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The size of a seed drill is expressed by–

(A) amount of seed sown per unit time


(B) length x width of the machine
(C) the number of furrow openers x distance between two furrow openers✓
(D) Area covered per unit time

2. The size of the planter is given by–


(A) Area covered per unit time
(B) Number of furrow openers x spacing between them✓
(C) Length x Width of the machine
(D) Amount of seed sown per unit time

3. In precession planter the height of drop of seed from a hopper to ground should
be about –
(A) 30 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) As close to the ground as possible✓ (D) None of the above

4. The type of furrow opener recommended for use in hard and trashy ground and also
in wet, dry soil in–
(A) single disc type✓ (B) curved runner type
(C) hoe type (D) stub runner type

5. Most suitable furrow opener for seeding In a trashy and hard seedbed is–
(A) hoe type (B) shovel type
(C) disc type✓ (D) runner type

6. Accurate and inclined placement of seeds to provide rows in two perpendicular


directions is known as–
(A) Drilling (B) Planting
(C) Precision Seeding (D) Check-row Planting✓

7. Power operated Paddy transplanter is being manufactured in India by–


(A) M/s Escorts Ltd.
(B) M/s Mitsubishi Ltd.✓
(C) M/ s Eicher t..ractors Ltd.
(D) None of the above

8. In an offset harrow, the number of gangs is–


(A) 1 (B) 2✓
(C) 3 (D) 4
9. The recommended peripheral speed of a spike tooth cylinder for a wheat crop is
__ m/s–
(A) < 20 (B) 20 - 25
(C) 25 - 30✓ (D) 30 - 35

10. Hand operated sprayers are operated at ____ kg/cm2–


(A) 1 - 7✓ (B) 7 - 10
(C) 10-20 (D) 20-25

11. for spray application, the quantity to be applied in a field will depend upon–
(A) Forward speed (B) No. of nozzles
(C) Pressure (D) All of the above✓

12. Specific fuel consumption of tractor diesel engine is from __ to __ kg/ bhp-hr–
(A) 0.10-0.15 (B) 0.18-0.25✓
(C) 0.26- 0.3 (D) 0.33-0.4

13. A tractor seat suspension should have its natural frequency in the range of ___
CPC.
(A) 0.5 - 2 (B) 2 - 4 ✓
(C) 4 - 6 (D) None of the above

14. With increase in a stroke-bore ratio of an engine, the frictional horsepower of


the engine–
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remain same (D) None of the above ✓

15. The requirement of air for full combustion of 1 kg fuel in 5.1. 'engine is
about _ kg–
(A) 12.5 (B) 14.2
(C) 15.1✓ (D) 17.6

16. In the hydrostatic transmission drive having a variable displacement pump and a
fixed displacement motor, the output torque–
(A) increases with motor speed
(B) decreases with motor speed
(C) is almost constant with motor speed
(D) first increases and then decreases with motor speed✓

17. The maximum torque can be increased by–


(A) increasing the stroke-bore ratio
(B) increasing the volumetric efficiency✓
(C) decreasing the stroke-bore ratio
(D) decreasing the volumetric efficiency

18. While designing the tractor seat suspension, the ratio of the tractor frequency
to seat frequency is kept–
(A) 0.5✓ (B) 1
(C) 1.4 (D) None of the above

19. In a combine harvester, the ratio of reel peripheral speed to forwarding speed
(reel speed index) should normally be in the range of–
(A) 1.25 to 1. 50✓ (B) 1.50 to 1.75
(C) 1.75 to 2.00 (D) None of the above

20. An indigenous plough is–


(A) a multipurpose implement
(B) a primary tillage implement✓
(C) a secondary tillage implement
(D) a wetland puddler

21. The differential lock in a tractor is used to give–


(A) high speed to outer wheel on turn✓
(B) lower speed to inner wheel on turn
(C) different speed to drive
(D) when two wheels have different traction

22. Correlation coefficient–


(A) is less than -1 (B) is more than +1✓
(C) lies between -1 and +1 (D) lies between a and 1

