Board Examination Question and Answer

NCV REVIEW CENTER
MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION FOR

CRIMINALISTICS
CRIMINOLOGY LICENSURE EXAMINATION
JUNE 2019
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1
only.
I do not own anything. All credits go to the right owners. No copyright intended.
1. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it
maybe ascertained that it is at near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the
gun is approximately,
A. 6 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
Ans. A
2. When there is a choice between several deltas and one of which is a bifurcation, the one to
be selected should be the ________.
a. Arch
b. Core
c. Bifurcation
d. Eyelet
Ans.C
3. Can all physicians allowed to conduct Autopsy?
a. Yes
B. no
C. never
d. False
Ans. B
4. The test used in textile fibers.
A. photography
B. lie detection
C. burning and solubility test
D. comparison microscope
Ans. C
5. Branch of Metallurgy that involves the microstructures of metals and alloys.
a. Metallography
B. alloygraphy
C. macro etching
D. micro etching
Ans. A
6. Three (3) types of poisons.
a. Organic, Inorganic, Biological
b. Hypnotic, Sedatives, Laxatives
c. Emetics, Biological, Inorganic
d. Organic, Sedatives, Biological
Ans. A
7. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Succimer
d. Fabahistine
Ans. C
8. “Did you ever steal anything?” is what kind of questions.
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question
Ans. C
10. Two (2) persons who tried to destroy their fingerprints
John Dillenger and Robert James Pitt
Tom Dillenger and Brad Pitt
John Denver and Robert James Pitt
John Denver and Brad Pitt
Ans. A
11. How many fingerprint classification are used internationally?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans. B
12. The Three (3) fingerprint classifications are; Arch, Loops, and ________.
a. Tented Arch
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Whorls
d. Ulnar Loop
Ans. C
9. Breaking down of complex proteins into simpler components associated with foul smelling
gasses and accompanied by chance in color of the body.
a. Putrefaction
b. Maceration
c. Mummification
d. Marbolization
Ans. A
13. In criminal investigation, when we say “bullet”, does it includes pellets?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
Ans. A
14. Muzzle velocity of Military firearms.
a. 1,850 fps
b. 1,925 fps
c. 2,500 fps
d. 3,500 – 4,000 fps
Ans. C
15. It refers to the actual curve path of projectile from the moment it leaves the gun barrel until
it hits the target. (2x question)
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Stability
d. Ricochet
Ans. A
16. If smokeless powder was made from gelatinize nitrocellulose mixed with ether and alcohol,
does Black powder contains charcoal and sulfur?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
Ans. A
17. These are guns designed to fire only one shot for every loading. (2x question)
a. Single-shot firearm
b. Bolt action type
c. Repeating firearms
d. Slide action type
Ans. A
18. In gunshot wounds, which is always greater in appearance?
a. Entrance
b. Exit
c. Contact
d. Close
Ans. B
19. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands are there?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans. B
20. Can rigor mortis determine the time of death?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
Ans. A
21. In robbery case. Which is the focus of close up photography?
A. valuable materials
B. forcible entry
C. disarray furniture’s
D. broken glass
Ans. B
22. In post-mortem lividity, the blood cannot be transferred even if the body has been moved to
another position when the blood is defused in the ____________.
a. tissues
b. plasma
c. Outer skin
d. Veins
Ans. A
23. Most common form of asphyxia.
a. Strangulation
b. hanging
c. lynching
d. Garroting
Ans. A
24. A condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood has been reduced below working
levels. (5x question)
a. Asphyxia
b. homicide
c.syncope
d. Coma
Ans. A
25. Involuntary divergence of the pen line from the natural direction in the formation of letters.
a. Tremor
b. Hiatus
c. Shading
d. loose writing
Ans. B
26. First police surgeon or forensic pathologist who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar.
a. Paul Zacchias
b. Antistius
c. Landsteiner
d. Hipocrates
Ans. B
27. How many percent of alcohol is needed to be considered that a person is intoxicated?
a.0.05%
b. 0.15%
c. 0.15%
d. 1.05%
Ans. A
28. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a normal light.
a. X-ray
b. Infrared light
c. UV light
d. visible lights
Ans. B
29. A little bit better than idiots.
a. Imbecile
b. Moron
c. Moral defficiency
Ans. A
30. What is the purpose of getting the plain impression of the subject?
a. For classification purposes
b. For verification purposes
c. To check the order of the rolled impression
d. For comparison purposes
Ans. C
31. The poisonous gas that smells like a rotten egg.
a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Hydrogen dioxide
d. Hydrochloride
Ans. A
32. A violent volatile poison producing an almond odor in vomit’s of the victim.
a. Plasma
b. Cyanide
c. Sulfur
d. Lead
Ans. B
33. Another term for Ultra-violet light.
a. White light
b. Red light
c. Black light
d. Roentgen
Ans. C
34. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of light reaching the film by
varying the length of time, and it is consider as the door of the camera.
a. Lens
b. focusing Ring
c. Shutter
d. Aperture
Ans. C
35. Sequence of sensitivity of the Three (3) emulsion layers of color film.
a. Blue-Green-Red
b. Red- Green-Blue
c. Green-Red-Blue
d. Blue-Red-Green
Ans. B
36. An instrument used to measure the bore diameter of a shotgun.
a. Taper gauge
b. Helixometer
c. Microscope
d. Onoscope
Ans. A
37. Covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like formation.
a. Epidermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal papillae
d. Sweat gland
Ans. C
38. An instrument used to detect alcohol in human body.
a. Alcotest
b. Drunkometer
c. Breath analyzers
d. Intoximeter
Ans. C
39. The morphological constituents of human hair.
a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle
b. Root, Shaft, Tip
c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density
Ans. B
40. The depression between the ridges which maybe compared with the low areas in a tire
tread.
a. Core
b. Delta
c. Furrows
d. Sweat pores
Ans. C
41. It is the access to another computer network sites to steal data or sensitive information.
a. Hacking
b. Cyber spies
c. Morphing
d. Password sniffers
Ans. A
42. It is a sensitized material that has the primary function of recording the image that is
focused upon it by the lens of the camera.(2x question)
a. Photographic paper
b. Film
c. Filter
d. Camera
Ans. B
43. A component of a polygraph machine which is used to record the perspiration and
breathing of a subject with the aid of a convoluted rubber tube.
a. Plethysmograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph
Ans. B
44. The most typical camera used for police photography.
a. Polaroid still camera
b. Single lens reflex camera
c. Digital camera
d. View camera
Ans. B
45. They are considered as the focal points in fingerprint identification.
a. Appendage and Upthrust
b. Core and Delta
c. Recurving ridge and Coverging ridge
d. Pattern area and Typelines
Ans. B
46. Black powder as discovered by Chinese Alchemist is consists of a mixture of:
a. Gelatinized nitrocellulose with ether and alcohol
b. Sulfur, Gelatinized nitrocellulose with ether
c. Salt, sulfur and alcohol
d. Sulfur, Charcoal and saltpeter
Ans. D
47. How many days after infliction does a “black-eye” can be observed to be turning Purple?
a.1-4 days
b.4-5 days
c. 6-7 days
d. 8-9 days
Ans. A
48. A principle in fingerprint which states that the ridge patterns on the digits never change
during the life of an individual.
a. Principle of Permanency
b. Principle of Individuality
c. Principle of Infallibility
d. Principle of Lividity
Ans. A
49. “Is your mother’s name Magdalena?” is what kind of question?
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question
Ans. B
50. All fingers are rolled AWAY from the subject’s body except?
a. Both Index fingers
b. Both Little fingers
c. Both Middle fingers
d. Both Thumbs
Ans. D
51. Branch of ballistics which involves the study of projectile’s behavior from the time it leaves
the gun until it ends its flight.
a. Interior Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
c. Exterior Ballistics
d. Transitional Ballistics
Ans. C
52. Regarded as a special form of pen lift disguise in which a perceptible group appears in the
writing.
a. Diacritic
b. Hiatus
c. Hesitation
d. Tremor
Ans. C
53. These are firearms that propel projectiles with diameter of more than one (1) inch.
a. Artillery
b. Musket
c. Assault rifle
d. Cannon
Ans. A
54. There are always two deltas in what fingerprint pattern?
a. Ach
b. Loop
c. Whorls
d. Accidental whorl
Ans. C
55. The two types of glass fractures are?
a. Radial and Ulnar fractures
b. Radial and Concentric fractures
c Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures
Ans. B
56. A fingerprint characteristics which is free from any obstruction.
a. Sufficient recurve/ Recurving ridge
b. Insufficient recurve
c. Insipient ridge
d. diverging ridge
Ans. A
57. In terminal ballistics, it is the depth of bullet penetrating the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Velocity
c. Terminal Energy
d. Terminal Penetration
Ans. D
58. Firearms are like people that have general and specific characteristics. What firearm
characteristics refers to those that can be determined only after a gun is already
manufactured?
a. Caliber and Model
b. Class Characteristics
c. Rifling Characteristics
d. Individual Characteristics
Ans. D
59. A typewriter defect that can be corrected by cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect
b. Typeface defect
c. Alignment defect
d. Permanent defect
Ans. A
60. It is the ridge count of the first loop pattern appearing on the fingerprint card except the two
little fingers.
a. Primary classification
b. Secondary classification
c. Final Classification
d. Key classification
Ans. D
61. It refers to the last stage of toxological examination.
a. Quantification
b. Microscopic examonation
c. Biological
d. None of the following
Ans. A
62. Individual characteristics of firearms can be determined even before a gun is
manufactured. This statement is-
a. True
b. False
c. Doubtful
d. Maybe
Ans. B
63. These are marks found at the extracting groove of the spent shell caused by its withdrawal
from the chamber.
a. Ejector marks
b. Shearing marks
c. Extractor marks
d. Firing pin marks
64. Human hair has medullary index of less than ________, and animal hair has a medullary
index of greater than _________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7
Ans. D
65. This will serve as authority of polygraph examiner to examine the subject as evidence that
subject voluntary submits to undergo the test.
Willingness of the subject to undergo Pre-test in interview
Willingness of the subject to take the test to prove his innocence
Willingness of the subject to give his personal data during the pre-test interview
None of the foregoing
Ans. B
66. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal.
The empty shells remain within the chamber
The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
The shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
Ans. C
67. When bullet travels through the body it produces a shock wave which damages the tissue
around its path, this is known as –
Contact
Close discharge
Distance charge
Tissue quake
Ans. D
68. In tented arches, the ridges _________
Make a complete circuit
Makes an obstruction
Run from one side to another with rise at the center
Make a backward turn
Ans. C
69. In taking fingerprints, __________ are rolled towards the body of the subject.
All fingers
Both thumbs
Little fingers
All fingers except thumb
Ans. B
70. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impressions are held to be __________.
Dependent on the classification of the print of the other finger
Dependent on the ridge tracing
Loops
Plain whorl, Meeting
Ans. D
71. In the investigation of a rape case, use of ultra violent light is a useful method because-
Only to establish whether certain stains, after they have been located by some other method.
To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains
Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen stains
Neither for finding nor for determining their nature
Ans. B
72. If a subject has more than ten (10) fingers, the extra finger is printed on the_______ of the
fingerprint chart with notation to the effect that same is an extra finger.
Face
Other side
Face, upper corner
Face, lower corner
Ans. B
73. Discharge shells are initialed at –
Inside or outside of the case near open end
On any part of the shell
Where firing pin strikes
At the base
Ans. A
74. The retouching of a defective portion of a written stroke is known in questions document
examination as –
Feathering
Shading
Retracing
Patching
Ans. D
75. In case of minor injury affecting only the layer of the friction skin, the injury will not
permanently deface the ridge formation provided that the ______ is not affected.
Dermis
Epidermis
Bone of the finger
Ulna bone
Ans. B
76. A drop of blood which falls from the moving object or person is elongated and the splashes
are found to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and
the extension of the drop of blood indicates –
Fresh blood
Dried stain
Direction of movement
Dead person
Ans. C
77. The identity of two impressions is established primarily through _______.
Dimensions of pattern
Similarity of traces
Unexplained similarity of patterns
Ridge characteristics and the relative position of these ridge characteristics
Ans. D
78. When inking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled impressions, the fingers must be inked
from ______ to base of the joint.
Base
Tip
Second joint
Third joint
Ans. B
79. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in which one or more ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, pass out or terminate on the same side as the ridges enter.
Loop
Ulnar loop
Radial loop
Tented arch
Ans. A
80. A characteristic of post-mortem symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a –
Vary texture and appearance of the skin
Contorted position of the body
Pinkish lividity of all part of the body
Marked protuberance of the eyeballs
Ans. C
81. The English person who coined the term “Photography” in English language.
William Abney
William Talbot
Louis Daguerre
John F. Herschel
Ans. D
82. In taking mug shots of a suspect who is standing, the camera should be
positioned –
At neck level
At chest level
At hips level
Slightly above the head level
Ans. B
83. This condition mimics rigor mortis when the dead body is exposed to very low temperature.
Cold stiffening
Heat stiffening
Cadaveric spasm
Instantaneous rigor
Ans. A
84. Evidence which change quickly such as skid marks, the wounds and bruises will heal and
disappear before the case comes to trial. Such evidence can be preserved by –
Pickling method and introduced in court as evidence
Photographed introduced in court as evidence
Casting and mould and introduced in court as evidence
All of the foregoing
Ans. B
85. The type of special kind of death is done by making convict face a firing squad and is put to
death by a volley of fire.
Musketry
Euthanasia
Judicial death
Hanging
Ans. A
86. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, document examiner must be able
to observe the –
Characteristics of his handwriting
Writing position of the writer
Manner on how the writer moves the pain
Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting
Ans. D
87. Writing characterized by too much freedom of movement and lack of regulation which is
usually tall letters.
Loss writing
Restrained writing
Genuine writing
Regulated writing
Ans. A
88. Upon beginning the test, how many seconds should the examiner wait before asking the
first question?
10-15
15-20
5-10
20-25
Ans. B
89. A form of sexual perversion where a male individual derives pleasure from wearing the
female apparels.
Homosexuality
Transexualism
Tranvestism
Intersexuality
And. C
90. Portrait parle is correctly defined by which of the following?

The verbal, accurate, and picturesque description of the person identified
It is the file of pictures of missing or wanted persons
The use of anthropometrical measurement of human body as the basis for identification
It is the used of several evidences to eliminate or include in choice for identification
Ans. A
91. One of the following is considered the “cardinal rule in chart interpretation”.
Chart makings is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation
Specific response must form a deviation from norm
Any change from normal response requires an explanation
Chart probing shall be done after each chart
Ans. C
92. Maybe defined as the scientific examination of firearms, shell, bullets allegedly used in the
commission of a crime.
Forensic ballistics
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
None of the foregoing
Ans. A
93. DNA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a unique DNA and only
________ share the same DNA pattern.
Mother and child
Father and child
Mother and father
Identical twins
Ans. D
94. The restoration of tampered serial numbers can be done by the use of –
Benzidine solution
Saline solution
Etching solution
Sulfuric acid
Ans. C
95. In ridge tracing, 3 or more ridges above the right delta is considered whorl type of pattern
with –
Inner tracing
Outer tracing
Meeting Tracing
IMO tracing
Ans. B
96. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
10 years
20 years
30 years
40 years
Ans. B
97. The tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of not
spinning on its axis.
Gyroscopic action
Key hole shot
Spinning
Recoil
Ans. B
98. A wound produced by blunt object/instrument such as log and stone.
Punctured
Incised
Lacerated
Stab wound
Ans. C
99. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of application of force.
Extensive injury
Coup injury
Contre coup injury
Coup and contre coup injury
Ans. D
100. The light from the pinhole camera will form –
A halo effect
A photographic emulsion
An inverted image
An emergency ray
Ans. C
101. The simplest of all fingerprint patterns is the –
Plain arch
Loop
Whorl
Plain whorl
Ans. A
102. It was found out by the authorities in Dactyloscopy that 65% of fingerprint patterns are
classified as –
Whorl
Loops
Arches
Combination of loop and whorl
Ans. B
103. The rifling of a firearm is located inside the barrel. It consist of –
Raised portion
Depressed portion
Lands portion
Lands and grooves
Ans. D
104. The fingerprint of a person appears on fetus between _________ after conception.
100-200 days
100-120 days
100-220 days
100- 150 days
Ans. B
105. Contemporary handwriting standards means that the age of the standard should be within
a. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document
b. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
c. 8 years prior to the date of the questioned document
d. 12 years prior to the date of the questioned document
Ans. A
106. The identification of handwriting is based on the proposition that –
People are all alike
People are with different handwriting
People are all different
Ans.B
107. A type of burn produced as a result of the body come in contact with a moving object.
Radiation burn
Electrical burn
Friction burn
Thermal burn
Ans. C
108. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different from those left by any other gun
barrel. This fact is most useful in identifying the –
Direction from which a shot was fired
Person who fired a particular gun
Bullet which caused a fatal wound
Gun from which the bullet was fire
Ans. D
109. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change?
Cold stiffening
Heat stiffening
Instantaneous rigor
Putrefaction
Ans. C
110. Designed to fired at night which emits a bright flame at its base.
Tracer bullet
Zip gun
Dum-dum
Blank ammunition
Ans. A
NCV REVIEW CENTER
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE
AND
PROCEDURE
JUNE 2019
only.
1. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.

