IMPORTANT RQS: RITA

Q1: By encircling an abutment tooth 180 degrees, a removable partial denture clasp
assembly serves to

A- Prevent tooth movement away from the clasp

B- Increase the retention provided by the clasp

C- Increase the support derived from the abutment tooth

D- Decrease the applied occlusal torquing forces

ANS:A IT IS ASDA QUESTION AND ANSWER CONFIRMED FROM MASTRY APP

Q2: Which of the following is contraindicated as a pre-prosthodontic regimen

to optimize soft tissue health?

A- Oral hygiene instructions

B- Prophylaxis

C- Daily rinses of chlorhexidine

D- Premedication with oral antibiotics

ANS:D

Q3: Diazepam-mediated effects include

A- Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation

B- Lowering seizure Threshold

C- Anterograde amnesia

D- Analgesia

ANS:C
Q4: primary drug for The treating oral candidiasis in patient with HIV is
A- Nystatin (Mycostatin)

B- Acyclovir (Zovirax)

C- Penciclovir (Denavir)

D- Chlorhexidine (Peridex)

ANS: A

Q5: Which of the following represents the major cause of pulpal damage
associated with cavity preparation?

A- Vibration

B- Heat generation

C- Dentin desiccation

D- Adverse effects of local anesthesia

ANS:B CONFIRMED FROM DD

Q6: A new diagnostic test is evaluated against an independent “gold”

standard” in 100 subjects with the following results:

True positive = 48

True negative = 8

False positive = 12

False negative= 32

What is the negative predictive value of this new diagnostic test?

A- 20 percent

B- 40 percent

C- 60 percent
D- 80 percent

ANS: A

TN/TN+FN *100% = 8/8+32*100% = 20%

Q7: Adrenal suppression may result from which of the following regimens of
hydrocortisone?

A- 20 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

B- 2 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

C- 10 mg for 1 week within 1 year

D- 1 mg for 1 week within 1 year

ANS:A

Q8: Which of the following 2 designs in tooth preparation can be used with
all-ceramic crowns?

A- Butt-joint shoulder or chamfer

B- Bevel or butt-joint shoulder

C- Bevel or feather edge

D- Chamfer or feather edge

ANS: A

Q9: The highest incidence of caries around Class II composite resin

restorations occurs on which of the following margins?

A- Occlusal

B- Facial proximal

C- Lingual proximal
D- Gingival proximal

ANS: D

Q10: Which of the following is the best treatment for a traumatically intruded
primary tooth which in not impinging on the permanent tooth bud?

A- Extraction

B- Allow tooth to spontaneously re-erupt

C- Reposition tooth orthodontically

D- Reposition tooth surgically

ANS: B

Q11: Which of the following is NOT correct concerning informed consent?

A- It must be obtained in advance of treatment

B- It must be in writing

C- It must include risks, benefits, and complications

D- It must include treatment options

ANS: B

Q12: When performing a pulpal evaluation, the dentist should ideally use
which of the following as controls?

A- Adjacent teeth only

B- Adjacent teeth and opposing tooth

C- Adjacent teeth and contralateral tooth

D- Opposing tooth and contralateral tooth

ANS: C

Q13: In recurring necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which of the following is

most associated with exacerbation?

A- Occlusal trauma

B- Stressful episodes

C- Amount of suppuration present

D- Increase in gram positive organisms

ANS: B

Q14: The means by which dental patients are treated to eliminate the caries
process is called

A- Antibiotic prophylaxis

B- Primary prevention

C- Secondary prevention

D- Tertiary prevention

ANS: C

Q15: A fail-safe mechanism on an analgesia machine for nitrous oxide and

oxygen prevents the delivery of nitrous oxide greater than

A- 20 percent

B- 50 percent

C- 70 percent

D- 90 percent
ANS:C

Q16: A wear facet is seen on the mesio-buccal incline of the mesio-buccal

cusp of a mandibular first molar complete metal crown. This facet clould
have been formed during which jaw movements?

A- Working only

B- Protrusive or working

C- Protrusive or non-working

D- Non-working or retrusive

ANS: B

Q17: Which of the following drugs are categorized as tricyclic

antidepressants?

A- Tranylcypromine (Parnate) and parglyline (Eutonyl)

B- Gabapentin (Neurontin) and tramadol (Ultram)

C- Imipramine and amitriptyline

D- Promethazine and hydroxyzine

ANS: C

Q18: What is the most likely pulpal diagnosis for a primary molar with deep
caries and a history of transient cold sensitivity with an intact periodontal
ligament space on radiographic examination?

A- Reversible pulpitis

B- Irreversible pulpitis

C- Pulpal necrosis

D- Calcification metamorphosis

ANS: A
Q19: In removing a torus palatinus, the practitioner inadvertently removed
the midportion of the palatine process of the maxilla. One would expect to
see

A- The nasolacrimal duct

B- The inferior nasal concha

C- An opening into the nasal cavity

D- An opening into the maxillary antrum

ANS: C

Q20: Smooth surface lesions resulting from flexure of the tooth structure are
known as which of the following?

A- Abrasion

B- Erosion

C- Abfraction

D- Attrition

ANS: C

Q21: Damage to biological systems from ionizing radiation is due primarily to

which of the following?

A- Trasmutation of a key atom

B- A direct hit on a key atom or molecule

C- Radiolysis of water molecules

D- Excitation of macromolecules

ANS: C

Q22: Which of the following clinical entities is most likely to be misdiagnosed

as an endodontic lesion?

A- Lateral periodontal cyst

B- Periodontal abscess
C- Tori or exostoses

D- Gingival cyst

ANS: A

Q23: A patient is complaining about bleeding and pain when they brush.
Which is the most appropriate initial response to initiate the patient’s oral
health behavior change?

A- “So you want healthy teeth and the gums but it hurts when you brush”

B- “No pain no gain. You want the benefits of brushing but it hurts”

C- “Keep brushing even if it hurts. You know you have to do it”

D- “I’d to hear that you are brushing every day when you come back”

ANS: D not sure some suggested A

Q24: Low-dose aspirin therapy prevents the formation of thromboemboli by

preferentially inhibiting which of the following?

