (a) Descriptive epidemiology
2. Epidemiology is made of which three (b) Clinical trial epidemiology
components:
(c) Analytical epidemiology
(a) Disease frequency, disease out- (d) Experimental epidemiology
come, disease determinant
6. What is the epidemiological approach
(b) Disease frequency, disease distri- to problems of health and disease?
bution, disease determinant (a) Identifying cases and making
(c) Disease frequency, disease vari- comparison
ant, disease outcome (b) Asking questions and making
(d) Disease variant, disease outcome, comparison
disease frequency (c) Understanding determinants and
3. Epidemiology concerns with: asking questions
(a) Cases only (d) Marking areas and making
(b) Sick and healthy comparison
7. Which of these procedures does not
(c) Diseased individuals
ensure comparability between study
(d) None of the above and control groups?
4. Which of these is characteristic to Epi- (a) Randomization
demiology? (b) Matching
(a) The study of disease pattern in (c) Standardization
population (d) Manipulation
(b) Seeking diagnosis from prognosis 8. Any piece of information referring to
is derived the patient or his disease is termed as:
(b) Regression technique (b) Cross sectional
(c) Multivariate analysis (c) Case control
(d) Blinding technique (d) Field trials
22. Incidence rate is defined as the: 27. The incidence rate is useful to take ac-
(a) Number of new cases in a given tion:
time period (a) To control disease
(b) Number of old cases in a given (b) To mark geographical areas of
time period the disease
(c) Number of current cases in a (c) To describe bimodality
given time period (d) To describe international varia-
(d) Number of cases unregistered at tions
a given time period 28. Which of these studies uses commu-
23. By definition, the incidence rate does nity as a unit of study?
not refer to: (a) Cross sectional study
(a) Only new cases (b) Case control study
(b) During a given period (c) Randomized controlled trial
(c) In the whole population (d) Community trial
(d) New episodes of disease in a giv- 29. The study of distribution of disease
en time period per 1000 popula- or health related characteristics in hu-
tion man population is:
24. Which of these is an use of prevalence (a) Case control study
rate: (b) Cohort study
(a) To control disease (c) Descriptive study
(b) For conducting research on etiol- (d) Experimental study
ogy and pathogenesis 30. The population base defined in de-
(c) To estimate the magnitude of scriptive epidemiology is to gather in-
health problems formation on:
(d) For checking efficacy of preven- (a) Age, gender, occupation and cul-
tive and therapeutic measures tural characteristics
25. Relationship between prevalence and (b) Cause of the disease
incidence: (c) Outcome of the disease
(a) Prevalence = Incidence × Mean (d) Variants of the disease
duration 31. Operational definition defined by an
(b) Prevalence = Incidence + Mean epidemiologist is to obtain an accurate
duration estimate of disease which should be:
65. Cohort studies are indicated when: 70. Which of these does not hold good for
(a) There is an evidence of association a cohort study?
between exposure and disease (a) Proceeds from cause to effect
(b) When exposure is frequent (b) Starts with people exposed to
(c) When attrition of study popula- risk factor or suspected cause
tion is high (c) Involves fewer number of subjects
(d) When funds are not available (d) Yields incidence rates
71. The safest course of follow up recom-
66. Which of these is considered in assem-
mended in cohort study is:
bling cohorts?
(a) 90 percent
(a) Both the groups are not
comparable (b) 95 percent
(b) Cohorts must be free from the (c) 80 percent
disease under study (d) 85 percent
(c) Cohorts have a higher suscepti- 72. Which study provides scientific proof
bility to the disease under study of etiological factors to permit their
(d) The criteria of the disease is modification or control of those dis-
described after the study beguns eases?
(a) Observational study
67. A cohort identified from the past re-
cords and followed up prospectively (b) Descriptive study
into future to assess the outcome is: (c) Case control study
(a) Prospective cohort study (d) Experimental study
(b) Retrospective cohort study 73. James Lind performed a clinical trial
by adding different substances to diet
(c) Combination of retrospective
of 12 soldiers to cure:
and prospective study
(a) Measles
(d) Nested case control study
(b) Mumps
68. An internal comparison group in co-
hort study can be obtained when the: (c) Tuberculosis
(d) Scurvy
(a) Degree or levels of exposure to
risk is known 74. Which of these is not addressed by a
protocol?
(b) Cohort is not exposed to the
susceptible factor (a) To ensure the study is well
thought out and adequately
(c) Population is large
planned
(d) Investigator knows the hypothesis
(b) To allow the study to be evaluated
69. Identify the disadvantage of cohort for scientific and ethical factos
studies: prior to starting
(a) Incidence can be calculated (c) To enable others to repeat the study
(b) Several outcomes related to expo- (d) To not allow others to complete
sure is studied simultaneously the study, if original investigator
(c) A direct estimate of relative risk is not available
is provided
75. What is conducted to find out the fea-
(d) Takes a long time to complete the sibility or operational efficiency of any
study procedure?
related events studied—population base is
defined in terms of number and
(g) Measurement of the presence,
composition
absence or distribution of the
environmental and other fac- (b) Defining the disease under
tors suspected of causing the study—an operational definition
disease is framed, by which the disease
can be identified and measured
(h) Measurement of demographic
in defined population with a
variables degree of accuracy
11. Variate is any piece of information re-
(c) Describing the disease by
ferring to the patient or his disease.
1. Time—disease pattern is described by
12. Circumstance is any factor in the en-
the time of its occurrence. There are
vironment that might be suspected of
three kinds of time trends in disease
causing a disease.
occurrence:
13. There are three basic tools of epidemi-
(a) Short term fluctuation—best
ology:
known is an epidemic. An epi-
(a) Rate—the occurrence of some demic is defined as the occurrence
particular event in a population of cases of an illness in a commu-
during a given time period nity or region clearly in excess of
(b) Ratio—measures disease fre- normal expectancy. Three types
quency and expressed as a rela- of epidemics, namely common
tion in size between two random source epidemics, propagated
quantities epidemics and slow epidemics
(c) Proportion—is a ratio which in- (b) Periodic fluctuation—describes
dicates the relation in magnitude the seasonal trend and cyclic trend
of a part of the whole (c) Long term or secular trends—
14. Incidence and prevalence are mea- describes the changes in the
sures of morbidity. occurrence of disease over a long
15. Incidence rate is defined as “the num- period of time, either several
ber of new cases occurring in a de- years or decades
fined population during a specified 2. Place—described by international vari-
period of time”. The multiplier here is ations, national variations, rural-urban
1000. variations and local distribution.
16. Prevalence rate is defined as “the total 3. Person—describes the disease by age,
number of all individuals who have sex, occupation, marital status, habits,
an attribute or disease at a particular social class.
(c) Planning and evaluation 40. Four main uses of screening have been
(d) Evaluation of individual’s risks identified:
and chances (a) Case detection
(e) Syndrome identification (b) Control of disease
(f) Completing the natural history of (c) Research purposes
disease (d) Educational opportunities
(g) Searching for causes and risk factors 41. Three types of screening have been
31. Infection is defined as the entry and described in public health:
development or multiplication of an (a) Mass screening—is screening of
infectious agent in the body of man or whole population
animals. (b) High risk or selective screening
32. Isolation is the separation of infected —involves screening of high risk
people or animals from others for groups or screening for risk factors
the period of communicability. This (c) Multiphasic screening—two or
prevents the direct or indirect trans- more screening tests are applied
mission of the infectious agent from in combination to a large number
spreading to those susceptible. of people at one time
33. Quarantine is the limitation of free- 42. The criteria to select a screening test is
dom of movement of people who are based on the following factors:
well for a period of time not longer (a) Acceptability
than the longest incubation period of (b) Repeatability
the disease. (c) Validity
34. The Universal Immunization Pro- (d) Simplicity
gramme was launched on November (e) Safety
19, 1985 and was dedicated to the (f) Rapidity
memory of Smt. Indira Gandhi.
(g) Ease of administration
35. The immunization programme is to
(h) Cost
protect all children against the six vac-
43. A screening test is evaluated based on
cine preventable deaths, namely tu-
the following measures:
berculosis, polio, measles, diptheria,
tetanus and pertussis. (a) Sensitivity—the probability of
36. The science of health of travelers is a positive result if the disease is
called as emporiatrics. present
37. Screening differs from diagnostic (b) Specificity—the probability of a
tests, in that, screening test is done on negative result if the disease is
apparently healthy people, while di- absent
agnostic test is done on those who are (c) Predictive value of a positive
sick or who have symptoms. test—the probability that the dis-
38. “Time lag”—it is time between disease ease is present if the test is positive
onset and the usual time of diagnosis. (d) Predictive value of a negative
39. Lead time is the advantage gained by test—the probability that the dis-
screening , i.e., the period between di- ease is absent if the test is negative
agnosis by early detection and diag- (e) Percentage of false negatives
nosis by other means. (f) Percentage of false positives
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c)
55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (d)
79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (b)
85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a)
97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (a)
103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a)
109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (d)
115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (b)
127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (c)
133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (a)
139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (a) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a)
Health Education
21. Which of the following factors is not a 27. The wants, an individual demands a
limitation to regulatory approach? professional to meet is called:
(a) Does not eradicate the cause of (a) Wants
the disease (b) Demand
(b) Threatens the right of the indi- (c) Normative need
vidual (d) Comparative need
(c) Does not force people to change 28. A principle of health education, which
(d) Choices are of individual is based on the felt needs of the people
22. The service approach of health is:
education failed because: (a) Motivation
(a) It was not based on the felt needs (b) Participation
of people (c) Interest
(b) Longer time (d) Comprehension
(c) Vast expenditure 29. Active learning is promoted by which
principle of health education?
(d) Political turmoil
(a) Interest
23. Identify the feature of propaganda or
publicity: (b) Motivation
(c) Participation
(a) Knowledge actively acquired
(d) Credibility
(b) Disciplines primitive desires
30. Repetition done at regular intervals to
(c) Develops reflective behaviour retain the health education message is
(d) Appeals to emotion called:
24. The new idea or acquired behaviour (a) Reinforcement
which becomes a part of individual’s (b) Participation
existing values is called:
(c) Motivation
(a) Motivation
(d) Credibility
(b) Interest 31. The health educator can modify the
(c) Internalization elements of the education system only
(d) Rationalization if he:
25. Which of these is not a content of (a) Is a good leader
health education? (b) Sets a good example
(a) Nutrition (c) Gets feedback
(b) Disease prevention and control (d) Has good relations
(c) Mental health 32. Pick the audio-visual aid used in
(d) Industrial hazards and preven- health education:
tion (a) Radio
26. The degree to which a message is (b) Chalk board
perceived as trustworthy by the (c) Slides
receiver is called: (d) Television
(a) Credibility 33. Awakening of the fundamental desire
(b) Interest to learn in health education is called:
(c) Participation (a) Interest
(d) Motivation (b) Comprehension
Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b)
43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d)
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b)
International Health
7. The structure of the WHO consists of 11. The functions of UNICEF include:
three principal organs: (a) Child health.
(a) The World Health Assembly—is (b) Child nutrition.
the supreme governing body of (c) Family and child welfare.
the organization. It meets in May,
(d) Providing education—both
in Geneva. It appoints the Director
formal and nonformal.
General on the nomination of the
executive Board. It determines 12. The United Nations Development
internationally health policy and Programme (UNDP) was established
programmes and approves the in 1966 to provide technical assistance.
budget for the following year. 13. World Bank is a specialized agency of
the United Nations with the purpose
(b) The Executive Board—comprised
of helping less developed countries
of member states. Meets twice a
raise their living standards.
year to give effect to the decisions
and policies of the assembly. 14. The Food and Agriculture Organiza-
tion (FAO) was formed in 1945 with
(c) The Secretariat—is headed by
headquarters in Rome. Its functions
the Director General and the
are to improve the efficiency of farm-
main function is to provide
ing, forestry and fisheries and to im-
Member States with technical
prove nutrition of the people of all
and managerial support for their
countries.
national health development
15. The International Labour Organiza-
programmes.
tion was established in 1919 to im-
8. WHO has established six regional or-
prove the working and living condi-
ganizations:
tions of the working population all
(a) South East Asia—headquarters over the world.
in New Delhi, India.
16. Some non governmental agencies are:
(b) Africa—headquarters in Brazza-
(a) Rockfeller foundation.
ville Congo.
(c) The Americas—headquarters in (b) Ford foundation.
Washington D.C. (c) Cooperative for Assistance and
(d) Europe—headquarters in Copen- Relief Everywhere (CARE).
hagen. (d) International Red Cross.
(e) Eastern Mediterranean—head- (e) Indian Red Cross
quarters in Alexandria. 17. The International Red Cross was
(f) Western Pacific—headquarters in founded by Henry Dunant in 1859
Manila. after the battle of Solferino. He urged
9. The South East Asia regional office is that voluntary national societies be
in New Delhi, and has 11 members. founded, which, in time of war would
10. United Nations International Chil- render aid to the wounded without
dren’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF was distinction of nationality. The function
established in 1946. of Red Cross is to serve the victims of
war and natural disasters.
Key
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b)
Ethics
Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b)
(a) Basic principles for the mainte- (d) Basic qualifications and teaching
nance of minimum standard for experience required to teach BDS
BDS degree. and MDS students.
(b) Minimum physical requirements (e) Migration and transfer rules for
of a dental college. students.
(c) Minimum staff pattern for under- (f) Framing dental curriculum.
graduate studies. (g) Regulations of scheme of exams
for BDS and MDS.
Key
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a)
1. The Consumer Protection Act came (c) Union Territory Dispute Re-
into force on: dressal Forum
(a) 15th April 1987 (d) National Consumer Dispute Re-
(b) 7th April 1987 dressal Forum
(c) 31st May 1987 5. The Consumer Protection Act was
(d) 1st June 1987 amended in:
(a) 1993
2. In the earlier days, remedy for medi-
cal negligence was under: (b) 1995
(a) Law of Geneva (c) 1997
(b) Law of Tort (d) 1999
(c) Law of Helsinki 6. The compensation claim at District
Level Dispute Redresal Commission
(d) Law of Nuremberg
is:
3. A physician is not liable according to
(a) Up to 5 lakhs
Consumer Protection Act if:
(b) Up to 10 lakhs
(a) Has an independent practice ren-
(c) Up to 15 lakhs
dering free service only
(d) Up to 20 lakhs
(b) Paid by an insurance company
for treatment 7. The compensation claim at State Level
Dispute Redressal Commission is:
(c) Has a private hospital charging
all (a) Less than 5 lakhs
(d) Hospitals offering free services to (b) 5 – 20 lakhs
all patients (c) More than 20 lakhs
4. The three tier quasi judicial machinery (d) 1 – 5 lakhs
of the CPA does not include: 8. The compensation claim at National
Level Dispute Redressal Commission
(a) District Consumer Dispute Re-
is:
dressal Forum
(b) State Consumer Dispute Re- (a) More than 5 lakhs
dressal Forum (b) More than 10 lakhs
21. The components of informed consent 4. Health care provider not liable for
includes: CPA are:
(a) Information, voluntariness and (a) Doctors in hospitals, which do
capacity not charge patients.
(b) Information, motivation and im- (b) Hospitals offering free services to
plementation all patients.
