M13 RADIO

1. Sidelobe suppression circuit in an ATC transponder inhibit replied with the interrogation signal.
A. P2 pulse leading the P1 pulse
B. P2 pulse exceeding the P1 pulse in magnitude
C. P2 pulse operation in anti-phase to the P1 pulse

2. The electrical wave anti-ando is a point on the transmission line:

A. The incidence wave is reflected from the mismatch load.
B. Max voltage or current value when standing wave existed.
C. Min voltage or current value when standing wave existed.

3. Balanced modulator of HF SSB TX

A. Eliminate harmonic & carrier.
B. Add or Remove the carrier.
C. Eliminate carrier. (john)

3.1 prior demodulated single side band (SSB) signal

A. carrier must be removed
B. carrier must be reinserted
C. amplitude variation (must be removed by limiter)

3.1 Oscillator frequency drift of SSB (single side band) receiver

A. cause audio signal distortion
B. inadequate bandwidth
C. excessive bandwidth

3.2 increase bandwidth of a receiver wave

A. assist preservation the wave shape but increasing the noise signal
B. assist preservation the wave shape and decrease the noise signal
C. cause deteriation the wave shape and increase the noise signal

4. ACARS OOOI
A. Out of gate, out of ground, on ground, in gate.
B.
C.

5. MLS
A. The time between the ground signal send and receive.
B. Time spacing between 2 pulse.
C. Amplitude comparion of 2 signals

5.1 MLS frequency is

A. 12 – 15 MHz
B. 1 -3 GHz
C. 5 -6 GHz

6. VSWR is measured in
A. The max and min values of the standing wave voltage
B. The anti-node and node of the reflected wave
C. The anti-node and node of the forward wave

6.1 the aerial turning unit at fixed value, are adjusted with the aid of
A. wattmeter
B. portable receiver
C. VSWR tester

7. VSWR of HF antenna.
A. > 2:1
B. < 2:1
C. > 1:2

8. VSWR of forward voltage 1V, reflected voltage 1.2V

A. 1.2
B. 2.72
C. 2.61

9. ACARS.
A. 2400 band
B. 23k band
C. 56k band

10. new modern cabin entertainment.

A. Install ? in maintenance.
B. ?
C. ?

11. bulk earse of cocpit voice recorder.

A. Engine shut down.
B. Parking break on and lock.
C. Chalk the wheel.

12. Radio altitude use.

A. Continuous wave with frequency modulation.
B. Continuous wave with amplitude modulation.
C. ?

13. AID ( aircraft installation delay )

A. Time delay between transmitter and receiver in the feeder line. (the length of the feeder line)
B. Time delay between transmitter and receiver when ground is connected to feeder.
C. ?

14. PTV is commonly install in commercial aircraft because:

A. Duty free service and cabin maintenance
B. Airshow, flight dada entry, video game.
C. Overheard video, movie selection.

15. Better long range resolution.

A. Long frequency transmission.
B. Lower frequency.transmission.
C.

16.. primary input GPWS

A. Barometer data, ILS, FCC data
B. RA, Barometer data, ILS, Landing gear, Flap position sensor
C. RA, Flap position sensor, FCC

17. In advance cabin entertainment system multiplexing

A. Convert serial inputs to parallel output.
B. Convert parallel input to serial output.
C. Decoding binary data.

18. The lightning preventation materials of radome.

A. Part of the radome.
B. Woven with the radome case.
C. Adhere to radome.
the lightning diverter of aircraft radome is made of
A. braided bonding wire
B. thin metal foil strips
C. conductive pained strips

19. 111.3 Hhz is ?

A. DME---978-1213Mhz
B. VOR--- 108-118Mhz
C. ILS

20. RNAV use in?

A. DME + VOR only.
B. VOR + GPS.
C. ?

21 ACAR channel ( 4 of them )

A. 131xx Mhz
B. ?
C. ?

22. GPS calculation via,

A. Time between Tx + Rx
B. Intergration of time between Tx + Rx
C. Change of frequency between Tx + Rx

23. ATC transponder

A. 1090 Mhz at interval of 20us (aircraft)
B. 1030 Mhz at interval of 20us (ground)
C. 1090 Mhz at interval of 80us

23.1 the ATC code is 0600, then the transmitted pulse should include
A. B2, B4
B. B0, B6
C. A2, A4 and B2

23.2 ATC altitude reporting for a particular altitude the code should be
A. referred to altitude conversion chart IAW ICAO specification
B. convert the decimal altitude to binary
C. choose the first four bits of the address code

24. ELT mounting

A. At CG
B. For vertical impact of 5g
C. For longitudinal axis impact

25. DME installation

A. With VOR panel
B. With ATC transponder
C. ?

26. Radio altimeter.

A. Circuit delay to make up for frequency at low attitude.
B. Pulsating signal
C. ?

Altimeter
A. continuous wave in frequency modulation
B. pulse wave
C. continuous wave

27. Supeshetdyne sqelch

A. ?
B. ?
C. ?

28 Autoland left right on runway.

A. VOR
B. LOC
C. ?

29. Loc 150 Mhz not equal receiver then vehicle will stay.
A. left
B. right
C. center

30. HF TX capacity of 100 watt in carrier mode, how much PEF if modulation depth is %100 ?
A. 400 watts
B. 100 watts peak
C. 200 watts

31. Radio altitude

A. 4200 kHz – 4400 KHz
B. 4200 MHZ – 4400MHz C. 200MHz – 400MHz
C.
32. Aircraft east of VOR station, variable phase & reference phase
A. anti-phase
B. anti-phase quarter
C. in phase

33. Precipitation static

A. high speed aircraft
B. air flow auto through aircraft by jet exhaust
C. ?

34. VNAV
A. Throttle
B. Elevator
C. Aileron

35. Glide slope approach, spoiler function as.

A. affect direct lift
B. speed break
C. dump lift only

36. Output of ADF loop and aerial sense.

A. in phase
B. anti-phase
C. 90 degree out of phase
36.1 the two phase inductor motor of in ADF, drive
A. fixed loop
B. indicator pointer directly
C. both goniometer and indicator pointer

36.2 if the ADF loop signal cable is too long, they should
A. shortened to a convenient length
B. shortened to a convenient length and then calibrated during a loop swing
C. positioned so that the excess length can conveniently coiled

37. HF SSB carrier frequency is

A. transmitted together with SSB
B. transmitted together with modulating signal
C. suppressed and re-inserted to receiver