a. Jurisdiction
b. Trial courts
c. Venue
d. Territory
Ans. C
2. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a search warrant EXCEPT :
a. It must be issued upon probable cause
b. The probable cause must be determined personally by the judge
c. Particularly describing the place to be searched
d. Particularly describing the person to be seized.
Ans. D
3. Maybe defined as the security given for the release of a person in custody of law, furnished
by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the
conditions herein specified.
a. Pardon
b. Bail
c. Probation
d. Parole
Ans. B
4. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions.
He is however well-guarded at all times. The warden allowed him to go out of his cell without
any consideration whatsoever. The warden may be charged with-
a. Negligence of duty
b. Dereliction of duty
c. Leniency or laxity
d. Infidelity
Ans. B
5. What crime is committed when A, driving a truck, ran over a girl crossing the street during a
torrential rain and the girl died?
a. Homicide
b. Serious physical injuries
c. Murder
d. Reckless imprudence resulting to homicide
Ans. D
6. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the
fiscal and filed with the court.
Information
b. Complaint
c. Action
d. Police blotter
Ans. A
7. The offender who is still undergoing preliminary investigation at the prosecutor’s office is
referred to as –
a. Respondent
b. Suspect
c. Accused
d. Defendant
Ans. A
8. Refers to facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense is in the place searched is –
a. Probable cause
b. Search warrant
c. Plain view doctrine
d. Arrest warrant
Ans. A
9. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal searched and
seizures to be used against the accused?
a. Exclusionary doctrine
b. Miranda ruling
c. Fruit of poisonous tree
d. Silver plate
Ans. C
10. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission of the crime, without
having principally participated therein, takes part subsequent to the commission, either in
profiting by the effects of the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the crime?
a. Witnesses
b. Accessories
c. Principals
d. Accomplices
Ans. B
11. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
b. Yes, under the law she is a competent witness
c. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by wife against he husband
d. No
Ans. D
12. This requirement imports the degree of proof necessary to convict an accused of the crime
of treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses to the same over act.
a. Dangerous tendency rule
b. All of the foregoing
c. Two witness rule
d. None of the foregoing
Ans. C
13. The following statements are false, EXCEPT.
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than where the case is assigned.
Ans. B
14. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation and the guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of the arresting, detaining and
investigating officer is
a. B.P. 129, as amended
b. R.A 7691
c. R.A. 8294
d. R.A. 7438
Ans. D
15. What do you call the record of the court where the proceedings of the court or the
judgment of the court is recorded in case the accused failed to appear for the promulgation of
judgment despite notice –
a. Log book
b. Record book
c. Criminal docket book
d. Folio of the case.
Ans. C
16. Requisite before recall of a witness.
a. Leading Question
b. Misleading Question
c. Impeachment
d. Leave of Court
Ans. D
17. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant of arrest involving an offense, which
requires a preliminary investigation, the complaint or information may be filed without need of
such investigation, provided an _______ has been conducted in accordance with existing law
or procedure –
a. Preliminary investigation
b. Preliminary examination
c. Inquest
d. Fact finding investigation.
Ans. C
18. It refers to the performance of an act that ought not to be done
a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Unfeasance
Ans. C
19. It is a crime committed when a married woman is taken away against her will with lewd
design.
a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Forcible seduction
d. Qualified seduction
Ans. A
20. The person, who is authorized by law to grant probation to an accused convicted of a
crime, is:
a. President of the Philippines
b. Director of Prisons
c. Trial Court Judge
d. Jail Warden
Ans. C
21. Rule which requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to prove a disputed fact is
the original of a document.
a. Parole Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Original of a document
d. Secondary Evidence
Ans. B
22. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is prosecuted,
against an executor or administrator or other representative of a deceased person, or against a
person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such deceased person
or against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact accruing before
the death of such deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind.
a. Marital Disqualification
b. Privilege Communication Rule
c. Parental and filial privilege
d. Dead Man’s Statute Rule
Ans. D
23. It is the felony committed when a person takes away a minor, over 12 but under 18 years
of age, with her consent, after solicitation or cajolery from the offender, committed with lewd
design.
a. Forcible abduction
b. Consented abduction
c. Forcible seduction
d. Qualified seduction
Ans. B
24. The following are crimes against chastity, EXCEPT
a. Adultery
b. Concubinage
c. Rape
d. Seduction
Ans. C
25. The offender performs all acts of execution, that would produce the felony as a
consequence, but the felony was not produced, by reason of causes independent of the will of
the perpetrator are the requisites of:
a. Attempted felony
b. Frustrated felony
c. Consummated felony
d. Impossible crime
Ans. B
26. It is the rule followed by the Philippines whenever a crime is committed inside a Philippine
ship or airship while in a foreign territory.
a. French Rule
b. Spanish Rule
c. English Rule
d. General Rule
Ans. C
27. It is a characteristic of criminal laws that requires that they be applied to all persons who
live or sojourn in the Philippine territory.
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Territorially
d. Generally
Ans. A
28. It is a law that partially or totally modifies or changes an existing law.
a. Repealed law
b. Repealing law
c. Repelled law
c. Repelling law
Ans. B
29. The following felonies do not admit of a frustrated stage, except:
a. Rape
b. Physical injuries
c. Adultery
d. Theft
Ans. D
30. It is a legislative enactment that inflicts punishment for a crime without judicial trial.
a. Ex post facto law
b. Bill of attainder
c. Enrolled bill
d. Expose facto law
Ans. B
31. Stage in the commission of a felony when all the elements necessary for its
accomplishment and execution are present.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. Enumerated
Ans. C
32. It is incurred by a person committing a felony although the wrongful act done be different
from what he intended to do.
a. Felonious act
b. Offense
c. Criminal liability
c. Civil liability
Ans. C
33. The condition sine-quanon or indispensable element in self defense.
Provocation
b. Unlawful aggression
c. Reasonable necessity
d. Irresistible force
Ans. B
34. Is an agreement made between two or more parties as a settlement of matters in dispute?
a. Conspiracy
b. Settlement
c. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
d. Compromise
Ans. D
35. It maybe defined as the forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final
sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
Impossible crime
b. Prescription of penalty
c. Prescription of crime
d. None of the above
Ans. B
36. X threatened to kill Y if the latter will not give him one thousand pesos. What crime has
been committed by X?
a. Attempted murder
b. Kidnapping for ransom
c. Grave threats
d. Grave coercion
Ans. C
37. At the hearing of an application for admission to bail, the __________ has the burden of
showing that the evidence of guilt is strong.
a. Prosecution
b. Defense
c. Court
d. Bailiff
Ans. A
38. One which is any act committed without violence but unjustly annoys an innocent person.
As it is a punishable act, it should include any human conduct which, although not productive
of some physical of material harm would however, unjust or annoy an innocent person.
a. Grave coercion
b. Unjust vexation
c. Forcible abduction
d. Maltreatment
Ans. B
39. M forcibly entered G’s house one night. G was awakened and M immediately left the place.
M’s crime is?
a. Attempted robbery
b. Frustrated robbery
c. Robbery with trespass to dwelling
d. Trespass to dwelling
Ans. D
40. How may, an ordinary citizen gives his opinion regarding the handwriting of a person?
a. When he has testify only as to the mental and emotional state of the one who authored the
handwriting
b. When it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient familiarity
c. When he is a questioned document examiner
Ans. B
41. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise known as –
a. PD 1612
b. BP 186
c. RA 7695
d. BP 129
Ans. D
42. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. At any time before his arrest
b. Only after entering his plea
c. At any time before entering his plea
d. All of the foregoing
Ans. C
43. A person designated to assist destitute litigants.
a. Counsel
b. Attorney at law
c. Attorney on record
d. Counsel de officio
Ans. D
44. Which of the following is an example of an afflictive penalty ?
a. Prision mayor
b. Arresto mayor
c. Prision correctional
d. fine
Ans. A
45. Under this theory, man is considered as an essentially moral creature with an absolute
freewill to choose between good and evil, therefore, he should be judged or held accountable
for his wrongful acts for as his will is unimpaired.
a. Justice or Classical theory
b. Positivist or Realistic theory
c. Territoriality
Ans. A
46. Kho is known for his obscene materials. One of his writings entitled “Hayden” was stolen
from his office and was published by someone. The authorities got hold of the obscene
magazine. Kho is –
a. Not liable at all
b. Liable for pornography
c. Liable of obscene publication (as a co-publisher)
d. Liable of obscene publication (as author)
Ans. A
47. It is granted in connection with crimes against property, and is limited to prejudice that the
injured party suffered.
a. Prejudicial question
b. Reparation
c. Probation
Ans. B
48. A judgment become final after the lapse of the period for-
a. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
b. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
c. Perfecting an appeal
Ans. C
49. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request of the person arrested or of another
acting in his behalf, have the right to visit and confer privately with such person, in jail or any
other place of custody at –
a. Any hour of the working day only
b. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
c. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
d. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
Ans. B
50. It is defined as the deprivation by a public officer to the liberty of a person without any legal
ground, if the offender is a private person illegal detention is committed.
a. Illegal detention
b. Violation of domicile
c. Arbitrary detention
d. Any of the foregoing
Ans. C
51. The complaint or information should state the following EXCEPT –
a. Name of the offended party
b. The designation of the offense by the state
c. Name of the accused
d. Name of the court
Ans. D
52. All persons, having organs of sense, can perceive and perceiving, and can make their
perception to others, may be-
a. Witness
b. Prosecutor
c. Defense counsel
Ans. A
53. It is a doctrine usually applied where the police officers is not searching for evidence
against the accused but nonetheless inadvertently come across incriminating objects.
a. Waiver or consented search
b. Stop and frisk
c. In flagrante delicto
d. Plain view
Ans. D
54. The following are the requisites of an information except-
a. It must be filed by the offended party
b. It must charge the person with an offense
c. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
d. It must be in writing
Ans. A
55. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound mental condition, which effectively
renders him unable to fully understand the charge against him to plead intelligently.
a. The criminal charged must shall be dismissed
b. The arraignment shall be suspended
c. The trial shall be suspended
Ans. B
56. It is a form of evidences supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional
symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. Real evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Material evidence
Ans. B
57. In determining the probable cause, it is required that-
a. The judge must examine the complaint and his witnesses personally
b. The examination must be under oath
c. The examination must be in writing in the form of searching questions and answers
Ans. D
58. Are those acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit but also by means of
fault and are punishable by law.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Exempting circumstances
c. Felonies
d. Criminal liability
Ans. C
59. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies or
when the offense is necessary means for committing the other?
a. Complex crime
b. Continuing crime
c. Compound crime
d. All of the above
Ans. A
60. Alpha with intent to kill fired his revolver to Bravo and inflicted a fatal wound. Alpha brought
Bravo to the hospital and due to immediate medical assistance, Bravo survived. What crime
did Alpha committed?
a. Physical injuries
b. Frustrated homicide
c. Frustrated murder
d. No criminal liability
Ans. B
61. In what instances is a warrant of arrest is not necessary?
a. If the accused is already under detention
b. If the complaint or information was filed after the accused was lawfully arrested without
warrant
c. When the penalty is fine only
d. All of the Foregoing.
Ans. D
62. What is defined as the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining the judicial
proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Evidence
b. Investigation
c. Procedure
d. Trial
Ans. A
63. During the pending of his case, D died due to heart attack. His untimely death resulted in-
a. Postponement of the case
b. Suspension of the case
c. Dismissal of the case
Ans. C
64. What if the offended party is a corporation, how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
a. Leave it blank
b. State the name of the corporation
c. Aver it in the charge sheet
d. State the name of the owner of the corporation
Ans. B
65. Refers to the family history or descendant transmitted from one generation to another.
a. Pedigree
b. Reputation
c. Privies
Ans. A
66. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the state to prosecute a crime because of the lapse
of time.
a. Prescription of penalty
b. Prescription of Crime
c. Conditional pardon
d. Good conduct allowance
Ans. B
67. It is defined as those which would have been crimes against persons or properties were if
not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment on account of the use of inadequate or
ineffectual means.
a. Proximate cause
b. Impossible crimes
c. Formal crimes
d. Material crimes
Ans. B
68. The number of days the accused has to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
a. Within 30 days
b. Within 45 days
c. Within 15 days
d. All of the above
Ans. C
69. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for the offense charged does not
exceed six months fall under the rule on-
a. Regular procedure
b. Summary procedure
c. Criminal procedure
d. Civil procedure
Ans. B
70. Aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime,
or recidivism.
a. Specific
b. Inherent
c. Generic
d. None of these
Ans. C
71. This involves the trickery and cunning on the part of the offender.
a. Craft
b. Fraud
c. Deceit
d. Estafa
Ans. A
72. Delivered in open court wherein the witness states that he does not know whether a fact
did or did nor occur.
a. Positive evidence
b. Negative evidence
c. Real evidence
d. Object evidence
Ans. B
73. What is the legal term for Nighttime?
a. Sanctuary
b. Solitude
c. Nocturnity
d. Alevosia
Ans. C
74. What is the order of reverse trial?
a. Prosecution-Defense-Rebuttal-Submission for decision
b. Rebuttal-Defense-Prosecution-Submission for decision
c. Defense-Prosecution-Rebuttal-Submission for decision
d. Submission for decision-Rebuttal-Prosecution-Defense
Ans. C
75. Ancient document is a private document which is more than _______ years old, produced
from a custody in which it would be naturally found it as genuine.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
Ans. B
76. These are crimes which are consummated in one single act.
a. Material crimes
b. Formal crimes
c. Index crimes
d. non-index crimes
Ans. B
77. These are additional evidence of different character tending to prove the same point.
a. Corroborative evidence
b. Cumulative evidence
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Documentary evidence
Ans. A
78. It is a portion of the execution of a crime, starting from the point where the offender begins
to the point where he has still control over his acts.
a. Objective phase
b. Subjective phase
c. Negative phase
d. Positive phase
Ans. B
79. After the cross examination of the witness, what is the next procedure?
a. Direct examination
b. Re-direct examination
c. Cross examination
d. Re-cross examination
Ans. B
80. The following are exempt from the operation of our criminal laws, except:
a. Ambassadors
b. Consul general
c. Minister plenipotentiary
d. Minister resident
Ans. B
81. A crime punishable by arresto mayor prescribes in:
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
Ans. D
82. If the accused is lawfully arrested without a warrant of arrest for a grave offense, he can
only be detained within this period, otherwise he will be released .
a. 36 hrs.
b. 18 hrs.
c. 12 hrs.
d. 72 hrs.
Ans. A
83. Offenses involving criminal negligence where the penalty of fines does not exceed a fine of
P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this rule.
a. Regular procedure
b. Ordinary procedure
c. Summary procedure
d. Any of this
Ans. C
84. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the precise time at which the
offense was committed. However, in one of the following crimes time of the commission is an
essential element, and therefore, must be alleged in the complaint or information.
a. Parricide
b. Infanticide
c. Abortion
d. Malicious mischief
Ans. B
85. The personal evaluation of the judge after the filing of a case in court for the purpose of
determining the existence of a probable cause for the issuance of a warrant of arrest.
b. Preliminary examination
c. Criminal investigation
d. Inquest
Ans. B
86. The pre-marking of evidence of the parties for identification purposes are suppose to be
made during this stage of the proceedings –
a. Arraignment
b. Trial proper
c. Pre-trial conference
d. Direct examination
Ans. C
87. An extra-judicial confession made by an accused shall not be sufficient and admissible
unless it is in:
a. Writing
b. Voluntarily given
c. Presence of his counsel
d. All of these
Ans. D
88. The penalty of reclusion temporal prescribes in:
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
Ans. C
89. It refers to the final determination by a Court of competent jurisdiction of the issues
submitted to in a case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the losing party does not
appeal.
a. Interlocutory order
b. Summons
c. Subpoena
d. Judgment
Ans. D
90. It is also known as “crime of the giver” when a private person gives money to a public
officer so that he will do something favorable to the giver
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Corruption of a public official
d. Accused is pregnant
Ans. C
91. It is the crime committed when a public officer uses public funds for his own personal
benefit or for the benefit of another person.
a. Illegal use of public funds
b. Malversation of public funds
c. Plunder
Ans. B
92. Criminal actions requires preliminary investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
a. 6 months and 2 days
b. 4 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
c. 6 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
d. 4 yrs. And 1 day
Ans. B
93. The kind of evidence addressed to the senses of the court, which is also known as the
evidence of the highest probative value
a. Oral testimony
b. Object evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
Ans. B
94. The Decree Penalizing Obstruction of Apprehension and Prosecution of Criminal
Offenders.
a. PD 968
b. PD 1612
c. PD 603
d. PD 1829
Ans. D
95. Refers to the taking of several properties about the same place and time arising from a
single intent gives rise to only one crime.
a. Delito Continuado
b. Delito Complejo
c. Delito Compuesto
Ans. A
96. Subsidiary imprisonment is a personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
property to meet the fine but required to pay ________ each day.
a. 7 Pesos
b. 8. Pesos
c. 9 Pesos
d. 10 Pesos
Ans. B
97. An application for a search warrant can be made in any court of the Philippines which has
jurisdiction over the subject matter
a. Wholly true
b. Partly true
c. Wholly false
d. Partly false
Ans. A
98. Within what period the warrant of arrest be executed by the police officer
a. 10 days from its date
b. 10 days from its issuance
c. 10 days from receipt
d. 10 days application
Ans. C
99. The constitutional right to consider “a speedy, impartial and public trail” is available to
a. Both parties
b. Accused
c. Offended party
d. None of these
Ans. A
100. The period within which the police officer will make his report stating the action taken by
him whether the warrant of arrest was enforced or not is within
a. 10 days from receipt
b. 10 days date
c. 10 days from its issuance
d. 10 days after the lapse of the period to execute the warrant
Ans. D
Situation 1.
During custodial investigation at the Central Police District, Quezon City, “A” was
informed of his constitutional right, to remain silent and to have a competent and independent
counsel. He decided to waive his right to counsel and proceeded to make a statement
admitting commission of robbery.
101. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him because –
The right to remain silent cannot be waived
It was not made in the presence of the counsel
The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence of the counsel
It was not made in writing
Ans. A
102. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were properly observed except the right to
counsel which was waived “A” could not afford the services of one, A’s statement will be –
Admissible, because A was informed of his to counsel but he could not afford to hire one
Inadmissible, because A must be provided with counsel free of charge
Admissible, because A did not insists of his right to counsel and he voluntary waived it
Admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were present in the waiver
Ans. B
103. Assuming that the public prosecutor on the basis of the now written confession of A, who
waived his right to counsel because he could not afford one, filed the information against him
and the judge after trial, convicted A on the basis of his written confession. A would like to
appeal his case to higher court. The appeal should be filed -
a. Within 30 days from the time A’s counsel de officio who was absent of the time of
promulgation receive a written copy of the judgment of conviction
b. Within 30 days from the date the case was submitted for resolution
c. Within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment
d. Within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference
Ans. C
Situation 2.
Brad Pitt was a stay-in cook in Club John Hay. He was afraid of bad elements.
One evening, before going to bed, he locked himself in his room by placing a chair against the
door. After having gone to bed, he was awakened by someone trying to open the door. He
called out “who’s there?” but he received no answer. Fearing that the intruder was a robber, he
leaped from bed and called out again, “if you enter the room I will kill you”. But at that precise
moment he was struck by the chair that had been placed against the door, and believing that
he was being attacked, he seized a kitchen knife and struck and seriously wounded the
intruder who turned out to be his wife who was giving him a surprise visit.
104. Assuming Brad Pitt is liable under the foregoing circumstances, what crime has he
committed?
Frustrated murder
Frustrated parricide
Serious physical injuries
Frustrated homicide
Ans. C
105. Which of the following circumstances affecting criminal liability in general applicable in the
above situation?
Nullifying circumstances
Aggravating circumstances
Mitigating circumstances
Exempting circumstances
Ans. D
106. Which of the following specific circumstances affecting criminal liability can be invoked
properly by Brad Pitt?
Mistake of fact
Accident
Self-defense
Treachery
Ans. A
Situation 3.
Angel and Demon are neighbors. During a drinking spree, Angel punched
Demon without any provocation. Demon’s injury required medical attention for a period of
seven days. Immediately there after, SPO1 Pus Khol whose help was sought by Demon took
the statement of Demon and did not know anymore what to do.
107. What crime was committed by Angel?
Slight Physical Injuries
Serious Physical Injuries
Less Serious Physical Injuries
Attempted Murder
Ans. A
108. Considering the nature of the offense committed by Angel, SPO1 Pus Khol
should –
File the case directly with the Court
Instruct Demon to file the matter first, before the Barangay
File the case before the prosecutor’s office
File the case himself before the Barangay Court
Ans. C
109. Assuming the result of the action of Angel was death, instead of mere physical injuries to
Demon, SPO1 Pus Khol should, in his investigation and report concentrate and stress on:
Whether the Barangay Court has no jurisdiction over the case
Whether or not Demon was also drunk
Whether or not there was really no intent to kill
Whether or not Angel was drunk at that time
Ans. C
110. Assuming that Angel was drunk at the time that he committed the offense, his
drunkenness would be considered as:
Exempting circumstance
Aggravating circumstances
Mitigating circumstances
Alternative circumstances
Ans. D
111. Assuming that the action of Angel resulted to deformity (physical ugliness which is visible)
on the part of Demon, what crime is committed by Angel?
Slight Physical Injuries
Serious Physical Injuries
Less Serious Physical Injuries
Attempted Murder
Ans. B
112. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision. It may be either be for conviction,
acquittal, or dismissal. The oral decision will never become final because –
It was not in writing
Not signed by the judge who render it
The judge can still change or modify it
Ans. D
Situation 4.
A with intent to kill B, shot the latter right in between his eyes who was then at
that time lying in his bed, not knowing that B is already dead due to heart attack and before A
shot him.
113. What crime is committed by A?
Homicide
Physical Injuries
Impossible crime
No criminal liability
Ans. C
114. What would be the penalty of A if any?
Arresto Menor or a fine ranging from 200 to 500 pesos
Arresto Mayor
Prision Correctional
No penalty would be given
Ans. A
NCV REVIEW CENTER
BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS FOR CRIMINOLOGIST
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
JUNE 2019
only.
1. He exercise the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to the security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Undersecretary for Peace and Order
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
Ans. A
2. In Counter intelligence, surveillance is categorized according to intensity and sensitivity.
When there is intermittent observation, varying in occasion, then this surveillance is called:
A. loose B. open
C. discreet D. close
Ans. A
3. The amount and nature of demands of the police service are not the same on all three (3)
shift. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police
service is of greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. clientele B. time
C. purpose D. process
Ans. B
4. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime
prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police visibility program
Ans. D
5. Planning is a formal process of choosing the following, EXCEPT
A. purpose for which the organization performs
B. an organizational mission and overall objectives for both the short and long run
C. strategies to achieve the objectives
D. divisional, departmental and individual objective based on organizational objective
Ans. A
6. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Police Officer III
C. Inspector
D. Senior Inspector
Ans. C
7. In busy and thickly populated Commercial Street like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very
necessary. Since three are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?
A. Horse patrol B. Foot patrol
C. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
Ans. B
8. It is the product resulting from the collection evaluation analysis integration and
interpretation of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police
planning.
A. Investigation B. Information
C. Data D. Intelligence
Ans. D
9. These are work programs of line division which related to the nature and extend of the
workload and the availability of resource.
A. administrative plan B. strategic plan
B. operational plan D. tactical plan
Ans. B
10. It is the premier institution for the police, fire, and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
Ans. D
11. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consists of ____________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
Ans. C
12. Police Officer must develop the _________________ of recording the facts as they are
learned and as the evidence is obtained:
A. obligation B. habit
B. perspective D. Duty
Ans. B
13. An industrial complex must established its first line of physical defense. It must have;
A. the building itself
B. communication barrier
C. perimeter barriers
D. window barriers
Ans. C
14. All the following are members of the Peoples Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected
members of the community.
B. Any Barangay Captain of the City/Municipality concerned chosen by the Association of
Barangay Captains.
C. Any members of the Sanguniang Panlungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)
Ans. D
15. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for particular
operational purposes.
A. Inspection B. Survey
C. Surveillance D. Casing
Ans. D
16. In the Civil Service System, merit and fitness are the primary consideration in the
________.
A. two-party system
B. promotional system
C. evaluation system
D. tools system
Ans. B
17. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security agency is :
A. 40 yrs old B. 25 yrs old
C. 30 yrs old D. 35 yrs old
Ans. B
18. Which of these statements is CORRECT?
A. Conduction is heat transfer through combustion
B. Conduction is heat transfer through solid materials
C Conduction is heat transfer through air motion
D. Conduction is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves
Ans. B
19. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following:
A. his education profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religion, affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence function
Ans. D
20. Private security Agencies has to be registered with the ______________.
A. Security and Exchange Commission
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. NAPOLCOM
D. National Bureau of Investigation
Ans. A
21. It is natural and man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
determining or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. fence B. barrier
C. wall D. hazard
Ans. A
22. A single uninterrupted line of authority-often represented by boxes lines of organizational
chart should run in order by rank from top command to the level of the organization.
A. organizational control
B. scalar chain
C. administrative control
D. span of control
Ans. B
23. It provides means and ways by which all persons and employees are trained to make them
security conscious and disciplined.
A. security check
B. security investigation
C. security education
D. security promotion
Ans. C
24. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained of the person against
whom the information or document may be used, or the information is clandestinely acquired?
A. Covert B. Active
C. Overt D. Underground
Ans. A
25. The provincial governors shall choose the provincial Director from a list of ______ eligible
recommended by the PNP Director, preferable from the same province, city, or municipality.
A. six (6) B. five (5)
C. Three (3) D. four (4)
Ans. B
26. Which of the following is the most important characteristics of a good operational plan?
A. only one officer is reasonable for his execution
B. need for on-the-operation modification and amplification is minimized
C. present objectives and allocation of resources but not the methodology
D. all the details of the plans are properly identified and evaluated and such details are known
by the implementers.
Ans. D
27. Your fire station received a call that the Department Store “A” is burning. Considering the
huge facility and merchandise of said department store, there is a need to?
A. Study the problem in advance and formulate method of attack
B. Wait for further information about progress of incident
C. Proceed to the area and start putting off the fire
D. Organize the committee to direct fire fighting
Ans. C
28. Republic Act No. 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the
PNP shall be approximately in accordance with a police to population ratio of;
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1500) inhabitants
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1000) inhabitants
Ans. C
29. In disaster control operation, there is a need to establish a ______________ where
telephone or other means of communication shall ensure public lines of communication.
A. Command post B. Field room
C. Operation center D. Safe house
Ans. A
30. Registration of security agency must be done at the ________________?
A. Security and Exchange Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group
Ans. A
31. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ______________ since they can be
operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. Reduced speed and greater area of coverage
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter time travel
D. Mobility and stealth
Ans. D
32. The budget is ___________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
A. Tactical plan B. Work plan
C. Financial plan D. Control plan
Ans. C
33. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject while the investigator conducting the
surveillance is:
A. Rabbit B. Decoy
C. Surveillant C. Target
Ans. C
34. It is the police function which serves as the Backbone of the police service. In all types of
police situations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A. vice control
B. Traffic enforcement
C. criminal investigation
D. patrol
Ans. D
35. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing
such organizations. They must identify the organizations ________________.
A. Strategy B. Vision
C. Objective D. Mission
Ans. D
36. Which of the following strategies is FALSE?
A. patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block

