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NATIONAL SCIENCE OLYMPIAD

CLASS

5 Years (2014-2018)
Solved Papers 9

INSTANT
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CLASS 9

Contents
ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2014 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 1

ÂÂ NSO 2015 - SET 2

ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2016 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2017 - SET B

ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET A

ÂÂ NSO 2018 - SET B


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Set A

Year 2014
17th NSO - SET A 2

logical reasoning

1. Find the missing term in the given series. 6. Select a figure from the options, which would replace
19200, 1920, 240, 40, 10, ? the (?) to complete the pattern in Figure (X).

A. 1 B. 5
C. 0 D. 10 A.

2. Select a figure from the options which will continue


the same series as established by the four problem
figures. B.

C.

A. B. D.

C. D. 7. Find the mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is


placed vertically to the left.

3. Six persons Aman, Beenu, Charu, Disha, Esha and


Giya took up a job with an organization in a week
from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined for
different posts on different days. The posts were
of—clerk, officer, technician, manager, supervisor A. B.
and sales executive, though not necessarily in the
same order.
Giya joined as a manager on the first day. Beenu
joined as a supervisor but neither on Wednesday nor C. D.
Friday. Disha joined as a technician on Thursday.
Charu joined on Wednesday. Esha joined as a clerk
on Tuesday. Aman joined as a sales executive. 8. Garima and Saurabh are children of Mr. Jindal. Garima
Which of the following is correctly matched regarding marries Amit Goel and Sahil, Sameer and Sanchit are
the posts and day of joining? born to them. Sahil is married to the eldest daughter
of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal.
A. Manager-Tuesday B. Officer-Wednesday
Kaya is younger to Piya but older than Riya who are
C. Clerk-Thursday D. Technician-Monday
the daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Latika is Sahil’s
4. Find the missing character, if the given matrix follows daughter.
a certain rule, row-wise or column-wise. How is Saurabh related to Sanchit?

A. V A. Brother-in-law B. Uncle
A D G
B. W C. Maternal uncle D. Brother
D I N
C. X I P ? 9. In the sequence given below, in some cases the sum of
D. Y the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘3’
5. If Saturday falls on fourth day after today which is exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately
follow the digit 3 and sum of the two digits which
6th January, then on what day did 1st December of
immediately follow the digit ‘5’ exceeds the sum of
the previous year fall?
the two digits which immediately precede the digit
A. Sunday B. Wednesday 5. How many such 3’s and 5’s are there altogether?
C. Tuesday D. Monday
17th NSO - SET A 3
2 5 4 3 6 7 5 2 8 3 9 7 5 4 3 4 6 5 2 6 3 5 8 3 5 Which bank has its branch in Kanpur and Meerut
2 4 6 3 7 5 8 3 5 2 6 but not in Lucknow?
A. 5 B. 6 A. P B. Q
C. 7 D. 4 C. R D. T
10. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 13. Find the number of triangles formed in the given
4 – 5 – 1 – 12. Following the same rule of coding, figure.
what should be the code for the word LADY?
A. 33
A. 12 – 4 – 1 – 25 B. 12 – 1 – 4 – 25
C. 10 – 1 – 4 – 23 D. 12 – 1 – 4 – 22 B. 37
C. 35
11. Group the given figures into three classes, using D. None of these
each figure only once.
14. If animals that live on land and the animals that
live in water are represented by two big circles and
animals that live in water and on land are represented
by small circle, the combination of these three can
be best represented as
A. B.

C. D.

A. 1, 4, 9; 2, 3, 8; 5, 6, 7 15. Out of the five figures marked (P), (Q), (R), (S) and
B. 2, 3, 7; 4, 6, 9; 1, 5, 8 (T), four are similar in a certain manner. However,
C. 1, 5, 9; 2, 3, 8; 4, 6, 7 one figure is not like the other four. Choose the
D. 1, 6, 7; 2, 3, 8; 4, 5, 9 figure which is different from the rest.
12. P, Q, R, S and T are Banks. Banks P, Q and R have
their branches in Meerut and Lucknow. P, Q and T
have their branches in Meerut and Gorakhpur. Q, R
and S have their branches in Kanpur and Lucknow.
P, T and S have their branches in Gorakhpur and A. P B. Q
Varanasi while R, T and S have their branches at C. R D. T
Kanpur and Varanasi.

Science

16. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply brakes soon after he (ii) the acceleration of block reduces.
sees a need for it. If he is driving a car at a speed (iii) the mass of block reduces.
of 54 km h–1 and the brakes cause a deceleration of Which of the following is/are correct?
6.0 m s–2 , then the distance travelled by the car, after A. (i) only B. (i) and (ii) only
he sees the need to apply the brakes is ______. C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
A. 21.75 m B. 42.50 m
18. An aeroplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two
C. 10.55 m D. 16.25 m
engines of his plane. He increases the speed of the
17. A block accelerates down a right engine and now hears a slower beat. What
slope, as shown in the figure. th should the pilot now do, to eliminate the beat?
oo
The upper portion of the slope Sm
A. Increase the speed of the left engine
is smooth and lower portion is h B. Decrease the speed of the right engine
ug
rough. On the lower portion, Ro C. Increase the speed of both engines
(i) the speed of the block may increase, decrease or D. Increase the speed of the right engine
remain same.
17th NSO - SET A 4
19. A lump of ice floats in water as shown in the 23. Converging lenses A and B have the same focal
figure. length, but B is only half the aperture of A. Both
lenses are used to form images of distant objects
on a screen. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. For both lenses, the distance from the lens to the
screen is same.
B. For both lenses, the images are of the same
Which of the following statements is correct? brightness.
A. The lump of ice floats because the area of its C. For both lenses, the images are of the same size
lower surface is larger than the area of its upper as the object.
surface. D. Lens B gives a smaller image than A.
B. The pressure difference between the lower and the
upper surfaces of the lump of ice gives rise to an 24. A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with
upthrust equal to its weight. an acceleration, a. The acceleration of his image, as
C. The ice has a greater density than water. seen by the person, will be
D. The mass of water displaced by ice is equal to the
A. a B. 2a
upthrust.
C. a/2 D. 4a
20. At a certain place, value of g is 1% less than its
25. Two objects, A and B are thrown upwards simultaneously
value on the surface of Earth. If the radius of Earth
with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than
is given to be 6400 km, then the place is ______.
the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and
A. 64 km below the surface of the Earth
B. 64 km above the surface of the Earth equal force of resistance on the two bodies, then
C. 30 km above the surface of the Earth A. A will go higher than B
D. 32 km below the surface of the Earth. B. B will go higher than A
C. The two bodies will reach the same height
21. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction
D. None of these.
between the Earth and a satellite revolving around
it becomes zero, then the satellite will ______. 26. Four students were given small pieces of materials
A. Fall onto the Earth P, Q, R and S respectively. They observed the reactions
B. Move in a direction tangential to its original of these materials as follows :
orbit
Reaction with
C. Escape horizontally
Dilute
D. None of these Material Water
hydrochloric acid
22. A man of mass P No reaction but No reaction.
55 kg climbs up catches fire if
a flight of steps exposed to air.
to reach the Q Reacts slowly. Burns with a pop
spring board. The sound.
spring board is R Reacts vigorously Burns with a pop
6 m above the with lots of heat. sound.
water surface in S No reaction. No reaction.
a swimming pool According to them, materials P, Q, R and S respectively
as shown in the are
given figure.
A. Fe, Cu, Na, P B. Na, Fe, P, Cu
He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board,
C. P, Fe, Na, Cu D. Cu, P, Na, Fe
before falling into water in the swimming pool. If
the average resisting force exerted by water on the 27. Read the given statements and mark the correct
man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man option.
in water will be Statement 1 : Food is a fuel for our body.
A. 2.1 m B. 3.3 m Statement 2 : In our body, food is broken down by
C. 4.2 m D. 5.6 m reaction with oxygen and heat is produced.
17th NSO - SET A 5
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 The elements P and Q are respectively
is the correct explanation of statement 1. A. N, Cl B. Cl, S
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 C. O, F D. Na, F
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. 32. The calorific values of some fuels are given.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. Fuel Calorific value (kJ/kg)
Coal 25000 – 33000
28. Match the Column-I with Column‑II and choose the
Diesel 45000
correct option using the codes given below.
LPG 55000
Column-I Column-II
(Mixture) (Separation technique) CNG 50000
a. An ink (i) Distillation On the basis of given data, the correct order of
b. Liquid air (ii) Evaporation and efficiency of different fuels is
crystallization A. LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal
c. Copper sulphate and (iii) Fractional distillation B. Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG
water C. Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG
d. Acetone and water (iv) Chromatography D. CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal
A. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) 33. Three students Ankit, Dinesh and Manoj were given
C. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) three unknown substances X, Y and Z respectively
D. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) during the lab activity.
Property
29. Study the table carefully and select the correct
Substance Boiling point (°C) Solubility in
statement.
water
Number of Number of Number of X 56 Soluble
Element protons neutrons electrons Y 45 Insoluble
U 11 12 10 Z 90 Soluble
V 20 20 20
On the basis of these properties, which student has
W 16 18 18
chosen the correct separation technique, to separate
X 20 19 18 a substance from the substance‑water mixture?
Y 14 15 18 A. Ankit – Separating funnel
Z 10 10 10 B. Dinesh – Distillation
A. W is a noble gas. C. Manoj – Fractional distillation
B. X and Y are cations. D. All are correct.
C. U and V are anions.
D. Z is the lightest element while V is the heaviest. 34. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a
diatomic molecule, X 2 . One molecule of X 2 contains
30. Which of the following statements are incorrect? 34 protons. How many neutrons are present in the
I. Rayon is a natural fibre as it is obtained by chemical nucleus of atom X?
treatment of wood pulp. A. 17 B. 20
II. Plastics which cannot be softened by heating are C. 21 D. 25
called thermoplastics.
III. Nylon is semi-synthetic fibre. 35. Ritu is studying about four epithelial tissues of the
IV. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are human body which primarily help in the following
known as thermosetting plastics. functions :
A. I and III B. I, II and III I. Gas exchange
C. II, III and IV D. All of these II. Gamete formation
III. Movement of mucus
31. A compound, PQ2 has the following arrangement of IV. Protection of underlying parts against abrasion
electrons : The given epithelial tissues respectively are ____.
××  ×× A. Simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated
Q 
P 
Q
××

××

××
× 
×
×× epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white
fibrous tissue
17th NSO - SET A 6
B. Simple ciliated epithelium, simple cuboidal 38. A group of students would like to know how the
epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, stratified effluent from a factory might influence water quality
squamous epithelium of a river. The given diagram shows seven potential
C. Simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal sampling locations (1 to 7) along the factory and the
epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, stratified river. In order to draw a valid conclusion about the
squamous epithelium river water pollution caused by the factory discharge,
D. Stratified transitional epithelium, simple ciliated which locations (1 to 7) shall be included for the
epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white sampling?
fibrous tissue

36. Refer to the given key for the identification of the


animal phyla from I to VIII and select the correct
option.

A. Locations 2, 3, 4, 6
B. Locations 1, 2, 4, 7
C. Locations 2, 5, 6, 7
D. Locations 1, 2, 5, 7

I. Mammalia II. Aves 39. The given diagram shows a cell placed in a concentrated
III. Arthropoda IV. Echinodermata solution. What would happen when the cell is taken
V. Annelida VI. Mollusca out from the concentrated solution and is placed in
VII. Reptilia VIII. Amphibia freshwater for a long time?
P Q R S T U V W
A. II I VI IV VII V VIII III
B. I II VIII VII III IV VI V
C. I II VIII VII IV V III VI
D. II I VII VIII V III VI IV

37. Following are some characteristics of the three divisions I. The cell will recover its shape slowly.
of Kingdom Plantae : Bryophyta, Thallophyta and II. The cell will shrink first.
Pteridophyta. III. The cell will burst eventually.
1. Sex organs are multicellular IV. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell by
2. Essentially terrestrial osmosis.
3. Non vascular Select the correct option.
4. Lack true leaves and roots A. I and II B. IV only
5. Embryo formed after fertilization C. I, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV
6. Photoautotrophs
7. Examples are Lycopodium, Equisetum, Azolla, 40. The list given below shows some diseases caused by
Marsilea microorganisms/infectious agents. How many of these
8. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte diseases are caused by virus?
9. Examples are U lv a, Fu c u s, S a r ga s s u m, Elephantiasis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Ringworm,
Cladophora
Kala-azar, Influenza, Mumps, Typhoid, Dengue,
Select the option which shows the correct characteristics
Sleeping sickness
of the respective divisions.
Bryophyta Thallophyta Pteridophyta A. 3 B. 4
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8 3, 4, 5, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 C. 6 D. 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8 41. Read the given statements.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 7 1, 2, 5, 6, 9 I. Bee wax obtained from beehive is a deposition of
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 3, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 the excretory products of honeybee.
17th NSO - SET A 7
II. Fish culture is sometimes done in combination a b c d e f g
with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water A. I IV III V VII II VI
accumulated in the paddy field. B. V I IV III II VII VI
III. Fish feed in different zones of the pond in order C. I IV III V VII VI II
to make the most efficient use of the available D. III II I VII V IV VI
food. 44. I
IV. Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used
extensively in cattle farming. Q
V. Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops P
simultaneously on the same field in a definite
pattern. II
Which of the given statements are incorrect?
A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV S
C. I and IV D. I and V R
III
42. Weeds are the unwanted plants, which grow along Figure X Figure Y
with the crops and share nutrients, water and sunlight Figure X shows the female reproductive system and
with the crops. Removal of these weeds can be done figure Y shows the development of a fertilized egg
either by handpicking or with the help of chemicals. cell. In which labelled parts of the female reproductive
Which one of the following chemicals given below system will the stages I, II and III occur?
is a weedicide? I II III
A. 2, 4-D B. CH4 A. S P P
C. BHC D. C2H4 B. S Q P
C. S Q Q
43. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct D. S Q R
option from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II 45. Which of the following statements is the drawback
of the green revolution?
(National Park) (State)
A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides,
a. Bandipur National Park I. Karnataka
etc. resulted in air, soil and water pollution.
b. Dachigam National Park II. Madhya Pradesh B. More requirement of water by high-yielding crops
c. Corbett National Park III. Uttarakhand resulted in the depletion of underground water
d. Dudhwa National Park IV. Jammu & Kashmir resources.
e. Gir National Park V. Uttar Pradesh C. Use of agrochemicals was an expensive measure
f. Kanha National Park VI. Assam for Indian farmers.
g. Kaziranga National Park VII. Gujarat D. All of these

Achievers Section

46. The speed-time graph for the motion of a motorcycle (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
is shown here. What is the average speed over A. Dissipation reference level mid point extremes
12 s interval? B. Dissipation mass mid point extremes
–1v (m s ) C. Exchange reference level extremes mid point
A. 4.38 m s –1 D. Exchange velocity extremes mid point
9
B. 5.58 m s –1 48. Given figure shows the effects of pressure and
3 temperature on the changes among three states of
C. 1.75 m s–1 2 matter.
t(s) 1
D. 3.17 m s–1 0 5 9 12

47. When an ideal simple pendulum oscillates between


2 3
the extreme points P and Q, there is continuous (i)
of potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential
energy depends on the choice of (ii) . Force 4
acting on the bob of the pendulum is maximum at
Select the correct statements.
(iii) , and minimum at (iv) .
17th NSO - SET A 8
I. Change 1 is carried out under high temperature C. The protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum,
and low pressure. which is next passed to the Golgi apparatus,
II. Change 4 is carried out under low temperature and then secreted through hormone-stimulated
and high pressure. exocytosis.
III. Change 2 is carried out under low temperature D. The protein is made in the Golgi apparatus, which
and high pressure. is then passed to the endoplasmic reticulum,
IV. Change 3 is carried out under low temperature and finally secreted through hormone-stimulated
and high pressure. pinocytosis.
A. II and III B. I and II
50. The given diagram shows nitrogen cycle in the
C. I, II and IV D. I, II and III ecosystem. P, Q, R, S and T represent different
49. A scientist was studying the production of a protein, chemical conversion steps in the cycle.
that was released by an animal cell into a culture
medium. She found that the protein only appeared in
the culture medium after she added a few drops of a
hormone to the cell. Before adding the hormone, she
labelled the protein inside the cell with a fluorescent
dye and looked at the cell under the light microscope:
the dye was seen in flattened sheets and tube-like
structures throughout the cell, and in stacks of flattened
sac-like structures. After adding the hormone, the dye
was also seen as small dots clustered against the cell
Which process (P–T) is correctly paired with the
membrane. Which statement most likely explains these
organismal group performing that step?
observations?
I. P – Photoautotrophs
A. The hormone stimulates protein synthesis in the II. Q – Bacteria symbiotic with plants
cell vacuole; the protein is then passed to the Golgi III. R – Anaerobic bacteria living in conditions, such
apparatus, and eventually passes through the cell as wetland ecosystem
membrane by passive diffusion. IV. S – Nitrosomonas bacteria
B. The hormone triggers the synthesis of the protein V. T – Nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium
in the endoplasmic reticulum which is then secreted or cyanobacteria
outside the cell via channel proteins in the cell A. III, IV and V B. IV and V
membrane. C. I, II and IV D. III and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Class 9

Set B

Year 2014
17th NSO - SET B 2

Logical reasoning

1. Find the missing term in the given series. 7. Read the following information and answer the
165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ? question that follows :
A. 375 B. 420 I. Six men B, D, C, M, J and K are split in two
C. 435 D. 390 groups of three each and are made to stand in
two rows, such that a man in one row is exactly
2. Find the water image of the given word. facing a man in the other row.
II. M is not at the ends of any row and is to the right
of J, who is facing C. K is to the left of D, who
A.
is facing M.
B.
Who is to the immediate left of B?
C.
INFORMA IONS A. M
D. T
B. D
3. In the given number series, how many 4s are there C. J
which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers D. Data inadequate
whose product is more than the product of the pair
8. A sheet of paper is folded in a particular manner as
of numbers immediately following 4?
shown in X, Y and Z and a punch is made. Select a
7 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 6 8 9 4 7 3 4 2 4 6 4 5 4 3 figure amongst the options, that would most closely
2 4 4 5 2 resemble the unfolded form of paper.
A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 2

4. In an organisation of pollution control board, engineers


are represented by a circle, legal experts by a square,
environmentalists by a triangle and doctors by A. B.
rectangle. Which number shows Environmentalists
with engineering background who are not doctors?
C. D.
A. 2
7
6
B. 3 2 3 9. Select a figure from the options which will continue
C. 4 4 the same series as established by the five problem
1
5
D. 7 figures.
Problem Figures
5. If WORK is coded as 4 – 12 – 9 – 16, then how
will you code WOMAN?
A. 4 – 12 – 14 – 26 – 13 ?
B. 4 – 12 – 13 – 26 – 14
C. 4 – 12 – 11 – 26 – 13 A. B.
D. 23 – 15 – 13 – 1 – 14

6. A set of figures carrying certain characters, is given.


Assuming that the characters in each figure follow C. D.
the same pattern, find the missing character.
10. There are 30 days in a month and 1st day of this
month is Monday. If each even date on Monday and
each Sunday is a holiday, then how many working
days are there in the month?
A. 210 B. 450 A. 23 B. 22
C. 70 D. 150 C. 24 D. 21
17th NSO - SET B 3
11. Select a figure from the options, which when placed 13. How many triangles are there
in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the in the given figure?
pattern. A. 40
B. 42
A. C. 45
D. None of these

14. Which of the following figures will complete the


B. given figure matrix?

A.
C.

B.
D.

C.
12. Study the information given below and answer the
following question.
Himani, Saurabh and Ritesh are children of Mr. and
Mrs. Aggarwal. Riya, Rajat and Samay are children of D.
Mr. and Mrs. Bansal. Samay and Himani are married
and Ashu and Jay are their children. Gauri and Raj
are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain. Gauri is married 15. Abhijit's house is to the right of Baljit's house at
to Ritesh and has three children named Rita, Sonu a distance of 20 metres in the row facing North.
and Raju. Sanjay's house is in the North-East direction from
Baljit's house at a distance of 25 m. Abhijit's house is
How is Raj related to Rita? in which direction with respect to Sanjay's house?
A. Brother B. Cousin A. North B. East
C. Grand father D. Maternal uncle C. West D. Data inadequate

Science

16. A metal sphere of mass 12 kg has the same diameter C. The air particles apply a higher force on surface
as another sphere of mass 4 kg. Both spheres are A than surface B.
dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are D. The air particles apply a higher force on surface
8 m above the ground, they have the same _____. B than surface A.
(Neglect air resistance.)
18. Read the given statements and select the correct
A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy
option.
C. Momentum D. Acceleration
Statement 1 : T  he value of dynamic friction is less
Surface A
17. A sealed container is filled with than the limiting friction.
air. The uniform cross-sectional Statement 2 : O nce the motion has started, the
area of the container is shown in inertia of rest has been overcome.
the given figure. Surface B A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
Which of the following statements is true? is the correct explanation of statement 1.
A. Air pressure acting on surface A is higher than the B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
air pressure acting on surface B.
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
B. Air pressure acting on surface B is higher than the
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
air pressure acting on surface A.
17th NSO - SET B 4
19. A stone is thrown upwards from 23. Which of the following statements is true?
a point at the edge of a cliff. A. The image of a virtual object is called a virtual
After the stone has reached its image.
maximum height, it falls past B. If the reflected rays are converging, we get a real
the cliff edge to the beach, as image.
shown in the given figure. C. If the incident rays are converging, we get a real
The initial vertical component of the velocity of the object.
stone is 10 m s–1. The time taken between the stone D. If the image is virtual, the corresponding object
is called a virtual object.
passing the edge of the cliff on its way down and
hitting the beach is 1.2 s. Ignoring air resistance, 24. A box originally at rest, slides down from point S to
find the height of the cliff. point T as shown.
Assuming that the
A. 5m B. 7m S 1
slope is frictionless,
C. 12 m D. 19 m at which point 2
does the box have
20. Ultrasound is emitted from a ship directly downwards 3
about 25% of its
into water. The diagram below shows the time
maximum kinetic 4
duration for ultrasound to return to the receiver on energy?
the ship as the ship travels from point X to point Y T
A. 4 B. 2
along the surface of the water. At which position is C. 3 D. 1
the water deepest?
25. A body thrown vertically up with a velocity u reaches
A. S the maximum height h after T second. Which of the
following statements is correct?
B. R
A. At a height h/2 from the ground its velocity is u/2.
C. Q B. At a time T its velocity is u.
C. At a time 2T its velocity is –u.
D. P
D. At a time 2T its velocity is – 6u.

