Form Number : Paper Code

(0999DMD310318012) )/999DMD31/318/12)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019
Test Type : Half Syllabus Test # 12 Test Pattern : NEET-UG
TEST DATE : 16 - 12 - 2018
Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
bl ijh{kk iq fLrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,s A
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku ij
cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkjS nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 180 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 720 gSaA
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwyVs j ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gAS
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 4 vad gSaA iz R;s d xyr mÙkj ij 1 va d dkV fy;k tk,xkA mÙkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gSA
7. Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen Only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
mfpr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys vkSj dkys ckWy ikWbUV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank.
;fn vki fdlh iz'u dks gy djus dk iz;kl djrs gSa rks mfpr xksys dks uhps n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlkj xgjk dkyk djsa vU;Fkk mls [kkyh NksM+ nsaA
Correct Method (lgh rjhdk) Wrong Method (xyr rjhdk)

9. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
Ïi;k mÙkj iqfLrdk dks eksM+s ugha vkSj bl ij fdlh izdkj dk fu'kku u yxk;saA
10. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
ijh{kkFkhZ mÙkj iqfLrdk ij fdlh izdkj dk jQ dk;Z uk djsaA
11. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
mÙkj ifjorZu dh vuqefr ugha gSA
12. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
is fUly dk iz;ks x loZ Fkk oftZr gSA
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
lqfuf'pr djsa fd OMR mÙkj iqfLrdk ij fujh{kd vkSj ifj{kkFkhZ (Lo;a) ds gLrk{kj fd, x;s gksaA

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91-744-2757575 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

TOPIC : Rotational Motion, Alternating current, Electromagnetic Waves, Thermal Physics (Thermal Expansion,
Calorimetry, Heat Transfer, KTG & Thermodynamics), Ray optics and optical Instruments, Properties of
matter and Fluid Mechanics, Wave optics (Nature of Light , Interference, Diffraction & Polarization), Gravitation,
Oscillations (SHM, damped and forced oscillations & Resonance), Modern Physics, Wave Motion and Doppler's
Effect, Semiconductor and Digital Electronics.

1. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 1. tc ,d Nr ij yxk ia[kk ?kw.kZu djuk izkjEHk djrk g]S ;g
10 rotations in first 3 seconds, How many igys 3 lsd.M esa 10 pDdj iwjs djrk g]S rks ;g vxys
rotations will it make in the next 3 seconds. 3 lsd.M esa fdrus pDdj iwjs dj ysxkA
(Assume uniform angular acceleration) (fu;r dks.kh; Roj.k ekus)
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40 (3) 30 (4) 40
2. The given figure shows a disc of mass M and 2. M nzO;eku ,oa R f=T;k dh ,d pdrh fp=kuqlkj x-y ry
radius R lying in the x-y plane with its centre on esa j[kh gS ftldk dsUnz x-v{k ij ewy fcUnq ls a nwjh ij
x axis at a distance a from the origin. then the
g]S rks x v{k ds lkis{k pdrh dk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gksxk%&
moment of inertia of the disc about the x-axis is:-

y
y

R
R x
x
a
a

æ R2 ö æ R2 ö æ R2 ö æ R2 ö
(1) M ç ÷ (2) M ç ÷ (1) M ç ÷ (2) M ç ÷
è 2 ø è 4 ø è 2 ø è 4 ø

æ R2 ö æ R2 ö æ R2 ö æ R2 ö
(3) M ç + a2÷ (4) M ç + a2÷ (3) M ç + a2÷ (4) M ç + a2÷
è 4 ø è 2 ø è 4 ø è 2 ø

M M
3. A cockroach of mass is start moving, with 3. nzO;eku dk ,d dkWdjksp V osx ls 'M' nzO;eku o
2 2
velocity V on the circumference of a disc of mass 'R' f=T;k dh pdrh dh ifjf/k ij ?kweuk izkjEHk djrk gS
'M' and 'R', what will be angular velocity of disc?
pdrh dk dks.kh; osx fdruk gksxk\
V V
(1) (2) V V
R 2R (1) (2)
R 2R

V 2V
(3) (4) V 2V
4R R (3) (4)
4R R

0999DMD310318012 LTS-1/31

4. A cylinder of mass M and radius r is mounted on
a frictionless axle over a well. A rope of negligible
mass is wrapped around the solid cylinder and a
bucket of mass m is suspended from the rope. The
linear acceleration of the bucket will be :-
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
4. M nzO;eku o r f=T;k dk ,d csyu ?k"kZ.kghu v{k ij ,d
dq,sa ds Åij yxk gAS ,d nzO;ekughu jLlh csyu ds Åij
fyiVh gS ftl ij m nzO;eku dh ckYVh fp=kuqlkj yVdh
gAS rks ckYVh dk jfS [kd Roj.k gksxk%&

M M

T T
bucket m ckYVh m

2mg mg 2mg mg
(1) a = (2) a = (1) a = (2) a =
M + 2m M+m M + 2m M+m
mg Mg mg Mg
(3) a = (4) a = (3) a = (4) a =
M + 2m M + 2m M + 2m M + 2m
r r
5. A force F = (2iˆ – ˆj + 3k)
ˆ is acting at a point
5. ,d cy F = (2iˆ – ˆj + 3k)
ˆ fcUnq (–1, 2, – 3) ij dk;Zjr
(–1, 2, – 3) . Find its torque about the origin :- gS rks ewy fcUnq ds lkis{k cy vk?kw.kZ gksxk%&
(1) 3iˆ – 3jˆ + 2kˆ (2) 3(iˆ – ˆj - k)
ˆ
(1) 3iˆ – 3jˆ + 2kˆ (2) 3(iˆ – ˆj - k)
ˆ
ˆ ˆ
(3) i – 3j + k ˆ (4) 3(iˆ + ˆj – k)
ˆ (3) ˆi – 3jˆ + kˆ ˆ ˆ
(4) 3(i + j – k) ˆ
6. In a choke coil, the reactance XL and resistance R 6. pkdS dq.Myh esa izfr?kkr XL rFkk izfrjks/k R bl izdkj gksrs
are such that :- gS fd :-
(1) XL = R (2) XL >> R (1) XL = R (2) XL >> R
(3) XL << R (4) XL = ¥ (3) XL << R (4) X L = ¥
7. In a series circuit C = 2mF, L = 1mH and R = 10W. 7. ,d LCR Js.kh ifjiFk esa C = 2mF, L = 1mH o
When the current in the circuit is maximum, at R = 10W, ml le; tc ifjiFk esa /kkjk vf/kdre g]S
that time the ratio of the energies stored in the la/kkfj= esa lafpr ÅtkZ ,oa izsjd esa lafpr ÅtkZ dk vuqikr
capacitor and the inductor will be :- gksxk :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
8. The resistance of a coil for DC is in 5 ohms. In 8. fn"V /kkjk ds fy;s fdlh dq.Myh dk izfrjks/k 5 ohms gAS
A.C., the resistance :- izR;korhZ /kkjk ds fy;s izfrjks/k :-
(1) will remain same (2) will increase (1) leku gksxk (2) c<+ tk;sxk
(3) will decrease (4) will be zero (3) de gks tk;sxk (4) 'kwU; jgsxk
9. In a transistor the base is made very thin and is 9. VªkaftLVj esa vk/kkj cgqr iryk j[kk tkrk gS rFkk blesa v'kqf¼
lightly doped with an impurity because- dk vifeJ.k cgqr de fd;k tkrk gS ] bldk dkj.k g&S
(1) to enable the collector to collect 95% of the
(1) mRltZd ls vkus okys bysDVªkWuksa ;k gksyksa dk 95%
holes or electrons coming from the emitter
side laxzkgd }kjk laxzfgr djus esa l{ke cukus ds fy;s
(2) to enable the emitter to emit small number of (2) mRltZd dks vYi la[;k esa gksy ;k bysDVªkWuksa dk mRltZu
holes or electrons
djus esa l{ke cukus ds fy;s
(3) to save the transistor from higher current
effects (3) VªkaftLVj dks mPp /kkjk ds izHkko ls cpkus ds fy;s
(4) none of the above (4) mDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

LTS-2/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
10. When 0.93 watt-hour of energy is supplied to a 10. 10g cQZ ds CykWd dks 0.93 watt-hour ÅtkZ nh tkrh
block of ice weighing 10 g, it is found that : g]S rc :
(1) half of the block melts (1) vk/kk CykWd fi?ky tk,xkA
(2) entire block just melts (2) iwjk CykWd fi?ky tk,xkA
(3) entire block melts & water reaches 4oC (3) vk/kk CykWd fi?kydj ikuh 4oC rd igq¡p tk,xkA
(4) block remain unchanged (4) CykWd eas dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksxkA
11. 10 g of ice at –20oC is dropped into a calorimeter 11. ,d dSyksjhekih esa 10ºC ij 10g ikuh g]S blesa –20oC
containing 10 g of water at 10ºC. The specific heat dk 10 g cQZ Mkyk tkrk gSA ikuh dh fof'k"V Å"ek cQZ
of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium dh nqxuh gAS tc lkE;koLFkk izkIr gks tkrh g]S dSyksjhekih
is reached, the calorimeter will contain :- esa gksxk :-
(1) 20 gm of water (1) 20 gm ikuh
(2) 20 gm of ice (2) 20 gm cQZ
(3) 10 gm ice and 10 gm of water (3) 10 gm cQZ o 10 gm ikuh
(4) 5 gm ice & 15 gm water (4) 5 gm cQZ rFkk 15 gm ikuh
12. A gas deviates maximum from the ideal gas law 12. dksbZ xSl] vkn'kZ xSl ls vf/kdre fopfyr dc gksxh :
at : (1) mPp rki o mPp nkc
(1) high temp & high pressure
(2) fuEu rki o fuEu nkc
(2) low temp & low pressure
(3) mPp rki o fuEu nkc
(3) high temp & low pressure
(4) low temp & high pressure (4) fuEu rki o mPp nkc
13. If mass-energy equivalence is taken into account, 13. nzO;eku&ÅtkZ dk rqY;akd dks ekurs gq ,] ;fn ikuh cQZ
when water is cooled to from ice. The mass of es cnyrk g]S rks ikuh dk nzO;eku &
water should (1) c<sxk
(1) increase
(2) ?kVsxk
(2) decrease
(3) ogh jgsxk
(3) remains same
(4) first increase then decrease (4) igys c<sxk fQj ?kVsxk
14. Two ends of roads of length L and radius r of the 14. L yEckbZ o r f=T;k dh NM+h ds dksus leku rki ij gAS
same material are kept at the same temperature fuEu esa ls dkSulh NM+ lcls T;knk Å"Ekk izokg djsxh\
which of the following rod conducts most heat? (1) L = 50 cm; r = 1 cm
(1) L = 50 cm; r = 1 cm
(2) L = 100 cm; r = 2 cm
(2) L = 100 cm; r = 2 cm
(3) L = 25 cm; r = 0.5 cm
(3) L = 25 cm; r = 0.5 cm
(4) L = 75 cm; r = 1.5 cm (4) L = 75 cm; r = 1.5 cm
15. A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by 15. ikuh eas 12 lseh dh xgjkbZ ij ,d eNyh] >hy ds fdukjs
an observer on the bank of a lake. To what height ij [kMs+ ,d izs{kd }kjk ns[kh tkrh gAS eNyh dk izfrfcEc
the image of the fish is raised? (Refractive index fdruh Å¡pkbZ rd Åij mBrk gS ?
of lake water = 4/3) :- (>hy ds ikuh dk viorZukad = 4/3 g)S :-
(1) 9 cm (2) 12 cm (1) 9 lseh (2) 12 lseh
(3) 3.8 cm (4) 3 cm (3) 3.8 lseh (4) 3 lseh