B. foot patrol places the patrol officers to greater danger than mobile patrol
C. helicopter patrol is of no use in search and rescue operation
D. the PNP does employ foot patrol
Ans. C
37. It is the weakest link in the security chain.
A. Managers B. Personnel
C. Barriers D. Inspections
Ans. B
38. It is the protection of high ranking officials from harm, kidnapping, and similar acts.
A. Asset protection B. Physical security
C. Document security D. VIP security
Ans. D
39. Designed to outline a series of related operations to accomplice a common objective
normally within a given period of time.
A. Contingency plan B. Supporting plan
C. Strategic plan D. Campaign plan
Ans. C
40. Which of the following best reflects the first step, logically and to some extent
chronologically, in planning the budget for an operating unit of the police agency?
A. forecast of workload
B. find out how much money was given last
C. establish a priority for each task or activity
Ans. C
41. Which of the statement is TRUE?
A. In a small police station, the need for a full time Records officer is justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its size, routine Desk officer is not able to hand them all.
C. Police records are not that important in police administration.
D. In large Departments, the Desk officer devote full time exclusively to record task.
Ans. D
42. A police station should have _______________ plan which includes every step that has
been outlined and officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by the
members of the police organization.
A. tactical plan B. management plan
C. procedural plan D. operational plan
Ans. C
43. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective
patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander

B. adequacy of resources of police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
Ans. B
44. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director B. Chief of Police
C. Provincial Director D. Chief, PNP
Ans. D
45. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called?
A. Administration B. Supervision
C. Management D. Organization
Ans. B
46. You are the Patrol Supervisor for morning shift, you don’t have enough men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. Assign roving patrol with no foot patrol
B. Assign mobile patrol only in strategic place
C. Maintain your patrolmen in the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to
cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol.
Ans. D
47. _________________ plan relates to the problem of equipping, staffing and preparing the
police station to do job rather than the actual operation of the organization.
A. Tactical plan B. Management plan
C. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
Ans. B
48. It is the importance of the firm or installation in relation to national security.
A. Relative necessity
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Relative security
D. Relative critically
Ans. D
49. In undertaking a long range program directly toward simplification of the police records, the
first step should be a study of:
A. mechanic in which the current systems operate
B. utilization of existing record system
C. administrative structure of the organization
D. record system of similar organization
Ans. A
50. These procedure relates to the assignment and method of performance of police task away
from headquarters.
A. Field procedures
B. Staff procedure
C. Headquarters procedure
D. System procedure
Ans. A
51. The father of military espionage was;
A. Akbar
B. Genghis Khan
C. Alexander the great
D. Fredrick the great
Ans. D
52. Intelligence is under what type of police function?
A. Primary
B. Auxiliary
C. Administrative
D. Secondary
Ans. A
53. If a high winds has an extinguishing effect on the fire, the most probable extinguishing
method is?
A. Smothering B. fuel removal
C. Cooling D. Allusion
Ans. A
54. Listed below are all types of patrol, EXCEPT
A. Horse patrol B. T.V patrol
C. Foot patrol D. Motorcycle patrol
Ans. B
55. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the patrol officer must immediately report to the
________.
A. Desk officer
B. Commander
C. Unit supervisor
D. Supervisor
Ans. C
56. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to the
police?
A. wants to be known to the police
B. monetary reward
C. as good citizen
D. revenge
Ans. B
57. In surveillance, the following are done to hide the appearance of the surveillance vehicle
EXCEPT.
A. changing license plate of surveillance vehicle

B. putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
C. change of setting arrangement within the surveillance vehicle
D. keep the cars behind the subjects car
Ans. B
58. It is the entrustment of a particular workload to some other person within the organization.
A. Budgeting
B. Delegation
C. Inspection
D. Evaluation
Ans. B
59. Police personnel may be effectively distributed according to any of the following
classification, EXCEPT
A. by time B. by function
C. by area D. by gender
Ans. D
60. Fredrick the Great is known as the;
A. Father of Military Espionage
B. Intelligence Father
C. Great Intelligence Father
D. Father of Criminology
Ans. A
61. Protective lightning, perimeter barriers and _______________ systems are known in
industrial security as physical security.
A. Relieving B. Reporting
C. Accounting D. Guarding
Ans. D
62. What administrative support unit conducts investigation and evaluation of physical
evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronics Service
D. Finance Center
Ans. B
63. Those who are charge with actual fulfillments of agency’s mission are__________
personnel.
A. Staff B. Management
C. Supervision D. Line
Ans. D
64. Which of the following is contained in the heading of an intelligence report?
A. reporting unit
B. conclusion
C. signature of the Director
D. assessment of the operation
Ans. A
65. Licenses of private security guards are processed and issued by the;
A. Philippine National Police
B. National Police Commission
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Security and Exchange Commission
Ans. A
66. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigator is conducting
surveillance on him, the latter is,
A. cut out B. burnt out
C. sold out D. get out
Ans. B
67. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to -
A. prevent water runner
B. to ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. close the coupling
D. reduce vibration of the hydrant
Ans. D
68. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police
through;
A. foot patrol B. highway patrol
C. mobile Patrol D. helicopter patrol
Ans. A
69. Some of the instruction in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflections
D. retraces steps
Ans. D
70. On many occasions, the bulk of the most information comes from?
A. business world
B. an underworld
C. news clippings
D. communications media
Ans. D
71. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses, and graduates of forensic
science enter the police service as officers through;
A. regular promotion B. lateral entry

C. commissionship D. attrition
Ans. B
72. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-progress call has been received
through telephone or by direct alarm signal is to?
A. assign an investigator to investigate the witness

B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. send augmentation force
Ans. B
73. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as the
individual subordinate increases
B. decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. decrease as the duties of subordinates increase in difficulty and complexity
D. increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first-line supervisory level and
management level.
Ans. D
74. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his
subordinates be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the Block
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Oplan Pagbabago
Ans. A
75. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called;
A. annual plan B. long-term plan
C. strategic plan D. Midterm plan
Ans. C
76. What should be undertaken by a security officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security survey
C. security check
D. security education
Ans. B
77. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-
visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high visibility
Ans. A
78. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians
and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil relation unit

B. Traffic operation center
C. Traffic management command
D. Aviation security command
Ans. C
79. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different
senses.
A. Observation B. Research
C. Casing D. Interrogation
Ans. A
80. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the firefighter should avoid ____________________.
A. cutting a very large hole
B. cutting several small holes
C. cutting roof boards near the beams
D. making openings near the fire
Ans. D
81. Plans can be change to meet future requirements which were not considered during the
planning stages. This indicates ________________ in planning.
A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
Ans. C
82. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face

B. avoid eye contact
C. recognized fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
Ans. C
83. Pedro is a thief who is eyeing at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a
few meters from Maria. The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the
policed officer but the ________________ for successful theft is.
A. Ambition B. Intention
C. Feeling D. Opportunity
Ans. D
84. In intelligence evaluation, the evaluation rating of A-4 means;
A. completely reliable source - Doubtfully true information

B. Usually reliable source – Probably true information
C. fairly reliable source - Probably true information
D. Usually reliable source – Probably true information
Ans. A
85. In case of special anti-crime squad, it should be used during normal times to intensify
patrol in crime prone areas and it be restricted to ____________ and be given missions to
accomplish.
A. an area corresponding to two (2) beats
B. any area in the barangay
C. specific areas
D. general patrol area
Ans. C
86. It includes every procedure that has been outlined and officially adopted as the standard
method of action to be followed by members of the police organizations.
A. tactical plan B. management plan
C. procedural plan D. operational plan
Ans. C
87. A peace and Order Council is organized in every city/municipality by virtue of;
A. Executive Order 386
B. Executive Order 1012
C. Executive Order 309
D. Presidential Degree 118
Ans. C
88. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed
to the rank of?
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Senior Police Officer 1
C. Inspector
D. Superintendent
Ans. C
89. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans

B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
Ans. B
90. A plan for coping up an attack against building equipped with alarm system is an example
of?
A. extra-departmental plan
B. procedural plan
C. management plan
D. tactical plan
Ans. A
91. The random and unpredictable character of patrol, cultivation of feeling of police
omnipresence, high hazard areas, adequacy of the number of man to meet the need,
likelihood of criminal apprehension, and safety of control officers determine:
A. patrol coverage and deployment
B. degree of police-community relations
C. type of weapon to be used
D. deployment of intelligence agent
Ans. B
92. Before the objective of a plan can be formulated, the following must be recognized:
A. what resources are necessary to carry out the plan
B. who will implement the plan
C. when will be it implemented
D. the need to plan
Ans. D
93. One way of extending the power of observation is to get information from persons within
the vicinity. In police work, this is called:
A. Data gathering
B. Interrogation
C. Field inquiry
D. Interview
Ans. A
94. The presence of a uniformed patrol officer and observant of the persons and things
around, deters the desire and destroys the _________________ for one to commit crime.
A. Opportunity
B. Need
C. Intention
D. Ambition
Ans. A
95. Dogs have an acute sense of ____________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost
persons or illegal drugs.
A. Smell B. Eating
C. Hearing D. Drinking
Ans. A
96. Which of these statements is TRUE?
A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion

B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. Radiation is heat transfer through electromagnetic waves
Ans. D
97. Which cause the greatest number of fires?
A. spontaneous ignition
B. electrical wiring
C. leaking gas pipes
D. smoking and matches
Ans. B
98. Intelligence on ______________ makes heavy usage of geographic information because
law enforcement officials must know exact location to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Narcotics Trafficking
C. Human Cargo Trafficking
D. Economic Resources
Ans. C
99. Which of the following is the most ideally suited in evacuation and search-and-rescue
duties?
A. Motorcycle B. Patrol car

C. Helicopter D. Bicycle
Ans. C
100. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails the person or vehicle.
A. Investigation
B. Casing
C. Undercover Operation
D. surveillance
Ans. D
101. It is the LOWEST medal given to a PNP officer.
A. Medalya ng mabuting asal
B. Medalya ng papuri
C. Medalya ng karunungan
D. Medalya ng kasanayan
Ans.
102. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and the community
interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
A. Preventive Patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
Ans. C
103. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack or for
creating a clamor for police service is considered as:
A. Patrol hazards B. Patrol effort

C. Police discretion D. None of these
Ans. A
104. Disguise or secret observation of places, persons or vehicles for purpose of obtaining
information.
A. Evaluation B. Surveillance
C. Elicitation D. Infiltration
Ans. B
105. It requires the use of flashing light and siren and may violate traffic laws.
A. Roll call
B. Exit call
C. Emergency call
D. None of the above
Ans. C
106. It is the combination of analyzed data to form a logical picture.
A. Integration B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation D. Deception
Ans. A
107. The information is obtained through direct communication in which the other party is
unaware of the specific purpose of the conversation.
A. Integration B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation D. Deception
Ans. C
108. It is conducted when the subject is moving from one place to another.
A. Casing B. Lost
C. Made D. Shadowing
Ans. D
109. It is the total number of police officers assigned in patrol duties.
A. Mandatory strength
B. Effective strength
C. Physical strength
D. None of the foregoing
Ans. A
110. It is natural and man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
determining or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. fence B. barrier
C. wall D. hazard
Ans. B
111. It provides means and ways by which all persons and employees are trained to make
them security conscious and disciplined.
A. security check
B. security investigation
C. security education
D. security promotion
Ans. C
112. In disaster control operation, there is a need to establish a ______________ where
telephone or other means of communication shall ensure public lines of communication.
A. Command post B. Field room