(c) Information, dissemination and 5. The act includes a three tier judicial
motivation machinery:
(d) Motivation, education and capac- (a) District Consumer Dispute
ity Redressal Forum at the district
22. Consent has to be obtained in case of: level: At this forum, a person
(a) Handlers of food and dairymen can claim compensation towards
(b) Immigrants damage of up to a maximum
(c) People who are HIV positive limit of five lakhs. It is chaired
(d) Court orders for psychiatric by a District Judge and two other
examination members.
23. The informed consent should be: (b) State Consumer Dispute
Redressal Commission at the
(a) Taken even if patient is sedated
state level: The claim at this
(b) Local language
level is 20 lakhs. It is chaired by
(c) Taken at once for all procedures High Court Judge and two other
(d) Taken after the treatment is members.
completed
(c) National Consumer Dispute
Redressal Commission at the
Consumer Protection Act national level: The compensation
1. The Consumer Protection Act came here is 20 lakhs. This forum is
into force on 15th April 1987, which is chaired by Supreme Court Judge
a welfare legislation for the benefit of and four other members.
the consumers. 6. Some do’s for the health care provider:
2. The aim is to protect the interest of the (a) Mention qualification on the
consumer and to settle consumer dis- prescription.
putes. (b) Always mention date and timing
3. Health care providers liable for CPA of the consultation.
are: (c) Mention age, gender and weight
(a) Doctors with independent prac- of the patient.
tice rendering only free services. (d) In complicated cases, record
(b) Private hospitals charging all. precise history of present illness
and substantial physical findings.
(c) All hospitals having free as well
as paying patients, they are liable (e) Seek written refusal or make a
to both. note if patient is erring on any
count.
(d) Doctors/hospitals paid by an
(f) Mention the condition of the
insurance firm for treatment of
patient in specific terms.
a client or an employer for the
treatment of an employee. (g) Record history of drug allergy.
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b)
9. The reason for using hand instrument (c) Parallel to the operator
rather than electric rotating handpiece (d) Behind the operator
is: 15. In ART procedure, patient’s back lies
(a) It makes restorative care acces- on a flat surface with headrest made
sible for all population groups of:
(b) The use of mechanical approach (a) Wood
(c) Technique sensitive approach (b) Plastic
(d) Easier to remove dental caries (c) Firm foam
with hand instruments (d) Metal rod
10. Which of these is not a reason for 16. In ART procedure, the chin is lifted
using glass ionomer cement in ART? with a backward tilt to access:
(a) The need to cut sound tooth (a) Lower teeth
tissue to prepare the cavity is (b) Upper teeth
reduced (c) Submandibular salivary gland
(b) Fluoride released from restora- (d) Tongue
tion prevents and arrest caries
17. Partly closed mouth opening in ART
(c) Is similar to hard oral tissues and is to:
does not inflame pulp
(a) Tense the cheek muscles
(d) Relatively low cost when (b) Have better access to buccal
compared to resins surfaces
11. The GIC bonding in ART is: (c) Visualize upper teeth
(a) Mechanical (d) Check for occlusion
(b) Chemical 18. Which of these is not a portable light
(c) Physical source?
(d) Both mechanical and chemical (a) Headlamp
12. The distance from the operator’s eye to (b) Glasses with a light source at-
the patient’s tooth is usually between: tached
(a) 20 – 25 cm (c) Light attached to the mouth mirror
(b) 25 – 30 cm (d) Light through the window
(c) 30 – 35 cm 19. An important aspect for the success of
(d) 35 – 40 cm ART is:
13. For a right handed operator in ART (a) Control of saliva
procedure, the assistant should be (b) Patient positioning
seated at: (c) An efficient dental assistant
(a) Left side (d) Proper oral hygiene
(b) Right side 20. Name the instrument used in ART
(c) Back of the operator to view the cavity indirectly and to
(d) Front of the operator retract the cheek or tongue:
14. The assistant’s head in ART should be (a) Mouth mirror
placed: (b) Explorer
(a) 10 – 15 cm lower than the operator (c) Tweezer
(b) 10 – 15 cm higher than the operator (d) Spoon excavator
21. The diameter of the medium spoon 27. GIC powder contains:
excavator used in ART is: (a) Silicon oxide, aluminium oxide
(a) 0.5 mm and calcium fluoride
(b) 1 mm (b) Stannous oxide, aluminium oxide
(c) 1.5 mm and calcium fluoride
(d) 2 mm (c) Strontium oxide, aluminium
22. The small spoon excavator in ART is oxide and calcium fluoride
used for: (d) Strontium oxide, stannous oxide
(a) Cleaning the enamel dentine and sodium fluoride
junction 28. Over mixing of the GIC material will
(b) Removal of soft caries result in:
(c) Removal of excess glass ionomer (a) Unaesthetic appearance
material (b) Poor adhesion
(d) Take the glass ionomer material (c) Good strength
into the cavity (d) Air trap
23. The instrument used to widen the 29. The dentine conditioner is usually a
entrance to the cavity by removing solution of:
unsupported enamel is: (a) 10% polyacrylic acid
(a) Applier (b) 10% polyhydrochloric acid
(b) Carver (c) 10% mefanamic acid
(c) Spoon excavator (d) 10% orthophosphoric acid
(d) Dental hatchet 30. Which of the following cannot result
24. Which material is used to keep in the failure of ART restoration?
moisture away from class ionomer (a) Contamination with saliva or
restoration in ART? blood
(a) Bonding agent (b) Application of dentine condition-
(b) Methyl spirit er after preparing the cavity
(c) Mix of material was too wet or dry
(c) Petroleum jelly
(d) Not all soft caries has been re-
(d) Ethyl spirit
moved
25. Which material is used to contour the
proximal surface of multiple surface Atrauamatic Restorative Treatment
restorations in ART?
(a) Plastic strip 1. Atraumatic Restorative Treatment
(ART) is a procedure based on
(b) Stainless steel bands
removing carious tooth tissues using
(c) Wedges
hand instruments alone and restoring
(d) Articulating paper the cavity with an adhesive restorative
26. Disinfection of surfaces in work material.
place is done by using cotton gauzes 2. The pioneers of ART are Jo Frencken
impregnated with: and Holmgren.
(a) Methyl spirit 3. It was pioneered in 1980s in Tanzania.
(b) Ethyl spirit 4. Two main principles of ART are:
(c) Phenyl spirit (a) Removing carious tooth tissues
(d) Petroleum jelly using hand instruments only.
(d) Plastic strip—used to contour (g) Clean cavity with both wet and
the proximal surface of multiple dry cotton wool pellets.
surface restorations. (h) Isolate the cavity with cotton
(e) Wedges—used to hold the plastic rolls.
strip close to the shape of the (i) Clean the prepared cavity, with
proximal surface. a dentine conditioner or tooth
10. Procedure for ART is: cleaner.
(a) Isolate the tooth with cotton wool (j) Mix glass ionomer cement on
rolls. mixing pad.
(b) Remove plaque from tooth (k) The cement is placed in small
surface with a wet cotton wool amounts using the blunt end of
pellet. applier or carver.
(c) Dry the tooth surface with dry (l) The press finger technique
cotton wool pellets. is employed to condense the
(d) Widen the entrance of the cavity cement.
with the blade of the dental (m) Check for occlusion.
hatchet. (n) Ask the patient to not eat for at
(e) Carious dentine is removed with least an hour.
excavators.
(f) Remove overhanging enamel
with dental hatchet.
Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
10. Polymerization shrinkage and thermal 15. Which of the following is not
contraction on curing can be attributed a disadvantage to rubber dam
to which property of sealants? placement in sealant application?
(a) Biocompatibility (a) Discomfort during placement of
(b) Viscosity clamp
(c) Dimensional stability (b) Difficulty to place partially
(d) Ease of manipulation erupted tooth
11. When is a pit and fissure sealant not (c) Need for local anesthesia
indicated? (d) Low cost
(a) Children with special needs 16. The primary teeth is etched for a longer
(b) Children with dmfs <2 in their time when compared to permanent
primary dentition teeth because:
(c) Teeth exposed in oral cavity for (a) It has more inter and intra
two years prismatic structure
(d) Susceptible sites in permanent (b) Surface inorganic content is more
teeth (c) Surface organic content is more
12. Sealant placement is probably (d) Lower internal pore volume
indicated in which situation? 17. The third generation sealants are
(a) Fossa selected for a sealant cured by:
placement is not isolated from (a) Ultraviolet light source
another fossa with restoration (b) Chemical catalyst accelerator
(b) Teeth considered for application (c) Photo initiated with visible light
is erupted less than four years ago
(d) Infra red light source
(c) The area selected is not confined
18. The chemical composition of the
to a fully erupted fossa
etchant is:
(d) An intact occlusal surface is
(a) 30% – 50% orthophosphoric acid
present where the contralateral
tooth surface is carious or (b) 50% – 70% orthophosphoric acid
restored (c) 20% – 30% orthophosphoric acid
13. A cost beneficial method to seal the (d) 70% – 90% orthophosphoric acid
teeth at 6 – 7 years offer protection for: 19. What is the amount of enamel lost by
(a) First permanent molars acid etching?
(b) Second permanent molars (a) One micrometer
(c) Premolars (b) Five micrometer
(d) Incisors (c) 10 micrometer
14. An absolute contraindication to the (d) 20 micrometer
placement of sealants is: 20. The effect caused by a viscous gel to
(a) Caries present only on the not completely and uniformly wet the
occlusal surface entire enamel surface is called:
(b) Fully erupted tooth (a) Milling effect
(c) There is an open occlusal carious (b) Skipping effect
lesion (c) Cross over effect
(d) Cooperative child (d) Contamination effect
oil and water. Check for chalky (a) Presence of deep narrow pits and
white, frosted appearance. If not, fissures.
repeat etching step. (b) On recently erupted teeth.
(f) Apply bonding agent—and cure (c) Sound proximal surface and
it. many occlusal lesions.
(g) Apply sealant material—apply (d) If pits and fissures are separated
the sealant and cure it. After by transverse ridge.
this, wipe the sealed surface 10. Contraindications for a pit and fissure
with a wet cotton pellet. This sealants are:
removes the air inhibited layer (a) Carious pits and fissures.
of nonpolymerized resin and
(b) Broad, well coalesced pit and
eliminates any objectionable taste
fissures.
in the patient’s mouth.
(c) Teeth caries free for four years or
(h) Evaluate the sealant—evaluate
longer.
the sealant with an explorer.
(d) Carious proximal surface.
(i) Check occlusion—check occlu-
sion for high points. 11. The cost of the pit and fissure sealants
stops this technique from being
(j) Retention and periodic mainte-
universally used. The cost of the
nance—done to evaluate the in-
treatment can be minimized by:
tegrity of the sealant.
(a) Selective application on teeth
8. Factors affecting the sealant retention
with the greatest caries risk.
in the mouth are:
(b) Employing auxiliary personnel
(a) Type of sealant.
to do the treatment.
(b) Position of teeth in the mouth.
(c) Selecting products that have the
(c) Clinical skill of the operator. highest proved success rates.
(d) Age of the child. (d) Follow meticulous application
(e) Eruption status of the child. protocol.
9. Indications for pit and fissure sealants (e) Applying sealants in conjunction
are: with optimal fluoride therapy.
Key
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d)
37. (c)
21. School health programs are examples • Priorities are established with
for: the involvement of communi-
(a) Individual program planning ties
• High risk groups for specific
(b) Group program planning
diseases are identified
(c) System program planning (c) Develop program goals, objec-
(d) National program planning tives and activities:
22. The desirable strategy to be imple- • Goals are broad statements
mented in the planning cycle should on the overall purpose of a
be done by: program
(a) Administrators alone • Objectives are more specific
and described in measurable
(b) Providers of service
way. Objectives should specify
(c) Consumers of service what extent, who, where and
(d) All the above when
23. The purpose of planning does not aim • Activities are how to bring
to: about the desired results by
(a) Propose theoretical priority goals telling who will do what and
when
(b) Match the limited resources with
(d) Identify available resources, con-
many problems
straints and alternative strate-
(c) Eliminate wasteful expenditure gies:
(d) Develop the best course of action • Resources—include manpow-
to achieve the objective er, material, money and time
• Constraints—limitations like
Planning and Evaluation resource shortage, beliefs,
restrictive governmental
1. Plan is a decision about a course of
policies, attitudes
action—E.C. Banfield.
• Alternative strategies—
2. Steps of planning are: choose the best depending
(a) Identify the problem: on acceptability and cost
• This is done by conducting a effectiveness
needs assessment (e) Develop implementation strat-
• This helps in defining the egy:
problem, its extent and severity • This is developed for each ac-
• It also helps in obtaining a tivity
profile of the community and (f) Implement, monitor, evaluate
provides baseline information and revise:
for evaluation of effectiveness • Implement—the process of
of the program putting the plan into operation
(b) Determine priorities: • Monitoring—is to determine
• Priority determination is a the program success
method of imposing people’s • Evaluation—the process to
values and judgements of what measure the progress of each
is important on to the raw data activity. It measures effective-
ness, identifies problems and
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a)
(d) Success is only palliative and 2. There are four concepts of health:
temporary (a) Biomedical concept—based on
35. An inequality in health which is not the germ theory of disease, views
real, but rather a function of how so- man as a machine and disease as
cial class and health are measured is a consequence of the breakdown
called: of the machine.
(a) Artefact (b) Ecological concept—health is a
(b) Selection process dynamic equilibrium between
(c) Lifestyle effects man and his environment and
disease a maladjustment of the
(d) Materialistic and structuralistic
human organism to environment.
factors
36. Child mortality rate measures mortal- (c) Psychosocial concept—health is
ity at which age? not only a biomedical phenom-
enon, but also involves social,
(a) 1 – 4 years
psychological, cultural, economic
(b) 4 – 8 years and political factors.
(c) 8 – 12 years (d) Holistic concept—a synthesis of
(d) > 12 years all the above concepts.
37. The web of causation of disease was 3. Health is multidimensional. It in-
proposed by: cludes:
(a) McMohan and Pug (a) Physical dimension.
(b) Koch (b) Mental dimension.
(c) Pettenkofer (c) Social dimension.
(d) Louis Vitton (d) Spiritual dimension.
38. Disability limitation is an intervention (e) Emotional dimension.
under:
(f) Vocational dimension.
(a) Primordial prevention
(g) Others like cultural, curative, nu-
(b) Primary prevention
tritional and educational dimen-
(c) Secondary prevention sions.
(d) Tertiary prevention 4. Standard of living means the usual
39. Which source of infection is the most scale of our expenditure, the goods we
difficult to control: consume and the services we enjoy.
(a) Vector borne 5. Level of living includes health, food
(b) Air borne consumption, education, occupation,
(c) Fomite borne and working conditions, housing, so-
cial security, clothing, recreation and
(d) Human to human
leisure and human rights.
6. Quality of life is a subjective compo-
Concept of Health and Disease
nent of well being.
1. Health is defined as “the state of com- 7. There are eight determinants of health:
plete physical, mental and social well (a) Biological determinants.
being and not merely an absence of (b) Behavioural and socio-cultural
disease or infirmity to lead a socially determinants.
and economically productive life”.