1
rd 26. The freezing and boiling points of a substance ‘P’
21. When a body floats in water  3  of its volume are –220°C and –185°C respectively.
 
th At which of the following range of temperatures will
 3
remains outside, whereas   of its volume remains ‘P’ exist as a liquid?
 4
A. Between –175°C and –210°C
outside when it floats in a liquid. The density of the
B. Between –190°C and –225°C
liquid in g cm–3 is ______. C. Between –200°C and –160°C
4 5 6 8 D. Between –195°C and –215°C
A. B. C. D.
3 3 3 3 27. Observe the following diagrams carefully.
22. The acceleration due to gravity of the Earth and the T R Q
Moon are 10 m s–2 and 1.7 m s–2 respectively. When Salt Salt
Salt
an astronaut jumps on the Moon, then ______. solution solution solution
of P of S of S
A. He will take a longer time to reach the top and a I II III
longer time to come down as compared to jumping
Q K K
on the Earth
B. He will take a longer time to reach the top and a Salt Salt Salt
solution solution solution
shorter time to come down as compared to jumping of P of T of R
on the Earth IV V VI
C. He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a If reaction occurs only in beakers I, III and VI, then
longer time to come down as compared to jumping which of the following statements is correct?
on the Earth A. S is less reactive than P but more reactive than T.
D. He will take a shorter time to reach the top and a B. R and S are more reactive than Q.
shorter time to come down as compared to jumping C. T and R are less reactive than K.
on the Earth D. Q is more reactive than R but less reactive than P.
17th NSO - SET B 5
28. Some statements about the Rutherford’s a-particle 32. Use of drugs like ephedrine and insulin by athletes
scattering experiment are given : is banned.
I. As most of the a-particles passed through the gold Rakesh, Amit, Deepak and Tarun were asked by a
foil without getting deflected, the positive charge trainer to give their urine samples for the tests.
of the atom occupies the entire space. Chromatogram of their urine samples and drugs is
shown below :
II. As very few particles were deflected from their
path, very little space inside the atom is empty. Solvent front
III. As a very small fraction of a-particles were
deflected by 180°, all the positive charge and mass
of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small
volume within the atom.
Select the correct statement(s).
A. I and II B. I and III
C. II and III D. III only Start line × × × × × ×

Ephedrine

Insulin

Rakesh
Amit
Deepak
Tarun
29. An ionic compound of element M and chlorine has
the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is
118.5. What is the molecular mass of the oxide of
Study the given chromatogram carefully and choose
element M ? (Given : atomic masses of O = 16 u the incorrect statement among the following.
and Cl = 35.5 u) A. Deepak used both the drugs.
A. 28 B. 44 B. Rakesh and Deepak used insulin.
C. 72 D. 99 C. Rakesh used ephedrine.
D. Amit and Tarun did not use any of the given
30. Read the following statements carefully and identify drugs.
X, Y and Z.
33. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
X : Hard as stones, used to cook food and to produce option using the codes given below.
electricity in thermal power plants
Column-I Column-II
Y : A petroleum product, used in place of coal tar for
(a) Terylene (i) Rayon
metalling the roads
(b) Bakelite (ii) Thermoplastic
Z : A pure form of carbon, used in the manufacture (c) PVC (iii) Polyester
of steel and in the extraction of many metals (d) Artificial silk (iv) Thermosetting
X Y Z A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
A. Coal Bitumen Coke B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
B. Coal tar Coal Paraffin wax C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
C. Coal tar Diesel Coke D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
D. Coke Bitumen Coal
34. Maximum number of molecules are present in ____.
31. Mr. Verma while watching TV suddenly came across A. 4.9 × 10–3 mg of H2SO4
an accident as shown below. B. 4 × 1023 molecules of SO2
C. 10 g of N2
D. 1.5 moles of NH3

35. The diagram shows five different structures that can


be observed in cells.

1 2 3 4 5
In the above situation, what should Mr. Verma do?
Which structures would be present in large quantities in
A. He should pour water on the fire.
B. He should use oil to cut off the supply of air. lipid synthesizing cells?
C. He should use CO2 extinguisher on fire. A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 B. 1, 3 and 4
D. He should use LPG to control fire. C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5
17th NSO - SET B 6
36. Raman set up an experiment as shown here and kept 39. The diagram given below shows a river and its
it at 30° C. surrounding area.

Normal
water Starch solution
and amylase
Visking tube

Which of these statements holds true regarding the


After four hours, he wrote down his observations as given diagram?
follows :
A. Site X has the highest content of dissolved oxygen
(i) The water in the beaker contained reducing
while site Y has the lowest content of dissolved
sugars.
oxygen.
(ii) The reducing sugars passed into the beaker by
diffusion. B. There is a high concentration of nitrogen
(iii) The water in the beaker contained no starch. compounds at site Z.
(iv) The partially permeable membrane of visking tube C. There are very few fishes found at site Z.
prevented passage of starch into the beaker. D. All of these
(v) Reducing sugars were formed in the visking
tube. 40. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option from the codes given below.
Which of these observations is/are incorrect?
A. (iv) and (v) B. (iii) only Column-I Column-II
C. (v) only D. None of these a. Bottom feeder (i) Surti
b. Cow breed (ii) Tharparkar
37. Select the correct option regarding the given c. Buffalo breed (iii) Common carp
organisms. d. Surface feeder (iv) Murrah
(v) Mrigal
(vi) Red sindhi
(vii) Catla
a b c d
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A. (iii), (vi) (ii) (i), (iv) (v), (vii)
A. Organisms (i), (ii) and (v) show tissue level of B. (i), (ii), (v) (iii), (vi) (iv) (vii)
body organisation. C. (v) (i), (ii), (vi) (iv) (iii), (vii)
B. Organisms (i), (iv) and (v) are triploblastic D. (iii), (v) (ii), (vi) (i), (iv) (vii)
animals.
C. Organisms (iii), (iv) and (v) all are eucoelomates. 41. In an ecosystem, four
D. Organisms (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) possess notochord major interdependent
Number

Plants
Bees
Cats

in some stage of their life . components were in the


Mice

given proportions.
38. Which of these epithelia is chiefly involved in
function like diffusion and thereby is found in the If male cats are removed from the given ecosystem, then
wall of blood vessels and air sacs of the lungs? which of these figures would show the new composition
of the same ecosystem after a gap of 3 years?
Plants
Bees

Cats
Cats

Number
Number

Plants

A. B. A. B.
Mice
Mice

Bees
Plants
Bees
Cats
Number

Cats

C. D.
Plants

Number
Mice

Mice
Bees

C. D.
17th NSO - SET B 7
42. Identify the given organisms shown in the figure. 44. Refer to the given figure and
identify the labelled connective X

tissues X and Y. Muscle


Bone
X Y A. X - Cartilage; Y - Tendon
Which of the following statements is/are correct about B. X - Tendon; Y - Ligament Y
X and Y? C. X - Ligament ; Y - Tendon
(i) X is Anopheles while Y is Culex. D. X - Ligament; Y - Cartilage
(ii) X spreads filariasis while Y spreads malaria.
(iii) The female Y is the vector of malaria. 45. Read the following statements regarding female
(iv) The male Y is the vector of filariasis. reproductive system and select the correct option.
(v) X is host for a protozoan and Y is a host for a
(i) If the ovum released from the ovaries is not
nematode.
fertilized, then it is shed alongwith blood during
A. (ii) and (iii) B. (ii) and (v) menstruation.
C. (ii) only D. (i), (iii) and (iv) (ii) Menopause occurs in the females at an age of
43. Mohit was asked to draw a diagram of sclerenchyma 45–50 years.
as seen in longitudinal section and label it. His figure (iii) Vagina of female reproductive system is primary
is as shown. Find out the mistake he has made in the sex organ.
diagram. (iv) Development of breasts in females is the accessory
sex character.
A. Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; while statement
Simple pit pair
Lumen (iv) is false.
Lignified thick wall
B. Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true; while statement
(iii) is false.
A. The pit pair is bordered not simple. C. Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true; while
B. The cell walls are not lignified in sclerenchyma. statement (i) is false.
C. The nucleus and cytoplasm are not shown. D. Statements (i) and (ii) are true; while statements
D. It is a transverse section and not the longitudinal (iii) and (iv) are false.
section.

Achievers Section

46. An object of mass 20 kg moves along a straight 48. Four strips of fresh potato P, Q, R and S were
line on a smooth horizontal surface. A force F acts immersed in solutions of different concentrations.
on the object in its direction of motion. A graph of Osmosis occurred according to the concentration
force against time is shown here. What is the velocity difference between cell sap and ambient solution.
of the object at t = 6 s if its velocity at t = 4 s is
A graph was plotted between initial length of strips
4 m s–1? F(N)
and the change in length after osmosis.
A. 3.5 m s–1
5
B. 4.5 m s–1 20
Increasing

4
length

C. 5.3 m s–1 3
t(s)
D. 6.2 m s–1 0 3 6 2
R
1
Q
47. Fill in the blanks : Initial length 0
The (i) of a sound is determined by its (ii) . The –1 60 P 65 70 75
S
80
(iii) of the sound wave depends upon the force –2
Decreasing
length

–3
with which an object is made to vibrate. A sound of
(iv) frequency is called a (v) . –4
–5
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
A. Amplitude Loudness Loudness Double Note Which of these strips was placed in the most diluted
B. Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Single Tone solution?
C. Loudness Amplitude Amplitude Double Tone A. S B. Q
D. Amplitude Loudness Loudness Single Note C. R D. P
17th NSO - SET B 8
49. The solubility of two substances, X and Y at 35°C 50. A comparison between two cropping patterns X and
and 75°C is given in the table. Y is given below. What are X and Y?
Maximum amount (g) that can X Y
Temperature dissolve in 100 g of water
(°C) Aim is to minimise risk of Aim is to increase
Substance X Substance Y
crop failure productivity per unit
35 30 40
area
75 70 50
Two solutions, M and N are shown below : Seeds of component crops Seeds of component
200 g of are mixed before sowing crops are not mixed
water at
100 g 75°C 80 g Sowing is not done in Sowing is done in rows
of X of Y
rows in a precise pattern
Solution M Solution N
If the temperature of solutions M and N is dropped
A. X - Mixed cropping; Y - Inter-cropping
to 35°C, then amount of X and Y crystallized out
B. X - Inter-cropping; Y - Crop rotation
will be ______.
C. X - Mixed cropping; Y - Crop rotation
A. 40 g, 30 g B. 25 g, 80 g
D. X - Inter-cropping; Y - Mixed cropping
C. 40 g, 0 g D. 80 g, 55 g

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Class 9

Set 1

Year 2015
logical reasoning

1. There are seven figures, the first and last of which are
unnumbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, C. D.
3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However,
one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the
series. The number of that figure is the answer.
6. Introducing a woman, Shashank said, “She is the
mother of the daughter of my son”. How is the
woman related to Shashank?
1 2 3 4 5 A. Daughter B. Sister-in-law
A. 5 B. 2 C. Wife D. Daughter-in-law
C. 4 D. None of these
7. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed
2. The given numbers are to be coded with the following in all the three figures.
conditions :
Digits 4 7 2 3 1 5 8 9 6 0
8 9 10 11 16 8
Letters M O Q R N P U T S L 89 ? 147
(i) If the first and the last digits of the number are odd, 17 17 19
then each of those odd digits is to be coded as X. A. 127 B. 137
(ii) If the first digit of a number is even, then it will C. 141 D. 147
be coded as Y.
(iii) If the only first digit of a number is odd, then it 8. J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in
will be coded as Z. the garden. They all are wearing clothes of different
colours–black, blue, white, green, pink, yellow and
(iv) If 5 or 8 is neither the first digit nor the last digit of
the number, then each of them will be coded as W. brown. Out of the seven, three are girls. No girl is
wearing either black, yellow or brown. M’s sister O is
(v) If the first and the last digits of the numbers are
wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing
even, then each of those even digits is to be coded
blue, while his sister K is not wearing green. N is
as V.
wearing yellow, while his best friend P is a boy.
51536079
What colour is P wearing?
A. XNWRSLOX B. XNPRSLOX
A. Black B. Blue
C. WNWRSLOX D. XNPRSLOT
C. White D. Green
3. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
9. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly
A. 45 embedded as one of its part?
B. 44
C. 47
D. None of these Fig. (X)

4. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes A. B.


West and so on, then what will West becomes?
A. North-East B. North-West
C. South-East D. South-West
C. D.
5. Which of the following figures satisfies the same
condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

10. Select the water-image of the given combination of


numbers and letters.
GR 98AP76 E S
GR 98AP7 E S 6
Fig. (X) A.
G 98AP7 E S
R 6
B.
A. B. GR 98AP76 E S
C.
GR98 P76ES
D. A

2 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1


Science

11. A boy moving with constant acceleration from A to 16. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
B in the straight line AB has velocities vA and vB at Statement 1 : Work done against friction in moving
A and B respectively. Time taken by the boy to move a body over a closed path is zero.
from A to C is twice of that from C to B, where C is Statement 2 : Work done by a constant force is
the mid-point of AB. The ratio of vA to vB is always zero in a round trip of the point of application
A. 1 : 2 B. 1:3 of force.
C. 1 : 5 D. 1:7 A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
12. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are dropped from B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
heights h1 and h2 respectively. On reaching the ground, is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
they acquire equal momenta. If h1 > h 2 , the ratio of
C. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
kinetic energy of m1 to that of m 2 on reaching the
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
ground will be
A. Equal to 1 B. Greater than 1 17. The diagram shows a car of 800 kg approaching the
C. Less than 1 D. Data is insufficient base of a hill.

13. The diagram shows a jar with 400 m

50 m
Height = 20 cm

the dimensions as shown.


It contains a liquid of mass
3 kg and density 600 kg m–3. The It moves up the hill with a constant speed of 25 m s–1.
pressure exerted by the liquid on Neglecting friction, what is the average power required
the base of the jar is for the car to reach the peak of the hill?
Base area
(Take g = 10 m s–2) = 0.01 m2 (Take g = 10 m s–2)

A. 1.2 × 103 Pa B. 2.4 × 103 Pa A. 10 kW B. 15 kW


C. 1.2 × 105 Pa D. 2.4 × 105 Pa C. 25 kW D. 30 kW

14. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 exert a force F on 18. The given figure shows a ray of light directed onto a
plane mirror at an angle of 45° initially. The mirror
each other when placed a certain distance d apart.
is then rotated by 12° about point O as shown in the
The percentage change in force when the separation
figure.
between the bodies is decreased by d/3, is
A. 800% decrease B. 225% increase 45° 12°
C. 200% decrease D. 125% increase O
15. When moving from X to Y, a ship sends pulses of
ultrasonic waves continuously to the bottom of the The new angle of reflection is
sea. The variation of the time interval t between the A. 12° B. 23°
emission of a pulse and the reception of its reflection C. 33° D. 57°
with position is shown in the given graph.
t (s) 19. A scooterist moving with a speed of 36 km h–1 sees a
child standing in the middle of the road. He applies
0.8
0.7 the brakes and brings the scooter to rest in 5 s just in
0.6 time to save child. If mass of the scooter and driver
0.5 is 300 kg, the average retarding force on the scooter
0.4
0.3 is
0.2 A. 6 × 107 g cm s–2 B. 6 × 104 g m s–2
0.1
X C. 6 × 105 kg cm s–2 D. 6 × 103 kg m s–2
A B C D Y
Position of ship
20. The tail of a comet points away from the Sun due to
If the speed of sound in water is 1530 m s–1, then the A. Centrifugal force
difference in depths of the sea at B and D is
B. Electrical repulsion
A. 153 m B. 306 m C. Attraction of comet due to other planets
C. 612 m D. 765 m D. Radiation pressure.

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 3


21. Which of the following statements are correct? Fibres and Plastics
(i) Direction of momentum of a body may or may
Fibres Plastics
not be same as the direction of the velocity of the
body. Natural Synthetic R S
(ii) The rate of change of momentum and the force
P Q Bakelite, Polyvinyl
have same units. Melamine chloride,
(iii) Action and reaction act on two different bodies. Silk, Cellulose, Polystyrene
Wool Cotton
A. (i) and (ii) only
A. P - Plant fibres, Q - Animal fibres, R - Thermoplastics,
B. (ii) and (iii) only
S-Thermosetting
C. (i) and (iii) only
B. P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres, R - Thermosetting,
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
S - Thermoplastics
22. The weight of a rock on Jupiter is 500 N. The value C. P - Rayon, Q - Animal fibres, R - Biodegradable,
of acceleration due to gravity (in N kg –1) on the S - Non-biodegradable
surfaces of Moon, Earth and Jupiter is 1.7, 10 and 25 D. P - Animal fibres, Q - Plant fibres,
respectively. The difference between weight of rock R - Non-biodegradable, S - Biodegradable
on earth and that on Moon is
26. Different samples of soft drinks are tested for additives
A. 0N B. 8.3 N by using chromatography. The chromatograms are
C. 166 N D. 233 N compared with those of artificial additives, X and Y.
The results are as follows :
23. Boiling points of some gases are given in the table.
Gas Boiling point (°C)
Helium –269
Methane –162
Neon –246
Oxygen –183 Which soft drink does not contain any of these artificial
additives?
Xenon –108
A. Cola
The gases that are in the liquid state at –200°C are B. Soda
A. Methane, oxygen and xenon C. Banta
B. Helium, neon and xenon D. Campa
C. Helium and neon
D. All the gases given in the table. 27. Anurag has arranged the following set-ups to study
the rusting of iron.
24. Match the column I with column II and select the
correct option from the given codes. (Atomic mass Cotton
of Ca = 40 u,C = 12 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u) NaCl (aq.) Water wool Water
Column I Column II Iron nail Iron nail Iron nail Iron nail
Magnesium Anhydrous Silver coil
(a) 6.022 × 10 molecules (i) 2.65 g
22
coil calcium
(1) (2) (3) chloride (4)
of CaCO3
(b) 0.5 mole of O2 (ii) 10 g Iron nails will not rust in test tubes
(c) 1023 molecules of CH4 (iii) 60 g A. 1 and 2
(d) 1.5 moles of Ca (iv) 16 g B. 1 and 4
A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) C. 2 and 3
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) D. 3 and 4
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 28. The nucleon number of an atom Q is 49. Atom Q
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) exists as a tetraatomic molecule, Q4. One molecule
of Q4 contains 68 protons. How many neutrons are
25. Nimit prepared a flowchart to show classification of
present in the nucleus of atom Q?
fibres and plastics. He left few columns blank. Fill
in the blanks by choosing the option with correct A. 32 B. 68
words. C. 49 D. 57

4 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1


29. The given diagram represents On the basis of this data, find out the correct order of
a fractionating column where efficiency of fuels.
petroleum is separated into X
A. Biogas > Petrol > CNG > Hydrogen
various fractions. Arrange the
B. CNG > Hydrogen > Biogas > Petrol
fractions X, Y, Z in order of
C. Hydrogen > CNG > Petrol > Biogas
decreasing boiling point range Y
and identify the fraction that D. Petrol > CNG > Biogas > Hydrogen
condenses first. 32. In an experiment, three metals X, Y and Z were placed
A. Z > Y > X; X Crude oil
vapours
into four separate solutions containing aqueous metal
Z
B. Z > Y > X; Z ions. The results are shown in the table.
C. X > Y > Z; Y Aqueous metal ion
Metal
D. Y > Z > X; Z W 2+
X 2+ Y 2+ Z 2+
X
30. Neha, a class IX student heated a Y
beaker containing ice and water as
Z
demonstrated in the given figure.
She measured the temperature The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is
of the content of the beaker as a A. X > W > Y > Z B. X>W>Z>Y
function of time. C. X > Z > W > Y D. Y>Z>W>X
Which of the following graphs
33. Study the given flow chart and select the incorrect
would correctly represent the
statement regarding P, Q, R and S.
result?
Plant tissue
100°C
Temperature

A. It has the capability of Yes


0°C P
active cell division.
No
Time (min)
It is a simple permanent tissue Yes Q
comprising of only dead cells.
Temperature

100°C
No
B. 0°C It is a conducting tissue in which Yes R
flow of nutrients is bidirectional.
Time (min) No
It is a conducting tissue which
100°C also provides mechanical strength.
Temperature

Yes
C. 0°C
S
Time (min)
A. ‘P’ can be the tissue which is present in root tips
and shoot tips.
100°C
Temperature

B. Tissue ‘Q’ is primarily responsible for storage of


food.
D. 0°C
C. Tissue ‘R’ is responsible for transport of food from
leaves to other parts of the plant body.
Time (min)
D. Tissue ‘S’ is made up of four types of cells–vessels,
31. Calorific values of some fuels are given : tracheids, fibres and parenchyma.

Fuel Calorific value (kJ/kg) 34. While observing a stained mount of onion peel under
Biogas 35,000 – 40,000 high power compound microscope, the central part of
the cell does not take stain. Which of the following
Petrol 45,000
options correctly identifies this central part of the cell?
Hydrogen 1,50,000
A. Nucleus B. Cell wall
CNG 50,000 C. Vacuole D. Chloroplast

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 5


35. The given figure represents the B. Net movement of sucrose molecules takes place
structure of the causal organism from limb Q to limb P of the U-tube.
of a disease, which is C. Net movement of water molecules takes place
A. An autoimmune disease, from limb P to limb Q of the U-tube.
caused by a virus D. Semi-permeable membrane allows only solute
sucrose molecules to pass through it.
B. An immunodeficiency
disease, caused by a 39. In a slide of animal tissue, Ridhima observed long,
virus uninucleate, unbranched, narrow and spindle-shaped
C. An immunodeficiency disease, caused by a cells. This tissue could be
bacterium A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle
D. An autoimmune disease, caused by a bacterium. C. Cardiac muscle D. Nervous tissue.
36. Select the correct statement regarding 40. The practice in which green plants like sunn hemp,
the members of the phylum to which guar etc., are grown and then mulched by ploughing
the given animal belongs? them into soil, results in the formation of (i) ,
A. T hey possess t issue level of which enriches the soil with (ii) .
organisation. Select the correct option for (i) and (ii).
B. They are mostly fresh water (i) (ii)
organisms. A. Compost Organic matter
C. Their body is bilaterally symmetrical. B. Fertilizer Potassium and magnesium
D. They possess a canal system that helps to circulate C. Bio-fertilizer Blue green algae
water throughout the body. D. Green manure Nitrogen and phosphorus

37. Read the given statements and select the correct 41. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option. option from the given codes.
Statement 1 : An increase in the concentration of Column I Column II
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere would cause (a) Ribosomes (i) Jelly like substance
more heat to be retained by the atmosphere leading (b) Lysosomes (ii) Powerhouse of the cell
to global warming. (c) Endoplasmic (iii) Site of protein
Statement 2 : Greenhouse gases, e.g., CO2 , CH4 etc., reticulum synthesis
reflect back the infrared radiations reflected by the (d) Cytoplasm (iv) Synthesis of lipids
earth’s surface. (e) Mitochondria (v) Suicide bags
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 A. (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii)
is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i), (e) - (ii)
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 C. (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (v), (e) - (ii)
is not the correct explanation of statement 1. D. (a) - (iv), (b) - (v), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i), (e) - (iii)
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 2 is true and statement 1 is false. 42. Study the following table and select the correct option
for p, q, r, s and t.
38. Study the given diagram representing the process of Disease Causative Mode of
osmosis and select the correct statement regarding organism transmission
this. Measles p Air
P Q q Bacterium Water/Food
Sucrose
molecules Dengue r s
10% sucrose 5% sucrose
Water Malaria t Mosquito
solution solution
molecules A. p-Virus, q-Hepatitis A, r-Virus, s-Mosquito,
t-Protozoan
Semi-permeable
membrane B. p-Bacterium, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito,
t-Protozoan
C. p -Virus, q-Cholera, r-Virus, s-Mosquito,
t-Protozoan
A. Limb P of the U-tube functions like the root hair D. p -Virus, q -Typhoid, r -Protozoan, s -Air,
of a plant for the absorption of water. t-Bacterium

6 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1


43. A simplified representation of nitrogen cycle is given 44. What is the function of the part labelled as 'X ' in the
here. given figure?

