Aiims 2

5/20/2019 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor
Answer keys : Score Booster Test Series For AIIMS-2019_Test-04
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Question : 1 (skipped)
Two coils with terminals T1, T2 and T3, T4 respectively are placed side by side. Inductance of the first coil is 1200 mH and that
of second coil is 800 mH, when measured separately. If terminals T2 and T3 is joined then inductance between terminals T1
and T4 is 2500 mH. When terminals T2 and T4 is joined as shown in the figure, then inductance between terminals T1 and T3 is
Options:
2000 mH
1500 mH
1750 mH
1250 mH
Solution :
Answer (2)
L1, 4 = L1 + L2 + 2M
2500 = 1200 + 800 + 2M
M = 250 mH
Now, L1, 3 = L1 + L2 – 2M = 1200 + 800 – 2 × 250
= 1500 mH
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A small circular loop of wire of radius 5 cm and resistance 1.3 × 10–3 Ω is centred inside a large circular loop of wire of radius
50 cm as shown in the figure. The larger loop, which initially carries a current 6.5 A, is cut and its current is reduced to zero over
a time interval of 1.1 × 10–6 s. The average current in the smaller loop during this time interval is nearly (consider magnetic field
due to larger loop is constant over the smaller loop)
Options:
40 A
25 A
35 A
45 A
Solution :
Answer (4)
Flux through smaller loop is
Induced emf
Induced current
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An emf of 12 V is connected across a coil of inductance L = 1 mH and resistance R = 6 Ω. After a time of n0 time constants one
fourth of maximum magnetic energy is stored in the magnetic field. The value of n0 is
Options:
ln(4)
ln(2)
ln(3)
ln(5)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hence n0 = ln(2)
3/104
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A wire bent in parabolic shape as y = kx2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction B, which is perpendicular to XY
plane. At the moment t = 0, a metallic connector starts sliding from the apex of parabola with a constant acceleration 'a' as
shown in the figure. The emf induced in loop formed, as a function of y will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Since
After time t,
and v = at
Now,
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A plane loop is shaped as two squares with sides a = 10 cm and b = 20 cm as shown in the figure. The loop is introduced into a
uniform magnetic field at right angle to the plane of loop. The magnetic induction varies with time as B = B0sinωt, where B0 = 1
mT and ω = 300 rad/s. If resistance per unit length of loop is 20 mΩ m–1, then amplitude of induced current in the loop is
(Inductance of loop is negligible)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Net emf enet = |e1 – e2|
Now, R = 4(a + b)ρ
Then,
5/104
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The effective value of alternating current I = 2sin100 t + 2sin(100 t + 60°) is (I is in ampere and t is in second)
Options:
2A
4A
Solution :
Answer (2)
i = 2(sin(100 t) + sin(100 t + 60°))
= 2·(2sin(100 t + 30°)·cos30°)
Irms =
6/104
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In RLC series circuit, assume R = 500 Ω, L = 60 mH, f = 60 Hz and V0 = 30 V. The values of capacitance, for which average
power dissipation through resistance R is maximum and minimum will be respectively
Options:
100 μF, 100 μF
0, 100 μF
117 μF, 0
0, 117 μF
Solution :
Answer (3)
Power will be maximum at resonance
Hence,
Since,
i.e.
Pavg → minimum when z → maximum.
i.e. will be maximum
when C = 0
7/104
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The quality factor of RLC ac circuit as shown in the figure is (neglect mutual induction)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hence,
8/104
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A small town with demand of 1 MW of electric power at 220 V is situated 30 km from an electric plant generating the power at
440 V. The resistance of two wire line carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets power from a line through a (40,000 – 220)
V step down transformer at substation in town. The power that must be supplied by the power plant is nearly (assume no power
loss due to leakage)
Options:
1.019 MW
1.19 MW
1.05 MW
1.0001 MW
Solution :
Answer (1)
Line resistance = 60 × 0.5 = 30 Ω
rms current in line
Hence, line power loss = (25)2 × 30 = 18750 W
Hence, power supplied by the plant
= 106 W + 18750 W
= 1018750 W
9/104
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A parallel plate capacitor is shown in the figure. If the current in wire is discharging the capacitor, then choose the incorrect
statements.
Options:
Displacement current is leftward.
The magnetic field at point P is into the page.
Electric field is rightward.
The magnetic field at point P is out of the page.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Id = Ic
Hence, displacement current is in direction of conduction current (Leftward)
Hence, magnetic field at point P will be into the page.
10/104
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A parallel plate capacitor has square plate of side 1 m. A current of A, charges the capacitor as shown in the figure. The
value of around the square dash path is nearly
Options:
1 μT-m
0.5 μT-m
0.63 μT-m
Zero
Solution :
Answer (1)
11/104
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Light with energy flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a surface normally. If surface has area of 50 cm2 and absorptivity 0.5, then average
force exerted on the surface during 40 minutes time span is
Options:
3.33 × 10–6 N
1.33 × 10–5 N
5.00 × 10–6 N
3.33 × 10–5 N
Solution :
Answer (3)
U = 20 × 50 × 40 × 60 = 2.4 × 106 J
12/104
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The electric field component of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is .

