Pharmacology & Toxicology RED PACOP
Both the agonist and antagonist have
1. Pharmacodynamics is
A. The science that examines the
interrelationship of the
physicochemical properties of the drug
and the route of administration on the
rate and extent of systemic circulation
B. The science of the kinetics of drug
absorption, distribution and elimination
C. The part of pharmacology, which
deals with what a drug does to the
body
D. The science, which deals with the
physicochemical properties of the drug
that allow it to be designed into
dosage forms
E. A and B
2. Which of the following types of drugs binds
to a receptor and produce an effect similar to
that of endogenous ligands?
A. Inverse agonist
B. Agonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Competitive antagonist
E. Noncompetitive antagonist
3. Drugs ‘x’ binds to drug ‘y’ as a result of
which an inactive complex is formed. This
type of antagonism is called
A. Competitive antagonism
B. Non-competitive antagonism
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Neutralizing antagonism
E. Partial antagonism
4. Epinephrine and acetylcholine act on the
sympathatetic and parasympathetic
autonomic nervous system, respsectively, and
their effects are opposite to each other. This
type of antagonism is called
A. competitive antagonism
B. non competitive antagonism
C. physiologic antagonism
D. neutralizing antagonism
5. Which of the following is not true about
competitive antagonism?
A. It involves selective binding of the
antagonist to a particular type of
receptor in such a way as to prevent
the binding of the antagonist
B.
similar chemical structure
C. It is reversible
D. The antagonist does not have the
ability to activate the receptor
E. None of the above
6. The relative measure f the safety and
effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to
ED50. The pharmacological term used to
indicate this ratio is known as
A. Pharmacological efficacy
B. Pharmacological toxicity ratio
C. Therapeutic index
D. Median effective ratio
E. Competitive antagonism
7. A physician may prescribed carbidopa
along with levodopa to increase the halflife
levodopa and the duration of its anti-
parkinsonian effect. This way of enhancing of
drug effect is known as
A. Potentiation
B. Synergism
C. Addition
D. Partial antagonism
E. Competitive antagonism
8. Which of the following is the main organ of
metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Intestines
D. Pancreas
E. Heart
9. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the
following adverse side-effects?
A. Blue baby syndrome
B. Gray baby syndrome
C. Red man syndrome
D. A and B
E. B and C
10. Co-amoxiclav: amoxicillin/clavulanic acid :
co-trimoxazole _____
A. Trimethoprim/mebendazole
B. Triamterene/mebendazole
C. Triamterene/sulfamethoxazole
D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
E. None of the above
11. Which of the following drugs does not C. Hydrolysis
belong to the group? D. Sulfonation
A. Omeprazole E. None of the above
B. Lansoprazole
C. Aripiprazole 18. Monoamine oxidase is an
D. Ranitidine A. Enzyme
E. All of the above B. Hormone
C. Inhibitor
12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can D. Drug
cause red-green color blindness E. Cosmetic
A. Rifamcin
B. Isoniazid 19. Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on
C. Pyrazinamide his crops. Hour later he started to experience
D. Ethambutol diarrhea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction and
E. Streptomycin tachycardia. He was immediately sent to the
hospital for treatment. Which of drugs should
13. Which of the following drugs is the least be given to Gon?
considered as prodrug? A. Serine
A. Captopril B. Edrophonium
B. Enalapril C. Atropine
C. Ramipril D. Prazosin
D. Accupril E. Methycephaline
E. None of the above
20. Aside from the answer in #19, what other
14. (Enervon®) tablet contains the following drug can be given to Gon?
EXCEPT: A. DOM
A. Nicotinamide B. DAM
B. Calcium C. DEM
C. Ascorbic acid D. DIM
D. Magnesium E. DUM
E. None of the above
21. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and
15. The sympathetic division of the ANS was prescribed beta-blockers for her
stems from_____ treatment. She has a history of asthma. Which
A. Craniosacral of the ff. beta-blockers should be given to
B. Thoracolumbar cookie?
C. Craniolumbar A. Propanolol
D. Thoracosacral B. Timolol
E. None of the above C. Levobunolol
D. Metoprolol
16. Which of the following prevents the E. None of the above
storage of the acetylcholine to terminal
vesicles? 22. Andrea is going perform in the 2011 spring
A. Vesamicol music festival. Hours before her performance
B. Reserpine she started to experience “stage fright”. Which
C. Botulinun toxin of the ff. drugs can be given to manage her
D. Hemicholinuim condition?
E. None of the above A. Lasartan
B. Enalapril
17. The following are phase II reactions C. Propanolol
EXCEPT: D. Prazosin
A. Acetylation E. Paracetamol
B. Methylation
23. The hydraulic equation is C. Headache
A. CO=PVR x BP D. All of the above
B. PVR=CO x CO E. None of the above
C. BP=CO x PVR
D. All of the above 30. Montelukast is a/an
E. None of the above A. Leukotriene pathway inhibitor
B. Mast cell stabilizer
24. Which of the ff. are substrates of kininase C. Anti – IgE monoclonal antibodies
II/peptidyl dipeptidase? D. All of the above
A. Angiotensin I E. None of the above
B. Bradikinin
C. Angiotensin II 31. DOC for typical absence seizure
D. A and B A. Lamotrigin
E. A and C B. Phenytoin
C. Ethosuximide
25. Lanoxin acts on which of the following. D. Carbamazepine
A. Na/K ATPase pump E. All of the above
B. Na/H ATPase pump
C. H/K ATPase pump 32. Flumazenil is
D. Na/Ca ATPase pump A. Barbiturate antagonist
E. None of the above B. Benzodiazepine antagonist
C. Barbiturates antagonist
26. Anti-arrhythmic drugs under class 4 acts D. Benzodiazepine agonist
on E. None of the above
A. Na channels
B. Ca channels 33. Arrange the correct order of the stages of
C. K channels anesthesia
D. B blockers I. Stage of excitement
E. None of the above II. Stage of medullary depression
III. Stage of surgical anesthesia
27. Which of the following are loop diuretics? IV. Stage of analgesia
I. Ethacrynic acid A. I,IV,II,III
II. Furosemide B. IV,I,II,III
III. Bumetimide C. IV,I,III,II
IV. Indapamide D. I,IV,III,II
A. I and II E. None of the above
B. II and III
C. I and IV 34. Dissociative anesthetic state characterized
D. I, II and III by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia can be
E. II, III and IV produced by which drug?
A. Etomidate
28. Andrei works as a pilot in an airline B. Ketamine
company. Which of the following C. Propofol
antihistamines can he take? D. Thiopental
A. Fexofenadine E. Seconal
B. Bromoheniramine
C. Promethazine 35. Neuroleptanesthesia is produce by which
D. Chlorpheniramine drug combination?
E. All of the above A. Fentanyl, droperidol and NO
B. Propofol, fentanyl and halothane
29. 5HT3 antgonist are used for: C. Fentanyl, etomidate and halothane
A. Nausea and vomiting D. All of the above
B. Diarrhea E. None of the above
 42. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to
36. Which of the following does not belong to lower cholesterol levels?
the group? A. Retinol
A. Lidocaine B. Thiamine
B. Mepivacaine C. Riboflavin
C. Prilocaine D. Niacin
D. Benzocaine E. Panthothenic acid
E. Arecholine
43. Which of the given is considered the
37. What is the treatment for malignant DMAD”s of 1st choice to treat rheumatoid
hyperthermia? arthritis?
