First year residency exam in basic sciences 2010

1. The following structures exit the cranium through the foramen ovale except:
a. Emissary vein.
b. The mandibular nerve .
c. Greater petrosal nerve.
d. Accessory meningeal artery.
e. lesser petrosal nerve.

2. The chorda tympani:

a. contains motor nerves that supply the facial muscles.
b. contains sensory nerve that supplies the posterior third of the tongue.
c. contains parasympathetic nerves that supply the lacrimal nerve.
d. contains secretomotor nerves that supply the salivary glands.
e. passes between the internal jugular vein and the common carotid artery as
it passes posteriorly.

3. The following are true about the parotid gland:

a. It is a mucinous gland.
b. It is covered by a thick capsule derived from the deep cervical fascia.
c. The facial nerve exits the gland anteromedially before dividing into 5
branches.
d. It receives its secretomotor fibres from the vagus nerve.
e. The parotid duct enter the oral cavity by piercing the masseter.

4. The following structures form the medial wall of the orbit EXCEPT:
a. Sphenoid bone.
b. Ethmidal bone.
c. Maxillary bone.
d. Lacrimal bone.
e. Zygomatic bone

5. Regarding the maxillary artery, the incorrect answer is:

a. arises from the external carotid artery within the parotid gland.
b. supplies the maxillary incisor teeth.
c. gives rise to the inferior alveolar artery which supplies the lower jaw.
d. gives off its main branches in the pterygopalatine fossa.
e. gives off the middle meningeal artery.

6. The location of the following foramenae are correct EXCEPT

a. The stylomastoid foramen in the occipital bone.
b. The carotid canal is on the inferior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone.
c. The jugular foramen between the temporal bone and the occipital bone.
d. The optic canal in the sphenoid bone.
e. Foramina ovale in the greater wing of the sphenoid.

7. One of the following muscles is not of facial expression:

a. Platysma.
b. Buccinator.
c. Frontalis.
d. Orbicularis oculi.
e. Temporalis.

8. Regarding the pituitary fossa, the incorrect statement is:

a. forms part of the anterior cranial fossa.
b. contains dura mater that forms the roof.
c. lies above the body of the sphenoid.
d. the cavernous sinus is found on either side of the pituitary fossa.
e. is bounded by the anterior and posterior clinoid processes.

9. The fifth cranial nerve:

a. arises from the midbrain.
b. provides sensory innervations to the whole face including the angle of the
mandible.
c. Does not innervate the muscle of mastication.
d. is involved in the blink reflex via ophthalmic branch.
e. supplies parasympathetic fibres to the salivary glands.

10. The muscle resposible mainly for opening the jaw is:
a. Medial pterygoid.
b. Lateral pterygoid.
c. Temporalis.
d. Buccinator.
e. Masseter.

11 The superior orbital fissure transmits all the following EXCEPT:

a. the frontal nerve.
b. the nasociliary nerve.
c. the lacrimal nerve.
d. the trochlear nerve.
e. the infraorbital nerve.

12. Which of the following veins does not drain into the internal jugular vein :
a. Facial vein.
b. Lingual vein.
c. pharyngeal
d. Superior thyroid vein.
e. Retromandibular vein.

13. The maxillary sinus, all are true EXCEPT:

a. is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
b. is supplied by the greater palatine nerve.
c. opens into the medial meatus.
d. is the first sinus to form in life.
e. is pyramidal in shape with its base being the nasal bone.

14. Pterygo-palatine fossa does not contain:

a. Maxillary nerve.
b. Pterygopalatine ganglion.
c. Lesser superficial petrosal nerve.
d. Nerve of pterygoid canal.
e. Maxillary artery.

15. Which of the following passes through the foramen rotundum:

a. Maxillary nerve.
b. Mandibular nerve.
c. Facial nerve.
d. Meningeal artery.
e. Sympathetic nerve.

16. One of the following is not true regarding the vagus nerve:
a. leaves the skull through the jugular foramen.
b. is enclosed within the carotid sheath.
c. supplies sensory nerve to the laryngopharynx.
d. innervates the stylopharyngeal muscle.
e. it passes through the jugular foramen.