38. 30db attenuation, input 1W, output…

A. 1000W
B. 333mW
C. 1mW

39. AM double side band use for detection

A. frequency
B. duration
C. amplitude

ELT emergency locate transmitter, usually locate at,

A. near avionics bay
B. near center of gravity
C. as back as possible of fuselage

40. RS485 entertainment system bus

A. one to one
B. one to many
C. two to many

41. PTV is true

A. token ring for video system
B. serial link to LCD monitor
C. ?

42. Beamwidth of the radar transmission determines:

A. Azimuth resolution (bearing resolution)
B. Range accuracy
C. Range resolution

43. Static discharge is discharged with

A. low static current
B. low static voltage
C. high current level

44. input wave amplitude = 10V, reflected wave amplitude = 2V, VSWR = ?
A. 1.5
B. 1.22
C. 2.61

45. Bearing of ADF is 60 degree relative to A/C heading is 30 degree, RMI bearing ?
A. 30 degree
B. 60 degree
C. 90 degree

46. Range accuracy of radar by adjusting

A. Accuracy of time base duration
B. Accuracy of range marker generator
C. Accuracy of the bright up circuit

47. Radar range….. performance

A. ? time duration
B. Pulsating frequency
C. ?

49. Anti-node of the standing wave

A. max current/voltage of the standing wave
B. min current/voltage of the standing wave
C. ?

50. A/C at 10000 ft, tge ground station approx.

A. 120nm
B. 480nm
C. 900nm

51. Frequency of outer marker

A. 400Hz
B. 1000Hz
C. 1300Hz

52. Vertical wave produced by

A. vertical dipole
B. horizontal dipole
C. horizontal unipole

52.1 A half wave dipole radiates

A. equally in all directional
B. mostly along the dipole
C. mostly at right to the dipole

53. Radome
A. cannot paint
B. using non-metallic structure
C. paint with black paint ( conductive )

54. DME in STANDBY mode when

A. out of range of station.
B. range of station
C.

55. PTV connecting to system…

A. token ring for video modulation
B. via SEB serial communication bus to LCD
C. ?
56. Wire integrity in PTV
A. carried out operational test
B. software installation + BITE test
C. PAX addressing + PSU

56.1 verify wire integrated of PTV with passenger service system, then
A. operational test
B. software configuration and BITE
C. must have a PAS and PSS operation and running

56.2 PTV, loading software for SEB, the most important factor is
A. addressing each SEB
B. taken ring rules
C. LRU P/N and software version

57. ELT engaged when…

A. impact force greater than 5G’s
B. only transmits 263 MHz signal
C. directional transmission powerd by battery pack.

58. DME squitter frequency (DME squitter comes from DME station)
A. 700
B. 2700/sec
C. ?

58.1 In DME system, the quitter pulses are

A. used to transmit from DME interrogator to ground beacon
B. ………….. regulate at least 700Hz
C. …………..average at 2700Hz

58.2 DME squitter come from?

A. test set
B. interrogator
C. DME station

59. Testing of transponder

A. test receiver
B. ? to all ?
C/ ?

60. ADF protection ? screening ?

A. interference
B. ?
C. ?

61. Label on static vent.

A. Do not paint.
B. Do not scratch
C. Do not cover the HOLE

62. VOR lock disengage when

A. which going away of starting
B. above starting
C ?
63. VOR switch off when
A. aircraft far away from the VOR station.
B. selecting frequency of LOC/VOR
C. aircraft passing the VOR station

64. ELT mount on.

A. close to avionic bay
B. as far aft the fuselage and with a inertia switch, oriented to the longitudinal axis
C. close to aircraft CG

65. cockpit voice recorder capable records

A. 30mins with 4 separate channel
B. 60mins with 3 separate channel
C. 120mins with 4 separate channel

66. X band wavelength satellite. ( C band is 7 cm )

A. 3 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 10cm

67. The audio indicating portion of the Marker beacon system

A. the audio tones along with the morse cord to identify a station is made variable through a NAV
receiver
B. the audio AC (about 6V) is use to light an indicator light
C. the sensitivity switch must be set to HIGH if ILS approach is setted (beacon Morse code transmission)

68. VOR at “000”, course heading at “010”

A. move to left 10 degree
B. move to right 10 degree (john)
C. remain

69. Aerodrome does not affected by static charge

A. abrasion shield
B. conductive coating
C. no conductive coating

70. 318 AIS (audio integration system) noise filter

A. first attenuate then amplify
B. first amplify then attenuate
C. ?

71. A quarter wave waveguide shorted circuit

A. ? series ?
B. similar to parallel resonant high Q
C. similar to paralled resonant low Q

72. Windshear detection system.

A. performance data to FDR
B. is on independent system
C. give aural and visual warning

73. Polled mode of ACARS

A. initiated the communication by the ground
B. the crew can communicated to ground at any time
C. send message for six time before the crew alert

74. Personal entertainment fault send to

A. central management uni (fault entry to FMS)
B. EICAS (display in lower EICAS)
C. individual LRU under each seat (to individual seat LRU)

75. Testing glide slope coupling

A. LOC freq selected, G/S mode engaged
B. Beam switch engaged, LOC freq selected
C. Beam switch disengaged, COR freq selected

76. VHF, the advantage to IF stage is:

A. IF is higher freq than AF, so more accurate in decoding
B. IF is more easy to control by receiver
C. ?

77. RMI indicator contain

A. course select error and heading indication
B. ?
C. ?

78. Peaking antenna

A. matching of internal impedance of receiver to the internal impedance of transmitter
B. adjust the length of antenna to match the wavelength
C. input capacitor in series or parallel to match ?

79. LOS = ( line of sight )

A. 1.23 H 1/2 nm
B. 0.123 H 1/2 nm
C. 1.23 H 1/2 km
80. automatic direction finder (ADF), which rotates?
A. vertical polar (ADF)
B. horizontal polar (VOR)
C. free radio direction

81. standing wave forward voltage 10V, backward voltage 2V, SWVR..?
A. 2.61
B. 1.22
C. 1.52

82. optimum standing wave ratio

A. less than 2 : 1
B. less than 1 : 2
C. same

83. controller knob of weather radar changes

A. screen brightness and light intensity
B. ?
C. ?

84. PTV
A. controlled by passenger alphanumeric pad
B. ?
C. ?

85. VOR and ILS which is more sensitive

A. same
B. VOR more sensitive
C. ILS more sensitive

86. in search mode, PRF of DME interrogator

A. 20Hz & DME readout obscured
B. 75Hx & DME readout visible
C. 100Hz & DME readout obscured

87. critical characteristic of antenna

A. method of attachment
B. its length & method of attachment
C. its length, polarization & directivity

88. Two wave of same frequency but different in magnitude travel in forward & reverse direction
A. purely a standing wave
B. ….magnitude…max & min loop
C. contain residual traveling wave