C. Operation center D. Safe house
Ans. A
113. MOSSAD is for Israel, CIA is for what?
Philippines
Great Britain
Russia
USA
Ans. D
114. Protective lightning, perimeter barriers and _______________ systems are known in
industrial security as physical security.
A. Relieving B. Reporting
C. Accounting D. Guarding
Ans. D
115. What should be undertaken by a security officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security survey
C. security check
D. security education
Ans. B
116. Plans can be change to meet future requirements which were not considered during the
planning stages. This indicates ________________ in planning.
A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
Ans. C
117. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities of
Blue Sagittarius Group. He is in what unit of the police?
A. Criminal investigation
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk
Ans. C
118. If the information or documents are produced openly without regard as to whether the
subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose/s for which it is being
gathered.
A. Overt operation B. Covert operation
C. Evaluation D. Interpretation
Ans. A
119. It is the type of intelligence activity which deals with defending of the organization against
its criminal activities.
A. Counter intelligence
B. Military intelligence
C. Military information
D. Strategic intelligence
Ans. A
120. In intelligence, what is meant by C.B.I?
A. Complete Background Investigation
B. Complete Background Investigator
C. Complete Back draft Investigation
D. Competent Background Investigator
Ans. A
121. A uniformed PNP personnel who is permanently disabled in his performance of his duties
can receive ______ of basic salary retirement.
A. 70% B. 80%
C. 90% D. 60%
Ans. B
NCV REVIEW CENTER
CRIMINAL SOSIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS
JUNE 2019
only.
1. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not should avoid unpleasant
habits which affect not only himself as an individual member, but also the whole organization
where he belongs.
a. Sleeping on duty
b. Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
c. Partisan police activities
2. The general rule is that a member of the PNP cannot draw his firearms, except for-
a. Necessary apprehension of criminals
b. Necessary target practice
c. Necessary inspection or lawful use
3. It is the process by which we use or manipulate representation or symbols.
a. Thinking
b. Intuition
c. Perceiving
d. Memory
4. It is everyone’s duty and obligation regardless of his intelligence, degree of education, social
standing, religion, sect, or color etc.
a. Code of ethics
b. Public office is a public thrust
c. Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution
d. Loyalty and love of country
5. Deficiencies in the CJS can be manifested by the following circumstances, except-
a. Poor linkage or relationship among the 5 pillars
b. Poor image or credibility of and controversies in law enforcement
c. Widespread indifference and apathy of the community
d. Proper disposition of cases by the prosecution and court
6. This involves functions of the police to ensure compliance by regulatory means with public
safety and security.
a. Implement law
b. Enforce traffic and crowd laws
c. Arrest and investigate criminals
d. Regulate non-criminal conduct
7. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Assassination
b. Bombing
c. Sabotage
d. Prostitution
8. It is known as an Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15 years of age in
public and private undertakings.
a. Republic Act 7610
b. Republic Act 7658
c. Republic Act 8551
d. Presidential Decree 603
9. Assume that you are a police officer and you found out that you have unjustly reprimanded
police officer Juan de la Cruz. The best procedure to follow is-
a. Justify the reprimand
b. Talk to him and admit your mistakes
c. Make no apology but tolerate his behavior
d. Ignore the matter
10. This is a term applied for a specialist in the study of disorders, sometimes interchangeably
used with psychiatrist.
a. Anthropologist
b. Alienist
c. Autophobia
d. Biometry
11. Inconsistent and wise use of discretion, base on professional policing competence, will do
much to preserve good relationship and retain the confidence of the public. This statement is
__________.
a. Absolutely correct
b. Absolutely wrong
c. Maybe correct
d. Neither correct or wrong
12. What disciplinary measure, do you think, will most likely produce discontentment and
grievance?
a. Unusual strictness
b. Inconsistent administration
c. Severity of punishment
d. Impersonal attitude
13. This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the crime committed.
a. Positivist theory
b. Neo-classical theory
c. Classical theory
d. Differential Association Theory
14. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or bundle unless it is
needed in the performance of his duty. The likelihood, the said officer will be misinterpreted to
______.
a. Have accepted favors
b. Be a comprador for his wife
c. A trim appearance while in uniform is important
d. All of the forgoing
15.Before the development of scientist theorist, this theory involved believing that criminal
behavior is caused by the possession of evil spirits.
a. Demonological
b. Classical
c. Italian
d. Neo-classical
16. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment to the Revise
Penal Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and Memorandum Circulars.
a. Special Law
b. Constitution
c. Revised Penal Code
d. Common Law
17. It is a kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or moved from one
place to another for the purpose of cheap labor.
a. Slavery
b. Banishment
c. Transportation
d. Penal colony
18. Justice according to the Supreme Court is symbolically represented by a blindfolded
woman holding a sword and with a balance, meaning it is?
a. Administered with respect to persons
b. Administered without respect to persons, equality to poor and the rich
c. Administered without respect to persons. Equality to poor people
d. Administered with respect to persons, Equality and Treatment
19. Which agency is responsible for the custody and rehabilitation of youthful offenders?
a. Boards of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Bureau of Corrections
20. Are those who commit crime due to abnormalities or psychological disorders. They should
be exempted from criminal liability.
a. Born criminals
b. Insane criminals
c. Criminaloids
d. Criminal by passion
21. It is defined as the wise use of one’s judgment, common sense and personal experience in
deciding.
a. Discretion
b. Decision making
c. Problem solving
22. A police officer on witness stand is not called upon to express his view about the case, nor
to tell what he heard others say about it, nor to make a speech. Of the following, the most
accurate statement of this situation is that –
a. Be courteous
b. To tell the truth and nothing but the truth
c. Do not volunteer
23. The basic weapon of a police officer is?
a. Gun
b. Uniform
c. Whistle
d. Knowledge of the law
24. It is defined as the sum total of dealings between the police and the people it serves and
whose goodwill and cooperation it craves for the greatest possible efficiency in the service.
a. Public Relations
b. Human Relations
c. Police Community Relations
d. Police information and education
25. Which of the following is the most important function of good public relation officers of a
police station?
a. Training of police members
b. Generating community awareness and support
c. Recruiting qualified applicant
d. Planning and special projects
26. The term “police” can be defined in two ways. This definition refers to the creation of the
police under the Constitution forming a part of the executive department in charge in the
apprehension of offenders and to execute the law.
a. As to agency
b. As to behavior
c. As to individual
d. As to organization
27. The form of child abuse that can range from habitual humiliation of the child to withholding
life-sustaining nurturing refers to –
a. Mental abuse
b. Emotional abuse
c. Physical abuse
d. Economic abuse
28. He advocated a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements.
Because human skeleton is unchangeable after the twentieth year and because no two
individuals are alike in all dimensions; this method of identification received prominence in
1880’s.
a. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Charles Darwin
c. Cesar Lombroso
d. Charles Goring
29. Dominated by Pleasure principle, through which the individual is pressed for immediate
gratification of his or her desires.
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
30. The theory which states that police officers who know the wrongdoing of another police
officer will not take action against them or provide information against them to investigators.
a. Code of ethical standards
b. Code of Secrecy
c. Blue wall of silence
31. He founded the Positive School of Criminology in the Nineteenth Century.
a. Cessare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Charles Goring
d. Calvin Goddard
32. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall take legitimate means to achieve goals
despite of internal and external difficulties.
a. Perseverance
b. Humility
c. Orderliness
d. Integrity
33. It means more than reporting to work on time. It involves as well as every detail of the
policeman’s daily activity.
a. Protection of the underdog
b. Maltreatment of offenders
c. Punctuality to calls, requirements of duty, etc.
d. Due process of law
34. It is a morbid fear of one’s self or of being alone.
a. Monophobia
b. Megalomania
c. Autophobia
d. Kleptomania
35. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle conversation while on duty. Specifically this
prohibition refers to-
a. Gossip and idle talk
b. Communication outside organization
c. Vexing of humiliating other
36. It is a strategic position to prevent crime and delinquency. It receives him when he is
young, observes, supervises, and teaches him for many hours each week during some of his
most impressionable years.
a. Home
b. Religion
c. School
d. Police agency
37. One of the following is not a cause of juvenile delinquency:
a. Neglected homes
b. Police inefficiency
c. Lack of proper guidance
d. Delinquent parents
38. Police officer shall treat official business as such, and shall no impart the same to anyone
except those for whom it is intended, or as by his superior officer, or as required by law. This
Phrase describes-
a. Confession
b. Confidential information
c. criminal investigation
d. Secrecy discipline
39. Which of the following should not released to the press by the police officer?
a. Length of investigation
b. Juveniles age
c. Juveniles name
d. Type of crime committed
40. What is meant by victimless crime?
a. There is no victim
b. There is no complaining Victim
c. The victim is dead
d. The victim knows the suspect
41. A person who commits crime due to less physical stamina or self control.
a. Criminaloids
b. Criminal by passion
c. Insane criminal
d. Born criminal
42. The center stage of Police Officers actions wherein his spectators are the citizens he has
sworn to serve with utmost dedication is the –
a. Court
b. Community
c. Police station
43. It is considered as the weakest pillar in the Philippine Criminal Justice System because
they fail to reform offenders and prevent them from returning to criminal life.
a. Police
b. Prosecution
c. Correctional institutions
d. Community
44. Who constitutes the Holy Three in Criminology?
1. Cesare Lomborso 2. Emile Durkheim
3. Enrico Ferri 4. Rafael Garofalo
a. 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
45. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self interest in keeping with the
time honored principle of _____________.
a. Delikadeza
b. Pakikisama
c. Balikatan
46. Growth, learning, maturation, are part of natural development of –
a. A child
b. An adolescent
c. Senile
d. Old age
47. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and is concerned with
the application of knowledge regarding crime to social programs of crime prevention and
control.
a. Etiology of crime
b. Criminalist
c. Criminology
d. Criminal process
48. Republic Act No. 8551 provides for the reorganization of the Philippine National Police.
Which of the following is NOT a guiding policy in the preparation of reorganization plan?
a. Enhancement of community and service orientation to the police
b. Maintenance of a civilian and national police force
c. Attainment of efficiency and effectiveness
d. Adaptation of military command structures
49. They are atavists according to Lombroso because they have inherited their criminal
tendencies.
a. Born criminals
b. Criminal by Passion
c. Insane criminals
d. Criminaloids
50. Typology of crime simply means –
a. Categorization or type of crime
b. Crime situation
c. Extent of crime
d. Crime trend
51. The key to professionalism is the implementation of a _______________ program which
includes the equitable distribution of recruitment, fair promotion, rationalized approach in
assignment, skills development, grant of reward and award, and decent living upon retirement.
a. Compensation
b. Press relation officer
c. Human resource development
d. Organizational development
52. The Neo-classical theory believes that children and lunatics should not be regarded as
criminal and punished because –
a. They are special people
b. They cannot calculate pleasure and pain
c. They cannot complain
d. They are under age
53. Ms Judith was under underweight when she was issued a temporary appointment. What
will happen to her if she does not gain the required weight after six (6) months from her
appointment?
a. She will be charge for violation of recruitment policy
b. She will be put under probation
c. She will be dismissed from one service
d. She will be reassigned
54. The goal of any juvenile justice system is to –
a. Punish children
b. Remove children from streets
c. Save children from becoming criminals
d. Ensure that children are in school
55. A police officer must wear his uniform securely buttoned at all times because –
a. A complete uniform attracts “chicks”
b. A neat appearance commands respect
c. Loose clothing is likely to catch obstruction
56. This political violence is used to promote political goals and employs kidnapping,
assassination and bombing to draw repressive response from government trying to defense
themselves.
a. Insurgency
b. Sabotage
c. Espionage
d. Terrorism
57. Strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of mafia members
a. Code and cipher
b. Omerta
c. Code of ethics
58. There are _____ justices that composed the Supreme Court including the chief justice.
a. 15
b. 12
c. 20
d. 24
59. Who has the peace-keeping responsibility and to act as auxiliaries of the law?
a. Congressman
b. Mayor
c. Barangay Captain
d. Councilors
60. According to Adolphe Quetelet, crimes against property increases during __________.
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Night time
d. All of the above
61. It is term as the relationship between the victim and the offender.
a. Penal couple
b. Brotherhood
c. Married couple
62. Also known as the “Family Courts Act”.
a. Republic Act No. 9165
b. Republic Act No. 6713
c. Republic Act No. 7160
d. Republic Act No. 8369
63. The prosecutor in court hearing represents the;
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Police investigator
d. The State and the people
64. This process see to it that no person will be deprived of life, liberty, or property without
notice of charges, legal counsel, a hearing, and an opportunity to confront accusers.
a. Plea bargaining
b. Booking
c. Bail
d. Due process
65. Republic Act No. 6975 did not amend its provision on the ____________ power of city
executives in spite of lobbying to have them in congress, the power still remains with the
National Police Commission.
a. Hire and fire
b. Appointing
c. Promoting
d. Dismissing
66. Compulsory retirement from police service entitles one to be promoted one rank higher
from the rank he last held, for purpose of?
a. Monthly retirement
b. Retirement pay
c. Salary adjustment
d. Longevity pay
67. When a person was subjected to some shocking experiences leaving him with painful
memories, repressed and can no longer be recalled, he is suffering from this disorder,
a. Delusion
b. Amnesia
c. Phobia
d. Dementia praecox
68. The rank of Police Senior Superintendent is required to become a,
a. Police Director
b. Police Superintendent
c. PNP Regional Director
d. Police Chief Superintendent
69. All statements are correct except one.
a. Attitudes are inherited, not learned
b. Defective character is related to deviant behavior
c. Mass media has an influence on delinquent behavior
d. Loyalty to gang compels the members to conform
70. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How many
crimes were reported to the police?
a. 22, 868
b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250
d. 32, 644
71. Sexual deviation is attained in this deviant behavior by watching nude man or woman.
a. Exhibitionism
b. Transvertism
c. Voyeurism
d. Fetishism
72. This is an ethical standard that requires all PNP members to follow logical procedures in
accomplishing their duties in order to minimize waste of time, money and efforts.
a. Morality
b. Justice
c. Humility
d. Orderliness
73. The mental attitude of every policemen is of vital importance in police works because,
a. police works calls for executive abilities
b. police job requires the ability to make vital calculation
c. a police officer must keep calm in order to think clearly in an emergency and critical
situations
d. a policeman usually has to act before he has the chance to think
74. Who said that crime is normal and part of nature society?
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Charles Goring
c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Cesare Lombroso
75. There is ___________ if the killing was considered beforehand and that it was motivated
by more than simple desire to engage in an act of violence.
a. Implied malice
b. Deliberation
c. Premeditation
d. Express malice
76. An offender who committed an act of violence, more than nine years of age but less than
18 at the time of the commission of the crime, is classified as,
a. Juvenile Offender
b. Adult Offender
c. Habitual Offender
d. Professional criminal
77. Under the PNP Reform Bill known as the RA 8551, thee police ranks are maintained. What
is the equivalent military rank of a Police Chief Superintendent?
a. Colonel
b. Lt. Colonel
c. Major General
d. Brigadier General
78. The body of an _________ person is short, fat, and small-boned. He is easy-going and a
very comfortable person.
a. Mesomorph
b. Endomorph
c. Ectomorph
d. Chronomorph
79. A behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form adjustment and attempt to
experience them again in memory.
a. Anger
b. Phobia
c. Regression
d. Frustration
80. Police officers trained on how to deal with people in a warm and friendly manner are more
skilled in handling ____________works.
a. Media relation
b. International relation
c. Press relation
d. Public relation
81. The promulgation of the Code of Kalantiaw was in what year?
a. 1433
b. 1444
c. 1434
d. 1435
82. With a population of 195,000 and a volume crime of 2,540, in Municipality A, What is its
crime rate?
a. 1465.2
b. 1203.5
c. 1230.6
d. 1302.6
83. How do you classify a family or home condition where death, or separation, or desertion
occurred?
a. Broken home
b. Family disintegration
c. Family migration
84. They are considered as juvenile offenders when they committed a crime at their given
ages;
1. Jimmy who is 9 years old
2. Rosa, 22 years old
3. Peter, 19 years old
4. Rodrigo, 15 years old
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 3
85. Where war or internal conflict is present, children found in those areas are referred to as,
a. Children of war
b. Affected children
c. Victims of situation
d. Zones of peace
86. The security preservation of the state is assumed by the PNP in the national level, and the
AFP in the external level. However, the AFP can take over primary responsibilities over
internal or national security when the situation calls for them, as
Given below, EXCEPT,
a. There is a need for the employment of bigger tactical forces and use of higher caliber
armaments
b. Insurgents have penetrated much of the community
c. Index crimes are mostly committed
d. These are serious threats to national security and great disturbance of peace and order
87. The most important supervisory principle in any office in order to improve the morale of the
staff is;
a. To be fair and just
b. To be strict on attendance
c. To be kind and respectful
d. To be more forgiving
88. It is a contemporary approach that relates behavior to events taking place inside the body,
specifically the brain and the nervous system.
a. Psychoanalytic approach
b. Neurobiological approach
c. Cognitive approach
d. Phenomenological approach
89. Eviction or demolition of squatters calls for the policemen to,
a. Exercise maximum tolerance while giving security assistance
b. Exercise limited force
c. Exercise maximum force in dealing with squatters
d. Participate in actual demolition
90. What will happen to the sentence rendered by the court to a boy of 10 who raped a girl of
his age?
a. Mitigated
b. Suspended
c. Serve
d. Commuted
91. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is classified as,
a. Neglected
b. Dependent
c. Abandoned
d. Abused
92. Criminal physical anthropology refers to the study of the relationship of crime to the
______.
a. Environment
b. Physical constitution of man
c. Given population
d. Spatial distribution of crime in a given area
93. Police immorality is exampled by,
a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Smoking while patrolling
c. Being constantly absent from work
d. Reporting to work not in uniform
94. Which statement can be considered FALSE?
a. People in early centuries believes that man’s behavior is caused by good or evil spirits
b. All human behaviors are motivated, that drives gives direction and sustain action
c. Extended family is a common and accepted fact in any Filipino community
d. Religion is never necessary in the improvement of behavior
95. When may age, height, weight, and educational requirements among police applicants be
waived?
a. Only when the PNP has declared an annual quota
b. Only when the applicant has a recommendation from the mayor
c. Only when the number of qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota
d. Only when all applicants have submitted their applications
96. In a given jurisdiction, who exercises control and supervision of anti gambling operations?
a. Police Provincial Director
b. Local Chief executives
c. Police Regional Directors
d. Chief of Police
97. A process in court pillar of our criminal justice system where the accused is brought before
the court and appraised of the formal charges and informed of his constitutional rights. What is
this process?
a. Plea bargaining
b. Custodial investigation
c. Arraignment
d. Preliminary investigation
98. Policemen reports on a three (3) working shifts. However, they sometimes extend working
hours due to,
a. Overtime pay
b. Individual discretion
c. need for more policemen
d. Inadequate manpower
99. He was referred to as the “Father of Modern Criminology”.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Cesare Beccaria
100. The study of crime’s relation to environment is referred to –
a. Criminal Demography
b. Criminal Epidemiology
c. Criminal Ecology
d. Criminal Physical Anthropology
101. It is the smallest unit of society composed of people who share a way of life, a definite
location and has some continuity.
a. Society
b. Population
c. Family
d. Associations
102. The Chief PNP exercises ________ since he has lawful authority over his subordinates
by virtue of his rank, position and assignment.
a. Order
b. Administration
c. Control
d. Command
103. Unusual emergencies that happens and absence of superior officers leaves the
policeman to handle the situation properly, the best procedure to follow is?
a. Take no action
b. Confer with any other superior
c. Act according to one’s judgment
d. Confer immediately with other police officers on the best action to take
104. The command and direction of the Chief PNP may be delegated to ___________ officials
with respect to the units under their respective command.
a. Subordinate
b. Next-in-rank
c. Qualified
d. Efficient
105. Who among the following can be considered an applicant to the PNP?
a. Jose, born on January 25, 1981
b. Protacio, born on February 14, 1989
c. Rizal, born on March 27, 1975
d. Mercado, born on April 1, 1969
106. The __________ is still considered as the most basic institution which has control over
the behavior of young persons.
a. Family
b. School
c. Church
d. Peer group
107. This statement is FALSE.
a. Heredity and environment play a part in the behavior of an individual
b. Fraternal twins have identical hereditary traits
c. Personality is the product of body and soul
d. Heredity is the talent transferred through the genes from parents to siblings
108. All PNP members should try to create a positive image of the police in the eyes of the
public in line with its _________ building program.
a. People’s awareness
b. Human relations
c. Image building
d. Educational
109. Police –to-population ratio in urban areas, ideally should be,
a. 1:1000
b. 1:750
c. 1:900
d. 1:500
110. When the incarcerated convicted offender undergoes rehabilitation inside jails, they are
undergoing?
a. Institutional treatment
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Community-based treatment
111. The Chief PNP has term of ______ years.
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
112. The purpose of a police public relations program is,
a. Train police officers in community relation program
b. Recruit new members for community relation program
c. Develop mutual understanding between the police and the public
d. Plan for a police-community relation program
113. This theory states that the crime and delinquency results when an individual’s bond to
society is weak or broken.
a. Social learning
b. Social structure
c. Social process
d. Social control
114. This theory states that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry
determines IQ; and that low IQ is linked to behavior, including criminal behavior.
a. Cultural deviance theory
b. Labeling theory
c. Nature theory
d. Strain theory
115. Excessive use of force or police brutality by some members of the PNP is a violation of
human rights and police ethical standards. It is mandated that all PNP members shall exercise
proper and ___________ use of authority in the performance of duty.
a. Proportionate
b. Ethical
c. Effective
d. Legitimate
116. In Differential Association Theory, ______________ stressed that criminal conduct is
learned behavior and that learning occur through communication and association with others
who are with criminal mind.
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Cesar Montano
d. Edwin Sutherland
117. They play an important role by bringing criminal events to the police.
a. Media
b. Judges
c. Jail guards
d. Janitor
118. The need to assault or injure somebody is referred to as?
a. Need recognition
b. Need aggression
c. Need difference
d. Need order
119. Presidential Decree 603 deals with _________ offender, whose age is less than nine but
under 18 at the time of the commission of an offense.
a. Habitual
b. Professional
c. Minor
d. Adult
120. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ?
a. Command of word
b. High level of education
c. Ability to make good reports
d. High morale
121. Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as public order
crime or?
a. Crimes against person
b. Victimless crime
c. Physical crime
d. Public scandal
122. When PNP members and their families involved themselves in religious, social, and civic
activities in the community, it enhances ___________ which will work well for the image of the
police.
a. Camaraderie
b. Social awareness
c. Responsiveness
d. Effectiveness
123. There is a trend in criminal activities which was studied that as one grows older, there is
also a decline in criminal activities. This is known as,
a. Aging-out phenomenon
b. Age-line curve
c. Parkinson’s law
d. Age-crime relationship
124. There are four inspection and audit authorities that conducts agency check on the PNP.
They are; The NAPOLCOM, Civil Service Commission, Commission on Audit, and
A. NBI
b. IAS,PNP
c. DOJ
d. Presidential Management Staff
125. Appeals from the decision given by the Chief, PNP regarding a case, are filed with the,
a. PNP Summary Disciplinary Board
b. Peoples Law Enforcement Board
c. NAPOLCOM National Appellate Board
d. NAPOLCOM Regional Appellate Board
126. A strange development of mutual feeling between the hostage and the hostage taker due
to the prolong time of negotiation is known as,
a. Camaraderie
b. Stockholm syndrome
c. Successful negotiation
d. Sympathy
127. The law that provides care and treatment of youthful offenders from apprehension to the
termination of the case is,
a. RA 7610
b. PD 603
c. PD 6975
d. RA 6425
128. It is the unwritten authority given to police officers to make decision, using ones own
judgment based on justice and fairness.
a. Negotiation
b. Discretion
c. Arraignment
d. Plea bargaining
129. The PNP belongs to one of the most inspected and audited agencies of the government
where audit and inspection are handled by the following authorities; NAPOLCOM, Civil Service
Commission, Internal Affairs Service, PNP and,
a. Department of Justice
b. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Commission on Audit
d. Presidential Management staff
130. This theory states that obedience to the norms of lower-class culture places people in
conflict with norms of the dominant culture.
a. Theory of anomie
b. Strain theory
c. Differential association theory
d. Culture conflict theory
131. This theory considers delinquent behavior as result of people’s frustration and anger over
their inability to achieved legitimate social and financial success.
a. Classical
b. Sociological
c. Labeling
d. Strain
132. Which of the following factors are considered as psychologically related to delinquent
behavior?
1. learning capacity
2. mental deficiency and retardation
3. mental psychological set-up
4. emotional imbalances
5. personal problems
a.2,3,4, and 5
b.1,2,3, and 4
c. 1,3,4, and 5
d. 1,5,4, and 3
133. Presidential Decree Number 9344, the most recent bill that deals with youthful offenders
whose age is fifteen and below, is also known as,
a. Comprehensive Juvenile Justice System
b. Juvenile Justice Welfare System
c. Juvenile Justice Welfare Code
d. Comprehensive Justice System
134. “Parens Patriae” in legal term means –
a. Parents of the accused
b. Parents of the State
c. Parents of the Victim
135. Moral aspect of personality that judges our personality and is also known as the
conscience.
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Super ego
136. He developed the study of body build and criminal behavior or Somatotype School, which
held that manifest distinct physiques that makes them susceptible to particular types of
delinquent behavior.
a. Charles Goring
b. William Sheldon
c. Charles Darwin
d. Edwin Sutherland
137. Girls see her mother as rival for her father’s attention is termed as –
a. Oedipus Complex
b. Electra
c. Mental retardation
138.Crimes that is committed when members of a group are prevented from achieving their
fullest potential because of status bias.
a. Hate crimes
b. Crimes of repression
c. Violent crimes
d. Discriminative crimes
139. The study of criminal behavior involving research on the links between different types of
crimes and criminals.
a. Criminal typology
b. Criminology
c. Crime typology
140. A branch of criminology that examines change in criminal career over the life course.
a. Strain theory
c. Developmental theory
b. Differential Association theory
d. Biosocial theory
141. Refers to the mental processes of criminals in action.
a. Criminogenic process
c. Human behavior
b. Criminal behavior
d. Criminal sychodynamics
142 Refers to morbid propensity to make love.
a. Erotomania
b. Megalomania
c. Logomacy
d. Dipsomania
143 He developed a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements, his
method of identification centered on the fact that no two individuals are alike in all dimensions.
a. Dr. Charles Goring
b. Alphonse Bertillon
c. RH Goddard
d. John Howard
144. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on
the need for equality among all citizen. They provided statistical data which claimed to show
that variations in crime rates are associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Carthographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Sociological and Social-Psychological School
145 This school on crime causation is primarily concerned with the distribution of crimes in
certain areas both social and geographical.
a. Carthographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Sociological and Social-Psychological School
146 The study of victimology, which deals on the role of the victim in the commission of a
crime is also referred to as:
a. Crime target
b. Criminal anthropology
c. Criminal ecology
d. Criminal psychology
147 Jose a 16 year old child, usually commits petty crimes as a form of rebellion brought about
by communication gap, disrespect and conflict with his parents may be classified as a:
a. Environmental delinquent
b. Emotional maladjusted delinquent
c. Psychiatric delinquent
d. Juvenile delinquent
148 This specific theory of criminal law argues that crime is essentially a morbid and mental
phenomenon and as such it cannot be solely treated by the application of abstract principles of
jurisprudence.
a. Classical Theory
b. Neo-classical theory
c. Positive Theory
d. Modern theory
149 This explains that crime is a result of free will of men; but committed due to some
compelling reasons that prevailed upon the person to commit a crime.
a. Classical School of
b. Neo Classical School of Thought
c. Positive School of Thought
d. Italian School of Thought
150 This School of Thought advocated that criminals are essentially born.
a. Classical School of Thought
b. Neo Classical School of Thought
c. Positive School of Thought
d. Clinical School of Thought
151 Those who commit crimes because they are pushed to it by inducement, reward or
promise without considering its consequences.
a. Passive inadequate criminals
c. Socialized delinquents
b. Active aggressive criminals
d. Chronic criminals
152 This theory in the causes of crime states that crime may be caused by one or more
factors, while in other instances caused by another set of factors.
a. Single theory
c. Multiple factor theory
b. Unitary cause theory
d. Eclectic theory
153 Refers to the reversion of man to his apelike ancestor.
a. Stigmata
b. Atavism
c. Anomaly
154 The study of the relationship between facial features and human conduct of a person in
relation to his crimes.
a. Craniology
b. Phrenology
c. Physiognomy
d. All of the above
155 Discipline should be strict but must always be tempered with sympathy and
understanding. To abide by this principle, a superior officer must:
a. Investigate thoroughly all the facts before making a decision
b. Always implement the policies, rules and regulations
c. Treat all personnel equally.
d. Always listen to the explanation of the erring subordinate.
156 Willful and continuous commission of minor offenses shall constitute:
a. Felony
c. Ground for dismissal
b. Recidivism
d. Serious offense of habitual dereliction
157 Reason why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely buttoned.
a. Loose clothing is shabby.
b. A complete uniform gets women’s attention
c. It is a minor offense
d. A neat appearance will command respect
158 It concerns those actions that pertain to one’s duties towards his neighbors and himself.
a. Moral virtue
b. Dignity
c. Responsibility
d. Discipline
159 Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers in the performance of their duties.
a. Command responsibility
c. Maximum tolerance
b. Parens Patria
d. Rules of engagement
Power to own, use and exact something.
a. Authority
b. Privilege
c. Right
d. All of these
160 Authority a person exercise over his subordinates.
a. Command
c. Command responsibility
b. Responsibility
d. Chain of command
161 A normative science of the conduct of human being living in a society.
a. Norms
b. Behavior
c. Ethics
d. Virtue
162 A virtue which regulates carnal appetite for sensual pleasure.
a. Prudence
b. Temperament
c. Fortitude
d. Justice
163 Ability to last.
a. Patience
b. Endurance
c. Perseverance
d. Fortitude
164 Courage to endure without yielding.
a. Perseverance
b. Endurance
c. Fortitude
d. Perseverance
165 Composure and calmness in enduring something.
a. Perseverance
b. Endurance
c. Patience
d. Prudence
166 The ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity.
a. Perseverance
b. Endurance
c. Patience
d. Prudence
167 Which of the following traits/capabilities is most essential to a police officer?
a. Physical stamina and hearing
c. High intelligence
b. Absence of physical fear
d. High standard of morality
168 Is the process which constantly endeavors to obtain good will cooperation and support of
public for effective law enforcement and to accomplish police objectives.
a. Public relations
b. Community relations
c. Police public relation
d. Police community relations
169 The most important medium to determine public attitudes between the police and the
public is the:
a. Radio and Television
c. Individual policeman
b. Print Mass Media
d. Public Relations Officer
170 A remorseful, cold, vicious and brutal delinquent.
a. Social delinquent
b. Asocial delinquent
c. Neurotic delinquent
d. Accidental delinquent
171 Refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with the law.
a. Juvenile
b. Delinquent
c. Habitual criminals
d. Recidivist
172 It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social structures.
a. Biogenic approach
b. Sociogenic approach
c. Psychogenic approach
d. All of these
172 It explains delinquency is a result of critical factors such as personality problems to which
misbehavior is a response mechanism.
d. None of these
173 Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary defect.
d. Biologic approach
174 This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of factors such as personal
problems, ignorance, and curiosity.
a. Predisposing factor
b. Biologic factor
c. Precipitating factor
d. Environmental factor
175 Refers to inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one unless there is
a probability that a crime will be committed.
a. Predisposing factor
c. Biologic factor
b. Precipitating factor
d. Environmental factor
176 Refers to a type of delinquent gang which in which the manipulation of violence
predominates as a way of winning status and respect.
a. Criminal sub culture
b. Conflict sub-culture
b. Juvenile gang
d. Retreatist sub culture
177 A child with no parent or guardian.
a. Abandoned child
b. Neglected child
c. Dependent child
d. All of these
178 If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the
commission of the crime, he is often referred to as?
a. Socialized delinquent
b. Youth offender
c. Criminal
d. Truant
179 Not a mere creature of the state but regarded as its most important asset.
a. Family
b. Women
c. Child
d. Youth
180 Basic unit of society.
a. Family
b. Church
c. School
d. Community
181 Foundation of the nation.
a. Family
b. Church
c. School
d. Community
182 Implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring.
a. Control
b. Prevention
c. Repression
d. Recession
183 Acknowledges the existence of unlawful behavior.
a. Control
b. Prevention
c. Repression
d. Recession
184 Community hazards harmful to youth.
a. Undesirable conditions
b. Obstruction
c. Attractive nuisance
d. Police hazards
185 A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
a. Retreatist sub culture
c. Criminal subculture
b. Conflict sub culture
d. All of these
186 The most important person in hostage crisis situations.
a. Negotiator
b. Commander
c. Hostage taker
d. Hostage
187 In hostage taking incidents, there should be how may number of negotiators?
a.1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
188 If one unit head is constantly bogged down with detail work. And investigation revealed
that this overload did not take place under same conditions but different predecessors, what is
the logical reason for such overload?
a. The division has incompetent supervisors
b. The division has too many supervisors
c. He assigns to much important work to his subordinates
d. He failed to implement proper delegation
189 A type of reaction to facts of relationship between the individual and his environment
which is substituted.
a. Habitual
b. Symbolic
c. Instinctive
d. Complex
190 An attribute of human behavior which concerns function of time.
a. Duration
b. Extensity
c. Intensity
d. Quantity
191 Human behavior in terms of magnitude.
a. Duration
b. Extensity
c. Intensity
d. Quantity
192 It refers to two or more habitual behavior which occurs in one situation, such as smoking
in bed after a sexual intercourse.
a. Habitual
b. Symbolic
c. Instinctive
d. Complex
193 It refers to knowledge of stimulus.
C. Sensation
b. Perception
c. Awareness
d. All of these
194 Impression of stimulus by utilizing one’s sense of smell.
a. Olfactory
b. Cutaneous
c. Auditory
d. Gustatory
195 Mike after tasting an unripe mango grimaced this sensation is said to be:
a. Olfactory
b. Cutaneous
c. Auditory
d. Gustatory
196 It refers to a psychological activity according to the interpretation and experience.
a.Sensation
b. Perception
c. Awareness
d. a –b – c
197 It speaks of an attribute of human behavior which deals with spatial characteristics.
a. Duration
b. Extensity
c. Intensity
d. Quantity
198 In terms of normality and abnormality, what attribute of human behavior is manifested?
a. Duration
b. Extensity
c. Intensity
d. Quantity
199 A peeping tom who gains gratification by seeing nude woman/man in some form of sexual
act.
a. Transvetism
b. Fetishism
c. Exhibitionism
d. Voyeurism
200 Connotes hypersensitivity, unwarranted suspicion, envy and jealousy.
a. Compulsive personality disorder
b. Paranoid personality disorder*
c. Hysterical personality disorder
d. Passive aggressive personality disorder
201 It refers to an abnormal behavior caused by environment.
a. Functional
b. Organic
c. Psycho physiological
d. Neuroses
202 When anxiety, depression or unusual fear(phobia) is displayed it refers to:
a. Neuroses
b. Psycho physiological
c. Psychoses
d. Personality disorder
203 Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most important function in
the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through the speedy
delivery of services particularly in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service
c. Sandigan Bayan
b. Tanod Bayan
d. Ombudsman
204 Refers to all disciplines involved in the study of crimes and criminals.
a. Criminology
b. Crime prevention
c. Criminological enterprise
d. Crime control
205 Refers to restraining or isolating criminals behind prison facilities to effectively protect
society.
a. Crime control
b. Crime prevention
c. Crime deterrence
206 The political will of the state to punish criminals in accordance with law.
a. Crime control
b. Crime prevention
c. Crime deterrence
207 Refers to all governmental and non-governmental activities to thwart, preempt and stop
the crime from occurring.
a. Crime control
b. Crime prevention
c. Crime deterrence
208 In the attempt to prevent crimes, what must be eliminated by the police?
a. Opportunity to commit crimes
b. Desire to commit crimes
c. Motives to commit crimes
d. Intent to commit crimes
209 Primary objective of law enforcement.
a. Crime control
b. Crime prevention
c. Crime deterrence
210 An attached agency of the office of the president tasked to implement and undertake drug
law enforcement.
a. Narcotics command
b. DARE
c. PDEA
d. PNP
211 In making arrests under rule 113, Sec 5, par 3(fugitives from justice) of the rules of court,
what is the duty of the arresting officer?
a. Deliver the person to the nearest jail
b. Deliver the person to the nearest police station
c. Deliver the person to the custody of the prosecutor
d. Either a and b
212 When an offense has in fact been committed, and he has personal knowledge of facts
indicating that the person to be arrested has committed it; this contemplates warantless arrest
involving:
a. Hot pursuit
b. Caught in the act
c. Fresh pursuit
d. Both a and b
213 Refers to all the systems and interplay of activities in the community which addresses all
the negative factors affecting security, health and welfare of the public in natural calamities,
disaster, famine, criminality, drought and epidemics.
a. Crime control
c. Crime prevention
b. Crime deterrence
d. Social defense
214 A blueprint for a responsive and well suited anti crime machinery that shall operate its
strategic purposes.
a. Crime control
b. National Anti Crime Strategy
c. Crime prevention
d. Social defense
215 Period prescribed by law for the preliminary investigation to be undertaken by the
prosecutor.
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days
216 It is defined as “… The machinery of the state or government which enforces the rules of
conduct necessary to protect life and property and maintain peace and order”.
a. Juvenile justice system
c. Criminal procedures
b. Due process
d. Criminal justice system
217 Its most important function in the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and recognize the
rule of law through the speedy delivery of services particularly in the prosecution and
investigation of all crimes.
a. Police
b. Prosecution
c. Courts
d. Corrections
218 They are referred to as the initiator of the criminal justice system.
a. Police
b. Prosecution
c. Courts
d. Corrections
219 Primary function of every court system.
a. Help keep domestic peace
b. Decide controversies
c. Issuance of warrants of arrests
d. Administrative role
220 Training required for permanency for a police Chief Inspector.
a. OSEC
c. Officer’s Basic Course
b. POAC
d. Officer’s Candidate Course
A quota allocated promotion.
a. Regular promotion
c. meritorious promotion
b. Special promotion
221 Total period of time a candidate has acquired in a certain grade in permanent status.
a. Time-in-grade
b. Rank
c. Seniority in Rank
d. Eligibility
222 In crime scenes, it is common that the public or the “UZISEROS” who are curious
onlookers troop and flock the area numbering more than the police personnel who are
supposed to process it; hence to protect the integrity of the evidences it is wise to;
a. Cordon the area
b. Sanitize the area
c. Evacuate the area
d. All of these
223 Ideally there should be at least three rings or cordon to protect the integrity of the crime
scene, the outermost cordon is to ward off the curious onlookers, the middle should be
occupied by the press, police personnel, government officials, the innermost would allow
entrance only to;
a. SOCO team
b. Commanding officer
c. Police Investigator
d. Both A and B
224 They are policemen who are honest to a fault and straightforward. They are willing to take
extreme positions on ethical issues due to their idealism. They are referred to as;
a. Angels
b. Rouges
c. White Knights
d. Straight Shooters
225 Although honest individuals, these policemen are willing and ready to hide the corrupt
practices of their comrades for the sake of “hiya”, “utang na loob” and “pakikisama” which is
the top three “Pinoy” values.
a. Angels
b. Rouges
c. White Knights
226 They are police officers who engage in minor type of corruption as they present
themselves.
a. Grass Eaters or Vegetarian Cop
b. Rouges
c. White Knights
227 They are police officers who actively seek out corruption opportunities and engaged in
both minor and major patterns of corruption.
a. Angels
b. Meat Eaters or Carnivorous Cops
c. Rouge
228 They are policemen who are considered as having all deviant behaviors of a corrupt law
enforcer.
a. Angels
b. White Knights
c. Rouges
229 It is defined as a dereliction of police duties either because of malfeasance, misfeasance
or nonfeasance.
a. Police corruption
b. Police Misconduct
c. Police Misbehavior
d. Police Deviancy
230 It refers to the unnecessary and unreasonable use of force in effecting arrest or abuse in
the manner of conducting search and seizure.
a. Abuse of Authority
b. Police Misconduct
c. Rouged
d. Brutality
CRIMINAL SOSIOLOGY, ETHICS

