 1.

Anatomy

- Pictures of arteries:facial artery and transverse facial artery(branch of superficial temporal artery) and facial muscles,tongue muscles
- Diagram of hyoid bone
- Cranial nerves
- Blood supply parotid gland and type of saliva: serous.Superfacial temporal and tranverse facial from facial artery(branches of external
carotid artery.
- Nerve supply from muscle involved on swelling:genioglossus,styloglossus,hyioglossus(12th cranial nerve).tenser velipalatini(5th n it
originates from scaphoid fossa of sphenoid and auditory tube n attaches at palatini aponeuroses,supplied )levator veli palatini 11th nerve.
- Lots of questions about damage of the cranial nerves, specially related to the eyes (Scully)
- Nerve supply Muscle Levator Palatine: pharyngeal plexus11th nerve
- Function and innervations of the tongue muscle (extrinsic)
- Rx to identify sinuses
- Muscle of the soft palate:tensor veli palatini.levator veli palatini,palatoglossus,palatopharyngeus,musculus uveoli
- Anatomy of cranial nerves,inervation-especially tongue
- Nerve passing through optic canal
- Questions on muscles in the floor of the mouth,mylohyoid and geniohyoid
- Questions on tongue musculature, their nerve supply and movements
- Muscles involved in snoring-musculus uvula
- Eye muscles and their nerve suppl y
- Muscle attached to the auditory tube-tensor tympani,levator paltini,tensor veli paltini,salpingophryngeas
- Questions about small arterioles, terminal arterioles, venules, capillaries, lymphatic vessels
- Structures passing through parotid gland:parotid lymph nodes,5 branche s of facial nerve.retromandibular vein,superficial tempora and
maxillary artery.
- Muscle involved in closing the oropharyngeal isthmus-palatoglossus
- Nerve supplying skin over forehead-opthalmic
- Type of saliva secreted by the glands
- Branch of superficial temporal artery-ant..which anastomose with supratrochlear and supraorbital of opthalmic artery.frontal and
parietal.tranverse facial artery.middle temporal artery.
- Something about jugular venous pressure
- Where does the duct of the parotid gland open?upper second molar
- Name of area behind the mandibular 3rd molar-retromolar
- A lot of questions on eye muscles and their nerve supply

- Muscle attached to the auditory tube:Tensor tympani.tensor vali palatani,levator vali palatani,salpingopharnygeus
- A lot of questions on tongue musculature, their nerve supply and movements
- Nerve passing through optic canal- optic nerve
- Structures passing through parotid gland- nerve-facial, vein- retromandibular, artery- external carotid
- Type of saliva secreted by the glands- mucous, serous; also, if glands on one side are stimulated what will the response be like?
Options- bilateral, ipsilateral(correct), contralateral, etc.,

- Branch of superficial temporal artery- transverse facial,frontal and parietal,parotid,middle temporal,orbital,anterior auricular and middle
temporal

- Nerve supplying skin over forehead- Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve

- Questions on afferent and efferent lymphatics

- A lot of questions on muscles in the floor of the mouth

- Muscles involved in snoring
- Muscle involved in closing the oropharyngeal isthmus- palatoglossus
- indirect question on muscles of tongue, their supply and actions?

- emq on eye muscles supply and thier damage effects?

- emq on cranial nerve damage and their effects
- muscle involved in snoring ?uvula
- structure passing through parotid gland ?
- Lesion of a nerve in the cavernous sinus that supplies muscles to the eye and divides into two branches. What nerve is this?occulomotor

- While doing a third molar surgery the lingual nerve was damaged, what will this cause
a. The taste sensation to the tip of the tongue will be affected
b. The taste sensation to the tip of the tongue will be spared because it is supplied by the glosspharyngeal nerve.
c. The taste on the same side of the tongue will be lost-yes
- What is the parasympathetic supply to salivary glands?
a. Glosspharyngeal and facial-yes
b. Hypoglossal and facial
c. Glosspharyngeal and trigeminal
d. Facial and trigeminal

- Which nerve passes through the optic canal? – Optic nerve

- Which structure gives guidance to the placement of maxillary incisors – Incisive papilla
- What type of secretion is the parotid gland? – serous
- Where does the duct of the parotid gland open? – buccal to which tooth? – maxillary second molar
- Which nerve passes through the parotid gland? – facial nerve
- Which artery passes through the parotid gland? – external carotid artery
- Which vein passes near the base of the parotid gland? – retromandibular vein

- What area is present behind the mandibular third molars? – retromolar area
- Which is the branch of superficial temporal artery? – Transverse facial artery

- Which muscle is required to close the oro-pharyngeal isthmus? – Palatoglossu

- Mandibular nerves and its branches read which one is sensory and which one is
a motor branch.
- General sensory and taste sensation to tongue by which nerves.
- Facial nerve and its branches
- Parasympathetic supply of parotid gland?glossophyrangeal
- Ques. on Buccinator:buccal pjlange and Orbicularis Oris relating to denture.(associated with buccal frenum.recoprde as bucal
notch,they shd be considerded while taking impression)
- Nerve passing through foramen rotundum?maxillary
- Nerve supply to Temporalis muscle.mand br of trigeminal
- Anaesthetic for flap elevation for apicectomy on lateral incisor ? Anterior superior dental nerve..nasopalantine nerve block

– Nerve passing through nasopalatine canal (picture) ? Nasopalatine nerve

- Lingual muscles extrinsic and intrinsic ones shown and you have to select their names

- Head drawing showing superficial temporary artery or external carotid artery ( you have to know exactly where is the division of this
artery in its two terminal branches

- Facial muscles, there was a drawing and you have to recognise many of them; major zigomatic, depressor of angle of mouth,
orbicularis oris, levator labialis superiori and alae nasi.
- Diagram showing muscles of facial expression. Orbicularis oris, depressor anguli oris, levator labii superioris alaque nasi
- Diagram where hyoid bone was marked
- Diagram showing transverse facial artery, superficial temporal artery & facial artery
- Picture of an embryo marked with maxillary process & lateral nasal process
- Diagram of mucles showing geniohyoid, styloglossus, stylohyoid
- Nerve emerging from the incisive foramen. Nasopalatine nerve
- Which nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression? Nerve VII

- Arteries and veins to identify: retromandibular, external carotid, maxillary, facial, etc
- Nerve supply for salivary glands
- Bones and structures to identify: medial and lateral pterygoid plates, mastoid process, styloid process, incisive foramen, greater palatine
foramen,
ovale,rotundum spinosum foramen (what passes inside
- What muscles are attached to condyles,coronoid process,max tuberosity,ramus of mandible
- Lingual nerve
- Nerve supply to muscles
- Muscles of mastication, their origin, insertion etc.
- Facial nerve.5 branches on face,nerve to stapedius,greater perosal.chorda tympani
- Lingual nerve
- Parasympathetic supply of salivary glands.
- Cranial nerves just do the signs when they get damaged, especially, facial nerve, hypoglossal nerve,
- Muscles used in the process of swallowing.
- Do the nerve supply completely of face , teeth , tongue
- Origin & insertion of all muscles of mastication.
- Which muscle is responsible for moving food from the buccal sulcus in between
the teeth during mastication- Buccinator
- Which nerve is affected if a patient is unable to gaze laterally to the left
a)right abducens (b) left abducens (c)right trochlear (d)left trochlear
- Which nerve is affected if the tongue deviates to the right when protruded
a)right hypoglossal (b)left hypoglossal (c)right glossopharyngeal (d) left
glossopharyngeal
- Parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands is by
a)Vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves
b)facial and glossopharyngeal
c)facial and lingual

- CRANIAL NERVES AND BRANCHES

- MUSCLES OF THE MASTICATION AND FACIAL
- CRANIAL NERVES – many questions related to clinical manifestations after damage
- Drawing of mandible to identify muscles – mentalis, genioglossus, lateral pterygoid, buccinator
- Picture of skull to identify – infraorbital and mental foramina
- Maxilla and nerves pictures – identify nerves
- Skull – identify points (greater palatine foramen, foramen ovale, internal carotid foramen)

2.physio

-1 Action of glucagon :1)increases glycogen breakdown(true) 2) increases gluconeogenesis 3) increased sysnthesis of ketone and
ultimately
raises plasma glucose levels

-2 Stroke volume:end diastolic-end systolic,70ml and respiratory volumes :(stroke vol...volume of blood ejected from each ventricle
during systole)

- Hormones produced by pituitary:Ant lobe:Tsh,FSH,Msh,ACTH,GH,LH. Post lobe: ADh(vasopressin).oxytocin

,kidney and hypothalamus:
(Pituitary...MNEOMIC.GOAT FLAM...Growth hormone,Oxytocin,Anti diuretic i-e vasopressin,TSH
Foliclle stimulating hormone,Luteinizing hormone,Adrenocorticotropic hormone,Melanocyte stimulating hormone)

Hypothalamus (Oxytocin,vasopressin,gowth hormone releasing hormone,thyrotropin releasing hormone,corticotropin releasing

hormone,gonadotropin releasing hormone,dopamine,somatostatin)

kidneys : Erythropoietin ~ controls erythrocyte production by acting on bone marrow to increase RBCs production, Renin ~ controls
formation of angiotensin

which influences BP and sodium balance : i-e increases bp if it drops, 1,25-di hydroxyvitamin D3 aka Calcitrol ~ increases the level of
calcium in the blood

by (1) increasing the uptake of calcium from the gut into the blood, (2) decreasing the transfer of calcium from blood to the urine by the
kidney, and
(3) increasing the release of calcium into the blood from bone

- Cells in exocrine and endocrine cells like in apocrine glands etc and where they secrete their products
- Adrenal cortex hormones : cortisol,aldosterons,androgens
- Haemophilia types : Haemophilia A (def of fac VIII,anti haemophilic factor) Haem B (Fact IX def,christmas factor) Haem C ( def of
fact XI,plasma
thromboplastin atecedent)

- Questions about Membrane potentials, resting membrane potential-70mV, action potential, refractory, generation and propagation of
action potentials.

- Heart anatomy (valves)...Four Values,2 Aterio Ventricular (Tricuspid: b/w rt atrium and ventricle, Bicuspid aka Mitral:b/w left atrium
and ventricle)

2 semilunar (Aortic : b/w aorta and left ventricle, Pulmonary b/w rt vent and pulmonary artery)

- Circulation pressures (values)

- Lung volume and capacities:Lung volumes and lung capacities refer to the volume of air associated with different phases of the
respiratory cycletidal volume:500ml,expiratory reserve vol:1500ml,residual volume:1000,inspiratory reserve volume:3500ml.

- Rate of respiration per minute (adult and child)

Newborns: Average 44 breaths per minute
Infants: 40-60 breaths per minute
Preschool children: 20–30 breaths per minute
Older children: 16–25 breaths per minute
Adults: 12–20 breaths per minute
Adults during strenuous exercise 35–45 breaths per minute
Athletes' peak 60–70 breaths per minute

- Arteries and veins- their elasticity :arteries more elastic

- Lots of histology-striated muscle....cardiac and skeletal

- types of connections between cells...gap:transmits elrctrical signals,tight and desmosomes

- even basic cell biology

- Blood cells-types of anemia

- Some questions on hormones- addisons disease,(adrenal insufficiency)diabetes types I,II, insulin roll
- Tidal volume - definitions : volume of air inspired during single inspiration is equal to volume of air expired during subsequent
expiration called
Tidal volume.resting tidal volume is 500ml

- Hormone produced by the islet of Langerhans by the beta cells :Insulin

- Hormone produced in the adrenal cortex & which increases in stress :Cortisol
- If gland on one side are stimulated what will the response be like?
- Which one is responsible for buffering capacity in saliva?bicarbonate

- The average respiratory rate for adults and for children :adults 12-20,children 20-30

- Valve between right atrium and right ventricle-: tricuspid

- All-or-nothing” phenomenon : Refers to the phenomenon where the strength of a nerve impulse is not dependent on the strength of the
stimulus.(correct)
Instead, there is a threshold level of stimulus strength that must be reached before the nerve will fire an impulse (at full capacity). Below
the threshold, the nerve will not fire at all

- Potential at the SA node; options- saltatory, pacemaker, etc.,pacemaker 100 bpm

- Substance controlling Ca2+ metabolism : parathyroid hormone,calcitonin

- Most of the part from physio was from
Endocrine.. lot of things related to ACTH n corticosteroids....i mean cushing's syndrom n disease.....
- respi....pl dont forget to study tidal volm n all that stuff...they hav asked that many time in past even

- A lot of questions on lung capacities- respiratory volumes

- A lot of questions on physiology of arterioles and capillaries
- Percentage of blood that can be lost without causing hypovolemia- options- 5%, 10%, 20%9true), 40%, 50% :- 15-30 %

- Jugular venous pressure indicates what pressure? Options- left ventricular pressure, etc.
- Irreversible shock

- Potential at the SA node; options- saltatory, pacemaker, etc.,pacemaker

- Lots of questions on action potential and conduction through the myelinated nerves
- All or none phenomenon in conduction mechanism
- Principle substances controlling Ca2+ metabolism; options- calcitonin, PTH, Vitamin D, etc.,PTH

- Questions on various hormones like insulin, adrenal medullary and cortical hormones

- Respiratory rates in adults and children

- Definition of lung volumes (vital capacity inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve vol etc)
Vital capacity:maximal volume a person can expire after a forceful inspiration.Its the sum of resting tidal volume,inspiratory reserve
volume and expiratory reserve volume.
INSPIRATORY reserve volume : the maximum amount of air that can be increased above resting tidal volume value during deepest
inspiration i-e 3000 ml.

Expiratory reserve volume :Through maximal active contraction of expiratory muscles it is possible to expire the volume of air
remaining1500ml

after resting tidal volume has been expired this additional expired volume is called expiratory reserve volume and is about 1500 ml.
 Residual Volume : Even after maximal atcive expiration,approx 1000 ml of air still remains in the lungs which is called residual
volume.

- Which vessels:
a.Dilate during vasodilation?arterioles
Small arterioles, terminal arterioles, venules, arteriovenous shunts, capillaries, lymphatic vessels
b.Play a role in thermoregulation?(choices as above)arterioles
c.Carry filtered fluid?lymphatic vessels

- jugular venous pressure is best described as(the choices may not be accurate, they were something like this:)
a. Pulse pressure
b. 10 mmHg more than ventricular Pressure
c. 10mmHg less than ventricular pressure(correct)
d. 20mmHg less than ventricular pressure
e. 20mmHg more than ventricular pressure

- emq on lung capacities and volume definations

- EMQ about what ions are more available extracellularly, intracellularly, what ions are responsible for action potential, what channels
does

lignociane block?Extracellularly:Na (150),Cl (110) K (5) Intracellularly Na (15),Cl (10) K (150). Na and K responsible for action
potential#

Lignocaine blocks binds to voltage gated Na channels and blocks them preventing their opening in response to depolarization.

- EMQ about muscle fibres’, what is the A band made of, what combines with calcium, what protein has I,T and c subcomponents
A-band is made of myosin.
Calcium binds to Troponin C.
Troponin has 3 types...I.T.C

C: binds to Ca to bring conformational change in tropomysoin

T: binds to Tropomyson to hold Troponin-Tropomysoin in place
I: binds to the site on actin in thin filaments to hold Troponin-tropomyosin in place.

- Haemophilia A is due to absence of what factor?anti haemophilic factor VIII

- What ion is factor 4?calcium
- What ion acts as a second messenger?ca
- What blood vessels have the most amount of smooth muscles?
a. Arteries-yes
b. Arterioles
c. Capillaries
d. Veinules
e. Veins
- What vessels are the capacitance vessels and hold most of the blood volume? Same options as above.veins
- What neurotransmitter is responsible for closing pre capillary sphincters?
a. Acetylcholine-yes
b. Serotonin
c. Nor-adrenaline
d. Substance p
- What part of the nervous system is responsible for fight or flight :sympathetic
- What part of the nervous system causes increased salivary secretion?parasympathetic
- What part of the nervous system increases heart rate?sympathetic
- What hormone increases blood glucose?glucagon
- What hormone reduces blood glucose?Insulin
- What hormone increases blood glucose and potassium?Glucagon,Cortisol(correct),growth
hormone,stomatostatin,thyroxine,epinephrine,ACTH

- At rest what gland produces 2/3 of saliva?sub mandibular

- What is the commonest cause of Cushing’s disease?
a. Adrenal disease
b. Pituitary adenoma-yes
- Lack of what vitamin causes sub acute degeneration of the spinal cord?
a. Vit b 12- yes (cobalmin)
b. Thiamine
c. Vit d

- Functions of gap junctions, tight junction’s:main controllers of passage of ions and water e.t.c
Three types :
Desmosomes :- consist of a disk shaped region between two adjacent cells where apposed plasma membranes are separated by about
20 nm and have
a dense accumulation of protein at the cytoplasmic surface of each membrane and in the space between two
membranes.Function to
hold adjacent cells together in areas that are subject to considerable stretching such as in skin.

Tight Junctions:- formed when extracellular surfaces of two adjacent plasma membranes are joined so there is no extracellular space
between them.
Unlike the desmosome which is limited to a disk shaped area of the membrane,the tight junction occurs in a band around the
entire circumference of the cell.Most epithelial cells are joined by tight junctions e.g epithelial cells covering the inner aspect
of intestinal tract.Only ions and water can move with ease.
Gap junctions :- Consists of protein channels linking cytosols of adjacent cells.In the region of gap junction,the two opposing plasma
membrane come
within 2-4nm of each other,which allows specific proteins from the two membranes to join forming small protein lined
channels linking
the two cells.Small diameter (1.5 nm) limits movements of different substances to small molecules and ions such as Na and
K. Muscle
cells of the heart and smooth muscle cells.Also co ordinate the activity of adjacent cells by allowing chemical messengers to
move from
one cell to the other.