23. Maximum number of tractor being manufactured in India are in the hp range of–
(A) 15 - 24 (B) 25 - 36✓
(C) 37 - 50 (D) 51 - 60

24. Tilt angle of a disc plough is generally


(A) 0o (B) 15o✓
(C) 20o (D) 45o

25. If the exact speed ratio does not require, which combination of teeth on a spur
gear be preferred?
(A) 16 : 32✓ (B) 14: 32
(C) 15: 31 (D) 14 : 30

26. Length of stroke in the engine is 1000 mm, running at 1000 rpm, piston of
engine will be __ m / min–
(A) 200 ✓ (B) 300
(C) 400 (D) 500

27. Most commonly transmission system used in India is–


(A) Synchronous (B) Planetary gear
(C) Selective gear✓ (D) Hydrostatic

28. The four-cylinder engine at 180 rpm, the firing interval will be as–
(A) 1/60 S✓ (B) 1/45 S
(C) 1/90 S (D) 1/10 S

29. The speed of a belt is 12 Mis and it transmitting 80 hp, the difference of
tension on the sides of the belt will be–
(A) 400 kg (B) 425 kg
(C) 475 kg (D) 500 kg✓

30. The Lowest unit draft is obtained in a disc plough, when disc is operated
at ........... depth of its diameter.
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2
(C) 1/4 (D) 3/4✓

31. The two types of cylinders used on power wheat threshers are–
(A) Spike tooth and wire loop type
(B) Serrated disc and rasp bar
(C) Spike tooth and hammer mill✓
(D) Hammermill and flails

32. An implement attached to swinging drawbar of the tractor will offer–


(A) Increase in turning radius (B) Decrease in turning radius✓
(C) Increase inside draft (D) None of the above

33. The unit draft of an indigenous plough making a 20 em wide and 10 em deep V-
shaped furrow in 70 kg per sq. cm–The draft is–
(A) 50 kg (B) 60 kg
(C) 70 kg✓ (D) 80 kg

34. Total grain losses in a combined increase with–


(A) Increase in forwarding speed
(B) Decrease in stubble height
(C) Increase in concave clearance
(D) All of the above✓

35. Spiral gear is used to transmit power between two shafts placed at–
(A) An angle to each other
(B) In different planes
(C) Both (A) and (B) ✓
(D) None of the above
36. Width of cut of disc plough is increased by–
(A) Increasing disc angle ✓
(B) Increasing tilt angle
(C) Addition of more weight
(D) Decreasing disc angle

37. The horizontal component of pull perpendicular to the line of motion is called–
(A) Draft (B) Side draft✓
(C) Transverse component (D) Pull

38. For operating rotavator in trashy soils, which lines are better?
(A) L - shaped✓ (B) Hook shaped
(C) Backward curved (D) Straight blade

39. Soil strength is determined by–


(A) Penetrometer✓ (B) Micrometer
(C) Hydrometer (D) Dynamometer

40. Tandem wheels are preferred over dual wheels because–


(A) They lend to reduce load on an area by 50% ✓
(B) They tend to reduce soil contact pressure
(C) Reduces subsoil compactness pressure
(D) None of the above

41. The lower value of the ratio of drawbar height to length of tractor is better–
(A) variation in weight transfer increased
(B) variation in weight transfer decreased✓
(C) risk increases while ascending a gradient
(D) variation in lateral stability is reduced

42. Inflation pressure in rear wheel tractor is–


(A) 0 . 8 - L: 2 kg/ cm 2✓ (B) 1.2 - 2.0 kg/ cm 2
(C) 2.a - 2.5 kg/ em 2 (D) > 2.5 kg/cm 2

43. Turbochargers are driven by–


(A) Direct connection with engine power
(B) Exhaust gases from engine✓
(C) Electric current from battery
(D) None of the above

44. Number of piston rings on piston varies between–


(A) 1 - 3 (B) 3 - 7✓
(C) 7 - 12 (D) 12 - 15

45.Farm yard manure contains about ................ percentage of nitrogen.