17. The internal carotid artery: All are true Except:

a. lies in the floor of the middle ear
b. lies medial to the abducent nerve
c. enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
d. is separated from the external carotid artery by the styloglossus
e. grooves the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

18. The following are true about the trigeminal nerve except:
a. it supplies the muscle of mastication
b. its ganglion lies on the apex of the petrous bone
c. emerges from the brain stem between the pons and the medulla
d. emerges from the brain stem as separate sensory and motor roots
e. innervates all the teeth of the upper jaw

19. The pterygopalatine ganglion: all are correct except:

a. supplies parasympathetic fibres to the lacrimal gland
b. sympathetic nerves from the superior cervical ganglion passes through it
c. is suspended from the maxillary nerve
d. supplies the iris
e. supplies secretomotor fibres to the glands of the nose

20. The parasympathetic fibres from the sphenopalatine ganglion innervate:

a. the Von ebner glands (also called gustatory glands) are located around
circumvallate and foliate papillae in the tongue
b. the iris
c. the parotid gland
d. the submandibular gland
e. the glands in the mucosa of the maxillary air sinus

21. Nerve carrying secretomotor fibres for parotid gland is:

a. auriculo temporal ( with glossopharyngeal N.)
b. great auricular
c. zygomatico temporal
d. posterior auricular
e. Zygomaticofacial

22. One of the following nerves passes in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus:
a. the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
b. the sixth cranial nerve.
c. the anterior ethmoidal nerve.
d. the optic nerve.
e. the vagus.

23. regarding the muscles in the soft palate, all are true except:
a. tensor veli palntini has the part of its muscle fibres running outside the
pharyngeal wall
b. levator veli palatini acts in part to open the pharyngotympanic (Eustachean tube]
c. palatopharyngeus has muscle fibres running both above and below levator
veli palatini in the palate
d. palatopharyngeus is innervated from the nucleus ambiguus via the cranial
accessory nerve
e. some of the fibres of the superior constrictor of the pharynx gain attachment
to the palate

24. The lateral pterygoid muscle, all are true except:

a. takes origin from the infratemporal crest
b. has two different insertions
c. when contracting can drive venous blood towards the cavernous sinus
d. lies lateral to the medial pterygoid in its entirety
e. usually has the maxillary artery passing between its two muscle bellies

25. Temporalis muscle, all are true except:

a. is separated from the zygomatic arch by a bursa
b. has a thick tendon of insertion which runs down virtually to the last molar tooth
c. activity is confined to the posterior fibers on initiating jaw closure from a
wide open position
d. is related to buccinator on the deep surface
e. takes some origin from the temporal fascia

26. One of the properties of the scalp is:

a. the arteries close down readily if injured, due to the elasticity and muscularity
of their walls
b. the richness of the vascularity
c. local anaesthesia is easily obtained by blocking the nerve supplying that area
d. lymphatics from the anterior part drain to the mastoid lymph nodes
e. fluid or infection deep to the aponeurosis drains out relatively easily because of
the looseness of the issue

27. Regarding the submandibular salivary gland, the incorrect statement:

a. is a mainly mucous gland
b. lies deep to the mylohyoid muscle
c. is innervated through the chorda tympani nerve
d. has a duct which also drains the sublingual gland
e. is connected by nerve filaments to the lingual nerve
28. All are contents of posterior triangle of the neck except: Spinal part of
accessory nerve.
a. Root and trunk of brachial plexus.
b. Subclavian artery (second part).
c. Superficial cervical artery.
d. Occipital artery.

29. Maxillary artery, all are true Except: It is the larger terminal branch of
external carotid artery in parotid gland.
a. It arises behind the ramus of the mandible and passes forward medially.
b. It gives branches to supply the tympanic membrane.
c. It passes through the pterygomaxillary fissure into pterygopalatine fossa.
d. The spheno-palatine branch supplies the mucous membrane of the
nasal cavity.

30. The longitudinal intrinsic muscle of the tongue, all are true except:
a. Originates from median septum and submucosa.
b. Inserted in the mucous membrane.
c. Innervated by hypoglssal Nerve.
d. Protrudes the apex of the tongue.
e. Together with transverse and vertical parts, compose the intrinsic muscles of
the tongue.