0999DMD310318012 LTS-3/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
16. A glass concave lens is placed in a liquid in which 16. dk¡p ds ,d vory ysUl dks æo eas j[kk x;k gS ftlesa
it behaves like a convergent lens. If the refractive ;g mÙky ysUl ds tlS k O;ogkj djrk gAS ok;q ds lkis{k
indices of glass and liquid with respect to air are ;fn dk¡p vkSj æo es viorZukad Øe'k% aµg vkjS aµl ga]S
a
µg and aµl respectively, then:- rc :-
(1) aµg = 5 aµl (2) aµg > aµl (1) aµg = 5 aµl (2) aµg > aµl
(3) aµg < aµl (4) aµg = 2 aµl (3) aµg < aµl (4) aµg = 2 aµl
17. In the diagram, a prism of angle 30° is used. A 17. fp= esa fizTe dks.k 30° gS rFkk fdj.k PQ dk vkiru fn[kk;k
ray PQ is incident as shown. An emergent ray RS x;k gSA f}rh; eq[k ls fuxZr fdj.k RS gAS fopyu dks.k
emerges perpendicular to the second face. The
gS :-
angle of deviation is :-
A
A
30°
30°

Q S
Q S R
R
30°
30°
P B C
P B C
(1) 0° (2) 60°
(1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) 30° (4) 45° (3) 30° (4) 45°
18. A myopia patient uses :- 18. fudV n`f"V nks"k dk jksxh iz;ksx djrk gS :-
(1) Convex lens (1) mÙky ysUl
(2) Concave lens (2) vory ysUl
(3) Cylindrical lens (3) csyukdkj ysUl
(4) Bifocal lens (4) f}Qksdl ysUl
19. The force required to punch a square hole 2 cm 19. ,d bLikr dh 2 mm eksVkbZ dh pknj esa] 2cm Hkqtk dk
side in steel sheet 2 mm thick is :- oxkZdkj fNnz djus ds fy,] cy dh vko';drk gksxh
(shearing stress of steel sheet = 3.5 × 108 N/m2) (bLikr dk vi:i.k izfrcy = 3.5 × 108 N/m2) :-
(1) 5.6 × 104 N (2) 3.4 × 104 N (1) 5.6 × 104 N (2) 3.4 × 104 N
(3) 9.1 × 104 N (4) 6.8 × 104 N (3) 9.1 × 104 N (4) 6.8 × 104 N
20. An 8m long copper wire and 4m long steel wire, 20. ,d 8 m yEck rkacs dk rkj vkSj 4 m yEck bLikr ds rkj
each of cross section 0.5 cm2 are fastened end to dks Js.kh Øe esa tksM+k tkrk gS rFkk izR;sd rkj dk vuqizLFk
end and stretched by 500 N force. The elastic dkV {ks=Qy 0.5 cm2 gSA ;fn rkjksa ds fudk; dks 500 N
potential energy of the system is :- cy ls [khapk tkrk g]S rks fudk; dh izR;kLFk fLFkfrt ÅtkZ
gksxh :-
(Youngs mod : Y cu = 1×10 11 N/m 2 ,
(Youngs mod : Y cu = 1×10 11 N/m 2 ,
Ysteel = 2×1011 N/m2) :-
Ysteel = 2×1011 N/m2) :-
(1) 1/4 J (2) 1/3 J (1) 1/4 J (2) 1/3 J
(3) 1/2 J (4) 1 J (3) 1/2 J (4) 1 J
LTS-4/31 0999DMD310318012

21. A solid sphere of specific gravity 27 has a
concentric spherical cavity and it just sinks in
water. The ratio of cavity radius to that of outer
radius of sphere is :-
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
21. '27' fof'k"V xq:Ro okys xksys esa ,d ladUs nzh; xqfgdk g]S
;g ikuh esa iw.kZ :i ls Mqck gqvk rjS jgk gAS xksys esa xqgk
dh f=T;k o ckgjh f=T;k dk vuqikr gksxk :-

(28)1/3 (30)1/3 (28)1/3 (30)1/3

(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 3 3 3

(26)1/3 (24)1/3 (26)1/3 (24)1/3

(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
22. Water flows out of the hole on the side of a bucket 22. ,d ikuh ls Hkjh gq , ckYVh dh nhokj es a gq , fNnz ls
and follows a parabolic path. If the bucket falls ikuh] ,d ijoy; iFk cukrs gq , fudyrk g SA vc
freely under gravity, ignoring air resistance, the ;fn ckYVh xq : Rokd"kZ . k ds rgr Lora= :i ls fxjrh
water flow :-
gS rks ] ikuh :-
(1) follows a straight line path relative to falling
(1) ckYVh ds lkis { k ,d ljy js [ kk xeu djrs gq ,
bucket
fudysx k
(2) follows a parabolic path relative to the falling
bucket (2) ckYVh ds lkis{k ijoy; xeu djrs gq, fudysxk

(3) decreases but continue to flow (3) igys ls dqN de fudysxk

(4) stop flowing (4) :d tk;sxk
23. Two soap bubbles of radii 3r and 4r in contact 23. nks lkcqu ds cqycqys ftudh f=T;k¡, Øe'k% 3r vkjS 4r gS
with each other. The radius of curvature of the ijLij lEidZ esa vkrs gAS nksuksa ds chp mHk;fu"B vkUrfjd
interface between bubbles is :-
lrg dh oØrk f=T;k gksxh :-
(1) 3r (2) 3.5r (1) 3r (2) 3.5r
(3) 12r (4) r (3) 12r (4) r
24. A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit which 24. ins Z ls fLyV dh nw jh 50 cm gS ftl ij 6000 Å
is illuminated with 6000 Å. If distance between rjaxn/S ;Z dk izdk'k vkifrr fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn igys rFkk
first and third minima in the diffraction pattern rhljs fuEuf"B foorZu fÝat ds e/; nwjh 3 mm gAS rks fLyV
is 3mm. What is the width of the slit ?
dh pkM
S +kbZ D;k gksxh\
(1) 2 mm (2) 0.2 mm (1) 2 mm (2) 0.2 mm
(3) 2 cm (4) 2 m (3) 2 cm (4) 2 m
25. A beam of electron is used in Y.D.S.E. The slit 25. ;ax ds iz;ksx esa bysDVªku dk iqat vkifrr fd;k tkrk gAS
width is d. When velocity of electron is increased ;fn fLyV dh pkMS +kbZ d gS rks bysDVªku dk osx c<+kus ij:-
then:-
(1) O;frdj.k ugh gksxk
(1) No interference is observed
(2) fÝat pkM
S +kbZ c<+sxh
(2) Fringe width increases
(3) fÝat pkM
S +kbZ ?kVsxh
(3) Fringe width decreases
(4) Fringe width remain same (4) fÝat pkSM+kbZ cjkcj jgsxh

0999DMD310318012 LTS-5/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
26. Two polaroid are oriented with their planes 26. nks /kzqodks ds ikjxeu v{k ds e/; dks.k 30o gAS ;fn igys
perpendicular to incident light and transmission /kzqod ij v/kzqfor izdk'k vkirhr gksrk gS rks nwljs /kzqod
axis making an angle 30o with each other. What
ls v/kzqfor izdk'k dk fdruk izfr{kr ikjxfer gks tk,sxk:-
fraction of incident unpolarised light is
transmitted:- (1) 37.5 % (2) 12.5 %
(1) 37.5 % (2) 12.5 %
(3) 25 % (4) 50 %
(3) 25 % (4) 50 %
27. In Y.D.S.E. using red & blue lights of wavelengths 27. ;ax ds iz;ksx esa yky rFkk uhys jax dk rjaxns/Z ;Z 7800 Å rFkk
7800 Å and 5200 Å nth red fringe coincides with 5200 Å gAS ;fn yky jax dk nth pedhyh fÝat uhys dh
(n + 1)th blue fringe value of n is :- (n + 1)th pedhyh fÝat ls lEikfrr gksrh gS rks n dk eku
(1) 2 (2) 3 gS :-
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
28. Which of the following statements are true about 28. xq:Roh; Roj.k ds ckjs esa lgh dFku@dFkuksa dks pqfu;sA
acceleration due to gravity? (a) ;fn r > R gks rks dsUnz ls nwj tkus ij g dk eku ?kVrk gAS
(a) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre
if r > R (b) ;fn r < R gks rks dsUnz ls nwj tkus ij g dk eku ?kVrk gAS
(b) 'g' decreases in moving away from the centre (c) i`Foh ds dsUnz ij g dk eku 'kwU; gksrk gSA
if r < R (d) ;fn i`Foh viuh v{k ij ?kw.kZu djuk can dj ns rks g
(c) 'g' is zero at the centre of earth
dk eku ?kVrk gSA
(d) 'g' decreases if earth stops rotating on its axis
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a), (b) & (c) (1) (a) o (b) (2) (a), (b) o (c)
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (a), (b) (c) & (d) (3) (a) o (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) o (d)
29. A thin rod of length L is bent to form a semicircle. 29. L yEckbZ dh ,d iryh NM+ dsk eksM+dj ,d v/kZoÙ` k dk
The mass of rod is M. What will be the :i nsrs gaAS NM+ dk æO;eku M gAS o`Ùk ds dsUæ ij xq:Roh;
gravitational potential at the centre of the circle? foHko dk eku D;k gksxk ?
GM GM GM GM
(1) - (2) - (1) - (2) -
L 2pL L 2pL

pGM pGM pGM pGM

(3) - (4) - (3) - (4) -
2L L 2L L
30. Two bodies performing SHM have same 30. nks oLrq leku vk;ke o leku vko`fÙk ls ljy vkorZ xfr
amplitude and frequency. Their phases at a certain djrh gAS ,d fuf'pr {k.k ij mudh dyk fp=kuqlkj g]S
instant are as shown in the figure. The phase
muds e/; dykUrj g%S &
difference between them is
æ 2 –1ö
æ 2 –1ö ® çç ÷ A¬
®ç
ç
÷ A¬
è 2 ÷ø
è 2 ÷ø
(–x) (+x)
(–x) (+x) O
O
(–x) (+x)
(–x) (+x) æ 2 – 1ö O
æ 2 – 1ö O ®ç ÷ A¬
®ç ÷ A¬ ç 2 ÷ø
ç 2 ÷ø è
è

2p 2p
(1) p (2) (1) p (2)
3 3

p 3p p 3p
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 4 2 4

LTS-6/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
31. Dispacement time graph of a particle executing 31. ljy vkorZ xfr djrs gq, ,d d.k dk foLFkkiu le;
SHM is as shown in the figure. Corresponding xzkQ fp=kuqlkj gAS blds laxr fLFkfrt ÅtkZ rFkk le;
graph between PE and time is :-
x dk xzkQ gS %&
x

t
t

PE PE
PE PE

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
t t
t
t

PE PE
PE PE

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
t t t
t

32. A particle executing SHM of amplitude 4 cm and 32. ,d d.k 4 cm vk;ke rFkk T = 4s ls ljy vkorZ xfr
T = 4s. The time taken by it to move from +2 cm djrk gAS blds }kjk +2 cm ls +2 3 cm rd tkus esa
to +2 3 cm is :- fy;k x;k le; gS %&
(1) 1s (2) 1/3 s (1) 1s (2) 1/3 s

3 3
(3) 2/3 s (4) s (3) 2/3 s (4) s
2 2
33. A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron from 33. ÅtkZ E dk ,d QksVkWu] dk;Z Qyu W0 dh /kkrq lrg
a metal surface whose work function is W0. If ls ,d QksVks bysDVªkWu fudkyrk gSA ;fn ;g bysDVªkWu ,d
this electron enters into a uniform magnetic field leku pqEcdh; {ks= B esa {ks= dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ izos'k
of induction B in a direction perpendicular to the djrk gS rFkk f=T;k r dk o`Rrh; iFk cukrk g]S rc f=T;k
field and describes a circular path of radius r, then r dk eku gksxk %& (O;ogkfjd ladsr esa )
the radius r, is given by (in the usual notation)
(1) 2m(E – W0 )
(1) 2m(E – W0 )
eB
eB