AND HUMAN RELATIONS
1D
2A
3B
4C
5D
6A
7D
8A
9B
10A
11A
12B
13A
14A
15A
16A
17C
18D
19C
20B
21A
22B
23D
24C
25D
26D
27B
28A
29A
30C
31B
32A
33C
34A
35D
36C
37B
38D
39C
40B
41A
42B
43C
44D
45A
46B
47C
48D
49A
50A
51C
52B
53C
54C
55B
56D
57B
58A
59C
60B
61A
62D
63D
64D
65A
66B
67B
68D
69A
70B
71C
72D
73C
74B
75C
76A
77D
78B
79C
80D
81A
82D
83A
84C
85D
86C
87A
88B
89A
90B
91C
92B
93A
94D
95C
96B
97C
98D
99A
100B
101C
102D
103C
104B
105B
106A
107B
108C
109D
110A
111B
112C
113D
114D
115D
116D
117A
118B
119C
120D
121B
122B
123A
124B
125C
126B
127B
128B
129C
130D
131D
132A
133A
134C
135C
136B
137B
138B
139A
140C
141D
142A
143C
144B
145A
146A
147A
148C
149B
150C
151A
152D
153B
154C
155C
156D
157D
158 Moral virtue✔
159 Maximum tolerance✔
160 Right✔
161 Command✔
162 Ethics✔
163 Temperament ✔
164 Endurance✔
165 Fortitude ✔
166 Patience✔
167 Perseverance ✔
168 High standard of morality✔
169 Police public relation✔
170 Individual policeman✔
171 Asocial delinquent✔
172 Delinquent✔
173 Sociogenic approach✔
174 Psychogenic approach✔
175 Biogenic approach✔
176 Precipitating factor✔
177 Predisposing factor✔
178 Juvenile gang✔
179 Dependent child ✔
180 Youth offender✔
181 Child✔
182 Family✔
183 Prevention✔
184 Control✔
185 Attractive nuisance✔
186 Retreatist sub culture ✔
187 Hostage✔
1881 ✔
189.He failed to implement proper
delegation✔
190. Symbolic ✔
191 Duration✔
192 Intensity ✔
193 Complex✔
194 Perception✔
195 Olfactory✔
196 Gustatory ✔
197 Awareness✔
198 Extensity✔
199 Quantity✔
200 Voyeurism✔
201 Functional ✔
202 Neuroses✔
203 National Prosecution Service
✔
204 Criminological enterprise✔
205 Crime control✔
206 Crime deterrence✔
207 Crime prevention✔
208 Opportunity to commit
crimes ✔
209 Crime prevention✔
210 PDEA✔
211 Deliver the person to the
nearest police station✔
212 Both a and b✔
213 Social defense✔
214 National Anti-Crime Strategy
✔
21510 days✔
216 Criminal justice system✔
217. Police ✔
218 Police ✔
219 Help keep domestic peace✔
220 OSEC ✔
220 Regular promotion✔
221 Seniority in Rank✔

