Environmental Planner

ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING BOARD EXAMINATION_______________________
1. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec. 2a defines it as referring to 'all activities concerned with the management and development of
land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment
a. Urban Planning
b. Human ecology
c. Environmental Management
d. Environmental Planning
2. Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time" for the right people.
a. John Ratcliffe
b. Lewis Keeble
c. Brian Mclughlin
d. George Chadwick
e. Alan Wilson
3. Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?

a. Proactive
b. Problem solving
c. Algorithmic
d. Futuristic
e. People-driven
4. As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the following characteristics except one:
a. It exports substantial quantities of processed products.
b. Core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer.
c. Overall density of at least 1000 persons per square kilometer
d. Exhibits a street pattern.
5. The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the following.
a. If a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms, then it is considered urban
b. If a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
c. If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it is considered urban.
d. If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and 5 or more facilities within the two-
kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is considered urban.
6. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:

a. A cluster of skyscrapers
b. A charter of legal proclamation
c. A rectilinear or orthogonal street design
d. A seaport or an airport
7. In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009's amendment of Sec. 450 of RA 7160 LGC, the statutory
requirements for an LGU's elevation to cityhood are:
a. Contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group islands.
b. Minimum annual income of P100 million based 1991 constant prices.
c. Population of at least 150,000
d. All of the choices
8. Under RA7160 Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly Urbanized City?
a. At least 200,000
b. At least 500,000
c. At least 1 million
d. At least 10 million
9. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors, live together in important
locations --a process that is always accompanied by economic agglomeration, spatial alteration, and sociocultural change
a. Industrialization
b. Urbanization
c. Social Transformation
d. Modernization
10. If 'pre-industrial society' was mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and relatively parochial, 'industrial society' in
contrast
a. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories
b. Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
c. Aims for mass production thru mechanization & automation
d. Relies on the output of white-collar professionals
1|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

11. Due to greater 'division of labor', there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of workers beginning with
a. Primitive subsistence society
b. Pre-industrial society
c. Industrial society
d. Post-industrial society
12. The expansion of human populations away from central urban areas into low density, mono functional and usually car-
dependent communities, in a process called suburbanization. In addition to describing a particular form of urbanization, the
term also relates to the social and environmental consequences associated with this development.
a. Decentralization
b. Dispersion
c. Exurbanization
d. Urban Sprawl
13. In Michael P. Todaro's Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or main attraction of Third World
cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to accept migration, is
a. "blight lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment
b. Possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city address
c. Abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the countryside.
d. Substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of skill, task, or occupation
14. According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban planning ever written ( 1965 ), the explicit
goals of urban planning are the following, except one:
a. Health & Safety
b. Convenience and amenity
c. Tolerance and plurality
d. Efficiency & economy
15. The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the Philippines, except one:
a. To achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence
b. To slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population management
c. To optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban development
d. To undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will make available housing and
services at affordable cost
16. According to Dr. Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property rights, individuals enjoy free unlimited
access to natural resources and right to use without exclusion; each individual is motivated to maximize his or her own benefit
from exploiting the resource. When no individual has adequate incentive to conserve the public resource, the resource will likely
become overused and overexploited.
a. The Stewardship of Nature
b. Communitarian Paradox
c. Fencesitter's Dilemma
d. Tragedy of the Commons
17. Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by whatever resource is in shortest supply, this
principle refers to "the maximum population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without
causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat."
a. Limits to growth
b. Tipping point
c. Range and threshold
d. Carrying capacity
18. In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained at a certain level indefinitely; in particular,
it refers to the potential longevity of ecological systems to support humankind and other species.
a. Resilience
b. Endurance
c. Sustainability
d. Perpetuity
e. Durability
19. Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and accountability to future populations?
a. Common Heritage of Humankind
b. Inter-generational Equity
c. Caring Capacity
d. Parity of Compeers

20. This type of planning has also been called 'synoptic,' 'static', 'normative,' and 'Utopian', because it assumes a prior that
professional planners have the intelligence, noble intentions and expertise to synthesize extensive data, analyze a relatively
predictable world, and decide rightly on crucial questions, of broader public interest.
a. Equity or activist or advocacy planning
b. Strategic Planning
c. Traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning
d. Rational-Comparative Planning
21. The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" come from what school of planning?

a. Communicative Planning
b. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
c. Incremental Planning
d. Systems Theory of Planning
22. The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's 'Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of planning is the principle that planning should
be –
a. Cyclical. Iterative, and self-correcting
b. Free-wheeling and open-ended
c. Wide-ranging and exhaustive
d. Rigorous, exact, and mathematical
23. Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under which stage do policy-makers or decision-
makers make a firm resolve to pursue a specific course of action?
a. System Description
b. System Modeling
c. System Projection
d. System Synthesis
e. System Control
24. 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in the tradition of Herbert Gans and TJ Kent is concerned with solving chronic
problems of society by allocating resources efficiently and enacting laws, rules and standards. It is therefore closest to which
planning approach?
a. Rational-comprehensive
b. Traditional or command planning
c. Strategic planning
d. Communicative planning
25. Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members around a common purpose?
a. Solve major issues at macro level.
b. Avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking
c. Be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to accommodate changes.
d. Engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single game plan for execution.
e. Establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future.
f. Communicate to everyone what is most important.
26. In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats" tool as popularized by exponents of Strategic Planning, the elements,
aspects or characteristics that need to be reinforced, are enumerated under which quadrant?
a. 'S'
b. 'W'
c. 'O'
d. 'T'
27. Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul Davidoff (1965)?
a. Single women with children were assisted to find employment.
b. Social planning was moved from 'backroom negotiations' into the open public forum.
c. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified.
d. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy.
e. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
28. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic "Eight policies, Rungs in the Ladder
Citizen Participation" which describes the varying degrees of people's involvement in policies, plans, and programs.
a. Ralph Nader
b. Susan S. Fainstein
c. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.
d. Sherry Arnstein

29. For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and Rhodes, he is acknowledged as the Father of
Town Planning in Western Civilization.
a. Vitruvius of Rome
b. Ptolemy
c. Hippodamus of Miletus
d. Appolodorus of Damascus
30. Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town planning?
a. Polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature as being animated by divine spirit.
b. The delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but complementary spheres in society.
c. The concept of 'polis' or (latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities can truly be called 'civilized'.
d. The practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship which included women, the poor, slaves, and aliens.
31. Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the city-state, the 'marketplace' was the site where ancient Greeks came together not
only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also for political, social, and other secular activities.
a. 'parthenon'
b. 'gymnasium'
c. 'erechtheum'
d. 'agora'
e. 'sumposion'
32. They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE -410 AD) because they planned their cities and
settlements with transport network, civil works, utilities, and military defense, foremost in their minds?
a. Macedonian Greeks under Alexander the Great.
b. Romans under the dictatorial Emperors.
c. Persians under Cyrus the Great.
d. Egyptians under Ramses, Thutmoses, and Nefertiti.
33. Recognized as 'father of landscape architecture,' he also began the 'Parks and Conservation Movement' in the United States which
advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen class conflict,
heighten family and religious values, and serve as aid to social reform.
a. Frederic Law Olmstead
b. John Muir
c. Gifford Pinchot
d. George Perkins Marsh
34. He wrote the famous book "Garden Cities of Tomorrow"(1902) and became a most influential thinker with his effort to combine
the best features of 'country' as shown in his diagrams of three (3) magnets.
a. Sir Frederic Osborn
b. Sir Ebenezer Howard
c. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
d. Sir Raymond Unwin
35. The Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed largescale problems caused by the __?
a. The Scientific Revolution.
b. British-American War of Independence.
c. Industrial Revolution.
d. World War II and the Holocaust.
36. The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of "urban containment", with following features, except one:
a. Greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities.
b. Mass transit to link 'mother city' with 'garden cities'.
c. Homestead of about one acre per family.
d. Preservation of more farmland & open space.
37. Considered as the "Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the City of Manila and the City of Baguio from 1903
to 1911 with the assistance of Pierce Andersson.
a. John Hay
b. William Howard Taft
c. Robert Kennon
d. Daniel Hudson Burnham
e. Francis B. Harrison

38. "Make no little plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be realized. Make big plans; aim high in hope and
work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once recorded will never die ... "
a. Leon Battista Alberti
b. Daniel H. Burnham
c. Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann
d. Pierre Charles L'Enfant
39. "First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us." This quotation is attributed to
a. Winston Churchill
b. George Washington
c. Theodore Roosevelt
d. Napoleon Bonaparte
40. This was an American movement in the 1890s that stressed the design of settlements according to the principles of "grandeur,
exuberance, monumentality, drama and tension, cohesiveness, and symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of Washington
DC, Paris, Chicago, San Francisco, among others:
a. City Beautiful Movement
b. City Functional Movement
c. City Efficient Movement
d. New Towns Movement
41. The US Supreme Court's decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate land use through ordinance in the landmark
case of "Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty Company is reckoned as the watershed moment for
a. City Beautiful Movement
b. City Functional Movement
c. City Efficient Movement
d. Regional City Movement
42. The major objective of Le Corbusier's (Charles-Edouard Jeanneret) cubist "Radiant City' design (1923) meant for 3 million people
consisting of 'uniform 60-storey tower-blocks set in a huge park' was to:
a. Use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital institutions.
b. Increase city density by building on a small part of land.
c. Increase the public's enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes from varying heights.
d. Capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in central locations or CBDs.
43. Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility connections (electricity, sewer, concept of
telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be the basis of city layout; thus he considered the impact of technology in his concept of an
elongated urban form running from Cadiz, Spain up to St. Petersburg,Russia
a. Ciudad Conectada
b. Ciudad Alongada
c. Ciudad Lineal
d. Ciudad Larga
44. Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35,000 inhabitants where 'man would rule by himself.' thus there
would be no police, no churches, no rigid forms of social control in this Utopian place complete with landscaped homes, factories,
trade schools, transport and leisure facilities.
a. Esplanade
b. Axle Industrielle
c. Post-Industrial Motor City
d. Linear Industrial City
45. Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge metropolis by way of urban decentralization
wherein each American family would be granted at least one acre of federal land in a self-contained agroindustrial settlement.
a. Eco-city
b. Broad acre city
c. Exurbia
d. Micro polis
e. Suburbia
46. The New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and uncontrolled development in continental America
but the main reason for its suburban sprawl after World War II was__?
a. Rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown from sub-prime lending.
b. Increased value of rural land due to Hoover's Interstate highway Act of 1956 which funded federal highways and
freeways across many states.
c. The widespread use of commuter trains and monorail.
d. The popularity of automobile as a means of transportation.

47. Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright's 'Broad Acre City' (1932)?
a. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land.
b. Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house.
c. Manufacture & commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings.
d. Work within walking distance from the home.
e. Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities.
f. Densification would preserve much open space.
48. He proposed the 'neighborhood unit' (1929) as a self-contained 'garden suburb' bounded by major streets, with shops at
intersections and school in the middle; its size would be defined by school's catchment area with a radius of quarter mile or 402
meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering.
a. Clarence Perry
b. Clarence Stein
c. Clarence Thomas
d. Clarence McKay
49. A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled "Cities in Evolution" (1915) and who coined the terms 'folk- work-
place', 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is acknowledged as the 'father of regional planning'
a. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
b. Sir Patrick Geddes
c. Lewis Mumford
d. Barry Parker
50. He led the crafting of the regional 'Greater London Plan of 1944', he designed some of 30 post-war New Towns approved by the
British Parliament, including Doncaster area and East Kent, in which he used open space as structuring element.
a. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
b. Sir Patrick Geddes
c. Lewis Mumford
d. Charles Abrams
51. She was called a 'superwoman' who single handedly sparked environmental activism in the 1960s-70s with her research ('Silent
Spring) on bio magnification of pesticides and chemicals in the human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in the creation of US
Environmental Protection Agency and Environmental Impact Assessment system in the 1970s.
a. Gro Harlem Brundtland
b. Catherine Bauer Wurster
c. Rachel Louise Carson
d. Marth C. Nussbaum
52. If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is celebrated annually on April 22, 'World Town
Planning Day' falls on November 8, 'World Environment Day' is marked on the 51h day of the month of
a. May
b. June
c. September
d. October
53. If 'World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is observed on May 22, 'World Ocean Day' on
June 8, 'World Indigenous Peoples Day' on August 9, 'World Animal Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October 16,
when is 'World Water Day' celebrated?
a. January 13
b. March 22
c. June 24
d. October 31
54. Based on his landmark book, "Design with Nature," 'map overlay' to identify 'ecological constraints' was a tool devised in 1967
by the first modern environmental planner.
a. Ian L. McHarg
b. Konstantinos Doxiadis
c. Francis stuart Chapin Jr.
d. Erma Bernbeck

55. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or decaying sections of any town by
extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements in streetscapes, parks, green ways, housing, community centers,
etc., based on anticipation that future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.
a. Land re-adjustment
b. Urban re-structuring
c. Infill and densification
d. Urban renewal
56. As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in crafting the "Regional Plan of New York and its
Environs 1922-1931 ;" he also conceived, and executed public works costing $27 billion between 1324 and 1968 and was
responsible for virtually every parkway, expressway, and public housing project in New York metropolitan area.
a. William Levitt
b. Fiorello La Guardia
c. Robert Murray Haig
d. Robert Moses
e. Warren Buffett
57. The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open areas relating to one other to demonstrate
'freedom' and an overall city layout resembling a 'dove in flight'.
a. Brasilia
b. Sydney
c. Chandigarh
d. Canberra
e. Islamabad
58. 'Ekistics' or the 'science of human settlements' by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951) was built upon the concept of "basic needs,"
which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into "material survival & security needs," "social or enabling needs," and non-
material "human needs". Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?
a. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and order,
b. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and transportation.
c. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-actualization/self-realization.
d. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
59. The following are the basic elements of 'human settlements' according to Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the
built environment or physical capital?
a. Anthropos
b. Nature
c. Shells and network
d. Society
e. Social structure
60. What is the smallest unit in the 'human settlements planning' or Ekistics by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951 )?
a. House
b. Anthropos
c. Organism
d. Neighborhood
e. Hamlet
61. In "Death and Life of Great American Cities" (1961) and "Economy of Cities" (1969), this planner maintains that 'diversity'
promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the growth of cities, thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and
mixture in the geographic clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and neighborhoods.
a. Herbert Gans
b. James Howard Kunstler
c. Joel Garreau
d. Jane Jacobs
62. All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:
a. Mixed Use Zoning
b. Neo-Traditional Design
c. Exclusionary Zoning
d. Pedestrianization

63. Because Pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small and based on kinship relations, the most
common practice of land tenure in pre-colonial society, wherein one would merely enjoy the 'fruits' of land, was called
a. Primitive communism
b. Islamic feudalism
c. Usufruct
d. Tenancy
e. Sweden slash-and-burn
64. This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered dwellings for purposes of greater, military
defense and political control - literally bringing together dispersed population within hearing distance of church bells -- which
policy was applied on most Spanish colonies from 16th to18th centuries.
a. El Alcance del Campanario
b. Presidio y Fortaleza
c. Reduccion
d. Evangelizacion
65. Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Le yes de las lndias' ( 1573), what would be located next to each other around a
Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish colonial settlement?
a. Garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade
b. Governor’s mansion, bishop’s palace, general’s manor, haciendero’s villa, military garrison
c. Church, town hall, school, public market
d. Houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principals and ilustrados
66. Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban Planning Commission, Real Property Board,
and Capital City Planning Commission, the government created this first physical planning body.
a. National Planning Commission
b. National Disaster Coordinating Council
c. National Environmental Protection Agency
d. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
67. In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional planners in the Philippines.
a. Local Government Academy
b. Development Academy of the Philippines
c. Institute of Planning
d. UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management
68. Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972 increased the number of Philippine regions
to 11, regionalized key ministries and line departments, and created a major planning agency of government which is known
today as
a. Philippine Economic Zone Authority
b. National Land Use Committee
c. Congressional Planning and budget Office
d. National Economic and Development Authority
69. In 2012, how many administrative regions does the Philippines have?
a. 13
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
70. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, which of the following is not among the types of cities in the Philippines?
a. Highly Urbanized Cities
b. Independent Cities
c. Megacities
d. Component Cities
71. In 2011, which Philippine city had the biggest population, net income and IRA?
a. City of Manila
b. Makati City
c. Quezon City
d. Cebu City

72. This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1992 'UNCED Earth Summit' and contains a policy framework that
redefines development as the 'drawing out of full human potential' according to the 'appropriate productivity' of nature, rather
than optimal or maximum exploitation of natural resources to achieve GDP growth.
a. Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development
b. Philippine Strategy Covenant for on total Sustainable Human Development
c. Strategic National Action Program
d. Philippine Agenda 21
73. This School of Thought holds that the settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend to be spread evenly and symmetrically
in isotropic space, displaying both hierarchy and equilibrium arising from the interdependence between big and small
settlements and from the complementation between their respective scope of functions
a. Galaxy of Settlements Theory
b. Central Place Theory
c. Geographic Determinism
d. Dependency Theory
74. This School of Thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation’, largely a consequence of class-based struggle
among groups for strategic dominance and control surplus. Such conflict is usually won by the rich and powerful through agents
of capital such as multi-national corporations which use the city to amass wealth by raising property values through
commercialization, gentrification, manipulation, and land speculation.
a. Capital Theoretic Model
b. Political Economy
c. Natural Capitalism
d. David Harvey’s Circuit of Capital
75. This School of Thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free trade and free movement of capital wherein
nation-states would have 'lean and mean' governments which pursue policies of liberation, deregulation, privatization, de-
bureaucratization, ‘unbundling', 'de-coupling', and similar structural adjustments.
a. World Systems Theory
b. State Corporatism
c. Neo-Liberalism
d. Liberal Democracy
76. Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of agricultural rent is symbolized as "LR=Y(p-c)-Ytd' where "Y" is yield or total harvest,
"P" is price of crop, "C"is production cost of crop, "t" is transport cost and "D" is distance to market. If yield of palay is 3,500 kgs,
NFA buying price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is 5km., given farmer's gross production cost of 45 cents per square meter per day
for unit production cost of P12.00 per kilo,would palay cultivation be profitable at this specific farm location if transport cost is
P1.00 per kilo of palay?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It depends on the weather
d. It depends on the quality of road and capacity of vehicle
• LR = 3,500 kgs(17.00-12.00) – 3,500(1.00)(5km)

• LR = 3,500 (5) - 3,500 (5) = 0
77. In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, The catchment area of a central place takes the shape of a hexagon rather than a
perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula,"C=2.6r2d,"
what would be the catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50km and diameter is one km?
a. 0.65 sq. km.
b. 0.75 sq. km.
c. 0.85 sq. km.
d. 0.95 sq. km.
78. In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of first- order services while grocery store,
gas station, furniture shop, and post office are examples of
a. Secondary services
b. Tertiary services
c. Quaternary services
d. Quinary services
79. A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic and social functions, is called
a. Matrix
b. Isotims
c. Lsodapanes
d. Scalogram

80. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines, except one.
a. Location of health centers
b. Location of trial courts
c. Location of beach resorts
d. Location of police stations
81. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a huge sports stadium, or a tertiary-level
hospital cannot be established in each and every Philippine municipality?
a. Spatial equity and bio-geographic equity
b. Specialization and concentration
c. Market range and threshold population
d. Profitability and pecuniary interest
82. The 'hierarchy of settlements' in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is characterized by
a. Equally-sized large cities in every region
b. Only one large city, many small settlements
c. Only medium-sized and small settlements
d. A few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements
83. According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers and opportunists push the 'land frontier'
farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they define new land uses for themselves in a process called
a. Evolution
b. Co-location
c. Succession
d. Acclimatization
e. Cohabitation
84. In the model of mono-centric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to transport arteries, blue-collar workers locate
close to their jobs, while traders and retailers pay higher for choice locations in city center to have command of the market. This
pattern of land use is explained better by which theory of spatial planning?
a. Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso
b. Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal
c. Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
d. City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch
85. "When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit maximizing firms, land is sold to the highest willing
bidder. As a firm moves closer to the center of a place, transport costs fall which increases the amount a firm is willing to pay for
land. Thus, land at the center always has the highest value.
a. Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
b. William Alonso, Richard E. Muth, and Edwin S. Mills
c. Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter Isard
d. Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park
86. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' are what you commonly see in what Peirce F. Lewis calls
a. Circumferential city
b. Multi Cellular city
c. Stellar City
d. Galactic City
87. The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
a. Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different locations.
b. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
c. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or ‘circuits of capital’
d. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of cities.
88. 'Urban development' tends to occur along major transportation routes because
a. Power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear
b. Business cannot take place without roads and vehicles
c. Migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus, processions, or Diasporas.
d. People tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land uses are at maximum.
10 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

89. Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in the same manner that both population
and business follow roads?
a. Ernest Burgess
b. Homer Hoyt
c. Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman
d. Peirce Lewis
90. Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth along lines of least resistance?
a. Multiple Nuclei
b. Concentric Zone
c. Sector Model
d. Polycentric Model
91. In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are those:
a. Downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts
b. On top of hills and elevated areas called ‘uptowns’
c. Immediately around public offices and institutional sector
d. Along major roadways
92. The original concept of 'megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is attributed to
a. Jean Gottman
b. Konstantinos Doxiadis
c. Dennis Rondinelli
d. Andreas Faludi
93. Which characteristic of megalopolis describes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or multi-nodal spatial pattern?
a. Is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)
b. Tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring regions.
c. Has complex form as ‘mother city’ breeds smaller offspring cities in sprawling manner.
d. Requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of a single LGU authority.
94. This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms, settlements, industries, transport hubs,
infrastructure, wilderness etc. across a significantly large area broader than a single city or town.
a. Watershed Planning
b. Area Development Planning
c. Regional Planning
d. Physical Planning
95. Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which criterion pertains to the role of a leading center
or a complex of exporting firms or lead industries?
a. Must be large enough to take investment descisions of an economic size.
b. Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor c. Should have a homogenous economic structure
c. Must contain at least one growth point.
d. Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems.
96. Which is not a method to delineate a region?

a. Force Field analysis
b. Gravitational analysis
c. Factor analysis
d. Flow analysis
e. Ethno-linguistic and socio-cultural profiling
f. Weighted index number method
97. "High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from other parts of the country, thus favoring
them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar effect: increased demand in expanding centers spur additional
investments, which in turn will increase incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments."
a. Cumulative Causation
b. Positive Reinforcement
c. Economic Modernization
d. Circuits of Capital
98. According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external economies for an industry's products"
while 'backward linkage' refers to
a. Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside
b. Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
c. Attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands.
d. Expansion of service industries and others serving the local market.

