Sie sind auf Seite 1von 101


U N I T 3 : CEL L S T R U C T U R E
1. The plasma membrane consists mainly of –
a. Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
b. Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
c. Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
d. Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
2. Which is substitution of mitochondria in E. coli?
a. Golgi body
b. Mesosome
c. Ribosome
d. Glyoxysomes
3. Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing
(a) Vacuoles
(b) Centrosomes
(c) Plastids
(d) Mitochondria
4. Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?
(a) Plasmalemma
(b) Ribosome
(c) Chromosome
(d) Nucleolus
5. Cellular organelles with membranes are :
a. Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
b. Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
c. Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
d. Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
6. Which of the following structures are not found in
prokaryotic cells?
a. Plasma membrane
b. Nuclear envelope
c. Ribosome
d. Mesosome
7. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
a. Saccharomyces
b. Pythium
c. Xanthomonas
d. Pseudomonas
8. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical
ion level of
a. Calcium
b. Copper
c. Manganese
d. Magnesium
9. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in
a. Mitochondria
b. Proplastids
c. Glyoxysomes
d. Peroxisomes
10. Keeping in view the 'fluid mosaic model' for the structure of cell
membrane, which one of the following statements is correct w.r.t. the
movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other
(described as flip-flop movement)?
a. Neither lipids nor proteins can flip-flop
b. Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
c. While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot
d. While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
11. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into
three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one
of the following statements is true about archaea?
a. Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
b. Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
c. Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d. Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and
12. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs.
Which of the following five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as a
storage material?
a. Easily translocated
b. Chemical non-reactive
c. Easily digested by animals
d. Osmotically inactive
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(1) Both a & e
(2) Both b & c
(3) Both b & d
(4) a, c & e
13. Polysome is formed by
a. Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
b. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
c. Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic
d. A ribosome with several subunits
14. Vacuole in a plant cell
a. Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
b. Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
c. Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory
d. Lacks membrane and contains air
15. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
a. Malate
b. Malonate
c. Oxaloacetate
d. Alpha - ketoglutarate
16. Which of the following are used in gene cloning-
a. Lomasomes
b. Mesosomes
c. Plasmids
d. Nucleoids
17. Which one of the following can not be used for
preparation of vaccines against plague -
a. Avirulent live bacteria
b. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material
c. Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria
d. Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
18. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions
are found in:
a. Connective tissue
b. Epithelial tissue
c. Neural tissue
d. Muscular tissue
19. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly
a. Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon
b. Adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose phosphate
c. Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic
group anywhere in the molecule
d. Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell
20. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly
described ?
a. Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
b. Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those
in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)
c. Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
d. Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of
21. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous
chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres :
a. Metaphase-II
b. Anaphase-I
c. Anaphase-II
d. Metaphase-I
22. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA
capping take place inside the -
a. Nucleus
b. Dictyosomes
c. ER
d. Ribosomes
23. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous
structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the
maintenance of cell shape is called -
a. Endosplasmic Reticulum
b. Plasmalemma
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Thylakoid
24. Algae have cell wall made up of –
a. Cellulose, galactan and mannans
b. Hemicellulose, pectin and proteins
c. Pectin, cellulose and proteins
d. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
25. Polyethylene glycol method is used for:
a. Biodiesel production
b. Seedless fruit production
c. Energy production from sewage
d. Gene transfer without a vector
26. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the
bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other
three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :
a. G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
b. G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
c. G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
d. G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
27. Satellite DNA is useful tool in –
a. Organ transplantation
b. Sex determination
c. Forensic science
d. Genetic engineering
28. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
occurs –
a. Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the
Fallopian tube
b. Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
c. Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the
d. in the Grafiaan follicle following the first maturation division
29. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the
diploids. This is because
a. All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are
expressed in haploids
b. Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
c. Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than
d. Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
30. In the DNA molecules
a. There are two strands which run antiparallel-one in 5' 3'
direction and other in 3' 5’
b. The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine
nucleotides is not always equal
c. There are two strands which run parallel in the 5' 3'
d. The proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies
with the organism
31. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of
nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned
against it?