88.1 standing wave exist when

A. ?
B. when there are FWD and reflect waves
C. when FWD amplitude = reflect wave amplitude

89. In superhetrodyne VHF receiver squelch circuit’s control

A. audio volume circuit
B. audio frequency amplifier
C. gain of the amplifier

90. …coupler is designed to match the impedance of transistor to antenna

A. ?
B. ?
C. ?

91. antenna coupler is designed to match the impedance of transistor to antenna impedance
A. SWR max
B. reflected back to transmitter
C. SWR min

91.1 At its resonant frequency, a parallel turned circuit has?

A. min impedance (serial)
B. max impedance (parallel)
C. same impedance
92. intercom system is required
A. aircraft >2700kg for public transport
B. aircraft with crew with more than one member for passenger a/c
C. aircraft with crew with more than one member

93. signal input ( stand clear or clear of noise? )

A. easily identifiable signal
B. audio warning with no noise
C. signal clear of noise

94. PTV >>> MEU cabin management expansion unit

A. controlled by passenger alphanumeric pad
B. better game -> entertainment loading
C. addressing..?

95. “contour” weather radar adjust

A. video gain
B. transmitter power
C. beam shape

95.1 The “contour” selector switch in WXR control panel

A. control video AMP
B. control the display range
C. control select source

96. Radio power input to FMC

A. DC
B. AC at 400Hz
C. AC at 150Hz and 90Hz

97. LOC full left deflection

A. 0.155DDM with 90Hz > 150Hz
B. 0.155DDM with 150Hz > 90Hz
C. ?

97.1 The G/S full scale deflection is

A. 0.5 degree
B. 2.5 degree
C. 3 degree

98. Majority of DME

A. related to VOR turning
B. install with the same antenna of ATC transponder
C. should place in the top of aircraft centerline

99. Flight Data Recorder

A. two 4 ? riting head and 4 ? rase head
B. store flight parameter for last 72 flight hours
C. store airspeed, altitude and GMT only

100. Nullfield static discharger

A. small pins to low the discharge current level
B. conductive fiber to carry the static to air
C. only feet to the fixed surface

101. static discharger is designed to ?

A. discharge at a control rate.
B. acting as a filter
C. acting as an electromagnetic screen

102. In DME memory mode, flag is indicated

A. in-view ? stationary
B. out-view ? change
C. out-view ? stationary

103. PRF (repetitive pulse frequency)

A. pulse per second
B. pulse in secondary radar
C. pulse per frequency

103.1 the repetition frequency of pulse of radar transmission

A. the no. of pulses transmit each second
B. the no. of cycles of power frequency contained in each pulse
C. the no. of pulses when secondary pulse interrogation

104. The installation of the HF system is such that

A. one control unit on the flight deck remote control the HF receiver-transmitter
B. HF coupler system maintain the match efficient between the antenna and transmitter over 1-100
MHz
C. fiber glass cover on the antenna shield the electromagnetic wave
105. WX shown on EHSI when
A. primary radar display failure
B. EFIS select to single symbol generator
C. on selection

106. To have better pulse shape

A. Wide band IF + amplifier
B. narrow band IF + amplifier C. ?

107. Public addressing system

A. background music auto off when making announcement
B. auto rewind the tape when no signal detect for 1 minute
C. can auto rewind to the selected track

108. Null field static discharger discharge while

A. static charge low voltage
B. static charge low current
C. static charge high current

109. Adjusting knob ? in EHSI will alter

A. ILS range
B. radar display range
C. VOR range

110. Null field static discharger

A. small pins to discharge at low level
B. must be mounted to fixed surface
C. conduct fiber

111. 111.1 MHz

A. ILS
B. VOR (108-118MHz)
C. DME (973-1213MHz)

112. Test glides slope on ground

A. select Localizer frequency first
B. ?
C. ?
113. lines used in pulse network, length will determine
A. frequency
B. amplitude
C. no effect

114. Capacitor in aerial

A. will lengthen aerial
B. will shorten aerial
C. no effect

115. ATC transponder testing

A. cannot be carried out in-flight
B. will stop ATC transmitting
C. ?

116. Signal from NAV receiver to flight control surface

A. same polarity current
B. phase sensitive DC
C. ?

117. Two waves with same freq, no forward & reverse direction
A. pure standing
B. one wave travel.
C. ?

118. Operating freq 10MHz carrier is modulated with low freq, 10KHz for SSB transmission, upper side
freq component
A 10010KHz
B. 9990KHz
C. ?

119. VOR AM frequency

A. 10KHz
B. 60Hz
C. 30Hz

120. DME pulse gate

A. The same time as interrogator
B. the same rate as interrogator
C. Nothing related to interrogator

121. input impedance of audio integrating circuit

A. 100 ohm balanced
B. 600 ohm
C. any value

122. There is a significant change / deviation from pax system

A. change the software in pax system
B. change the deviation in CMC
C. download the software to the LRU

123. Electromagnetic microphone

A. AC bias supply
B. DC bias supply
C. Not required bias supply

124. Waveguide aerial pressurization

A. Normal, ambient
B. Cabin pressure
C. Near vacuum

125. DME engagement sequence

A. Search, pre track, track
B. Track., search, pre track
C. Search, track, pre track

126. For correct static discharge on radome (15/7)

A. wiring insulation
B. Spark gap
C. Static discharger

127. RX signal 8950Hz, oscillator 500Hz picture illumination and resolution

A. 9200Hz
B. 8450Hz
C. 7250Hz
128. GPS operation depends on
A. Time difference from satellite to aircraft
B. Time difference from aircraft to satellite
C. Time difference form ground to satellite

129. Vertical whip antenna

A. highly directional
B. polarization in perpendicular
C. non-direction

130. Localizer 150Hz filter fail

A. cannot give left indication
B. cannot give right indication
C. no change

131. Radome abrasive shield is constructed with what material

A. metal honeycomb
B. stainless steel
C. plastic or rubber

132. 4 beam Doppler system is capable of providing

A. Speed, drift and pitch correction rate
B. speed and drift
C. speed, drift and heading
132.1 A moveable Doppler aerial is turned
A. ?
B. ?
C. auto control according to the A/C track

133. Depth of modulation (localizer transmission), on course….. of localizer

A. 0%
B. 20%
C. 50%

134. When aerial resonant frequency is shorter than signal frequency, the tuning can be done by adding
A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Lengthen the aerial electrically

135. To use a section of a transmission line for pulse generation, the length of wire has what effect
A. Reduce frequency
B. Reduce amplitude
C. No effect
136. Air ground station to satellite band frequency
A. X
B. C
C. L

136.1 Frequency of AES to satellite is

A. L band
B. C band
C. X band

137. If the scale of the radio enlarge, the resolution

A. Increase
B. remain constant
C. Decrease

138. DME pulse wave ?

A. time range
B. pulse width
C. time duration

139. Airborne ILS system, flag operation is derived from

A. tone signal
B. r.f carrier
C. % difference in DDM

139.1 ILS flay is driven by

A. sum of the two modulating signals
B. difference of the two modulating signals
C. the percentage of DDM

140. Static charge in radome

A. Arc to metal frame and cause radio interference
B. Prevent radiation of EM wave form radar
C. Cause elimination of honey comb (john)