‘X’ X
‘Z’
N2
fixation
N2 gas in
Nitrification atmosphere Plant
proteins
A. It produces the ovum when a female reaches
puberty.
al B. It transports the ovum from the ovary to the
‘Y’ n im ns
A tei uterus.
pro C. It serves as the site of implantation of the embryo.
Which of the following statements regarding ‘X’, ‘Y’ D. It is the place where development of embryo takes
and ‘Z’ is correct? place.
A. ‘X’ represents proteins which are added into the 45. Which of the following statements is false about a
soil by the process of nitrogen fixation. Biosphere Reserve?
B. ‘Y ’ represents ammonia which is formed A. It is meant for the conservation of biodiversity
by decomposition of dead plant and animal and culture of an area.
remains. B. It may contain other protected areas within its
C. ‘Z’ represents the process of nitrogen assimilation, limits.
by which nitrates are converted back into C. Some economic activities are permitted in a
atmospheric nitrogen. Biosphere Reserve but in controlled manner.
D. ‘Z’ represents the formation of nitrogen gas by D. It is an artificially created area meant for the
putrefaction of plant and animal matter. conservation of plants and animals.

Achievers Section

46. Nikita completed Speed (m s–1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


a journey from a A. Cochlea Ear drum Pinna Anvil
10
place A to another B. Ear drum Anvil Cochlea Pinna
8
place B by her car. C. Pinna Ear drum Cochlea Anvil
6
The given graph 4 D. Pinna Ear drum Anvil Cochlea
shows the speed 2
variations with 0 Time 48. The electronic structures of atoms L, M and K are
time over the shown in the given figures.
11 0 am
am
am

am

m
am

5a
5
0

:0
:1
:0

:3

:4

:0

journey.
11
10
10

10

10

The average speed between 10:15 am to 11:05 am is


A. 6.00 m s–1 B. 6.25 m s–1
C. 6.50 m s–1 D. 6.75 m s–1

47. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.


The external ear which we see is known as Atom L has an isotope with the same nucleon number
(i) . This part collects the sound and sends it to the as M. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does the
auditory canal. The sound in the form of compressions isotope of L contain? What is the relationship between
and rarefactions reaches the (ii) , and it begins atom K and atom M?
to vibrate. The vibrations are amplified several times
Protons Neutrons Electrons K and M are
by three bones : the hammer, (iii) and stirrup.
The amplified vibrations are then transmitted to the A. 19 21 19 Isotopes
(iv) , which converts them into electric signals. These B. 19 21 19 Isobars
electric signals are sent to the brain via the auditory C. 19 21 20 Isobars
nerve, and the brain interprets them as sound. D. 20 20 20 Isotopes

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1 | 7


49. Read the following statements carefully and identify 50. Read the given passage in which some words are
which of them are true (T) and which of them are italicised.
false (F). Rainfall is a major source of ground water. When the
(i) Aphids, bugs, etc., are sucking insects whereas rain falls, some water is lost as run off. The remaining
weevils, borers, etc. are internal feeders. water percolates into the ground through pore spaces
(ii) Exotic breed which is very popular for egg of soil particles under the influence of gravity. Some
laying but is not ideal for meat purposes is White water forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around
Leghorn.
soil particles and is termed capillary water. The down
(iii) Concentrates in cattle feed consist of mostly fibres moving water called gravitational water finally reaches
which come from hay, green fodder, etc.
the underground water table. Plants can draw only
(iv) Fertilizers contain much higher amount of nutrients
gravitational water from the soil.
in comparison to the manures.
(v) Karan Swiss is a high yielding cross breed cattle Some of these italicised words are put incorrectly.
variety while Jersey-Sindhi is an indigenous breed Find out them and select the correct option.
of India. A. Rainfall should be replaced by oceans.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) B. Run off should not be replaced as it is correctly
A. F T F T F mentioned.
B. T T F T F C. Capillary should be replaced by gravitational.
C. T T T T F D. Gravitational should be replaced by hygroscopic.
D. F F F T T

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-1 | Level 1


Class 9

Set 2

Year 2015
Logical reasoning

1. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed (iv) If the first digit of the number is even and the
in all the three figures. last digit be zero, then each of the both is to be
10 16 15 coded as Z.
(v) If 6 or 9 is neither at the first place or last place,
12 64 15 12 1728 28 11 ? 23 then it is to be coded as B.
8264930
9 20 16
A. VHPMRDK B. ZHPMRDZ
A. 1331 B. 2744
C. ZHPMRDK D. None of these
C. 1000 D. 1728
5. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly
2. Find the correct water-image of Fig. (X) from the
embedded as one of its part?
given options.

5 8 Fig.(X)
Fig. (X) A. B.
5 8 5 8

A. B.
5 8 5 C. D.
8
C. D.

6. If the first digit of each number replaces the third


3. Four people P, Q, R and S live on the same side of digit of that number, third digit replaces the second
a street in four houses each of different colour. Each digit and the second digit replaces the first digit,
person has a different favourite drink. and then the numbers thus formed are arranged in
(i) P lives in the red house. the descending order, then which number will be
(ii) Q drinks tea. the third?
(iii) R lives in the first house on the left. 382  473  568  728  847  629
(iv) In the second house from the right, milk is the A. 568 B. 382
favourite drink. C. 473 D. 847
(v) R lives adjacent to the blue house.
(vi) S drinks fruit juice. 7. Find the number of triangles formed in the given
figure.
(vii) Tea is the favourite drink in the blue house.
(viii) The white house is to the right of the red house. A. 26
Which of the following statements is not true ? B. 28
C. 24
A. Milk is the favourite drink in the red house.
D. None of these
B. Q lives in the blue house.
C. S lives in a corner house. 8. Which of the following figures satisfies the same
D. Q lives next to the S. condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

4. The following digits are coded as follows :


Digits 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Letters K L H D M N P S V R
While coding the number, following conditions are Fig. (X)
also to be observed.
(i) If 5 or 2 occurs in the just middle of the number, A. B.
then it is to be coded as X.
(ii) If the first digit of the number is a prime number,
then it is to be coded as Y.
(iii) If the first digit of the number is odd but not a C. D.
prime number, then it is to be coded as A.

2 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1


9. If the given sequence is written in reverse order, then Problem Figures
A A
how many such numbers are there in the sequence, A F A
F
A F

F
each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant 1 1 6 2 2 3
and immediately followed by a symbol? 6 6

6
6
A A
R TJL2$D=M#8C%B<K1&AW?P F

F
E+Q@7F6 A. 3 B. 3
6

6
A. None B. One
A A
C. Two D. Three

F
C. 3 D. 3
10. Select a figure from the options which will continue the

6
same series as established by the Problem Figures.

Science

11. If the distance between earth and sun increases by A. 500 J B. 2500 J
125% of its present value suddenly, then the duration C. 3000 J D. 3500 J
of one year will be
16. The image of an object O is being observed in a
25
A. 365 days B. × 365 days mirror. Which of the following is the correct ray
16 diagram?
27 9 O
C. × 365 days D. × 365 days O
8 4 A. B.
12. In a car race, car A takes 2 s less than car B and
O O
passes the finishing point with a velocity v more
than the velocity with which car B passes the point. C. D.
Both the cars start from rest and travel with constant
accelerations of a A = 3 m s–2 and aB = 2 m s–2 . The
17. Read the given statements and select the correct
value of v is option.
A. 2.45 m s–1 B. 4.90 m s–1 Statement 1 : Force of friction between two surfaces
C. 7.35 m s–1 D. 9.80 m s–1 depends on the area of contact common to the two
surfaces.
13. A violin string emits Wave disturbance Statement 2 : More the area of contact common to the
sound waves with a A two surfaces, more is the opposition to the motion.
frequency of 850 Hz B t(s) A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
as shown in the given is the correct explanation of statement 1.
figure. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1, the distance is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
between points A and B is C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
A. 6 m B. 7 m D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
C. 60 cm D. 70 cm
18. Match the column I with column II and select the
14. An object is put in turn, in three liquids having correct option from the given codes.
different densities. The object floats with 3/5, 2/9 and Column I Column II
8/11 parts of its volume inside the liquid surface in (a) A child running to (i) F o r c e c a n m a k e a
liquids of densities r1, r2 and r3 respectively. Which catch the school bus stationary object move
of the following is correct? (b) A man blowing a (ii) Force can stop a moving
A. r1 > r2 > r3 B. r3 < r1 < r2 balloon object
C. r3 > r1 > r2 D. r1 < r3 < r2 (c) A woman pushing a (iii) Force can change the
table shape of an object
15. A car of mass 1000 kg rests on a horizontal road (d) A cricketer catching (iv) Force can make an
initially. It is then pushed over 5 m to a speed of a ball object move faster
1 m s–1 before the engine is started. If the average A. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
frictional force acting on the car is 500 N, the total B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
work done in moving the car before the driver starts C. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
the engine, is D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 3


19. Two spheres of the same size but different masses 23. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the particles of a
make head-on collisions. The black sphere is half the substance are packed at different temperatures.
mass of the white sphere. In each collision, one of
the masses is initially at rest and both masses move
after the collision.
W X Y
Which of the situations shows a possible collision?
Before After IV

Temperature
6m s–1 6m s–1 8 m s–1 III
A. II
I
B. 6 m s–1 2 m s–1 4 m s–1
Time
The given graph shows changes in the state of a substance
6 m s–1 3 m s–1 6 m s–1 on heating. In which region of the graph would all the
C.
particles be packed as in Y?
6 m s–1 A. I B. II
D. 1 m s–1 5 m s–1
C. III D. IV

24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.


20. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground,
1. Although p is obtained from a natural source
its potential energy and kinetic energy at a point P
(wood pulp), yet it is a man-made fibre.
are in the ratio 1:5. If same body is projected with
2. q was prepared from coal, water and air, its
half the previous velocity, then at the same point P,
thread is stronger than a steel wire.
ratio of its potential energy and kinetic energy would
be 3. r does not get wrinkled easily, remains crisp
and is easy to wash.
A. 1:2 B. 2:1 p q r
C. 1:5 D. 2:5 A. Acrylic Bakelite Cotton
21. A book of mass m is lying on a table. It is then placed B. Rayon Nylon Polyester
on the top shelf of a book rack by three different C. Silk Rayon Terylene
persons. The paths followed by the book as it is D. Melamine PVC Polycot
carried by three different persons is shown in the
25. Match the column I with column II and select the
given figure.
correct option from the given codes.
1 Column I Column II
2 3 P. Foam (i) Butter
Q. Aerosol (ii) Face cream
R. Gel (iii) Milk of magnesia
S. Emulsion (iv) Sponge
T. Sol (v) Automobile exhaust
The work done by the gravitational force on the book P Q R S T
is maximum for A. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (v)
A. Path 1 B. (v) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
B. Path 2 C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (v) (i)
C. Path 3 D. (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
D. It is same for all the three paths.
26. Reena has arranged the following experimental set-up
22. Planets in our solar system are classified as inner and to observe the reactivity of different metals.
Zn Cu Fe Cu
outer planets. Which of the following is incorrect
about them?
A. Outer planets are large in size whereas inner planets
are comparatively smaller.
B. Outer planets have rings orbiting them while inner FeSO4 Hot, dilute HCl AgNO3 Al2(SO4)3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
planets do not have.
In which beaker(s) will there be no reaction?
C. Outer planets do not have moons orbiting them
while inner planets have. A. I and III B. II and IV
D. Outer planets spin quicker than inner planets. C. IV only D. All of these

4 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1


27. Ninhydrin having molecular formula C 9 H 6 O 4 , is The correct statements are
commonly used by forensic scientists to detect and A. II and IV B. I and III
analyse fingerprints. The number of molecules in C. I, II and IV D. All of these
7.4 g of ninhydrin is
(Atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u) 31. Substances which vapourise while burning give flame.
To verify this fact, Rahul conducted an experiment
A. 1.5 × 1022 B. 2.5 × 1023
and recorded his observations in the given table.
C. 2.5 × 1022 D. 4.2 × 1023
S. No. Material Does not form flame
28. Mass spectrum of lead is given as 1. Candle 
2. Magnesium 
60
53.8% 3. Camphor 
50
% Abundance

40 4. Kerosene stove 
30 5. Charcoal 
23.6% 22.6%
20 Find the incorrect observations.
10
A. 2, 4 and 5 B. 1 and 3
0
206 207 208 C. 1, 2 and 5 D. None of these
Mass
The relative atomic mass of lead is 32. Find the incorrect match.
A. 208 B. 207.567 A. Brass – Copper and Tin
C. 207.302 D. 209 B. German silver – Copper, Zinc and Nickel
C. Solder – Lead and Tin
29. The given diagram shows the fractional distillation
D. Stainless steel – Iron, Chromium and Nickel
of crude oil.
33. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
the organisms P, Q and R shown in the picture?
fraction X

fraction Y
heated
petroleum

Mark the correct option. P Q R


A. Organism P is a protozoan which captures and
Y condenses X has higher boiling
eats its prey with the help of its flagella.
before X point than Y
B. Organisms P and R cannot manufacture their food
A. Yes Yes
as they do not possess chlorophyll.
B. Yes No C. Organism R is multicellular and obtains its food
C. No Yes from dead and decaying organic matter.
D. No No D. Organism Q is an alga found in deep ocean
water.
30. Four samples P, Q, R and S were analysed using
paper chromatography to check the presence of three 34. Match column I with column II and select the correct
different additives X, Y and Z. option from the given codes.
The final chromatograms are shown as Column I Column II
P. An Indian breed of (i) Increase in milk
buffalo production
Q. Blue revolution (ii) Murrah
R. White revolution (iii) Brown Swiss
S. An exotic breed of (iv) Increase in fish
P Q R S X Y Z cattle production
T. Indigenous breed of (v) Aseel
Read the following statements carefully. poultry
I. P contains three components out of which one is X. A. P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii), T-(v)
II. S contains only one component which is X. B. P-(v), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii), T-(ii)
III. Q contains two components which are X and Z. C. P-(v), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iii)
IV. R contains two components out of which one is Y. D. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(v), T-(ii)

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 5


35. Read the following statements. 38. The materials commonly used for staining and mounting
(i) Irrigation protects the crops from both frost and human cheek cells are respectively
hot air currents. A. Safranin and glycerine
(ii) Plants can absorb nutrients mostly in dissolved B. Methylene blue and glycerine
form. C. Safranin and methylene blue
(iii) Excessive use of chemical fertilisers disturbs the D. Fast green and glycerine.
balance of nutrients in the soil.
39. Conversion of fertile land into desert is called
(iv) The process of loosening and turning the soil is
desertification. Which of the following is not a
called digging (or levelling). consequence of desertification?
(v) Rabi crops, such as paddy, require a lot of water A. Decrease in the water holding capacity of soil
and therefore they are sown at the beginning of B. Increased chances of floods
the south-west monsoon, during June or July. C. Increase in the temperature of earth
Select the incorrect combination of statements. D. Decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only in atmosphere
B. (iii), (iv) and (v) only 40. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric
C. (iv) and (v) only rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are
D. (iii) and (iv) only present in fluid-filled spaces called _______. These
fluid-filled spaces of the bone communicate with each
36. Refer to the given figures, P and Q and answer the other by network of fine canals, called _______.
following question. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the
above passage.
A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi
B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi
C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae
D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm
P Q
41. Refer to the given flow chart.
How do reproductive cells of P differ from those of Q
in terms of their production and modes of storage? These are Yes
prokaryotic organisms P
A. Mature reproductive cells of P can get stored for No
longer periods in reproductive tract whereas in Q,
These are unicellular Yes
only immature reproductive cells remain stored. Q
eukaryotic organisms
B. P produces fewer reproductive cells than Q
No
does.
C. Reproductive cells produced by P do not show These are multicellular
eukaryotic organisms
motility.
Yes
D. Q produces reproductive cells for a longer period
in an individual’s life span than P does. These exhibit autotrophic No
R
mode of nutrition
37. Based on the given features, identify the cell organelle Yes
and select the correct option regarding it.
These possess No
S
• It is single membrane bound cell organelle. vascular tissues
• Enzymes of this cell organelle resorbed the tail of Yes
tadpole during metamorphosis.
T
A. The cell organelle is formed by the joint activity Select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R, S
of ER and Golgi apparatus. and T.
B. The cell organelle is present in almost all the A. P can be Thiobacillus or Clostridium and Q can
animal cells except mature mammalian RBCs. be Euglena or Paramecium.
C. The cell organelle is equally abundant in plant and B. R can be Aspergillus or Claviceps.
animal cells. C. S can be Sphagnum or Salvinia.
D. Both A and B D. T can be Pinus or Azadirachta.

6 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1


42. Study the given table carefully and select the option C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
that correctly fills up the blanks P, Q, R and S. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Disease Causative Symptoms
44. Read the following statements (a – c) and select the
organism
option which correctly fills up the blanks in these
Hepatitis Virus P statements.
Elephantiasis Q Swelling of legs or (a) An organism that transmits a disease from an
other body parts. infected person to a healthy person is called
R Protozoan Fever, fatigue, (i) .
enlargement of liver, (b) Poliomyelitis is a (ii) disease and anthrax is
spleen etc. a (iii) disease.
Ringworm S Scaly and itchy skin (c) Allergic diseases (e.g. asthma) are (iv) .
A. P-Acute inflammation of liver, Q-Worm, R-Kala- diseases.
azar, S-Fungus. A. (i)-Secondary host, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial,
B. P-Ulcers in stomach and duodenum, Q-Protozoan, (iv)-Communicable
R-Malaria, S-Virus. B. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Fungal,
C. P-Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest, (iv)-Communicable
Q-Bacterium, R-Sleeping sickness, S-Fungus. C. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial,
D. P-Reduction in natural immunity of body, (iv)-Non-communicable
Q-Fungus, R-Anthrax, S-Bacterium. D. (i)-Parasite, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Protozoan,
(iv)-Infectious
43. Read the given statements and select the correct
option. 45. Which of the following statements is not true?
Statement 1 : Pesticides like DDT enter the food A. Ozone layer occurs naturally in the stratosphere.
chains and their concentration goes on increasing B. Chlorofluorocarbons are the major ozone depleting
from one trophic level to the next. substances which produce active chlorine radicals
Statement 2 : Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable in the presence of UV radiations.
organic compounds which are not metabolised within
C. Thinning of ozone layer allows more UV radiations
the organisms' body and get stored in their body
to pass through it and cause harmful effects on
tissues.
humans, plants and animals.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
D. The region of the stratosphere that contains
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
relatively high concentration of ozone is called
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
troposphere.
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

Achievers section

Direction : Refer to the given dichotomous key and answer 46. Identify organisms P, Q, R and S.
the questions 46 and 47. P Q R S
(I) (a) Cellular level of body organisation is present A. Fasciola Hirudinaria Euplectella Hydra
– Go to V (a) B. Euspongia Wuchereria Limax Palaemon
(b) Tissue/organ level of body organisation is C. Loligo Asterias Tubifex Ascaris
present – Go to II D. Nereis Scolopendra Adamsia Sepia
(II) (a) Radial symmetry is present – Go to V (b)
(b) Bilateral symmetry is present – Go to III (a) 47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
(III) (a) It is acoelomate – Go to IV (a) the given dichotomous key?
(b) It is true coelomate – Go to IV (b) A. The body of organism P is perforated by numerous
pores called ostia.
(IV) (a) It is triploblastic and parasitic – P
B. The excretory system of Q consists of characteristic
(b) It is segmented and sanguivorous – Q
flame cells or protonephridia.
(V) (a) It is found in deep sea waters and is a costly
C. The body wall of S consists of special stinging
wedding gift in Japan – R cells called cnidoblasts.
(b) It is a freshwater polyp – S D. Body of R bears paired locomotory appendages
called parapodia.