A- Phospholipase A2 in the blood vessels walls

B- Prsotacyclin synthetase in the blood vessels walls

C- Tromboxane synthetase in the platelets

D- Vitamin K in the liver

ANS: C

Q25: What is the predominant method of financing dental care in Health

Maintenance Organizations?

A- Fee for service

B- Capitation

C- Usual, customary, and regular fee

D- Table of allowances

ANS:B
Q26: Billing for a full-mouth series of radiographs as if they were a number of
individual radiographs is an example of

A- Non-rendering services

B- Upcoding

C- Unbunding

D- Mischaracterization

ANS: C

Q27: Which of the following is the most likely cause of ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joint?

A- Neoplasm

B- Rheumatoid arthritis

C- Traumatic injury

D- Developmental abnormality

ANS: C

Q28: Which differential diagnostic method is best for determining whether

pathosis is endodontic or periodontic in nature?

A- Pulp vitality testing

B- Nature of symptoms

C- History of periodontal disease

D- Location of swelling, if present

ANS: A
Q29: Which action represents the most effective means of preventing caries
on overdenture roots?

A- Daily treatment with prescription fluoride gel

B- Coverage of roots with cast copings

C- Daily treatment with antimicrobial rinse

D- Placement of amalgam restoration in root canal orifice

ANS : B FIRST FROM DD IF NOT AVAILABLE THEN A

Q30: Which type of enamel caries has a broad area of origin with a conical or
pointed extension towards the DEJ?

A- Pit and fissure caries

B- Smooth surface caries

C- Cusp tip caries

D- Root surface caries

ANS: B

Q31: What is the maximum recommended dose of acetaminophen that can be

prescribed in a 24 hour time period?

A- 2.5 grams

B- 3 grams

C- 3.5 grams

D- 4 grams

ANS: D

Q32: A patient on intravenously administered bisphosphonate therapy for 2

years has caious and non-restorable anterior teeth. Which is the best
treatment option?

A- Surgical extraction with primary closure

B- Endodontic therapy of retained roots

C- Discontinue bisphosphonates for 3 months before extraction

D- Surgical extraction, alveoloplasty, and primary closure

ANS: B CORONOCTOMY , EXTRACTION CONTRAINDICATED HERE

Q33: Which of the following represents the dentist primary responsibility

when caring for the elderly dental patient?

A- Speak slowly and simply to the patient

B- Involve a caretaker/surrogate in decision making

C- Provide long appointments so the patient will have to travel less often

ANS: B

Q34: Behcet disease has oral lesions which are most similar to which of the
following

A- Aphthous ulcers

B- Candidiasis

C- Herpangina

D- Herpes zoster

ANS:A

Q35: Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate,
they are consistent. This test has high

A- Generalizability

B- Specificity

C- Reliability

D- Validity

ANS:C
Q36: Which of the following conditions is associated with hypodontia?
A- Ectodermal dysplasia

B- Cleidocranial dysplasia

C- Apert Syndrome

D- Gardner syndrome

ANS: A

Q37: Cervical caries can be secondary to the effect of radiation on

A- Enamel

B- Dentin

C- Cementum

D- Salivary gland

E- Alveolar crestal bone

ANS: D

Q38: During an extraction under sedation, the patient aspirates the crown of
the tooth. Where would the crown most likely appear on a chest x-ray?

A- Esophagus

B- Right bronchus

C- Left bronchus

D- Infundibulum

ANS:B
Q39: Methods to prevent overheating of the bone implant site preparation
include the use of which of the following?

A- High speed handpiece

B- Chlorhexidine irrigation

C- High torque handpiece

D- Air cooling

ANS: C LOW SPEED HIGH TORQUE

Q40: When the isthmus of a MOD cavity preparation is extended beyond 1/3 of
the cusp-tip to cusp-distance, the restoration of choice is a

A- MOD amalgam

B- MOD inlay

C- MOD onlay

D- Full crown

ANS:C RESISTANCE ISSUE

Q41: What final process in coronary arteries causes myocardial infarction

rather than angina?

A- Atherosclerotic lesions

B- Arterial spasm

C- Thrombosis

D- Fatty deposits

ANS:C
Q42: Which of the following occurs with the use of dipherhydramine
(Benadryl)

A- Increased salivation

B- Bronchoconstriction

C- Antagonism of motion sickness

D- Increased capillary permeability

ANS:C

Q43: The maxillary and mandibular definitive casts have been articulated.
The maxillary cast was mounted without a face-bow transfer. If the dentist
were to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm, it would be
necessary to

A- Open the articulator by 4 mm

B- Change the condylar guide settings

C- Obtain a new centric relation record

D- Increase the rest vertical dimension

ANS:C

Q44: The minimum required bony buccolingual ridge width in millimeters for
placement of 4.0 mm root form implants is which of the following?

A- 4

B- 6

C- 8

D- 10

ANS:B
Q45: What is the EXCEPTION to the 5 principles of the ADA Principles of
Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct?

A- Nonmaleficence

B- Competency

C- Justice

D- Veracity

ANS:B

Q46: An articulating paper mark on the lingual incline of the buccal cusp of
the mandibular molar represents which type of interference?

A- Working

B- Non-working

C- Protrusive

D- Retrusive

ANS:B

Q47: Which of the following is most likely to create complications when

making an acrylic resin temporary restoration for a large MOD onlay
preparation?

A- Overextended resin removed

B- Undercuts in the preparation blocked out

C- Completion of polymerization outside the mouth

D- Occlusal surfaces left in slight infraocclusion

ANS:D SOME SUGGEST B, it is not c because it says outside the mouth, check it
Q48: Nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated for patients
A- With anxiety

B- With special health care needs

C- With profound local anesthesia

D- In the first trimester of pregnancy

ANS:D

Q49: Administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen is contraindicated in which of

the following conditions?

A- Asthma

B- Hemophilia

C- Nasal congestion

D- Sickle cell anemia

ANS:C

Q50: A dentist administered a survey to patients to determine their

satisfaction with practice characteristics and services provided. The survey
was administered to patients seen during 1 month. Which type of study
design was used by the dentist?