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b)
22. Chlorination of water acts by: 29. The cylindrical pots in double pot
(a) Substitute to sand filtration method measures sizes of:
(b) Killing pathogenic bacteria (a) 15 cm and 10 cm
(c) Killing spores (b) 20 cm and 15 cm
(d) Killing viruses (c) 25 cm and 20 cm
23. The disinfecting action of chlorine is (d) 30 cm and 25 cm
mainly due to: 30. The acceptable physical parameter of
(a) Hypochlorite ions drinking water for a consumer is:
(b) Hypochlorous acid (a) < 5 NTU and 15 TCU
(c) Hypochloric acid (b) > 5NTU and 15 TCU
(d) Free chlorine ions (c) < 5 NTU and <5 TCU
24. The action of chlorine is best as a (d) < 5NTU and <5 TCU
disinfectant when the pH of water is: 31. The primary bacterial indicator for
(a) 3 – 5 bacterial contamination of drinking
(b) 4 – 5 water is:
(c) 6 – 7 (a) Sulphite reducing clostridia
(d) 7 – 9 (b) Faecal streptococci
25. The point at which the chlorine (c) Coliform organisms
demand of water is met is called the: (d) Protozoa
(a) Break point 32. An inorganic constituent in drinking
(b) Match point water which occurs primarily from
(c) Plus point household plumbing system is:
(d) Free point (a) Selenium
26. Boiling of water as means of purifica- (b) Fluoride
tion results in: (c) Lead
(a) Killing all bacteria and spores (d) Cyanide
(b) No taste alteration 33. The amount of a substance in food or
(c) Non removal of temporary hard- drinking water ingested daily over a
ness lifetime without appreciable health
(d) Purification at large scale risk is:
27. The “candle” in the Chamberland (a) Tolerable daily intake
type of filter is made of: (b) Acceptable daily intake
(a) Infusorial earth (c) Uncertainty factors
(b) Keiselgurh earth (d) No observed adverse effect level
(c) Porcelain 34. The effects of radiation exposure
(d) Ceramic when affects the descendants is called
28. Which disinfecting agent should not (a) Somatic
be used to disinfect wells: (b) Congenital
(a) Potassium permanganate (c) Malignant
(b) Bleaching powder (d) Hereditary
(c) Chlorine solution 35. Multiple tube method is used for
(d) High test hypochlorite estimating the:
(a) Probable number of coliform or- 42. The chemical changes in human
gaisms occupied air includes:
(b) Probable number of fecal strepto- (a) Increase in humidity
cocci (b) Decrease air movement
(c) Probable number of Clostridium (c) Increase in carbon dioxide
perfringens (d) Rise in temperature
(d) Probable number papilloma virus 43. The “cooling power” of air is deter-
36. The temporary hardness of water is mined by
due to the presence of: (a) Temperature, humidity and air
(a) Calcium sulphates movement
(b) Magnesium chlorides (b) Temperature and humidity
(c) Calcium bicarbonates (c) Carbon dioxide content, temper-
ature and air movement
(d) Magnesium nitrates
(d) Carbon dioxide content, humid-
37. The hardness in water is expressed in ity and temperature
terms of: 44. “Comfortable zone” in India fits into
(a) Milliequivalents per liter the temperature of:
(b) Milligrams per liter (a) 20°C
(c) Parts per million (b) 25 – 27°C
(d) Becquerel per liter (c) 28 +
38. Permanent hardness of water can be (d) 30 +
removed by: 45. An instrument used to measure the
(a) Boiling cooling power of air is:
(b) Addition of lime (a) Kata thermometer
(c) Base exchange process (b) Spygmomanometer
(d) Permutit process (c) Glucometer
39. Horrock’s water testing apparatus is (d) Stethoscope
designed to find the dose of: 46. Major portion of the atmospheric
(a) Bleaching powder gases is found within the distance of:
(b) Fluoride content (a) 120km
(c) pH (b) 90km
(d) Colour (c) 60km
40. The oxygen concentration in external (d) 30km
air by volume accounts to: 47. The trapping of pollutants and water
(a) 78.1 percent vapours in lower layers of air results in:
(b) 20.9 percent (a) Cooling of air
(c) 10.8 percent (b) Smog
(d) 0.03 percent (c) Increase in temperature
41. Air is rendered impure by: (d) Increased carbon dioxide content
(a) Sunlight 48. Environmental Tobacco Smoke is the
(b) Rain term coined for:
(c) Plant life (a) Photochemical pollutants
(d) Combustion of coal (b) Passive smoking
2. Environment is divided into three 10. Water related diseases can be:
components: (a) Biological : viral, bacterial, proto-
(a) Physical: water, air, soil, housing, zoal, helminthic, leptospiral.
wastes, radiation (b) Chemical: industrial and agricul-
(b) Biological: plant and animal life tural wastes.
(c) Social: customs, culture, habits, 11. Purification of water on large scale has
income, occupation and religion. three steps:
3. Water intended for human consump- (a) Storage—brings in physical,
tion should be both safe and whole- chemical and biological changes:
some. This should be: • Physical changes—90 percent
(a) Free from pathogenic agents. of the suspended impurities
(b) Free from harmful chemical settle down in 24 hours by
substances. gravity
(c) Pleasant to the taste. • Chemical changes—aerobic
bacteria oxidizes the organic
(d) Usable for domestic purposes.
matter present in the water
4. Water is said to be polluted or
with the help of dissolved oxy-
contaminated when it does not fulfill
gen. As a result, free ammonia
the above criteria.
reduces and nitrates rises
5. The basic physiological requirements • Biological changes—90 per-
for drinking water is two liters per cent of bacterial count reduces
head per day. by 5 – 7 days storage
6. A daily supply of 150 – 200 liters (b) Filtration 98 – 99 percent of the
per capita is considered an adequate bacteria are removed by filtra-
supply to meet needs for urban tion. Two types are recognized
domestic purposes.
(i) Slow sand filters or biological
7. The uses of water include domestic filters—first used in Scotland in
use, for public purposes, industrial 1804. Four elements of slow sand
purposes, agricultural purposes, pow- filter are:
er production and carrying away waste
• Supernatant water—Placed
from all manner of establishments.
above the sand bed, varying
8. Three main sources of water have from 1 to 1.5 meter. Helps to
been identified: provide a constant head of wa-
(a) Rain water ter to overcome the resistance
(b) Surface water: impounding res- of the filter bed and provides
ervoirs, rivers and streams, and waiting period of few hours to
ponds. undergo partial purification
(c) Ground water: shallow wells, • Sand bed—heart of the slow
deep wells and springs. sand filters. Thickness is about
9. The sources of water pollution include: 1 meter. Effective diameter of
(a) Sewage. the sand particles is 0.2 – 0.3
mm. Water undergoes puri-
(b) Industrial and trade wastes.
fication through mechanical
(c) Agricultural pollutants. straining, sedimentation, ad-
(d) Physical pollutants. sorption, oxidation and bacte-
31. Effects of noise exposure are of two (b) Controlled tipping or sanitary
types: land fill—the refuse is placed
(a) Auditory effects—includes audi- in a trench or other prepared
tory fatigue and deafness. area, adequately compacted and
covered with earth at the end of
(b) Nonauditory effects—includes
the working day. Three methods
interference with speech, an-
are used in this operation:
noyance, reduced efficiency and
physiological changes like raise • The trench method
in blood pressure, increase in • The ramp method
heart rate and breathing. • The area method
(c) Incineration—refuse is hygieni-
32. Approaches to control noise are:
cally disposed by burning. The
(a) Careful planning of cities. method of choice where suitable
(b) Control of vehicles. land is not available.
(c) Improve acoustic insulation of (d) Composting—a method of com-
buildings. bined disposal of refuse and
(d) Protection of exposed people. nightsoil. The organic matter
(e) Legislation. breaks down under bacterial ac-
tion resulting in the formation
(f) Education. of a relatively stable humus like
33. Solid waste includes garbage, rubbish, material, called the compost. It
demolition products, dead animals, has high manorial value. The by
manure and other discarded material. products are carbon dioxide, wa-
Strictly speaking, it does not contain ter and heat. The heat produced
nightsoil. during composting—60°C or
34. Sources of refuse or solid waste are: higher destroys eggs and larvae
(a) Street refuse. of flies, weed seeds and patho-
(b) Market refuse. genic agents. Two methods of
(c) Stable litter. composting are:
• Bangalore method (Anerobic
(d) Industrial refuse.
method)
(e) Domestic refuse. • Mechanical composting (Aer-
35. The health hazards of solid waste are: obic method)
(a) Decomposition and favouring of (e) Manure pits—refuse is dumped
fly breeding. in manure pits by individual
(b) Attracts rodents and vermin. householders.
(c) Pathogens can be carried into (f) Burial—a trench of 1.5 m wide
man’s food through dust and flies. and 2 m deep is excavated and at
(d) Water and soil pollution. the end of each day, the refuse is
(e) Unsightly appearance and nui- covered with 20 – 30 cm of earth.
sance from bad odours. 37. Zoonoses is defined as those diseases
36. Methods of waste disposal are: and infections which are naturally
(a) Dumping—refuse is dumped in transmitted between vertebrate
low lying areas. Bacterial action animals and man.
reduces the refuse in volume and
converts into humus.
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a)
55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (c)
67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (d)
called so, as they are required in 9. Fats are solid at 20°C, and are called
small amounts varying from a oils if they are liquid at that tempera-
fraction of a milligram to several ture.
grams. 10. Fats are classified as:
2. The total energy intake in indian di- (a) Simple lipids—e.g. trigylcerides.
etary is: (b) Compound lipids—e.g.,
Proteins 7 – 15% phopholipids.
Fats 10 – 30% (c) Derived lipids—e.g. cholesterol.
Carbohydrates 65 – 80% 11. Fats yield fatty acids and glycerol on
4. Foods are classified based on their hydrolysis. Fatty acids are divided
predominant function into: into:
(a) Body building foods—e.g. milk, (a) Saturated fatty acids—mainly
meat, poultry, fish, eggs, pulses, found in animals. E.g. lauric,
groundnuts. palmitic and stearic acids.
(b) Energy giving foods—e.g. cere- (b) Unsaturated fatty acids—mainly
als, sugars, roots and tubers, fats found in vegetable oils. Divided
and oils. further into:
(c) Protective foods—e.g. vegetables, • Monounsaturated—oleic acid
fruits and milk. • Polyunsaturated—linoleic and
linolenic acid.
5. Proteins means, that which is of first
12. Functions of fats are:
importance. They are complex or-
ganic nitrogenous compounds and (a) Provide energy.
are made of amino acids. 24 amino (b) Vehicles for fat soluble vitamins.
acids are needed by the human body, (c) Supports viscera like kidney,
of which nine are called “essential” heart, intestine.
because the body cannot synthesise (d) Provides insulation against cold.
them in required amounts. They are 13. Carbohydrates provide the main
leucine, isoleucine, lysine, methio- source of energy, providing 4 kcal per
nine, phenylalanine, threonine, valine, gram.
tryptophan and histidine. 14. Three main sources of carbohydrates
6. A protein is called biologically complete are:
if it contains all the essential amino acids (a) Starch—basic to human diet.
corresponding to human needs. Milk Found in cereals, roots and tubers.
and egg proteins are best examples. (b) Sugars—are free sugars. Divided
7. Functions of protein are: into monosaccharides and disa-
(a) Body building. chharides.
(b) Repair and maintenance. (c) Cellulose—is the indigestible
(c) Maintenance of osmotic pressure. component of carbohydrate with
(d) Synthesis of substances like an- no nutritive value, but contributes
tibodies, plasma proteins, hemo- to dietary fiber.
globin, enzymes, hormones and 15. Vitamins are organic compounds
coagulation factors. which enable the body to use other
8. The Indian Council of Medical Re- nutrients. The body is generally un-
search recommended 1.0 g protein/ kg able to synthesize them and hence has
body weight for an indian adult. to be provided by food.
16. Vitamins are divided into two groups: (c) Xerophthalmia—is the ocular
A. Fat soluble vitamins, i.e. vitamin manifestations of vitamin A defi-
A, D, E and K. ciency in man.
B. Water soluble vitamins, i.e. vita- (d) Nutritional anemia.
min of B group and vitamin C. (e) Iodine Deficiency Disorders.
17. Vitamin A covers both preformed vi- (f) Endemic fluorosis.
tamin (retinol) and a provitamin (beta (g) Lathyrism—is a paralysing
carotene). disease of humans and animals.
18. The primary function of vitamin A is Develops due to consumption of
production of retinal pigments which “Khesari dal” when taken in over
is needed for vision in dim light and 30% of the diet for a period of 2 –
to maintain the integrity and normal 6 months.
functioning of glandular and epithe- 23. Various methods to assess nutritional
lial tissue. status are:
19. Two important forms of vitamin D are (a) Clinical examination.
caliciferol (vitamin D2) and cholecal-
(b) Anthropometry—measurements
ciferol (vitamin D3) vitamin D3 can
like height, weight, skin fold
be synthesized in adequate amounts
thickness and arm circumference.
by exposure to sunlight for about five
minutes every day. It plays an active (c) Biochemical evaluation.
role in calcium metabolism. (d) Functional assessment.
20. Two important forms of vitamin K (e) Assessment of dietary intake.
are vitamin K1 and vitamin K2. They (f) Vital and health statistics.
stimulate the production and release (g) Ecological studies.
of certain coagulation factors. Vitamin 24. Community nutritional programs
K1 is found in fresh green vegetables launched by Government of India are:
while vitamin K2 is synthesised by in-
(a) Vitamin A prophylaxis program.
testinal bacteria.
(b) Prophylaxis against nutritional
21. Vitamin C or ascorbic acid plays an
anemia.
important role in tissue oxidation and
collagen formation. The main sources (c) Iodine deficiency disorders
are fresh fruits and green leafy veg- control program.
etables. (d) Special nutrition program.
22. The major nutritional problems in ma- (e) Balwadi nutrition program.
jor public health in India are: (f) ICDS program.
(a) Low birth weight—is birth (g) Mid day meal program.
weight lower than 2500 g. (h) Mid day meal scheme.
(b) Protein energy malnutrition—it
is of two clinical forms, kwashi-
orkor and marasmus.