(A) 0.50✓ (B) 0. 75
(C) 1'00 (D) 1'25

46. Improved uniformity is obtained if seed tube is inclined rearward at ..........


with vertical–
(A) 5 - 15 ° (B) 15 - 30°✓
(C) 30 - 40° (D) 40 - 50°

47. Compression pressure in petrol engine cylinder is–


(A) 6 - 10 kg/cm2✓ (B) 10 - 20 kg/cm2
(C) 20 - 35 kg Zcm 2 (D) 35 - 45 kg/cm2
48. Injection pressure of the fuel nozzle in diesel engine is–
(A) 35 - 45 kg/cm 2 (B) 50 - 100 kg/cm2
(C) 100 - 200 kg/cm2✓ (D) 200 kg/ em 2

49. Nozzle spacing on the boom in power operated sprayer depends upon–
(A) Spray angle
(B) Height of the boom from the target
(C) Diameter of spray pattern
(D) All of the above✓

50. Size of tyre is generally represented as–


(A) Sectional width x rim dia✓
(B) Sectional dia. x rim width
(C) Tyre width x tyre dia,
(D) None of the above

Example of Eukaryotic inhibitor antibiotic–


(A) Cycloheximide✓ (B) Penicillium
(C) Tetracycline (D) Streptomycin

2. A virion is a–
(A) Infectious nucleic acid (B) Infectious virus particle✓
(C) A virus parasite on bacteria (D) None of these

3. Urea degrading bacteria–


(A) Bacillus pasturi✓ (B) Clostridium pasteurianum
(C) A. Niger (D) Micrococcus sp

4. Example of Chemolithotroph–
(A) E. Coli (B) Bacillus
(C) Azotobacter (D) Nitrosomonas✓

5. Root surface that can be colonized by the microbes–


(A) Rhizosphere (B) Rhizoplane✓
(C) Both (D) None of these

6. Nitrat reductase enzyme present in–


(A) Cytoplasm✓ (B) Chloroplast
(C) Mitochondria (D) Nucleus

7. Microbe involved in Fibre retting–


(A) Micrococcus sp (B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Clostridium butrfcium✓ (D) Lactobacillus sp

8. In bacteria, cubical packets of 8 cells is called–


(A) Staphylococcus (B) Diplococcus
(C) Bacillus (D) Sarcina✓

9. Fungi used for bioassay of pantothenic acid–


(A) Yeast✓ (B) Neurospora
(C) Mucor- (D) Aspergillus

10. Ropiness of unpacked bread is due to growth of–


(A) Bacillus subtilis✓ (B) Clostridium sp.
(C) A: Niger (D) Streptococcus sp.
11. Microbe involved in tobacco curing–
(A) Micrococcus sp.✓ (B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Lactobacillus sp. (D) Aspergillus niger

12. Lactose sugar of milk is converted into Lactic acid by–


(A) Streptococcus lactis (B) Lactobacillus sp.✓
(C) Clostridium sp. (D) None of these

13. Which of the following is used to detect the presence of HIV ?


(A) ELISA test✓ (B) Benedict s test
(C) Widal test (D) Biuret's test

14. Prions are–


(A) Organism containing only nucleic acid
(B) Proteins which are capable of replications in certain mammalian cells✓
(C) Small cells which are infectious
(D) Fungal toxins

15. Which bacterium solublizes tricalcium phosphate in'soluble rock phosphates in


soils?
(A) Bacillus polymyxa (B) Pseudomonas striata✓
(C) Spirillum lipoferum (D) Both (A) and (B)