A. Succinylcholine A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Gabapentin B. Methotrexate
C. Rocuronium C. Azathioprine
D. Dantrolene D. Mycophenolate mofetil
E. Arecholine E. Cyclodextrins

38. Which of the following antiviral drug can 44. Isoniazid can cause the following
be used for Parkinsonism? laboratory data except?
A. Abacavir A. Lactic acidosis
B. Dinanosine B. Anemia
C. Efavirenz C. Hypoglycaemia
D. Amantadine D. Leukocytes
E. NOTA E. NOTA

39. Jet a five year old boy is having a problem 45. DOC for chronic gout
with bed wetting. What drug can be prescribed A. Colchicines
for his condition? B. Probenecid
A. Citalopram C. Febuxostat
B. Furosemine D. Serine
C. Sertraline E. Allopurinol
D. Amitriptyline
E. Amilorine 46. A peptide hormone secreted by the
posterior pituitary that participates in labor and
40. It is the dextrorotatory stereoisomer of delivery and elicits milk injection in lactating
methylated derivative of levorphanol which is women.
used as antitussive? A. Prolactin
A. Codeine B. Oxcytocin
B. Dextromethorphan C. Insulin
C. Dolophine D. Somatostatin
D. Revex E. Simvastatin
E. Morphine
47. Which of the following betablockers is
41. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are most widely used in the therapy of
advised to be given during night time with the thyrotoxicosis?
EXEPTION of _______ which can be given A. Betaxolol
anytime of the day. B. Bisoprolol
A. Simvastatin C. Metoprolol
B. Lovastatin D. Propranolol
C. Atorvastatin E. Linalool
D. Flivastatin
E. NOTA
48. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with E. I and III only
thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following
thionamodes shoul be given to her? 54. Calcitonon
A. PTU A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate
B. Methimazole B. Increase serum calcium and
C. Carbimazide phosphate
D. Mebendazole C. Increase serum phosphate only
E. All of the above D. Both A and B
E. Neither A nor B
49. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog
A. Glargine 55. What is the oral form of penicillin?
B. NPH A. Pen G
C. Insulin lispro B. Pen V
D. All of the above C. Pen C
D. None of the above
50. Safest sulfonylurea for the elderly E. All of the above
diabetics
A. Tolbutamide 56. What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL
B. Chlorpropamide cephalosporin still in general use?
C. Tolazamide A. Cefalexin
D. Nateglinide B. Cephadrine
E. None of the above C. Cefadoxole
D. Cefazolin
51. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate E. All of the above
postprandial glucose levels and is approved
for preprandial use in individuals with type I 57. Vancomycin is from
and type II DM A. Streptococcus orientalis
A. Sitagliptin B. Streptomyces orientalis
B. Pramlintide C. Streptococcus orchidaceus
C. Exenatide D. Streptomyces orchidaceus
D. All of the above E. None of the above
E. None of the above
58. Which of the following is derived from
52. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of erythromycin by addition of methyl group and
an overdose of B-blocking agents because has an improved acid stability and oral
ability to increase cAMP production in the absorption
heart A. Azithromycin
A. Amylin B. Clarithromycin
B. Exenatide C. Clindamycin
C. Sitagliptin D. Streptomycin
D. Glucagon E. None of the above
E. All of the above
59. Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with
53. Vitamin D is loop diuretics may result to:
I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural A. Ototoxicity
form B. Neprhrotoxicity
II. A secosteroid C. Hypertension
III. Produced in the skin from 7- D. Both A and B
dehydrocholoesterol E. None of the above
A. I only
B. III only 60. The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are:
C. II and III only A. Neomycin and kanamycin
D. A and II only B. Streptomycin and gentamicin
 C. Neomycin and gentamicin
D. All of the above 68. Methylated morphine
E. None of the above A. Codeine
B. Heroin
61. Trimethoprim acts on C. Methadone
A. Dihydropteroate synthase D. Naloxone
B. Dihydrofolate reductase E. all of the above
C. DNA gyrase
D. A and B 69. Which of the following H2- antagonist has
E. A and C the highest bioavailability?
A. Cimetidine
62. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is B. Ranitidine
improved when taken with fatty foods: C. Famotidine
A. Ketoconazole D. Nizatidine
B. 5-flucytosine E. None of the above
C. Nystatin
D. Griseofulvin 70. Which is the most potent H2- antagonist?
E. All of the above A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
63. This drug is the treatment of choice for C. Famotidine
giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis. D. Nizatidine
A. Iodoquinol E. All of the above
B. Diloxanide furoate
C. Metronidazole 71. Plasil® is
D. paramomycin A. Metoclopramide
E. none of the above B. Chlopropamide
C. Enalapril
64. Prussian blue is used to chelate D. Furosemide
A. Thallium E. All of the above
B. Cesium
C. Cyanide 72. Silymarin is for the
D. A and B A. Liver
E. B and C B. Kidney
C. Brain
65. Treatment for iron poisoning D. All of the above
A. Deferoxamine E. None of the above
B. Methylene blue
C. Ferroin 73. Ginkgo should not be given with
D. Penicillamine A. Aspirin
E. None of the above B. Vancomycin
C. Caffeine
66. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose D. Juice
A. NAC E. All of the above
B. Atropine
C. Bicarbonate 74. Royal jelly is used as
D. Fomepizole A. Diet aid
E. All of the above B. Analgesic
C. Tonic
67. Acetylated morphine D. Digestive aid
A. Codeine E. All of the above
B. Heroin
C. Methadone 75. What is the mechanism of action of a
D. Naloxone chloramphenicol?
 A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor A. Reversible inhibition of
B. Protein synthesis inhibitor acetylcholinesterase
C. DNA gyrase inhibitor B. Spasm of accomodation
D. Antimetabolite C. Constipation
E. None of the above D. Bronchoconstriction
76. Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital E. Weakness of skeletal muscle
with pneumonia due to gram-negative
bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. 81. Typical symptoms of cholinesterase
The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are inhibitor toxicity include all of the following
80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What EXCEPT
maintenance dosage must be administered A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
intravenously every 6 hours to eventually B. Salivation
obtain average steady-state plasma C. Miosis
concentrations of 4 mg/L? D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle
A. 0.32 mg E. Paralysis of accommodation
B. 115 mg
C. 160 mg 82. Atropine overdosage may cause all of the
D. 230 mg following EXCEPT
E. None of the above A. Mental aberrations
B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth
77. If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question muscle
101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic C. Decrease in gastric secretion
plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, D. Papillary constriction