Then choose the correct statement(s).
Options:
The amplitude of magnetic field component is

50 nT.
The frequency of wave is 89 Mz.
Wavelength of em wave is 3.5 m (approximately).
Wave is moving in positive y direction approximately.
Solution :
Answer (3)
13/104
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A concave mirror forms the real image of a point source, lying on the optical axis at a distance 60 cm from the mirror. Focal
length of mirror is 30 cm. The mirror is cut into two equal parts and its halves are drawn at a distance 1 cm apart, in a direction
perpendicular to the optic axis. The distance between the images formed by two halves will be
Options:
1 cm
2 cm
3 cm
1.5 cm
Solution :
Answer (2)
For upper half of the mirror the distance of the object O becomes 0.5 cm below the new optic axis as shown in ray diagram.
Hence, distance between images O1 & O2 will be
d = 1 cm + 0.5 cm + 0.5 cm = 2 cm
14/104
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Due to vertical temperature gradient in the atmosphere, the refractive index varies as . A person of height 2 m stands on a level
surface. The distance beyond which he can not see the horizontal road is
Options:
2 km
1 km
1.5 km
4 km
Solution :
Answer (1)
From Snell's law
μsinθ = sin90°
x = 2000 m
15/104
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A drop of liquid is placed on a right angled prism of refractive index 1.5 as shown in the figure. Light is allowed to fall normally
on the short face of prism. In order that the ray of light may get totally reflected. The maximum value of refractive index of liquid
is about
Options:
1.47
1.89
2.30
1.30
Solution :
Answer (4)
From Snell's law,
16/104
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A thin converging lens of focal length f = 1.5 m is placed along y-axis such that its optical centre coincides with origin. A small
light source S is placed at location (–2.0 m, 0.1 m). A plane mirror is placed at x = 5 m inclined at θ = tan–1(0.3) as shown in the
figure. The coordinate of final image is
Options:
(4.0 m, 0.1 m)
(4.0 m, 0.3 m)
(5.0 m, 0.3 m)
(6.0 m, 0.3 m)
Solution :
Answer (2)
For lens
u = –2.0 m
f = +1.5 m
Now, from figure I1 will be object for mirror and mirror form S the image I2 at .
PI1 = PI2 and I1PI2 will be perpendicular to mirror.
Hence,
Hence, coordinates of final image are (4 m, 0.3 m).
17/104
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A source is hanging over the centre of a circular table of radius 1 m. The height of source so that illuminance at the edge of
table is maximum, is
Options:
2m
Solution :
Answer (2)
Illuminance
E, to be maximum,
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The image of mars is focused by a converging lens of focal length 1 m on a plane screen. The image is seen by an unaided eye
from a distance of 25 cm. The angular magnification achieved due to the converging lens is
Options:
–4
–2
–8
Solution :
Answer (1)
18/104
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Light of wevelength 600 nm goes through a Pinhole of diameter 0.20 mm and falls on a wall at a distance of 2.00 m. The radius
of central bright spot formed on the wall is approximately
Options:
4.32 mm
5.32 mm
7.32 mm
2.44 mm
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Two glass slides A and B each of length L are placed with one end in contact and the other end separated by a spacer of
thickness t as shown in figure. Monochromatic light of wavelength λ falls normally on plates A and interference fringes are
observed by the eye E through a microscope. The spacing between the successive resulting dark fringes is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Fringe width in wedge shaped air film is
19/104
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Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarized beam of intensity I0 such that no light is emitted from the second polaroid. If
a third polaroid whose polarization axis makes an angle 37°, with the polarization axis of first polaroid, is placed between these
polaroids then the intensity of light emerging from the last polaroid is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
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The radiation of 6.3 eV falls on a metal surface of work function 4.3 eV. The kinetic energy (in joules) of the fastest electron
emitted is
Options:
3.2 × 10–19
4.8 × 10–19
1.6 × 10–19
4 × 10–19
Solution :
Answer (1)
= 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 3.2 × 10–19 J
20/104
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Photons absorbed in ice are converted to heat. A source emitting n photons per second of frequency is used to convert 1 kg of
ice at 0°C to water at 0°C. The time T taken for this conversion
Options:
Increases with increasing n, with fixed
Increases with n fixed, increasing
Remains constant with n and changing such that n = constant
Increases when the product n increases
Solution :
Answer (3)
Energy of photons used = nT × h = mL
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An electron of mass me with an initial velocity is protected in an electric field (E0 = constant > 0). It's de-Broglie wavelength at
time t is given as (λ0 is initial wavelength of electron)
Options:
λ0t
Solution :
Answer (1)
21/104
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Let be the energy of the nth level of H-atom. If all the H-atoms are in ground state and radiation of frequency falls on it, then
Options:
It will not be absorbed at all
Some of atoms will move to the first excited state
All atoms will be excited to n = 2 state
Some of atoms will move to the second excited state
Solution :
Answer (2)
When all H-atoms are in ground state and radiation of frequency falls on it, some of the atoms will move to the first excited state (n
= 2) and no atom will make transition to the second excited state (n = 3).
22/104
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Consider a hydrogen-like atom whose energy (in eV) in nth excited state is given by
When this excited atom make a transition from excited state to ground state most energetic photon have energy Emax = 52.224
eV and least energetic photons have energy Emin = 1.224 eV.
The atomic number Z of atom is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Maximum energy
En → 1
...(1)
For minimum energy
En → En –1
Solving (1) & (2), n = 5, E1 = –54.4 eV
∴Z=2
23/104
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If f1, f2 and f3 are the frequencies of corresponding Kα, Kβ and Lα X-rays of an element, then
Options:
f2 = f1 + f3
f1 – f2 = f3
f22 = f1f3
f1 = f2 = f3
Solution :
Answer (1)
EL – EK = hf1
Em – Ek = hf2
Em – EL = hf3
hf2 = hf1 + hf3
24/104
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Mx and My denote the atomic mass of the parent and daughter nuclei respectively in radioactive decay. The Q-value for a β–
decay is Q1 and that for β+ decay is Q2. If me denotes the mass of an electron, then which of the following statement is
correct?
(c is velocity of light in vacuum)
Options:
Q1 = (Mx – My)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My)c2
Q1 = (Mx – My– 2me)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2me)c2
Q1 = (Mx – My)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My – 2me)c2
Q1 = (Mx – My+ 2me)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2me)c2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Let the nucleus is
Now for β–1 decay,
25/104
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The variation of decay rate of two radioactive sample P and Q with time is shown in the figure. Choose the correct statement.
Options:
Decay constant of P is greater than that of Q, hence P always decays faster than Q.
Decay constant of Q is greater than that of P but its decay rate is always smaller than that of P.
Decay constant of P is greater than that of Q but it does not always decay faster than Q.
Decay constant of P and Q is always equal.
Solution :
Answer (3)
From the plot, slope of curve P is greater than that of Q. So rate of decay of P is faster than that of Q.
We know that
At any instant of time we can say that λP > λQ.
At point A, two curves intersect.
Hence at point A, rate of decay for both P and Q is same.
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Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants 10λ and 2λ respectively. If initially they have same number of nuclei,
then the ratio of the number of nuclei A to that of B will be after time
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Comparing both sides
8λt = 1
26/104
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When 92U235 undergoes fission, 0.1% of its original mass is changed into energy. When 1.5 kg of 92U235 undergoes fission,
then energy released is
Options:
1.35 × 1014 J
13.5 × 1014 J
2.35 × 1014 J
2.35 × 1013 J
Solution :
Answer (1)
Mass of 92U235 changed into energy is
E = Δmc2 = 1.5 × 10–3 × 9 × 1016
= 1.35 × 1014 J
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As shown in the circuit, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage source. The voltage drop VAB(t) across resistance R
Options:
Is half wave rectified with negative half cycles
Is half wave rectified with positive half cycles
Is full wave rectified with the same peak value during positive and negative half cycles
Is full wave rectified with different peak values during positive and negative half cycles
Solution :
Answer (4)
27/104
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A n-p-n transistor in the common emitter mode is used as a simple voltage amplifier with a collector current of 4 mA, the
terminal of a 8 V battery is connected to the collector through a resistance RC and to the base through a resistance RB. The
