Mock Test Series 2017 Mock Test 2 (WWW - Freeupscmaterials.wordpress - Com)

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Prelims Mock Test Series 2017: Mock Test-2
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Contents
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Question Paper ..................................................................................................................................................... 3
Solution ............................................................................................................................................................... 29
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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 2

Question Paper
1. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is the ex-officio Chairman of:
1. Monetary Policy Committee
2. Tax Policy Council
3. Tax Policy Research Unit (TPRU)
Select the correct answer from options given below:
[A] 1 & 3 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] None
2. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement about Finance Commission?
[A] It lays down the principles that govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre
[B] It suggest the measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state and to supplement the
resources of the panchayats and the Municipalities in the state
[C] It sets interest rates, which determine the cost of borrowing and the return on savings
[D] The Chairperson and four other members of Finance Commission are appointed by the
President
3. Consider the following statements about Finance Commission:
1. The Finance Commission submits its report to Finance Minister who causes this report to
be laid in the Parliament
2. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding on the government
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement about union territories in India?
[A] Union territories' relationship with Centre is unitary
[B] Union territories are under the direct control and administration of the Centre
[C] Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists in relation to the union territories
[D] Administrator of a Union territory is the constitutional head of Union territory
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Administrator or lieutenant-governor of a Union territory is appointed by Prime Minister

2. Same person can not act as Governor of a state and administrator /lieutenant-governor of a
Union territory simultaneously
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
6. The 74th Constitution Amendment Act, 1992:
1. mandates direct election for the post of mayor in local government
2. provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every municipality
3. provides term of 5 years for the municipality
[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 3 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
7. The 73rd Amendment 1992 added to the Constitution:
1. Special provisions with respect to Delhi
2. Part IX
3. Eleventh Schedule
Select the correct option from codes given below:
[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only
[C] 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
8. Consider the following statements about Gram Sabha:
1. Gram Sabha is a constitutional body
2. It is constituted for the fixed term of five years
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
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[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following bodies:
1. Gram Sabha
2. Gram Panchayat
3. Zila Parishad
Which of the above is/are elected body/bodies?
[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only
[C] 2 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
10. Consider the following statements about Nyaya Panchayats:
1. Nyaya Panchayats are guided by the principles of natural justice rather than procedures laid
down by Code of Civil Procedure
2. Nyaya Panchayats can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement about Panchayati Raj system?
[A] The minimum age limit for a person to be a member of the Panchayat Samiti is 21 years
[B] State Finance Commission determines the devolution of fund to local bodies
[C] The chairperson of the panchayats at intermediate & district level are elected directly by the
people
[D] Gram Panchayats are entitled to receive grants directly from Central government which they can
spend at their discretion
12. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provides for:
[A] two tier system of Panchayati Raj at block and district level
[B] three tier Panchayati Raj system at village, block and district level
[C] two tier Panchayati Raj system at village and district level
[D] four tier Panchayati Raj system at village, block, tehsil and district level

13. To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must:

1. be a citizen of India
2. have attained 35 years of age
3. have served as an Advocate on Record in Supreme Court
[A] 1 & 3 Only
[B] 1 Only
[C] 1 & 2 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
14. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement?
[A] Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is binding on all other law courts in India
[B] Salary and allowances of the judges of Supreme Court comes under charged expenditures
[C] Judges of Supreme Court resign from office by writing to the President
[D] Judges of Supreme Court hold the office during the pleasure of President
1. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Chief Justice of India
2. The oath of Chief Justice of India is administered by the President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. To be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court, a person must have served as judge of High
Court for at least 10 years
2. Judges of Supreme Court get a fixed tenure of five years
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

1. The motion for removal of a Judge of Supreme Court must be signed by at least 50 members
of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
2. Retired judges of Supreme Court can practise law as an advocate only in High Courts
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following jurisdictions:
1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Writ Jurisdiction
3. Advisory Jurisdiction
Which of the above is/are exercised by High Courts in India?
[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
19. Consider the following cases:
1. Dispute between two or more states
2. Writ Jurisdiction
3. Judicial review
In which of the above, the Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] 3 Only
[D] None
20. Consider the following statements about Supreme Court:
1. The Supreme Court is bound to its previous judgement and cannot review its own judgement
2. A High Court cannot review or alter its own judgement in criminal case
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Disputes between States come to the Supreme Court under appellate jurisdiction
2. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on Procedure established by law
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
22. The Governor of a State has constitutional discretion in which of the following cases?
1. To issue an ordinance
2. Reserve a bill for consideration of the President
3. Recommendation to impose President’s rule in state
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only
[C] 2 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
23. Which of the following statements is an incorrect statement about Governor of a state?
[A] Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative
assembly
[B] He nominates one-sixth of the members of state legislative assembly
[C] He is responsible to set up State Finance Commission and present the report of commission in
state legislature
[D] District judges are appointed by the Governor
24. Governor of a State can:
1. return a money bill for the reconsideration of the state legislature
2. reserve the money bill for consideration of President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following authorities:
1. Advocate General of the state
2. Chairman of state public service commission
3. State election commissioner
Which of the above can be removed by Governor of the State?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 3 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
26. Consider the following statements about Governor of a State:
1. Governor is not answerable to any court for exercise and performance of the powers and
duties of his office
2. The oath of office to the governor is administered by the President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
27. Which of the following is/are necessary qualification(s) laid down by the Constitution for a
person to be appointed as Governor of a State?
1. Person should be a citizen of India
2. He/She should have completed the age of 35 years of age
3. He/She should have special knowledge or experience in law
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
1. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states

2. Governor of a state holds the office during the pleasure of the President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
29. The State executive consists of:
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Council of Ministers
4. Advocate General of the State
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
1. The Governor is the executive head of the state secretariat
2. The Chief Minister is the is the chief executive head of the state
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. President
2. Vice President
3. Governor of a State
Which of the above can be removed only on grounds of violation of Constitution?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 3 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3

[D] None
1. A person can be appointed as Chief Minister even if he is not a member of state legislature at
the time of appointment
2. Chief Minister is the head of the state government
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The resignation of Chief Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers
2. The Governor of the state can ask the Chief Minister to submit for consideration of the
council of ministers on any matter
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Chief Minister of a state holds the office during the pleasure of Governor
2. The Advocate General of a state holds the office during the pleasure of Chief Minister
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Governor can adjourn the sitting of the State Legislative Assembly
2. The Governor address the first session of the Legislative Assembly after elections
[A] 1 Only

[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Governor can withdraw an Ordinance only on advice of council of ministers headed by chief
minister
2. Governor decides whether a bill introduced in State Legislative Assembly is a money bill or
not
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. A bill pending in the Legislative Assembly of the State lapses on prorogation of Assembly
2. A bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State which has not been passed by the
Legislative Assembly will not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
38. The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished if:
[A] the Legislative Assembly of a State passes a resolution by special majority and a majority of not
less than two-third of members present and voting
[B] the Parliament passes a resolution by simple majority
[C] the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution by simple majority and not less than 1/3
of the members present and voting
[D] the Parliament passes the resolution by special majority and a majority of not less than 2/3 of the
members present and voting
39. The quorum to constitute a meeting of a House of the State Legislature shall be:
[A] One-third of total membership of House

[B] One-half of the total membership of the House

[C] One-tenth of the total membership of the House
[D] Ten members or one-tenth of total membership whichever is more
40. Consider the following statements about Legislative Council of a State:
1. The maximum strength of the Legislative Council of a State is fixed at one-third of the total
strength of the Assembly
2. One-third of its members retire on the expiration of every third year
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Members of SCs or STs can contest election to Legislative Assembly only on seats reserved for
them
2. A person to be elected to the legislative council of a state must be an elector for the assembly
constituency of that state
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
42. A member of Legislative Council of a State may resign by writing to:
[A] Secretary-General of Legislative Council
[B] Chairman of Legislative Council
[C] Chief Minister of State
[D] Governor of the concerned State
1. The Secretary General of the Legislative Council is the chief executive of the Legislative
Council Secretariat
2. The Secretary General of the Legislative Council is elected from amongst its members

[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
44. Consider the following statements about Speaker of Legislative Assembly:
1. The speaker suspends the meeting of the assembly in the absence of quorum
2. He/She is the Chairperson of Business Advisory Committee
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
45. Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly:
1. is nominated by the Speaker
2. holds the office during the pleasure of Speaker
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements about State Legislative Assembly:
1. The Speaker of Legislative Assembly has the power to summon and prorogue the assembly
2. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die of assembly lies with the Governor of
the State
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The transfer of judges from one High Court to another High Court is done by the Chief
Justice of India

2. A retired judge of a High Court cannot practise in any other court in India
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements about Advocate General of a state:
1. Advocate General of a state is appointed by the Governor of the state
2. He has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of State Legislature
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
49. When a Money Bill is reserved by the Governor of a State for the consideration of the President,
then the President:
1. can give assent to the Bill
2. withhold the Bill
3. return the bill for reconsideration of the House
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
50. Consider the following statements about State Legislature:
1. An ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of State Legislature
2. In case of deadlock between the two Houses, the Constitution provides the mechanism for
joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve deadlock
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

1. A member of either House of State Legislature is eligible to become a minister
2. Ministers irrespective of their membership are responsible only to State Legislative Assembly
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Munsiff courts have both civil and criminal jurisdiction
2. An appeal against decision of the Munsiff court can be filed directly before High Court
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
53. The power to declare an area as “Scheduled Area” lies with the:
[A] Ministry of Tribal Affairs
[B] Legislative Assembly of a state
[C] Parliament
[D] President
54. An ordinary bill when introduced in the Legislative Council of a state and then sent to Legislative
Assembly, if rejected by the assembly, then the bill:
[A] ends and becomes dead
[B] is considered to be passed automatically
[C] is send to the Governor of the State for final decision
[D] is send to the High Court of the respective State for final interpretation
1. The judges of high courts in India are appointed by the President
2. A judge of High Court can be removed from office only on ground of proved misbehaviour
or incapacity


[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. High Courts have appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters
2. Appellate jurisdiction of a high court is wider than its original jurisdiction
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The number of Election Commissioners in the Election Commission is decided by the
President
2. The Chief Election Commissioner has more powers to other Election Commissioners in
Election Commission
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Election Commission of India is a Constitutional body
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President and holds the office during
the pleasure of President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

59. The Constitution confers every High Court with power to:
1. examine the constitutional validity of any central law
2. review its own judgement in criminal cases
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats is 21 years
2. One third seats are reserved for women in panchayats at all three levels
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
61. Which of the following Schedules have special provisions for the administration of tribal areas?
1. Fifth Schedule
2. Sixth Schedule
3. Seventh Schedule
4. Eighth Schedule
[A] 1 & 3 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
62. Election Commission of India supervise and conduct elections to the:
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. State Legislatures
4. District Panchayats

[A] 1 & 2 Only

[B] 1, 2 & 3 Only
[C] 1, 3 & 4 Only
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
63. Regional Election Commissioners are appointed by the:
[A] President
[B] Election Commission
[C] Chief Election Commissioner
[D] Returning officer
1. The Chief Election Commissioner holds the office during the pleasure of President
2. To be appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, a person must be distinguished jurist in the
eyes of the President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
65. Consider the following bodies/authorities:
1. Election Commission of India
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. State Public Service Commission
Which of the above is/are Constitutional body/bodies?
[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
66. Consider the following bodies:
1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
2. National Human Rights Commission
3. National Commission for Women
Which of the above is/are Constitutional body/bodies?

[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] None
1. Chairperson of National Commission for SCs
2. Chairperson of SEBI
3. Chairperson of Joint State Public Service Commission
Which of the above is/are appointed by the President?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 3 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] None
68. The National Commission for SCs consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and:
[A] two other members
[B] three other members
[C] four other members
[D] five other members
1. All members of Notified Area Committee are nominated by state government
2. The township form of urban government has no elected members
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following urban local bodies:
1. Town Area Committee
2. Port Trust
3. Cantonment Area
Which of the above is/are created by an act of State Legislature?
[A] 1 Only

[B] 1 & 2 Only

[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
71. Consider the following statements about Notified Area Committee:
1. Notified Area Committee is established by an act of state legislature
2. Chairman and other members of the committee are nominated by the state government
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
72. Consider the following statements about Advocate General:
1. The Advocate General is appointed by the Chief Minister of the State
2. His term of office and salary is determined by the State Legislature
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Attorney General
2. Advocate General
3. Solicitor General
Which of the above has/have Constitutional status?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1, 2 & 3
[D] None
74. Consider the following statements about State Human Rights Commission:
1. The Chairperson and members of State Human Rights Commission can be removed only by
the President
2. The Chairperson and members hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age

of 70 years, whichever is earlier

[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
75. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for establishment of District Councils for each
autonomous district. The members of District Council are:
1. nominated by the Governor of the State
2. nominated by the President
3. elected on the basis of adult suffrage
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 3 Only
[C] 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
76. Consider the following statements about Inter State Council:
1. It is permanent constitutional body for coordination between the States of the Union
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Inter-State Council
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements about Financial Emergency:
1. It can be continued for maximum period of 3 years
2. Proclamation of Financial Emergency can be revoked by the President at anytime without
Parliamentary approval
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

78. Consider the following statements about Financial Emergency in India:
1. Resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House
of Parliament by a simple majority
2. The proclamation for emergency can be revoked by a subsequent proclamation by President
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. To impose President’s rule in a state, the consent of Governor of the state is mandatory
2. President’s rule can be can be extended for a maximum period of five years with approval of
parliament after every six months
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
80. Consider the following statements about President’s rule:
1. Resolution for approval of President’s rule requires special majority in the Parliament
2. President can revoke the proclamation of President’s rule at his discretion
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 get automatically suspended when national emergency
is declared on ground of ‘armed rebellion’
2. During national emergency in operation, the life of Lok Sabha can be extended to one year at
a time for maximum of three years


[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements about National Emergency:
1. While a resolution for disapproval of national emergency has to be passed only by Lok Sabha,
a resolution for continuation of emergency must be passed by both the Houses
2. While a resolution for disapproval can be passed by simple majority, a resolution for
continuation of emergency requires special majority
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
83. Consider the following statements with respect to President’s rule:
1. During President's rule in a state, the executive power shifts from Council of Ministers to
President of India
2. President’s rule must be approved by Parliament within a period of one year
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
84. Consider the following statements about President’s rule:
1. President’s rule is immune from judicial review
2. President’s rule cannot be imposed in state until its proclamation gets approval from both
Houses of Parliament
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

85. Consider the following statements about National Emergency:
1. During national emergency, the Parliament can delegate the power to make laws on subjects
of state list to the President
2. During national emergency, state executive is dismissed and the state legislature is dissolved
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. During national emergency, President can suspend the enforcement of all fundamental rights
guaranteed by the Constitution
2. Any action taken by the executive during emergency is not liable to be challenged in any
court even after expiration of emergency
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The declaration of national emergency under Article 352 is immune from judicial review
2. During national emergency Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject
mentioned in the State List
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within three months
from date of its proclamation by President

2. National Emergency can be extended to maximum of three years with approval of the
Parliament for every six months
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
2. Commission to investigate the conditions of Backward Classes
3. Chief Economic Adviser (CEA)
Which of the above is/are appointed by the President?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only
[C] 3 Only
[D] 1 & 2 Only
1. The National Commission for STs submits its annual report to the Parliament
2. The members of the National Commission for STs are appointed by the President of India
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
91. Consider the following statements about National Commission for SCs:
1. The conditions of service of the members of the National Commission for SCs are
determined by the Parliament
2. The Commission has all powers of a civil court while trying a suit
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

92. Consider the following statements about Finance Commission:
1. Its Chairman and members are appointed by the Prime Minister
2. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of
the Commission
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
93. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the Union Public Service Commission?
[A] The advice made by UPSC to government is only of advisory nature and not binding on the
government
[B] UPSC must be consulted in cases as regards the reservation of posts for Backward Classes,
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
[C] The Constitution does not confer UPSC with power of appellate jurisdiction in all service
matters concerning civil servants
[D] The President lays the annual report of UPSC before both Houses of Parliament
94. Union Public Service Commission may perform the work of a State Public Service Commission:
[A] Only if Parliament by law, so prescribes
[B] On request of Governor of a State with approval from President
[C] If a state Legislature passes a resolution by an absolute majority
[D] If a state Legislature passes a resolution by an absolute majority subject to approval from
Governor of the State
95. Consider the following statements about Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
1. The number of members of a JSPSC is determined by the Parliament
2. The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the President
3. Members of JSPSC hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only

[C] 2 Only
[D] 1 & 3 Only
96. The Chairperson and members of a State Public Service Commission:
1. are appointed by the governor of the state
2. can be removed only by the President of India
3. address their resignation to the governor
[A] 1 Only
[B] 1 & 2 Only
[C] 1 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
1. State Public Service Commission
2. Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC)
3. Lokpal
Which of the above has/have Constitutional status?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 & 3 Only
[C] 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3
1. Chairman of UPSC holds the office during the pleasure of President
2. After being Chairman of UPSC, one is no longer eligible to become a member of Central or
State legislature
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The district judge is appointed by the Governor of the state in consultation with High Court
of the state

2. The power of posting, promotion & grant of leave to district judge is vested in the High
Court
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Governor has the power to nominate two members of Anglo-Indian Community in the
State Legislative Assembly
2. Governor nominates one-sixth of members in Legislative Council of state
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Solution
1. Answer: [D] None
Union Finance Minister is the Chairman of Tax Policy Council. RBI Governor is the ex-officio
Chairperson of the newly constituted Monetary Policy Committee. Tax Policy Research Unit is
headed by an officer of the level of Chief Commissioner at functional level alternatively from
CBDT and CBEC for a fixed tenure, who will directly report to Revenue Secretary.
2. Answer: [C] It sets interest rates, which determine the cost of borrowing and the return
on savings
Third statement is the incorrect. Interest rates on savings and borrowing comes under Monetary
Policy. Monetary Policies in India are controlled by RBI. Monetary policy is the macroeconomic
policy laid down by the central bank of a country. It involves management of money supply and
interest rate and is the demand side economic policy used by the government.
3. Answer: [D] Neither 1 nor 2
First statement is incorrect because the commission submits its report to the President. Second

statement is incorrect because the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of
advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government.
4. Answer: [D] Administrator of a Union territory is the constitutional head of Union
territory
Fourth statement is incorrect because Administrator derives his position from Union Territories
Act and not from Constitution; hence he/she is not the constitutional head of Union territory. He
/ she is the Administrative head.
Administrator or lieutenant-governor for Union territory is appointed by the President. Second
statement is incorrect because President can appoint the same person as Administrator of a Union
territory as well as Governor of a State.
6. Answer: [C] 2 & 3 Only
First statement is incorrect because the 74th Amendment Act, 1992 did not prescribe the manner of
election, tenure or powers of the Mayors/Chairpersons of ULBs. Recently, a Constitutional
Amendment bill has been introduced in Lok Sabha, as a private member's bill by Shashi Tharoor.
The Bill mandates the direct election of the Mayor, fixes the Mayor’s term to be coterminous with
that of the municipality, and makes the Mayor the executive head of the municipality. The Bill was
introduced because recently Tamil Nadu Assembly passed a Bill for indirect election of mayors.
The manner of election of Chairpersons of municipalities has been left to be specified by the State
Legislature (Article 243R).
7. Answer: [B] 2 & 3 Only
Special provisions with respect to Delhi were added by 69th Amendment Act.
8. Answer: [A] 1 Only
Second statement is incorrect because Gram Sabha is the only permanent unit in Panchayati Raj
system and is not constituted for a particular period. The Gram Sabha enables each and every voter
of the village to participate in decision making at the local level. Gram Sabha can alter the impact
made by government schemes and programmes at local level.
Gram Sabha is defined as a as a body of all adult members of a village who has the right to vote. It

is not an elected body.

Second statement is incorrect because Nyaya Panchayats can here both civil and criminal cases.
11. Answer: [C] The chairperson of the panchayats at intermediate & district level are
elected directly by the people
Third statement is incorrect because the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district
levels are indirectly elected from amongst the elected members. Fourth statement is correct. Over
2,47,000 village panchayats in the country received Rs 20 lakh each for ‘Clean India’
campaign’ launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Village Panchayats were allowed to spend
at their discretion.
12. Answer: [B] three tier Panchayati Raj system at village, block and district level
Second option is the correct answer
13. Answer: [B] 1 Only
Second statement is incorrect because the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for
appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Third statement is also incorrect because there is no
such mandatory provision.
14. Answer: [D] Judges of Supreme Court hold the office during the pleasure of President
Fourth statement is incorrect because a Judge of the Supreme Court (and also High Court) can be
removed from his position by President only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
The power for investigation and proof of such misbehaviour or incapacity is vested in the
parliament. Each house, in order to remove the judge, will have to pass a resolution which is
supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and majority of the total membership of the
house (absolute + special majority)
First statement is incorrect because the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
President. Second statement is correct
First statement is incorrect because there is no such mandatory provision. To be appointed a Judge
of the Supreme Court, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been the judge of a high

court for a period of 5 years or an advocate of the High Court for at least 10 years. Second
statement is incorrect because there is no fixed tenure for a judge of Supreme Court.
First statement is incorrect because a motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or
50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha). Second statement is incorrect because the retired judges
of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court or before any authority
within the territory of India.
18. Answer: [A] 1 & 2 Only
Advisory Jurisdiction is exercised only by Supreme Court. Supreme Court advises President, if
President seeks advice from Supreme Court. High court enjoys the following jurisdiction and
powers: 1. Original jurisdiction. 2. Writ jurisdiction. 3. Appellate jurisdiction. 4. Supervisory
jurisdiction. 5. Control over subordinate courts. 6. A court of record. 7. Power of judicial review. It
has advisory functions but that is not called advisory “jurisdiction”.
Writ Jurisdiction and Judicial review are not exclusive powers of Supreme Court. Under Article
226 and 227, High Courts have power of judicial review. Similarly, High Court has power to
issue writs under Article-226.
First statement is incorrect because the powers of the Supreme Court to review its own
judgements are elaborated in the article 137 of the Constitution of India. A High Court cannot
review or alter its own decision in criminal cases. Supreme Court can review its decision in
accordance to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Criminal review petition can be moved only on
the ground of an error apparent on the face of the record without the need to resort to any other
supporting evidence.
First statement is incorrect because dispute between states comes under Original jurisdiction.
Second statement is correct
Ordinance making power of governor is not his discretionary power.

23. Answer: [B] He nominates one-sixth of the members of state legislative assembly
Second statement is incorrect because the Governor nominates one-sixth of the members of the
state legislative council
First statement is incorrect because Governor cannot return a money bill for the reconsideration
of the state legislature. Second statement is correct.
Chairman of state public service commission and state election commissioner can be removed only
by President and not by Governor of the State.
First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because the oath of office to the governor
is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court.
Third condition is incorrect because there is no such necessary provision in Constitution for a
person to be appointed as Governor of a state. Governor is appointed by the President on advice of
Union Council of Ministers.
28. Answer: [C] Both 1 & 2
Both are correct statements
29. Answer: [D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
All of the above mentioned authorities are included in the state executive.
First statement is incorrect because Chief Secretary is the executive head of the state secretariat.
Second statement is incorrect because governor is the chief executive head of the state.
President can only be impeached on the ground of violation of the Constitution.
The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the
President. Similarly, Constitution mention no effective grounds for the removal of Vice-President.


First statement is correct because a person can be appointed as Chief Minister even if he is not a
member of State legislature at the time of appointment, but he should become a member to the
state legislature within six months from the time of appointment, failing to do so, he loses his post.
Second statement is also correct.
Both are correct statements.
First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because Advocate General of a state holds
the office during the pleasure of Governor of the State
First statement is incorrect because Speaker of State Legislative Assembly adjourns the sitting of
the assembly. Second statement is correct.
Second statement is incorrect because any question on whether a bill is money bill or not is
decided by the speaker of State Legislative Assembly. First statement is correct.
First statement is incorrect because prorogation does not affect the bills pending before the House
or Assembly.
38. Answer: [A] the Legislative Assembly of a State passes a resolution by special majority
and a majority of not less than two-third of members present and voting
First option is the correct answer
39. Answer: [D] Ten members or one-tenth of total membership whichever is more
Fourth option is the correct answer
Second statement is incorrect because one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every
second year.

First statement is incorrect because members of SCs or STs can also contest election to Legislative
Assembly on seats not reserved for them. Second statement is correct.
42. Answer: [B] Chairman of Legislative Council
A member of Legislative Council of a State may resign by writing to Chairman of Legislative
Council of the State.
Second statement is incorrect because the Secretary General of the Legislative Council is appointed
by the Chairman of Legislative Council. He is not elected by the members of legislative council.
First statement is incorrect because Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is elected by
assembly itself from amongst its members. Second statement is incorrect because he/she can be
removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly.
First statement is incorrect because the power to summon and prorogue Legislative Assembly of
the State lies with the Governor of the State. Second statement is incorrect because the power of
adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House or
Assembly (Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly of a State)
First statement is incorrect because the transfer of Judges from one High Court to another is done
by the President of India in consultation with Chief Justice of India. Second statement is incorrect
because a retired judge of a High Court can practise in Supreme Court and other High Courts in
India except in the High Court from where he retired. The constitution says that once a high court
judge has retired, he cannot practice law in any court or before any authority in India except the
Supreme Court and the other High Courts. This means that a retired High Court judge cannot
practice in lower courts and same high court from which he has retired. This also implies that at
present, the Constitution neither prohibits judges of the Supreme Court or the High Court from
taking any post-retirement job nor restricts the power of the government to appoint any retired

judges to commissions and/or tribunals.

Third statement is incorrect because President cannot return a money bill for reconsideration of
state legislature.
Second statement is incorrect because Constitution does not provide the mechanism for joint
sitting in case of deadlock. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing
the bill for the second time.
First statement is incorrect because a munsiff court deals with civil cases and not with criminal
cases. Second statement is correct.
53. Answer: [D] President
The power to declare an area as "Scheduled Area" lies with President of India.
54. Answer: [A] ends and becomes dead
First option is the correct answer.
First statement is correct. Second statement is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner
has equal powers to other Election Commissioners in Election Commission.


Second statement is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner of India holds the office
for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The Chief Election Commissioner can
be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.
Second statement is incorrect because Constitution does not confer High Court with power to
review and alter its own judgement in criminal cases. First statement is correct.
Both are correct statements. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for
women in panchayats at all the three levels is a mandatory provision.
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of
India. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution divides the subject into Union, concurrent and state
lists.
62. Answer: [B] 1, 2 & 3 Only
State Election Commission is responsible to District Panchayats election.
63. Answer: [A] President
The President appoints regional commissioners after consultation with the election commission to
assist the election commission.
First statement is incorrect because Chief Election Commissioner though is appointed by the
President but does not hold office during the pleasure of President. He can be removed from office
by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament
with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Second
statement is incorrect because the Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal,
educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
65. Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All of the above are Constitutional bodies.


National Human Rights Commission and National Commission for Women are statutory bodies
Chairman of SEBI is nominated by Union Government
68. Answer: [B] three other members
All members of Notified Area Committee are nominated by state government and there are no
elected members.
Cantonment board is created and administered by Central government. Port Trust is created by an
act of Parliament.
First statement is incorrect because Notified Area Committee is established by a notification in the
government gazette. Second statement is correct.
First statement is incorrect because Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State.
Second statement is incorrect because Advocate General holds the office during the pleasure of
governor. Advocate General receives remuneration as the governor may determine.
Solicitor General is not a Constitutional post.
The members of District Council are not nominated by the President. The District Council
consists of not more than 30 members, out of which not more than four are nominated by the

Governor of the State and others are elected on the basis of adult suffrage.
First statement is incorrect because the Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional body.
It can be established at any time if it appears to the President that it is necessary in the public
interests to establish such council. Second statement is correct.
First statement is incorrect because there is no maximum period prescribed for its
operation.Second statement is correct.
Both are correct statements.
First statement is incorrect because President’s rule can be imposed even without the consent of
th
the state governor if the president thinks so. Second statement is incorrect because as per 44
amendment act President’s rule can be extended for more than one year only under following
conditions:
If proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in whole of India or in the whole or any
part of the state; and the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the
legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held in disturbed conditions
First statement is incorrect because resolution for approval of President’s rule can be passed by
simple majority in the Parliament. Second statement is correct because President can revoke the
proclamation at any time by subsequent proclamation without parliamentary approval.
First statement is incorrect because the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 says that Fundamental
Rights under Article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the
ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Second statement
is incorrect because during national emergency in operation, the life of Lok Sabha
can be extended to one year at a time for indefinite period.


First statement is incorrect because during President’s rule (Article 356), the executive power shifts
from the council of ministers to the governor of the state. Once imposed, President’s rule must be
approved by Parliament within a period of two months. It can’t last for more than six months
unless its extension is approved by Parliament.
First statement is incorrect because President’s rule is not immune from judicial review. Second
statement is incorrect because President’s rule can be imposed in a state even with only approval of
Rajya Sabha at the time when Lok Sabha is dissolved, but under such situation it requires approval
from Lok Sabha within 30 days from first sitting of Lok Sabha after its reconstitution.
First statement is incorrect because during national emergency Parliament is authorised to make
laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List only by itself, and it cannot delegate the same to
any other body. Second statement is incorrect because even during national emergency, the state
executive and legislature continue to function and are not suspended.
First statement is incorrect because even during national emergency President cannot suspend the
right to move to Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.
Second statement is correct.
First statement is incorrect because declaration of national emergency is subject to judicial review.
Second statement is correct.
First statement is incorrect because the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 reduced the maximum time
period from two months to one month for the approval of national emergency in Parliament.
Second statement is incorrect because it can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval
of the Parliament for every six months.
89. Answer: [D] 1 & 2 Only

Chief Economic Adviser is appointed by the Finance Minister

First statement is incorrect because the National Commission for STs submits its annual report to
the President. Second statement is correct
First statement is incorrect because the conditions of service of the members of the National
Commission for SCs are determined by the President. Second statement is correct
First statement is incorrect because Chairman and members of Finance Commission are appointed
by the President. Second statement is correct.
93. Answer: [B] UPSC must be consulted in cases as regards the reservation of posts for
Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Second statement is the correct answer because there is no such provision.
94. Answer: [B] On request of Governor of a State with approval from President
95. Answer: [C] 2 Only
First statement is incorrect because the number of members of a JSPSC is determined by the
President. Third statement is incorrect because members of JSPSC hold office for a term of six
years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
96. Answer: [D] 1, 2 & 3
All of the above are correct statements
The institution of Lokpal is a statutory body and not a Constitutional body. It was not given
the constitutional status as the Constitutional Amendment Bill, which provided for making
the Lokpal a constitutional body, was defeated in the House. JSPSC is a statutory and not
constitutional body. It can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the concerned state
legislatures.

First statement is incorrect because Chairman of UPSC can be removed by President, but the order
for removal is subjected to judicial review. Second statement is incorrect because Chairman of
UPSC is completely debarred from any future employment under the Central or State Government
after retirement. He/She is eligible to be appointed or elected to State or Central legislature.
Second statement is incorrect because the power of posting, promotion & grant of leave to district
judge is vested in Governor.
First statement is incorrect because Governor of a State has the power to nominate one member of
Anglo-Indian Community in State Legislative Assembly, if the community is not adequately
represented in the assembly.


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General Knowledge Today

Prelims Mock Test Series 2017: Mock Test-2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 2

1. Administrator or lieutenant-governor of a Union territory is appointed by Prime Minister

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 4

[C] Both 1 & 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 5

13. To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must:

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 6

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 7

[C] Both 1 & 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 8

[C] Both 1 & 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 9

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 10

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 11

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 12

[B] One-half of the total membership of the House

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 13

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 14

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 15

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 16

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 17

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 18

[A] 1 & 2 Only

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 19

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 20

[B] 1 & 2 Only

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 21

of 70 years, whichever is earlier

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 22

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 23

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 24

[D] Neither 1 nor 2

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Integrated IAS General Studies:2016-17 25

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