how much should you give? E. Increase in cardiac rate
A. 0.1 mg
B. 10 mg 83. A college friend consults you regarding the
C. 115.2 mg suitability of the theraphy his doctor has
D. 160 mg prescribed for hypertension. He complains of
E. None of the above postural and exercise hypotension
(“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems
78. Biotransformation (metabolism) usually with ejaculation during sex. Which of the
results in a product that is following is most likely to produce these
A. More likely to distribute intracellularly effects?
B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original A. Propranol
drug B. Guanethedine
C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney C. Prazosin
tubules D. Hydralizine
D. More lipid-soluble than the original E. Captopril
drug
E. All of the above 84. Captopril and Enalapril do all of the
following EXCEPT
79. Physostigimine and bethanechol in small A. Increase renin concentration in the
doses have similar effects on all of the blood
following EXCEPT B. Inhibit an enzyme
A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its
muscle) receptor
B. Salivary glands D. Decrease the angiotensin II
C. Ureteral tone concentration in the blood
D. Sweat glands E. Increase sodium and decrease
E. Gastric secretion potassium levels in the urine

80. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may 85. The primary mechanism of action of
cause all of the following EXCEPT digitalis involves
 A. An increase of the action potential D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid
amplitude decarboxylase
B. An increase in ATP synthesis E. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type B
C. A modification of the actin molecule 91. This drug is a hydrazide derivative that
D. An increase in systolic intracellular binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types
calcium levels A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of
E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange amine metabolism.
A. Amoxapine
86. Which of the following is (are) frequently B. Amitriptyline
associated with increased gastrointestinal C. Isocarboxazid
motility and diarrhea D. Maprotiline
A. Timolol E. Fluoxetine
B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2
C. Corticosteroids 92. This drug has analgesic efficacy
D. Leukotriene B4 equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at
E. None of the above mu receptors.
A. Dextromethorphan
87. The major action of cromolyn B. Nalbuphine
A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in C. Methadone
the bronchi D. Codeine
B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the E. Naltrexone
adrenals
C. Block of calcium channels in 93. This antagonist drug has been proposed
lymphocytes as a maintenance drug for addicts in
D. Block of mediator release from mast treatment programs. A single oral dose will
cells block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48
E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils hours.
A. Dextromethorphan
88. Each of the following is recognized as a B. Nalbuphine
central neurotransmitter EXCEPT C. Methadone
A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) D. Codeine
B. Norepinephrine E. Naltrexone
C. Dopamine
D. cAMP 94. This drug is free of analgesic and
E. Acetylcholine addictive properties and only rarely causes
constipation. It is an effective antitussive.
89. Which ONE of the following best describes A. Dextromethorphan
the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? B. Nalbuphine
A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of C. Methadone
glutamic acid D. Codeine
B. inhibition of GABA transaminase E. Naltrexone
leading to increased levels of GABA
C. Activation of glycine receptors in the 95. This drug is a full antagonist at opioid
spinal cord receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent
D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated to that of morphine, but its actions are more
increases in chloride conductance prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt
discontinuance are milder than those with
90. Which of the following statements about morphine.
carbidopa is accurate? A. Dextromethorphan
A. It crosses the blood brain barrier B. Nalbuphine
B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A C. Methadone
C. It is converted to the false transmitter, D. Codeine
carbidopamine E. Naltrexone
 102. Important drugs used in the treatment of
96. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin thyrotoxicosis include all of the following
A. Is brought about by heparin EXCEPT
B. Is brought about by warfarin A. PTU
C. Is brought about by anistreplase B. KI
D. Is used preoperatively and during C. Thyroglobulin
surgery in patients at risk of deep vein D. Radioactive iodine
thromboses E. Methimazole
E. Can be reversed by administration of
Vitamin K1 oxide 103. All of the following act by a similar
mechanism EXCEPT
97. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a A. Tolbutamide
patient receiving heparin because aspirin B. Tolazamide
A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption C. Chlorpropamide
B. Has antithrombin activity D. Glipizide
C. Inhibits heparin metabolism E. Metformin
D. Inhibits platelet aggregation
E. All of the above 104. All of the following antimicrobial agents
are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT
98. Increased levels of which of the following A. Clindamycin
may be associated with a decreased risk of B. Tetracycline
atherosclerosis? C. Vancomycin
A. VLDL D. Stretomycin
B. LDL E. Chloramphenicol
C. IDL
D. HDL 105. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
E. Cholesterol cephalosporins involves
A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis
99. Which of the following causes a reduction B. Interference with the synthesis of
in absorption of bile acids from the GIT ergosterol
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes
B. Colestipol D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases
C. Niacin E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase
D. Probucol
E. All of the above 106. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
tetracycline involves
100. Drugs used in the treatment of gout A. Inhibition of the conversion of
include the following EXCEPT lanosterol to ergosterol
A. Indomethacin B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA
B. Allopurinol polymerase
C. Colchicines C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-
D. Probenecid tRNA to bacterial ribosomes
E. Aspirin D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal
peptidyltransferases
101. All of the following are hormones E. None of the above
EXCEPT
A. Bromocriptine 107. All of the following statements about
B. Somatotropin aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT
C. Thyrotropin A. They exert synergistic effects with
D. Vasopressin beta-lactam antibiotics against
E. Somatomedin selected organisms
B. They are bactericidal
 C. Their antibacterial action involves A. Dactinomycin
binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit B. Daunorubucin
and subsequent inhibition of C. Vincristine
peptidyltransferase D. Cisplastin
D. Clinical resistance occurs through E. Mechlorethamine
plasmid-mediated formation of group
transferase-inactivating enzymes 113. Which of the following is (are) important
E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving
are usually resistant to cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent
aminoglycosides urotoxicity?
A. MESNA
108. The primary reason for the use of drug B. Acrolein
combinations in the treatment of TB is to C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate
A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each D. A and B
drug E. A and C
B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects
C. Enhance the activity against 114. Which of the following is true about the
metabolically inactive mycobacteria drug Pritor®?
D. Delay the emergence of resistance A. It is of the same therapeutic class and
E. All of the above indication as Hypace® and Diovan ®
B. It is used to treat essential
109. Which ONE of the following anticancer hypertension
drugs is cell cycle nonspecific? C. It is associated with tachycardia,
A. Vinblastine bradycardia, hypotension, and edema
B. Etoposide D. A and B
C. Cytarabine E. B and C
D. Daunorubucin
E. All of the above 115. Which of the following is not present in
Cluviscol® tablets?
110. Which of the following is not a proton- A. Vitamin D2 400 IU
pump inhibitor? B. Calcium 120mg
A. Omeprazole C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg
B. Metronidazole D. Vitamin C 150mg
C. Pantoprazole E. Cobalt 3mg
D. Lansoprazole
E. None of the above 116. Which of the following is true regarding
N-acetylcysteine?
111. Filariasis, an infection which can lead to A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the
lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by treatment of paracetamol poisoning
Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. B. It is used as a mucolytic agent
Eradication of the microfilaria can be C. It is marketed as Acetadote®,
accomplished by the use of which of the Fluimucil® and Hidonac®
following agents? D. A and B only
A. Praziquantel E. A, B and C
B. Diethylcarbamazine
C. Niclosamide 117. Which of the following is true regarding
D. Albendazole Cellcept®?
E. Metronidazole A. It contains a prodrug that is converted
to the active drug in the liver.