- Buffering action of saliva is due to – Bicarbonates

- Hormone produced by the islet of Langerhans by the beta cells – Alpha cells producing glucagon (15-20% of total islet cells)
Beta cells producing insulin and amy
lin (65-80%)
Delta cells producing somatostatin:inhibits growth hormone secretion in hypothalamus
- Hormone produced in the adrenal cortex & which increases in stress – Cortisol

- Which valve is present between the right atrium & the right ventricle – Tricuspid valve
- Actin ,myosin ,troponin z line and i line ...all in an emq so pls read it
chapter on muscle.

- From Respiration they asked values of co2 and oxygen in blood like venous and
arterial.

- which vessels in the circulatory system carry most of the blood and which
carries least ?eg. venules ,veins, arteries, arterioles :- veins carry most and arterioles and capillaries carry least
- Which of the above vessels are most stretchable so pls read it .I followed
(chapter on heart) in Vander sherman ie basic anatomy of heart :- veins
- Which is the most abundant Extracellular cation?eg K ,Na.,,,Na

- Symathetic and Parasympathetic which acts in fright and flight situations?ans:Sympathetic

- Salivary buffers?Answer was Bicarbonates

- Deficiency of vitamin B 12 causes what? Answer: spinal cord damage.

Refer to blue book back pages for vitamin deficiency topic

- Which are the normal levels of glucose? , different options given3.5-5mmlol/l

- What does glucogen produce in the body? transform “glycogen” to glucose (BNF)

- Exocrine gland characteristics:

Exocrine glands are glands that secrete their products (excluding hormones and other chemical messengers)
into ducts (duct glands) which lead directly into the external environment
Exocrine glands are named apocrine gland, holocrine gland, or merocrine gland based on how their product is secreted.

Apocrine glands - a portion of the plasma membrane buds off the cell, containing the secretion,an example is fat droplet secretion by
mammary gland.
Holocrine glands - the entire cell disintegrates to secrete its substance,an example is sebaceous glands for skin and nose.
Merocrine glands - cells secrete their substances by exocytosis an example is pancreatic acinar cells.
Typical exocrine glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, mammary glands, stomach, liver, pancreas

- Which of the following options given is a typical exocrine gland: option: sweating gland

- Where does the exocrine gland puts its secretion? duct

- Which is the acid produced in the stomach? Hydrochloridric acid

- Pituitary gland, hormone of middle part?thin layer of cells,rudimentry in humans,produces melanocyte stimulating hormone

- Precursor cells of platelets – megakariocytes

- Posterior lobe of pituitary gland secretes: oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone)
- Which hormone is secreted by the middle lobe of the pituitary gland?melanocyte stimulating hormone
- Which glands secrete hormones into ducts? Exocrine glands
- Which glands secrete hormones in ducts? Sebaceous glands

- Which gas is inhaled from cupped hands? co2

- In hyper-ventilation, which gas has high concentration? o2

- In which blood cell is the nucleus lost in the early stages? erythrocytes

- what is the action of glucagon? causes liver to converts glycogen to glucose.increases blood glucose levels

- Cellularity of exocrine glands? mostly Multi-cellular.in humans only important unicellular gland is goblet cells

- Which gland excretes hormones into ducts? exocrine

- Which acid is involved in gastric reflux disease? Hydrochloric acid
- Which enzyme acts on fats? Lipase
- Which enzyme acts on proteins? Pepsin
- Which cell is responsible for carrying oxygen & nutrients? Hemoglobin

- Hemoglobin combines irreversibly with what?Carbon monoxide binds allosterically with HB and modifies it.Thats why in CO toxicity
person goes all pink

- What is the amount of gas in the lungs at the end of tidal volume?functional residual capacity:2500
- Which salivary gland gives the major contribution at rest? Submandibular
- And when stimulated (more than 2/3 contribution)? Parotid
- Blood supply interfere in salivation. How? Sympathetic, parasymphatetic, etc
- Lots of neurophysiology (even alpha, beta, gamma, delta something

- Lung: exams, tidal volume, residual volume, etc

- Lots of physiology of endocrine system: pituitary and adrenal hormones
- Systole, dyastole
- If you stimulate the salivary flow in 1 side of the mouth, where does the saliva appear? Bilateral, ipsilateral(correct), contralateral, etc
- Function of intermediate zone of adrenal
- Neutrphils family: granulocytes

- When neutrophils are present the most? Bacterial, viruses, fungi, etc...bacterial
- Buffering in saliva: bicarbonate ions
- Thick muscle fiber thin muscle fiber : A-band represents over lapping of thick n thin filaments,H band- present in the middle part of A-
band represent thick filaments.
I- band represents thin filaments and is present b/w ends of the A-bands of two adjacent sarcomeres.Each I-band surrounds one Z-line
M-line is the dark line in the middle of the H-band that represents the protein that links the central parts of the thick filaments together.
Thick filaments contain mysoin and thin contain actin.
- Qs about ions

- Composition of saliva
- Gas released during fat and carbohydrate metabolism(CO2)
- What is the role of HCO3 in saliva?buffering
- What is the role of NaCl in saliva?ability to taste salt
- What makes saliva, isotonic, hypotonic?bicarbonate
- What enzymes are present in saliva and its actions?
- What is the type of secretion of salivary glands mucous, serous etc
- Effect of exercise on systole, diastole, cardiac out put , peripheral resistance, que were what increase and what decreases.5 to 6
questions

CO increases,TPR decreases

- What are the end products of CO2 metabolism?hydrogen carbonate

- What combines with O2?heamoglobin
- What is the arterial pressure for 02and C02?O2 is 100, Co2 40
- Do the O2 dissociation curve then you will not have problem answering the questions! as there were questions related to it.
- Which anion is present in bone.phosphate n bicarbonate
`1q \A
- What is the effect of exercise on systolic pressure, diastolic pressure and total
Peripheral resistance: systolic increases,diastolic remains same in normal aerobic but in athletes decreases and coronary disease
increase,TPR decreases
- Which clotting factors are associated with the following conditions
i) Christmas disease (ii)Von williebrrands disease (iii) Haemophilia A
iv)Diseminated intravascular coagulopathy (v)Vitamin k deficiency

- Machine used to measure lung functions……spirometer

- The total amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration….vital capacity
- The volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration….residual volume
- The amount of air breathed in or out during normal respiration……Tidal volume
- The volume of gas contained in the lung at the end of maximal inspiration….Total lung capacity
- What part pituitary partially controls the adrenal …… Anterior (acth)
- what increases pulse rate during exs:stroke vol
- SALIVA CONTENT AND FUNCTION
- SALIVARY GLANDS; LOCALIZATION, TYPE OF SALIVA, COMMON DISEASES FOR EACH.
- EVERYTHING IN ANEMIAS
- EVERYTHING IN CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
- EVERYTHING ABOUT ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
- STRUCTURE OF THE MUSCLE: CARDIAC AND SKELETAL

- Clotting factors and formation of clot – Fibrinogen, Fibrin, Prothrombin, Thrombin, Factor XIII (stabilising factor
- Blood PH – 7.4
- Oxygen pressure within the alveoli – 105mmHg
- ACTH production – where: anterior pituitary
- Cortisol production - adrenal cortex
- Saliva main role – lubrication?
- Saliva – 5 questions
- buffering responsible: bicarbonate
b- Immunoglobulin present: IgA
3 others

- Neurophysiology – Na+, Ca++, Excitatory (-70mSv) and Inhibitory (+70mSv) Synaptic, neurotransmitters liberation process:
exocitosis

- Noradrenaline – catecholamine produced by adrenal medulla thats works in stress and increases B.P
- Glycogen –polysacchride molecule that store glucose
- Monosaccharide and disaccharide – glucose, galactose, sucrose, lactose, maltose : Polysacchrides (starch,cellulose,glycogen)
Disacchrides(lactose,maltose
sucrose) Monosacchrides(galacose,glucose,fructose)

3.Gen path/immuno

- Immunology-hypersensitivity reactions,types of Ig,and where they’re found

- Which immunoglobin is pentameric-IgM

- Questions of cells in immunity
- Questions about hypersensitivity
- Lot of things...... starting from when different Ig r formed n what they do n all stuff... i would say that everything from this was
asked.....

checkout http://www.webmd.com/a-to-z-guides/immunoglobulins
- Structure of Immunoglobulins (Ig) - J-chain is seen in which Ig?IgA. Pentameric structure relates to which Ig?- IgM
- Salivary buffer? Bicarbonate
- hypersensitivity type 3 present in ? sle and ra,serum sickness
- hypersensitivity in anaphylaxis .type1
- hypersensitivity in rhinitis ?1
- hypersensitivity in allergic ahinitis ?type 1
- Abo blood reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?type 2
- Most abundant immunoglobulin in saliva during infections?ige
- Which immunoglobin is pentameric – IgM
- Hypersentivity ques eg .which immunoglobin will increase in gingival
inflammation?iga
- What type of hypersensitivity in Rhematoid arthritis?3

- Which immunoglobin is abundant in saliva.IgA

- Lymphocytes,neutrophil,macrophage,monocytes will increase
- anaphylaxis ,eosionophils increased in which hypersenstivity, which IG
increase in periodontitis?igG

- which immunoglobin is Dimeric-igA

- In delayed hypersensitivity reaction the patch test should be checked after 48 hours
- What type of hypersensitivity do you find in anaphylaxis? Type 1
- What will you see in a patient with penicillin allergy? Skin rashes
- Immunoglobin in reaction to perfume? IgE
- Lots of questions on hypersensitivity reactions and cells mediating them; e.g. Grave’s disease is what type of hypersensitivity
reaction?5
- Immunoglobulin in mucosa: Igg
- Immunoglobulin which crosses placenta: IgG
- Hypersensitivity I, II, III, IV, V: rubber dam reaction, anaphylactic shock, contact dermatitis, etc
- Which tissue heals with out scar:oral mucosa
- cells seen in chronic inflamation
- Antibodies igG seen in which conditions,which type of antibodies are more in saliva
- Examples of of each type of immunity reactions TB & RA
- Type of hypersensitivity, like what is type 1, type 2etc,
- A lot on immunoglobulins, which is most abundant in saliva?
- Which immunoglobulin is present after a bacterial and viral infection?
- Which immunoglobulin is pentameric.
- Which cells are present in chronic inflammation.
- What all can be seen during the process of healing.
- Level of IgA
a) saliva>serum>breastmilk>tears
b)serum>saliva>breastmilk>tears
c)saliva>breastmilk>tears>serum

- What percentage of uk population have type 1 hypersensitivity

- Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in tuberculosis
- Which type of hypersensitivity is seen in a patient who is allergic to latex and
Kiwi
- Several questions on hypersensitivity rxn…… which type involved in blood transfusion etc type 2
- Hypersensitivity (Ig + diseases)
- What type of defence cells you see in different diseases
- Ig responsible for the 2 response :Ig G
- A lot of them on cells of immunity- e.g. cells seen in infection, etc.,
- Hypersensitivity types 5 questions - diseases related to it – Grave’s disease and others

4.micro

- Hepatitis antigens
- Instrument spreading prions : endodontic files and reamers
- Most common cause of food poisoning bacteria in the UK may be salmonella : camphylobacter then salmonella
- Bacteria in urinary tract :E.coli,N gonorrhoea,treponema pallidum,chlamydia trachomatis
- Most stable virus outside the body : HAV
- Micro organism resilient to decontamination and sterilization : prions
- Streptococcus- Gram positive/negative; aerobe/anaerobe?
- Organism associated with hairy leukoplakia- EBV
- What type of virus is hepatitis A.
a. Dna
b. Rna : yes
- Prions are associated with what disease?
a. Creutzfeldt Jacob's disease
- What type of organism is streptococcus viridans: gram positive cocci,facultative anaerobes
- Infection in urinary tract, which bacteria :Escherichia colli
- Bacteria that most commonly cause infection in digestive system in the UK? camphylobacter
- Number of candida in smear? We do not know yet the answer
- What causes food poisoning?
- Which organism is most stable outside the body?
- How many exposures of hepatitis vaccine is required for immunity?hep A-( 2 doses :1 and then 2nd is given after 6-12 months of the
first one)
Hep B-3doses (1st dose and then 2nd given 1month after 1st and 3rd after 6 months of the 1st dose)
- Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E
- Most commom oro-faecal route hepatitis?A
- What cells do you see in parasitic infection? Basophils, eosinophils, etc
- Which cell release histamine? Mast cells
- Which immunoglobulin is present in hypersensitivity type I? IgE
- Which virus is more stable out side the body:A
- Which virus is least stable out side the body : HIV
- (Cjd prions) what organisams not killed by sterilization
- Which virus is stable outside the body
- Significance of the surface marers in hepatitis b
- What are Prions.
- Which virus causes hand foot and mouth disease.coxsackie A and Entero virus
- Some question on EBV
- Viruses – HIV, HPV, HBV

5.oral path/oral med

- Sjorgen primary and secondary ,I got really confused between different scenarios between primary and secondary associations
- Questions on salivary gland diseases,very confusing unilateral bilateral ,bacterial and viral infections are called wha
- Shingles : herpes zoster-HHV-3
- Sarcoidosis-
- Orofacial oedema
- Xeroderma pigmentosa-autosomal recesiive disorder in which ability to repair damage caused by sun occurs.Characterised by multiple
basal and squamous
cell carcinoma.
- Cells present in acute and chronic infection...acute :Neutrophils chronic...lymphocytes,plasma cells,monocytes
- Cells in granulomatous inflammation :giant cells.MACROPHAGES
- T1N0M0 % of survival: 80% STAGE 2:30% STAGE 4:15%
- Notched upper incisors- Syphilis,treponema pallidum
- Coeliac disease,oral characteristics...herpetiform type ulcers
- Erythroplakia and leukoplakia,their sites of occurence
- Pleomorphic adenoma
- Torus
- Raynaud’s phenomenon
- Histolopath of dentinal and enamel caries
- Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, tension headache,facial dysgeusia
- Lots of questions on different types of facial pains
- Lichen Planus diagnosis
- Picture of dentinogenesis imperfect,fluorosis,tetracycline staining
- Candidiasis in denture wearing patients and in HIV patient
- Mumps
- Lots of questions on parotid swelling1- Golril Goltz Syndrome
- Papillon Lefvre Syndrome
- Cliedocranial dyostosis
- Fibrous Dysplasia (X-ray features) :ground glass appearance
- Torus
- Carcinoma (squamous cel ca) (HIV + Betel)
- Pleomorthic Adenoma
- Questions with photos of : herpes simplex,herpes zoster, scleroderma(small rima oris), lichenoid reaction,mucocelae,frictional
keratosis,
- Other questions on oral medicine, hepatitis,
- Cells found in herpetic stomatitis, lichen planus and other conditions
- Composition of amalgam causes black tattoo, corrosion-silver
- Organism associated with hairy leukoplakia- EBV-HHV 4
- Question about multiple myeloma
- Picture of notched maxillary incisors
- Picture of ectodermal dysplasia
- Picture of the palate with torus palatinus
- Most common reason for missing upper central incisors
- Effect of radiation therapy – post treatment
- Questions about xerostomia
- Treatment to pemphigoid when no response to corticosteroid DAPSONE
- Picture of a lesion near the eye
- Picture buccal mucosa close to the comissure – Pt come from India after 6 months, he tried chewing paan, he doesn’t smoke, but he
drinks
alcohol very often and He’s HIV positive. Options: SCC, TB, Syphilis, Oral submucous fibrosis
- Picture of hypoplastic defects of teeth

- Picture of 15 year old with gingival swelling

- Swelling of lower lip + linear ulceration buccally – Orofacial granulomatosis??
- Treatment of acute dental abscess DRAINAGE
- Picture of child with apical abscess
- Child with dry mouth – salivary gland aplasia
- Lot related to oro facial granulomatosis even
- Picture of ectodermal dysplasia
- Picture of palatine torus
- Identification of age from a lateral skull radiograph
- Picture of teeth effected with syphilis
- Most common reason for missing upper central incissors
- Picture of hypoplastic defects of teeth
- Picture of 15 year old with gingival swelling
- Picture of basal cell carcinoma
- Histopathology of salivary gland disorders
- Why do sometimes periapical granulomas become asymptomatic?
- Effects of radiotherapy- osteoradionecrosis, rampant caries, etc
- Treatment to pemphigoid when no response to corticosteroid-dapsone or drugs from sulphonamide group
- Which leukoplakia is most likely to turn malignant?
a. Erosive
b. Ulcerated
c. Speckeled-yes

- What percentage of oral submucous fibrosis become malignant?

a. 80 %
b.100%

- What percentage of lichen palnus/leukoplakia ( i don’t rem) turn malignant?

a. 0%.lichen planus 1%

- Patient presents with ulcer which he’s had for 4 weeks. What will you do?
a. Refer to specialist
b. Perform incisional biopsy

- not a feature of malignant melanoma .

a.hair growth

- Fig of hutchinsons teeth and mulberry molars

treatement of candidiasis in hiv patient ? pseudomembranus so fluconazole
- risk of malignant transformation of leukoplakia in 10 year period ?2.5
- questions on type of cells in inflamation ,lip swelling , sarciodosis ,rheumatiod arthritis
- type of cells in gingivostomatitis?tzanck cells
- What enzyme assists microorganisms when they are causing dentine caries?
a. Collagenase
b. EnolaseYES
c. Latoferin-

- Questions on mucocele, where is it usually found

a. Upper lip
b. Lower lip-yes
c. Floor of the mouth
d. Palate
- How would you treat a mucocele
a. Excise it with the salivary gland
- Which of these infections would cause congenital deafness
a. Rubella-yes
b. Measles
- Questions on apthus ulceration
- What kind of lichen planus is more likely to turn malignant?
a. Bullous
 b. Erosive-yes
c. Papillary
d. Atrophic-yes

- What cell attachments are affected in Pemphigus?

a. Desmosomes- yes
b. Hemi desmosomes- in pemphigoid

- Picture of the tongue with an ulcer on the lateral border- what drug causes it
a. Ace inhibitors-yes
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Potassium sparing drugs

- Picture of the buccal mucosa with a white line at the level of the teeth- what causes it
a. Lichen planus
b. Lichenoid reaction
c. Traumatic keratosis-yes

- Picture of a tooth with rampant caries, how would you manage it

a. Extract the tooth
b. Use fluoride

- First stage in management of rampant caries

a. Excavation and temporization
b. Prevention and stabilization
- Picture of a man with a whitish growth on his upper lip, what is it?
a. Squamous cell papilloma(CORRECT)
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma

- Picture of a swollen gingiva, what can cause it?