Key
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (b)
43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c)
55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (c)
Finance in Dentistry
or three or more dentists using same 25. The arrangement under which a den-
office space is called as: tist receives an established negotiated
(a) Solo practice sum on a fixed basis for each eligible
(b) Duet practice patient is termed:
(c) Group practice (a) Capitation plans
(d) NGO (b) Premium
21. Which of these is not correct for den- (c) Salary
tists in group practice: (d) Co insurance
(a) Provides better ways of 26. Identify the disadvantage in salaried
organizing one’s life mode of payment for a dentist:
(b) Less disruption in practice due to (a) Potential for over treatment
illness (b) Possible under treatment
(c) Quality of care sub dued (c) Administratively simple
(d) Financial fringe benefits are built (d) Sick pay and maternity benefits
in easily 27. Which of these is not an example of
22. What is the type of practice if patients public financing of dental care?
eligible for dental services in a public (a) Medicare
or private program can receive them (b) Medicaid
only at specified facilities from a lim- (c) Capitation plans
ited number of dentists? (d) The Veterans Administration
(a) Open panel practice Program
(b) Closed panel practice 28. A public program aimed for the ben-
(c) Group practice efit of over 65 years is:
(d) Solo practice (a) Medicare
23. Which of the following is true for (b) Medicaid
Health Maintenance Organization? (c) The Veterans Administration
(a) An unorganised system of health Program
care (d) National Health Insurance
(b) Preventive set of services only 29. A public program providing funds to
(c) Chosen group of people meet the health care needs of all indi-
(d) Is reimbursed through a pre gent and medically indigent people is:
negotiated and fixed periodic (a) Medicare
payment (b) Medicaid
24. When the dental personnel in Health (c) National health insurance
Maintenance Organization (HMO) (d) The Veterans Administration
is directly contacted by, the mode is program
called: 30. The National Health Insurance was
(a) The staff model introduced in Germany by:
(b) The group model (a) Lloyd George
(c) The independent practice asso- (b) Bismarck
ciation (c) Trendley H. Dean
(d) The primary care capitated net- (d) McKay
work
6. The reimbursement of dentists in pre 9. Prepaid group practice is the term giv-
payment plans are by UCR fee —i.e. en to a group practice that provides
Usual fee, Customary fee, and Rea- dental services on a prepaid basis.
sonable fee. 10. A group dental practice is defined as
• Usual fee—is the fee usually a practice formally organized to pro-
charged for a given service vide dental care through the services
by an individual dentist to of three or more dentists, using of-
private patients fice space, equipment and/or person-
• Customary fee—it is the range nel jointly. They can be either gen-
of usual fee charged by the eral practice groups, single speciality
dentists of similar training groups or multi-speciality groups.
and experience for the same The advantages for the practicing den-
service within the specified tist is that it organizes one life better,
geographic area quality of care is improved because of
• Reasonable fee—when the fee built in peer review and less disrup-
meets the above two criteria, it tion to practice because of illness.
is called reasonable fee 11. A closed panel practice is one which
7. Delta dental plan is synonymous with patients can obtain services from a
non profit health service corporations. specified, limited number of dentists.
It was formed in june 1966. The service 12. A Health Maintenance Organization
is provided by a constituent dental so- is a legal entity which provides a pre-
ciety depending on the participating scribed range of health services to
or the non participating dentist. each individual who has enrolled in
8. Differences between participating and the organization, in return for a pre
the non participating dentist in delta paid, fixed and uniform payments.
dental plans are: 13. Salary—some dentists in armed forces
Participating Non participating and those employed in public agen-
dentist dentist cies are salaried. This free the dentist
Dentist has to pre - Dentist do not have to of any administrative concerns.
file his or her usual pre file his or her usual 14. Public programs are aimed at meeting
and customary fees and customary fees the needs of specific groups of recipi-
Acceptance of Acceptance of ents in a diverse society. Public financ-
payment for their payment for their ing of dental care is through:
services at 90th services at 50th
(a) Medicare—aims to provide
percentile percentile
financial barriers for hospital and
Conduction of fee No fee audits
physician services for people age
audits from auditors conducted
of 65 and above.
of delta dental plan
(b) Medicaid—is for the benefit of
Ready for post No post treatment
medically indigent people.
treatment inspection inspection
A small amount of No withholding of fees (c) The Veterans Administration
fee is withheld to Program.
go into the delta (d) National Health Insurance.
capitation reserve
fund
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (b)
Dental Auxillaries
35. Which manpower planning model 6. Dental surgery assistant is a non oper-
concentrates on identifying the defi- ating auxillary who assits the dentist
ciencies in the health care system? in treating patients, but who is not le-
(a) Supply and demand model gally permitted to treat patients inde-
(b) Functional analysis model pendently.
• The seating of the dentist and
(c) Target setting approach model
dental assistant is termed as
(d) Functional limitation model four handed dentistry.
• First practiced by Dr. Edmund
Dental Auxiliaries Kells of News Orleans in 1885,
1. Dental auxiliary is a person who is who hired a woman to ease the
given responsibility by a dentist, so ladies in the clinic.
that he or she can help the dentist ren- • Earlier, their functions were
der dental care, but who is not himself to perform the routine house-
or herself qualified with a dental de- keeping chores in the operato-
gree. ry as well as the clerical proce-
2. Licensure is the process by which an dures of the practice.The func-
agency of government grants permis- tions were then extended to in-
sion to people meeting pre determined clude retraction and aspiration,
qualifications to engage in a given oc- sterilization, mixing of cements
cupation and use a particular title. and patient instructions.
3. Registration is the process by which 7. Dental secretary or receptionist is a
qualified individuals are listed on an person who assists the dentist with his
official roster, maintained either by secretarial work and patient reception
the government or non government duties.
agency. 8. Dental laboratory technician is a non
4. Certification is the process by which operating auxiliary involved in the
a non government agency or associa- construction and repair of oral appli-
tion grants recognition to an individu- ances and bridge work.
al who has met certain predetermined • Dental mechanic is a person
qualifications specified by that agency who makes or repairs dentures
or association. and dental appliances. In
5. WHO classification of auxillaries in India, there is a formal training
1967 is of two types: for a period of two years.
• Denturist is a term applied
(a) Non operating auxillaries:
to those dental laboratory
• Dental surgery assistant
technicians who are permitted
• Dental secretary or receptionist
in some states in US to
• Dental laboratory technician
fabricate dentures directly for
• Dental health educator
patients without a dentist’s
(b) Operating auxillaries: prescription. Their craft is
• School dental nurse called “denturism”.
• Dental therapist 9. Dental health educator is a person
• Dental hygienist who instructs in the prevention of
• Expanded function dental dental disease and may be permitted
auxiliaries to apply preventive agents intra orally.
10. The school dental nurse is a person 12. The dental hygienist is an operating
who is permitted to diagnose den- auxiliary who is licensed and regis-
tal disease and to plan and carry out tered to practice dental hygiene.
specified preventive and treatment Dr.Fones is considered as the “father
measure in defined groups of people, of dental hygiene”. The first dental
usually school children. hygienist is Mrs. Irene Newman. They
• The dental nurse scheme was are trained in India for two years.
first set up in Wellington, The functions of the dental hygienist
New Zealand in 1921. The are:
foundation was laid by T.A. • Prophylaxis
Hunter. • Topical application of
• The first school for dental fluorides and sealants
nurses was set up and • Screening
named as “The Dominion • Oral health education
Training School for Dental 13. The Expanded Function Dental Aux-
Nurses”. The training is for iliary (EFDA) are mostly assistants or
two years. hygienists who are trained addition-
• In Britain, the school dental ally to work under the direct supervi-
nurse is known as New Cross sion of a dentist.
auxiliaries, as the training The functions of EFDA are :
school is located in the New • Placing and removing rubber
Cross Area of South London. dams
In Canada, they are called • Placing and removing tempo-
Saskatchewan dental nurse. rary restorations
The duties of school dental nurses are: • Placing and removing matrix
• Oral examination bands
• Prophylaxis • Condensing and carving amal-
• Topical fluoride application gam restoration in previously
• Advice on dietary fluoride prepared teeth
supplements • Applying the final finish and
• Administration of local polish to previously listed res-
anaesthesia torations
• Pulp capping 14. Frontier auxiliaries are nurses and
• Cavity preparation and former dental assistants providing
amalgam filling placement simple service with minimum train-
• Extraction of primary teeth ing. They are useful when there are no
• Patient instruction and class dentists in a particular area.
room health education 15. The expert committee on Auxiliary
• Referral for complex services Dental Personnel of the WHO has
11. Dental therapist is a person who is per- suggested two new types of dental
mitted to carry out the prescription of auxiliaries:
a supervising dentist. He can perform • The dental licentiate—is a semi
specified preventive and treatment independent operator trained
measures including the preparation of for two years. He can do
cavities and restoration of teeth. The prophylaxis, cavity prepara-
training is for two year period.
tions, extractions under local 16. The ADA has defined four degrees of
anesthesia and drainage of ab- supervision of auxiliaries:
scess • General supervision
• The dental aide—is an auxiliary • Indirect supervision
personnel who performs • Direct supervision
elementary first aid procedures • Personal supervision
for the relief of pain
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c)
Survey Procedures
9. The ability of a test to measure what it (a) Different levels of oral disease
is intended to measure is: (b) Physical factors
(a) Validity (c) Psychological factors
(b) Consistency (d) Social factors
(c) Reproducibility 16. The time interval between training
(d) Calibration and calibration of examiners for a sur-
10. What is the procedure done to ensure vey should be:
uniform interpretation of codes and (a) Same time
criteria for various diseases and con- (b) Either of them is sufficient
ditions? (c) Few days
(a) Validity (d) Few years
(b) Consistency 17. Duplicate examinations are conduct-
(c) Calibration ed on what percentage of sample?
(d) Infection control (a) 0 – 5%
11. Which type of examination employs a (b) 5 – 10%
mirror and explorer for inspection un- (c) 10 – 15%
der good illumination? (d) 15 – 20%
(a) Type 1 18. It is generally recommended that du-
(b) Type 2 plicate examinations are conducted:
(c) Type 3 (a) At the beginning of survey
(d) Type 4 (b) At the end of survey
12. Which type of examination is used in (c) About half way through the
clinical trials? survey
(a) Type 1 (d) At the beginning, about half way
(b) Type 2 and at the end
(c) Type 3 19. The validator in a survey is:
(d) Type 4 (a) An experienced epidemiologist
13. Duplicate examinations are done in (b) A renowned academician
surveys to ensure: (c) A public health administrator
(a) Consistency of examiners (d) A subject from the sample
(b) Complete the record 20. Drinking water is collected at each ex-
(c) Comprehensive examination of amination site to analyse for:
patient (a) Total hardness content
(d) Validity (b) Fluoride content
14. Time taken for basic oral health exam- (c) Lead content
ination of child is:
(d) Chlorine content
(a) 0 – 5 minutes
21. The amount of drinking water collect-
(b) 5 – 10 minutes
ed to analyse fluoride content is:
(c) 10 – 15 minutes
(a) 0 – 5 mL
(d) 15 – 20 minutes
(b) 5 – 10 mL
15. Which of the following factors is not
considered to cause variability in clin- (c) 10 – 20 mL
ical scoring for a survey? (d) 25 – 35 mL
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c)
37. (d) 38. (b)
Plaque Control
1. Soft deposits forming biofilm which 5. The removal of microbial plaque and
adheres to the tooth surface or any the prevention of its accumulation on
other hard surfaces in the oral cavity the teeth and adjacent gingival surfac-
is called: es is called:
(a) Plaque (a) Plaque retention
(b) Materia alba (b) Plaque control
(c) Calculus (c) Plaque substantivity
(d) Pellicle (d) Plaque reduction
2. One gram of plaque (wet weight) con- 6. Toothbrushes were first introduced to
tains, approximately: the world by:
(a) 2 × 108 (a) Japan
(b) 2 × 109 (b) China
(c) 2 × 1010 (c) Malaysia
(d) 2 × 1011 (d) Hong Kong
3. An important component of the pel- 7. Tooth brushes used nylon filaments as
licle which coats a clean tooth surface bristles in:
is:
(a) 1918
(a) Glycoproteins
(b) 1928
(b) Lipid
(c) Polysaccharides (c) 1938
(d) All the above (d) 1948
4. Which component of the polysaccha- 8. The surface formed by the free ends of
rides produced by the bacteria con- the bristles or filaments is:
tribute majorly to the organic portion (a) Handle
of the matrix? (b) Head
(a) Albumin (c) Tufts
(b) Dextran (d) Brushing plane
(c) Lipid 9. The diameter of bristles in toothbrush
(d) Amylase varies from:
22. The causes of floss cuts and floss clefts 28. Which of the following about dental
is: floss is true?
(a) Using a long floss between fin- (a) It increases gingival bleeding
gers (b) Stimulates the attached gingiva
(b) Snapping the floss through con- (c) Helps in locating overhanging
tact area margins of restorations
(c) Not using a rest to prevent under (d) Massages the attached gingival
pressure 29. The spool method of dental floss is
(d) All the above used in:
23. Dental floss is indicated to remove (a) Adults with good manual dexterity
plaque from which gingival embra- (b) Mentally retarded patients
sures? (c) Following complex periodontal
(a) Type I surgery
(b) Type II (d) Children
(c) Type III 30. Which type of floss makes a squeaking
(d) Type IV noise when passed interproximally?
24. Gingival stimulation or massage im- (a) Unwaxed floss
proves oral health by: (b) Waxed floss
(a) Decreasing gingival tone (c) Thick floss
(b) Decreasing surface keratinization (d) Thin floss
(c) Improving vascularity 31. Which interproximal aid is not used in
(d) Reduced circulation Type II gingival embrasure?
25. Which interdental aid is used for (a) Wooden tips
proximal surface in which interdental (b) Interproximal brushes
gingival is missing? (c) Powered interdental brushes
(a) Pipe cleaner (d) Dental floss
(b) Proxa brushes 32. Gingival physiotherapy results in bet-
(c) Bottle brushes ter gingival health by:
(d) Yarn (a) Decreasing keratinization
26. Identify the chemical plaque control (b) Decreasing GCF flow within the
measures in the following: gingival sulcus
(a) Perio aid (c) Increased blood flow
(b) Rubber tip stimulator (d) Increasing collagen fiber
(c) Bisbiguanides production
(d) Water irrigation device 33. Which of these is not an indication for
chemical plaque control?
27. Which areas are difficult to access
(a) Physically handicapped
with a dental floss?
(b) Postoperatively after surgical
(a) Gingival embrasures
procedures
(b) Interproximal surfaces
(c) Mentally handicapped
(c) Root convexities
(d) Used independently without me-
(d) Furcation areas chanical plaque control measures
34. An antiplaque agent exhibiting good the other acting against the micro-or-
retentive property possesses: ganism is called:
(a) Substantivity (a) Choking off phenomenon
(b) Compatibility (b) Pin cushion effect
(c) Aestheticity (c) Corn cob appearance
(d) Cost effectiveness (d) Pin and wheel reaction
35. Bisbiguanides reduces plaque reduc- 41. Brown staining of chlorhexidine is
tion of: due to precipitation of salivary:
(a) 10 – 20% (a) Melanin
(b) 20 – 50% (b) Melanoidins
(c) 70 – 90% (c) Triglycerides
(d) 100% (d) Maltose
36. Which of the following is an adverse 42. Identify the anticalculus agent:
effect of chlorhexidine? (a) Soluble pyrophosphatase
(a) Brownish black extrinsic staining (b) Insoluble pyrophosphatase
of teeth
(c) Dextranase
(b) Dysgeusia
(d) Mutanase
(c) Burning lips
43. Which component of the tooth paste
(d) All the above helps in reducing loss of moisture
37. The bound chlorhexidine is slowly re- from toothpaste?
leased in the active form for a period (a) Water
of:
(b) Humectant
(a) 2 – 4 hours
(c) Detergent
(b) 6 – 8 hours
(d) Therapeutic agent
(c) 8 – 10 hours
44. Identify the detergent in tooth pastes:
(d) 12 – 24 hours
(a) Calcium carbonate
38. The substantivity of chlorhexidine is
(b) Propylene glycol
due to the presence of which ions in
saliva: (c) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(a) Calcium (d) Synthetic cellulose
(b) Magnesium 45. The disclosing agents are used for:
(c) Phosphourous (a) Personalized patient instruction
(d) Fluoride and motivation
39. Identify the phenol derivative anti- (b) Effective oral hygiene main-
plaque agent: tainence
(a) Sanguinarine (c) Validity of plaque indices
(b) Erythromycin (d) Decreasing dental caries
(c) Chlorhexidine 46. Anticalculus agents are designed to
inhibit the mineralization of:
(d) Triclosan
(a) Mineralized plaque
40. The action of chlorhexidine with one
end binding to the tooth surface and (b) Petrified plaque
(a) 1 – 1.25 inches in length. 20. Dental floss are available in various
(b) 5/16 – 3/8 inches in width. forms such as: twisted or non twisted,
(c) 2 – 4 rows of bristles. bonded or non bonded, thick or thin
(d) 5 – 12 tufts / row. and waxed or unwaxed.