(2) 2m(E – W0 )eB (2) 2m(E – W0 )eB

2e(E – W0 ) 2e(E – W0 )
(3) (3)
mB mB

2m(E – W0 ) 2m(E – W0 )
(4) (4)
eB eB
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34. The energy that should be added to an electron, 34. bysDVªku dh Mh&czkXs yh rjaxn/S ;Z 10–10 m ls 0.5 × 10–10m,
to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from rd ?kVkus ds fy;s bls nh xbZ ÅtkZ gksxh %&
10–10 m to 0.5 × 10–10 m, will be :- (1) izkjfEHkd ÅtkZ dh pkj xquh
(1) Four times the initial energy
(2) izkjfEHkd ÅtkZ dh rhu xquh
(2) Thrice the initial energy
(3) izkjfEHkd ÅtkZ ds cjkcj
(3) Equal to the initial energy
(4) Twice the initial energy (4) izkjfEHkd ÅtkZ dh nqxuh
35. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. 35. ,d jsfM;ks/kehZ inkFkZ dh v¼Zvk;q 20 feuV gS mu le;
Difference between points of time when it is 33% fcUnqvksa dk vUrj D;k gS tc og Øe'k% 33% o 67%
disintegrated and 67% disintegrated is yxHkx fo?kfVr g%S &
approximately :- (1) 10 feuV (2) 20 feuV
(1) 10 min (2) 20 min
(3) 30 feuV (4) 40 feuV
(3) 30 min (4) 40 min
36. The binding energy per nucleon of O16 is 7.97 36. O16 dh izfr U;wfDyvkWu cU/ku ÅtkZ 7.97 MeV gS vkjS
MeV and that of O17 is 7.75 MeV. The energy O17 dh 7.75 MeV gAS O17 ls ,d U;wVªkWu gVkus ds fy;s
(in MeV) required to remove a neutron from O17 vko';d ÅtkZ MeV esa gksxh %&
is :- (1) 3.52 (2)3.64
(1) 3.52 (2)3.64
(3) 4.23 (4) 7.86
(3) 4.23 (4) 7.86
37. While measuring the speed of sound by 37. vuqukn LrEHk iz;ksx }kjk /ofu dh pky ekius dk iz;ksx
performing a resonance column experiment, a djrs le; lfnZ;ksa ds fnuksa esa fdlh fo|kFkhZ dks izFke vuqukn
student gets the first resonance condition at a voLFkk 18 cm LrEHk yEckbZ ij izkIr gksrh gAS xfeZ;ksa esa
column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating blh iz;ksx dks nksgjkus ij f}rh; vuqukn ds fy, og vuqukn
the same experiment during summer, she LrEHk dh yEckbZ x cm ekirh gAS rks :-
measures the column length to be x cm for the (1) x > 54
second resonance. Then :- (2) 54 > x > 36
(1) x > 54 (2) 54 > x > 36 (3) 36 > x > 18
(3) 36 > x > 18 (4) 18 > x (4) 18 > x
38. A light pointer fixed to one prong of a tuning fork 38. fdlh Lofj= dh ,d Hkqtk ij fLFkr gYdh uksd ,d ÅèokZèkj
touches a vertical plate. The fork is set vibrating IysV dks Li'kZ djrh gAS Lofj= dks nksyu djkrs gaS ,oa IysV
and the plate is allowed to fall freely. If eight dks Lora=rkiwoZd uhps fxjk;k tkrk gAS tc IysV 10 cm
oscillations are counted when the plate falls uhps fxj tkrh gS rc rd Lofj= ds 8 nksyu iw.kZ gksrs gaAS
through 10 cm, the frequency of the tuning fork Lofj= dh vko`fÙk gS :-
is :- (1) 360 Hz (2) 280 Hz
(1) 360 Hz (2) 280 Hz
(3) 560 Hz (4) 56 Hz
(3) 560 Hz (4) 56 Hz
39. The stationary wave y = 2a sin kx coswt in a 39. fdlh ruh gqbZ Mksjh esa y = 2a sin kx coswt }kjk O;Dr
stretched string is the result of superposition of vizxkeh rjax] y1 = asin(kx – wt) rFkk --------- ds
y1 = asin(kx – wt) and :- v/;kjksi.k dk ifj.kke gS :-
(1) y2 = a cos(kx + wt) (1) y2 = a cos(kx + wt)
(2) y2 = a sin(kx + wt) (2) y2 = a sin(kx + wt)
(3) y2 = a cos(kx – wt) (3) y2 = a cos(kx – wt)
(4) y2 = a sin(kx – wt) (4) y2 = a sin(kx – wt)

LTS-8/31 0999DMD310318012

40. Two pipes are each 50 cm in length. One of them
is closed at one end while the other is open at
both ends. The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1.
The frequency at which both the pipes can
resonate is :-
(1) 680 Hz (2) 510 Hz
(3) 85 Hz (4) None of these
41. In ne and vd be the number of electrons and drift
velocity in a semiconductor. When the
temperature is increased :-
(1) ne increases and vd decreases
(2) ne decreases and vd increases
(3) Both ne and vd increases
(4) Both ne and vd decreases
42. A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop
of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA
when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a
limiting resistor R. The value of R is :-
(1) 40 kW (2) 6 kW (3) 200 W (4) 400 W
43. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge
carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon
P-N junctions are :-
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
44. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence
electrons each. At room temperature which one of
the following statements is most appropriate :-
(1) The number of free conduction electrons is
significant in C but small in Si and Ge
(2) The number of free conduction electrons is
negligible small in all the three
(3) The number of free electrons for conduction
is significant in all the three
(4) The number of free electrons for conduction is
significant only in Si and Ge but small in C
45. The forbidden energy gap in Ge is 0.72 eV. Given,
hc = 12400eV – Å. The maximum wavelength
of radiation the will generate electron electron
hole pair is :-
(1) 172220Å (2) 172.2Å
(3) 17222Å (4) 1722Å
0999DMD310318012
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
40. 50 lseh okys leku yEckbZ dh nks ufy;k¡ gaSA muesa ls ,d
uyh ,d fljs ij cUn gS tcfd nwljs ds nksuksa fljs [kqys gaSA
ok;q esa /ofu dh pky 340 eh@lsd.M gAS nksuksa ufy;k¡
fdl vko`fÙk ij vuqukn dj ldrh gSa ?
(1) 680 Hz (2) 510 Hz
(3) 85 Hz (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
41. ;fn ne rFkk vd Øe'k% v¼Zpkyd esa bysDVªkWu dh la[;k
,oa vuqxeu osx gks rks rkiØe c<+kus ij :-
(1) ne c<+rk gS ,oa vd ?kVrk gS
(2) ne ?kVrk gS ,oa vd c<+rk gS
(3) nksuksa ne ,oa vd c<+rs gS
(4) nksuksa ne ,oa vd ?kVrs gaS
42. ,d izdk'k mRlthZ Mk;ksM (LED) ds fljksa ds e/; foHkokUrj
2 volt ,oa mlesa izokfgr /kkjk 10 mA gAS tc Mk;ksM ,d
lhekar izfrjks/k R o 6 volt dh cVS jh ds lkFk dk;Zjr gAS
rc izfrjks/k R dk eku gS :-
(1) 40 kW (2) 6 kW (3) 200 W (4) 400 W
43. PN laf/k Mk;ksM dh vxz ,oa i'p vfHkufr esa vkos'kksa dh
xfr dk izHkkoh rjhdk gS :-
(1) vxz vfHkufr esa vuqxeu ,oa i'p vfHkufr esa folj.k
(2) vxz vfHkufr es a folj.k ,oa i'p vfHkufr es a
vuqx eu
(3) vxz ,oa i'p nksuksa esa folj.k
(4) nksuksa vfHkufr esa vuqxeu
44. dkcZu] flfydkWu ,oa teZfs u;e izR;sd esas la;ksth bysDVªkWu
dh la[;k pkj gAS rc dejs ds rkieku ,o fuEufyf[kr
dFkuksa esa ls lgh dFku gS :-
(1) C esa eqDr pkyu bysdVªkuW ksa dh la[;k i;kZIr gAS fdUrq
Si ,oa Ge esa U;wu gksrh gAS
(2) lHkh rhuksa esa eqDr pkyu bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k ux.;
gksrh gAS
(3) lHkh rhuksa esa eqDr pkyu bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k i;kZIr
gksrh gAS
(4) eqDr pkyd bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k dsoy Si ,oa Ge esa
i;kZIr gksrh gS fdUrq C esa U;wu gksrh gAS
45. Ge es a oftZ r ÅtkZ vUrjky 0.72 eV rFkk
hc = 12400eV – Å gAS vr% bysDVªkuW fooj ;qXe ls mRiUu
vf/kdre fofdfjr rjaxn/S ;Z gS :-
(1) 172220Å (2) 172.2Å
(3) 17222Å (4) 1722Å
LTS-9/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
TOPIC : p-Block Elements, Group 13 elements, Group 14 elements, Group 15 elements, Group 16 elements,
Group 17 elements, Group 18 elements, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, REDOX
REACTIONS, HYDROGEN, ORGANIC CHEMISTRY–SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES,
HYDROCARBONS, Aromatic Hydrocarbons, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohol, Phenol and Ether,
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY, Organic Compounds
Containing Nitrogen : Amines, Cyanides and Isocyanides, Diazonium salts, Polymers : Classification,
Biomolecules : Carbohydrates, Proteins, Hormones, Vitamins, Nucleic Acids, Chemistry in Everyday Life,
Coordination Compounds, d and f Block Elements, Lanthanoids, Actinoids, s–BLOCK ELEMENTS (Alkali
and Alkaline Earth Metals), STATES OF MATTER
46. The oxidation number and co-ordination 46. K[Co(CO)4] esa dksckYV dh vkWDlhdj.k vad rFkk leUo;
number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is :- la[;k gS :-
(1) +1, 4 (2) 0, 4 (3) –1, 8 (4) –1, 4 (1) +1, 4 (2) 0, 4 (3) –1, 8 (4) –1, 4
47. In [Fe(CO)5], the Fe–C bond has :- 47. [Fe(CO)5] esa Fe–C ca/k esa gS :-
(1) p character only (1) dsoy p xq.k
(2) s character only (2) dsoy s xq.k
(3) ionic character only (3) dsoy vk;fud xq.k
(4) both p and s character (4) nksuksa p rFkk s xq.k
48. The crystal field stabilisation energy of 48. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 dh fØLVy {ks= LFkk;hdj.k ÅtkZ gS :-
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is :-
(1) –7.2 D0 (2) –0.4 D0 (3) –2.4 D0 (4) –3.6 D0 (1) –7.2 D0 (2) –0.4 D0 (3) –2.4 D0 (4) –3.6 D0
49. The overall complex dissociation equilibrium 49. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ gsrq lEiw.kZ fo;kstu lkE; fu;rkad D;k gksxk
constant for the complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion will
q dk (b4 = 2.1 × 1013) b4 = la;kstu fu;rkad
;fn bl lady
be ( b 4 for this complex is 2.1 × 10 13 )
b4 = association constant (1) 4.7 × 10–14 (2) 2.1 × 1013
(1) 4.7 × 10–14 (2) 2.1 × 1013
(3) 11.9 × 10–2 (4) 2.1 × 10–13 (3) 11.9 × 10–2 (4) 2.1 × 10–13
50. Which of the following considered to be an 50. fuEu esa ls fdls izfr dsalj Lih'kht ds :i esa tkuk tkrk
anticancer species ? gS ?
H2O Cl H3N Cl H2O Cl Cl
H3N
(1) Pt (2) Pt (1) Pt (2) Pt
H2O Cl Cl NH3 H2O Cl Cl NH3
Cl CH2 Cl NH3 Cl CH2 Cl NH3
(3) Pt CH2 (4) Pt (3) Pt CH2 (4) Pt
Cl Cl Cl NH3 Cl Cl NH3
Cl
51. In the concentration of PbS containing ZnS as 51. PbS ftlesa ZnS v'kqf¼ ds :i esa mifLFkr gks] ds lkUnz.k
impurity the depressant used is– esa iz;qDr gksus okyk volknd g&S
(1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4 (3) PbSO4 (4) aniline (1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4 (3) PbSO4 (4) ,fuyhu
52. One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by 52. ,d xlS vip;u }kjk Qwyks ds jax dks foajftr djrh gS tcfd
reduction while the other by oxidation, the two nwljh xl S vkWDlhdj.k }kjk djrh g]S rks nksuksa xl
S s Øe'k% gksxh:-
gases respectively are :-
(1) CO rFkk Cl2 (2) H2S rFkk Br2
(1) CO and Cl2 (2) H2 S and Br2
(3) NH3 and SO3 (4) SO2 and Cl2 (3) NH3 rFkk SO3 (4) SO2 rFkk Cl2
53. What is not true about borax ? 53. cksjDs l ds ckjs esa vlR; g\
S
(1) Molecular formula is Na2B4O7.10H2O (1) v.kq lw = Na2B4O7.10H2O gSA
(2) Crystalline borax also contains tetra nuclear unit (2) fØLVyh; cksjDs l] prq% ukfHkdh; bdkb;ksa ls Hkh cuk gAS
(3) It hydrolyses to give an acidic solution (3) ;g tyh; vi?kfVr gksdj] vEyh; foy;u cukrk gS
(4) White crystalline solid (4) ;g 'osr fØLVyh; Bksl gS