a. Adenine, Thymine - Purines
b. Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
c. Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
d. Guanine, Adenine - Purines
32. Three of the following statements about enzymes are
correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong
a. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain
exceptional organisms they are effective even at
temperatures 80º - 90ºC
b. Enzymes are highly specific
c. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids
d. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity
33. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is
correctly categorised ?
a. Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in
b. Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
c. Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
d. Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
34. Chromatophores take part in :
a. Respiration
b. Photosynthesis
c. Growth
d. Movement
35. Cell wall is absent in :
a. Nostoc
b. Aspergillus
c. Funaria
d. Mycoplasma
36. Which of the following biomolecules does have a
phosphodiester bond?
a. Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
b. Fatty acids in a diglyceride
c. Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
d. Amino acids in a polypeptide
37. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :
(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
38. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with
the discovery of :
a. Ligases
b. Restriction enzymes
c. Probes
d. Selectable markers

39. Cytochromes are found in :
a. Outer wall of mitochondria
b. Cristae of mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
d. Matrix of mitochondria
40. DNA is not present in :
a. Ribosomes
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Chloroplast
41. True nucleus is absent in :
a. Mucor
b. Vaucheria
c. Volvox
d. Anabaena
42. The thermostable enzymes, Taq and Pfu, isolated from
thermophilic bacteria are
a. RNA polymerases
b. DNA ligases
c. DNA polymerases
d. Restriction endonucleases
43. The largest gene in man is
(a) Insulin gene
(b) Tumour suppressor gene
(c) Beta globin gene of haemoglobin
(d) Dystrophin
44. Which one of the following statements about the
particular entity is true -
a. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body
b. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
c. DNA consists of a core of eight histones
d. Centromere is found in animals cells, which produces
aster during cell division
45. There is no DNA in:
a. Mature RBCs
b. A mature spermatozoa
c. Hair root
d. An enucleated ovum
46. Synapsis occurs between:
a. mRNA and ribosomes
b. Spindle fibres and centromere
c. Two homologous chromosomes
d. A male and a female gamete
47. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(a) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(b) Lymphocytes and macrophages
(c) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(d) Neutrophils and monocytes
48. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within
an organelle?
a. Peroxisome
b. ER
c. Mesosome
d. Ribosome
49. The main arena of variuos types of activites of a cell is –
a. Plasma membrane
b. Mitochondrian
c. Cytoplasm
d. Nucleus
50. Infectious proteins are present in –
a. Gemini viruses
b. Prions
c. Viroids
d. Satellite viruses
51. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
a. Mesosomes
b. Vacuoles
c. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
52. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of
protoplasts ?
a. Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
b. IAA and kinetin
c. IAA and gibberellins
d. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
53. The structures that are formed by stacking of organized
flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are :
a. Grana
b. Stroma lamellae
c. Stroma
d. Cristae
54. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in
the population of sexually reproducing organism?
a. Chromosomal aberrations
b. Genetic drift
c. Recombination
d. Transduction
55. The haemoglobin of a human foetus
a. Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
b. Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult
c. Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
d. Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
56. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell
cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has :
a. same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of
b. twice the number of chromosomes and four times the
amount of DNA
c. four times the number of chromosomes and twice the
amount of DNA
d. twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of
57. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in
prokaryotes ?
a. Cyanophycean granule
b. Glycogen granule
c. Polysome
d. Phosphate granule
58. Multiple alleles are present :
a. At different loci on the same chromosome
b. At the same locus of the chromosome
c. On non-sister chromatids
d. On different chromosomes
59. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with
respect to dihybrid cross –
a. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher
b. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few
c. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar
recombination's as the tightly linked ones
d. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few
60. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:
a. Light-dependent reaction enzymes
b. Ribosomes
c. Chlorophyll
d. Light-independent reaction enzymes
61. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
a. Alcohol - nitrogenase
b. Fruit juice - pectinase
c. Textile - amylase
d. Detergents - lipase
62. In an average composition of cell, protein makes up
a. 70%
b. 15%
c. 7%
d. 3%
63. Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are known as
(a) Hybridomas
(b) Myelomas
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Monoclonal cells
64. Nucleotides are formed by
(a) Purine, sugar and phosphate
(b) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) Purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
65. DNA replication occurs in
(a) G1-phase
(b) S-phase
(c) G2-phase
(d) M-phase
66. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which
of the following pair
(a) A-G, C-T
(b) A-T, G-C
(c) A-C, G-T
(d) All of these
67. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases.