31. The retropharyngeal space is bounded laterally by:

a. Buccopharyngeal facia.
b. Carotid sheath.
c. Omohyoid facia.
d. Thyroid gland.
e. Prevertebral facia.

32. The most common artery that pass between the roots of the auriculotemporal
nerve is:
a. The inferior alveolar.
b. The middle meningeal.
c. The anterior tympanic.
d. The massetric.
e. The spheno-palatine.

33. The mandible:

a. is grooved by the facial vessels
b. provides an attachment for the superior constrictor of the pharynx
c. Is grooved by the facial nerve
d. provides an attachment for the facial sling of the digastric tendon
e. is grooved by the mylohyoid vessels

34. The facial artery:

a. is the main source of oxygenated blood to the palatine tonsil
b. has an accompanying vein which drains into the external jugular vein
c. conveys postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers to the sub-mandibular
 gland
d. Is a branch of the internal carotid artery
e. supplies branches to both upper and lower lips
35. True statements about the kidney is:
a. The blood flow accounts for 50% of the total cardiac output.
b. The blood flow is greater in the renal medulla than in the cortex.
c. Over 99% of filtered water is reabsorbed by the kidney.
d. Antidiuretic hormone decreases the water permeability of the collecting duct.
e. It has no role in red blood cell production.

36. The hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right in cases of:
a. hypothermia.
b. decrease in 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).
c. increase in hydrogen ion concentration.
d. decrease in pCO2.
e. respiratory alkalosis.

37. True statements about the ABO blood group include:

a. Blood group B is the most common type.
b. Blood group AB is the least common type.
c. Patients with blood group AB is regarded as universal donors.
d. Patients with blood groupO is regarded as universal recipients.
e. Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are found in patients with blood group AB.

38. Vagal stimulation causes:

a. delayed A-V conduction.
b. increase in heart rate.
c. increased atrial contractility.
d. increased ventricular contractility.
e. increased stroke volume.

39. In a neuron, the action potential:

a. its velocity is not affected whether the nerves are myelinated or unmyelinated.
b. is associated with decreased permeability of the membrane to sodium
ions.
c. its amplitude decreases as it travels along the nerve fibers.
d. its velocity is not affected by the diameter of the nerve fibers.
e. is an all or nothing phenomenon.

40. Acetylcholine is released at all the following sites except:

a. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons.
b. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons.
c. Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons.
d. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons.
e. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervates the sweat glands

41. The followings occurs after 24 hours of fasting except:

a. Lipolysis.
b. The blood glucose concentration is maintained.
c. Hepatic gluconeogenesis.
d. Muscle break-down
e. The brain switches from using glucose to ketone bodies.

42. The following hormones counteract the hypoglycemic effect of insulin except:
a. Growth hormone.
b. Cortisol.
c. Glucagon.
d. Thyroxine.
e. Adrenaline.

43. Regarding the thyroid hormones:

a. They are steroid hormones.
b. In the serum most of the thyroid hormones are bound to the albumin.
c. Thyroid hormones sensitize the myocardium to noradrenaline.
d. T4 is more active than T3.
e. They decrease the basal metabolic rate.

44. All are true about the events in cardiac cycle except:
a. During inspiration the filling of the right atrium is increased.
b. During expiration the filling of the left atrium is increased.
c. Blood flows out of the ventricles during isovolumetric contraction period.
d. Atria contraction occurs during the late phase of the ventricular filling period.
e. The isovolumetric relaxation period occurs before the ventricular filling period.

45. In response to acute haemorrhage, the following compensatory events

occur except:
a. Generalized Vasoconstriction.
b. Increased chemoreceptor discharge.
c. reduced baroreceptor stretch.
d. Cerebral vasoconstriction.
e. Raised circulating angiotensin II concentration.

46. When a patient stands up from a lying position, one of the following occurs:
a. Cardiac output is reduced.
b. Heart rate is reduced.
c. Renin secretion is reduced.
d. A significant drop of cerebral blood flow.
e. Peripheral vasodilatation.

47. True statement about CO2 in venous blood:

a. It is carried mainly by the haemoglobin.
b. It is converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase in the plasma.
c. It is transported mainly in the form of bicarbonate ions.
d. Oxygenated haemoglobin binds CO2 more readily than deoxygenated
haemoglobin.
e. CO2 does not cross the blood brain barrier.