222 Cordon the area✔
223 Both A and B✔
224 White Knights✔
225 Straight Shooters✔
226 Grass Eaters or Vegetarian
Cop ✔
227 Meat Eaters or Carnivorous
Cops✔
228. Rouges✔
229 Police Misconduct✔
230 Brutality✔
NCV REVIEW CENTER
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION, AND PREVENTION
JUNE 2019
only.
1. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides
evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Interview and interrogation
c. Confession and admission
d. Criminal action
2. In sending out letters and relevant papers, the documents should be arranged in a certain
manner. What do you call the act of arranging the document?
a. Special mail handling
b. Filing
c. Assembling
d. Documentation
3. This provide a record of incidents requiring police response and includes criminal offenses,
arrest and generAl information.
a. Report
b. Narrative
c. Narration
d. Police Report
4. Several persons were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet pavement. In preparing
an accident report, the term “Apparently in good condition” should not be used in reference to
–
a. The Muffler
b. The Brakes
c. The As injured persons
d. The operator
5. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the ff. tests should be given last?
a.) Hand writing
b.) Pupils of eyes
c.) Balance
d.) Walking and turning
6. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at
the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right of way. Of
the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given preferences over any of the
vehicle is the-
a. Ambulance
b. Police car
c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker
7. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it must short but concise,
meaning, the report must be -
a. Fair
b. Brief
C. Clear
D. Impartial
8. This is classification of the investigative report which is used as a way of determining if the
officer is working on his case or not.
A. Spot report
B. Progress report
C. Basic report
D. Final report
9.What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the person
found guilty of arson?
A. the kind of building or property that was burned.
B. the location of the building
C. whether the building is inhabited or not
D. all of the above
10. It is the transfer of heat which requires physical contact between the bodies or portions of
bodies exchanging heat.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Heat transfer
11. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is-
A. to see to it that the buildings are insured
B. to safeguard life
C. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free.
D. to generate income for the government.
12. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -
A. it speaks for its self
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the forgoing
13. This is the tying up of all loose ends pertinent to the investigation so as to form a clear and
composite picture of the crime committed, to the mind of the reader, for prosecutorial and
judicial action.
A. spot report
B. progress report
C. basic report
D. final report
14. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by-
A. a reduction of a traffic accidents and delays.
B. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
C. a decrease in the ration of conviction to enforcement actions.
D. None of the Above
15. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in court because -
A. it will determine the quality of your testimony
B. it will determine the quantity of your testimony.
C. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
D. it will reduce the chances of the defense attacking your testimony.
16. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by the law is
protection against self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of-
A. public policy and morality
B. public policy and humanity
C. humanity kindness
D. humanity and conscience
17. This method or technique of criminal identification is more convenient than other methods
or techniques since the element of suggestion is avoided in the identification process.
A. cartography
B. rogues gallery
C. police-line up
D. fingerprint
18. His methods made popular the logic of employing a thief to catch a thief
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Robert Peel
19.It is considered as a patient, step by step inquiry or observation, a careful examination, a
recording of evidence or legal inquiry
A. recording
B. investigation
C. collection
D. examination
20. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton.
A. role
B. shadowing
C. modus operandi
D. casing
21. Being an investigator able to solve cases, he must posses the ability to be patient to obtain
accurate and complete information, specially with uncooperative subjects is-
A. integrity
B. perseverance
C. alertness
D. logical mind
22. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely
mean that-
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
23.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to light is-
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. fire
24. There are 2 types of standards to be obtained in the investigation of a questioned
documents: 1 is collected and the other is -
A. photographed
B. replicated
C. dictated
D. all of the foregoing
25. The purpose of this is to provide a brief, informative summary of the nature and important
event in the case.
A. synopsis
B. details of the report
C. recommendation
D. conclusion
26. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the order of time ad bring out
facts orderly as they happened, this technique is called-
A. chronological questioning
B. physical questioning
C. psychological questioning
D. None of these
27. A case decided in USA in the year 1920 that established the “ Doctrine of the Fruit of the
Poisonous Tree”.
A. MAPP vs. USA
B. MAPP vs. Ohio
C. USA vs. Ohio
D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US
28. An English man who wrote a novel entitled “ Tom Jones”, was appointed as Magistrate for
the areas of Westminster and Middlesex in London.
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Charles Dickens
C. Henry Fielding
D. Robert Peel
29. This report is one which is routinary act it is submitted daily by any duty inspector.
A. spot report
B. special report
C. beat inspection report
D. after patrol report
30. Police report which requires deals with ordinary, miscellaneous, day-to-day memorandum,
letter or form accomplished by any member of a unit.
A. basic report
B. formal report
C. spot report
D. special report
31.The first responsibility of a police officer assigned to investigate a reported homicide is-
A. arrest the offender
B. administer first aid to the victim
C. promptly respond to the assignment with reasonable and safe speed.
D. protect the crime scene.
32. The first female detective hired by the North-Western Police Agency.
A. Jane Doe
B. Kate Wayne
C. June Downey
D. Demi Moore
33. What Special Law punishes the crime of Arson which amends the provision of the Revised
Penal Code.
a. Presidential Decree 603
b. Presidential Decree 968
c. Presidential Decree 1612
d. Presidential Decree 1613
34.Known as the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual measurement and of
identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene is-
A. photograph
B. sketch
C. graphing
D. all of the above
35.Illegal acts committed by business and professional people while earning their living are
classified as-
A. Blue-collar crimes
B. crime mala in se
C. white-collar crimes
D. crime mala prohibita
36. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign Territory” such as the investigator room at
the police station because the place –
a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
37. The collection of photographs of criminals taken by the police for identification purposes is
technically called?
a. Cartographic files
b. Identification kit
c. Mug File
d. Criminal Record
38. Julia Roberts gives information to the police without waiting for reward or payment because
she considered herself as –
a. Ex-convict
b. Informant
c. Defendant
d. Accused
39. In essence, it is a chemical reaction in which the substance combines with oxygen, heat is
released and the form of substance is destroyed.
a. Fire
b. Fuel
c. Ignition
d. Oxygen
40. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and
cause of fire.
a. Interviewing witness/es
b. Surveillance
c. Undercover work assignment
d. To investigate the insurance company and the owner of the insurance company
41. This is the lifeblood of investigation and hence to be considered seriously and also to be
followed up. Once it dries you have nowhere to go.
a. Information
b. Intelligence
c. Interview
d. Instrumentation
42. These are attached and distributed in the ceiling of rooms, activated by the increase of
temperature and water is delivered right where it is needed.
a. Fire pump
b. Fire hydrant
c. Automatic sprinklers
d. Fire extinguisher
43. Fernando Jose is testifying in court to disprove the criminal charge filed against him. Thus,
he is the –
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Criminal
d. Respondent
44. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all –
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
b. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and measurements
taken before he collects the evidence
c. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime Laboratory for specific
examination
d. Compare the following edge of the tool with impression to determine if this was the tool
used in crime.
45. Edralin is an alleged thief. He is being accused of stealing personal property but he is not
yet under the custody of the police. Therefore, he is legally addressed as –
a. Suspect
b. Accused
c. Accomplice
d. Accessory
46. This inquiry begins with a general reexamination of all facts, leads and other types of
information secured during the initial investigation.
b. In Depth investigation
c. Follow-up investigation
d. In Depth investigation or Follow-up investigation
47. If proof is the outcome of evidence, what is evidence?
a. Measurement of guilt
b. Means of social control
c. Instrument of proof
48. He became the first detective in Chicago Police Department in 1849.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Allan Pinkerton
c. Jonathan Wild
d. Robert Peel
49. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy, however, examination of lungs and blood
showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide. What will be your interpretation
under this circumstances?
a. The person is died because of burning
b. The person is died due to asphyxia
c. The person was killed before he was burned
d. The person died not of fire bur because of suffocation
50. This may be applicable to a crime scene which approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along a radii or spokes.
a. Wheel method
b. Zone method
c. Spiral method
d. Strip method
51. This signifies the ways and means device by a peace officer to apprehend a person who
has committed a crime; with or without the said device or means, the crime has already been
committed –
a. Entrapment
b. Treachery
c. Instigation
52. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by
police officer first arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
a. Try to keep the witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded
while doing so
53. The known case on personal identification that caused the total damaged of Anthropometry
is –
a. Best case
b. Dellinger case
c. USA vs. Jennings
d. West case
54. The “whom”, “where”, or “which” information are derived and developed refers to the –
a. Traces of information
b. Testimony
c. Evidence
d. Sources of information
55. The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is to –
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of operation
56. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the item itself upon
collection, in a place least likely to affect the appearance of its –
a. Monetary value
b. Monetary and evidentiary
c. Evidentiary value
d. Integrity and identity
57. A powerful operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned of directed to take
some specific action is called ?
a. Object markings
b. Club markings
c. Reflectorized markings
d. Traffic light signal
58. Generally this drugs produces a relaxing state without impairment of high facilities or the
inducement of sleep is known as –
a. Stimulants
b. Narcotics
c. Tranquilizers
d. Barbiturates
59. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not possible, what should you
not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and continue what you are previously doing
c. Inform the dispatcher of the unit
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other police units
60. What do you think is the significant data for an arson investigator to gather from the fire
scene?
a. Odor
b. Rapidity of fire
c. Color of smokes and flames
61. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for reproduction.
a. Abortion
b. Castration
c. Physical injuries
62. This crime is committed whenever a public officer does not account for what he collects
and he misappropriates the fees collected.
a. Estafa
b. Malversation
c. Corruption of public official
d. Bribery
63. This situation takes place when a police officer induce a person to commit a crime and
arrest him after the commission of the crime.
a. Instigation
b. Recidivism
c. Voluntary surrender
d. Entrapment
64. This refer to the immediate apprehension or cognition-quick and ready insight without the
conscious use of reasoning.
a. Imagination
b. Intuition
c. Curiosity
d. Opinion
65. It was the first natural stimulant that was discovered.
a. Nicotine
b. Epinedrine
c. Caffeine
d. Ephedrine
66. Criminal investigation is not a science, it is not governed by rigid rules, or laws, but most
often, it is governed by –
a. Intuition
b. To a minor extent by chance or luck
c. Felicity or inspiration
67. This is defined as a transition which occurs in the development of fire when, for example,
most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature
at the same time.
a. Ignition
b. Starter
c. Flash-over
d. Intensity
68. Whether it be solid, liquid, or gas, is the minimum temperature that the substance must be
heated in order to sustain combustion.
a. Temperature
b. Flash point
c. Ignition temperature
d. Burning point
69. Which of the following types of accidents is most decreased by the installation of traffic
lights?
a. Accidents of confusion
b. Cross traffic accidents
c. Accidents of decisions of right of way
d. Misunderstanding between motorists
70. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved where it is an element of the
offense charged.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Modus operandi
d. Background interview
71. In 1877, even without his field police experience, he become the head of the Scotland Yard
organized investigators known as the Criminal Investigation Department.
a. Charles Dickens
b. Edward Rucker
c. Howard Vincent
d. Francis Turkey
72. The word investigate was derived from the Latin word ______ meaning to track or trace, a
derivation easily related to police investigation.
a. Investigare
b. Vestigare
c. Tracer
d. Tracker
73. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other in the
area. The police unit assigned to the area should:
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators
b. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorists
74. It is a term used as anything used to enhance the quality of fire.
a. Accelerants
b. Arson
c. Trailers
d. Plants
75. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself
whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he
gives or receives evidence. This statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To established the guilt of the accused.
76. Can a child below 15 years old be employed?
a. Yes, provided that the employer shall ensure the protection, health safety and morals of
the child
b. Yes, provided that the employer shall secure the child a working permit from DOLE
c. No, he is a minor
d. A and B only
77. It is the duty of the officer who first arrive at the crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
78. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has been
stolen and abandoned is on –
a. Door handles
b. Steering wheel
c. Rear view mirror
d. Dashboard
79. It is defined as maybe a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession
b. Admission
c. Deposition
d. Information
80. Articles and materials found in connection with investigation and which aides in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. Corpus delicti
b. Fruits of the crime
c. Physical evidence
d. Chain of custody of evidence
81. The most effective way to reduce the number of traffic accidents is to –
a. Arrest and prosecute traffic violators
b. Increase the premium of insurance and decrease the car insurance liability to a
minimum
c. Frequent checks on all cars for mechanical defects
82. The basic principle behind the selective enforcement in the traffic control is –
a. Selection of traffic areas for strict enforcement
b. Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
c. A warning rather that a citation will act as preventive for future violation
d. Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest traffic danger
83. A former convict who became a Paris investigator and founder of the Brigade De la Surete
and the forerunner of our credit card system.
a. Henry Fielding
b. Jonathan Wild
c. Eugene Vidocq
d. Sir Robert Peel
84. In police stations, It is the record
of all crimes and complaints.
a. Police Blotter
b. Police Arrest
c. Booking Report
85. It is the conveying of persons, goods, and things from one place to another.
a. Traffic
b. Transportation
c. Movement
d. Shipping
86. Excellent way of filling accidents report for urban areas is –
a. Street designation
b. Numerical route
c. Road safety
87. If the accident has resulted to serious physical injury, the most important thing for the
investigator to do in regard to the injured person if no doctor at hand is –
a. Move him to a place where he may be comfortable
b. Bring him to the hospital as quickly as possible
c. Give him first aid as necessary and call for an ambulance
d. Ignore him, because medical care is not part of the work of the investigator
88. It is the correct or proper choice of words to convey a meaning.
a. Vocabulary
b. Diction
c. Words
89. It is a customary little marks that determines whether the sentence is clear or has a
doubtful meaning.
a. Words
b. Phrase
c. Punctuation marks
d. Numbers
90. If the fire is caused by flammable or combustible liquids, such as kerosene, gasoline,
benzene, alcohol etc., It is said to be classified as –
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
91. These are personalities that do not exist in reality because they are only creations of
writers who focus inventing detectives stories that may help entertain and/or educate readers.
a. Private detectives
b. Government Investigators
c. Fictitious Investigators
92. For competent investigator, it is the key to freedom from bondage of ignorance.
a. Training
b. Tools
c. Technique
d. Principle
93. In conducting an interview to a subject, the interviewer always ask the subject with a
question answerable by yes or no, this statement is –
a. Absolutely True
b. Absolutely False
c. Partly True
d. Partly false
94. This involves the process of allowing a witness to select the primary suspect from a group
of chosen persons ( suspects and innocent persons).
a. Cartography
b. Portrait Parle
c. Rogues Gallery
d. Police line-up
95. An approach in reconstructing the crime which requires the process of collecting
information first, analyze and evaluate it before a theory is developed.
a. Deductive Approach
b. Inductive Approach
c. Analytical Approach
96. What is known as an “unimpeachable witness” because it is not clouded by faulty memory,
prejudice, poor eyesight and desire?
a. Ordinary witness
b. Expert witness
c. Physical evidence
97. A kind of crime scene sketch which picture the immediate scene only.
a. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of ground
c. Sketch of Details
d. Cross projection sketch
98. In the Philippine setting, the SOCO is composed of how many members?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
99. It is the tendency to increase the dose of the drugs to produce the same effect as to that of
the original effect.
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Physical dependence
d. Withdrawal syndrome
100. ________ is the skillful questioning of a person who is reluctant to divulge information
concerning the offense under investigation.
a. Instrumentation
b. Information
c. Interview
d. Interrogation
101. An evidence which links the suspects to the crime scene or offense.
a. Corpus Delicti
b. Associative evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Documentary evidence
102. As the first officer to arrive at the crime scene, you must retain and identify for interview
the person who first notify the police, because you can gather investigative?
a. Investigation
b. Leads
c. Breakthrough
d. Modus operandi
103. Under the new drug law, the best defense for drug abuse is?
a. Comrades
b. Colleagues
c. Family
d. Gangs
104. The first to arrive at the crime scene and has the authority to preserve the crime scene is
the?
a. Beat patrol
b. SOCO
c. NBI
d. Chief PNP
105. Instead of using “proceed and utilize”, use the word/s?
a. Proceed and go
b. Go and use
c. Go and exploit
d. Proceed and use
106. The most advance in sending a report.
a. Fax
b. Courier
c. Text
d. Air mail
107. The penalty of ____________ shall be imposed upon any person who possesses 10
grams of Shabu.
a. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
b. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
c. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
d. Life imprisonment
108. These are articles which assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Tracing evidence
b. Associative evidence
c. Documentary evidence
109. Instead of using “dead body” on your report, use the word/s?
a. Cadaver
b. Deceased
c. Departed
d. Corpse
110. In the year 2005, the Philippines was tagged by the USA as the number one producer of?
a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. Shabu
d. Opium
111. When was the Anti-drug summit which was attended by President Gloria M. Arroyo?
a. November 17, 2002
b. November 27, 2002
c. November 17, 2005
d. November 27, 2005
112. Is a phrase considered as a complete sentence?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Sometimes
d. Maybe
113. It is a sign of showing the point of origin of fire.
a. Alligator pattern
b. Charring
c. Product of incombustible materials
114. In dental examination, location of teeth, position and ______ are the main consideration.
a. Site
b. Spot
c. Direction
d. Place
115. A method of safe breaking by battering of the top, bottom or sides of a safe with a chisel
or other metal cutter.
a. Burning
b. Bursting
c. Ripping
d. Carrying away
116. This is the removing or transferring of people, livestock or property from fire scene or
those that are already directly affected by fire.
a. Evacuation
b. Rescue
c. Confinement
d. Ventilation
117. _______ smoke indicates that humid materials are burning, such as hay, vegetable fibers,
etc..
a. Biting smoke
b. Black smoke
c. White smoke
d. Reddish-brown smoke
118. The world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of prohibited drugs.
a. Marijuana
b. Coca plant
c. Opium poppy plant
d. Caffeine
119. The process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge is called ___________.
a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Education
c. Traffic Enforcement
d. Traffic Economy
120. It is the derivative of Morphine.
a. Cocaine
b. Heroin
c. Codeine
d. Caffeine
121.The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
122.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
123.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
124.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
125.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain
metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
126.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
127.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
128.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
129.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
130.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire
and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
131.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
132.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
133.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
134.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
135.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
136.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
137.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
138.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
139.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
140.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
141.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
142.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where
fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
143.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to
vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
144The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
145.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
146 A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
147.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
148.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
149.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
150.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
151.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
152.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation
153.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
154.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
155.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
156.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
157 Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
158.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
159.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl
160.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
161.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
162.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
163.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
164.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
165.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
166.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
167.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
168.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
169.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature
alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
170 It is the percentage of alcohol blood w/c indicates that the person is under influence of the
liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05
B. 0.15
C. 1.5
D. 0.50
CRIME DETECTION,
INVESTIGATION, AND
PREVENTION
1A
2B
3D
4B
5A
6C
7B
8B
9D
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 D
14 A
15 A
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 B
20 B
21 B
22 D
23 C
24 B
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 C
30 B
31 C
32 B
33 D
34 B
35 C
36 D
37 C
38 B
39 C
40 A
41 A
42 C
43 D
44 B
45 A
46 D
47 D
48 B
49 C
50 A
51 A
52 C
53 D
54 D
55 A
56 C
57 D
58 C
59 B
60 D
61 B
62 B
63 A
64 B
65 C
66 D
67 C
68 B
69 D
70 A
71 A
72 B
73 B
74 D
75 A
76 B
77 B
78 A
79 B
80 C
81 A
82 D
83 C
84 A
85 B
86 A
87 C
88 B
89 C
90 B
91 C
92 A
93 B
94 D
95 B
96 C
97 C
98 B
99 A
100 D
101 B
102 B
103 C
104 A
105 B
106 A
107 D
108 A
109 B
110 C
111 A
112 B
113 A
114 C
115 C
116 B
117 C
118 A
119 B
120 B
121 D
122 D
123 B
124 A
125 D
126 A
127 A
128 A
129 A
130 C
131 A
132 B
133 C
134 D
135 A
136 B
137 A
138 A
139 A
140 D
141 B
142 B
143 B
144 C
145 A
146 C
147 D
148 B
149 D
150 B
151 D
152 A
153 D
154 D
155 B
156 B
157 B
158 B
159 A
160 C
161 A
162 A
163 D
164 D
165 A
166 A
167 D
168 C
169 C
170 B
NCV REVIEW CENTER
MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION FOR CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
JUNE 2019
only.
1. A probationer is allowed to do the following EXCEPT,

