PART–A

1. Give the Synonym of FOSTERING :

A) Safeguarding B) Neglecting
C) Ignoring D) Nurturing
2. Give the Antonym of TERRIBLE :
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A) Soothing B) Frightening
C) Scaring D) Horrible
3. Find the correct spelt word:
A) Adverisity B) Advercety
C) Adversity D) Advercity
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4. A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain salvation:
A) Sceptic B) Ascetic
C) Devotee D) Antiquarian
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5. What does phrase “To smell a rat” mean:
A) To see signs of plaque epidemic
B) To get bad small of a bad dead rat
C) To suspect foul dealings
D) To be in a bad mood
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6. The study of ancient societies:

A) Anthropology B) Archaeology
C) History D) Ethnology
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7. Select the pair which has the same relationship PAIN:SEDATIVE:

A) Comfort:Stimulant B) Trance:Narcotic
C) Ache:Extraction D) Grief:Consolation
8. Even if it rains I shall come means…..:
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A) If I come it will not rain
B) If it rains I shall not come
C) I will certainly come whether it rains or not
D) It will rain even if I not come
9. I saw a ........ of cows in the field.:
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A) Herd B) Group
C) Swarm D) Flock
10. Break-down in verbal communication is described as:
A) Short circuit B) Contradiction
C) Unevenness D) Entropy
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11. Who is the chief law officer in India?
A) Secretary, Law Department B) Attorney General
C) Advocate General D) Solicitor General
12. What does “I” stands for in IGST?
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A) International B) Internal
C) Integrated D) Intra
13. Who is the Chairman of GST Council?
A) RBI Governor B) Prime Minister
C) Finance Minister D) President of India

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14. The El-Nino Phenomenon occurs in:
A) Atlantic Ocean B) Pacific Ocean
C) Indian Ocean D) Arctic Ocean
15. Whose signature is there on the new Rs.500 currency note after demonetisation?
A) Prime Minister B) President
C) Governor of the RBI D) Finance Minister
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16. Which among the following is incorrect?

A) RBI is the Bank of Issue
B) RBI acts as Banker to the Government
C) RBI is Banker’s Bank
D) RBI does not regulate the flow of credit
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17. ______ is launched with an objective to set up a network of technology centres, incubation centres to
accelerate entrepreneurship and also to promote start-ups for innovation and entrepreneurship in rural
and agriculture based industry.:
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A) IMPRINT B) SWAYAM
C) SFURTI D) ASPIRE
18. Which Minstry initiated the Swachh Bharat Mission?
A) Ministry of Drinking and sanitation
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B) Ministry of Rural Development
C) Ministry of Urban Development
D) Ministry of Health
19. Who appoints the Judges of Supreme Court?
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A) Prime Minister B) Lok Sabha
C) Rajya Sabha D) President
20. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) comes under the administrative control of:
A) Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) of the Ministry of Personnel
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B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Defence
D) None of the above
21. Half percent, written as a decimal, is:
A) 0.05 B) 0.02
C) 0.005 D) 0.5
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22. The mean of a distribution is 14 and the standard deviation is 5. What is the value of the coefficient of
variation?
A) 60.4% B) 4.3%
C) 35.7% D) 27.8%
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23. If the standard deviation of a population is 9, the population variance is:
A) 9 B) 3
C) 21 D) 81
24. Three unbiased coins are tossed, what is the probability of getting at least 2 tails?
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A) 1/3 B) 1/6
C) 1/2 D) 1/8
25. If a:b:c = 3:4:7, then the ratio (a+b+c) : c is equal to:
A) 2:1 B) 14:3
C) 7:2 D) 1:2

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26. Sampling error decreases with the:
A) Decrease in sample size B) Increase in sample size
C) Process of randomization D) Process of analysis
27. Which of the following divides a group of data into four subgroups?
A) Percentiles B) Deciles
C) Median D) Quartiles
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28. Population census is conducted through:

A) Sample survey B) Population survey
C) Investigation D) Complete enumeration
29. Testing hypothesis is _____:
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A) Inferential statistics B) Descriptive statistics
C) Data preparation D) Data analysis
30. The principles of fundamental research are used in:
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A) Action research B) Applied research
C) Philosophical research D) Historical research
31. Binary system of numbers uses only:
A) Two digits B) Four digits
C) Eight digits D) Six digits
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32. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

A) To make sure you have a long list of references
B) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
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C) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
D) To help in your general studying
33. “Controlled Group” is a term used in:
A) Survey Research B) Historical Research
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C) Experimental Research D) Descriptive Research
34. What is a cross-sectional design?
A) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes
B) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
C) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
D) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time
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35. Random sampling is helpful as it is _____________:

A) An economics method of data collection
B) Free from personal biases
C) Reasonably accurate
D) All the above
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36. Hypothesis relates ____________:

A) Constant to variables B) Constant to constant
C) Variables to constant D) Variables to variables
37. Hypothesis which explains relationship between two variables is:
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A) Casual B) Rational
C) Descriptive D) Relational
38. Chi-square test is an example of:
A) Parametric test B) Non-parametric test
C) Descriptive test D) Survey test

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39. In ANOVA, VA stands for:
A) Variance B) Value
C) Variable D) Vein
40. Questionnaire is a:
A) Research method B) Measurement technique
C) Tool for data collection D) Data analysis technique
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41. Which of the following is not covered under Intellectual Property Rights?
A) Copyrights B) Patents
C) Trade marks D) Thesaurus
42. Field study is related to:
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A) Real life situations B) Experimental situations
C) Laboratory situations D) None of the above
43. The process not needed in experimental researches is:
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A) Observation
B) Controlling
C) Manipulations and replication
D) Reference collection
44. Who is regarded the father of scientific social surveys?
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A) Darwin B) Booth
C) Best D) Hercules
45. What is a patent?
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A) An agreement to the Government
B) Document of the library
C) An agreement between the inventor and the Government
D) An agreement between library and Publisher
46. A researcher wants to study the future of the Congress in India. For the study which tool is most
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appropriate for him?
A) Questionnaire B) Schedule
C) Interview D) Rating scale
47. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?
A) It just a summary of what the article already said.
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B) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions
C) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature
D) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed.
48. The term “Phenomenology“ is associated with the process of:
A) Qualitative research B) Analysis of variance
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C) Correlational study D) Probability sampling
49. Borrowing someone else’s ideas or words, but failing to properly document the original source is
called:
A) Paraphrasing B) Plagiarism
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C) Writers-block D) Editing
50. Which type of citation is particularly well suited to web pages?
A) Foot-note
B) Endnote
C) In-text citation
D) Bibliographic citation