141. Ground crew call system for.

A. overheating in cooling system
B. alert pilot for some condition
C. both.

142. Blue light indicator in a marker beacon

A. 400Hz -------
B. 1300Hz (amber) ._._._._._._
C. 3000Hz (white) .. .. .. .. .. .. .. ..

143. Radio altimeter

A. continuous wave is AM with fix frequency
B. pulse wave
C. continuous wave is FM with constant amplitude

144. Which of the following is known to affect cable noise by vibration

A. tribo-electric, ground loop
B. acoustic, triboelectric, ground loop
C. ground loop, electromagnetic, triboelectric

145. Typical VHF radiating conductor impedance

A. 50 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 600 ohms

146. RA transmitter feeds

A. a mixer and a tracking filter
B. a mixer and circular
C. a circular and a tacking filter

147. Standard cabin entertainment system, signal to the seat entertainment unit.
A. By a time multiplexing system
B. Separate data line for video and audio
C. ?

148. PTV system, CMEU is

A. enhance system performance
B. loading more games
C. enhance are distribution for AC power to seatbox unit

149. Localizer is
A. vertically polarized
B. Horizontally polarized
C. Directionally polarized

150. Video data from entertainment data system is (ref amm23-36-00 The video signals have digital audio
A. Digital sound that comes from MPEG encoded video files.)
B. Analogue ? 75 ohms ?
C. Digital in video, analogue in audio

151. Which is not used for voice data record system?

A. ?
B Paper chart
C. Electromagnetic
152. Radome electric static is
A. Not a problem because it is made of non-conductive material
B. minimized by anti-static protective coating
C. Eliminated by abrasion sheid

153. ACARS in
A. VHF & HF (john)
B. VHF in 131.55Hz
C. Pulse pair in 220 characters

154. On radome, the abrasive shield material is

A. Metal honeycomb
B. Stainless steel
C. Non-conducting plastic material

155. Precipitation static is

A. Generated from high speed aircraft
B. ?
C. Endangers safety of aircraft

156. Precipitation static, antenna is (the aerial prevent precipitation static by leakage resistor)
A. Insulated
B. By static discharge
C. spark gap

157. Low distortion of amplifier signal

A. Class B amplification
B. Miller integration
C. Video amplication

158. Fasten seat belt light, landing gear not up

A. PAX oxygen on
B. Flap never retrad
C. And below 10300FT

159. How many channels are there in the VHF Comm. If the channel spacing is 50kHz?
A. 360 channels
B. 500 channels
C. 720 channels
160. the principal function of DFDAU with an ACARS is to
A. transmit compressed digital data to a ground station
B. collect the data from the A/C systems it interface with
C. record the A/C in flight performance data for retrieve when A/C lands

161. ADF
A. ?
B. The best null position
C. Directional ANT heading direction

162. Jitter of DME refers to

A. P.R.F
B. Random pulse interrogation
C. Interrupt with other aircraft

163. over station sensor

A. Measure radio deviation
B. Rate change + course error
C. Rate change + radio deviation

164. Audio intergration system allow crosstalk (15/7)

A. 60dB attenuate
B. 60dB amplify
C. Not more than 6dB

165. Radome is made of what kind of material to prevent

A. Metal honey comb
B. Stainless steel
C. fibre-glass , PTFE coating

166. Where is emergency landing beacon located

A. Aft fuselage with 2.5G activation
B. Cockpit
C. Aft fuselage with 5G activation

167. AGC, auto gain control of a receiver unit

A. Gain increase if not use
B. Gain decrease if not use
C. ?
168. Coaxial cable connect to antenna
A. Via balun
B. Direct connect
C Via coaxial T-joint

169. Back course of localizer, glide slope deviation

A. not used
B. Still used
C. ?

170. Peaking antenna

A. Matching of internal impedance of receiver to the internal impedance of transmitter
B. Adjust the length of antenna to match the wavelength
C. input capacitor in series or parallel to matich

171. Controller knob of weather radar changes

A. Screen brightness and light intensity
B. ?
C. ?

172. PTV (passenger TV)

A. Controlled by passenger alphanumeric pad
B. ?
C. ?

173. In search mode, prf of DME interrogator

A. 20Hz & DME readout obscured
B. 75Hz & DME readout visible
C. 100Hz & DME readout obscured

174. Critical characteristic of antenna

A. Method of attachment
B. Its length & method attachment
C. Its length, polarization & directivity

175. Passenger entertainment element

A. …air show, flight data entry, video game
B. …duty free service
C. …overhead…..
176. Choke joint is use to
A. Join two waveguide efficiently
B. Minimize reflection at bend
C. Ensure waveguide energy to travel in one direction only

177. VOR AM frequency (G/S frequency range 329-335MHz)

A. 10KHz (ADF frequency range 200-1000kHz)
B. 60Hz (ACARS frequency range 118-136MHz)
C. 30Hz

178. Rz signal 8950Hz, oscillator 500Hz picture illumination and resolution

A. 9200Hz
B. 8450Hz
C. 7250Hz

179. GPS operation depends on

A. time difference from satellite to aircraft
B. time difference from aircraft to satellite
C. time difference from ground to aircraft

180. Vertical whip antenna

A. Highly directional
B. polarization in perpendicular
C. non-directional

181. Hertz antenna

A. Is the vertical from of basic Marconi antenna
B. Consists of two lengths of wire, each length at half wavelength of radio signal
C. Can change voltage and current from zero to maximum one length of wire

182. For transmission line, balun is

A. Serial to parallel convertor
B. RG58A/U coax connector
C. Balance to unbalance line transformer

183. Coupler to transmitter, VSWR keep to be at

A. Max
B. Min
C. Level
184. VHF line of sight because
A. Ground waves cannot be refracted? Sky wave
B. Aerials are directives
C. Range upon the altitude of aircraft

185. Pilot wants to fly through thunderstorm

A. C band to see behind precipitation
B. X band to use as weather avoidance tool
C. C band to accurately display levels at storm activity

186. When aircraft fly through thunder

A. C band measure precipitation
B. X band used as weather avoid tool
C. C band to detect accurately the climate level behind

187. CVR bulk erase bulk erase is:

A. Inflight park brake 1. operate only when ground power is connected
B. Erasure mode 2. interlock positively to avoid erase in flight
C. ? 3. operate in flight and parking set

187.1 The CVR

A. can be interchanged with the FDR
B. can be monitored and tested via a microphone panel in flight deck
C. can be played in record or erase anytime on selection