16. Example of VAM fungi–


(A) Pisoletecis (B) Sclerotenia
(C) Glomus✓ (D) Trichoderma

17. Lysozyme treated Cells of gram -ve bacteria are called–


(A) Protoplast (B) Sphaeroplast✓
(C) Cytoplasm (D) Mesosomes

18. Bacteria having especially high rate of respiration–


(A) Rhizobium (B) Azotobacter✓
(C) E. Coli (D) Acetobacter

19. Xanthomonas is an example of–


(A) Monotrichous✓ (B) Peritrichous
(C) Lophotrichous (D) Cephalotrichous

20. 'Ray Fungi' is the name given to–


(A) Rhizopus (B) Yeast
(C) Actinomycetes✓ (D) Mycoplasma

21. Causal organism of Q. fever–


(A) Coexiella bumetti✓ (B) Salmonella sp.
(C) E. Coli (D) None of these

22. Vitamin B2 is produced by–


(A) Ashbya gossypii✓ (B) Pseudomonas
(C) Brevibacterium sp (D) None of the above

23. Production of Vinegar is by–


(A) Bacillus subtilis (B) Glucanobacter✓
(C) Azotobacter (D) None of the above

24. Neomycin is produced by–


(A) S. Nouesii (B) S. fradiae✓
(C) S. erthsjreus . (D) S. Yenezuelea

25. Which one of the following is used for commercial production of Vitamin B12 ?
(A) Brevibacterium (B) Mycobacterium
(C) Propionibacterium✓ (D) None

26. Amylases produced by–


(A) Aspergillus sp. (B) Bacillus sp.
(C) Both (D) None of these

27. Name the scientists involved in commercial production of Penicillin


(A) Alexander Flemming (B) Florey & Chain✓
(C) Tulsane Brothers (D) Louis Pasteur

28. Development of plants due to increasein number of cells is called–


(A) hypertrophy (B) hypotrophy
(C) hyperplasia✓ (D) hypoplasia

29. If 10 % of the population of cells is killed In general, an ideal antimicrobial


chemical agent have a spectrum activity–
(A) Limited (B) Broad✓
(C) Narrow (D) None of the above

30. If broth culture of following are heated in boiling water for 10 min. which
culture is most likely to be sterilized–
(A) Bacillus sp (B) Pseudomonas sp✓
(C) Clostridium sp (D) None of the above

31. UV light are microcidal due to the formation of–


(A) Pyrine dimers (B) Pyrimidine dimer✓
(C) DNA damage (D) RNA damage

32. Ethylene oxide exhibits its antimicrobial activity by reaction–


(A) Oxidation (B) Hydrogenation
(C) Reduction (D) Alkylation✓

33. The low pH of media inhibits the growth of–


(A) Bacteria✓ (B) Molds
(C) Both (D) None

34. The invaginations seen at localised areas specially near the site of cell
division and participate in transverse septum formation is called–
(A) Lysosomes (B) Mesosomes✓
(C) Murein (D) Capsules

35. Funaric acid is produced by–


(A) Aspergillus terms (B) Rhizopus nigricans✓
(C) Aspergillus niger (D) Aspergillus fumigatus

36. Who proposed new grouping of living organisms into 3 kingdom i.e.
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria and Eukaryotes ?
(A) Eichels (B) Woose✓
(C) Haeckel (D) Chester
37. Microaerophillic N2 fixing bacteria–
(A) Azotobacter (B) Azospirillium✓
(C) Oostridium (D) Enterobacter
38. Father of Soil Microbiology is–
(A) Winogradsky✓ (B) Beirjenick
(C) Spermi (D) Hiltner

39. Glycolysis inhibition in the presence of oxygen is called–


(A) Warburg effect (B) Hypoglycolytic effect
(C) Pasteur effect✓ (D) None of the above of these

40. Murein is present in–


(A) Cyanobacteria✓ (B) Halobacterium
(C) Methanobacterium (D) None of these

Which of the following States has launched 'Mukhyamantri Jal Swavalamban Abhiyan
Scheme' ?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Kerala
(D) Goa (E) Uttar Pradesh (Ans : A)

2. The interdisciplinary scientific study of the atmosphere is known as–


(A) Zoology (B) Neurology (C) Meteorology
(D) Meteorite (E) Biology (Ans : C)

3. National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country in–
(A) 2003 (B) 2005 (C) 2007
(D) 2009 (E) 2010 (Ans : B)

4. The Panchayati Raj System in India was introduced by which constitutional


amendment?
(A) Constitutional Amendment, 1982 (B) Constitutional Amendment, 1992
(C) Constitutional Amendment, 2002 (D) Constitutional Amendment, 2012
(E) None of the above (Ans : B)