collector to emitter voltage VCE is 4 V, base to emitter voltage VBE is 0.6 V and current amplification factor β is 100. The value
of RB and RC respectively are
Options:
1 kΩ, 185 kΩ
4 kΩ, 185 kΩ
185 kΩ, 1 kΩ
370 kΩ, 4 kΩ
Solution :
Answer (3)
Now, VCC = iBRB + VBE
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In a p-n junction diode, not connected to any circuit
Options:
The potential is same everywhere
There is an electric field at the junction directed from p side to n side
There is an electric field at the junction directed from n side to p side
p side is at higher potential than n side
Solution :
Answer (3)
Vn > Vp and electric field is directed from A side to P side.
28/104
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The logic circuit as shown in the figure is equivalent to
Options:
NAND
OR
XOR
NOR
Solution :
Answer (3)
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The magnitude of voltage gain of the operational amplifier as shown in the figure is equal to
Options:
50
5.1
500
Solution :
Answer (2)
For inverting op-amp.
29/104
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A 4 kW signal is transmitted using a communication channel which provides attenuation at the rate of –1 dB per km. If the
communication channel has a total length of 10 km, the power of the signal received is
Options:
3000 W
3440 W
400 W
3900 W
Solution :
Answer (3)
Pt = 4000 W
Rate of attenuation of signal = –1 dB km–1
Total attenuation
Now,
P0 = 400 W
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A speech signal of 4 kHz is use to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1 MHz using amplitude modulation. The frequency of
lower side band is equal to
Options:
996 MHz
996 kHz
1004 kHz
1.004 kHz
Solution :
Answer (2)
fLSB = fC – fm = (1000 – 4) kHz = 996 kHz
30/104
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A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height of 20 m. If this signal is received by a receiving antenna at a height of 20 m then
the service area that can be covered is
Options:
1024 km2
32 km2
32 km2
256 km2
Solution :
Answer (1)
Receiving antenna at a height of H = 20 m, then
Area = (Range)2 = × 322 × 106 m2 = 1024 km2
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SBTSAIIMS19T04_S41
In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
A : The frequency of male voice is less than that of female voice.
R : Pitch of female voice is low.
Options:
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Solution :
Answer (3)
31/104
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A : A silicon optical fibre with a core diameter large enough has a core refractive index of 1.50 and a cladding refractive index
1.47. The acceptance angle in air for this fibre is sin–1(0.3).
R : Acceptance angle θa = sin–1(NA), where NA is .
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
R : Mobility of carriers in semiconductor decreases with increase in temperature.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
32/104
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A : NAND and NOR gates are called digital building blocks.
R : The repeated use of NAND or NOR gates can produce all the basic or complex gates.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : The resolving power of a microscope is different for different colours of illuminating light.
R : Resolving power of a microscope is directly proportional to wavelength of illuminating light.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
33/104
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A : If lower half of a lens is covered with black paper, only half of the image of object is seen.
R : The upper and lower halves of a lens forms image of the same object separately.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
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A : Interference obeys the law of conservation of energy.
R : Energy is created during constructive interference is destroyed during destructive interference.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
34/104
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A : An optically active substance can rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light.
R : Light can be plane polarised circularly or elliptically polarised.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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A : Visible light cannot eject photoelectrons from a metal surface whose work function is 4.4 eV.
R : The threshold wavelength for given metal surface is less than the wavelength of visible light.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
35/104
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A : An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with
electron is longer.
R : de-Broglie wavelength .
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : Characteristics X-Rays are emitted by the excited atoms.
R : X-Rays cannot be obtained from hydrogen atom.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
36/104
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A : Bohr's atomic model cannot be used to explain multiple electron species.
R : Bohr's theory does not take inter-electronic intractions in account.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : In nuclear fission energy is released.
R : Total Binding energy of fission fragments is larger than the total binding energy of the parent nucleus.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
37/104
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A : If the half life of a radioactive substance is 20 days, then 75% substance decays in 40 days.
R:.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : Time dependent magnetic field generate conservative electric field.
R : Direction of electric field generated from time varying magnetic field does not obey Lenz's law.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
38/104
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A : When an aluminium disc is spun between the magnetic poles, it quickly comes to halt.
R : Eddy currents are produced in the disc, which set up a magnetic field and it opposes the motion.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : Generally loads are inductive in nature.
R : Capacitor can be used to improve power factor.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
39/104
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A : An inductor acts as a perfect conductor for direct current in steady state.
R : Power factor for pure inductor is non zero.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
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A : Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.
R : EM-wave carry both momentum and energy.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
40/104
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A : When cooking in microwave ovens, only metal containers are used.
R : Energy of microwaves can be easily transferred to the food through metal.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
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The most basic compound among the following is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Lone pair of electrons is present on sp3 hybridised nitrogen of compound hence, most easily available for protonation.
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The compound which will react fastest by SN2 mechanism is
Options:
CH3 – Br
CH3CH2– Br
(CH3)2CHCH2 – Br
(CH3)3CCH2 – Br
Solution :
Answer (1)
41/104
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Which among the following will exist as a pair of enantiomers?
Options:
PhCH2CH2Br
Solution :
Answer (4)
Enantiomeric pair
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Consider the following reaction.
Major product P is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
42/104
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Compound which will not give silver mirror test is
Options:
HCOOH
PhCHO
CH3CHO
Solution :
Answer (4)
Ketone does not give Tollen's test.
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The correct order of E2 elimination of the given alkyl halides is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Order of E2 reactivity is 3° > 2° > 1°
43/104
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Consider the following reaction sequence.
Major product D is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Incorrect statement among the following is
Options:
Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes beri beri.
Vitamin A is fat soluble vitamin.
Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes pernicious anaemia.
Deficiency of vitamin K causes scurvy.
Solution :
Answer (4)
44/104
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Which among the following is not an addition polymer?
Options:
Buna-S
Teflon
Terylene
Neoprene
Solution :
Answer (3)
Terylene is condensation polymer.
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Which among the following is an artificial sweetener?
Options:
Sucralose
Tetracycline
Salvarsan
Serotonin
Solution :
Answer (1)
45/104
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Major product C is
Options:
Primary alcohol
Ether
Secondary alcohol
Tertiary alcohol
Solution :
Answer (4)
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Which among the following is not a C – C bond forming reaction?
Options:
Aldol reaction
Cannizzaro reaction
Wurtz reaction
Perkin reaction
Solution :
Answer (2)
46/104
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Which among the following is most acidic compound?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Conjugate base is stabilised by intramolecular