48. Insulin:
a. is produced from a single precursor.
b. is made up of single chain: joined by three disulphide bonds.
c. is synthesized by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans.
d. has an elimination half-life of about 60 minutes after subcutaneous injection.
e. circulates in the blood mostly bound to globulin.

49. Diastolic blood pressure:all are true except

a. the pressure recorded in the left ventricle at the end of diastole
b. does not vary with the amount of blood entering the left ventricle
c. change if the viscosity of blood changes
d. is altered by changes in the elasticity of large arteries
e. may fall in severe muscular exercise

50. True statement regarding adrenaline and noradrenaline is:

a. Both are produced by the adrenal medulla.
b. Their release is under the control of the pituitary gland.
c. Both cause vasodilatation in the skeletal muscles.
d. Both cause increased peripheral resistance of the blood vessels.
e. only adrenaline produce bronchodilatation.

51. The following are true about blood test result except:
a. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia is seen in iron deficiency anaemia.
b. Macrocytic anaemia occurs in folate deficiency.
c. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is seen in chronic disease.
d. Hypersegmentation of the neutrophilic nucleus occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency.
e. Decreased erythropoietin production as in renal failure causes microcytic anaemia.

52. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system result in all except:

a. pupillary dilatation.
b. decreased gastrointestinal motility.
c. bronchiole smooth muscle dilation.
d. vasoconstriction of the skin and mucous membrane.
e. contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle.

53. The following are true about pain sensation except:

a. Arises by stimulation of free nerve endings.
b. Is transmitted to the central nervous system by myelinated A fibers.
c. It ascends the spinal cord in the spinothalamic tracts.
d. The thalamus is important in the perception of pain.
e. Local anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels in nerve fibers.

54. The substance that contributes maximally to the osmolality inside the cell is
a. protein
b. phosphate
c. urea
d. potassium
e. glycoprotein

55. Proteins that are secreted by cells are generally:

a. not synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to endoplasmic reticulum
b. are synthesized in the mitochondria
c. moves across the cell membrane by endocytosis
d. packed in the golgi apparatus
e. are synthesized in the nucleous

56. The unique feature in mitochondria is:

a. myosin
b. actin
c. DNA
d. prothrombin
e. Cytokines

57. An example of co-transport is:

a. Na+-K+ pump
b. Ca++ pump
c. Na+- H+ pump
d. Na+ glucose transport
e. Endocytosis

58. Endothelial cells synthesise :

a. fibrinogen
b. factor 8
c. factor 10
d. factor 12
e. Prothrombin

59. Cellular immunity is due to:

a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. neutrophils
d. eosinophils
e. Basophils

60. Absolute refractory period in the heart:

a. corresponds to the duration of relaxation
b. lasts till half of cardiac contraction
c. shorter than refractory period in skeletal muscle
d. lasts till cardiac contraction
e. Is less than 100 Milliseconds

61. First heart sound occurs during the period of:

a. isometric relaxation
b. isotonic relaxation
c. isovolumetric contraction
d. isovolumetric relaxation
e. Rapid ejection

62. Increased vagal tone causes:

a. hypertension
b. bradycardia
c. tachycardia
d. increase in cardiac output
e. Fibrillation

63. Normal swallowing is dependant on the integrity of the:

a. 9th and 10th cranial nerves
b. pyramidal tract
c. trigeminal nerve
d. appetite center of hypothalamus
e. Tongue muscles

64. Vit D is essential for normal:

a. fat absorption
b. Ca absorption
c. ADH secretion
d. protein absorption
e. Phospholipid synthesis
.
65. 1gM antibodies: (all are true except):
a. are unusual in that they are produced by macrophages
b. are several hundred times more effective at fixing complement than IgG antibodies
c . are the main antibodies concerned in the ABED blood grouping system
d. fail to pass the placental barrier
e. have five antigen combining sites per molecule

66. Renin is secreted by:

a. Cells in the macula densa.
b. Cells in proximal tubules.
c. Cells in distal tubules.
d. Juxta glomerular cells.
e. Cells in the pritubular capillary bed.