112. Which of the following antineosplastic B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate
agents is considered as cell cycle phase- dehydrogenase
specific agent in terms of its action on cancer C. It decreases B cell proliferation
cells? D. A and B only
 E. A, B and C B. Danazol
C. Omeprazole
118. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n) D. Pramipexole
A. Cholinesterase inhibitor E. Methimazole
B. Osmotic diuretic 125. Which of the following is an indication of
C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent Ergotamine?
D. Prodrug A. Partial seizures
E. Prostaglandin agonist B. Arthritic pain
C. Tachycardia
119. As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is D. Psoriasis
most similar in mechanism of action to which E. Migraine headaches
one of the following agents?
A. Amiodarone 126. At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s
B. Propranolol Disease Eldepryl® is a (n):
C. Flecainide A. MAO-A inhibitor
D. Verapamil B. MAO-B inhibitor
E. Mexiletine C. COMT
D. Anticholinergic
120. Which of the following antiarrythmic E. All of the above
drugs is (are) associated with an adverse
effect of cinchonism? 127. Which hypoglycemic agent is most
A. Acebutolol similar in pharmacological action in miglitol?
B. Moricizine A. Glipizide
C. Quinidine B. Lispro insulin
D. Lidocaine C. Proglitazone
E. Disopyramide D. Replaganide
E. Acarbose
121. Colestipol can be classified as a(n)
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor 128. Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of
B. Vasopressor simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic sympotomatic relief of hyperacidity and
D. ACE inhibitor flatulence.
E. Bile acid sequestrant A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
122. Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS is incorrect
B. Potentiating the effects of GABA C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
D. Interfering with amine pump incorrect
E. Inhibiting the action of MAO E. All of the above

123. Clavunalic acid in Timentin® 129. Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name

A. Inhibits beta-lactamases for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to
B. Prevents the urinary excretion of the same generation of cephalosporins as
ticarcillin cephalexin.
C. Prevents first pass metabolism of A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
ticarcillin is incorrect
D. Is a buffer B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
E. Is an antiprotozoal agent is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
124. Propylthiouracil is used for the same D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
indication as incorrect
A. Fluororacil E. None of the above

130. Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by
the posterior pituitary. Statement 2: Alpha-
hypophamine is secreted by the posterior
pituitary.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
131. Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may
cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual
changes and vascular congestion of the eye.
Statement 2: The active component in
cannabis is 9-tetrahydocannabinol.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
132. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is
monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is important
to maintain the INR between 2 to 3.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
133. Statement 1: Ridaura® is a gold-
cointaining DMARD. Statement 2: It is
indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid
arthritis and multiple sclerosis.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
134. Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit
the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA
reductase. Statement 2: Lescol® is
contraindicated for use in patients who are
pregnant
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
135. Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in
a transdermal form for the prevention of
motion sickness. Statement 2: It acts by
blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
136. Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an
antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an
antipsychotic used clinically. Statement 2:
Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal
effects in contrast to chlorpromazine.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
E. None of the above
137. Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is
characterized by marked hypotension on
taking the first few doses of medication.
Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use
of doxazosin.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect
 E. None of the above I. Bacampicillin
II. Amoxicillin
138. Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltage- III. Ampicillin
gated Ca ion channel in the neuron. A. I only
Statement 2: Its use is associated with B. III only
adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, C. I and II only
hirsutism and ataxia. D. II and III only
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 E. I, II and III only
is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 143. Which of the following is (are) used as an
is incorrect anti-fungal agent?
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct I. Cycloserine
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are II. Mafenide
incorrect III. Terbinafine
E. None of the above A. I only
B. III only
139. Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A C. I and II only
derivative that is under pregnancy category X. D. II and III only
Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of E. I, II and III only
patients Psoriasis and alopecia.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 144. Which of the following is (are) blockers of
is incorrect H1 receptors?
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 I. Diphenhydramine
is incorrect II. Hydroxyzine
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct III. Ranitidine
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are A. I only
incorrect B. III only
E. None of the above C. I and II only
D. II and III only
140. Which of the following is(are) E. I, II and III only
dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents
I. Ropinerole 145. Which of the following is (are) false about
II. Pergolide milrinone lactate?
III. Procyclidine A. It may be administered Orally or
A. I only parenterally
B. III only B. It produces positive inotropic action
C. I and II only C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D. I,II and III D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3,
E. NOTA thereby increasing cAMP levels
E. Both A and D
141. Which of the following is protease
inhibitors 146. The following statements about alteplase
I. Cidofovir are true except:
II. Acyclovir A. It is produce by recombinant DNA
III. Nelfinavir technology
A. I only B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator
B. III only C. It is administered parenterally
C. I and II only D. It stimulate RBC production
D. II and III only E. NOTA
E. I, II and III only
147. The following statements about Zocor®
142. Which of the following are are true except:
aminopenicillins A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase.
 B. It is an antiviral drug
C. It is contraindicated to pregnant
patient
D. It requires to be taken at right
E. NOTA
148. Which of the following is (are) true about
dobutamine?
A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant
and antihypertensive agent.
B. It is only given parentally
C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor
D. A and B
E. B and C
149. Which of the following is true about
fentanyl?
A. It is available as a transdermal system
B. It may be use as a cough suppressant
C. It is use as local anesthetic
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B
150. reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can
lower the blood pressure and depress the
CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic
pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring
about these effect?
A. DOPA decarboxylase
B. Storage of catecholamines in the
presynaptic vesicle
C. Release of norepinephrine from
presynaptic terminals
D. MAO enzyme
E. Uptake- 1 mechanism
151. Which of the following areas of
toxicology focuses on the primarily on the
medico legal aspects of the harmful effects of
chemical in the human and animals
A. Environmental toxicology
B. Clinical toxicology
C. Forensic toxicology
D. Developmental toxicology
E. Reproductive toxicology
152. A type of antagonism that occurs when
two chemicals counterbalance each other by
producing opposite effect on the same
physiological function.
A. receptor antagonism
B. functional antagonism
C. chemical antagonism
D. dispositional antagonism
E. none of the above
153. When a chemical A and B administered
simultaneously, their combine effects are far
greater than the sum of their effects when
given alone. The chemical interaction between
chemicals A and B can be described as which
of the following?
A. Potentiative
B. Additive
C. Antagonistic
D. functionally antagonistic
E. synergistic
154. A type of antagonism that occurs when
the absorption, biotransformation, distribution,
or excretion of chemical is altered so that the
concentration and duration at the target of
diminished.
A. receptor antagonism
B. functional antagonism
C. chemical antagonism
D. dispositional antagonism
E. none of the above
155. A type of dose response relationship
which describe the response of an individual
or organism to varying doses of chemical.
A. individual dose-response relationship
B. quantal dose-response relationship
C. graded dose-response relationship
D. both A and B
E. both A and C
156. A type of dose response relationship
which characterized the distribution of
response to different doses in a population of
individual organism.