18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1 | 7


48. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate 50. Observe the given curve carefully and mark the correct
option. statement.
A body sinks when its weight is (i) than the
buoyant force acting on it. A body floats when its
weight is (ii) than the buoyant force acting

Temperature (°C)
T1
on it. A body sinks if the density of the body is
(iii) than the density of liquid. A body floats if
the density of the body is (iv) than the density
of liquid.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) t1 t2
A. More Less Less More Time (min)
B. More Less More Less A. T1 is the melting point and dry ice changes to
C. Less More Less More
CO2 gas from time t1 to t2.
D. Less More More Less
B. T1 is the boiling point and water vapours change
49. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle to water from time t1 to t2.
of mass 5 kg. The force acting on the particle for
C. T1 is the freezing point and molten copper(II)
0 < t < 4 s and 8 s < t < 12 s, respectively are
sulphate changes to solid copper(II) sulphate
A. 5 N, 5 N x(m)
from time t1 to t2.
B. 5 N, 7.5 N 8 D. T1 is the melting point and solid copper(II) sulphate
C. 5 N, 10 N 4 changes to molten copper(II) sulphate from
D. 0 N, 0 N 0 t(s) time t1 to t2.
4 8 12

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 18th NSO | Class-9 | Set-2 | Level 1


Class 9

Set A

Year 2016
logical reasoning

1. Select the correct mirror image of given combination Rules :


of letters and numbers, if mirror is placed vertically (i) If an odd number is followed by another odd
to the left. number which is a perfect square, then they are to
391DA5GM be added.
A. B. (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number
C. D. or an odd number is followed by an even number,
they are to be multiplied.
2. Select the figure from the options in which Fig. (X) (iii) If an even number is followed by another even
is exactly embedded as one of its part. number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(iv) If an even number which is a multiple of 5 is
followed by an odd number which is also a multiple
of 5, then the second number is to be subtracted
from the first number.
18 7 6
A. B. 140 85 49
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
A. 104 B. 55
C. 121 D. 125
C. D.
8. Three different positions of a dice are given below.
5 1 6
2 4 2
3. In a certain code, GIVE is written as 51@ © and 6 3 3
FAIL is written as %219. How is LEAF written in Which of the following is the net of the given dice?
that code?
A. 5 © 2% B. 9 © 2% 1
A. 5 3 1 B.
C. 9 @ 2% D. 9 © 1% 5 2 3 4
2 4 6
6
4. In the following letter series, some of the letters are 5 4
missing which are given in that order as one of the
2
options below it. Choose the correct option. C. D. 5 2 3
1
b_ac_cc_cb_ab_ac 4 6 1
6 3
A. cbaba B. bbaac
C. abbbc D. aabba 9. Select the figure from the options which satisfies
the same conditions of placement of the dots as in
5. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the
Fig. (X).
relationship amongst, "Red, Clothes and Roses"?

A. B.

C. D.
A. B.
6. Trishu starts from point P and walks towards West
and stops at point Q. She now takes a right turn and
then a left turn and stops at point R. She finally takes
a left turn and stops at point S. If she walks 5 km
before taking each turn, towards which direction will C. D.

Trishu have to walk from point S to reach point Q.
A. North B. South
10. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue.
C. West D. East There are five persons between P and Q and eight
7. Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number other persons between Q and R. If there are only three
in each row is to be worked out separately based on persons ahead of R and 21 persons behind P, what could
the following rules and the question below the rows be the minimum number of persons in the queue?
of numbers is to be answered. The operations on A. 40 B. 43
numbers progress from left to right. C. 47 D. 482

2 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


Science

11. A body covers 26, 28, 30 and 32 metre in 10 th , 11th , 16. The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies
12th and 13th seconds respectively. The body starts of the sound waves produced by it in water and air will
A. From rest and moves with uniform velocity. A. Be the same as that of the source
B. From rest and moves with uniform acceleration. B. Depend upon the velocity of the waves in these
C. With an initial velocity and moves with uniform media
acceleration. C. Depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these
D. With an initial velocity and moves with media
non-uniform acceleration. D. Depend upon the density of the media.

12. A solid cylinder of length l, cross 17. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun in
sectional area A and density a circle of radius r. What is the work done by the
5 gravitational force F in moving the planet over half
× 103 kg m– 3 is immersed such
4 the circumference of the circle?
that it floats with its axis vertical A. Zero B. F × 2pr
at the liquid-liquid interface C. F × pr D. F × 2r
with length l/4 in the denser
liquid as shown in the figure. 18. Two satellites of masses m1 and m 2 (m1 > m 2) are
The lesser dense liquid is open to atmospheric revolving around the earth in circular orbits of radii
pressure P0 . If the density of lesser dense liquid is r 1 and r 2 (r 1 > r 2) respectively. Which of the following
1.0 ×103 kg m–3 then the density of denser liquid will be is true regarding their respective speeds v1 and v 2?
A. 1.5 × 103 kg m–3 B. 2.0 × 103 kg m–3 A. v1 = v2
3 –3
C. 2.5 × 10 kg m D. 3.0 × 103 kg m–3 B. v1 > v2
C. v1 < v2
13. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
D. Cannot be predicted
Statement 1 : The forces of action and reaction always
appear due to actual physical contact of 19. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
two bodies. (i) Work and energy have different units.
Statement 2 : A particle can move only under the action (ii) Two bodies of unequal masses have equal
of a force. acceleration at any instant of time when they are
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 dropped from a cliff.
is the correct explanation of statement 1. (iii) When an aeroplane takes off, the work done by
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 its weight is positive.
is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (iv) When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. its momentum and kinetic energy gets halved.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. A. (ii) only B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. When it has
fallen by 5 m from the top, another stone is dropped 20. A bicycle is being pedalled on a horizontal road. The
from a point 25 m below the top. If both stones reach forces of friction between the road and the front and
the ground at the same moment, then height of the tower rear wheels are F1 and F2 respectively. Then
from ground is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. Both F1 and F2 act in the forward direction.
A. 45 m B. 50 m B. Both F1 and F2 act in the backward direction.
C. 60 m D. 65 m C. F1 acts in the forward direction, F2 acts in the
backward direction.
15. Refer to the graph given here:
D. F1 acts in the backward direction, F2 acts in the
Wave disturbance

R
P forward direction.
Q

S
Time 21. A girl whose eyes are 150 cm above the ground looks
at her reflection in a vertical mirror 250 cm away.
The top and bottom of the mirror are 200 cm and
Which of the following sound waves is high-pitched 120 cm above the ground respectively. What length
but soft? below her eyes can she see, of herself in the mirror?
A. P B. Q A. 60 cm B. 75 cm
C. R D. S C. 100 cm D. 120 cm

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


22. The given diagrams show four mercury barometers. IV. 1 gram molecule of hydrogen gas contains
12.046 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen.
V. 5.6 g of nitrogen gas occupies 3.2 L of volume at
STP.
A. II and III only B. I, II and III only
C. I and IV only D. IV and V only
If the value of external pressure in cases (i), (ii),
(iii) and (iv) is represented by P I , P II , P II I and 26. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
P IV respectively, then In an oil refinery, crude oil is heated to about
673 K and passed into the (i) . As the vapours
A. PI > PII = PIII > PIV B. PIV > PII = PIII > PI rise towards the top, the different hydrocarbons
C. PIII > PII > PIV > PI D. PI = PII = PIII = PIV (ii) at different heights and are withdrawn
separately. Substance with (iii) boiling point is
23. The given diagram represents an activity to separate
collected at the (iv) of the column.
a mixture of two substances X and Y :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. Distillation Condense Lowest Top
flask
B. Chromato- Melt Highest Top
graphic
column
C. Fractionating Condense Highest Bottom
column
D. Fractionating Condense Lowest Bottom
Substances X and Y are respectively
column
A. Sugar and common salt
B. Acetone and water 27. The arrangement of particles of an unknown substance
C. Ammonium chloride and naphthalene at the same pressure at two different temperatures is
shown in the diagrams :
D. Ethyl alcohol and sodium chloride.
Which of the following
24. Read the following statements carefully. substances could the
P. I am extensively used in the healthcare industry diagrams represent?
but my one disadvantage is that I am non-
Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C)
biodegradable.
Q. I am very familiar form of polyester and used for A. P –189 –98
making bottles, utensils, films, wires, etc. B. Q –132 –163
R. I am synthetic fibre, having wool-like feel and C. R –166 –103
cheaper than wool. D. S –115 –86
S. I am thermosetting plastic and poor conductor of
heat and electricity. 28. The schematic atomic structures of three elements
P, Q, R and S are respectively X, Y and Z are given as :
A. PET, Rayon, Petrochemical, Plastic
B. Terylene, Acrylic, Rayon, Melamine
C. PVC, PET, Nylon, Teflon
D. Plastic, PET, Acrylic, Bakelite.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
25. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Z can form ZCl3 and ZCl5.
(Given: At. wt. of Ca = 40 u, Mg = 24 u, N = 14 u, II. Y exists in monoatomic form.
H = 1 u, Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u) III. X and Z combine to form X3Z type compound.
I. 240 g of calcium and 240 g of magnesium elements IV. X and Y combine to form XY2 type compound.
have a molar ratio of 3 : 5. V. X will gain two electrons to form a stable
II. 100 g of N2 contains more atoms than 100 g of NH3. compound.
III. Total number of ions in 5.85 g of sodium chloride A. I and II only B. I, II and IV only
is 1.2 × 1022. C. II, IV and V only D. III, IV and V only

4 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


29. Observe the given diagram carefully. 33. A strain of an animal exists in wild in which there is
only one nucleolus in the nucleus of each cell instead
of the usual two.
When such animals are mated, approximately one
quarter of the offspring have two nucleoli per nucleus,
one half have one nucleolus per nucleus and one quarter
have no nucleolus at all. Offspring without nucleoli
.Which of the following statements are correct? die about four days after hatching.
I. Both the metal strips will dissolve in beaker 2. These offspring die because they do not possess
II. Colour of the solution will change in beaker 1. A. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy
B. Centrioles and are unable to undergo cell division
III. Reaction will take place in beaker 3 but there will
C. Golgi apparatus and are unable to remove dead
be no colour change.
cells
IV. Reaction will occur only in beakers 1 and 2.
D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture
A. II and III only B. I and II only proteins.
C. I and IV only D. All of these
34. Refer to the diagrammatic representations of parts of
30. In an experiment, 1.50 g of pure copper (II) oxide was two different tissues, X and Y.
reduced to pure metal by heating with pure carbon. In
another experiment, 1.15 g of pure copper was treated
with nitric acid and the product formed was heated
strongly till no further change was observed. The mass
of copper (II) oxide so formed was found to be 1.40 g.
The mass of pure metal formed in the first experiment
and the law followed are respectively
A. 1.15 g and law of conservation of mass
B. 1.50 g and law of constant proportions
Now, read the following statements and select the
C. 1.23 g and law of constant proportions
correct ones regarding these tissues.
D. 2.47 g and law of multiple proportions.
(i) X is an animal tissue whereas Y is a plant tissue.
31. Wax burns with a flame because (ii) X is the major water conducting tissue in vascular
plants and gives mechanical strength to plant
A. Liquid wax is vaporised and the vapours of wax
body.
burn.
(iii) X is composed of all dead cells whereas Y is
B. Carbon from the wax vaporises to burn.
composed of all living cells.
C. Carbon from the wax combines with oxygen to
(iv) X conducts water in vascular plants in downward
form carbon dioxide which burns. direction.
D. Hydrogen of the wax burns to form water.
(v) In animals, Y helps in conduction of nerve
32. The given table shows the number of protons, neutrons impulses from various organs to brain and spinal
cord and vice versa.
and electrons in atoms or ions. Which atom/ion in the
A. (i) and (ii) only
table is an isotope of the atom with the composition
of 11 p, 11 e and 14 n? B. (iv) only
C. (v) only
Atoms/ Number of Number of Number of D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Ions protons electrons neutrons
(p) (e) (n) 35. The given graph shows
the amount of pollutants
P 11 11 12 in four rivers P, Q, R
and S. The river that can
Q 18 18 22
continue to support the
R 15 18 16 most number of aquatic
plants and animals is
S 11 10 14
________.
A. P B. Q A. P B. Q
C. R D. S C. R D. S

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


36. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S 39. Read the given sentences, each with one or two blanks
and T. and select the option that correctly fills any four of these.
(i) P causes ulcers in stomach and duodenum.
(ii) Q diseases last for only short period of time but
are severe.
(iii) R diseases are anatomical or physiological
abnormalities present since birth, e.g., S .
(iv) Malaria causing microbes are transmitted through
bite of infected T and move to U and then
red blood cells of humans.
A. P-Salmonella typhi, R-Chronic,
T-Sandfly, U-Brain cells
P Q R S T B. Q-Acute, S-Kala azar,
A. Pinus Funaria Ulothrix Brassica Riccia T-Tsetse fly, U-Pancreas
B. Spirogyra Funaria Dryop- Cycas Hibiscus C. P-Helicobacter pylori, R-Congenital,
teris
S-Cleft palate, U – Liver
C. Tagetes Marchantia Ginkgo Salvia Marsilea
D. Q-Chronic, R-Acute,
D. Volvox Lycopodium Cycas Adiantum Pteridium
T-Aedes mosquito, U-Spleen
Direction : Read the given passage and answer the questions
40. The given diagrams show two different cropping
37 and 38.
patterns, X and Y. Identify these patterns and select
Sukriti and Priya are good friends and study in I standard
the incorrect option regarding them.
of a reputed school. On a hot summer day, while they
both were playing in the school playground, Priya felt
uncomfortable and sat down. After some time she developed
acute headache and high fever. Her legs stopped moving
and she also felt some stiffness in her neck. Soon she
became unconscious.
37. Identify the disease which Priya has contracted, along
with its causative agent and mode of transmission.
Disease Causative Mode of A. In cropping pattern X, the crops should not have
agent transmission the same root pattern.
A. Malaria Protozoan Bite of infected B. Crops selected for cropping pattern Y should have
Anopheles different type of nutrient requirement.
B. Tuberculosis Bacteria Contaminated water C. Crops selected for cropping pattern X must have
different maturation time.
C. Polio Virus Faecal oral route
D. In cropping pattern Y, only two crops can be grown
D. Diphtheria Fungus Sharing of clothes
simultaneously at a time.
38. What could be the probable reason for Sukriti not
41. G i v e n b e l o w i s
being affected by pathogen of this disease?
the diagrammatic
A. Sukriti's immune system has already encountered representation of an
the weakened pathogens and developed memory animal tissue, X.
cells, which produce antibodies whenever
pathogen enters her body. Identify the tissue
B. Sukriti had actually contracted the disease few and select the correct
months back and recovered, hence her immune option regarding it.
system has developed memory cells, which prevent A. Tissue X forms a shock absorbing cushion around
any subsequent pathogen attack. kidneys and eyeballs.
C. Sukriti is taking antibiotics regularly, which kill B. Tissue X fills the spaces inside the organs and
the pathogens entering her body and prevent the
fastens the peritoneum to the body wall.
actual disease.
C. Tissue X connects skeletal muscles with bones.
D. Sukriti has received antibodies against the pathogen
from her mother via placenta so she is immune to D. Tissue X is commonly called packaging tissue of
the pathogen of this disease by birth. the body.

6 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


42. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct Identify P and Q and select the correct option.
option regarding P, Q and R. A. P – Aldosterone, Q – Thyroxine
B. P – Adrenaline, Q – Aldosterone
C. P – Insulin, Q – Adrenaline
Cell wall Organised
Q nucleus D. P – Thyroxine, Q – Adrenaline
present
R present
P 44. Which of the following activities will lead to both
air and water pollution?
Chlorophyll A. Use of manures and fertilisers in a crop field
present
B. Use of cooling devices like air conditioners and
refrigerators
Unicellular organisms C. Burning of fossil fuels and use of fuel operated
transport vehicles.
D. All of these
A. P could be Chlamydomonas or Aspergillus.
B. Q could be Volvox or Penicillium. 45. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of
C. R could be Lactobacillus or Rhizobium. a biosphere reserve.
D. All of these

43. Refer to the diagram showing organ X of the human


body and read the following paragraph.

Select the correct statement regarding this.


A. Tourists can visit P and Q zones but are not allowed
in the R zone.
B. Human settlement and cultivation of crops is
allowed in P and Q zones only.
C. Human activities like research and environmental
Organ X secretes two hormones P and Q. P prepares education are allowed in all P, Q and R zones.
our body to function at maximum efficiency during D. Cutting of trees is allowed in all the zones but
emergency situations whereas Q maintains the correct hunting of wild animals is allowed only in
salt balance in the blood. Q zone.

Achievers section

46. Study the given graph carefully and select the correct 47. Refer to the given graph and fill in the blanks by
statement(s). choosing an appropriate option.
Velocity (m s–1)
8
6
4
2
0 Time(s)
5 10 15 20 25 30
–2
–4
–6

The displacement of the particle from its initial position


I. When water is cooled to 4°C, the volume decreases. at the end of 15 s and 30 s is ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___
II. Ice and water co-exist at 0°C. respectively. The average velocity of the particle
III. Water has minimum density at point Q. between 15 s and 25 s and 0 s to 30 s is ___(iii)___
and ___(iv)___ respectively.
IV. The volume of ice is more than that of water.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. I only
A. 40 m 60 m 4 m s–1 2 m s–1
B. II and III only B. 40 m 100 m 2 m s–1 4 m s–1
C. I, II and IV only C. 20 m 60 m 4ms –1
4 m s–1
D. All of these D. 20 m 100 m 2ms –1
2 m s–1

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


48. A particle falls from rest under gravity. Which of the A. Body of organism P contains numerous small
following graphs correctly shows the variation of (i) pores called ostia and a single large opening called
its potential energy with respect to the ground against osculum on top.
time and (ii) its kinetic energy against time? B. Organism Q possesses gill slits at some stage of
its life.
E E C. The body of organism R is differentiated into head,
(ii) (i)
(i) (ii) visceral mass and ventral foot.
A. B. D. Organism S possesses nematocysts.
Time Time 50. Refer to the given diagram of an animal cell and
E E select the option that correctly describes the functional
(ii) (i) (ii) relationship between organelles P and Q.
C. (i) D.

Time Time

49. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the


incorrect option regarding organisms P, Q, R and S.
I. (a) Animals with cellular level – P
of body organisation.
(b) Animals with tissue/organ/ – Go to II
organ system level of
body organisation.
II. (a) Animals possessing – Go to III (a) A. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported
bilateral symmetry. to P where they are stored for regular use in
(b) Animals possessing – Go to III (b) cytoplasm.
radial symmetry. B. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to
III. (a) True coelom is present. – Go to IV (a) P where they are modified into functional proteins
(b) True coelom is absent. – Go to IV (b) for secretion.
IV. (a) Notochord is present. – Q C. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged into
(b) Notochord is absent. – Go to V vesicles that move to Q for further modification.
V. (a) It forms symbiotic – R D. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged without
association with hermit crab. modification and move to Q where they are stored
(b) It is commonly known as jelly fish. – S for regular use in cytoplasm.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


Class 9

Set B

Year 2016
logical reasoning

1. Trishika and Sidak started walking from two different 7. A square transparent sheet with a pattern on it is given.
points 'A' and 'B' respectively. Trishika walks 5 km If the sheet is folded along the dotted line, then which
North and turns to the East and walks 6 km. She again pattern would appear from the given options?
turns to North and walks 4 km and finally she turns
to East and walks 3 km to reach point 'C'. Similarly,
Sidak walks 5 km North and turns to West and walks
6 km and finally turns to North, walks 4 km and meets
Trishika at point 'C'. In which direction is point 'B'
from point 'A'?
A. East B. West A. B.
C. South D. North

2. Count the number of triangles formed in the given


figure.
A. 36
B. 32 C. D.
C. 38
D. None of these

3. There is a definite relationship between figures 1 and 8. Find the missing number, if same rule is followed in
2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 all the three figures.
and 4 by selecting a suitable figure from the given
options that would replace the (?) in fig. 4.

A. 4 B. 12
C. 7 D. 14

9. A word and number arrangement machine when given


A. B.
an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
C. D. Input : wind packet 19 7 back 12 task 34
Step I : 34 wind packet 19 7 back 12 task
4. If in a certain code language, LATE is coded as 8&4$ Step II : 34 back wind packet 19 7 12 task
and HIRE is coded as 7«3$, then how will HAIL be Step III : 34 back 19 wind packet 7 12 task
coded in the same language? Step IV : 34 back 19 packet wind 7 12 task
A. 7&8« B. &7«8 Step V : 34 back 19 packet 12 wind 7 task
C. 7«&8 D. 7&«8
Step VI : 34 back 19 packet 12 task wind 7
5. Two positions of a dice are shown here. Find the Step VII : 34 back 19 packet 12 task 7 wind
number opposite to 3. and Step VII is the last step.
A. 2 As per the rules followed in the above steps, if
B. 4 Step II of an input is "37 desk 34 garden 5 father
C. 5 victory 17", then which of the following steps will
D. 6 be the last step?
6. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents A. Step III B. Step V
the relationship amongst, "Males, Females and C. Step IV D. Step VI
Brothers"?
10. Select the correct water image of the given combination
A. B. of letters and numbers from the given options.
LosCi2016nSo
A. B.
C. D. C. D.

2 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. A particle starts from rest and travels a distance 16. A body is projected vertically up. At certain height h
x with uniform acceleration, then it travels a distance above the ground, the ratio of its potential energy to
2x with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance the kinetic energy is 2 : 3. At what height above the
3x with uniform retardation and comes to rest. If the ground, the ratio of its kinetic energy to the potential
whole motion of the particle is a straight line, then the energy will be 2 : 3 ?
ratio of its average velocity to maximum velocity is 2 3
A. h B. h
5 2
A. 6:7 B. 4:5 9
4
C. 2:3 D. 3:5 C. h D. h
7 8
12. A student uses a spring balance of range 500 g wt. 17. In an experiment to measure the speed of sound in
He records the weight of a small iron cube of mass air, a boy stands 40 m from a wall and bangs two
100 g in air, in tap water and in a concentrated solution pieces of wood together. At the instant he hears
of common salt in water. His three readings taken in the echo, he bangs them together again. He does
the given order are W1, W2 and W3. His measurements this activity 50 times. The time taken for 50 bangs
could be is 12 s. Which calculation gives the speed (in m s-1)
A. W1 = W2 = W3 B. W1 > W2 > W3 of sound in air?
C. W1 < W2 < W3 D. W1 < W2 > W3 10 40 × 50
A. B.
40 × 50 12
13. Read the given statements and select the correct option. 40 × 2 × 50 40 × 2 × 12
Statement 1 : A spaceship, while entering the Earth's C. D.
12 50
atmosphere is likely to catch fire.
Statement 2 : The temperature of the upper atmosphere 18. Two vessels P and Q of equal volume and weight are
is very high. immersed in water to depth h. The vessel P has an
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 opening at the bottom through which water can enter.
is the correct explanation of statement 1. If the work done in immersing P and Q are WP and
WQ respectively, then
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
is not the correct explanation of statement 1. A. WP > WQ
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. B. WP < WQ
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. C. WP = WQ
D. Cannot be predicted.
14. Two particles, one with constant velocity of 50 m s–1 19. The density of a planet PL1 is thrice that of planet
and the other start from rest with uniform acceleration PL2. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface
of 10 m s–2 , start moving simultaneously from the 1th
same position in the same direction. They will be at of PL1 is of that at the surface of planet PL2. If the
9
a distance of 125 m from each other after radius of planet PL2 is R, then the radius of planet
A. 5 s and 5(1 + 2 ) s PL1 will be
B. 5 s and 10 s A. R/3 B. R/27
C. 5(1 + 2 ) s and 10 s C. 27R D. 81R
D. 10 s and 10(1 + 2 ) s.
20. A ball of mass 400 g is dropped from a height of 5 m.
15. A signal generator is connected to a loud speaker. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically upwards
Keeping the amplitude of the wave constant, the with a bat with an average force of 100 N, so that it
attains a vertical height of 20 m. The time for which
frequency of the sound is increased from 0 Hz to
the ball remains in contact with the bat is
21 kHz. Which of the following graphs shows the
(Take g = 10 m s–2)
variation of the loudness of the sound with the frequency
as heard by a normal healthy man? A. 0.08 s B. 0.12 s
Loudness Loudness
C. 2 s D. 5 s

A. B. 21. Which of the following statements does explain how


0 0 Frequency
a positively charged object becomes neutral when
Frequency
21 kHz 21 kHz someone touches it?
Loudness
Loudness A. Electrons flow from the object.
C. D. B. Electrons flow on to the object.
Frequency
C. Protons flow from the object.
0 Frequency 0
21 kHz 21 kHz D. Protons flow on to the object.