67. Saliva, which is the wrong statement:

a. The mucous secretion contains ptyalin and mucin for lubrication and
surface protection.
b. Saliva contains high concentration of potassium and bicarbonate.
c. Saliva contains low concentration of sodium and chloride.
d. Salivation is controlled mainly by parasympathetic nervous system.
e. Saliva contains a serous secretion and a mucous secretion.

68. The following statements are true except:

a. gangrene refers to tissue necrosis with infection
b. acute inflammation usually occurs around necrotic tissues
c. apoptosis does not usually cause inflammation
d. autolytic changes in the nucleus are pathognomonic of necrosis
e. the blood vessels surrounding an acutely inflamed site usually show progressive
vasodilatation from the time of injury

69. Bleeding time is increased in all of the following except:

a. massive blood transfusion
b. vitamin K deficiency
c. von Willebrand's disease
d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
e. Thrombocytopenia

70. The following are true about platelets except:

a. they are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes.
b. their life span in circulation is about 7 days
c. in a normal person, 20% of the platelets are found in the spleen.
d. they contain adenosine diphosphate and serotonin.
e. they produce prostacyclin.

71. Granulation tissue: all are true except:

a. is a feature of wound healing
b. contains fibroblasts
c. contains thin-walled capillaries
d. often contains granuloma
e. leads to scar formation

72. The following substances increase the capillary permeability in acute

inflammation:
a. bradykinin
b. histamine
c. angiotensin
d. prostacycline
e. serotonin

73. Diapedesis is related to :

a. Clotting.
b. Pavementing.
c. Neutrophil migration.
d. Sickle cell anemia.
e. Heart fibrillation.

74. When an adult differentiated cell acquires the organization of a less

differentiated cell, one of the terms used is.
a. Anaplasia.
b. Atrophy.
c. Metaplasia.
d. Hyperplasia.
e. Hypoplasia.

75. Hepatitis B virus:

a.Contains single-stranded RNA
b. Replicates in the liver and spleen
c. Is destroyed by boiling for 2 minutes
d. Is transmitted mainly by the faecal—oral route
e. Is usually isolated in cultures of embryonic lung cells

76. Phagocytosis:
a. Is enhanced by lgA antibodies
b. Is impeded by polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria, but not by
proteins
c. By polymorphonuclear leukocytes is the principle defense against viruses
d. Leads to the rapid destruction of all bacteria
e. Of bacteria in the circulation is affected mainly by fixed macrophages lining
the sinusoids of the liver and spleen.

77. The cellular exodate in the acute inflammation in the later stage are
mostly
a. Neutophil polymorphnuclear leukocytes.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Monocytes.
d. Eosinophils.
e. Basophils.

78. Replacement of lost tissue by tissue similar in type is referred to

a. Healing.
b. Repair.
c. Regeneration.
d. Scaring.
e. Wound contraction.

79. Stroma in the benign tumours, all are true except

a. Composed of blood vessels, fibroblasts and collagen fibers.
b. The tumour cells are nourished by it.
c. It is a part of the tumour.
d. It is involved in the neoplastic changes.
e. It supports the base of tumour.

80. Regarding type II diabetes mellitus:

a. There is a substantial loss of β-cells in the islets of Langerhans.
b. It is less common than type I diabetes mellitus.
c. It is associated with certain HLA groups.
d. There is an increased risk amongst first degree relative.
e. The tissue responds to insulin is normal.

81. The following are features of malignant tumours except:

a. Cellular pleomorphism.
b. Nuclear pleomorphism.
c. Nuclear hypochromatism.
d. Decreased cytoplasmic: nuclear ratio.
e. Calcification. which only occur in malignant tumours

82. One the following viruses are associated with human carcinoma:
a. Hepatitis A.
b. Human papilloma virus.
c. Molluscum contagiosum.
d. Measles.
e. Mumps.

83. Local change that occurs in acute inflammation is:

a. Constriction of the small blood vessels.
b. Swelling and retraction of the endothelium cells in the vessels.
c. Monocytes are the first cells seen in the extracellular space.
d. Histamine concentration is decreased.
e. decreased vascular permeability.
84. One of the following is not a clinical picture of hypovolaemic shock:
a. there is a loss of more than 20% of the blood volume.
b. the blood flow to the brain and kidneys are initially maintained.
c. the urine output decreases.
d. the pulse rate decreases.
e. there is a rise in renin concentration.