187.1 What correction is must be apply to the data recorder of the flight data recorder system before it
 converted to the analog?
A. it must be feed from the multiplier
B. aircraft design information must be added
C. it must be corrected the calibration, pressure/pitot static system error and another system error

188. Glideslope 90deg with autoland

A. Nose up to flaps back on course
B. Speedbrakes
C. Aileron

189. Isoprotic radiator

A. Radiate all direction
B. in a ground wave
C. Is a sky wave

190. Loc receiver signal to flight control

A. Same phase and polarity
B. Different
C. ?

191. Loc signal from radio nav receiver unit to ….. channel
A. Phase/polarity the same
B. polarity sensitive DC
C. polarity sensitive AC
192. Aircraft to satcom via.
A. ?
B. Beam pointing unit
C. Satcom unit

193. VOR
A. 30Hz variable AM, 30Hz reference FM
B. 30Hz variable FM, 30Hz reference AM
C. 90Hz variable AM, 150Hz reference FM

193.1 The 9960Hz subcarrier of the VOR ground station

A. FM the r.f carrier
B. AM the r.f carrier
C. phase monitor the r.f carrier
194. Interface of communication to SATCOM
A. ACARS and ARINC control unit (AACU)
B. Beam steaming unit (BSU)
C. Satellite data unit (SDU)

195. North to VOR station, O.B.I reads

A. 000
B. 180
C. 90 degrees if heading is 90 degrees

196. AIS (audio integration system)

A. 100 ohms
B. 600 ohms
C. any value

197. Glideslope 90Hz

A. Nose up
B. Nose down
C. Rudder adjustment

198. Most efficient antenna

A. 1/2 wavelength
B. 1/4 wavelength
C. Full wavelength

199. A/C due North of VOR, pilot select 000, what flag is TO-FROM point show
A. To
B. From
C. Cross hatch
200. Compass that is variation and deviation compensated, it is
A. Pointry relatively to geographical North
B. Pointry relatively to magnetic North
C. ?

201. Satellite to ground Hz (C band)

A. 4000HMz-5000HMz
B. 1GHz-3GHz
C. 1500MHz-1600MHz
202. Aircraft to satellite Hz (L band)
A. 4000HMz-5000HMz
B. 1GHz-3GHz
C. 1500MHz-1600MHz

203. FMCW in RA
A. delay circuit
B. duration is 1ms
C. modulate at very low frequency 100-150Hz

204. Manual VOR output to

A. course deviation indicator (CDI)
B. radio magnetic indicator (RMI)
C. ILS

205. HF one system in transmit, other system

A. can receive but cannot transmit
B. antenna shorted to GND
C. …………..

206. Waveguide of ….-radar

A. pressurized to appropriately cabin pressure
B. pressurized to …. Pressure
C. evaluate to vacuum

207. The switching of the ADF loop signals in the ADF receiver take place at
A. Balanced modulator
B. ?
C. ?
208. Fairing (sense) antenna
A. Capacitive type
B. inductive type
C. ?

209. What wave is 3-30 MHz?

A. sky wave
B. ground wave
C. space wave
210. Velocity memory mode is
A. Entered from track only
B. ?
C. ?

211. To reduce the interference, GPS transmission employs the technology of

A. spread spectrum (the frequency spectrum of noise is infinitely wide)
B.
C.

212. An anti cross talk network

A. reduces radiated interference
B. reduces conducted interference
C. prevents xmission on HF systems simultaneously

213. Variable phase leads reference by 30 degrees, magnetic bearing to the VOR station will be ?
A. 30
B. 210
C. 150

214. Omni bearing selection 090 degrees, variable phase lagginng the ref phase by 280 degrees flight
director will show
A. fly right : from
B. fly right: to
C. fly left : to

215. wheres a buffer in a transciever:

A. between modulator and power amp
B. between demodulator and oscillator
C. between oscillator and modulator

216. in vlf navagation system "dsrtk"

A. the great circle route joining 2 selected waypoints
B. The heading required to intercept the selected track.
C. ?
217. IRS output is:
A. True heading and velocity data ( always thought INS calculated true heading but not
B. Magnetic heading and velocity data magnetic heading whilst IRS calculates both true
C. and magnetic )

218. WX radar display during test scanner moved to left and pitch input set at pitch down, scanner will ????
A. Scanner will stay level
B. Scanner will move up
C. Scanner will move down

219. Audio clipping/compression done to ensure

A. Vowels are strenghned relative to the remaining signal
B. Vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
C. No change in relative strength of vowels

220. Omega ground stations :

A. transmit pulses of CW
B. carrier modulated by three audio tones
C. series of CW

221. When an aircraft turning, the compass system will response to

A. DG monitor continue.
B. erection on DG will stop function.
C. no action taken.

222. When aircraft in a turn

A. the compass monitor is still active.
B. the compass monitor is disconnected.
C. the compass monitor is still active for a steady turn only.

223. Variation of aircraft heading is corrected by

A. rotate an index of flux valve for the error.
B. set knob rotate to upper rubber line.
C. through differential synchro in the system.

224. ACARS, if an upcoming message is received

A. a desegnated light comes on
B. a selcall light along with chime comes on
C. a chime sounds in the cockpit
225. Poor oscillator in a receiver would cause
A. poor channel selectively
B. poor audio output
C. poor volume output

226. To improve the image or picture when using WRX

A. scan at a lower rate
B. use shorter bursts
C. use longer bursts

227. In an audio selector panel ,selection of the rotary knob will select the microphone and
A. PTT to one communication system
B. PTT to different systems
C. PTT and transmission interlock to one system

228. Fixed loop antenna in an ADF

A. The signal is send via a synchro transmitter
B. The signal is send via a solid state goniometer (a goniometer )
C.

229. The loop signal in an ADF system

A. Is mixed directly with the sense signal at the loop preamplifier
B. Is first modulated and them mixed with the sense signal
C.

230. When a ground station wants to communicate through an ACARS

A. It is transmitted through an independent VHF transceiver
B. On the onside transmitter
C.
231. Maximum quadrantal error (QE) in an ADF is at
a.000
b.045
c.090

232. ASP allows a single

A. One Transmission and multiple receptions (only one transmitter at any time but multiple
B. Reception and transmission receivers if required )
C
.
233. Radio altimeter antennas
A. Flush mounted horn type (radalt antennas are resonating slot cavities beneath a
B. Whip type flat rf transparent flush plate )
C.

234. ACARS uses

A. Flight crew selected VHF
B. Dedicated VHF
C.

235. During a bearing accuracy check of a ADF system

A. Commercial broadcast receivers cannot be used, as they are not in the ADF range
B. Commercial receivers in between the bands of 0.2 MHz-0.17MHz can be used
C.

236. When you are checking the ATS transponder for identity
A. You should monitor the control panel
B. It would be shown on the test set.
C.