- Questions on the symptoms of reversible and irreversible pulpitis, acute and chronic periapical periodontitis, and periapical abscess.
- A picture of the gingival of a black person with melanin pigmentation and a white line across the central incisors alone
3 questions,
What is the cause of the pigmentation
a. Racial
b. Addison’s disease
What is the cause of the white line
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Hypomineralization(CORRECT)
d. Flourosis
How would you manage this white line
a. Composite veneers
b. Porcelain veneers
c. Porcelain crowns
The picture was obviously that of a young person because the lower incisors still had their mamelons and the canines were still erupting.

- A picture of a man who can’t open his mouth properly for treatment, what condition does he have?
a. Scleroderma
b. Sarcoidosis
- Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis is associated with which disease?
- Picture of notched maxillary incisors – syphilis
- Which antibiotic causes rash if given in infectious mononeuleosis – aspirin
- What percentage of patients with oral submucous fibrosis become malignant?
- Picture of a child suffering from ectodermal dysplasia
- Picture of a lesion near the eye of a man ?CAN BE HERPES
- Picture of the palate with torus palatinus
- Most common reason for missing upper central incisors
- What is the post-treatment effect of radiation therapy? - osteoradionecrosis-
- microscopic view(ground sections) of tooth ,i think it is in Cawson n Odell chapter on caries. We had to diagnose till which layer caries
has spread and treatment
options.
- Which of them will u treat eg.dentin caries ,enamel caries there was a ques
like this..can not recall exactly.
- Picture of a lady having SCLERODERMA
- Pemphigus and Pemphigoid which one has subepithelial antibodies.
- Picture was given and they asked whether it is frictional keratosis ,fordeyces
spots ,lichen planus, squamous cell carcinoma.
- EMQ on Pulpitis rev and irreversible ,Periodontal abcess ,Periapical abcess they had
given signs /clinical scenarios
- which disease is most infectious? Options were aids , hepatitis etc .answer is Hepatitis
– Biopsy – white patches
- What do you find in the caries tissue?
- Lateral periodontal abscess – to confirm diagnosis what test do you use? Cold and hot which
give positive result, showing that is only periodontal and does not have pulpal involvement
- Cleidocranial dysostosis: lot of questions: the ones that were given : ability to appose shoulders, mandibular retrognatism( wrong),
delayed eruption( ok), supernumerary (ok),
Remember also: high percentage of dentygerous cyst, prognatia, persistence of deciduous teeth.
Look scully page 285.286
- Cleft palate and lip. There was a picture of a baby and lot of questions , time of surgery options, prevention maxilla growth after the
surgery, graft surgery at what time?
- Picture with ulcers in ventral part of the tongue, herpetiform type: options given , coeliac disease, etc
- Behcet’s disease
- Primary and secondary sjogren
- Picture of leukoedema to recognise
- Picture of Spongi white naevus to recognise
- Pyogenic granuloma
- Desquamative gingivitis
- Picture with missing maxillary lateral incisors
- Picture with mid-line supernumerary teeth
- Patient has oral & genital ulcerations & problems with his eye-sight. Behcet’s syndrome
- What is found in a patient with cleidocranial dysotosis? Failure of eruption of teeth
- Patient has scarce hair & missing teeth. Ectodermal dysplasia
- Picture of a man with radiation burns on his cheeks. Intra-orally you will find mucositis.
- What is a long-term effect of a patient who has had radiation therapy for carcinoma? Xerostomia
- Which dental procedure will you perform most carefully in a patient who has had radiation therapy? Dental extractions
- Patient complains of pain near the salivary glands while eating & there is reduction in the flow of saliva. Salivary calculus
- Patient complains of enlargement of both parotid glands. Mumps
- Patient complains of pain on one side of the palate. Herpes zoster
- Reactivation of the herpes zoster virus causes shingles
- Condition with irregular thick white patches. White sponge nevus
- White lesions with reticular striae. Lichen planus
- Man with white lesions which when scrapped off leaves an erythematous area. Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
- Condition in which epithelium separates from the connective tissue. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
- Which condition has the most tendency to become malignant? Nodular leukoplakia
- What is the per centage of survival of TINM tumour? 75%
- What is sclerotic dentine? Dentine in reaction to caries
- Picture of a patient with dentinogenesis imperfecta
- Lesion on the lower lip. Mucocele
- Cyst in which white paste is seen. dermoid cyst
- Lesion on the palate in a smoker? Stomatitis nicotina
- Picture of notched incisors. Congenital syphilis
- Viral infection for which there is a vaccine. Mumps (MMR vaccine
- Soft swelling near the lower premolar which bleeds on probing. Pyogenic granuloma
- Most common odontogenic cyst? Radicular cyst
- Stephen’s curve’s most important feature? Critical ph
- Histological section showing dorsum of tongue
- Patient with fever, malaise, lymphaedenopathy? Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma in a patient exposed to sun-light? Lower lip
- Acute pseudomembranous candidosis
- Minor, major aphthous ulcers, herpetiform ulcers
- Most frequent site of intra oral cancer: floor of mouth or border of tongue (don’t remember, but there was only 1 of these options)
- Erythema multiforme
- HIV
- Site of oral cancer in a farmer exposed to sun light? Lower lip
- Most frequent site of Kaposi’s sarcoma: palate
- Where a salivary gland tumour has more chance to be malignant? Sublingual
- Chronic and acute periodontitis, chronic and acute gingivatis, early onset / aggressive periodontitis, periapical periodontitis (association
with given cases)
- Hand foot and mouth disease
- Measles
- Paramyxovirus
HHV-1, HHV-2
- Squamous cell carcinoma diagnosis
- Herpes labialis cause: sun light
- Pemphigus vulgaris
- Mucous membrane pemphigoid
- Osteoradionecrosis
- Actinomycosis
- Pulp stones – Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
- Pleomorphic adenoma
- Premalignant lesion in palate of 65 years-old. What’s the best thing to do not to progress the disease? Stop smoking, stop drinking
alcohol, excision
photograph to compare later, etc
- Rheumatoid Arthritis and osteoarthroses in TMJ
- Tumour in salivary gland which spreads along nerve sheaths: adenoid cystic carcinoma
Bilateral swelling of slow growth:warthins tumour
- Lichen planus
- Lichenoid reaction
- Fluorosis, tetracycline staining, bilirrubin, amelogenesis / dentinogenesis imperfecta
- Kaposi sarcoma
- Extracranial cause for facial palsy
- Nerve lesions abdusent,hypoglossal nerve
- Herpes zoster infections
- Cushings disease and syndromes
- Questions about salivary gland diseases
- Pic of denture stomatitis was given and many ques related to the organism, its treatment etc were asked.
- Drug used for its treatment.
- Do treatment of candidiasis very nicely as they asked a lot which drug is used for chronic, etc.
- Do herpes, its treatment signs, and it treatment as it was asked in indirect way
- Cushings disease and its effects.
- Epilepsy
- Acromegaly
- Gigantism.
- Haemophillia A, B
- Vit k
- Von Willebrands disease.
- Sickle cell anaemia,
- Thalaessemia
- What causes HIV.
- What are commonly seen in HIV eg…kaposis sarcoma
- Treatment of Rheumatic fever
- What happens in tetanus .
- Sjogrens syndrome
- Clinical features were given and we had to match them like
- Planar erythema, Splinter haemmorrhage, silicosis, sharp shooting pain radiating to the shoulder etc etc Do angina very thoroughly
- Pemphigus.and it s method of inv.
- Lymphoma.
- Pleomorrhic adenoma.
- Sialolithiasis.
- Sjogrens, disease, ’
- Behcets disease.
- Squamous cell ca2, malignant melanoma 4 prevalance in oral cavity
- Facial pain in detail pain in pulpitis, in neuralgias, in temporal arteritis. Etc`etc. Good in Scully
- A lot was asked on the type of pain in sinusitis
- Which is the most benign lymphoma?
- What is the extrcranial cause of facial palsy?
- UML and LML and what signs are seen in them
- Erythema multiforme
- Lichenoid reaction
- Herpes Zoster
- Lichen planus
- What type of lesion occurs in the following
i)a patient with deviation of the corner of his mouth when he smiles but wrinkling of his forehead is normal- UMN lesion
ii) a patient with bell’s palsy- LMN lesion
iii)a patient with deviation of the corner of his mouth when he smiles and cannot
wrinkle his forehead- LMN lesion
iv) damage to the facial nerve following superficial parotidectomy
- Which one of the following is an extracranial cause of facial palsy
a)Stroke (b)Melkerson- Rosenthal syndrome (c) Bells palsy
- Ramsey Hunt’s syndrome is a complication of
a)herpes simplex infection
b)herpes zoster infection-yes
c)coxachie virus infection
- Hand, foot & mouth disease is caused by which virus-coxsekia
- Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which virus-ebv
- Which of the following salivary gland tumours is most likely to occur bilaterally
a)pleomorphic adenoma
b)mucoepidermoid carcinoma
c)adenoid cystic carcinoma
d)acinic cell carcinoma
- Tetany is caused by
a)increased calcium (b) decreased calcium (c) decreased potasium
- For the following questions the options were cushings syndrome,acromegaly
Cushings disease and gigantism
i)a 55yr old lady with increased production of growth hormone
ii)a 2yr old boy with increased production of growth hormone
iii)a patient with iatrogenic overproduction of ACTH
iv)a patient with endogenous overproduction of ACTH

- A patient with skin pigmentation is most likely to have

a) Addisons disease (b) Crohns disease (c) Cushings syndrome

- Commonest site for oral cancer

a)palate (b) buccal mucosa (c) ventral surface of tongue (d) lips
- Commonest site for malignant melanoma in the mouth. Options as above
- In which condition is there a separation of epithelium at the basement
membrane
a)pemphigus
b)benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
c)erythema multiforme

- In which condition will direct immunoflourescence reveal binding of

autoantibodies to the intercellular substance of epithelial cells.Options as above
- What are u most likely to see in a patient with erythema multiforme- target skin
Lesions
- kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with which virus- human herpes virus 8
- Which of these is the most benign
a)kaposi’s sarcoma (b)adenolymphoma (c)burkitts lymphoma
- Symptoms of secondary sjogrens syndrome
- A picture showing denture stomatitis ,asked to identify it
- a young boy with oral ulcers in the mouth and on lip which is bloody crusted? Erythema multiform
- A picture of red lesion on border of tongue in a patients who had heavy amalgam fillings on that side.asked what is the
dagnosis: opt: SCC, traumatic ulcer,….
- A picture of 30 years old man with a lip lesion.he had come back from holiday recently and his new partner had this lesion as well that
healed recently. What is the diagnosis? Tuberculosis, herpes, erythema multiform,….

- A picture of palate with many vesicle-like lesions on only left side.asked what is the diagnosis? Herpes zoster, pemphigus,….
- what is the best treatment for a pt with cured denture stomatitis but resisted angular cheilitis? Opt, miconazole lozenge,fluconazole,
nystatin,……

- what is the best treatment for a patient with denture stomatitis? Opts as above
- Bilateral parotid cancer…… mucoepi
- Cancer in sjogren…….malignant transformation in pleomorphic
- Person with swollen salivary glands+swollen lips+ swollen gingiva…diagnosis
- FACIAL PAIN CAUSES IE; BLOOD VESSELS, MUSCLES, MEDICATION, SYSTEMIC DISEASE
- ORAL MANIFESTATIONS IN THE TREATMENT OF GENERAL CANCER.
- HEADACHE AND MIGRAINE
- FULL BLOOD VALUES AND WHAT THEY INDICATE
- Aphtous Stomatitis
- Acute Herpetic Stomatitis
- Herpes simplex
- Ulcer picture (lower lip) and clinical situation – Syphilis
-` – Upper Canine?
- ACE-inhibitors oral manifestations – 2 questions (lip swelling)
- Multiple Lumps on the neck not sensitive - Lipoma
- Multiple Lumps on the neck sensitive and skin pigmentation – neurofibroma
- Microstomia cause – Scleroderma
- Cysts of jaw (3 questions) – Radicular
- OKC
- Dentigerous
- Rash on the palate, identify the most possible cause - ?
- Denture Stomatitis – 4
- Feature – confined to denture area
- Dentures overoccluded
- Stomatitis treated but angular cheilitis treatment – Miconazole
- Picture of primary dentition with large Diastema - main pathology and treatment
- Picture of a ulcer on mucosa at 1st/2nd lower molar, medical history (aspirin, b-blockers after MI recently) – cause: chemical burning
- 4 or 5 different questions about (clinical cases) – adenoma, adenocarcinoma, pleomorphic adenoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma,
adenoid cystic carcinoma
- Sjogren’s main malignancy – lymphoma
- Features to identify: lip selling, hyperplastic tags in the labial sulcus, buccal fissured appearance - Orofacial Granulomatosis
- Orofacial granulomatosis manifestation more common of – Crohn’s disease
- Picture of ulcer on lateral aspect of tongue and pt has a large amalgam restoration on lower molar – traumatic ulcer

6.gen medicine

- Dputyren’s sign and other conditions like this: alcoholic liver disease
- Diagnostic test for infectious mononucleosis : Paul bunnel and Mono spot tests
- percentage of leucocytes for an extraction :
- Glucose levels during fasting and random.normal fasting- < 6 mmol/l random- < 8 mmol/l .in diabetics fasting >7mmol/l Random
>11.1 mmol/l
- Asthma, angina treatment
Angina : glyceryl trinitrate,Ca channel blockers,asprin,Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTCA),Coronary artery bypass grafts
(CABG)
Asthma : Beta agonist such as Salbutamol (safest and most effective bronchodialator for routine control,Antimuscuranics such as
Ipratropium
(for those who have asthma with bronchitis),Corticosteroids (if there are daily symptoms of asthma).Systemic steroids,O2 and
hospitalization for severe
recalcitrant patients.
- What type of test should you ask for a patient with: Diabetes(Fasting plasma glucose,random and oral glucose tolerance test) ,
anaemia (blood tests and blood film,schilling test fro vit b12 def) on warfarin - INR (normal :1,for dento alveolar extractions : <3.5)PT
time (normal
1.3 and for dento al veolar surgery < 2.5)
- What kind of Ag should detected to check if the infected dentist with hepatitis B can still work. (skully)If HBe Ag is +ve or HBe Ag is
-ve but have greater
than 1000 HBV viral particles per ml of blood should discontinue practice involving exposure prone procedures.
- Questions about inform consent (age)
- Medical Emergency (Angina, asthma, MI)
- Questions about rheumatic fever
- Cushing's disease : excessive glucocorticoid production by adrenal hyperplasia secondary to excess ACTH production by pituitary
hyperplasia
- Tuberculosis (secretion with blood)
- Picture gigantism and acromegaly
- Tetany : Contracture of the muscles due to low serum Ca levels
- Leukaemia in adults : acute non lymphoblastic(myeloblastic) leukaemia and chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- Graves Disease (Primary Hyper thyroidism with a diffuse goitre-toxic goitre)
- Trigeminal Neuropathy Medication used
- Cranial arteritis (ESR is raised)
- Vaccinations (when should we take them)
- which analysis(tests) to prescribe in certain conditions in patients
- Rheumatoid arthritis – ulnar deviation
- Osteoarthritis – swelling of joints-herbenden's nodes
- Crushing pain in the chest radiating to arm & relieved by sub-lingual GTN - angina
- Tightness in the chest, wheezing, shortness of breath – Asthma
- Crushing pain in the chest accompanied by vomiting- MI
- Patient with breathlessness and sleeps with 4 pillows, associated medical condition-COPD/heart failure:LEFT HEART FAILURE
- After what percentage of blood loss should transfusion be given?20%
- Tuberculosis - weight loss, fever, cough
- Treatment for Basilar Artery Aneurism

- Couple of questions on leukemia n its age of occurance..

Classified as Acute or chronic or acc to cells of origin (lymphoblast or non lymphoblast)
* Acute lymphoblastic leukemia-peak incidence 2-4yrs but can affect any age grp.Most common childhood leukemia.Tx :cytotoxic
drugs,BM transplantation if chemo fails
* Adult Acute lymphoblastic leukemia - worse pognonsis than chilhood rest all the same as above
* Acute non lymphoblastic (myeloblastic) leukemia - most common acute leukemia of adults.esp causes gingival enlargement
* Chronic lymphocytic leukemia - most common type of leukemia.Men particularly affected.Asymptomatic patients may not need
tx.symptomatic- with radio and chemo therapy.Prognosis better than acute.
* Chronic myeloid leukmia - proliferation of myeloid cells in bone marrow,peripheral blood and tissues.Have philepedia
chromosome.>40 yrs age grp affected.lymphadenopathy is rare.

- study different GIT conditions...especially GIT infections.....