85. The following genetic conditions are associated with increased risk of cancer
except:
a. Chromosome 13 deletion.
b. Neurofibromatosis type 1.
c. Neurofibromatosis type 2.
d. Down's syndrome.
e. Turner's syndrome.

86. Amyloidosis: all are true except:

a. appears as extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material.
b. is made up of calcified protein.
c. shows an apple green birefringence in polarised light.
d. occurs in patients with multiple myeloma.
e. is a complication of chronic infection.

87. Apoptosis includes the following features but not:

a. is the normal physiological process of programmed cell death.
b. occurs only in old age.
c. results in products that are removed by phagocytosis.
d. causes the plasma membrane to undergo zeiosis.
e. it does not causes inflammation.

88. Angiogenesis, one of the following is not a feature:

a. is an unwanted process during embryological development.
b. is a neovascular process whereby pre-existing blood vessels give rise to capillary
buds which can develop into new vessels.
c. in proliferative diabetic retinopathy is induced by an increased vitreous
concentration of VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor).
d. involves proteolytic degradation of the basement membrane of the existing vessels.
e. requires angiopoietin for the survival of endothelial cells.

89. Regarding ionizing irradiation, the incorrect statement is:

a. The main cellular target for radiation is the DNA.
b. Genetic alteration from radiation is usually due to gene deletion.
c. Gamma rays have deeper penetration than X-rays.
d. Mitotic cells are more sensitive to radiation than non-mitotic cells.
e. It can be used to sterilise surgical instruments.

90. The following are true about necrosis except:

a. It is best identified by the dissolution of the nucleus.
b. Coagulative necrosis occurs in coronary infarction.
c. Liquefaction necrosis occurs in kidney infarction.
d. Caseous necrosis occurs in tuberculosis.
e. Enzymatic necrosis occurs in acute pancreatitis.
91. The following pathology definitions are correct except:
a. Hypoplasia - failure of a developing organ to reach its full size.
b. Aplasia - failure of differentiation of an embryonic cell mass to organspecific
tissue.
c. Dysgenesis - failure of organization of tissue into an anatomically correct organ.
d. Agenesis - failure of organization of an embryonic tissue to corresponding adult
tissue.
e. Metaplasia - differentiation of a mature tissue into a different mature tissue.

92. One of the following stages is not involved in leukocyte movement into a site
of inflammation:
a. Division.
b. Rolling.
c. firm dhesion.
d. tight adhesion
e. Migration.

93. The following mediators of acute inflammation are derived from cells except:
a. Tissue factor.
b. Kinin.
c. Leukotriene.
d. Cytokines.
e. Histamine.

94. In the body, metabolism of 10 g. Of protein would produce approximately:

a. 1.4 kcal
b. 41 kcal
c. 150 kcal
d. 100 kcal
e. 4.1 kcal

95. Thirst is stimulated by:

a. increase in plasma osmolality and volume
b. an increase in plasma osmolality and decrease in plasma volume
c. a decrease in plasma osmolality and increase in plasma volume
d. decrease in plasma osmolality and volume
e. injection of vasopressin into the hypothalamus

96. Conns syndrome is:

a. angiotensin excess
b. corticosteroid deficiency
c. aldesterone deficiency
d. aldesterone excess
e. rennin deficiency.

97. The following conditions are associated increased risk of skin malignancy:
a. Behcet disease
b. solar keratosis
c. acanthosis nigricans
d. squamous papilloma
e. keratoacanthoma

98. With regard to interferons: all are true except:

a. they are produced by infected leukocytes
b. IFNis produced by cells infected with virus
c. IFN increases MCH class I and II expression in antigen presenting cell
d. IFN is produced by fibroblasts
e. they have anti-tumor activity

99. Fetal abnormalities occurs if the mother becomes infected with following
EXCEPT:

a. hepatitis A
b. cytomegalovirus
c. syphilis
d. toxoplasmosis
e. Listeria monocytogenes

100. In sickle cell disease:

a. the disorder is multi gene disorder
b. carrier has normal blood test
c. the abnormalities involves the alpha chain of the globin molecule
d. there is absence of HbA
e. sickle cell crisis does not affect carrier of the disease