A. individual dose-response relationship
B. quantal dose-response relationship
C. graded dose-response relationship
D. both A and B
E. both A and C
157. A dose U- shaped dose response
curved which result with some xenobiotics that
imparts beneficial or stimulatory effects at low
doses but adverse effects at higher doses.
A. hormesis
B. threshold
C. individual dose response curve
D. graded response curve
 E. none of the above D. chloroform
158. It is defined as the ratio of the dose E. carbon tetrachloride
required to produce a toxic effect and the
dose need to illicit desire therapeutic 164. It is use primarily in the production of the
response. refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane.
A. ED50 A. toluene
B. threshold B. carbon tetrachloride
C. therapeutic index C. ethanol
D. LD50 D. benzene
E. none of the above E. chloroform

159. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the 165. Metabolite of phosgene which damage
impact of chemical pollutants in the membranes and other intracellular structures
environment on biological organism, specilly leading to necrosis and tumor formation.
studying the impacts of chemicals on A. tetrachloroethylene
nonhuman organism B. phosgene
A. forensic toxicology C. methylene chloride
B. clinical toxicology D. ethylbenzene
C. developmental toxicology E. none of the above
D. reproductive toxicology
E. environmental toxicology 166. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to
acetaldehyde
160. The dose required to result in a response A. aldehyde dehydrogenase
in 50 percent of population. B. catalase
A. median dose C. alcohol dehydrogenase
B. ceiling dose D. both A and C
C. potency E. none of the above
D. LD50
E. ED50 167. Ingestion of these substance may cause
visual disturbance ranging from mild
161. Place the following mechanism of toxin photophobia and blurred vision to markedly
delivery in order from most effective to least reduced acuity and complete blindness
effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: A. Ethanol
oral 4: inhalation 5: dermal B. Chloroform
A. 1,5,2,4,3 C. Ethylene glycol
B. 4,1,2,3,5 D. Methanol
C. 1,4,2,3,5 E. Carbon tetrachloride
D. 4,2,1,5,3
E. 1,4,3,2,5 168. Which of the following is NOT an
important enzyme in ethanol metabolism?
162. It is the primary rout of exposure of A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
benzene in industrial setting. B. Formaldehyde decarboxylase
A. inhalation C. CYP2E1
B. subcutaneous D. Catalase
C. oral E. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
D. dermal
E. intravenous 169. Which of the following statements
regarding benzene is false?
163. Toxic substance present in paints, A. High level exposure to benzene could
lacquer, thinners, cleaning agent and glues. result in acute myelogenous leukemia
A. benzene (AML)
B. ethanol
C. toluene
 B. Gasoline vapour emissions and auto- A. Iron
exhauted are the two main B. Copper
contributors to benzene inhalation. C. Zinc
C. Benzene is used as an ingredient in D. Both A & B only
unleaded poisoning. E. All of the above
D. Benzene metabolites covalently bind
DNA, RNA and protein and interfere 176. Metals related to medicinal therapy
with their normal functioning A. Aluminium
E. Reactive oxygen species can be B. Lithium
delivered from benzene C. Platinum
D. Both A & B only
170. Which of the following is NOT associated E. All of the above
with glycol ether toxicity?
A. Hematotoxicity 177. The following pesticides are correctly
B. Craniofacial malformation matched EXCEPT:
C. Seminiferous tubule atrophy A. Rodenticides –rats
D. Irreversible spermatotoxicity B. Molluscides –snails
E. Cleft lip C. Pediculocides – lice
D. Fungicides –molds
171. A major constituent of antifreeze, E. Ascaricies –insects
hydraulic fluids and drying agents.
A. Methanol 178. Insecticidesm first developed from the
B. Glycol ethers extracts from the flower heads of
C. Propylene glycol chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium
D. Ethylene glycol A. DDT
E. Ethanol B. Rotenoids
C. Pyrethrins
172. It is also known as quick silver. D. Aldrin
A. Ag E. Endrin
B. Hg
C. Mg 179. Which of the following drugs may induce
D. Sb visual system abnormalities such as
E. As decreased vision, flickering scotomas and
altered color vision.
173. Contact dermatitis is the most common A. Digoxin
adverse effect of which of the following B. Metoprolol
metals? C. Colchicine
A. Nickel D. Rifampicin
B. Copper E. Lidocaine
C. Arsenic
D. Lead 180. A drug that is used to ameliorate nausea
E. Cadmium and vomiting in pregnancy but results to
malformations of Amelia and various degree
174. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic of phocomelia.
disorder caused by which of the following A. Diethylstilbestrol
metals? B. Thalidomine
A. Aluminium C. Ethanol
B. Copper D. Nicotine
C. Arsenic E. Retinoids
D. Cadmium
E. Lead 181. The main target for lead toxicity
especially in developing fetus and young
175. Essential chemicals EXCEPT? children.
 A. Bone marrow
B. Kidneys 188. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity.
C. Gastrointestinal tract A. Vitamin K
D. Reproductive organs B. Vitamin C
E. Central nervous system C. Vitamin E
D. Pyridoxime
182. Minamata Disease is caused by E. Thiamine
A. Lead
B. Cadmium 189. Toxins found in peanuts
C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin
D. Silver B. Cigutoxin
E. arsenic C. Scrombroid
D. Aflatoxin
183. In japan, Itai-itai disease is caused by E. Tetrodotoxin
consumption of rice contaminated by
A. Lead 190. Toxins found in several species of
B. Cadmium Alexandrium dinoflagellates
C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin
D. Silver B. Cigutoxin
E. Arsenic C. Scrombroid
D. Aflatoxin
184. Chronic exposure to this metal result to E. Tetrodotoxin
hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the
palm and soles. 191. Toxin produced by puffer fish.
A. Lead A. Saxitoxin
B. Cadmium B. Tetrodotoxin
C. Mercury C. Scromboid
D. Silver D. Aflatoxin
E. Arsenic E. ciguatoxin

185. It is also known as dimercaprol 192. The most prevalent polycyclic aromatic
A. Succimer hydrocarbon found in cigarette smoke.
B. Unithol A. scromboid
C. Deferoxamine B. Benzopyrene
D. BAL C. Ciguatoxin
E. Penicillamine D. Anthracene
E. Nicotine
186. It is mixture of copper and arsenic salt
that is used to control insects in 1800’s 193. This naturally occurring furan is produced
A. Bordeaux by the mold Fusarium solani that infects sweet
B. Rotenone potatoes.
C. DDT A. Ciguatoxin
D. Paris green B. Monocratolin
E. Pyrethrin C. Ipomeanol
D. Anthracene
187. A natural compound derived from E. Benzopyrene
Urginea maritime and is effective in controlling
rodents. 194. Exposure to this vitamin can cause
A. Pyretrin malformation of the face, limbs, heart, CNS
B. Red squill and skeleton of the developing fetus.
C. Paris Green A. Vitamin A
D. Bordeaux mixture B. Vitamin D
E. Rotenone C. Vitamin C
 D. Vitamin K E. Accumulation of iron within
E. Vitamin B complex erythroblast
195. The following drugs and chemicals are 201. the normal erythrocyte has metabolic
associated with the development of aplastic mechanism for reducing heme iron to ferrous