- Questions on SLE, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis like what does swelling of distal interphalyngeal joints indicate?
- Sjogren’s syndrome
- Questions on lichen planus and desquamative gingivitis`:also caused by phemphigoid

- Oral features of Gardener’s syndrome : multiple osteomas particularly of jaws and facial bones.,epidermoid cyts and fibromas of the
skin,lipomas,adenocarcinomas
colon polyps,dental anomalies.
- Questions on various types of ulcerations

- Association of carious teeth in 16 year old with intake of high sugar content and foods with low calorific value; options- schizophrenia,
depression, anxiety, etc.,
- Questions on hypo and hyperthyroidism

- Questions on Multiple myeloma :disseminated plasma cell neoplasm (uncommon grp of B lympho disorders).detected by
electrophoresis by over production of
specific IG.(IgG 50%,IgA 25%).Predominantly causes bone lesions.Malignant plasma cells produce defective Igs which release
osteoclast activating factors
that cause bone resorption and pain.Disease of middle aged and elderly.Detected by high ESR,leucopenia,thromocytopenia in routine
blood tests and bence jones proteinuria
.Causes bone destruction ,hypercalcemia,suppression of haemopoiesis,normochromic anemia.Osteolytic lesions in skull radiographs.

(round discrete punched out osteolytic lesions).Amyloid may be deposited in oral soft tissues causing macroglossia.Tx ,chemotherapy
with corticosteroids and Bisphosphonates.
- Lots of questions on Candidiasis; related questions on angular chelitis, pseudomembranous Candidiasis treatment in
immunocompromised patients
- Questions on asthma
- Questions on TB and the side effects the drugs used to treat it cause
- Various questions on conscious sedation and GA; their applications in various clinical settings; inhalational and iv sedation
- Questions on infectious mononucleosis :EBV
- Picture of comparatively large hands of a woman

- Woman with hiatus hernia with tooth sirface loss. Best treat. Option: (surgery wasn’t an option)
a. Medicine
b. Dietary advice
c. Occlusal splint
- reason for tingling of hands and feet during treatement of long standing procedures
- question on sleep apnoea ?
- What vaccine is used to prevent tb?
- In which condition would elective surgery be contraindicated for 6 months?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Angina
c. Cardiac failure
d. Infective endocarditis
- What is the age of onset for type 1 diabetes?
- What is used for the management of type 1 diabetes?
a. Insulin
b. Oral hypo glycaemic drugs.
c. Diet alone
d. Drugs and diet-yes

- What substances are increased in a diabetic coma?

a. ketones
- Clinical presentation of
a. Asthma
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Tumour in the upper lobe of the lungs
d. Codeine use
e. Pethidine use
f. Carbamazepine use
The options were: inspiratory wheeze, expiratory wheeze, stridor, daily mucus production, dry airway, dry cough, constipation.
- Which communicable disease should be informed to the consultant?
- After what percentage of blood loss should transfusion be given? – 20%
- What is the average respiratory rate for adults? – 12/min
- What is the average respiratory rate for children? – 25/min
- In a patient with colonic polyps diagnosed by colonoscopy, which other feature is present? – osteomas
- Ulnar deviation is seen in which condition? – rheumatoid arthritis
- A patient who is under-weight, has a diet high in sugar with very few calories has – anorexia nervosa
- Tightness in the chest, wheezing, shortness of breath – Asthma
- Crushing pain in the chest accompanied by vomiting – Myocardial infarction
- Swelling of inter-pharngeal joints – ra
- Condition which is relieved by sleeping on 3-4 pillow
- Weight loss, fever, cough – tuberculosis
- Weight gain & intolerance to cold – Hypothyroidism
- Picture of a lady with very large hands – acromegaly
- Ques on cranial nerve examination like when they are damaged what happens eg
 occulomotor and abducens. Pls read from scully
- Investigations used for different types of Anemias options were MRI,CT
Scan ,Bone Marrow Scan,FBC etc
- Investigations for Coeliac disease, Chrons, IBS etc.
- ASTHMA what happens to the airway?bronchosspasm
PLS read emphysema, upper respiratory tract infections ,COPD they had asked
indirect QUES on them.
- Which of the following would u not Notify?so need to read Notifiable
diseases
- A Patient had angina in past six months would u continue treatment, refer, not treat etc. Pls read Angina and MI
- Type 1 Diabetese features like patients age?usually underweight.
Type 2 Diabtese :pt would be overweight ,age?
Also, if u r treating a diabetic patient ask him to take his dose normally before appointment .I dont remember the exact ques but these
were the answers I guess.

- What would u give in Hyperglycemic collapse/dizziness situation?

- Ulnar deviation:Rheumatoid arthritis options SLE,Pemphigus,Pemphigoid etc.

- Sjogrens syndrome triad .type 1 and 2.

- causes and features for Addisons and Cushing diasease.they had given options like Rickets,graves disease etc.
- Microcytic anaemia, ferritin levels normal what exam to check probable cause? Name of exam requested to check thalassemia???
– Asthma, emphysema, cystic fibrosis
- Hands signs related with diseases, koilonichia, ulnar deviation, etc
- Dental characteristics in patient with bulimia
- Test to determine infectious mononeucleosis. Paul Bunnel test
- What is the normal fasting blood sugar level? 3.5 – 5.5 mmol/L
- Patient with NIDDM diabetes undergoing dental procedure. Eat normally & take regular dose of metformin
- Hand sign in mitral valve problems. Splinter hemorrhages
- Hand sign in rheumatoid arthritis. Ulnar deviation
- Hand sign in inflammation of hand joints. Heberden’s nodes
- Most difficulty in brushing teeth? In rheumatoid arthritis
- Antibiotic prophylaxis required in mitral valve defect
- Patient with rheumatoid arthritis and biliary cirrhosis has secondary rheumatoid arthritis
- Hand sign in mitral valve problems. Splinter hemorrhages
- Hand sign in rheumatoid arthritis. Ulnar deviation
- Hand sign in inflammation of hand joints. Heberden’s nodes
- Most difficulty in brushing teeth? In rheumatoid arthritis
- Antibiotic prophylaxis required in mitral valve defect
- Patient with rheumatoid arthritis and biliary cirrhosis has secondary rheumatoid arthritis
- Patient has bilateral involvement of joints and pain in the morning & weight-bearing joints are involved. Rheumatoid arthritis
- Patient with splenomegaly & intra-oral lesions. Infectious mononucleosis
- 65-year old lady with forgetfulness & difficulty in doing daily tasks? Alzheimer’s Disease
- Picture of tongue with several small white lesions. Caeliac disease
- Which test will you perform in an Afro-Caribbean if the tests for anemia are normal? Sickle cell test
- Cleft lip & palate increases with maternal intake of antibiotics
- Anemia in rheumatoid arthritis? Anemia of chronic disease and Iron def anemia
- In which condition is intra-articular bleeding minimal? Von Williebrand disease
- Factor VIII is reduced in Hemophilia A
- Period of vaccination (Scully)
- What is the minimum platelet count required in a patient undergoing extraction? 50 X 10 raised to 9 /I
- Patient with fatigue & excessive bleeding? Leukaemia
- Most commom bleeding disorder?von willibrands.warfarin and asprin
- Haemophilia A: factor VIII deficiency
- Becet’s disease :recurrent oral ulcers,uveitis and genital ulcers
- Sarcoidosis-granulomatous disease
- Tuberculosis
- Kaposis’s sarcoma: HHV-8
- Burkitt’s lymphoma: EBV
- Temporal arteritis
- Trigeminal neuralgia
- Atypical facial pain
- Where can you assess masseter? CT scan, etc
- Most commom cause of chronic renal disease? Pyelonephritis, hepatitis, etc
- Paget’s disease: alkaline phosphatase increased
- Osteitis
- Osteomyelitis
- What’s is increased in elderly? Systole, dyastole, stroke volume, etc
- Iron deficiency anaemia
- What’s the most frequent site of endocarditis? Aortic valve, tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral, etc
- Emphysema: destruction of alveoli
- Faint
- Sign of asthma: wheezing
- Lung silicosis clinical features and diagnosis
- Fev1/fev what happens is lung silicosis
- c/f of heart burn, mi, angina,rib fracture
- heart burn is it worse lying down? Standing
- hypoglycaemia, adisonian crisis,epilepsy, mi c/f
- Hand signs match with disease eg Ra ulnar deviation etc
- Diabitis insipidus(hypo osmolar urine)
- haemoglobinopathy
- haemo A
- Infection in a man who travelled to asia…….treponema pallidum …..Syphilis is no longer commonplace in the developed world but it
is still widespread in Asia
- woman with bloody sputum
- man with candidiasis, generalised lymphadenopathy
- Bilateral parotid swelling… options Sarcoidosis, etc
- Infection with weight loss in an afro-carribean….TB
- Man with pain in the phalanges……
- treatment for sinusitis
- Pain worsened by bending forward…diagnosis
- Lady with swelling of buccal mucosa and other symptoms……?Chron’s
- Pain in interphalangeal joints….osteoathritis
- Deformed finger joint….RA
- Disease with progressive cartilage destruction…….RA
- AB COVER IN SURGERY AND HOSPITAL
- SIGN AND SYMPTOMS IN MEDICAL EMERGENCIES
- MANIFESTATIONS IN THE HAND OF SOME ILLNESS OR SYNDROMES
- Different values of FBC were given and type of anaemia was asked
- Questions on hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism
- Clinical situations (5 questions) – tests: fasting glucose <6mmol/l, FBC, INR for Warfarin - <3.5, etc
- Asthma acute attack best medication – salbutamol
- Medical Emergencies clinical situations (2 questions with 5 sub questions each) – MI, Anaphylaxis, Addisonian’s crisis, Angina,
Hypoglycaemia
- Prosthetic valves – AB prophylaxis: not, but increased risk of Infective Endocarditis
- Infective Endocarditis causative micro organism in the UK– Streptococcus viridans
- Psychiatric disorders – claustrophobia, hypochondriasis, obsessive compulsive disorder, mania, schizophrenia
- Pain and diagnostic
- Crohn’s disease – main GI part affected: Ileum
- Parkinson
- What’s the most frequent cause of dementia? Alzheimer’s, etc
- What’s more likely to cause sickle cell crisis? Exercise, cirurgic trauma, etc
- Which one is a hemoglobulinopathy? Sickle cell, thalassemia, etc
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Osteoarthroses: Heberden’s nodes
- Most likely to suffer from hypoglycemia during dental treatment: young diabetic patient insulin dependent during mealtimes

7.dental materials

- Lots of questions about amalgam, composition (%) and the hole of the components.
- Percentage in weight of silver in amalgam-65 %

- Glass ionomer composition- Sodium alminosilicate glass with 20% ca F and other minor additives.Aqueos solution of acylic acd or
maleic and tartaric acid
in some products to control setting characteristics

- Indication of the type of ceramic: Very strong procera.

- Dental materials-few questions on alginates and other impression materials,amalgam,matrix,
- Get urself prepared for questions on amalgam, composites n GIC....
- Lots of questions on amalgam, e.g. what component of amalgam causes tooth blackening? What increases its strength?
- Questions on comparative applications of GIC(greater bond strenth with enamel than dentine)root caries..erosion cavities, Amalgam,
Composites and other cements in treating various types of caries in adults and children
- What is composition of GIC?
a.Aluminosilicate glass & polyacrylic acid?yes
b.Flouroaluminosilicate glass & polyacrylic acid
c.Flouroaluminosilciate glass & polyalkenoate acid
- What provides strength to amalgam ? silver
- what makes amalgam black after sometime ?silver
- what causes amalgam expansion ?silver
- what cements are used in stepwise excavation?cavity lined with calcium hydroxide and restore with GIC
- What component of amalgam gives it strength
a. Copper-yes
b. Silver-
c. Zinc
d. Mercury
- What component of amalgam was formerly used as a scavenger but is no longer widely used?
a. Copper
b. Zinc-yes
c. Silver
d. Tin
- What is the main constituent of Gutta percha points?
a. Gutta percha(correct)
b. Resins
Gutta-percha endodontic filling points were
found to contain approximately 20% guttapercha
(matrix), 66% zinc oxide (filler), 11%7
heavy metal sulfates (radiopacifier), and 3%
waxes and/or resins (plasticizer).

- Black stain of amalgam tattoo is caused by – silver

- Strength of amalgam depends on – copper
- Ques ON ALGINATE :
Synersis...squeezing out of water from between polysaccharide chains as a result one can observe small droplets of water on the surface
of an agar impression.
Imbibition phenomenon.in the presence of excess water agar gel may absorb water by this phenomena
q1:when the impression is stored and sent to the lab covered with a wet cotton what happens to
the alginate material?synersis is decreased
,
- Compostion of Alginate and the Setting reactionsodium and k salts of
composition- Sodium or potassium salt of alginic acid (11-16 %),Calcium sulphate (11-17%),intert filler,sodium sulphate,reaction
indicators
Setting reacting- Sodium alginate + calcium sulphate ----> sodium sulphate + calcium alginate

- Amalgam:which of the following materials is not added to amalgam now? The answer was Zinc as it causes secondary expansion.
- at what temperature Gutta pecha softens?softens at 65 C and melts at 100
- Which Impression material cannot be used for crown and bridge impressions?– alginate
- Cement for cementing porcelain veneers? Resin composite cement
- Cement which requires polyacrylic acid? Conventional glass inonomer cement
- impression in a patient with resorbed lower ridge? Special tray with spacer-Admix: mix of green stick and impression compound
- Cement for cementing temporary bridge?Zinc oxide engenol or zinc Polycarboxylate cement

- Cement for temporary crown: GIC, zinc phosphate, zinc policarboxylate, resin, ZOE :ZOE
- Where does GIC bond better to? Dentine, enamel(correct), colagen, etc :enamel
- Ca hydroxide its action and its uses:antibacterial and calcific bridge formation

- Irrigating solutions other than sodium hypochlorite :EDTA,chlorhexidene,EDTA and urea peroxide

-
- Lots, of questions about indications of crowns like: what is the choice of crown for a tooth with MOD amalgam filling and fractured
palatal cusp? Opt: full gold crown(yes), ¾ gold crown, porcelain bonded crown
- what cement you use to glue a alumina core ceramic crown? GIC(correct) , Panavia, zinc phosphate, RMGI, Poly carboxylate,…..
- which impression material is not used to make a crown? Irriversible colloid
- which paste is resin based ? AH Plus
- what is the depth of curing composite? 2 mm
- which one is polished the best? Microfilm, ,glass ionomer ,resin modified glass ionomer,…. So many options
- greatest wear resistance
- setting contraction of composite(6% by volume can be reduced by using small increments) versus GIC 3% ……..Conventional GICs
have NO polymerization shrinkage
- 2-paste zink oxide eugenol system…..tubliseal
- GIC and composites 5 sub questions – composite cure length (2mm), GIC not need to be cured, others
- Amalgam – AMA angle (more than 70°) and CVS angle (more than 90°), Nayyar core (3mm preparation in the canals)
- Impression materials 5 sub questions - irreversible hydrocolloid, others
8.embroyolgy

- Failure of closure of vertebral arches

- What condition is caused by failure of closure of vertebral arches:spina bifida
- Palatal formation – frontonasal and palatal processes
- Fontanelles closure – after birth (6 months?)
- Branchial arches – tongue (1st, 3rd and 4th)
- Branchial arches – mandible (1st)

9.pharma

- Different types of anaesthetics like in which condition which anaesthesia .multiple extractions,pregnant mother,molar extraction
- Picture of LA cartridge asking which anaesthetic,xylocaine was written on it
- Anaesthetic that produces toxicity,longest acting and which to be given to heart patients
- Action of lidocaine
- Antibiotic for a patient allergic to penicillin that can’t swallow pills? azithromycin
- drug that causes constipation codain
- Antagonist of heparin
- Definition of INR
- Have to know the main medication used for the most important diseases
- Interaction
- Collateral effects (dry mouth, gingival growth for example )
- Antifungal (Trush)
- Drug is most likely to cause rashes in infectious mononucleosis
- Which drug is given three times a day?
- Which drug should be avoided in patient on warfarin-metronidazole
- Which medicine to avoid in asthmatics?ansaids
- Dose of aspirin for angina – 300mg
- Dose for adrenaline for anaphylaxis
- Drug avoid in asthmatics
- Way of 1mg of glucagon is given:IM
- Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers?METRONIDAZOLE,TETRACYCLINE.
- Age of MMR vaccine 12 months
- Antibiotic alone to granuloma? Options: mixed infections, antibiotic doesn’t penetrate in the bone…
- Questions on conscious sedation and GA; their applications in various clinical settings; inhalational and iv sedation
- A lot of questions on warfarin, its interactions with various drugs and INR
- Emergency drugs and their modes of administration
- Amount of adrenaline in emergency dosage; options- 50µgms,500µgms, 50mg, 500mg (I think it should be 500µgms- the calculation
as per me is- Adrenaline in emergency is 0.5mg/ml in concentration of 1:1000, i.e., 1/1000x1000000µgms= 1000µgms/ml; if 1ml of
solution
contains 1000µgms then 0.5 ml should contain 500µgms; Please cross check, I may be wrong!)
- Lots of questions on Penicillins, their modes of administration and doses
- Drugs causing xerostomia
- Drugs used to treat Candidiasis in HIV infected condition- fluconazole
- Lots of questions on NSAIDS
- Drugs exacerbating Asthma
- Drug is most likely to cause a rashes in infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)?
a.Aspirin
 b.Penicilllin G
c.Peniicillin V
- Which drug should be avoided in pt. On warfarin?
a.Fluconazole-yes
b.Miconazole
c.Nystatin
d.Amphoterecin

- Which medicine to avoid in asthmatics?