H-bonding.
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The compound which will react most easily with aqueous AgNO3 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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The compound which will give iodoform test is
Options:
CH3CHO
CH3COOH
CH3CONH2
CH3CH2CHO
Solution :
Answer (1)
47/104
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Which among the following will not react with Hinsberg's reagent?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
3° amine does not react with Hinsberg's reagent.
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The compound which will react fastest with alkaline solution of phenol is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Coupling reaction is accelerated when electron withdrawing group is attached at para position to the diazonium salt.
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The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is
Options:
Zn-Hg/HCl
(i) NH2NH2 , (ii) KOH/Δ
LiAlH4/Et2O
NaBH4/MeOH
Solution :
Answer (2)
48/104
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Product C is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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The compound which will give brisk effervescence with aqueous NaHCO3 solution is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Carboxylic acid gives brisk effervescence with aqueous NaHCO3 by the evolution of CO2 gas.
Ph – COOH + NaHCO3 → Ph-COONa + CO2↑ + H2O
49/104
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Ethanol and acetaldehyde can be separated by
Options:
HCN
dil H2SO4
NaHSO3
Fehling's solution
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Consider following reactions.
Product B is
Options:
CH3CH2COOH
Solution :
Answer (4)
Step-1
Step-2
50/104
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The compound which will undergo saponification most easily is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Saponification is hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium. Electron withdrawing group at p-position to the benzene increases
electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.
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Which among the following is an antifertility drug?
Options:
Norethindrone
Nembutal
Meprobamate
Ofloxacin
Solution :
Answer (1)
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Monomer of perspex is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
51/104
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When benzaldehyde is treated with aqueous ethanolic KCN then the major product formed is
Options:
Ph – CH2CHO
Solution :
Answer (3)
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The polymer which is used in the manufacture of paints is
Options:
Polyacrylonitrile
Polystyrene
Glyptal
Nylon-2-nylon 6
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Which among the following is an incorrect statement?
Options:
In DNA molecule, the sugar moiety is β-D-2-deoxyribose.
Adenine and guanine are pyrimidine bases.
Uracil is present in RNA.
DNA forms double stranded helix.
Solution :
Answer (2)
Adenine and guanine are purine bases.
52/104
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Which among the following is not a reducing sugar?
Options:
D-mannose
D-fructose
Maltose
Sucrose
Solution :
Answer (4)
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The compound which will not give coloured precipitate with 2,4 – DNP is
Options:
Ph-CHO
Solution :
Answer (4)
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Solvent of choice for SN2 reaction is
Options:
CH3OH
H2O
Both (1) and (3)
Solution :
Answer (3)
53/104
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Total number of optically active product (s) formed by the reaction of trans-2-pentene with Br2/CCl4 is
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
(A) and (B) are optically active compounds.
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Major product B is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
54/104
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When phenetole (ethoxy benzene) is heated with HI the products formed are
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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Products C and D are
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
55/104
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Correct order of boiling point of the given molecules is
Options:
(CH3)3 C – Cl > (CH3)3C – Br > (CH3)3C – I
(CH3)3 C – Cl > (CH3)3C – I > (CH3)3C – Br
(CH3)3 C – l > (CH3)3C – Cl > (CH3)3C – Br
(CH3)3 C – l > (CH3)3C – Br > (CH3)3C – CI
Solution :
Answer (4)
Higher the molar mass, higher will be van-der Waals force of attraction hence, higher will be the boiling point.
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The compound having highest enol content is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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The pair of compounds which can be distinguished by Fehlings solution is
Options:
Acetone and Benzaldehyde
Acetaldehyde and Acetone
Benzaldehyde and Oxalic acid
Acetaldehyde and Formic acid
Solution :
Answer (2)
Aromatic aldehyde does not give positive test to Fehling's solution.
56/104
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Consider the following reaction.
Major product P is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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The compound which will be dehydrated most easily in presence of sulphuric acid is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 1
SBTSAIIMS19T04_S101
A : Pyridine is more basic than aniline.
R : Pyridine is a heterocyclic compound.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
In aniline nitrogen lone pair is delocalised in the benzene ring. In pyridine nitrogen lone pair is available for protonation.
57/104
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A : Ethyl benzoate can be hydrolysed in acidic medium.
R : Ethyl benzoate on hydrolysis gives benzyl alcohol and acetic acid.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
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A : Benzamide on reaction with Br2 in presence of aqueous alkali gives aniline.
R : Aniline can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
58/104
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A : Benzaldehyde on reaction with ammoniacal silver nitrate forms silver mirror.
R : Benzaldehyde reduces Tollen's reagent to elemental silver.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
PhCHO + 2[Ag(NH3)2]+ + → PhCOO– + 2Ag + 2H2O + 4 NH3
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A : Acetaldehyde on reaction with ethylene glycol in presence of dry HCl gives an acetal.
R : Acetal is hydrolysed by dilute H2SO4.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
59/104
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A : 2-methylpropanal forms aldol in presence of dilute NaOH.
R : 2-methylpropanal contains α-hydrogen.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
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A : Phenol is more acidic than ethyl alcohol.
R : Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilised.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Stable the conjugate base, stronger is the acid.
60/104
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A : Enantiomers are nonsuperimposable mirror images to each other.
R : Enantiomers can be separated by fractional distillation.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Enantiomers can not be separated by physical methods because their physical properties are same.
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A : α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are reducing sugars.
R : α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are diastereomers.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
61/104
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A : Histidine is an essential amino acid.
R : Histidine cannot be synthesised in the body.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Essential amino acids are not synthesised in the body.
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A : Tetrahedral intermediate is formed on addition of HCN to acetone.