A- Cross-sectional

B- Cohort

C- Case control

D- Clinical trial

ANS: A
Q51: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the
A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator

B- Anterior guide table of the articulator

C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator

D- Lateral translation of the articulator

ANS : A

Q52: A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the

A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator

B- Anterior guide table of the articulator

C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator

D- Lateral translation of the articulator

ANS: A

Q53: For a patient with myasthenia gravis, which of the following

medications is acceptable?

A- Erythromycin

B- Clarithromycin

C- Imipenem

D- Penicillin

ANS: D
Q54: The gingival around teeth and the mucosa around implants have similar
A- Connective tissue attachments

B- Alignment of collagen fiber bundles

C- Non-keratinized junctional epithelia

D- Distribution of vascular structures apical to the junctional epithelia

ANS:C

Q55: 40-year- old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only defects are deep-
stained grooves in posterior teeth. The grooves are uncoalesced. What is the
treatment of choice?

A- Periodic observation

B- Pit and fissure sealant

C- Preventive resin restoration

D- Application of topical fluoride

ANS:A

Q56: Which of the following conditions is most often characterized by a

painful response that subsides quickly with stimulus

A- Normal pulp

B- Nonvital pulp

C- Reversible pulpitis

D- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

ANS:A because it subsides quickly it is normal , if it took few time then it is

reversible

Q57: Which statement most accurately describes the finish line and margin of
crown?

A- The finish line should be placed in hard dentin when it is possible

B- The crown margin at the gingival crest accumulates the least amount of food
C- The location of the crown margin is more important than the fit and finish

D- The subgingival crown margin may be an etiologic factor in predisposing periodontitis

ANS:D some suggested A still arguing on this , check it

Q58: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount
or extent of

A- Decay

B- Pain

C- Inflammation

D- Pathologic resorption

ANS:C mosbey second edition page 5

Q59: The diagnosis of pulpal status is predicated upon assessing the amount
or extent of

A- Decay

B- Pain

C- Inflammation

D- Pathologic resorption

ANS:C

Q60: Clicking of the dentures during speech most often indicates which of
the following?

A- Inadequate denture retention

B- Decreases occlusal vertical dimension

C- Insufficient interocclusal space

D- Improper buccolingual position of the teeth

ANS:C
Q61: A person best exemplifies active listening by doing which of the
following?

A- Rephrasing the listener’s understanding of the speaker’s communication

B- Using direct eye contact

C- Gathering pertinent information from the speaker quickly and succinctly

D- verifying that the speaker has heard what the listener has said

ANS:B

Q62: Which of the following is the drug of choice for a 5-year-old child with
pain following routine extraction?

A- Aspirin

B- Clindamycin

C- Acetaminophen

D- Codeine

ANS:C

Q63: Which of the following conditions is rarely a symptom of combination

syndrome?

A- Hyperplastic/redundant soft tissues

B- Resorption in the anterior maxilla

C- Increased occlusal vertical dimension

D- Downgrowth of the maxillary tuberosities

ANS:C

Q64: Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of failure of
dental amalgam restorations?

A- Moisture contamination

B- Improper cavity design

C- Improper condensation
D- Inadequate trituration

ANS:A failure is due to moisture contamination , fracture is due to improper cavity design

Q65: Which primary tooth, if lost prematurely, will most frequently result in
space loss?

A- Maxillary canine

B- Maxillary first molar

C- Mandibular second molar

D- Mandibular first molar

ANS: C

Q66: Which of the following explains why proper contouring of the axial
surface of complete cast restorations is extremely important?

A- Retention

B- Occlusal wear

C- Effect on gingival tissue health

D- Ability to provide caries resistance

ANS:C

Q67: Gastric regurgitation causes which of the following in the teeth?

A- Erosion

B- Abrasion

C- Attrition

D- Abfraction

ANS:A

Q68: A 52-year-old female presents with red, glossy, and swollen gingival.
She has denuded and red areas on both buccal mucosae. The lesions have
been present for months and vary from time to time in severity. Which of the
following represents the most probable diagnosis?
A- Vitamin deficiency

B- Linear gingival erythema

C- Erosive lichen planus

D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

ANS: C

Q69: Hyperplastic palatal tissue (papillomatosis) is best treated by

A- Chemical cauterization

B- Radical excision

C- Temporary cessation of denture use

D- Supraperiosteal dissection or electrosursery

ANS: D

Q70: Stridor is diagnostic for

A- Laringospasm

B- Bronchospasm

C- Hypotension

D- Hypothermia

ANS: A

Q71: Which of the following represents the function of occlusal (night)

guards?

A- Reduce mobility

B- Prevent bruxism

C- Increase attachment level

D- Redistribute forces on the teeth

ANS:D it doesn’t prevent bruxism, it eliminates its effects on teeth by distributing forces

Q72: The difference between a 330 carbide bur and 245 carbide bur is
A- The 245 creates sharp line angles whereas the 330 bur creates rounded line angles

B- The head of a 245 bur is narrower than the head of a 330 bur

C- The head of a 245 bur is longer than the head of a 330 bur

D- The 245 is tapered

ANS: C

Q73: Which of the following refers to a decreased occlusal vertical

dimension?

A- Vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal position

B- Occluding vertical dimension that results in a excessive interocclusal clearance when the mandible is
in rest position

C- Insufficient amount of interarch distance because of the bony ridges

D- Condition in which the patient cannot open mandible because of temporomandibular joint pathology

ANS:B

Q74: Which of the following is NOT an indication for removal of a third molar?
A- The presence of bony pathology

B- History of repeated pericoronal infections

C- Prevent crowding and displacement of the incisor teeth

D- Advanced, generalized periodontal disease that endangers the second molar

ANS:C

Q75: The decision to reduce a cusp and restore it should be based primarily
upon which principle?

A- Outline form

B- Retention form

C- Resistance form

D- Convenience form

ANS:C
Q76: A patient says, “I have been avoiding coming to see you because there
is an ugly, red sore spot on the roof of my mouth”. Which of the following
responses by the dentist best exemplifies a reflective response?

A-“Has you diet changed lately”

B-“You really shouldn’t worry about it”

C-“Don’t be afraid, I’ll take a careful look”

D-“You should have had something like that looked at right away”

E-‘It sounds as if you’re quite concerned about this condition”

ANS:E

Q77: Filtration is used in dental x-ray machines to remove

A- Scatter radiation photons

B- High energy electrons

C- Long wavelength photons

D- Low energy electrons

ANS:C

Q78: In examining a maintenance patient, the dentist observes residual

calculus, bleeding on probing, and probing depths less than 5 mm. The
dentist should do which of the following?