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 PART–B

51. Depending on culture conditions, glucose can be catabolised by yeast to produce ethanol and carbon
dioxide, or can be diverted into other biosynthetic reactions. An inoculum of yeast is added to a
solution containing 10 g/L glucose. After some time only 1 g/L glucose remains while the concentration
of ethanol is 3.2 g/L. The yield of ethanol from glucose is:
A) 3.66 g/g B) 2.73 g/g
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C) 0.36 g/g D) 0.63 g/g
52. In Numerical taxonomy, which of the following formulae states correctly the percentage similarity (%S)
of each strain determined from the Number of characteristics of each strain which are similar or
dissimilar (NS) and Number of characteristics that are dissimilar or different (ND).:
A) %S = NS/(NS + ND) B) %S = ND/(ND + NS)
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C) %S = NS/ND D) %S = ND/NS
53. Data for cell concentration X versus time t are plotted on semi-log graph paper. Points (t1 =0.5 h, X1 -
3.5 g/L) and (t2 - 15 h, X2 - 10.6 g/L) fall on a straight line passing through the data. What is the value
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of the specific growth rate for this culture?
A) 0.076 h-1 B) 0.066 h-1
-1
C) 0.056 h D) 0.666 h-1
54. A fixed-angle rotor exhibits a minimum radius, rmin, at the top of the centrifuge tube of 3.5 cm, and a
maximum radius, rmax, at the bottom of the tube of 7.0 cm. For a cross-sectional diagram of a fixed-
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angle rotor illustrating the position of the minimum and maximum radius. If the rotor is operated at a
speed of 20,000 r.p.m., what is the relative centrifugal field, RCF, at the top and bottom of the
centrifuge tube?
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A) 15680 and 31360 B) 14608 and 34678
C) 21400 and 45780 D) 34678 and 14608
55. A fermentation slurry containing Streptomyces kanamyceticus cells is filtered using a continuous rotary
vacuum filter. 120 kg/h slurry is fed to the filter; 1 kg slurry contains 60 g cell solids. To improve
filtration rates, particles of diatomaceous-earth filter aid are added at a rate of 10 kg/h. The
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concentration ofkanamycin in the slurry is 0.05% by weight. Liquid filtrate is collected at a rate of 112
kg/h; the concentration of kanamycin in the filtrate is 0.045% (w/w). Filter cake containing cells and
filter aid is continuously removed from the filter cloth.If the concentration of kanamycin in the filter-cake
liquid is the same as in the filtrate, how much kanamycin is absorbed per kg filter aid?
A) 8.6 x 10-4 kg/kg B) 9.6 x 10-4 kg/kg
-4
C) 7.6 x 10 kg/kg D) 8.6 x 10-3 kg/kg
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56. Which one among the given transcription factors is responsible for destabilizing nonspecific
interactions of RNA polymerase II and DNA:
A) TFIIH B) TFIID
C) TFIIE D) TFIIF
57. The specific growth rate for inhibited growth in a chemostat is given by the following equation µg =
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(µmS)/(Ks + S+ IKs/IKI); where (S0 = 10 g/L; Ks = 1 g/L; I = 0.05 g/L; Yx/s = 0.1 g/cells; X0 = 0; KI = 0.01
g/L; µm = 0.5 h-1; kd = 0). The cell productivity as a function of dilution rate (D) is:
A) 0.2D {9 – [5D/(0.6 - D)} B) D{5- [5D/(0.6 - D)]}
C) 0.2D{10- [6D/(0.5-D)]} D) 0.1D{8- [5D/(0.5-D)]}
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58. Corn-steep liquor contains 2.5 % invert sugars and 50% water; the rest can be considered solids. Beet
molasses containing 50% sucrose, 1% invert sugars, 18% water and the remainder solids, is mixed
with corn-steep liquor in a mixing tank. Water is added to produce a diluted sugar mixture containing
2% (w/w) invert sugars. 125 kg corn-steep liquor and 45 kg molasses are fed into the tank. What is the
concentration of sucrose in the final mixture?
A) 13% B) 10%
C) 11% D) 1.2%
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59. Acetobacteraceti bacteria convert ethanol to acetic acid under aerobic conditions. A continuous
fermentation process for vinegar production is proposed using non-viable A. aceti cells immobilised on