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


22. Which of the following statements are incorrect? 26. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Pupil gives the eye its distinctive colour. Statement 1 : During fractional distillation of petroleum,
(ii) Iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye. the temperature increases inside the fractionating
(iii) Cones are sensitive to dim light and rods to bright column on going from bottom to the top.
Statement 2 : The fraction with the lower boiling
light.
point condenses first.
(iv) Near point for a normal eye is 25 m.
(v) Far point for a normal eye is infinity. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
A. (ii) and (iii) only is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
23. Dhairya, a Class 9 student 27. A group of class 9 students was given a paint fragment
Temperature (°C)

120
heated a solid ‘X’ beyond containing two dyes X and Y. Three different types of
90 P
its melting point. Then, he 60
Q chromatograms were obtained using three different
allowed the hot liquid to 30 R solvents as shown in the figure :
cool slowly and recorded the 0
Time (min)
temperature at regular time
intervals until it cooled to 20°C. He obtained the given
cooling curve.
The parts of graph where ‘X’ exists in solid state,
in liquid state and in both solid and liquid states are
respectively Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Q, P and R B. P, Q and R A. Y is soluble in ethanol but X is not.
C. R, P and Q D. R, Q and P. B. X is soluble in ethanol as well as in petroleum
ether.
24. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. C. Y is insoluble in propanone as well as in petroleum
W is a very reactive metal, reacts vigorously with ether.
oxygen and water therefore, stored in (1) . D. All of these
X is a non-metal, soft and dull and forms 28. Cotton is used to make clothes as
(2) oxides with oxygen. A. It is strong, heavy and absorbs water
Y is very reactive (3) , catches fire if exposed B. It has low tensile strength, absorbs dyes and is
to air therefore, stored in water. transparent
C. It is light, soft, absorbs dyes and sweat
Z does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid even D. It is good conductor of heat.
on heating but it reacts with sulphuric acid. When
it is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull 29. The composition of five particles P, Q, R, S and T is
(4) coating. given in the table :
A. W-Na, 1-Water; X-S, 2-Basic; Y-P, 3-Metal; Substance No. of No. of No. of
protons neutrons electrons
Z-Cu, 4-Reddish brown
P 25 30 25
B. W-Mg, 1-Kerosene; X-P, 2-Acidic; Y-Si, 3-Metal; Q 13 13 13
Z-Ag, 4-Reddish brown R 13 14 10
C. W- N a , 1 - K e r o s e n e ; X- S , 2 - A c i d i c ; Y- P, S 9 10 9
3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green T 9 10 10
D. W-Al, 1-Water; X-Zn, 2-Amphoteric; Y-P, Identify atoms, ions and isotopes.
3-Non-metal; Z-Cu, 4-Green Atoms Ions Isotopes
A. P, Q, S R, T S and T
25. Compounds formed by four different elements P, Q,
B. R, T P, Q, S Q and R
R and S are PQ 3, P2 S 3, RS 2 and RQ4. C. P, Q, S R, T Q and R
The possible electronic configurations of elements P, D. Q, R P, T S and T
Q, R and S are
30. Observe the given figures carefully :
P Q R S
A. 2, 8, 2 2, 8 2, 1 2, 8, 3 Chimney Glass plate

B. 2, 8, 3 2, 8 2, 1 2, 8, 2
C. 2, 8 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 3 2, 1
D. 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 4 2, 6 (1) (2) (3)

4 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? D. Cells of tissue Q have extremely thick walls,
I. Candle 1 burns freely due to presence of air. which possess thickenings of pectin and lignin at
II. Smoke is produced in candle 2 due to less supply corners.
of air.
III. Flame finally goes off in candle 3 as air is not 34. Refer to the given cross-section of Q
P
available. conducting tissue of a plant and
A. II only B. I and II only select the correct option regarding
C. I and III only D. None of these P, Q and R.
A. P and R are non-living cells
31. Match the columns I, II and III and select the correct devoid of living protoplast at R
option using the given codes. maturity.
Column I Column II Column III B. P is present in all vascular plants whereas Q is
(a) 4.25 g of NH3 (i) 2 moles (p) 5.6 L at STP confined to angiosperms only.
(b) 4 g of H2 (ii) 0.25 mol (q) 6.022 × 1023
C. Both P and Q take part in conduction of water but
× 0.75 atoms P possesses perforations whereas Q is imperforated
(c) 10 moles of (iii) 6.022 × 1023 (r) 14 g
cell.
atoms
D. None of these
H2SO4
(d) 12 g of (iv) 0.375 mole (s) 12.046 × 1023 35. Potato tuber strips measuring 5 cm were prepared and
oxygen gas molecules placed in Petri dishes filled with varying concentrations
(e) 1 mole of (v) 980 g (t) 7× 10 × 6.022 of sucrose solution (0.0M to 0.6M). After 20 minutes,
nitrogen atom × 1023 atoms their final lengths were recorded and their percentage
(Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, S = 32 u, change in length calculated. The graph below shows
O = 16 u) the percentage change in length of potato strips in
a b c d e increasing concentrations of sucrose solution.
A. (iii), (q) (i), (p) (iv), (r) (ii), (s) (v), (t) 20
B. (ii), (t) (iii), (p) (iv), (s) (i), (q) (v), (r)

Percentage change
15
C. (i), (p) (ii), (q) (v), (r) (iii), (s) (iv), (t)

in length (%)
10
D. (ii), (p) (i), (s) (v), (t) (iv), (q) (iii), (r) 5
0
32. Which of the following are isobars? –5 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6
–10 (M)
–15
20 p 18 p 20 p –20
22 n 22 n 20 n

Which of the following can be correctly inferred from


I II III the given graph?
A. 0.3 M sucrose solution is isotonic to cell sap of
18 p 18 p 19 p potato cells.
20 n 18 n 21 n
B. Negative percentage change in potato strip length
is due to endosmosis.
IV V VI C. Positive percentage change in potato strip length
A. I and II only B. II, III and VI only is due to exosmosis.
C. II and VI only D. II, III, IV and V only D. 0.6 M sucrose solution is hypotonic and 0.2 M
sucrose solution is hypertonic to cell sap of potato
33. Shown below are the diagrammatic representations cells.
of two different types of tissues P and Q.
36. Shown below are cross sectional diagrams of three
animals P, Q and R.

P Q P Q R
Which of the following holds true regarding tissues Which of the following is correct regarding organisms
P and Q ? P, Q and R ?
A. Tissue P helps in gaseous exchange in multicellular A. Organism P is always diploblastic whereas
animals. organisms Q and R are triploblastic.
B. Tissue Q provides mechanical support, elasticity B. Organism Q could be a flatworm or a round-
and tensile strength to the plant part where it is worm.
present. C. Body cavity of organism Q arises from embryonic
C. Tissue P is the most widely distributed connective mesoderm.
tissue in animal body. D. Organism R could be an annelid or an echinoderm.

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


37. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct B. The positions of Red Sindhi and Brown Swiss
option regarding P, Q, R and S. should be interchanged.
Caused due C. Viral should be replaced with protozoan and
Communicable to hypo or Yes
disease
No
P bacterial should be replaced with fungal.
hypersecretion
Yes of hormones D. Milch and draught should not be replaced as they
Spreads through Yes
are correctly mentioned.
Q
direct contact
No 40. X and Y are two systems of irrigation. X makes use of
Spreads through a simple machine, i.e., wheel and axle and is animal
Yes
contaminated food R driven. Y, on the other hand, involves network of narrow
and water
No pipes with small holes which run through the crop field
Spreads through Yes that are supplied by water through electrical pumps.
S
vectors Identify X and Y systems of irrigation and select the
correct option regarding them.
A. Disease P is caused due to malfunctioning of
exocrine glands while diseases Q, R and S are A. Y system of irrigation is a wasteful process as the
caused by pathogenic microbes. crop field gets flooded with excess water which is
B. S is a contagious disease while Q and R are non not required by the crop plants.
contagious diseases. B. X irrigation system provides water to plants drop
C. Q could be hepatitis B while R could be Kala azar. by drop so water is not wasted at all.
D. S could be sleeping sickness while R could be C. Y irrigation system is very useful in those regions
cholera. where availability of water is very poor.
D. X irrigation system is best for watering fruit plants
38. Match column I with column II and select the correct and trees.
option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II 41. Refer to the given figure of male
(a) Particulate matter (i) Chemical water reproductive system.
Which of the following correctly X
pollutants
(b) Detergents (ii) Non-degradable soil describes difference between X
and Y?
pollutants Y
(c) Plastics (iii) Degradable soil A. X is a gland but Y is not.
pollutants B. Both X and Y are glands but X is an endocrine
(d) Vegetable peels (iv) Air pollutants gland while Y is an exocrine gland.
C. Y secretes male sex hormones but X does not.
A. (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
D. X serves to produce sperms while Y serves to
B. (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
produce all other constituents of semen.
C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
D. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) 42. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S,
T and U.
39. Refer to the given paragraph where few words have
Microorganisms with cell wall
been italicised and select the correct option regarding
this. Prokaryotes Functions Eukaryotes
Animals used in agriculture and for transport are P
1. Decomposition
Q
called milch animals whereas animals used for milk of detritus
production are called draught animals. Production of R 2. Association S
with roots of
good quality milk depends much on the type of breed higher plants
e.g., exotic breeds of cattle like Red Sindhi and Jersey T 3. Production of U
produce on an average 60L milk in a day. On the antibiotic
other hand, local breeds such as Sahiwal and Brown
P Q R S T U
Swiss produce on an average only 6 – 8L of milk per
A. Mycobac- Yeast Vibrio Asper- Lactoba- Rhizo-
day. Cattle suffer from several diseases which may terium gillus cillus pus
reduce the milk production. E.g., anthrax is a fatal B. Azotobac- Agari- Salmo- Pucci- Diploco- Mucor
viral disease, whereas foot and mouth disease is a ter cus nella nia ccus
bacterial disease which broadly affect the health of C. Pseudo- Physa- Rhizo- Glomus Strepto- Penici-
cattle thereby, reducing milk production. monas rum bium coccus llium

A. The positions of Jersey and Sahiwal should be D. Vibrio


Mucor Pseudo- Agari- Myco- Physa-
monas cius bacter- rum
interchanged. ium

6 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


43. Study the given diagram of an R A. Species R could be an alien species which may
animal cell. Which of the following P become invasive and drive away species P in near
statements are correct regarding P, future.
Q, R and S? S
B. Species Q could be a parasite which is exclusively
(i) S fuses with R to release its Q found on P.
content into the extracellular C. P and Q might undergo coextinction in near
space. future.
(ii) Proteins formed in Q are modified into glycoproteins D. P and Q compete with each other for same available
in P. resources however the nutrient and resource
(iii) If radioactively labelled amino acids are provided requirements of P and R could be different.
to the cell then radioactivity will first appear in S. 45. Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched?
(iv) Q is involved in the synthesis of R.
(i) To reduce harmful – Have the vehicles
(v) S buds off from cis face of Q.
gases emitted by checked regularly to
A. (i) and (iii) only
vehicles ensure that colourless
B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
and odourless gases are
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
emitted
D. (i) and (iv) only
(ii) To dispose off – Burn in an open area
44. The given graph shows radioactive waste
changes in populations of Q R (iii) To prevent – Educate the public
three species, P, Q and R pollution not to throw litter or
Population

P of the sea dump refuse into the sea


in an ecosystem over time.
Which of the following (iv) To get rid of – Have pipes leading
could not be inferred from human faeces from homes to the river
the given graph? Time A. (ii) only B. (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iv) only D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Achievers Section

Direction : Read the given paragraph and answer A. The vaccine given to Raj contained live attenuated
questions 46 and 47. pathogens which triggered production of antibodies
Raj contracted measles few days back and soon and memory cells that will recognise any subsequent
recovered from the infection. He got immune to any pathogenic attack and prevent the infection.
subsequent infection of measles virus for sometime. B. The vaccine given to Raj contained preformed
Raj's mother got him vaccinated for polio when he antibodies which will last throughout his life and
was young. So, he is immune to polio disease also. prevent any further infection.
Raj's younger brother Rohan is just two days old and C. The vaccine given to Raj contained live/active
is mother fed. He has received some immunity from pathogen in a very small amount that can generate
his mother via milk. primary immune response but is insufficient to
cause infection.
46. Which of the following is correct regarding Raj's and D. None of these
Rohan's immunity?
48. A particle of mass 70 g, moving at 50 cm s–1, is acted
A. Raj's immune system developed its own antibodies
when encountered the pathogen or antigen however, upon by a variable force opposite to its direction
Rohan has received preformed antibodies from his of motion. The force F is shown as a function of
mother. time.
B. Rohan's immunity is long lasting but Raj's
immunity is for a brief period only.
C. Raj is immune to only few diseases like measles
and polio however, Rohan is immune to most of
the pathogenic diseases.
After the force stops acting, the particle moves with
D. Rohan's immunity may cause some side effects
a speed of
in his body however Raj's immunity has no side
effects. A. 50 cm s–1 in reverse direction
B. 100 cm s–1 in reverse direction
47. How Raj got immune to polio virus even though he
C. 150 cm s–1 in original direction
never contracted the disease ?
D. 100 cm s–1 in original direction.

19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


49. A mixture of two liquids X and Y was placed in a C. When the thermometer first shows a constant
flask as shown in the given figure. The mixture was reading, point P will be richer in proportion of
heated using a Bunsen burner. The boiling point of X is X vapours.
230 K and that of Y is 250 K. D. The liquid ‘Y’ distills over first and is collected in
Thermometer beaker S.

R
50. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
Q On the surface of the earth, acceleration due to gravity
at poles is (i) and that at equator is (ii) . The
Mixture of
P value of acceleration due to gravity (iii) with
X and Y height above the centre of earth to its surface and
S (iv) with height above the surface of earth.
Which of the following statements is correct? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. The purpose of fractionating column is to decrease A. Maximum Minimum Increases Decreases
the surface area for cooling. B. Maximum Minimum Decreases Decreases
B. As the vapour travel up from Q to R, the vapour C. Minimum Maximum Increases Decreases
of X condense more readily. D. Minimum Maximum Increases Increases

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

8 | 19th NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


Class 9

Set A

Year 2017
LOGICAL REASONING

1.
The following numbers are coded as follows: 6. Ajay is in the East of Sumit who is in the North of
Numbers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Jatin. If Arnav is in South of Jatin, then Arnav is in
Symbols × * ? ÷ $ + ! D which direction with respect to Ajay?
While coding the given number following conditions A. North-West B. South-West
are also to be observed. C. South D. South-East
Conditions:
(i) If the first digit of the number is odd, then it will 7. Find the water image of given combination of
be coded as @. letters/numbers/symbols.
(ii) If the last digit of the number is even, then it will Wat17%*Log
be coded as . A. B. goL*%71taW
%*LogWat17
Wat17%*Log
Find the code of 5 2 4 6 5 7 3 8. C. D. goL*%71taW
A. $* ÷ $+?! B. @* ÷ + $?
8. Which of the following figures will complete the
C. @* ÷ $+? D. @ * ÷ +$?!
given figure matrix?
2. Find the missing number, if same rule is followed in
all the three figures. A. B.

16 84 49 4 ? 100 81 45 1 C. D.
9 64 25
A.
160 B.
120 C.
140 D.
180 9.
In the given question, two rows of numbers are given.
The resultant number in each row is to be worked
3. There is a certain relationship between figures (1) out separately based on the following rules and the
and (2). Establish the similar relationship between question below the rows of numbers is to be answered.
figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure The operation on numbers progress from left to right.
from the given options which will replace the (?) in Rules:
figure (4). (i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a prime
R
C × A number, the first number is to be multiplied by the
+ ? prime number.
G %
C
R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(ii) If an even number is followed by another even
number, the first number is to be divided by the
% G % G %
G % G
A. A B. second number.
A C. A D. A
(iii) If an odd number is followed by a composite odd
number, the first number is to be added to the second
4. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six persons travelling together number.
in a boat. Three of them Q, R and T are women and (iv) If an even number which is multiple of 5 is followed
the rest are men. However P, Q, R and T are all by another number which is also a multiple of 5,
vegetarian and S and U are non-vegetarian. Q, T and the second number is to be subtracted from the first
U know swimming while the rest do not know how number.
to swim. (v) If a number which is a perfect square is followed
Who among the following is a vegetarian female who by another number which is also a perfect square,
does not know swimming? the resultant number is the product of the square
A. P B. Q C. R D. T root of the two numbers.
64  25  25
5. The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y
88  8   15
and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of
paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded Find the sum of resultant of the both rows.
paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options A. 41 B. 51 C. 37 D. 47
which would most closely resemble the unfolded form
10. Which of the following options satisfy the same
of Fig. (Z).
conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?

     X    Y   Z
X Y Z Fig. (X)
Fig. (X)

A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D.

2 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. The diagram shows a conducting _


+ 18. Read the given statements and select the correct
_
sphere M between two oppositely _
+ option.
M +
charged metal plates. _
+ Statement
 1 : When the displacement of a body is
_
What would be the resulting charge _
+
+ directly proportional to the square of the time, then the
distribution on sphere M? body is moving with uniform acceleration.
_ _
A.
_
+ + +_ +
_ D. +
+ + Statement
 2 : The slope of velocity-time graph with
+ B. _ C. + +
_ + + _ + _ + + time axis gives acceleration.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
12. A man of height 1.6 m wishes to see his full image is the correct explanation of statement 1.
in a plane mirror. The minimum height of the mirror B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is
needed for this purpose is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
A. 3.2 m B. 2.4 m C. 1.6 m D. 0.8 m C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
13. The diagram shows a U-tube used to determine the
density of liquid P. When 19. The given graph shows the displacement versus time
liquid P is poured into one 6 cm h Liquid P relation for a sound wave travelling with velocity of
arm, the water level in the 1500 m s–1. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
other arm rises. If the
A. 5 × 10–5 m

Displacement (m)
densities of water and liquid P are 1000 kg m–3 and
750 kg m–3 respectively, then what is the value of h ? B. 3 × 10–3 m
0
2 3 4
A. 7 cm B. 8 cm C. 10 cm D. 12 cm C. 2 × 10–6 m 1 5 Time (µs)
–3
D. 1.5 × 10 m
14. An escalator carries 20 passengers of average mass of
60 kg. It travels 4.2 m in height in one minute each 20. A mass of 100 g strikes the wall with a
floor. What is the minimum power for the escalator speed of 5 m s–1 at an angle 60° as shown 60°
for its operation to lift these passengers from the first in figure and it rebounds with the same
60°
floor to the third floor? (Take g = 10 m s–2) speed. If the contact time is 2 × 10–3 s,
A. 840 W B. 50400 W C. 5040 W D. 252 W what is the force applied by the wall ? 100 g

15. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can 250 3 N to right
A. B. 250 N to right
reach the ground in 5 seconds. If this stone is stopped 250 3 N to left
C. D. 250 N to left
after 3 seconds of its fall and is again released, then
the total time taken by the stone to reach the ground 21. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
will be (Take g = 10 m s–2 ) masses m1 and m2 . When the toy carts are released
A. 6 s B. 7 s C. 8 s D. 9 s then spring exerts equal and opposite average force
on each for the same time t. Assume that there is no
16. Two men, at points P and Wall friction between the toy carts and the ground, the
Q, are facing a flat and hard velocities of toy carts are
wall as shown. When the 400 m
400 m A. In opposite directions but in inverse ratio of their
man at point P makes a clap,
masses
man at point Q hears two Q
P 600 m B. In opposite directions but in direct ratio of their
claps. If the speed of sound is
320 m s–1, then what is the time interval between the masses
two claps heard by man at point Q? C. Equal and in opposite direction
A. 0.32 s B. 0.67 s C. 1.25 s D. 2.50 s D. Equal and in same direction.