A- Scaling and root planing

B- Osseous surgery

C- Continued maintenance

D- Open flap debridement

ANS:D some suggested a , but it is a secondary visit , it means dentist failed to

eliminate all the calculus at the first visit , maybe because improper access or
visualization , so the suggested tt here to open flap for debridement
Q79: Which of the following sealer components interferes with composite
resin polymerization?

A- Zinc oxide

B- Zinc stearate

C- Polyvinyl resin

D- Eugenol

ANS:D

Q80: Which of the following is LEAST important in determining the outline

form a class III composite restoration?

A- Convenience for access

B- Extension for prevention

C- Size, shape, and location of caries

D- Esthetics

ANS:B

Q81: A 9 year old presents with acute gingival pain of four days duration.
There are small, round ulcers on the interproximal gingival and buccal
mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

B- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

C- Apthous stomatitis

D- Gingival abscess

Ans:B or A , STILL NOT CONFIRMED , NUG is not seen in childs nor in buccal
mucosa , and herpes the interdental papillae is intact , so check this please

Q82: Compared to permanent molars, primary molars have

A- Comparatively higher pulp horns

B- Thicker enamel caps

C- Less pronounced cervical constrictions

D- Deeper occlusal fissures

ANS: A

Q83: If there is insufficient space between the maxillary tuberosity and the
retromolar pad, then the dentist should

A- Open the articulator to gain space

B- Avoid covering the pad with the mandibular base

C- Avoid covering the macillary tuberosity

D- Surgically reduce the occlusal aspect of the tuberosity

ANS:D

Q84: Which of the following factors has the LEAST effect on the prognosis of
a periodontally involved tooth?

A- Degree of mobility

B- Suppuration from the pocket

C- Amount of attachment loss

D- Degree of furcation involvement

ANS:B

Q85: Which of the following represents the purpose of periapical palpation?

A- To evaluate the gingival involvement of pulpal disease

B- To determine if the periapical inflammatory process has penetrated the cortical bone

C- To improve the tactile skills of the clinician relative to periapical disease

D-To massage localized swelling of the alveolar tissue to promote drainage

ANS:B

Q86: In treating a tooth with both endodontic and periosontic involment,

which of the following would the dentist perform first?
A- Antibiotic regimen

B- Endodontic therapy

C- Periodontic therapy

D- Endodontic and periodontic therapies should be performed simultaneously

ANS:B endo first

Q87: Pressure on the midpalatine suture will improve

A- Denture retention only

B- Denture stability only

C- Both denture retention and denture stability

D- Neither denture retention nor denture stability

ANS:D it is a relief area

Q88: The incisal guide table is designed to

A- Allow selective grinding of anterior teeth

B- Prevent overclosure of the vertical dimension

C- Prevent posterior cusps from exceeding the condyle angle

D- Protect the function and arrangement of anterior teeth

ANS:D

Q89: Pseudomembranous colitis can occur most readily after prolonged oral
administration of which of the following drugs?

A- Erythromycin

B- Penicillin V

C- Clindamycin

D- Sulfisoxazole

E- Azithromycin

ANS:C
Q90: Trough the bloodborne Pathogen Standard, the Occupational Safety and
Health Administration (OSHA) directs all health-care workers, in carrying out
infection control, to use universal precautions.

- Based on these OSHA guidelines, patients identified as carriers of blood-

borne pathogens require special infection-control considerations

A- Both statements are true

B- Both statements are false

C- The first statement is true, the second is false

D- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS:C

Q91: Which finding would most likely suggest a non-odontogenic toothache?

A- Pain intensified by heat

B- Local anesthesia does not eliminate pain

C- Dull, aching, throbbing pain

D- Pain intensity changing over time

ANS:B

Q92: A patient complains of pain, trismus, fever and dysphagia associated

with and impacted third molar. The best course of action for this patient is

A- Curettage utilizing local anesthesia

B- Prescription of a nonsteroideal anti-inflamatory agent

C- Referral to an oral an maxillofacial surgeon

D- Immediate extraction of the offending tooth

ANS:C

Q93: For the porcelain veneer preparation, the standard amount of tooth
reduction in the middle one third of the facial surface is

A- 0.3 mm
B- 0.5 mm

C- 0.8 mm

D- 1.0 mm

ANS:B

Q94: What should the dentist use to begin managing an apprehensive 5 year
old child?

A- Voice control

B- Oral sedation

C- Tell-show-do technique

D- Nitrous oxide/oxygen conscious sedation

ANS:C

Q95: Sensitivity to cold and pressure 2 weeks after cementation of a

posterior crown is most likely related to

A- Occlusal trauma

B- Luting agent

C- Vertical root fracture

D- Food impaction

ANS:A

Q96: Which form external root resorption is associated with pulpal necrosis?

A- Inflamatory

B- Replacement

C- Surface

D- Idiopathic

ANS:A

Q97: When designing a clinical study, one uses the power of the statistical
test to accomplish which of the following?
A- Measure validity

B- Set the alpha level

C- Reject the null hypothesis

D- Determine sample size

ANS:C

Q98: Which type of root resorption results in ankylosis?

A- Inflamatory

B- Replacement

C- Internal

D- External

ANS:B

Q99: - Which of the following can have prodromal symptoms which mimic
dental pulp pain?

A- Cytomegalovirus infection

B- Herpangina

C- Herpes zoster

D- Primary herpetic stomatitis

ANS: C

Q100: The drug of choice for marked bradycardia is which of the following?
A- Atropine

B- Epinephrine

C- Propanolol

D- Calcium chloride

ANS: A
Q101: Diagnostic radiology is based on which of the following iteractions of
X-radiation with matter?

A- Thompson effect

B- Pair production

C- Photoelectric effect

D- Photonuclear disintegration

ANS:C

Q102: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the connective tissue

graft procedure?

A- Good gingival color match

B- Requirement of two Surgical sites

C- High predictability for root coverage

D- Palatal donor site can be completely sutured closed

ANS:B

Q103: Rubella embryopathy is an example of which of the following causes of

mental retardation?