anemia EXCEPT state. Failure of these control mechanism may
A. Tetracycline lead to which of the following?
B. Chloramphenicol A. Aplastic anemia
C. Carbamazepine B. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Indomethacin C. Methemoglobinemia
E. Nitric oxide D. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Sideroblastic anemia
196. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy
with unfractionated heparin. 202. This type of anemia is characterized by
A. aPTT peripheral blood pancytopenia,
B. Creatine kinase reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow
C. AST hypoplasia.
D. PT A. Aplastic anemia
E. ALT B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
197. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy D. Sideroblastic anemia
with warfarin. E. Methemoglobinemia
A. Aptt
B. Creatine kinase 203. It is used to treat APAP toxicity; its
C. AST primary action is to enhance hepatocyte
D. PT synthesis of glutathione.
E. ALT A. Vitamin K
B. Fomepizole
198. The following are clotting factors inhibited C. Disulfiram
by warfarin and its analogs EXCEPT D. N-acetylcysteine
A. III E. None of the above
B. X
C. IX 204. Which of the following metals is NOT
D. VII nephrotoxic?
E. II A. Cadmium
B. Lead
199. Which of the following type of anemia is C. Mercury
properly paired with its cause? D. Platinum
A. Megaloblastic anemia- lead poisoning E. None of the above
B. Aplastic anemia-ethanol
C. Sideroblastic anemia-vitamin B12 205. Shaver’s disease is caused by
deficiency A. Ammonia
D. Megaloblastic anemia-folate B. Cadmium oxide
supplementation C. Hydrogen fluoride
E. Iron deficiency anemia-blood loss D. Bauxite fumes
E. Kaolin
200. The inability to synthesize the porphyrin
ring of haemoglobin will most likely to result in 206. Chemotherapeutic agent that causes
which of the following? pulmonary fibrosis.
A. Iron deficiency anemia A. Vincristine
B. Inability to synthesize thymidine, B. Doxorubicin
C. Improper RBC mitosis C. Bleomycin
D. Bone marroe hyperplasia D. Vinblastine
E. Azathioprine
 213. Metabolite of bromobenzene that is
207. Mycotoxin found in claviceps purpurea. approximately thousand fold more potent than
A. Aflatoxin bromobenzene in producing nephrotoxicity.
B. Saxitoxin A. Cystein
C. Ciquatoxin B. Phosgene
D. Ergot C. Cysteine-S-conjufate
E. Tetrodotoxin D. Glutathione
E. Diglutathione conjugate of
208. The most toxic type of aflatoxin. hydroquinone
A. B1
B. B2 214. It is the toxic metabolite of methanol that
C. G1 mediates the metabolic acidosis as well as
D. G2 retinal toxicity.
E. None of the above A. Formic acid
B. Acetaldehyde
209. Neurotoxin found in improperly canned C. Acetic acid
foods. D. Phosgene
A. Aflatoxin E. Chloroquine
B. Ciguatoxin
C. Saxitoxin 215. Anti-tubercular agent that may cause
D. Tetrodotoxin optic neuropathy
E. Botulinum toxin A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
210. A growth promoter in animals that is no C. Pyrazinamide
longer use because of the discovery that D. Ethambutol
tumor of genital organ have developed in the E. Streptomycin
offspring of mothers who had taken this during
pregnancy in large dose for medical purposes. 216. A deficiency of which of the following
A. Diethylstilbestrol vitamins can result in degeneration of optic
B. Testosterone nerve fibers?
C. Progesterone A. Vitamin A
D. Estradiol. B. Vitamin B3
E. Somatotropin C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B 12
211. The following side effects may be E. Vitamin E
experience upon exposure to an
organophosphate and carbamate insecticides 217. High exposure to this metal cause “black
EXCEPT foot disease” which is circulatory disorder
A. Diarrhea reflecting endothelial cell damage.
B. Bronchoconstriction A. Lead
C. Involuntary urination B. Cadmium
D. Mydriasis C. Arsenic
E. Salivation D. Mercury
E. Silver
212. Metabolite of tetrafluoroethylene that is
the penultimate nephrotoxicant. 218. Which of the following drugs/chemical
A. Cysteine may cause hyperpigmentation of the skin?
B. Phosgene A. Phenolic germicides
C. Cysteine-S-conjugate B. BHT
D. Glutathione C. Hydroquinone
E. Diglutathione conjugate of D. Mercaptoamines
hydroquinone E. Amiodarone
219. Which of the following drugs/chemical B. Ehrlichiosis
may cause hypopigmentation of the skin? C. Lyme disease
A. Chloroquine D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
B. Amiodarone E. Q-fever
C. Bleomycin
D. Hydroquinone 226. Neurotoxin found in black widow spiders.
E. Minocycline A. Serotoxin
B. Loxosceles
220. An organic compounds that is C. Latrotoxin
approximately 49% elemental mercury by D. Rotenone
weight and has been widely used as E. Saxitoxine
preservative since 1930’s in contact lens
solution, biologics, and vaccine particularly 227. A species of which of the following
those in multi-dose container. animals produces a venom that contains 60%
A. Thimerosal formic acid?
B. Merthiolate A. Snakes
C. Mercurothiolate B. Lizards
D. Sodium ethylmercuriethiosalisylate C. Ants
E. all of the above D. Scorpions
E. spiders
221. Which of the following drugs is/are often
associated with phototoxic reaction? 228. Which of the following is NOT
A. Tetracycline characteristic of Lepidoptera envenomation?
B. Sulphonamides A. Decreased plasminogen levels
C. Sulfonylureas B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging
D. Phenothiazine C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time
E. All of the above D. Increased in prothrombin time
E. Decreased fibrinogen levels
222. Dicumarol is fungal metabolite that
causes which of the following? 229. Food Poisoning with which of the
A. Prothrombin deficiency following bacteria occurs when meat has been
B. Epileptiform seizure contaminated with intestinal contents of
C. Acute renal failure slaughters and then roasted and inadequately
D. Photosensitivity stored.
E. Parasympathetic overactivation A. C. perfringerns
B. R. Ricketsii
223. The compound found in red pepper is C. S. Aureus
A. Anthracenones D. C. botulinum
B. Capsaicin E. E. coli
C. Hyoscyamine
D. Atropine 230. This includes the chemical, biochemical,
E. Scopolamine and molecular events that lead to deleterious
effects on development.
224. Alkaloid found in Datura stramonium A. Mutagenesis
A. Capsaisin B. Teratogenesis
B. Antracenones C. Carcinogenesis
C. Red squill D. Behavioral toxicology
D. Scopolamine E. None of the above
E. All of the above
231. it is highly irritating and oxidizing gas that
225. Which of the following is NOT commonly is formed by photochemical action of UV light
caused by tick envenomation? on nitrogen dioxide smog.