237. Frequency modulation SBs

A. No SBs (fm has its info in the change of frequency not a change of amplitude)
B. Depends on frequency modulation and modulation index
C.

238. Temperature compensation in a compass

A. Bellows and diaphragms
B. No compensation
C.

239. Feeding of heading errors to the radio deviation signals

A. Is to remove the ill effects of the radio deviation signal
B.
C.

240. HF transmitter antenna

A. The ATU adjusts the impedance to 50ohms and vswr less than 1.3:1
B. Impedance of 75ohms and vswr 1:1
C. Impedance of 50ohms

241. Digital weather on map mode what happen ?

A. Tilt Down
B. Tilt Up
C. Alter display colour

242. Bandwidths in radar for IF amplifier and AF amplifier should be?

A. wide and wide
B. wide and narrow
C. narrow and wide (IF narrow, AF wide)

243. WX radar display the time base is

A. Saw tooth wave form
B. Trapezoidal wave form
C. Rectangular wave form

244. WX radar display the beam control/deflection by ????

A. Electromagnetic induction
B. Electrmagnetic induction with mag slip rings
C. Electrostatic action

245. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal lost,following the FD commands Aircraft will
stay ???? ( parallel to course as without washout the aircraft
A. On centre of course will end up being in a stand-off position, so will continue
B. Parallel to course flying parallel to the course )
C. Follow the course with scalloping or bracketing

246. DME – how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
A. decoder
B. blocking oscillator
C. integrator

247. DME – how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid RPLIES TO ITS OWN
INTEROGATIONS
A. Jitter ckt/generator
B. integrator ????
C. ranging ckt ???

248. GPS Telemetry consists of

A. Week No anf Time label
B. Satellite position infrmation
C. 8 bits of preamble and position information

249. To improve th image on a WXR

A. Scan at a lower rate
B. Use shorter bursts
C. Use longer bursts

249.1 radar stabilization check in the WXR, radar tester output signal is
A. ?
B. gyro reference
C. ?

250. audio clipping suppresion is done to ensure:

A. vowels are strengthened relative to remaining signal
B. vowels are attenuated relative to remaining signal (higher frequency vowel
C. no change to relative strength of vowels sounds are clipped off )

251. When carrying out a VSWR test on a HF system on a large commercial aircraft. You would place the
VSWR meter.
A. Between the ATU and antenna
B. Between the transmitter and ATU at the transmitter end
C. Between the transmitter and the ATU at the ATU end.

252. A valid interrogation will

A. disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME
B. enable the RX, disable the encoder and disable the DME
C. disable the RX, disable the encoder and enable the DME

253. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is
A. 50 ohms
B. 25 to 75 ohms
C. 129 ohms

254. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receive
A. decrease for low signal
B. increase for low signal
C. increase for high signal

255. When measuring the VSWR of an aerial the line losses in co-axial cable are
A. greater in the reflected power than in the forward power
B. normally ignored
C. greater in the forward power then added in the calculation

256. co-axial cable and transmission line the attenuation with increase in frequency:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same

267. In a manual phase resolver the phase shift is added to the

A. 30 Hz signal (the 30 hz reference phase is extracted from the 9960 hz
B. .9960 Hz signal subcarrier and is applied to a phase shift resolver )
C.

268. CVOR reference signal is (the Doppler VOR beacon reference signal)
A. space modulating VHF carrier (A. amplitude modulates the carrier frequency)
B. FM modulating VHF carrier (B. amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency)
C. FM modulating sub-carrier (C. frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency)

269. Microwave Landing System is

A. BCD
B. DPSK
C.

270. Di-pole aerial current distribution at center position

A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Same as voltage
271. Aerial polarization is depended on
A. Plane of E-field
B. Plane of M-field
C. parallel with ground

271.1 the plane of polarization of

A. the same as the electronic component
B. the same as magnetic component
C. parallel with ground

272. The purpose of RF signal in CVR system is used to

A. reduce the magnetic tape distortion
B.
C.

273. Ideal aerial VSWR is

A. 0:1
B. 1:1
C. 2:1

274. PA priority
A. Captain overrides boarding music and pre-recording announcement
B.
C.

275. G/S depth of modulation

A. 20% (LOC)
B. 30%
C. 40%

276. When will be the PA system volume reduced by -6db

A. Aircraft on ground with engine shutdown
B. Aircraft in flight
C. Aircraft on ground with engine running

277. What is the meaning of 73 ohms in co-axial calbe specification

A. resistance
B. characteristic impedance
C. voltage
278. By aeronautical system definition manual ( SDM ), the class 3 SATCOM AES is
A. low-gain equipment capable of supporting low-speed packet-mode (data) services
B. high-gain equipment capable of supporting circuit-mode services only
C. high-gain equipment capable of supporting both high-speed packet-mode (data) and circuit-mode
services.

279. VHF communication system is

A. Single channel simplex
B. double channel simplex
C. double channel complex

280. Radar pulse width increase

A. range distance increase and resolution increase
B. range distance decrease and resolution increase
C. range distance increase and resolution decrease

281. The selectivity of superhet receiver is depend on

A. IF bandwidth
B. HF bandwidth
C. VHF bandwidth

282. If a superhet receiver received a second (image) channel, which part of receiver you should check first
A. RF amplifier stage
B.
C.

283. VHF antenna is

A. 1/4 dipole
B. 1/4 monopole (unipole)
C. 1/8 dipole

284. DH is setting on (The crew select DH on)

A. Radio altimeter indicator (display) (the RAD ALT display)
B. Radio altimeter transceiver (the altimeter)
C. controller (the DH annunciator panel)
285. What circuit in radio altimeter dervices DH light
A. Voltage comparator
B. servo amplifier
C. integrator or counter

286. TCAS warning are in RA

A. 20-30 sec
B. 35-45 sec
C. 40-50 sec

287. ATC interrogation

A. compare amplitude of pulse P1 and P2
B. compare width of pulse P1 and P2
C. compare frequency of pulse P1 and P2

288. To monitor a CW ( continuous wave )

A. Use of BFO ( beat frequency oscillator )
B.
C.

289. Aircraft heading 120’, track angle 125’, desire track 132’
A. aircraft drift to port 5’ and track angle error 7’
B. aircraft drift to starboard 5’ and track angle error 7’
C. aircraft drift to starboard 5’ and track angle error 12’

290. To increase bandwidth of a dipole antenna

A. adding parasitic elements
B. using a thicker rod
C. increase antenna length

291. The program for calculation in RNAV computer is stored in

A. ROM
B. RAM
C.

292. ILS backcourse is

A. selected by crew
B. automatically selected according to localizer frequency
C. selected using VOR phase analysis
293. Mode S transmitter transmits a binary code of how many bits?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 32