5. How often under the Mid-day Meal Programme, should the assessment of Percentage
of Underweight children at school level be done?
(A) Yearly (B) Half-yearly (C) Quarterly
(D) Monthly (E) None of the above (Ans : B)

6. Which forest community of Central India sent a petition against stopping of


shifting cultivation in 1892 ?
(A) Muria (B) Biagas (C) Bhatra
(D) Maria (E) None of the above (Ans : B)

7. The deficiency of which of the following causes poor plant growth and pale green
or yellow leaves?
(A) Potassium (B) Phosphorus (C) Nitrogen
(D) Sulphur (E) Sodium (Ans : D)

8. Which of the following is responsible for the whitening of leaves?


(A) Chlorosis (B) Transpiration (C) Respiration
(D) Photosynthesis (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : A)

9. What is the scientific name of cotton plant?


(A) Ocimum sanctum (B) Coriandrum sativum (C) Curcuma longa
(D) Gossypium herbaceum (E) Allium cepa (Ans : D)

10. Where is the headquarter of International Fund for Agriculture Development


located?
(A) Vienna, Austria (B) Rome, Italy (C) New York, USA
(D) Berlin, Germany (E) Geneva, Switzerland (Ans : B)

11. A 'plantation crop' is grown on a large piece of land usually in a tropical or


semi-tropical area specifically planted for widespread commercial sale and usually
tended by resident labourers. Which of the following crops may be treated as a
plantation crop?
(A) Cereals and Pulses (B) Fruits and Vegetables (C) Wheat, Rice, Maize and Millets

(D) Tea, Coffee, Coconut, Rubber (E) Cotton, Jute, Sugarcane, Tobacco (Ans : D)

12. What is the initial fund allocated to the Dairy Processing Infra-structure Fund
?
(A) Rs. 2,000 crore (B) Rs. 4,000 crore (C) Rs. 6,000 crore
(D) Rs. 8,000 crore (E) Rs. 10,000 crore (Ans : D)

13. The Blue Revolution is related with–


(A) Fish production (B) Meat production (C) Grains production
(D) Pulses production (E) Oilseeds production (Ans : A)

14. The aggregate limit per borrower for loans to corporate farmers engaged in
Agriculture and Allied Activities considered as agriculture under priority sector
advances is–
(A) Rs. 2.1 crore (B) Rs. 2 crore (C) Rs. 6.8 crore
(D) Rs. 4.5 crore (E) Rs. 4 crore (Ans : B)

15. What is the average weight of annual drawn mouldboard plough?


(A) 1.2 kg (B) 4.5 kg (C) 2.5 kg to 3.8 kg
(D) 5.8 kg to 3.6 kg (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : E)

16. The sugarcane production in the country has exceeded ............... lakh
tonnes for the year 2016-17, as per the estimate of agriculture production by Govt.
of India.
(A) 4200 (B) 3700 (C) 3200
(D) 4000 (E) 3060 (Ans : E)

17. Soil Health Card is a nationwide program to conduct farm level soil analysis.
In which year, the Soil Health Card Scheme was launched?
(A) 2013 (B) 2014 (C) 2016
(D) 2012 (E) 2015 (Ans : E)

18. Which of the following becomes the first State to use Automated Weather
Stations (AWS) for farmers?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat (C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra (E) West Bengal (Ans : D)

19. SAMPADA is a scheme launched by the Union Government for reducing food wastage
and increasing farmers' income by 2022. What is the full form of SAMPADA?
(A) Scheme for Agro-Marine Produce Processing and Development of Agro-Processing
Clusters
(B) Scheme for Agro-Marine Production Processed and Developed Agriculture
(C) Scheme for Agriculture, Marine, Processing and Development Aid
(D) Scheme for Agriculture Mega Processing and Developing Aid
(E) Other than those given as options (Ans : A)