A. Cat scratch disease A. Nitrogen oxide
 B. Carbon monoxide C. Aconite
C. Ozone D. A and B
D. Volatile organic compounds E. B and C only
E. None of the above
238. Notorious plant that can be found
232. It is known as the “bad ozone” that Conium maculatum
occurs from 0 to 10 miles above the earth’s A. Poison hemlock
surface. B. Henbane
A. Tropospheric ozone C. mandrake
B. stratospheric ozone D. Aconite
C. Volatile organic hydrocarbons E. opium
D. Either A and B
E. None of the above 239.Notorious plant poison that can be found
in Veratrum Album
233. Follic acid supplementation should be A. Poison hemlock
provided to patient chronically using B. Henbane
A. Phenytoin C. mandrake
B. Propranolol D. Aconite
C. Levodopa + carbidopa E. Hellebore
D. Sulindac
E. Tetracycline 240. Commercial preparations of universal
antidote is composed of
234. Dermopathy, an erythematous A. 1 part tannic acid, 2 parts magnesium
desquamation of the palms and soles also oxide. 1 part activated charcoal
called as hand-foot syndrome is seen after B. 2 parts tannic acid, 1 part magnesium
extended infusion of which of the oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal
chemotherapeutic agents? C. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium
A. Doxorubicin oxide, 1 part activated charcoal
B. Cytarabin D. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium
C. 5-FU oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal
D. Methotrexate E. None of the above
E. None of the above
241. Tartar emetic had a long history of use of
235. The drug used to antagonize the effects an emetic, as well as sedative, expectorant,
of opioid toxicity. cathartic and diaphoretic. The chemical name
A. Nubain for tartar emetic is
B. Narcan A. Potassium bipthalate
C. Revex B. Potassium antimony tartrate
D. Depade C. Potassium antimony bitartrate
E. Either A and B D. Potassium antimony bipthalate
E. None of the above
236. which of the following is the effects of
digoxin to atrial muscles at toxic dose? 242. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a
A. Extrasystoles hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of
B. Fibrillation the following is the primary cause of metabolic
C. Arrhythmia acidosis in ethylene glycol poisoning?
D. Tachycardia A. Formic acid
E. All of the above B. Glycolic acid
C. Acetone
237. Notorious plant poison found in Aconitum D. Acetic acid
species E. all of the above
A. Mandrake
B. Monkshood
243. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a 249.This drug is used together with atropine in
hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the management of patient poisoned by
the following is the primary cause of metabolic organic phosphorous and carbamate
acidosis in methanol poisoning? pesticides. Its primary mechanism is to
A. Formic acid reactivate the enzyme cholinesterase
B. Glycolic acid A. 2-PAM
C. Acetone B. Disulfiram
D. Acetic acid C. Pralidoxime
E. all of the above D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
244. The most prominent end organ effect of
ethylene glycol is 250.Glycine acts as a post synaptic inhibitory
A. Nephrotoxicity neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and lower
B. Hepatotoxicity brainstem. Which of the following substance is
C. Hemorrhagic gastritis classified as glycine antagonist?
D. Visual impairment to total blindness A. Ethanol
E. None of the above B. Picrotoxin
C. Clozapine
245. In the pathway of ethylene glycol D. Propofol
metabolism which of the following substance/s E. D-serine
enhances the formation non-toxic metabolites.
A. Fomepizole 251. Which of the following is classified as
B. Thiamine glycine re-uptake inhibitor?
C. Pyridoxine A. Ethanol
D. A and B B. Picrotoxin
E. B and C only C. Clozapine
D. Propofol
246. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in the E. D-serine
following alcohol toxicity EXCEPT
A. Methanol 252. Which of the following causes metabolic
B. Ethylalcohol alkalosis?
C. Isopropanol A. Administration of diuretics
D. Both A and B B. Administration of sodium bicarbonate
E. Both B and C C. Vomiting
D. Magnesium deficiency
247. The following are advantages of using E. All of the above
fomepizole over ethanol in the treatment of
ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT 253. Which of the following substance causes
A. Fomepizole does not cause CNS hypercalcemia?
depression A. Aminoglycosides
B. Fomepizole does not require serum B. Furosemide
concentration monitoring C. Ethanol
C. Fomepizole is readily available D. Bisphosphonates
D. Fomepizole is low-cost E. Lithuim
E. Both C and D
254. Which of the following substance causes
248. An alkaloid found in Strychnos nux hypocalcemia?
vomica A. Vitamin A
A. Strychnine B. Tamoxifen
B. Aconite C. Androgens
C. Nicotine D. Calcitonin
D. Muscarine E. Glucocorticoids
E. Carnitine
255. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare life- 261. The following management/s is done to
threatening dermatologic emergency and patient suspected of overdose of proguanil or
medications are causally implicated in 80%- pyrimethamine EXCEPT:
90% of cases. Which of the following drugs A. Folate supplementation
causes toxic epidermal necrolysis? B. administration of methylene blue for
A. Allopurinol methemoglobinemia
B. Acetaminophen C. administration of cimetidine to prevent
C. Picrotoxin the conversion to a toxic metabolite
D. Nickel D. administration of multiple dose of
E. None of the above charcoal to enhance it elimination
E. All of the above
256. CNS toxin found in Artemisia absinthuim
A. Ephedra 262. Whole bowel irrigation is the most
B. Nicotine effective process for evacuating the intestinal
C. atropine tract in poisoned patients. Which of the
D. absinthe following conditions wherein whole bowel
E. Scopolamine irrigation is contraindicated?
A. GI perforation
257. CNS toxin found in Areca catechu B. Volume depletion
A. Ephedra C. GI haemorrhage
B. atropine D. Compromised airway
C. absinthe E. All of the above
D. Scopolamine
E. Arecholine 263. Which of the following is true with dosage
of syrup of ipecac?
258. It is extracted from the fruit of the A. For children 1-12 years old the dose is
evergreen Myristica fragrans and it is the main 15ml
active ingredient in myristicin. B. For older children and adult the dose
A. Nutmeg is 30ml
B. Pine oil C. For children 6-12 mos of age dose
C. Wintergreen should be limited to a maximum single
D. Clove dose of 10ml
E. Camphor D. If vomiting does not ensure after the
first dose, the same dose may be
259. Toxic ingredient found in Bufo repeated once in 20-30min.
gangarizan E. All of the above
A. Anthraquinones
B. Coumarin 264. Antibotic that causes aplastic anemia
C. Bufadienolides A. Tetracycline
D. Arecholine B. Erythromycin
E. Amygdalin C. Vancomycin
D. Chloramphenicol
260. Classic description of chronic intake of E. Amikacin
this antibiotic is the “gray baby syndrome”
which is characterized by vomiting, anorexia, 265. It is hygroscopic polysaccharide derived
respiratory distress, abdominal distention, from the bean of the cyamopsis psorabides. It
green stools and cyanosis. This is syndrome expands 10-20 fold in the stomach, forming a
is caused by gelatinous mass that produces the senasation
A. Tetracycline of satiety.
B. Chloramphenicol A. Guar gum
C. Erythromycin B. Chitosan
D. Sulfonamides C. Dinitrophenol
E. Vancomycin D. Xenical
 E. none of the above unfractionated heparin and for some of the
effects of LMWH.
266. Antidote for APAP toxicity A. Vitamin K
A. Activated charcoal B. Protamine
B. NAC C. Hirudin
C. PAM D. Tissue plasminogen activator
D. Oxime E. None of the above
E. Ipecac
273. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary
267.Which of the following causes a brown- glands of the medicinal leech, hirudo
black urine? medicinalis that reversibly blocks thrombin
A. Cascara without the need for antithrombin III.
B. Iron A. Hirudin
C. Metyldopa B. Heparin
D. Senna C. Protamine
E. All of the above D. Warfarin
E. None of the above
268. Which of the following drugs causes
cataracts? 274. Thimerosal is an organic compound that
A. Acetazolamide approximately contains 49% by weight of:
B. Amiodarone A. Hg
C. Chlorpromazine B. Ag
D. Corticosteroids C. S
E. Cisplatin D. Al
E. None of the above
269. Which of the following antibiotics causes
disulfiram like effects? 275. This drug is known as “soda loading”. It
A. Cefotetan buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise,
B. Metronidazole thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing
C. Co-trimoxazole performance.
D. Moxalactam A. Caffeine
E. all of the above B. Calcuim hydroxide
C. Diuretics
270. Methamphetamine is also known as D. Amphetamines
A. Crack E. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Speed
C. Yaba 276. This is used in sports in which the athlete
D. Go must achieve a certain weight to complete in
E. All of the above discrete weight classes. It is used by body
builders to give their skin a greater definition
271. Food interaction occur when as this causes the skin to draw tightly around
pharmacologically active dietary monoamines the muscles.
such as tyramine is ingested by patients A. Amphetamine
taking MAOIs. Which of the following foods B. Sodium carbonate
has the highest tyramine effect? C. Diuretics
A. Yogurt D. Caffeine
B. Avocados E. None of the above
C. Redwines
D. Aged, mature cheese 277. This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to
E. Smoked meats or fish the ferrous state, thereby increasing intestinal
absorption of iron.
272. It is rapidly acting antidote used for A. Vitamin A
reversing the anticoagulant effects of B. Vitamin B
 C. Vitamin C A. Methemoglobinemia occurs when the
D. Vitamin D iron atom in haemomoglobin loses 2
E. Vitamin E electron to an oxidant
B. Methemoglobinemia when ferrous
278. it is cololess, oily liquid with a faint state of iron is transformed into the
aromatic odor that Is commonly added to ferric state.
pharmaceutical products as a bacteriostatic C. Methemoglobinemia is normally
agent. It causes “gasping syndrome” in infants present in the body at high
which is the characteristized by hypotension concentration
bradycardia, gasping respiration seizures, D. Both A and B
cardiovascular collapsed and death. E. Both B and C
A. Chlorobutanol
B. PEG 284. It is used in the treatment of aniline
C. Propylene glycol induced Methemoglobinemia
D. Ethylene glycol A. Methylene blue
E. Benzyl alcohol B. Glucagon
C. Oximes
279. Patient taking rifampicin in combination D. PAM
with isoniazid develops what type of toxicity? E. EDTA
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity 285. The following are example of chemical
C. Neurotoxicity asphyxiants EXCEPT
D. Hepatotoxicity A. Carbon monoxide
E. None of the above B. Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrogen sulphide
280. Which of the following drugs causes “red D. Oxides of nitrogen
man red neck syndrome”? E. Hydrogen cyanide
A. Sulfonamides
B. amphotericin B 286. Toxic combustion product that exert a
C. Vancomycin space-occupying effect simply displacing
D. Erythromycin oxygen.
E. None of the above A. Chemical asphyxiants
B. Simple asphyxiants
281. An antimycobacterial agent that is C. irritant
classified as congener of INH and have the D. A and B
same mechanism of action with INH. E. All of the above
A. Capreomycin
B. Ethionamide 287. Q fever occurs naturally as a self limited
C. Para-aminosalicylic acid febrile, zoonotic disease contracted from
D. Isoniazid domestic livestock. Q fever I classified as
E. Pyrazinamide biological warfare agent and is now known to
caused by
282. Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin that A. Coxiella burnetti
is used as antidote for which of the following B. Brucalla melitensis
poisoning? C. Baciilus anthracis
A. INH D. Yersinia pestis
B. Ethylene glycol E. None of the above
C. PZA
D. A and B 288. It is anti-muscarinic compound that was
E. A and C developed as an incapacitating chemical
warfare agent. It is 25-fold more potent
283. Which of the following statements is centrally than atropine.
CORRECT about methemoglobinemia? A. BZ
 B. QNB 294. It is one of the extrapyrimadal syndromes
C. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate characterized by restlessness and inability to
D. A and B only sit still
E. All of the above A. Acute dystonia
B. Akathisia
289. Vesicants are agents that cause C. Parkinsonism
blistering of skin and mucous membrane. D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Which of the following is classified as E. Tardive dyskinesia
vesicants but does not cause vesiculation of
the skin? 295. It is one of the extrapyramidal syndromes
A. Sulphur mustard characterized by sustained, involuntary
B. Lewisite muscle contraction, torticollis, including
C. Phosgene oxime blephaospasm and oculogyric crisis.
D. Cyanide A. Acute dystonia
E. None of the above B. Akathisia
C. Parkinsonism
290. BAL should be administered through D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
A. IV E. Tardive dyskinesia
B. IM
C. SQ 296. It is hydantoin derivative and structurally
D. Oral similar to local anesthetics that is used for the
E. A and B only treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
A. Phenytoin
291. What specific element is present in B. Diazepam
dimercaprol? C. Dantrolene
A. Magnesium D. Phenobarbital
B. Sulfur E. Tensilon
C. Iron
D. manganese 297. It is the drug of choice for beta
E. None of the above adrenergic antagonist poisoning
A. Propranolol
292. It is active substance in the Chinese B. Atropine
plant Ma-huang has been used for the C. Glucagon
treatment of asthma. D. Ethanol
A. Khat E. Valium
B. Cathionone
C. Methcathinone 298. Ipecac is derived from rhizome and roots
D. Ephedrine of plants found in Brazil belonging to the
E. None of the above family Rubiaceae. Which of the following
substance is/are responsible for the
293. An extrapyrimidal syndrome that occurs production of nausea and vomiting of ipecac
3 months to years after taking an anti- syrup?
psychotic drug it is characterized by A. Cephaelin
involuntary choreiform movements like B. Emetine
buccolinguomasticatory movements C. Scopolamine
A. Acute dystonia D. A and B only
B. Akathisia E. B and C only
C. Parkinsonism
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 299. Contraindicated of syrup of ipecac
E. Tardive dyskinesia A. The patient is younger than 6 month of
age
B. Ingestion of caustic poison
 C. Ingestion of a foreign body such as a
drug packet or sharp item
D. The patient does not meet the criteria
for gastric emptying
E. All of the above

300. Gastric emptying may be indicated if

A. Significant spontaneous emesis has
occured
B. The ingested poison has a high
efficient antidote
C. the patient presents many hours post
ingestion
D. The ingested poison is well adsorbed
activated charcoal
E. None of the above