13. Powered tooth brushes were first de- 21. The two methods for using the floss are
signed in 1939. The heads of these the spool method and loop method.
tooth brushes oscillate in a side to side 22. Wooden tips are used in type II gingi-
motion or in a rotator motions, with val embrasures. They are made of or-
40 Hz frequency. ange wood and are triangular in cross
section.
14. Powered tooth brushes are indicated
in young children, handicapped pa- 23. Single tufted brushes are used in type
tients, individuals lacking manual III gingival embrasures.
dexterity, orthodontic patients, pa- 24. Tongue scraping is the process of re-
tients with implants, institutionalized moving debris from the surface of the
patients and patients on supportive tongue with some form of scraper de-
periodontal therapy. signed for this purpose. It can be done
using either a brush or tongue clean-
15. The names of various tooth brushing
ing devices.
techniques are:
25. Chemical plaque control agents are
Tooth brushing Name an ideal adjunct to mechanical plaque
technique control procedures. They are classi-
Circular method Fones fied into:
Vertical method Leonard’s (a) First generation antiplaque
Horizontal method Scrub agents—reduces plaque scores
Physiological method Smiths by 20 – 50 %. E.g. antibiotics,
Roll method Modified stillman phenols, quaternary ammonium
Vibratory method Stillman, Charters compounds and sanguinarine.
and Bass (b) Second generation antiplaque
agents—reduces plaque scores
16. Improper tooth brushing can result
by 70 – 90%. E.g. bisbiguanides.
in lacerations, gingival recession and
abrasion of teeth. (c) Third generation antiplaque
17. Tooth brushes have to be cleaned by agents—E.g. Delmopinol.
dipping in antiseptic mouthwashes 26. Chlorhexidine gluconate is a cationic
like phenolic derivatives and have to bisbiguanide which is bacteriostatic
be stored in a dry place. in lower concentrations and bacterio-
18. Factors determining the selection of cidal in higher concentrations.
an interdental cleaning aid are: 27. Chlorhexidine exhibits good substan-
tivity—i.e. retention for higher period
(a) Type of gingival embrasures.
in mouth.
(b) Alignment of teeth.
28. A dentifrice is defined as a substance
(c) Fixed prosthesis or orthodontic used with a toothbrush for the pur-
appliances. pose of cleaning the accessible surfac-
(d) Open furcation areas. es of the teeth. It is composed of:
(e) Contact areas. • Abrasive agents—like calcium
19. Dental floss are indicated when there carbonate, silica and alumina.
is a type I gingival embrasures. Removes stained pellicle
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (a)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (d)
Caries Vaccine
Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (c)
(c) Cater to all age group of children (a) The cost of the procedure is very
(d) Combat gender bias high
22. Ideally, pit and fissure sealants are (b) Prepared by dissolving 200 g in
placed at which grade to prevent car- 1000 mL to make 0.2 % solution
ies in first permanent molars? (c) Not recommended for children
(a) Grade 1 and 2 below six years of age
(b) Grade 3 and 4 (d) Has to be prepared by profes-
(c) Grade 5 and 6 sionals as it is a sensitive to tech-
(d) Grade 7 and 8 nique
28. Which of these school dental health
23. The system of the referral card from the
program is a demonstration program?
school is taken to the dentist and hand-
ed back to the class teacher is called: (a) Learning about your oral health
(a) Herd referral (b) Tattle tooth program
(b) Blanket referral (c) Askov dental program
(c) Pillow referral (d) North Carolina state wide pre-
(d) Immunity ventive dental health program
24. The Texas Department of Health and 29. Which brushing technique is indicat-
Texas Education Agency collaborate- ed in young children?
ly developed which School Dental (a) Stillman
Health Program? (b) Bass
(a) Askov Demonstration Program (c) Charter’s
(b) Tattletooth Program (d) Fones
(c) North Carolina Statewide Pre-
ventive Dental Health Program School Dental Health Programs
(d) Sharp
1. William Fisher, a dentist from Eng-
25. The evaluation of effectiveness in land laid the foundation for school
“Learning about your oral health health program, by publishing a pa-
uses: per entitled “Compulsory Attention
(a) Physical objectives to the Teeth of School Children”.
(b) Microbial objectives 2. The aspects of school health service
(c) Biochemical objectives include:
(d) Behavioural objectives (a) Health appraisal.
26. The key to achieve good oral health in (b) Remedial measures and counseling.
North Carolina Statewide Dental Pub- (c) Healthy school environment.
lic Health Program is: (d) Nutritional services.
(a) Appropriate use of fluorides and (e) Emergency care and first aid.
health education
(f) Mental health.
(b) Utilization of dental services
(g) Maintenance of school health re-
(c) Promotion of sugar free canteens
cords.
(d) Providing insurance to all con-
(h) School health education.
sumers
3. The advantages of school based pro-
27. Which of the following about sodium
gram, according to Dunning are:
fluoride mouth rinsing is true?
(a) Children are available for pre- card is handed over to the child
ventive or treatment procedures. to take home and subsequently to
(b) School clinics are less threatening the dentist. Upon examination or
than private offices. treatment, the dentist enters in it.
(c) A program like this facilitates The card is bought back to school
centralized learning. again where they help in further
referral.
4. Important elements of school dental
health program include: (f) Follow up of dental inspection—
school dental nurse and teachers
(a) Improving school community re-
can help in follow-up.
lations.
5. Some of the school dental health pro-
(b) Conducting dental inspections—
grams include:
motivates the child to seek
adequate professional care and (a) Learning about your oral health.
to build positive attitude in the (b) Texas statewide preventive den-
child towards the dentist. tistry program.
(c) Conducting health education. (c) North Carolina statewide pre-
(d) Performing specific programs— ventive dental health program.
includes tooth brushing (d) School Health Additional Refer-
programs, fluoride mouth rinsing ral Program (Sharp).
program and fluoride tablet (e) Askov dental demonstration pro-
program and sealant placements. gram.
(e) Referral for dental care—Blanket
referral is a program in which a
Key
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d)
Biostatistics
10. Ogive is a graph of which form of pre- (a) Systematic random sampling
sentation? (b) Stratified random sampling
(a) Line chart (c) Cluster sampling
(b) Cumulative frequency diagram (d) Multiphasic sampling
(c) Histogram 17. Identify the sampling error:
(d) Frequency polygon (a) Small size of the sample
11. A variable which can be controlled is: (b) Errors in statistical analysis
(a) Dependent (c) Interviewer’s bias
(b) Independent (d) Errors due to noncooperation of
(c) Ordinal the informant
(d) Nominal 18. Which statement about a representa-
12. The individual entities that form the tive sample is not correct?
focus of the study are called: (a) Its size should be more than 30
(a) Sampling frame (b) It should be randomly selected
(b) Sampling units (c) Selection should be independent
(c) Sampling structure of the observations made
(d) Sampling technique (d) Sample statistics differ signifi-
cantly from population parameter
13. Information collected from all the in-
dividuals in a population is termed: 19. In a frequency distribution table, the
data is split into convenient groups
(a) Census
called:
(b) Sampling (a) Frequency table
(c) Biostatistics (b) Class intervals
(d) Epidemiology (c) Observation
14. Randomization procedure cannot be (d) Variable
achieved through: 20. The length of the bar in bar chart is
(a) Lottery method proportional to the:
(b) Table of random numbers (a) Magnitude of the variable
(c) Computer generated random (b) Prevalence of the data
numbers (c) Incidence of the data
(d) Housie method (d) Proportion of the data
15. Which of the following about strati- 21. Which diagram is obtained by join-
fied random sampling is false? ing the mid points of the histogram
(a) It ensures more representativeness blocks?
(b) It provides greater accuracy (a) Frequency distribution table
(c) Can concentrate on wider geo- (b) Frequency polygon
graphical area (c) Line diagram
(d) Can be used on heterogenous (d) Pie chart
population 22. Correlation between two variables is
16. If all units in each of the selected depicted by:
groups is surveyed, then the sampling (a) Bar diagram
technique is called: (b) Pie diagram
(a) The area under the normal curve (a) The range
is one (b) Interquartile range
(b) It is bell shaped (c) Mean deviation
(c) The mean, median and mode are (d) Standard deviation
the same 42. Which of the following characteristic
(d) It is asymmetrical about a normal curve is true?
36. The limits on either side of the mean (a) It is bow shaped
in a guassian distribution is: (b) It is asymmetrical in distribution
(a) Interval limits (c) Mean, median and mode coincide
(d) The tails touches the base line
(b) Confidence limits
theoretically
(c) Positive limits
43. The total area under a normal curve is:
(d) Negative limits
(a) 0.01
37. The value of mean in a normal distri- (b) 0.1
bution is:
(c) 1.0
(a) 0
(d) 10
(b) 1
44. Standard deviation is also called as:
(c) 2 (a) Type I error
(d) 3 (b) Type II error
38. The area between two standard devia- (c) Root mean square deviation
tions on either side of the mean in nor- (d) Standard error
mal curve covers, approximately: 45. Statistical tests used when data does
(a) 68 percent of the values not fit a normal distribution is:
(b) 95 percent of the values (a) Parametric tests
(c) 99.7 percent of the values (b) Non parametric tests
(d) 100 percent of the values (c) Probability tests
39. The test of significance used to test the (d) Non probability tests
significance of difference between two 46. Statistics used to measure association
proportions is: between two variables is:
(a) Chi-square test (a) Inferential statistics
(b) Correlation (b) Descriptive statistics
(c) Regression (c) Intermittent statistics
(d) Null hypothesis (d) Diffuse statistics
40. The test used to find out any signifi- 47. Unpaired t-test is also called as:
cant association between two vari- (a) Pupil test
ables is: (b) Student test
(a) Coefficient of correlation (c) Teacher test
(b) Strain test (d) Assistant test
(c) Chi-square test 48. The range of values within which the
(d) Regression coefficient mean probably falls are:
41. The difference between the smallest (a) Limit of freedom
and largest results in a set of data is: (b) Standard error
(a) Descriptive 68. The Box and Whisker plot is used for
(b) Cohort depicting:
(c) Case control (a) Range
(d) Experimental (b) Interquartile range
62. Which test is applied when different (c) Standard deviation
experimental groups differs in terms (d) Variance
of one factor 69. Which of the following data is not
(a) Chi-square test qualitative?
(b) One way ANOVA (a) Age
(c) Two way ANOVA (b) Weight
(d) Multifactorial ANOVA (c) DMF score
63. Which test is used to compare propor- (d) Gender
tions in two or more different groups 70. The central limit theorem rescues
of individuals in a sample lesser than which test from getting invalidated?
30 individuals? (a) t-test
(a) Fisher’s test
(b) Chi-square test
(b) Chi-square test
(c) Mann-Whitney U test
(c) ANOVA
(d) Kruskal-Wallis test
(d) t-test 71. Corelation coefficient of +1 indicates:
64. Standard error of mean depicts:
(a) Perfect negative linear relation-
(a) Deviation ship
(b) Dispersion (b) Perfect positive linear relationship
(c) Central tendency (c) Variables are independent of
(d) Normal distribution each other
65. The median is also called: (d) None of the above
(a) 25th percentile 72. Histogram is a:
(b) 50th percentile (a) Line diagram
(c) 75th percentile (b) Pie diagram
(d) 100th percentile (c) Frequency polygon
66. Standard deviation expressed as a (d) Bar diagram
percentage of arithmetic mean is:
73. The sample size of a population de-
(a) Interquartile range pends on:
(b) Mean deviation (a) Incidence in population
(c) Variance (b) Prevalence in population
(d) Coefficient of variation (c) Age parameter
67. Which of the statements is not true for
(d) Distribution of population
standard deviation?
74. Specificity of test means:
(a) It is a measure of central tendency
(a) False positives
(b) Is the square root of variance
(c) Describes the amount of spread (b) False negative
in frequency distribution (c) True positive
(d) Also known as root mean square (d) True negative
(e) Choice of sensory statistics and Charts and diagrams: Simple statisti-
statistical analysis. cal data can be presented in the form
5. Sources of statistical data: of charts or diagrams.
(a) Experiments. Charts are classified as:
(b) Surveys. (a) Bar chart it represent the number
(c) Records. sets by the length of the bar, the
6. Presentation of data—The statisti- length of the bar is proportional
cal data which is collected must be to the magnitude of the data
arranged to show important points represented. They are further
clearly and strikingly. classified as:
i. Data can be presented in various • Simple bar chart—data is
methods—tables, charts, diagrams, presented as vertical or
graphs, pictures and curves. horizontal bars, separated by
ii. Tables—the first step before the data appropriate spaces.
is analysed or interpreted , it is pre- • Multiple bar chart—two
sented as a table. or more bars are grouped
(a) Tables are classified as simple or together.
complex, depending on number • Component bar chart—a
of items represented. bar is further divided into
(b) A table should be numbered, two or more parts, each part
title need to be brief and self- representing an item.
explanatory, headings should be (b) Histogram—it is a pictorial
clear and concise and foot notes diagram of frequency
may be given, if necessary. distribution. It consists of series
Simple table – population of each class of blocks. The class intervals are
of BDS students given along the horizontal axis
Class Strength
and the frequencies along the
vertical axis.
BDS 1 year
st
120
Frequency polygon—it is
BDS 2nd year 100
obtained by joining the mid-
BDS 3rd year 80 points of the bars of the
BDS 4 year
th
60 histogram.
Frequency distribution table (c) Pie chart—here, instead of the
The data is first split into convenient length of the bar, areas of the
groups called the class interval and segment of a circle is compared.
the number of items in each group (d) Pictogram—small pictures or
they occur is frequency. symbols are used to present
Age group of OPD patients of April 2015 the data. A popular method of
presenting data to the layman.
Age group Frequency
7. Normal distribution—an important
0 – 10 120
concept in statistical theory.