LTS-10/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
54. Pyrosilicate ion is : 54. ik;jksflfydsV vk;u gS %
(1) SiO22– (2) SiO42– (3) Si2 O67– (4) Si2O76– (1) SiO22– (2) SiO42– (3) Si2O6 7– (4) Si2O76–
55. Concentrated H2SO4 is not used to prepare HBr 55. KBr ls HBr dk fuekZ.k djrs le; lkaæ H2SO4 dk mi;ksx
from KBr because it :- ugha djrs D;ksafd :-
(1) Oxidizes HBr to Br2 (1) HBr, Br2 es vkDlhÏr gks tkrk gAS
(2) Reduces HBr (2) HBr vipf;r gksrk gAS
(3) Causes disproportionation of HBr (3) HBr ds fo"kehdj.k ds dkj.k
(4) Reacts too slowly with KBr (4) KBr ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k vfr/kheh gksrh gAS
56. Dry bleaching is done by :- 56. 'kq"d fojatu fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk gksrk gS :-
(1) Cl 2 (2) SO2 (3) O3 (4) H2O 2 (1) Cl 2 (2) SO2 (3) O3 (4) H2O 2
57. Which of the following statement is not true for 57. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh iafDr vf/kdka'k {kkjh; /kkrqvksa ds fy, lgh
most of the alkali metals. ugha gAS
(1) Their nitrates decomposes on heating to (1) buesa ukbVªVs xeZ djus ij fo?kfVr gks tkrs g]Sa rFkk lacaf/kr
give the corresponding nitrites and oxygen ukbVªkbV vkjS vkWDlhtu iznku djrs gSaA
(2) Their chlorides are deliquescent and (2) buds DyksjkbM+ çLos| gksrs gaS] vkSj budss gkbMsªV dh rjg
crystalline as hydrates fØLVyh; gksrs gaAS
(3) They react with water to form hydroxide (3) ;g ty ls vfHkfØ;k djds gkbMªkv s kWDlkbM+ rFkk gkbMªkts u
and hydrogen iznku djrs gaSA
(4) They readily react with halogens to form (4) ;g gsykstu ls fØ;k djds vk;fud gsykbM+ M+X– iznku
ionic halides M+X– djrs gaAS
58. In CO 2 , C is sp hybridised using s and p x 58. CO2 esa C, s rFkk px d{kdkas dk mi;ksx djrs gq, sp ladfjr
orbitals then : g]S rc :
(1) CO2 is present in YZ plane (1) CO2, YZ ry eas mifLFkr gAS
(2) CO2 is not present in XY plane (2) CO2, XY ry esa mifLFkr ugha gAS
(3) Pz orbital of O is used for s bonding (3) O dks Pz d{kd s cU/ku esa dke esa vkrk gAS
(4) CO2 is present in infinite planes (4) CO2 vuUr ryksa esa mifLFkr gksrk gAS
59 Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution, due 59 Cu+ vk;u tyh; foy;u esa LFkk;h ugh jgrk gS &
to–
(1) d10 foU;kl ds dkj.k
(1) d10 configuration
(2) disproportionation (2) fo"kekuqikrhdj.k ds dkj.k

(3) less charge (3) fuEu vkos'k ds dkj.k

(4) pseudo inert gas configuration (4) Nne vfØ; xSl foU;kl ds dkj.k
60. In dilute alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to– 60. ruq {kkjh; foy;u esa MnO4– fdl ;kSfxd@vk;u esa
ifjofrZr gks tkrk g&S
(1) MnO42– (2) MnO2
(1) MnO42– (2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO (3) Mn2O3 (4) MnO
–
61. In test of NO 3 ion, the dark brown ring 61. NO3– vk;u ds ijh{k.k esa ,d Hkwjs jax dk tfVy ladqy
complex is formed which is wrong of this curk gS] bl ladqy ds lnaHkZ esa xyr gS ?
complex ?
(1)The colour is due to charge transfer spectra (1) vkos'k LFkkukarj.k LisDVªe dh otg ls jax mRiUu gksrk gS
(2) Iron and NO both have +1 charge (2) vk;ju ,oa NO ij +1 vkos'k gS
(3) The complex species can be represented as (3) ladqy dks iznf'kZr dj ldrs gS [FeI(H2O)5NO]2+
[FeI(H2O)5NO]2+
(4) Fe dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk +2 gS ,oa NO mnklhu gS
(4) Iron has +2 oxidation state and NO is neutral
0999DMD310318012 LTS-11/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
62. Which of the following mixtures of gases at 62. fuEu esa ls dkSulk xSlksa dk feJ.k lkekU; rki ij MkYVu
room temperature does not obey Dalton's law ds vkaf'kd nkc ds fu;e dk ikyu ugh djrk ?
of partial pressure ?
(1) He ,oa O2 (2) NH3 ,oa HCl
(1) He and O2 (2) NH3 and HCl
(3) H2 and He (4) N2 and He (3) H2 ,oa He (4) N2 ,oa He
63. The rate of diffusion of two gas x and y is 63. nks xSa l ks a x ,oa y ds folj.k dh nj 10 ml/sec ,oa
10 ml/sec and 40 ml/sec respectively then ratio 40 ml/sec gks rks muds eksyj nzO;ekuksa dk vuqikr gS :-
of their molar masses is :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
64. P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O ¾® 3NaH2PO2 + PH3 is 64. P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O ¾® 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
an example of :- mijksDr vfHkfØ;k fdldk mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Inter molecular Redox reaction (1) vUrj v.kqd jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k
(2) Intra molecular Redox reaction (2) vUr% v.kqd jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k
(3) Disproportionation Redox reaction (3) fo"kehdj.k jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
65. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 65. ,d eksy Sn+2 ls K2Cr2O7 ds fdrus eksy vipf;r
1 mol of Sn+2 :- gksaxs\
1 1 2 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 1
6 3 3 6 3 3
66. Which of the following alkane is synthesized 66. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh ,Ydsu oqVZ~t vfHkfØ;k }kjk ,dy ,fYdy
from single alkyl halide by wurtz reaction ? gy
S kbM }kjk la'ysf"kr gksrk gS ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

O O
–C–H –CH 3 –C–H –CH 3
67. 67.
HO HO HO HO

Which of the following can be used in above fuEu esa ls dkSu mij nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k ds fy;s vfHkdeZd
reaction as a reagent ? ds :i esa mi;ksx dj ldrs gS ?
– –
(1) Red P + HI (2) NH2 – NH2 + OH (1) Red P + HI (2) NH2 – NH2 + OH
(3) Zn–Hg+HCl (4) All of above (3) Zn–Hg+HCl (4) All of above
68. Which of the following will not gives one 68. fuEu esa ls dsoy ,d ,dy Dyksjks O;qRiUu mRikn izkIr ugha
monochloro product :- gksrk gS :-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

LTS-12/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018

CH3 CH3
Ph H ¾¾¾¾®
alc. KOH Ph H ¾¾¾¾®
alc. KOH
69. (E 2reaction) Major product of 69. (E 2reaction) vfHkfØ;k dk eq [;
Ph Br Ph Br
CH3 CH3

the reaction is :- mRikn gS :-

Ph CH3 Ph Ph Ph CH3 Ph Ph
(1) C=C (2) C=C (1) C=C (2) C=C
Ph CH3 CH3 CH3 Ph CH3 CH3 CH3

CH3 Ph Ph–CH–CH–Ph CH3 Ph Ph–CH–CH–Ph

(3) C=C (4) (3) C=C (4)
Ph CH3 Ph CH3
CH3 OH CH3 OH
70. 1-Alkyne and 2-alkyne can be destinguished 70. 1- ,Ydkbu rFkk 2- ,Ydkbu dks fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk
by :- foHksfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS :-
(1) Tollen's reagent (1) Tollen's reagent
(2) Baeyer's regent (2) Baeyer's regent
(3) Br2 / CCl4 (3) Br2 / CCl4
(4) Hydrogenation over Ni (4) Hydrogenation over Ni
71. Acetylene reacts with a 42% H 2SO4 solution 71. ,lhfVyhu ,d foy;u ftlesa 42% H2SO4 ,oa 1%
containing 1% HgSO4 to give : HgSO4 gaS] ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k }kjk nsrh gS &
(1) C2H5HSO4 (2) CH 2=CH2 (1) C2H5HSO4 (2) CH 2=CH2
(3) CH3CHO (4) HCHO (3) CH3CHO (4) HCHO
72. In the following Reaction the product (A) 72. fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn (A)
Å Å
N ºN Cl NH2 N ºN Cl NH2
Å Å
+ H + H
(A) is :- (A) gS :-
yellow dye yellow dye

(1) N N NH (1) N N NH

NH2 NH2

(2) N N (2) N N

NH2 NH2
(3) N N (3) N N

(4) N N NH2 (4) N N NH2

0999DMD310318012 LTS-13/31
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73. Polymer Having amide linkage is :- 73. ,ekbM fyadst okyk cgqyd dkSu lk gS :-
(1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Terylene (1) ukbZyksu 6,6 (2) Vsjhfyu
(3) Teflon (4) Bakelite (3) Vs¶yksu (4) csdy s kbZV
74. In a Lassaignes’s test for sulphur in the organic 74. ,d dkcZfud ;kSfxd esa mifLFkr lYQj ds yslkXus ijh{k.k
compound with sodium nitroprusside solution esa lksfM;e ukbVªksizqlkbM foy;u ds lkFk cSaxuh jax fuEu
the purple colour formed is due to - dkj.k gksrk gS &
(1) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]4– (2) [Fe(CN)5 S]2– (1) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]4– (2) [Fe(CN)5 S]2–
(3) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]2– (4) [Fe(CN)6 ]4– (3) [Fe(CN)5 NOS]2– (4) [Fe(CN)6 ]4–
75. Glucose does not react with :- 75. Xywdkst fuEu esa ls fdlls vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk gS :-
(1) Phenyl hydrazine (2) 2, 4–DNP (1) Phenyl hydrazine (2) 2, 4–DNP
Θ Θ
(3) CH3–OH/HÅ (4) HCN / O H (3) CH3–OH/HÅ (4) HCN / O H
76. Which one of the following is reducing sugar? 76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vipk;d 'kdZjk g\ S
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (1) LVkpZ (2) lsY;w yksl
(3) Glycogen (4) Fructose (3) Xykbdkstu (4) ÝDVkst
77. Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vitamin:- 77. LdohZ jksx fdl foVkfeu dh deh ls gksrk gaS :-
(1) B2 (2) B12 (1) B2 (2) B12
(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
O O O O
– –
HO / D
HO / D
78. CH3– C –CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2– C –H¾¾¾® (A) ; 78. CH3–C –CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C –H ¾¾¾® (A) ;
(73%) (73%)

Product (A) is :- mRikn (A) gS :-

O O
O C–CH3 O C–CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

O O
CH3 C–CH3 CH3 C–CH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CHO CHO
79. Which of the following pair is differentiated by 79. dkSuls ;qXe dks vk;MksQkWeZ ijh{k.k ls vyx dj ldrs gS &
iodoform test ? O O
O O (1)
(1)
O O
O O (2) C
(2) C H 3C H H H
H 3C H H H
O
O
O (3)
O Ph H H–C–H
(3)
Ph H H–C–H O O
O O I
(4) CH2–I CH
(4) I I
CH2–I CH
I
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80. In the following sequence of reactions 80. vfHkfØ;k ds fuEu vuqØe esa
P + I2 Mg HCHO H2O P + I2 Mg HCHO H2O
CH 3 CH 2 OH A
Ether
B C D, CH 3 CH 2 OH A
Ether
B C D,

then compound 'D' is - ;kSfxd 'D' g-S

(1) butanal (2) n–butyl alcohol (1) C;wVsusy (2) n–C;wfVy ,Ydksgy
(3) n–propyl alcohol (4) propanal (3) n–izksfiy ,Ydksgy (4) izksisusy
81. Which of the following is/are aromatic :- 81. fuEu esa ls ,sjksefs Vd gS :-