a. Aspirin-yes
b. Paracetamol/panadol
c. Tramodol
d. Penicillin
- antibiotic for ear use
- antibiotic which can be given thrice daily ?amoxcillin
- antibiotic resistant to beta -lactamase producing organisms? co amoxiclav
- analgesic that can be given in warfarin ? paracetamol
- drug to be avoided in warfarin in antifungals?
- What drug potentiates warfarin?
- What drugs should not be given in pregnancy?
a. Nalixdicic acid
b. Metronidazole-yes
- What antibiotic is used to treat ANUG?metronidazole
- What antibiotic is used to manage a super infected herpetic lip lesion?
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Metronidazole
c. Cefuroxime(TRUE)
- What is the dose of aspirin for myocardial infarction?
a. 100 mg
b. 200 mg
c. 300mg(
d. 400mg
e. 500mg
- What drugs are inhibited by beta lactamase?
- Side effects of dapsone
a. Reticulocytosis

- Side effects of Azathioprine, same options as side effects of dapsone

- What drug should not be given to asthmatics?
a. Aspirin
- What analgesics cause
a. Ringing in the ears after overdose
b. Liver damage after overdose
c. Constipation
- A 60 year old man on anti-hypertensive has gingival enlargement what drug can cause it
a. Ciclosporin
b. Phenytoin
c. Amlodipine-yes
- What LA has the longest duration of action?
- Which drug causes bronchospasm in asthmatic? – ibuprofen
- Dose of aspirin for angina – 300mg
- Dose for adrenaline for anaphylaxis
- Crushing pain in the chest radiating to arm & relieved by sub-lingual glyceryl trinitrate
 - Angina
- Drug given 3 times a day – amoxycillin
- 1 mg of glucagons to be given to an unconscious diabetic patient – Intra-muscularly
- Which antibiotic is contraindicated in lactating mothers? – Tetracyclin
- What is the drug of choice for candidiasis? – fluconaxole
- Drugs causing gingival hyperplasia
- MRSA which medicine is effective eg. Vancomycin etc
- Antibiotic which is contraindicated in lactating mother?
- An EMQ on use of antibiotics in various clinical scenarios eg in asthma, uppser resp tract infection, TB ,which drug in overdose
causes hepatotoxicity?etc whereas the options for the drugs were Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Paracetamol, Diazepam, tetracycline.
- Which drug interacts with Warfarin?
- Longer acting LA? Answer was Bupivacaine
- Patient with peptic ulcer which analgesic would you prescribe: aspirin, ibuprofen, PARACETAMOL is the right one.
- Which of the following analgesics produce constipation after 5 days of taking it? Codeine was the correct answer
- Child that cannot swallow and need antibiotic prophylaxis but is allergic to penicillin? Azythromicin
- Which drug causes severe abdominal cramps? Clindamycin
- Which drug causes constipation? Dihydrocodeine
- Which LA is neurotoxic at 4%? Lignocaine
- Picture of a vial marked Xylocaine. Contains lidocaine/lignocaine
- Which LA do you give a patient with cardiac arrythmias? I marked articaine
- Which is a long acting LA? Bupivacaine
- Which LA will you use in a child to do pulpotomy? e
- LA for a normal & healthy adult? Lignocaine
- Which analgesic is given in a patient with peptic ulcers? Paracetamol
- Picture of medial surface of mandible with a syringe. Inferior alveolar nerve block
- Intra-ligamentary injection of LA is an adjunct to the inferior alveolar nerve block.
- Picture with a dot marked on maxillary canine. Which type of anesthesia?
Buccal & palatal infiltration
- Drug given to a patient with dry socket? Metronidazole
- Drug for a patient after 3rd molar extraction? Ibuprofen
- Drug for angular cheilitis. Miconazole
- What is the role of aspirin in MI? fibrinolytic
- Which antibiotic is prescribed in chronic sinusitis? Penicillin G
- Vitamin K antagonist? Warfarin
- Test to be done in a patient taking warfarin? INR
- Which drug potentiates the effect of warfarin? Erythromycin
- Patient with allergy to penicillin. Clindamycin
- Drug for herpes zoster. Acyclovir
- Which drug to you prescribe to a patient 2 days after the extraction of a 3rd molar if the socket has not yet healed & there are 2extra-
oral draining sinuses? Penicillin
- Which nerve block for upper first premolar? Anterior superior alveolar nerve block
- Along with inferior alveolar nerve block & lingual nerve block, which other nerve has to be anesthetised? Buccal nerve
- While writing a report after LA what should be noted? Blood aspiration
- Best drug for asthma? Salbutamol
- Drug for trigeminal neuralgia? Carbamezepine
- What should be added to beta-lactamase to make it more efficient against anerobes? Co-amoxyclav
- How do you know that a patient has penicillin allergy? Skin rashes
- Salbutamol: β2-adrenergic agonist
- Lots of medicines (reactions in the mouth) – Scully not enough
- Analgesic for asthmatic? Aspirin, NSAID, paracetamol, etc
- Healthy young patient. What’s the INR? 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
- What’s the depth of topical anaesthetic?
- What’s the concentration of lignocaine in topical anaesthetic? 0,5%, 1%, 2%, 5% etc
- What can you reach during ID block? Parotide
- What’s chlorhexidine family? Phenol, quaternary ammonium compound, etc
- Everything about intraligamentary anaesthesia: can it affect permanent tooth germ?
Does the needle need to be smaller than periodontal ligament? Is it painful?
- What’s the most predictable anaesthetic technique for lower lateral incisor? And for lower molars? ID block, intraligamentary,
infiltration,
- Phenytoin X gingival hyperplasia
- Aspirin function: anti-platelet, anticoagulant, etc
- Warfarin antagonist: vitamin K
- Infective endocarditis ab cover several questions
- Cholhexidine mouth wash and gel percentage
- Iff ID block is given for a restoration on 6 then what would u ask the pt not to do
- ID block which muscle is pierced
- Mast cell stabiliser(options were salbutamol,adrenaline,ipratonium bromide)
- Do all the areas which will be anaesthetisized when giving blocks inferior dental.infraorbital
- Which drug causes a fixed ulcer
- Which drug interacts with warfarin, , metronidazole etc(drug interactions are good in Scully)
- Antibacterial in toothpaste.
- Chlorhexidine its side effects
- %used in mouthwash and gel both
- Indications and contraindications of sedation.
- Where is iv sedation indicated where contraindicated
- What is nitrous oxide…soluble or insoluble in blood
- Local anaesthesia short acting long acting, which is good for bone which is present in the topical preparation.
- Prophylaxsis of infective endo carditis different scenarios, for eg-dose in kids, dose with allergy
- Inhalational anaesthesia is of most benefit to which of the following:
a)medically compromised
b)teenagers
c)pregnant women
d)children
- Concerning local anaesthetics which one
i) has d longest duration of action (ii) has shortest duration of action
iii) is commonly used for topical anaesthesia (iv)penetrates bone the most
v)causes methaemoglobinaemia

- Concentration of chlorhexidine solution commonly used in uk-0.2%

- Concentration of chlorhexidine gel commonly used in uk- 1%
- Which of these drugs stabilizes mast cells, stopping release of histamine
a)adrenaline (b)salbutamol (c)ipratropium (d)triamcenolone acetonide
- Which drug is used for the systemic treatment of candidiasis- Fluconazole
- Several questions with different clinical scenarios for prophylaxis of infective
endocarditis
- what is the best LA for a pregnant woman in last semester?opt: lignocaine(lidocaine), mepivacaine, bupivacaine,
amethocaine, perilocaine,
- Lots of questions about the Sedation and GA,with different scenario for children,for pregnant,for anxious pts.like: -what is the best opt
for extraction of wisdom teeth? Which one you use if you want to have anaesthetic longer after operation? (bupivacaine)
- what is the flavoured topical( I cannot remember exactly) anaesthetic? Opt as ques 26
- how many ml of lignocaine 2% 1/80000 can be injected to a 20 kilogram person? 2.2ml , 4.4ml , 6.6ml, 12ml,…….
- how many ml of lignocaine 2% 1/80000 can be injected to a 125 kilogram person?opt: 16ml, 24ml,26ml,30ml,….
- which options is mandatory during doing inhalation sedation? Opt: ECG and puls oxymetre,…..
- another ques similar above but about have access to emergency
- Soft tissue anaesthesis in intraligamental anaesthesis…… limited
- Special syringe for soft tissue anaesthesia…. Intralig
- INR in a 70kg man not under anticoagulation….1
- SEDATION; DRUGS, INDICATION CONTRAINDICATIONS
- VITAMINS AND ORAL MANIFESTATIONS
- LOCAL AND GENERAL ANAESTHETICS
- WARFARIN
- Antibiotics action: - Trimethoprim (inhibit folate)
- Ciprofloxacin (inhibit DNA metabolism)
- Aciclovir action – causes inactivation of DNA polymerase
- Medicaments action - competitive, not competitive, functional, etc. (I don’t remember the medications… ACE inhibitor)
- Bacterial resistance – plasmids
- Vaccine more common with inactivated virus – Influenza?
- MMR vaccine age – after 13 months
- Chronotropic,ionotropic definitions and what does adrenaline do?
- Local anaesthesia – many different questions
a- maximum dose for child 5 years with 20 kg – 4ml
b- maximum dose for adult 125 kg – 20ml (10 ampoules)
c- longest duration – bupivacaine
d- you’re not using adrenaline but requires vasoconstrictor for long duration – prilocaine
e- Substance that causes allergy - ? Sodium bisulphite or benzoate? (I don’t remember very well)
f- Spray local anaesthesia in practice – lignocaine
g- Anaesthetic solution for child with herpetic gingivostomatitis before eating – benzocaine, lignocaine…?
h- More toxic anaesthetic - mepivacaine
- Medication for sinus (not direct asking, gave us clinical situation to identify sinus: headache, pressure on moving head) –
- Anaesthesia and Sedation 5 sub questions for different clinical situations – anxious pregnant woman, not-cooperating child with 4
molars to be treated, nervous patient for extraction, normal pt for simple restorative procedure
- asthmatic patient analgesic medication after extraction - paracethamol
- child with 12 years medication after extraction – paracethamol
- Anaesthesia indicated for patients with COPD
- Anaesthesia indicated for pregnant woman
- Anaesthesia indicated for epileptic patient
- EMQ on indications of various kinds of anaesthesia (GA, LA, Inhalational sedation

10.oral surgery

-Different facial fractures,their diagnosis based on symptopms and x-rays to diagnose them.do in detail

Mandibular Fractures:Can simple(closed),Compound(open to mouth or skin),pahalogical(area weakened by pathology) or comminuted.

Or can be classified according to site i-e symphyseal,para,dentoalveolar,body,angle,coronoid and condylar(condylar most common and
often associated with the
fracture of canine region of the opposite side of jaw)bilateral condylar (guard man's) associated with symphyseal fracture.
Cl features:pain n swelling,deranged occlusion,paraesthesia in distribution area of inferior alveolar nerve,FOM heamatoma.
xrays: PA of mandible and panoramic,condylar-reverse towne's,fracture of body or symphysis-true occlusal

Zygomatic # :Flattening of cheekbone prominences,subconjunctival haemorrhage,diplopia,restricted eye movements,limited lateral

excursions of mandible,palpable
step in infra orbital bony margins,paresthesia in ifra orbital nerve area.xrays:OM views 30 deg and submentovertex (where # is found to
be limited in zygomatic arch)
Maxilla : lefort I: detaches the tooth bearing part of the maxilla via a # line from the anterior margin of the anterior nasal aperture
running laterally
and back to the lower 3rd of the pterygoid plate.Lefort II: detaches the true mid face in pyramid shape involving nasal bones and infra
orbital rims.
Lefort III:detaches the entire facial skeleton from base of the skull.
xrays:OM 10 and 30 deg,lateral skull views.
cl features:maxilla mobile,deranged occlusion,bilateral circumorbital bruising,sub conjunctival haemorrhage,CSF leak from nose or ear

What is the most toxic LA?

> 2. cells in acute and chronic infection
> 3.cells in granulomatosis infection
> 4. LA for a pte with congenital heart disease in a dental emergency
> 5. how many mg of lidocaine in 3 cartridges of 2.2? please explain
Cardiotoxic- bupivacaine also ( long.acting)
for cardiac arrythmias- Lignocaine
causes methhaemoglobinaemia - prilocaine
2.Acute- PMN, chronic- Lympocytes, plasma cells, macrophages
3.Granulomatous infection- epitheloid cells
4.
5.1 cartrige has 1.8 ml of 2 % which is 20mg in 1 ml
hence 1.8 * 3 = 54mg

- Zygomatic and orbital and mandibular fractures,do it from pink book

- Types of forceps-their exact names

- Dry socket questions-management -Re assure,irrigate with normal salina/0.12% chlorhexidine,place a dressing (Bismuth Iodoform
paraffin paste BIPP and lidocaine gel
on a ribbon guaze)

- A man with multiple myeloma comes for an extraction and comes back 6 weeks later and his socket has not healed what can cause this?
a. Multiple myeloma of the mandible
b. Drug induced osteoradionecrosis
c. Dry socket
d. Drug induced osteosclerosis
- Pictures of forceps: know different types of forceps eg eagles beak, cow horns e.t.c. 2 questions came out with pictures of the forceps
and we were asked to identify which one was eagles beak and which was cow horns
- picture of forceps used for extraction.eg cawhorn,root,eagle beak were the options
- What does Fracture of zygomatic arch cause? – causes trismus and paresthesia of infraorbital nerve
- What does Le Fort 1 fracture cause? – causes maxilla loosening
- What does Fracture of 2 condyles cause? – causes class III
- case: extraction of 3rd molar with dentigerous cyst in the angle of the mandible , sup and
inf border of mandible very thin. What can happen during the extraction? Fracture of the mandible
- Least level of platelets that you can do extraction?50 x 10
- All maxillary teeth moving together? Le Fort I #
- Bilateral condylar # causes trismus
- Zygomatic arch # causes anterior open-bite
- Orbital blow-out # causes paresthesia of infra-orbital nerve-orbital floor fracture
- Condition expected after extracting a tooth in a smoker? Dry socket
- # of mandible at the angle causes inferior alveolar nerve paresthesia
- Fracture of skull more likely to cause meningitis: Orbit, Nasal, Zygomatic Complex, Le Fort III, etc...lefort iii
- Maxilla moves together with teeth away from the skull: Le Fort I
- Suture material which is used for various oral surgery procedures and
- Which is not used in uk cat gut
- Throbbing pain present for days relived by staying in quiet room :
- Mandible Fracture signs
- Suture materials, which are used where for eg in biopsy , in lip trauma, in oroantral fistula
- Which suture material is banned in UK?
- ALL ABOUT SUTURES AND THE ONES NO LONGER USE IN THE UK
- POSSIBLE NERVE THAT CAN BE DAMAGED DURING ALL DIFFERENT DENTAL PROCEDURES INCLUDING REMOVAL
OF ADENOMAS OR CYSTS
- MEDICAL EMERGENCIES IN DENTISTRY, ALL OF THEM
- Extraction of 3rd Molar main complication – alveolitis
- Periosteal elevator and lingual flap (damage) – lingual nerve paraesthesia
- Extractions in 5 different situations (different teeth) and possibility of infection spread of which subspace –
submasseteric, submandibular, sublingual, submental, pharyngeal
- Picture of splint about upper right central incisor – 2 questions –one about more successful reimplantation if immature root apex
- Most important in reimplantation – PDL fibres and cement preserved
- Dry socket treatment – irrigation with antiseptic solution

11.operative/endo/paeds

- Questions on crowns ,they gave clinical scenarios like missing lateral with sound adjacent teeth,restored adjacent teeth,missing
premolars,missing molars,missing lower incisors
- Restoration to be given if marginal ridge is to be protected,contact point is to be retained
- Cements used for cementation of different crowns,very nicely given in churchill
- Restoration of lingual cavity in 65 years old class V:GIC
- Indications of fissure sealants one of the options was : brother of child with high risk caries
- Stephen’s curves

- Periapical with approximal caries in incisor and molar, what is the best access to the cavity? Direct access. Oclussal access etc.
Occlusal via marginal ridge-most commonly used-aim to form scoop form of cavity using pear shaped bur
Direct access-when adjacent tooth is missing
Occlusly leaving marginal ridge intact-tunnel prep
Buccally/lingually-when teeth are tilted

- Butt joint preparation in which material:- porcelain jacket crown

- How to identify caries of enamel? Probe, dry tooth, wet tooth, transillumination. Same question repeated several times with different
types of caries so make
a list of the diagnosis aids for different types of caries
- Best properties of NiTi files ,shape memory,corrosion resistant,elasticity?resistance to torsional failure,can be used it 360 degrees
rotation and increased
flexibility
- % of hypochlorite for irrigation in RCT?1-5%
- Behaviour management techniques fro children
- Child with several caries, anxious. Which anaesthetic to use? Nitrous oxide
- Anxious child:- provide sense of control,modelling,NO
- Indication for stainless steel crown:most durable restoration for primary
* badly broken down primary molars
 * after pulp therapy in primary molars
* in secondary molars as an interim restoration where crowns are required but the patient is too young
* in developmental anomalies
* severe tooth loss due to bruxism/erosion
* as a temporary coverage
- Best treatment planning (patient 15 years lost incisor 6 months ago – PRD, implants, bridges)
- Indication for different types of crowns (3/4, full etc)
- Nayar core (needs or not a crown afterwards)
- Faults with crowns (fits on the die but not on the tooth or does not fit on both)
- Indication for bridges
- Patient with Bulimia - treatment
- Patient with anorexia nervosa treatment option
- When choose amalgam than composite resin?posterior extensive cavity
- Question about nayyar core
- Use of Gates-Glidden drill
- Stepwise excavation-indirect pulp cap
- Patency filling-small flexible files are used to prevent apical blockage w/o enlarging apical foramen
the disadvantes are longer appointments and inability to control exudates

- Shape of access cavity in maxillary first molar: thru occlusal surface,triangular shaped with base buccally and apex palatally
mand molars :triangular shaped.base mesially and apex distsally.
max and mand canines and incisors: close to incisal edge on a palatal or lingual surface.triangular with broadest portion incisally.
max mand premolars : ovoid buccolingually