the surface of gelatin beads. The production target is 2 kg/h acetic acid; however the maximum acetic
acid concentration tolerated by the cells is 12%. Air is pumped into the fermenter at a rate of 200
g.mol/h. What minimum amount of water must be used to dilute the ethanol to avoid acid inhibition and
what minimum amount of ethanol is required?
A) A. 12.1 kg/h water and 2.5 kg/h ethanol B) 14.1 kg/h water and 1.5 kg/h ethanol
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C) 13.1 kg/h water and 3.5 kg/h ethanol D) 10.1 kg/h water and 0.5 kg/h ethanol
60. Xanthan gum is produced using Xanthomonascampestris in batch culture. Laboratory experiments have
shown that for each gram of glucose utilized by the bacteria, 0.23 g oxygen and 0.01 g ammonia are
consumed, while 0.75 g gum, 0.09 g cells, 0.27 g gaseous CO2 and 0.13 g H2O are formed. Other
components of the system such as phosphate can be neglected. Medium containing glucose and ammonia
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dissolved in 20000 L water is pumped into a stirred fermenter and inoculated with X. campestris. Air is
sparged into the fermenter; the total amount of off-gas recovered during the entire batch culture is 1250 kg.
Because of the high viscosity and difficulty in handling xanthan-gum solutions, the final gum concentration
should not be allowed to exceed 3.5 wt%.How much glucose and ammonia are required?
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A) 980 kg glucose and 9.8 kg NH3 B) 9.8 kg glucose and 98 kg NH3
C) 98 kg glucose and 0.98 kg NH3 D) 0.98 kg glucose and 98 kg NH3
61. The chemical reaction equation for respiration of glucose is:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
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Candida utilis cells convert glucose to CO2 and H2O during growth. The cell composition is
CH1.84O0.55N0.2 plus 5% ash. Yield of biomass from substrate is 0.5 g/g. Ammonia is used as nitrogen
source. What is the oxygen demand for glucose respiration with growth?
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A) 1.5 g.mol O2 per g.mol glucose consumed
B) 0.5 g.mol O2 per g.mol glucose consumed
C) 2.5 g.mol O2 per g.mol glucose consumed
D) 3.5 g.mol O2 per g.mol glucose consumed
62. In downstream processing of gluconic acid, concentrated fermentation broth containing 20% (w/w)
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gluconic acid is cooled in a heat exchanger prior to crystallization. 2000 kg/h liquid leaving an
evaporator at 90 °C must be cooled to 6 °C. Cooling is achieved by heat exchange with 2700 kg/h
water initially at 2 °C. If the final temperature of the cooling water is 50 °C. What is the rate of heat loss
from the gluconic acid solution to the surroundings? Assume the heat capacity of gluconic acid is 0.35
cal.g-1 °C-1.:
A) 6.0 x 104 kJ/h B) 3.0 x 104 kJ/h
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C) 5.0 x 104 kJ/h D) 7.0 x 104 kJ/h
63. A fermentation broth with viscosity 10-2 Pa s and density 1000 kg/m3 is agitated in a 2.7 m3 baffled tank
using a Rushton turbine with diameter 0.5 m and stirrer speed 1 s-1. Estimate the mixing time.:
A) 30 s B) 31 s
C) 33 s D) 29 s
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64. Hot, freshly-sterilized nutrient medium is cooled in a double-pipe heat exchanger before being used in
fermentation. Medium leaving the sterilizer at 121 °C enters the exchanger at a flow rate of 10 m3/h;
the desired outlet temperature is 30 °C. Heat from the medium is used to raise the temperature of 25
m3/h water initially at 15 °C The system operates at steady state. Assume that nutrient medium has the
properties of water. What rate of heat transfer is required and what would be the final temperature of
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the cooling water as it leaves the heat exchanger?
A) 2.06 x 106 J/s (rate of heat transfer) and 50 °C (Final temperature)
B) 0.06 x 106 J/s (rate of heat transfer) and 56 °C (Final temperature)
C) 3.06 x 106 J/s (rate of heat transfer) and 54 °C (Final temperature)
D) 1.06 x 106 J/s (rate of heat transfer) and 52 °C (Final temperature)