99. 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing, grocery, catering, recreation, etc. while
'services that cut across varied types of firms such as security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc. are called
a. Logistical
b. Financial
c. Diagonal
d. Interlocal
e. Messengerial
f. Transborder
100. Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland economic exchange & spatial integration?
a. Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect the natural environment.
b. Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center, manufacturing hub, tourism zone, etc.
c. Develop transport corridors in ‘hub and spokes design’ with major infrastructure reaching out to population centers.
d. Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these areas as parks, farms, buffers, etc.
101. A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake, coast, ecosystem is called 'natural or
ecological region'; while that which is defined by extent of economic connectedness or market exchange is called a "functional
region"; that which is created by law regardless of natural or economic commonality is called
a. Homogeneous region
b. Formal region
c. Historic region
d. Virtual region
102. 'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which banned establishment of additional
medium and heavy industries in the national capital within a 50 kilometer radius from
a. Rizal Monument, Luneta
b. Malacanang Palace
c. Bonifacio Monument
d. Quezon Memorial Circle
103. The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
a. Bataan EPZ
b. Mactan EPZ
c. Baguio EPC
d. Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
e. Phividec Mizamis Oriental
104. Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of Pres. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo sought to
build upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of territories such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity logistics
chain, or cyber-services. Which 'super-region' ought to focus on 'agri-business'?
a. Northern Luzon Quadrangle
b. Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
c. CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
d. Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan & parts of Mindanao)
e. Subic-Clark Freeport Complex
f. Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
105. Of the so-called 'super-regions,' which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage in 'tourism'?
a. North Luzon
b. Central Philippines
c. Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
d. Davao Silicon Gulf
106. Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of 'inclusive growth'?
a. Compromise
b. Transactional
c. Equality
d. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
e. Only for the Yellow Army
107. The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits from the national-level or macro-
economic growth trend to _____ component regions and lower-level communities
a. Cascade
b. Sprinkle around in spurts
c. Pour down
d. Trickle down

108. In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which refers to 'fagging regions'?
a. Core regions
b. Upward transitional areas
c. Resource frontier areas
d. Downward transitional areas
e. Special problem areas
f. Latifundio-minifundio
109. The phenomenon of 'urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a single metropolis corners a disproportionate
share of a country's population, resources, and investments by reason of historical or political precedence, or as a result of
foreign colonial influence, is also called "Manila imperialism" in the Philippines.
a. It is desirable because of the efficient use of spave and economies of scale.
b. It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and overconcentration.
c. It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers.
d. It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off economic assets and human talent from hinterland.
110. Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain 'concentrated decentralization'?
a. Regional industrial centers
b. Special economic zones
c. Growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
d. Agora and agurbia
111. According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive or expanding firm/industry, or
cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of other firms/industries that are technically or functionally
related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of goods and services.
a. Market town
b. Entrepot
c. Axis Mundi
d. Growth Pole
e. Ecozone
112. Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
a. Free trade zone
b. Financial banking center
c. Export processing zone
d. Industrial park or industrial estate
113. According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous hectares which is subdivided and developed
according to a comprehensive plan under a unified continuous management and with provisions for basic infrastructure and
utilities, with or without pre-built standard factory buildings (SFBs)
a. Industrial corridor
b. Regional manufacturing hub
c. Export processing zone
d. Industrial estate
114. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution, "The State shall promote the preferential use of Filipino labor,
domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt measures that help make them competitive." What technical
planning concept pertains most aptly to this?
a. Inflow-outflow-backflow
b. Trickle up and trickle down
c. Economic nationalism or Filipinism
d. Forward linkages and backward linkages in production
115. An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called "developmental" while an industrial estate meant
to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activity particularly in poor regions is called
a. "specialized"
b. "ancillary"
c. "promotional"
d. "survival"
e. "subsistential"

116. The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Losch, Walter lsard, Melvin Greenhut and
others, in so-called classical theories of industrial location.
a. The costs of distributing and marketing finished goods to the end-user
b. Wages of labor
c. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory
d. Perks and privileges for managers
117. When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr valley, it is called "materials-oriented;"
when a firm locates close to where there are large populations such as Shanghai or Tokyo, it is called --
a. Customer-friendly
b. Client-centered
c. Demographically-responsive
d. Market-oriented
118. According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical attributes of geographic location to carry out
profitable business are called:
a. Vagabond
b. Wanderlust
c. Itinerant
d. Footloose
119. An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost of unionized labor in Detroit and moves
its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs are low and sources of refined metals are close by. What theory of firm
location likely underpins this decision?
a. Market-Oriented Approach by August Losch
b. Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
c. Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
d. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
120. A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite high wage costs, IT company's boast of
highest IQ points per square meter of floor space, and have vibrant linkages with topnotch universities to create state-of-the-
art technologies. What theory of firm location is operational here?
a. Theory of Human Capital
b. Profit Maximizing Approach
c. Satisficing Theory
d. Behavioral Theory
121. In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community Development and the UP Institute of
Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever national physical framework plan that attempted to address spatial
inequity or imbalance among regions using the concept of
a. Integrated area development
b. Growth pole/growth center
c. Selective territorial closure
d. New society
122. The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater complementarity between agriculture
and industry sectors and between urban and rural places is called
a. Import Substitution Industrialization
b. Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
c. Countrywide urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
d. Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)
123. "Development process should be redefine in such a way that urban development promotes rural development while rural
development supports urban development." (John Friedman)
a. Agropolis / agropolitan approach
b. Rurban interlink
c. Agro-based countryside development
d. Michael Lipton model
124. This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-1990s refers to the necessary
combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional activities in mutually reinforcing manner - fostering the growth of
viable market towns or mid-size cities that offer broad services and amenities meant to achieve both stability of population
movement and agro-industrial growth; closely tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural production.
a. Autonomous Autarchic Development
b. Integrated Area Development
c. Endogenous Self-Reliant Development
d. Selective Territorial Closure

125. As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)" scheme analogous to Japan's "One
Town One Product" model would cluster several villages to carry out the following components except:
a. Family farm school or folk school
b. Small-scale agro-processing industries
c. Rural development center
d. Roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
126. RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in which terrestrial processes and uses, as
well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect each other; its geographic extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer
from the shoreline at high tide to a seaward limit of 200 meters isobaths.
a. Seashore land
b. Foreshore land
c. Coastal Zone
d. Aqua Marine Zone
127. Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured from its shoreline?
a. 7 km
b. 10 km
c. 15 km
d. 20 km
128. Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two seaside municipalities is less than 30 km,
each one's municipal waters is determined by using
a. Comparative sizes of fishing population
b. A median line on common water body
c. Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
d. Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
129. Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the world's biodiversity. Philippines has
over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square kilometer of which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of seafood
annually. Which area is considered among the most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?
a. Sulu
b. Boracay
c. Palawan
d. Mindoro
130. According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr. Helen Yap of UP Marine Science Institute, 30% of
total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying, 25% in fair condition, how much remains in excellent condition?
a. Approximately 5%
b. Approximately 8%
c. Approximately 26%
d. Approximately 31 %
131. The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters, except one.
a. Use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets
b. use of dynamites and other explosives
c. Use of fine mesh nets
d. Muro-ami
e. Use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
f. Use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
132. Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of number of species Under RA 9174
"Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act", a species or sub-species that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate
future is called
a. Acutely Threatened Species
b. Critically Endangered Species
c. Species Vulnerable to Extinction
d. Rapidly Vanishing Species
133. Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, __ are necessary to give species a route to reach their new habitats.
a. Science Reserves & Ranches
b. Zoos & Botanical Gardens
c. Lifelines
d. Wildlife Corridors

134. The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3, 1973 has been helpful in protecting
endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800, by
a. Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
b. Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
c. Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
d. Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
e. Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
135. This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time and passed on for posterity.
a. National patrimony
b. Customs & traditions
c. Patriotic legacy
d. Cultural heritage
e. Bequeaths & bequests
136. Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by UNESCO?
a. Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
b. Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
c. Magellan's Cross in Cebu
d. Rice Terraces of the Philippines
e. Puerto Princesa Underground River
f. Historic Town of Vigan
137. According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical sites or structures hallowed and
revered for their history or association as declared by the National Historical Institute"
a. Epochal Landmark
b. National Treasure
c. National Cultural Property
d. Historic Shrine
e. Sacred Place
138. Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should be utilized by preserving
as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modern uses in their interiors.
a. Total Makeover
b. Reconfigurative Renovation
c. Converted Property
d. Adaptive Re-use
139. Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values such as the following, except one.
a. Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
b. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
c. Heritage sites and historic places
d. Municipal plazas and public parks
140. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?

a. Absorbs air pollution
b. Gives off oxygen
c. Cools the air as water transpires
d. Provides habitat to wild beasts
e. Provides shade with 1ess electricity required
f. Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
141. Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and
natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through their
ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the present."
a. Tribal land
b. Cultural heritage
c. Autonomous region
d. Ethnic realm
e. Ancestral domain

142. According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and information on natural resources and
anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated using various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and evaluates
environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way that enables planners and government decision-makers
to anticipate the type of development control necessary in the planning area.
a. Natural Resources Inventory
b. Environmental Accounting
c. Biogeographic Compendium
d. Eco-Profile
143. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social sector'?
a. Education
b. Tourism
c. Health
d. Police Protective Services
e. Sports and Recreation
144. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by systematically evaluating
alternative patterns of resource use, choosing that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and
programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities and
constraints.
a. Framework Planning
b. Strategic Planning
c. Land Use Planning
d. Development Planning
145. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements about community goals,
priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by maps, diagrams, charts, tables that
show a coherent spatial framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
a. Charrette
b. Chat roulette
c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
d. Strategic Plan
e. Framework Plan
146. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the detailed layout of location,
and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function effectively in relation to
the complexity and scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.
a. Estate Planning
b. Wards and Precincts Planning
c. Parcellary Planning
d. Site Planning
e. Project Planning
147. This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city, in particular the shape and form of the
city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors
alike can make high-quality connections between people, places and buildings.
a. Architectural Master Plan
b. Cityscape and Streetscape
c. Urban Design
d. Form and Style
e. Visual Panorama
148. This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present and potential uses of land in order to
maximize, regulate, and direct their use and development.
a. Wards & Precincts Planning
b. Subdivision Plats
c. Land Allocation and Apportionment
d. Zoning
149. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such that
innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation
of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
a. Enterprise Zone
b. Sites and Services model
c. Zonal Improvement Program
d. Planned Unit Development

150. This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height, bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play
down, or draw attention away from a landmark (e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of place
a. Design Aesthetics
b. Architectural Masterplan
c. Cultural Mapping
d. Form-Zoning
151. An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be separated or severed from ownership of
land in a particular zoning district, then sold or passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with the
development of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
a. Market-based instrument
b. Commutation of Rights
c. Property Conversion
d. Transfer of Development Rights
152. Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?

a. Agro-industrial estate
b. Cropland
c. Orchard
d. Fishpond
e. Fish pen
153. Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?

a. Residential
b. Institutional
c. Industrial
d. Mineral
154. Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?
a. Forest land
b. Memorial park
c. Infrastructure land
d. Commercial
155. 168. What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8 meters and is 160 meters long?
a. 8%
b. 7%
c. 6%
d. 5%
e. 4%
156. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as

a. Even and smooth
b. Flat to gently sloping
c. Level to nearly level
d. Gently to moderately undulating
157. Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least nutrient-holding capacity?
a. Sand
b. Clay
c. Silt
d. Loam
e. Humus
158. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural use?
a. Climate and rainfall
b. Soil quality
c. Geologic fault lines
d. Slope
159. These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain the productivity levels of crops in a given
climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate or adjoining environment.
a. Agro-industrial estate
b. Prime agricultural land
c. Alluvial fans
d. Icefields or mud paddies

160. The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city CLUP should be at least
a. 1 :200,000
b. 1:100,000
c. 1:25,000
d. 1:10,000
161. Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?

a. Political - administrative boundaries
b. NPAAAD map
c. Slope map
d. Forest cover map
162. 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate

a. Soil classes
b. Layers of vegetative cover
c. Demarcation lines
d. Elevation intervals
163. An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more

a. Base maps
b. Thematic maps
c. Aspect maps
d. Choropleth maps
164. In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt fraction that would ensure good plant
growth are
a. <50 cm and <80%
b. >100 cm and >80%
c. 50-100 cm and 40-80%
d. 10-50 cm and 10-40%
165. It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are used to organize, store, process, analyze
and display multiple layers of spatially-referenced information about geographically located features.
a. Geodesy and Geodetics
b. Global Positioning System
c. Electronic Cadastral System
d. Geographic Information System
166. Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial analysis was done manually by overlaying
different thematic maps of the same scale, principally to determine
a. Geo-hazards and physical constraints
b. Areas that are ideal for urban development
c. Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
167. This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image of the Earth by removing tilt of planet,
relief displacements, and topographic distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
a. Photogrammetry
b. Orthophotography
c. Remote sensing
d. Geomatics
e. Geodetics
168. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps on top of each other to determine
areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and
conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
a. Thematic superimposition
b. Cartographic merging
c. Sieve analysis
d. Spatial modeling
169. What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
a. Checklist of criteria
b. Linear programming
c. Cost-benefit analysis
d. Computer simulation

170. By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values, 'Planning Balance Sheet' is an 'extended'
'multiple-criteria' form of
a. Cost-revenue analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Cost-effectiveness analysis
d. Cost-estimate analysis
171. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
a. Technocracy
b. Shepherding
c. Protectionism
d. Championing
e. Stewardship
172. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by conserving natural resources.
a. Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
b. Delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
c. Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the municipality
d. Create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the city/town
173. This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital
ecological functions and must therefore be kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
a. Everlasting Forest
b. Permanent Forest
c. Virginal Forest
d. Primeval Forest
174. This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated by broad-leaf trees which form thick
canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor, and includes much-prized hardwood species such as red lauan, white
lauan, red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
a. Dipterocarp Forest
b. Deciduous Forest
c. Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
d. Tropical Scrub Forest
e. Mossy Forest
f. Sub-marginal Forest
g. Mangrove Forest
h. Ever-green Forest
175. All but one of the following is sub-categories of Forest Reserve.

a. Permanent Forest
b. Critical River Watershed
c. Mangrove Forest
d. Military and Civil Reservations
176. Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas, biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and
endangered species- all set aside by reason of their unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to enhance
biological diversity, and to be secured from destructive human exploitation.
a. National Heritage Parks and Reservations
b. Resource Reserve
c. Ecological Zones
d. Protected Areas
177. A 'watershed' is principally a source of

a. Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper
b. Charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants
c. Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
d. Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
178. Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at least 5 years prior to legal
proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" and are
engaged by government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this specific program.
a. Agro-Forestry
b. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
c. Integrated Social Forestry
d. Industrial Forestry

179. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the amenity value of the environment.
It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer
around sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
a. Wilderness
b. Tourism & Recreation Zone
c. Rangeland
d. Open Space
180. PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40 meters from the high tide-mark or shoreline,
there shall be protective strips of mangroves or swamps along the coast with width of at least
a. 20 meters
b. 25 meters
c. 30 meters
d. 35 meters
e. 40 meters
181. Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their habitats" is numbered as
a. RA 9147
b. RA 9714
c. RA 4791
d. RA 1479
182. PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in
urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s. 1996, has expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water bodies as
measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at least
a. 10 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 5 meters
183. Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from the banks of rivers, streams and
waterways in a rural farming area?
a. 5 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 100 meters
• PD 1067 Chapter 4 Article 51 (Water Code of the Philippines)

• The banks of rivers and streams and the shores of the seas and lakes throughout their entire length
and within a zone of three (3) meters in urban areas, twenty (20) meters in agricultural areas and
forty (40) meters in forest areas, along their margins are subject to the easement of public use in the
interest of recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing and salvage. No person shall be allowed to stay in
this zone longer than what is necessary for recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing or salvage or to
build structures of any kind.
184. What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both sides from the line?
a. Aqueduct or tunnel
b. Floodway
c. Venice-like canals
d. Open space or farm
e. Wildlife refuge
185. What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG gas depository?
a. Transport terminals
b. Commercial
c. BPO call centers
d. Open space
e. Hospitals
186. Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the Philippines?
a. Presence of natural resources
b. Physical boundary
c. Availability of labor
d. Existing infrastructure and utilities
e. Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products

187. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, "Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure"
are discussed as
a. Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
b. Land Use Zones that exclude one another
c. Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level
d. Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
188. One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the
country's land and water resources in a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the
present and future generations through local production and/or importation.
a. "Green Revolution"
b. "Agricultural Development"
c. "Food Security"
d. "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
189. 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural resource-based environmental problems to
urban-based man-made environmental problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains to development control
and urban growth management (UGBs)?
a. Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
b. Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
c. Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of infrastructure
d. Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use, pedestrianization and cultural/ historical
preservation in large urban centers
190. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?

a. Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
b. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
c. Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
d. Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
e. Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
f. Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
191. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
a. Urban morphology and physiognomy
b. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives
c. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
d. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
192. All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land use allocation?
a. Land Use Accounting
b. Scenario Analysis
c. Life Cycle Analysis
d. Spatial Modeling
193. In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land supply for planning, except one.
a. Reclamation of coastal area
b. Infill and densification
c. Urban renewal and redevelopment
d. NPAAAD
194. In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted from total, except one.
a. Environmentally critical areas
b. Grasslands and idle lands
c. High-risk geohazard zones
d. Military and civil reservations
195. HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much
total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
a. 200 hectares
b. 400 hectares
c. 500 hectares
d. 2,500 hectares
• 2.5 has every 1000 people

• 2.5 x 200= 500 hectares

196. Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative physical arrangement of space- using
activities used to influence the shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and conserve the
unbuilt environment.
a. City Image
b. City Metaphor
c. Spatial Modeling
d. Urban Form
e. Urban Template
197. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where residents and visitors can use a 'cognitive image'
or 'mental map' of the city as they navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding·. He identified the elements of
legibility of place as:
a. Circumferential, arterials, radials, crossroads
b. Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
c. Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, anci promenades
d. Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
198. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark while Divisoria would be termed as
a. Flea Market
b. Icon
c. District
d. Nodule
e. Transshipment
199. What are the elements of 'urban form'?

a. Infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting
b. Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
c. Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
d. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
200. 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic sprawl' by means of
a. Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
b. Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
c. Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
d. Interconnected modes of transport
e. Compact development through infill in
f. All of the choices
201. Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?

a. Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
b. Usable open space
c. Complementarity of building types
d. Preservation of significant natural land features
202. This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate from a center like rays of a star
a. Radial/axial/sectoral
b. Central & nodal
c. Multi-centric & poly-nodal
d. Concentric
e. Bi-polar & tri-polar
203. Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
a. Grid-iron or rectilinear
b. Circumferential & radial
c. Uni-linear or strip development
d. Irregular free pattern
204. Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10 heads of swine should be properly
located in
a. General residential zone (R-1)
b. Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
c. Agro-industrial zone
d. Rangeland and pastureland

205. Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and
boutiques should be properly located in -
a. General residential zone R-1
b. Commercial zone C-3
c. Tourism recreational zone
d. Special economic zone
206. An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or below. with majority of lot sizes between
120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as·
a. R-1
b. R-2
c. R-3
d. R-4
e. Mixed Use Zone
207. An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers,
is zoned as
a. C-1
b. C-2
c. C-3
d. Tourism zone
e. Financial District
• Reference: PD 1096 National Building Code

• C-3 (Commercial Three or Metropolitan Commercial Zone) – means an area hosting a metropolitan level of
commercial use/ occupancy, characterized mainly as situated in a medium-rise to high-rise building/
structure for high to very high intensity commercial/ trade, service and business activities e.g. large to very
large shopping malls, very large office or mixed use/ occupancy buildings and the like
208. What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?

a. Black
b. Gray
c. Violet
d. Yellow
• I1-Z, I2-Z, I3-Z

• Violet (150,0,200)
• Reference: HLURB CLUP Vol.3 Annex 1
209. What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?

a. Brown
b. Beige
c. Blue
d. Maroon
• General I-Z, Special I-Z

• Blue (0,0,255)
210. What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?

a. Orange
b. Red
c. Purple
d. Fuchsia
• T-Z
• Orange (255,153,0)
211. An example of positive easement is one that

a. Preserves a certain habitat
b. Protects a certain stream
c. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
d. Stipulates not to drain a wetland

212. Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning ordinance are obtained from
a. Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive
b. Planning Commission or Planning & Development Office
c. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
d. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
213. A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the 'right of reverter' is called
a. Restrictive covenants
b. Telluric
c. Deed of sale
d. Monolithic
214. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known as:
a. Gross Leasable Area
b. Buildable Site Formula
c. Floor Area Ratio
d. Location Quotient
215. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which consideration is first and foremost from the
perspective of the approving authority?
a. Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
b. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
c. Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
d. Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus shuttles, executives' luxury cars
e. Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
f. Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
216. Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as 'very high density'?
a. 2 and above
b. 3 and above
c. 4 and above
d. 5 and above
217. This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the district or zone
regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved CLUP.
a. Flexible zoning
b. Mixed use zoning
c. Euclidean zoning
d. Spot zoning
e. Optional zoning
218. A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property owner relief from certain provisions of
ordinance because the application of the same would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Exceptionality
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Quasi-judicial relief
d. Variance
219. If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures needed to thoroughly develop a
parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit?
a. Planning Consultant
b. Real Estate Broker
c. Natural Scientist
d. Head Local Planner
e. Legislator-Sponsor
220. What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are budgeted and released yearly?
a. Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
b. Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
c. Annual Investment Plan
d. PBBS
e. Memorandum of Undertaking
f. Program of Work and Expenditure Plan

221. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
222. Of the following cases of land conversion, which one needs to prove that the land has ceased to be "economically feasible and
sound for agricultural purposes," to be certified by the Secretary of Agriculture?
a. Conversion of cropland into irrigation facility
b. Conversion of cropland into national RROW
c. Conversion of cropland into protected area foi- rare species
d. Conversion of cropland into heritage site and ecotourist spot
223. Under Philippine Land Capability classes by BSWM, lands that are very level and often wet such as mangrove swamps and
fresh marshes are deemed appropriate for fishponds and categorized as "Class X" while lands that are very hilly, rugged,
mountainous, and generally barren are deemed fit for recreation or wildlife and categorized as
a. Class Y
b. Class Z
c. Class W
d. Class A
e. Class H
224. The following conditions permit the establishment of fishponds or inland fish farming, except one .
a. Land Capability 'Class X' according to BSWM
b. 0% to 3% in slope
c. Natural wetland, swamp, or marsh
d. Meet accepted criteria on elevation, soil type, soil depth, topography
e. River mouth estuary vegetated with rare mangrove species useful for breeding and spawning of fish and crustaceans
225. These are water bodies legally considered as "land" and can be claimed for private ownership.
a. Tarns
b. Non-meandered water bodies
c. Loch
d. Coves
e. Puddles
226. Because of the permanent danger zone, no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok ought to be established at the foot of an active
volcano within a radius of
a. 4 kms
b. 5 kms
c. 6 kms
d. 7 kms
e. 8 kms
227. Which of the following results from the mis-use of wetlands?

a. Loss of habitat
b. Decreased erosion control
c. Decreased flood protection
d. Decreased biological cleaning of water
e. All of the above
228. Loss of biodiversity is caused by

a. Deforestation
b. Pollution
c. Exploitation of species for commerce and recreation
d. Conversion of natural habitats into agricultural uses
e. Indiscriminate mining and quarrying
f. All of the above
229. Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by wind and water?
a. Planting windbreaks
b. Planting cover crops
c. Removing crop stubble from surface
d. Using conservation tillage

230. "Performance standards" refers to health, safety, and amenity as main determinants of land use while " -----" refers to
determination of land use by considering time and distance as the primary units of measurement;
a. Convenience Standards
b. Technical Standards
c. Expediency Standards
d. Contingency Standards
231. Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that

a. Allows property owners with limited development rights to buy_ additional rights from another property owner
b. Cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum standards
c. Regulates the character and quality of the use instead of simply regulating the mere use itself
d. Establishes objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or characteristics of land use
232. RA 9729 'Climate Change Act of 2009' created a Climate Change Commission composed of a commission-er and two deputy
commissioners whose principal planning function, among other functions, is to
a. Ascade policies & programs to LG Us with respect to climate change preparation, risf: mitigation, resilience etc
b. Undertake scientific studies and similar projects to support proposed legislation
c. Conduct capacity-building activities to vulnerable local communities
d. Formulate a Framework Program on Climate Change
233. United Nations defines it as "the adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual or expected climatic stimuli or
their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial opportunities"
a. Amelioration
b. Adaptation
c. Accustomization
d. Acclimatization
234. As a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or society involving widespread human, material, economic or
environmental losses and impacts, 'disaster' is caused by the following, except one.
a. Exposure to natural or environmental hazards
b. Conditions of vulnerability, and Jack of human preparedness
c. Insufficient capacity of community to reduce or cope with the negative consequences of hazards
d. Low level of nominal literacy, functional literacy and numeracy of people affected by calamities
235. It refers to the systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters, through reduced exposure to hazards,
lessened vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and the environment, and improved preparedness
for adverse events throughout a society.
a. Disaster Management
b. Disaster Planning
c. Disaster Resolution
d. Disaster Risk Reduction
236. In the equation, Disaster = (Hazard ) x ( Exposure ) x ( Vulnerability) 'disaster ' can be reduced by Hazard Coping Capacity
a. Decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard
b. Training people to cope and cope unceasingly
c. Preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
d. Changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
237. According to RA 10121 of 2010, the following measures pursue 'disaster prevention' by taking action in advance to avoid
potential adverse impacts of disaster. Which one prevents disaster the least?
a. Stockpiling and pre-positioning of relief food/goods in strategic locations before occurrence of disaster
b. Construction of dams, levees, & channel modifications as well as continuous dredging to reduce river overflow
c. Land-use regulations based on hazard maps that do not permit any settlement in high-risk zones
d. Seismic engineering designs of major structures; mandatory retrofitting of old buildings and tall houses
e. Evacuation training and rescue drills in major facilities, centers, or areas that are always full of people.
238. Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most comprehensive perspective?
a. Environmental safeguards and natural protection
b. Regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social
c. protection
d. Safer location for settlements
e. Safer building construction

239. Which factor increases a population's 'vulnerability' to disaster?
a. Young-age and old-age dependency
b. Lack of resources to change physical location
c. Crowding & congestion
d. Lack of information
e. Illness and disability
240. Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards

a. Maintaining 'healthy' natural systems
b. Restricting development in hazardous areas
c. Stockpiling emergency good and disaster relief
d. Requiring safer building standards
241. What is the mechanism that causes 'land subsidence'?

a. A reduction in subsurface fluid pressures within sedimentary layers
b. An increase in weight at the land surface
c. A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
d. The dissolution of soluble bedrock such as limestone exposed at the land surface
242. The DENR Environmental Management Bureau (2006) classified 525 of approximately 840 rivers and freshwater bodies in
the Philippines, of which 50 were biologically dead, 18 below Class C, 5 were Class AA, 203 were Class A. Which class of water
is suitable for irrigation, livestock watering, farm operations, but not for human drinking?
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
243. In water supply planning, what is the classification of water that a residential consumer should get from a faucet?
a. Class AA
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
244. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is the amount of oxygen dissolved in water and essential for healthy streams and lakes to support fish
and aquatic life. When bacteria and waste decomposers abound in water, they multiply rapidly and consume so much oxygen
as to lower the DO level below the national standard of
a. 5 mg/L
b. 10 mg/L
c. 15 mg/L
d. 20 mg/L
245. This document contains an LGU's proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in order of construction priority usually
for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates, anticipated means of financing, and
a. DOTC Plan
b. Annual Investment Plan
c. Civil Works Program
d. Capital Investment Program
246. 'Infrastructure Planning' covers both "replacement infrastructure" and "new infrastructure for emerging areas." The following
are important considerations in infrastructure planning, but which is first and foremost of all considerations?
a. Capacity of infrastructure
b. Public safety and structural integrity
c. Level of service (LOS) and quality of service
d. Age of infrastructure
e. None of the choices
247. In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' has to be rationally matched with
a. Materials & machines
b. Nuts & bolts
c. Service capacity of infrastructure
d. Investment of government

248. For infrastructure planning by a water utility company, what is the HLURBLWUA measure of average consumption per capita
per day at Level Ill which is used to determine the company's level of service capacity?
a. 110-150 lpcd
b. 160-200 lpcd
c. 210-250 lpcd
d. 260-300 lpcd
249. Under PD198 dated May 25, 1973, if a "water district" can be created for at least one municipality or cluster of municipalities,
what should be the minimum population to be serviced within a water district?
a. 15,000
b. 25,000
c. 35,000
d. 45,000
e. 55,000
250. To this category belongs an LGU water system which has a source, a reservoir, piped distribution network, where homes have
individual connections or household taps, and is appropriate in densely populated areas.
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. Level IV
251. Any system or network of pipelines, ditches, canals, channels, or conduits including pumping stations, lift stations, force mains,
digestive cesspools, other devices and appliances appurtenant thereto, which involves the collection, transport, pumping and
treatment of liquid waste to a point of disposal.
a. Drainage
b. Sewage treatment plant
c. Sewerage
d. Septage
252. Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cu!tural practices, etcetera from the total ban on
incineration?
a. RA 8749
b. RA 9003
c. RA 6969
d. RA 9275
253. This defines the extent of land corridor that can be used for carriageway, curb, sidewalk, drainage, canals, etc.
a. Linear easement
b. Buffer and gutter
c. Right of way
d. Setback
254. A highway is a multi-lane, high-speed, controlled-access road that handles 'crosstown' or 'through-traffic' across multiple
cities/towns; listed below are examples of highway except one.
a. Freeway
b. Expressway
c. Tollway
d. Causeway
255. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?

a. Arterial
b. Venial
c. Collector
d. Distributor
256. An 'avenue' is the main approach thoroughfare of most cities/towns; it is usually called a 'boulevard' when
a. It has historic significance and symbolic function
b. It is used for ceremonial parades and functions of State
c. It has medians which are carefully beautified
257. The classic 4-step model of Transport Planning integrated with Land Use has all but one of the following phases:
a. Activity Systems
b. Trip Generation & Trip Distribution
c. Modal Split
d. Traffic Assignment

258. What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a "sustainable transportation system"?
a. Reduce need to travel
b. Change people's travel behavior
c. Integrate different modes of transport
d. Give people more choices and more accessibility
e. Provide transport with new sources of energy
259. In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of accidents and mishaps?
a. Prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads
b. Conforms to natural topography
c. Conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law
d. Blind corners
e. Moderate slope/grade
f. Adequate sight distance
260. One of the methods of trip generation modeling, this seeks to find the best functional relationship between a dependent
variable and one or more independent variables, usually assuming their relationship to be linear.
a. Analysis of variance
b. Multiple regression
c. Category analysis
d. Polynomial equation
261. Traffic Impact Assessment (TIA) for specific development projects is required in all but one of the following cases:
a. Condominium Tower with over 100 dwelling units
b. Factory with total gross area over 0.86 hectares
c. Day care and kindergarten of around 2,000 m2
d. Hospital with over 85 bed
262. Level of Service "E" is characterized as very 'heavy traffic' when 0.86-1.000 is the ratio between
a. Traffic volume to road capacity
b. Number of vehicles to length of motorway
c. Number of people to number of vehicles
d. Number of people to area of all road
263. Travel Demand Management (TOM) refers to a set of 'soft' measures to influence people's travel behavior so as to reduce or
redistribute transport demand. TOM includes all of the following except one:
a. Ride Sharing and Car pooling
b. Bicycle racks on buses
c. By-pass road
d. Number-coding or Color-Coding of vehicles on national highways
264. It consists of strategies to improve the efficiency of transportation system through operational improvements such as bus
priority or reserved lanes, signalization, access management, turn restrictions, which all seek to increase the demand that can
be accommodated by the transport system.
a. Transport Engineering
b. Transit-Oriented Development
c. Transport Infrastructure Improvement
d. Transport System Management
265. This refers to population-focused planning that seeks to enhance people's capacities to meet their own needs through
improvements in 'social infrastructure' such as mass shelter, schools, hospitals, daycare, rehab centers, homes for the aged,
etc. and the provision of public utilities, water, power, sewerage, parks, and cemeteries.
a. Population Management
b. Social Welfare Development
c. Infrastructure Planning
d. Social Planning
266. Because 'environmental planning' as a multi-disciplinary field utilizes the methods of social sciences, the folowing research
approaches are more appropriate except one:
a. Experimental
b. Correlational
c. Causal-Comparative
d. Historical-Descriptive

267. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent problems, develop a tool or social
technology, explain effects of policies or actions, and evaluate the impact of plans and programs on people.
a. Exploratory Research
b. Pure/ Basic Research
c. Evaluation Research
d. Applied Research
268. In scientific research, it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values; it may be a characteristic, trait or dimension
of a person, object, process, or event that can be classified, measured, and studied.
a. Variable
b. Factor
c. Metrics
d. Coefficient
269. In using descriptive statistics to study population and society, the three measures of central tendency are:
a. Midpoint, minimum, and maximum
b. Occurrence, convergence, and divergence
c. Range, frequency, and threshold
d. Mean, median, mode
270. In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often or with the greatest frequency
a. Recurrence
b. Returns
c. Mode
d. Average
e. Sum
f. Minuend
271. 'Linear regression' is a statistical method used to:

a. Establish that as supplies increase, prices decrease
b. Calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard deviations of the mean
c. Determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable
d. Estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
272. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a cause-and-effect manner.
a. Coefficient of Correlation
b. Coefficient of Variation
c. Multivariate Function
d. Chi-Squared Statistic
273. In all distributions of data, the 'median' is equivalent to the:

a. Mode
b. Variance
c. 50th percentile
d. Mean
274. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or recurrence interval. If a flood that recurs
once in 100 years has an annual probability of one percent (0.01), what would be the annual probability of a 475-year
earthquake?
a. 0.475
b. 0.2375
c. 0.0438
d. 0.002105
275. Which of the following is not a research method?

a. Questionnaire
b. Interview
c. Appraisal
d. Case study
e. Survey
276. A 'problem tree' is

a. A kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
b. A method of environmental impact assessment
c. A tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
d. Used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems

277. This branch of statistics aims to predict and draw conclusions concerning a population or its characteristics from mere sample
chosen to represent the whole population.
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Deductive statistics
c. Analytic statistics
d. Inferential statistics
278. Probability sampling is selecting samples randomly to reduce bias in data collection such that chosen sample would contain
the same variations that exist in the larger population. Which is not an example of random sampling?
a. Systematic sampling
b. Stratified sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Cluster sampling
279. In linear regression exercise where "x = distance in km from Stock Exchange building" and "y = price in pesos of land per
square meter," the line of best fit (LOBF) equation is uy = ·1000x + 16,000" where -1,000 is the slope and 16,000 is the
intercept. What would be the value of land per square meter if it were 15 kms from Stock Exchange?
a. 1,010
b. 1,100
c. 1,600
d. 1,000
280. This qualitative method from ethnography immerses the observer into the same conditions as those s/he is observing so that,
in an uncontrolled environment, participants can surface their own ideas, mental categories, concerns, and behaviors as
naturally and as spontaneously as possible.
a. Quasi-Experiment
b. Naturalism
c. Direct Observation
d. Participant Observation
281. Demography' is the study of human population using statistical methods. The demographic concepts described as sources of
change in the size and magnitude of population are:
a. Copulation, procreation, and reproduction
b. Births, deaths, and migration
c. Transition, stagnation, progression
d. Famine, war, and disease
282. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the Philippines is
a. Larger than the total rural population
b. Plateauing at a steady growth rate
c. Stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population
d. Fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks
283. This refers to amount of population increase attributable to greater number of births than deaths per thousand population
without considering in-migration and out-migration.
a. Reproductive Rate
b. Average Growth Rate Per Annum
c. Population Shift
d. Natural increase
284. The simplified "Rule of 69" to determine population 'doubling time' gives the formula 'dt = 0.693/r'; such that if the Philippines
AGR in 2000-2007 is 2.04%, the total Philippine population is expected to double in approximately
a. 32 years
b. 34 years
c. 36 years
d. 38 years
285. A remote village with 200 all-indigent households engaged in rainfed farming, with an average household size oi 6, would
likely grow arithmetically, due to isolation, poverty, disease, and lack of food. With their birth-minus-deaths average of 30
persons per year, what would be the village's projected total population in 3 years?
a. 1,230
b. 1,090
c. 1,180
d. 1,290

286. Town ABCDE had a total year-end population of 20,000 in 2008, 20,400 in 2009, 20,808 in 2010. Using geometric growth
formula of Pt= Po(1+r)t at uniform r=2% per annum, what would be its total year-end population by 2011?
a. 21,224
b. 21,400
c. 21,820
d. 22,130
287. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula Pt = Po ert is "seemingly without bounds" and is called
"Malthusian," but is premised on the widespread abundance of food, which is not true in all places.
a. Polynomial growth rate
b. Parabolic growth rate
c. Logistic growth rate
d. Exponential growth rate
288. According to NSO 2009, heart diseases, cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, cancer, and malignant neoplasms which are
degenerative disorders due to lifestyle, together account for 50% of total deaths, and are called leading causes of
a. Fatality
b. Terminality
c. Corporeality
d. Mortality
289. 'Morbidity' essentially refers to

a. Mental insanity cases per 1000 population
b. Incidence of disease per 1000 population
c. Ate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours
d. Outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 year
290. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has growth rate of 1.4 per annum.
Using the 'crude assumption' method of computing migration flows, which of following is likely true?
a. There is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ
b. There is more in-migration to Town FGHIJ
c. Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.
d. Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult.
291. The central difference between 'birth rate' and 'fertility rate' is
a. 'birth rate' pertains to fecundity of a woman while 'fertility rate' pertains to quantity & intensity of her sexual activity
b. 'birth rate' pertains to babies who survive while 'fertility rate' includes pregnancies which may or may not succeed
c. 'birth rate' refers to births in relation to total population while 'fertility rate' is in relation to average childbearing
woman
d. 'birth rate' pertains to live births while 'fertility rate' includes still births, premature deliveries, abortions &
miscarriages
292. In the following formal statement on 'population policy' (2010-2016) from President Benigno Simeon Aquino Ill, which
statement pertains to the State's obligation to inform its citizens of all family planning alternatives from 'A to z
a. ". .. I am against abortion as outlawed by the Philippine Constitution.
b. " ... I am in favor of giving couples the right to choose how best to manage their families so that in th2 end, their welfare
c. and that of their children are best served.
d. ". .. The State must respect each individual's right to follow his or her conscience and religious convictions on matters
and issues pertaining to the unity of the family and the sacredness of human life from conception to natural death.
e. " ... In a situation where couples, especially the poor and disadvantaged ones, are in no position to make an informed
judgment, the State has the responsibility to provide complete information.
f. " ... In the range of options provided to couples, natural family planning and modern methods shall always be presented
as equally available."
293. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the tendency of total population to decline after
replacement-level fertility (1.1 % to 1.5%) has been attained, is called
a. Population Reversal
b. Demographic Transition
c. Population Shift
d. Demographic Deceleration
294. The central difference between a 'census' and a 'survey' is that

a. Census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of telephone interviews
b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
c. Census is done every 10 years while survey can be done by anyone anytime anywhere
d. Only qualified demographers and statisticians ought to conduct a census

295. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary, secondary and tertiary schools, this method
is used to dis-aggregate school-age population within a bracket into workable components.
a. Sprague multiplier
b. Sprengler multiplier
c. Survival and dropout rate
d. Disambiguation
296. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its members are assumed, for the purpose
of analysis, to go through roughly similar experiences.
a. Consort
b. Cohort
c. Connivance
d. Array
e. Bracket
297. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to 'interpolate' population of a smaller geographic area?
a. 'Step down' or area ratio method
b. Logistic method
c. Component method
d. Shift share
298. What is the smallest time frame using the 'cohort survival method' of population analysis?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
e. 6 years
299. All of the following are of productive age, but only one is strictly counted as part of the 'Labor Force.’
a. 16-year-old who dropped out of school and became a houseboy
b. 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety or sari-sari store
c. 20 year old on his third year of the course, Bachelor of Science in Information Technology Management
d. 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice.
300. Labor Force' is more accurately defined as comprising all persons

a. Aged 18 to 65 years currently employed, underemployed, or active in the informal sector or underground economy
b. Aged 16 to 64 years regardless of gender, economic status, qualification, physical fitness, mental health condition
c. Aged 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive work or employment
d. Aged 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy, numeracy, writing, and analytical skills
301. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse, waste matter, or pollutive substances into rivers with at
least 6-months imprisonment, while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes illegal encroachment, improvement upon, occupation, or
reclamation of any portion of rivers, creeks, esteros, and drainage channels, the result in the constriction, partial or complete
closure of said waterways, with a prison term of
a. At least 2 to at most10 years
b. At least 1 year
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 5 to 7 years
302. Of 145,382 informal settler households in Metro Manila in 2004-2010, 6,802 households settled along Pasig River 21,047
settled along esteros, 34,367 settled along the 'riles', and 82,896 households occupied public and private lands. What is
primary 'mode' of informal settlement in Metro Manila?
a. 'along da riles'
b. 'along esteros'
c. 'along the Pasig'
d. 'occupation of public and private land'
303. Which of the following population characteristics are important to determine 'housing need'?
a. Socio-economic characteristics
b. Overcrowding
c. formation of new households/families
d. In-migration, out-migration
e. All of the choices

304. Under BP 220, the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the following order of importance.
a. Electricity, recreation, transport vehicles, market for foodstuffs, water supply, solid waste facility
b. Health center, daycare center, church, public school, assembly hall, basketball court, and cell sites
c. Water, roads for circulation, stormwater drainage, disposal of solid and liquid wastes, power, park/playground
d. Police station, fire station, government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk lines
305. In the words of PD 933, the "human settlements approach" emphasizes

a. Socialized housing, low-cost housing, economic housing, and cooperative housing
b. Plato's ideals of "the true, the good, and the beautiful"
c. Family, employment, community, (folk-work-place), freedom of belief, and ecological balance
d. Habitability, quality of life, efficiency, economy, social opportunity, convenience, and beauty
306. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes the
mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines
a. RA 7279
b. RA 7160
c. RA 1010
d. RA 6969
307. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec; 28, the following are legal forms of eviction or demolition of informal settlements. Which one
concerns most directly the water safety of the general public?
a. When persons occupy railroad tracks, RROW, sidewalks, transmission lines, dump sites, parks, playgrounds and other
public spaces;
b. When persons occupy easements of pipelines, reservoirs, esteros, creeks, rivers, shorelines, and beaches;
c. When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be implemented;
d. When there is a court order of eviction of settlers from a legally-owned private property;
308. Under Executive Order 90, the agency that is responsible for coordinating activities of government agencies to ensure the
accomplishment of the National Shelter Program is
a. NHA
b. HLURB
c. HUDCC
d. NHMFC
e. HMDF or 'Pag-ibig'
f. HIGC
309. 'Land Banking' or land assembly refers to the right of the State to acquire land in advance of actual need through
a. Eminent domain, expropriation, confiscation
b. Readjustment, re-alignment, re-platting
c. Raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills
d. Sale, purchase, exchange, negotiation, and similar techniques
310. All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977, except
a. Traditional indigenous family dwellings
b. Socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220
c. Garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth
d. Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sqm
e. Sheds, outhouses, greenhouses, gazebos, aviaries, not exceeding 6 sqm in total area
311. Under PD 957, which of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of site for economic or socialized housing?
a. Physical suitability
b. Availability of basic needs
c. On the perimeter of an ecozone
d. Presence of geohazard
e. Conformity to the national development plan
f. Links to the transport network
312. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing need would reach
6,732,464 by year 2016, but government's capacity to directly provide houses only averages 120,000 units per annum. What
would be a more rational strategy for housing development?
a. Leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of market forces;
b. Allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;
c. Rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot packages;
d. LGU's should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low;
e. Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing production

313. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and hence not conducive to
'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?
a. Off-site resettlement
b. In-city relocation
c. On-site slum upgrading
d. Land readjustment
e. Medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
f. Collaborative models such as 'Gawad Kalinga' and 'Habitat for Humanity'
314. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UOHA that "developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop
an area for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost, at the option
of the developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible," so that both government and market can jointly
provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes.
a. Public Private Resources Exchange
b. Cooperative Housing Development
c. Balanced Housing Development
d. Corporate Social Responsibility
315. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which "assists legally organized associations
of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of community ownership
so that residents of blighted or depressed areas can own the lots they occupy, or where they choose to relocate to, and
eventually improve their homes to the extent of their affordability"
a. Zonal Improvement Program
b. Unified Home Lending Program
c. Slum Upgrading
d. Community Mortgage Program
316. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local shelter plan of an LGU?
a. Planning and Development Office
b. Local Development Council
c. Subdivision Homeowners Association
d. Association of Barangay Captains
317. As per HUDCC circular, a dwelling unit with total value of P375,000 or less is called
a. Low-Cost Housing
b. Socialized Housing
c. Economic Housing
d. Gawad Kalinga
318. According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of total gross family income that
an average household would regularly allocate for shelter, which is
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
319. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa 220?
a. 32 sqm
b. 36 sqm
c. 18 sqm
d. 22 sqm
320. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under PD 957?
a. 90 sqm
b. 100 sqm
c. 110 sqm
d. 120 sqm
321. According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be appropriate to allocate space for
an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project?
a. 4,000-5,000
b. 3,000-2,500
c. 2,000-2,499
d. 1,500-1,999

322. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977.Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or "Group A" building shall have one
side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard, street, or alley; shall not occupy more than 90% of a comer lot or 80%
of an inside lot; and be built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least _____ from the property line.
a. 2.0 m
b. 4.0 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 8.0 m
323. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the total distance of building exterior wall from the curb of street?
a. 5 m
b. 6 m
c. 7 m
d. 8 m
324. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have a
minimum area of 6 sqm (14 m3) and ceiling height or headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling, of at least
a. 2.40 m
b. 2.80 m
c. 3.40 m
d. 3.80 m
325. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling unit without air conditioning or
mechanical ventilation is based on ratio that area of window opening should be at least __ of floor space.
a. One-fifth
b. One-sixth
c. One-eighth
d. One-tenth
326. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies or appendages of a -dwelling
unit should have this vertical distance between the established street / sidewalk grade and the lowest undersurface of balcony
a. 2 meters
b. 3 meters
c. 3.5 meters
d. 4 meters
327. According landings to (not PD steps) 1096 of a National stairway. Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical
distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway.
a. 2.4 m
b. 2.6 m
c. 3.6 m
d. 4.5 m
328. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972 the minimum parking requirements one parking slot for every...
a. 100-125 m2 of floor space
b. 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area
c. 100-125 m2 of titled property
d. 100-125 m2 of front yard
329. Lower than US standards by 10% this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of an open-market subdivision
as required under PD 957 or Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act?
a. Minimum of 60% open space
b. Minimum of 50% open space
c. 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable
d. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
330. By Philippine standards,how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or piace of ill-repute be allowed to locate in relation
to a school?
a. 50 mtrs away or more
b. 100 mtrs away or more
c. At least 200 mtrs away
d. At least 500 mtrs away
331. By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal school campus have, out of its total land area?
a. 60% or more
b. 50% or more
c. 40% or more
d. 30% or more

332. To compute standard size of of classroom, 1.40 m2 as (HLURB) or 3cu.m. 'bubble' per pupil (PD1096 of NBC) is multiplied by
the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd. This use in design of average measurements of body and
bodily movements is an application of the field of _____.
a. Biomechanics
b. Bionics
c. Physiometrics
d. Anthropometrics
333. A University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrollment of 10,000 or more, should have a campus area of at least
7 hectares. What would be the required open space?
a. At least 2,500 m2
b. At least 5,000 m2
c. At least 10,000 m2
d. At least 25,000 m2
334. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School Board other than the Governor or Mayor,
holds an elective officer.
a. LGU Treasurer
b. Division Superintendent or district supervisor
c. Chairperson of Sanggunian's committee on education
d. Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTA's & non-academic personnel of schools.
335. By Philippine standards, the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is
a. 4.5 hectares
b. 3.5 hectares
c. 2.5 hectares
d. 1.5 hectares
336. As per PD 856 or Sanitaion Code of 1975 Sec. 13a, washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within what distance from
any public well or public source of drinking water?
a. 25 mtrs.
b. 100 mtrs.
c. 150 mtrs.
d. 200 mtrs.
337. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic tank?
a. 15 m
b. 25 m
c. 35 m
d. 45 m
e. 55 m
338. Which 'environmental management' practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated below?
a. Re-use
b. Reduce
c. Recycle
d. Reform lifestyles
339. Which 'environmental management' practice by firms is most encompassing of the four enumerated below?
a. 'Disperse and Dilute'
b. End-of-Pipe Treatment
c. Product Life Cycle Assessment
d. Factory waste-exchange
340. Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the National Government to manage the
environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is called--
a. Coerce and Compel
b. Contain and Constrain
c. Command and Control
d. Cash and Checks

341. RA 8371 IPRA grants to Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous Peoples the right to own and possess their tribal
lands as a limited form of private ownership that does not include the right to alienate the same lands.
a. Regional Autonomy
b. Ancestral Domain
c. Self-Government
d. Tribal Ownership
342. This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of development by promoting the
"Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in Development and Nation Building."
a. RA 1010
b. RA 7192
c. RA 6969
d. RA 8010
343. According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. 4g, this refers to policies, instruments, programs, services and
actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative
action such as measures aimed to accelerate de facto equality between men and women.
a. Sexual Equality
b. Gender Equity
c. Women's Liberation
d. Gender Parity
e. Feminist Empowerment
344. According to RA 9710, this refers to the strategy for making women's as well as men's concerns and experiences an integral
dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of policies and programs in all political, economic, and
societal spheres so that women and men benefit equally and inequality is not perpetuated.
a. Integration & rationalization
b. Gender mainstreaming
c. Sexual equality
d. Transgender accommodation
345. An individual, group, organization, sector, or community who has a direct or indirect interest in a policy, program, or project,
who affects or is affected by - - positively or negatively -- the implementation and outcome of it, is called
a. Recipient /beneficiary
b. Proponent/ exponent
c. Advocate
d. Stakeholder
e. Shareholder
346. Which of the following - all true! - about people's participation in planning, implementation and management holds the same
meaning as the statement "people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of development."
a. Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefit as people provide
data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns, policymakers and implementers.
b. The very process of participating is, in and of itself, educational, liberating, and empowering for the poor.
c. People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
d. Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control
over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.
e. Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by changes in policy.
347. The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both 'task objectives' and 'process objectives' have to be specific, measurable,
attainable, realistic, and __
a. Tenable
b. Truthful
c. Time-bounded
d. Testable
e. Treatable
348. Public participation is important for each of the following reasons except
a. Decision-making competency improves
b. The legitimacy of the decision increases
c. The decision-making process is speeded up
d. Participants become more responsible democratic citizens

349. Which element of 'participatory' planning process implies multi-stakeholdership?
a. Bottom-up process to define and prioritize local needs
b. Collective leadership and innovative decision-making
c. Coalition of partners and groundswell of support
d. Negotiated rule-making and policy dialogue
e. Consensus-building and dispute resolution
350. The main economic theory that underlies both CBA and EIA is that an economic activity or project should not make one person
better off by making someone else worse off, such that gains in producer surplus or consumer satisfaction to some firms or
individuals do not simultaneously impose losses on others.
a. Theory of General Equilibrium
b. Classical Economics
c. David Ricardo's Theory of Value
d. Pareto Optimality
351. A school of thought that holds that the measure of efficiency is people's wellbeing and such is attained if the total gains among
those who benefit exceed the total losses of those adversely affected by any economic activity.
a. Keynesian economics
b. Welfare economics
c. Neo-classical economics
d. Marxist economics
352. This refers to the collaborative process by which governments, businesses, community organizations, etc at the local level
engage one another to improve economic well-being of their community, enhance business climate, increase income
opportunities, and sustainably utilize human, natural, infrastructural, and institutional resources.
a. Project Development Planning
b. Investment Coordination
c. Economic Planning
d. Industrial Convergence
353. Which of the following is not a 'virtue' of free markets?

a. 'motivation'
b. 'efficiency'
c. 'productivity''
d. ‘equity'
e. 'diverse consumer choices'
354. In Walt Rostow's Theory of Economic Modernization in Linear Stages (1960), tile stage wherein techniques in production
improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local supply exceeds local demand, and the national economy
participates in international trade , is termed as
a. NIChood or newly industrializing economy
b. Pre-conditions for take-off
c. Take-off period
d. Drive to maturity
355. Following Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, a smaller percentage of workforce tends to be employed in
a. Agriculture, because industrialization decreases the value of rural land
b. Agriculture, because investment in technology increases yield per unit effort and decreases labor demand
c. industry, because the profit from extracting natural resources increases
d. industry, because productivity increases as labor costs rise
e. Services, because technology increases efficiency in the provision of services
356. This phenomenon in economics (Alfred Marshall, 1897) wherein profit-oriented firms try to locate close to-each other to save
on utility costs, realize gains from increased business interaction, and enjoy benefits .from sharing new technologies, improved
skills of local workforce, common infrastructure and amenities, is called --
a. Co-Location
b. Proximization
c. Aggrandization
d. Agglomeration
357. This economic phenomenon is internal to a firm, and refers to reduced marginal cost per unit and increased overall savings
as volume or quantity is increased utilizing the same throughputs or production processes.
a. Localization Economies
b. Economies of the Mill
c. Economies of Scale
d. Discounting

358. In 1897, he was the first to categorically state that knowledge, intellectual capital, and technology constitute the chief engine
of progress of the economy.
a. Alfred Marshall
b. Albert Einstein
c. Frederick Taylor
d. Joseph Schumpeter
359. A ratio that measures output per worker is called

a. Labor intensity
b. Work efficiency
c. Labor productivity
d. Work ethic
360. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as
a. Capital-labor ratio
b. Liquid exposure
c. Venture capital
d. Operating expenditure
361. According to Nobel laureate Simon Kuznets, the three ways to determine national macro-economic accounts (GNP, GDP, NNI)
are "value-added," "income approach," and "expenditure approach." Which of the following is 'expenditure' approach?
a. Final output of Primary sector+ Secondary sector+ Tertiary sector+ etc.
b. National Income+ (Taxes-Subsidies)+ Depreciation etc.
c. Consumption+ Investment+ Government Expenditure+ (Export minus Import)
d. Consumption + Taxes + FDI+ Balance of Payments + NFIA
362. The Philippines' GDP totalled 8.32 trillion pesos at nominal prices in 2010, but P4.74 trillion was the consolidated public sector
debt stock of national government, LGUs, GOCCs; etc. The administration of President Gloria Arroyo accumulated a debt stock
of 2.57 trillion for 9 years. How much is the total debt stock of 2010 as percent of Gross Domestic Product?
a. 51%
b. 57%
c. 64%
d. 67%
363. An indicator of "Quality of Life" developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen, this composite measure combines life expectancy
at birth, school enrollment rate, adult literacy rate, per capita income, and incidence of poverty.
a. Millennium Development Goals
b. Index of Sustainability
c. Human Development Index
d. GPI - Genuine Progress Indicator
364. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39.9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between 2001 and 2010. Did the
administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its Millennium Development Goal in poverty reduction?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Answer depends on one's level of information, political bias, and personal loyalty
d. Attainment would have been substantial had it not been for the global economic recession of 2008-2009
365. Under Millennium Development Goals, what is the official target of government in terms of reducing family poverty below the
food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015?
a. 0.3%
b. 5.4%
c. 10.2%
d. 15.6%
366. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the greatest accomplishment in the
period 2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?
a. "Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b. "Promote gender equality and empower women
c. "Achieve universal primary education
d. "Ensure environmental sustainability
e. "Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases"
f. "Improve women's reproductive heaith"
g. "Reduce child mortality"
h. "develop global partnership for development"

367. "It gets worse before it gets better." According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets, as an economy experiences D growth,
income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in the long run.
a. Wealth residual dichotomy
b. Inverted 'U' hypothesis
c. The 'J' curve
d. Dismal Theory
368. The saying "the rich get richer and the poor get poorer" is related to concepts of 'spread' and 'backwash' in a regional economy
that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for economics.
a. Milton Friedman
b. Paul Krugmann
c. Robert Solow
d. Gunnar Myrdal
369. A gauge of income inequality, it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the perfect equality line and the Lorenz
curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality line in a Lorenz curve diagram
a. Absolute poverty barometer
b. Gini coefficient
c. Kuznets curve
d. Human deprivation index
370. According to John Maynard Keynes, the 'income multiplier' with the formula "m = 1 / {1-(c-m)(1-t) }" is derived by dividing
'1' with the Marginal Propensity to Save (c-m} and the tax rate (1-t). For example, if the computed denominator of entire
equation is 0.40, what is the 'income multiplier' of each peso or dollar that enters the economy?
a. 2
b. 2.5
c. 3
d. 4
371. According to NEDA in MTPDP 2004-2010 chap 4, housing construction has a 'income multiplier' of 16.6, such that for every
10 million spent on housing in local economy, approximately ____ million is generated in income/domestic product.
a. 16.6
b. 166.0
c. 1,060.6
d. 1,666.0
372. The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible, ecologically sound, legally permissible, and
financially viable, thus resulting in the optimal value of the property, is called (Raleigh Barlowe 1958)
a. Maximum Sustainable Yield
b. Feasibility
c. Highest & Best Use
d. Cost-efficiency
373. In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958}, what are the determinants of land value'?
a. Farm harvest, wild growth, usufruct
b. Scarcity, utility, desirability
c. Sale, lease, rent
d. Location, permanence, transferability
374. This is the 'price' at which a willing seller and a willing buyer will trade, neither being under compulsion to trade, and both
having access to all knowledge relevant to the transaction
a. Prime Price
b. Fair Market Value
c. Assessed Value
d. Zonal Value
e. Shadow Price
375. This refers to the combination of talent, ambition, foresight, and skill of an innovative individual or group to efficiently
organize productive resources into a viable undertaking, ensure survival of business, create a secure market niche, and sustain
long-term growth.
a. Risk-taking
b. Managerial Savvy
c. Pioneer or Angel Investment
d. Entrepreneurship
e. Intrapreneurship

376. 'Consumer demand' is also called
a. Derived demand
b. Intermediate demand
c. Final demand
d. Sales revenues
e. Output less taxes
377. Under RA 6930 of 1990, this is a duly registered association of persons, with a common bond of interest, voluntarily joined
together to achieve a common social economic end, making equitable contributions to the capital required and accepting a
fair share of the risks & benefits of undertaking in accordance with universally accepted principles.
a. People's Organization
b. Credit Union
c. Cooperative
d. Micro-finance Grameen bank
e. Paluwagan
378. Republic Act 9501 dated May 23, 2008 redefined "medium-scale" enterprise as follows:
a. Number of employees between 100 to 199 with a capitalization of 15 million to 100 million
b. Number of employees more than 200 with a capitalization of more than 100 million
c. Number of employees between 10 to 99 with a capitalization of3 million to 15 million
d. Number of employees between 1 to 10 with a capitalization of 1.5 million to 3 million
379. A micro-scale or cottage-scale enterprise is normally exempted from nationally-legislated minimum daily wage because
a. many barangay MSMEs cater to socio-economic classes D&E which have generally low purchasing power
b. MSME usually has small profit margins, being more labor intensive than capital-intensive or technology-intensive
c. Too high labor wages undermine the viability of micro-scale operations and limited market range
d. Most micro-scale firms are start-ups or fledgling enterprises without secure or established market niche.
380. This is an economic strategy of government to invest in human capital by giving cash and/or food subsidies to poor families
provided their children regularly go to public school, visit the health center for regular medical checkup, and participate in
community sanitation and environmental protection?
a. Benevolent Assimilation
b. Official Development Assistance
c. Conditional Cash Transfers
d. Emergency Relief
e. Food-for-Work
f. Developmental Alms-giving
381. Which combination of three is the best example of primary, secondary, and tertiary activities, in that order?
a. Farmer, shoemaker, newspaper reporter
b. Lumber mill, gas station attendant, car manufacturer
c. Forester, carpenter, cabinet-maker
d. Miner, farmer, banker
382. This refers to sustainable travel to a heritage area or natural area to observe wildlife or exotic ecosystems, to help preserve
nature; while also providing for community participation, protection and management of natural resources, environmental
education, and economic benefits for the enrichment of host communities and the satisfaction of visitors.
a. Domestic tourism
b. Cultural tourism
c. Ecotourism
d. Educational excursion
e. Pleasure trip
383. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, ecotourist spots as well as historic, cultural, scenic and adventure sites are subsumed
under the new concept of
a. Sustainable Tourism Districts
b. Tourism Enterprise Zones
c. Bio-economic Regions
d. Eco-zones
384. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, Heritage Conservation in the Philippines shall be supported by not less than 5% of travel
tax collections accruing to--
a. Philippine Retirement Authority
b. Tourism Infrastructure & Enterprise Zone Authority
c. Tourism Promotions Board
d. Philippine Conventions & Visitors Corp.

385. 429. According to RA 9072 National Caves and Cave Resources Protection and Management Act of 2002, this "refers to a cave
which contains materials and possesses features that have archaeological, cultural, ecological, historical or scientific value as
determined by the DENR in coordination with the scientific community and the academe
a. Neolithic Cave
b. Speleothem & Speleogem
c. Mesolithic Stalactite
d. Significant Cave
386. Under RA 8435 AFMA, what kind of cropland management by farmers is envisioned by the "Strategic Agricultural and
Fisheries Development Zone" in its effort to be compatible with DAR's "Agrarian Reform Communities"?
a. Corporatist
b. Uniform/homogenous
c. Competitive
d. Convergent
387. Which declared component of RA 8435 AFMA most directly concerns the health and wellness of all citizens?
a. Credit and micro-finance
b. Irrigation and farm-to-market roads
c. Post-harvest and storage facilities
d. Product standards and consumer safety
e. farm technology extension services and technical assistance
f. Product information and marketing
388. Which of the following would be part of an integrated food systems planning?
a. Develop farm protection policies and zoning provisions to encourage community gardening
b. Build wharves and fish landing ports for subsistence fishermen
c. Promote producers' markets to help local farmers
d. Produce organic compost and farm soil conditioners from municipal solid waste
e. Study transportation network used by food suppliers to bring goods to end-u5ers
389. 'Supply chain management' in economic planning and in transport planning concerns the logistics or timely, seamless
movement of goods and commodities to end-users. It is credited to
a. Michael Porter
b. Peter Drucker
c. Frederick Taylor
d. Hideo Teriyak
390. According to 'Philippine Agriculture 2020' by the National Academy of Science and Technology, Filipinos need to diversify
their diet, eat nutritious alternatives to grains, and reduce average per capita consumption of rice to
a. 50 kg per year
b. 100 kg per year
c. 150 kg per year
d. 200 kg per year
391. Under RA 6657 as amended by RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, which of following considerations in undertaking agrarian
reform pertains most directly to 'economies of scale' and the financial viability of small farm production?
a. "ecological needs of the nation
b. "tillers' rights and quality of life
c. "economic-size
d. "landowners' just compensation and retention rights
e. "national food security and self-sufficiency in grains
f. "social justice and emancipation of farmer from bondage to the soil
392. Under RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, all of the following are covered by Agrarian Reform, except one?
a. Agricultural lands in the public domain still not alienated/disposed
b. Farms planted to cash crops such as sugar, tobacco, coconut palm
c. Gricultural estates and haciendas
d. Family farms of 5 hectares and below
393. Under RA 6657 CARL, the owner of land under CARP can retain for himself/herself alone
a. 3 hectares
b. 5 hectares.
c. 7 hectares
d. 9 hectares
e. 11 hectares