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

(1) Only a (2) b, c (1) ds oy a (2) b, c

(3) a, b, c (4) All (3) a, b, c (4) lHkh
82. Incorrect order is :- 82. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk Øe lgh ugha gS :-
COOH COOH COOH COOH
NO2 NO2
(1) > (Acidic strength) (1) > (vEyh; lkeF;Z)

NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

CH 3 CH 3
(2) > (Basic strength) (2) > ({kkjh; lkeF;Z)

CH3 CH3
– – – –
(3) CH3–C–O > CH3–CH2 (Stability) (3) CH3–C–O > CH3–CH2 (LFkkf;Ro)
CH3 CH3

(4) > (Heat of Hydrogenation) (4) > (gkMªkstuhdj.k dh Å"ek)

83. Arrange the following in correct order of 83. fuEu ds LFkkf;Ro ds lgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft, –
stability–
CH2CH3
CH2CH3

(1) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II) (1) (III) > (I) > (IV) > (II)
(2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II) (2) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III) (3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (I) > (II) (4) (III) > (IV) > (I) > (II)

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84. The major product in reaction is :- 84. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa :-
O
O Con. HNO 3 + H2SO4
Con. HNO 3 + H2SO4 C O D
?
C O ?
D
eq[; mRikn gS &
O O
C O C O
(1) (1)
NO2 NO2
O O
(2) O 2N C O (2) O 2N C O
O O
C O (3) C O
(3)
NO2 NO2
O O
(4) NO2 (4) C O NO2
C O

85. Correct order of reactivity towards E.S.R. for 85. fuEufyf[kr esa bysDVªkWu Lusgh vfHkfØ;k (E.S.R.) ds izfr
following compound is :- fØ;k'khyrk dk Øe gS :-
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(i) (ii) (i) (ii)

OMe OMe

CHO CHO CHO CHO

(iii) (iv) (iii) (iv)

NO2 NO2

(1) i > iii > ii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv (1) i > iii > ii > iv (2) ii > i > iii > iv
(3) i > iv > iii > ii (4) iv > ii > iii > i (3) i > iv > iii > ii (4) iv > ii > iii > i
86. Which one is most stable conformers of 86. n-C;wVsu dk lcls LFkk;h la:i.k leko;oh gS ?
n-butane?
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH3
H
CH 3 CH3
H
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
H H H
H H
H H H H H
H H
H H

CH3 CH 3 CH3 CH 3
H H H H H H

(3) (4) (3) (4)

H H H H
H CH H CH
H H 3 CH 3 H H 3
CH 3

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87. Which of the following compound does not 87. fuEu esa ls dkSu T;kferh leko;ork ugha n'kkZrk gS :-
show geometrical isomerism :-
CH3
CH3
(1) (2)
(1) (2) CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3 Cl
Cl (3) (4) C
(3) (4) C CH3 H
CH3 H

OMe OMe

88. nHI(vkf/kD; es)a

88. nHI(excess)

OMe MeO OMe

MeO

Value of n in above reaction is : mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa n dk eku gS :

(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6
89. Which of the following ether is not produced 89. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk fofy;elUk bZFkj la'ys"k.k ls ugha cuk ldrs
by williamson ether synthesis :- gS\
CH3 CH3
(1) CH3–C–O–CH=CH 2 (2) Ph–O (1) CH3–C–O–CH=CH 2 (2) Ph–O
CH3 CH3

(3) CHºC–O–CH=CH2 (4) All of these (3) CHºC–O–CH=CH2 (4) All of these

CH2–Cl CH2–Cl
Å
Å Ph–S Na
90.
Ph–S Na 90. (A)
(A)

Br Br
mRikn (A) dh lajpuk gS :-
Structure of product (A) is :-
Cl SPh
Cl SPh

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

SPh Br
SPh Br
SPh
SPh

(3) (4) dksbZ ugha

(3) (4) None

SPh
SPh

0999DMD310318012 LTS-17/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
TOPIC : PLANT PHYSIOLOGY : Transport in plants: Mineral nutrition:Photosynthesis:Respiration: Plant
growth and development: Enzyme :ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION : Biology and Human Welfare : Health
and Disease; Apiculture and Animal husbandry (Domestication of Animals).Human Physiology-I : Digestion
and absorption;Breathing and Respiration:Body fluids and circulation: Excretory products and their
elimination, Human excretory system, Ecology and environment & Demography, Ecosystem, Biodiversity
and its conservation: Environmental issues: Human Physiology-II : Locomotion and Movement: Neural
control and coordination: eye and ear. Chemical coordination and regulation, Endocrine gland.
91. Site of light reaction in C3-plant :- 91. C3-ik/S kksa esa çdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k LFky g&S
(1) Thylakoid (2) Stroma (1) Fkk;ysdkWbM (2) LVªksek
(3) Matrix (4) Outer membrane (3) vk?kk=h (4) cká f>Yyh
92. How many photon are required for evolution 92. ,d v.kq O2 ds fu"dklu ds fy, fdrus QkWVksu dh
of 1 molecules O2 :- vko';drk gksxh&
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
93. How many ATP are required for fixtation of 1 93. ,d CO2 v.kq ds fLFkjhdj.k ds fy, fdrus ATP vko';d
CO2 in C3 cycle during carboxylation step :- gksxh C3 pØ ds dkcksZDlhyhdj.k in esa&
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0
94. In C4 plant PEPcase enzyme involve in :- 94. C4 ik/S kksa esa PEPcase bUtkbe 'kkfey gksrk g&
S
(1) Carboxylation (1) dkcksZDlhyhdj.k esa
(2) Decarboxylation (2) fodkcksZDlhyhdj.k esa
(3) Oxidation (3) vkWDlhdj.k esa
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation (4) vkWDlhdkjh fodkcksZDlhyhdj.k esa
95. In which light minimum action spectrum of 95. dkuS ls çdk'k jax esa çdk'k la'ys"k.k dk ,Dlu LiDVªe fuEure
photosynthesis will occur :- gksxk&
(1) Blue (2) Red (1) uhyk (2) yky
(3) Green (4) Yellow (3) gjk (4) ihyk
96. Which of following is final e– acceptor in lactic 96. yfS DVd fd.ou esa vafre e– xzkgh g&S
acid fermentation :-
(1) ikb:fod vEy (2) bFksuksy
(1) Pyruvic acid (2) Ethanol
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) O2 (3) ,lhVyMkbM (4) O2
97. How many net ATP produced during glycolysis 97. ik/S kksa esa ok;oh; 'olu ds nkjS ku xykbdksykbfll in esa fdruh
of aerobic respiration in plant :- ATP dk fuekZ.k gksxk&
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 10 (1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 8 (4) 10
98. Oxidation of NADH in Alcoholic fermentation 98. ,Ydksgksfyd fd.ou esa NADH ds vkWDlhdj.k ls cusxk&
will produce :- (1) 3 ATP (2) C 2H5OH
(1) 3 ATP (2) C 2H5OH
(3) CH3CHO (4) Lactic acid (3) CH3CHO (4) yfS DVd vEy
99. How many O 2 molecule are required for 99. ,d v.kq QkWLQksVªk;kst ds iw.kZ vkWDlhdj.k ds fy, fdruh
complete oxidation of one molecule of O2 v.kq dh vko';drk gksxh&
phosphotriose :- (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
100. S reduced + S' oxidised®S oxidised + S' 100. S reduced + S' oxidised®S oxidised + S'
reduced Which of the following enzyme reduced fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,Utkbe Åij fn;s x;s vfHkfØ;k
catalyze above reaction : dks mRizsfjr djrk gS :
(1) Transferases (2) Dehydrogenases (1) Transferases (2) Dehydrogenases
(3) Hydrolases (4) Lyases (3) Hydrolases (4) Lyases

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101. Which of the following is not true about 101. fuEu eas ls dkuS lk ¶yks,e ds fy, lgh ugha gS :
phloem
(1) ¶yks,e ik/S ks esa Hkkstu ds LFkkukUrj.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
(1) Phloem is responsible for food translocation
gksrs gaAS
in plant
(2) Direction of movement in the phloem can (2) ¶yks,e esa xfr dh fn'kk Åij ;k uhps dh vksj gksrh gAS
be upward or downward (3) ¶yks,e jl gkeksZu rFkk vehuks vEy dks Hkh LFkkukUrfjr
(3) Phloem sap also transport hormones and djrk gAS
amino acid
(4) Transpiration pull act in phloem (4) ok"iksRltZu f[kapko ¶yks,e esa dk;Z djrk gAS
102. The water potential of Imbibants is : 102. vUr%pw"k.k dk ty foHko gksrk gS :
(1) Highly positive (2) Zero (1) vR;f/kd /kukRed (2) 'kwU;
(3) Highly negative (4) Always positive (3) vR;f/kd ½.kkRed (4) lnoS /kukRed
103. Plant obtain hydrogen from : 103. ikni gkbMªkt
s u dgk¡ ls ysrs gaS :
(1) Soil (2) From atmosphere (1) e`nk (2) okroj.k ls
(3) HCO3– (4) H2O (3) HCO3– ls (4) H2O ls
104. Which GA was first gibberellin to be 104. loZiFz ke [kkstk x;k GA dkSulk Fkk :
discovered : (1) GA1 (2) GA2
(1) GA1 (2) GA2
(3) GA3 (4) GA4 (3) GA3 (4) GA4
105. Cytokinin and auxin are antagonistic in which 105. vkfDlu o lkbVksdkfuu fuEu esa ls fdl dk;Z essa fojks/kh
of the following function : gS :
(1) Cell division (2) Phototropism (1) dksf'kdk foHkktu (2) izdk'k dfydk
(3) Apical dominance (4) Geotropism (3) 'kh"kZ izeq[krk (4) xq:Rodkfyrk
106. Water potential of plasmolysed cell will be : 106. thoæO; dqafpr dksf'kdk dk ty foHko gksxk :
(1) y w = –y s + y p (2) y s = y p (1) y w = –y s + y p (2) y s = y p
(3) y w = 0 (4) y w = –y s – y p (3) y w = 0 (4) y w = –y s – y p
107. Co-factors are : 107. lgdkjd gaS :
(1) Non protein organic molecules (1) uku izksVhu dkcZfud v.kq
(2) Certain vitamins (2) fuf'pr foVkfeu
(3) Metallic ions (3) /kkfRod vk;u
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
108. Excess of Mn causes deficiency of : 108. Mn dk vkf/kD; fdldh deh dks mRiUu djrk gS :
(1) Fe (2) Mg (1) Fe (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) All of these (3) Ca (4) mijksDr lHkh
109. Synapsids were derived from early reptiles. 109. lkbufS IlM~l vkjfEHkd ljhliZ ls mRiUu gq , rFkk bUgh
These synapsids gave rise to : lkbufS IlM~l ls vkxs mn; gqvk :
(1) Pelycosaur, therapsids and mammals (1) ifS ydkslkWj] Fksjfs IlM~l rFkk Lru/kkjh dk
(2) Dinosaurs, thecodonts, crocodile (2) MkbukslkjS ] FkSdksMkWUV rFkk exjePN dk
(3) Modern reptile and bird (3) vk/kqfud ljhl`i rFkk i{kh dk
(4) Modern reptile, dinosaurs and bird (4) vk/kqfud ljhl`i] MkbukslkSj rFkk i{kh dk
110. Jaw less fish probably evolved around : 110. tcM+s jfgr eNfy;k¡ laHkor% fodflr gqbZ :
(1) 320 mya (2) 500 mya (1) 320 mya (2) 500 mya
(3) 350 mya (4) 200 mya (3) 350 mya (4) 200 mya

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111. During biological evolution which one of the 111. tfS od fodkl ds nkjS ku fuEu esa ls dkSu igys cuk :
following formed first : (1) izkVs ksly
s
(1) Protocell
(2) bvksck;ksUV
(2) Eiobiont
(3) jlk;uLo;aiks"kh
(3) Chemoautotrophs
(4) Protobiont (4) izksVksck;ksUV

112. Which of the following was not explained by 112. fuEu esa ls fdldks MkfoZu us ugh le>k;k Fkk ?
Darwin ? (1) ;ksX;re dk vkxeu
(1) Arrival of fittest (2) izkÏfrd oj.k
(2) Natural selection
(3) mÙkjthfork ds fy, la?k"kZ
(3) Struggle for existance
(4) vR;f/kd iztuu
(4) Over reproduction
113. Sugar glider does not show adaptive radiation 113. Sugar glider fdlds lkFk vuq dwyh fofdj.k dks ugha
with :- n'kkZrk :-
(1) Kangaroo (1) Kangaroo
(2) Tiger cat (2) Tiger cat
(3) Flying squirrel
(3) Flying squirrel
(4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
(4) (1) and (2) both
114. gkMhZ osucxZ fl¼kUr vlQy gks tkrk g]S tc :-
114. Hardy Weinberg Principle fails when :-
(A) (p + q) ¹ 1
(A) (p + q) ¹ 1
(B) (p + q)2 ¹ 1
(B) (p + q) ¹ 1
2

(C) thudks"k ¹ constant.