- What would you do when a patient comes with an asymptomatic root canal treated tooth with periapical radioluscency treated by some
other dentist?
- few questions on dates of eruption.... i mean v wer asked to tell the age of giving child ptt...
- A lot of questions on fluorides in children with various types of caries risks in various age groups
- Lots of questions on crown fabrication; treatment options in various age groups and clinical conditions
- Materials used for crowns in various conditions

- Disadvantages of patency preparation

- Uses of Gates glidden drills
- Shape of access cavity in maxillary first molar-triangular,base buccal apex palatal
- Questions on deep caries management, incipient dentinal caries
- Preventive resin restorations :if occlusal contacts are retained,the composite resin is used to seal the non carious fissures
- Restorative complexity index
- Definition of freeway space-rest-ovd
- Problem caused by palatine torus in complete denture fabrication
- Questions on calcium hydroxide
- Questions on inlays, onlays, nayyer core
- Figure with RPD- labelling
- BPE scoring
- Lots of questions on various clinical scenarios depicting different types of periodontitis
- Young adult with tooth surface loss. Best treatment option?
- Patient with Bulemia. Best treatment option?
- Patient with anorexia nervosa. High caries rate. High sugar intake. Best treatment option?
- Picture of a fractured central incisor with the pink pulp showing and a few drops of blood, how would you manage it?
a. Non setting calcium hydroxide and composite
b. Non setting calcium hydroxide and gic
c. Setting calcium hydroxide and gic-yes
d. Setting calcium hydroxide and composite
- Same picture, the question was what kind of injury is it?
a. Fracture of enamel
b. Fracture of enamel and dentine
c. Fracture of enamel and dentine in close proximity to the pulp
d. Fracture of enamel and dentine with minimal pulp exposure-yes

- What behaviour method will you choose in a co-operative, accompanied child – Tell, show, do
- QUES.ON Avulsion :time period for reimplantation
- Root caries when u use?GIC
- EMQ: case-1: A 9yr old cooperative patient
Case 2-patient having tendency to gag but under control (anwer was u will just use Distraction methods so as to divert his attention
eg ask the patient to wriggle his toes.)
Case 3: Patient who had Epilepsy 10yrs ago but now under control
Case4: Child patient 4 or 5 yr old had a sibling (answer was Show off)
Options were: which technique will u use inhalational sedation, intravenous sedation ,carry on with treatment with explanation,
modeling, ask patient to wriggle toes and talk to him etc
- Better restoration material for class V in Sjogren syndrome – resin modified GI?
– Lingual cavity in posterior teeth in Parkinson patient, which material is better to use? – Glass ionomer?
- How do you proceed to eliminate approximal caries in anterior teeth? Access from palatal aspect.
- The same question in posterior teeth, an x- ray was shown with decay in enamel and dentine, options given : occlusal access without
removing marginal bridge,
occlusal access removing marginal bridge..............
- Pigmented fissure , which is the best way of caries diagnosis, options given: sharp probe, bitewing?
- Little cavity in mesial of upper first molar, how do you assess decay? Options: briault probe, bitewing, etc
– Cavity test ( drilling) , when do you use it ?– When all other tests have failed
- Sodium hypochlorite concentration used in endo? – 1-5%
- Ideal length of post ? leaving 4 mm of endo obturation.
– Characteristic for best retention of post – taper, length and superficial texture?length
– Ni-ti files, why it is used? No memory, more difficult to break?
- Inicial caries lesion surface characteristic? – porosity?
– Stephan curve what does it shows? pH saliva over time
– 13 years old lateral incisor crown fracture without pulp exposure, what kind of restoration? Composite
- Which is the function of posts? – increase retention of core
– Which restoration is used in tooth with amalgam nayar core? Metallic ceramic crown??
– Internal bleaching , which is the most common material that is used for that?– sodium perborate
- What is the concentration of sodium hypochlorite used as an irrigating agent? 2.5%
- The method of drilling a cavity without LA is the last resort when all other vitality tests fail
- NiTi instruments are preferred to stainless steel instruments because of hyperflexibility
- Which method of behaviour control is used in a child with a minimal occlusal cavity? Tell, show, do
- Which access for mesial cavity on upper incisor? Palatal
- Pic of a small cavity on the mesial surface of lower premolar which has not invaded the enamel surface. Access occlusally with
marginal ridge intact
- Restoration in a MOD cavity which has caries below the contact point? Amalgam
- Restoration of the cervical area of a high caries incidence patient? Resin modified glass ionomer cement

- Walking bleach? 35 % Hydrogen peroxide & sodium perborate

- Pulpotomy – which is the best material to use, especially because of its low toxicity? Formocresol, ferric sulphate, etc (calcium
hidroxide was not an
option!!!)ferric sulphate
- Root filled tooth with no symptoms. When do you take the first x-ray for the follow-up? 6 months, 12 months, 18 months,
etc..12months
- Root caries diagnosis
-How old is the patient most likely to have a trauma that damages tooth germ of permanent incisor? In years: 1, 2, etc
- Tooth wear: erosion, attrition
- What’s more likely to cause erosion? Diet cola, sweet stuff, etc
- What’s the best protection for the pulp? Dentine, lining, etc..dentine
- Which root filling technique use a handpiece? Thermomechanical compaction
- Class III very small. What’s the best treatment? Lining, composite filling (no lining), etc
- Which root filling material comes in 2 pastes? Tubli Seal, etc
- Diet advise for a child. What’s the most effective method? tell the parents not to give sweets for the child, dentist tells the child which
are good and bad foods, nurse talk to the child, send the child to a dietician, etc
- Crown fracture with pulp exposure. Patient comes 5 days later. What’s the treatment? Pulp cap, pulpotomy, superficial pulpotomy,
pulpectomy
- Endo files: single use!
- Preparation techniques for endo: crown-down, stepback, stepdown, etc
- What’s “greater tape” instruments made from? NiTi
- How do you identify decayed dentine? hard and wet, soft and wet, soft, etc...soft wet
- Cracked tooth syndrome: use cotton wool, pain on release of biting
- Trauma to tooth with closed apex. In which one the tooth is more likely to maintain vitality? concussion, subluxation, intrusive
luxation, avulsion,
luxation : concussion 5 year survival reate in closed apex 96%
- Dull pain with vital pulp various questions:chronic periapical periodontitis
- Dental caries which is more imp frequency of sugar intake? Or time of intake?
- Calcification and eruption dates of primary and permanent dentition
- How can u locate the apex other than a radiograph : Electronic apex loactor
- Many different scenarios were given and we had to choose which is the best like what is indicated in a 15 year old boy who has lost his
front tooth,
what is indicated in a 26 year old lady who has lost her front tooth.
- Different values of pulp tester were given and we had to diagnose the condition, pulpitis, sinusitis, abscess etc there were a lot of
questions on it.
- A pt has an old Ag filling and there is occlusal wear what are the causes bruxism , attrition, abrasion .etc...attrition
- There were questions on erosion abrasion and its causes.
Conditions where they are seen
- There were many questions on iatrogenic trauma, like what can happen if the matrix band is not placed properly, what can happen if
we use a old diamond bur why do we use a rubber dam.
- Rampant caries
Diagnosis
Treatmant
- Stephans Curve and effect on saliva ph etc.
- Pic were given and we had to diagnose what it is Rampant caries
- What advise we will give to pt.
What will we ask in history, social medical etc etc
- which one can be prevented by using matrix band? Options: Open contact point, overhang
- How long Nayarr core should go through root? Opt: 3mm, 6mm, half of the root,….3mm

- which one can be prevented by using wedge for filling? overhang , open contact point,under contouring,…….
- thermomechanical compaction with handpiece
- greatest polish composite-microfilled

- Cause of pain 2 years after RCT

- Nayarr core…. Where used..after RCT when sufficient tooth structure available.amalgam is packed 3 mm into the root canal and pulp
chamber to give mechanical
retention
- Best protection for the pulp ,…..denine
- A comparative evaluation of pulp response to glass lonomer cement with zinc oxide eugenol and silicate cements : a histological study.
- Endodontology. 1989 Dec.; 1(2): 11-5
Toxic root canal sealants…….AH26 ++++toxic……. A review of the literature reveals that this represents the largest
published case series of endodontically related injuries to the inferior alveolar nerve. Studies have shown that
all root canal sealants are neurotoxic to some degree. The most neurotoxic appear to be those containing paraformaldehyde6 or
one of its analogs, including Sargenti paste (N2) or Endomethasone (Spécialtiés Septodont, Saint-Maurdes Fosses, Cedex, France;
available only in Canada and Europe).11,21 Other sealants contain analogs of formaldehyde, particularly before they have set (for
example, AH 26 [Dentsply Maillefer, Tulsa, Okla
- ENDO IRRIGANTS AND ALTERNATIVES
- ANOREXIA AND BULIMIA IN DENTISTRY
- ATTRITION, ABRASION, EROSION
- ROOT AND CANALS DISTRIBUTION AND ANATOMY IN BOTH DENTITIONS.
- CAOH2 SETTING AND NON-SETTING; INDICATIONS
- ACCESS PREPARATION FOR RCT
- Question about posts with 5 sub questions – different clinical situation, cement for indirect post, types
- What is more important in a successful post – length
- Matrix band poor technique 5 sub questions – marginal overconstruction, underconstruction, open contact point, overhang
- Matrix band other questions with some alternatives
- Wedge not placed what happens – overhang
- Rubber dam isolation – protect pt airway in a Upper Central Incisor RCT
- Rubber dam sub questions – moisture control in lower teeth (2 different situations and teeth presented)
- Sealants for 1st Molars best age – as soon as first molar erupts and isolation is possible usually 6-7 years
- RCT sealer resin-based – AH Plus
- Crowns indications for 5 different clinical situations – gold onlay, gold ¾, MC, Porcelain Jacket Crown, All-ceramic Alumina crowns
- which one is the best option about amalgam filling? The floor should be flat, the internal line angle should be rounded, the angle
between
filling and the cavity wall should be 90 degrees, …. So many similar options.cavosurface angle
- what is most useful for a molar filling in a woman? Opt as above

12.orthodontics

- Ceph angles
- Pictures of cephs to tell the angle’s classification
- classification of occlusion on the basis of incisors
- IONT
- Loads of questions from ortho! IOTN-at least 20 , Angle classification-characteristics of I,II,III clases
- Lateral cephalometric – determine the age of patient

- Pt. Lateral ceph. Mixed dention stage, determine pt. Age

- Lateral Ceph of mixed dentition, identify the labelled tooth.
- FIG of lateral ceph to identify age and second molar
- An EMQ on the management of crowding, mild, moderate and severe. (about 5 questions)
- Questions on the use of headgear
- A picture of a childs mouth with an anterior open bite, what is the cause?
 a. Cleft lip and palate
b. Tongue thrusting
c. Thumb sucking

- Effects of thumb sucking

a. Bilateral posterior open bite
b. Reduced over bite
- Questions of angles classification of malocclusion
- Age of the patient was asked from a lateral cephalogram
- IOTN : EMQ
- Eruption sequence as there was a picture of the skull with teeth in the jaws
and u had to tell the age of the patient
- lots of ques on orthodontics twin block appliances ,reverse overjet, open bite ,thumb
sucking.
- EMQ :in which case u hv to extract first premolar or second premolar in upper
or lower arch,when not to etc.eg in mild crowding with class 2 div 1.pls read
abt it.
- Classification of malloclusion, angle and british
- Picture of the skull of a child, what age is he?
- Picture of teeth with chronological enamel hypoplasia affecting different parts of different teeth. How old is the patient?
- About 10 or 15 EMQ’s on questions on iotn
- In which case is the highest IOTN score? Submerged deciduous teeth (IOTN score: 5
- Picture of occlusion with increased over-bite
- Picture of occlusion with increased proclination of maxillary incisors
- What is the position of lower incisors in Class I malocclusion? They lie immediately below or just posterior to the cingulum plateau of
the maxillary incisors
- What is the position of the lower incisors in Class II div I malocclusion?
They lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors and the maxillary incisors are proclined.
- Position of the lower incisors in Class III malocclusion? They lie anterior to the cingulum plateau of the maxillary incisors.
- What has to be considered the most in diagnosing malocclusion? Developmental age
- Picture of Class II div II malocclusion
- which grade of IOTN is the cleft lip and palate? Grade 5
- which grade of IOTN is the hypodontia(more than one tooth missing in every quad)? Grade 5
- A picture of diastema in a mixed dentition were shown and asked what is the diagnosis ? what is the best treatment plan? opt: monitor,
orthodontic appliance extraction
- IOTN index 5 sub questions – clinical situations
- Which teeth to extract in different classes

13.prostho

- Definition of freeway space : The difference b/w rest and intercuspal position usually 2-4 mm....Rest-OVD
- Pt with dentures that don’t fit,so diagnose the cause
- Chroma-intensity of colour(hue)

- Teeth setting in relation to ridge and papilla:

Natural teeth lie 10mm from papilla ; with resorption this comes to lie on ridge so the anterior teeth should be placed labial and buccal
to the ridge
to give adequate lip support and naso labial angle of 90 degrees.Normally 8-10 mm infront of the centre of incisive papilla.
 Incisal edges of upper central incisors,canines,both cusps of 1st and 2nd premolars and mesiopalatal cusp of the 1st max molar should
touch occlusal plane.

Mandibular teeth should be placed in the centre of the crest of ridge such that the central fossa of mandibular teeth should lie at the
centre of the crest.

The bucal cusp of mand 2nd premolar should engage the embrasure b/w max 1st and 2nd premolar and mesiobuccal cusp of mand 1st
molar should engage the embrasure
b/w maxillary 1st molar and max 2nd premolar.The lingual cusps of the max 1st molar should occlude in central fossa of mand 1st
molar and same is for max and mand 2nd.

- Factor affecting retention of teeth

- Lots of questions about the components of the Removable partial denture
-saddle,clasps,rests and connectors
- How to measure the vertical dimension : Vertical dimension = rest - free way space
can be mearsured by facial musculature,willies guage,spring dividers.This is to ensure there is an adequate interocclusal clearance.

- Recording the occlusion in an edentulous patient, full denture

- Prosthodontics- crowns ,partial dentures- Kenedy classification

- Which structure gives guidance to the placement of maxillary incisors on dentures?incisive papilla

- Picture of lady with large hands and complaining of unfitted dentures : acromegaly
- Picture of RPD
- Problems caused by palatine torus

- Die fail to fit prepare and cast – die damage + distorted

- Inlay fail to fit to prepare – undercuts
- Various clinical scenarios, different age groups – treatment options – crowns, bridges, RPD, acrylic denture, implant

- Picture of an upper denture with Adam’s cribs on the 6’s what kind of denture is it?
a. Spoon denture
b. Every’s denture
c. Tooth supported denture(correct)

A Spoon Denture : is a small denture usually to replace just one or two front teeth. The palate part of the denture on suction to hold it in
place as it does
not make contact with the inner surfaces of the back or side teeth. This means that it tends to be unstable and requires skill on the part of
the patient
to use their tongue to stabilise it while eating. This lack of stability is the main disadvantage and the subsequent movement can lead to
gum recession
and further loosening. The advantages are that it is cheap and easy to make and as the gum margins of the other teeth are not contacted
by the denture
base, there is less likelihood of decay or gum disease occurring.

Every Denture: is a mucosa borne denture with a specific design to ensure gingival health.Restricted to the use in upper arch.
- 5 Questions on Kennedy’s classification of dentures

- A picture of a man whose central incisor has just been extracted and who is going to get an implant in the next 6 months what is the
best way to preserve the space
a. Chromium cobalt denture
b. Acrylic denture-yes
c. Orthodontic wire

- The same picture and the question was what traumatic injury could have occurred
a. Avulsion
b. Concussion(correct)
c. Luxation
d. Subluxation
- Kennedy classification and pics of diff cast
- Picture of two casts with wax blocks having teeth in occlusion they asked what
can u identify from the picture options were. bite registration,there is class 2
or 3,protrusive record etc.

- Trial wax
– what you can check outside patients mouth in articulator - read page 114 master dentistry
On articulator before trial on the patient,we can check complete teeth set up.The occlusion is then assessed,checking balance in
excursive movements.

– Willis bite gauge and surveyor pictures shown and you need to say their names
- When making Dentures, what you cannot change? – condylar horizontal plane
– Fixed- movable bridge – read page 101 master dentistry
– Second impression for resorbed ridge in denture ,which is the best material to use? – ZOE with low space tray
- Butt joint margin in buccal surface for porcelain bonded crown, what for? Aesthetics
- Picture anterior crown, which characteristic cause gingival inflammation? Subgingival margin?? Material?
– Pontic design shown and need to be identified ?– modified ridge lap
– Name of instrument for survey models, options given - Surveyor?
- Picture of surveyor
- Surveyor cannot determine where occlusal rests have to be placed.

- The best restoration for a missing maxillary central incisor in an otherwise healthy, caries-free mouth is an implant
- When will you use a butt joint in a crown preparation? When an increased thickness of material is required
- Which is the most step to be taken after taking an impression? Disinfection-washing with water and immersing in 10000 ppm Sodium
hypochloride for 5 mins

- Lower premolar is set on the alveolar ridge

- Upper incisors are set 8-10 mm anterior to the incisive papilla.

- Where do you take support while restoring a tooth? On the tooth

- Picture of a 3-unit fixed fixed bridge

- Picture of a pontic in a 3 unit fixed bridge. saddle

- A 16-year old boy requires a crown with minimal caries.

- Restoration for peg lateral?