R : HCN addition to acetone is catalysed by base.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
HCN being weak acid cannot furnish CN– easily so the reaction is catalysed by base.
62/104
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A : CH3S– is a better nucleophile than .
R : CH3S– is easily polarised by carbon electrophile than CH3O–.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Sulphur being larger in size than oxygen hence, CH3S– is easily polarised.
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A : When acetone is treated with perbenzoic acid then methyl acetate is formed.
R : Ph2C = O18 yields only on reaction with perbenzoic acid.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
63/104
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A : EtSCH2CH2Cl undergoes hydrolysis much faster than EtOCH2CH2Cl.
R : Neighbouring group participation effect of take place in EtSCH2CH2Cl.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Neighbouring group participation of sulphur
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A : Benzenediazonium chloride gives white precipitate when treated with aqueous AgNO3.
R : Benzenediazonium chloride is an ionic compound.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
64/104
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A : Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer.
R : Monomer of nylon-6, 6 is caprolactam.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
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A : CH3MgBr is an organometallic compound but CH3ONa is not.
R : CH3MgBr reacts with methanol to give CH4 gas.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
65/104
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A : Maltase catalyses the hydrolysis of maltose into glucose.
R : The enzymes which catalyse the oxidation of one substrate with simultaneous reduction of another substrate are called
oxidoreductase enzymes.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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A : Formaldehyde undergoes nucleophilic addition reaction faster than benzaldehyde.
R : Formaldehyde reacts with 50% NaOH but benzaldehyde does not.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both give Cannizzaro reaction with 50% NaOH.
66/104
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A : When phenol reacts with Br2/water then 2,4,6- tribromophenol is obtained.
R : Phenol is less acidic than water.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Phenol is more acidic than water.
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Emasculation is an essential process to perform cross hybridisation among selected parents. Emasculation is done, if
Options:
The male parent plant bears unisexual flowers
The female parent bears bisexual flowers
The plants are dioecious
The female parent bears unisexual flowers
Solution :
Answer (2)
67/104
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Which of the following is said to be biofortification?
Options:
Developing wheat variety resistance to leaf beetle
Incorporation of resistance to yellow mosaic virus in mung bean
Developing vitamin A enriched carrots
Deriving semi-dwarf rice varieties from IR-8 and Taichung Native-I
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Bitter taste in some almonds is due to the antinutritional factor
Options:
Amygdalin
Lectin
Erucic acid
Cyanoalanine
Solution :
Answer (1)
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In callus culture, the culture medium usually contains the plant regulators
Options:
2,4-D and cytokinin
Auxin and ABA
Ethylene and cytokinin
Gibberellin and abscisic acid
Solution :
Answer (1)
68/104
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Examples of biofertilisers are
Options:
Sorghum, Alfa-alfa, millet
Azospirillum, Anabaena, Glomus
Farmyard wastes
By-products of cereal harvest like chaff and straw
Solution :
Answer (2)
Biofertilisers are the organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil.
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A prokaryotic organism is used in
Options:
Ripening of Roquefort cheese
Fermenting dough for making bread
Production of beer on industrial scale
Ripening of Swiss cheese
Solution :
Answer (4)
Large holed Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium Propionibacterium shermanii.
69/104
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The organism that produces an immunosuppressive agent cyclosporin A belongs to the class
Options:
Phycomycetes
Ascomycetes
Basidiomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Solution :
Answer (4)
Cyclosporin A is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
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Select the incorrect statements w.r.t. secondary treatment of waste water.
(i) It is a physico-chemical process.
(ii) In this stage, pesticides and pathogens are removed.
(iii) There is the production of methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide in this stage.
(iv) The process that reduces BOD of waste water occurs in this stage.
Options:
(i) & (ii) only
(ii) & (iv)
(i), (ii) & (iii)
(iii) & (iv)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Tertiary treatment is a physico-chemical process. In this stage, DDT, pesticides and pathogens are removed.
70/104
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In all of the following biomes, maximum annual precipitation is more the 150 cm, except in
Options:
Coniferous forest
Temperate forest
Grassland
Tropical forest
Solution :
Answer (3)
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Owl and cat
Options:
Occupy same trophic level in a single food chain
Are the examples of ecological equivalents
Are stenothermal animals
Occupy exactly the same niche
Solution :
Answer (2)
Organisms that occupy the same or similar ecological niches in different geographical regions are known as ecological equivalents.
71/104
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The features that show xerophytic nature of Opuntia are
a. Scotoactive stomata
b. Modification of leaves into spine
c. Absence of cuticle on the leaf surface
d. Occurrence of crassulacean acid metabolism
Options:
a, b & c
b, c & d
a & b only
a, b & d
Solution :
Answer (4)
Opuntia have cuticle on their surface.
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Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Sea anemone - hermit crab (i) Commensalism
b. Cattle - egret (ii) Protocooperation
c. Sparrow - seed (iii) Predation
d. Tick - dog (iv) Parasitism
Options:
a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
Solution :
Answer (3)
72/104
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Which one of the following organisms can be placed at second as well as third trophic level?
Options:
Sparrow
Snake
Eagle
Jackal
Solution :
Answer (1)
Sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits etc. and secondary consumer when it eats insects and worms.
You scored 0 of 1
Free floating plants like Azolla and Wolffia form
Options:
Climax community of hydrarch succession
Transitional community of xerarch succession
Climax community of xerarch succession
Transitional community of hydrarch succession
Solution :
Answer (4)
73/104
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One of the elements in nucleic acid for which the reservoir pool in the ecosystem is lithosphere. That elements is
Options:
Phosphorous
Nitrogen
Carbon
Sulphur
Solution :
Answer (1)
Elements present in nucleic acid are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus.
You scored 0 of 1
Organisms belong to an ecological pyramid are herbivorous birds, hawk and tree. Pyramid of biomass of this ecosystem will be
Options:
Urn-shaped
Inverted
Upright
Spindle-shaped
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sequence of biomass in a tree ecosystem is tree > herbivorous birds > hawk.
74/104
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Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and choose the option accordingly.
A. As compared to tropical environments temperate ones are less seasonal, more constant and predictable.
B. The value of slope of regression of species area relationships lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2 when analysis is done among
small areas.
AB
(1) F F
(2) T F