(C) Gene pool ¹ constant.
(D) Gene migration occur in a population. (D) fdlh lfe"V ds thu iyk;u ls
(E) Natural selection occur in a population. (E) fdlh lfe"V esa izkÏfrd oj.k ls
(F) Dominant allele frequency ¹ Recessive
(F) izHkkoh vyhy vko`fÙk ¹ vizHkkoh vyhy vko`fÙk
allele frequency
(1) A, C, D, E, F (2) A, C, D, E (1) A, C, D, E, F (2) A, C, D, E
(3) A, B, C, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E, F (3) A, B, C, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E, F
115. Mark the incorrect, about their origin :- 115. mRifr ds vk/kkj ij xyr dk p;u djs :-
(1) Dryopithecus (a) 15 mya (1) Mªk;ksfifFkdl (a) 15 mya
(2) Homo erectus (b) in 1891 (2) gkseks bjsDVl (b) 1891 esa
(3) Homo sapiens (c) 75000 years ago (3) gkseks lsfi;al (c) 75000 o"kZ igys
(4) Australopithecus (d) 2 mya (4) vkLVªsyksfifFkdl (d) 2 mya
116. Toxoid is included in which of the 116. Toxoid dks fdl izdkj dh izfrj{kk esa lfEefyr fd;k x;k
following :- gS :-
(1) Natural active aquired immunity (1) izkÏfrd lfØ; vftZr izfrj{kk
(2) Natural passive aquired immunity (2) izkÏfrd fuf"Ø; vftZr izfrj{kk

(3) Artificial active aquired immunity (3) Ïf=e lfØ; vftZr izfrj{kk

(4) Artificial passive aquired immunity (4) Ïf=e fuf"Ø; vftZr izfrj{kk

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117. Which of the following disease is known as 117. fuEu esa ls dkSulk jksx dqdqj [kkalh ds uke ls tkuk tkrk
whooping cough ? gS ?
(1) Pneumonia (2) Pertusis (1) U;qeksfu;k (2) ijV~;qfll
(3) Common cold (4) Emphysema (3) lkekU; tqdke (4) ,EQkblsek

118. Sabin vaccine is :- 118. ^lsfcu* Vhdk gS :-

(1) IPV (2) MMR (1) IPV (2) MMR

(3) BCG (4) OPV (3) BCG (4) OPV

119. Which of the following cells plays an important 119. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh ,ythZ esa egRoiw.kZ ;ksxnku nsrh gS ?

role in allergy ?
(1) TK dksf'kdk (2) NK dksf'kdk
(1) TK cell (2) NK cell
(3) ekLV dksf'kdk (4) IykTek dksf'kdk
(3) Mast cell (4) Plasma cell
120. Which one of the following statements is 120. ,M~l ds lUnHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lR; gS :-
correct with respect to AIDS :- (1) HIV lgk;d T-yfldk.kq esa izos'k djrk gS vr% mudh
(1) The HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes thus la[;k esa deh djrk gAS
reducing their numbers
(2) laØfer O;fDr ds lkFk [kkuk [kkus ls HIV QSy ldrk
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating
gSA
food together with an infected person
(3) vk"S k/k O;luh O;fDr eas HIV laØe.k dh U;wure laHkkouk
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
infection gksrh gAS

(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured with (4) ,M~l ds jksxh vPNh ns[kHkky rFkk iks"k.k ds }kjk iwjh rjg

proper care and nutrition ls Bhd fd;s tk jgs gaSA

121. Match the columns :-
121. fuEu LrEHkksa dk feyku dfj,s :-

Column - I Column - II
LrEHk - I LrEHk - II
p Benign tumor (i) Metastasis
p lqne vcZqn (i) esVkLVsfll
q Contact (ii) Non-invading
q laLi'kZ laneu (ii) v&vkØe.kdkjh
inhibition
r Malignant (iii) Normal cells r nqnZe vcqZn (iii) lkekU; dksf'kdk,¡
tumor

(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii

(2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
(3) p-iii, q-i, r-ii (3) p-iii, q-i, r-ii
(4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii
(4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii
0999DMD310318012 LTS-21/31

122. Select the correct statement for A and B
figure:-
CH3
O CH3
N CH3
O
H
O H
H O
(A)
OH
O
H O
(B)
(1) A is cannabinoid molecule and B is
morphine
(2) Ganja is produced by A and heroin is
produced by B
(3) Both A and B are potent painkillers
(4) A is a potent painkiller and B is cannabinoid
molecule
123. In drunk person, the part of brain to be affected
first is :-
(1) Cerebellum (2) Pons varoli
(3) Medula oblongata (4) Cerebrum
124. Carbon monoxide is harmful for human
because :-
(1) It reduce CO2 transport
(2) It reduce O2 transport
(3) It increase CO2 transport
(4) It destroy haemoglobin molecules
125. Which of following option is not correct :-
(1) Conducting part of respiratory system
transports the atmospheric air to alveoli
(2) Conducting part of respiratory system clears
the air from foreign particles
(3) Exchange zone of respiratory system is the
actual site of diffusion of gases
(4) Initial bronchioles have not cartilaginous
rings
LTS-22/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
122. mDr fn;s x, fp= A rFkk B ds fy, lR; dFku dk p;u
dfj,s :-
O
N CH3
O
O
H O
(A)
OH
H
(B)
(1) A ,d duS kfcukbM v.kq gS rFkk B ekWfQZu gAS
(2) xkatk 'A' ls cuk;k tkrk gS rFkk gsjksbu B ls cuk;k tkrk gAS
(3) A rFkk B nksuksa gh rhoz nnZ fuokjd gAS
(4) A ,d rhoz nnZ fuokjd gS rFkk B ,d dSukfcukbM dk
v.kq gS
123. ,d 'kjkc fi;s gq, O;fDr esa] efLr"d dk dkuS lk Hkkx loZiFz ke
izHkkfor gksxk :-
(1) lsfjcsye (2) iksUl osjksyh
(3) esM~;wyk vkcyakxsVk (4) lsfjcze
124. dkcZ u eksuks DlkbM euq " ; ds fy, gkfudkjd gksr h gS
D;ksafd :-
(1) ;g CO2 ifjogu dks de djrh gS
(2) ;g O2 ifjogu dks de djrh gS
(3) ;g CO2 ifjogu dks c<+krh gS
(4) ;g fgeksXykschu v.kqvksa dks u"V djrh gS
125. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk fodYi lgh ugha gS :-
(1) 'olu ra = dk pkyu Hkkx ok;qe.Myh; ok;q dks
dwfidkvksa rd ifjogu djrk gS
(2) 'olu ra= dk pkyu Hkkx ok;q dks ckgjh d.kksa ls LoPN
djrk gS
(3) 'olu ra= dk fofue; Hkkx xSlksa ds folj.k dk Hkkx gS
(4) izkjafHkd 'olfudk, mikfLFky oy; ;qDr ugha gksrh gS
0999DMD310318012

126. Select the incorrect option for normal
inspiration :-
(1) Muscles of diaphragm contract
(2) Intra pulmonary pressure is less than
atmospheric pressure
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
126. lkekU; fu%'olu ds fy, xyr fodYi dk p;u fdft,:-
(1) Mk;kÝke dh is'kh;k ladqfpr gksrh gS
(2) Qq¶Qqlh; nkc] ok;qe.Myh; nkc dh rqyuk esa de gksrk
gS

(3) Pressure on lungs increase (3) QsQMksa ij nkc vf/kd gksrk gS

(4) Ribs sternum up and outward move due to
external inter-costal muscles
127. Alveoli of the lungs are lined by which
epithelium :-
(1) Stratified epithelium
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) cká vrjk i'kqZd is'kh;ksa ds ladqpu ds dkj.k ilfy;k
o mjksfLFk mij o ckgj dh vksj tkrh gS
127. QsQM+ksa dh dqfidk, fdl midyk }kjk vkLrfjr gksrh gS ?
(1) Lrfjr midyk ls
(2) ljy ?kukdkj midyk ls

(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium (3) Lrfjr ?kukdkj midyk ls

(4) Simple squamous epithelium (4) ljy 'kYdh midyk ls

128. Chronic disorder in which alveolar wall are 128. fpjdkfyd fodkj ftlesa dwfidh; fHkfÙk u"V gks tkrh gS
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
ftlds dkj.k 'olu lrg ?kV tkrh gS :-
decreased :-
(1) czksd
a kbfVl (2) nek
(1) Bronchitis (2) Asthma
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Emphysema (3) {k; (4) okrfLQrh

129. Event which is not related with adult's stomach- 129. o;Ldks ds vek'k; ls lEcfU/kr fØ;kWa ugh gS -
(i) Starch digestion (i) LVkpZ dk ikpu
(ii) Formation of chyme (ii) dkbe dk fuekZ.k
(iii) Formation of chyle (iii) dkby dk fuekZ.k
(iv) Secretion of Rennin (iv) jsfUuu dk L=ko
(1) (i), (ii) (1) (i), (ii)
(2) Only (ii) (2) dsoy (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii), (iv)
130. How many of the following statements are not 130. dkSu ls fcUnq fiÙk o.kZd ds lUnHkZ eas lgh ugha gS ?
correct regarding bile pigments ?
(A) ;g olk ds ik;lhdj.k esa lgk;rk djrs gAS
(A) It help in the emulsification of fat
(B) ;g ykbist dks lfØ; djrs gAS
(B) It activates lipases
(C) ;g fiÙkk'k; esa la'ysf"kr gksrs gAS
(C) It is synthesized in gall bladder
(D) It helps in the absorption of fatty acids (D) ;g olh; vEy ds vo'kks"k.k eas lgk;rk djrs gAS

(E) It contains fat digestive activity (E) bues olk ds ikpu dh {kerk ik;h tkrh gAS
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
0999DMD310318012 LTS-23/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
131. Which of the following reaction is not catalysed 131. fuEufyf[kr es ls jklk;fud fØ;kWa dks ijQsDV ikpd jl ds
by the enzymes of perfect digestive juice ? ,Utkbe }kjk mRizsfjr ugh fd;k tkrk gS ?
(1) Oligopeptide ¾¾¾¾¾¾
Carboxypeptidase
® Dipeptide + AA (1) vkWfyxksisIVkbM ¾¾ ¾ ¾® MkbZiIs VkbM + AA
dkckZsDlhisIVkbMst

(2) Starch ¾¾¾¾

Amylopsin
® Maltose (2) LVkpZ ¾¾¾¾
,ekbykfsIlu
® ekYVkst
(3) Nucleic acid ¾¾ ¾¾
Nuclease
® Nucleotide (3) U;wfDyd vEy ¾¾¾
U;wfDy;st
® U;wfDy;ksVkbM