a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly
c. Playing Gambling
d. Responsibility for family
2. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
a. Pedro who is 19 years old
b. Juan who is 20 years old
c. Martin who is 10 years old
d. 25 years old Pablo
3. A judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community
subject to the conditions imposed by the court.
a. Reprieve
b. Commutation
c. Probation
d. Good Conduct Time Allowance
4. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant of
Pardon or parole?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. National Police Commission
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. National Bureau of Investigation
5. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of touch with God thus,
they were given Bibles and placed in isolations?
a. Quaker reform movement
b. Reformatory movement
c. Church Reform movement
d. Crime prevention movement
6. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official records?
a. Mitigation
b. Expungement
c. Exoneration
d. Restriction
7. The judge’s bases of the grant of probation relies on the report of,
Prosecutor
Police officer
Probation officer
Social worker
8. Which model emphasize the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or
psychological conditions that require treatment?
Medical model
Reform model
Rehabilitation model
Community model
9. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has
expired?
Certificate of final discharge
Certificate of final release and discharge
Certificate of prison term completion
Certificate of final release
12. Billy the kid was 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply
for probation under the Adult Probation System?
No, because his crime is theft
No, because he is only 17 years old
No, because he is entitled for parole
No, because he is convicted of a crime
11.An _________ program employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks.
Agricultural
Industrial
Operational
Administrative
12. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?
Reporting illegal activities
Doing prison assignment
Using prohibited drugs
Selling illegal commodities
13. What institution conducts training program for uniformed personnel of the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology?
PNP training center
Fire service training institute
Jail management training institute
PNP academy
14. Maria Clara was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the
victim. What is this type of sentence?
Fine
Payment
Retribution
Restitution
15. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way House inside the compound of
the Bureau of Corrections?
Office of the President
Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
United Nations Security Council
Asia Crime Foundation
16. Robin Padilla served his sentence at the New Bilibid Prison in Muntinlupa. Why was he
photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic Center?
It is a rare opportunity to have his photograph
He is an actor and photogenic
Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure
To have a souvenir photo of the actor
17. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are under the
supervision and control of,
Bureau of Corrections
Provincial jails
Davao penal colony
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
18. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as
________.
A determinate sentence
A corporal punishment
A Indeterminate sentence
A capital punishment
19. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social actions must be the utilitarian
conception of the greatest happiness for the greatest number?
John Howard
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Becaria
George Vold
20. Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners,
After recreational activities
At early morning hours
Before sleeping hours
During middle hours of the day
21. An arrangement where prisoner goes out of the institution to attend educational classes.
Study release
Work furlough
Guidance counseling
Vocational program
22. Who said that “criminal acts are signs of distress, signals of failures, the spasm of
struggles and convulsions of a sub marginal human being trying to make it in the complex
society with inadequate equipment and preparation”
John Howard
James Wilson
Jeremy Bentham
Karl Menninger
23. The parole and probation administration administers a _____________ corrections
program.
Integrated
Community-based
Traditional
Institutional
24. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as,
Restitution
Retribution
Reformation
Institutional
25. Jose Matalo was sentenced to imprisonment on Sept. 30, 2003. On Oct. 20, 2003 the
judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the service
of Jose’s sentence?
His sentence will not be binding anymore
He will have to serve his sentence
His sentence will be suspended
His sentenced will be reduced
26. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
1. One who is sentenced to maximum term of imprisonment of more than 3 years or a
fine of more than 5,000.
2. One sentenced to serve 2 or more prison sentences in the aggregate exceeding the
period of 3 years.
3. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for violation of Custom Law or
other laws within the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Customs
4. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for violation of Immigration
Laws and Election Laws.
1, 2, and 3
2, 3, and 4
1, 3, and 4
All of the listed
27. This theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behaviors
and the stress is more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
Biological theory
Positivist theory
Classical theory
None of the above
28. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his probation conditions?
Court directs probationer to re apply for probation
Court orders the continuation of the probation
Court releases the probationer to the community
Court revokes probation and probationer goes back to prison
29. How do inmates know that they have letters?
A list of mails for inmates is posted
A jail guard delivers the letter personally
An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’s Office
30. Who introduced the Silent System in 1831 at the Auburn Prison?
John Howard
Jeremy Bentham
Elam Lynds
James Wilson
31. Forced is used only by correctional institutions to,
Exact respect
Enforce discipline
Show physical strength and power
Perform assignments
32. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of,
12 years 6 months and 1 day
Life imprisonment
Death
6 years, 1 month and 1 day
33. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the ________ system.
Adult probation
Juvenile Justice
Family Welfare
Civilian Police
34. What correctional institution houses accused awaiting trial?
Prison
Half-way house
Jail
Rehabilitation center
35. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and “prison
without walls”?
Davao penal colony
Sablayan penal colony
Iwahig penal colony
San Ramon prison and penal farm
36. The first workhouse in England in 1557 to 1576.
Singsing prison
Bridewell
Alcatraz
Walnut Street Jail
37. A prison system which includes confinement of prisoners in single cells at night and
congregate work in shops during the day.
Pennsylvania system
Auburn system
Elmira reformatory
Irish system
38. He introduced the worldwide progressive mark system in prison.
Manuel Montesimos
Walter Crofton
Alexander Macanochie
Zebulon Brockway
39. He has the supervisory powers over all provincial and city jails but his powers are limited in
the sense that they are advisory and recommendatory only.
Secretary of Justice
Warden
Chief Justice
Director of prison
40. The period of 1870 to 1880 was called the __________of penology.
Age of Reason
Age of Reform
Age of Enlightenment
Golden Age
41. Granted by the Chief Executive without any conditions attached which serves to wipe away
the guilt of pardonee and makes him innocent as if he has not committed a crime.
Pardon
Absolute Pardon
Conditional Pardon
Parole
42. It is also known as the “Industrial Good Time Law”.
Republic Act No. 2489
Republic Act No.6425
Act No. 2489
Act No. 3815
43. Firs Juvenile Delinquency Law in the Philippines.
Commonwealth Act No. 3203
Presidential Decree No. 603
44. When was the establishment of the Correctional Institution for Women.
November 01, 1929
November 12, 1929
November 27, 1929
November 17, 1929
45. It is an order issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the
confinement of a prisoner.
Mittimus
Carpeta
Commitment Order
Arrest Report
46. Preliminary form filed up by the petitioner within 72 hours after the release of his probation
order.
Arrest and Booking Report
Release form
Work Sheet
None of the above
47. A chemical that is injected to an offender that puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection.
Potassium Chloride
Hydrogen Peroxide
Sodium Thiopenthotal
Sodium Chloride
48. In the exercise of religious beliefs of prisoners, a prison official trying to covert a prisoner to
change his religion.
Proselytizing
Restitution
Reparation
Compensation
49. How many minutes is the allowable time for an inmate to use the telephone/
5 Minutes
10 Minutes
15 Minutes
20 Minutes
50. An act which creates a Board of Claims under DOJ for claims for compensation of victims
of violent crimes.
51. After receiving the PSIR, how many days must a judge decide whether to grant or deny
probation?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
52. If two (2) inmates are arguing each other of some lost of their items in cell, refer them to
the ____________________.
a. Warden
b. Investigation and disciplinary board
c. Classification board
d. Never mind them
53. Mandated as the “age of reason”.
a. 17th century
b. 18th century
c. 19th century
d. 20th century
54. A system that teaches inmates to value himself and his dealing with others.
a. Auburn system
b. Pennsylvania system
c. Millien system
d. Congrete system
55. When was the Bilibid prison established?
a.1845
b. 1846
c.1847
d. 1848
56. It is extended to a group/class of persons generally exercised by the Chief Executive with
the concurrence of Congress.
a. Pardon
b. Commutation of sentence
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
Ans. D
57. An executive clemency given for the temporary stay of the execution of sentence.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
c. Commutation of sentence
d. Pardon
Ans. B
58. An executive clemency intended to reduce the degree of penalty inflicted upon the convict,
or by decreasing the length of his imprisonment.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
d. Pardon
59. A privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his term of
imprisonment for his good behavior.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
d. Good Conduct Time Allowance
60. A school of criminology which maintain the doctrine of psychological hedonism or freewill.
a. Classical School
b. Neo-classical school
c. Positivist school
d. None of these
61. Also known as the Juvenile and Youth Welfare Code.
a. BP 603
b. RA 9344
c. PD 603
d. RA 603
62. Before taking out the prisoner to jail, he will be pre-release to _________________.
a. Diagnostic and Reception Center
b. Reception
c. Classification board
d. Disciplinary board
63. When you are once on probation, are you still allowed to apply for the second time?
a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False
64. Under our laws, when should a probationer report to his designated probation officer?
a. Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted
b. Upon court order
c. Upon initial interview
d. Upon completion of the PSIR
65. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a?
a. Minor offense
b. Grave Offense
c. Less grave offense
d. Major offense
66. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.
a. Mittimus
b. Carpeta
c. Commitment order
d. Arrest record
67. It is considered as the best reform institution for young offenders.
a. Elmira reformatory
b. Auburn prison system
c. Borstal institution
d. Bridewell penitentiary
68. Among the colonies established in the Philippines, what penal colony was established in
Zamboanga?
a. Iwahig Penal Colony
b. Sablayan PenalColony
c. Camp Sampaguita
d. San Ramon Penal Colony
69. Who is the Father of Probation in England?
a. Calvin Coolidge
b. Teodulo Natividad
c. Mathew Davenport Hill
d. John Howard
70. What is the age requirement for drug user for admission for probation under RA 6425?
a. Less than 21
b. 25 years old and above
c. 21 years old and above
d. 25 years old and below
71. The head of Bureau of Corrections is the Director of prisons who is appointed by the
_____________ with the conformation of the Commission on Appointments.
a. Chief Executive
b. DOJ Secretary
c. DILG Secretary
72. It refers to the money paid to the relatives of a murdered person as compensation and to
prevent blood feud.
a. Wergild
b. Restitution
c. Compensation
d. Reprimand
73. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in
the process of communication. (2x question)
a. Differential Association Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Classical Theory
d. Positivist Theory
74. A justification of punishment which state that “Severity of the punishment must fit the
crime”.
a. Expiation
b. Atonement
c. Retribution
d. Deterrence
75. Probation order will take effect-
a. Before its issuance
b. Upon order by the court
c. Upon its issuance
d. When the offender will be found guilty
76. Provincial prisoners are prisoners with imprisonment ranging from?
a. 1 day to 3 years
b. 6 months,1 day to 5 years
c. 3 years to life
d. Not more than 6 months
77. How many hectares do the San Ramon Penal Colony has?
a. 1,414 hectares
b. 2,414 hectares
c. 3,414 hectares
d. 4,141 hectares
78. It has been regarded as the forerunner of modern penology due to its extensive use of
parole, social casework and training school type of institution.
a. Pennsylvania System
b. Auburn System
c. Elmira Reformatory
d. All of these
79. San Ramon Penal Colony is an institution intended to detain or house?
a. Convicted offenders
b. Political offenders
c. Private offenders
d. None of these
80. PO1 Duling was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 years of imprisonment for usurpation of a
person in authority due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would be his
classification under PD 29?
a. Detention prisoner
b. Provincial prisoner
c. Municipal Prisoner
d. National Prisoner
81. A method undertaken to allow prisoners to have the opportunity for normal sexlife.
a. Visitation
b. Sodomy
c. Conjugal visit
d. All of these
82. It serves as the basis in granting probation for qualified petitioners.
a. Pre sentence investigation report
b. Post sentence investigation report
c. Admission summary
d. behavior report
83. It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer and the probation officer.
a. Orientation
b. Post sentence investigation
c. Supervision
84. Before the travel of probationer outside the jurisdiction of the City/Provincial probation
office, application for court should be filed within how many days?
a. 45 days
b. 30 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
85. The probation officer is required by law to submit the PSIR within how many days?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 120 days
d. 30 days
86. Provincial jail is under what government agency?
a. Provincial government
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. None of these
87. Those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day to six (6) months are
classified as:
a. Provincial prisoners
b. City prisoners
c. Insular prisoners
d. Municipal prisoners
88. It is one of the earliest device for softening brutal severity of punishment through a
compromise with the church.
a. Benefit of clergy
b. Rehabilitation
c. Retribution
89. An operation conducted by BJMP officers where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime for
possession of contrabands inside prison cell.
a. Man-haunt operation
b. Operation greyhound
c. Operation Bravo
d. Thunderbolt Operation
90. Designated rank of a warden in city jails.
a. Inspector
b. Chief inspector
c. Superintendent
d. Director
91. Differentiate National prisoners from that of City prisoners.
A. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day to
six (6) months, while City prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment of
Three (3) years and One (1) day to Life imprisonment.
B. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day to
(3) years or a fine of not more than 1,000 pesos or both, City prisoners are those sentenced to
suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day to six (6) months
C. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day
to (3) years or a fine of not more than 1,000 pesos or both, while City prisoners are those
sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment of Three (3) years and One (1) day to Life
imprisonment.
D. National prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment of Three (3) years
and One (1) day to Life imprisonment, while City prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a
term of imprisonment from One (1) day to (3) years or a fine of not more than 1,000 pesos or
both.
92. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable, and highly dangerous
persons who are the source of constant disturbances even in a maximum security prison and
wear orange color of uniform.
a. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Maximum Security Prisoners
c. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
93. The ________ exercises supervision and control over all districts, cities and municipal jails
throughout the country.
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Department of Justice
d. Bureau of Corrections
94. Under the rules, methods and procedures of probation, the reglamentary period for which
the convicted offender may apply for probation after conviction is within-
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20days
d. 30 days
95. Which branch of the Administrative Group takes charge of the preparation of the daily
menu, prepares and cook the food and serve it to inmates.
a. Property and supply branch
b. Budget and finance branch
c. Mess service branch
d. General service branch
96. ___________ is a security facility, common to police stations used for temporary
confinement of individual held for investigation.
a. Ordinary jails
b. Lock-up jails
c. Workhouse, jail farms or camp
d. None of these
97. It is a justification of punishment which claims that punishment gives lesson to the offender
by showing to others what would happen to them if they violate the law.
a. Retribution
b. Expiation
c. Incapacitation
d. Detterence
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day Answer: B
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. None of these
B. Age Reform
C. Age of Discernment
D. Age of Reason Answer: A
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?