(3) F T
(4) T T
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
All of the following are key criteria for determining a hotspot, except
Options:
High degree of endemism
Occurrence of particular species in all parts of the world
Very high levels of species richness
Degree of threat in term of habitat loss
Solution :
Answer (2)
75/104
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Select the incorrect match from the following.
Options:
Aerosols – Causes O3 depletion
Sulphur dioxide – Inhibits ETS in plants
Marsh gas – Natural pollutant
Platinum-palladium – Removes lead from automobile exhaust
Solution :
Answer (4)
Lead inactivates the catalyst of the converter.
You scored 0 of 1
Montreal protocol was signed in Canada to
Options:
Control the emission of ODS
Enhance the forest productivity
Reduce the rate of deforestation
Control the use of chemicals against insects and pests
Solution :
Answer (1)
76/104
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Select a disorder caused by a sporozoan which usually affects blood cells of cattle and is spread by ticks.
Options:
Mastitis
Anthracis
Ranikhet
Babesiosis
Solution :
Answer (4)
Babesia is apicomplex sporozoan causing babesiosis in cattle.
You scored 0 of 1
One can observe a decrease in frequency of heterozygous genotypes by continued
Options:
Inbreeding
Outcrossing
Outbreeding
Cross-breeding
Solution :
Answer (1)
Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
77/104
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Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology
Options:
Assists in herd improvement
Involves administration of LH like hormone to induce superovulation
Is very successful in both fishes and poultry
Is always aimed at interspecific hybridisation
Solution :
Answer (1)
FSH like hormone is administered in cattle, sheep, rabbits but not fishes & poultry.
You scored 0 of 1
Which of the following is associated with increased crop yield of sunflower & Brassica due to enhanced pollination efficiency?
Options:
Apiculture
Sericulture
Pisciculture
Aquaculture
Solution :
Answer (1)
Bees are effective pollinators for many crop species.
78/104
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Superior males of the breed are mated with superior females of another breed. The above described technique resulted in
Options:
Mule
Hinny
Hisardale
Leghorn
Solution :
Answer (3)
Cross-breeding resulted in development of Hisardale, while mule and hinny are products of interspecific hybridisation. Leghorn is
improved variety of poultry.
You scored 0 of 1
Bioprocess and genetic engineering utilise ____ to keep bacterial cultures free of infection in laboratory.
Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
Options:
Antibiotic resistance genes
Antibiotics
MCS
lac Z
Solution :
Answer (2)
Antibiotic resistance genes in vectors act as selectable markers.
79/104
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What is the resultant molecule named when genes from multiple sources are combined together, with a plasmid using
enzymes?
Options:
Copy DNA
Chimeric DNA
Religated DNA
Chromosomal DNA
Solution :
Answer (2)
Recombinant DNA is also called chimeric DNA.
You scored 0 of 1
Hind II
Options:
Recognises an 8 bp long palindromic sequence
Is a type II restriction exonuclease
Was isolated from bacteria whose genus is influenzae
Produces blunt ends after digesting DNA at a specific position
Solution :
Answer (4)
6 bp sequence is recognised by HindII which is a restriction endonuclease.
80/104
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Select the correct match
Options:
Molecular glue – DNA ligase
Molecular scissors – Lyases
'Ori' of pBR322 – Acts as selectable marker
MCS of pBR322 – Harbours RE site for Pst I
Solution :
Answer (1)
Molecular scissors that is restriction endonucleases are hydrolases.
You scored 0 of 1
The separated DNA fragments in agarose gel electrophoresis can be visualised by staining DNA with
Options:
Bromophenol blue
Ethidium bromide
Ninhydrin
Sudan Black
Solution :
Answer (2)
Bromophenol blue is a tracking dye.
81/104
You scored 0 of 1
If in a linear DNA, sequence 5' GAATTC 3' appears at two sites, how many restriction fragments will result if we use EcoRI for
restriction digestion?
Options:
Four
Three
Two
Zero
Solution :
Answer (2)
EcoRI recognises 5' GAATTC 3' and cuts linear DNA at two locations resulting in three fragments.
You scored 0 of 1
The correct expansion of 'GMO' is
Options:
Genetically modelled organism
Genetically modified organism
Genetically mutant organism
Genetically moderated organism
Solution :
Answer (2)
Transgenics are GMOs.
82/104
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In a continuous culture system, cells are maintained in physiologically most active phase called
Options:
Lag phase
Exponential phase
Stationary phase
Declining phase
Solution :
Answer (2)
Exponential phase is log phase.
You scored 0 of 1
Downstream processing does not include
Options:
Expression of desired protein
Purification of desired protein
Formulation and preservation of desired protein
Separation of desired product
Solution :
Answer (1)
Expression of desired protein in host is a part of upstream processing.
83/104
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Step required for formation of mature insulin is
Options:
Removal of C chain from insulin
Removal of C chain from proinsulin
Linking of C chain in proinsulin
Addition of C chain to proinsulin
Solution :
Answer (2)
Maturation of proinsulin into insulin requires removal of C chain.
You scored 0 of 1
Vitamin A precursor enriched product is
Options:
Glyphosate
Flavr Savr
Golden rice
Bt brinjal
Solution :
Answer (3)
Golden rice has high content of β-carotene.
84/104
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Select the odd one w.r.t source
Options:
Hashish
Marijuana
Cocaine
Charas
Solution :
Answer (3)
Cocaine can be obtained from extract of Erythroxylum coca.
You scored 0 of 1
Compounds not used in treatment of allergy or anaphylactic shock is
Options:
Adrenaline
Histamine
Prednisolone
Cortisol
Solution :
Answer (2)
Histamine is released during allergic response.
85/104
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Passive immunity is not exemplified by
Options:
Administration of tetanus toxoid in response to an injury
Feeding colostrum to a neonate
IgG travelling across placenta during embryonic life
Injecting antivenin to a person in case of snake bite
Solution :
Answer (1)
TT is a vaccine and part of active immunity.
You scored 0 of 1
Infective stage of causative agent of cerebral malaria for Homo sapiens is
Options:
Merozoite
Ookinete
Sporozoite
Schizont
Solution :
Answer (3)
Sporozoites are injected into the blood of man by infected female Anopheles mosquito.
86/104
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SBTSAIIMS19T04_S161
A : Saccharum barberi has higher sugar content and thicker stems.
R : Saccharum barberi is a mutant variety of Saccharum officinarum.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Saccharum barberi was grown in North India and had poor sugar content and yield.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Apical and axillary meristems are free of virus.
R : Apical and axillary meristems have high concentration of auxin and rapid rate of cell division.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
87/104
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A : Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
R : Wine and beer have low alcohol concentration.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 1
A : The majority of baculoviruses are used as biocontrol agents.
R : Baculoviruses are of broad spectrum insecticidal application.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Baculoviruses have species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
88/104
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A : Bacteria form thick walled spores to overcome unfavourable conditions.
R : Bacterial spores undergo suspended development in winters by the mechanism called aestivation.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Aestivation occurs in some invertebrates in response to very hot and dry conditions.
You scored 0 of 1
A : The logistic growth model of a population is considered a more realistic one.
R : Resources for growth for most populations are finite and become limiting sooner or later.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
89/104
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A : Carbon is a component of all organic compounds of protoplasm.
R : Carbon is fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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A : Species diversity is product of species richness and species evenness.
R : Species richness is the number of species present within a unit area.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
90/104
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A : Vulnerability of a species results in complete loss of genetic information contained in it.
R : A species is said to be vulnerable when the last individual of that species has died.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Complete disappearance or extinction of a species results in complete loss of genetic information contained in it.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Biomagnification of DDT occurs in a food chain.
R : DDT is a non-biodegradable compound.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
91/104
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A : Hilsa and Rohu cannot be reared together during culture fishery.
R : These fishes live in different habitats.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Hilsa is a marine fish while Rohu is a freshwater fish.
You scored 0 of 1
A : DNA fragments migrate towards the anode under the influence of an electric field during gel electrophoresis.
R : DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Anode is the positive terminal and it attracts DNA.
92/104
You scored 0 of 1
A : Chitinase is used to obtain DNA from Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
R : Pseudomonas is a bacteria whose cell wall contains cellulose and chitin.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Pseudomonas is a bacterium whose cell wall contains peptidoglycans.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Treatment of E.coli cells with divalent, ice cold calcium chloride solution increases efficiency of transformation.
R : Recombinant DNA gains entry into competent cells at 4°C.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Entry of rDNA occurs at 42°C (heat shock) in E. coli cells.
93/104
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A : Restriction enzymes link foreign DNA to a plasmid in order to produce rDNA.
R : Restriction enzymes are called molecular glue.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
DNA ligase is used for linking hence, called molecular glue.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm.
R : Toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis was introduced into cotton plants.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Gene for toxin was introduced into the cotton plant not the toxin itself.
94/104
You scored 0 of 1
A : The nematode Agrobacterium tumefaciens infect the root of tobacco plants.
R : This nematode infestation can be prevented by use of post translational gene silencing method called RNAi.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Nematode Meloidogyne incognitia infects roots of tobacco plants.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Humulin is synthesized usually in heterologous host E.coli.
R : Escherichia coli lacks a native plasmid.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Human insulin is synthesized in alternate host E. coli (bacteria).
95/104
You scored 0 of 1
A : Morphine is considered a powerful analgesic.
R : Receptors for opioid compounds are present in CNS thereby reducing fever but not pain.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Analgesics are pain killers.
You scored 0 of 1
A : Insomnia in a person can be treated by continued and exclusive use of amphetamines.
R : Amphetamine is a category of drugs act as depressants of CNS.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Amphetamines are stimulants of CNS.
96/104
You scored 0 of 1
Marsel Van Oosten has won wildlife photographer of the year for capturing image of pair of golden snub-nosed monkeys for
which of the following year?
Options:
2016
2017
2018
2019
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
Who among the following has become India's first silver - medalist in Archery at the Youth Olympic Games of 2018?
Options:
Atanu Das
Abhishek Verma
Akash Malik
Rajat Chauhan
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
Bajrang Punia has won gold in the final of 65 kg Freestyle Wrestling Competition at Asian Games 2018. Bajrang Punia has
defeated Daichi Takatani. Daichi Takatani belongs to which of the following country?
Options:
Australia
Japan
Mexico
France
Solution :
Answer (2)
97/104
You scored 0 of 1
Who among the following has won Men's Singles in US Open Tennis 2018?
Options:
Rafael Nadal
Roger Federer
Novak Djocovic
Juan Martin Del Potro
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
International Literacy Day is celebrated annually on which of following day?
Options:
2nd September
6th September
7th September
8th September
Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 1
In which of the following city of India, India Steel 2019 Exhibition and Conference has been held recently?
Options:
Kolkata
Mumbai
Patna
Ramgarh
Solution :
Answer (2)
98/104
You scored 0 of 1
Which of the following State has recently announced Pakke Hornbill Festival as State Festival?
Options:
Manipur
Assam
Arunachal Pradesh
Sikkim
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
Which of the following space agency is to launch SPHERE x mission to investigate universe?
Options:
NASA
ISRO
RASSCOM
ESA
Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 1
Headquarter of "The Energy and Resource Institute" is situated in which of the following city of India?
Options:
Mumbai
Kolkata
New Delhi
Patna
Solution :
Answer (3)
99/104
You scored 0 of 1
Which of the following organization has released World Employment and Social Outlook Trends 2019?
Options:
World Health Organization
World Labor Organization
World Bank Group
International Labour Organization
Solution :
Answer (4)
You scored 0 of 1
Ram is brother of Shivi, who is only daughter of Ramesh. Menu is mother of Ram. How Ramesh is related to Menu?
Options:
Wife
Husband
Brother
Father
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 1
D is heavier than F and E but lighter than A. B is heavier than E and D but lighter than A. If all five are arranged in ascending
order, according to their weight, then who is at third position from start?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
100/104
You scored 0 of 1
If a month starts and ends on the Monday, then the number of days in the month will be
Options:
31
30
29
28
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
The sum of the angles swept by hour and minute hand in 52 minutes is
Options:
312°
338°
326°
315°
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 1
In certain code 'BROTHER' is written as $%53#4% and 'DREAM' is written as How is 'BEDOTHERM' written in that code?
Options:
#3%479$59
Solution :
Answer (2)
101/104
You scored 0 of 1
If a cube is painted with pink, white and green on its faces such that exactly one pair of two adjacent faces has painted with
same color and then it is cut into 343 smaller cubes of equal size, then the number of smaller cubes, with all three colors will be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 1
Which of the following term is wrong in the following pattern?
7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 344, 511
Options:
124
215
28
511
Solution :
Answer (1)
102/104
You scored 0 of 1
In this question numbers on either side of ':' has a relation between them which is same in each pair of numbers on either side
of '::'. Choose a correct option to replace the '?'.
32 : 215 :: 62 : 1727 :: 24 : ?
Options:
512
521
511
513
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 1
If a solid cube is painted with red colour on three adjacent surfaces and then cut and divided into 125 small cubes of equal size,
then the number of small cubes which are not having any red surface is
Options:
61
64
65
94
Solution :
Answer (2)
103/104
You scored 0 of 1
Choose the appropriate number for fourth place.
13 : 91 : : 131 : ?
Options:
931
943
917
932
Solution :
Answer (3)
104/104