11 – 20 100
• It is a smooth, symmetrical
21 – 30 80
curve formed when the values
31 – 40 60
in a data set are presented in
41 – 50 80
a frequency distribution with
> 50 120
narrow class intervals
11. The individual entities that form the type of random sampling in
focus of the study are called sampling which maps rather than lists
units. are used
12. The list of the sampling units is known • Multiphasic sampling—in
as sampling frame. this method, part of the infor-
13. Requisites for a reliable samples are: mation is collected from the
(a) Efficiency. whole complex and part from
(b) Representativeness. the sub sample
• Multistage sampling—when
(c) Measurability.
the study involves a large geo-
(d) Size.
graphical area, like a nation
(e) Coverage. wide study, sampling is done
(f) Goal orientation. in stages, like states, then dis-
(g) Feasibility. tricts, towns, blocks and fami-
(h) Economy and cost efficiency. lies
14. Sample selection can be done in two • Sequential sampling—a small
basic ways: probability and non-prob- sample is tested in order to an-
ability sampling technique. swer certain questions about
15. Probability sampling technique—also the population. If the questions
called as random sampling technique. are not answered, the number
Each and every unit of the population of subjects or units in the sam-
has an equal chance of being selected ple is increased gradually until
for the study. Types of sampling tech- conclusions are drawn
niques are: 16. Non probability sampling tech-
• Simple random sampling— nique—the sample is selected with the
each unit is selected by chance aim of representing the population as
alone a whole. Types of non—probability
• Systematic random sampling— sampling techniques are:
the first unit is picked in • Convenience Sampling—sam-
random, then the sample is ple is selected with the ease of
chosen systematically. Say the access
10th name in the list, 7th house • Judgemental sampling—the
in the area. investigator assumes what he
• Stratified random sampling— considers representative sam-
strata is a group of people. ple
All the sample units are • Quota sampling—combines
selected from each strata and both the convenience sam-
is employed if the population pling and judgemental sam-
is not a homogenous group. pling
• Cluster random sampling— • Snow ball or network sam-
cluster is again a group of pling—a few units are identi-
people. In case of cluster fied and later additional units
sampling, sampling units are are incorporated with the help
selected from the group of them
• Area sampling—areas are 17. Sample size determination—is done
geographical clusters. It is a by two methods:
Key
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (d)
67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (b) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c)
Fluorides in Dentistry
22. Which water fluoridation study 28. The affinity of fluorides to mineralized
emphasized the action of fluorides on tissue is due to:
smooth surface areas? (a) Proton inhibiting exchange process
(a) Granderapids Muskegon (b) Isoionic and heteroionic ex-
(b) Newburgh Kingston change process
(c) Tiel Coleumberg (c) Cationic exchange process
(d) Canadian study (d) Anionic exchange process
23. Dean in 1960 proposed that fluoridat- 29. 99% of all fluoride in the human body
ing water supplies by 1 ppm of fluo- is present in:
ride reduces dental caries by: (a) Mineralized tissue
(a) 20% (b) Muscles
(b) 40% (c) Organs
(c) 60% (d) Blood
(d) 80% 30. The fluoride content is highest among
24. In the canadian study of artificial which of these?
water fluoridation, the natural control (a) Salmon fish
town was: (b) Sardine fish
(a) Brantford (c) Rock salt
(b) Sarnia (d) Dried tea leaves
(c) Stratford 31. The most reliable method for fluoride
(d) Oak Park analysis in food is:
25. The resolution of fluoridation of (a) Microdiffusion technique
communal water supplies, where (b) Spectrographic analysis
feasible should be the cornerstone of
(c) Spectrometric analysis
any national programme of dental
caries prevention was reaffirmed in: (d) Photometric analysis
(a) 1969 32. Fluoride retention at the soft tissue
(b) 1975 occurs at:
(c) 1986 (a) Surface of tissue
(d) 1997 (b) Connective tissue
26. Mean plasma fluoride reaches its peak (c) Mucous epithelium
concentration after: (d) All the above
(a) 15 minutes 33. The solubility product constant of
(b) 30 minutes calcium fluoride isL
(c) 45 minutes (a) 0.95 × 1011 at 26°C
(d) 60 minutes (b) 1.95 × 1011 at 26°C
27. Plasma fluoride level peaks in after (c) 2.95 × 1011 at 26°C
fluoride dentifrice ingestion during: (d) 3.95 × 1011 at 26°C
(a) Fasting 34. The mechanism and rate of gastric
(b) Immediately after having a meal absorption of fluoride is related to:
(c) 30 minutes after having a meal (a) Gastric acidity
(d) 60 minutes after having a meal (b) Water content
(a)
Fluoridated water (c) Hypomineralized areas
(b)
Fluoridated paste (d) Hypermineralized areas
(c)
Fluoridated salt 54. Plasma fluoride concentration is
(d)
Fluoride containing filling mate- lowest in which tissue?
rial (a) Brain
48. Fluoride is released from which of the (b) Lungs
following restorative materials? (c) Heart
(a) Glass ionomer cement (d) Kidney
(b) Miracle mix 55. Fluorides leave the human body
(c) Zinc phosphate majorly through which route?
(d) Amalgam (a) Urine
49. The fluoride concentration in 2% NaF (b) Faeces
solution: (c) Sweat
(a) 7100 (d) Saliva
(b) 8100 56. The concentration of fluoride in sweat
(c) 9100 as compared to plasma is:
(d) 1100 (a) One fifth
50. The fluoride concentration in 10% (b) One fourth
stannous fluoride is: (c) One third
(a) 14250 ppm (d) Half
(b) 24250 ppm 57. Maximum loss of fluoride from tooth
(c) 34250 ppm structure is due to:
(d) 44250 ppm (a) Dental caries
51. Solutions which are highly viscous (b) Periodontal disease
when stored but become fluid under (c) Dental trauma
conditions of high stress are called: (d) Tooth wear
(a) Disclosing solution 58. Which of these replaces the inorganic
(b) Thixotropic solution component of the tooth in the presence
(c) Anticaries solution of fluoride:
(d) Antimicrobial solution (a) Sodium
52. Anti cariogenic effect of fluoride is (b) Potassium
rendered by: (c) Carbonate
(a) Decreased rate of posteruptive (d) Magnesium
maturation 59. Fluoride concentration is higher in
(b) Demineralization young teeth in which region?
(c) Causing pits on surfaces (a) Outer enamel
(d) Interference with micro-organisms (b) Inner enamel
53. Fluoride has an increased rate of (c) Dentino-enamel junction
absorption in: (d) Dentine
(a) Occlusal surfaces 60. Fluoride concentration is higher in
(b) Deciduous teeth adult teeth in which region?
87. Identify the fluoride agent which 93. Which of the following about foam
is professionally tested, but not based APF agent is true?
marketed: (a) Causes fluoride overdose risk
(a) Sodium fluoride (b) Higher amount of agent is re-
(b) Stannous fluoride quired when compared to gel
(c) Acidulated phosphate fluoride (c) Surfactant lowers surface tension
and hence facilitates the penetra-
(d) Sodium mono fluorophosphates
tion of the material
88. The first person to demonstrate (d) Not advised for young children
reduced caries prevalence with and disabled people
repeated application of sodium 94. The intermediate compound formed
fluoride was: with APF gel is:
(a) Mckay (a) Sodium fluoride
(b) Bibby (b) Dicalicum phosphate dihydrate
(c) Bowen (c) Sodium dehydrate
(d) Petersen (d) Carboxy apatite
89. Professionally applied fluoride 95. Which ion interfere with ion specific
products involve the use of fluoride fluoride electrode analysis?
concentration in the range of: (a) Iron
(a) 2 – 5 mg F/mL (b) Titanium
(b) 4 – 6 mg F/mL (c) Aluminium
(c) 5 – 19 mg F/mL (d) Tin
96. The aqueous solution of topical
(d) 30 – 50 mg F/mL
fluoride is continuously reapplied for:
90. Predictions for future caries activity (a) 1 minute
does not include:
(b) 2 minutes
(a) Past caries experience (c) 3 minutes
(b) Microbiological factors (d) 4 minutes
(c) Age 97. The amount of fluoride present in
(d) Weight Durpahat varnish is:
91. The best time to apply topical fluoride (a) 600 ppm
is immediately after eruption because: (b) 2600 ppm
(a) Immature and porous enamel (c) 11600 ppm
acquires fluoride rapidly (d) 22600 ppm
(b) Enamel is more mineralized 98. The composition of fluorprotector
(c) Cooperation from patient is more varnish is:
(d) More vulnerable for dental caries (a) 2.26% sodium fluoride in organic
92. Professional application of sodium lacquer
fluoride solution is called: (b) 0.7% silane fluoride in polyure-
(a) Muhler’s technique thane based lacquer
(c) 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluo-
(b) Knutson’s technique
ride
(c) Mercer technique (d) 0.4% stannous fluoride in aque-
(d) Dubbing technique ous base
125. The Certainly Lethal Dose of Fluoride (a) 2 – 5 mg F/day for 1 – 2 years
is: (b) 5 – 10 mg F/day for 2 – 5 years
(a) 8 – 16 mg of fluoride per kg of (c) 15 – 20 mg F/day for 2 – 5 years
body weight (d) 20 – 80 mg F/day for 10 – 20 years
(b) 16 – 32 mg of fluoride per kg of 132. The most commonly affected tooth
body weight with fluorosis is:
(c) 32 – 64 mg of fluoride per kg of (a) Canine
body weight (b) Mandiubular incisor
(d) 64 – 128 mg of fluoride per kg (c) Premolar
body weight
(d) Maxillary incisor
126. Osteofluorosis starts to occur from
133. Snow cap type of fluorosis appears
which region?
after consuming fluoridated water for
(a) Central skeletal region
a longer duration at what level?
(b) Periphery region
(a) 0.2 ppm
(c) Bone marrow region
(b) 0.6 – 0.8 ppm
(d) Cartilage region
(c) > 1 ppm
127. Sodium fluoride when consumed (d) >2 ppm
orally, changes the gastric juice pH by: 134. A combination of fluoride, calcium
(a) Lowering it and vitamin D results in:
(b) Increasing it (a) Increased wall thickness of osteo-
(c) Remains the same blasts
(d) No effect (b) Decreased wall thickness of os-
128. Fluoride causes death in acute teoblasts
poisoning by: (c) No change in wall thickness
(a) Blocking normal cellular metabo-
(d) Changes the number of osteo-
lism
blasts
(b) Acidosis
135. The absorption of fluoride along with
(c) Causing hypotension calcium is highest in which condtions?
(d) Causing paresis and tetany (a) Arthritis
129. The first sign of acute fluoride toxicity
(b) Asthma
is:
(c) Osteoporosis
(a) Abdominal pain
(d) Myocardial infarction
(b) Nasal discharge
136. Dean’s classification for fluorosis is
(c) Diarrhoea
based on the:
(d) Epistaxis
(a) Number of teeth affected
130. Safely Tolerated Dose of fluoride is:
(b) Quadrant affected
(a) One fourth of CLD
(c) Type of mottling
(b) One half of CLD (d) Jaw affected
(c) Three fourth of CLD 137. Which of the following is noted in
(d) Equivalent to CLD increasing incidence in high fluoride
131. The fluoride dosage necessary to areas?
produce skeletal fluorosis is estimated (a) Cardiac disease
at: (b) Nervous disease
(c) Acidulated phosphate fluoride: The machinery used for water fluori-
• Solution dation are of two types:
• Gel • Solution feeders: Hydrofluo-
(d) Fluoride varnishes: rosilicic acid is used
• Duraphat • Dry feeders: Ammonium sili-
• Fluoroprotector cofluoride, fluorspar, sodium
(e) Fluoride dentifrices. fluoride and sodium silicoflu-
(f) Fluoride mouth rinses. oride are used
22. Cariostatic mechanisms of systemic 24. School water fluoridation—can be used
fluorides are by: if the surrounding areas where which
(a) Rendering enamel more resis- school children are coming from, have
tant to acid dissolution—enamel low fluoride content. The recommend-
which mineralizes in the pres- ed fluoride level is 4.5 ppm. This brings
ence of fluoride has a lower car- 40% reduction in caries.
bonate content, thus resulting in 25. Salt fluoridation—first practiced by
reduced solubility. Wespi in 1959, in Switzerland. The
(b) Inhibition of bacterial enzyme level of fluoride in salt is recommend-
systems—decreases transport or ed at 90 mgF/kg salt. Concentrated
uptake of glucose by oral strep- solutions of sodium fluoride and cal-
tococci and interferes with acid cium fluoride are mixed with a suit-
production. able phosphate carrier salt for this
(c) Reducing tendency of the enamel purpose. About 20 – 25% reduction in
surface to absorb proteins—alters dental caries is reported in literature.
the surface charge and thus reduc- 26. Milk fluoridation—first mentioned by
es the deposition of pellicle and Zielger in 1956. 250 mL milk bottle are
subsequent plaque formation. fortified with 0.625 mg fluoride.
(d) Modification in size and shape of 27. Fluoride tablets—available commer-
the teeth—reduces cusp height, cially as sodium fluoride tablets of
fissure depth and increases fis- 2.2 mg, 1.1 mg and 0.55 mg yielding
sure width. 1 mgF, 0.5 mgF and 0.25 mgF, respec-
23. Water fluoridation is defined as tively. It provides both topical and
the upward adjustment of the systemic effect.
concentration of fluoride ion in public
Fluoride drops are recommended for
water supply in such a way that the
children lesser than 16 – 18 weeks due
concentration of fluoride ion in the
to poor neuromuscular coordination.
water may consistently maintained at
one part per million (ppm) by weight. 28. Topical fluorides act posteruptively,
and not meant to be swallowed.
The optimal level of fluoride in drink-
ing water is 0.7 – 1.2 ppm. Four main types of preparations have
been in used, namely:
The optimum fluoride concentration
for a particular community can be cal- • Neutral sodium fluoride solu-
culated by the following equation: tions
• Stannous fluoride solutions
Fluoride (ppm) = 0.34/E, where E = -
• Acidulated Phosphate Fluo-
0.038 + 0.0062 X temperature of the
ride (APF) agents
area in °F.
• Varnishes containing fluoride
29. Sodium fluoride—2% sodium fluo- The disadvantage with this technique
ride solution is prepared by dissolv- is that the patient has to visit the den-
ing 0.2g of powder in 10 mL of dis- tist frequently in a short period of
tilled water. time.