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65. A 150 m3 bioreactor is operated at 35 °C to produce fungal biomass from glucose. The rate of oxygen
uptake by the culture is 1.5 kg/m3/h; the agitator dissipates heat at a rate of 1 kW/m3. 60 m3/h cooling
water available from a nearby river at 10 °C is passed through an internal coil in the fermentation tank.
If the system operates at steady state, what is the exit temperature of the cooling water?
A) 25 °C B) 20 °C C) 22.5 °C D) 22 °C
66. For a certain biological experimental data it was found that the regression line of Y and X was Ye = 30
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+ 0.8X and the regression line of X and Y was Xe = -35 + 1.05Y. Interpretation of the Coefficient of
Regression would result with a Correlation coefficient (r) value of:
A) 0.92 B) 1.0 C) 0.85 D) 0.62
67. What will be the correct comparative relation between harmonic mean (H), arithmetic mean (A) and
geometric mean (G) of the following colony count numbers 1, 2, 4, 2 of microbiology practical class?
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A) H > A > G B) A > H > G C) A > G > H D) G > A > H

68. If the age of five herbal plants in a greenhouse are 8, 5, 10, 9, 12 weeks. Which of the following would
be the median age?
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A) 10 B) 9 C) 9.5 D) 8.5
69. To measure the amount of glucoamylase in crude enzyme preparation, 1 ml of the crude enzyme
preparation containing 8 mg protein is added to 9 ml of a 4.44% starch solution. One unit of activity of
glucoamylase is defined as the amount of enzyme which produces 1 µM of glucose per min in a 4%
solution of Litner starch at pH 4.5 and at 60 °C. Initial rate experiments show that the reaction
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produces 0.6 µM of glucose/ml-min. The specific activity of the crude enzyme preparation is:
A) 0.75 units/mg protein B) 1.75 units/mg protein
C) 0.50 units/mg protein D) 1.50 units/mg protein
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70. What would be the total number of cells suspended in a final volume of 5 cm3, taking into account that
the cells were diluted 1:2 before counting and the number of cells counted with the haemocytometer
was 400.:
A) 106 Cells B) 105 Cells C) 104 Cells D) 103 Cells
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71. An experimental sample of 3H on a filter paper in scintillation fluid gave a count rate of 1450 c.p.m. in a
liquid scintillation counter. The filter was removed and 5064 d.p.m. added to it. On recounting, the filter
gave a reading of 2878 c.p.m. What was the d.p.m. of the experimental sample.:
A) 5442 d.p.m. B) 5342 d.p.m. C) 5242 d.p.m. D) 5142 d.p.m.
72. An Eco R-I enzyme has cleaved a genomic DNA of 3.2×104bp by incubating at 37ºC for 2 hour. The
GC content of the genome is 50%. Calculate the frequency of restriction cleavage and number of
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restriction fragments generated at the end of this experiment assuming it a complete digestion?
A) 3.2×104/ 46 B) 3.2×104/ 26
4 6
C) 2.0 ×3.2×10 / 4 D) 2.0 ×3.2×104/ 26
73. How many number of targeted DNA fragment will be generated by using PCR amplification of 30
cycles, where the initial copy number of template DNA is 20?
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A) [230] B) 20 ×[230]
30
C) [2 -2(20+1)] D) 20 ×[230-2(30+1)]
74. How many number of genomic clone is required for 95% coverage of the E. coli genome, if the cloning
vector is cosmid (4 ×102 bp) and haploid genome size is 4.2 × 106 bp.:
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A) [0.95] ×[(4.2 × 106) ÷ (4 ×102)] B) ln[1-0.95] × [(4.2 × 106) ÷ (4 ×102)]
6 2
C) ln[1-0.95] ÷ ln[1-(4.2 × 10 ) ÷ (4 ×10 )] D) ln [(4.2 × 106) ÷ (4 ×102)]
75. Which of the following pair of enzymes are isochizomers:
A) Xma-I and Sma-I B) Hind-III and Hae-III
C) Hind-III and Hsu-I D) EcoR-I and EcoR-V