394. Remittances of migrant Filipinos and overseas contract workers add up to around US$21-billion per year, almost 20% of
Philippines' Gross Domestic Product. In economies, these cash transfer are collectively called
a. Non-portfolio investment
b. Overseas Filipino Investment
c. Net Factor Income from Abroad
d. Foreign Direct Investment
e. Family obligations
f. Balance of Payment
395. Richard Klostermann's Economic Base (also called Export Base) Model argues that
a. Economic base or relations of production can lead to exploitation between a person with property and one without it
b. Economic growth of a region/locality is dependent on the growth of its exporting sector
c. The primary export of any region/locality is its mobile labor force as represented by migrant workers and expatriates
d. Export-oriented industrialization (EOI) can take place even without abundant raw materials as in the case of Singapore
396. Under Economic Base Model, if San Miguel Corporation has an exporting agribusiness plant in a specific barangay with basic
employment of 500 and an employment multiplier of 2.6 what would be the probable number of non-basic employment in
retail, local services, and residentiary activities
a. 800
b. 1,300
c. 1,600
d. 1,800
397. If the Barangay in the immediately-preceding question has a total population of 5,000 active labor force of 55% unemployment
rate of 5%, and combined San Miguel Corporation and registered MSME employment of 1,800 persons, what is the
approximate size of the combined informal sector and visibly underemployed sector?
a. 950
b. 1,050
c. 2,050
d. 3,050
398. In what way is the mix of 'basic sector employment' and 'non-basic employment' in a city/town important?
a. A little farm village's economic structure will be mostly basic
b. Basic workers rely on the area's non-basic workers in the preparation of food, clothing and shelter.
c. Cities/towns with more basic than non-basic jobs tend to be more self-sufficient.
d. Basic employment brings money into the area; non-basic employment sends money out of the area.
399. If fiberglass boat production represents 0.28 of the local economy of Ternate while it represents 0.02 of the entire economy
(GOP) of the country, what would be the location quotient (LQ) of said industry in Ternate?
a. 0.0056
b. 0.071
c. 1.26
d. 14
400. If the location quotient (LQ) of an industry in the town of OPQR is greater than one, it suggests that
a. The distribution of industry in the territory is very concentrated
b. The distribution of industry in the territory is dispersed
c. The distribution of industry in the territory does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. The territory has a larger share of the industry relative to its reference region or larger territory
401. The town of STUV has 2 times more people engaged in agriculture as percent of total labor force and 2.5 times more output
per hectare of rice land than the national average. This means that --
a. The town's people are better-fed because of food surplus
b. Town has backward economy but blessed with soil fertility and hard-working labor
c. The town has more farm-workers and hence lower level of education and lower level of literacy
d. The town is more agriculturally developed than the 'average' municipality.
402. In the formulation of CLUP, Location Quotient (LQ) analysis is useful to identify
a. Diversity of industry
b. Comparative advantage
c. Compatibility of land uses
d. Centrality of location

403. Using Wassily Leontiefs matrices referred to in immediately-preceding question, supposing the ;'Bread and Baked Products
industry" in a municipality has the following direct coefficients: agriculture (dairy, poultry, fruits, firewood), 0.25;
manufacture (flour, sugar, butter, etc.) 0.35; utilities 0.10; household 0.30, approximately how much of industry output is
directly paid as labor wages and salaries?
a. 30 %
b. 35 %
c. 25 %
d. PhP 404 daily minimum wage as per RWPB
404. This refers to a "set of specific activities carried out by a team of an executing agency for a fixed/limited period of time in a
defined area of operation using limited resources in order to achieve specific outputs/objectives for a particular target group."
a. Module
b. Concordat
c. Endeavor
d. Project
e. Capital Venture
405. It is a preliminary study undertaken before an endeavor actually starts to ascertain the likelihood of its success by examining
in detail its market, technical, environmental, social, financial, economic, and organizational soundness.
a. Investment Study
b. Interdisciplinary Study
c. Feasibility Study
d. TQM - Total Quality Management
406. "Financial Analysis" uses fair market prices while "Economic Analysis" uses --
a. Factory prices
b. Shadow prices
c. Nominal prices
d. Deflationary and inflationary prices
407. Which concept refers to the value of potential output foregone by not putting resources to their best alternative use?
a. Fixed Costs
b. Variable Costs
c. Sunk Costs
d. Opportunity Costs
408. These are costs of business not assumed by the firm and not reflected in the internal financial accounting of the business but
such costs are unwittingly shouldered by other people, by government, or by society-at-large.
a. Extraordinary cost
b. Incidental cost
c. Externalities
d. Collateral costs
409. What is the first element of the Project Planning Cycle?

a. Project preparation
b. Brainstorming of ideas
c. Budget & appropriations
d. Problem analysis/needs assessment
410. Which part of the Project Cycle seeks to determine whether an in-depth environmental study is needed?
a. Pre-feasibility phase
b. Project screening
c. Project appraisal
d. Technical feasibility
411. 1987 Constitution Art. XII Sec 2. "All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal, petroleum, and other mineral oils, all
forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural resources are owned by the
State. With the exception of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be alienated.
a. 'Dominion and Supremacy '
b. ' Regalian Doctrine '
c. ' Res Judicata '
d. ' Parens Patriae'

412. This legal concept means holding a property by reference to a superior entity, such as the State.
a. Management
b. Tenure
c. Trust
d. Concession
e. Franchise
413. This is a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, legally recorded as a single piece, and subject to single ownership.
a. Plat
b. Plot
c. Parcel
d. partition
e. Tract
414. Which is not an instrument to prove private property rights over land?
a. Certificate of Title
b. CLOA
c. Free Patent
d. Special Power of Atty
e. Tax Declaration
f. CAL T
415. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, 'agricultural land' is synonymous with
a. Prime cropland
b. Arable and cultivable
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Irrigated and irrigable
416. Philippine Constitution Article XII Sec. 3 classifies land into four specific categories, namely;
a. Arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
b. land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, and land for infrastructure
c. Public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
d. Forestland, agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks
417. In international environmental law, the principle that "the burden of proof in demonstrating thay a particular technology,
practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public and that the producer must answer
for any environmental damage such technology has created" is called
a. Extended Producer Responsibility
b. Polluter Pays Principle
c. Principle of Externalities
d. Precautionary Principle
418. In international environmental law, it refers to one's action or lack thereof amounting to "breach of duty to care" that results
in material damage to others; "duty to care" is one's legal obligation to avoid causing physical harm which arises where harm
is foreseeable if due care is not taken.
a. Malpractice
b. Negligence
c. Omission
d. Lapse of judgment
419. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this principle states that when human
activities may lead to threats of serious and irreversible damage to the environment that is scientifically plausible but
uncertain, actions shall be taken to avoid or diminish that threat.
a. Preventive suspension
b. Restraining order
c. Precautionary principle
d. Principle of proactive restraint

420. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this is a remedy available to a natural or
juridical person, entity or any public interest group registered with any government agency, on behalf of persons whose
constitutional right to a balanced and healthful ecology is violated, or threatened with violation by an unlawful act or omission
of a public official or employee, or private individual or entity, involving environmental damage of such magnitude as to
prejudice the life, health or property of inhabitants in two or more cities or provinces.
a. Writ of amparo
b. Writ of kalikasan
c. Writ of kalinga
d. Writ of continuing mandamus
e. Writ of habeas corpus
421. TEPO' from the Supreme Court of the Republic of the Philippines, means
a. Transmutation of Environmental Penalty Ordinance
b. Temporary Environmental Protection Order
c. Trans-agency Edict on Pollutive Occupations
d. Total Elimination of Pornography and Obscenity
422. As the national economic planning agency, the NEDA bureaucracy performs 'secretariat' functions to the 'NEDA Board,' the
latter serves as 'National Development Council' and is headed by
a. The Director General of NEDA
b. Chair of the Congressional Planning and Budget Office
c. The Secretary of the Cabinet
d. The President of the Philippines
423. Which part of NEDA organization does not, in most cases, correspond to an actual level of elected government?
a. The NEDA Governing Board
b. Regional Development Council
c. Provincial Development Council
d. Municipal Development Council
424. Under Executive Orders 127, 127-A and 292, which of the following is not a function of the Department of Finance?
a. Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal policies of government;
b. Supervision of the revenue operations of all local government units;
c. Conceptualization of major government investments on infrastructure and utilities.
d. Review, approval and management of all public sector debt, domestic or foreign;
e. Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal and tax policies;
425. Which of the following is not a function of the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council?
a. Custodian and keeper of all resources of government related to housing and urban development;
b. Determine participation and coordinate activities of key housing agencies in national housing program:
c. Monitor, review and evaluate the effective exercise by government housing agencies of their assigned functions
d. Assist in the maximum participation of the private sector in all aspects of housing and urban development;
e. Recommend new legislation and amendments to existing laws as may be necessary for the attainment of government's
objective in housing;
426. Which of the following is not a declared goal of physical planning under MTPDP 2004-2010 chapter 3 on ENR?
a. Complete land classification by December 2010 by validating and verifying forestland boundaries covering a total of
78,450 kms within 79 provinces
b. Provide easier access to markets at home and abroad to alleviate poverty in the countryside; thus enhancing peace and
order in isolated conflict-affected regions through efficient transport and trade:
c. Ensure integrity of land titling system in order to promote development of a mortgage market for lands, prevent illegal
titling, by strengthening registration and monitoring of land titles through digitization of land records
d. Accelerate distribution/titling of 1.1 million hectares of alienable and disposable public land below 18%> slope by
completing survey on 3.8 million hectares in 361 cities/towns
427. Under PD 933, Executive Order 90, and EO 648, this is the independent agency that implements the laws, policies, rules, and
regulations of government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource.
a. National Land Use Committee
b. Land Registration Authority
c. Land Management Bureau
d. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board

428. Which function of the agency referred to in immediately-preceding question is considered 'quasi-judicial' or 'adjudicative'?
a. Formulate a multi-year integrated national plan on human settlements and identify and develop tile spatial
implications and components of national and regional development plans, policies and programs
b. Conduct public hearings on all human settlements plans for submission to NEDA and on all other plans prepared by it
c. Require all persons, corporations or other entities to furnish it with such physical and operational plans, maps and
other relevant information as it may need to discharge its duties
d. Act as appellate body in case of conflicting decisions and actions arising from the exercise of the physical planning
functions of the regional and/or local planning agencies.
429. In the Philippines, this is historically the most commonly used tool of LGUs to implement land use plans
a. Legal expropriation
b. Seizure and closure
c. Capital investment program
d. Zoning
430. In the absence of a Department of Housing, which public official chairs the governing boards of government agencies that have
direct operational functions related Land Use, Urban Planning, and Mass Shelter?
a. Secretary of Socio- Economic Planning
b. Chairperson of HUDCC
c. Chairperson of Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
d. Secretary of Department of Environment and Natural Resources
431. If a Master plan such as NFPP and RPPF has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a City/Town land use plan may adopt
either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt= 0.693/r) as suggested by Professor Ernesto Serote or the shorter
timeframe of __ to cover maximum three terms of locally elected officials.
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 25 years
432. If a medium-term National Development Plan has a time-frame of 6 years, what would be the sensible time-frame of a multi-
sectoral Regional Development Plan in order to be compatible with the National Development Plan?
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 12 years
d. 20 year
433. Which is not a component of the multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan?

a. Regional Economic Production (agriculture, industry, services)
b. Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
c. Environmental Protection, Conservation, and Management
d. Regional Land Use Code
e. Regional Settlements Plan
434. What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describes and makes provisions for?
a. National, regional, district, city/town, village
b. Provincial, city/municipal, barangay
c. Local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
d. Macro, mesa, mela, and mica
435. Which one describes the 'types' of positions and employment in a Local Government Unit as per RA 7160 LGC?
a. Executive, legislative, judiciary, protective (police)
b. Elective office, appointive office, rank and file (career service and temporary/casual employment)
c. Top management, middle management, supervisorial, clerical, field position, menial/utility boys
d. Policy-makers, coterminous political appointees, technical specialists, bureaucratic employees
436. What is the role of Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the planning process?

a. Formulation of plans
b. Approval of plans of highly urbanized cities
c. Review of ordinances and resolutions approving municipal
d. development plans
e. Approval of residential subdivision projects

437. Which ·is not a goal of the Provincial Physical Framework Plan?
a. Enhance the integration of the national economy through the balanced distribution of population, natural resources,
and economic activities
b. Guide government agencies and private developers on proper location of large-scale infrastructure projects as well as
other sectoral plans and activities that have to do with land, environment, and natural resources
c. Reconcile and rationalize land use proposals of component territories in relation to higher level framework plans
d. Provide basis for adjudicating conflicts arising from the implementation of land use plans and development projects
that straddle the boundaries of two or more municipalities
438. Which statement is true about Executive Legislative Agenda?

a. It is a political compromise between quarreling executive and legislative officials from rival parties
b. It is an integrated holistic plan that can serve as physical framework in the absence of CLUP
c. it is a harmonized enumeration of LGU ordinances that stipulate criminal penalties and clvii sanctions.
d. It highlights the common vision and reconciled priorities of elected officials for their 3-year term of office
439. What percentage of composition of Local Development Councils is allocated to NGOs/POs by RA 7160?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 35%
d. 25%
440. Which of the following is not a specific responsibility of the Provincial Government?
a. Conservation of public lands through the Provincial Physical Framework Plan
b. Preparation of development programs such as reforestation, small-scale mining, fisheries development and managed
pastures;
c. Enforcement of uniform urban design for all component municipalities
d. Adjudication of conflicts which arise from the implementation of local zoning ordinances
441. According to RA 7160 Sec 461, a province should have population of at least 250,000 and minimum territory of ______?
a. 1000 sq.km
b. 1500 sq.km
c. 2000 sq.km
d. 2500 sq.km
442. According to RA 7160 Sec.441, a municipality should have a population of at least 25,000, income of at least 2.5 million based
on 1991 constant prices, and a minimum territory of _______?
a. 50 sq. km
b. 100 sq.km
c. 150 sq.km
d. 200 sq.km
443. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec 16, the overall goals of an LGU need to be compatible with:
a. Declaration of Policies
b. Corporate Nature & Goals
c. Sustainable Development
d. General Welfare clause
444. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of "Environment and Natural Resources Officer" is optional for
a rural municipality. Should a wealthy LGU decide to create it, such position would partially overlap with what current field
position of the national government?
a. ARC Development Facilitator
b. DILG - LGOO
c. DAR - MARO
d. DENR-CENRO
445. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of "Municipal Architect" is optional, hence the unctions of a
"Building Official" are essentially discharged by -
a. Zoning Administrator
b. MPDC
c. Municipal Engineer
d. Municipal Administrator
446. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal treasurer subject to Civil Service law and
professional standards?
a. Local Sanggunian
b. Provincial Governor
c. Department of Finance Secretary

d. Municipal Mayor
447. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal budget officer subject to Civil Service law and
professional standards?
a. Local Sanggunian
b. Provincial Governor
c. DILG Secretary
d. Municipal Mayor
448. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 236, "a province, city, or a municipality in Metropolitan Manila Area, may levy
an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceedlng __ of the assessed value of the property which shall be in addition to the
basic real property tax."
a. 5 %
b. 7 %
c. 8 %
d. 10 %
449. Which of the following is not considered 'idle land' under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 237?
a. Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole bare and uncultivated
b. Urban land at at least 1,000 sqm. with 50% of whole area unutilized and unimproved upon
c. Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
d. Stud farm on public land with no ongoing breeding or training activities
450. Municipalities as a group are entitled to 34% of total Internal Revenue Allotment, distributed based on formula adopted since
3rd year of RA 7160 implementation- 60% population, 40% land area. The practical implication of this scheme is that
a. Urbanization in already-populous towns is reinforced with bigger IRA allotments.
b. There is ambivalent signal for towns to control population growth and succeed in family planning.
c. The allocation does not consider 'actual need' such as poverty incidence or median family income.
451. Because the value of real property rises in direct relation to perceived progress, RA 7160 Sec. 235 allows LG Us to capture part
of private gains from "value added" by regular public spending on roads, infrastructure, and utilities by institutionalizing a
special levy at one percent (1%) of assessed value of real property, which revenues are then funneled to the local treasury as
a. Real Property Cost Recovery
b. General Fund
c. Special Education Fund
d. Development Fund
452. Under RA 7160 Sec. 241, a Local Sanggunian may impose a "special benefit levy" on real properties that directly benefit from
an LGU's special investment on a section of town. Rate of levy is not uniform but varies in calibrated manner according to
degree of benefit that a property derives from physical improvement. This special levy lasts for
a. Five to ten years
b. Seven to nine years
c. Five to seven years
d. Three to five years
453. Specific fiscal scheme used by local governments to finance redevelopment and revitalization of blighted areas by capturing
the additional property taxes generated from the improvement of the tax base.
a. Ad Valorem Taxation
b. Tax Increment Financing
c. Indirect Taxation
d. Recoupment
454. Under RA 7160 Sec. 271, how much is the share of each barangay from the total proceeds of Real Property Tax?
a. 25% for barangays in provinces, and 15% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
b. 20% for barangays in provinces, and 10% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
c. 30% for barangays in provinces, and 20% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
d. 35% for barangays in provinces, and 25% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
e. 25% for barangays in provinces, and 30% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila

455. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of construction of a given infrastructure or
development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned,
which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a reasonable rate of
return thereon.
a. Build and transfer
b. Build, own and operate
c. Build, transfer and operate
d. Develop, operate and transfer
456. A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and machinery for a given infrastructure
facility, if the interest of the Government so requires, operates the facility providing in the process technology transfer and
training to Filipino nationals.
a. Purchase and activate
b. Supply and operate
c. Canvass, Procure and Install
d. PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award
457. As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value between PhP 200M- 300M has to
be approved by what government body?
a. Local Development Council
b. Regional Development Council
c. Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
d. Investment Coordination Committee
458. As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national level
exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is
a. Cabinet of the President
b. Council of State
c. Investment Coordination Committee
d. NEDA Board
459. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking and then
designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Risk Assessment
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Environmental Accounting and Audit
d. Strategic Environmental Assessment
460. Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory regimes more
substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes?
a. Environmental Risk Assessment
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Environmental Accounting and Audit
d. Strategic Environmental Assessment
461. Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and nonhazardous'?

a. Transient and fleeting
b. Light
c. Cyber-spatial
d. Medium
e. Heavy
462. The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
a. Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles
b. Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and appurtenances
c. Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials
d. Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and sandals
e. Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting cards, social communications
463. All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or Environmental Impact Statement but need only to
comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or barangay.
a. Municipal waterworks system
b. Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
c. Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
d. Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees

464. Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major projects are subject to IEE
a. Tubattaha Reef
b. Chocolate Hills
c. Mount Banahaw
d. Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
465. Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DEN R's regional field units?
a. 30 sqm. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
b. 5,000 sqm. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
c. Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
d. Beach house measuring 400 sqm near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte
466. The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:
a. Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal
b. Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
c. Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
d. Perimeter work on centuries-old Plaza Miranda
467. Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment?
a. Mining
b. Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
c. Sericulture & vermi-composting
d. National highway
468. Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-cement production complex?
a. Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species
b. Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes
c. Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
d. Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training
469. According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be most concerned about?
a. Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats
b. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
c. Flora, fauna, and biota
d. Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
470. A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical nutrients in a waterbody would be an
example of
a. Osmosis
b. Hypoalimentation
c. Eutrophication
d. Fertilization
e. Denitrofication
471. According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should be done
a. At the factory level
b. At source
c. At the end of production/consumption
d. At the option of family concerned
472. This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also serves as drop-off center for sorted wastes,
composting center, and processing center to consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing.
a. Barangay Waste Recycling Center
b. Community Junk Shop
c. Waste Exchange Facility
d. Materials Recovery Facility
473. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec.11, the "primary obligation of the
Environmental Planner is to"
a. Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.
b. Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
c. Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other professionals
d. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
e. Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.

474. Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
a. Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners
b. Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
c. Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
d. Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
e. All of the above
475. Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's responsibility to his/her private client?
a. Do not plagiarize.
b. Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
c. Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
d. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party
e. When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.
476. Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, "Regulating the Practice of Environmental
Planning in the Philippines"?
a. Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
b. Engaging in tha practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been registered
c. Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is an environmental
planner
d. without holding a valid certificate of registration
e. Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
477. Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental planners should have
a. At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners
b. At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered environmental planners
c. The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
d. 60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
478. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the following does NOT constitute a conflict of
interest?
a. Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm
b. Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustment
c. Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market
d. Processing a rezoning application of your own property
479. Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?

a. Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting services
b. Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the
private sector
c. Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors' area of a planners' convention
d. Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a job originally occupied by
you.
480. A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a matter not pertaining to
your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on your off-days and holidays. You should
a. Report the housing developer for unethical behavior
b. Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
c. Decline the offer
d. Keep quiet about it
481. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of government
procurement of goods and services?
a. Selective bidding or limited source bidding
b. Negotiated procurement
c. Single source procurement or direct contracting
d. Competitive bidding
482. In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no suppliers have qualified to participate
or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief executive with the approval of the Sanggunian may undertake procurement
of supplies and services without public bidding through:
a. Selective bidding or limited source bidding
b. Negotiated procurement
c. Single source procurement or direct contracting
d. Competitive bidding

483. In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and services is exceptionally urgent
or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency
purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided
a. Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are rescinded,
abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
b. It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three pre-selected suppliers
kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track record
c. Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved by the
Government
d. Procurement Policy Board
e. Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under LOI 755 and E0359
484. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with five to seven members
has to be headed by
a. Chief of procuring entity
b. Resident Ombudsman
c. Resident auditor detailed by COA
d. At least third ranking permanent official
485. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire Consulting Services for the following
functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental Planners generally
least prepared?
a. Advisory and review services
b. Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
c. Design
d. Construction supervision
e. Management-related service and technical services
486. These are areas of less than 500 people per km2 whose inhabitants are primarily engaged in agriculture or in extraction of
raw materials, with dwellings which are spaced widely apart and often with little or no services or utilities
a. Tribe
b. Purok
c. Provincial
d. Rural
e. Hamlet
487. This refers to the unprecedented phenomenon occurring in megacities wherein the rate of increase of local population
overwhelms the natural 'carrying capacity' of cities as ecosystems and outpaces the 'caring capacity' of city institutions in
terms of resources and personnel to address complex problems.
a. Metropolitanization
b. Conurbation
c. Hyper-Urbanization
d. False or Pseudo-Urbanization
488. A direct result of leapfrog' or 'checkerboard' development, this phenomenon irreversibly converts rural space into urban
space even before the populations meant to use it could be present
a. Anticipatory Development
b. Premature Urbanization
c. Commercialization
d. Upscale Zoning
489. In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-dimensional problems?
a. Climate Change
b. Unmanaged Population Growth
c. Poverty
d. Land Use Changes
e. Pollution and Environmental Degradation
f. Carbon Footprint
490. According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major disasters in the period 1950-2007 occurred
in low-income to middle income countries, and 90% of these deaths happened to the poorest people. Which conclusion is
supported by this information?
a. Poverty which means low income and low education, is the major cause of disaster
b. Countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor because of frequent disasters
c. Poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods, increases people's vulnerability to disaster
d. The poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and less prepared people tend to be.