294. How do the crew select the decision height?

A. selected on the main altimeter
B. selected on the radio altimeter display
C. selected on FMC

295. audio select panel allows the crew to

A. transmit on 1 channel and listen to multiple simultaneously
B. listen on 1 channel and transmit to multiple simultaneously
C. transmit and listen on multiple simultaneously

296. Radio switches can be

A. Latched on R/T and spring on INT
B. Latched on INT and spring on R/T
C. Spring on both R/T and INT

297. Audio select panel voice switch

A. cuts beeps from DME signal
B. cuts voice from DME signal
C. attenuates the DME signal

298. What is the operation frequency of GPS system? (GPS frequency is 1575 MHz)
A. L band
B. C band
C. X band (radar )

299. What factors of speed of propagation of a radio altimeter signal are considered?
A. Distance of antennas position above the ground when aircraft on land
B. Length of antenna cable
C. a) and b)

300. when would full scale deflection occur on the course pointer in VOR?
A. 2’ deviation
B. 5’ deviation
C. 10’ deviation
301. To prevent precipitation static by (the aerial prevent precipitation static by leakage resistor)
A. spark gap
B. aerial wire
C. static discharger

302. HF wire antenna not use steeliness because

A. easy corrode in external air condition
B. High resistance to radio wave
C. weak connection

303. ADF sensing antenna length

A. No critical
B. 1/2 wave length
C. high capacitance to match receiver

304. squelch control

A. RF signal
B. IF signal
C. AF signal (audio stage)

305. STC (sensitivity time control) in radar

A. To have uniform SIG strength regardless of range
B. To provide AGC function in IF amplifier
C. To have uniform signal over range

306. For secondary radar multi-path interrogation primary >>> one way
A. Not affect the sys performance secondary>>> two way
B. Can increase SIG strength
C. Can cause serene garble on reply code

307. PSU decoder is primary used for

A. AC to DC for signal using
B. PAX call IDENT
C. Area service box signal produce

308. TACS system

A. TA-40s
B.
C.
309. SWR ( standard wave ratio ) means
A. amplitude of forward wave equal to rearward
B. there is forward wave and rearward wave
C.

309.1 SWR (stand wave ratio) compare

A. Max and Min values
B. antinode and node of the reflected wave
C. antinode and node of the forward wave

310. with ILS system, D/H

A. it is ignored when airport runway equipped with CAT 3 system
B. Trigger to pilot desired to go-around or continue
C.

311. A large capacitor across a deviation indicator in the ILS indicator is

A. To prevent sudden ILS deviation on indicator
B. Rectify the AC to be before flowing into the indicator
C. To provide a larger DC current to drive the deviation bar

312. Doppler memory indicator lamp/flag

A. switch leg to leg
B. loss of receiver signal
C. loss of compress signal

313. With no.1 H.F system transmitting the interlock circuit.

A. allow no.2 HF to transmit and receive.
B. allow no.2 HF to receive only
C. not allow no.2 HF to transmit and receive.

314. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is.

A. to amplify the RF signal.
B. to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers.
C. to impedance match the aerial and receivers

315. What are the VOR mode signals? ( when the autoflight roll control channel is operating in fix angle
capture VOR mode of the following signal will be used? )
A. course select error and radio deviation
B. pre-selected heading error and radio deviation
C. course selected heading error and radio devation

315.1 when ground testing autopilot capture facilities immediately after capture, the resultant roll depends?
A. clutch heading, preset heading, radio deviation signals
B. preset heading, preset course error, radio deviation signals
C. preset course error, radio deviation signals

316. Interlock circuit used in twin HF……

A. one HF is used, the other earthed
B. one HF is used, the other only receive
C. No invalid freq …. Select

317. Airborne ATC

A. switch on, min warm up
B. standby mode only receive
C. test mode send pulse

318. signal conditioner make signal?

A. clear of noise
B. identifiable for using
C. modify signal form

319. compass swing error

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5

320. CMC maint aid:

A. provide data relative to needed signal
B. function operation test
C. fault tracibility for flight deck effect

321. In L-band DME mode X pulse interval is:

A. 12us
B. 17us
C. 25us
322. RA antenna feed coaxial should:
A. cut to any length
B. the length of transmitter side equal to that of receiver side
C. cut to some predetermined length

323. If signal frequency is less than resonant frequency

A. in series with a inductor
B. in series with a capacitor
C. enlengthen aerial
324. If resonant frequency below the signal frequency
A. in series with a inductor
B. in series with a capacitor
C. enlengthen aerial

325. What frequency are VOR and ILS?

A. VHF
B. UHF ( G/S operate in UHF band)
C. HF

326. An automatic direction finder (ADF) loop cable is screened primary to prevent
A. chafing
B. loss of energy radiated long its length
C. static interference

327. What does the Radar contour button do?

A. Alter the beam shape
B. Alter the transmitter power
C. Alter the video amplifier

328. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost

A. the aircraft flies in a circle
B. aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
C. aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle

329. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause
A. aircraft to underbank
B. aircraft to overbank
C. aircraft to remain in level flight
330 A GPS aerial is polarized
A. vertically
B. horizontally
C. right hand circular

331. weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

A. the use of special conductive paint
B. bonding strips
C. special conducting or non-conducting grease

332. VOR capture can be determined by

A. a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial
B. is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals
C. a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial

333. The facility performance ILS intersect is the point

A. where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
B. the localizer and glide path signals cross each other
C. where the aeroplanes first receives both the localizer and glide path signals

334. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

A. ground radio aids must be at least CAT 2
B. ground radio aids must be at CAT 3
C. ILS system must be working

335. for a vertical gyro which is moved in pitch, which gamble would be moved to correct the pitch
A. lateral movement?
B. longitudinal
C. vertical

336. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

A. 1030mhz and 1090mhz rrespectively
B. 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
C. 1090mhz

337. magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

A. true north and magnetic north
B. magnetic heading and aircraft heading
C. the compass north and magnetic north
338. temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of
A. capsule elasticity
B. capsule shape
C. non linear pressure and height relationship

339. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director (FD) system would cause
A. aircraft to under bank
B. aircraft to over bank
C. aircraft to remain in level flight

340. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out (real drift)
A. damping and periodicity checks
B. damping and pivot friction check (compass pivot friction)
C. damping and alignment checks

341. suppressor line is required for

A. ATC and DME only
B. TCAS only
C. all L band equipments including TCAS

342. Differential GPS requires

A. 3 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
B. 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
C. 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

343. when the captain calls attendant

A. a high/low chime and pink light comes on
B. a low chime and blue light comes on
C. a high chime and pink light comes on

344. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received

A. a designated light comes on
B. a selcall light along with a chime comes on
C. a chime sounds in the cockpit

345. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

A. it to rotate clockwise
B. it to rotate anti-clockwise
C. it may be rotated either direction

346. radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by

A. having filters in power supply lines
B. separating the affected and affecting cables
C. putting the affected cable in a single conduit

347. GPS antenna is

A. vertically polarized
B. horizontally polarized
C. circular polarized
348. index error is
A. coefficient B
B. coefficient P
C. misalignment of compass lubber line

349. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

A. to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
B. to amplify the RF signal
C. to impedance match the aerial and receivers

350. DME transponder transmits on receipt

A. of any interrogation
B. of pilot input command request
C. of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

351. A mode C transponder

A. can be used for TCAS
B. can’t be used for TCAS
C. can be used for TCAS and ILS approach only

352. The audio select panel allows the crew to

A. transmit on one channel, listen on one
B. transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
C. receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others

353. when substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider
A. power requirements
B. the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
C. the diameter of cables

354. Audio select panel (ASP) voice switch

A. allows voice ident of DME
B. cut ‘beeps’ from DME signal
C. disables DME voice ident

355. radio switch are normally

A. spring on R/T, latch on I/C
B. latch on R/T, spring on I/C
C/ latch on R/T, latch on I/C
356. On TCAS, with aircraft below 1700ft
A. systems is disabled
B. no traffic will be shown
C. all traffic produces aural alert

357. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

A. it amplifies outputs stages
B. it improves signal to noise ratio
C. it couples noise factors

358. Back beam is captured

A. by manually selecting the back beam mode
B. this automatically trips the L NAV mode
C. by manually selecting the L NAV mode

359. DME reply pulses are 63MHz

A. higher
B. lower
C. higher or lower

360. Microwave landing system (MLS) are modulated with

A. FM
B. phase drift keying
C. Manchester code

361. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will
A. increase with a higher rotor speed
B. decrease with a higher rotor speed
C. decrease with lower rotor speed

362. a gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor cocated about the gyroscope’s
A. lateral axis
B. longitudinal axis
C. vertical axis

363. if an FM signal modulated by an audio signal, the frequency of the audio would relate to the
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. rate of frequency change
364. In what type of Doppler system do altitude holes appear?
A. FM
B. Pulse
C. FM and Pulse

365. ADF is
A. Rho (distance)
B. Theta (angle)
C. Rho-Theta

366. what is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

A. to make an installation recognize it’s own transmission
B. to make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
C. to make an aircraft recognize a DME in a quiet area

367. what is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

A. to enable vowels to be heard better
B. to enable consonants to be heard better
C. to enable numbers to be heard better

368. what is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?
A. 60.
B. 63.
C. 1000

369. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a

A. servomotor
B. loop voltage (synchro)
C. chinaman

370. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

A. increase with the frequency
B. decrease with the frequency
C. is not affected by frequency

371. In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the

A. sidebands only
B. carrier only
C. sidebands and carrier equally
372. LOC signal modulation is (G/S = 40%)
A. 50%
B. 20%
C. 10%

373. which signal would be integrated to get onto LOC centerline?

A. heading error
B. course error
C. radio deviation

374. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease

375. WX radar display the time base is

A. saw tooth wave form
B. trapezoidal wave form
C. rectangular wave form

376. Flight director (FD) on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

A. to increase GS signal
B. to decrease GS signal
C. to maintain GS signal

377. when an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same

378. An FM signal would have it’s sideband signal

A. above the carrier signal
B. below the carrier signal
C. no sideband present

379. A Doppler VOR station’s transmission

A. can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
B. can’t be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
C. can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver

380. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

A. set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
B. set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
C. set the rad alt to 0 ft

381. standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to

A. length of the cable
B. transmitter power output
C. degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

382. compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should
not exceed?
A. 2degrees
B. 3degrees
C. 5degrees

383. radar beamwidth improves

A. range resolution
B. range accuracy
C. bearing resolution

384. directional property is exhibited by

A. the sense antenna
B. the loop antenna
C. both the sense and loop antenna

385. In ADF system, Goniometer

A. combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna
B. effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
C. alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna

386. In ILS, the glide slope provides

A. lateral steering
B. vertical steering
C. distance checks

387. the components of an ILS are

A. LOC and G/S
B. LOC, G/S and marker beacons
C. LOC and marker beacons

388. when a compass is in the slave mode

A. the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
B. azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve
C. the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchronizer circuit

389. a typical Ratiometer indicating system would use

A. 3 phase AC
B. single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter
C. single phase AC for indicator and DC for the transmitter

390. ADF quadrantal error will be at

A. 0 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees

391. ICAO standard atmosphere is

A. taken from data measured at the equator
B. taken from data measured at 45 degrees North
C. relevant to set parameters

392. The frequency range 300KHz – 3MHz is called the

A. LF band
B. MF band
C. VHF band

393. The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by

A. direct coupling to an RF amplifier
B. a buffer amplifier
C. tight coupling to an RF amplifier

394. the distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is limited
A. by local weather conditions in the troposphere
B. to radio line of sight (above about 100MHz)
C. to conditions in the ionosphere
395. The RF resistance of an inductor
A. decreases as frequency is increased
B. increases as frequency is increased
C. is independent of frequency

396. single side band filters are

A. 3khz
B. 1khz
C. 6khz

397. A single side band (SSB) transmission is equel to

A. high level modulation
B. low level modulation
C. one half of the high level modulation

398. Voice clipping

A. increase the depth of modulation
B. decrease the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals
C. maintains an average depth of modulation

399. The speech clipping modulating circuit

A. increases the average depth of modulation
B. clips high amplitude signals
C. cuts out high tone sounds

400. Radio waves are said to have line of sight propagation

A. above about 100MHz
B. not below 1000MHz
C. from about 10MHz upwards

401. To check side lobe suppression

A. select ATC on ASP
B. use a ramp test set
C. carry out a self test

402. The loop aerial polar diagram is a

A. cardioid
B. figure 8
C. circle
503. Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR
A. increase
B. decrease
C. don’t affect

504. voice/range switch selected to range

A. allows NAV/ADF and DME through cancelling out voice spectrum
B. allows NAV/ADF and cancels out voice spectrum
C. allows noise spectrum through

505. ADF system sense aerial is

A. null
B. null cardioid
C. rotating figure of 8

506. before processing an AM USB signal what needs to be done?

A. carrier added
B. carrier removed
C. carrier integrated

507. the SELCAL system uses to

A. active relative radio for flight crew whenever there is an incoming message
B. monitor and listen for ground message for a specific frequency
C. ……. Instrument to backup the A/C communication system

508. When electrically powered gyroscope, operation of erection system?

A. cages the gimbal system
B. introduces a higher voltage and current to control phase wilding of erection torque motor
C. produce lower voltage to faster action of erection system