- Most difficult to achieve? Inter-condylar guidance
- Picture of Willis gauge
- What can be adjusted on a cast before the patient comes? Anatomical tooth position.balance and excursive movements on an articulator
before trial
- Adjusting the over-jet & over-bite will alter inter-codylar angle
- When do you use in prosthesis only 1 rim? To do OVD, rest vertical dimension, etc
- Prosthesis – neutral zone technique
- Articulators
- Bridge
- Trauma by denture in buccal sulcus
- Group function, canine-guided occlusion :
Group function : multiple tooth contacts on working side during lateral excursions but no contact on non working side.
Canine guided occ: During lateral excursions there is disculsion of all teeth on the working side except for canine and no contact on non
working side.

- Bur to prepare “rest” in prosthesis

-tungsten carbide round ended straight fissured bur for anterior teeth and for post teeth no 6 tungstun carbide bur
- Prostho rpd two designs identify support and indirect retension
- Implants ,fpd indications
- Partial denture..What does P stand in RPI system :distal guiding plate
- Many pics were given and we had to mark the rest , bars clasps

- What is an Akers clasp : a classic clasp with

An Akers' clasp is the classic direct retainer for removable partial dentures. Named after its inventor, Polk E. Akers, this suprabulge
clasp consists
of a rest, a guide plate, a retentive arm and a reciprocal arm. Akers' clasps, as a rule, face away from an edentulous area. Should they
face the
edentulous area, they are termed reverse Akers' clasps

- What is the length of a clasp..

A retentive clasp should be at least 15 mm in length if it is constructed in cast cobalt-chromium alloy
A retentive clasp should be at least 7 mm in length if it is constructed in wrought wire.

- When is a crown indicated?

- A picture showing a partial denture design and we were asked to identify the indirect
retention, support, rest and clasps.

- Several questions with different clinical scenarios and we were asked to choose the
most appropriate for the patient-a conventional fixed fixed bridge,a minimal preparation fixed fixed bridge, a conventional cantilever
bridge,a minima
preparation cantilever bridge,a denture or an implant.

For example a 21 yr old male with a missing upper central incisor,good abutment teeth with well developed alveolar ridge;implants
a 70yr old woman with missing
central incisor as a result of periodontal problems.cantilever
- some questions about treatment plan with different cases,like:
a 15 years old boy has lost his central tooth in skiing,what is the best opt for him? resin based fixed bridge
Ext, implant,resin bonded crown

- MANAGEMENT OF MISSING INCISORS IN ADULTS AND CHILDREN

- BRIDGE PARTS AND CR/CO DENTURE. KENNEDY CLASS.
- TYPE OF BRIDGES AND INDICATIONS
- Partial denture design 5 sub questions – abutment (mesial rest, distal rest), increase/decrease occlusal plate, increase/decrease
support on mucosa area (saddle), stress-breaking design

- Picture - Patient complains about her lower canines (last teeth), she has a nice partial denture, canines pocketing less then 2mm and
50% bone support, what treatment is the best – implant-based overdenture, extraction and wait for healing to make a new denture,
extraction

and immediate dentures, RCT if Canines treatable and overdenture

- Kennedy classification figures – 5 sub questions (look up for classes and modification 1)
- 2 different clinical cases of need to be extracted upper central incisor and the best way to replace it – options: acrylic dentures, chrome-
cobalt partial denture, implant, adhesive bridge, fixed-fixed bridge
a- for a 45years courier with other lost upper molars and PMs – acrylic denture ???
and other quite well-financial situated guy, for immediate replacement – adhesive bridge

- Picture of 2 cast models – first management – occlusal diagnostic mounting

14.radio

- X-ray faults.there were so many questions about this.need thorough reading

- OPGs to tell the main important features like caries and fractures of bones to be identified
- X-ray and question about the patients age
- X-ray where you should identify the sinus
- Cone beam CT of upper jaw-4 projections- longitudinal,axial,sagital with question on external resorption that is showed on one of them
- Few PA radiograms –to diagnose condition-supernumerary tooth ,caries
- OPG- name certain structures-hard,soft palate,tongue,floor of maxillary sinuses,hyoid bone
- Radiograph given – identify various sinuses and other structures in skull
- Radiographic relevance of swiss cheese pattern, ground glass appearance (fibrous displasia) swiss cheese adenoid cystic carcinoma
- Indications of periapical radiography
- Radiographic faults – film blackening, least likely cause?
- Lesion 20mm on upper central incisor – type of Xray?
- Also keep this in mind that they usually keep only one or two radiographs n ask everything abt it at different stages... so look on the
radiograph properly
- Radiographic relevance of swiss cheese pattern, ground glass appearance
- Indications of periapical radiography
- Radiographic faults
- Radiograph given in which various sinuses and other structures in skull given
- method of detection of proximal caries? bitewings
- X-ray of anterior teeth, one of them has a periapical lesion. Identify the tooth
- Opg, identify labelled structures.
- Bite wing identify tooth with carious lesion
- Picture of a ct scan of the upper teeth, we were asked to identify the different types of sections e.g. sagittal, coronal e.t.c
- Radiographs showing caries v had to diagnose which tooth was carious,Not
very obvious though in the radiograph
- Landmarks in OPG
- Anatomical landmarks of upper and lower jaw like maxillary
tuberosity,retromolar area
- RADIOGRAPHS : occlusal and IOPA u had to idetify what it is?root
fracture,resorption,apical pathology etc.lots of ques on radiographs ...
It has not been asked so much in detail in the past i think but now the pattern
is getting a bit modified so pls do have a look at different views eg. CT scan
- Which Xray is needed for implants?
- Huge ameloblastoma xray image to identify
- Diagnosis of interproximal caries, what would you use? Bitewings, briault probe
- Position of unerupted canine , which is the best xray technique to identify its position? – parallax techinique ( Whaites book very useful
- OPG, you have to know everything, this time was shown, floor of the sinus, hyoid bone, pharynx, nasal septum.
- Periapical xrays with different types of problems, reason of failure: double exposure, wrong side exposed, conning off, blurred (
patient moves), . etc
- X-ray with defect x-ray placed on the wrong side (there were foil impressions)
- X-ray showing caries in lower molars
- X-ray defect in which the patient has moved.blurred
- X-ray defect in which there are fixer splashes.white blotches
- X-ray defect in which there is double speed.
- X-ray defect in which there is double exposure. (both upper & lower teeth seen in an IOPA)
- Patient comes to you after 2 years of not visiting a dentist, which radiograph will you take? Bite-wings
- X-ray in a child to see the presence of tooth-buds? Panaromic radiograph
- X-ray in which 2 cm radioluscency around the apex of a upper incisor? Occlusal view
- X-ray in TMJ pain? CT
- What should be done after taking an x-ray? Report of the radiograph
- X-ray showing thickened trabecular bone
- X-ray for a patient with flattened zygoma & bilateral black eyes? Occipitomental view
- Best radiograph to diagnose approximal and occlusal caries
- 3 year-old child, baby teeth to be extracted. You want to check permanent germs. Which ragiograph? Panoramic,
periapical, bimolar, occlusal, lateral skull view, etc
- radiograph of mixed dentirion identify age and abnormalities
- Radiograph of primary molar was given and asked what radiograph was it options were horizontal bitewing,vert bitewing,iopar,bimolar
view
- Radiolucent lesions
- There were a lot of conditions and we had to correlate them with the type of xrays reqd for their diagnosis, like bitewings, periapical,
dpt , cephalogram
- Many time they showed us bitewing xrays, we had to give the age of the patient tell what type of bitewing horizontal, vertical etc
- There were two bitewing radiographs showing resorption of the roots of a
Lower deciduous molar because of an erupting premolar and we were asked
the type of radiographs-vertical bitewings and what d radiograph showed
- On radiograph , a mutilocular radioluscency in the region of the angle/ramus of the
mandible is most likely
a)ameloblastoma (b)pleomorphic adenoma (c) staphne’s idiopathic bone cavity

- A radioluscency in the angle of the mandible located beneath the inferior dental
canal is most likely- staphne’s idiopathic bone cavity
- Which radiographic view will you use for orthodontic assessment-Cephalometric
- Several questions with different clinical scenarios we were asked which views of
radiographs will be most appropriate- OM view,PA skull,PA mandible,Oblique
laterals or standard occlusals

- If you are carrying out RCT for a patient and you are unable to take a radiograph in
order to determine the working length because of limited mouth opening but you have
a pre-op assessment radiograph what will you do
a)take a dental panoramic radiograph
b)use an electronic apex locator
 c)use tactile means to determine the apical stop

- which one ……………………………………………………? Radiation protection

- what is the best radiograpgy for TMJ ? options: CT, MRI, OPG…
- 4 or 5 questions about land marks of OPG. Hard palate, ID nerve canal, zygomatic matress, ……
- A bitewing was given and asked about the caries in that .like: which one still doeasn’t need filling? Or which starge is the pts is? Early
mixed dentition,……….
- something about equivalent dose of 2 bitewings? !!!!!!!!!!!
- X- RAYS FOR DIFFERENT TYPES OF FACIAL TRAUMA
- INTRAORAL AND EXTRAORAL X-RAYS AND INDICATIONS
- Radiology – person responsible for written protocols – Employer
- Radiology secondary radiation for how long – 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 hours???
- Radiology – responsible for justification, quality assurance and control x-rays (not sure about how the question was) – practitioner
- DPT identify structures – very complicated (tonsils, ID canal, hard palate, zygomatic buttress)
- DPT x-ray showing mixed dentition – identify 5 teeth

15.syndromes

- Many questions on cleidocranial dysplasia,its associations and same picture was given everytime,about 6-7 times
- Picture of patient with bilateral cleft and lip palate and association with down syndrome and its treatment
- Gardener’s syndrome
- Ectodermal dysplasia
- Alzheimer disease
- Gardener’s syndrome:gardner maali hota hei,gardners hamesha mun phula ker rakhtey hein so osteomas hotey hein unko
saath mein hamesha chutti kerhtey hein so pait mein bhi koi masla hota hei ( polyposis)and.. then daanth bhi kharab hotey hein ..
delayed eruption
etcplus .. plants mein kantey chubtey hein.. tou phir skin lesions and cysts bhi ho jatey heinintestinal polypoises
- Sjogren’s syndrome
- Features of epithelial dysplasia
a. Hypo chromatism
b. Atypical mitosis
- Question on Sjogren’s syndrome
- Down syndrome characteristics ( to know all of them
- Picture of a young patient with cleidocranial dysotosis
- Picture of a child with bilateral cleft lip & unilateral cleft palat
- Patient with Down’s syndrome has immune defects
- Down Syndrome – trissomy of which chromosome? 21
- Down Syndrome – intraoral characteristic? Macroglossia
- Sjogrens syndrome
- Ramsay hunt syndrome
- Grinspan syndrome
- Down – Trisomy of 21
16.oral anatomy/histology

- Width of periodontal ligament: 0.2mm

fibres in periodontal ligament
- Periodontal ligament,its composition like fibres in it like most abundant,that bears maximum occlusal stress,collagen type
- Lamina to identify bone, PL, primary and permanent teeth.
- Questions on types of cells in perio ligament-quite few of these questions
- Width of periodontal ligament, fibres and type of collagen
- Histology – structures of erupting tooth
- Which cells are usually not seen in the pulp?
- Type of collagen in Periodontal ligament
- More blood vessels seen in which area of pulp? Options- close to dentin, centre of pulp chamber, above furcation area, etc.,close to
dentin

- Cells that cannot be seen in the pulp; options- odontoclasts, odontoblasts, fibroblasts, schwann cells
- Junctional epithelium derived from; options- resting enamel epithelium, etc.,
- Periodontal width and fibres
- Questions on dentinal tubules
- Histology slide of erupting tooth. Identify different structures. (cementum of primary/permanent, enamel, PDL of primary/perm,
alveolar bone, crestal bone)
- type of collagen in pdl ?type1
- Average width of periodontal ligament
- Histological section of primary & permanent tooth with different parts labelled
- Which cells are usually not seen in the pulp? – osteoclasts
- There was questions on desmosomes, cell junctions eg. What type of cell junctions are seen in oral mucosa.
- Emq about diff cells that form the tooth plz read in detail because it was
confusing and i dont remember the question.
eg.they were asking about osteoclast, cementoblasts, fibroblasts cells etc. where
they are found and what do they make?
- Size of periodontal ligament, options given 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 mm ( answer 0,15 to 0.38 mm Ten Cate
- Type of collagen most common in PDL? Type I
- Type of collagen second most common in PDL? Type III
- PDL is thinnest at the mid-root region.
- PDL is thicker in adolescents as compared to adults.
- The direction of PDL fibres is oblique.
- PDL fibres are attached to the cementum : sharpy's
- Bone formed totally intramembranously: frontal, parietal, occipital, mandible, sphenoid, temporal: frontal and parietal
- Name of the first formed dentine: mantle?
- Where does Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath come from-cervical loop
- Which one is not a developmental line of teeth? Von Ebner, neonatal, perikymata, etc
- Enamel organ: everything! (identify in the figure) Where does the cells for enamel and dentine come from? Cells from neural
crest?ectoderm of the first arch and
and ectomesechyme of neural crest
Cells that give rise for the permanent germ? Cells that connect enamel organ to the oral epithelium
- Inorganic or organic component in dentine (don’t remember exactly)
- Distance from second upper premolar to maxillary sinus: 0,5mm, 1mm, 2mm, etc
- Bud stage,cap stage,bell stage
- Do arches and its derivatives indirect question was asked on Digastric and its nerve supply .
- Development of parotid gland.
- Development of tooth, all stages be very thorough questions were asked in a very tricky manner and also do the the weeks properly
.which stage when ?Atleast 5 to 6 questions
- Calcification of primary and secondary teeth, their time of development and their eruption be very thorough.
- There were questions on cementum, enamel, and dentin mainly composition.
- Which cells are more in pdligament:fibroblasts
- Junction epithelium. Its anatomy and position
- What is passive eruption
- Dental anatomy no of canals and access prep for different teeth like molars, incisors etc
- Development of the parotid gland begins in utero at what month
- Bud stage of tooth development begins at-8th week
- Dates of calcification and eruption of various permanent teeth were asked.
- Bud stage of upper 1st permanent molar begins at-8th week in utero
- The number and names of the root canals most commonly seen in the following
i)upper central incisors-1
ii)upper 1st premolar-2
iii)lower 2nd premolar-1
iv)upper 1st molar-4
v)lower 1st molar-3

- nWhat does the transcluscent/sclerotic zone in dentine represent

- Which dental hard tissue is 45% mineralized and resorbs slower than bone
a)enamel (b)dentine (c) cementum
- EVERYTHING ABOUT INTRA AND EXTRA UTERIN TOOTH DEVELOPMENT OF BOTH DENTITIONS.
- HISTOLOGY ABOUT ENAMEL, DENTINE, PERIODONTAL LIGAMENT, CEMENTUM AND PULP
- TOOTH FORMATION AND ERUPTION OF BOTH DENTITIONS
- Root formation – Hertwig Sheath
- Enamel – 5 questions (stellate reticulum disappears, Ameloblasts from Inner Epithelium Cells, Buccal mucosa and lips from vestibular
lamina?)
- Osteoblasts deposit bone
- Osteoclast bone resorption

17.Biochem
- BIOCHEMISTRY: OUTCOME OF LIPIDS, CARBS AND PROTEIN METABOLISM

18.perio

- Biologic width : comprises sulcus depth,junctional epithelium and connective tissue upto the level of alveolar crest bone.normally 2-2.5
from the base
of the gingival sulcus to the alveloar crest.

- Pregnancy tumour and epulis: A local gingival swelling due to chronic irritation or mild trauma to the soft tissues.