A- Generic

B- Cultural

C- Acquired

D- Chromosomal

ANS: C

Q104: Which part of the cutting edge of the curet should be adapted to the
line angle of the tooth?

A- Lower third
B- Middle third

C- Upper third

D- Entire cutting edge

ANS:A

Q105: After a patient places an aspirin directly on his oral tissue for an
extended period time, the tissue become white. Which of the following
accounts for this change in color?

A- Edema

B- Necrosis

C- Acanthosis

D- Hyperkeratosis

E- Vasoconstriction

ANS:B

Q106: The complement cascade is activated by the

A- B-cells

B- T-cells

C- Lymphokines

D- Immune complex

ANS:D

Q107: Primary dentition calcification begins at

A- 2 months in utero

B- 4 months in utero

C- 8 months in utero
D- Birth

ANS:B

Q108: Which is the best approach for a a patient who becomes very
uncomfortable when a planned surgical procedure is discussed?

A- Explain post-operative instruction only after the procedure

B- Explain post-operative instructions, obtain informed consent, and help the patient to resolve anxiety
before the procedure

C- Explain and obtain only informed consent before the procedure, and apologize for making the patient
uncomfortable

D- Explain and obtain informed consent before the procedure and explain post-operative instructions
after the procedure

ANS:B you need to relax the patient first , some suggested D , I ll do with b

Q109: A patients with a large composite resin restoration placed 1 year ago
reports sensitivity in the tooth. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?

A- Trauma

B- Fracture of the restoration

C- Microleakage of the restoration

D- Pulpal reaction to the phosphoric acid

ANS: C

Q110: Angioedema is associated with which of the following medications?

A- Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

B- Calcium channel blockers

C- Beta-blockers

D- Diuretics
ANS: A

Q111: Periodontal maintenance following completion of active periodontal

therapy

A- Should only be done by periodontist

B- Should be tailored to the needs of the individual patient

C- Is not a cost-effective approach for ongoing patient care

D- Requires strict adherence to a 6-month interval

ANS:B

Q112: Which pigmented lesion of the oral cavity will resolve spontaneously?

A- Varix

B- Hematoma

C- Ephelis

D- Oral melanocic macule

ANS:B

Q113: - Naltrexone (Revia) can be used

A- To treat strong pain

B- In opioid rehabilitation program

C- To treat diarrhea

D- To manage muscle tremors

ANS: B

Q114: What is the optimal average amount of fluoride, in ppm, for public
drinking water of most communities?

A- 0.5
B- 0.7

C- 1.0

D- 1.2

ANS:C OR B , STILL ARGUING ON THIS ONE

Q115: Which of the following is the most important factor in determining

patient satisfaction with dentures?

A- Dentist-patient relationship

B- Bone height for denture fit

C- Patient personality traits

D- Technical quality of the denture

E- Cultural definitions of esthetics

ANS:E OR C NOT CONFIRMED YET

Q116: After receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block the patient develops a
needle track infection. Which of the following anatomic spaces might have
been involved?

A- Temporal

B- Submandibular

C- Pharyngeal

D- Pterygoid

ANS: D

Q117: Which of the following conditions describes steatorrhea, increased

pulmonary mucous retention, chronic respiratory infections, and functional
disturbance in secretory mechanisms of various glands including elevated
sodium chloride in the sweat?
A- Lead poisoning

B- Cystic fibrosis

C- Juvenile onset diabetes

D- HIV/AIDS

ANS:B

Q118: Which of the following is the diameter, in millimeters, of a 21 mm long,

#35 K-file at D16?

A- 0.35

B- 0.41

C- 0.67

D- 0.74

ANS:C

Q119: Which of the following agents is active against herpes simplex virus,
varicella-zoster virus, and cytomegalovirus?

A- Amantadine (Symmetrel)

B- Zidovudine (Retrovir)

C- Ribavirin (Virazole)

D- Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

ANS: D

Q120: Which of the following would be the best orthognathic surgical option
for a patient that has an 8mm anterior open bite?

A- LeFort I osteotomy

B- Intraoral vertical oblique osteotomy

C- Sagittal split osteotomy

D- Sliding genioplasty

ANS:A

Q121: Some metal elements used in ceramic restorations have been known
to cause reactions in patients. The most common causative element is

A- Cobalt

B- Nickel

C- Chromium

D- Beryllium

ANS:B

Q122: Which of the following analgesics has the greatest margin of safety for
a patient with renal disease?

A- Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B- Flurbiprofen

C- Ibuprofen (Motrin)

D- Ketoprofen

E- Keterolac (Toradol)

ANS:A

Q123: - The epithelium of a free autogenous gingival graft undergoes

degeneration at the recipient site

- Genetic information as to the nature of the epithelium overlying the

connective tissue is contained within the graft connective tissue

A- Both statement are true

B- Both statement are false

C- The first statement is true, the second is false

D- The first statement is false, the second is true

ANS:A

Q124: Tree months ago, an epidemiologist conducted clinical examinations to

assess the dental caries experience of elementary school children. The study
could best described as

A- Retrospective

B- Case- control

C- Cross-sectional

D- Prospective

ANS:C

Q125: Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental X-

ray machine?

A- Oil

B- Lead

C- Aluminum

D- Tungsten

E- Molybdenum

ANS: C

Q126: In arranging the patient’s maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist should
create a pleasant, natural-looking smile line. This can be done by contouring
the incisal edge to follow the

A- Lower lip when smiling

B- Upper lip when smiling

C- Lower lip without smile

D- Upper lip without smile

ANS:A
Q127: Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral
Candidiasis?

A- Erythematous patch

B- White, hyperplastic patch

C- White, curd-like patch

D- Ulcerative patch

ANS:D

Q128: In conducting a patient interview, the dentist should begin by asking

questions that are general, because it provides the patient with a greater
opportunity to express his or her concerns and emotions

A- Both statement and the reason are correct and related

B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

D- The Statement in NOT correct, but the reason is correct

E- NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

ANS:A

Q129: -What pathogenic microbiota is most likely associated with a failing

implant?

A- Gram-positive facultative cocci

B- Gram-negative facultative cocci

C- Gram-negative anaerobic rods

D- Gram-positive anaerobic rods

ANS:C

Q130: What is true regarding wheelchair transfers?