17. The diagram shows a wooden block of mass 10 kg 22. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
pushed up a rough inclined plane at a constant speed (i) The flow of electric current in the circuit is from
by a force of 50 N. When the block travels from X negative to the positive terminal of the battery.
to Y, it reaches a height of 5 m and travels a distance (ii) Pure water is a good conductor of electricity.
of 13 m along the plane, then what is the work done (iii) In the electroplating of copper, copper gets
against friction? Y transferred form the anode to the cathode.
A. 650 J (iv) In a dry cell, the electrolyte is a paste of ammonium
B. 600 J N
50 13 m chloride.
X 5m
C. 250 J A. (i) and (iv) only B. (ii) and (iv) only
D. 150 J 12 m
C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) and (ii) only

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


23. Which of the following statements are correct? A. Both elements have valency equal to 5 only.
I. At 273 K, both ice and water co-exist. B. Both elements have the same mass number.
II. Ice at 0 °C is more effective in cooling a substance C. Atomic number of element P is 7 and that
than water at 0 °C. of element Q is 15.
III. Particles in water at 0 °C have more energy as D. Both elements show valency equal to 3 only.
compared to particles in ice at the same temperature. 28. Match column I with column II and select the correct
IV. Increase in pressure increases the freezing point of option from the given codes.
ice. Column I Column II
A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only
P. Teflon (i) Can be blown up into large
C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
foam containing air bubbles
24. Read the given passage carefully and fill in the blanks Q. Polystyrene (ii) Easily moulded, can be
by choosing an appropriate option. rolled into thin sheets
Coal is one of the earliest used (i) resources of R. Polythene (iii) Tougher than polythene, can
energy. Coal beds generally contain large amount of be coated on cloth
(ii) gas which can also be obtained by destructive S. PVC (iv) High melting point, very low
distillation of coal. A dark brown, foul smelling liquid friction
A. P – (iii), Q – (iv), R – (ii), S – (i)
called (iii) is also obtained from destructive distillation
B. P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (i), S – (iii)
of coal which is further used to obtain (iv) .
C. P – (iv), Q – (i), R – (ii), S – (iii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. P – (iii), Q – (iv), R – (i), S – (ii)
A. Renewable Butane Coke Paints
B. Inexhaustible Natural gas Coal tar Coke 29. Ms Diksha, a science teacher gave different substances
C. Exhaustible Methane Coal tar Naphthalene to three students. One spatula full of copper sulphate
balls was given to student 1, wheat flour was given to student 2
D. Non-renewable Coal gas Coke Coal tar and ink was given to student 3. Each student added
the given sample to water and stirred. Which of the
25. Arrange the following in the order of increasing mass. following statements is incorrect about the mixtures
(Atomic mass of O = 16 u, Cu = 63 u, N = 14 u) prepared by them?
I. one atom of oxygen A. Particles are not visible to the naked eye in case of
II. one atom of nitrogen mixtures obtained by student 1 and student 3.
III. 1 × 10–10 mole of oxygen gas B. The path of light becomes visible in case of mixture
IV. 1 × 10–10 mole of copper obtained by student 1.
A. II < I < III < IV B. I < II < III < IV C. When passed through filter paper, particles of mixture
C. III < II < IV < I D. IV < II < III < I obtained by student 2 remain behind on the filter
26. Abhinav, a class 9 student paper.
arranged the given expe- Water D. The particles of mixture obtained by student 3 are
rimental set-up to study the about 100 times bigger than those of the mixture
reactivity of some metals Metal obtained by student 1.
P Q R S piece
with water.
30. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify
He summarised his observations as follows :
P, Q, R, S and T.
I. In test tube P, there was no reaction in cold water No
Combustible substance P
but when the test tube was heated for a while, Yes
bubbles of gas were seen.
II. In test tube Q, bubbles of gas were formed only Q No Forms flame Undergoes No
spontaneous
after boiling the water. Yes
combustion
III. In test tube R, no gas was produced even on R Undergoes
Yes
rapid
boiling the water. S combustion
IV. In test tube S, reaction occurred vigorously. Yes
The metals present in test tubes P, Q, R and S could T
be respectively P Q R S T
A. Na, Mg, Zn and Fe B. Mg, Zn, Cu and Na A. Iron Paper Kerosene Aluminium Wood
C. Na, Mg, Al and Cu D. Mg, Zn, Fe and Al. nails
B. Glass Coke Wood LPG Iron nails
27. Element P has 5 electrons in its L shell while element C. Stone Coal Camphor Sodium LPG
Q has 5 electrons in its M shell. Which of the following D. Iron Kero- Paper Phosphorus Camphor
statements is correct regarding elements P and Q? nails sene

4 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


31. The given graph represents the Y is always multicellular and could be Alternaria,
B.
cooling curve of substance X. Puccinia or Ustilago.
Which of the following Z possesses chlorophyll and could be unicellular e.g.,
C.
statements are incorrect? Chlamydomonas, or multicellular, e.g., Spirogyra.
I. Process I represents cooling X is always anaerobic whereas Y and Z are always
D.
of liquid state of X while aerobic.
process III involves cooling 35. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct
of the solid state. option regarding P and Q.
II. The freezing point of substance X is 25 °C.
III. At 35 °C, the substance exists in solid state. Communicable
IV. Substance X exists both in gaseous and liquid Caused by P disease Caused by
transmitted Q protozoan
virus
form along the curve QR. through vector
A. I and III only B. II and IV only
C. III and IV only D. None of these A. Q could be a disease that is commonly treated by
a drug obtained from bark of Cinchona tree.
32. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by
choosing an appropriate option. B. P could be a fever which is transmitted by the bite of
Aedes aegypti mosquito that bites during daytime.
When a mixture of two (i) liquids having a difference
C. P could be a disease characterised by severe joint
of 25 °C in their boiling points is to be separated,
pain and sudden onset of high fever whereas Q
a (ii) is used which increases the (iii) surface could be dum-dum fever or sleeping sickness.
area. As a result, when the vapours of both the liquids D. All of these
rise, the (iv) volatile liquid will condense while the
vapours of (v) volatile liquid will rise. 36. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) option regarding P, Q, R and S.
It is a traditional No Water is allowed to flow
A. Immiscible Distillation Heating More Less irrigation method. through main pipe under Yes
flask Yes
pressure which escapes R
B. Non-volatile Condenser Cooling Less More from rotating nozzles.
It works on
C. Miscible Fractionat- Cooling Less More pulley system.
Yes
P
No

ing column No Water is delivered near


D. Volatile Condenser Heating More Less root zone of plants
It works on drop by drop.
lever system.
Yes Yes
33. Read the given paragraph.
Q S
X is a butterfly shaped gland located in the front part
of lower neck. Y is a triangular gland present in pair P could be dhekli whereas Q could be chain pump.
A.
on the top of each kidney. Z is a mixed gland located S minimises wastage of water by minimising
B.
inferior to stomach which secretes digestive juices as evaporation and run off.
well as hormones. R is very effective in case of plants growing in both
C.
Now select the incorrect option regarding glands X, marshes and saline soil.
Y and Z. P and Q are related with generation of
D.
A. X functions as biological clock by secreting a hydroelectricity whereas R and S are related to
hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycle in humans. mitigation of drought.
B. If a person is terrified or stressed then gland Y
37. Refer to the given figures of
releases a hormone that helps his body to adjust different animals.
with the stress. Read the characteristics
C. Gland Z secretes its hormones when blood glucose given below and select the
concentration is either above or below the normal option that correctly matches
reference range. these animals with their
D. Abnormal secretion from gland X may lead to various characteristics stated. X XY
X Y Y ZZ Z
disorders like exophthalmic goitre, myxoedema, etc. (i) Coelom absent (ii) Pseudocoelom present
34. Refer to the given Venn (iii) True coelom present (iv) Triploblastic animal
diagram and select the correct Saprophytic (v) Flame cells as excretory organs
mode of
option regarding X, Y and Z. Cell wall X nutrition is (vi) Body metamerically segmented
is present. present.
A. X causes citrus canker Y (vii) Nephridia are excretory organs
and wilt diseases in plants Z A. X-(i, vi, vii), Y-(ii, iv, vi), Z-(iii, v, vi)
and is also responsible for Organised B. X-(i, iv, v), Y-(ii, iv), Z-(iii, iv, vi, vii)
nucleus is
causing tetanus, athlete's present. C. X-(ii, iv, vi), Y-(i, v, vii), Z-(iii, iv, v)
foot, etc., in humans. D. X-(iii, vi), Y-(ii, iv, vii), Z-(i, v)

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


38. Select the correct statement regarding cell wall of plant A. The person is suffering from two pathogenic
cells. infections simultaneously.
A. Primary cell wall is chiefly composed of a soluble B. X could be a viral infection that decreased rapidly
fibrous polysaccharide called suberin. after antibiotic treatment.
B. Secondary cell wall is mainly composed of lignin and C. Both X and Y are different bacterial infections
is deposited on the outer surface of primary wall. where recovery in case of X is due to body's
C. Pits are present in primary walls whereas they are immunity whereas that in case of Y is due to
absent in secondary walls. antibiotic treatment.
D. The primary cell walls of adjacent cells are cemented
D. Both X and Y are viral infections which decreased
through middle lamella which is composed of
due to body's immunity and antibiotic treatment had
calcium and magnesium pectate.
no role in it.
39. Select the group that contains only the micronutrients.
43. Refer to the given figure and select the option that
A. Sulphur, Molybdenum, Nitrogen correctly compares structures X and Y.
B. Zinc, Copper, Manganese
C. Oxygen, Iron, Potassium
D. Carbon, Chlorine, Nickel
40. Refer to the given diagram Y
of an animal cell and select X
the correct option regarding
P and Q.
A. Some of the vesicles A. X always carries urine whereas Y always carries
of P store digestive semen.
enzymes obtained from Q B. In each male individual, X exists singly but Y exists
in inactive state to form in a pair.
primary lysosome. C. The flow of fluid through X can be controlled
B. Polypeptides synthesised at P are transported to Q voluntarily but such control does not exist in Y.
where they are modified into functional proteins for D. Both B and C
secretion.
C. Q synthesises acrosome which plays an important 44. A Visking tubing is filled with
role in the fertilisation process in humans. solution X and placed in a boiling
D. P is absent in pancreatic cells and cells of salivary tube of solution Y. After 20 Visking tubing
glands whereas Q is absent in liver cells. minutes, the Visking tubing
appeared to be larger and heavier. Solution X
41. Riddhi drew a classification chart as shown below.
Animalia Which of the following correctly
Solution Y
Cellular Level Tissue Level identifies solutions X and Y ?
Solution X Solution Y
Porifera
X Pseudocoelom Y A. 2 M sucrose solution 0.1 M sucrose solution
B. 0.5 M sucrose solution 1 M sucrose solution
Nematoda
P Q C. 1 M sucrose solution 5 M sucrose solution
Coelenterata Platyhelminthes D. Distilled water 2 M sucrose solution
Now, select the option that correctly identifies the
45. Read the given paragraph.
characters X, Y, P or Q.
Soil X has very poor water holding capacity, soil Y
X is eucoelomic body cavity.
A.
is well drained and contains one part clay and two
P is bilateral body symmetry.
B.
parts each of sand and silt. Soil Z has excellent water
Q is radial body symmetry.
C. holding capacity but is poorly aerated.
Y is coelomic cavity lined by mesoderm.
D.
Select the correct statement regarding soils X, Y and Z.
42. The given graph shows the X A. Soil X is commonly found in those regions where
pathogen load in the body of xerophytes are abundant.
Pathogen load

a person during the period B. Soil Z is best suited for growth of plants like
of sickness. Y Casuarina, Eucalyptus and watermelon.
Now select the correct C. Soil Y is best suited for making pots.
option regarding this. Day 4 Day 12
Antibiotic dose Time
Day 20
D. All of these

6 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. If K, p and m represent the kinetic energy, momentum A. I and II only B. I and III only
and mass of a body respectively, then which of the C. II and IV only D. III and IV only
following graphs is incorrect?
K Direction (Q. No. 49 and 50) : Refer to the given dichotomous
p = constant key and answer the following questions.
A. B.
I. (a) The cells of tissue have walls. – Go to II
m (b) The cells of tissue do not possess wall. – Go to III
K p II. (a) Tissue made of one type of cells. – Go to IV
m = constant K = constant
(b) Tissue, made of more than one type of cells.
C. D. – Go to V
p m III. (a) The tissue lines the alveoli of lungs. – P
(b) The tissue forms shock absorbing – Q
47. Fill in the given blanks by choosing an appropriate
option. cushion around some vital organs.
A sound of single frequency is called a (i) . IV. (a) Cells of tissue contain air cavities and – R
The sound produced due to a mixture of several it provides buoyancy.
frequencies is called a (ii) and is pleasant to (b) The tissue provides mechanical strength – S
listen. Sound propagates through a medium at a and flexibility to young dicot stems and
finite speed but the speed of sound (iii) as petioles.
it propagates from solid to gaseous medium. In any V. (a) Tissue conducts water. – T
medium as we (iv) the temperature, the speed of sound
also (v) . (b) Tissue conducts organic solutes. – U

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) 49. Select the incorrect option regarding tissues P, Q, R,
A. Note Tone Increases Decrease Decreases S, T and U.
B. Note Tone Decreases Increase Increases
C. Tone Note Decreases Increase Increases P is an epithelial tissue whereas Q is a loose
A.
D. Tone Note Increases Increase Increases connective tissue.
T is either greatly reduced or absent but R is
B.
48. The given figure shows the set-up to study the reaction exclusively present in aquatic floating plants whereas
between gas X and copper (II) oxide :
CuO
S is found in Cucurbita stems.
Gas X N2 (g) R is aerenchyma, S is collenchyma, T is xylem and
C.
U is phloem.
heat U is found in grit of guava, pear, etc., whereas the
D.
Water Water matrix of tissue P contains a flexible material called
Ice chondrin.
Which of the following statements are correct?
[Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u, 50. Select the correct match of tissue and its location.
C = 12 u] P-Wall of Bowman's capsule
A.
I. Gas X is a compound of two elements, nitrogen and S-Epidermal covering of legume seeds
hydrogen.
Q-Blubber of whale
B.
II. The number of atoms present in 11.2 L of N2 is
R-Covering of nuts
6.023 ×1023.
R-Petiole of lotus
C.
III. 1 mole of H2O contains 1 mole of oxygen molecules
and 2 moles of hydrogen atoms. U-Hump of camel
IV. N2 gas being soluble in water is collected by upward Q-In subcutaneous tissue
D.
displacement of water. T-Stele or vascular cylinder of monocot root

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


Class 9

Set B

Year 2017
LOGICAL REASONING

1. Select a figure from the options which will complete them in the word as in the English alphabet?
the given figure series. A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. More than four
6. Which of the following options satisfies the given
Venn diagram?
A. B. C. D.
A. English, French, German
B. Mothers, Females, Cricketers
2. If '→' stands for 'addition'; '←' stands for 'subtraction'; C. Prime numbers, Integers, Even numbers
'↑' stands for 'division'; '↓' stands for 'multiplication'
D. Planets, Mars, Sun
and '↑ ' stands for 'equal to', then which of the following
options is incorrect? 7. Count the number of triangles
and minimum number of straight
A. 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 ↑ 6
lines respectively in the given
B. 3 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 3 ↑ 9
figure.
C. 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6 ↓ 5
A. 30, 11 B. 28, 13
D. 7 ↑ 5 ← 4 → 3 ↓ 4 ↑ 2
C. 26, 14 D. None of these
3. Three positions of a dice are given. Find the symbol
8. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly
opposite to symbol .
embedded as one of its parts?
A.
×

B. Fig. (X)
C.
D. A. B. C. D.
4. A number arrangement machine, when given an input
line of numbers rearranges them following a particular 9. Find the correct water image of Fig.(X).
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of K

input and the steps of rearrangement.


Input : 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09
S
Fig. (X)
Step I : 97 85 16 36 04 19 63 09
Step II : 97 85 63 16 36 04 19 09 A. B. C. D.
Step III : 97 85 63 36 16 04 19 09
Step IV : 97 85 63 36 19 16 04 09
10. Read the following information carefully and answer
Step V : 97 85 63 36 19 16 09 04
the question that follows.
Step V is the last step for this input. (i) P * Q means P is the father of Q.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, which
(ii) P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q.
of the following is the last step of the given input?
(iii) P $ Q means P is the brother of Q.
Input : 88 26 07 36 11 64 21
(iv) P # Q means P is the wife of Q.
A. IV B. VI C. V D. VII How is A related to B in ''A ÷ C $ D # B''?
5. How many pairs of letters are there in the word A. Mother B. Aunt
EXCLAMATORY which have as many letters between C. Sister-in-law D. Mother-in-law

SCIENCE

11. Two unequal masses P and Q moving along straight acceleration of 5 m s–2 . What would be the reading
lines are brought to rest by applying equal retarding on the scale? (g = 10 m s–2)
forces. If P moves twice the time as Q, but goes only A. zero B. 400 N C. 120 N D. 1200 N
(1/3)rd of the distance covered by Q before coming
to rest, the ratio of their initial velocities is 13. The given diagram shows the water tank and the
position of the shower head in the bathroom of a
A. 1 : 2 B. 1 : 6 C. 2 : 3 D. 2 : 1
household. The water pressure must be 8 kPa in order to
12. Mass of a man is 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale function shower head effectively. The density of water is
in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform 1000 kg m–3. Find the minimum height that a plumber

2 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


must raise the water tank to, so that the water pressure 17. The maximum vertical distance through which a
at the shower head can be 8 kPa. fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is
(Assume pipe of sufficient length is given.) 0.5 m. Estimate the maximum vertical distance through
Water tank which he can jump on the moon, which has a mean
0.2 m density (2/3)rd that of the earth and radius one quarter
0.3 m that of the earth.
0.3 m
A. 3 m B. 6 m C. 8 m D. 9 m
18. If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° to
Shower head each other, how many images of an object are seen?
A. Only 3 B. Only 4
C. Only 5 D. None of these
A. 0.2 m B. 0.3 m C. 0.5 m D. 1 m
19. A man of mass 70 kg is standing on a bus which is
14. A positively charged rod is moved near conducting moving at a speed of 70 km h–1. At one point of his
sphere as shown. What will Positively journey, he jumps upward to a height of 30 cm. Where
be the movements of the charged rod does he land his feet on the floor of the bus again?
electrons and protons in the A. At the same spot where he was standing.
Conducting
conducting sphere? sphere B. A short distance behind where he was standing.
Electrons Protons C. A long distance behind where he was standing.
A. Move to left Move to right D. A long distance in front of where he was standing.
B. Move to right Move to left 20. The gravitational force between two masses kept at a
C. Do not move Move to left certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now
D. Move to left Do not move kept in water and the distance between them is same.
15. The diagram shows three waves X, Y and Z displayed If the gravitational force between these two masses in
water is q N, then
on the screen of the oscilloscope connected to a
A. p = q B. p < q
microphone when three different sounds are made
C. p > q D. None of these.
in front of the microphone.
Displacement (m) Displacement (m) 21. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The loudness or softness of a sound is

0 Time (s) 0 Time (s) determined basically by its amplitude.
Statement 2 : The amplitude of the sound wave depends

X Y upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate.
Displacement (m)
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is
the correct explanation of statement 1.
0 Time (s) B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is
not the correct explanation of statement 1.
Z C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
different sounds?
22. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Sound X has a higher pitch than sound Y.
(i) Cones in our eyes are sensitive to bright light.
B. Sound X has the same pitch as sound Z. (ii) The type of lens in our eyes is concave.
C. Sound Y is louder than sound Z. (iii) In cataract, eye lens becomes clouded.
D. Sound Y has a lower pitch than sound Z. (iv) Splitting of white light into its colours is known as
16. Read the given statements and select the correct option. scattering of light.
Statement
 1 : The blood pressure in human is greater A. (i) Only B. (i) and (iv) only
at the feet than at the brain. C. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) and (iii) only
Statement
 2 : In a liquid, pressure at any point is 23. Which of the following statements are correct?
proportional to the height, density of the liquid and the I. A pure substance has fixed melting and boiling points.
acceleration due to gravity. II. If a liquid is impure, it will boil over a range of
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 temperatures but will freeze at a fixed temperature.
is the correct explanation of statement 1. III. If the pressure acting on a liquid is increased, the
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is boiling point will increase.
not the correct explanation of statement 1. IV. A pure orange juice will have a fixed boiling point.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. A. I and III only B. I and II only
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. C. III and IV only D. I, II and IV only

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


24. Rohit studied the properties of a few common substances 28. Schematic atomic structures of three species are
and recorded his observations in the given table. given as :
S.No. Material Combustible Forms
flame
1. Candle   6n 10n 16n
2. Coal  
3. Magnesium ribbon  
4. Camphor   P Q 2– R 3–
5. Petrol   Study the structures carefully and fill in the blanks by
The incorrect observations are choosing an appropriate option.
A. 1, 4 and 5 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only
Mass Number of electrons Valence
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only. number in neutral atom shell
25. The physical properties of two substances P and Q are P (i) 5 L
given in the table. Q2– 18 (ii) (iii)
R3– (iv) 15 (v)
Melting point ( C) Boiling point ( C)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
P –95 69
A. 11 8 L 30 L
Q –91 104 B. 16 6 M 16 N
If in liquid states, P and Q are miscible then which C. 11 8 L 31 M
of the following statements is correct regarding their D. 16 8 L 30 M
separation?
29. Nitika, a class 9 student conducted the following
A. P and Q both are volatile liquids at room temperature experiment and stated her observations as follows :
hence, can be separated by fractional distillation.
B. P is a solid while Q is a volatile liquid at room
temperature hence, can be separated by evaporation.
C. P is a solid and Q is a liquid at room temperature
hence, can be separated by filtration.
D. P and Q both are liquids at room temperature and
can be separated from each other by simple
distillation. Beaker I : Hydrogen gas is evolved which burns with
26. A few polymers are grouped together on the basis of a pop sound.
a common property as follows : Beaker II : Reaction is very vigorous and graphite
Group I : Dacron, acrylic, nylon, jute starts floating on water.
Beaker III : A reddish brown deposit is obtained over
Group II : PVC, melamine, teflon
aluminium rod.
Group III : Polycot, terrywool, acrylic Beaker IV : Copper reacts with dilute hydrochloric
Choose the odd one out in groups I, II and III. acid to form blue coloured solution of
  I II III copper chloride.
A. Dacron Teflon Terrywool Observation(s) is/are incorrect in case of beaker(s)
B. Nylon Teflon Acrylic A. II and III only B. II only
C. Jute   Melamine Terrywool
C. II and IV only D. IV only.
D. Jute   Melamine Acrylic
30. At a refinery, petroleum is separated into several
27. A few compounds are listed as : components by a process called fractional distillation
(i) Ammonia, (ii) Aluminium fluoride, (iii) Magnesium using a fractionating column.
sulphide, (iv) Magnesium oxide Which of the following statements is correct about the
Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in fractional distillation of petroleum?
each compound. A. At each level in the column, only one compound is
(Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Mg = 24 u, collected.
O = 16 u, S = 32 u, F = 19 u and Al = 27 u) B. Temperature increases from bottom to top of the
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) column.
(N : H) (Al : F) (Mg : S) (Mg : O) C. The fractions collected at the top of the column are
A. 1 : 3 1 : 3 1 : 1 1 : 1 less volatile.
B. 14 : 3 9 : 19 3 : 4 3 : 2 D. The fraction with the highest boiling point
C. 3 : 1 2 : 1 1 : 1 1 : 2 condenses first and gets collected near the base of
D. 14 : 3 10 : 9 6 : 3 4 : 1 the fractionating tower.