491. Settlements in high-risk zones; buildings on natural wetlands; rivers and waterways used as sewers; recurrent shortages of
food, water and power; segments of idle prime land pockmark the city center; lack of distinctive city image and coherent urban
form, all taken together, are manifestations of -
a. Population Explosion
b. Disaster Management
c. Splattered Development
d. Unmanaged Urbanization
492. Dr Edward L Glaeser of Harvard University (1995, 2003) correlates 'urban development with 'democratization' in the
following observations. Which statement pertains the most to so-called 'annihilation of space' in urban areas?
a. Information travels at high-speed in cities; transactions between producers and consumers are faster; cities practically
eliminate the transport cost of moving ideas, goods, and people
b. Cities facilitate human contact and social connection; the demand for cities is fueled by the demand for interaction
c. Because people in cities have high level of awareness, it is much harder for rulers to be despotic or tyrannical
d. Ineffective governments find it much harder to ignore mass poverty & other social problems in cities than in the
countryside
e. Revolutions, labor uprisings, and riots are usually born and bred in cities
493. He formulated the Basic Laws of Ecology in layman's vernacular (National Geographic, 1970) as follows: "Nature knows best."
"There is no such thing as a free lunch." "Everything is connected to everything else." 'We can never do merely one thing."
"Everything goes somewhere." ''There's no 'away' to throw to."
a. John Holdren
b. Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr.
c. Dr. Barry Commoner
d. Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum
494. In contrast to the environmentalism which highlights 'community' and 'communitarian' solutions, this type of
environmentalism centers on respect for all lifeforms in an atomistic or species-centered manner, such that humans would be
on equal moral footing with sentient animals like pets and nonsentient organisms like plants, insects, etc.
a. Eco-centrism
b. Bio-centrism
c. Anthropo-centrism
d. Geo-centrism
495. They are inveterate optimists who believe that "necessity is the mother of invention" and hence they assert that all
environmental problems can be solved by ever-advancing science and technology, and limitless human knowledge.
a. Cornucopians
b. Soroptimists
c. Utopians
d. Dystopians
496. Which principle of 'Sustainable Development' most directly supports the saying "Think Global, Act Local."
a. Principle of Subsidiarity
b. Polluter Pays Principle
c. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
d. Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Hann
497. According to theorists of 'Social Development' and 'Sustainable Development,' what is the relationship between the concepts
of 'Growth' and 'Development'?
a. These two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use
b. Growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people and society
c. Growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary but not sufficient condition
d. Growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
e. Growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated by tranquility, peace and order
498. The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question seeks to determine efficacy or success
of a chosen option or course of action?
a. "where are we now?"
b. "where are we going?"
c. "where do we want to be?"
d. "how do we get there?"
e. ''what resources de we need to get there?"
f. "how do we know if it is working?"

499. In what sense does 'professional planning' differ from 'generic,' 'commonsensical,' or 'everyday' planning?
a. There is no difference because planning is 'ubiquitous' and can be done by anyone, anytime, anywhere.
b. Professional planning has scope and goals that transcend one person ·or group while generic planning is essentially
action planning on familiar problems with much latitude for personal flexibility.
c. Professional planning examines only the "natural environment" while Business Planning considers both "policy
environment"
d. and "market environment."
e. Object of Professional Planning is "society and nature" while beneficiary of everyday planning is 'oneself.'
500. Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed neutral stance and instead adopt the side of
'the poor and the disadvantaged' to demand for corrective or remedial measures from the State and from the Market through
'pressure from below' by way of conflict confrontation, creative mass actions and backroom negotiations?
a. Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning
b. Communicative Planning
c. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
d. Disjointed incrementalism
501. These thinkers started the 'school of transactive planning' which later advocated the radical /critical notion that planning
should smash myths and mobilize people to change structures of domination and subjugation in society.
a. Francis Stuart Chapin, George Chadwick, Rexford Tugwell
b. Norman Krumholtz, John Friedman
c. Paul Plumberg, Carole Paterman, Paul Bernstein
d. Charfes Lindbloom, Robert Dahl, Mel Webber
502. According to David Harvey and Ray Pahl, planning is less a means for urban renewal, but more of "an agent of change and
development in its own right, linked to alternative theories of the city that seek to address poverty and inequality. Planners
should be regarded as creators of urban space, not merely value-neutral arbiters of development proposals.
a. Critical/radical planning
b. Communicative planning
c. Liberal planning
d. Activist planning
503. Strategic Planning as described by Henry Mintzberg is called 'Innovative Planning' for following reasons except one
a. Because, as in strategies and tactics, a plan has to be calculating and even Machiavellian
b. Because it seeks to introduce a novel goal, product, process, or pattern
c. Because it centers on organizational 'fitness' to create or shape change
d. Because it mobilizes the whole organization to move towards a new direction
504. According to Karl Wittfogel's 'Hydraulic Civilization' model of Urbanization (1957), what would explain the emergence in
Antiquity (4000-200 BCE) of the earliest cities also known as 'necropolis' and temple-towns?
a. Irrigation for farms revolutionized both economic production and social organization as it resulted in food surplus.
Which necessitated large storage warehouses in preparation for war or drought
b. Strongman rule was hastened by the need to distribute water for irrigation and to ration food.
c. With abundant food, classes of non-farming workers emerged which eventually led to "division of labor" and
"occupational specialization.
d. City-building centered on immortalizing kings and heroes in godlike worship through grandiose monuments, tombs,
funeraries, pyramids, mausoleums, shrines, altars, temples, ziggurats, obelisks, etc.
e. All of the above
505. Dr Gideon Sjoberg (1933) claims that cultural exchange from overland trade and commerce in pre-industrial ear fostered the
formation of cities, as literate individuals, craftsmen, and tool-makers came together to debate and test each other's ideas.
Competition among non-farming specialists gave birth to the 'scientific method' as well as to technological advances m plant
cultivation and animal breeding.
a. Acculturation and lnculturation
b. Socio-Cultural Theory of Urbanization
c. Diffusion of Technology Information
d. The Scientific Revolution
506. What theory of urbanization by RL Carneiro (1970) best explains 'Fortress Cities' during the Dark Ages 476-800AD?
a. Urbanization was hastened by cultural exchange resu!ting from overland trade caravans
b. People settled together around strategic places which could benefit from maritime trade.
c. Strongman rule was necessitated in order to distribute water for irrigation.
d. After the collapse of army-based imperial government, people had to congregate in cities for better protection from
plunderers
e. and marauders.

507. 2,500 'Cathedral Towns' during the Middle Ages 800-1440 AD showcased the ascendancy of the Church in all affairs whether
religious or secular, and these medieval cities displayed the following physical characteristics except one:
a. Narrow, twisty, irregular street radiating from the main center (radio centric)
b. Congestion was common; infrastructure for garbage and sewage was absent; sanitation was poor;
c. Vulnerable to epidemics such as bubonic plague. cholera, typhoid fever, scarlet fever, etc.
d. Loss of privacy due to overcrowding resulted in loose sexual morals of the population
508. Outside the walls of Medieval towns and cities, land was used collectively and defined as follows: 'common of pasture,'
'common of turbary,' 'common of piscary,' 'common of estovers,' and 'common of soil.' Which one refers to everyone's right
to take fish, game, or fowl from communal land?
a. Common of pasture
b. Common of piscary
c. Common of soil
d. Common of turbary
509. Except for one city below, 'Mercantile Cities' during the Renaissance period served as trading ports for overseas commerce
and played key role in the accumulation of gold and silver by European monarchies and principalities.
a. Venice, Italy
b. Amsterdam, The Netherlands
c. Dortmund, Germany
d. Lisbon, Portugal
510. According to Max Weber in The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904), what was the key factor in transition for
mercantile economies controlled by European monarchies to profit-driven individual enterprise or laissez faire?
a. Endemic corruption in highly structured Catholic society made people less imaginative and less entrepreneurial
b. Early Protestants generally emphasized hardwork, simplicity, thrift, discipline, savings, & re-investment of savings
c. Royal treasuries went bankrupt due to Catholics' culture of excess, lavish celebrations, overindulgence, etc.
d. Protestants work without the baggage of Seven Capital Sins such as greed, avarice, envy, lust, gluttony, etc.
511. The first grid-iron orthogonal street pattern in continental America was designed in 1682 by
a. William Penn for Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
b. Pierre Charles L'Enfant for Washington DC
c. Peter Minuit for Manhattan Island, New York
d. John Winthrop for Trimountaine, Boston Common
512. Before the rise of 'scientific socialism' based on concept of class-struggle, 'normative or Utopian socialism' based on Christian
values was showcased by this philanthropist in New Lanark, Scotland (1799) where excellent working conditions, decent
housing, and cheap services for the working class increased productivity and profit. Its founder was later acknowledged as
the father of the cooperative movement.
a. Robert Owen
b. John Cadbury
c. James Buckingham
d. Sir Christopher Wren
513. The milestone that marked the start of the Industrial Age in 1769 and changed the primary mode of economic production was
a. Discovery of crude oil, coal, and gas fuels
b. Invention of steam engine as source of power
c. Invention of printing press to propagate scientific knowledge
d. Invention of trains, trams, and rail for faster movement of goods
514. At the start of 19th century industrialization in England before the emergence of full-fledged professional planners, who were
the earliest urban planning practitioners who addressed city-wide problems including 'germ versus filth' dilemma?
a. Microbiologists, biochemists, pharmacists
b. Shelter specialists, housing developers, contractors
c. Industrial engineers, machine engineers, civil engineers
d. Doctors, epidemiologists, sanitarians, public health personnel
515. In 1907, what university offered the first academic degree course in city planning under its landscape architecture
department, which program later spun of to become the first ever school of planning in 1929.
a. Oxford University
b. Harvard University
c. Cambridge University
d. University of Heidelberg

516. Among the City Beautiful Movement planners, he was the earliest to articulate the principles of urban design in "City Planning
According to Artistic Principles" (1889)
a. Camilo Sitte
b. Lldefons Cerda
c. Lucio Costa
d. Oscar Niemeyer
e. William Burtey Griffin
517. A town is a tool for free man to overcome chaos and lack of order. A city is the grip of man upon nature. Geometry is the means
whereby we perceive the external world and express the world within us. Geometry is the foundation. Machinery is the result
of geometry. The age in which we live is therefore essentially a geometric one. Town Planning demands uniformity in detail
and a sense of movement in general layout."
a. Gordon Cullen
b. Le Corbusier
c. Aldo Rossi
d. Thomas Sharp
e. Roy Worskett
518. Which of the following valid critiques of Le Corbusier's (Charles Edouard Jeanneret) modernist city design pertains to the so-
called 'spatial paradox'?
a. Architectural determinism or the belief that physical design and visual aesthetics are sufficient to address the basic
problems of population.
b. Devoid of thorough studies on demographic, social, economic, and transport aspects
c. Goal to decongest the city by increasing congestion at its core
d. Rejection of historic precedents as inspiration for overall design
e. Lack of human scale as uniform tall structures tend to be disorienting while extremely-vast open spaces look
inhospitable to humans
519. Which of the following features does not describe the New Town concept of Clarence Stein as showcased at Radbum, New
Jersey; Columbia, Maryland; Greenbelt, Maryland; Greenhills, Ohio; Greendale, Wisconsin; and Greenbrook NJ?
a. Huge manufacturing firm at the center
b. Separation between pedestrian traffic and motor traffic
c. Green spaces which are interconnected
d. Series of superblocks
e. Prior land assembly
f. Neighborhood clusters
520. The planner who said that survey is a requisite for planning in the famous framework Survey-Analysis Plan was
a. Demogriphus
b. Herodotus
c. Geddes
d. Pericles
521. 'Social Engineering' refers to

a. Designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
b. Manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social groups
c. Implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors
d. Changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired societal goals
522. "Sierra Club" is to John Muir, "Audubon Society" to John James Audubon, "Living Earth" to Eugene Ple.asants Odum, "Spaceship
Earth" to Kenneth Boulding, and "Gaia-Mother Earth" is to.
a. James Lovelock
b. Henry David Thoreau
c. Delfin Ganapin
d. Ame Naess
523. Dr William Rees coined this concept in 1992 to approximate the amount of productive space, measured in terms of global
hectare (gha) per capita, needed to sustain a population which consumes food, water, energy, building materials -etc end
requires the sink functions of Nature for human waste and pollution.
a. Land-population ratio
b. Consumer price index
c. Index of environmental impact
d. Ecological footprint

524. Considered as the father of wildlife ecology, he advocated in 1948 a "personal land ethic" for humans to become 'stewards of
the land' and member-citizens of land-community rather than its conquerors or dominators.
a. Karol Wojtyla or 'John Paul II'
b. Ralph Waldo Emerson
c. Henry Wright
d. Aldo Leopold
525. The major objective of 'New Urbanism' movement identified with Jane Jacobs, Leon Krier, Andres Duany, Elizabeth Plater-
Zyberk, et al. is to
a. Rebuild the architectural facade of old cities using post-modern methods and technologies
b. Revitalize urban communities by creating centers' and by reviving traditional civic values
c. Design gated subdivisions as urban collage and multi-ethnic tapestry
d. Integrate development of both urban and rural areas in order to save as much farmland as possible
526. The critique of 'New Urbanism' against so-called 'Gentrification' or up scaling of inner-city neighborhoods was
a. The latter is more interested in new businesses than in community rebuilding; hence soul-less and centerness
b. The latter leads to the exclusion of low-income groups
c. The latter does not create mixed communities of varied socioeconomic & demographic groups
527. The following planners were most concerned about "human scale and the social usage of urban space"
a. David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl
b. Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte
c. Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
d. T J Kent, Edwin c. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg
528. During the period 1565-1896, the urban control points designated by the Spanish colonial government were the
a. alcaldias y pueblos
b. barrios y sitios
c. haciendas y villas
d. cabeceras y poblaciónes
529. During the Spanish colonial period, there were four major forms of land tenure or land holding. Which one refers to the right
of a 'servant' of Spanish Crown to collect tribute from residents of a territory without any ownership claim over that territory?
a. 'friar lands'
b. 'encomiendas'
c. 'haciendas'
d. 'townships'
530. 597. Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering 5.3 million hectares, principally in
a. Negros Island
b. Palawan
c. Mindanao
d. Samar Island
531. The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private ownership of land in the Philippines is a 7 legacy
from what colonial period of Philippine history?
a. Spanish
b. American
c. Japanese
d. British
532. According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic policy and industrialization strategy
occurred in the latter period of American colonial rule when
a. Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash crops for export such as sugar,
tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
b. Progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of American market during Great
Depression, instead of Filipino production being responsive to domestic demand by inter1inking Philippine regions
with one another
c. Post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-intensive urban consumer goods rather
than on resource-based agro-industrialization in provincial centers utilizing agricultural surplus

533. Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their development plans under the close guidance
of national government agencies.
a. Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945
b. Local Autonomy Act of 1949
c. Decentralization and Devolution Act
d. Transparency and Accountability Standards Act
534. In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization Commission delineated regions
a. Nine -representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories which fought Spain
b. Eight -representing major ethno-linguistic groups
c. Four -representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
d. Six -representing possible component units of a federal system
535. Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila Commission as the first ever structure of metropolitan
governance in the Philippines following the organizational model called
a. Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government)
b. Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local Governments)
c. Voluntary clustering and inter-LGU cooperation
d. Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan government)
536. In 1978, American Institute of Planners (established 1917) and American Society of Planning Officials (established 1934)
combined to become the present-day
a. American Institute of Environmental Planning
b. Royal Institute of Town and County Planning
c. Planning Society of All-America
d. American Planning Association
537. The first State-wide land use plan in 1973 which defined Urban Growth Boundaries (UGBs) that separated urban and rural
areas in order to limit growth within serviced areas and to preserve rural farmland for a timeframe of 20 years, took place in
the State of
a. Oregon
b. New York
c. California
d. Florida
538. Which planning concept, first upheld by the US Supreme Court in the 1976 case o('Penn Central Transportation Co. versus
City of New York incorporates a market mechanism to mitigate whatever financial burden local law might have imposed on
property?
a. Planned Unit Development
b. Conservation Easements
c. Transfer of Development Rights
d. Eminent Domain
539. In all but one of following cases, the US Supreme Court declared "takings" by government as illegal, as it upheld the
Constitutional precept that "private property shall not be taken for public use without just compensation"
a. Where a regulation is merely intended to prevent a nuisance and remove discomfort caused to the public
b. Where a regulation forced a landowner to allow someone else to enter onto the property,
c. Where a regulation imposes burdens or costs on a landowner that do not bear a reasonable relationship to the impacts
of the
d. project on the community;
e. Where government can equally accomplish a valid public purpose through less intrusive regulation or through a
f. requirement of dedicating property
g. Where a landowner has been denied all economically viable use of the land
540. In 1987, United States Supreme Court in the case· of Nollan versus California Coastal Commission ruled against- California
which required Nollan to dedicate a public sidewalk easement across their beachfront property as a building permit condition,
thus the Court formulated a principle for governments regulatory action that "land use restrictions must be tied directly to a
specific public purpose."
a. Rough Proportionality
b. Calibrated Enforcement
c. Calculated Authority
d. Rational Nexus

541. This school of thought claims that cities or human settlements can be studied as though they are biological organisms subject
to laws of evolution, natural selection, competition, adaptation, survival of the fittest, decline, and death.
a. Dialectical Historical Materialism
b. Anarcho Syndicalism by Saul David Afinsky
c. Frankfurt School of Social Critical Theory
d. Chicago school of human ecology
542. Central Place Theory was found faulty in assuming uniform topography, fiat featureless terrain, ease of travel in all directions
and ubiquity or all around presence of economic resources, but its major strength lies in characterizing the locational
advantages of one place in relation to another, a geographic concept called -
a. Surrounding
b. Standing
c. Situation
d. State
543. The weakness of applying Central Place Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines is that
a. Unlike other countries, Philippines does not have compact land mass with homogenous features
b. Archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement & economic exchange difficult
c. Spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport that inflates prices
d. All of the above
544. George Zipfs Rank-Size Rule, "Pn=P1/N*** was derived from Christallers Central Place Theory, and asserts that the population
of city "n" is equal to the population of the largest city "1" divided by the rank of "n" in the hierarchy of aces. If the largest city
in immediately preceding question had 2.6 million people in 2007 official census, using Zipfs rule what should have been the
population of Davao City if it was ranked Number?
a. 520,000
b. 1,520,000
c. 1,300,000
d. 650,000
545. Does the formula of George Zipf in the immediately preceding question match the reality on the ground based on 2007 Official
Census of the National Statistics Office?
a. Yes
b. Partially
c. No
d. Depends on whether old Davao City or Metro Davao is being analyzed
546. Neo-classical Urban Bid-Rent theory provides the formula for Location Rent at center of city as equal= to 'Rent Gradient' times
'Radius' where 'Rent Gradient' is equal to 'transport cost per capita per year' multiplied by 'density per sq.km'. If Pateros has
a radius distance of 10.266 km from the center of Metro Manila, with average density of= 29,495.24 persons per km. In 2009
and P15,330 transport cost per capita per year, what should be the location rent per square meter in Pateros as periphery-
town of Metro Manila? (clue: convert sq.km to sqm.)
a. 4,641 per m2
b. around 46,41 0 per m2
c. Around 464,100 per m2
d. Around 464.10 per m2
547. According to Raleigh Barlowe (1958), this refers to the most profitable use of land when it yields optimum returns gen limited
inputs; such returns can either be monetary or non-monetary, tangible or intangible, based on the criteria and interest of the
person who makes such decisions.
a. Maximum Sustainable Rent
b. Maximum Sustainable Yield
c. Profit Maximization
d. Highest and Best Use
548. In Peirce Lewis' revision of the Ernest Burgess' mono-centric model of urban land use, which of the following describes the
spatial decline of concentric cities least effective.
a. The elite and their businesses leave the inner core due to pollution and congestion.
b. Hollowing-out of the core results in the "donut shape"
c. Surrounded by the poor in the historic center, government increasingly becomes captive to pressure groups
d. Land values rapidly fall in inner-city areas experiencing urban blight and urban decay.