A- A wheelchair-bound patient is often the best source of how to do the transfer
B- The patient should be asked to remove his/her catheter and collection bag before attempting the
transfer

C- The patient’s belt should not be used during transfer process

D- Sliding board transfers continue to be the best approach

ANS: D OR A , STILL INBETWEEN , A ACCORDING TO ADA CODE OF ETHICS , AND

D ACCORDING TO OLD FILES

Q131: Which of the following is NOT true regarding orthodontic tooth

movement?

A- Blood flow within the PDL is altered after force application

B- Pulpal tissue activates a neural response

C- Chemical changes in the compressed PDL stimulate cellular differentiation

D- Oxygen tension is increased in some areas of the PDL and decreased in other areas.

ANS: B

Q132: The dentist places a MOD amalgam restoration on tooth 30. The
patient bites down immediately after carving, and the marginal ridge
fractures easily. Which amalgam properties contributed to this failure?

A- Creep

B- Resilience

C- Edge strength

D- Setting time

ANS: D

Q133- Which of the following is NOT an internal line angle found in a disto-
occlusal (DO) class II cavity preparation?

A- Axio pulpal

B- Axio gingival

C- Distoaxial
D- Mesio facial

ANS:C

Q134- When used for intravenous conscious (moderate) sedation, midazolam

(Versed) produces

A- Amnesia

B- Analgesia

C- Antitussive activity

D- Cardiovascular depression

ANS:A

Q135- Perforation at which of the following sites has the poorest prognosis?
A- At the apex

B- 3mm coronal to the apex

C- 3mm apical to the gingival sulcus

D- 3mm coronal to the gingival sulcus

ANS: C

Q136- Auxilliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as

boxes and grooves should ideally be located?

A- Facially

B- Lingually

C- Occlusally

D- Proximally

ANS: D

Q137- If a local anesthetic without a vasoconstrictor is required, then which

of the following local anesthetics should be used?

A- Procaine
B- Benzocaine

C- Lidocaine

D- Articaine

E- Mepivacaine

ANS: E

Q138- Which of the following causes speech problems in a patient with cleft
palate?

A- Inability of the tongue to close the nasopharyngeal air flow

B- Inability of the soft palate to close the nasopharyngeal air flow

C- Poorly aligned teeth that make articulation difficult

D- Poor nasal resonance because of oroantral fistula

ANS:B

Q139- Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an elastomeric

material for making an interocclusal registration?

A- The material offers too much resistance to the jaw closure

B- The fragility of elastomeric records requires handing with extreme care

C- There is a potential for inaccurate mounting of casts due to rebound of the material

D- The material lacks adequate long term stability

ANS:C

Q140- Which of the following represents the initial consideration in the

treatment planning progress?

A- Medical/systemic evaluation

B- Periodontal evaluation

C- Radiographic evaluation

D- Elimination of pain and discomfort

ANS:A KAPLAN

Q141- Which of the following dental treatments require antibiotic prophylaxis

fot those at risk for infective bacterial endocarditis?

A- Local anesthesic injections

B- Shedding of primary teeth

C- Mucosal or lip lacerations

D- Periapical surgery

ANS:D

Q142- An HIV-infected patient’s viral load is 100,000 and T cell count is 30.
Which of the following statements is true?

A- There is no contraindication to providing treatment

B- The virus is under control suggesting improved ability to resist infection

C- The virus is almost under control and there is low risk for infection

D- The T cell count is low, putting the patient at risk for infection and complications

ANS:D

Q143- What is the most common form of wound healing after a periodontal
flap surgery?

A- Long junctional epithelium

B- New connective tissue attachment

C- Connective tissue adhesion

D- Regeneration of the new periodontal ligament, cementum and bone

ANS: A

Q144- Which of the following statements most describes the purpose of using
sodium hypochlorite during biomechanical preparation?

A- Dissolves necrotic tissue

B- Reduces hemorrhage

C- Produces cavitation

D- Chelates inorganic tissue

ANS:A

Q145- The purpose of electronic pulp testing is to differentiate

A- Various stages of pulpitis

B- Normal pulp from diseased pulp

C- Between pulpitis and periodontitis

D- Between responsive and unresponsive pulpal nerves

ANS:D

Q146- A Patient who has been wearing a maxillary denture for 15 years
notices multiple, reddened, nodular lesions on his palate. The lesions are soft
and painless. The most likely diagnosis is

A- Torus palatinus

B- Epulis fissuratum

C- Nicotinic stomatitis

D- Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

ANS:D

Q147- Which of the following best describes the outcome of and intrapulpal
anesthetic injection?

A- Provides anesthesia by back-pressure

B- Control intrapulpal hemorrhage

C- Does not create any period of discomfort during injection

D- Usually provides anesthesia after 30 seconds of depositing anesthetic

ANS:A
Q148- Smokeless tobacco has NOT been associated with which of the
following?

A- Tooth abrasion

B- Gingival recession

C- Verrucous carcinoma

D- Nicotine stomatitis

E- Squamous cell carcinoma

ANS:D

Q149- Opiates do NOT produce which of the following effects?

A- Diuresis

B- Euphoria

C- Mental clouding

D- Cough suppression

E- Respiratory depression

ANS:A

Q150- What pathogenic microbiota is most likely associated with a failing

implant?

A- Gram-positive facultative cocci

B- Gram-negative facultative cocci

C- Gram-negative anaerobic rods

D- Gram-positive anaerobic rods

ANS: C

Q151- In conducting a patient interview, the dentist should begin by asking

questions that are general, because it provides the patient with a greater
opportunity to express his or her concerns and emotions
A- Both statement and the reason are correct and related

B- Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related

C- The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT

D- The Statement in NOT correct, but the reason is correct

E- NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

ANS:A

Q152- Which of the following is NOT a clinical presentation of oral

Candidiasis?

A- Erythematous patch

B- White, hyperplastic patch

C- White, curd-like patch

D- Ulcerative patch

ANS:D

Q153- In arranging the patient’s maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist should
create a pleasant, natural-looking smile line. This can be done by contouring
the incisal edge to follow the

A- Lower lip when smiling

B- Upper lip when smiling

C- Lower lip without smile

D- Upper lip without smile

ANS: A

Q154- Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental X-

ray machine?