(4) Protein ¾¾¾ (4) izkVs hu ¾¾¾

ifsIlu
® izkVs hvksll
s + isIVksUl
Pepsin
® Proteoses + Peptones
132. The organ of corti is a structure located on the:- 132. dksVhZ dk vax fLFkr gksrk gS :-
(1) Reissner's membrane (1) jstuj dh f>Yyh ij
(2) Basilar membrane (2) cslhyj f>Yyh ij
(3) Tectorial membrane (3) VsDVksfj;y f>Yyh ij
(4) Scala vestibuli (4) Ldsyk osfLVcqykbZ ij
133. In Human, blood passes from the ventricles to 133. ekuo esa] fuy;ks ls Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh ,oa egk/keuh esa jDr
the pulmonary artery and aorta due to :- dk lapj.k fuEu dkj.k ls gksrk gS :-
(1) Increases in atrial pressure (1) vkfyUn; nkc c<+us ds dkj.k
(2) Increases in vertricular pressure (2) fuy; nkc c<+us ds dkj.k
(3) Decrease in ventricular pressure (3) fuy; nkc de gksus ds dkj.k
(4) Suction pull (4) Ld'ku iqy
134. In which animal pure & Impure blood are 134. fdl tUrq esa 'kq¼ ,oa v'kq¼ jDr iq.kZr;k vyx&vyx jgrs
completely separated ? gS ?
(1) Fish (2) Frog (1) eNyh (2) es<+d
(3) Crocodile (4) Lizard (3) exjePN (4) fNidyh
135. In the given list how many animals have 135. fn x;s mnkgj.kks eas fdrus tUrqvks esa iw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k ik;k
complete double circulation : tkrk gS :
Fish, Alligator, Frog, lung fish, Prawn, eNyh] ?kfM;ky] es<+d] Qq¶Qqlh; eNyh] >hxks] exjePN]
Crocodile birds, mammals i{kh] Lru/kkjh
(1) Five (2) Four (1) ik¡p (2) pkj
(3) Three (4) Six (3) rhu (4) N%
136. Congestion of the lungs is one of the main 136. fuEu es ls fdlesa QsQM+ks dk Congestion eq[; y{k.k
symptoms in :- gS :-
(1) Hypotension (2) Angina (1) vYi jDrpki (2) ,tkbuk
(3) Atherosclerosis (4) Heart failure (3) ,FkzjksLdysjksfll (4) Heart failure
137. Heart of human does not have :- 137. euq"; dk ân; eas ugh gksrk :-
(1) Right auricle (2) Sinus venosus (1) nk;k vkfyn (2) lkbul fouksll
(3) Conus arteriosus (4) Both 2 & 3 (3) dksul /keuhdk.M (4) 2 vkSj 3 nksuks
138. Glucose is absorbed : 138. Xywdksl dk vo'kks"k.k gksrk gS &
(1) Passively by DCT (1) fuf"Ø; :i ls DCT }kjk
(2) Actively by DCT (2) lfØ; :i ls DCT }kjk

(3) Actively by PCT (3) lfØ; :i ls PCT }kjk

(4) Passively by PCT (4) fuf"Ø; :i ls PCT }kjk

LTS-24/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
139. Hippuric acid, creatinine and ketones are 139. fgI;w f jd vEy] fØ,fVfuu] dhVks u ew = es a fdl
added to urine through ? fØ;kfof/k ds }kjk tksM+s tkrs gS &
(1) Reabsorption (1) iqjko'kks"k.k
(2) Glomerular filtration (2) xqPNh; fuL;anu
(3) Tubular secretion (3) ufydh; L=o.k
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 rFkk 3 nksuksa
140. Which one is both osmoregulator as well as 140. dkSulk ijklj.kfu;ed rFkk ukbVªkstuh vif'k"V nksuksa gS\
nitrogenous waste ?
(1) veksfu;k (2) ;wfj;k
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea
(3) Uric acid (4) All of the above (3) ;wfjd vEy (4) mijksDr lHkh

141. Osmolarity of interstitial fluid in cortex is : 141. oYdqV esa vUrjkyh rjy dh ijklj.krk gksrh gS &

(1) 1200 m osm L–1 (2) 900 m osm L–1 (1) 1200 m osm L–1 (2) 900 m osm L–1

(3) 600 m osm L–1 (4) 300 m osm L–1 (3) 600 m osm L–1 (4) 300 m osm L–1

142. Which of the following is the correct unit of 142. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu mRikndrk dk lgh ek=d gS :-
productivity :-
(1) dSyksjh eh–2 (2) twy eh–2
(1) Cal m–2 (2) J m–2
(3) Cal m–2 yr–1 (4) g m –2 (3) dSyksjh eh–2 o"kZ–1 (4) xzke eh–2

143. The process of breakdown of detritus into 143. vijn ds NksVs&NksVs VqdM+ksa esa VwVus dh izfØ;k dgykrh gS :
smaller particles is called as :
(1) áwel Hkou (2) [kfuthHkou
(1) Humification (2) Mineralisation
(3) Leaching (4) Fragmentation (3) fu{kkyu (4) fo[k.Mu

144. If plant uses 6 percent of PAR then percentage
of I.S.R., plant is using :
(1) 6% (2) 3%
(3) 12% (4) 24%
145. Standing crop is measured as the :
(1) Mass of living organism in a unit area
(2) Number of organism in a unit area
(3) Energy of organism in a unit area
144. ;fn ikni izdk'k la'ys"kh lfØ; fofdj.k dk 6 izfr'kr
mi;ksx djrk gS rks ;g vkifrr lkjS fofdj.k dk fdruk izfr'kr
mi;ksx djrk gS :
(1) 6 izfr'kr (2) 3 izfr'kr
(3) 12 izfr'kr (4) 24 izfr'kr
145. [kM+h Qly dks ekik tkrk gS :
(1) bdkbZ {ks=Qy esa thfor thoksa dk Hkkj
(2) bdkbZ {ks=Qy esa thoksa dh la[;k
(3) bdkbZ {ks=Qy esa thoksa dh ÅtkZ

(4) Both (1) and (2) above (4) (1) vkjS (2) mijksä nksuksa

146. Some species regulate but only over a limited 146. dqN iztkfr;k¡ dsoy okrkoj.k dh lhfer ijkl rd fu;eu
range of environmental conditions, are djrh gSa] ;g mnkgj.k gS :
example of :
(1) fu;ed (2) la:id
(1) Ragulators (2) Conformers
(3) vkaf'kd fu;ed (4) vkaf'kd la:id
(3) Partial regulators (4) Partial conformers

0999DMD310318012 LTS-25/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
147. Which of the following statements are correct 147. uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls fuEufyf[kr esa dkuS ls dFku lgh
among the options given below : gS :
(A) Plants do not have mechanism to maintain (A) ikniksa esa vkUrfjd rkieku dks fu;r cuk;s j[kus dh
internal temperature
fØ;kfof/k ugha gksrh gAS
(B) Polar bears going into hibernation during
(B) 'khr ½rq esa /kzqoh; Hkkyqvksa dk 'khr fuf"Ø;rk esa tkuk
winter is an example of escape of area
{ks= fu"dklu dk mnkgj.k gAS
(C) Desert lizard has physiological ability to
regulate (C) jsfxLrkuh fNidyh ds ikl fu;eu dh dkf;Zdh; {kerk
(D) Success of mammals is largely due to their gksrh gAS
ability to maintain a constant body (D) Lru/kkfj;ksa ds lQy gksus dk cM+k dkj.k muds vUnj
temperature 'kjhj ds rkieku dks fu;r cuk;s j[kus dh {kerk gS
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D (1) A, B vkjS C (2) A vkjS D
(3) C and D (4) B and C (3) C vkjS D (4) B vkjS C
148. For many taxonomic group, species inventories 148. dbZ ofxZdh lewgksa gsrq] iztkfr [kkst T;knk iw.kZ gS :
are more complete in :
(1) m".k dfVcU/kh; {ks= esa
(1) Tropical region
(2) 'khrks".k dfVcU/kh; {ks= esa
(2) Temperate region
(3) Arctic region (3) vkdZfVd {ks= esa
(4) Antarctic region (4) vaVkdZfVd {ks= esa
149. Contribution of India in global species 149. ofS 'od tkrh; fofo/krk esa Hkkjr dk ;ksxnku gS :
diversity is : (1) 1.8 % (2) 2.4 %
(1) 1.8 % (2) 2.4 % (3) 8.1 % (4) 4.2 % (3) 8.1 % (4) 4.2 %
150. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 150. fuEufyf[kr esa uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls dkuS lk@ls dFku
incorrect among the options given below : vlR; gaS :
(A) Conventional taxonomic methods are more (A) ijEijkxr ofxZdh fof/k;k¡ lw{ethoh iztkfr;ksa dh igpku
suitable for identifying microbial species
gsrq T;knk lqfo/kktud gSaA
(B) Species diversity increases as we move
from equator towards pole (B) fo"kqor js[kk ls /kqzoksa dh vksj pyus ij tkrh; fofo/krk
(C) Amphibians appear to be more vulnerable c<+rh gAS
to extinction (C) mHk;pj foyksiu gsrq T;knk lqHks| gksrs gaAS
(D) Hotspots are also regions of accelerated (D) gkWVLikWV Rofjr vkoklh; {kfr ds {ks= gaS
habitat loss
(1) A, B vkjS D (2) B, C vkjS D
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and D
(3) B and D (4) A and B (3) B vkjS D (4) A vkjS B
151. Obligatory relationship between two organism 151. nks thoksa ds chp dk vfodYih laca/k ftlesa nksuksa thoksa dks
in which both are benefitted is called :- ykHk gks dgykrk gS %&
(1) Proto-cooperation (2) Amensalism (1) çkd~ &lg;ksfxrk (2) çfrthfork
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism (3) lgHkksftrk (4) lgksidkfjrk
152. Which of the following is an example of sexual 152. fuEu esa ls dkSulk mnkgj.k ySafxd diV dk g\ S
deciet ? (1) ckusZdy vkjS Ogsy
(1) Barnacle & whale
(2) Dyksu eNyh vkjS leqæh ,fueksu
(2) Clown fish & sea anemone
(3) gfeZV dsc vkjS leqæh ,uheksu
(3) Hermit crab & sea Anemone
(4) Bees & orchid flower (4) eD[kh rFkk vkfdZM iq"i