- Extraoral finger rest: two types

knuckle rest palm up technique: clinician rests his knuckles agains patient's chin or cheek.
Palm down or chin-cup technique:clinician cups the patient's chin with his palm.
advantages: facilitates intrumentation of proximal surface of maxillary root surfaces.
disadvantages : least effective of all fulcrum technique.Stroke control is more difficult and decreases tactile information.
- Sub gingival scalers and their angulation :45-90 degrees.The ideal angulation for calculus removal is b/w 60-90

- What part of the instrument is parallel to the tooth when doing scaling? Middle shank, upper shank, lower shank of curette?lower shank
- What makes scaling easier and less exhausting like length of instrument,breadth,grip?
Dentists and dental hygienists who spend much of their work time on manual scaling can modify their work practice to reduce their risk
of developing
MSDs by the careful scheduling of patients with heavy calculus, taking appropriate breaks and ensuring that instruments are kept sharp.
In addition,
this study demonstrates that the risk associated with the high level of pinch force required for scaling can be reduced by selecting
instruments with
a large diameter and a light weight.
- BPE :0-no bleeding on probing 1-bleeding on probing no pocketing 2- bleeding ,plaque retentive areas found 3-probing depth greater
than 3.5 less than 5.5
class 4-probing depth exceeds5.5
- Diabetes Mellitus
- Gram positive bacteria causing periodontitis :Streptcoccus and actinomyces
- Questions about BPE and treatment
- Pt with acute fatigue, night sweats, gingival enlargement and bleeding :leukemia
- Various clinical scenarios in different types of periodontitis
- 1-2 questions about BPI
- What is the greatest predisposing factor for necrotizing periodontitis?
a. Smoking-yes
b. HIV
- Questions on BPE
- If a person has pockets of 6mm what bpe score does the person have?4
- BPE scores
- Curettes – shank, which part of it has to be parallel to the long axis of the tooth?. Checked internet, is last part.
– Where do you put your fingers while scaling? – tooth
_ What helps not to get tired while scaling related with the size of the handle of the curette ?light weight handles &thicker
handles
- Which instrument will you use for a patient with periodontal pockets of 2mm? UNIVERSAL CURRETTE
- How will you confirm that a patient has periodontitis? 2mm pockets
- The long axis of the tooth should be parallel to the tip of the probe
- For minimum discomfort & maximum efficiency, the instrument should be sharp
- The diameter of the scaler should be less to have more efficiency
- Best interdental cleaning for perio patients: interdental brushes, dental floss, tooth picks, etc
- Where the bone is lost the most in periodontal disease? Buccal, Lingual, Mesial, Distal, Approximal...approximal
- Patient well motivated, good OH, furcation lesion Class II. What’s the best treatment? Guided tissue regeneration, scale and root
planing, etc
- Pulpitis and periodontis various c/f
- Plaque scores, debris index loe scores
- Which cells are present in chronic periodontitis-machrophages and lymphocytes
- Which cells are present in acute periodontitis-neutrophils

- Gingival index, plaque index, Loe and Sillness index many questions were asked...0-no plaque,1- plaque seen with disclosing solution
or running probe
2,moderate accumulation seen with naked eye 3-abundance of plaque in pocket and on tooth surface
- What can happen if while doing gingival cautery you notice its casing is broke n or something choices were gingival trauma, mucosal
burn, lip burn
- A picture of a patient with rampant caries,we were asked to identify it and which will
be most beneficial to the patient
a)scaling and polishing b)dietary advice c)tooth brushing advice
- Questions on plaque index, bleeding index and Gingival index
- periodontitis affecting PMs and molars in a 35 year old lad
- Periodontitis affecting molars and PMs 4-5 mm pocket, +++plaque
- Man 70+ with generalised recession, 5-6mm pockets-4
- man with 2-3 mm pocket measurements & plaque
- MINERAL STRUCTURE OF THE TOOTH, CALCULUS.
- PLAQUE, BLEEDING, POCKET AND BPE INDEX
- ORAL MICROBIOLOGY IN PERIODONTITIS, GINGIVITIS, PULPITIS, PERIODONTAL LIGAMENT
- Gram positive bacteria causing periodontitis
- Periodontal calculus removal – 5 questions about instruments (Push Scaler, Curette, Sickle, Hoe, other different
names that I don’t have any idea what are…)
- Best solution to control subgingival bacteria – clorhexidine 0.2%
- Periodontal condition 5 sub questions – localised, aggressive periodontitis, ANUG, gingivitis, chronic periodontitis

19.preventive/community

- Condition which prevents to maintain oral hygiene

- Fluoride doses in different age groups.Under 6 years 500-1100ppm,6-15 years - 1450 ppm,adults 1450
- Concentration of fluoride on the tooth paste for different ages: < 6 years 500 ppm and >7 years 1000
- Restoration of fissures (preventive??)

- Dental health education :the key messages are

reduce the intake of sugar containing foods and drinks
reduce the consumption of sugar intake
Avoid btween -meal sugar snacks
Brush teeth twice daily wd tothpaste containing floride
Attend the dentist regularly
Donot smoke

- Percentage of UK fluoridated water:10 percent

- Fluoride content in toothpaste for 8yrs old, high caries :1450 ppm /topical gel/varnish/mouthrinse
- Questions of fluorides associated with caries risk
- Examples on various levels of prevention- primary, secondary and tertiary levels of prevention
- Couple of questions from community dentistry... like defin prevelenc n all....
- also study the hierarchy of evidenc.
- few questions again from epidemiology.... study UK epi for caries since 2002-03
- Definitions of sensitivity and specificity
- Loads and tons of questions on community dentistry and dental statistics; they were straight forward like what is the percentage of
adults who could develop SCC after they develop leukoplakia in UK?
- Evidence based dentistry
- CPD hours requirements
- Examples on various levels of prevention- primary, secondary and tertiary levels of prevention
- What would you do when a patient comes with an asymptomatic root canal treated tooth with periapical radioluscency treated by some
other dentist?
- Aim of GDC
- Waste disposal- where would you dispose wooden wedges?
- Questions on consent given by parents of 14-16 year olds who participated in an oral health survey
- Percentage of UK fluoridated water. 10 %
- 8 yr old, high caries rate. Prescribe floride content of toothpaste?
a. 500 ppm
b. 800 ppm
 c. 1000 ppm
d. 1250 ppm
- What kind of organisms cannot be destroyed by sterilization?
a. Spores
b. Prions
c. Thermophiles
- What groups of people were at higher risk of being infected by Prions?
a. People who received blood transfusions before 1985
b. People who received Dural grafts before 1985-yes
- % of 5 year olds with dental caries
- Fluoride treatment for a child with high caries rate
a. 2,800 ppm Tooth paste
b. 5,000 ppm toothpaste
c. Application of 2.2% duraphat 2 time yearly
d. Application of 2.2% duraphat 3-4 times yearly-yes

- Average number of 15 year olds who have lost 6-7 teeth

a. 1.1
b. 3.1
c. 4.7

- A man who smokes 2 packets of cigarettes a day and drinks would have an increase risk of developing oral cancer of
a. 11 times
b. 13 times-yes
c. 47 times

- What is the percentage of patients who get nosocomial infections?10%

- What is the percentage of children getting cavities after application of sealants?
- Cancer, referral in how many days should be seen in secondary care?
- Percentage of edentulous patients in England and Scotland:13 %
- Percentage of tooth loss ( wear) in 2003?
- Percentage of people without decay between 10 to 12 years old in 2003?
- What is the most effective method of fluoridation? Water fluoridation
- In order to avoid fluorosis in children supervise brushing till 7 years
- Quantity of fluoridation in water? 1ppm
- Quantity of fluoridation in adults? 1400ppm
- Quantity of fluoridation in 8 year olds? 1000ppm
- Quantity of fluoridation in 5 year olds? 500ppm
- Most effective method of reducing infection is sterilisation.
- Most commonly used hand-was is chlorhexidene gluconate.
- Most transmission of prions is by the aspirator tip.
- Experimentally the most proven method of disinfection is the washing of hands before see a patient.
- Per centage of 12-year olds with erosion? 27%
- 12-year old children with caries experience. 33%
- Which factor is least important in caries detection? No. of teeth
- What is the most effective method of fluoridation? Water fluoridation
- What is the first step in a patient who has erosion? Dietary record
- Best indication for fissure sealants (lots of caries?)
- Patient arrives saying “I don’t like dentists”. What do you do? Say “I don’t like dentists either”, ask what the reasons are, suggest IV
sedation, etc
- How many grams of sugar is recommended a day? 20, 40, etc
- What’s the percentage of >25 years with periodontitis in UK? 45
- What’s the percentage of edentulous in UK?13
- What’s the percentage of tooth erosion in 6 years-old and 15 years-old in uk?52 % in 5 year old and 27 % in 15 years old
- Database definition, etc (association of situations)
- What’s the maximum of time the GDC leaves the dentist physically impaired away from his profession?
- How many of all the cancers in UK are oral in percentage? 2%
- How many deaths in UK each year caused by oral cancer? 1700
- What’s the percentage of fluorinated water in UK? 10%
- Fluorinated water in UK (ppm): 1ppm
- Adult toothpaste: 1500 ppm
- Children toothpaste: 500 ppm
- What’s the BMI (body mass index) for obesity? 30 or greater
- Dentist thinks he can be HIV-positive. What’s the first thing to be done? double gloves, go to GP, go to the emergency department, etc
- You are going to do a biopsy in HIV-positive patient. Which of the following exams would be of better use? White cells count, platelet
count, etc
- Desensitizing in toothpaste:strontium or potassium chloride
- How often should you review the smoking status? Every 3 months, 6 months, 12 months, etc
- Emergency box colour: white cross on a green background
- Maternity leave
- What % of population are allergic
- What % of bacterial load will decrease by cleaning
- What is primary prevention, sec, and tertiary.4 to 5 questions were on it
- Who can give dental health education
- What is% of Duraphat fluoride varnish
- What will be the dose for a4 year old child where the level of fluoride is less than 0.1ppm
- for the coming question chose the best concentration of fluoride?
- tooth paste for an adult : 1400 ppm
- tooth paste for a 4 years old : 500 ppm

- so many question about psychiatry:

-a man ,unshaved with inappropriate dresses coming to the surgery,and complaining that gets
Up early in the morning? Options : schizophrenia, mania, depression,
anxiety neurosis, obsessive disorders,…..
-a man that is putting a plate at dinner time for his dead wife? Option were as above.
-some other this type of questions

- how many hours of CDP should be verifiable for dentists over a 5-years cycle?75 hrs
- which one is the core subject that PCDs should know about? Emergencies
- what is the percentage of people who is benefit from the uk fluoride? 10 %
- PREVENTIVE DENTISTRY AND DENTAL HEALTH EDUCATION IN THE UK
- HISTORY AND EXAMINATION, TREATMENT PLANNING
- LEARN ABOUT PULP TESTERS AND THE READINGS
- APEX LOCATOR
- FLUORIDE SUPPLEMENTATION. (PINK BOOK)
- SUGAR AND EFFECTS IN DENTAL CARIES (PINK BOOK
- CROSS INFECTION AND THE DIFFERENT TYPE OF BACTERIA IE; MOST INFECTIOUS, MOST RESISTANT TO
STERILIZATION ETC
- ALL PHARMACEUTICS IN DENTISTRY
- CONSENT, FORENSIC DENTISTRY, CPD
- FUNCTIONS OF THE GDC
- HEALTH AND SAFETY IN SURGERY, PROTOCOLS FOR CLINICAL AND NON CLINICAL WASTE AND THE DIFFERENTS
COLOURS FOR THE BAGS USED IN THE UK
20.law n ethics/stats

- classification and definitions from stats

- Statistics questions from surveys
- Consent different types like who can give consent in which circumstances
- CPD hours
- function of NICE guidelines
- Lots of questions about statistics
- Lots of questions about Law
- Infection control: dispose wooden wedges
- Who’s not exempt of NHS charges
- Time of hand wash
- statistics-how many 15 year olds with 6 decayed teeth ???
- how many hazardous drinkers in UK?23%
- Units and pints- how many units of alcohol contan certain drinks?21 unitmen 14 women/week
- Questions about behaviour management
- Statistics question
- Which container is used to dispose waste amalgam, wooden wedges?
- CPD hours requirements for dentists and DCPs
- What happens if the dentist does not pay annual retention fee?
- Core subject for CPD – all staff
- Aim of GDC
- Time for hand washing
- Adult regular check up:61%
- Can’t consider patient complaint?
- Percentage of patients indicated to hospital by infection? 5%, 10%(correct), 15%, 20%
- Who’s not exempt of NHS charges? Adults on benefits, older people on retirement…..
- Waste management
- In which year is GDC going to conduct revalidation?
a. 2010
b. 2011
c. 2012
d. 2013
e. 2014
- Number of CPD hours for dentist? 250
- Number of CPD hours for DCPs? 150 i think
- Which container is used to dispose off waste amalgam?
a.Sharps container
b.White container with lid
 c.Open container, placed under water

- Which container is used to dispose off radiology chemicals?

- disposal of waste amalgam? seal tight container
- No of hours of CPD for dentists
- How many CPD hours are verifiable?
- Which of the following is the major function of the GDC
A. Regulating dental practice
B. Maintaining a register of dentists

- How many CPD hours for radiation protection?5

- A 15 year old girl in boarding school comes to your surgery for an extraction which of the following cannot give consent on her behalf?
a. Her grandfather with legal guardianship
b. Her biological father who has separated from her mother
c. The girl herself
d. Her older sister

- Consent is needed from a patient to share information, which of the following needs explicit consent?
a. To share information with an insurance company
b. To share information with other doctors in the practice
c. To share information with the therapist treating the patient
d. To share information with the patients GMP

- Impression taking in an apprehensive adult with gag reflex

- An informed consent should be taken from subjects of a study for it to be - valid
- What is the percentage of water fluoridation in UK? – 10%
- At what age is the MMR vaccine given? – 12 months
- What happens if the dentist does not pay his annual retention fees on time?
- Where do you dispose clinical wedges?
- How do you dispose amalgam?
- How many hours do dentists have to do for CPD? – 250 hours
- How many hours do DCPs have to do for CPD? 150 hours
- What is the core subject for CPD? – Medical Emergencies

- In which year will GDC undergo revalidation? 2014

- From which month & year did CPD come into force – September 2008
- What job hygenist, technician and dental therapist can do
- ques on T TEST from stats they asked
- Percentage of caries in children in the united kingdom:40%

- Ques on consent:if a patient under 16yrs, parents not present whom will u
take consent from?was not direct so pls read in detail about it.
- Infection control new guidelines pls read the sign for single use
instruments,chronological order for sterilisation cycle,washer disinfector
system,hand washing

- Before sending impression to lab, what is the most important thing to do? Disinfection? Put in running water?
- How many hours of C.P.D. do dentists have to complete in order to avoid being struck off the register? 250 hours

- What is the hand-washing time that is most effective and practical? 2 minutes
- What is the per centage of edentulous patients in UK? 6%
- What sort of working surface is best in a clinical working environment? Impervious
- Which type of consent is not present? Delegated
- From what age can a person give consent for treatment? 16 years
- Is there an age limit for confidentiality of information? No age limit

- What type of consent is required for conscious sedation? Written

- To whom is the dentist obliged to give a patient’s confidential information? Court of law
- The most valid consent is given by the mother of a 4-year old child.
- Pit and fissure sealants are indicated in children whose siblings have a high caries rate.
- The best way of giving information. Written information is more effective than verbal information
- How will you take an impression in an anxious patient? Distraction
- What is not important in consent taking? Whether the patient can read or write
- What is not intended in consent taking? Informing the patient
- Why is making a dental chart important? Helps in future diagnosis
- According to Data Protection Act, the patient has access to all computerised records
- Functions of GDC
- Fluoride supplement for a 4yr old when water fluoride level is less than 0.1
- Statistics question about prevelance
- NaF varnish,name of fluoride tablets and APF
- 1ry 2ty,teritiary prevention several questions on what is meant by each eg:
- Prophylaxis, pit anf fissure selants, review etc
- GDC and its function.
- Consent
- NICE guidelines
- Clinical Audit
- How many cpd hrs do the nurses need from july 2008
- How many cpd hrs do the dentist need-250-75 verifiable
- Who all in a dental surgery should be able to deal with emergency all
- How will you treat a spillage of less than 30 ml blood?
- How will you dispose news paper?
- How will you dispose clinical waste.yellow containers
- What is presterilization, how is it done
- What amount of fluoride supplement should be given to a 4yr old child
receiving 0.1ppm of fluoride from water – 0.5mg F/day
- What concentration of sodium hypochlorite should be used to clean a small
splatter of blood in the dental surgery?
- Which colour of bag is used to dispose of paper in the waiting room of a dental
Surgery?
- Which colour of bag is used to dispose of clinical waste?
- The number of hours of CPD recommended for dentist to avoid removal from the dental register
- which group of people are not required to be registered with the GDC by July 2008
a)dentist b)dental nurses c)dental technicians d)practice managers
- A dentist is carrying out electrosurgery on a patient and the patient sneezes with his
head moving forward, which is most likely to occur
a)gingival trauma b)mucosal burn c)mucosal trauma d)trauma to adjacent tooth
e) gingival laceration
- A dentist is using a soflex disc on an upper molar & lacks finger support. What is
most likely to occur. Options same as above
- Stephan’s curve represents
a)change in pH of saliva with time
b)change in pH of plaque with time
c)change in pH of saliva with sugar intake
- Which of the following is most important in the development of dental caries
a)time of sugar intake
 b)frequency of sugar intake
c)amount of sugar intake
- A patient with xerostomia will benefit more from
a)tooth brushing advise
b)fluoride rinses
c)scaling and polishing
- Several questions on primary, secondary and tertiary prevention and options were
a)scaling & polishing-secondary
b)oral health education-primary
c)early detection of caries and treatment-secondary
d)replacement of missing teeth with dentures-teritary

- questions about Fitness to practice and Professional Performance Committee and their duty.
- what is the percentage of plaque in the uk?65%
- what is the percentage of calculus in the uk?69%
- how many unite of alcohol is in one pint of beer? 0.5, 1 , 1.5 , 2, 3
- what is the maxmimun unite of alcohol for woman per week?14
- what is the maxmimum unite of alcohol for men per week?21
- recomm daily sugar intake…… 40g
- % of fluoridated water in UK….10%
- % edentulous in UK-13%
- %oral cancer compared to other ca in UK 4%
- Colour of first aid box…..green + white cross
- At what BMR are you considered obese….. 30
- Statistics – case studies (terminology) – 2 questions
- Behaviour management – tell-show-do, distraction, reinforcement, desensitisation, etc
- GDC main function – protect the patient
- GDC revalidation year - ? 2011 to be introduced?
- GDC registration not needed by 31st July – Dental Practice Manager
- CPD requirements – 4 different questions
a- 250 hours
b- 75 verifiable hours
c- Medical Emergencies training obligated-10 hours
d- Ionising and Radiation updating obligated-5 hours
- GDC – conduct – Fitness to Practice Panel
- GDC – health illness (dentist) – Practice Committee
- Fluor – toothpaste concentrations for high risk 17 years and 27 years, varnish 5% concentration (23000ppm)
- 1998 study in the UK – 72% visible plaque
- 1998 study in the UK – 73% calculus (at least 1 tooth)
- Water fluoridation in the UK – 10%
- Maximum recommended alcohol units for men – 21
- Max. Rec. alcohol units for women – 14
- Alcohol units in a pint – 2
- Instruments management 2 questions (5 sub questions) – autoclave, disinfection, sharps bin, clinical waste (yellow
- Dental treatment 5 questions –
a- Intact dentition and xerosthomia after radiotherapy – OHI and dietary advice
b- High caries risk and teenager – OHI and fluoride mouthwash
c- Erosion (1l of Coca-cola per day) – Dietary advice and fluoride mouthwash
d- Gingivitis but not other problems – OHI?
- 1st importance of consent – care of the patient