A- Oil

B- Lead

C- Aluminum
D- Tungsten

E- Molybdenum

ANS: C

Q155:A 6-year-old patient exhibits defiant behavior at a recall examination.

Which of the following techniques is indicated for the examination?
A- Conscious sedation

B- General anesthesia

C- Physical restraint

D- Voice control

Ans: D

Q156: Which of the following is the most frequent cause of porosity in a

porcelain restoration?
A- Moisture contamination

B- Excessive firing temperature

C- Rapid cooling

D- Inadequate porcelain condensation

Ans: D

Q157: A 21-year-old male has a painless, compressible and fluctuant, slowy

growing enlargement of the anterior midline of the neck. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Squamous cell carcinoma

B- Branchial cleft cyst

C- Thyroglossal duct cyst

D- Epidermoid cyst
Ans: c

Q158: Which of the images below can best be used to visualize the integrity of
the zygomatic arches?
A- Panoramic

B- Waters view

C- Lateral oblique

D- CT scan

Ans: D

Q159: Dens invaginatus is most commonly associated with which tooth?

A- Maxillary central incisor

B- Mandibular central incisor

C- Maxillary lateral incisor

D- Mandibular lateral incisor

Ans: c

Q160: Which of the following anatomic structures CANNOT be seen on

periapical radiographs?
A- Mental foramen

B- Hamular process

C- Mandibular foramen

D- Anterior nasal spine

E- Intermaxillary (median palatine) suture

Ans: C
Q161: A child watches her older brother receive dental treatment. The dentist
notices that the next time the child is in the dental chair her behavior is greatly
improved. This is an example of

A- Classical conditioning

B- Primary reinforcement

C- Modeling

D- Cognitive coping strategy

Ans: C

Q162: Each of the following is a property of sodium hypochlorite EXCEPT one.

Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A- Chelating agent

B- Lubricating agent

C- Solvent of necrotic tissue

D- Antimicrobial agent

Ans: A

Q163: Patients with Sjogren syndrome are at increased risk for developing

A- Carcinoma

B- Sarcoma

C- Lymphoma

D- Leukemia
Ans: C
164. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a patient with
localized aggressive periodontitis?

A- Dental prophylaxis plus subgingival irrigation

B- Dental prophylaxis

C- Scaling and root planing

D- Scaling and root planing plus systemic antibiotics

Ans: D

165. The strength of a soldered connector is best increased by

A- Using a higher carat solder

B- Electroplating the joint with gold prevent corrosion

C- Increasing its dimension in a direction parallel to the applied force

D- Increasing its dimension in a direction perpendicular to the line applied force

E- Increasing the with of the joint by having a space of at least 0.5 inch between
the parts to be soldered

Ans: C

166.Which of the following odontogenic lesions occurs most frequently

A- Ameloblastoma

B- Odontoma

C- Ameloblastic fibroma

D- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Ans: b OR A .. STILL UNCONFIRMED, I WILL GO WITH B

167: A radiograph of a 12-year-old child’s asymptomatic permanent maxillary
right central incisor reveals an obliterated root canal. Which of the following is
the treatment of choice?

A- Extraction

B- Apicoectomy

C- Endodontic therapy

D- Periodic observation

Ans: D

168: Microscopic suprabasal intraepithelial bullae and acantholysis characterize

which of the following diseases?

A- Pemphigus vulgaris

B- Erythema multiforme

C- Lupus erythematosus

D- Mucous membrane pemphigoid

Ans:A

Q169: A patient with syphilis is highly infectious during which of the following
stages?

A- Secondary stage only

B- Tertiary stage only

C- Primary and secondary stages

D- Primary, secondary, and tertiary stages

Ans: A

Q170: Rising with a new mouthrinse results in a statistically significant decrease

in the Gingival Index (GI) score, but does NOT result in improved oral health for
the patient. This finding suggest which of the following?

A- Non-clinical significance

B- Double-blind study

C- Improper study desing

D- Bias

Ans: A

Q171: Which of the following agents is available in the form of troches for the
topical treatment of oral candidiasis?

A- Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

B- Intraconazole (Sporanox)

C- Clotrimazole (Mycelex)

D- Fluconazole (Diflucan)

Ans:c

Q172: Upon mastication, a patient has severe pain in a mandibular first molar.
Clinical examination reveals furcal bone loss, a sinus tract that is draining
through the sulcus, normal interproximal bone height, and no response to
vitality testing. The treatment of choice is
A- Root canal treatment only

B- Periodontal therapy only

C- Periodontal therapy first, then root canal treatment, should the lesion not
resolve

D- Root canal treatment first, then periodontal therapy, should the lesion not
resolve

ANS: D

Q173: Which of the following is NOT one of the major classes of drugs used to
treat angina?

A- Thiazides

B- Beta-blockers

C- Nitrates and nitrites

D- Calcium channel blockers

ANS:A

Q174: Which of the following can best determine asymptomatic apical

periodontitis?
A- Ice test

B- Radiographs

C- Electric pulp test

D- Transilumination
Ans: B

Q175: Infections arising from the periapical region of mandibular third molars
perforate through the lingual cortex to the

A- Pterygomaxillary space

B- Submental space

C- Sublingual space

D- Submandibular space

Ans: D

Q176: What is the best indicator of periodontal stability over time for the
patient on periodontal maintenance therapy?

A- Plaque control

B- Bleeding on probing

C- Probing depths

D- Attachment levels

Ans: A

Q177: Hypotensive effect and itching from oxycodone is due, in part, to its

A- Allergenicity
B- Release of histamine

C- Antispasmodic effect

D- Cardiac depressant effect

E- Excitation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Ans: b

Q178: A 45-year-old patient has undergone scaling and root planing in all 4
quadrants. The oral hygiene of the patient is excellent but generalized 5 mm
and 6 mm pockets remain that bleed upon probing. What is the next step and
the best treatment for the patient?

A- Periodontal surgery

B- Maintenance therapy

C- local drug delivery

D- additional round of scaling and root planning

Ans: a

Q179: A dentist considers using nitrous-oxide conscious sedation for a patient.

This type of sedation will be contraindicated, however, if the patient has a
history of which of the following?