It has to be stored in plastic bottles and 30. Stannous fluoride—the most recom-
not in glass containers, because the sil- mended concentration is 8%. This is
ica of the glass reacts with fluoride ion obtained by dissolving 0.8 g of pow-
forming silica fluoride and reduces der in 10 mL of distilled water.
the availability of free active fluoride The method of application is called
for anticaries action. The application Muhler’s technique. After thorough
is also called Knutson’s technique. prophylaxis, the teeth are isolated
It involves four applications. The teeth with cotton rolls and dried. Either a
is cleaned and polished in the first ap- quadrant or half of the mouth is treat-
plication. After isolation, the teeth are ed at a time. A freshly prepared 8% so-
dried thoroughly. Fluoride solution is lution of stannous fluoride is applied
applied with cotton applicators and is continuously with cotton applicators,
allowed to dry for four minutes. The keeping the tooth moist for four min-
patient is instructed to avoid eating, utes by applying every 15—30 sec-
onds.
drinking or rinsing for 30 minutes ,
to prolong the availability of fluoride The mechanism of action is: when
ion to react with the tooth surfaces. stannous fluoride reacts with hy-
The first application is followed by droxyapatite, it forms stannous tri-
2nd, 3rd and 4th applications, at weekly fluorophosphates alongwith fluorapa-
intervals. A full series of treatment is tite, which is more resistant to decay
recommended at ages of 3, 7, 11 and than enamel. Stannous fluoride is giv-
13 years. en in annual applications. The main
disadvantage is its bitter metallic taste
The mechanism of action of sodium
and unstability.
fluoride is: when applied topically it
reacts with hydroxyapatite crystals to 31. Acidulated phosphate fluoride solu-
form calcium fluoride. The presence tion and gel—Also called Brudevold
of fluoride in higher concentrations in solution. The idea of APF is that the
2% sodium fluoride solution causes a fluoride concentration in enamel in-
fast exceeding of solubility product of creases with decrease in the pH of the
calcium fluoride. The rate of forma- solution.
tion of calcium fluoride reduces af- APF is prepared by dissolving 20 g of
ter the initial rapid reaction and this sodium fluoride in 1 liter of 0.1m phos-
phenomenon is called “choking off ef- phoric acid. To this, 50% hydrofluoric
fect”. acid is added to adjust the pH at 3.0
The calcium fluoride further reacts and fluoride concentration at 1.23%.
with hydroxyapatite to form fluori- For preparing APF gel, a gelling agent
dated hydroxyapatite which increases like methylcellulose or hydroxyethyl
the concentration of surface fluoride. cellulose is added to the solution and
The structure so formed is more stable pH is adjusted between 4 – 5.
and less susceptible to dissolution by Another form of APF for topical ap-
acids. plication is the thixotropic gel. It is a
solution that sets in a gel like state, but suspension of natural resins. After
is not a true gel. Upon application of prophylaxis, teeth are dried but not
pressure, thixotropic gel become so- isolated as varnish sticks to the cotton
lution. This is more easily forced into rolls. A total of 0.3 to 0.5 mL of varnish
the interproximal surfaces than the equivalent to 6.9 to 1.5 mg of fluoride is
conventional gels. required to cover the full dentition. It
After thorough oral prophylaxis, is first applied to the lower arch with a
the teeth are isolated with cotton single tufted small brush starting with
rolls and dried. The APF solution is proximal surfaces and then applied to
continuously and repeatedly applied the upper arch. The patient is asked to
with cotton applicators and the teeth sit with mouth open for four minutes
are kept moist for four minutes. The before spitting to let varnish set on
recommended application is biannual. teeth. The patient is instructed not to
APF gel is applied using styrofoam rinse or drink anything for one hour
trays. and not to eat anything solid till next
When APF is applied on teeth, it initially morning.
leads to dehydration and shrinkage 33. Fluoride dentifrices—were clinically
in the volume of hydroxyapatite evaluated in 1940s. Most commonly
crystal, which hydrolyses to form an used are monofluorophosphate
intermediate compound, Dicalcium dentifrices. It has a neutral pH of 6.5,
Phosphate Dehydrate (DCPD). This has greater stability to oxidate and
DCPD is highly reactive with fluoride hydrolyze, hence increases the shelf
and penetrates more deeply into life and has increased availability of
the crystals through the openings fluoride.
produced by the shrinkage and forms 34. Recommendations for fluoride
fluorapatite. toothpaste in children are as follows:
Disadvantage is that it is sour and For children below 4 Fluoridated toothpaste
bitter in taste because of its acidic years is not recommended
nature.
For children 4 – 6 years Brushing once daily with
32. Fluoride varnishes: These were fluoride toothpaste and
developed in an attempt to maintain other two times without
the fluoride ion in close contact with a paste
the enamel surface for a longer period
For children 6 – 10 Brushing twice daily
of time. The two most commonly
years with fluoride toothpaste
used are duraphat, fluorprotector,
and once without paste
cavity shield and duraflor. Duraphat
For children above 10 Brushing 3 times with
is sodium fluoride varnish containing
years fluoride toothpaste
2.26% of fluoride in organic lacquer. It
is yellow in colour and more effective 35. Mouth rinses—were popularized in
in caries reduction. Fluor protector is mid 1960s by Scandinavian researches.
silane fluoride with 0.7% fluoride. It is Available in various compositions,
colourless and less effective in caries 0.2%, 0.02% and 0.05% for weekly,
reduction. Cavity Shield is 5% sodium twice daily and daily use, respectively.
fluoride in resinous base. Durafluor 36. Water defluoridation: is defined as
is 5% sodium fluoride in alcoholic the downward adjustment of fluoride
Key
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b)
67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a)
79. (c) 80. (a) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a)
85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (d)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (c)
103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c)
109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c)
115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (a)
127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c)
133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (c)
139. (a) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (b)
145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (d)
151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (d) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (a)
157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (b) 161. (b) 162. (a)
163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (d)
169. (b) 170. (c) 171. (d) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (c)
175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (d) 178. (b) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (b) 183. (d) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (a)
187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (a) 191. (d) 192. (c)
193. (d) 194. (b) 195. (d) 196. (c) 197. (c) 198. (d)
199. (b) 200. (b) 201. (b) 202. (a) 203. (a) 204. (b)
205. (b) 206. (a) 207. (c)
(a) Lower laterals 16. Which of the following groups are not
(b) Upper laterals considered a high risk for dental caries?
(c) Upper first molars (a) Psychopathic personality
(d) Lower first molars (b) Schizophrenia
10. What is the concentration of inorganic (c) Maniac depressive psychosis
material in dentin? (d) Alcoholism without psychosis
(a) 95% 17. Nutrition as an epidemiological factor
(b) 85% in the causation of dental caries can be
considered under:
(c) 75%
(a) Agent
(d) 65%
(b) Host
11. The organic portion of cementum con-
sists of: (c) Environment
(a) Type IV collagen (d) All the above
(b) Type I collagen and proteoglycans 18. Proximal caries has a age predilection
for:
(c) Type II collagen and cementoblasts
(a) 10 – 15 years
(d) Cementoblasts
(b) 15 – 20 years
12. Who quoted the statement “ Hot
(c) 15 – 35 years
things, sharp things, sweet things,
cold things, all rot the teeth and make (d) Above 50 years
them look like old things”: 19. The first type of caries to occur in the
oral cavity is:
(a) Benjamin Franklin
(a) Pit and fissure caries
(b) Miller
(b) Proximal caries
(c) Ludwig
(c) Cervical caries
(d) Haugejorden
(d) Acute root caries
13. Which races have a higher lower car-
20. Which type of caries is associated with
ies rate?
the degenerative processes of old age:
(a) Chinese
(a) Pit and fissure caries
(b) Whites
(b) Proximal caries
(c) Americans
(c) Cervical caries
(d) Europeans
(d) Acute root caries
14. Mansbridge found greater resem-
blance in caries, experience between: 21. Which set of teeth is most frequently
attacked by dental caries?
(a) Fraternal twins
(b) Identical twins (a) Upper incisors
(c) Unrelated pair of children (b) Upper molars
(d) Boys and girls (c) Lower incisors
15. The familial heredity of dental caries (d) Lower molars
can be attributed to: 22. Which of the following factors does
(a) Genetic makeup not classify as a host factor in epide-
(b) Dietary habits in family miology of dental caries?
(c) Chromosomes (a) Age
(d) Genetic constitution (b) Familial heredity
70. Identify the substance which inter- 76. A combination of fluoride pro-
feres with bacterial growth and me- gramme, saliva secretion and saliva
tabolism: buffer capacity is termed as:
(a) Caries vaccine (a) Diet
(b) Vitamin K (b) Susceptibility
(c) Iodides (c) Circumstances
(d) Zinc chloride (d) All the above
71. Appropriate use of fluoride prescrip- 77. Cariogram was developed by:
tions and fluoride dentifrice renders (a) G.V. Black
which type of prevention in dental (b) McKAY
caries? (c) Joe Frenken
(a) Primordial (d) Douglas Bratthall
(b) Primary 78. The Cariogram is a pie circle diagram
(c) Secondary which is divided into how many sec-
tors?
(d) Tertiary
(a) 3
72. Which of the following fluoride deliv-
(b) 5
ery methods render both systemic and
topical benefits? (c) 7
(a) Fluoride mouthrinse (d) 9
79. Which of these is an observational hu-
(b) Fluoride dentifrices
man study in the relation between diet
(c) Fluoride varnish and dental caries?
(d) Fluoride tablets (a) Hopewood house study
73. Which of the minimal intervention (b) Vipeholm study
methods used, treat the disease and (c) Turku sugar study
do not prevent it:
(d) Recife study
(a) Pit and fissure sealant 80. Which of these is not a chemical mea-
(b) ACP-CCP sure in dental caries prevention?
(c) Atraumatic restorative treatment (a) Casein phosphopeptide
(d) Silver salts (b) Lasers
74. Cariogram aims to assess: (c) Protective food
(a) The caries risk graphically (d) Fluoride
(b) Success of curative treatment 81. Identify which is not an anticalculus
(c) Social factors of the individual agent:
(d) Economic factors of the individual (a) Pyrophosphate
75. The “green” sector in the cariogram (b) Zinc citrates
assesses: (c) Triclosan
(a) The diet (d) Vitamin D
(b) Bacteria 82. Identify the intervention study in epi-
(c) The actual chance to avoid new demiology of dental caries:
cavities (a) Hopewood house study
(d) Susceptibility (b) Vipeholm study
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (d)
43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b)
55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d)
67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b)
79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (d) 82. (b)
1. The white soft deposit seen on the cer- (a) Buccal surfaces of maxillary mo-
vical region of the teeth in the absence lars
of regular tooth brushing is called: (b) Buccal surfaces of mandibular
(a) Plaque molars
(b) Material alba (c) Labial surface of mandibular in-
(c) Calculus cisors
(d) Labial surface of maxillary inci-
(d) Slime layer
sors
2. Human plaque is considered to have
6. Identify the systemic factor in the etio-
microorganisms of:
logic chart of periodontal disease:
(a) 2 × 109 per mL
(a) Food impaction
(b) 2 × 1010 per mL
(b) Faulty nutrition
(c) 2 × 1011 per mL (c) Bruxism
(d) 2 × 1012 per mL (d) Improper tooth brushing
3. A type of periodontal disease which is 7. Wedging of food and debris between
systemic in origin is called: the teeth by the action of the cheeks
(a) Schmutz pyorrhoea and the tongue during mastication is
(b) Atrophy called?
(c) Periodontitis (a) Vertical impaction
(d) Juvenile periodontitis (b) Diaganol impaction
4. Which component of the dental plaque (c) Horizontal impaction
is responsible for adhesive nature? (d) Straight impaction
(a) Dextran 8. Identify the chemical irritant to gingi-
(b) Bacteria val and periodontal disease:
(c) Epithelial cells (a) Overhanging margins of restoration
(d) Food debris (b) Open cavity margins
5. The most common sites for calculus (c) Alcohol
deposition is: (d) Poorly fitting orthodontic appli-
ances
21. Which type of blood dyscrasias does 27. Identify the environmental factor in
not cause periodontal damage? the epidemiology of periodontal dis-
(a) Acute leukemia ease:
(b) Iron deficiency anemia (a) Nutrition
(c) Neutropenia (b) Plaque
(d) Platelet disorders (c) Calculus
22. Which statement explains the rela- (d) Bacterial flora
tionship of periodontal disease with 28. Which of the following vitamin de-
age? ficiency produces a severe type of
(a) Periodontal disease increases necrotic gingivitis with pseudomem-
with increasing age brane formation and sloughing of
(b) Periodontal disease decrease buccal mucosa?
with decreasing age (a) Riboflavin
(c) Periodontal disease has no (b) Niacin
relationship with age (c) Pyridoxine
(d) Periodontal disease is seen only in (d) Cyanocobalamin
systemic conditions irrespective 29. Which gingival disease was discov-
of age ered in World War I?
23. The least affected teeth with periodon- (a) Acute necrotizing ulcerative
tal disease are: gingivitis
(a) Upper molars (b) Disuse atrophy
(b) Lower central incisors (c) Gingival hyperplasia
(c) Lower bicuspids (d) Juvenile periodontitis
(d) Lower canines 30. Periodontal surgery and root plan-
24. The teeth most frequently affected ning are the services offered by:
with periodontal disesase are: (a) Individual
(a) Upper molars (b) Community
(b) Upper central incisors (c) Dental professional
(c) Lower biscuspids (d) School
(d) Upper canines 31. Which of the following elements does
25. Endocrinal changes does not attribute not produce a detrimental effect on
to increased risk of gingivitis in: gingiva?
(a) Hyperthyroidism (a) Mercury
(b) Hyperparathyroidism (b) Lead
(c) Pregnancy (c) Fluoride
(d) Gigantism (d) Thallium
26. Which of these do not act as a local 32. Acute periodontal disease and loosen-
host factor for epidemiology of peri- ing of teeth are characteristic of which
odontal disease? deficiency?
(a) Trauma from occlusion (a) Vitamin A
(b) Food impaction (b) Vitamin D
(c) Disuse (c) Vitamin E
(d) Plaque (d) Vitamin C
vary flow and burning sensa- neck of the tooth, defying the
tion of mouth. Decreased met- action of toothbrush or floss
abolic control in these patients • Microflora—specific peri-
present a greater frequency odontal pathogens impreg-
and severity of periodontal nated are Porphyromonos gingi-
disease valis, Prevotella intermedia, Bac-
• Blood dyscrasias—Literature teroides forsythus, Bacteroides
reports higher incidence of melaninogenicus and actinomy-
periodontal disease in acute ces.
monocytic leukemia and • Chemical and physical hazards
aplastic anemia —mercury, lead and thallium
• Medication—certain medi- have been reported to produce
cines like phenytoin, cyclo- gingivitis accompanied by
sporine, calcium antagonists a dark line parallel to the
and NSAIDS act as predispos- gingival margin
ing factors for gingival inflam- (c) Environment factors:
mation • Fluoride in drinking water—a
• Immune system disorders— weak tendency is reported for
patients infected with Hu- decreased periodontal disease
man Immunodeficiency Virus as fluoride increased
(HIV) may present with severe • Degree of urbanization—rural
form of periodontal disease children are found to have
(b) Agent factors—includes: higher periodontal scores than
• Plaque—it must be present for urban children
the bacteria to gain a lasting • Educational background—
hold in the periodontal area the degree of education
• Calculus—Calculus gives is inversely related to the
plaque a firmer hold on the severity of periodontal disease
Key
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a)
(b) Who use tobacco within 1 hour of 28. Which smoking tobacco is used for re-
waking up verse smoking in women?
(c) Who use tobacco within 2 hours (a) Chutta
of waking up (b) Chillum
(d) Who use tobacco within 3 hours (c) Dhumti
of waking up (d) Gudaku
23. Which of these diagnostic test have a 29. A type of tobacco used to clean teeth
higher false positive and false nega- is:
tive readings?