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76. The amplification of m-RNA by PCR is known as:
A) Real time PCR B) Reverse transcriptase PCR
C) Inverse PCR D) Assymetric PCR
77. Chromosome walking is best described as-
A) Aligning DNA sequences by genetic algorithm, to generate contigs.
B) Generating a map along a chromosome in a step by step manner.
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C) Identifying clones having overlapping sequence to generate a library of clones that covers a
desired segment of DNA
D) Walking along the chromosome to obtain a gene sequence.
78. Which of the following methods yielded the best map of the human genome during mid 1990s?
A) Genetic mapping of RFLPs B) Genetic mapping of SSLPs
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C) Physical mapping of STSs D) Physical mapping by FISH
79. Which of the following techniques, based upon migration of DNA fragments in a gel in the presence or
absence of proteins, is used to identify proteins that binds to DNA?
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A) NMR spectroscopy B) Gel retardation
C) DNA foot printing D) Nuclease protection
80. Which one of the following describes RNA interference?
A) Antisense RNA molecules block the translation of m-RNA molecules.
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B) Double stranded RNA molecules are bound by proteins that block their translation
C) Double stranded RNA molecules are cleaved by a nuclease into short interfering RNA molecules
D) Short interfering RNA molecules bind to the ribosome to prevent the translation of viral mRNAs.
81. Purification of large amount of protein is required for many biochemical and structural characterization
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methods. If glycosylated recombinant protein is required in large quantity, which system would be
more suitable?
A) MBP-tagged protein in E. Coli B) Affinity-tagged protein in E.coli
C) Affinity-tagged protein in Salmonella D) Affinity-tagged protein in Pichia
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82. The translation machinery of the eukaryotic cell carries out protein synthesis. It includes ribosomes,
tRNA and many amino acids. There are plenty of codons available for the tRNA to code for the
required amino acids. Which of the following statement is true regarding eukaryotic translation?
A) Equal number of codons and amino acids are present in the cell
B) Every amino acid is coded by only one codon.
C) One codon may code for more than one amino acids.
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D) One amino acid may be coded by more than one codons.
83. MHC (Major histocompatibility complex) molecules are present on almost every cell of the human
body. It also plays a major role in graft rejection. Which of the following phenomenon plays important
role in graft rejection mediated by the MHC molecules?
A) VDJ recombination B) Allelic Polymorphism
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C) Somatic hypermutation D) Allelic exclusion
84. Antibody molecules upon entry of pathogen initiate classical pathway of complement activation.
However, both antibody molecules and complement protein are present in the serum but activation of
classical complement pathway is triggered only in the presence of antigen, it is because:
A) Antigens binding to antibody leads to structural changes in antibody enable it to bind to
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complement proteins
B) Entry of antigen increases the concentration of antibody molecules enable it to bind to
complement proteins
C) Antigen has an affinity to complement proteins which brings antibody and complement proteins to
close enough for interactions
D) All of the above

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85. A researcher is interested in studying cell cycle of sea urchin. His specific interest is in regulation of
cell cycle and its application in controlling the growth of sea urchin in anaphase stage. In order to
prolong anaphase period or to stop the cell cycle at anaphase stage, researcher needs to add:
A) DNA replication inhibitor
B) Gyrase inhibitor
C) Proteosome inhibitor
D) RNA polymerase inhibitor
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86. Which of the following statements are true regarding carbohydrate biomolecules prevalent inside the
eukaryotic cell?
A) Glycogen is made up of only linear chain of glucose molecules
B) Cellulose is made up of only linear chain of glucose molecules
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C) Starch is made up of only linear chain of glucose molecules
D) Sucrose is made up of only linear chain of fructose molecules
87. A protein is made up of 100 amino acids with equal number of positive and negatively charged amino
acid residues. With the help of the site-directed mutagenesis, all the lysine residues are mutated into
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glycine. The resulting protein will have:
A) Slightly lower molecular weight and move towards anode
B) Slightly higher molecular weight and move towards anode
C) Slightly lower molecular weight and move towards cathode
D) Slightly higher molecular weight and move towards cathode
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88. A highly pure protein is required for the setting up of crystallization experiments. There are many
techniques available to get pure protein. Gel-filtration chromatography is one of those widely used
techniques for purification of proteins. If you are purifying a recombinant protein expressed in E. Coli,
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then most likely there will be contamination of many bacterial proteins. If your protein A has molecular
weight of 9000 dalton along with bacterial proteins B, C, D and E of molecular weight 5000 dalton,
15000 dalton, 20,000 dalton and 1000 dalton, respectively. Identify the correct statement:
A) Protein A will first come out of the gel-filtration column
B) Protein B will first come out of the gel-filtration column
C) Protein C will first come out of the gel-filtration column
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D) Protein D will first come out of the gel-filtration column
89. PDB (Protein Data Bank) is the reservoir of experimentally determined three-dimensional structures of
the biomolecules. Which of the following statement true regarding PDB?
A) Most number of structure deposited in PDB are determined from X-ray crystallography and NMR.
B) Most number of structure deposited in PDB are determined from X-ray crystallography and Raman
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spectroscopy.
C) Most number of structure deposited in PDB are determined from X-ray crystallography and
Electron microscopy.
D) Most number of structure deposited in PDB are determined from Electron microscopy and NMR.
90. Basic Local Align Search Tool (BLAST) is widely used similarity search tool. It has many module such
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as nucleotide blast, protein blast etc. Which pair of phylogenetic matrix is used in protein blast tool?
A) Bootstrap and Chimera B) Dot plot and Chimera
C) PAM and Blossum D) Chimera and Blossum
91. Gibberellin is a plant growth harmone required for the growth and development of the plant. It
influences various developmental processes of plant such as germination, flowering and dormancy.
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The discovery of gibberellin is associated with:
A) White rust of rice
B) Bakanae disease of rice
C) Early blight of potato
D) Black rust of wheat