The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is
(a) 60
(b) 240
(c) 120
(d) 480
68. Lactose is composed of
a. glucose + glucose
b. glucose + galactose
c. glucose + fructose
d. fructose + galactose
69. Meiosis is best observed in dividing
(a) cell of lateral meristem
(b) cells of apical meristem
(c) microsporocytes
(d) microspores and anther wall
70. Satellite DNA is important because it :
a. Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
b. Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
c. Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also
the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is
heritable from parents to children
d. Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of
the population
71. Balbiani rings are sites of :
a. RNA and protein synthesis
b. Lipid synthesis
c. Nucleotide synthesis
d. Polysaccharide synthesis
72. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material
from largest to smallest :
a. Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
b. Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
c. Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene
d. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
73. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at –
a. Late prophase
b. Early metaphase
c. Late metaphase
d. Early prophase
74. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule
is called –
a. Vector
b. Probe
c. Clone
d. Plasmid
75. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:
a. Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
b. Rough ER– Synthesis of glycogen
c. Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
d. Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
76. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is
called :
a. Duplication
b. Translocation
c. Crossing over
d. Inversion
77. Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing
(a) Stomata
(b) Hydathode
(c) Guard cell
(d) None of these
78. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to
one end are:
a. Acrocentric
b. Telocentric
c. Sub-metacentric
d. Metacentric
79. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :
a. Membrane of Golgi complex
b. Microtubules
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
80. Pick up the wrong statement :
a. Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
b. Cell wall is absent in Animalia
c. Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of
d. Some fungi are edible
81. In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take place
at :
a. Stromal matrix
b. Thylakoid lumen
c. Photosystem – I
d. Photosystem-II
82. Which of the following is not a primary metabolite
a. Cholestrol
b. Essential oils
c. Essential amino acids
d. Lecithin
83. Polysome is formed by
(a) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(b) many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic
(c) a ribosome with several sub-units
(d) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
84. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male
germ cells differentiate into the
a. Spermatozonia
b. Primary spermatocytes
c. Secondary spermatocytes
d. Spermatids
85. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has
haploid number of chromosomes?
a. Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
b. Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
c. Egg cell and antipodal cells
d. Nucellus and antipodal cells
86. Plasmodesmata are :
a. Locomotary structures
b. Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
c. Connections between adjacent cells
d. Lignified cemented layers between cells
87. Cytoskeleton is made up of:
a. Callose deposits
b. Cellulosic microfibrils
c. Proteinaceous filaments
d. Calcium carbonate granules
88. The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide
chain serve to join -
a. One nucleoside with another nucleoside
b. One nucleotide with another nucleotide
c. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
d. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
89. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
a. Protista
b. Fungi
c. Archaea
d. Monera
90. Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing
(a) vacuoles
(b) centrosomes
(c) plastids
(d) Mitochondria
91. Polyploidy can be induced by the application of
(a) auxin
(b) kinetin
(c) colchicine
(d) ethylene
92. Quantasome are present in
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondria
(c) Golgi body
(d) Lysosome
93. In mitochondria, enzyme cytochrome oxidase is present in
(a) outer membrane
(b) perimitochondrial space
(c) inner membrane
(d) matrix
94. Which of the following cell organelles is associated with
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Peroxysome
(c) Chloroplast
(d) All of these
95. The thickness of unit membrane is
(a)20 Ao
(b)35 Ao
(c)55 Ao
(d)75 Ao
96. A protoplast is a cell :
a. without cell wall
b. without plasma membrane
c. without nucleus
d. undergoing division
97. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex chromosomes was
born due to :
a. formation of abnormal ova in the mother
b. fusion of two ova and one sperm
c. fusion of two sperms and one ovum
d. formation of abnormal sperms in the father
98. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
a. Saccharomyces
b. Streptococcus
c. Chalamydomonas
d. Plasmodium
99. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
a. Mitochondria
b. Dictyosome
c. Lysosome
d. Peroxisome
100. Which of the following cell organelles stores hydrolytic
(a) Centriole
(b) Lysosome
(c) Chromoplast
(d) Chloroplast