(a) Khaini
(a) Biopsy
(b) Gutka
(b) Exfoliative cytology
(c) Masheri
(c) Toluidine blue staining
(d) Dhumti
(d) Computed tomography scan
24. Anticancer drugs which comes under Epidemiology of Oral Cancer
the classification of alkylating agent is:
(a) Methotrexate 1. The established risk factors for oral
cancer are:
(b) Busulfan
• Smoking tobacco
(c) Vinblastin • Chewing tobacco
(d) Bleomycin • Chewing betel quid
25. Tightening restrictions on tobacco and • Heavy consumption of alcohol
alcohol advertising and promotion is • The presence of a potentially
an example for: malignant oral lesion or condi-
(a) Building healthy public policy tion
(b) Creating supportive, environ- 2. Contributory or predisposing factors
ments are:
(c) Strengthening community action • Dietary deficiencies, particu-
larly vitamin A, C, E and iron
(d) Developing personal skills
• Familial or genetic predisposi-
26. Creating smoke free public spaces
tion
comes under which principle of oral
• Viral infections, especially cer-
health promotion?
tain types of human papilloma
(a) Building healthy public policy viruses
(b) Create supportive environment • Sunlight
(c) Strengthen community action • Candida albicans infections
(d) Reorient health services • Immune deficiency diseases or
27. Identify the risk factor for dental inju- immune suppression
ries: • Environmental exposure to
the burning fossil fuels
(a) Incisor retrusion
• Dental trauma
(b) Overjet of 2 mm
(c) Overjet of 6 mm and more
(d) Competent lips
Key
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c)
Indices in Dentistry
Key
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d)
49. (a)
Disaster Management
(d) Acquisition, storage, transporta- 15. Identify the measure for disaster pre-
tion and storage. paredness:
9. An increase in transmission of com- (a) Improved building codes
municable diseases occurs in disaster (b) Protection of vulnerable popula-
management due to: tion
(a) Proper sanitation in temporary (c) Ensuring resources and proce-
resettlements dures in place
(b) Population displacement (d) Planning
(c) Ground water supply 16. It is advised to increase residual chlo-
(d) First aid provided rine level in disaster management to:
10. Which outbreak is most common in (a) 0.1 mgL
the post disaster period? (b) 0.3 mgL
(a) Meningitis (c) 0.5 mgL
(d) 0.7 mgL
(b) Encephalitis
17. Bhopal gas tragedy dates to:
(c) Gastroenteritis
(a) 3rd December 1964
(d) Heart attack
(b) 3rd December 1984
11. The WHO does not recommend ty-
(c) 3rd December 1994
phoid and cholera vaccines in routine
(d) 3rd December 2004
use in endemic area, because they
have: 18. The green house effect indicates:
(a) Go green concept
(a) Increased efficacy
(b) Global warming
(b) Poor compliance
(c) Population explosion
(c) Higher financial costs
(d) Disease transition
(d) Technique sensitive 19. India is prone to natural calamities of
12. The final phase in a disaster is: about 8 a year due to:
(a) Health promotion (a) Increased population
(b) Specific protection (b) Wide range of topographic and
(c) Early diagnosis eight climatic conditions
(d) Rehabilitation (c) Increased disease prevalence
13. Which of this does not categorize into (d) Changing political situations
vector borne diseases? 20. The chemical released in bhopal gas
(a) Rat bite fever tragedy 1984 was:
(b) Dengue fever (a) Methyl isocyanate gas
(c) Malaria (b) Ethyl isocyanate gas
(d) Tetanus (c) Fluorine gas
14. Measures designed to prevent haz- (d) Acetylcholine
ards from causing emergency or to less- 21. Which day in a year is designated as
en the likely effects of emergencies are: “World Disaster Reduction Day”?
(a) Disaster response (a) Second Wednesday of August
(b) Triage (b) Second Wednesday of September
(c) Disaster mitigation (c) Second Wednesday of October
(d) Disaster preparedness (d) Second Wednesday of November
Key
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c)
Key
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
1. The Ottawa Charter for Oral Health 5. Identify which one is not an element
Promotion by the WHO was proposed of health promotion:
in: (a) Determinants on health
(a) 1976 (b) Working in partnership
(b) 1986 (c) Adopting a strategic approach
(c) 1996 (d) Reorienting health services
(d) 2006 6. The victim blaming approach can be
2. How many key areas of action has the avoided by recognizing which factor?
Ottawa Charter outlined? (a) Environmental
(a) 3 (b) Physical
(b) 5 (c) Demographic
(c) 7 (d) Gender
(d) 9 7. The emphasis on “Make healthy
3. Recognizing the impact of the envi- choices, the easier choices” was pro-
ronment on health and identifying op- posed by:
portunities to make conducive chang- (a) Sheiham
es follows the principle of: (b) Watt
(a) Creating supportive environment (c) Milio
(b) Building healthy public policy
(d) Miller
(c) Strengthening community action 8. Which of these is not a fundamental
(d) Developing personal skills determinant of oral health?
4. Empowering individuals and com- (a) Consumption of non milk
munities in the process of setting pri- extrinsic sugar
orities, planning and implementing (b) Effective control of plaque
strategies is:
(c) Optimal exposure to fluoride
(a) Building healthy public policy
(d) Marital status
(b) Creating supportive environment
9. Identify the false statement. The ad-
(c) Strengthening community action vantage of strengthening community
(d) Developing personal skills action does not include:
Key
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d)
1. A method used to assess the quality (a) Why was the study undertaken
of methodology used to investigate a (b) How was it done
problem is: (c) Where was it done
(a) Survey (d) When was it done
(b) Critical appraisal 6. The two most common confounding
(c) Research methodology variables in health related research
(d) Biostatistics are:
2. Which of these is not a criteria for (a) Age and gender
choosing to read a paper according to (b) Income and occupation
Greenhalgh? (c) Occupation and education
(a) Why was the study done (d) Location and address
(b) What type of study was done 7. Any weakness in the study is
(c) Was the design appropriate to the presented in which part of literature?
research (a) Introduction
(d) Was the funding mentioned (b) Methods
3. Which study is suitable to test whether (c) Discussion
a new test is reliable and valid?
(d) Conclusion
(a) Randomized controlled trial
8. The concept of applying the results to
(b) Cross sectional survey
other groups or population is called:
(c) Longitudinal cohort study
(a) Generalizability
(d) Case control study
(b) Confounding
4. Which is the preferred study to assess
(c) Internal vailidity
causation?
(a) Randomized controlled trial (d) Reliability
(b) Cross sectional survey 9. A study reporting first hand research
is:
(c) Longitudinal cohort study
(d) Case control study (a) Qualitative
5. The methodology checklist in critical (b) Quantitative
appraisal of literature does not (c) Primary
include: (d) Secondary
7. The materials and methods is key 9. The discussion is where the authors
section in critical appraisal of an express their opinion. Both the merits
article. It should answer: and demerits of the study is presented
• Why was the study here.
undertaken? 10. The final section involves conclusion
• How was it done? which is to check if it matches with the
• Where was it done? objective of the study or not.
• What was done? 11. The authors have to check for the
• To whom was it done? presence any conflict of interest in the
8. The results section should present data study of be it financial or scientific.
which is clear and concise. It should
also answer whether appropriate
statistical tests were used.
Key
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (d)
Key
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b)
Social Sciences
Key
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (b)
Key
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a)
Occupational Hazards
Key
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a)
(a) Higher distribution of dentists in plans for actions, which in turn en-
urban areas sures that services are provided eq-
(b) Lower concentration of dentists uitably and health environments are
in rural areas maintained.
(c) No hospital set up in the slums 2. WHO has advised all the member
countries to formulate, adopt and im-
(d) All the above
plement a health policy so that the aim
9. Which personnel is not a part of the
for “Health for all by 2000 A.D.” can
village level in the Primary Health Care?
be achieved all over the world.
(a) Village health guides 3. In India, till date there is no Oral
(b) Local dais Health Policy, though efforts are made
(c) Anganwadi worker from 1984.
(d) Male health worker 4. The IDA organised a workshop in 1984
10. The Central Council of Health in Mumbai to establish a document on
proposed one Community Health the national oral health policy.
Centre for a population of: 5. IDA hosted a three day workshop in
(a) 20,000 – 30,000 New Delhi in association with Com-
(b) 40,000 – 50,000 mon Wealth Dental Association on
April 2 – 4th, 1994 on “Oral Health
(c) 60,000 – 80,000
Policy guidelines for commonwealth
(d) 80,000 – 120,000 countries”.
11. What are the requirements at the 6. The Ministry of Health and Fam-
Community Health Centre level? ily Welfare held a three day workshop
(a) 30 beds and X-ray facilities and drafted the National Oral Health
(b) 30 beds and ultrasound facilities Policy in collaboration with WHO in
(c) 50 beds and no X-ray facilities 1995.
(d) 50 beds and ultrasound facilities 7. The draft was discussed and the fol-
12. The purpose of mobile dental clinics is lowing resolutions were made to im-
to render services: prove oral health in India:
(a) To rural masses • There is an urgent need for an
(b) In remote areas Oral Health Policy in India
• A post of full time dental advi-
(c) In inaccessible areas
sor at appropriate level in the
(d) All the above DGHS should be created
13. How many mobile dental units are • Primary prevention of all den-
proposed at the district level covering tal diseases should be under-
a population of 45,00,00 – 5,00,000? taken to curb the rising diseas-
(a) 1 es in the nation
(b) 2 – 3 • Prevention and promotion
(c) 3 – 4 should be introduced from the
(d) 6 – 7 village level. Five pilot projects
may be launched, in five dis-
National Oral Health Policy tricts, on oral health care
• Legislative measures to ensure
1. A policy is a consensus on the ideas a statutory warning on the
forming the basis for coordinating wrappers and advertisements
Key
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (c)
Key
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d)
10. The past dental history of a patient 16. The physiological pulse rate range is:
helps to know: (a) 20 – 60/min
(a) Patient’s feelings about his (b) 60 – 100/min
previous dentists (c) 100 – 140/min
(b) Endemicity of disease (d) 140 – 180/min
(c) Legal conditions 17. Body temperature above the normal
(d) Cause of disease range indicates the presence of:
(a) Infection
11. In the medical history of a patient
which of the following condition (b) Growth
needs special attention? (c) Caries
(a) Mild fever a year back (d) Bruxism
(b) Patient with liver dysfunction 18. The respiratory rate of an individual
(c) Patient with denture is to be measured necessarily if the
patient is suspected of:
(d) A female patient with C- section
surgery 10 years back (a) Cardiopulmonary disease
12. Which of the following drugs alter the (b) General anaesthetic procedure
choice of general or local anesthetic to (c) Analgesia
be used? (d) All the above
(a) Tranquilizers 19. Precautions to be taken in hypertensive
(b) Anticoagulant therapy patients in dental office includes:
(c) Antihypertensive drugs (a) Preoperative sedation
(d) All the above (b) Short appointments
13. The medical history of parents and (c) Reduce epinephrine
siblings is important to dentist to (d) All the above
record: 20. Exophthalmos is a sign indicative of:
(a) Heritable medical disorder (a) Hyperthyroidism
(b) Inherited disease (b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Congenital disease (c) Paget’s disease
(d) All the above (d) Acromegaly
14. The influence of which sugar is 21. An important sign of Bell’s palsy to be
important to be recorded in diet looked for is:
history? (a) Drooping of the eyelid
(a) Milk sugar (b) Closed eyelid
(b) Fruit sugar (c) Excessive lacrimation
(c) Intrinsic sugars (d) Nasal swelling
(d) Non milk extrinsic sugars 22. The temporomandibular joint is to be
15. The normal respiratory rate of an examined for:
individual is: (a) Clicking sound
(a) 4 – 12/minute (b) Joint tenderness
(b) 14 – 20/minute (c) Deviation of the mandible to
(c) 22 – 30/minute either sides
(d) 32 – 40/minute (d) All the above
(a) Patient history (Personal, medical 11. Past medical history—the aim is to
and dental), including determi- determine those systemic conditions
nation of vital signs. or systemic diseases which alters the
(b) Clinical examination – both ex- treatment plan of the dentist. A special
traoral and intra—oral. note on any drug allergies and diseas-
(c) Radiographic examination. es under treatment also has to be men-
(d) Study casts. tioned to check for drug interactions.
(e) Laboratory studies. 12. Family history—the medical history of
3. Name—is recorded to establish a good parents and siblings is noted to record
rapport and rendering psychological any heritable, inherited or congenital
benefit to the patient. It also indicates dental defects. Examples of diseases are
the religion of a person. tuberculosis, rheumatic fever, migraine,
4. Age – some diseases have a predilec- neurotic disorders, allergic diseases and
tion to certain ages. Juvenile periodon- hypertension. Dental diseases like mal-
titis and Garre’s osteomyelitis occurs occlusion, abnormalities of teeth like
in younger individuals lesser than 25 microdontia and congenital absence of
years. Cystic hygroma and cleft lip are teeth are noted.
congential anomalies. 13. Personal history—it includes both
5. Gender—diseases of thyroid, cystitis para functional oral habits and ad-
are common in females. Haemophilia verse habits. Para functional habits
affects male only. like bruxism, clenching, nail or pen-
6. Occupation—dark stippling of mar- cil biting is recorded. Adverse habits
ginal gingival is seen in patients who like history of smoking, ingestion of
work with lead, bismuth and cadmi- alcohol or drugs helps in providing
um. appropriate treatment. Diet history
7. Address—is recorded for communi- is recorded to estimate the amount of
cation purpose and to know the ende- non milk extrinsic sugar intake, which
micity of certain diseases. in turn influences caries rate.
8. Chief complaint—is a statement 14. Vital signs—body temperature, pulse,
which prompted the patient to seek respiratory rate and blood pressure.
dental care. It has to be noted in pa- Normal values are:
tient’s own words. Location and dura-
Vital signs Normal values
tion of the complaint has to be noted.
Body temperature 35 – 37°C
9. History of present illness—a complete
history from the time of commence- Pulse rate 60 – 100 / min
ment of first symptoms and till the Respiratory rate 14 – 20 / min
time of examination. It should elabo- Blood pressure 120 / 80 mm of Hg
rate on mode of onset of symptoms, 15. Clinical examination:
the progress of disease with evolution Extraoral—
of symptoms in chronological order.
• The head and jaws—examined
10. Past dental history—it helps in giving for symmetry and develop-
an idea about the attitude of the pa- ment. Growth and complete
tient about oral health and also helps development of jaws are im-
us to know the patient’s feelings about portant to note for occlusion
his previous experience.
Key
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (d)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d)
Epidemiology of Malocclusion
Key
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
Practice Management
Key
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
Infection Control
1. Non sterile gloves are appropriate for: (b) At the start of day’s practice
(a) Examinations (c) Before glove placement and after
(b) Episectomy glove removal
(c) Extraction (d) After glove removal
(d) Pulpotomy 6. Identify the instrument classified as
2. Penetration of liquids through “Critical” in dental practice:
undetected holes in the gloves is (a) Forceps
called: (b) Condensers
(a) Washing (c) Mirrors
(b) Donning (d) External component of X-ray
(c) Wicking head
(d) Wiping 7. The most commonly used method of
3. Infection control measures in dental sterilization in dentistry is:
practice recommends which practice (a) Steam autoclave
in needle handling? (b) Chemiclave
(a) Breaking of needle (c) Dry heat oven
(b) Bending of needle (d) All the above
(c) Using disposable syringe 8. Extracted teeth in dental clinics should
(d) All the above be stored in:
4. Which of the following vaccine is (a) Fresh water
mandatory for dental health care (b) Fresh solution of sodium
worker? hypochlorite
(a) Hepatitis B (c) Fresh lime
(b) Hepatitis C (d) Fresh saline
(c) Hepatitis A
Viva Points
(d) Hepatitis D
5. Dentists should wash their hands: 1. Infection control in dental
(a) At the end of day’s practice practice means preventing disease
Key
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (b)