4 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


31. Elements X and Y have octet configuration in their L 35. Select the pair that shows the same relationship as
shell after forming stable dipositive and dinegative the animals in the box.
ions respectively. The respective electronic configuration Amoeba : Paramecium
of the succeeding element of X and the preceding
Rhizopus : Chlamydomonas
A.
element of Y are
Candida : Saccharomyces
B.
A. 2, 7 and 2, 5 B. 2, 8, 3 and 2, 5 Pteridium : Fasciola
C.
C. 2, 5 and 2, 8, 3 D. 2, 8, 1 and 2, 7 Albugo : Adiantum
D.
32. A solid sample of sulphur contains 0.25 mol 36. Identify P, Q and R in the given flow chart and select
of sulphur molecules. The number of moles of sulphur the correct option regarding them.
atoms, number of sulphur molecules and number of Extinct species Yes P
sulphur atoms present in the given sample are respectively No
A. 6.023 × 1023, 3 and 3.2 × 1023 Endangered species Yes Q
B. 2, 3.2 × 1023 and 6.02 × 1023 No
C. 2, 1.5 × 1023 and 1.2 × 1024 R
D. 1.2 × 1024, 3.2 × 1023 and 2
P Q R
33. Refer to the given figures P P A. Blackbuck Golden langur Giant panda
of two plants X and Y B. Silvery pigeon Chinkara Desert
with their parts labelled Q
Q kangaroo rat
as P, Q, R and S. R
R C. Passenger pigeon Asian elephant Sloth bear
Select the correct option S
S D. Dodo Thorny tree frog Blue whale
regarding them. X Y
A. Plant body of both X and Y is diploid sporophyte where 37. What would happen to the Tightly tting
P is the spore producing part. air bubble in the following cylinder of potato

B. Q represents true stem, R represents true leaves set-up after 30 minutes? Distilled water
whereas S represents true roots in both X and Y. A. It will disappear.
C. Seed setting is absent in both plants X and Y and B. It will move to the left.
Capillary tube

they reproduce through spores. C. It will move to the


D. All parts of plant Y possess vascular tissues whereas right. Air bubble
vascular tissues are present only in part P of plant X. D. It will remain stationary.
34. Refer to the given Atmospheric nitrogen 38. The given graph shows
outline of nitrogen
changes in three components
Biological

Industrial

Electrical
nitrogen

nitrogen
xation

xation

cycle. Identify X
nitrogen
xation

X
X, Y and Z in a water body
and Y and select
after point P (where fertiliser
the correct Soil nitrogen pool
run off from crop field took
)

statement regarding
take

Y place).
(Up

them.
Select the correct statement regarding X, Y and Z.
A. In the process Plant Decaying
biomass biomass A. X could be phos phate compounds w hos e
X, protein is
Animal concentration gradually reduced downstream due
converted into biomass
to their consumption by growing aquatic plants.
ammonia by the
action of bacteria while in the process Y, nitrates B. Y could be nitrate compounds which initially
present in the decaying remains get converted into increased due to introduction of NPK fertilisers
free nitrogen gas. whereas Z represents decomposer microbes whose
B. In the process X, nitrates present in the soil get number increased in order to decompose these
converted into free nitrogen gas while in the process compounds.
Y, proteins are converted into ammonia by the action C. Y could be algae which multiplied rapidly due
of bacteria. to nutrient enrichment of water body whereas X
C. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into could be dissolved oxygen which started reducing
nitrates while process Y represents the conversion simultaneously with the increase in decomposition
of nitrates into the free nitrogen gas. activity of microbes Z after death of algae.
D. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into D. Y could be aquatic animals which initially increased
nitrites while process Y represents the conversion in number due to consumption of large amount of
of complex organic compounds like proteins into aquatic plants X and then decreased gradually with
ammonia. the reduction in plant population.

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


39. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct A. The given box contains five viral diseases out of
option regarding it. which four are vector borne and one is sexually
It is a part of male No It is a part of female transmitted.
reproductive system. reproductive system.
B. The given box contains two protozoan diseases
Yes Yes
and three bacterial diseases where all the protozoan
It is present No It is present
P No S diseases are vector borne.
in a pair. in a pair.
Yes Yes
C. Out of the two bacterial diseases listed in the given
box, one is sexually transmitted while DPT vaccine
It produces No Q It produces No
sperms. ovum.
T is available for the other.
Yes Yes D. Female Aedes aegypti serves as a vector for three of
R U the diseases listed in the box.
A. R and U secrete male and female hormones 43. Refer to the given table and select the option that
respectively called testosterone and estrogen but correctly fills the blanks in it.
gametes produced by R are much more in number
as compared to those produced by U. Animal Indigenous breed Exotic breed
B. Secretion of both P and Q nourish and activate sperms Cow Sahiwal P
to swim but secretion of Q contains a type of sugar Poultry Q Plymouth rock
which is not present anywhere else in the body.
Honey bee A. indica R
C. T is the site of fertilisation whereas S is the site of
implantation of embryo. P Q R
D. All of these A. Jersey Aseel A.mellifera
B. Wyandotte Malvi A.dorsata
40. Refer to the given Venn
C. Alpine Bakharwal A.dorsata
diagram and select the W X
Structure Structure D. Australorp Ghagus A.adamsoni
incorrect option regarding present in present in
structures V, W, X, Y and Z. plant cell animal cell
44. Which of the following correctly exemplifies acquisition
Y
A. V could be an outermost V of active immunity by a person?
protective covering Structure A. A person who has recovered from an attack of
present in
which is composed of bacterial cell mumps, develops natural active immunity.
lipopolysaccharides in Z
B. When ready-made antibodies are directly injected
bacteria and cellulose in plants. into a person's body to protect him against foreign
B. Y could be a membrane-less organelle involved in
agents, then he acquires artificial active immunity.
protein synthesis whereas Z could be an ingrowth
C. When a person is vaccinated for a disease then he
of cell membrane that contains respiratory enzymes.
acquires natural active immunity for that disease.
C. Both W and X could be double membrane structures
D. When antibody is transferred from mother to the fetus
but inner membrane of W is smooth whereas that of
through placenta then the developing baby acquires
X is thrown into folds.
artificial active immunity.
D. W takes part in photosynthesis whereas Z connects
genetic material with plasma membrane. 45. Refer to the given picture of blood smear and select the
41. Select the incorrect statement. correct option regarding different blood corpuscles (P-S).
A. Osmosis is a slow process, occurs down the
concentration gradient and does not expend energy. P
S
B. Electron microscope uses electromagnets instead of
glass lenses and beam of electrons instead of light. Q
C. A semipermeable membrane does not allow both R
solvent and solute molecules to pass through it.
D. Active transport of materials across plasma
membrane is rapid and usually occurs against the
concentration gradient involving carrier proteins and A. Blood cell Q plays a major role in transport of
energy in the form of ATP. gases within the body.
42. Refer to the given box containing names of some human B. A person who is unable to produce blood cell S
diseases and select incorrect statement regarding it. bleeds continuously even from a minor injury.
Chikungunya, Rabies, Yellow fever, C. Blood cell P produces antibodies in response to a
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Trypanosomiasis, pathogenic infection in the body.
Dengue, Kala azar, Tetanus, D. Blood cell R contains a red pigment called
Genital herpes haemoglobin that shows affinity for oxygen.

6 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option. S is metamerically segmented whereas T bears jointed
In a (i) wave the particles of the medium oscillate appendages and chitinous exoskeleton.
in a direction (ii) to the direction of propagation.
48. Select the option that correctly identifies organisms
Thus, during their oscillations, the particles may move
P, Q, R, S and T.
upwards or downwards from the plane passing through
P Q R S T
their mean positions. The point of maximum positive
A. Euspongia Hydra Hirudinaria Fasciola Periplaneta
displacement on a transverse wave is called (iii) and B. Euplectella Obelia Dugesia Pheretima Palaemon
the point of maximum negative displacement is called C. Sycon Taenia Adamsia Scolopendra Musca
(iv) . The wave produced in a stretched string when D. Aurelia Schistosoma Ascaris Nereis Palamnaeus
plucked are (v) waves.
49. Which of the following is incorrect regarding organisms
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
P, Q R, S and T?
A. Longitudinal Parallel Crest Trough Longitudinal
A. P possesses endoskeleton of calcareous spicules
B. Transverse Perpendicular Trough Crest Longitudinal whereas Q is always aquatic.
C. Longitudinal Parallel Trough Crest Transverse B. R could be a parasite which attaches to the body of
D. Transverse Perpendicular Crest Trough Transverse host through hooks and suckers whereas S possesses
metanephridia for excretion.
47. Acceleration-time graph C. T sheds off its chitinous exoskeleton periodically
Acceleration (m s–2)

for a particle in translatory 20 during its growth which is referred to as moulting.


motion is given here. 15 D. None of these
Match the quantities of 10
column I with column 5 50. The given apparatus shows a method to separate
II and select the correct ethanol-water mixture.
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
option from given codes. Time (s)

Column I Column II
I. Average acceleration from P. 5.0 m s–2
0 to 5 s
II. Average acceleration from Q. 10.0 m s–2
0 to 10 s
III. Average acceleration from R. 13.3 m s–2
0 to 20 s
IV. Average acceleration from S. 15.0 m s–2
Which of the following statements are correct?
0 to 30 s
I. During the process, the liquid with the highest boiling
A. I-S, II-P, III-R, IV-Q B. I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R point distils over first.
C. I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S D. I-S, II-R, III-P, IV-Q II. Ethanol reaches the upper part of the column first.
Direction (Q. No. 48 and 49) : Refer to the given III. Thermometer first shows a constant reading at
passage and answer the following questions. 100 °C.
P, Q and R are acoelomate organisms whereas S and T IV. Ethanol vapours and water vapours both rise
are true coelomates. P possesses cellular level of body up the column but water vapours condense in
organisation whereas others possess tissue and organ the fractionating column and drop back into the
level of body organisation. Q possesses special stinging distillation flask.
cells called cnidoblasts. R is the first triploblastic animal A. I and II only B. II and III only
and has flame cells as excretory organs. The body of C. II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


Class 9

Set A

Year 2018
LOGICAL REASONING

1. How many meaningful words can be made from the 7. A square transparent sheet with a pattern
letters N, R, E and A, using each letter only once? and a dotted line on it is given. Select a
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three figure from the options which shows the
folded form of the given sheet.
2. Select a figure from the options which satisfies the
same conditions of placement of dots as in the given
figure. A. B.

C. D.

A. B. C. D. 8. There is a certain relationship between figures


(1) and (2). Establish the same relationship between
3.
If in a certain code language, AMENDMENT is written figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from
as 89, then how will LANGUAGE be written in that the given options which will replace the (?) in figure (4).
language?
# #
A. 65 B. 68 C. 72 D. 58 #
?

Select the correct water image of the given combination


4.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
of letters and numbers.
N2OS18O9A
N 9A N2OS18O9A A. B. #
A. B.
8
2 O O S 1
N2 O9A N2OS O9
C. D. 18 A
OS18

5. Find the missing number. 


4 4 C. # D. #
A. 282
5 80 64 4
B. 352
11 ? 64 8 9. Rahul is the son of Priya. Reema is the daughter of
C. 327
8 2 Rahul. Reeta is the paternal aunt of Reema and Raj is
D. 325
the son of Reeta. What is Raj’s relation with Priya?
6. Read the given statements carefully and answer the A. Grandson B. Brother
following question. C. Son D. Nephew
(i) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.
10. Four positions of a dice are given below. Which letter
(ii) A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
will be on the face opposite to the face having letter
(iii) A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A. A?
(iv) A £ B means B is at 1 metre to the South of A.
B E C D
According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction with
A C E F
respect to M, if M is facing North ? C A D B
A. North-West B. North-East
C. South-West D. South-East A. E B. D C. B D. C

SCIENCE

11. A body of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 2 m II. Tone is a sound of a single frequency while note is
from another body of mass 10 kg. At what distance a mixture of several frequencies.
from the body of 1 kg, another body of mass 5 kg III. Infrasonic waves are used in SONAR.
should be placed so that the net force of gravitation
IV. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for
acting on the body of mass 1 kg is zero?
a moving object is always less than one.
A. 1 m B. 1.5 m C. 2 m D. 3 m V. The value of acceleration due to gravity is least on
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct? equator.
I. Sound wave does not follow the same law of A. II only B. I, II and III only
reflection as light does. C. IV and V only D. II and V only

2 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


13. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct 18. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
option from given codes. I. An electroscope is a device which is used to measure
Column I Column II the charge on an object.
P. One end of slinky is jerked (i) Longitudinal II. The movement of earth’s plates causes thunderstorm.
up and down continuously wave III. Speed of supersonic aircraft is equal to that of sound.
Q. Quality of sound (ii) Loudness IV. A small amount of a mineral salt present naturally
R. One end of slinky is moved (iii) Transverse wave
in water makes it conductor of electricity.
back and forth continuously
A. II only B. I and II only
S. Amplitude (iv) Timbre
C. IV only D. III and IV only
A. P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
B. P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv) 19. For an oscillating pendulum of fixed length, which of
C. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) the following is true ?
D. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii) A. Frequency depends on amplitude of oscillation.
14. Two particles begin to fall freely from the same height B. Frequency and time period are not related.
but the second falls t0 seconds after the first. Find the C. Time period depends on amplitude of oscillation.
time (after dropping of first) when separation between D. Frequency and time period are related and do not
the particles is h 0. depend on amplitude of oscillation.
t0 h t 2h 20. Two flies P and Q revolve around a light in concentric
A. + 0 B. 0 + 0
2 2 g t0 2 g t0 circular paths. The radius of circular path of P is twice
t0 h0 of Q. P travels with a uniform linear speed of 4 m/s
C. + D. t0
2 g t0 while Q travels with a uniform linear speed of 3 m/s.
When P completes three full rounds, then Q would
15. The given figure shows a heavy block of mass M  kept on a
have completed
frictionless surface and being pulled by two ropes of
equal mass m. At t = 5 s, the force on the left rope A. 4 rounds B. 3 rounds
is withdrawn but the force on the right end continues C. 2 rounds D. 1 round.
to act. Find the magnitude of the force by the right
rope on the block. 21. A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump
up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If
F M F
the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency
m m
of the pump is 30%, then how much electric power
MF ( M + m) F is consumed by the pump? (Take g = 9.81 m/s2)
A. B. A. 100 kW B. 43.60 kW
( M + 2m) ( M + 2m)
mF 2MF C. 50.60 kW D. 87.20 kW
C. D.
( M + 2m) ( M + m)
22. A man is running towards a plane mirror at a speed of
16. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a 4 m s–1. The speed of man with respect to its image
frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water formed in the mirror will be
Mirror
at the rate of 1 kg s–1 and at a speed of 5 m s–1. The A. 2 m s–1
initial acceleration of the block is 4 m s–1
B. 8 m s–1
A. 7.5 m s–2 B. 1.25 m s–2
C. 6 m s–1
C. 5 m s –2
D. 2.5 m s–2
D. None of these.
17. Two mirrors P and Q are placed at right angles to each
23. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
other as shown in the figure.
Statement 1 : A mixture of acetone and methanol
90° can be separated by fractional distillation.
90° Statement 2 : The difference between their boiling
P
25°
points is very less.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
Q is the correct explanation of statement 1.
A ray of light incident on mirror P at an angle of 25° B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is
falls on mirror Q after reflection. The angle of reflection not the correct explanation of statement 1.
for the ray reflected from mirror Q would be C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
A. 25° B. 50° C. 65° D. 115° D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 3


24. Ms. Ritu, a science teacher has set up an experiment 27. Match column I with column II and select the correct
as shown in the figure. option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
P. 0.25 mole of O2 (i) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
Q. 18 g of water (ii) 1.505 × 1023 molecules
R. 46 g of Na atoms (iii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms
S. 1 mole of C atoms (iv) 12.044 × 1023 atoms
Which of the following represent the incorrect A. P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (iv), S - (i)
observations?
B. P - (ii), Q - (iv), R - (iii), S - (i)
(i) Both the metal strips dissolve in beaker III.
C. P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iv), S - (iii)
(ii) Reaction takes place in beaker II.
D. P - (i), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (iv)
(iii) No reaction takes place in beaker I.
(iv) Sn strip will dissolve faster than Zn in beaker II. 28. Study the given table carefully and select the incorrect
(v) Reaction occurs in beaker I but no colour change statement(s).
is observed. Element Number of Number of Number of
A. (ii) and (v) only B. (iii) and (iv) only protons neutrons electrons
C. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii), (iv) and (v) only P 16 18 18
25. Ms. Sarika, a class 9 teacher has tabulated melting and Q 11 12 10
boiling points of five substances P to T in the given R 10 10 10
table. (Assume room temperature as 30°C). S 20 19 18
T 14 15 18
Substance Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C)
U 20 20 20
P –188 – 42
I. S and T are cations.
Q –114 37
II. R is the lightest element while U is the heaviest
R 17 118 element.
S 36 344 III. P is a noble gas.
T 300 580 IV. Q and U are anions.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. II only B. I and IV only
I. Substance P exists in gaseous state while substance S C. I, III and IV only D. III and IV only
exists in liquid state at room temperature.
II. Substance R will start turning from a liquid to a 29. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify
solid at 4°C. substances (i) to (iv).
No
III. Substance Q is in liquid state at room temperature Combustible substance (i)
and it will start changing to gaseous state at 37°C. Yes
IV. Substance T exists in solid state at room temperature. Yes Undergoes
Forms flame
A. I and II only B. I and III only spontaneous No
No combustion
C. I only D. III and IV only
Yes Undergoes
(ii)
26. The given petroleum products are extracted by using rapid
the fractionating column : (iii) combustion
Yes
Gasoline, Diesel, Kerosene, Petroleum gas
(iv)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. Tin Coal LPG Sodium
B. Alcohol Camphor Crackers CNG
C. Paper Iron nail Candle Petrol
D. Marble Charcoal Phosphorus LPG

Arrange these products as extracted from top to the 30. Boiling points of a few gases found in air are given
bottom of the column. in the table.
A. Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Gasoline, Diesel Element Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen
B. Gasoline, Petroleum gas, Diesel, Kerosene
Boiling
C. Kerosene, Diesel, Petroleum gas, Gasoline –152 –246 –196 –183
point (°C)
D. Petroleum gas, Gasoline, Kerosene, Diesel

4 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


If the liquid mixture of these gases is fractionally A.
P is a layer of non-cellulosic polysaccharides.
distilled, the order of gases distilling out is B.
Q is double layered in Gram +ve bacteria whereas
A. Krypton, Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen it is single layered in Gram –ve bacteria.
B. Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Krypton C.
R is an impermeable covering that restricts entry
C. Nitrogen, Neon, Oxygen, Krypton and exit of molecules into and out of the cell.
D. Oxygen, Neon, Nitrogen, Krypton. D.
S could be tubular outgrowths that are involved in
locomotion only.
31. Find the correct matches.
35. Refer to the given table and select the correct option
I. Formica – Thermoplastic regarding it.
II. PVC – Insulator
Type of cell Solvent Result
III. Perspex – Transparent like glass
RBC Ringer's solution X
IV. Teflon – Chemically reactive RBC Concentrated salt Y
V. Polystyrene – Thermosetting solution
A. II and III only B. I, IV and V only RBC Water Z
C. II, III and IV only D. None of these X Y Z
32. A sample of pure water, irrespective of its source A. Swollen RBC Shrunken RBC Normal RBC
contains 11.1% hydrogen and 88.9% oxygen. The data B. Normal RBC Shrunken RBC Swollen RBC
supports C. Normal RBC Swollen RBC Shrunken RBC
D. Swollen RBC Normal RBC Shrunken RBC
A. Law of constant proportions
B. Law of conservation of mass 36. “X” is a type of transport across plasma membrane
C. Law of reciprocal proportions that occurs against the concentration gradient and it
D. Law of multiple proportions. requires energy in the form of ATP.
Identify “X” and select the incorrect option regarding it.
33. Identify crops X and Y from the given table and select A. Process X helps to maintain concentrations of ions
the correct option regarding them. and other substances within living cells.
S.No. X Y B. Process X is very slow and could occur in opposite
(i) These crops are These crops are grown directions simultaneously.
grown in hot and in cold and nearly dry C. Process X helps in selective uptake of materials.
wet conditions. conditions. D. Uptake of glucose and some amino acids by some
(ii) These crops are These crops are sown cells occurs with the help of process X.
sown in beginning in October-November
37. Pulse polio immunisation programme was launched
of rainy season in when monsoon is
with an aim to eradicate polio disease. It involves
June-July. retreated.
simultaneous administration of polio drops (polio
(iii) These crops are These crops are
vaccine) to the high risk population on a single day
harvested during harvested in March-
throughout the nation. What is the basic objective of
September-October. April.
pulse polio immunisation programme?
A. Crop X could be wheat whereas crop Y could be
A. To immunise those children who are not earlier
cotton.
immunised or are partially immunised.
B. Crop X could be green gram whereas crop Y could B. To boost the immunity of children already immunised.
be linseed. C. To eradicate the polio-causing virus from the world.
C. Crop X could be groundnut whereas crop Y could D. All of these
be jute.
D. Crop X could be rice whereas crop Y could be 38. Which of the following statements regarding the carbon
soybean. cycle is correct?
A. Respiration is the first step of the carbon cycle as
34. Refer to the given structure of a prokaryotic cell and it converts abiotic carbon to organic carbon.
select the correct statement regarding it. B. At least some carbon is removed from carbon cycle
P
Q when dead animals and plants become fossilised
R
and form fossil fuels.
C. All living organisms return carbon to the abiotic
S
environment by respiration.
D. Tropical rainforests act as major carbon sinks of the
carbon cycle due to their ability to liberate carbon
dioxide into the environment when trees die and
are decomposed.

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 5


39. Select the option that correctly identifies X and Y in 43. Study the given flow chart carefully.
the given flow chart. Species included in IUCN Red List
X Y Water pollutants
A. Ecological BHC Endangered Vulnerable Near threatened Extinct
B. Biological Fertiliser X Physical Chemical species species species species
C. Biological Heat Y DDT
Helminth
D. Ecological Bacteria (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii)
Lion Gee's Snow Passenger Asiatic Indian Dodo Golden
40. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric tailed golden leopard pigeon wild ass rhino- toad
rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are macaque langur ceros
present in fluid- filled spaces called _______. These Which of the above species have been incorrectly placed?
fluid filled spaces of the bone communicate with each A. (iv) and (vi) only
other by network of fine canals, called _______. B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
Select the correct sequence of words to complete the C. (i), (iv), (vii) and (viii) only
above passage. D. (ii), (iv) and (viii) only
A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi
B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi 44. Identify cell organelles L and M and select the correct
option related to their function in a cell.
C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae
D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm
L
41. Identify X in the given statement and select the correct
M
option regarding it.
“When soil is completely saturated with water and
excess water accumulates around plant roots in the
field, the condition is referred to as X ”.
X could damage crops because
A. It reduces air spaces between soil particles L M
B. It cuts off oxygen supply to roots hence, they are A. Formation of Maintenance of cell
not able to breathe lysosomes turgor
C. It increases amount of salt in the soil and reduces B. Synthesis of lipids Spindle formation
its fertility during cell division
D. All of these. C. Digestion of foreign Storing by-products
materials
42. Read the given statements and select the option that
D. Synthesis of protein Production of ATP
correctly identifies them as true (T) and false (F) ones.
I. Downy mildew in plants is caused by fungi. 45. Match column I with column II and select the correct
II. Chlamydomonas and Fucus are unicellular algae option from the given codes.
whereas Polysiphonia and diatoms are multicellular. Column I Column II
III. Virus contains both DNA and RNA as genetic P. Pituitary (i) Controls secondary female
material. characters
IV. Citrus canker is a bacterial disease that is highly Q. Adrenal (ii) Regulates basal metabolic rate
contagious. R. Ovary (iii) Controls activities of other glands
I II III IV S. Thyroid (iv) Prepares body to fight
A. F T T F A. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
B. T F T F B. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
C. T F F T C. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
D. F F T T D. P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. Observe the schematic atomic structures of three Which of the following statements are correct?
elements P, Q and R : I. R can form RCl3 and RCl5.
II. Q exists in monatomic form.
III.
P and R combine to form P3R type of compound.
IV. P and Q combine to form PQ 2 type of compound.
V. P will gain two electrons to form a stable compound.