[ 10 ] RP-QP–05
92. Gametophyte and sporophyte are two different stages of life cycle present in many plant species.
Unique features such as haploid or diploid nature of the genome characterize both stages. Which of
the following plant’s gametophyte is larger than its sporophyte?
A) Algae B) Bryophytes
C) Fungi D) Pteridophytes
93. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you
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should choose?
A) Chemical composition of the cell wall
B) Nature of stored food materials in the cell
C) Types of pigments present in the cell
D) Structural organization of thallus
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94. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates:
A) Low percentage of young individuals
B) High percentage of old individuals
C) High percentage of young individuals
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D) Low percentage of old individuals
95. A researcher is interested in characterizing a protein A by transiently expressing it into the
heterologous host system. He cloned the gene coding for protien A into a vector and transformed into
Hela cells. What easy mentod he should use to know the expression of protein A in Helacells ? (He
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doen not have antibody for protein A):
A) Western Blotting B) Elisa
C) SDS PAGE D) Southern Blotting
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96. An entry of antigen in human body will lead to the development of antibody molecules. Those antibody
molecules can be purified from the serum using affinity chromatography. This purified antibody is now
injected into mouse, the type of antibody generates inside mouse may be purified using:
A) Protein A column
B) Protein G column
C) Protein D column
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D) Both Protein A and G columns
97. If one tyrosine has a molecular weight of 200 Daltons, what would be the molecular weight (in Dalton)
of circular polymer of 50 tyrosine?
A) 9100 B) 10000
C) 900 D) 9118
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98. A man of blood group A marries a woman of blood group B. Both had father with blood group O. What
would be the probable percentage of O blood group in offspring?
A) 100% B) 75%
C) 50% D) 25%
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99. Sau3AI is a restriction endonuclease with 4 bases recognition site. It is different from the EcoRI
enzyme in terms of number of nucleotide bases required for recognition and cutting. The frequency of
occurrence of recognition site for Sau3AI in a dsDNA molecule will come at every:
A) 4 nucleotides B) 16 nucleotides
C) 256 nucleotides D) None of the above
R
100. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique is used for amplification of sample DNA. It requires
thermo stable enzyme for polymerizing DNA molecules. If a PCR reaction contains 100 molecules at
the start of cycle, how many molecules will be present after 9 cycles?
A) 512 x 102 B) 512 x 103
3
C) 102.4 x 10 D) 64 x 102

[ 11 ] RP-QP–05