LTS-26/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018

153. A Þ Environment 153. A Þ i;kZoj.k

Above given diagram represents a relation with mijksDr fn, x, fp= esa i;kZoj.k ds lkFk lEcU/k dks n'kkZ;k
environment. This relation is known as :- g]S bl rjg dk lEcU/k dgykrk g&S
(1) Autecology (2) Synecology (1) LoikfjfLFkrdh (2) laikfjfLFkrdh
(3) Gene ecology (4) Community ecology (3) thu ikfjfLFkfrdh (4) leqnk; ikfjfLFkfrdh
154. In the given list below how many areas 154. uhps nh xbZ lwph esa fdrus {ks= f}rh;d vuqØe.k dk mnkgj.k
represent the examples of secondary
çnf'kZr djrs gaS&
succession :-
burned or cut forest, newly cooled lava, bare tyk, ;k dkVs x, ou] u;k B.Mk ykok] uXu pêku] [kkyh
rock, abandoned farm land, lands that have NksMs+ gq, Ïf"k {ks=] ck<+ ls çHkkfor tehuA
been flooded.
(1) Three (2) Six (3) Two (4) Four (1) rhu (2) N% (3) nks (4) pkj
155. What type of ecological succession would 155. u;k cuk rkykc rFkk tyk, ;k dkVs x, ou esa dkSuls
operate on newly created pond and burned or ikfjfLFkrdh; vuqØe.k gksrs gSa\
cut forest :-
(1) çkFkfed rFkk f}rh;d vuqØe.k
(1) Primary and secondary succession
(2) çkFkfed vuqØe.k
(2) Primary succession
(3) Secondary succession (3) f}rh;d vuqØe.k
(4) Secondary and primary succession (4) f}rh;d rFkk çkFkfed vuqØe.k
156. Mycorrhiza is an example of :- 156. ekbdksjkbtk mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Key-stone species (1) dqat f'kyk iztkfr
(2) Endermic species (2) LFkkfud iztkfr
(3) Critical link species (3) Økafrd ;ksth iztkfr
(4) Rare species (4) js;j iztkfr
157. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being 157. Åijh okrkoj.k dh vkstksu lrg fdlls u"V gks jgh gS :-
destroyed by :- (1) lYQj MkbZvkWDlkbM (2) dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM
(1) Sulphurdioxide (2) Carbondioxide
(3) Chlorofluorocarbon (4) Smog (3) Dyksjks¶Y;wjksdkcZu (4) /kwez dqgjk
158. Which of the following is an example of climax 158. ty vuqØe.k ds nkSjku dkSulk pje leqnk; dk mnkgj.k g:S -
community during hydrosere :- (1) ,stksyk (2) uhy gfjr 'ko
S ky
(1) Azolla (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Vallisneria (4) Oak (3) osfylusfj;k (4) vksd
159. Large ecosystems are called :- 159. ,d cM+k ikfjra= dgykrk gS :-
(1) Biome (2) Ecotone (1) ck;kse (2) bdksVksu
(3) Ecads (4) Biocoenosis (3) bdsM~l (4) ck;ksfluksfll
160. The collection of cyton in C.N.S. is called :- 160. dksf'kdkdk; dk xqPNk dsUæh; raf=dk esa dgykrk gS :-
(1) Nuclei (2) Tract (1) U;qfDykbZ (2) VsªDV
(3) Ganglia (4) Nerve (3) xaSfXy;k (4) uoZ
161. In only one stage, where Na+-K pumps get 161. dsoy ,d pj.k tgk¡ Na+-K iai dk;Z ugha djrs gaS vkosx
shut down. Identify the stage of nerve impulse lapj.k dh ml voLFkk dks igpkfu;s :-
conduction :-
(1) Depolarisation (2) Repolarisation (1) fo/kqzohdj.k (2) iqu%/kqzohdj.k
(3) Hyperpolarisation (4) Polarisation (3) vfr/kqzohdj.k (4) /kzqohdj.k

0999DMD310318012 LTS-27/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
162. The conduction velocity of nerve impulse 162. raf=dk vkosx lapj.k dk osx fuHkZj djrk gS :-
depends upon :-
(1) raf=dk rarq ds O;kl ij
(1) Diameter of the nerve fibre
(2) rkieku
(2) Temperature
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa

(4) Length of nerve fibre (4) raf=dk rarq dh yEckbZ ij

163. The reflex pathway comprises at least :-
(1) Only one afferent neuron
(2) Only one efferent neuron
(3) One afferent and one efferent neurons
(4) Two afferent and one efferent neuron
164. A large area of cerebral cortex that are neither
completely motor not sensory in function is
known as :-
(1) Broca's area (2) Wernicke's area
(3) Association area (4) Somaesthetic area
163. izR;korhZ fØ;k pki de ls de j[krk gS :-
(1) dsoy ,d vfHkokgh raf=dk dksf'kdk
(2) dsoy ,d viokgh raf=dk dksf'kdk
(3) ,d viokgh ,oa ,d vfHkokgh raf=dk dksf'kdk
(4) nks vfHkokgh ,oa ,d viokgh raf=dk dksf'kdk
164. izefLr"d oYdqV dk og Hkkx tks uk rks iw.kZr;k izsjd gAS ,oa
uk iw.kZr;k laosnh Hkkx dgykrk gS :-
(1) czksdk dk {ks= (2) ofuZd dk {ks=
(3) lgHkkxh {ks= (4) laons uk dk {ks=

165. Which of the following statement is correct :-
(1) Contraction of a muscle fibre takes places
by the sliding of the thin filament over the
thick filament
(2) Repeated activation of the muscle can lead
to the accumulation of lactic acid due to
aerobic breakdown of glycogen in them
red muscle
(3) In Red muscle fibre number of
mitochondria are also few
(4) Red muscle fibre depend on anaerobic
process for energy
166. In the centre of ....A.... is an elastic fibre called
....B.... The thin filament are firmly attached to
the ....C....
Fill in the blank with suitable option :-
165. fuEu fn;k x;k esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS :-
(1) is'kh; js'kksa dk ladqpu irys rarqvksa ds eksVs rarv
q ksa ds Åij
ljdus ls gksrk gAS
(2) isf'k;ksa ds ckj&ckj mÙksftr gksus ij muesa Xykbdkstu ds
ok;oh; fo[k.Mu ls yfS DVd vEy dk teko gksus yxrk
gS ftlls Fkdku gksrh gAS
(3) yky isf'k;ksa esa ekbVksdksafMª;k dh la[;k de gksrh gAS
(4) yky is'kh rarq viuh ÅtkZ vok;oh; fof/k }kjk izkIr djrh
gSA
166. izR;sd ....A.... ds e/; esa bls f}foHkkftr djus okyh ,d
izR;kLFk js[kk gksrh gS ftls ....B.... dgrs gaAS irys rarq ....C....
ls n`<+rk ls tqM+s gksrs gaSA
mi;qDr fodYi dk p;u djds fjDr LFkku Hkfj;s :-

A B C A B C

(1) I band Z line Z line (1) I cSM

a Z js[kk Z js[kk

(2) A band Z line M line (2) A cSM

a Z js[kk M js[kk

(3) A band M line Z line (3) A cSM

a M js[kk Z js[kk

(4) I band M line Z line (4) I cSM

a M js[kk Z js[kk

LTS-28/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018
167. Name the structure of ear which increase the 167. ml lajpuk dk uke crkb;s tks /ofu rjaxksa dks var%d.kZ rd
efficiency of transmission of sound wave to igq¡pkus dh {kerk dks c<+krh gS :-
inner ear :-
(1) dksfDy;k (2) d.kZ iê
(1) Cochlea (2) Ear drum
(3) Ear ossicles (4) Ear pinna (3) d.kZ vfLFkdk,a (4) fiUuk
168. The space within cochlea called scala media 168. dksfDy;k ds Hkhrj mifLFkr LFkku Ldsyk ehfM;k ds Hkhrj
is filled with ............... :- ............... æo Hkjk gksrk gS :-
(1) Perilymph (1) ifjyfldk
(2) Endolymph (2) vary Z fldk
(3) Ear dust (3) d.kZ /kwy
(4) Jelly like substance (4) ty S h ln`'k inkFkZ
169. Which one of the following are male sex 169. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,d uj yaSfxd gkeksZu g&
S
hormones ?
(1) balqfyu (2) ,YMksLVhjksu
(1) Insulin (2) Aldosterone
(3) Androgen (4) Pheromone (3) ,aMªkstu (4) Qhjkseksu
170. In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to - 170. o;Ld esa Fkk;jkWfDlu dh vYiek=k ls gks ldrk gS&
(1) Graves disease (2) Tetany (1) xzo
s ~l chekjh (2) fVVsuh
(3) Cretinism (4) Myxoedema (3) ØsfVfuT; (4) feDlsfMek
171. In the body, both the blood sodium and 171. 'kjhj eas lksfM;e o ikVS fs 'k;e dh jDr esa ek=k dks fu;af=r
potassium levels are regulated by- djus okyk gkeksZu g&S
(1) Pheromones (2) Aldosterone (1) Qhjkseksu (2) ,YMksLVhjksu
(3) Cortisol (4) Androgens (3) dkWfVZlksy (4) ,aMªkt s u
172. In which of the following pairs, the hormone 172. fuEu esa ls fdl ;qXe esa] varjL=koh xzafFk o mldk dk;Z lqefs yr
of endocrine glands and its primary action is ugha g&S
mismatched -
(1) dSfYlVksfuu & jDr dSfYl;e Lrj dks ?kVkrk gS
(1) Calcintonin - lower blood Ca++ level
(2) isjkFkkeksZu & jDr esa dSfYl;e dks c<krk gS
(2) Parathormone - raises blood Ca++ level
(3) lkseVs ksLVsfVu & Xywdkxksu ds L=ko dks lanfer djrk gS
(3) Somatostatin - inihibits release of glucagon
(4) Melatonin - Regulates the rate of cellullar (4) esykVksfuu & dksf'kfd; mikip; dh nj esa fu;af=r
metabolism djrk gS
173. Islets of Langerhans are found in 173. ysaxjgsal ds }hi dksf'kdk;sa ik;h tkrh gS &
(1) Anteriar pituitary (1) vxz ih;w"k xzafFk
(2) Kidney cortex (2) o`Dd oYdqV
(3) Spleen (3) Iyhgk
(4) Endocrine pancreas (4) varL=koh vXuk'k;
174. Arthritis is defined as inflammation in - 174. fdlds iznkg dks vkFkZjkbfVl dgrs g&S
(1) Bones (2) Muscles (1) vfLFk;kas ds (2) isf'k;kas ds
(3) Joints (4) Cartilage (3) laf/k;kas ds (4) mikfLFk ds
175. Deficiency of estrogen hormone can lead to - 175. ,LVªkstu dh deh ls gks ldrk g&S
(1) Osteoarthritis (1) vksfLV;ksvkFkZjkbfVl
(2) Gout (2) xkmV
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) j;wesVksbM vkFkZjkbfVl
(4) Osteoporosis (4) vksfLV;ksiksjksfll
0999DMD310318012 LTS-29/31
 Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/16-12-2018

176. Both eyes seeing the same object is called - 176. tc nksuksa us= ,d gh oLrq dks ns[krs gaS] rks bls dgrs g&
S
(1) Long sightedness (1) nwj n`f"V nks"k
(2) Short sightedness (2) fudV n`f"V nks"k
(3) Binocular vision (3) ckbuksdqyj n`f"V
(4) Colour vision (4) jaxhu n`f"V
177. Which of the following structures acts similar 177. fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk] dsejs ds Mk;Ýke dh Hkkafr dk;Z
to diaphragm of Camera ? djrh g&S
(1) Pupil (2) Iris (1) iqryh (2) vkbfjl
(3) Cilliary body (4) Eyelids (3) flfy;jh dk; (4) iyds
178. In absence of honey bee pollination of which 178. e/kqeD[kh dh vuqmifLFkfr ij mijksDr esa ls fdudk ijkx.k
of following is not affected :- izHkkfor ugha gksxk ?
(1) Brassica (2) Apple czfs ldk
(1) (2) lsc
(3) Sunflower (4) Jasmine (3) lw;Zeq[kh (4) tl
S ehu (jkrjkuh)
179. 'Hisardale' is developed by a cross between :- 179. 'fglkjMy S ' dk fodkl fdlds e/; ladj.k ls gqvk :-
(1) Male donkey and female horse (1) uj x/kk ,oa eknk ?kksM+h
(2) Sahiwal and Nageri (2) 'kkghoky ,oa ukxjS h
(3) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams (3) chdkusjh ,o
S ht ,oa ejS huks jsEl
(4) Jafferabadi and Murrah (4) tkQjcnh ,oa ewjkZ
180. Which of the following statement is/incorrect 180. MOET ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk dFku xyr
with regards to MOET :- gS ?
(1) MOET has been demonstrated for cow, (1) MOET xksi'kq] [kjxks'k] HksM] ?kksMh+ ] Hkl
S ] vkfn esa iznf'kZr
rabbit, sheep, mare, buffaloes etc. dh tk pqdh gAS
(2) MOET is used to increase herd size in short (2) MOET rduhd ls vYidky esa gh cM+h la [;k esa xkiS 'kq
time izkIr fd;s tk ldrs gAS
(3) The fertilised eggs are recovered non (3) fu"ksfpr v.Mks dks fcuk 'kY; fpfdRlk ls izkIr dj
surgically and transferred to genetic mother tufud eknk esa LFkkukarfjr dj fn;k tkrk gSA
(4) In this method, a cow administered hormones, (4) bl fof/k esa ,d xk; esa FSH izdkj dk gkWeksZu fn;k tkrk
with FSH-like activity gSA

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

LTS-30/31 0999DMD310318012
 Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/16-12-2018

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your
Form No.
uks V% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in ij
mail djsaA
0999DMD310318012 LTS-31/31