A. Rehabilitation center
B. Jail
C. Halfway house
D. Prison Answer: B
1. As a matter of procedure, the fourth pillar of the Criminal Justice System, Corrections
Pillar, takes over once the accused –
A. has been delivered to the New Bilibid Prison
B. received the order of the court
C. after having been found guilty, meted out the penalty for the crime he committed
D. has been arrested by the police and has been investigated of the crime
2. The Correctional System in the Philippines is under three distinct and separate
departments of the national government. They are the following, except –
A. The Department of National Defense
B. The Department of Justice
C. The Department of Interior and Local Government
D. The Department of Social Welfare and Development
3. Regional Rehabilitation Center for Youth (RRCY) in the country are established to
provide care and rehabilitation to juvenile in conflict with the law who are 9 - 17 years
old. How many RRCY existing in the Philippines?
A. Eight (8)
B. Ten (10)
C. Twelve (12)
D. Sixteen (16)
4. The central office of the BUCOR is located in ____, where the Director, the assistant
directors and the general administration staff are holding official functions.
A. Camp Crame, Quezon City
B. Camp Aquinaldo, Quezon City
C. New Bilibid Prison, Muntinlupa City
D. Maximum Security Prison
5. During the pre-colonial times, the informal prison system in the Philippines was –
A. barbaric and institutionalized
B. trial by ordeal
C. tribal and community-based
D. based on the Kalantiao Code
6. The formal prison system in the Philippines started only during the Spanish regime,
where an organized corrective service was made operational. Established in 1847
pursuant to Section 1708 of the Revised Administrative Code and formally opened by
Royal Decree in ____.
A. 1621
B. 1702
C. 1865
D. 1898
7. The Old Bilibid Prison was constructed as the main penitentiary in Oroquieta Street,
Manila and designed to house the prison population of the country. This prison became
known as the –
A. Bilibid Prison I
B. Correctional de bilibid
C. Manila National Prison
D. Carcel y Presidio Correccional
8. The Bureau of Corrections in the Philippines is an agency under the –
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Office of the President
D. Office of the Provincial Governor
9. What is called the institutional record of an inmate which consists of his mittimus or
commitment order issued by the Court after conviction?
A. Carpeta
B. Sentenced Mittimus
C. File 201
D. None of these
10. It refers to shock incarceration regime for adults and juveniles, originated in
America, which emphasize discipline and physical training in a military-style
environment. Which one of these?
A. Boot legs
B. Boot Camps
C. Mud Camps
D. Jamboree camps
11. The Borstal Institution founded by Sir Evelyn Ruggles-Brise was established in –
A. 1902
B. 1911
C. 1935
D. 1931
12. Which of the following records is not necessarily included in the carpeta of
prisoners?
A. the prosecutor's information
B. the decisions of the trial court
C. certificate of non-appeal
D. the police investigation report
13. One of the following is not an Executive Clemency.
A. Reprieve
B. Absolute Pardon
C. Probation
D. Commutation of sentence
14. When the San Ramon prison and penal farm in Zamboanga City was established?
A. October 16, 1974
B. August 21, 1869
C. June 04, 1801
D. March 16, 1621
15. Before the reconstruction of San Ramon Prison, the Americans established in 1904
a penal settlement, which became known today as Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm.
Which of these?
A. Guhit Settlement Farm
B. Iuhit Penal Settlement
C. Iguhit Settlement Farm
D. Ingunit Penal Settlement
16. The first RDC facility was created in Building No. 9 of the Maximum Security
Compound and was relocated to the Medium Security Compound of Camp Sampaguita.
Historically, this statement is –
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
17. Under the BUCOR Manual of Operation, how long should an inmate stay at the
RDC and he should be due for transfer to the designated camp?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 15 days
18. As per the organizational structure of the BUCOR and the given function of the
office, under what office the chief of the RDC directly reports?
A. The Director
B. The Deputy Director
C. The Head of the Technical Division
D. Secretary of Justice
19. Being the initial stop of every national male prisoner, the RDC greatly improved its
rehabilitative programs. By the adoption of the behavioral modification modality, a
program for drug dependents, the RDC was converted into a Therapeutic Community
Camp on –
A. February 6, 2003
B. March 7, 2004
C. April 8, 2003
D. February 22, 1990
20. A prison model or theory which argues that an inmate’s mode of adaptation to
prison is influenced by factors external to the immediate context of the prisons, as well
as the immediate conditions of imprisonment. Which one of these?
A. Importation model
B. Exportation Model
C. Family Model
D. None of these
21. The Philippine Legislature during the American regime passed Act No. 1876
providing for the establishment of a prison in _____. The prison was built for the
prisoners of the province and insular prisoners who were members of the non-Christian
tribes of the Mountain Provinces and Nueva Viscaya.
A. La Trinidad, Benguet
B. Tiger Hill, Ifugao
C. Baguio Jail and Prison
D. Bontoc, Mt. Province
22. Among the penal farms in the country, ____ is the largest operating institution under
the BuCor covering a total land area of more or less 28,000 hectares.
A. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
B. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
23. The San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm was established on August 13, 1870 as –
A. Correccional de San Ramon
B. Colonia Penal de San Ramon
C. Ramon Blanco Colonia de Penal
D. Espanyol Colonia de Penal
24. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology or BJMP was created to address the
growing concerns of jail management and penology. The law that created the BJMP
was –
A. Republic Act 8551
B. Republic Act 6425
C. Republic Act 4890
D. Republic Act 6975
25. What theory of punishment proposes that sentencing can contribute towards
reducing crime by removing potential offenders from the community, so eliminating their
capacity to commit offenses?
A. Retribution
B. Incapacitation
C. Atonement
D. Reformation
26. Primarily, its clients are detainees accused before a court who are temporarily
confined in such jails while undergoing investigation, awaiting final judgement and those
who are serving sentence promulgated by the court 3 years and below. Which one of
the following?
A. The BJMP
B. The BUCOR
C. The CIW
D. All of the above
27. On January 2, 1991, the BJMP was created thru R.A. No. 6975 as a line Bureau
under the –
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. Office of the Vice President
28. The BJMP is the upgraded version of its forerunner, the Office of Jail Management
and Penology of the defunct PC/INP last headed by –
A. BRIG GEN Rafael Crame
B. BRIG GEN Arsenio Concepcion
C. BRIG GEN Fabian Ver
D. BRIG GEN Antonio Rodriquez
29. The first chief of the BJMP upon its creation was ____ who took his oath of office on
July 1, 1991.
A. Director Charles Mondejar
B. Director Charles Montalban
C. Director Charles Morrales
D. Director Charles Mariano
30. R.A. No. 9263 provides that the BJMP shall be headed by a Chief who is assisted
by 2 Deputy Chiefs, and 1 Chief of Directorial Staff, all of whom are appointed by the
President. What is R.A. No, 9263?
A. BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
B. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
C. BFP Professionalization Act of 2004
D. Law Repealing RA 6975
31. The second officer in command of the BJMP is the ___ with the rank of Chief
Superintendent.
A. Deputy Chief for Administration
B. Deputy Chief for Operations
C. Chief of the Directorial Staff
D. Most senior Commissioned Officer
32. When the Americans took over in the 1900s, the Bureau of Prisons was created
under the ____ known as Reorganization Act of 1905.
A. Act No. 1407
B. Act No. 1745
C. Act No. 2204
D. Act No. 1905
33. Provincial jails are under the management, administration and control of their
respective provincial governments. Inmates who are serving sentences from ___ are
confined in these jails.
A. 3 years and above
B. 1 day to 6 months
C. 1 day to 3 years
D. 6 months, 1 day to 3 years
34. Under the law, the ___ refers to the Officer-In-Charge of the New Bilibid Prison, the
Correctional Institution for Women and the prison and penal farms of the Bureau of
Corrections.
A. Penal Supervisor
B. Warden
C. Penal Superintendent
D. Director of Prison
35. It refers to the deferment of the implementation of the sentence for an interval of
time; it does not annul the sentence but merely postpones or suspends its execution.
Which one of these?
A. Executive Clemency
B. Reprieve
C. Petition
D. Recognizance
36. In absolute pardon, there is total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to
whom it is granted without any condition. It also restores –
A. Political right only
B. Civil rights only
C. Civil and political rights
D. Nothing
37. The Chief of the BJMP carries the rank of ___ and serves a tour of duty that must
not exceed four (4) years.
A. Director General
B. Deputy Director
C. Director
D. Warden
38. In every province, the BJMP operates and maintains a Provincial Jail Administrator’s
Office headed by a _____, to oversee the implementation of jail services of all district,
city and municipal jails within its territorial jurisdiction.
A. Provincial Director
B. Provincial Warden
C. Provincial Deputy Director
D. Provincial Administrator
39. The Board of Pardon and Parole may not consider the release on pardon/parole of a
national prisoner who is serving sentence in a municipal, city, district or provincial jail
unless –
A. the confinement in said jail is in good faith or due to circumstances beyond the
prisoner's control
B. upon the request of the President
C. the prisoner is over 70 yrs of age
D. the jail which he is being committed is over crowded
40. Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the _____.
And the Board may consider cases for parole, commutation of sentence or conditional
pardon of deserving prisoners whenever the interest of justice will be served thereby.
A. Office of the President
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Chairman or Executive Director of the Board
D. Director of Bureau of Corrections
41. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the Board should refer the petition to
the Probation and Parole Officer who should conduct an investigation within ___.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
42. Other penal colonies were established during the American regime. On November
27, 1929, the ____ was created under Act No. 3579.
A. Davao Penal Colony
B. Correctional Institution for Women
C. New Bilibid Prison
D. Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm
43. On November 15, 1940, all inmates of the Old Bilibid Prison in Manila were
transferred to the new site. The new institution was officially named as the New Bilibid
Prison on _____.
A. January 22, 1941
B. February 22, 1942
C. March 22, 1943
D. April 22, 1945
44. In the 1980s, Camp Sampaguita was constructed and became today as –
A. Maximum Security Prison Camp
B. Medium Security Prison Camp
C. Minimum Security Prison Camp
D. The Bukang Liwayway Camp
45. Under Proclamation No. 72 issued on September 26, 1954, another prison facility
was established in Occidental Mindoro. Which one of these?
A. Iwahig Prison Penal Farm
B. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
46. The Leyte Regional Prison was established on January 16, 1973 under -
A. Proclamation No. 1101
B. Proclamation No. 1102
C. Proclamation No. 1103
D. Proclamation No. 1104
47. Recognizing the need to properly orient newly committed prisoners to the Bureau of
Corrections, the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) was created through
Administrative Order No. 8, series of 1953 of the –
A. Department of Trade and Industry
B. Department of Health
D. Department of Justice
48. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be referred by the Board
to the _____ for comment and recommendation if the crime committed by the petitioner
is against national security or public order or law of nations.
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief Executive
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Director of the BUCOR
49. In case of an alien, the petition for executive clemency should be referred to the –
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Foreign Affairs
D. Any of the above
50. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of sentence are not eligible for executive
clemency for a period of ____ from the date of their last recommitment to prison or
conviction for evasion of service of sentence.
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
51. One of the following is the fundamental basis in the grant of parole to a prisoner.
A. There is a reasonable probability that upon his release he will be law abiding
B. The petitioner is old aged
C. Justice requires the grant as per order of a court
D. All of the above
52. When the penalty is imprisonment, the sentence is carried out either in the
municipal, provincial or national penitentiary depending on –
A. the judge who issue the order
B. the ability of the accused to get immediate rehabilitation
C. the availability of funds in prison or jails
D. the length of the sentence meted out
53. The correctional organization is a complex, hybrid organization that utilizes two
distinct, yet related management subsystems to achieve its goals. Which one of these?
A. Management of correctional employees and delivery of correctional services to
offender population
B. administration of the parole and probation system
C. Custody and supervision of inmates
D. Rehabilitation of inmates the soonest time
54. Correctional organization have two ideologically competing sub-organizational
structures, the custodial organization, with its emphasis on control and surveillance of
offender activities; and the treatment organization –
A. emphasizing on making a living inside prison
B. emphasizing on preventive discipline
C. emphasizing on treating special offenders
D. on the goals and methods of treatment and rehabilitation
55. If, based on the Pre-Parole Investigation Report conducted on the prisoner, there is
a clear and convincing evidence that his release on parole will endanger his own life
and those of his relatives or the life, safety and well-being of the victim, his relatives, his
witnesses and the community, the release of the prisoner should be –
A. deferred until the danger ceases
B. disapproved by the Board
C. referred to the Office of the President for comment
D. granted and placed on the witness protection program
56. This refers to information concerning an inmate’s personal circumstances, the
offense he committed, the sentence imposed, the criminal case numbers in the trial and
appellate courts, the date he commenced service for sentence, the date he was
received for confinement, the date of expiration of his sentence, the number of previous
convictions, if any, and his behavior or conduct while in prison. Which one of the
following is defined?
A. Carpeta
B. Prison Record
C. File 201
D. Mittimus
57. Under the rules, how long does an inmate stay at the quarantine cell upon
admission in the Reception and Diagnostic Center for physical examination?
A. 10 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days
58. After the quarantine period, the inmate should remain at the Reception and
Diagnostic Center for a period not exceeding _____ where he should undergo
psychiatric, psychological, sociological, vocational, educational and religious and other
examinations.
A. 30 days
B. 25 days
C. 55 days
D. 90 days
59. What should an inmate, before admission in the Reception and Diagnostic Center,
present?
A. Mittimus/Commitment Order of the court
B. Information and Court decision in the case
C. Certificate of Detention
D. All of the above
60. Under the rules, an inmate may not wear a wig or artificial hairpiece, unless –
A. the hair piece makes him look better
B. medical authorization to do so is approved by the superintendent
C. no hairpiece is available
D. upon request and approved by the Director of Prison
61. The newly-admitted inmate should be issued two (2) regulation uniform/suits and
two (2) t-shirts. This statement is –
A. Correct under the rules
B. Correct as a prerogative by the prison authorities
C. Correct as the inmate can bring his own clothing’
D. Incorrect
62. The BUCOR has a Classification Board that classifies inmates according to its
Manual of Operation. The chairman of this classification board is the –
A. Superintendent
B. Chief of the RDC
C. Medical Officer
D. Chief of the Custodial Force
63. Which of the following should be classified as a maximum security prisoner?
A. high security risk inmates
B. those sentenced to death
C. those whose minimum sentence is twenty (20) years imprisonment
D. All of the above
64. Those inmates who have two (2) or more records of escapes but they have served
eight (8) years since they were recommitted should be classified as –
A. Maximum security prisoners
B. Medium Security prisoners
C. Minimum security prisoners
D. Unclassified incorrigibles
65. According to the BUCOR manual of operation, the color of uniform, as to security
classification, of a Maximum security inmate is -
A. Tangerine
B. Blue
C. Brown
D. Gray
66. Which of the following is considered as a third class inmate?
A. one who has either been previously committed for 3 or more times as a sentenced
inmate
B. a newly arrived inmate
C. one whose known character and credit for work while in detention
D. a colonist
67. In order to be qualified as a colonist, the Director of Correction may, upon the
recommendation of the Classification Board, an inmate should -
A. be at least a first class inmate and has served one 1 year
B. have served imprisonment with good conduct for a period equivalent to one fifth (1/5)
of the maximum term of his prison sentence, or seven (7) years in the case of a life
sentence
C. have applied for pardon or parole
D. A and B must have been complied with
68. A colonist shall have the following privileges, except –
A. credit of an additional GCTA of five (5) days for each calendar month while he retains
said classification aside from the regular GCTA authorized under Article 97 of the
Revised Penal Code
B. automatic reduction of the life sentence imposed on the colonist to a sentence of
thirty (30 ) years
C. to the approval of the Director, to have his wife and children, or the woman he
desires to marry, live with him in the prison and penal farm
D. All of the above
69. The grant of colonist status may, for cause, be revoked at anytime by the
Superintendent with the approval of the Director. This statement is –
A. Correct, as part of the rules (Manual of Operation)
B. Correct, as mandated by the Revised Penal Code
C. Correct, as part of DOJ Department Order
D. Correct, as an Executive Order
70. An inmate may be transferred by the Director upon the recommendation of the
Superintendent concerned to another prison facility. Which of the following is the
fundamental purpose of the transfer?
A. Security of the inmate
B. Bringing the inmate closer to his family
C. Punishment of incorrigible inmates
D. Effective custody and control
71. Who may direct, as the occasion may require, the transfer of inmates from a
national prison to a provincial jail, or vice versa?
A. President
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Director of BUCOR
D. Provincial Governor
72. The Superintendent of a prison may authorize an inmate to be taken out of prison in
the following instances, except -
A. Conjugal visit of a male inmate to the CIW
B. to appear in court or other government agency as directed by competent authority
C. for medical examination/treatment or hospitalization in an outside clinic or hospital
D. to view the remains of a deceased relative
73. Who may grant Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) to an inmate who displays
good behavior and who has no record of breach of discipline or violation of prison rules
and regulations?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Justice
C. The Director of Corrections
D. The Court
74. All offenders who demonstrate good behavior earns one telephone call to an
authorized individual every 90 days. In such case, the telephone calls are monitored
and do have a duration of ____.
A. not exceeding 5 minutes
B. not exceeding 10 Minutes
C. not exceeding 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes with only 5 min allowable extension
75. An inmate or detainee who wants to get married may submit a written request to the
Superintendent. The Superintendent may approve an inmate’s request to marry, except
–
A. a legal restriction to a marriage exists
B. the proposed marriage presents a threat to the security or good order of the prison
C. the proposed marriage presents threat to the protection of the public
D. All of the above
76. In case an inmate is given disciplinary action, the Board of Discipline is authorized
to impose any of the following disciplinary measures, except -
A. Additional penalty for service of sentence
B. Caution or reprimand
C. Cancellation of recreation, education, entertainment and visiting privileges
D. Deprivation of GCTA for a specific period
77. As a general rule, use of instruments of restraint of restraint, such as handcuffs and
strait jackets, should not be applied as punishment, but rather –
A. to prevent an escape during an inmate’s transfer or movement
B. to prevent an inmate from harming himself or others, or from destroying public or
private property
C. to lock up the inmate on quarantine cell, as necessary
D. A and B are correct
78. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in the CIW may be allowed to
stay with the mother for a period not exceeding ___.
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 6 months
D. 1 yr, 6 months
79. Who may authorize an inmate to donate to a licensed physician, surgeon, known
scientist or any medical or scientific institution, including eye banks, and other similar
institutions, any organ, part or parts of his body?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Justice
C. The Director of the Bureau
D. The Medical officer of the Bureau
80. Who among the following may authorize release of an inmate?
A. the Supreme Court or lower courts, in cases of acquittal or grant of bail
B. Both A and C
C. the President of the Philippines, in cases of executive clemency or amnesty
D. the Secretary of Justice
81. The probation system of treating offenders without imprisonment was first adopted
in Massachusetts in ___and afterward adopted in France, Belgium, and various
American states.
A. 1878
B. 1842
C. 1780
D. 1901
82. The first Director of the Bureau of Correction, in 1904 to 1910 was –
A. Lt. Col. Paulino Santos
B. Col. Eduardo Quintos
C. Lt. George Wolfe
D. Ramon Victorio
83. According to the rules at the BUCOR, head counts of inmates are conducted. How
many times in 24 hours do the authorities conducts head count?
A. four times a day
B. six times a day
C. three times a day in 3 shift
D. five times a day
84. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or
a fine only but the application for probation should be filed with the –
A. Trial court
B. Appellate court
C. Prosecutors office
D. Board of Pardons and Parole
85. Can an order granting or denying probation be appealable under the law?
A. No, PD 968 do not allow it
B. Yes, PD 968 allows it
C. It depends upon the court
D. Yes, PD 603 allows it
86. Under the law, the probation officer shall submit to the court the investigation report
on a defendant not later than –
A. 10 days from receipt of the order
B. 15 days from receipt of the order
C. 30 days from receipt of the order
D. 60 days from receipt of the order
87. The general concept of punishment is that –
A. it is an infliction of some sort of pain on the offender for violating the law
B. it is for the purpose of trial by ordeal
C. it is for personal revenge
D. it is a restriction offending members of society
88. ___ is the latest justification of punishment. Under this theory, society can best be
protected from crime if the purpose of imprisonment is to reform or rehabilitate the
prisoner.
A. Reformation
B. Incapaciation
C. Expiation
D. Fine
89. Release from prison, are intended to reform the offender. This is a new concept of
correctional administration. Thus, reformation and rehabilitation are now thought of as –
A. Treatment through institutional programs
B. Limitation of punishment
C. Concealing criminal activities
D. Treatment through non-institutional programs
90. What school of thought in criminology/ penology admits that minors are incapable of
committing crime because they have not reached the age of responsibility?
A. Classical
B. Neo-classical
C. Positivist
D. Mixed
91. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise, Director of English prisons, after visiting Elmira in 1897,
open the –
A. Kent Reform Institution for Boys
B. Borstal Institution
C. Elmira Reformatory
D. Golden Gate Reformatory
92. Probation started in ___ with the old practice of suspending judgment and releasing
the offender on his own recognizance with the promise not to commit any more crime.
A. England
B. America
C. Rome
D. Italy
93. In the Philippines, Act No. 4221 of the Philippine Assembly established adult
probation, but it was abolished in 1937 after two years of existence because it was
declared unconstitutional in the case of –
A. People vs. Veneranda
B. People vs. Vera
C. People vs. De Vera
D. People vs. Devenadera
94. This concept embodies the belief that punishment keeps offenders from committing
offenses again. Which of these?
A. Deterrence
B. Reformation
C. Retribution
D. Expiation
95. Under the Probation law, how many times can offender be granted probation?
A. Once as a minor, and another as an adult
B. Depends on the discretion of the court
C. As many times as his conviction
D. Once and only on the first offense
96. A system in prison where complete silence was enforced and prisoners were
confined in single cells at night but they do congregate work in shops during the day.
Which one of these?
A. Auburn Prison
B. Irish Prison
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Walnut Street Jail
97. During the 16th and 17th Century, a method of disposing offenders to the colonies
of England was by means of shipping. This was the principle of -
A. Banishment and Transportation
B. Judicial reprieve and recognizance
C. Capital punishment
D. Retribution and Incapacitation
98. Which one of the following is an accessory penalty which deprives the offender his
rights of parental authority, marital authority and his right to manage his property?
A. Civil Interdiction
B. Civil Deprivation
C. Civil Interruption
D. Civil Rights Suspension
99. As a matter of rule, the filing of application for probation will be ___ of the right to
appeal on the part of the accused.
A. a cancellation
B. a suspension
C. a refusal
D. a waiver
100. Which one of the following is considered a forerunner of modern day probation
which involves the temporary withholding of the sentence?
A. Benefit of clergy
B. Judicial Reprieve
C. Recognizance
D. Transportation
CORRECTIONAL
ADMINISTRATION
1C
2C
3C
4A
5B
6C
7C
8A
9A
10B
11B
12D
13C
14A
15B
16C
17D
18C
19B
20A
21D
22A
23B
24C
25B
26D
27C
28D
29A
30B
31B
32C
33A
34C
35C
36B
37A
38C
39D
40D
41B
42C
43A
44C
45A
46C
47C
48A
49A
50B
51A
52B
53B
54C
55C
56D
57B
58C
59D
60A
61C
62A
63B
64A
65A
66B
67C
68D
69C
70A
71A
72A
73A
74C
75C
76B
77A
78C
79B
80D
81C
82B
83C
84B
85B
86A
87D
88A
89B
90C
91D
92C
93A
94B
95C
96B
97D
98 B
99 A
100 B
1C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. A
54. D
55. A
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. D
60. B
61. A
62. A
63. D
64. B
65. A
66. A
67. D
68. D
69. A
70. B
71. A
72. A
73. C
74. A
75. D
76. A
77. D
78. A
79. C
80. B
81. A
82. C
83. A
84. A
85. A
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. D
90. B
91. B
92. A
93. B
94. A
95. D
96. A
97. B
98. B
99. D
100. B
Prayer before taking board exam
Father,
I pray that you would help me to pass this exam. Thank you for your guidance in leading me to
this study and for sustaining me as I have worked this qualification.
I ask now that your spirit would lead me. Come sharpen my thinking and help me to excel in
this test of my learning and understanding, may I be able to recall everything I need from my
studies and answer each question well. AMEN
One of the prayers I've recited before taking the Criminology Licensure Examination
Always remember to think positively, also keep in mind that you should pass the exam.
Good luck future criminologist
Prepared By:
Jake Delacruz Calongcong
Registered Criminologist
MSCJ (In-progress)

Board Examination Question and Answer

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originaltitel

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Board Examination Question and Answer

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

NCV REVIEW CENTER

MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION FOR

90. Portrait parle is correctly defined by which of the following?

1. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.

A. patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block

A. training of station commander

A. changing license plate of surveillance vehicle

A. regular promotion B. lateral entry

A. assign an investigator to investigate the witness

A. Civil relation unit

A. never meet subject face to face

A. completely reliable source - Doubtfully true information

A. PNP Directorate for Plans

A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion

A. Motorcycle B. Patrol car

A. Patrol hazards B. Patrol effort

A. Command post B. Field room

CRIMINAL SOSIOLOGY, ETHICS

221 Seniority in Rank✔

1. A probationer is allowed to do the following EXCEPT,

100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?

Good luck future criminologist

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen