7gts Sat Student Guide

2018-19
The SAT
® Information about
the SAT®
Test-taking advice
Student
and tips
Sample test
questions
Guide
Learn all about

the SAT at sat.org.
Connect your College Board
results, and get personalized
practice at satpractice.org.
Contents
3 Using This Guide 26 Math
3 What the SAT Measures 26 Math Test Overview
3 Organization of the SAT 26 Calculator Use
3 Practice for the SAT 27 Sample Math Test Materials
4 Before You Test 28 Math Test – No Calculator Questions
6 On Test Day 32 Math Test – Calculator Questions
8 How the SAT Is Scored 38 The SAT Essay
8 Protecting Your Privacy 38 SAT Essay Overview
10 What You Need to Know About Taking the SAT 39 Sample Essay
11 Evidence-Based Reading and Writing 46 The SAT Essay Scoring Guide
11 Reading Test Overview 48 SAT Terms and Conditions
11 Sample Reading Test Materials 49 Grounds for Score Cancellation
12 Reading Test Questions 51 Makeup Testing
18 Writing and Language Test Overview 51 Verifying Your Scores
19 Sample Writing and Language Test Materials 51 Score Reporting
20 Writing and Language Test Questions 53 Required Information for Students Testing in
California or New York State
About the College Board

The College Board is a mission-driven not-for-profit organization that connects students to
college success and opportunity. Founded in 1900, the College Board was created to expand
access to higher education. Today, the membership association is made up of over 6,000 of the
world’s leading educational institutions and is dedicated to promoting excellence and equity in
education. Each year, the College Board helps more than seven million students prepare for a
successful transition to college through programs and services in college readiness and college
success—including the SAT and the Advanced Placement Program . The organization also
® ®
serves the education community through research and advocacy on behalf of students, educators,
and schools. For further information, visit collegeboard.org.
SAT Customer Service

You can reach us from 8 a.m.–9 p.m. Eastern Time
(8:30 a.m.–8 p.m. after the June test through August 19th).
PHONE: 866-756-7346
INTERNATIONAL: +1-212-713-7789
EMAIL: sat@info.collegeboard.org
MAIL: College Board SAT Program

P.O. Box 025505
Miami, FL 33102
What the SAT Measures Using This Guide
Using This Guide

We’ve created this guide to help you: Time Number of
Allotted Questions/
Become familiar with the test so that you’re not Test (minutes) Tasks
surprised or confused on test day.
Learn the test directions. The directions for Reading 65 52
answering the questions in this booklet are the same
Writing and Language 35 44
as those on the actual test.
Review the sample questions. The more familiar you Math 80 58
are with the question formats, the more comfortable
you’ll feel when you see similar questions on the Essay (optional) 50 1
actual test. In particular, be sure to practice writing
answers to the student-produced response questions Total 180 154
(230 with Essay) (155 with Essay)
on the Math Test (see page 27). Find additional
sample questions at sat.org.
We occasionally pretest new test questions to determine
Understand how the tests are scored. You get one whether they should be included in a future SAT test
point for each correct answer. Hard questions count
form. These questions may appear in any of the test
the same as easier questions. You won’t lose any
sections, and testing time will be extended by 20 minutes
points for guessing, so try to answer every question.
so students have time to answer them. These questions
will not be included in computing your scores. Students
What the SAT Measures must complete all sections of the test. If you leave before
dismissal, your scores will be canceled.
The SAT is focused on the skills and knowledge at the
®
heart of education. It measures:
What you learn in high school. Practice for the SAT

What you need to succeed in college and career The College Board has partnered with Khan Academy ®
training. to give you free, personalized practice you can access

The same habits and choices that lead to success in anytime, anywhere.
school will help you get ready for the SAT. The best way Don’t miss out on these practice tools:
to prepare for the test is to:
Personalized recommendations for practice on the
Take challenging courses. skills you need to attend to most
Do your homework. Thousands of questions, reviewed and approved by
Prepare for tests and quizzes. the people who develop the SAT
Ask and answer lots of questions. Video lessons that explain problems step-by-step
Full-length practice tests
Organization of the SAT Practice tests in assistive technology compatible
(ATC) and MP3 audio formats for students who
The SAT has four tests, with the SAT Essay being need them
optional. The three tests that everyone will take are the
Make practice part of your routine—anyplace, anytime.
Reading Test, the Writing and Language Test, and the
Answer a question a day on the Daily Practice for the New
Math Test. The tests break down as shown in the table
SAT app and get immediate feedback. The free app makes
in the next column.
it easy to:
As part of scoring, every test goes through an equating
process. Equating is a statistical process we use to Answer an exclusive, official Reading, Writing and
Language, or Math question.
ensure that scores mean the same thing no matter which
version of the test you take or when you take it. In order Reveal a hint if you’re stuck.
to assist with future testing, the College Board may Read answer explanations and learn from your
conduct research studies in connection with the testing mistakes.
of a subset of students.
Keep at it—daily practice can only sharpen your skills.
We offer other free and affordable resources to help you
do your best. Visit sat.org/practice.
s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 3

Using This Guide Before You Test
Instant Practice Test Scoring will be sent, unless you specifically ask to send all your
with Scan and Score existing SAT and SAT Subject Test scores.
Take the SAT on paper to simulate test day. Then take a

picture of your answer sheet and get an instant score. If You Need Testing Accommodations
If you have a disability that requires testing
Here’s how Scan and Score works:
accommodations, you must apply for College Board
1. Ask your counselor for a paper practice test, or approval in advance of the test date you need the
download and print one of the eight SAT practice accommodations for. All accommodations must be
tests found at sat.org/practice. Be sure to follow the approved by the Services for Students with Disabilities
directions, and use the official answer sheet to bubble (SSD) office. See collegeboard.org/ssd for information
in your answers. on how to apply for and use accommodations.
2. After you’ve finished the practice test, get instant
feedback and question-by-question results from your Applying for Accommodations
phone. Just open the free app Daily Practice for the Your school’s SSD coordinator can help you request
New SAT. accommodations, by submitting an accommodations
3. Keeping the app open, snap a picture of your answer request for you online.
sheet with your phone’s camera. If you want to request accommodations on your own,
And there it is in seconds: your score. Scores are saved so contact SSD to request a paper Eligibility Form.
you can track your progress. Once approved for accommodations, with some
exceptions, you remain approved and do not have to
apply again when taking another College Board test.
Before You Test Bring your SSD eligibility letter with you on test day
to provide documentation if needed.
The Optional Student Data Registering with Accommodations
Questionnaire If your accommodations aren’t approved in time for
When you register, you have the opportunity to answer your test date, you can:
questions about yourself, your educational experience,
Transfer to a later date.
and your possible plans for after you graduate high
school. While you don’t have to answer these questions, Bring a copy of your SSD eligibility letter, along
we strongly recommend that you do. Your responses give with your photo ID and admission ticket, to the
your school counselors and college admission officers center. If there are enough materials and space,
information they can use to help you plan your future. you may be able to test with your approved
The more information you provide, the more they can accommodations.
help you. Take the test without your approved
accommodations. If you feel you didn’t do your
Your answers to some questions (the questionnaire best, you can cancel your scores immediately
identifies which ones) won’t appear on your score report after the test, or you can choose not to send your
but will be used by the College Board for research and scores to colleges.
planning.
Your responses, when combined with those of all Connect to Opportunities
other students taking the SAT, contribute to an
in Higher Education
understanding of the academic preparation, extra- and
Each year millions of students take the SAT, and
cocurricular involvement, and post-high-school plans
thousands of high school counselors and postsecondary
of your graduating class, which can help colleges and
admission officers worldwide use their scores to guide
universities deliver programs and opportunities to serve
decisions in the college application process. The test that
you and your classmates.
you’ll take on test day is a challenging yet appropriate
and fair assessment of what you know and can do. The
Sending Scores When You Register questions you’ll tackle focus on the knowledge and skills
When you register, you also have the opportunity to that the best available evidence indicates are essential for
choose up to four colleges, universities, or scholarship college and career readiness and success. We’re committed
programs to receive your scores at no further charge. to providing opportunities to help you reach your goals for
Only your scores from the test date on the registration college, career, and beyond.
4 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

Before You Test Using This Guide
Students who are the first in their families to consider scholarships, and special activities. Student Search Service
attending college, who come from low-income families, is simply a way for colleges to reach prospective students to
or whose ethnicities are underrepresented in colleges let them know about the opportunities they offer. For more
may feel that college isn’t for them. The College Board’s information about Student Search Service, visit our site at
Access to Opportunity™ (A2O™) efforts are designed to collegeboard.org/student-search-service.
identify and break down barriers that prevent students
If at any time you change your mind and want
from applying to and enrolling in colleges that are their
to stop participating, please contact us at
best academic, social, and financial fit. Our mission is
SearchCustomerService@collegeboard.com or
to help all students recognize and make the most of the
866-825-8051. Please note that any eligible participating
opportunities they’ve earned. See “Useful Resources”
organizations that have already received your name and
for more information about ways to achieve your dreams.
other data may continue to send you information, but
your information will not be included going forward from
Student Search Service the time you elect to opt out.
Nearly 1,700 colleges use our Student Search Service to®
look for students who match a range of factors—such as Fee Waivers

the area where you live or go to school, the interests you
Students who face financial barriers to taking the SAT
pursue, and what you plan to study in college. Here are
can be granted College Board fee waivers through schools
some key facts about the service:
and authorized community-based organizations to cover
You can join for free and directly hear from a diverse the cost of testing. The College Board offers fee waivers
group of colleges and scholarship programs, and to qualified, lower-income students who want to take
educational organizations. the SAT and SAT Subject Tests. They cover 100% of the
When you take a College Board test, you can opt registration fees for a single test date and unlimited score
in and colleges can send you information. You’ll sends to colleges, universities, and scholarship programs.
be asked to provide information about yourself Each qualifying student can use up to two waivers for
when either registering or taking the test (see “The the SAT and up to two waivers for the SAT Subject Tests.
Optional Student Data Questionnaire”). You may SAT fee waivers also give first-time, domestic applicants
also provide additional information on the College CSS/Financial Aid PROFILE fee waivers. Learn more
®
Board’s college planning website, BigFuture™. about this at cssprofile.collegeboard.org.
Only eligible colleges and scholarship and educational College Application Fee Waivers
organizations can participate. They most often search Seniors who use a fee waiver to take the SAT will
for expected high school graduation date, cumulative automatically receive four college application fee waivers
grade point average (GPA), and intended college major. to use in applying to colleges and universities that accept
We never share your test scores, grades, or telephone the waivers. You can learn about eligibility and the other
numbers. benefits offered to help you in the college application
process at sat.org/fee-waivers.
We don’t allow any commercial advertising.
Don’t forget: The Free Application for Federal Student Aid
How It Works (FAFSA )—the form you’ll need to qualify for most financial
®
Once you opt in, you can expect to receive emails and aid opportunities—can be filed beginning October 1. You
postal mail from colleges in your city, state, or country, should complete your FAFSA as early as possible.
or from colleges around the world. All of the colleges that
you’ll hear from welcome students just like you on their
campuses. The colleges may send you: Useful Resources
We offer resources to help you find the best college and
Information on financial aid, scholarships, or other career for you, including:
ways to make college more affordable.
Details on campus life and student services. Roadmap to Careers—Want to see how your interests
can connect to careers in your future? Try this great
Overviews of majors, courses, and degree options. online experience powered by our partnership with
Being contacted by a college doesn’t mean you’ve Roadtrip Nation. Visit collegeboard.roadtripnation.com.
been admitted. You must submit an application to be
considered for admission. The colleges and organizations BigFuture—Our website helps you plan for college
that participate want to find students who will succeed and find the college that’s best for you. Visit
and thrive on their campus and in classes, programs, bigfuture.collegeboard.org.

Using This Guide On Test Day
On Test Day cell phones and wearable technology to the staff in your
testing room before the test begins. Be sure to turn off
your watch alarm, if you have one. Test centers are serious
Items to Bring for Testing about security and ensuring a quiet testing environment,
What to Bring: so prohibited devices must not make any sounds during
testing.
Printed admission ticket, which is required for entry
to the test center If your device makes noise or you are seen with it at any
Acceptable photo ID (see sat.org/photo for more time, including during breaks, you may be dismissed
information) immediately, your scores can be canceled, and the device
may be collected and its contents inspected. The College
Two No. 2 pencils with soft erasers
Board and your test center are not responsible for loss
An acceptable calculator for math sections/tests that of or damage to personal items, including electronic
permit them (see “Calculator Use” later in this guide) devices, while you’re in the test center.
Nice to Have: The College Board regularly bolsters its security efforts in
A watch (without an audible alarm or communication/ order to protect the integrity of the test and ensure a fair
recording capabilities; smartwatches will be collected SAT administration. From time to time, the College Board,
before testing) ETS, and its testing staff may employ enhanced security
A bag or backpack (which must be stored under the measures, such as the use of metal detecting wands to
desk during testing) detect mobile phones and other electronic devices. Test
takers should be prepared to undergo these security
Snacks and drinks (which must be packed away measures to ensure a fair testing environment.
during testing)
Extra batteries and backup equipment The test administration staff are authorized to collect and
hold phones and other prohibited electronic devices during
What Not to Bring the test administration, including break periods, or to
The following devices and aids are prohibited, except in deny admission to anyone in possession of a prohibited
the case of approved accommodations: electronic device.
Cell phones or smartphones (phones and wearable

technology will be collected before the test and Taking the Tests
returned before dismissal)
Testing Guidelines
Audio players or recorders Use these guidelines as you take your seat in the test room.
Tablets, laptops, notebooks, or any other personal
computing devices, including wearable technology Plan ahead and bring equipment that’s in good
working order. Test center staff won’t have extra
Separate timers of any type batteries or calculators.
Cameras or any other photographic equipment When marking answers:
Smartwatches and any other devices that can be Use a No. 2 pencil with a soft eraser on all
used to record, transmit, receive, or play back audio,
parts of the answer sheet. Do not use a pen or
photographic, text, or video content
mechanical pencil.
Protractors, compasses, rulers Make sure you fill in the entire bubble darkly and
Highlighters, colored pens, colored pencils completely.
Pamphlets or papers of any kind Erase any changes you make as completely as
Dictionaries or other books possible.
On the SAT, there’s no penalty for guessing; you
Phones and Electronic Devices Policy simply earn points for the questions you answer
Devices that can be used to communicate test content or correctly. Try to give your best answer to every
share answers are not allowed in the test center. You may question—there’s no advantage to leaving them blank.
not bring electronics of any kind with you on test day (an Use a watch to time yourself—no separate timers
exception may apply for medically required devices). or alarms are allowed, as they distract other test
takers. Choose a watch that doesn’t have advanced
If, however, you forget to leave a device at home, you’ll
communication or recording features (these are not
be instructed to turn off all electronic devices and give

On Test Day Using This Guide
allowed and will be collected from you in the testing Adding or Dropping the SAT Essay
room). When you register for the SAT, you should consider
Don’t skip sections, and don’t leave your answer carefully whether to choose the optional SAT Essay or not.
sheet blank. Doing this could result in score It’s a good idea to check the policies of the institutions
cancellation and/or delays. you’re interested in at sat.org/register (select “College
SAT Essay Policies”) to see if they require it for admission.
If you’ve chosen to take the optional SAT Essay and
decide not to write the essay, your official score If you change your mind, you might be able to change from
report will include an SAT Essay score of zero. Also, the SAT to SAT with Essay (or the reverse) on test day.
if you leave the room before testing ends, your scores
will be canceled. Changes to the Essay Option on Test Day:
Store any snacks you bring out of sight in your Must be requested at check-in. Students requesting
backpack or a paper bag. You may only eat snacks a change will be seated after the other registered
during breaks. The testing staff will tell you where students, but before waitlist students, on a first-come,
you can go to have your snack. first-served basis, if materials and space allow.
Keep your ID and admission ticket with you at all Aren’t guaranteed and will be made at the discretion
times, especially if you leave the testing room. You of the test center staff at check-in. Changes may
may be asked to show your ID or admission ticket at be declined by test center staff for various reasons,
any time while in the test center. Don’t write on the including lack of sufficient materials, staff, or seats
admission ticket. to accommodate the change.
Aren’t available to waitlist students or test takers 21
Calculator Rules and over.
You may only use certain kinds of calculators, as explained
in the Math Test section of this guide. Here are the other
May not be permitted in certain test centers—see
sat.org/international for details.
rules to bear in mind:
Can’t be made after you’re checked in and assigned
You may not share your calculator. a room. If you try to change your essay option after
If you use your calculator to share or exchange check-in, you’ll be dismissed from the center and
information during the test or to remove test your scores will be canceled.
questions or answers from the test room, you’ll be You won’t be charged a change fee. You’ll be automatically
dismissed and your scores will be canceled. refunded or billed for the difference between your
If you’re using a calculator with a large (characters registration choice and the test you take on test day. We’ll
one inch high or more) or raised display that might be process the refund/charge using the payment method you
visible to other test takers, the associate supervisor used when you registered. Fee waivers cover any changes
may move you to another seat. to the essay option.

Using This Guide How the SAT Is Scored
How the SAT Is Scored

All multiple-choice questions are scored the same way: one point for each correct answer and zero points for incorrect
answers. No points are subtracted for incorrect answers or answers left blank. The table below shows all the scores
you’ll receive on the SAT.
SAT Score Reported Details Score Range
Total Score Sum of the two section scores 400–1600
Section Scores (2) Evidence-Based Reading and Writing, and Math 200–800
Test Scores (3) Reading, Writing and Language, and Math 10–40
Essay Scores (3) Reading, Analysis, and Writing 2–8

(The SAT Essay is optional.)
Cross-Test Scores (2) Analysis in History/Social Studies and Analysis in Science: Based 10–40
on select questions in the Reading Test, Writing and Language
Test, and Math Test. These scores show how well you use your
skills to analyze texts and solve problems in these subject areas.
Subscores (7) Reading and Writing and Language: Command of Evidence and 1–15
Words in Context. Writing and Language: Expression of Ideas and
Standard English Conventions. Math: Heart of Algebra, Problem
Solving and Data Analysis, and Passport to Advanced Math.
Score Reporting institutions receiving your results. Colleges consider your

The online score report gives you the meaning behind best scores when they review your application, so having
your numbers by providing a summary of how you did on them all sent will not have a negative impact. However,
each section, including how many answers you got right, if you want only your highest scores to be seen, you
got wrong, or omitted. You can access your online score should elect Score Choice. Each school or program has
report through your free College Board account. The its own deadlines and policies for how scores are used.
report offers insight into your strengths and weaknesses Information is listed on the Score Choice site for each
by showing your results grouped by content area and participating institution, but check with the individual
level of difficulty. The SAT online score report contains: school or scholarship program to make sure you’re
following its guidelines.
Percentiles that let you see how your results compare
with those of other students taking the test.
A search tool for career and college majors, with Protecting Your Privacy
suggestions based on information you provide in
your profile. Privacy Policy
The prompt for the optional SAT Essay (if you took it) When a student takes a College Board test, including
and a scanned copy of your response. the SAT, they can “opt in” to Student Search Service.
If they do, the College Board can provide that student’s
Score Choice basic information to eligible colleges and universities,
With Score Choice™, you can put your best foot forward scholarship programs, and certain higher education
by choosing which scores you send to colleges. Choose enrichment opportunities.
by test date for the SAT and by individual test for SAT We never sell nor share student information with test prep
Subject Tests™—but keep in mind that some colleges and companies, nor are we affiliated with any test preparation
scholarship programs require you to send all your scores. companies. The College Board recommends that students
This service is optional. If you do not select Score take advantage of our free and low-cost practice tools to
Choice when registering, all your scores will be sent to help them do their best on test day.

Protecting Your Privacy Using This Guide
Khan Academy® and the College Board are committed If there’s an investigation involving validity of a
to creating a safe and secure online environment for all student’s test scores, a photo of the student may be
students using Official SAT Practice. No information about sent to institutions that received the scores. Any
student work will be shared without students’ explicit college given access to the photo must certify that it
permission. The College Board and Khan Academy don’t has admitted the student.
share personally identifiable information. Students who Students’ use of Khan Academy practice resources
connect their Khan Academy and College Board accounts will be governed by the Terms and Conditions on the
benefit from additional personalization through the use of Khan Academy website.
their actual test results, but this is student driven, can be
You’re required to provide your name, the name or code of
canceled by students at any time, and doesn’t involve the
your high school, and other personal information during
transfer of any personally identifiable information. Visit
the registration process. The College Board maintains
sat.org/practice to learn more.
records of the personal information and photo that you
provided at the time of registration for each test date,
Use of Student Information which are used for the photo admission ticket required
The College Board recognizes the importance of protecting for test center entry. You can choose to disclose your
your privacy. See collegeboard.org/privacy-policy for information for scholarship purposes, Student Search
complete data privacy information. Service, score reporting to institutions other than your
high school, and receiving communications from the
During the registration process, we ask students for name, College Board.
address, date of birth, sex, student ID, and address. We
may also ask for phone numbers and email addresses, Some of the information is available to your high school,
school name, and grade level or expected graduation the ETS Office of Testing Integrity, and the College Board.
date. Sometimes schools will give us students’ personal In the event of an investigation involving the validity of
information to register these students for College Board your test scores, your information may be made available
tests. Schools may share students’ names, addresses, to institutions you have sent your scores to. When legally
dates of birth, and gender, and in certain circumstances compelled to do so, for example pursuant to a subpoena,
information about students to help the College Board the College Board may provide your personal information
determine if they qualify for fee waivers. Students provide to outside parties. Your scores will be made available
any remaining personal information themselves. to your high school. In addition, individual scores and
other information you provide during testing may be
We only share student information for the educational reported to your district or state and/or their agents and
purposes listed below (or under court order). representatives for educational, diagnostic, and/or
We report scores to students and their schools, reporting purposes. For more information about the
districts, and states to help measure educational guidelines on the uses of College Board test scores and
progress and support students on their path to related data, ask your counselor or download Guidelines
college. on the Uses of College Board Test Scores and Related Data
from research.collegeboard.org/data. Your name will
If students request it, we use information to send never be sold to a commercial marketing firm or retailer of
customized college planning information.
merchandise or services (such as test prep).
We use student information to give SAT college
application fee waivers to income-eligible students. The College Board will disclose scores to a student’s
parent or guardian if the parent or guardian is able to
We share a limited amount of personal data with supply the required authentication information, unless
our partners—only what’s needed for administering
the College Board determines in its sole discretion that its
testing services and producing and generating
records on the student contain a court order, state statute,
student score reports.
or legally binding document relating to matters such as
On our website, we use student information to divorce, separation, or custody that restricts the parent’s
customize and personalize the content users see, or guardian’s access to the student’s scores. The College
such as important reminders about SAT test dates Board will not independently investigate whether a court
and college-planning milestones. order, state statute, or legally binding document exists
We share deidentified student information with other than in its records; instead, relevant documents and
researchers so they can study it for College Board information must be submitted to the College Board. The
programs and services that help solve education College Board reserves the right to request additional
issues. documents and information in connection with determining
whether or not to disclose scores to a parent or guardian.

Using This Guide What You Need to Know About Taking the SAT
What You Need to Know You may not consult textbooks, other people,
electronic devices, or any other resources during the
About Taking the SAT test or during breaks.
The College Board’s Test Security and Fairness policies Calculators may not be shared and may only be
are designed to give every student a fair and equitable on your desk during the parts of the SAT and SAT
opportunity to demonstrate college readiness. They’re Subject Tests they’re approved for.
also designed to prevent anyone from gaining an unfair Violation of policies related to test security can result
advantage on SAT tests. Please read this section carefully. in denial of entry to or immediate dismissal from the
test center, cancellation of your scores, or a limited or
Test Security and Fairness Policies permanent ban from future test taking.
When you take the SAT, you acknowledge that you have
read, understand, and will comply with our test day Your Rights and Responsibilities
policies and requirements, as detailed here. Please read the SAT Terms and Conditions at the back of
You must present acceptable photo ID for admission this guide for important information about your rights and
to the test center. responsibilities as a test taker.
Allowing someone to impersonate you to take a
College Board test, or engaging in impersonation to Who Can Take the SAT
take a test for someone else, is strictly prohibited. You may take the SAT on any of 4–7 weekend
Sharing test questions or answers is prohibited at administrations if you’re taking the test for its intended
any time unless test content is released as part of a purposes, including:
College Board service (such as the Question-and-
Answer Service).
Applying to a college or university undergraduate
program.
Using phones and certain other electronic devices is
prohibited in SAT test centers.
Applying for scholarships, financial aid, or other
programs that require a college admission test as
You are prohibited from accessing secured test part of their application process.
materials at any time before or after the test.
If we have reason to believe you’re not taking the SAT
If you exit the building before testing ends, your for its intended purposes, you may be transferred to an
scores will be canceled. administration where the SAT form is disclosed after the
While you’re taking the test, do not allow anyone to test. In addition, the College Board reserves the right to
see the test questions or your answers. investigate and cancel the SAT registration and/or scores
The timing of each test section is strictly scheduled. of anyone suspected of attempting to steal and/or share
You cannot skip ahead or go back to a previous test test content.
or test section in the test book or answer sheet while
taking the SAT or SAT Subject Tests.
If your essay does is not reflect your original and
individual work, your entire test score may be
canceled.

Reading Test Overview Evidence-Based Reading and Writing
Evidence-Based Reading and Writing

The Evidence-Based Reading and Writing section is What the Reading Test Measures
composed of two tests that assess different but related skills A lot more goes into reading than you might realize—and
and knowledge. The Reading Test gives you a chance to the Reading Test measures a range of reading skills.
show how well you understand what you read. The Writing You’ll be asked questions that require you to draw on the
and Language Test asks you to revise and edit text. reading skills needed most to succeed in the subjects the
passages are drawn from. For instance, you might read
Reading Test Overview about an experiment and then see questions that ask
Total questions: 52 passage-based reading questions you to examine hypotheses, interpret data, or consider
with multiple-choice responses. implications.
Time allotted: 65 minutes. Answers are based only on the content stated in or implied
Calculators may not be used or be on your desk. by the passages and in any supplementary material, such
as tables, graphs, and charts.
All questions are worth one point regardless of the
type or difficulty. You’re not penalized for guessing, Command of Evidence
so it’s to your advantage to answer each question as Some questions ask you to:
best you can.
The questions often include line references to direct Find evidence in a passage (or pair of passages) that
you to relevant part(s) of the passage(s). best supports the answer to a previous question or
serves as the basis for a reasonable conclusion.
What the Reading Test Is Like Identify how authors use evidence to support their
When you take the Reading Test, you’ll read passages claims.
and interpret informational graphics. Then you’ll use Locate or interpret data in an informational graphic,
what you’ve read to answer questions. Some questions or understand a relationship between a graphic and
ask you to locate a piece of information or an idea stated the passage it’s paired with.
directly. But you’ll also need to understand what the
author’s words or a graphic’s data imply. Words in Context
Some questions focus on important, widely used words
What You’ll Read and phrases that you’ll find in texts in many different
subjects. The words and phrases are ones that you’ll use
To succeed in college and career, you’ll need to apply
in college and the workplace long after test day.
reading skills in all sorts of subjects. Not coincidentally,
you’ll also need those skills to do well on the Reading Test. The SAT focuses on your ability to:
Reading Test passages range in length from about 500 to Figure out the meaning of words or phrases in context.
750 words. The Reading Test always includes: Decide how an author’s word choice shapes meaning,
One passage from a classic or contemporary work of style, and tone.
U.S. or world literature.
One passage or a pair of passages from either a U.S. Sample Reading Test Materials
founding document (such as an essay by James Following are samples of the kinds of passages and
Madison) or a text in the Great Global Conversation questions that may appear on the Reading Test. For each
(such as a speech by Nelson Mandela). set of sample materials:
One passage on a social science topic from a field Read the passage(s) and any supplementary material
such as economics, psychology, or sociology. carefully.
Two science passages (or one passage and one Decide on the best answer to each question.
passage pair) that examine foundational concepts
Read the explanation for the best answer to each
or recent developments in Earth science, biology,
question and for the answer you chose (if the two are
chemistry, or physics.
different).
On the actual test, each passage will be followed by 10 or
11 questions. The directions on the next page match what
you’ll encounter on the actual test.

Reading Test Questions Sample Reading Test Materials
Reading Test Questions

Directions recalls. Fishing the meat out was tricky. It turned out
that Gray was moving the leaf shard too forcefully
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by 40 instead of gently stroking the spines against the treat.
a number of questions. After reading each passage or The crow’s deft physical manipulation was what
pair, choose the best answer to each question based inspired Gray and Auckland colleague Alex Taylor
on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages to test other wild crows to see if they employed the
and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table seemingly insightful string-pulling solutions that some
or graph). 45 ravens, kea parrots and other brainiac birds are known
Questions 1-3 are based on the following passages. to employ. Three of four crows passed that test on the
Passage 1 is adapted from Susan Milius, “A Different Kind of Smart.” ©2013 first try.
by Science News. Passage 2 is adapted from Bernd Heinrich, Mind of the
Passage 2
Raven: Investigations and Adventures with Wolf-Birds. ©2007 by Bernd
Heinrich. For one month after they left the nest, I led my four
young ravens at least once and sometimes several times
Passage 1 50 a day on thirty-minute walks. During these walks,
In 1894, British psychologist C. Lloyd Morgan I wrote down everything in their environment they
published what’s called Morgan’s canon, the principle pecked at. In the first sessions, I tried to be teacher. I
that suggestions of humanlike mental processes behind touched specific objects—sticks, moss, rocks—and
Line an animal’s behavior should be rejected if a simpler nothing that I touched remained untouched by them.
5 explanation will do. 55 They came to investigate what I had investigated,
Still, people seem to maintain certain expectations, leading me to assume that young birds are aided in
especially when it comes to birds and mammals. learning to identify food from the parents’ example.
“We somehow want to prove they are as ‘smart’ as They also, however, contacted almost everything else
people,” zoologist Sara Shettleworth says. We want a that lay directly in their own paths. They soon became
10 bird that masters a vexing problem to be employing 60 more independent by taking their own routes near
human-style insight. mine. Even while walking along on their own, they
New Caledonian crows face the high end of these pulled at leaves, grass stems, flowers, bark, pine needles,
expectations, as possibly the second-best toolmakers seeds, cones, clods of earth, and other objects they
on the planet. Their tools are hooked sticks or strips encountered. I wrote all this down, converting it to
15 made from spike-edged leaves, and they use them in 65 numbers. After they were thoroughly familiar with the
the wild to winkle grubs out of crevices. Researcher background objects in these woods and started to ignore
Russell Gray first saw the process on a cold morning in them, I seeded the path we would later walk together
a mountain forest in New Caledonia, an island chain with objects they had never before encountered. Some
east of Australia. Over the course of days, he and crow of these were conspicuous food items: raspberries, dead
20 researcher Gavin Hunt had gotten wild crows used to 70 meal worm beetles, and cooked corn kernels. Others
finding meat tidbits in holes in a log. Once the birds were conspicuous and inedible: pebbles, glass chips, red
were checking the log reliably, the researchers placed winterberries. Still others were such highly cryptic foods
a spiky tropical pandanus plant beside the log and hid as encased caddisfly larvae and moth cocoons. The
behind a blind. results were dramatic.
25 A crow arrived. It hopped onto the pandanus plant, 75 The four young birds on our daily walks contacted
grabbed the spiked edge of one of the long straplike all new objects preferentially. They picked them out at
leaves and began a series of ripping motions. Instead a rate of up to tens of thousands of times greater than
of just tearing away one long strip, the bird ripped and background or previously contacted objects. The main
nipped in a sequence to create a slanting stair-step initial criterion for pecking or picking anything up was
30 edge on a leaf segment with a narrow point and a wide 80 its novelty. In subsequent trials, when the previously
base. The process took only seconds. Then the bird novel items were edible, they became preferred and the
dipped the narrow end of its leaf strip into a hole in inedible objects became “background” items, just like
the log, fished up the meat with the leaf-edge spikes, the leaves, grass, and pebbles, even if they were highly
swallowed its prize and flew off. conspicuous. These experiments showed that ravens’
35 “That was my ‘oh wow’ moment,” Gray says. After 85 curiosity ensures exposure to all or almost all items in
the crow had vanished, he picked up the tool the bird the environment.
had left behind. “I had a go, and I couldn’t do it,” he

Sample Reading Test Materials Reading Test Questions
1 Choice D is incorrect because although the first two

paragraphs do present different perspectives, they
Within Passage 1, the main purpose of the first two are not seemingly or genuinely contradictory. The
paragraphs (lines 1-11) is to second paragraph, particularly the quotation from
A) offer historical background in order to question the Shettleworth, serves mainly to qualify (not contradict)
uniqueness of two researchers’ findings. the position staked out in the first paragraph by
B) offer interpretive context in order to frame the suggesting that while Morgan’s canon is probably a
discussion of an experiment and its results. sound principle, people still tend to project humanlike
levels of intelligence onto many animals. Moreover, the
C) introduce a scientific principle in order to show how
experiment depicted in the rest of the passage primarily
an experiment’s outcomes validated that principle.
bears out Shettleworth’s claim that “we somehow want
D) present seemingly contradictory stances in order to to prove [birds] are as ‘smart’ as people” (lines 8-9) and
show how they can be reconciled empirically. thus does not reconcile the perspectives found in the
opening paragraphs.
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: B
2
Choice B is the best answer. Passage 1 opens with an
According to the experiment described in Passage 2,
explanation of Morgan’s canon and continues with a
whether the author’s ravens continued to show
discussion of people’s expectations regarding animal
intelligence. Taken together, the first two paragraphs
interest in a formerly new object was dictated
indicate that despite cautions to the contrary, people
primarily by whether that object was
still tend to look for humanlike levels of intelligence in A) edible.
many animals, including birds. These two paragraphs B) plentiful.
provide a framework in which to assess the work of C) conspicuous.
Gray and Hunt, presented in the rest of the passage.
D) natural.
The passage’s characterization of the experiment Gray
and Hunt conduct, in which they observe a crow’s tool- Key: A
Estimated Difficulty: Easy
making ability and to which Gray responds by trying
and failing to mimic the bird’s behavior (“I had a go, and
I couldn’t do it,” line 37), suggests that Shettleworth, Choice A is the best answer. The last paragraph
quoted in the second paragraph, is at least partially of Passage 2 presents the results of an experiment
correct in her assessment that “we somehow want to in which the author scattered unfamiliar objects in
prove [birds] are as ‘smart’ as people” (lines 8-9). the path of some ravens. According to the passage,
the birds initially “contacted all new objects
Choice A is incorrect because while the reference to preferentially” but in “subsequent trials” only
Morgan’s canon in the first paragraph offers a sort preferred those “previously novel items” that “were
of historical background (given that the canon was edible” (lines 75-81).
published in 1894), the second paragraph describes
people’s continuing expectations regarding animal Choice B is incorrect because the ravens studied by the
intelligence. Furthermore, the fact that Gray and Hunt author only preferred those “previously novel items”
may share with other people the tendency to look for that “were edible,” whereas “the inedible objects
humanlike intelligence in many animals does not by became ‘background’ items, just like the leaves, grass,
itself establish that the main purpose of the first two and pebbles” (lines 80-83). In other words, plentiful
paragraphs is to question the uniqueness of Gray and items did not continue to interest the ravens unless the
Hunt’s findings. items were edible.
Choice C is incorrect because while the reference to Choice C is incorrect because the ravens studied by
Morgan’s canon in the first paragraph does introduce the author only preferred those “previously novel
a scientific principle, the discussion in the second items” that “were edible,” whereas “the inedible
paragraph of people’s expectations regarding animal objects became ‘background’ items, just like
intelligence, as well as the passage’s characterization the leaves, grass, and pebbles, even if they were
of Gray and Hunt’s experiment and how the researchers highly conspicuous” (lines 80-84). In other words,
interpret the results, primarily suggest that people tend conspicuous items did not continue to interest the
to violate the canon by attributing humanlike levels of ravens unless the items were edible.
intelligence to many animals. Choice D is incorrect because the ravens studied by the
author only preferred those “previously novel items”

that “were edible,” whereas “the inedible objects Choice D is incorrect because while there is some
became ‘background’ items, just like the leaves, grass, evidence that the ravens described in Passage 2
and pebbles” (lines 80-83). In other words, natural mimicked human behavior, going on walks with the
items did not continue to interest the ravens unless the author and possibly viewing him as their “teacher,”
items were edible. there is no evidence that the crows in Passage 1 did
any mimicking. Passage 1, in fact, suggests that the
3 ability of the crow to produce the meat-fishing tool
The crows in Passage 1 and the ravens in Passage 2 was innate rather than a skill it had acquired from
either humans or other birds.
shared which trait?
A) They modified their behavior in response to changes Questions 4-6 are based on the following
in their environment. passage and supplementary material.
This passage is adapted from Richard Florida, The Great Reset.
B) They formed a strong bond with the humans who ©2010 by Richard Florida.
were observing them.
In today’s idea-driven economy, the cost of time is
C) They manufactured useful tools for finding and
what really matters. With the constant pressure to
accessing food.
innovate, it makes little sense to waste countless
D) They mimicked the actions they saw performed Line collective hours commuting. So, the most efficient
around them. 5 and productive regions are those in which people are
thinking and working—not sitting in traffic.
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: A
The auto-dependent transportation system has
reached its limit in most major cities and megaregions.
Choice A is the best answer. Both bird species studied Commuting by car is among the least efficient of all
modified their behavior in response to changes in 10 our activities—not to mention among the least enjoyable,
their environment. The researchers described in according to detailed research by the Nobel Prize–
Passage 1 “had gotten wild crows used to finding winning economist Daniel Kahneman and his colleagues.
meat tidbits in holes in a log” (lines 20-21). In other Though one might think that the economic crisis
words, the researchers had repeatedly placed meat in beginning in 2007 would have reduced traffic (high
the log—that is, changed the crows’ environment—and 15 unemployment means fewer workers traveling to and
the birds had responded by modifying their behavior,
from work), the opposite has been true. Average
a point reinforced in line 22, which noted that the
commutes have lengthened, and congestion has gotten
birds began “checking the log reliably.” The ravens in
worse, if anything. The average commute rose in 2008 to
Passage 2 act in analogous fashion, responding to the
25.5 minutes, “erasing years of decreases to stand at the
introduction of new objects in their environment by
20 level of 2000, as people had to leave home earlier in the
“pick[ing] them out at a rate of up to tens of thousands
morning to pick up friends for their ride to work or
of times greater than background or previously
to catch a bus or subway train,” according to the U.S.
contacted objects” (lines 76-78).
Census Bureau, which collects the figures. And those are
Choice B is incorrect because while there is some average figures. Commutes are far longer in the big
evidence that the ravens described in Passage 2 25 West Coast cities of Los Angeles and San Francisco
formed a bond with the author, going on walks with and the East Coast cities of New York, Philadelphia,
him and possibly viewing him as their “teacher,” Baltimore, and Washington, D.C. In many of these
there is no evidence that a similar bond formed cities, gridlock has become the norm, not just at rush
between the researchers described in Passage 1 and hour but all day, every day.
the crows they studied. Indeed, these researchers 30 The costs are astounding. In Los Angeles, congestion
“hid behind a blind” (lines 23-24) in an effort to avoid eats up more than 485 million working hours a year;
contact with their subjects. that’s seventy hours, or nearly two weeks, of full-time
Choice C is incorrect because while crows’ tool-making work per commuter. In D.C., the time cost of congestion
ability is the central focus of the experiment described is sixty-two hours per worker per year. In New York it’s
in Passage 1, there is no evidence that the ravens 35 forty-four hours. Average it out, and the time cost across
in Passage 2 did anything similar. Passage 1 does America’s thirteen biggest city-regions is fifty-one hours
mention that “some ravens” use “seemingly insightful per worker per year. Across the country, commuting
string-pulling solutions” (line 44), but nothing in wastes 4.2 billion hours of work time annually—nearly a
Passage 2 suggests that the ravens in that particular full workweek for every commuter. The overall cost
study had or displayed tool-making abilities. 40 to the U.S. economy is nearly $90 billion when lost

productivity and wasted fuel are taken into account. Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: B
At the Martin Prosperity Institute, we calculate that every
minute shaved off America’s commuting time is worth
Choice B is the best answer because details in the third
$19.5 billion in value added to the economy. The
paragraph (lines 30-46) strongly suggest that researchers
45 numbers add up fast: five minutes is worth $97.7 billion;
(“we”) at the Martin Prosperity Institute assume that
ten minutes, $195 billion; fifteen minutes, $292 billion.
shorter commutes will lead to more productive time for
It’s ironic that so many people still believe the main workers. The author notes that “across the country,
remedy for traffic congestion is to build more roads and commuting wastes 4.2 billion hours of work time
highways, which of course only makes the problem annually” and that “the overall cost to the U.S. economy
50 worse. New roads generate higher levels of “induced is nearly $90 billion when lost productivity and wasted
traffic,” that is, new roads just invite drivers to drive more fuel are taken into account” (lines 37-41). Given also that
and lure people who take mass transit back to their cars. those at the institute “calculate that every minute shaved
Eventually, we end up with more clogged roads rather off America’s commuting time is worth $19.5 billion
than a long-term improvement in traffic flow. in value added to the economy” (lines 42-44), it can
55 The coming decades will likely see more intense reasonably be concluded that some of that added value
clustering of jobs, innovation, and productivity in a is from heightened worker productivity.
smaller number of bigger cities and city-regions. Some
regions could end up bloated beyond the capacity of their Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence in
infrastructure, while others struggle, their promise the passage that researchers at the Martin Prosperity
Institute assume that employees who work from
60 stymied by inadequate human or other resources.
home are more valuable to their employers than
employees who commute. Although the passage does
criticize long commutes, it does not propose working
from home as a solution.
Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence in
the passage that researchers at the Martin Prosperity
Institute assume that employees can conduct business
activities, such as composing memos or joining
conference calls, while commuting. The passage
does discuss commuting in some detail, but it does
not mention activities that commuters can or should
be undertaking while commuting, and it generally
portrays commuting time as lost or wasted time.
Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence in
Adapted from Adam Werbach, “The American Commuter Spends 38 the passage that researchers at the Martin Prosperity
Hours a Year Stuck in Traffic.” ©2013 by The Atlantic. Institute assume that employees who have lengthy
commutes tend to make more money than employees
4 who have shorter commutes. The passage does not
draw any clear links between the amount of money
The passage most strongly suggests that
employees make and the commutes they have.
researchers at the Martin Prosperity Institute share
which assumption? 5
A) Employees who work from home are more valuable
As used in line 55, “intense” most nearly means
to their employers than employees who commute.
B) Employees whose commutes are shortened will use A) emotional.
the time saved to do additional productive work for B) concentrated.
their employers. C) brilliant.
C) Employees can conduct business activities, such D) determined.
as composing memos or joining conference calls,
while commuting. Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: B
D) Employees who have lengthy commutes tend to
make more money than employees who have Choice B is the best answer because the context
shorter commutes. makes clear that the clustering of jobs, innovation,

and productivity will be more concentrated in, or City automobile commuters experience greater, not
more densely packed into, “a smaller number of lesser, amounts of delay each year.
bigger cities and city-regions” (lines 56-57).
Choice B is incorrect because the graph’s bar for
Choice A is incorrect because although “intense” Los Angeles is lower than and to the right of that
sometimes means “emotional,” it would make no for Washington, D.C., meaning that Los Angeles
sense in context to say that the clustering of jobs, automobile commuters experience lesser, not greater,
innovation, and productivity will be more emotional amounts of delay each year.
in “a smaller number of bigger cities and city-
Choice D is incorrect because the graph’s bar for Detroit
regions” (lines 56-57).
is lower than and to the right of those for Houston,
Choice C is incorrect because although “intense” Atlanta, and Chicago, meaning that Detroit automobile
sometimes means “brilliant,” it would make no commuters experience lesser, not greater, amounts of
sense in context to say that the clustering of jobs, delay each year.
innovation, and productivity will be more brilliant in
Questions 7-9 are based on the following passage.
“a smaller number of bigger cities and city-regions”
This passage is adapted from a speech delivered by Congresswoman
(lines 56-57). Barbara Jordan of Texas on July 25, 1974, as a member of the Judiciary
Committee of the United States House of Representatives. In the
Choice D is incorrect because although “intense”
passage, Jordan discusses how and when a United States president
sometimes means “determined,” it would make no may be impeached, or charged with serious offenses, while in office.
sense in context to say that the clustering of jobs, Jordan’s speech was delivered in the context of impeachment
innovation, and productivity will be more determined hearings against then president Richard M. Nixon.
in “a smaller number of bigger cities and city-
regions” (lines 56-57). Today, I am an inquisitor. An hyperbole would not be
fictional and would not overstate the solemnness that I
6 feel right now. My faith in the Constitution is whole; it is
Which claim about traffic congestion is supported by Line complete; it is total. And I am not going to sit here and be
the graph? 5 an idle spectator to the diminution, the subversion, the
destruction, of the Constitution.
A) New York City commuters spend less time annually “Who can so properly be the inquisitors for the nation
delayed by traffic congestion than the average for as the representatives of the nation themselves?” “The
very large cities. subjects of its jurisdiction are those offenses which
B) Los Angeles commuters are delayed more hours 10 proceed from the misconduct of public men.”* And that’s
annually by traffic congestion than are commuters in what we’re talking about. In other words, [the jurisdiction
Washington, D.C. comes] from the abuse or violation of some public trust.
C) Commuters in Washington, D.C., face greater It is wrong, I suggest, it is a misreading of the
delays annually due to traffic congestion than do Constitution for any member here to assert that for a
commuters in New York City. 15 member to vote for an article of impeachment means that
D) Commuters in Detroit spend more time delayed that member must be convinced that the President should
annually by traffic congestion than do commuters in be removed from office. The Constitution doesn’t say
Houston, Atlanta, and Chicago. that. The powers relating to impeachment are an essential
check in the hands of the body of the legislature against
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: C 20 and upon the encroachments of the executive. The
division between the two branches of the legislature, the
Choice C is the best answer. Higher bars on the graph House and the Senate, assigning to the one the right to
represent longer annual commute delays than do accuse and to the other the right to judge—the framers
lower bars; moreover, the number of hours of annual of this Constitution were very astute. They did not make
commute delay generally decreases as one moves from 25 the accusers and the judges . . . the same person.
left to right on the graph. The bar for Washington, We know the nature of impeachment. We’ve been
D.C., is higher than and to the left of that for New talking about it a while now. It is chiefly designed for the
York City, meaning that D.C. automobile commuters President and his high ministers to somehow be called
experience greater amounts of delay each year. into account. It is designed to “bridle” the executive if he
30 engages in excesses. “It is designed as a method of
Choice A is incorrect because the graph’s bar for New national inquest into the conduct of public men.”* The
York City is higher than and to the left of that for the
framers confided in the Congress the power, if need be,
average for very large cities, meaning that New York
to remove the President in order to strike a delicate

balance between a President swollen with power and Choice A is the best answer. Jordan helps establish
35 grown tyrannical, and preservation of the independence her idealism by declaring that she is an “inquisitor”
of the executive. (line 1) and that her “faith in the Constitution is
The nature of impeachment: a narrowly channeled whole; it is complete; it is total” (lines 3-4). At
exception to the separation of powers maxim. The Federal numerous points in the passage, Jordan sets forth
Convention of 1787 said that. It limited impeachment principles (e.g., “The powers relating to impeachment
40 to high crimes and misdemeanors, and discounted and are an essential check in the hands of the body of the
opposed the term “maladministration.” “It is to be used legislature against and upon the encroachments of
only for great misdemeanors,” so it was said in the North the executive,” in lines 18-20) and makes reference to
Carolina ratification convention. And in the Virginia important documents that do the same, including the
ratification convention: “We do not trust our liberty to U.S. Constitution and Federalist No. 65.
45 a particular branch. We need one branch to check the Choice B is incorrect because although Jordan is
other.” advocating a position, there is no evidence in the
. . . The North Carolina ratification convention: “No passage that she is seeking a compromise position.
one need be afraid that officers who commit oppression Indeed, she notes that she is “not going to sit here and
will pass with immunity.” “Prosecutions of impeachments be an idle spectator to the diminution, the subversion,
50 will seldom fail to agitate the passions of the whole the destruction, of the Constitution” (lines 4-6),
community,” said Hamilton in the Federalist Papers, indicating that she is not seeking compromise.
number 65. “We divide into parties more or less friendly
Choice C is incorrect because Jordan is a participant
or inimical to the accused.”* I do not mean political
(“an inquisitor,” line 1) in the proceedings, not a mere
parties in that sense. observer. Indeed, she notes that she is “not going to
55 The drawing of political lines goes to the motivation sit here and be an idle spectator to the diminution,
behind impeachment; but impeachment must proceed the subversion, the destruction, of the Constitution”
within the confines of the constitutional term “high (lines 4-6).
crime[s] and misdemeanors.” Of the impeachment
process, it was Woodrow Wilson who said that “Nothing Choice D is incorrect because Jordan is identified as
60 short of the grossest offenses against the plain law of the a congresswoman and an “inquisitor” (line 1), not
land will suffice to give them speed and effectiveness. a scholar, and because she is primarily discussing
Indignation so great as to overgrow party interest may events happening at the moment, not researching
secure a conviction; but nothing else can.” an unidentified historical controversy. Although she
Common sense would be revolted if we engaged refers to historical documents and individuals, her
65 upon this process for petty reasons. Congress has a lot to main emphasis is on the (then) present impeachment
do: appropriations, tax reform, health insurance, hearings.
campaign finance reform, housing, environmental
8
protection, energy sufficiency, mass transportation.
Pettiness cannot be allowed to stand in the face of such In lines 49-54 (“Prosecutions . . . sense”), what is
70 overwhelming problems. So today we’re not being petty. the most likely reason Jordan draws a distinction
We’re trying to be big, because the task we have before between two types of “parties”?
us is a big one. A) To counter the suggestion that impeachment is or
*Jordan quotes from Federalist No. 65, an essay by Alexander should be about partisan politics
Hamilton, published in 1788, on the powers of the United States B) To disagree with Hamilton’s claim that impeachment
Senate, including the power to decide cases of impeachment
against a president of the United States.
proceedings excite passions
C) To contend that Hamilton was too timid in his
7 support for the concept of impeachment
The stance Jordan takes in the passage is best D) To argue that impeachment cases are decided more
described as that of on the basis of politics than on justice
A) an idealist setting forth principles. Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: A

B) an advocate seeking a compromise position.
C) an observer striving for neutrality. Choice A is the best answer. Jordan is making
D) a scholar researching a historical controversy. a distinction between two types of “parties”: the
informal associations to which Alexander Hamilton
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: A refers and formal, organized political parties such as

Writing and Language Writing and Language Test Overview
the modern-day Republican and Democratic parties. the latter concept. These lines thus serve as the best
Jordan anticipates that listeners to her speech might evidence for the answer to the previous question.
misinterpret her use of Hamilton’s quotation as
Choice A is incorrect because lines 13-17 only
suggesting that she thinks impeachment is essentially
address a misconception that Jordan contends some
a tool of organized political parties to achieve partisan
people have about what a vote for impeachment
ends, with one party attacking and another defending
means. Therefore, these lines do not serve as the best
the president. Throughout the passage, and notably
evidence for the answer to the previous question.
in the seventh paragraph (lines 55-63), Jordan makes
clear that she thinks impeachment should be reserved Choice B is incorrect because lines 20-24 only speak
only for the most serious of offenses—ones that should to a division of responsibility between the two
rankle people of any political affiliation. houses of the U.S. Congress. Therefore, these lines
do not serve as the best evidence for the answer to
Choice B is incorrect because Jordan offers no
the previous question.
objection to Hamilton’s notion that impeachment
proceedings excite passions. Indeed, she quotes Choice D is incorrect because lines 65-68 serve
Hamilton extensively in a way that indicates that she mainly to indicate that the U.S. Congress has an
fundamentally agrees with his view on impeachment. extensive and important agenda. Therefore, these
Moreover, she acknowledges that her own speech is lines do not serve as the best evidence for the answer
impassioned—that she feels a “solemnness” (line 2) to the previous question.
and a willingness to indulge in “hyperbole” (line 1).
Choice C is incorrect because Jordan offers no
objection to Hamilton’s level of support for the Writing and Language
concept of impeachment. Indeed, she quotes Test Overview
Hamilton extensively in a way that indicates that she
The SAT Writing and Language Test asks you to be an
fundamentally agrees with his view on impeachment.
editor and improve passages that were written especially
Choice D is incorrect because Jordan suggests that for the test—and that include deliberate errors.
she and her fellow members of Congress are “trying
Total questions: 44 passage-based questions with
to be big” (line 71), or high-minded, rather than
multiple-choice responses.
decide the present case on the basis of politics.
Indeed, throughout the last four paragraphs of Time allotted: 35 minutes.
the passage (lines 37-72), she elaborates on the Calculators may not be used or be on your desk.
principled, just basis on which impeachment should Remember that all questions are worth one point
proceed. Moreover, throughout the passage, Jordan regardless of the type or difficulty. You’re not
is focused on the present impeachment hearings, not penalized for incorrect guesses, so it’s to your
on the justice or injustice of impeachments generally. advantage to answer each question as best
you can.
9
Which choice provides the best evidence for the What the Writing and
answer to the previous question? Language Test Is Like
A) Lines 13-17 (“It . . . office”) When you take the Writing and Language Test, you’ll do
B) Lines 20-24 (“The division . . . astute”) things that people do all the time when they write and
C) Lines 55-58 (“The drawing . . . misdemeanors’”) edit: read, find mistakes and weaknesses, and fix them.
D) Lines 65-68 (“Congress . . . transportation”) The good news: You do these things every time you
revise and edit your own schoolwork or workshop essays
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: C with a friend.
To answer some questions, you’ll need to look closely at a
Choice C is the best answer because in lines 55-
single sentence. Others require thinking about the entire
58, Jordan draws a contrast between political
piece or interpreting a graphic. For instance, you might
motivations and “high crime[s] and misdemeanors”
be asked to choose where a sentence should be placed or
as the basis for impeachment and argues that
to correct a misinterpretation of a scientific chart.
impeachment “must proceed within the confines” of

Sample Writing and Language Test Materials Writing and Language
What You’ll Read Analysis in History/Social Studies and in Science

The passages you’ll read will be informative/explanatory You’ll be asked to read passages about topics in history/
texts, nonfiction narratives, or arguments about careers, social studies and science and to make editorial decisions
history/social studies, the humanities, and science. that improve the passages (such as revising a paragraph
to be more consistent with the data presented in an
You’ll want to read passages carefully so you can make informational graphic).
editorial decisions that improve them.
Expression of Ideas
What the Writing and Some questions ask about a passage’s topic development,
Language Test Measures organization, and effective language use and impact.
For instance, you’ll be asked which words or structural
The Writing and Language Test measures the practical
changes improve how well a point is made and how well
skills you use to spot and fix problems in writing—the
the sentences and paragraphs work together.
skills you’ve been learning in high school and that you’ll
need for success in college and career.
Standard English Conventions
It’s worth keeping in mind the following facts about the Some questions relate to the building blocks of writing:
test: sentence structure, usage, and punctuation. You’ll
be asked to change words, clauses, sentences, and
All questions are multiple choice and based on punctuation.
passages.
Some passages are accompanied by informational
graphics, such as tables, graphs, and charts—but no
math is required.
Sample Writing and
Prior topic knowledge is never tested. Language Test Materials
Following are samples of the kinds of passages and
Command of Evidence questions that may appear on the Writing and Language
Questions that test command of evidence ask you to Test. For each set of sample materials:
improve the way passages develop information and ideas.
For instance, you might choose an answer that sharpens
Read the passage carefully.
an argumentative claim or adds a relevant supporting Decide on the best answer to each question.
detail. Read the explanation for the best answer to each
question and for the answer you chose (if the two are
Words in Context different).
Some questions ask you to improve word choice. You’ll On the actual test, the passages and questions will be
need to choose the best words to use based on the text in side-by-side columns, with each passage (spread
surrounding them. Your goal will be to make a passage over multiple pages) in the left column and associated
more precise or concise or to improve syntax, style, or multiple-choice questions in the right column.
tone.
The directions on the next page match what you’ll
encounter on the actual test.

Writing and Language Test Questions Sample Writing and Language Test Materials
Writing and Language Test Questions

Directions assigned students a formal “school name.” The young boy
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of who had been Dong Moy Shu became Dong Kingman. The
questions. For some questions, you will consider how
name Kingman was selected for its two 3 parts, “king”
the passage might be revised to improve the expression
of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the and “man”; Cantonese for “scenery” and “composition.”
passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence As Kingman developed as a painter, his works were often
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question compared to paintings by Chinese landscape artists dating
may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a
table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising back to CE 960, a time when a strong tradition of landscape
and editing decisions. painting emerged in Chinese art. Kingman, however,
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion departed from that tradition in a number of ways, most
of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location notably in that he chose to focus not on natural landscapes,
in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as
a whole.
such as mountains and rivers, but on cities.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each

His fine brushwork conveys detailed street-level activity:
question that most effectively improves the quality of a peanut vendor pushing his cart on the sidewalk, a pigeon
writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform pecking for crumbs around a fire hydrant, an old man
to the conventions of standard written English. Many
tending to a baby outside a doorway. His broader brush
questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that
option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant strokes and sponge-painted shapes create majestic city
portion of the passage as it is. skylines, with skyscrapers towering in the background,
Questions 1-5 are based on the following passage. bridges connecting neighborhoods on either side of a river,
and 4 delicately painted creatures, such as a tiny, barely
Dong Kingman: Painter of Cities
visible cat prowling in the bushes of a park. To art critics and
A 1954 documentary about renowned watercolor painter
fans alike, these city scenes represent the innovative spirit of
Dong Kingman shows the artist sitting on a stool on Mott
twentieth-century urban Modernism.
Street in New York City’s Chinatown. A crowd of admiring
During his career, Kingman exhibited his work
spectators 1 watched as Kingman squeezes dollops of
internationally, garnering much acclaim. In 1936, a critic
paint from several tubes into a tin watercolor 2 box,
described one of Kingman’s solo exhibits as “twenty of the
from just a few primary colors, Kingman creates dozens of
freshest, most satisfying watercolors that have been seen
beautiful hues as he layers the translucent paint onto the
hereabouts in many a day.” 5
paper on his easel. Each stroke of the brush and dab of the
sponge transforms thinly sketched outlines into buildings,
shop signs, and streetlamps. The street scene Kingman
begins composing in this short film is very much in keeping
with the urban landscapes for which he is best known.
Kingman was keenly interested in landscape painting
from an early age. His interest was so keen, in fact, that
he was named after it. In Hong Kong, where Kingman
completed his schooling, teachers at that time customarily

Sample Writing and Language Test Materials Writing and Language Test Questions
1 3
A) NO CHANGE A) NO CHANGE
B) had watched B) parts: “king” and “man,”
C) would watch C) parts “king” and “man”;
D) watches D) parts; “king” and “man”
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: D Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: B
Choice D is the best answer because the simple Choice B is the best answer because the colon after
present tense verb “watches” is consistent with the “parts” effectively signals that what follows in the
tense of the verbs in the rest of the sentence and sentence further defines what the “two parts” of
paragraph. Kingman’s name are and because the comma after
“man” properly indicates that “‘king’ and ‘man’”
Choice A is incorrect because “watched” creates an
and “Cantonese for ‘scenery’ and ‘composition’” are
inappropriate shift to the past tense.
nonrestrictive appositives.
Choice B is incorrect because “had watched” creates
Choice A is incorrect because the semicolon after
an inappropriate shift to the past perfect tense.
“man” incorrectly joins an independent clause and
Choice C is incorrect because “would watch” creates a phrase. Moreover, the comma after “parts” is
an inappropriate shift that suggests a habitual or arguably a weak form of punctuation to be signaling
hypothetical aspect when other verbs in the sentence the strong break in the sentence indicated here.
and paragraph indicate that a specific, actual
Choice C is incorrect because the semicolon after “man”
instance is being narrated.
incorrectly joins an independent clause and a phrase
2 and because the absence of appropriate punctuation
after “parts” fails to indicate that “two parts” and
A) NO CHANGE “‘king’ and ‘man’” are nonrestrictive appositives.
B) box. From just a few primary colors,
Choice D is incorrect because the semicolon after
C) box from just a few primary colors, “parts” incorrectly joins an independent clause and
D) box, from just a few primary colors two phrases and because the absence of appropriate
punctuation after “man” fails to indicate that “‘king’ and
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: B ‘man’” and “Cantonese for ‘scenery’ and ‘composition’”
are nonrestrictive appositives.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides
punctuation that creates two grammatically complete 4
and standard sentences. The writer wants to complete the sentence with a
Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma third example of a detail Kingman uses to create
splice as well as some confusion about what the his majestic city skylines. Which choice best
prepositional phrase “from just a few primary colors” accomplishes this goal?
modifies. A) NO CHANGE
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on B) exquisitely lettered street and storefront signs.
sentence as well as some confusion about what the C) other details that help define Kingman’s
prepositional phrase “from just a few primary colors” urban landscapes.
modifies. D) enormous ships docking at busy urban ports.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: D
splice.
Choice D is the best answer because the phrase

“enormous ships docking at busy urban ports”
effectively continues the sentence’s series of details
(“skyscrapers towering in the background” and

“bridges connecting neighborhoods”) conveying the that museums continue to make Kingman’s iconic
majesty of city skylines as depicted by Kingman. paintings accessible to the public.
Choice A is incorrect because the phrase “delicately Choice A is incorrect because it concludes the
painted creatures, such as a tiny, barely visible cat passage with a sentence that acknowledges that
prowling in the bushes of a park” does not convey a the works of other painters are more famous
sense of the majesty of city skylines as depicted by than Kingman’s (which downplays, rather than
Kingman and thus does not effectively continue the emphasizes, the enduring legacy of Kingman’s work)
sentence’s series of details (“skyscrapers towering and offers only a general assertion that Kingman’s
in the background” and “bridges connecting work is “well regarded by many people.”
neighborhoods”).
Choice C is incorrect because instead of referring to
Choice B is incorrect because the phrase “exquisitely the enduring legacy of Kingman’s work, it concludes
lettered street and storefront signs” does not convey the passage with a sentence that recalls a detail the
a sense of the majesty of city skylines as depicted by passage provides about Kingman’s early life.
Kingman and thus does not effectively continue the
Choice D is incorrect because it concludes the passage
sentence’s series of details (“skyscrapers towering
with a sentence that is too vague and general to
in the background” and “bridges connecting
emphasize effectively an enduring legacy of Kingman’s
neighborhoods”).
work. It is not clear what the idea of refreshing a
Choice C is incorrect because the phrase “other long-lasting tradition is intended to mean or how (or
details that help define Kingman’s urban landscapes” even whether) this represents an enduring legacy.
is too vague and general to constitute a third Moreover, referring to Kingman’s work as “but one
example that conveys a sense of the majesty of city example” downplays the significance of any potential
skylines as depicted by Kingman and thus does not legacy that might be suggested.
effectively continue the sentence’s series of details
(“skyscrapers towering in the background” and Questions 6-10 are based on the following
“bridges connecting neighborhoods”). passage and supplementary material.
5 A Life in Traffic
The writer wants to conclude the passage with A subway system is expanded to provide service to
a sentence that emphasizes an enduring legacy
of Kingman’s work. Which choice would best a growing suburb. A bike-sharing program is adopted
accomplish this goal? to encourage nonmotorized transportation. Stoplight
A) Although Kingman’s work might not be as famous timing is coordinated to alleviate rush hour traffic
as that of some other watercolor painters, such as
Georgia O’Keeffe and Edward Hopper, it is well
jams in a congested downtown area. When any one of
regarded by many people. these changes 6 occur, it is likely the result of careful
B) Since Kingman’s death in 2000, museums across the analysis conducted by transportation planners.
United States and in China have continued to ensure
that his now-iconic landscapes remain available for The work of transportation planners generally includes
the public to enjoy. evaluating current transportation needs, assessing the
C) The urban landscapes depicted in Kingman’s body effectiveness of existing facilities, and improving those
of work are a testament to the aptness of the name
chosen for Kingman when he was just a boy. facilities or designing new ones. Most transportation
D) Kingman’s work was but one example of a long- planners work in or near cities, 7 but some are
lasting tradition refreshed by an innovative artist employed in rural areas. Say, for example, a large factory
with a new perspective.
is built on the outskirts of a small town. Traffic to and
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: B
from that location would increase at the beginning and
Choice B is the best answer because it concludes end of work shifts. The transportation planner’s job
the passage with a sentence that emphasizes the might involve conducting a traffic count to determine
enduring legacy of Kingman’s work by indicating
the daily number of vehicles traveling on the road to

the new factory. If analysis of the traffic count indicates Urban and Regional Planners
Percent Increase in Employment, Projected 2010 –2020
that there is more traffic than the 8 current road as it is
designed at this time can efficiently accommodate, the Social Scientists and
Related Workers
transportation planner might recommend widening Urban and
Regional Planners
the road to add another lane.
Total, All Occupations
Transportation planners work closely with a number
of community stakeholders, such as government 0% 2% 4% 6% 8% 10% 12% 14% 16% 18% 20%
officials and other interested organizations and Adapted from United States Bureau of Labor Statistics,
Employment Projections program. “All occupations” includes all
individuals. For instance, representatives from the
occupations in the United States economy.
local public health department might provide input in
6
designing a network of trails and sidewalks to encourage
A) NO CHANGE
people to walk more. 9 According to the American
B) occur, they are
Heart Association, walking provides numerous C) occurs, they are
benefits related to health and well-being. Members of D) occurs, it is
the Chamber of Commerce might share suggestions Key: D
Estimated Difficulty: Hard
about designing transportation and parking facilities to
support local businesses. Choice D is the best answer because it maintains
agreement between the pronoun (“it”) and the
People who pursue careers in transportation antecedent (“any one”) and between the subject
planning have a wide variety of educational (“any one”) and the verb (“occurs”).
backgrounds. A two-year degree in transportation Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “occur”
does not agree with the singular subject “any one.”
technology may be sufficient for some entry-level
jobs in the field. Most jobs, however, require at least a Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “occur”
does not agree with the singular subject “any one”
bachelor’s degree; majors of transportation planners and because the plural pronoun “they” does not
are 10 varied, including fields such as urban studies, agree with the singular antecedent “any one.”
civil engineering, geography, or transportation and Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun “they”
does not agree with the singular antecedent “any one.”
logistics management. For many positions in the field,
a master’s degree is required. 7
Transportation planners perform critical work Which choice results in the most effective transition
to the information that follows in the paragraph?
within the broader field of urban and regional
A) NO CHANGE
planning. As of 2010, there were approximately 40,300
B) where job opportunities are more plentiful.
urban and regional planners employed in the United C) and the majority are employed by
States. The United States Bureau of Labor Statistics government agencies.
D) DELETE the underlined portion and end the
forecasts steady job growth in this field, predicting
sentence with a period.
that employment of urban and regional planners
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: A
will increase 16 percent between 2010 and 2020.
Population growth and concerns about environmental Choice A is the best answer because it effectively
sustainability are expected to spur the need for signals the shift in the paragraph to the example of
the work a transportation planner might perform if
transportation planning professionals.

he or she were employed in a rural area and asked 9

to consider the effects of a new factory built “on the
outskirts of a small town.”
The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
Choice B is incorrect because noting that job
A) Kept, because it provides supporting evidence about
opportunities are more plentiful in cities does not
the benefits of walking.
effectively signal the shift in the paragraph to the
example of the work a transportation planner might B) Kept, because it provides an additional example of a
perform if he or she were employed in a rural area. community stakeholder with whom transportation
planners work.
Choice C is incorrect because noting that most
C) Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the
transportation planners work for government
community stakeholders with whom transportation
agencies does not effectively signal the shift
planners work.
in the paragraph to the example of the work a
transportation planner might perform if he or she D) Deleted, because it doesn’t provide specific examples
were employed in a rural area. of what the numerous benefits of walking are.
Choice D is incorrect because the proposed deletion Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: C
would create a jarring shift from the statement “Most
transportation planners work in or near cities” to the Choice C is the best answer because it identifies the
example of the work a transportation planner might best reason the underlined sentence should not be kept.
perform if he or she were employed in a rural area. At this point in the passage and paragraph, a general
statement about the benefits of walking only serves to
8 interrupt the discussion of the community stakeholders
A) NO CHANGE with whom transportation planners work.
B) current design of the road right now Choice A is incorrect because the underlined
C) road as it is now currently designed sentence should not be kept. Although the sentence
D) current design of the road theoretically provides supporting evidence about
the benefits of walking, the passage has not made
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: D a claim that needs to be supported in this way, and
including such a statement only serves to interrupt
Choice D is the best answer because it offers a clear the discussion of the community stakeholders with
and concise wording without redundancy or wordiness. whom transportation planners work.
Choice A is incorrect because “current” is redundant Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence
with “at this time” and because “as it is designed” is should not be kept. Although the American Heart
unnecessarily wordy. Association could theoretically be an example of “other
interested organizations” that transportation planners
Choice B is incorrect because “current” is redundant work with, the sentence does not suggest this is the
with “right now.” case. Instead, the association is merely the source for
Choice C is incorrect because “now” is redundant the general statement about the benefits of walking, a
with “currently.” statement that only serves to interrupt the discussion
of the actual community stakeholders with whom
transportation planners work.
Choice D is incorrect because, although the underlined
sentence should be deleted, it is not because the
sentence lacks specific examples of the numerous
benefits of walking. Adding such examples would only
serve to blur the focus of the paragraph further with
general factual information, as the paragraph’s main
purpose is to discuss the community stakeholders
with whom transportation planners work.

10
A) NO CHANGE
B) varied, and including
C) varied and which include
D) varied, which include
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: A
Choice A is the best answer because it effectively

uses a comma and “including” to set off the list of
varied fields in which transportation planners major.
Choice B is incorrect because “and including” results
in an ungrammatical sentence.
Choice C is incorrect because “and which include”
results in an ungrammatical sentence.
Choice D is incorrect because is it unclear from this
construction to what exactly the relative pronoun
“which” refers.

Math Math Test Overview
Math
The SAT Math Test covers math practices, emphasizing Conceptual Understanding
problem solving, modeling, using tools strategically, and You’ll demonstrate your grasp of math concepts, operations,
using algebraic structure. The questions test your ability to and relations. For instance, you might be asked to make
solve problems and use appropriate approaches and tools connections between properties of linear equations, their
strategically. graphs, and the contexts they represent.
Math Test Overview Applications

Some real-world problems ask you to analyze a situation,
The Math Test includes a portion that allows the use of a determine the essential elements required to solve the
calculator and a portion that does not. problem, represent the problem mathematically, and
Total questions: 58 (20 questions on the carry out a solution.
no-calculator portion; 38 questions on the calculator
Calculator Use
portion).
45 standard multiple-choice questions.
Calculators are important tools, and to succeed after high
13 student-produced response questions.
school, you’ll need to know how—and when—to use them.
Time allotted for Math Test – No Calculator: In the Math Test – Calculator portion of the test, you’ll be
25 minutes; time allotted for Math Test – Calculator: able to focus on complex modeling and reasoning because
55 minutes. your calculator can save you time.
What the Math Test Is Like However, using a calculator, like any tool, isn’t always
the best way to solve a problem. The Math Test includes
Instead of testing you on every math topic, the SAT
some questions that it’s better not to use a calculator for,
asks you to use the math that you’ll rely on most in
even though you’re allowed to. With these questions,
all sorts of situations. Questions on the Math Test are
you’ll probably find that the structure of the problem or
designed to mirror the problem solving and modeling
your reasoning skills will lead you to the answers more
you’ll do in:
efficiently.
College math, science, and social science courses
Jobs that you hold Calculator Smarts
Your personal life Bring your own calculator. You can’t share one.
For instance, to answer some questions you’ll need to Don’t bring a calculator you’ve never used before.
use several steps because in the real world, a single Bring one you know. Practice for the test using the
calculation is rarely enough to get the job done. same calculator you’ll use on test day.
Most math questions will be multiple choice, but It may help to do scratch work in the test book. Get
your thoughts down before using your calculator.
some—called student-produced responses—ask you
to come up with the answer rather than select the Make sure your calculator is in good working order
answer. with fresh batteries. The test center will not have
batteries or extra calculators. If your calculator fails
Some parts of the test include several questions
during testing and you have no backup, you’ll have to
about a single scenario.
complete the test without it.
What the Math Test Measures Acceptable Calculators
Fluency Only battery-operated, handheld equipment can be
The Math Test is a chance to show that you: used for testing. No power cords are allowed. A list of
Carry out procedures flexibly, accurately, efficiently, acceptable graphing calculators can be found online at
and strategically. sat.org/calculators. Calculators permitted during testing
include:
Solve problems quickly by identifying and using
the most efficient solution approaches. This might Most graphing calculators
involve solving a problem by inspection, finding a All scientific calculators that don’t have the
shortcut, or reorganizing the information you’ve unacceptable features listed here
been given.
All four-function calculators (not recommended)

Answering Student-Produced Response Questions Math
UnacceptableForCalculators
questions 31-38 solve the problem and 7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
You’re not allowed to useyour
enter anyanswer
of theinfollowing
the grid, as items as a
described
below, on the Write
as answer sheet.
calculator (unless approved an accommodation): answer in
boxes. 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
Fraction
Tablets, laptops,1. notebooks, or any other personal
Although not required, it is suggested that line Decimal
computing devices,
youincluding wearable
write your answer technology
in the boxes at the top point
Models that can access

of the columns to help you
the internet, havefillwireless,
in the circles
accurately.
Bluetooth, cellular, You willrecording
audio/video receive credit
and only if the
circles are filled in correctly. Grid in
playing, camera, or any other smartphone-type result.
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.
feature 3. No question has a negative answer.
Models that have
4. QWERTY (typewriter-like)
Some problems keypad,
may have more than one
pen-input, or stylus
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
answer.
Models that use electrical outlets, make1noise, or
5. Mixed
have a paper tape (unless numbers
approved such as
by3the must be gridded
2 College
Board as an accommodation).
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If In
3 addition,
1 / 2 the use
is entered into the 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
of hardware peripherals such as a stylus with an
approved calculator isitnot
grid, will permitted. as 31 ,models
be interpretedSome
2
not 3 1 .)
2 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
with touch-screen capability are not permitted
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal
(e.g., Casio ClassPad).
answer with more digits than the grid can
accommodate, it may be either rounded or
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
Answering Student-Produced
Response Questions
You’ll see directions in the test book for answering
student-response questions. Take the time to be
comfortable with the format before test day. Here are
some important points:
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
Mark no more than one bubble in any column.
Only answers indicated by filling in the bubble 201 201
NOTE:
will be scored (you won’t receive credit for You may start your
answers in any column,
anything written in the boxes located above the space permitting.
bubbles). Columns you don’t
need to use should be
It doesn’t matter in which column you begin left blank.
entering your answer. As long as the correct
response is recorded within the grid area, you’ll
receive credit. Sample Math Test Materials
The grid can hold only four characters and can only The sample math questions that follow show the kinds of
accommodate positive numbers and zero. questions that may appear on both portions of the Math
Unless a problem indicates otherwise, answers can Test. For these sample materials:
be entered on the grid as a decimal or a fraction. Review the notes at the beginning of the section.
Fractions like 3/24 do not need to be reduced to their They match what you’ll see at the beginning of both
lowest terms. sections on the actual test.
All mixed numbers need to be converted to decimals Decide on the correct answer to each multiple-choice
or improper fractions before being recorded in the question, then read the explanation for the correct
grid. answer to each question and for the answer you
If the answer is a repeating decimal, you must grid chose (if the two are different).
the most accurate truncated or rounded value the grid Follow the directions for the student-produced
will accommodate. response questions, shown on page 31. The
Following is a sample of the student-produced response directions match what you’ll see on both portions
instructions you’ll see on the test. of the actual test.

Math Test – No Calculator Questions Sample Math Test Materials
Math Test – No Calculator Questions
Directions
For questions 1-5, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and
fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer sheet. For question 6, solve the problem and
enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 6
on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for
scratch work.
Notes
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x
for which f(x) is a real number.
Reference

r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w
 
V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2 .
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

Sample Math Test Materials Math Test – No Calculator Questions
1 2
Line ℓ is graphed in the xy-plane below. The mean number of students per classroom, y, at
y Central High School can be estimated using the
ℓ equation y = 0.8636x + 27.227, where x represents the
number of years since 2004 and x ≤ 10. Which of
the following statements is the best interpretation
of the number 0.8636 in the context of this problem?
5 A) The estimated mean number of students per
classroom in 2004
B) The estimated mean number of students per
x classroom in 2014
–5 5
C) The estimated yearly decrease in the mean number
of students per classroom
–5
D) The estimated yearly increase in the mean number
of students per classroom
If line ℓ is translated up 5 units and right 7 units,
then what is the slope of the new line? Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: D
A) _  2  
5 Choice D is correct. When an equation is written in
the form y = mx + b, the coefficient of the x-term (in
B) − _   3  
2 this case 0.8636) is the slope. The slope of this linear
equation gives the amount that the mean number of
C) −   8  
_
9 students per classroom (represented by y) changes per
year (represented by x).
D) −   11  
_
14
Choice A is incorrect and may result from a
Key: B
misunderstanding of slope and y-intercept. The
Estimated Difficulty: Easy
y-intercept of the equation represents the estimated
mean number of students per classroom in 2004.
Choice B is correct. The slope of a line can
be determined by finding the difference in the Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
y-coordinates divided by the difference in the misunderstanding of the limitations of the model. You
x-coordinates for any two points on the line. may have seen that x ≤ 10 and erroneously used this
3
Using the points indicated, the slope of line ℓ is −  _  .
statement to determine that the model finds the mean
2 number of students in 2014.
Translating line ℓ moves all the points on the line
the same distance in the same direction, and the Choice C is incorrect and may result from a
image will be a line parallel to ℓ. Therefore, the misunderstanding of slope. You may have recognized
that slope models the rate of change but thought that
slope of the image is also − _  3  . a slope of less than 1 indicates a decreasing function.
2
Choice A is incorrect. This value may result from a
combination of errors. You may have erroneously 3
determined the slope of the new line by adding 5 to the The graph of y = (2x − 4)(x − 4) is a parabola in
numerator and adding 7 to the denominator in the slope the xy-plane. In which of the following equivalent
of line ℓ and gotten the result ( -3 + 5 ) .
equations do the x- and y-coordinates of the vertex of
( -2 + 7 ) the parabola appear as constants or coefficients?
Choice C is incorrect. This value may result from a
combination of errors. You may have erroneously A) y = 2x2 − 12x + 16
determined the slope of the new line by subtracting B) y = 2x(x − 6) + 16
5 from the numerator and subtracting 7 from the C) y = 2(x − 3)2 + (−2)
denominator in the slope of line ℓ. D) y = (x − 2)(2x − 8)
Choice D is incorrect and may result from adding _
5
     to
7 Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: C
the slope of line ℓ.

Math Test – No Calculator Questions Sample Math Test Materials
Choice C is correct. The equation y = (2x − 4)(x − 4) can 98 + 168i – 14i – (–24), and combining like terms
be written in vertex form, y = a(x − h)2 + k, to display the results in 122 + 154i.
vertex, (h, k), of the parabola. To put the equation in vertex
Choice A is incorrect and may result from a
form, first multiply: (2x − 4)(x − 4) = 2x2 − 8x − 4x + 16.
combination of errors. You may not have correctly
Then, add like terms, 2x2 − 8x − 4x + 16 = 2x2 − 12x + 16. distributed when multiplying the binomials,
The next step is completing the square. multiplying only the first terms together and the
y = 2x2 − 12x + 16 second terms together. You may also have used the
incorrect equality i 2 = 1.
y = 2(x2 − 6x) + 16 Isolate the x2 term by
factoring Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
combination of errors. You may not have correctly
y = 2(x2 − 6x + 9 − 9) + 16 Make a perfect square distributed when multiplying the binomials,
in the parentheses multiplying only the first terms together and the
second terms together.
y = 2(x2 − 6x + 9) − 18 + 16 Move the extra term
out of the parentheses Choice C is incorrect and results from misapplying
the statement i = −1 .
y = 2(x − 3)2 − 18 + 16 Factor inside the
parentheses 5
( p5 )?
y = 2(x − 3) − 2
2
Simplify the remaining
terms Which of the following is equal to sin
Therefore, the coordinates of the vertex, (3, −2), are
both revealed only in choice C. Since you are told that
A) -cos 5(p )
B) - sin ( )
all of the equations are equivalent, simply knowing p
the form that displays the coordinates of the vertex 5
C) cos ( )
will save all of these steps—this is known as “seeing 3p
structure in the expression or equation.” 10
D) sin ( )
Choice A is incorrect; it displays the y-value of the 7p
y-intercept of the graph (0, 16) as a constant. 10
Choice B is incorrect; it displays the y-value of the

y-intercept of the graph (0, 16) as a constant. Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: C
Choice D is incorrect; it displays the x-value of one of

the x-intercepts of the graph (2, 0) as a constant. Choice C is correct. Sine and cosine are cofunctions,
4 or are related by the equation sin ( x ) = cos ( p2 - x ) .

In the complex number system, which of the
following is equal to (14 – 2i)(7 + 12i)? (Note: i = −1 )
p
Therefore, sin 5 ( )= , which reduces to
A) 74
B) 122
cos ( 310p ) .
C) 74 + 154i Choice A is incorrect and may result from a
D) 122 + 154i misunderstanding about trigonometric relationships.
You may have thought that cosine is the inverse
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: D function of sine and therefore reasoned that the
negative of the cosine of an angle is equivalent to the
Choice D is correct. Applying the distributive sine of that angle.
property to multiply the binomials yields the Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
expression 98 + 168i – 14i – 24i 2. The note in the misunderstanding of the unit circle and how
question reminds you that i = −1 , therefore, i 2 = –1. it relates to trigonometric expressions. You
Substituting this value into the expression gives you may have thought that, on a coordinate grid,
the negative sign only changes the orientation

Sample Math Test Materials Math Test – No Calculator Questions
of the triangle formed, not the value of the

For questions 31-38 solve the problem and 7
trigonometric expression. Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
enter your answer in the grid, as described
below, Write
Youonmay
the answer sheet.
Choice D is incorrect. have confused the answer in
boxes. 7 / 1 2 2 . 5
relationship between sine and cosine and Fraction
1. Although not required, it is suggested that line Decimal
erroneously added to write
you the given angleinmeasure
your answer the boxes at the top point
of the columns to help you fill in the circles
instead of subtractingaccurately.
the angle You measure from
will receive . if the
credit only
circles are filled in correctly. Grid in
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. result.
Student-Produced Response
3. No question has a negative answer.
Math Questions 4. Some problems may have more than one
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
For some questions in answer.
the Math Tests, you will
be asked to solve the problem and enter your 1
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded
answer in the grid, as described below, on the2
answer sheet. as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the 2
1. Although not required,
grid, ititwill
is be
suggested
interpretedthat
as 31you
, not 3 1 .) 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
write your answer in the boxes at the top of2 the 2
Decimal
columns to help 6.you fill in answers: If you accurately.
the bubbles obtain a decimal
answer with more digits than the grid can
You will receive credit only if the bubbles are filled
accommodate, it may be either rounded or
in correctly. truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
2. Mark no more than one bubble in any column.
3. No question has a negative answer.
4. Some problems may have more than one correct
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.
1
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded as
2
3.5 or 7/2 (If / is entered into the grid, it will
31 1 201 201
be interpreted as , not 3 .) NOTE:
2 2 You may start your
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer answers in any column,
space permitting.
with more digits than the grid can accommodate, Columns you don’t
it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must need to use should be
fill the entire grid. left blank.
x2 + y2 − 6x + 8y = 144
The equation of a circle in the xy-plane is shown
above. What is the diameter of the circle?
Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: 26
Completing the square yields the equation

(x − 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 169, the standard form of an
equation of the circle. Understanding this form
results in the equation r2 = 169, which when solved
for r gives the value of the radius as 13. Diameter
is twice the value of the radius; therefore, the
diameter is 26.

Math Test – Calculator Questions Sample Math Test Materials
Math Test – Calculator Questions
Directions
For questions 1-8, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and
fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer sheet. For questions 9-10, solve the problem
and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before
question 6 on page 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available
space in your test booklet for scratch work.
Notes
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x
for which f(x) is a real number.
Reference

r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w
 
V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2 .

Sample Math Test Materials Math Test – Calculator Questions
1 2
The recommended daily calcium intake for a A company’s manager estimated that the cost C, in
20-year-old is 1,000 milligrams (mg). One cup of dollars, of producing n items is C = 7n + 350. The
milk contains 299 mg of calcium and one cup of juice company sells each item for $12. The company makes
contains 261 mg of calcium. Which of the following a profit when the total income from selling a quantity
inequalities represents the possible number of cups of items is greater than the total cost of producing
of milk, m, and cups of juice, j, a 20-year-old could that quantity of items. Which of the following
drink in a day to meet or exceed the recommended inequalities gives all possible values of n for which
daily calcium intake from these drinks alone? the manager estimates that the company will make
A) 299m + 261j ≥ 1,000 a profit?
B) 299m + 261j > 1,000 A) n < 70
B) n < 84
299 261
C) + ≥1,000 C) n > 70
m j
D) n > 84
299 261
D) + >1,000 Key: C
m j Estimated Difficulty: Medium
Choice C is correct. One way to find the correct answer

Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: A is to create an inequality. The income from sales of n
items is 12n. For the company to profit, 12n must be
Choice A is correct. Multiplying the number of cups greater than the cost of producing n items; therefore,
of milk by the amount of calcium each cup contains the inequality 12n > 7n + 350 can be used to model the
and multiplying the number of cups of juice by the scenario. Solving this inequality yields n > 70.
amount of calcium each cup contains gives the total
amount of calcium from each source. You must then Choice A is incorrect and may result from a
find the sum of these two numbers to find the total misunderstanding of the properties of inequalities.
amount of calcium. Because the question asks for You may have found the number of items of the
the calcium from these two sources to meet or exceed break-even point as 70 and used the incorrect
the recommended daily intake, the sum of these two notation to express the answer, or you may have
products must be greater than or equal to 1,000. incorrectly modeled the scenario when setting up an
inequality to solve.
Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
misunderstanding of the meaning of inequality Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
symbols as they relate to real-life situations. This misunderstanding of how the cost equation models
answer does not allow for the daily intake to meet the the scenario. If you use the cost of $12 as the number
recommended daily amount. of items n and evaluate the expression 7n, you will
find the value of 84. Misunderstanding how the
Choice C is incorrect and may result from a
inequality relates to the scenario might lead you to
misunderstanding of proportional relationships. Here
the wrong operation is applied, with the total amount of think n should be less than this value.
calcium per cup divided by the number of cups of each Choice D is incorrect and may result from a
type of drink. These values should be multiplied. misunderstanding of how the cost equation models
Choice D is incorrect and may result from a the scenario. If you use the cost of $12 as the number
combination of mistakes. The inequality symbol of items n and evaluate the expression 7n, you will
used allows the option to exceed, but not to meet, the find the value of 84. Misunderstanding how the
recommended daily value, and the wrong operation inequality relates to the scenario might lead you to
may have been applied when calculating the total think n should be greater than this value.
amount of calcium intake from each drink.

3 4
At a primate reserve, the mean age of all the male A biology class at Central High School predicted
primates is 15 years, and the mean age of all female that a local population of animals will double in size
primates is 19 years. Which of the following must be every 12 years. The population at the beginning of
true about the mean age m of the combined group of 2014 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents
male and female primates at the primate reserve? the population n years after 2014, then which of the
A) m = 17 following equations represents the class’s model of
the population over time?
B) m > 17
C) m < 17 A) P = 12 + 50n
D) 15 < m < 19 B) P = 50 + 12n
C) P = 50(2)12n
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: D n
D) P = 50(2) 12
Choice D is correct. You must reason that because
the mean of the males is lower than that of the Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: D
females, the combined mean cannot be greater than
or equal to that of the females, while also reasoning
Choice D is correct. A population that doubles
that because the mean of the females is greater than
in size over equal time periods is increasing at
that of the males, the combined mean cannot be less
an exponential rate. In a doubling scenario, an
than or equal to the mean of the males. Therefore, the
exponential growth model can be written in the form
combined mean must be between the two separate n
_
means. y = a(2)  b , where a is the initial population (that is,
the population when n = 0) and b is the number of
Choice A is incorrect and results from finding the
years it takes for the population to double in size. In
mean of the two means. This answer makes an
this case, the initial population is 50, the number of
unjustified assumption that there are an equal
number of male and female primates. animals at the beginning of 2014. Therefore, a = 50.
The text explains that the population will double in
Choice B is incorrect and results from finding size every 12 years. Therefore, b = 12.
the mean of the two means and misapplying an
inequality to the scenario. This answer makes an Choice A is incorrect and may result from a
unjustified assumption that there are more females misunderstanding of exponential equations or of
than males. the context. This linear model indicates that the
initial population is 12 animals and the population is
Choice C is incorrect and results from finding
increasing by 50 animals each year. However, this is
the mean of the two means and misapplying an
not the case.
inequality to the scenario. This answer makes an
unjustified assumption that there are more males Choice B is incorrect and may result from a
than females. misunderstanding of exponential equations or of
the context. This linear model indicates that the
initial population is 50 animals and the population is
increasing by 12 animals each year. However, this is
not the case.
Choice C is incorrect. This exponential model
indicates that the initial population is 50 animals and
is doubling. However, the exponent 12n indicates
that the population is doubling 12 times per year, not
every 12 years. This is not the case.

5
Questions 6-8 refer to the following information.
B
The first metacarpal bone is located in the hand. The
A scatterplot below shows the relationship between
the length of the first metacarpal bone and height of
9 people. A line of best fit is also shown.
C
E
Height of Nine People and Length
D of Their First Metacarpal Bone
185
Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 180
Height (centimeters)
In the figure above, △ABC is similar to △EDC. 175
Which of the following must be true?
_ _
A) AE
_  || BD   170
_
B) AE
_ ⊥_ BD 
165
C) AB
_ || DE
_
 
D) AB  ⊥ DE   160
Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: C 155

4 4.5 5
Choice C is correct. Given that △ABC is similar to Length of first metacarpal bone
△EDC, you can determine that the corresponding (centimeters)
∠BAC is congruent to ∠CED. The converse of the
alternate
_ _ interior angle theorem tells us that 6
AB || DE . (You can also use the fact that ∠ABC and
∠CDE are congruent to make a similar argument.) How many of the 9 people have an actual height that
differs by more than 3 centimeters from the height
Choice A is incorrect and may result from multiple predicted by the line of best fit?
misconceptions. You may have misidentified the
segments as perpendicular and used the wrong A) 2
notation to express this statement. B) 4
C) 6
Choice B is incorrect and may result from using
only the diagram and not considering the given D) 9
information. The line segments appear to be
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: B
perpendicular, but need not be, given the information
provided.
Choice B is correct. The people who have first
Choice D is incorrect and may result from
metacarpal bones of length 4.0, 4.3, 4.8, and
misunderstanding either the notation or the
vocabulary of parallel and perpendicular lines. You
4.9 centimeters have heights that differ by more than
may have incorrectly identified parallel lines as 3 centimeters from the height predicted by the line of
perpendicular. best fit.
Choice A is incorrect. There are 2 people whose

actual heights are more than 3 centimeters above the
height predicted by the line of best fit. However, there
are also 2 people whose actual heights are farther
than 3 centimeters below the line of best fit.

Choice C is incorrect. There are 6 data points in which 8

the absolute value between the actual height and the
height predicted by the line of best fit is greater than
Based on the line of best fit, what is the predicted
1 centimeter. height for someone with a first metacarpal bone that
has a length of 4.45 centimeters?
Choice D is incorrect. The data on the graph represents
A) 168 centimeters
9 different people; however, the absolute value of the
difference between actual height and predicted height B) 169 centimeters
is not greater than 3 for all of the people. C) 170 centimeters
D) 171 centimeters
7
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: C
Which of the following is the best interpretation
of the slope of the line of best fit in the context of
this problem? Choice C is correct. First, notice that the scale of
the x-axis is 0.1, and therefore the x-value of 4.45 is
A) The predicted height increase in centimeters for one
centimeter increase in the first metacarpal bone halfway between the unmarked value of 4.4 and the
marked value of 4.5. Then find the y-value on the
B) The predicted first metacarpal bone increase in
centimeters for every centimeter increase in height line of best fit that corresponds to an x-value of 4.45,
which is 170.
C) The predicted height in centimeters of a person with
a first metacarpal bone length of 0 centimeters Choice A is incorrect. If you mistakenly find the point
D) The predicted first metacarpal bone length on the line between the x-values of 4.3 and 4.4, you’ll
in centimeters for a person with a height of likely find a predicted metacarpal bone length of
0 centimeters 168 centimeters.
Choice B is incorrect. If you mistakenly find the point
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: A
on the line that corresponds to an x-value of
4.4 centimeters, you’ll likely find a predicted height of
Choice A is correct. The slope is the change in
approximately 169 centimeters.
the vertical distance divided by the change in the
horizontal distance between any two points on a line. Choice D is incorrect. If you mistakenly find the point
In this context, the change in the vertical distance is on the line that corresponds to an x-value of
the change in the predicted height of a person, and 4.5 centimeters, you’ll likely find a predicted height
the change in the horizontal distance is the change
of approximately 171 centimeters. You might also
in the length of his or her first metacarpal bone.
choose this option if you mistakenly use the data
The unit rate, or slope, is the increase in predicted
point that has an x-value closest to 4.45 centimeters.
height for each increase of one centimeter of the first
metacarpal bone.
Choice B is incorrect. If you selected this answer, you
may have interpreted slope incorrectly as run over
rise.
Choice C is incorrect. If you selected this answer, you
may have mistaken slope for the y-intercept.
Choice D is incorrect. If you selected this answer, you
may have mistaken slope for the x-intercept.

Student-Produced Response 10
Math Questions An architect drew the sketch below while designing
For questions 9 and 10, you are asked to solve a house roof. The dimensions shown are for the
the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as interior of the triangle.
described on page 31 of this booklet.
ft
The table below classifies 103 elements as metal,
24
metalloid, or nonmetal and as solid, liquid, or gas at
standard temperature and pressure. x° x°
Solids Liquids Gases Total 32 ft
Metals 77 1 0 78 Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

Metalloids 7 0 0 7 What is the value of cos x?
Nonmetals 6 1 11 18
Key:
2,4 ,
Total 90 2 11 103 3 6
What fraction of all solids and liquids in the table Estimated Difficulty: Hard 6, 8 ,
are metalloids? 9 12
.666, .667
7
Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: , .076
92 Because the triangle is isosceles, constructing a
perpendicular from the top vertex to the opposite
There are 7 metalloids that are solid or liquid, and side will bisect the base and create two smaller right
there are 92 total solids and liquids. Therefore, the triangles. In a right triangle, the cosine of an acute
fraction of solids and liquids that are metalloids angle is equal to the length of the side adjacent to
is 7/92 or .076. the angle divided by the length of the hypotenuse.
16
This gives cos x =  — , which can be simplified
24
2 16
to cos x =  —  . Note that — cannot be entered into
3 24
the answer grid, so this fraction must be reduced.
Acceptable answers to grid are 2/3, 4/6, 6/9, 8/12,
.666, and .667.

The SAT Essay SAT Essay Overview
The SAT Essay

The SAT Essay is a lot like a typical college writing The Essay Prompt
assignment for which you’re asked to analyze a text. Take
The prompt (question) shown below is nearly identical to
the SAT with Essay and show colleges that you’re able to
the one that will appear on the SAT.
read, analyze, and write at the college level.
As you read the passage below, consider how [the

SAT Essay Overview author] uses:
Total questions: 1 prompt, with points to consider ◾◾ evidence, such as facts or examples, to support
and directions claims.
◾◾ reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims
1 passage and evidence.
Time allotted: 50 minutes to read and analyze the ◾◾ stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word
passage and to develop a written response choice or appeals to emotion, to add power to the
ideas expressed.
What the SAT Essay Is Like Write an essay in which you explain how [the author]
The SAT Essay asks you to use your reading, analysis, builds an argument to persuade [his/her] audience
and writing skills. You’ll be asked to: that [author’s claim]. In your essay, analyze how [the
author] uses one or more of the features listed above
Read a passage. (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the
Explain how the author builds an argument to logic and persuasiveness of [his/her] argument. Be
persuade an audience. sure that your analysis focuses on the most relevant
Support your explanation with evidence from the features of the passage. Your essay should not explain
whether you agree with [the author’s] claims, but
passage.
rather explain how [the author] builds an argument to
persuade [his/her] audience.
What the SAT Essay Measures
The SAT Essay shows how well you understand the
passage and use it as the basis for a well-written, well- The Essay Passage
thought-out response. Your essay will be scored on three
You can count on receiving the same prompt no matter
dimensions, each on a 2–8 scale:
when you take the SAT with Essay, but the passage
Reading: A successful essay shows that you understood will be different every time. All passages have these things
the passage, including the interplay of central ideas and in common:
important details. It also shows effective use of textual
Are written for a broad audience
evidence.
Argue a point
Analysis: A successful essay shows your understanding
Express subtle views on complex subjects
of how the author builds an argument by:
Use logical reasoning and evidence to support claims
Examining the author’s use of evidence, reasoning, Examine ideas, debates, or trends in the arts and
and/or stylistic and persuasive techniques (or other
sciences or in civic, cultural, or political life
elements of your choosing)
Are always taken from published works
Supporting your claims and points effectively
All the information you need to write your essay will be
Focusing on those features of the passage that are included in the passage or in notes about it.
most relevant for completing the task
Writing: A successful essay is cohesive, organized, and
precise, uses an appropriate style and tone, has varied Sample Essay Materials
sentences, and observes the conventions of standard The following student essays show you what kinds of
written English. attributes will be evaluated in the SAT Essay. Each
student essay is followed by an explanation of why it
received the assigned score on each of the three
dimensions.

Sample Essay Materials Sample Essay
Sample Essay
Directions
The essay gives you an opportunity to show You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write
how effectively you can read and comprehend a an essay in response to the prompt provided inside
passage and write an essay analyzing the passage. this booklet.
In your essay, you should demonstrate that you
have read the passage carefully, present a clear Reminders:
and logical analysis, and use language precisely.
◾◾ Do not write your essay in this booklet. Only what
Your essay must be written on the lines provided in you write on the lined pages of your answer booklet
your answer booklet; except for the Planning Page will be evaluated.
of the answer booklet, you will receive no other ◾◾ An off-topic essay will not be evaluated.
paper on which to write. You will have enough
space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, The following sample illustrates the general format
and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. of the essay task in the context of a specific prompt,
Remember that people who are not familiar with this one related to a passage adapted from an article
your handwriting will read what you write. Try to by Paul Bogard about the value of natural darkness.
write or print so that what you are writing is legible
to those readers.
As you read the passage below, consider how Paul Bogard uses
◾◾ evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
◾◾ reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
◾◾ stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion, to
add power to the ideas expressed.
dapted from Paul Bogard, “Let There Be Dark.” ©2012 by Los Angeles Times.
A
Originally published December 21, 2012.
1 At my family’s cabin on a Minnesota lake, I knew woods so dark that my hands
disappeared before my eyes. I knew night skies in which meteors left smoky trails
across sugary spreads of stars. But now, when 8 of 10 children born in the United
States will never know a sky dark enough for the Milky Way, I worry we are rapidly
losing night’s natural darkness before realizing its worth. This winter solstice, as
we cheer the days’ gradual movement back toward light, let us also remember the
irreplaceable value of darkness.
2 All life evolved to the steady rhythm of bright days and dark nights. Today, though,
when we feel the closeness of nightfall, we reach quickly for a light switch. And too
little darkness, meaning too much artificial light at night, spells trouble for all.
3 Already the World Health Organization classifies working the night shift as a probable
human carcinogen, and the American Medical Association has voiced its unanimous
support for “light pollution reduction efforts and glare reduction efforts at both the
national and state levels.” Our bodies need darkness to produce the hormone melatonin,
which keeps certain cancers from developing, and our bodies need darkness for
sleep. Sleep disorders have been linked to diabetes, obesity, cardiovascular disease and
depression, and recent research suggests one main cause of “short sleep” is “long light.”
Whether we work at night or simply take our tablets, notebooks and smartphones to bed,
there isn’t a place for this much artificial light in our lives.

Sample Essay Sample Essay Materials
4 The rest of the world depends on darkness as well, including nocturnal and
crepuscular species of birds, insects, mammals, fish and reptiles. Some examples are
well known—the 400 species of birds that migrate at night in North America, the
sea turtles that come ashore to lay their eggs—and some are not, such as the bats
that save American farmers billions in pest control and the moths that pollinate
80% of the world’s flora. Ecological light pollution is like the bulldozer of the night,
wrecking habitat and disrupting ecosystems several billion years in the making.
Simply put, without darkness, Earth’s ecology would collapse. . . .
5 In today’s crowded, louder, more fast-paced world, night’s darkness can provide
solitude, quiet and stillness, qualities increasingly in short supply. Every religious
tradition has considered darkness invaluable for a soulful life, and the chance to
witness the universe has inspired artists, philosophers and everyday stargazers since
time began. In a world awash with electric light . . . how would Van Gogh have
given the world his “Starry Night”? Who knows what this vision of the night sky
might inspire in each of us, in our children or grandchildren?
6 Yet all over the world, our nights are growing brighter. In the United States and
Western Europe, the amount of light in the sky increases an average of about
6% every year. Computer images of the United States at night, based on NASA
photographs, show that what was a very dark country as recently as the 1950s is
now nearly covered with a blanket of light. Much of this light is wasted energy,
which means wasted dollars. Those of us over 35 are perhaps among the last
generation to have known truly dark nights. Even the northern lake where I was
lucky to spend my summers has seen its darkness diminish.
7 It doesn’t have to be this way. Light pollution is readily within our ability to solve,
using new lighting technologies and shielding existing lights. Already, many cities
and towns across North America and Europe are changing to LED streetlights, which
offer dramatic possibilities for controlling wasted light. Other communities are
finding success with simply turning off portions of their public lighting
after midnight. Even Paris, the famed “city of light,” which already turns off its
monument lighting after 1 a.m., will this summer start to require its shops, offices
and public buildings to turn off lights after 2 a.m. Though primarily designed to
save energy, such reductions in light will also go far in addressing light pollution.
But we will never truly address the problem of light pollution until we become
aware of the irreplaceable value and beauty of the darkness we are losing.
Write an essay in which you explain how Paul Bogard builds an argument
to persuade his audience that natural darkness should be preserved. In
your essay, analyze how Bogard uses one or more of the features listed in
the box above (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and
persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the
most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Bogard’s claims, but
rather explain how Bogard builds an argument to persuade his audience.

Sample Student Essays

The following student essays show you what
kinds of attributes will be evaluated in the SAT
Essay. Each essay is followed by an explanation of
why it received the assigned score on each of the
three dimensions.
SAMPLE 1
Bogard builds an argument to persuade and really costing people because they
his audience about what he is concering have light all night long. He also claims
about and feels it important to take light is messing with mother nature that
care about. His essay talks about so animals need darkness to feed eat move
much facts about sleeping how so little around because there noctuaral creatures.
can effect us health wise examples like He has details facts about human body,
getting sleep disorders, diabetes, obesity, animals and about mother nature that he
cardiovascular disease and depression. can use to support his idea of not using
This facts helps people persuade the so much light at night and how we need
audience he also say that the world health darkness. With these features he can
organization classifies working night shift persuade the auidence because people
is bad. In his argument is not all about dont know why darkness can be good for
how it bad for the body he also claims and us. He was all of facts and examples that
have proof that light cost are expensive he claim is efficting us and there world.
This response scored a 2/1/1. the audience. Other than identifying these as
Reading—2: This response demonstrates some persuasive facts, however, the writer does nothing
comprehension of the source text, although the to indicate an understanding of the analytical task.
writer’s understanding of Bogard’s central idea isn’t The writer again mentions persuasion before the
conveyed until the latter part of the essay, where conclusion of the essay (With these features he can
the writer indicates that Bogard includes details persuade the auidence because people dont know
facts about human body, animals and about mother why darkness can be good for us), but once again,
nature that he can use to support his idea of not using there is no explanation of how or why these features
so much light at night and how we need darkness. are persuasive. Thus, the essay offers inadequate
Prior to this, the writer has included details from analysis of Bogard’s text.
the text, but without contextualizing these details
Writing—1: This response demonstrates little
within Bogard’s broader argument, suggesting that
cohesion and inadequate skill in the use and
the writer is relaying ideas from the text without
control of language. From the outset, problems
much understanding of how they contribute to the
with language control impede the writer’s ability
whole. For example, the writer mentions the health
to establish a clear central claim (Bogard builds
problems cited in the text, that working the night
an argument to persuade his audience about what
shift is classified as bad, and that light costs are
he is concering about and feels it important to take
high, but doesn’t explain how these points relate to
care about). The response also lacks a recognizable
Bogard’s main claim that we must preserve natural
introduction and conclusion, and sentences are
darkness. On the whole, this essay displays only a
strung together without a clear progression of ideas
partial understanding of the source text.
(for much of the response, the writer merely lists
Analysis—1: In this essay, the writer has merely claims Bogard makes). The response also lacks
identified aspects of Bogard’s use of evidence variety in sentence structures, in part because of
without explaining how the evidence contributes to repetitive transitions. (For example, he also claims is
the argument. The writer notes that Bogard’s text used two sentences in a row in this brief response).
talks about so much facts about sleeping how so little Weak control of the conventions of standard
can effect us health wise examples like getting sleep written English, coupled with vague word choice,
disorders, diabetes, obesity, cardiovascular disease undermines the quality of writing. Overall, this
and depression. This facts helps people persuade response demonstrates inadequate writing skill.

SAMPLE 2
Paul Bogard strongly believes that natural obvious claim that darkness is essential
darkness should be preserved. In order for sleep. Then, he talks about the negative
to prove the need for natural darkness, health effects of sleep disorders.; these
Bogard divides his argument into three include “diabetes, obesity, cardiovascular
main topics, saying that natural darkness is disease and depression.” To associate this
beneficial to humans, essential to humans, with his argument for natural darkness,
and essential to ecosystems. Bogard states the findings of recent
research, which say that “long light” is
According to Bogard, natural darkness can
one of the primary causes of “short sleep.”
be a positive help to humans. One of the
Bogard uses scientific evidence to support
ways it can accomplish this is by giving
his belief in the preservation of natural
enjoyment to onlookers. To supplant this,
darkness.
Bogard gives a personal example of how
he enjoyed seeing meteors dart across the Bogard’s third primary defense of natural
night sky in Minnesota as a child. Also he darkness declares that it is essential to
states that natural darkness can be a source nature. He notes that there are a variety
of solitude. Supporting this claim, Bogard of nocturnal and crepuscular species
states that darkness is invaluable to every of birds, fish, mammals, insects, and
religion. Additionally Bogard says that the reptiles worldwide. He gives two specific,
night sky has inspired countless numbers well-known examples of these species;
of philosophers, artists, and stargazers these discussed the 400 species of North
for millennia. He then gives an appealing American birds that migrate at night and
allusion by asking how Van Gogh could the sea turtles that lay their eggs on the
have painted “Starry Night” in the mist shore at night. He also gives a couple of
of electric light. One of Bogard’s primary lesser-known examples, involving bats
arguments for natural darkness shows how and moths that show the positive actions
it can benefit humans. that some nocturnal animals perform.
He then concludes his argument for
Bogard then gives a scientific case that
nocturnal darkness necessary to nature
shows why natural darkness is essential
with persuasion, saying that removing
to humans. He states a find of the World
natural darkness would essentially destroy
Health Organization that declares the night
an ecology that took billions of years to
shift can be detrimental to one’s health.
develop. Here, Bogard uses scientific fact
He points to the necessity of darkness
to prove that natural darkness is a key to
in producing melatonin, a hormone
nature and ecology. Paul Bogard supports
that helps prevent certain cancers from
the preservation of natural darkness. He
developing in the human body. Bogard
uses an argument to support his position
then concludes his argument that
that has three primary points—benefit to
darkness is essential to human well-being
humans, need for humans and need for
by analyzing sleep. He first makes the
nature.
This response scored a 4/1/3. these points. In the first body paragraph, for example,
Reading—4: This response demonstrates thorough the writer demonstrates comprehension of how
comprehension of Bogard’s text and a clear Bogard’s personal example of how he enjoyed seeing
understanding of the interrelation between the meteors dart across the night sky in Minnesota as a
central idea and important details. The writer briefly child relates to his claim that natural darkness can
summarizes Bogard’s central idea (natural darkness give enjoyment to onlookers. The writer also sees the
should be preserved) and aptly notes that Bogard’s connection between darkness as a source of solitude
argument encompasses three main points: that and it inspiring countless numbers of philosophers,
natural darkness is beneficial to humans, essential artists, and stargazers for millennia. Providing these
to humans, and essential to ecosystems. The writer details highlights the writer’s understanding of
provides various details from the text that support Bogard’s claim that natural darkness can benefit

humans. The writer continues to demonstrate how The writer presents an effective introduction with
details in Bogard’s text relate to each other and to a clear central claim that lays out the three points
Bogard’s central idea in the subsequent discussion discussed in the response (In order to prove the need
of how darkness is essential to humans’ health and for natural darkness, Bogard divides his argument
to nature. Although little is directly quoted from the into three main topics, saying that natural darkness is
text, the writer’s thorough paraphrasing of multiple beneficial to humans, essential to humans, and essential
details taken from across the passage indicates that to the ecosystem). The response also includes a
the writer comprehensively understands Bogard’s generally effective conclusion that summarizes rather
argument and is able to convey it in his own words. than advances the essay (Paul Bogard supports the
preservation of natural darkness. He uses an argument
Analysis—1: The response offers ineffective
to support his position that has three primary points—
analysis of Bogard’s text and demonstrates little
benefit to humans, need for humans and need for
understanding of the analytical task. Although
nature) although the conclusion is not marked off by
clearly comprehending the entirety of Bogard’s
a paragraph break. The response is organized clearly
argument, the writer does not communicate
around the three points identified in the introduction,
how Bogard builds his argument with evidence,
and each body paragraph stays on topic. The writer
reasoning, or stylistic or persuasive elements, nor
also demonstrates a clear progression of ideas
does the writer communicate what effect Bogard’s
both within paragraphs and throughout the essay.
argumentation has on his audience. Instead of
Sentence structure tends to be repetitive and simple,
providing effective analysis, the writer only identifies
however. For example, at or near the end of each body
argumentative elements in Bogard’s text, such as
paragraph, the writer restates the point that introduces
the appealing allusion Bogard offers regarding Van
that paragraph (Bogard then gives a scientific case
Gogh’s Starry Night or the scientific evidence Bogard
that shows why natural darkness is essential to
uses to support his belief in the preservation of natural
humans. . . . Bogard uses scientific evidence to support
darkness. The writer instead consistently lapses
his belief in the preservation of natural darkness).
into summary. Overall, the response demonstrates
Although the writing in this response is proficient,
inadequate analysis.
it does not demonstrate the sentence variety, precise
Writing—3: This mostly cohesive response word choice, or highly effective progression of ideas
demonstrates effective use and control of language. that is expected at the advanced level.

SAMPLE 3
In response to our world’s growing this, Bogard creates a dichotomy between
reliance on artificial light, writer Paul Paris’ traditionally alluded-to name and
Bogard argues that natural darkness the reality of what Paris is becoming – no
should be preserved in his article “Let longer “the city of light”, but moreso “the
There be dark”. He effectively builds his city of light…before 2 AM”. T his furthers
argument by using a personal anecdote, his line of argumentation because it shows
allusions to art and history, and rhetorical how steps can be and are being taken to
questions. preserve natural darkness. It shows that
even a city that is literally famous for
Bogard starts his article off by recounting
being constantly lit can practically address
a personal story – a summer spent on a
light pollution in a manner that preserves
Minnesota lake where there was “woods
the beauty of both the city itself and the
so dark that [his] hands disappeared
universe as a whole.
before [his] eyes.” In telling this brief
anecdote, Bogard challenges the audience Finally, Bogard makes subtle yet efficient
to remember a time where they could fully use of rhetorical questioning to persuade
amass themselves in natural darkness his audience that natural darkness
void of artificial light. By drawing in his preservation is essential. He asks the
readers with a personal encounter about readers to consider “what the vision of the
night darkness, the author means to night sky might inspire in each of us, in
establish the potential for beauty, glamour, our children or grandchildren?” in a way
and awe-inspiring mystery that genuine that brutally plays to each of our emotions.
darkness can possess. He builds his By asking this question, Bogard draws
argument for the preservation of natural out heartfelt ponderance from his readers
darkness by reminiscing for his readers about the affecting power of an untainted
a first-hand encounter that proves the night sky. This rhetorical question tugs
“irreplaceable value of darkness.” at the readers’ heartstrings; while the
reader may have seen an unobscured
This anecdote provides a baseline of
night skyline before, the possibility that
sorts for readers to find credence with the
their child or grandchild will never get the
author’s claims. Bogard’s argument is also
chance sways them to see as Bogard sees.
furthered by his use of allusion to art –
This strategy is definitively an appeal to
Van Gogh’s “Starry Night” – and modern
pathos, forcing the audience to directly
history – Paris’ reputation as “The City of
face an emotionally-charged inquiry that
Light”. By first referencing “Starry Night”,
will surely spur some kind of response. By
a painting generally considered to be
doing this, Bogard develops his argument,
undoubtedly beautiful, Bogard establishes
adding gutthral power to the idea that the
that the natural magnificence of stars in
issue of maintaining natural darkness is
a dark sky is definite. A world absent of
relevant and multifaceted.
excess artificial light could potentially
hold the key to a grand, glorious night Writing as a reaction to his disappointment
sky like Van Gogh’s according to the that artificial light has largely permeated
writer. This urges the readers to weigh the the prescence of natural darkness, Paul
disadvantages of our world consumed by Bogard argues that we must preserve true,
unnatural, vapid lighting. Furthermore, unaffected darkness. He builds this claim
Bogard’s alludes to Paris as “the famed by making use of a personal anecdote,
‘city of light’”. He then goes on to state allusions, and rhetorical questioning.
how Paris has taken steps to exercise more
sustainable lighting practices. By doing

This response scored a 4/4/4. anecdote provides a baseline of sorts for readers to find
Reading—4: This response demonstrates thorough credence with the author’s claims). The cogent chain
comprehension of the source text through skillful of reasoning indicates an understanding of the overall
use of paraphrases and direct quotations. The writer effect of Bogard’s personal narrative both in terms
briefly summarizes the central idea of Bogard’s of its function in the passage and how it affects his
piece (natural darkness should be preserved; we must audience. This type of insightful analysis is evident
preserve true, unaffected darkness), and presents throughout the response and indicates advanced
many details from the text, such as referring to analytical skill.
the personal anecdote that opens the passage and
Writing—4: The response is cohesive and
citing Bogard’s use of Paris’ reputation as “The City
demonstrates highly effective use and command of
of Light.” There are few long direct quotations from
language. The response contains a precise central
the source text; instead, the response succinctly and
claim (He effectively builds his argument by using
accurately captures the entirety of Bogard’s argument
personal anecdote, allusions to art and history, and
in the writer’s own words, and the writer is able to
rhetorical questions), and the body paragraphs are
articulate how details in the source text interrelate
tightly focused on those three elements of Bogard’s
with Bogard’s central claim. The response is also free
text. There is a clear, deliberate progression of ideas
of errors of fact or interpretation. Overall, the response
within paragraphs and throughout the response.
demonstrates advanced reading comprehension.
The writer’s brief introduction and conclusion are
Analysis—4: This response offers an insightful skillfully written and encapsulate the main ideas
analysis of the source text and demonstrates a of Bogard’s piece as well as the overall structure of
sophisticated understanding of the analytical task. the writer’s analysis. There is a consistent use of
In analyzing Bogard’s use of personal anecdote, both precise word choice and well-chosen turns of
allusions to art and history, and rhetorical questions, phrase (the natural magnificence of stars in a dark
the writer is able to explain carefully and thoroughly sky is definite, our world consumed by unnatural,
how Bogard builds his argument over the course vapid lighting, the affecting power of an untainted
of the passage. For example, the writer offers a night sky). Moreover, the response features a wide
possible reason for why Bogard chose to open his variety in sentence structure and many examples
argument with a personal anecdote, and is also of sophisticated sentences (By doing this, Bogard
able to describe the overall effect of that choice on creates a dichotomy between Paris’ traditionally
his audience (In telling this brief anecdote, Bogard alluded-to name and the reality of what Paris is
challenges the audience to remember a time where becoming – no longer “the city of light”, but more
they could fully amass themselves in natural darkness so “the city of light…before 2AM”). The response
void of artificial light. By drawing in his readers with demonstrates a strong command of the conventions
a personal encounter … the author means to establish of written English. Overall, the response exemplifies
the potential for beauty, glamour, and awe-inspiring advanced writing proficiency.
mystery that genuine darkness can possess. . . . This

The SAT Essay Scoring Guide

Score Reading Analysis Writing
4 Advanced: The response Advanced: The response offers an Advanced: The response is cohesive
demonstrates thorough insightful analysis of the source text and demonstrates a highly effective
comprehension of the source text. and demonstrates a sophisticated use and command of language.
The response shows an understanding of the analytical task. The response includes a
understanding of the text’s central The response offers a thorough, precise central claim.
idea(s) and of most important well-considered evaluation of the The response includes a skillful
details and how they interrelate, author’s use of evidence, reasoning, introduction and conclusion. The
demonstrating a comprehensive and/or stylistic and persuasive response demonstrates a deliberate
understanding of the text. elements, and/or feature(s) of and highly effective progression
The response is free of errors the student’s own choosing. of ideas both within paragraphs
of fact or interpretation The response contains relevant, and throughout the essay.
with regard to the text. sufficient, and strategically chosen The response has a wide
The response makes skillful support for claim(s) or point(s) made. variety in sentence structures.
use of textual evidence The response focuses consistently The response demonstrates a
(quotations, paraphrases, or on those features of the text that are consistent use of precise word
both), demonstrating a complete most relevant to addressing the task. choice. The response maintains a
understanding of the source text. formal style and objective tone.
The response shows a strong
command of the conventions of
standard written English and is
free or virtually free of errors.
3 Proficient: The response Proficient: The response offers Proficient: The response is mostly
demonstrates effective an effective analysis of the cohesive and demonstrates effective
comprehension of the source text. source text and demonstrates an use and control of language.
The response shows an understanding of the analytical task. The response includes a central
understanding of the text’s central The response competently claim or implicit controlling idea.
idea(s) and important details. evaluates the author’s use The response includes an effective
The response is free of substantive of evidence, reasoning, and/ introduction and conclusion.
errors of fact and interpretation or stylistic and persuasive
elements, and/or feature(s) of The response demonstrates a clear
with regard to the text. progression of ideas both within
the student’s own choosing.
The response makes appropriate paragraphs and throughout the essay.
use of textual evidence (quotations, The response contains relevant
and sufficient support for The response has variety in
paraphrases, or both), demonstrating sentence structures. The response
an understanding of the source text. claim(s) or point(s) made.
demonstrates some precise word
The response focuses primarily on choice. The response maintains a
those features of the text that are formal style and objective tone.
most relevant to addressing the task.
The response shows a good control
of the conventions of standard
written English and is free of
significant errors that detract
from the quality of writing.

Score Reading Analysis Writing
2 Partial: The response Partial: The response offers Partial: The response demonstrates
demonstrates some comprehension limited analysis of the source text little or no cohesion and limited skill
of the source text. and demonstrates only partial in the use and control of language.
The response shows an understanding of the analytical task. The response may lack a clear
understanding of the text’s central The response identifies and attempts central claim or controlling idea or
idea(s) but not of important details. to describe the author’s use of may deviate from the claim or idea
The response may contain errors evidence, reasoning, and/or over the course of the response.
of fact and/or interpretation stylistic and persuasive elements, The response may include an
with regard to the text. and/or feature(s) of the student’s own ineffective introduction and/or
choosing, but merely asserts rather conclusion. The response may
The response makes limited than explains their importance.
and/or haphazard use of textual demonstrate some progression
evidence (quotations, paraphrases, Or one or more aspects of of ideas within paragraphs but
or both), demonstrating some the response’s analysis are not throughout the response.
understanding of the source text. unwarranted based on the text. The response has limited variety
The response contains little or no in sentence structures; sentence
support for claim(s) or point(s) made. structures may be repetitive.
The response may lack a clear focus The response demonstrates general
on those features of the text that are or vague word choice; word choice
most relevant to addressing the task. may be repetitive. The response
may deviate noticeably from a
formal style and objective tone.
The response shows a limited
control of the conventions of
standard written English and
contains errors that detract
from the quality of writing and
may impede understanding.
1 Inadequate: The response Inadequate: The response Inadequate: The response

demonstrates little or no offers little or no analysis or demonstrates little or no cohesion
comprehension of the source text. ineffective analysis of the source and inadequate skill in the use
The response fails to show an text and demonstrates little or no and control of language.
understanding of the text’s central understanding of the analytic task. The response may lack a clear
idea(s), and may include only details The response identifies without central claim or controlling idea.
without reference to central idea(s). explanation some aspects of the The response lacks a recognizable
The response may contain numerous author’s use of evidence, reasoning, introduction and conclusion.
errors of fact and/or interpretation and/or stylistic and persuasive The response does not have a
with regard to the text. elements, and/or feature(s) of discernible progression of ideas.
the student’s choosing.
The response makes little or The response lacks variety in
no use of textual evidence Or numerous aspects of sentence structures; sentence
(quotations, paraphrases, or the response’s analysis are structures may be repetitive. The
both), demonstrating little or no unwarranted based on the text. response demonstrates general
understanding of the source text. The response contains little or no and vague word choice; word
support for claim(s) or point(s) made, choice may be poor or inaccurate.
or support is largely irrelevant. The response may lack a formal
The response may not focus style and objective tone.
on features of the text that are The response shows a weak
relevant to addressing the task. control of the conventions of
Or the response offers no standard written English and
discernible analysis (e.g., is may contain numerous errors that
largely or exclusively summary). undermine the quality of writing.

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(1) identifying and/or investigating possible SAT When, for any of these reasons, we cancel a test score
test security incidents; (2) collecting evidence in that has already been reported, we’ll notify score
connection with possible SAT test security incidents; recipients that the score was canceled, but we won’t
and (3) enhancing SAT test security. These images disclose the reason for cancellation unless authorized to
and/or recordings are maintained following the test do so by the test taker, there is suspected impersonation,
administration for as long as reasonably necessary in certain cases that affect a group of test takers, or where
for the purposes specified. Thereafter the images and required by law.
recordings are securely destroyed. The College Board Testing Irregularities Testing irregularities refer to
will NOT use or disclose such information except as problems or irregular circumstances or events associated
described above, as requested by law enforcement, with the administration of a test; they may affect an
and/or as reasonably necessary to protect the rights individual or groups of test takers.
and property of the College Board or third parties.
Such problems include, without limitation, administrative
We occasionally pretest new questions to determine
if they should be included in a future SAT test form. errors (e.g., improper timing, improper seating,
These questions may appear in any of the test accommodations not approved by the College Board,
sections, and testing time will be extended by defective materials, and defective equipment), evidence of
20 minutes so students have time to answer possible preknowledge of secure test content, and other
them. They will not be included in computing disruptions of test administrations (e.g., natural disasters
students’ scores. and other emergencies).

SAT Terms and Conditions Grounds for Score Cancellation
When testing irregularities occur, we may cancel an technology, notes and reference books, etc., in
administration or individual registrations, decline to connection with the test, including during breaks.
score all or part of the test, or cancel the test score. We Sharing or other misuse of equipment, including
may do this whether or not the affected students caused using a calculator on a test or test section you’re not
the testing irregularities, benefited from them, or engaged allowed to use calculators for.
in misconduct. We are solely responsible for determining
whether testing irregularities have occurred, and our
Consuming food or drink in unauthorized areas.
decisions are final. When appropriate, we give affected Leaving the test room without permission.
test takers the opportunity to take the test again as soon Leaving the building at any time during the test
as possible, without charge. These are the sole remedies administration, including during breaks.
available to test takers as a result of testing irregularities. Attempting in any manner to remove from the test
Students and parents may not review scores from the room any part of a test book or any notes relating to
affected administration before choosing the option the test.
of taking a makeup test. See more information about
makeup testing below.
Attempting to take the test for someone else or
attempting to have someone else impersonate you to
Identification Discrepancies When there’s a discrepancy take the test.
in a test taker’s identification or photograph on the Disturbing others or refusing to follow instructions
admission ticket, or the photo doesn’t meet our given by test center staff.
requirements, the test taker may be denied admission to
or dismissed from the test center; in addition, we may
Refusing to follow any of the test administration
regulations in The SAT and SAT Subject Tests Student
decline to score the test, or immediately cancel the test
Registration Booklet, in other registration materials,
score. If the photo on your admission ticket doesn’t match
or given by the test supervisor.
your ID, you might not be admitted to the test center.
Testing History Based on a test taker’s testing history,
Misconduct When we find misconduct in connection
their scores may be canceled without applying procedures
with a test, the test taker may be dismissed from the
normally used for students as explained in the Invalid
test center, or ETS may decline to score the test or may
Scores section.
cancel the test score. Repeated infractions during the
test may result in dismissal from the test center or score Invalid Scores We may also cancel scores if there is
cancellation. Test takers whose scores are canceled substantial evidence that they’re invalid for any other
due to misconduct will forfeit test and registration fees. reason. Evidence of invalid scores may include, without
Misconduct includes, but is not limited to: limitation, plagiarism, discrepant handwriting, unusual
answer patterns, text similar to that in other essays,
Taking any test questions or essay topics from the
paraphrasing of text from published sources, and essays
testing room, including through memorization, giving
that aren’t independent compositions.
them to anyone else, or discussing them with anyone
else through any means, including, but not limited to, Before canceling scores under this Invalid Scores section,
email, text messages, or the internet. we notify the test taker in writing (via email if possible)
Improperly accessing the test, a part of the test, or about our concerns, let the test taker submit information
information about the test, or the test center. addressing the concerns, and consider any such
information submitted. If substantial evidence still exists
Referring to, looking through, or working on any test, or
that the scores aren’t valid, we offer the test taker options
test section in the test book or answer sheet, other than
that may include voluntary score cancellation or third-party
during the testing period for that test or test section.
review, a free retest under closely monitored conditions, or
Referring to, or looking through, any test or test arbitration in accordance with ETS’s standard Arbitration
section while leaving the answer sheet blank. Agreement. When ETS notifying the test taker we send
Attempting to give or receive assistance, including a copy of the booklet Why and How Educational Testing
by copying; discussion or sharing of test content Service Questions Test Scores, which explains this process
during the test administration, during breaks, or after in greater detail. (Any test taker may request a copy of this
the test; communication with other test takers in any booklet at any time.) Notification of the concern may be
form while testing is in session in the testing room. made via email if an email address is available.
Using any prohibited aids such as, but not limited If at any time before, during, or after a review of
to, cell phones, smartphones, smartwatches, other questionable scores we find that test misconduct has
oral or written communication devices or wearable occurred, we may treat the matter under our misconduct

Makeup Testing SAT Terms and Conditions
procedures; in that case, the options described under hand-scored verification or essay score verification or
this Invalid Scores section or in the Testing Irregularities both, up to five months after the test date, by printing and
section, as applicable, will not be available, even if those completing a Request for SAT Score Verification form,
options were previously offered. available at sat.org/verify-scores. Read the information
on the form carefully before requesting this service. There
The retest option is available only for tests administered
is a fee for this service. If you used a fee waiver to pay
in the United States and Canada. The arbitration option is
SAT registration fees, the score verification fee will be
available only for tests administered in the United States
reduced.
and U.S. territories.
Suspected Impersonation In cases where we believe
that someone other than the registered test taker took the Score Reporting
test for the registered test taker, and in other cases where Score reports will be automatically sent to you and your
required or permitted by law, we may refer the matter to high school and to the institutions you choose when you
law enforcement and inform the registered test taker’s register.
parent(s), legal guardian(s), high school, and colleges
and other institutions the registered test taker requested The colleges you choose to receive score reports will
scores be sent to. The registered test taker specifically have access to a copy of your essay if you took the
acknowledges, and agrees to, such disclosure. SAT with Essay.
Each time you take the SAT, SAT with Essay, or
Reporting Violations an SAT Subject Test, the scores are added to your
College Board record. All of your scores are reported
If we find that you have gained or attempted to gain or to your high school.
share an unfair advantage on any College Board test, we
reserve the right to share this information with your high You can order additional score reports. They’ll be
school, any other score recipients, law enforcement, and sent to your designated colleges 1–3 weeks after the
any other government agencies in the U.S. or abroad. request is received.
If you want to change where your scores are sent,
you have until 9 days after the published test date to
Makeup Testing alter your 4 free score reports at no charge. After that,
you’ll be charged the additional score report request
During bad weather, natural disasters, power outages, or
fee for any added or changed report requests.
other unusual conditions, test centers may be closed.
Score Choice lets you choose which scores are sent.
The following policies apply to makeup testing:
The availability of makeup testing and the conditions About Score Choice
that make test takers eligible to take a makeup test College and scholarship program–specific SAT score-
are at the sole discretion of the College Board. use practices referenced in Score Choice materials are
You may only take tests that you registered to take based on information provided to us by each participating
on the original date. During check-in only, you may college or scholarship program.
be able to change your SAT Essay option, if the
The description of a particular SAT score-use practice
supervisor can accommodate this request.
in the Score Choice materials might not include every
Sunday testing is offered for religious reasons only, aspect of how a college or scholarship program uses a
not for makeup testing. student’s score for admission decisions; additionally, SAT
Access to scores from makeup administrations may score-use practices for a particular college or scholarship
be delayed by several weeks. program may change periodically and may not be
The Question-and-Answer Service (QAS) isn’t automatically updated in Score Choice. We recommend
offered for makeup tests, even if it was available for that you verify the SAT score-use practices of the colleges
the original test date. or scholarship programs you’re sending your scores to.
We’re not responsible for the accuracy of the information
Verifying Your Scores or the consequences of your decisions.
Score verification services include the Student Answer Your high school will continue to have access to all of
Services for the SAT, explained at sat.org/verify-scores. your scores.
You can request a more comprehensive multiple-choice

SAT Terms and Conditions Score Reporting
Sending Scores to College For students who meet certain specific criteria (last
and University Systems name and score range), North Carolina State University
may provide a scholarship regardless of your state of
The reports received by you, your high school, and colleges residence.
contain scores that have been converted to the College
Board’s 200–800-point scale. The SAT includes additional If you attend school or live in one of the above states, you
scores that offer insights into your skill levels. The College can stop the automatic reporting of your test scores by
Board doesn’t use either your raw score or your reported writing to The College Board SAT Program, Attention:
scaled score by itself or in combination with any other Confidentiality, P.O. Box 025505, Miami, FL 33102 by no
information to predict your individual future academic per- later than the 15th day after the test date.
formance at specific postsecondary institutions. However,
the College Board does help individual colleges and univer- Releasing Your Scores to the
sities use and interpret SAT and SAT Subject Test scores. New York State Scholarship Program
Test scores are the property of the College Board. The New York State Scholarship Program requires that
New York State students who wish to be considered for
In certain college and university systems, once you
the Robert C. Byrd Honors Scholarships and Regents
submit your score to one school, other schools in that
Scholarships at Cornell University on the basis of their
system will also have access to your score. However, if
SAT scores take the SAT before November 1, 2018. The
you’re applying to more than one school in a college or
latest published SAT administration date that meets this
university system, it’s still important for you to send your
deadline is October 6, 2018.
SAT scores to each individual school. If you’re not sure
whether the school you’re applying to is part of such a The New York State Standardized Testing Law requires
system, contact the school’s admission office. that you specifically authorize the sending of all reports.
Your SAT scores and other information from your
If you’ve decided to participate in the Student Search
record will be sent to the scholarship program if you
Service, colleges and universities may identify you to
authorize the release of your scores when you apply for a
give you materials about college admission and financial
scholarship. To do that, answer “yes” and sign the score
aid. Student Search Service does not report your course
release statement in the scholarship application. There’s
grades, test scores, phone numbers, or Social Security
no fee when your report is sent to the New York State
number to these organizations, but organizations can
Scholarship Program. Scholarship application forms are
request student information based on a variety of criteria,
sent by the State Education Department to principals
which may include score range or other variables such as
of all high schools in New York State in December or
geographical location or expressed interests.
January.
The College Board releases to the New York State
Scholarships Scholarship Program names, addresses, and other
Some of the scholarship programs in the SAT Code List identifying information of seniors who registered to take
have restrictions or prerequisites for eligibility. State the SAT prior to November 1, 2018, who are New York
scholarship program participants may change at any State residents and applied for scholarship(s). These are
time, and the list may not always reflect the most up-to- matched to student files and the scores of all students
date information. who authorized their release are sent to the program. If
The College Board automatically reports scores to certain you don’t want your name and address released for this
U.S. government and state scholarship programs, such purpose, notify The College Board SAT Program, NYS
as the Presidential Scholars Program, to be used as one Scholarship Program, P.O. Box 025505, Miami, FL 33102.
source of information to recognize student achievement.
The College Board automatically reports scores and Keeping Scores on File
identifying information (including email address) for
Your test scores, your responses to the SAT
Presidential Scholar consideration for test takers in all
Questionnaire, and related personal information that you
states, the District of Columbia, U.S. territories, and
provide to the College Board become part of your student
Puerto Rico, and for U.S. citizens abroad so you don’t
record and are kept indefinitely, unless you tested before
have to use one of your free score reports. Your SAT score
entering the ninth grade. For requests to have a permanent
will be reported automatically if your mailing address or
College Board student record removed, individuals must
high school is in one of the following states:
call College Board Customer Service or write to the
Alaska, Delaware, Georgia, Idaho, Illinois, Kentucky, College Board, Attention Customer Service. See the front
Maryland, Missouri, New Jersey, North Carolina, of this booklet for the phone number and address.
Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Tennessee, Washington, or
West Virginia.

Required Information for Students Testing in California or New York State SAT Terms and Conditions
Ordering Older Scores Predicting College Grades

The College Board can’t guarantee that older scores can The main purpose of the SAT is to determine how
always be retrieved. The normal response time for score prepared students are to succeed, both in college and
delivery may not apply. in career training programs. Because the SAT assesses
the content that research shows matters most for college
Official score reports sent to colleges five or more years
and career readiness, SAT scores provide meaningful
after a test date will include a message explaining that
information about a student’s likelihood of success in
they may be less valid predictors of college academic
college. But the SAT should not be used as the sole
performance than more recent scores would be. This
source of information for high-stakes decisions.
message also notifies colleges that for SAT Subject
Tests, the test taker’s knowledge of the subject may A pilot predictive validity study was conducted in the
change given additional study in the area, and scores may fall semester of 2014 to give colleges and universities
become less valid predictors within a shorter time period. information about the relationship between the SAT and
college grades. Under standardized conditions, 2,050 first-
time, first-year students across 15 four-year institutions
Required Information for were administered a pilot form of the redesigned SAT.
Students Testing in California First-year college performance data—courses taken and

grades in those courses— for those students provided by
or New York State the institutions in June 2015 inform the relationship of
the predictive validity of redesigned SAT scores. Results
The California Education Code requires that you be
of this research indicate that SAT scores, in combination
given certain information about the purposes of the tests,
with a student’s high school GPA, predict freshman
property rights of the test subject and test agency to the
GPA more accurately than SAT scores or high school
test scores, procedures for releasing score reports, and
GPA alone. For the students in the study, the multiple
score interpretation.
correlation between both SAT scores and high school
Statistical information related to the use of test scores in and freshman GPA is 0.58. The correlation between the
predicting future grade point averages must be provided Evidence-Based Reading and Writing section scores and
to test takers prior to the administration of the test or freshman GPA is 0.51, and between the SAT Math section
coinciding with the initial reporting of test scores. scores and freshman GPA is 0.49. For both sections (SAT
Evidence-Based Reading and Writing and SAT Math),
The New York State Standardized Testing Law requires
the correlation with freshman GPA is 0.53, while the
that certain information concerning the purposes of the
correlation between high school GPA and freshman GPA
test, property rights of the test taker and test agency to
is 0.48. The combination of SAT scores and high school
the test scores, test fairness and equity, procedures for
GPA raised the correlation 0.05 over SAT scores alone,
releasing score reports and for reviewing challenges about
and 0.10 over high school GPA alone. All correlations are
test questions, and score interpretation be given to test
adjusted for restriction of range to account for enrolled
takers along with the registration form or score report.
students’ narrower band of scores as compared to the
The information for both California and New York State wider range of scores observed in an applicant pool.
test takers is furnished in The SAT and SAT Subject Tests
The College Board is committed to maintaining and
Student Registration Booklet and in the materials included
improving the high level of technical quality of the SAT as
with score reports. Complete descriptions of the content of
well as its rigorous validity research agenda. The results of
the tests, along with information on test preparation and
ongoing research into the redesigned SAT will be released
sample questions, are provided in the booklets The SAT
as they become available. Find out more at sat.org.
Student Guide and The SAT Subject Tests Student Guide,
which are available free of charge from school offices for
students who plan to register for these tests. Procedures to Ensure
See how to request our SAT Answer Verification Services: Fairness and Equity
Question-and-Answer Service (QAS) and Student Answer All SAT Program test questions and editions of the
Service (SAS) at sat.org/verify-scores. In addition, tests are reviewed by external, independent educators
students who took the SAT in California in December from throughout the United States. These reviews help
2018 can review the test questions under secure ensure that wording and content are unambiguous and
conditions at the ETS Western Field Office in Concord, relevant and that the language used is not offensive to or
Calif., by calling (925) 808-2000. inappropriate for any particular group of students based
on race/ethnicity or gender. The test as a whole includes

SAT Terms and Conditions Required Information for Students Testing in California or New York State
references to men and women, as well as to individuals Although average SAT scores tend to be higher for
from varied racial, ethnic, and cultural backgrounds. students from higher-income families, students
Questions that were statistically harder than expected from every income level, as reported on the SAT
for a particular group of students to answer correctly Questionnaire, obtain the full range of SAT scores. Many
based on their performance on other questions in the test students from low-income families do well on the test.
are excluded from the tests. Seniors who graduated in 2015 with reported family
income below $40,000 obtained scores at or above the
national average.
Relationship of SAT Scores
to Family Income
The correlation of SAT scores and student-reported
family income tends to be in the 0.20s–0.40s, which
is consistent with general research findings on the
relationship between educational measures and family
income level.

The SAT and SAT Subject Tests
®
™
Calendar 2018-19
Deadlines expire at 11:59 p.m. U.S. ET.
2018 2019
Test Dates* Aug 25 Oct 6 Nov 3 Dec 1 Mar 9 May 4 Jun 1
Domestic Registration Deadline July 27 Sep 7 Oct 5 Nov 2 Feb 8 Apr 5 May 3
Domestic Late Registration Deadline,

Aug 7 Sep 18 Oct 16 Nov 13 Feb 19 Apr 16 May 14
Paper
Domestic Late Registration Deadline,

Online and Phone Aug 15 Sep 26 Oct 24 Nov 20 Feb 27 Apr 24 May 22
International Registration Deadline** Sep 7 Oct 5 Nov 2 Feb 8 Apr 5 May 3

Not
Available
International Early Registration Deadline*** Aug 22 Sep 19 Oct 17 Jan 23 Mar 20 Apr 17
SAT • • • • • • •
SAT Subject Tests
• • • • • •
SAT Subject Tests are not offered on this date.

Biology E/M, Chemistry, Physics
Literature • • • • • •
Mathematics Levels I and II • • • • • •
United States (U.S.) History • • • • • •
World History • • •
Languages: Reading Only
French, Spanish • • • • •
German, Italian, and Modern Hebrew •
Latin • •
Languages with Listening
You may take only one listening test on this date.
Chinese, French, German, Japanese,

Korean, and Spanish •
Domestic Registration: sat.org/register International Registration: sat.org/international
Domestic Fees: sat.org/us-fees International Fees: sat.org/intl-fees
Fee Waivers: sat.org/fee-waivers
805934
*Sunday tests are given the next day.
**Be sure to review the test calendar carefully as not all subjects are offered on every test date.
The SAT is offered internationally in October, December, March, and May. The SAT Subject Tests are
offered internationally in October, November, December, May, and June.
***If registering through a representative, you will need to submit by the early registration deadline.
2018-19
The SAT
®
Practice
Test 2
#
Make time to take the practice test.

It is one of the best ways to get ready
for the SAT.
After you have taken the practice test, score it

right away at sat.org/scoring.
Official SAT Practice Test About the Practice Test
Official SAT Practice Test

About the Practice Test Marking the Answer Sheet
Take the practice test, which starts on page 7, to Getting credit for the right answer depends on
reinforce your test-taking skills and to be more marking the answer sheet correctly. When filling out
comfortable when you take the SAT. This practice your answer sheet, whether for the practice test or on
test will give you a good idea of what to expect on the test day, follow these important instructions:
actual test.
Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil.
In addition, once you take the test using the practice Fill in the entire bubble on the answer sheet
answer sheet in this booklet, you can scan and upload darkly and completely.
your answers to satpractice.org/scores and get
instruction and practice in the areas where you need
If you change your response, erase it as
completely as possible.
them the most. The practice answer sheet is specially
designed for this purpose, so it looks different from For this practice test, enter “02” in the Test
NOTE:
what you'll see on test day. Number ﬁeld on the answer grid.
You’ll need to set aside three hours to take the test—
and an additional 50 minutes if you plan to take the
optional essay. Calculating Your Scores
Your tests will be scored by counting the questions
Approaches to the
you answered correctly and converting this “raw”
score to a score on the College Board scale of 200
Practice Test to 800. You’ll find more information about how to
score your test at studentscores.collegeboard.org.
The practice test will help you the most if you take it
Remember that you can have your practice test scored
under conditions as close as possible to those of the
at satpractice.org. If you took the optional essay
actual test.
included in this booklet, use the SAT Essay Scoring
Plan to complete the entire test in one sitting. Guide in the accompanying SAT Student Guide to
The Reading Test takes 65 minutes, followed determine how your essay might be scored.
by a 10-minute break.
The Writing and Language Test is 35 minutes
long, followed immediately (no break) by the
Evaluate Your Test
Math Test – No Calculator, which takes Performance
25 minutes. Once your practice test is scored, review your
Allow yourself a 5-minute break, and then performance and ask yourself these questions:
take the Math Test – Calculator, which is 55
minutes long. Did I run out of time before I finished a section?
Remember, all multiple-choice questions are
If you’re taking the optional essay, take a scored the same way. Be prepared to keep moving
2-minute stretch break, and then give yourself on test day and don’t spend too much time on any
50 minutes to write the essay. one question.
Pace yourself by using a watch (without an Did I make careless mistakes? You may have
audible alarm). misread a question, neglected to notice a word
Sit at a desk or table cleared of any other papers or such as “except” or “best,” or solved for the wrong
books. Do not use any prohibited items such as a value. Recognizing these small but critical errors
dictionary, notes, or scratch paper. will help you avoid them on test day.
Use an acceptable calculator that is familiar to you Did I spend too much time reading directions?
for the Math Test – Calculator. Review any directions that gave you trouble so you
Read the test directions carefully. don’t have to spend as much time reading them
when you take the actual test.
Keep learning and practicing at satpractice.org.
ii 2018–2019 SAT Practice Test

Test Begins On The Next Page
1 1
Reading Test
6 5 M I NU TES, 5 2 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following 25 my darling, my cherished-in-secret, Imagination, the
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage. tender and the mighty, should never, either by

This passage is from Charlotte Brontë, The Professor,
softness or strength, have severed me. But this was
originally published in 1857. not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between
myself and my employer striking deeper root and
No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a 30 spreading denser shade daily, excluded me from
mistake in the choice of his profession, and every every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to
man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the
Line and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am slimy walls of a well.
5 baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to Antipathy is the only word which can express the
land. From the first week of my residence in X—— I 35 feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in
felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to
work of copying and translating business-letters— be excited by every, the most trifling movement,
was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed
10 all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am him; the degree of education evinced in my language
not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the 40 irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and
double desire of getting my living and justifying to accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high
myself and others the resolution I had taken to flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I
become a tradesman, I should have endured in too should one day make a successful tradesman.
15 silence the rust and cramp of my best faculties; I Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not
should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I 45 have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he
longed for liberty; I should have pent in every sigh by knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept
which my heart might have ventured to intimate its the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he
distress under the closeness, smoke, monotony, and was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a
20 joyless tumult of Bigben Close, and its panting desire ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have
for freer and fresher scenes; I should have set up the 50 forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three
image of Duty, the fetish of Perseverance, in my faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling
small bedroom at Mrs. King’s lodgings, and they two and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never
should have been my household gods, from which baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels.
Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it
55 would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its
slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.
2 CO NTI N U E
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. 2
1 1
I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
returning to my lodgings, possessed heart and soul
with the pleasant feeling that the master who had During the course of the first paragraph, the
60 paid me grudged every penny of that hard‑earned narrator’s focus shifts from
pittance—(I had long ceased to regard A) recollection of past confidence to
Mr. Crimsworth as my brother—he was a hard, acknowledgment of present self-doubt.
grinding master; he wished to be an inexorable B) reflection on his expectations of life as a
tyrant: that was all). Thoughts, not varied but strong, tradesman to his desire for another job.
65 occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me;
again and again they uttered the same monotonous C) generalization about job dissatisfaction to the
phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” specifics of his own situation.
The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked D) evaluation of factors making him unhappy to
fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I identification of alternatives.
70 approached my lodgings, I turned from a general
view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to
whether my fire would be out; looking towards the 4
window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red
The references to “shade” and “darkness” at the end
gleam.
of the first paragraph mainly have which effect?
A) They evoke the narrator’s sense of dismay.
1 B) They reflect the narrator’s sinister thoughts.
Which choice best summarizes the passage? C) They capture the narrator’s fear of confinement.
A) A character describes his dislike for his new job D) They reveal the narrator’s longing for rest.
and considers the reasons why.
B) Two characters employed in the same office
become increasingly competitive. 5
C) A young man regrets privately a choice that he The passage indicates that Edward Crimsworth’s
defends publicly. behavior was mainly caused by his
D) A new employee experiences optimism, then A) impatience with the narrator’s high spirits.
frustration, and finally despair. B) scorn of the narrator’s humble background.
C) indignation at the narrator’s rash actions.
2 D) jealousy of the narrator’s apparent superiority.
The main purpose of the opening sentence of the

passage is to 6
A) establish the narrator’s perspective on a The passage indicates that when the narrator began
controversy. working for Edward Crimsworth, he viewed
B) provide context useful in understanding the Crimsworth as a
narrator’s emotional state. A) harmless rival.
C) offer a symbolic representation of B) sympathetic ally.
Edward Crimsworth’s plight.
C) perceptive judge.
D) contrast the narrator’s good intentions with his
malicious conduct. D) demanding mentor.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. 33 CO NTI N U E

1 1
7 9
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which choice provides the best evidence for the The passage indicates that, after a long day of
answer to the previous question? work, the narrator sometimes found his living
A) Lines 28-31 (“the antipathy . . . life”) quarters to be
B) Lines 38-40 (“My southern . . . irritated him”) A) treacherous.
C) Lines 54-56 (“Day . . . slumber”) B) dreary.
D) Lines 61-62 (“I had . . . brother”) C) predictable.
D) intolerable.
8
10
At the end of the second paragraph, the comparisons
of abstract qualities to a lynx and a snake mainly Which choice provides the best evidence for the
have the effect of answer to the previous question?
A) contrasting two hypothetical courses of action. A) Lines 17-21 (“I should . . . scenes”)
B) conveying the ferocity of a resolution. B) Lines 21-23 (“I should . . . lodgings”)
C) suggesting the likelihood of an altercation. C) Lines 64-67 (“Thoughts . . . phrases”)
D) illustrating the nature of an adversarial D) Lines 68-74 (“I walked . . . gleam”)
relationship.
4 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 11-21 are based on the following 45 There is yet another approach: instead of rooting
..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. ethics in character or the consequences of actions, we
This passage is adapted from Iain King, “Can Economics Be
can focus on our actions themselves. From this
Ethical?” ©2013 by Prospect Publishing. perspective some things are right, some wrong—we
should buy fair trade goods, we shouldn’t tell lies in
Recent debates about the economy have 50 advertisements. Ethics becomes a list of
rediscovered the question, “is that right?”, where commandments, a catalog of “dos” and “don’ts.”
“right” means more than just profits or efficiency. When a finance official refuses to devalue a currency
Line Some argue that because the free markets allow because they have promised not to, they are defining
5 for personal choice, they are already ethical. Others ethics this way. According to this approach
have accepted the ethical critique and embraced 55 devaluation can still be bad, even if it would make
corporate social responsibility. But before we can everybody better off.
label any market outcome as “immoral,” or sneer at Many moral dilemmas arise when these three
economists who try to put a price on being ethical, versions pull in different directions but clashes are
10 we need to be clear on what we are talking about. not inevitable. Take fair trade coffee (coffee that is
There are different views on where ethics should 60 sold with a certification that indicates the farmers
apply when someone makes an economic decision. and workers who produced it were paid a fair wage),
Consider Adam Smith, widely regarded as the for example: buying it might have good
founder of modern economics. He was a moral consequences, be virtuous, and also be the right way
15 philosopher who believed sympathy for others was to act in a flawed market. Common ground like this
the basis for ethics (we would call it empathy 65 suggests that, even without agreement on where
nowadays). But one of his key insights in The Wealth ethics applies, ethical economics is still possible.
of Nations was that acting on this empathy could be Whenever we feel queasy about “perfect”
counter-productive—he observed people becoming competitive markets, the problem is often rooted in a
20 better off when they put their own empathy aside, phony conception of people. The model of man on
and interacted in a self-interested way. Smith justifies 70 which classical economics is based—an entirely
selfish behavior by the outcome. Whenever planners rational and selfish being—is a parody, as
use cost-benefit analysis to justify a new railway line, John Stuart Mill, the philosopher who pioneered the
or someone retrains to boost his or her earning model, accepted. Most people—even economists—
25 power, or a shopper buys one to get one free, they are now accept that this “economic man” is a fiction.
using the same approach: empathizing with 75 We behave like a herd; we fear losses more than we
someone, and seeking an outcome that makes that hope for gains; rarely can our brains process all the
person as well off as possible—although the person relevant facts.
they are empathizing with may be themselves in the These human quirks mean we can never make
30 future. purely “rational” decisions. A new wave of behavioral
Instead of judging consequences, Aristotle 80 economists, aided by neuroscientists, is trying to
said ethics was about having the right understand our psychology, both alone and in
character—displaying virtues like courage and groups, so they can anticipate our decisions in the
honesty. It is a view put into practice whenever marketplace more accurately. But psychology can
35 business leaders are chosen for their good character. also help us understand why we react in disgust at
But it is a hard philosophy to teach—just how much 85 economic injustice, or accept a moral law as
loyalty should you show to a manufacturer that keeps universal. Which means that the relatively new
losing money? Show too little and you’re a “greed is science of human behavior might also define ethics
good” corporate raider; too much and you’re wasting for us. Ethical economics would then emerge from
40 money on unproductive capital. Aristotle thought one of the least likely places: economists themselves.
there was a golden mean between the two extremes,
and finding it was a matter of fine judgment. But if
ethics is about character, it’s not clear what those
characteristics should be.

1 1
Regular Coffee Profits
Compared to Fair Trade Coffee
Profits in Tanzania
160
Amount (US cents per lb)
140
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
2000 2002 2004 2006 2008
Year
fair trade coffee
regular coffee
Adapted from the Fair Trade Vancouver website.
11 12
....................................................................................................................................................................
The main purpose of the passage is to In the passage, the author anticipates which of the
A) consider an ethical dilemma posed by following objections to criticizing the ethics of free
cost-benefit analysis. markets?
B) describe a psychology study of ethical economic A) Smith’s association of free markets with ethical
behavior. behavior still applies today.
C) argue that the free market prohibits ethical B) Free markets are the best way to generate high
economics. profits, so ethics are a secondary consideration.
D) examine ways of evaluating the ethics of C) Free markets are ethical because they are made
economics. possible by devalued currency.
D) Free markets are ethical because they enable
individuals to make choices.
13
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 4-5 (“Some . . . ethical”)
B) Lines 7-10 (“But . . . about”)
C) Lines 21-22 (“Smith . . . outcome”)
D) Lines 52-54 (“When . . . way”)
6 CO NTI N U E
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14 18
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
As used in line 6, “embraced” most nearly means The main idea of the final paragraph is that
A) lovingly held. A) human quirks make it difficult to predict
B) readily adopted. people’s ethical decisions accurately.
C) eagerly hugged. B) people universally react with disgust when faced
with economic injustice.
D) reluctantly used.
C) understanding human psychology may help to
define ethics in economics.
15 D) economists themselves will be responsible for
reforming the free market.
The main purpose of the fifth paragraph (lines 45-56)
is to
A) develop a counterargument to the claim that 19
greed is good.
Data in the graph about per-pound coffee profits in
B) provide support for the idea that ethics is about Tanzania most strongly support which of the
character. following statements?
C) describe a third approach to defining ethical A) Fair trade coffee consistently earned greater
economics. profits than regular coffee earned.
D) illustrate that one’s actions are a result of one’s B) The profits earned from regular coffee did not
character. fluctuate.
C) Fair trade coffee profits increased between 2004
16 and 2006.
D) Fair trade and regular coffee were earning equal
As used in line 58, “clashes” most nearly means
profits by 2008.
A) conflicts.
B) mismatches.
20
C) collisions.
D) brawls. Data in the graph indicate that the greatest difference
between per-pound profits from fair trade coffee and
those from regular coffee occurred during which
17 period?
A) 2000 to 2002
Which choice best supports the author’s claim that
there is common ground shared by the different B) 2002 to 2004
approaches to ethics described in the passage? C) 2004 to 2005
A) Lines 11-12 (“There . . . decision”) D) 2006 to 2008
B) Lines 47-50 (“From . . . advertisements”)
C) Lines 59-64 (“Take . . . market”)
D) Lines 75-77 (“We . . . facts”)

1 1
21 Questions 22-32 are based on the following
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages.
Data in the graph provide most direct support for
which idea in the passage? Passage 1 is adapted from Nicholas Carr, “Author
Nicholas Carr: The Web Shatters Focus, Rewires Brains.”
A) Acting on empathy can be counterproductive. ©2010 by Condé Nast. Passage 2 is from Steven Pinker,
B) Ethical economics is defined by character. “Mind over Mass Media.” ©2010 by The New York Times
Company.
C) Ethical economics is still possible.
Passage 1
D) People fear losses more than they hope for gains.
The mental consequences of our online
info-crunching are not universally bad.
Certain cognitive skills are strengthened by our use
Line of computers and the Net. These tend to involve
5 more primitive mental functions, such as hand-eye
coordination, reflex response, and the processing of
visual cues. One much-cited study of video gaming
revealed that after just 10 days of playing action
games on computers, a group of young people had
10 significantly boosted the speed with which they could
shift their visual focus between various images and
tasks.
It’s likely that Web browsing also strengthens
brain functions related to fast-paced problem
15 solving, particularly when it requires spotting
patterns in a welter of data. A British study of the
way women search for medical information online
indicated that an experienced Internet user can, at
least in some cases, assess the trustworthiness and
20 probable value of a Web page in a matter of seconds.
The more we practice surfing and scanning, the more
adept our brain becomes at those tasks.
But it would be a serious mistake to look narrowly
at such benefits and conclude that the Web is making
25 us smarter. In a Science article published in early
2009, prominent developmental psychologist Patricia
Greenfield reviewed more than 40 studies of the
effects of various types of media on intelligence and
learning ability. She concluded that “every medium
30 develops some cognitive skills at the expense of
others.” Our growing use of the Net and other
screen-based technologies, she wrote, has led to the
“widespread and sophisticated development of
visual-spatial skills.” But those gains go hand in hand
35 with a weakening of our capacity for the kind of
“deep processing” that underpins “mindful
knowledge acquisition, inductive analysis, critical
thinking, imagination, and reflection.”
We know that the human brain is highly
40 plastic; neurons and synapses change as
circumstances change. When we adapt to a new
cultural phenomenon, including the use of a new
8 CO NTI N U E
1 1
medium, we end up with a different brain, says 22
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Michael Merzenich, a pioneer of the field of
45 neuroplasticity. That means our online habits The author of Passage 1 indicates which of the
continue to reverberate in the workings of our brain following about the use of screen-based technologies?
cells even when we’re not at a computer. We’re A) It should be thoroughly studied.
exercising the neural circuits devoted to skimming B) It makes the brain increasingly rigid.
and multitasking while ignoring those used for
50 reading and thinking deeply. C) It has some positive effects.
D) It should be widely encouraged.
Passage 2
Critics of new media sometimes use science itself
to press their case, citing research that shows how
23
“experience can change the brain.” But cognitive
neuroscientists roll their eyes at such talk. Yes, every Which choice provides the best evidence for the
55 time we learn a fact or skill the wiring of the brain answer to the previous question?
changes; it’s not as if the information is stored in the A) Lines 3-4 (“Certain . . . Net”)
pancreas. But the existence of neural plasticity does
not mean the brain is a blob of clay pounded into B) Lines 23-25 (“But . . . smarter”)
shape by experience. C) Lines 25-29 (“In a . . . ability”)
60 Experience does not revamp the basic D) Lines 29-31 (“She . . . others”)
information-processing capacities of the brain.
Speed-reading programs have long claimed to do just
that, but the verdict was rendered by Woody Allen 24
after he read Leo Tolstoy’s famously long novel
65 War and Peace in one sitting: “It was about Russia.” The author of Passage 1 indicates that becoming
Genuine multitasking, too, has been exposed as a adept at using the Internet can
myth, not just by laboratory studies but by the A) make people complacent about their health.
familiar sight of an SUV undulating between lanes as
the driver cuts deals on his cell phone. B) undermine the ability to think deeply.
70 Moreover, the effects of experience are highly C) increase people’s social contacts.
specific to the experiences themselves. If you train D) improve people’s self-confidence.
people to do one thing (recognize shapes, solve math
puzzles, find hidden words), they get better at doing
that thing, but almost nothing else. Music doesn’t 25
75 make you better at math, conjugating Latin doesn’t
make you more logical, brain-training games don’t As used in line 40, “plastic” most nearly means
make you smarter. Accomplished people don’t bulk A) creative.
up their brains with intellectual calisthenics; they
B) artificial.
immerse themselves in their fields. Novelists read
80 lots of novels, scientists read lots of science. C) malleable.
The effects of consuming electronic media are D) sculptural.
likely to be far more limited than the panic implies.
Media critics write as if the brain takes on the
qualities of whatever it consumes, the informational
85 equivalent of “you are what you eat.” As with ancient
peoples who believed that eating fierce animals made
them fierce, they assume that watching quick cuts in
rock videos turns your mental life into quick cuts or
that reading bullet points and online postings turns
90 your thoughts into bullet points and online postings.

1 1
26 30
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The author of Passage 2 refers to the novel Which choice best describes the relationship between
War and Peace primarily to suggest that the two passages?
Woody Allen A) Passage 2 relates first-hand experiences that
A) did not like Tolstoy’s writing style. contrast with the clinical approach in Passage 1.
B) could not comprehend the novel by B) Passage 2 critiques the conclusions drawn from
speed-reading it. the research discussed in Passage 1.
C) had become quite skilled at multitasking. C) Passage 2 takes a high-level view of a result that
D) regretted having read such a long novel. Passage 1 examines in depth.
D) Passage 2 predicts the negative reactions that the
findings discussed in Passage 1 might produce.
27
According to the author of Passage 2, what do
31
novelists and scientists have in common?
A) They take risks when they pursue knowledge. On which of the following points would the authors
of both passages most likely agree?
B) They are eager to improve their minds.
A) Computer-savvy children tend to demonstrate
C) They are curious about other subjects. better hand-eye coordination than do their
D) They become absorbed in their own fields. parents.
B) Those who criticize consumers of electronic
media tend to overreact in their criticism.
28
C) Improved visual-spatial skills do not generalize
The analogy in the final sentence of Passage 2 has to improved skills in other areas.
primarily which effect?
D) Internet users are unlikely to prefer reading
A) It uses ornate language to illustrate a difficult onscreen text to reading actual books.
concept.
B) It employs humor to soften a severe opinion of
human behavior. 32
C) It alludes to the past to evoke a nostalgic Which choice provides the best evidence that the
response. author of Passage 2 would agree to some extent with
D) It criticizes the view of a particular group. the claim attributed to Michael Merzenich in
lines 41-43, Passage 1?
A) Lines 51-53 (“Critics . . . brain”)
29 B) Lines 54-56 (“Yes . . . changes”)
The main purpose of each passage is to C) Lines 57-59 (“But . . . experience”)
A) compare brain function in those who play games D) Lines 83-84 (“Media . . . consumes”)
on the Internet and those who browse on it.
B) report on the problem-solving skills of
individuals with varying levels of Internet
experience.
C) take a position on increasing financial support
for studies related to technology and intelligence.
D) make an argument about the effects of electronic
media use on the brain.
10 CO NTI N U E
1 1
Questions 33-42 are based on the following 40 dependence, for so long as man feeds woman she
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage. will try to please the giver and adapt herself to his
This passage is adapted from Elizabeth Cady Stanton’s
condition. To keep a foothold in society, woman
address to the 1869 Woman Suffrage Convention in must be as near like man as possible, reflect his ideas,
Washington, DC. opinions, virtues, motives, prejudices, and vices. She
45 must respect his statutes, though they strip her of
I urge a sixteenth amendment, because “manhood every inalienable right, and conflict with that higher
suffrage,” or a man’s government, is civil, religious, law written by the finger of God on her own soul. . . .
and social disorganization. The male element is a . . . [M]an has been molding woman to his ideas
Line destructive force, stern, selfish, aggrandizing, loving by direct and positive influences, while she, if not a
5 war, violence, conquest, acquisition, breeding in the 50 negation, has used indirect means to control him,
material and moral world alike discord, disorder, and in most cases developed the very characteristics
disease, and death. See what a record of blood and both in him and herself that needed repression.
cruelty the pages of history reveal! Through what And now man himself stands appalled at the results
slavery, slaughter, and sacrifice, through what of his own excesses, and mourns in bitterness that
10 inquisitions and imprisonments, pains and 55 falsehood, selfishness, and violence are the law of life.
persecutions, black codes and gloomy creeds, the The need of this hour is not territory, gold mines,
soul of humanity has struggled for the centuries, railroads, or specie payments but a new evangel of
while mercy has veiled her face and all hearts have womanhood, to exalt purity, virtue, morality, true
been dead alike to love and hope! religion, to lift man up into the higher realms of
15 The male element has held high carnival thus far; 60 thought and action.
it has fairly run riot from the beginning, We ask woman’s enfranchisement, as the first step
overpowering the feminine element everywhere, toward the recognition of that essential element in
crushing out all the diviner qualities in human government that can only secure the health, strength,
nature, until we know but little of true manhood and and prosperity of the nation. Whatever is done to lift
20 womanhood, of the latter comparatively nothing, for 65 woman to her true position will help to usher in a
it has scarce been recognized as a power until within new day of peace and perfection for the race.
the last century. Society is but the reflection of man In speaking of the masculine element, I do not
himself, untempered by woman’s thought; the hard wish to be understood to say that all men are hard,
iron rule we feel alike in the church, the state, and the selfish, and brutal, for many of the most beautiful
25 home. No one need wonder at the disorganization, at 70 spirits the world has known have been clothed with
the fragmentary condition of everything, when we manhood; but I refer to those characteristics, though
remember that man, who represents but half a often marked in woman, that distinguish what is
complete being, with but half an idea on every called the stronger sex. For example, the love of
subject, has undertaken the absolute control of all acquisition and conquest, the very pioneers of
30 sublunary matters. 75 civilization, when expended on the earth, the sea, the
People object to the demands of those whom they elements, the riches and forces of nature, are powers
choose to call the strong-minded, because they say of destruction when used to subjugate one man to
“the right of suffrage will make the women another or to sacrifice nations to ambition.
masculine.” That is just the difficulty in which we are Here that great conservator of woman’s love, if
35 involved today. Though disfranchised, we have few 80 permitted to assert itself, as it naturally would in
women in the best sense; we have simply so many freedom against oppression, violence, and war,
reflections, varieties, and dilutions of the masculine would hold all these destructive forces in check, for
gender. The strong, natural characteristics of woman knows the cost of life better than man does,
womanhood are repressed and ignored in and not with her consent would one drop of blood
85 ever be shed, one life sacrificed in vain.
1 1
33 37
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The central problem that Stanton describes in the As used in line 24, “rule” most nearly refers to
passage is that women have been A) a general guideline.
A) denied equal educational opportunities, which B) a controlling force.
has kept them from reaching their potential.
C) an established habit.
B) prevented from exerting their positive influence
on men, which has led to societal breakdown. D) a procedural method.
C) prevented from voting, which has resulted in
poor candidates winning important elections. 38
D) blocked by men from serving as legislators,
It can reasonably be inferred that “the
which has allowed the creation of unjust laws.
strong-minded” (line 32) was a term generally
intended to
34 A) praise women who fight for their long-denied
rights.
Stanton uses the phrase “high carnival” (line 15)
mainly to emphasize what she sees as the B) identify women who demonstrate intellectual
skill.
A) utter domination of women by men.
C) criticize women who enter male-dominated
B) freewheeling spirit of the age. professions.
C) scandalous decline in moral values. D) condemn women who agitate for the vote for
D) growing power of women in society. their sex.
35 39
Stanton claims that which of the following was a As used in line 36, “best” most nearly means
relatively recent historical development? A) superior.
A) The control of society by men B) excellent.
B) The spread of war and injustice C) genuine.
C) The domination of domestic life by men D) rarest.
D) The acknowledgment of women’s true character
40
36
Stanton contends that the situation she describes in
Which choice provides the best evidence for the the passage has become so dire that even men have
answer to the previous question? begun to
A) Lines 3-7 (“The male . . . death”) A) lament the problems they have created.
B) Lines 15-22 (“The male . . . century”) B) join the call for woman suffrage.
C) Lines 22-25 (“Society . . . home”) C) consider women their social equals.
D) Lines 48-52 (“[M]an . . . repression”) D) ask women how to improve civic life.
12 CO NTI N U E
1 1
41 42
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which choice provides the best evidence for the The sixth paragraph (lines 67-78) is primarily
answer to the previous question? concerned with establishing a contrast between
A) Lines 25-30 (“No one . . . matters”) A) men and women.
B) Lines 53-55 (“And now . . . life”) B) the spiritual world and the material world.
C) Lines 56-60 (“The need . . . action”) C) bad men and good men.
D) Lines 61-64 (“We ask . . . nation”) D) men and masculine traits.
1 1
Questions 43-52 are based on the following Peacock and his team built a carbon-fiber resin
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. scale model of the Luzon Strait, including the islands
This passage is adapted from Geoffrey Giller, “Long a
and surrounding ocean floor topography. Then they
Mystery, How 500-Meter-High Undersea Waves Form Is 45 filled the platform with water of varying salinity to
Revealed.” ©2014 by Scientific American. replicate the different densities found at the strait,
with denser, saltier water below and lighter, less
Some of the largest ocean waves in the world are briny water above. Small particles were added to the
nearly impossible to see. Unlike other large waves, solution and illuminated with lights from below in
these rollers, called internal waves, do not ride the 50 order to track how the liquid moved. Finally, they
Line ocean surface. Instead, they move underwater, re-created tides using two large plungers to see how
5 undetectable without the use of satellite imagery or the internal waves themselves formed.
sophisticated monitoring equipment. Despite their The Luzon Strait’s underwater topography, with a
hidden nature, internal waves are fundamental parts distinct double-ridge shape, turns out to be
of ocean water dynamics, transferring heat to the 55 responsible for generating the underwater waves.
ocean depths and bringing up cold water from below. As the tide rises and falls and water moves through
10 And they can reach staggering heights—some as tall the strait, colder, denser water is pushed up over the
as skyscrapers. ridges into warmer, less dense layers above it.
Because these waves are involved in ocean mixing This action results in bumps of colder water trailed
and thus the transfer of heat, understanding them is 60 by warmer water that generate an internal wave.
crucial to global climate modeling, says Tom As these waves move toward land, they become
15 Peacock, a researcher at the Massachusetts Institute steeper—much the same way waves at the beach
of Technology. Most models fail to take internal become taller before they hit the shore—until they
waves into account. “If we want to have more and break on a continental shelf.
more accurate climate models, we have to be able to 65 The researchers were also able to devise a
capture processes such as this,” Peacock says. mathematical model that describes the movement
20 Peacock and his colleagues tried to do just that. and formation of these waves. Whereas the model is
Their study, published in November in Geophysical specific to the Luzon Strait, it can still help
Research Letters, focused on internal waves generated researchers understand how internal waves are
in the Luzon Strait, which separates Taiwan and the 70 generated in other places around the world.
Philippines. Internal waves in this region, thought to Eventually, this information will be incorporated into
25 be some of the largest in the world, can reach about global climate models, making them more accurate.
500 meters high. “That’s the same height as the “It’s very clear, within the context of these [global
Freedom Tower that’s just been built in New York,” climate] models, that internal waves play a role in
Peacock says. 75 driving ocean circulations,” Peacock says.
Although scientists knew of this phenomenon in
30 the South China Sea and beyond, they didn’t know
exactly how internal waves formed. To find out,
Peacock and a team of researchers from M.I.T. and
Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution worked with
France’s National Center for Scientific Research
35 using a giant facility there called the Coriolis
Platform. The rotating platform, about 15 meters
(49.2 feet) in diameter, turns at variable speeds and
can simulate Earth’s rotation. It also has walls, which
means scientists can fill it with water and create
40 accurate, large-scale simulations of various
oceanographic scenarios.
14 CO NTI N U E
1 1
CHANGES IN DEPTH OF ISOTHERMS*
IN AN INTERNAL WAVE OVER A 24-HOUR PERIOD
Time (hours)
12 8
13 0
14 2
15 4
16 6
18 8
19 0
20 2
21 4
22 6
24 8
0
00
12
24
36
48
00
12
24
36
:4
:0
:1
:2
:3
:4
:0
:1
:2
:3
:4
:0
10
0:
1:
2:
3:
4:
6:
7:
8:
9:
0
Surface (meters)
40
Depth Below
80
120
160
13°C 11°C 10°C 9°C
* Bands of water of constant temperatures
Adapted from Justin Small et al., “Internal Solitons in the Ocean: Prediction from SAR.” ©1998 by Oceanography, Defence Evaluation and Research Agency.
43 45
......................................................................................................................................................................
The first paragraph serves mainly to According to Peacock, the ability to monitor internal
A) explain how a scientific device is used. waves is significant primarily because
B) note a common misconception about an event. A) it will allow scientists to verify the maximum
height of such waves.
C) describe a natural phenomenon and address its
importance. B) it will allow researchers to shift their focus to
improving the quality of satellite images.
D) present a recent study and summarize its
findings. C) the study of wave patterns will enable regions to
predict and prevent coastal damage.
D) the study of such waves will inform the
44 development of key scientific models.
As used in line 19, “capture” is closest in meaning to
A) control. 46
B) record. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
C) secure. answer to the previous question?
D) absorb. A) Lines 1-2 (“Some . . . see”)
B) Lines 4-6 (“they . . . equipment”)
C) Lines 17-19 (“If . . . this”)
D) Lines 24-26 (“Internal . . . high”)
1 1
47 50
.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
As used in line 65, “devise” most nearly means In the graph, which isotherm displays an increase in
A) create. depth below the surface during the period 19:12 to
20:24?
B) solve.
A) 9°C
C) imagine.
B) 10°C
D) begin.
C) 11°C
D) 13°C
48
Based on information in the passage, it can
51
reasonably be inferred that all internal waves
A) reach approximately the same height even Which concept is supported by the passage and by
though the locations and depths of continental the information in the graph?
shelves vary. A) Internal waves cause water of varying salinity
B) may be caused by similar factors but are to mix.
influenced by the distinct topographies of B) Internal waves push denser water above layers of
different regions. less dense water.
C) can be traced to inconsistencies in the tidal C) Internal waves push bands of cold water above
patterns of deep ocean water located near bands of warmer water.
islands. D) Internal waves do not rise to break the ocean’s
D) are generated by the movement of dense water surface.
over a relatively flat section of the ocean floor.
52
49
How does the graph support the author’s point that
Which choice provides the best evidence for the internal waves affect ocean water dynamics?
answer to the previous question? A) It demonstrates that wave movement forces
A) Lines 29-31 (“Although . . . formed”) warmer water down to depths that typically are
B) Lines 56-58 (“As the . . . it”) colder.
C) Lines 61-64 (“As these . . . shelf”) B) It reveals the degree to which an internal wave
affects the density of deep layers of cold water.
D) Lines 67-70 (“Whereas . . . world”)
C) It illustrates the change in surface temperature
that takes place during an isolated series of deep
waves.
D) It shows that multiple waves rising near the
surface of the ocean disrupt the flow of normal
tides.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
16
No Test Material On This Page
17
2 2
Writing and Language Test
DIRECTIONS
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. 1

...................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
Librarians Help Navigate in the Digital Age B) reductions
In recent years, public libraries in the United States C) deducting
D) deducts
have experienced 1 reducing in their operating funds
due to cuts imposed at the federal, state, and local
2
government levels. 2 However, library staffing has been A) NO CHANGE
cut by almost four percent since 2008, and the demand B) Consequently,
for librarians continues to decrease, even though half of C) Nevertheless,
D) Previously,
public libraries report that they have an insufficient
number of staff to meet their patrons’ needs.
Employment in all job sectors in the United States is
projected to grow by fourteen percent over the next
18
2 2
decade, yet the expected growth rate for librarians is 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
predicted to be only seven percent, or half of the overall A) NO CHANGE
B) have
rate. This trend, combined with the increasing
C) which have
accessibility of information via the Internet, 3 has led
D) which has
some to claim that librarianship is in decline as a
profession. As public libraries adapt to rapid 4
technological advances in information distribution, At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following information.
librarians’ roles are actually expanding.
—e-books, audio and video materials, and online
The share of library materials that is in nonprint journals—
formats 4 is increasing steadily; in 2010, at least Should the writer make this addition here?
18.5 million e-books were available 5 for them to A) Yes, because it provides specific examples of the
materials discussed in the sentence.
circulate. As a result, librarians must now be proficient
B) Yes, because it illustrates the reason for the
curators of electronic information, compiling, increase mentioned later in the sentence.
6 catalog, and updating these collections. But perhaps C) No, because it interrupts the flow of the sentence
by supplying irrelevant information.
even more importantly, librarians function as first D) No, because it weakens the focus of the passage
responders for their communities’ computer needs. Since by discussing a subject other than librarians.
5
A) NO CHANGE
B) to be circulated by them.
C) for their circulating.
D) for circulation.
6
A) NO CHANGE
B) librarians cataloging,
C) to catalog,
D) cataloging,
2 2
one of the fastest growing library services is public access 7
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
computer use, there is great demand for computer Which choice most effectively combines the
underlined sentences?
instruction. 7 In fact, librarians’ training now includes
A) In fact, librarians’ training now includes courses
courses on research and Internet search methods. Many on research and Internet search methods; many
librarians teach classes in Internet navigation,
of whom teach classes in Internet navigation, database database and software use, and digital
and software use, and digital information literacy. While information literacy is taught by them.
B) In fact, many librarians, whose training now
these classes are particularly helpful to young students includes courses on research and Internet search
developing basic research skills, 8 but adult patrons can methods, teach classes in Internet navigation,
database and software use, and digital
also benefit from librarian assistance in that they can acquire information literacy.
job-relevant computer skills. 9 Free to all who utilize C) Training now includes courses on research and
Internet search methods; many librarians, in
their services, public libraries and librarians are especially fact, are teaching classes in Internet navigation,
database and software use, and digital
valuable, because they offer free resources that may be information literacy.
difficult to find elsewhere, such as help with online job D) Including courses on research and Internet
search methods in their training is, in fact,
why many librarians teach classes in Internet
navigation, database and software use, and
digital information literacy.
8
A) NO CHANGE
B) and
C) for
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
9
Which choice most effectively sets up the examples
given at the end of the sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) During periods of economic recession,
C) Although their value cannot be measured,
D) When it comes to the free services libraries
provide,
20 CO NTI N U E
2 2
searches as well as résumé and job material development. 10
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
An overwhelming number of public libraries also report A) NO CHANGE
B) legal issues,
that they provide help with electronic government
C) concerns related to law courts,
resources related to income taxes, 10 law troubles, and
D) matters for the law courts,
retirement programs.
In sum, the Internet does not replace the need for 11
librarians, and librarians are hardly obsolete. 11 Like Which choice most clearly ends the passage with a
restatement of the writer’s primary claim?
books, librarians have been around for a long time, but
A) NO CHANGE
the Internet is extremely useful for many types of B) Although their roles have diminished
research. significantly, librarians will continue to be
employed by public libraries for the foreseeable
future.
C) The growth of electronic information has led to a
diversification of librarians’ skills and services,
positioning them as savvy resource specialists for
patrons.
D) However, given their extensive training and
skills, librarians who have been displaced by
budget cuts have many other possible avenues
of employment.
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
Tiny Exhibit, Big Impact B) For instance,
—1— C) However,
D) Similarly,
The first time I visited the Art Institute of Chicago,
I expected to be impressed by its famous large paintings.
13
12 On one hand, I couldn’t wait to view 13 painter, A) NO CHANGE
Georges Seurat’s, 10-foot-wide A Sunday Afternoon on B) painter, Georges Seurat’s
the Island of La Grande Jatte in its full size. It took me by C) painter Georges Seurat’s,
D) painter Georges Seurat’s
surprise, then, when my favorite exhibit at the museum
was one of 14 it’s tiniest; the Thorne Miniature Rooms.
14
A) NO CHANGE
B) its tiniest;
C) its tiniest:
D) it’s tiniest,
22 CO NTI N U E
2 2
—2— 15
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Viewing the exhibit, I was amazed by the intricate At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
details of some of the more ornately decorated rooms.
Some scholars argue that the excesses of
I marveled at a replica of a salon (a formal living room) King Louis XV’s reign contributed
significantly to the conditions that resulted
dating back to the reign of French king Louis XV.
in the French Revolution.
15 Built into the dark paneled walls are bookshelves Should the writer make this addition here?
stocked with leather-bound volumes. The couch and A) Yes, because it provides historical context for the
Thorne Miniature Rooms exhibit.
chairs, in keeping with the style of the time, are
B) Yes, because it explains why salons are often
characterized by elegantly curved arms and 16 legs, they ornately decorated.
are covered in luxurious velvet. A dime-sized portrait of a C) No, because it interrupts the paragraph’s
description of the miniature salon.
French aristocratic woman hangs in a golden frame.
D) No, because it implies that the interior designer
—3— of the salon had political motivations.
This exhibit showcases sixty-eight miniature rooms
inserted into a wall at eye level. Each furnished room 16
A) NO CHANGE
consists of three walls; the fourth wall is a glass pane
B) legs, the couch and chairs
through which museumgoers observe. The rooms and
C) legs and
their furnishings were painstakingly created to scale at D) legs,
1/12th their actual size, so that one inch in the exhibit
correlates with one foot in real life. A couch, for example, 17
is seven inches long, and 17 that is based on a Which choice gives a second supporting example
that is most similar to the example already in the
seven-foot-long couch. Each room represents a sentence?
distinctive style of European, American, or Asian interior A) NO CHANGE
B) a tea cup is about a quarter of an inch.
design from the thirteenth to twentieth centuries.
C) there are even tiny cushions on some.
D) household items are also on this scale.
2 2
—4— 18
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The plainer rooms are more sparsely 18 furnished. Which choice most effectively combines the
sentences at the underlined portion?
Their architectural features, furnishings, and decorations
A) furnished by their
are just as true to the periods they represent. One of my B) furnished, but their
favorite rooms in the whole exhibit, in fact, is an 1885 C) furnished: their
summer kitchen. The room is simple but spacious, with a D) furnished, whereas
small sink and counter along one wall, a cast-iron wood

19
stove and some hanging pots and pans against another
Which choice most closely matches the stylistic
wall, and 19 a small table under a window of the third pattern established earlier in the sentence?
wall. Aside from a few simple wooden chairs placed near A) NO CHANGE
the edges of the room, the floor is open and obviously B) a small table is under the third wall’s window.
C) the third wall has a window and small table.
well worn.
D) the third wall has a small table against it and a
window.
24 CO NTI N U E
2 2
—5— 20
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
As I walked through the exhibit, I overheard a A) NO CHANGE
B) visitors remarking,
20 visitors’ remark, “You know, that grandfather clock
C) visitor remarked,
actually runs. Its glass door swings open, and the clock
D) visitor remark,
can be wound up.” 21 Dotted with pin-sized knobs,
another visitor noticed my fascination with a tiny writing 21
desk and its drawers. “All of those little drawers pull out. A) NO CHANGE
B) Another visitor, dotted with pin-sized knobs,
And you see that hutch? Can you believe it has a secret
noticed my fascination with a tiny writing desk
compartment?” Given the exquisite craftsmanship and and its drawers.
C) Another visitor dotted with pin-sized knobs
level of detail I’d already seen, I certainly could.
noticed my fascination with a tiny writing desk
and its drawers.
D) Another visitor noticed my fascination with a
Question 22 asks about the previous passage as a tiny writing desk and its drawers, dotted with
whole. pin-sized knobs.
Think about the previous passage as a whole as you

answer question 22.
22
To make the passage most logical, paragraph 2
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after paragraph 3.
C) after paragraph 4.
D) after paragraph 5.
2 2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage 23
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
B) living along the West Coast of North America,
Environmentalist Otters they help
C) that live along the West Coast of North America
It has long been known that the sea otters 23 living
and help to
along the West Coast of North America help keep kelp D) that live along the West Coast of North America,
where they help
forests in their habitat healthy and vital. They do this by
feeding on sea urchins and other herbivorous
24
invertebrates that graze voraciously on kelp. With sea
Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the
otters to keep the population of sea urchins in check, kelp data in the chart?
forests can flourish. In fact, 24 two years or less of sea A) NO CHANGE
B) even two years or less of sea otter presence can
otters can completely eliminate sea urchins in a coastal reduce the sea urchin threat
area (see chart). C) kelp density increases proportionally as sea
urchin density increases
Effects of Sea Otter Presence on Kelp D) even after sea otters were present for ten years or
and Sea Urchin Density in Coastal Areas more, kelp density was still lower than sea urchin
60 density
(number per square meter)
50 sea urchins
kelp
40 25
Density
A) NO CHANGE
30
B) however,
20 C) hence,
10 D) likewise,
0
no otters otters present otters present
present for 2 years for 10 years
or less or more
Coastal area
Adapted from David O. Duggins, “Kelp Beds and Sea Otters: An
Experimental Approach.” ©1980 by the Ecological Society of America.
Without sea otters present, 25 nevertheless, kelp forests

run the danger of becoming barren stretches of coastal
wasteland known as urchin barrens.
26 CO NTI N U E
2 2
[1] What was less well-known, until recently at least, 26
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
was how this relationship among sea otters, sea urchins, At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following information.
and kelp forests might help fight global warming. [2] The
since the start of the Industrial Revolution,
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has resulting in a rise in global temperatures
increased 40 percent 26 . [3] A recent study by two Should the writer make this addition here?
professors at the University of California, Santa Cruz, A) Yes, because it establishes the relationship
between the level of carbon dioxide in the
Chris Wilmers and James Estes, 27 suggests, that kelp atmosphere and global warming.
forests protected by sea otters can absorb as much as B) Yes, because it explains the key role sea otters,
sea urchins, and kelp forests play in combating
twelve times the amount of carbon dioxide from the global warming.
atmosphere as those where sea urchins are allowed to C) No, because it contradicts the claim made in the
previous paragraph that sea otters help keep kelp
28 devour the kelp. [4] Like 29 their terrestrial plant
forests healthy.
cousins, kelp removes carbon dioxide from the D) No, because it mentions the Industrial
Revolution, blurring the focus of the paragraph.
atmosphere, turning it into sugar fuel through
photosynthesis, and releases oxygen back into the air.
27
A) NO CHANGE
B) suggests—that
C) suggests, “that
D) suggests that
28
A) NO CHANGE
B) dispatch
C) overindulge on
D) dispose of
29
A) NO CHANGE
B) they’re
C) its
D) it’s
2 2
[5] Scientists knew this but did not recognize 30 how 30
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
large a role they played in helping kelp forests to A) NO CHANGE
B) how large a role that it played
significantly decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in
C) how large a role sea otters played
the atmosphere. [6] Far from making no difference to the
D) that they played such a large role
ecosystem, the presence of otters was found to increase
the carbon storage of kelp forests by 4.4 to 8.7 megatons 31
annually, offsetting the amount of carbon dioxide Where is the most logical place in this paragraph to
add the following sentence?
emitted by three million to six million passenger cars
What Wilmers and Estes discovered in their
each year. 31 study, therefore, surprised them.
Wilmers and Estes caution, however, that 32 having A) After sentence 1
more otters will not automatically solve the problem of B) After sentence 3
C) After sentence 4
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the air. But they suggest
D) After sentence 5
that the presence of otters provides a good model of how
carbon can be sequestered, 33 or removed; from the
32
atmosphere through the management of animal A) NO CHANGE
populations. If ecologists can better understand what B) increasing the otter population
C) the otters multiplying
kinds of impacts animals might have on the environment,
D) having more otters than other locations
Wilmers contends, “there might be opportunities for
win-win conservation scenarios, whereby animal species
33
are protected or enhanced, and carbon gets sequestered.” A) NO CHANGE
B) or removed from,
C) or, removed from,
D) or removed, from
28 CO NTI N U E
2 2
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
A Quick Fix in a Throwaway Culture B) from which
C) so that
Planned obsolescence, a practice 34 at which
D) whereby
products are designed to have a limited period of
35 usefulness, has been a cornerstone of manufacturing
35
strategy for the past 80 years. This approach increases A) NO CHANGE
sales, but it also stands in 36 austere contrast to a time B) usefulness—
when goods were produced to be durable. Planned C) usefulness;
D) usefulness
obsolescence wastes materials as well as energy in making
and shipping new products. It also reinforces the belief
36
that it is easier to replace goods than to mend them, as A) NO CHANGE
repair shops are rare and 37 repair methods are often B) egregious
specialized. In 2009, an enterprising movement, the C) unmitigated
D) stark
Repair Café, challenged this widely accepted belief.
37
Which choice provides information that best
supports the claim made by this sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) obsolete goods can become collectible items.
C) no one knows whether something will fall into
disrepair again.
D) new designs often have “bugs” that must be
worked out.
2 2
[1] More like a 38 fair then an actual café, the first 38
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Repair Café took place in Amsterdam, the Netherlands. A) NO CHANGE
B) fair than
[2] It was the brainchild of former journalist Martine
C) fare than
Postma, 39 wanting to take a practical stand in a
D) fair, then
throwaway culture. [3] Her goals were
40 straightforward, however: reduce waste, maintain 39
and perpetuate knowledge and skills, and strengthen A) NO CHANGE
community. [4] Participants bring all manner of B) whom wants

C) who wanted
damaged articles—clothing, appliances, furniture, and
D) she wanted
more—to be repaired by a staff of volunteer specialists
including tailors, electricians, and carpenters. [5] Since 40
the inaugural Repair Café, others have been hosted in A) NO CHANGE
theater foyers, community centers, hotels, and B) straightforward, therefore:
C) straightforward, nonetheless:
auditoriums. [6] While 41 they await for service, patrons
D) straightforward:
can enjoy coffee and snacks and mingle with their
neighbors in need. 42 41
A) NO CHANGE
B) awaiting
C) they waited
D) waiting
42
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) before sentence 1.
C) after sentence 3.
D) after sentence 6.
30 CO NTI N U E
2 2
Though only about 3 percent of the Netherlands’ 43
..............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
municipal waste ends up in landfills, Repair Cafés still At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
raise awareness about what may otherwise be mindless
As the number of corporate and service-based
acts of waste by providing a venue for people to share and jobs has increased, the need for people who work
learn valuable skills that are in danger of being lost. 43 It with their hands has diminished.
Should the writer make this addition here?
is easy to classify old but fixable items as “junk” in an era
A) Yes, because it provides an example of specific
that places great emphasis on the next big thing. In repair skills being lost.
helping people consider how the goods they use on a B) Yes, because it elaborates on the statistic about
the Netherlands’ municipal waste.
daily basis work and are made, Repair Cafés restore a
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus by
sense of relationship between human beings and material introducing a topic that is not further explained.
goods. D) No, because it contradicts the claims made in the
rest of the paragraph.
Though the concept remained a local trend at first,
international Repair Cafés, all affiliated with the Dutch
44
Repair Café via its website, have since arisen in France, A) NO CHANGE
Germany, South Africa, the United States, and other B) in addition.
C) likewise.
countries 44 on top of that. The original provides a
D) DELETE the underlined portion, and end the
central source for start-up tips and tools, as well as sentence with a period.
marketing advice to new Repair Cafés. As a result, the
Repair Café has become a global network united by
common ideals. Ironically, innovators are now looking
back to old ways of doing things and applying them in
today’s cities in an effort to transform the way people
relate to and think about the goods they consume.
STOP

3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w

V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
32 CO NTI N U E
3 3
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1 3
If 5x + 6 = 10 , what is the value of 10x + 3 ? A landscaping company estimates the price of a job,
A) 4 in dollars, using the expression 60 + 12nh , where n
is the number of landscapers who will be working
B) 9
and h is the total number of hours the job will take
C) 11
using n landscapers. Which of the following is the
D) 20 best interpretation of the number 12 in the
expression?
A) The company charges $12 per hour for each
landscaper.
B) A minimum of 12 landscapers will work on
each job.
C) The price of every job increases by
2 $12 every hour.
x+y =0 D) Each landscaper works 12 hours a day.
3x − 2y = 10
Which of the following ordered pairs (x, y ) satisfies
the system of equations above?
A) (3, −2)
B) (2, −2)
C) (−2, 2) 4
D) (−2, −2) 9a4 + 12a2b 2 + 4b4
Which of the following is equivalent to the
expression shown above?
2
A) (3a2 + 2b 2)
B) (3a + 2b)4
2
C) (9a2 + 4b 2)
D) (9a + 4b)4
3 3
5 7
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
2
2k 2 + 17 − x = 0 xa
If = x16 , x > 1, and a + b = 2, what is the value
b2
If k > 0 and x = 7 in the equation above, what is the x
value of k ?
of a − b ?
A) 2
B) 3 A) 8
C) 4 B) 14
D) 5 C) 16
D) 18
6
y 8
nA = 360
(0, 2) k The measure A, in degrees, of an exterior angle of a
x regular polygon is related to the number of sides, n,
(– 5, 0) O ( p, 0)
of the polygon by the formula above. If the measure
of an exterior angle of a regular polygon is greater
than 50° , what is the greatest number of sides it
(0, – 4)
can have?
A) 5
In the xy-plane above, line A is parallel to line k. B) 6
What is the value of p ?
C) 7
A) 4 D) 8
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
34 CO NTI N U E
3 3
9 11
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The graph of a line in the xy-plane has slope 2 and
Which of the following complex numbers is
contains the point (1, 8). The graph of a second line
passes through the points (1, 2) and (2, 1). If the 3 − 5i
equivalent to ? (Note: i = −1 )
two lines intersect at the point (a, b), what is the 8 + 2i
value of a + b ? 3 5i
A) −
A) 4 8 2
B) 3 3 5i
B) +
8 2
C) −1
7 23i
D) −4 C) −
34 34
7 23i
D) +
34 34
10
Which of the following equations has a graph in the
xy-plane for which y is always greater than or equal
to −1 ? 12
F
A) y = x − 2 R=
N+F
B) y = x 2 − 2 A website uses the formula above to calculate a
seller’s rating, R, based on the number of favorable
C) y = (x − 2)2
reviews, F, and unfavorable reviews, N. Which of
D) y = x 3 − 2 the following expresses the number of favorable
reviews in terms of the other variables?
RN
A) F =
R−1
RN
B) F =
1−R
N
C) F =
1−R
N
D) F =
R−1
3 3
13 15
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
What is the sum of all values of m that satisfy 5x − 2
The expression is equivalent to which of the
2m2 − 16m + 8 = 0 ? x+3
following?
A) −8
B) −4 3 5−2
A)
3
C) 4 3
D) 8 2
B) 5 −
3
2
C) 5 −
x+3
17
D) 5 −
x+3
14
A radioactive substance decays at an annual rate of
13 percent. If the initial amount of the substance is
325 grams, which of the following functions f
models the remaining amount of the substance, in
grams, t years later?
A) f (t ) = 325(0.87)t
B) f (t ) = 325(0.13)t
C) f (t ) = 0.87(325)t
D) f (t ) = 0.13(325)t
36 CO NTI N U E
3 3
7
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 16–20, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.
3 3
16 18
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The sales manager of a company awarded a total of C D
$3000 in bonuses to the most productive salespeople.
The bonuses were awarded in amounts of $250 or 5
$750. If at least one $250 bonus and at least one $750 B
bonus were awarded, what is one possible number of
$250 bonuses awarded?
10 8
A E
In the figure above, AE & CD and segment AD

17 intersects segment CE at B. What is the length of
segment CE ?
2x(3x + 5) + 3(3x + 5) = ax 2 + bx + c
In the equation above, a, b, and c are constants. If
the equation is true for all values of x, what is the
value of b ?
38
3 3
19 20
........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
y ax + by = 12
2x + 8y = 60
In the system of equations above, a and b are
A (√3, 1) constants. If the system has infinitely many

a
x solutions, what is the value of ?
O B b
In the xy-plane above, O is the center of the circle,

π
and the measure of ∠AOB is radians. What is
a
the value of a ?
STOP

4 4
Math Test – Calculator
For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = w 1
2
C = 2pr
h r r h h
h
w r w

V = wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 wh
3 3 3
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
40
4 4
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1 3
A musician has a new song available for A = 24 + 3.5m
downloading or streaming. The musician earns
$0.09 each time the song is downloaded and $0.002 One end of a spring is attached to a ceiling. When an
each time the song is streamed. Which of the object of mass m kilograms is attached to the other
following expressions represents the amount, in end of the spring, the spring stretches to a length of
dollars, that the musician earns if the song is A centimeters as shown in the equation above. What
downloaded d times and streamed s times? is m when A is 73 ?
A) 0.002d + 0.09s A) 14
B) 0.002d − 0.09s B) 27.7
C) 73
C) 0.09d + 0.002s
D) 279.5
D) 0.09d − 0.002s
2
A quality control manager at a factory selects
7 lightbulbs at random for inspection out of every
400 lightbulbs produced. At this rate, how many
lightbulbs will be inspected if the factory produces
20,000 lightbulbs?
A) 300
B) 350
C) 400
D) 450
4 4
▼ 6
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Questions 4 and 5 refer to the following information.
When 4 times the number x is added to 12, the
The amount of money a performer earns is directly result is 8. What number results when 2 times x is
proportional to the number of people attending the added to 7 ?
performance. The performer earns $120 at a
performance where 8 people attend. A) −1
B) 5
4 C) 8
D) 9
How much money will the performer earn when
20 people attend a performance?
A) $960
B) $480
C) $300
D) $240
7
y = x 2 − 6x + 8
The equation above represents a parabola in the
xy-plane. Which of the following equivalent forms of
the equation displays the x-intercepts of the parabola
as constants or coefficients?
5
The performer uses 43% of the money earned to pay A) y − 8 = x 2 − 6x
the costs involved in putting on each performance.
B) y + 1 = (x − 3)2
The rest of the money earned is the performer’s
profit. What is the profit the performer makes at a C) y = x(x − 6) + 8
performance where 8 people attend? D) y = (x − 2)(x − 4)
A) $51.60
B) $57.00
C) $68.40
D) $77.00
42
4 4
8 10
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
In a video game, each player starts the game with A function f satisfies f (2) = 3 and f (3) = 5. A
k points and loses 2 points each time a task is not function g satisfies g(3) = 2 and g(5) = 6 . What is
completed. If a player who gains no additional the value of f ( g (3)) ?
points and fails to complete 100 tasks has a score of
200 points, what is the value of k ? A) 2
A) 0 B) 3
B) 150 C) 5
C) 250 D) 6
D) 400
11
9 Number of hours Tony plans to read the
A worker uses a forklift to move boxes that weigh novel per day 3
either 40 pounds or 65 pounds each. Let x be the Number of parts in the novel 8
number of 40-pound boxes and y be the number of Number of chapters in the novel 239
65-pound boxes. The forklift can carry up to either Number of words Tony reads per minute 250
45 boxes or a weight of 2,400 pounds. Which of the Number of pages in the novel 1,078
following systems of inequalities represents this Number of words in the novel 349,168
relationship?
Tony is planning to read a novel. The table above
⎪⎧ 40x + 65y ≤ 2,400 shows information about the novel, Tony’s reading
A) ⎪⎨ speed, and the amount of time he plans to spend
⎪⎪⎩ x + y ≤ 45
reading the novel each day. If Tony reads at the rates
given in the table, which of the following is closest to
⎪⎧⎪ x + y ≤ 2,400 the number of days it would take Tony to read the
B) ⎪ ⎨ 40 65 entire novel?
⎪⎪ x + y ≤ 45
⎩⎪
A) 6
⎪⎧ 40x + 65y ≤ 45 B) 8
C) ⎪⎨ x + y ≤ 2,400
⎪⎪⎩ C) 23
D) 324
⎪⎧ x + y ≤ 2,400
D) ⎪⎨
⎪⎪⎩ 40x + 65y ≤ 2,400
4 4
12 14
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
On January 1, 2000, there were 175,000 tons of trash Miles Traveled by Air Passengers
in a landfill that had a capacity of 325,000 tons. Each in Country X, 1960 to 2005
year since then, the amount of trash in the landfill
Number of miles traveled

600
increased by 7,500 tons. If y represents the time, in
years, after January 1, 2000, which of the following 500
400
(billions)
inequalities describes the set of years where the
landfill is at or above capacity? 300
A) 325,000 − 7,500 ≤ y 200
100
B) 325,000 ≤ 7,500y
0
C) 150,000 ≥ 7,500y 1960 1970 1980 1990 2000 2010
D) 175,000 + 7,500y ≥ 325,000 Year
According to the line of best fit in the scatterplot

above, which of the following best approximates the
year in which the number of miles traveled by air
passengers in Country X was estimated to be
550 billion?
13 A) 1997
A researcher conducted a survey to determine B) 2000
whether people in a certain large town prefer C) 2003
watching sports on television to attending the
D) 2008
sporting event. The researcher asked 117 people who
visited a local restaurant on a Saturday, and 7 people
refused to respond. Which of the following factors
makes it least likely that a reliable conclusion can be
drawn about the sports-watching preferences of all
people in the town?
A) Sample size
B) Population size
C) The number of people who refused to respond
D) Where the survey was given
44
4 4
15 17
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The distance traveled by Earth in one orbit around The atomic weight of an unknown element, in
the Sun is about 580,000,000 miles. Earth makes atomic mass units (amu), is approximately 20% less
one complete orbit around the Sun in one year. Of than that of calcium. The atomic weight of calcium
the following, which is closest to the average speed of is 40 amu. Which of the following best approximates
Earth, in miles per hour, as it orbits the Sun? the atomic weight, in amu, of the unknown element?
A) 66,000 A) 8
B) 93,000 B) 20
C) 210,000 C) 32
D) 420,000 D) 48
16 18
Results on the Bar Exam of Law School Graduates A survey was taken of the value of homes in a county,
and it was found that the mean home value was
Passed Did not pass $165,000 and the median home value was $125,000.
bar exam bar exam Which of the following situations could explain the
difference between the mean and median home
Took review course 18 82 values in the county?
A) The homes have values that are close to each
Did not take other.
7 93
review course
B) There are a few homes that are valued much less
than the rest.
The table above summarizes the results of 200 law C) There are a few homes that are valued much
school graduates who took the bar exam. If one of more than the rest.
the surveyed graduates who passed the bar exam is D) Many of the homes have values between
chosen at random for an interview, what is the $125,000 and $165,000.
probability that the person chosen did not take the
review course?
18
A)
25
7
B)
25
25
C)
200
7
D)
200
4 4
▼ 20
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Questions 19 and 20 refer to the following
information. Based on the survey data, which of the following
most accurately compares the expected total number
A sociologist chose 300 students at random from each of of students with 4 siblings at the two schools?
two schools and asked each student how many siblings he
or she has. The results are shown in the table below. A) The total number of students with 4 siblings is
expected to be equal at the two schools.
Students’ Sibling Survey
B) The total number of students with 4 siblings at
Number of Lincoln Washington Lincoln School is expected to be 30 more than at
siblings School School Washington School.
C) The total number of students with 4 siblings at
0 120 140 Washington School is expected to be 30 more
than at Lincoln School.
1 80 110
D) The total number of students with 4 siblings at
2 60 30 Washington School is expected to be 900 more
than at Lincoln School.
3 30 10
4 10 10
▲
There are a total of 2,400 students at Lincoln School and

3,300 students at Washington School.
19
What is the median number of siblings for all the
students surveyed? 21
A) 0 A project manager estimates that a project will take
B) 1 x hours to complete, where x > 100 . The goal is for
C) 2 the estimate to be within 10 hours of the time it will
actually take to complete the project. If the manager
D) 3
meets the goal and it takes y hours to complete the
project, which of the following inequalities
represents the relationship between the estimated
time and the actual completion time?
A) x + y < 10
B) y > x + 10
C) y < x − 10
D) −10 < y − x < 10
46
4 4
▼ 23
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
information. For the same signal emitted by a radio antenna,
Observer A measures its intensity to be 16 times the
P intensity measured by Observer B. The distance of
I=
4πr 2 Observer A from the radio antenna is what fraction
of the distance of Observer B from the radio
At a large distance r from a radio antenna, the intensity antenna?
of the radio signal I is related to the power of the
signal P by the formula above. 1
A)
4
22 1
B)
Which of the following expresses the square of the 16
distance from the radio antenna in terms of the 1
intensity of the radio signal and the power of the C)
64
signal?
1
IP
2 D)
A) r = 256
4π
P
B) r 2 = ▲
4πI
4πI
C) r 2 =
P
I
D) r 2 =
4πP
24
x 2 + y 2 + 4x − 2y = −1
The equation of a circle in the xy-plane is shown
above. What is the radius of the circle?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 9
4 4
25 27
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The graph of the linear function f has intercepts at 70 insulated
(a, 0) and (0, b) in the xy-plane. If a + b = 0 and 60 non-insulated
a ≠ b , which of the following is true about the slope
Temperature (°C)
50
of the graph of f ?
40
A) It is positive.
30
B) It is negative.
20
C) It equals zero.
10
D) It is undefined.
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70
Time (minutes)
Two samples of water of equal mass are heated to

60 degrees Celsius (°C ). One sample is poured into
an insulated container, and the other sample is
26
poured into a non-insulated container. The samples
y are then left for 70 minutes to cool in a room having
a temperature of 25°C . The graph above shows the
temperature of each sample at 10-minute intervals.
y = f (x) Which of the following statements correctly
compares the average rates at which the temperatures
1 of the two samples change?
x A) In every 10-minute interval, the magnitude of
O 1
the rate of change of temperature of the
insulated sample is greater than that of the
non-insulated sample.
B) In every 10-minute interval, the magnitude of
The complete graph of the function f is shown in the the rate of change of temperature of the
xy-plane above. Which of the following are non-insulated sample is greater than that of the
equal to 1 ? insulated sample.
I. f (−4) C) In the intervals from 0 to 10 minutes and from
10 to 20 minutes, the rates of change of
⎛3⎞ temperature of the insulated sample are of
II. f ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ greater magnitude, whereas in the intervals from
⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
40 to 50 minutes and from 50 to 60 minutes, the
III. f (3) rates of change of temperature of the
A) III only non-insulated sample are of greater magnitude.
B) I and III only D) In the intervals from 0 to 10 minutes and from
10 to 20 minutes, the rates of change of
C) II and III only temperature of the non-insulated sample are of
D) I, II, and III greater magnitude, whereas in the intervals from
40 to 50 minutes and from 50 to 60 minutes, the
rates of change of temperature of the insulated
sample are of greater magnitude.
48
4 4
28 29
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
y y=3
B y = ax 2 + b
6
In the system of equations above, a and b are
4 constants. For which of the following values of a
and b does the system of equations have exactly two
2 C real solutions?
E
x A) a = −2, b = 2
–6 –4 –2 2 4 6
A –2 B) a = −2, b = 4
C) a = 2, b = 4
–4
D) a = 4, b = 3
–6
D
In the xy-plane above, ABCD is a square and

point E is the center of the square. The coordinates
of points C and E are (7, 2) and (1, 0),
respectively. Which of the following is an equation 30
of the line that passes through points B and D ?
A) y = −3x − 1
B) y = −3(x − 1)
1
C) y = − x + 4
3
1 The figure above shows a regular hexagon with sides
D) y = − x − 1
3
of length a and a square with sides of length a. If
the area of the hexagon is 384 3 square inches,
what is the area, in square inches, of the square?
A) 256
B) 192
C) 64 3
D) 16 3
4 4
7
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.
4 4
31 33
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A coastal geologist estimates that a certain country’s In the xy-plane, the point (3, 6) lies on the graph of
beaches are eroding at a rate of 1.5 feet per year.
According to the geologist’s estimate, how long will it the function f (x ) = 3x 2 − bx + 12. What is the value
take, in years, for the country’s beaches to erode by of b ?
21 feet?
34
32
In one semester, Doug and Laura spent a combined
If h hours and 30 minutes is equal to 450 minutes, 250 hours in the tutoring lab. If Doug spent 40 more
what is the value of h ? hours in the lab than Laura did, how many hours did
Laura spend in the lab?
51
4 4
35 36
...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
a = 18t + 15 L
Jane made an initial deposit to a savings account.
Each week thereafter she deposited a fixed amount
to the account. The equation above models the 60° M
O
amount a, in dollars, that Jane has deposited after
t weekly deposits. According to the model, how
many dollars was Jane’s initial deposit? (Disregard N
the $ sign when gridding your answer.)
In the figure above, point O is the center of the

circle, line segments LM and MN are tangent to the
circle at points L and N, respectively, and the
segments intersect at point M as shown. If the
circumference of the circle is 96, what is the length of
p ?
minor arc LN
4 4
▼ 38
.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
information. The botanist would like to increase the number of
plants that the environment can support so that the
A botanist is cultivating a rare species of plant in a population of the species will increase more rapidly.
controlled environment and currently has 3000 of these If the botanist’s goal is that the number of plants will
increase from 3000 this year to 3360 next year, how
plants. The population of this species that the botanist
many plants must the modified environment
expects to grow next year, Nnext year , can be estimated support?
from the number of plants this year, Nthis year , by the
equation below.
▲
⎛ Nthis year ⎞
(
Nnext year = Nthis year + 0.2 Nthis year ⎜⎜1 −
⎜⎜⎝ K ) ⎟⎟
⎟⎟
⎠
The constant K in this formula is the number of plants
the environment is able to support.
37
According to the formula, what will be the number of
plants two years from now if K = 4000 ? (Round
your answer to the nearest whole number.)
STOP
53
54
The SAT
®
with Essay
Practice
Essay 2#
Make Time to Take the Practice Essay

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively
you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay
analyzing the passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate
that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and
logical analysis, and use language precisely.
You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.
For information on scoring your essay, view the SAT Essay

scoring rubric at sat.org/essay.
2018-19 SAT Practice Test 55

As you read the passage below, consider how Martin Luther King Jr. uses
• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.

• reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion,
to add power to the ideas expressed.
Adapted from Martin Luther King Jr., “Beyond Vietnam—A Time to Break
Silence.” The speech was delivered at Riverside Church in New York City on
April 4, 1967.
1 Since I am a preacher by calling, I suppose it is not surprising that I have . . . major

reasons for bringing Vietnam into the field of my moral vision. There is at the outset
a very obvious and almost facile connection between the war in Vietnam and the
struggle I, and others, have been waging in America. A few years ago there was a
shining moment in that struggle. It seemed as if there was a real promise of hope for
the poor—both black and white—through the poverty program. There were
experiments, hopes, new beginnings. Then came the buildup in Vietnam, and I
watched this program broken and eviscerated, as if it were some idle political
plaything of a society gone mad on war, and I knew that America would never invest
the necessary funds or energies in rehabilitation of its poor so long as adventures like
Vietnam continued to draw men and skills and money like some demonic destructive
suction tube. So, I was increasingly compelled to see the war as an enemy of the poor
and to attack it as such.
2 Perhaps a more tragic recognition of reality took place when it became clear to me
that the war was doing far more than devastating the hopes of the poor at home. It
was sending their sons and their brothers and their husbands to fight and to die in
extraordinarily high proportions relative to the rest of the population. We were
taking the black young men who had been crippled by our society and sending them
eight thousand miles away to guarantee liberties in Southeast Asia which they had
not found in southwest Georgia and East Harlem. And so we have been repeatedly
faced with the cruel irony of watching Negro and white boys on TV screens as they
kill and die together for a nation that has been unable to seat them together in the
same schools. And so we watch them in brutal solidarity burning the huts of a poor
village, but we realize that they would hardly live on the same block in Chicago. I
could not be silent in the face of such cruel manipulation of the poor.
56 2018–2019 SAT Practice Test T

3 My [next] reason moves to an even deeper level of awareness, for it grows out of my
experience in the ghettoes of the North over the last three years—especially the last
three summers. As I have walked among the desperate, rejected, and angry young
men, I have told them that Molotov cocktails1 and rifles would not solve their
problems. I have tried to offer them my deepest compassion while maintaining my
conviction that social change comes most meaningfully through nonviolent action.
But they ask—and rightly so—what about Vietnam? They ask if our own nation
wasn't using massive doses of violence to solve its problems, to bring about the
changes it wanted. Their questions hit home, and I knew that I could never again
raise my voice against the violence of the oppressed in the ghettos without having
first spoken clearly to the greatest purveyor of violence in the world today—my own
government. For the sake of those boys, for the sake of this government, for the sake
of the hundreds of thousands trembling under our violence, I cannot be silent.
4 For those who ask the question, “Aren't you a civil rights leader?” and thereby mean
to exclude me from the movement for peace, I have this further answer. In 1957
when a group of us formed the Southern Christian Leadership Conference, we chose
as our motto: “To save the soul of America.” We were convinced that we could not
limit our vision to certain rights for black people, but instead affirmed the conviction
that America would never be free or saved from itself until the descendants of its
slaves were loosed completely from the shackles they still wear. . . . Now, it should be
incandescently clear that no one who has any concern for the integrity and life of
America today can ignore the present war. If America’s soul becomes totally
poisoned, part of the autopsy must read: Vietnam. It can never be saved so long as it
destroys the deepest hopes of men the world over. So it is that those of us who are yet
determined that America will be are led down the path of protest and dissent,
working for the health of our land.
Write an essay in which you explain how Martin Luther King Jr. builds an
argument to persuade his audience that American involvement in the
Vietnam War is unjust. In your essay, analyze how King uses one or more of the
features listed in the box above (or features of your own choice) to strengthen
the logic and persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis
focuses on the most relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with King’s claims, but
rather explain how King builds an argument to persuade his audience.
1 A crude bomb made from glass bottles filled with flammable liquids and topped with wicks
2018-19 SAT Practice Test 57

SAT PRACTICE ANSWER SHEET
It is recommended that you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the
EXAMPLES OF entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase as completely
COMPLETE MARK
INCOMPLETE MARKS as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.
TEST NUMBER SECTION 1
ENTER TEST A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
NUMBER 1 14 27 40
For instance, for Practice
Test #1, fill in the circle A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
for 0 in the first column 2 15 28 41
and for 1 in the second
column. A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
3 16 29 42
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
4 17 30 43
0 A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 5 18 31 44
3 6 19 32 45
5 7 20 33 46
7 8 21 34 47
9 9 22 35 48
10 23 36 49
11 24 37 50
12 25 38 51
13 26 39 52
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Learn more at sat.org/scoring.
59
COMPLETE MARK
SECTION 2
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 10 19 28 37
2 11 20 29 38
3 12 21 30 39
4 13 22 31 40
5 14 23 32 41
6 15 24 33 42
7 16 25 34 43
8 17 26 35 44
9 18 27 36
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60
COMPLETE MARK
SECTION 3
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3 6 9 12 15
Only answers that are gridded will be scored. You will not receive credit for anything written in the boxes.
16 17 18 19 20
/ / / / /
. . . . .
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9
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61
COMPLETE MARK
SECTION 4
1 7 13 19 25
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3 9 15 21 27
4 10 16 22 28
5 11 17 23 29
6 12 18 24 30
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ALLOWED
If you’re using our mobile app, keep in mind that bad lighting
and even shadows cast over the answer sheet can affect your
score. Be sure to scan this in a well-lit area for best results.
62
COMPLETE MARK
SECTION 4 (Continued)
31 32 33 34 35
/ / / / /
. . . . .
0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9
36 37 38
/ / /
. . .
0 0 0
1 1 1
2 2 2
3 3 3
4 4 4
CALCULATOR
5 5 5 ALLOWED
6 6 6
7 7 7
8 8 8
9 9 9
63
Show up ready Watch over 200 videos, and take 20 practice
tests covering all 5 subject areas. They’re great
on test day. refreshers to help you get ready for the SAT
Subject Tests™.
satsubjecttests.org/practice
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Using This Guide

heart of education. It measures:

  What you learn in high school. Practice for the SAT

training. to give you free, personalized practice you can access

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Take the SAT on paper to simulate test day. Then take a

4 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

look for students who match a range of factors—such as Fee Waivers

Board’s college planning website, BigFuture™. about this at cssprofile.collegeboard.org.

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  Cell phones or smartphones (phones and wearable

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How the SAT Is Scored

SAT Score Reported Details Score Range

Total Score Sum of the two section scores 400–1600

Essay Scores (3) Reading, Analysis, and Writing 2–8

Score Reporting institutions receiving your results. Colleges consider your

8 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 9

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Evidence-Based Reading and Writing

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 11

Reading Test Questions

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1 Choice D is incorrect because although the first two

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s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 15

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A) an idealist setting forth principles. Estimated Difficulty: Medium Key: A

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 17

18 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

What You’ll Read Analysis in History/Social Studies and in Science

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 19

Writing and Language Test Questions

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each

20 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

Estimated Difficulty: Easy Key: D Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: B

Choice D is the best answer because the phrase

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 21

22 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 23

he or she were employed in a rural area and asked 9

24 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

Estimated Difficulty: Hard Key: A

Choice A is the best answer because it effectively

s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 25

Math Test Overview Applications

26 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide

  Models that can access

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Math Test – No Calculator Questions

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

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s 2018–2019 SAT Student Guide 29

Choice B is incorrect; it displays the y-value of the

Choice D is incorrect; it displays the x-value of one of

4 or are related by the equation sin ( x ) = cos ( p2 - x ) .

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What you learn in high school. Practice for the SAT

Cell phones or smartphones (phones and wearable

Models that can access