20. In which of the following States, City 'Centre on Integrated Rural Development
for Asia and the Pacific' (CIRDAP) is established?
(A) Chennai (B) Lucknow (C) Bhopal
(D) Mumbai (E) Hyderabad (Ans : E)
21. The scientific study of the movement, distribution and quality of water on
earth, including water resources and environmental watershed sustainability is
known as-
(A) Hydrology (B) Meteorology (C) Aerography
(D) Cerography (E) Metrology (Ans : A)

22. The practice of raising, grazing livestock such as, cattle or sheep for meat or
wool is known as–
(A) Silviculture (B) Permaculture (C) Ranching
(D) Breeding (E) Animal Husbandry (Ans : C)

23. Maximum number of operational land holdings in India is which type of holding?
(A) Small Holdings (B) Large Holdings (C) Medium Holdings
(D) Marginal Holdings (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : D)

24. Which of the following Institute has recently developed genetically-modified


cotton varieties?
(A) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture and Technology
(B) Punjab Agricultural University
(C) Tamil Nadu Agricultural University
(D) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(E) University of Agricultural (Ans : B)

25. Sciences, Bengaluru, Karnataka Sugarcane crops are examples of which type of
croping ?
(A) Ratoon (B) Multiple (C) Mixed
(D) Parallel (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : A)

26. India's first Agriculture University is established in which State?


(A) Jharkhand (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra (E) Madhya Pradesh (Ans : C)

27. The Union Ministry of Commerce has launched pilot 'RISPC' for protecting
growers of plantation crops from twin risks of yield loss. What does 'R' in 'RISPC'
stands for?
(A) Regeneration (B) Revenue (C) Rigorous
(D) Raise (E) Rotational (Ans : B)

28. Which of the following States has won the best horticulture award organised by
Indian Council of Food and Agriculture?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Haryana
(D) West Bengal (E) Tripura (Ans : C)

29. Which of the following green manure crops contains highest amount of nitrogen?
(A) Dhaincha (B) Sunnhemp (C) Cowpea
(D) Guar (E) Alfalfa (Ans : A)

30. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous fertilizer?


(A) Ammonium Sulphate (B) Urea (C) Ammonium Nitrate
(D) Super Phosphate (E) Ammonium Bicarbonate (Ans : D)

31. The first phase of Saurastra Narmada Avataran Irrigation (SAUNI) Yojana was
launched at which of the following Indian States?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Haryana (C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat (E) West Bengal (Ans : D)

32. Asia's first Rice Technology Park to be established in–


(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu (E) Kamataka (Ans : E)
33. Crop rotation helps to–
(A) lessen use of pesticides (B) yield more crops (C) produce a greater choice of
plant products
(D) eliminate parasites, which have selective hosts (E) Other than those given as
options (Ans : B)

34. Which of the following Committee has been constituted for doubling farmers'
income by 2022 ?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee (B) Sachar Committee (C) Ashok Dalwai Committee
(D) Naresh Chandra Committee (E) Shah Nawaz Committee (Ans : C)

35. Which of the following chemical is used for controlling the mites?
(A) Fungicides (B) Mematicides (C) Acaricides
(D) Insecticides (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : C)

36. Parthenocarpy occurs in which of the following?


(A) Peach (B) Mango (C) Jackfruit
(D) Banana (E) Apple (Ans : C)

37. At the vegetative growth stage, flowering is stopped in foodgrain crops known
as.
(A) sigmoid growth curve (B) determinate growth (C) indeterminate growth
(D) grand growth period (E) None of the above (Ans : B)

38. 'NABARD' (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development–a Apex Banking
Institution provides finance for agriculture and rural development, was established
on–
(A) 12 July, 1982 (B) 12 July, 1985 (C) 10 August, 1986
(D) 15 September, 1987 (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : A)

39. Jute cultivation in India is concentrated in delta area of which of the


following rivers?
(A) Ganga (B) Mahanadi (C) Brahmaputra
(D) Godavari (E) Kaveri (Ans : A)

40. What culture should be given priority in. groundnut cultivation?


(A) Mycorrhiza (B) Rhizobium (C) Phosphobacteria
(D) Azospirillum (E) Other than those given as options (Ans : B)

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