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5/20/2019 Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : Score Booster Test Series For AIIMS-2019_Test-04

2500 = 1200 + 800 + 2M

Now, L1, 3 = L1 + L2 – 2M = 1200 + 800 – 2 × 250

Flux through smaller loop is

Net emf enet = |e1 – e2|

Now, R = 4(a + b)ρ

i = 2(sin(100 t) + sin(100 t + 60°))

100 μF, 100 μF

Power will be maximum at resonance

Pavg → minimum when z → maximum.

i.e. will be maximum

Line resistance = 60 × 0.5 = 30 Ω

rms current in line

Hence, line power loss = (25)2 × 30 = 18750 W

Hence, power supplied by the plant

Displacement current is leftward.

The magnetic field at point P is into the page.

Electric field is rightward.

The magnetic field at point P is out of the page.

Hence, displacement current is in direction of conduction current (Leftward)

Hence, magnetic field at point P will be into the page.

The electric field component of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is .

The amplitude of magnetic field component is

The frequency of wave is 89 Mz.

Wavelength of em wave is 3.5 m (approximately).

Wave is moving in positive y direction approximately.

Hence, distance between images O1 & O2 will be

From Snell's law

From Snell's law,

PI1 = PI2 and I1PI2 will be perpendicular to mirror.

Hence, coordinates of final image are (4 m, 0.3 m).

Fringe width in wedge shaped air film is

= 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 3.2 × 10–19 J

Increases with increasing n, with fixed

Increases with n fixed, increasing

Remains constant with n and changing such that n = constant

Increases when the product n increases

Energy of photons used = nT × h = mL

It will not be absorbed at all

Some of atoms will move to the first excited state

All atoms will be excited to n = 2 state

Some of atoms will move to the second excited state

The atomic number Z of atom is

For minimum energy

Solving (1) & (2), n = 5, E1 = –54.4 eV

hf2 = hf1 + hf3

Q1 = (Mx – My)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My)c2

Q1 = (Mx – My– 2me)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2me)c2

Q1 = (Mx – My)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My – 2me)c2

Q1 = (Mx – My+ 2me)c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2me)c2

Let the nucleus is

Now for β–1 decay,

Decay constant of P and Q is always equal.

At any instant of time we can say that λP > λQ.

At point A, two curves intersect.

Hence at point A, rate of decay for both P and Q is same.

Comparing both sides

Mass of 92U235 changed into energy is

E = Δmc2 = 1.5 × 10–3 × 9 × 1016

Is half wave rectified with negative half cycles

Is half wave rectified with positive half cycles

Now, VCC = iBRB + VBE