ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

POST TEST
By: Rodrigo T. Clemente, RMT, AMT, MD, RN, USRN, USMD

Neurologic System

1. If a client experienced a stroke that damaged the hypothalamus, the nurse would anticipate that the client has
problems with:
a. body temperature control.
b. balance and equilibrium.
c. visual acuity.
d. thinking and reasoning.

2. During recovery from a stroke, a client is given nothing by mouth to help prevent aspiration. To determine when the
client is ready for a liquid diet, the nurse assesses the client's swallowing ability once per shift. This assessment
evaluates:
a. cranial nerves I and II.
b. cranial nerves III and V.
c. cranial nerves VI and VIII.
d. cranial nerves IX and X.

3. A client has suffered damage to Broca’s area of the brain. The nurse providing care for this client that the client will
experience difficulty with which of the following?
a. Hearing
b. Speech
c. Balance
d. Level of consciousness

4. A client has a cerebellar lesion. The nurse determines that the client is adapting successfully to this problem if the client
demonstrates proper use of which of the following items?
a. Adaptive eating utensils
b. Walker
c. Raised toilet seat
d. Slider board

5. During the neurologic examination, the client responds to painful stimuli with decerebrate posturing.
This finding indicates damage to which part of the brain?
a. Diencephalon
b. Medulla
c. Midbrain
d. Cortex

Eyes and Ears

6. Which of the following structures provides a protective covering for the eye?
a. Iris
b. Lens
c. Cornea
d. Conjunctiva

7. A client’s physical examination record state that the client’s eye moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
The nurse interprets this to mean that the client has normal:
a. Peripheral vision
b. Central vision
c. Ocular movements
d. Corneal reflexes

8. Part of the eye that is responsible for the production of aqueous humor is the:
a. Anterior chamber
b. Posterior chamber
c. Ciliary body
d. Trabecular meshwork

9. The nurse asks the student to identify the structures in the uveal tract. The student responds correctly by stating that
which of the following is unassociated with the uveal tract?
a. Iris
b. Ciliary body
c. Choroid
d. Lens
10. A mountain climber asks the nurse, “why is it that when I climbed in a high altitude area, I felt a fullness in my ear and
when I yawn or swallow, it disappear”? As a nurse, you know that which of the following is the best response to the client?
a. “You ear canal is connected to the eustachian tube, it opens when you yawn and swallows when you’re in a high place”.
b. “There is a pathway between your middle and your throat that opens when you’re in high places.”
c. “Tell me more why is it that your concern about this matter?”
d. “There’s nothing to worry about.”

Endocrine System
11. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
a. Glucocorticoids and androgens
b. Catecholamines and epinephrine
c. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines
d. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

12. Which is true regarding glucagon?

a. Opposite to that of glycogen
b. Exerts hypoglycemic effect
c. Transport glucose to the cell
d. Chiefly to raise the blood glucose

13. Which of the following is true regarding somatostatin?

a. Interfering the release of growth hormone
b. Opposite to that of insulin
c. Chiefly to raise the blood glucose
d. Exerts hyperglycemic effect by interfering with the release of growth hormone

14. All of the following factors can increase growth hormone secretion except:
a. Stress
b. Exercise
c. Low blood glucose level
d. Alteration in the homeostasis

15. The following are functions of the thyroid hormone except:

a. Contribute to oxygen consumption
b. Important in brain development
c. Necessary for normal growth
d. Regulates high plasma levels of calcium

Gastrointestinal System
16. During the esophageal peristalsis, the lower esophageal sphincter will:
a. Contract as a result of peristaltic wave by the esophagus
b. Push the food to the upper layer of the esophagus
c. Relax due to esophageal presitaltic wave
d. Close to prevent aspiration

17. Primary functions of the GI tract except:

a. Break down of food particles
b. Excretion of small nutrient produced by digestion
c. Elimination of undigested unabsorbed foodstuffs
d. Small nutrient molecules absorption

18. When colon is inflamed and ulcerated, what will be the effect?
a. Loose watery stool
b. Clay-colored stool
c. Fat in the stool
d. Altered absorption of nutrients

19. After taking an antacid, the client asks the nurse where antacids act in the body. How should the nurse respond?
a. Large intestine
b. Esophagus
c. Small intestine
d. Stomach

20. The nurse is teaching a client with malabsorption syndrome about the disorder and its treatment. The client asks
which part of the GI tract absorbs food. The nurse tells the client that products of digestion are absorbed mainly in
the:
a. stomach.
b. small intestine.
c. large intestine.
d. rectum.
Hepato-Biliary System

21. While palpating a client's right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which of the following
structures?
a. Sigmoid colon
b. Appendix
c. Spleen
d. Liver

22. The physician asks the nurse about protein metabolism of the liver. Which of the following is included in the protein
metabolism except:
a. Albumin
b. Blood clotting factors
c. Alpha globulins
d. Gamma globulins

23. Bile assists in emulsification of fat in what area?

a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ileum
d. Sphincter of oddi

24. The nurse is feeding up information to a patient with stone in the common bile duct about his condition. The nurse
knows that which of the following statement indicates clear understanding about his condition?
a. “It may cause me to bleed and to have eye problem if this condition doesn’t correct”.
b. “I can eat more fat when I want”.
c. “The color of my stool will be brown if this condition doesn’t correct immediately”.
d. “I can’t eat protein because it can be harmful to my brain”.

25. Pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of protein:

a. Amylase
b. Lipase
c. Trypsin
d. Bile

Respiratory System

26. Protects the lower airway from foreign substances and facilitates coughing:
a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Pharynx
d. Carinii

27. Where would a shelled peanut aspirated by an adult be most likely to lodge?
a. Anterior pharynx
b. Posterior pharynx
c. Left mainstem bronchus
d. Right mainstem bronchus

28. Which of the following is true regarding inspiration and expiration?

a. Inspiratory phase normally requires energy, while expiratory phase requires less energy
b. Inspiration occurs during the two thirds of respiratory cycle, while expiration during first thirds of cycle
c. When the capacity of the chest increase, the lungs recoils
d. When the chest wall and diaphragm return to previous position, air enters the trachea

29. What is the role of surfactant in pulmonary function?

a. Reduces alveolar surface tension, improving gas exchange
b. Increases alveolar surface tension, improving gas exchange
c. Dilates pulmonary blood vessels, decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance
d. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance

30. Propels mucus and foreign substance away from the lungs toward the pharynx?
a. Nostril
b. Larynx
c. Cilia
d. Bronchus
 Cardiovascular and Hematologic System

31. What is the blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the myocardium?
a. Descending aorta
b. Inferior vena cava
c. Coronary arteries
d. Pulmonary vein

32. Which of the following is a correct statement about the blood circulation?
a. The right atrium receives oxygenated blood
b. The blood from the right atrium will flow from the right atrium, passing the mitral valve into the right ventricle
c. The blood goes upward from the left ventricle to the left atrium
d. Backflow during ventricular contraction is prevented by the AV valves

33. Which of the following statements reflecting further teaching?

a. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood
b. The blood from the left atrium flows to the right AV valve
c. Bicuspid valve contains two cusps
d. The left ventricle pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve

34. What layer lines the inside of the heart and valves?
a. Parietal pleura
b. Pericardium
c. Myocardium
d. Endocardium

35. The right ventricle pumps blood to the:

a. Aorta
b. Pulmonary circulation
c. Systemic circulation
d. Inferior vena cava

36. The second heart sound is:

a. the sound produced by the closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves
b. known as the ventricular gallop
c. known as the atrial gallop
d. the sound produced by the closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves

37. Which among the following is the correct sequence pertaining to the electrical pathway of the heart?
a. SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibers
b. AV node  SA node  Purkinje fibers  Bundle of His
c. Purkinje fibers  Bundle of His  AV node  SA node
d. SA node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibers  AV node

38. Trace the correct pathway of blood in the heart:

a. SVC and IVC  right atrium  left atrium  pulmonary artery  lungs  pulmonary vein  left ventricle  aorta
b. SVC and IVC  left atrium  left ventricle  pulmonary artery  lungs  pulmonary vein  right atrium  right ventricle 
aorta
c. SVC and IVC  right atrium  right ventricle  pulmonary vein  lungs  pulmonary artery  left atrium  left ventricle 
aorta
d. none of the above

39. Which among the following is considered a semilunar valve?

a. pulmonic valve
b. mitral valve
c. tricuspid valve
d. bicuspid valve

40. A client has had a recent myocardial infarction. Why is damage to the myocardium problematic for this client?
a. Damage to this area causes plaque to build up on the heart valves.
b. Damage to this layer can decrease the contractile force of the heart.
c. Damage to this layer can lead to excessive cortisol and endorphin release.
d. Damage to this area causes striated heart muscle fibers to release damaging high-density lipoproteins.

41.A client brought to the ER following a myocardial infarction is found to be hypotensive. What effect from baroreceptor
stimulation on this client’s heart rate would be expected?
a. The heart rate would increase.
b. The heart rate would decrease.
c. There would be no effect on heart rate.
d. The heart rate would vacillate between accelerations and deceleration.
42. This layer of the vessel wall responsible for constriction and dilation of the blood vessel?
a. Tunica intima
b. Tunica adventitia
c. Arteriole
d. Tunica media

43. This blood cell type responsible in neutralizing the histamine?

a. Basophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Monocyte
d. Lymphocyte

44. Which hematologic problem would the nurse expect the client with liver failure to have?
a. Prolonged bleeding after IM injections
b. Elevated blood pressure from hypercellularity
c. Increased formation of thromboses in deep veins
d. Spontaneous bleeding from the gums and mucous membranes

45. Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiencies are characterized by the production of abnormally large erythrocyte called:
a. Megakaryocyte
b. Lymphoblast
c. Megaloblast
d. Granulocytoblast

Genitourinary System
46. All of the following are functions of the kidney except:
a. Fluid balance
b. RBC production
c. Synthesis of Vitamin E
d. Acid base balance

47. The first process of urine formation is:

a. Tubular secretion
b. Tubular reabsorption
c. Glomerular filtration
d. None of the above

48. A client with suspected renal insufficiency is scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic workup. After the nurse
explains the diagnostic tests, the client asks which part of the kidney "does the work." Which answer is correct?
a. The glomerulus
b. Bowman's capsule
c. The nephron
d. The tubular system

49. In the electrolyte regulation of the kidney, the regulation of sodium volume excreted depend on:
a. ADH secretion
b. Cortisol secretion
c. Aldosterone secretion
d. Glucagon secretion

50. Which laboratory test is the most accurate indicator of a client's renal function?
a. Blood urea nitrogen
b. Creatinine clearance
c. Serum creatinine
d. Urinalysis