A- Psychosis

B- Chronic pain

C- Hypertension

D- Dental anxiety
E- Depression

Ans: A

Q180: A patient’s measured stimulated salivary flow volume is 0.5 ml/minute.

The term that best describes this condition is

A- Xerostomia

B- Normal salivary flow

C- Hyposalivation

D- Hypersalivation

Ans:C

q181:Which of the following is NOT true regarding topical fluoride?

A- Promotes remineralization of surface enamel

B- Inhibits bacterial plaque glycolysis

C- Has a direct antibacterial effect on plaque

D- Enhances enamel pt and fissure coalescence

ans:D

Q182:A diabetic child is experiencing insulin shock in a dental office. In

managing this emergency, the dentist should immediately
A- Administer oxygen

B- Have the child drink a glass of orange juice

C- Administer xylitol by mouth

D- Administer insulin

ANS: B

Q183 : An extended course of cortisone therapy can produce

A- Osteoporosis

B- Osteopetrosis

C- Osteoclerosis

D- Osteochondritis

ANS:A

Q184: Which of the following symptoms or clinical findings would indicate that a
tooth has an irreversible pulpitis?

A- Spontaneous toothaches

B- Sensitivity to sweets
C- Radiographic evidence of pulpitis

D- Sensitivity to palpation of the mucoperiosteum

ANS: A

Q185: A patient with hypertension arrives for a scheduled crown preparation

appointment with a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 90
bpm. The initial response by the dentist should be to

A- Call the patient’s physician

B- Reschedule the patient

C- Have the patient take nitroglycerin

D- Wait 15 minutes to re-take vital signs

ANS: D

Q186:A 55-year-old patient with a history of angina pectoris requires extraction

of several teeth. Which of the following should NOT apply to this patient?

A- Preoperative sedation

B- Preoperative sublingual nitroglycerin

C- Preoperative prophylaxis with an antibiotic

D- Limiting the local anesthetic with epinephrine 1:100,000 to 4 ml

ANS:C
Q187:According to ADA recommendations, a professionally applied topical
neutral sodium fluoride application should remain in contact with teeth for

A- 1 minute

B- 2 minute

C- 3 minute

D- 4 minute

ANS:D

Q188: Repeated fracture of a metal ceramic partial fixed dental prosthesis

is primarily caused by
A- Insufficient retention form
B- Improper firing schedule
C- Failure to use a metal conditioner
D- Inadequate framework design

ANS:D

Q189: Which of the following is most likely to result from prolonged use of
antibiotics in children?

A- Candidiasis
B- Histiocytosis X
C- Ulceromembranous stomatitis
D- Lichen planus

ANS:A

Q190: Which of the following mesial root surfaces is unlikely to be

thoroughly cleaned with the use of floss?
 A- Maxillary central incisor
B- Mandibular fist premolar
C- Maxillary first premolar
D- Mandibular first molar

ANS:C

Q191: A posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending

subgingivally. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?

A- Endodontic therapy

B- Crown lengthening surgery

C- Caries excavation
D- Crown fabrication

ANS:b or c

Q192: Which characteristic is most frequently associated with

osteoradionecrosis?

A- Maxillary location
B- History of radiation therapy with 42.50 Gy (4,250 rads)
C- History of bisphosphonate usage
D- Mandibular location

ANS:mostly d

Q193: What is the most likely cause for hemorrhage 3 day after removal of a
mandibular third molar?

A- Vascular fragility
B- Platelet deficiency
C- Prothrombin deficiency
D- Fibrinolysis

Ans: D

Q194: A posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending subgingivally. Which
of the following is the best initial treatment?

A- Endodontic therapy
B- Crown lengthening surgery
C- Caries excavation
D- Crown fabrication

ANS:b or c?

Q195: The primary etiologic factor associated with periodontal

attachment loss in a furcation is the presence of
A- Occlusal trauma
B- Accessory root canals
C- Oral biofilm
D- Cervical enamel projections

ANS:C

Q196: A patient has received a new mandibular removable dental prosthesis. Soon
afterward, the throat of this patient becomes sore. Which of the following has
probably caused this soreness?

A- An overextension of the distofacial flange

B- An overextension of the distolingual flange
C- An impingement of the lingual bar upon the patient’s lingual frenum
D- An insufficient relief provided for the lingual bar

ANS:B
Q197: An 82-year-old presents as new dental patient. The son provides paperwork
that names the patient’s guardian. How will that impact the dentit’s approach to
care?

A- Does not impact care if a first degree relative has brought the patient to the
office
B- The guardian must be consulted for consent to treat the patient
C- The patient may provide consent to care
D- The guardianship applies to consent involving only irreversible procedures

ANS:B

Q198: The access opening for a maxillary central incisor of a 14-year-old patient is
triangular in shape

A- To establish straight line access

B- Due to the shape of the crown
C- To include any remnants of pulp horns within the access opening
D- To facilitate the final restoration of the access opening

Ans:c

Q199: 20mg doxycycline hyclate’s primary mechanism of action is

A- Breackdown of the phospholipid bilayer

B- Inhibition of DNA gyrase
C- Inhibition of the 50s ribosomal subunit
D- Inhibition of collagenase
Ans:d

Q200: Which of the following would be the first step to perform during
a reevaluation appointment?
 A- Establish a plan for maintenance intervals
B- Identify need for additional therapy
C- Update medical history
D- Determine plaque index
Ans:c
STILL NOT CONFIRMED

Q201: A patient has a 7-years-old chipped porcelain veneer on tooth 9

and desires to have the veneer repaired instead of replaced. Which of the
following should be done to the porcelain before repairing with
composite?

A- Pumice, etch, bonding resin, silanate

B- Sandblast, etch, bonding resin
C- Silanate, pumice, bonding resin
D- Micro-etch, etch, silanate, bonding resin

Ans:d

Q202: Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ) is used for bronchial asthma

because it

A- Has a short duration of action

B- Stimulates beta adrenergic receptors in the lung
C- Produces little adrenal suppression when administered by inhalation
D- Is only effective orally
E- Is less potent than cortisol

Ans: A

Q203: What would be found in a patient with untreated acromegaly?

A- Excessive mandibular growth
B- Excessive maxillary growth
C- An anterior deep bite
D- A posterior open bite

Ans:a