6 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1


A. III, IV and V only B. I and II only
C. I, II and IV only D. II, IV and V only

Displacement
47. Refer to the given graph which shows a variable force C.
acting on a particle of mass 2 kg and fill in the blanks
by selecting an appropriate option. Time
F(N)

Displacement
D.

Time

x (m)
49. Two different fields X and Y were treated with two
different substances to increase crop yield. Amount
of humus in their respective fields was observed for
a period of time as shown in the given graph.
Key :

Amount of humus
If the initial kinetic energy (at x = 0) of the particle Field X
is 25 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at the Field Y

in soil
end of 6 m and 16 m is (i) and (ii) respectively.
The momentum of the particle at the end of 10 m and
14 m is (iii) and (iv) respectively.
Time
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Select the incorrect statement regarding substances
A. 30 J 25 J 50 N s 90 N s applied in both fields X and Y.
B. 45 J 55 J A. Substance applied in field X removes general
70 N s 50 N s
deficiency of soil whereas the one applied in field Y
C. 55 J 35 J 60 N s 2 55 N s provides only specific essential nutrients to the soil.
D. 55 J 30 J 90 N s 110 N s B. Substance applied in field X is readily absorbed by
the crop plants whereas that applied in field Y is
48. The graph of velocity against time for a moving object absorbed slowly.
is shown. C. Substance applied in field X is cheap and can be
prepared in rural homes whereas that applied in
field Y is prepared in factories.
Velocity

D. Substance applied in field X does not cause pollution


but that applied in field Y causes pollution.
Time
50. Identify M-P in the given flow chart and select the
Which of the following is the corresponding graph of correct statement regarding them.
displacement against time? Radial Acoelomate
M
symmetry
Displacement

Kingdom Tissue/Organ/Organ
A. Animalia system grade Acoelomate
N
Time Bilateral Pseudocoelomate
O
symmetry
Displacement

Coelomate
P
A.
M could be Obelia whereas N could be Sycon.
B. B.
N could be Fasciola whereas O could be Ancylostoma.
Time
C.
M could be Pheretima whereas P could be Chiton.
D.
P could be Taenia whereas O could be Ascaris.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-A | Level 1 | 7


Class 9

Set B

Year 2018
LOGICAL REASONING

1. Select the figure from the options in which the given


figure is exactly embedded as one of its parts. A. B.

C. D.

A. B. C. D. 8.
A number arrangement machine, when given an input
line of numbers, rearranges them in a particular rule in
2. If A + B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is each step. The following is an illustration of input and
the son of B and A ÷ B means B is the daughter of A, the steps of rearrangement.
then which of the following means M is the maternal Input : 39 121 48 18 76 112 14 45 63 96
uncle of N? Step I : 14 39 121 48 18 76 112 45 63 96
Step II : 14 39 48 18 76 112 45 63 96 121
A. M + O × N B. M × O + N + P
Step III : 14 18 39 48 76 112 45 63 96 121
C. M + O ÷ N D. None of these Step IV : 14 18 39 48 76 45 63 96 112 121
3. Three different positions of a dice are shown here. Find Step V : 14 18 39 45 48 76 63 96 112 121
the number of the dots on the face opposite to the face Step VI : 14 18 39 45 48 63 76 96 112 121
having two dots. And step VI is the last step of this input.
For the given below input, how many steps will be
required to get the last step?
Input : 101 85 66 49 73 39 142 25 115 74
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
A.
3 B.
4 C.
5 D.
6
9. Which of the following options satisfies
4. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing the centre. They
the same conditions of placement of the
are : P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but
dots as in the given figure?
some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the
right of P.
Which of the following statements is not true? A. B.
A. V is third to the right of R.
B. T is just next to the right of V.
C. R is second to the left of T.
D. P is second to the right of R. C. D.
5. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 38 10. In the given question, two rows of numbers are given.
B. 35 The resultant number in each row is to be worked out
separately based on the following rules and the question
C. 40
below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The
D. None of these operations on numbers progress from left to right.
6.
In the given Venn diagram, Police Rules :
Officer represents Circle, Male 11 (i) If an odd number is followed by another composite
r e p r e s e n t s Tr i a n g l e , P o e t odd number, they are to be added.
1 10 (ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number,
represents Square and Married 5 they are to be added.
represents Rectangle. 2 34 6
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which
The area representing unmarried 12 13 7
9 8 is the perfect square, the even number is to be
police officers who are female
subtracted from the perfect square.
poets is _______.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number,
A. 8 B. 9 C. 2 D. 4 the first number is to be divided by the second
7. The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y and number.
Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the
Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has second one is to be subtracted from the first number.
been cut. Select the figure from the options which would 85 17 35
most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (Z). 16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, then what will be the
resultant of the second row?
X Y Z A. 175 B. –5 C. 75 D. 210

2 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


SCIENCE

11. A force is applied to a cart moving along a horizontal Select the correct option regarding the magnitude of
track in the positive x direction. If the cart speeds up the net gravitational force on the particle labelled m.
and then slows down, then which one of the following A. (i) > (iii) = (iv) > (ii) B. (i) = (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
graphs best shows the variation of the force with time C. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) D. (iv) < (iii) < (ii) = (i)
for the cart? Assume that friction is negligible.
Force Force 16. An engine is approaching a hill at constant speed. When
it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle, whose
A. B. echo is heard by the driver after 5 s. If the speed of sound
Time is 340 m s–1, then find the speed of the engine.
Time
A. 20 m s–1 B. 30 m s–1 C. 15 m s–1 D. 10 m s–1
Force Force
17. A sound wave travelling in a medium is represented
C. D.
as shown in the figure.
Time Time
x(m)

12. A hot air balloon loaded with sandbags has a total mass
t(s)
1m
of M. It is descending with a downward acceleration of
g/2, where g is the acceleration of free fall. How much If vibrating source of sound makes 360 oscillations
sand must be released from the sandbags in order that in 2 minutes, then the amplitude, wavelength and
hot air balloon ascends with the same acceleration? frequency of the sound wave are respectively (Take
A. M / 2 B. M / 3 C. 2 M / 3 D. 3 M / 4 velocity of sound as 342 m s–1.)
A. 1 m, 114 m and 3 Hz B. 2 m, 3 m and 14 Hz
13. A particle of mass m moving F
C. 1 m, 5 m and 20 Hz D. 1 m, 100 m and 10 Hz
along a straight line experiences
2F0
force F which varies with the 18. A boy travels along a circular path of radius r m. If
distance travelled as shown in F0 π
the angle traced by the boy is radians, then his
the graph. If the velocity of the linear displacement is 3
x
particle at x0 is 2 F0 x0 , then x0 2x0
r 2 m πr
A. B. r m C. 2 r m D. m
m 3
velocity at 2x0 is
19. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
5F x Fx Statement 1 : The planet Saturn could float if put in
A. 0 0 B. 2 0 0
m m water.
C. F0 x0 D. None of these. Statement 2 : Density of water is more than that of
m effective density of Saturn.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
14. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
densities r1 and r2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is
material of density r3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to not the correct explanation of statement 1.
equilibrium in the position shown in the figure. Which C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
of the following is true for r1, r2 and r3? D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
r1 < r3 < r2
A. Liquid 1
20. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
B.
r3 < r1 < r2
I. When a batsman hits a cricket ball with his bat, the
C.
r1 > r3 > r2 force applied by the batsman is muscular force.
D.
r1 < r2 < r3 Liquid 2
II. In an electric bell, the hammer strikes the gong due
to electrostatic force.
15. The figure shows four arrangements of three particles III. During dry weather, hair tend to attract the comb
of equal masses. (D = 2d) while combing and it is due to magnetic force of
D D
(i) d (ii) d attraction.
m m IV. Walking on ice is difficult because of lack of
m frictional force.
d D
(iii) (iv) A. I and II only B. I and IV only
D d
m C. II and III only D. I, II and IV only

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 3


21. A negatively charged rod is held close to one side of Vani : Ice at 273 K is more effective in cooling than
a metal ball and the other side is earthed. Which of water at 273 K.
the following diagrams correctly shows the charge The correct statement(s) is/are given by
distribution?
A. Parth and Arunav only B. Ajeet only
no C. Ajeet and Vani only D. Parth and Vani only.
charge
A. B.
26. Protein extract from a food sample was digested into
amino acids and its components were separated by
paper chromatography. The chromatogram obtained
is shown as :
C. D.

22. Match column I with column II and select the correct


option from the given codes. Protein P1 P2 P3 P4 P5
extract
Column I Column II
Which of the labelled components (P1–P5) are found
P. String vibration (i) Tabla
in the protein extract?
Q. Membrane vibration (ii) Bicycle bell
A. P2 and P3 B. P3 and P4
R. Vibration of air (iii) Sitar
C. P1 and P2 D. P1 and P3
S. Vibration of plate (iv) Shehnai
A. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii) 27. Tanvi was given three unknown metals P, Q and R.
B. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) She performed the following experiments to check
C. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) their reactivity.
D. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
23. Four different experiments were conducted in the
following ways :
I. 3 g of carbon was burnt in 8 g of oxygen to give
11 g of CO2.
II. 1.2 g of carbon was burnt in air to give 4.2 g of CO2.
III. 4.5 g of carbon was burnt in enough air to give
11 g of CO2.
IV. 4 g of carbon was burnt in oxygen to form 30.3 g
of CO2.
Law of constant proportions is illustrated in experiment(s) If reactions occurred only in beakers 3 and 4, then
A. I and III only B. II and III only which of the following statements is incorrect?
C. IV only D. I only.
A. Metal R could be aluminium.
24. Read the given statements and select the correct option. B. Metal P could be zinc.
Statement 1 : Rayon is called a regenerated fibre. C. Metal Q could be calcium.
Statement 2 : Rayon is stronger and easier to dye in D. The correct order of reactivity is Q < P < R < Mg.
a variety of colours.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 28. Categorise the given atoms into groups of isobars and
is the correct explanation of statement 1. isotopes.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is 15 17 12 18
9T 8U 6V 9W
not the correct explanation of statement 1. 13 17 17 14
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. 6X 9Y 7Z 6Q
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. Isobars Isotopes
A.
X, V, Q and T, W, Y U, Y, Z
25. Following statements are given by four students Ajeet,
Parth, Arunav and Vani : B.
Y, Z U, V and X, Z
Ajeet : Forces of attraction between the particles increase C.
U, Y X, V, Z and T, W
in the order : Nitrogen < Water < Sugar. D.
U, Y, Z X, V, Q and T, W, Y
Parth : Boiling water is hotter than steam because of
latent heat of vaporisation. 29. A brief information about four substances P, Q, R and
S is given.
Arunav : The effect of increasing pressure is more
important as compared to that of decreasing temperature P : A dark coloured, viscous, strong smelling liquid
in liquefaction of gas. which is commercially very important

4 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


Q : An almost pure form of carbon which is used in the A. P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iii), S - (iv)
manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many B. P - (ii), Q - (iii), R - (iv), S - (i)
metals C. P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (i), S - (iv)
R : Used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads D. P - (iv), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (i)
S : Used in the manufacture of detergents, fibres,
polythene and other man-made plastics 33. Which of the following statements is correct?
Identify P, Q, R and S. A. Lysosomes play an important role at the time of
fertilisation.
P Q R S
B. 80 S-ribosome consists of a large 50 S subunit and
A. Black Coke Bitumen Petrochemicals
small 30 S subunit.
gold
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum mainly consists of
B. Coal tar Coal Petroleum Black gold
cisternae whereas rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Petrol Coal gas Lubricating Hydrogen gas mainly consists of tubules and vesicles.
oil
D. All of these
D. Black Bitumen Coke Petrochemicals
gold 34. Refer to the given structure of a
type of plant tissue. Identify its X
30. Ankita tested the solubility of four different substances components X, Y and Z and select
(I-IV) at different temperatures and collected the data the correct statement regarding them. Y
as given in the table. Z
A. X is a non-living thin-walled cell
Substance Solubility at temperature (in °C) that helps in storage of food.
dissolved 10 20 40 B. Y is devoid of nucleus but
I 25 35 65 mitochondria, plastids and
II 38 38 38 endoplasmic reticulum are
III 37 37 42 present in abundance in it.
IV 27 39 45 C. Z is connected to X with the help of plasmodesmata.
Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct option. D. Both B and C
(x) of substance III would be needed to produce a
35. Select the option which correctly identifies P - T.
saturated solution of it in 50 grams of water at 40°C.
(y) has the highest solubility at 20°C while (z) has the Phylum/ Excretory Circulatory Respiratory
least solubility at 10°C. Class organ system organ
x y z Arthropoda P Q Book lungs/
A. 21 g I IV Gills/Tracheal
system
B. 42 g IV I
R Nephridia Closed Skin
C. 32.5 g II III
S Nephridia Open T
D. 21 g IV I
P Q R S T
31. Arrange the given substances in decreasing order of A. Green gland Closed Mollusca Annelida Tracheal
mass in grams. system
P - One atom of silver B. Malpighian Open Annelida Mollusca Ctenidia
Q - Two gram atoms of nitrogen tubule
R - One mole of calcium C. Antennary Open Porifera Amphibia Lungs
S - Two grams of sodium gland
(At. masses : Ag = 108 u, N = 14 u, Ca = 40 u, Na = 23 u) D. Nephridia Closed Mollusca Annelida Lungs
A. R > Q > S > P B. Q>S>P>R
C. P > Q > R > S D. S>R>Q>P 36. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
chronic diseases?
32. Match column I with column II and select the A. They last for a long time, may be as much as a life
correct option from the given codes. time.
Column I Column II B. A person suffering from a chronic disease always
(Zones of candle flame) (Characteristics) recovers completely after treatment.
P. Dark zone (i) Complete combustion C. They do not cause long term bad effects on human
Q. Luminous zone (ii) No combustion health.
R. Blue zone (iii) Incomplete combustion D. These include Alzheimer’s disease, cholera, arthritis,
S. Non-luminous zone (iv) Where CO burns cancer, etc.

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 5


37. The given table represents differences between bryophytes D.
P could be foot and mouth disease, Q could be
and pteridophytes. Identify the correct ones. anthrax whereas R could be pullorum.
Bryophytes Pteridophytes 41. Refer to the given set of secondary sexual characteristics.
I. Main plant body is Main plant body is
sporophytic (diploid). gametophytic (haploid). I. Enlargement of breasts
II. Plant body is either thalloid Plant body is II. Development of Adam’s apple
or foliose, however, true differentiated into true III. Deepening of voice
stem, leaves and roots are roots, stem and leaves. IV. Growth of pubic hair
absent. V. Widening of pelvis
III. Plant is fixed to the Plant is fixed to the How many of these are related to females only?
substratum by roots. substratum by rhizoids.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
IV. Sporophyte is parasitic over It has small, independent
gametophytic plant body. gametophyte. 42. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
V. These are non-vascular These are vascular
A. Mitochondria – Production of energy
plants. plants.
B. Vacuole – Storage of useful minerals
A. I and II only B. II and IV only
C. Centrosome – Formation of spindle
C. I, II and IV only D. II, IV and V only
D. Peroxisomes – Formation of lysosomes
38. Some water falling on ground, forms an extremely
43. Match column I with column II and column III and
thin, tightly held film around the soil particles called select the correct option from the given codes.
________ while some water moves down upto the
water table and is called ________. Column I Column II Column III
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks in the (i) Desert P. Gujarat a. Asian
above statement. National elephant
Park
A. Gravitational water, capillary water
(ii) Gir Q. Assam b. Asiatic
B. Hygroscopic water, surface runoff National lion
C. Hygroscopic water, gravitational water Park
D. Capillary water, surface runoff (iii) Bandipur R. West c. Royal
39. Read the given statements. National Bengal Bengal
Park tiger
(i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of
(iv) Sundarban S. Rajasthan d. One-horned
excretory products of honeybee.
National rhinoceros
(ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination
Park
with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water
(v) Kaziranga T. Karnataka e. Great Indian
accumulated in the paddy field.
National bustard
(iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most Park
efficient use of available food. A. (i)-S, e; (ii)-P, b; (iii)-T, a; (iv)-R, c; (v)-Q, d
(iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used B. (i)-P, a; (ii)-R, e; (iii)-Q, b; (iv)-S, d; (v)-T, c
extensively in cattle farming.
C. (i)-Q, b; (ii)-R, a; (iii)-P, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-S, d
(v) Intercropping is growing two or more crops
D. (i)-P, b; (ii)-S, d; (iii)-Q, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-R, a
simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.
Which of the given statements are incorrect? 44. Read the given statements and select the option that
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (ii) and (iv) only correctly fill the blanks in any two of them.
C. (i) and (iv) only D. (i), (iv) and (v) only (a) Entamoeba histolytica causes _____ ( i)
_____ and
Entamoeba gingivalis causes _____ (ii)
_____.
40. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct
(b) _____ _____ bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen
(i)
option regarding it.
into nitrates.
Disease caused in animals
Yes
(c) _____ _____ and _____
(i) _____ are common bacteria
(ii)
No that cause denitrification.
Caused by bacteria P
Yes A. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis, (ii) Food poisoning
Can spread to humans from animals
Yes
Q (c)-(i) Rhizobium, (ii) Thiobacillus
No B. (b)-(i) Rhizobium, (c)-(i) Thiobacillus,
R (ii) Pseudomonas
A.
P could be anthrax whereas Q could be plague. C. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis, (ii) Pyorrhoea
B.
Q could be plague whereas R could be foot and (b)-(i) Thiobacillus,
mouth disease. D. (a)-(i) Pyorrhoea, (ii) Amoebiasis
C.
P could be tuberculosis whereas R could be plague. (c)-(i) Nitrosomonas, (ii) Pseudomonas

6 | NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1


45. Select the incorrect statement. B. Malathion is a common insecticide.
A. Biopesticides kill specific insect pests without C. MCPA is used to control rodents.
affecting useful insects in the crop field. D. Atrazine is a common herbicide.

ACHIEVERS SECTION

46. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by 49. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the
selecting an appropriate option. incorrect option regarding it.
The velocity-time graphs of I. (a) Disease is present since birth. - P
a car and a scooter are shown 45 Car
(b) Disease develops after birth. - Go to II
Velocity (m s–1)
in the figure. The difference 30 Scooter
between the distance II. (a) It is a communicable disease. - Go to III
15
travelled by the car and the (b) It is a non-communicable disease. -Go to IV
0 III. (a) It spreads through direct contact. - Q
scooter in first 15 s is (i) 0 5 10 15 20 25
and the time at which the Time (s) (b) It spreads through vector. - R
car will catch up with the scooter is (ii) . At time
t = 10 s, acceleration of car is (iii) while IV. (a) It occurs due to deficiency of nutrients. - S
velocity of scooter is (iv) .
(b) It occurs due to deficiency of a hormone. - T
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A.
P could be cleft palate, R could be elephantiasis
A. 112.5 m 15 s 1 m s–2 0 m s–1
and T could be goitre.
B. 337.5 m 10 s 2 m s–2 30 m s–1
C. 112.5 m 22.5 s 3 m s–2 30 m s–1 B.
Q could be rhinitis, R could be sleeping sickness
D. 225.5 m 25 s 3 m s–2 15 m s–1 and S could be night blindness.
C.
P could be Down’s syndrome, Q could be measles
47. A 1 kg mass is projected down and R could be malaria.
a rough circular track (radius = v D.
Q could be kala-azar, R could be haemophilia and
2 m) placed in vertical plane as 90° P S could be cretinism.
shown. The speed of the mass at 2m
50. The given table shows the melting and boiling points
point P is 3 m/s and at point Q, Q of four substances W, X, Y and Z.
it is 6 m/s. How much work is done on the mass
between points P and Q by the force of friction? Substance M.pt. (°C) B.pt. (°C)
(Take g = 10 m/s2) W –15 65
A. –7.5 J B. –8.5 J C. –6.5 J D. –24 J X –262 –242
Y – 41 90
48. Identify the types of epithelial tissue from the given
statements and select the correct option regarding them. Z –110 –5
I. L forms delicate lining of blood vessels. Now, refer to the given Solid
II. M is found in salivary and sweat glands. diagram and read the given
(i) (ii)
III. N forms lining of stomach and gall bladder. statements carefully. (v)
(iv)
IV. O lines Fallopian tubes and nephrons of kidney. I. Substance Z will exist
in liquid form at room Liquid (vi)
A. L could be cuboidal epithelium whereas M could Gas
be columnar epithelium. temperature. (iii)
B. M could be cuboidal epithelium whereas N could II. Substance W will undergo change (ii) at 65°C.
be columnar epithelium. III. At –252°C, substance X will undergo change (iv).
C. N could be squamous epithelium whereas O could IV. At 90°C, substance Y will undergo change (iii).
be cuboidal epithelium. The incorrect statement(s) is/are
D. L could be columnar epithelium whereas O could A. I and III only B. II and IV only
be ciliated epithelium. C. IV only D. I, II and III only

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

NSO | Class-9 | Set-B | Level 1 | 7


ANSWER KEYS

NSO 2014
SET A
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D)

SET B
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (A)

NSO 2015
SET 1
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (B)

SET 2
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (C)

NSO 2016
SET A
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (B)

SET B
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)

NSO 2017
SET A
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (D)
SET B
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (C)

NSO 2018
SET A
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (B)

SET B
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (D)