549. In Urban land use models of the Chicago school of human ecology, the affluent and middle classes are inclined to E- away from
downtown and inner city in favor of suburban locations and this process results in a paradox or "spatial mismatch" as regards
labor.
a. Sophisticated upper classes locate in city-edges with semi-rural conditions where no employment is available
b. Lower-classes who cannot create employment by themselves are left to occupy high-priced land in the inner core of
cities.
c. Blue-collar workers are forced to accept low-skill jobs as maids, yayas, gardeners in affluent suburban subdivisions
d. Non-tax paying people in the informal sector are closer to the seat of government than the landed gentry
550. Social status declines with increasing distance from the center of the city" is a proposition about poor Third World countries
that contradicts the original land use models from the Chicago school of human ecology,
a. Donut model
b. Core-Periphery Dependency Model
c. Polycentric model
d. Inverse Concentric
551. 618. According to M. White (1987), the more economically complex a city, the more varied would be the number of high
growth points, the more socially complex it becomes, and the stronger is its tendency towards differentiation such as in the
case of residents segregating themselves into enclaves according to economic level, social status, or ethnicity.
a. Bipolar Model
b. Palimpsest or Mosaic Model
c. Multiple Nuclei
d. Urban Land Nexus Theory
552. Advancements in transportation and communication technologies have affected many cities in such a way that information
based production can be done by anyone, anywhere at any time regardless of distance from city center. Which of the following
is the likely spatial form arising from these economic trends?
a. Cyber-city sends all dirty smokestack industries to remote regions.
b. CBD becomes an elongated corridor or spine following the lines of telecommunications & electronic services
c. Suburban subdivisions form a belt-like edge or natural perimeter around the mother city
d. Edge cities, office parks, and techno-poles develop in various parts of a complex mother city
553. According to Wilbur Richard Thompson (1965), once a city reaches a resident population of 250.000, it attains L1 permanence.
Certain city sections may suffer decay and decline, but the city as a whole will survive because of sheer size and strength of
tertiary economy, inherent capacity to diversify, and its political weight vis-a-vis other settlements.
a. Urban land Nexus
b. Urban Ratchet Theory
c. Urban Spiral Economy
d. Urban Force Momentum
554. By plotting on a graph the economic benefits from agglomeration against the costs of congestion and overconcentration, Leo
Klaasen concluded that 'Optimum City Size' of a viable city should be between
a. 20,000-190,000
b. 200,000 -600,000
c. 700,000-One million
d. One million -Two million
555. The following are characteristics of a central business district. Which one increases the LGU responsibility to safeguard the
wellbeing of people, often beyond the capacities of a single local authority?
a. Large concentration of office and retail activities;
b. Significantly large number of tertiary and service jobs generated
c. High price of land forces property-owners to build high
d. Large regular inflow and outflow of motorists; daytime population higher than nighttime population
556. Not all megacities become 'world cities'. According to David Simon in World City Hypothesis (1996), the following criteria
determine how a city reaches Tier 1 status. Which criterion is pursued as cities 'de-industrialize' by banishing dirty
smokestack industries from their territories in the contest to achieve "greater global competitiveness"?
a. Existence of a sophisticated financial and service complex serving a global clientele
b. Level of international networks of capital information and communication flows
c. large number of headquarters of international institutions
d. Quality of life conducive to attracting investors and retaining skilled international migrants

557. Which concern of regional planning pertains to institutional capacitation of local governments, and the appropriate
distribution of authority among them?
a. Spatial integration between urban and rural settlements
b. Complementation among agriculture, industry, other sectors
c. Balanced distribution of population
d. Federalism and decentralization of development
e. Equitable distribution of resources among places
f. Reduction of economic disparities among regions
558. Earliest regional planning models in USA in 1933 revolved around Tennessee Valley, Dallas Plain, Columbia River Basin,
Colorado River, St Lawrence Seaway, Delaware River, Chesapeake Bay watershed, which are essentially
a. Cultural or ethno-linguistic regions
b. Deltaic riverine regions
c. Natural regions
d. Cross-border regions
559. According to economists Theodore Schultz, Jacob Mincer, and Gary S.Becker, this collective term for people's embodied assets
such as knowledge, skills, good health, attitudes, and entrepreneurial qualities, determines how a local community or region
absorbs new technologies, expands productive capacity and generates own progress.
a. Seven Domains of Intelligence
b. Intellectual Quotient
c. Managerial Aptitude
d. Human Capital
560. The twin strategy of 'concentrated decentralization' and 'industrial dispersal' to correct urban primacy and inter-regional
divergence in the Philippines was begun under the administration of President
a. Carlos P. Garcia
b. Ferdinand E. Marcos
c. Corazon C. Aquino
d. Fidel V. Ramos
e. Gloria M. Arroyo
561. Under RA7916 Sec. 10, what is the minimum investment of a foreigner who can be granted permanent resident status within
a Philippine ecozone, together with spouse and children below 21 years of age, who shall all have freedom of ingress and
egress to and from the Eco-zone without any need of special authorization from the Bureau of immigration?
a. US$ 150,000
b. US$ 300,000
c. US$ 1,000,000
d. US$ 2,000,000
562. Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company decides to stay put in
Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm
location is likely at work here?
a. Comparative Advantage
b. Profit Maximizing Approach
c. Satisficing Theory
d. Behavioral Theory
563. Cognitive processes which include perception, intuition, values and attitudes, underlie locational behavior and these account
for imperfect decisions, meaning that industrial locators do not necessarily aim for the best possible setup to maximize profit
but can be content with 'sub-optimal', 'good-enough' but 'adequate' decisions.
a. Cogitative Theory of Location
b. Behavioral Theory of Location
c. Urban Land Nexus Theory
d. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Corporate Mergers)
564. If a firm subscribes to the Institutional Theory of firm location as shaped by neo-liberal economics, the firm will logically
consider which of the following factors the least.
a. Costs of doing business (tax and non-tax costs including graft and corruption)
b. Stability of government and predictability of its policies (fair play, level-playing field)
c. Peace and order and the physical safety of employees
d. Leisure opportunities such as golf courses and exclusive resorts for the managerial elite and their families

565. Anything that is available to rivals elsewhere is essentially nullified as a source of competitive advantage, for a firms
competitive edge lies in something very local - innovation in strategy, innovation in know-how, in relationships, in motivation.
a. Dr Michael Porter
b. Jacob A. Riis
c. Sir Peter Hall
d. Dr Mark Gottdeiner
e. Hernando de Soto
566. Presidential Decree 1559 defines this natural region used in ecosystem-based planning as a relatively large area starting at
the roof of mountain rivers and encompassing tributaries, streams, and the land surface whose rainwater runoff drams into a
common, downstream point such as a lake, estuary, or coastal water body.
a. Drainage Basin
b. Rainforest
c. Flood plain
d. Watershed
567. Based on 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, this is an area of up to 200 nautical miles from a States Shore
in which a State is given the sovereign right to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage all natural resources as well as the right
to determine the total allowable catch (TAC) of living resources.
a. Territorial Sea
b. Sea lanes and Maritime Fairways
c. Continental Shelf
d. Exclusive Economic Zone
568. The taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business, or profit beyond the level of subsistence fishing or
sports fishing, utilizing marine vessels of 3.1 gross tons (GT) or more, is called
a. Municipal Fishing
b. Profitable Fishing
c. Entrepreneurial Fishing
d. Commercial Fishing
569. Under RA 917 4 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, jurisdiction over all declared aquatic critical habitats, all
aquatic resources, including but not limited to all fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates and all marine mammals, except dugong,
including protected coral reefs, fish sanctuaries, and marine reserves, belongs to
a. Philippine Coast Guard and Patrol Bantay Dagat
b. DENR Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
c. Department of Agriculture
d. Department of Science and Technology
570. In the SEPP, 'geology' covers subsurface conditions, seismic fault lines, bedrock, and minerals while 'patterns of precipitation,
temperature, humidity, and wind' are discussed under
a. Atmospheric and Astro-physical Sciences
b. Hydrology
c. Climate
d. Agro-ecology
571. In contrast to the long-term skeletal/circulatory framework, this is the overall medium-term action plan utilized by every local
administration to develop socio-economic development projects and implement sectoral, cross-sectoral, and multi-sectoral
programs to be translated into public investment measures and incentives to private investment.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
b. Blueprint
c. Comprehensive Development Plan
d. Master Plan
572. This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing, work places, and related facilities within
a self-contained setup, based on the assumption that it can be built from zero, more or less.
a. Freiburg or Freetown
b. Borough
c. New Town
d. County Estate
e. Eco-Industrial Park

573. If Lands with slope between 18%-30% constitute 45% of total land area, those with slope above 30% constitute 8%, what
percent of Philippine gross land area is generally described as 'alienable and disposable'?
a. Roughly 47%
b. roughly 53%
c. Roughly 43%
d. Roughly 57%
574. 'Land Use' and 'Land Classification' are

a. The same
b. Mutually exclusive
c. 'Land Classification' is proper term for legal and bureaucratic transactions while 'Land Use' is used for basic
environmental analysis.
d. 'Land Classification' is a scientific conceptual scheme while 'Land Use' refers to actual utilization or consumption of
land.
575. “Land use has to be planned for the community as a whole because the conservation of soil, water, and other natural resources
is often beyond the means of individual land user"
a. True
b. False
c. True only for closed societies and socialist economies but not for free market societies
d. Partially false because free market forces' always know better how to apportion land
576. Which statement about 'Land Capability' and 'Land Suitability' is true, based on definition from US Department of Agriculture
and United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization?
a. 'Land Capability' refers to the 'carrying capacity' of land while 'Land Suitability' refers to appropriateness of land for
human use and habitation.
b. 'Land Capability' refers to appropriateness of land for engineering and physical intervention while 'Land Suitability'
refers to appropriateness for natural production.
c. 'Land Capability' refers to the broadest uses of land for urban development while 'Land Suitability' refers to its fitness
for rural development.
d. 'Land Capability' is the broad inherent capacity of land to perform at a given level for general use, while 'Land
Suitability' is the adaptability of a given land for a specific kind of land use, usually farm crops.
577. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial use?
a. Load-bearing capacity
b. Location
c. Slope
d. Soil characteristics
578. To conserve farm soils by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
a. Use of coco-coir geotextile on erodible soils
b. Use of rows, furrows, ridges and ditches
c. Use of terraces and contours on sloping land
d. Use of soil compactors
e. Mulching and recycling of organic matter
f. Cover crops and shelterbelts against wind erosion
579. To conserve freshwater by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
a. Sub-terranean drilling to interconnect deep-wells
b. Partially grassed waterways
c. mini-dams and dikes to slow down stream flow to the sea
d. Small water impounding projects (SWP)
e. Rainwater harvesting thru man-made ponds, small farm reservoirs (SFRs)
580. Which of the following maps display the 'critical facilities' of a city/town?
a. Map showing military camps, police stations, checkpoints, jails, prisons and Stockades
b. Map showing sewer lines, canals, tunnels, and underground bunkers
c. Map showing roads, hospitals, food .warehouses, 4tility trunks for power, water, and communication
d. Map showing possible evacuation places in schools, churches, gymnasium, and covered courts
581. Which of those listed below is not a 'decision' map?

a. Physical constraints map
b. Geo hazard map
c. Land suitability map
d. Natural drainage map (rivers and streams)

582. In preparing a site plan for hectare mixed use project in an urban area, which of following maps is least useful at the needed
scale of 1 : 1,000?
a. NAMRIA base map
b. LRA parcel map
c. Utilities map from LGU Engineer
d. Phivolcs geologic map
583. In an output map of the computer-based system referred to in immediately preceding section, 'roads,' 'irrigation canals' and
'sewers' are represented in the form called
a. Digital
b. Vector
c. Raster
d. Megapixel
e. Cellular automata
584. According to Ernesto Serote, the FAO formula for urban land allocation at 5.7 hectares per thousand population does not seem
to be realistic in highly urbanized LGUs because of rapid pace of change, hence, to estimate urban land demand, this method
entails time-series comparison of aerial photographs supplemented by on-foot survey of urban land.
a. Urban Density Method
b. Urban Occupancy Method
c. City Land Census
d. Floor Area Ratio
585. "Land Evaluation" and "Landscape Analysis" are

a. The same and actually overlap
b. Both obsolete and no longer used
c. Used by different sets of specialists for the same land use process
d. Essentially at odds because one is scientific while the other is not
586. Which of the following does not enhance 'connectivity' to create sociable, livable, walkable, health-oriented communities?
a. Cul-de-sacs, cuvilinear streets, steel g&tes on roadblock comers; family pets wander & provide biodiversity excitement
b. School, church, community assembly center, plaza, and sports facilities are located relatively close to each other.
c. 300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses, FX vans, and shuttles to railway stations
d. Bicycle lanes are delineated; strolling and biking promoted, 'no-car policy' declared on selected streets during holidays.
587. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning shapes the pace and direction of city/town growth.
a. Expand physically municipal jail and stockade to address increased incidence in criminality
b. Propose roll-on roll-off port to hasten trade with coastal neighbors
c. Identify which sections of territory are appropriate for low-rise, medium-rise, and high-rise structures.
d. Define specific types of commerce that can be allowed in predominantly residential neighborhoods.
588. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning addresses global warming and climate change.
a. Provide for locations of windmill farms as possible joint ventures with private sector
b. Reward real estate projects that keep more than 40% of their total area as wooded open space
c. Encourage intercropping of fruit trees and bio-fuel plants in lands designated for agro-forestry
d. Transfer manufacturing firms to remote locations at least 10 kms away where their fumes cannot reach homes
589. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning mitigates natural hazards and reduces disaster risk.
a. Expand open space in flood-holding areas, evacuation routes, lifelines, and areas of unstable soil
b. Compel all real estate brokers and dealers to provide hazard disclosure to property buyers in geo hazard zones
c. Require 10-meter-deep foundations for bulky structures in places prone to recurrent liquefaction
d. Redirect public funds for capital investment projects from tsunami-prone areas to locations of higher elevation
590. All of the following Land Use measures address Climate Change. Which one directly pertains to the carbon sequestration
function performed by trees and plants?
a. Design settlements and communities in. a manner that reduces ·use of vehicles
b. Enforce energy-efficiency laws to cover buildings, homes, and industrial design of appliances and appurtenances
identify
c. Conducive locations and facilitate projects that generate renewable natural energy
d. Maintain buffer zones and protect undisturbed lands with thick vegetative cover
591. All of the following Land Use measures address transport bottlenecks and congestion, but which one increases pedestrian
traffic and requires intensified police/security presence?
a. Establish Floor-Area Ratio and population density ceilings for buildings in the Central Business District
b. Relocate intercity bus terminals and freight terminals from the center of town
c. Enforce walking and biking in specific downtown sections that have vibrant bazaars, tiangges, and streetside sales
d. Prohibit on-street or parallel roadside parking along busy arterial roads

592. To better conserve energy in a community, planners may recommend each of the following except
a. Promote use of mass transit
b. Design mixed uses for projects
c. Encourage landscaping / ornamentation over planting of hardwood tree species
d. Use of solar energy for passive lighting, passive heating, power for ventilation
593. Which map is least relevant in preparing a Forest Management Plan that covers multiple LGUs at scale of 1 :5,000?
a. Map of tribal or ancestral land
b. Elevation map
c. Density map
d. NIPAS map
594. This is a Section of forestland with an area of at least 100-meter radius around rivers and springs which serve to capture
freshwater sources being tapped for domestic water supply and irrigation.
a. Hydrologic Capture Zone
b. Eco-Park
c. Water Catchment Reserve
d. Escarpment
595. Under RA 7586 NIPAS Act of 1991, which type of protected area aims to assure the natural conditions necessary to protect
species, groups of species, biotic communities or physical features of the environment where these may require specific
human manipulation for their perpetuation.
a. Haven and Refuge of Endangered Biota
b. Protected Landscape and Seascape
c. Genepool and Germplasm Reserve
d. Wildlife Sanctuary
596. Which of the following steps in the establishment of NIPAS area addresses overlapping LGU jurisdictions?
a. Compilation of technical maps & description of protected areas
b. Census and registration of protected area occupants
c. Public notification of coverage of protected areas A
d. Boundary demarcation and monumenting
597. A Protected Area Management Plan guides a declared natural biotic area under RA 7586. Under which sections of 5 ecological
zoning might Indigenous Peoples, tenured migrants and/or other residents be allowed to collect and utilize natural resources
using traditional melt1ods that are not in conflict with biodiversity conservation
a. Strict protection zone & habitat management zone
b. Sustainable Use Zone & Multiple Use Zone
c. Cultural zone & restoration zone
d. Special Use Zone and Buffer Zone
598. Based on FAO framework, which component of Watershed Management needs to engage timber companies, upland
concessions, and sawmills to the highest extent possible?
a. Irrigation, water harvesting, control of land and water pollution
b. Gully control, rehabilitation of landslips and landslides, control of road erosion
c. Pastureland protection and improvement
d. Forest protection and improvement, stream bank protection, and sustainable mining
599. RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in a legal manner.
a. Has a subsisting timber license. agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private land timber permit
b. Is duly elected official of upland barangay
c. Is an Orchard and fruit tree farmer
d. Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
e. Is an industrial tree farmer
600. These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their high susceptibility to, among
others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes, erosion once their topsoil is exposed.
a. 'geo-hazards'
b. 'brownfields'
c. 'environmentally critical'
d. 'naturally forbidden'
601. DENR-FMB 2003, of total Philippine forestland of 15.85 million hectares, 1.5 million hectares are denuded and 5. 7 million
hectares are badly denuded. Under the 12-point agenda of Forest Management Bureau, which of the latter should have the
highest priority in restoration and reforestation by engaging private sector investors.
a. Cultivated Areas and Upland Settlements

b. Shrub lands and marginal grasslands
c. Wooded Grasslands
d. Swamps and Marshes
602. 672. Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, killing of endangered wildlife is unlawful except in 5
cases. Which of the following might warrant an act of killing by Palawan tribal leaders after they've gathered proof that they
had lost three children to river crocodiles which had escaped from a science-oriented crocodile farm?
a. "when killing is done as part of the religious rituals of established indigenous cultural communities"
b. "when the wildlife is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease"
c. "when it is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the wildlife"
d. ''when it is done to prevent imminent danger to the life or limb of a human being"
e. ''when the wildlife is killed or destroyed after it has been used in authorized research or experiments"
603. 63. This refers to rights. of landowners along a water body to use the water for their economic needs provided they return to
the same body the water in similar quality.
a. Riparian Rights
b. Hydrologic Rights
c. Rights of First Use
d. Riverine Rights
604. The do nothing scenario or absence of a spatial strategy allows a settlement to grow on its own like a dendrite or living
organism without man-made controls, and is called
a. Leapfrogging
b. Organic development
c. Crawling development
d. Checkerboard spreadsheet
e. Anything goes
605. A physical location where industry and/or commercial development is deliberately directed; done either to reduce I growth
pressures elsewhere in the city or to redistribute growth within a city.
a. Growth Node
b. Growth Hub
c. Growth Nub
d. Growth Mole
e. Growth Lump
606. "Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive places that contribute to local
identity, structure and meaning. Urban design strengthens the city's character by reflecting its cultural layers and by enable
residents and visitors alike to read the city' by way of its history, customs, icons, and visual elements."
a. "Cosmopolitanism"
b. "Semiotics"
c. "Sense of Place"
d. "Symbology"
607. Designed by Peter Calthorpe (1993), this is a compact, mixed-use urban area around a transport node, intermodal or rail
station with commercial shops, offices, and homes within a pedestrian-oriented radius of 800 meters maximum. at density<
15-40 dwelling units per acre, all intended to maximize citizen access to public transport and encourage mass ridership.
a. Intermodal Exchange Design
b. Park & Ride
c. Transit-Oriented Development
d. Bus Rapid Transit
608. Which goal of Smart Growth USA" addresses social participation?

a. Direct growth toward existing population centers, thru public spending on infrastructure and utilities
b. Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place by creating walkable neighborhoods and
providing a variety of transportation choices
c. Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost effective, and encourage stakeholder collaboration in
development decisions
d. Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land uses
e. Preserve and protect open space, farmland, natural beauty, and environmentally sensitive areas

609. City design of Paul Downtown where the balance of nature is central concern, operated by closed-loop systems that recycle
energy, materials and resources, while minimizing waste through enviro-preneurship. Its economy is based on knowledge
and innovation such as hydrogen-powered mass transport, skygardens, parks on building rooftops, building-integrated solar
systems using photovoltaic skins, and aeroponic and hydroponic urban farming on terraces, walls, facades, and atria.
a. Evergreen city
b. Sustainopolis
c. Ecopolis
d. Greenopolis
e. Verde vill
610. All but one of the following are valid grounds to seek special case treatment or relaxation of zoning provision in relation to a
development project.
a. The unusual shape of the site precludes designing a structure that would meet yard requirements.
b. The existing structure has been declared historically significant by the city and must be saved at any cost
c. Proposed deviation constitutes only a minor encroachment and will not alter the character of the neighborhood.
d. Both area of the site and proposed development are consistent with that of other lots in the immediate vicinity.
611. Performance zoning according to noise levels (e.g. 55 decibels for Land Category B, US Federal Highway Administration) would
benefit churches, schools, libraries, and residences while performance zoning according to air quality standards (i.e emissions)
would most affect which fixed locations?
a. Vulcanizing and auto repair shops
b. Large manufacturing establishments
c. Seaports and wharves
d. Rotunda and street intersections
612. Sea-level rise, coastal surges, coral reef damage, biodiversity decline, altered landscapes, increased frequency and severity) of
storms, floods, fires, and droughts; heat-related diseases, increased acidity, salinization of fresh water, failed harvests and
economic losses, are among the known disasters that arise from -
a. Tectonic and geologic movements partly caused by the push and pull of interplanetary or astrophysic forces
b. Natural variability of atmospheric, hydrospheric, and biogeochemical cycles which all have wayward patterns
c. Long-term disturbance of atmospheric and meteorological conditions caused by anthropogenic sources
d. Natural heating of the Earth as it is pulled closer to the Sun at the rate of 3 inches per completed orbit
613. According to scientific studies, the human body begins to be least productive at ambient temperature of 37°C and above, while
human productivity and mental capacity, in general, are known to be optimal at ___ ambient temperature.
a. 16°C
b. 21°C
c. 26°C
d. 32°C
614. This observed phenomenon refers to increase in global average annual mean temperature of the Earth's near- surface air and
oceans, of about ±0.92°C in the last 100 years, due to altered composition of the atmosphere, B which has been attributed to
sharp increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions contributed by humans.
a. Air Pollution
b. Ozone Depletion
c. Greenhouse Effect
d. Global Warming
615. Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most comprehensive perspective?
a. Environmental safeguards and natural protection
b. Regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social
c. protection
d. Safer location for settlements
e. Safer building construction
616. According RA 10121 of 2010, this is a management process that analyzes specific potential events of emerging situations that
might-threaten Society or the environment by establishing arrangements in advance to enable timely, effective, and
appropriate responses to such events and situations.
a. Risk Averse Planning
b. Crisis Management
c. Contingency Planning
d. Search, Rescue, Retrieval & Relief

617. Integrated into risk-sensitive land use planning process," which component of Risk Assessment" examines and audits an
institutions capabilities and resources to deal with natural hazards?
a. Hazard identification and evaluation (e.g. analysis of frequency, severity/magnitude, return period or probability of a
hazard of given severity)
b. Vulnerability analysis (e.g. probable loss of life, injury, building damage, economic impacts)
c. Potential damage assessment (e.g. monetary estimation of probable loses)
d. Contingency measures, emergency response. quick reaction mechanisms
618. Planning for flood control such as construction of major dams, levees, and embankments occurs at what level?
a. Zoning District
b. Town
c. Regional or Sub-regional
d. National
619. As a result of the Ondoy-Peping disaster in September-October 2009, what type of planning can possibly interlink the
"Marikina Watershed," the "Marikina Floodplain," and "Laguna de Bay" with their separate governing authorities, to jointly
undertake proactive mitigation and prevention measures?
a. Ecosystem-Based Planning
b. Integrated Area Development
c. Reconstruction Planning by Special National Public
d. Reconstruction Commission
e. Regional Planning by OENR's River Basin Control Office
620. Based on planning framework of Prof. Ernesto Serote, which of the following best describes infrastructure land use?
a. Construction for movement & flow of goods/people
b. Connective, circulatory, and communicative space
c. Network of man-made structures & edifices for people's comfort
d. Amalgam of steel, rock, concrete and glass to shape civilization
621. 'Infrastructure Planning' covers both replacement infrastructure "and new infrastructure for emerging areas." The following
are important considerations in infrastructure planning, but which is first and foremost of all considerations?
a. Capacity of infrastructure
b. Public safety and structural integrity
c. Level of service (LOS) and quality of service
d. Age of infrastructure
622. According to National Water Resources Board 2009, total dependable freshwater supply in the Philippines at 80% safe yield
is approximately 145990 MCM (million cubic meters) per year. What would be per capita water availability per year when the
total population reaches 100 million?
a. 14.59 m3 per capita
b. 145.9 m3 per capita
c. 1,459.9 m3 per capita
d. 14,599 m3 per capita
623. This document contains an LGUs proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in order of construction priority usually
for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates, anticipated means of financing, and commitment of public funds for
the purchase, construction, or replacement of physical assets of the community.
a. DOTC Plan
b. Annual Investment Plan
c. Civil Works Program
d. Capital Investment Program
624. According to MPWH Highway Planning Manual 1982, each 3.5 meter onedirectional lane in an expressway has an estimated
capacity of Passenger Car Units (PCU) per hour or roughly one vehicle every 2 seconds.
a. 1,000
b. 1,750
c. 2,000
d. 2,400
625. In transport planning, the manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, of all conveyances passing
each station during specified periods, supplemented by automatic traffic recorder counts extending over longer periods is
called
a. Travel cost method
b. Roadside survey
c. Windshield survey
d. Network inventory

626. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system and centers on
determining traffic flow pattern for a known set of inter-zonal movements so that the relationship between journey time and
flow on every link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
a. All-or-nothing AON assignment
b. Capacity restraint
c. Diversion curves
d. Shortest route method
627. Due to local ingress and egress movements, the following are 'chokepoints' along a transport artery, except one.
a. Market
b. Cockpit or stadium
c. Mall complex
d. Unloading zone
e. Major religious shrine
628. One of the following strategies to solve traffic congestion belongs more properly to specialist engineers rather than to
generalist planners?
a. Travel Demand Management
b. Transport System Management
c. Transport Infrastructure Improvement
d. Land Use Controls
629. The following core elements of Transport Policy can be examined more closely to address Climate Change, except one.
a. Motor fuels and energy sources
b. Role of mass transit versus private cars
c. Industrial design and ergonomics of automobile's accessory features
d. Relationship between land use and roads in creating chokepoints
630. What is the best use of a 'Gantt' chart?

a. Allocates time among various tasks
b. Shows how different tasks are related
c. Illustrates how one task must be completed before beginning another
d. Utilizes a table with alternatives in rows and impact factors in columns
631. The hierarchic logic in Log Frame or "Z.O.P.P." starts with broad goals which are subsequently broken down into purposes,
objectives, outputs, and activities.
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Lateral
d. Diagonal
632. Which essential elements of Log Frame or "Z.O.P.P" are used for plan monitoring and evaluation?
a. Targets and quotas
b. Indicators and means of verification
c. Milestones and signposts
d. Gauges and benchmarks
633. What does ex post facto evaluation seek to do?

a. Describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective
b. Identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking
c. Determine whether stated goals have been achieved
634. What does an impact evaluation measure that is not dearly described in terminal evaluational projects end?
a. Key outputs or outcomes of a project
b. Indicators, benchmarks, and milestones
c. Immediate results of an undertaking
d. Long-term consequences on people, society, and nature
635. Program Review and Evaluation Technique-Critical Path Method (PERTCPM) is a project management technique designed to
a. Logically connect program and project
b. Mitigate effects of failed program
c. Seek efficiency of time & resources in execution & implementation
d. Identify evacuation routes and remedy errors in disaster risk estimation

636. In a PERT-CPM, this is a starting node to two or more activities
a. Concurrent node
b. Merge node
c. Simultaneous nodes
d. Burst node
637. This theory propounded by James s. Coleman (1988), Robert Putnam (1993), Diane Camey (1998) and adopted by UNOP
(1997), looks at collective nonmarket assets of people such as trust, solidarity, norms of reciprocity, common purpose, equality
and other resources that are inherent in social relations and embedded in social networks.
a. Theory of Social Change
b. Social Mobilization
c. Theory of Social Learning
d. Theory of Social Capital
638. 'Ekistics' or the science of human settlements by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis was built upon the Concept of "basic needs," which
were later categorized by Johann Galtung into material survival & Security needs," "social or enabling needs," and non-material
human needs. Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?
a. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and Order,
b. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and transportation
c. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-actualization/self-realization
d. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
639. Which of the following -all true -about people’s participation in planning, implementation and management holds the same
meaning as the statement “people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of development?"
a. Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefits as people provide
data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-makers and implementers.
b. People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
c. Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control
over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.
d. Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by changes in policy.
640. World Bank describes this process as the expansion of assets and capabilities of poor people, as well as the expansion of their
freedom of choice and action, to participate in, negotiate with, influence, control, aria hold accountable institutions that affect
their lives
a. Self-Reliance
b. Needs Achievement
c. Entitlement
d. Empowerment
641. The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may not be followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Cooptation
c. Cooperation
d. Collaboration
642. The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different interest-groups or sectors for the purpose of
harmonizing, synchronizing, and consolidating inputs and outputs is called
a. Input-Output process
b. Mainstreaming
c. Coordination
d. Faci-pulation
643. It is the international collective term for inclusive, non-State actors whose aims are neither to generate profits nor to seek
governing power but to unite people around the broadest public interest based ethnical, cultural, religious scientific,
professional, or philanthropic considerations.
a. Cause-Oriented Groups
b. Charities
c. Social Movements
d. Civil Society
644. Ratio and Proportion. In 2008, the Philippines had 68 million cellphone units, of which 63 million were used. If 35% of
population in urban areas have buying power to own and use a cellphone while only 15% of population in rural areas can do
the same. what would be the approximate number of cellphone users in a rural barangay with 4000 people.
a. 80
b. 400
c. 600
d. 1,200

645. In a non-parametric test of correlation to determine if amount of fertilizer has anything to do with quantity of farm yield, the
following crops were computed to have their respective difference of ranks square(d2): rice 1; com = 0; wheat = 0; beans = 0;
mongo = 1. Given 'Spearman rho' formula "r=6Ed2/ n(n2-1)" what would be the 'r' value?
a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 0.9
d. 0.2
646. This is an intuitive method of demand analysis, needs assessment, or forecasting which gathers the independent views and
judgments of recognized experts in panel discussion; or pols and consolidates their expert opinions thru a survey.
a. Crystal Ball
b. Knowledge Management
c. Delphi Technique
d. Oracle Method
e. Authoritative Approach
647. This family of cross-disciplinary, cross-sectoral approaches in research engages communities to share their - indigenous
knowledge, analyze their local -conditions, in order to plan and to act on their own problems, through dialogic and
participatory processes such as cross-walking, transect, semi-structured interviews, community mapping, preference ranking,
seasonal and historical diagrams, and other tools of rapid rural appraisal (RRA).
a. Interactive Andragogy
b. Participatory Action Research
c. Virtual Learning Network
d. Social Anthropology
648. An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called
a. Holism
b. Gestalt
c. Sociology
d. Census
649. 'Baby Boomers' refers to those born in the period 1946-1964. Generation X refers to those born in the years 1965-1976, and
Generation "Y" or "Echo Boomers" refers to those born in the years
a. 1980-2000
b. 2001-2010
c. 1977-2000
d. 1975-2015
650. The main difference between the economic method of projecting population growth and the "mathematical methods"
(arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that
a. The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers reproduction and deaths.
b. The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates alternative scenarios.
c. The latter does not consider force majeure or recurrent natural disasters.
d. The latter is based upon the assumption of do nothing while the former ignores historic patterns.
651. Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro Manila occurred in .San Juan,
-0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay, 0.22%; Makati, 0.3%; Mandaluyong, 0.53% (versus highest rate at 2.12% in Taguig City).
Which of the following statements, all valid, most considers sustainable capacity and livability?
a. These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population.
b. These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits.
c. These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable range.
d. New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.
652. 17% of surveyed women wanted 2. 7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3.5 births per woman; 50% of
women don't want any more children; % of women wanted to space births but could not do so, and nearly 50% of women
between ages 15 and 24 have had premarital sex and have experienced unwanted pregnancies. Which rational conclusion is
supported by above data from ESCAP study1998?
a. Filipinos' fondness for babies is waning.
b. Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be stricter about people's sexual behavior
c. The women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino womenfolk
d. There is apparently an unmet need for contraception and family planning among Filipino women
e. Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control

653. The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to
a. Uplift reproductive health of women as basis of population management
b. Support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of children they want in accordance with
their cultural and religious beliefs
c. Encourage use of contraception among married couples
d. Enforce one-child rule for all couples
654. The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum Colonies and shantytowns. Which reason
is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of livelihood and employment opportunities in cities?
a. Proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services Sector, both formal and informal
b. Zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public lands, easements, and danger ones
c. Kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social solidarity and reciprocity
d. Alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals, and coasts
e. Ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and ditches.
f. Coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large concentrations of urban poor
655. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and hence not conducive to
'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?
a. Off-site resettlement
b. In-city relocation
c. On-site slum upgrading
d. Land readjustment
e. Medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
f. Collaborative models such as Gawad Kalinga and 'Habitat for Humanity'
656. The French urban theorist who first said that each individual, regardless of personal, occupational, or economic ability of
achievement, has a to live in the city in a rights-based approach to urban development ('Right to the City, 1968)
a. Henri Lefebvre
b. Manuel Castells
c. Jean Jacques Costeau
d. Andre Gunder Frank
657. In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and families progress toward
self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support, serving as a middle point between emergency shelter and
permanent housing for a time frame-of six months to two years.
a. Mass Housing
b. Transitional Housing
c. Public Row Housing
d. Cooperative Housing
658. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that 'developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop
an ares for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost, at the option
of developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible, so that both government and market can jointly provide
for the needs of lower socio-economic classes
a. Public Private Resources Exchange
b. Cooperative Housing Development
c. Balanced Housing Development
d. Corporate Social Responsibility
659. In RA 9397's amendment to expand socialized housing options of national local government under RA7279 UDHA, which
common model/program is being remedied for its uneven effectiveness in addressing homelessness
a. Transfer of home lot ownership in fee simple
b. Public rental housing
c. Usufruct or lease with option to purchase
d. Timeshare arrangements and communal shelter
660. According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters, and the minimum horizontal clearance
between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 1.50 m, what would be the horizontal length of each building's overhang
from exterior wall up to the edge of roof
a. 0.25m
b. 0.50m
c. 1.00m
d. 1.75m

661. RA 87 49 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and toxic fumes, but with a few exceptions.
What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, and contagious wastes?
a. Bureau of Fire Protection
b. Department of Interior and Local Government
c. Philippine Hospitals Association
d. Department of Health
662. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, What should be acquired individually by all food Workers, processors, preparers,
vendors, servers in all food establishments, whether formal or informal businesses?
a. Lung -ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital
b. Health Clearance from local health Office
c. Food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
d. face mask and hairnet from Department of Health
663. The second law of thermodynamics states that no man-made or natural process operates with 100% efficiency and therefore,
waste is inherent in all nature, and waste will always be generated.
a. Thermal Wasting
b. Atrophy
c. Entropy
d. Dissipation
664. Also called 'cradle to grave' approach, this refers to the entire process of investigating and valuing the environmental impacts
of a given product or service, in particular, raw materials production, manufacture, distribution, use and disposal as well as
intervening transportation steps necessitated or caused by the product's existence, in order to identify the options least
burdensome to the natural environment.
a. Carbon Footprinting
b. Zero Waste Management
c. Industrial Design
d. Product Life Cycle Assessment
665. Under International Standards Organization ISO 14001 (1996) for business organizations, the principle that no money should
be lent or extended to any firm that has not proven itself to be environmentally responsible, is contained in which goal of a
company's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System?
a. To reduce overall costs
b. To attract more ethical investment
c. To gain or retain market share via a green corporate image
d. To reduce prosecution risks and insurance risks
666. Of the following forms of evidence that Indigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land, which category of evidence needs
substantial assistance from a planner with extensive background in anthropology?
a. Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch maps;
b. Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water systems, orchards, farms, monuments, houses
and other old structures, or pictures thereof;
c. Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
d. Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath; written records of customs
and traditions
e. Burial grounds or pictures thereof religious sites and for artifacts in the area
667. Conventional 'Euclidean' or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons. Which reason comes from the
feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?
a. Rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs and discourages walking.
Social interaction, and neighborly behavior favorable to local community-building
b. Self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie, lessen psychological distress caused by
movement to/from work or school, increase quality family time, and prevent other social problems.
c. Exclusionary -.land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other needs are not available
d. Increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMl) correlates with traffic jams, accidents, labor productivity losses, greater
greenhouse gas emissions that aggravate air pollution, and huge external economic costs borne by society in general
e. Mothers with infants and young children are zoned of production as jobs in the CBD or in factory district are too far
from home to enable women to successfully carry out both domestic duties and formal employment
668. Of the following central features of Free Market as described by classical economics, which one has not been proved to be
universally true in open capitalist societies?
a. Law of Supply and Demand
b. Profit Motive
c. Broad Range of Consumer Choices Through Diversified Production
d. Perfect Competition

669. This refers to any novel or improved product, process, gadget, or idea that adds utility to a previous or existing good or service
in the market beyond the usual expectations of consumers and often in response to a felt demand in society.
a. Ingenuity
b. Invention
c. Innovation
d. Improvisation
e. High tech gadgetry
670. In the 21st century, many economically-poor but naturally-endowed countries have focused on the "Pleasure Economy" or
the "Experience Economy" through such flagship programs as ecotourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism, adventure &
sports tourism, arts, 'high-touch' activities, high fashion design or haute couture, etc which are together called
a. Tertiary services sector
b. Quaternary services sector
c. Quinary services sector
d. Recreational and visitorial services sector
671. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ
areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized
b. 20% of total arable land in any LGU
c. 10 %of total cultivable land in any city and independent
d. chartered cities
e. 25% of total alienable and disposable land
672. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and first to third
class municipalities is limited to _ of farm land.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
673. Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which criterion is within the control of the
investor or project proponent, in terms of production activity, design, selection and mobilization of men, money materials, and
machines?
a. The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the municipality or city, as contained
in their approved land use plan
b. The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the community;
c. Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion;
d. The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate alternative livelihood
opportunities for the affected community.
674. This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships and the
extent of importing/exporting among industries within an economy whether focal, regional, or national.
a. Value added chain
b. Input/output model
c. Discounted cash flow tables
d. Inter-area analysis
675. Which part of the feasibility study aims to determine a projects desirability in terms of its net contribution to the overall
welfare of the locality, region, or country as a whole?
a. Sensitivity analysis
b. Discriminant analysis
c. Stakeholder or distributive analysis
d. Economic analysis
676. Related to time value of money (v) this refers to the rate used to adjust the future streams of costs and benefits U into their
present value, taking into account time preference, opportunity cost of capital, externalities from currency and exchange, risk,
and uncertainty.
a. Inflation rate
b. Discount rate
c. Investment rate
d. Depreciation rate

677. Also called 'subscription money,' this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has serious intentions
about the transaction.
a. Mobilization fund
b. Subornment
c. Marked money
d. Earnest money
e. Grease money
678. This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic charges against the capital
account.
a. Down payment
b. Reservation
c. Amortization
d. Equity
e. Surcharge
f. Pay-off
679. Which of the following describes the current political-administrative setup of the Philippine government?
a. Federal, presidential, bicameral legislature, two-party system
b. Federal, parliamentary, meritocracy, regional party system
c. Unitary, presidential, bicameral legislature, multi-party system
d. Unitary, presidential, unicameral legislature, party-list system for 11 basic sectors
680. In a parliamentary system, the legislature normally appoints some of its members as heads of line ministries (Cabinet) and
exacts accountability through of a vote of confidence or non-confidence. By requiring ministers to report periodically to
Parliament, the check-and-balance mechanism essential to democracy is operationalized.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true, partially false
d. Totally irrelevant to Philippine governance
681. What do you call the head of the Commission on Audit?

a. Honorable Commissioner
b. Constitutional Commissioner
c. Chairperson
d. Director-General
682. Which constitutional agency handles the implementation of direct citizen powers (plebiscite, recall, or local initiative?
a. Commission on Human Rights
b. Commission on Elections
c. Tanodbayan and Sandiganbayan
d. Ombudsman
683. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?
a. Cosmic Law of Kanna
b. Republic Acts
c. Constitution
d. 2009 Word Summit in Copenhagen
684. One of the four Great Powers of the State, this concept refer to its authority to regulate private actions.to promote public
health, public safety, public morals, and general welfare of all its citizens.
a. Power of Persuasion
b. Eminent Domain
c. Police Power
d. Escheat
e. Estoppel
f. Taxation
685. A democratic state performs the following core functions in a pluralistic society, except one.
a. Regulate and facilitate the operations of the Market
b. Hire the poorest citizens as employer of last resort
c. Provide public services to all
d. Arbitrate contending social groups

686. 1987 Philippine Constitution Article XIII Sec. 1defines it as "preferential treatment for the least advantaged groups and areas"
through the "enactment of measures that protect and enhance the right of all the people to human dignity, reduce social,
economic, and political inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by equitably diffusing wealth and political power..."
a. Distributive justice
b. Commutative justice
c. Transitive justice
d. Social justice
687. 1987Constitution Art. XII Sec2. "All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal, petroleum, and other mineral oils, all
forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural resources" are owned by the
State. With the exception of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be alienated.
a. Dominion and Supremacy'
b. 'Regalian Doctrine'
c. 'Res Judicata'
d. 'Parens Patriae'
688. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, agricultural land is synonymous with
a. Prime cropland
b. Arable and cultivable
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Irrigated and irrigable
689. As defined by PD1517 IRR Sec2p, this refers to the overall right of the State to classify, guide, and regulate the acquisition, use,
and disposition of land in the interest of public welfare"
a. Land classification
b. Land management
c. Land registration
d. Land consolidation
690. Which of the following Roman-French and British legal concepts refers to ones right to inherit real property?
a. Fee simple
b. Freetail
c. Freehold
d. Leasehold
e. Ultra vires
f. Chattel
691. A written legal document used to transfer property from one private person to another, is known as
a. Transfer Certificate Title
b. CLOA
c. Deed
d. Special Power of Attorney
e. Fiat
692. Philippine Constitution Article XII sec 3 classifies land into four specific categories, namely;
a. Public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
b. Forestland ,agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks
c. land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, and land for infrastructure
d. Arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
693. In the absence of a national land use code from the Congress of the Philippines since 1987,PD 1152 Title III Sections 22 to 24
Serves as the
a. National Land Use Framework
b. National Land Use Scheme
c. National Land Use Decree
d. National Land Use Statute
694. 768. According to President Bill Clinton's Executive Order 12898 (1994), this refers to the principle that all people - regardless
of skin color, national origin education, income level, or creed - are able to enjoy an equal level of environmental protection,
fair treatment, _and meaningful involvement with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of
environmental laws, regulations and policies..
a. "Environmental Justice"
b. "Bio-geographic Equity"
c. "Affirmative Action"
d. "Preferential Option for the Poor"

695. In international environmental law the principle that the burden of proof in demonstrating that a particular technology,
practice or product is dean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public and that the producer must-answer
or any environmental damage such technology has created" is called
a. Polluter Pays Principle
b. Extended Producer Responsibility
c. Principle of Externalities
d. Precautionary Principle
696. In international environmental law, it refers to "ones action or lack thereof amounting to breach of duty to care" that results
in material damage to others; duty to care is one's legal obligation to avoid causing physical harm which arises where harm is
foreseeable if due care is not taken.
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Omission
d. Lapse of judgment
697. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure tor Environmental Cases 2010, this principle states that when human
activities may lead to threats of serious and irreversible damage to the environment that is scientifically plausible but
uncertain, actions shall be taken to avoid or diminish that threat.
a. Precautionary principle
b. Principle of proactive restraint
c. Restraining order
d. Preventive suspension
698. This refers to an activity such as storing of manure, cleaning of guns, use of lead, arsenic, mercury, phosphorous, and the like,
which can injure health, endanger safety, offend the Senses, produce inconvenience and discomfort to the public, cause
damage to land by means of waterborne or airborne emissions - all interfering unreasonably with the use and enjoyment by
an owner of his/her rights to land.
a. Nuisance
b. Public annoyance
c. Noxious environment
d. Filth
699. The Medium Term Philippine Development Plan, 2004-2010, is often summarized as Ten-Point Agenda BEAT THE ODDS, by
former Sec. Romulo Neri. Which of the following national goals has the least evident spatial focus?
a. Closure of Wounds from EDSA 1;2, and 3
b. Education for all
c. Decentralization of development and decongestion of Metro Manila
d. Development of Clark and Subic Freeport as major logistics center in South East Asia
e. Power supply and water supply in all barangays throughout the country
700. Which of the following is not a declared goal of physical planning under MTPDP 2004-2010 chapter 3 on ENR?
a. Provide easier access to markets at home and abroad to alleviate poverty in the countryside; thus enhancing peace and
order in isolated conflict-affected regions through efficient transport and trade;
b. Ensure integrity of land titling system in order to promote development of a mortgage market for lands, prevent illegal
titling, by strengthening registration and monitoring of land titles through digitization of land records
c. Accelerate distribution/titling of 1.1 million hectares of alienable and disposable public land below 18% slope by
completing survey on 3.8 million hectares in 361 cities/towns
d. Complete land classification by December 201o by validating and verifying forestland boundaries covering a total of
78,450 kms within 79 provinces.
701. Under PD 933, Executive Order 90, and EO 648, this is the independent agency that implements the laws, policies, rules, and
regulations of government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource.
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. National Land Use Committee
c. Land Management Bureau
d. Land Registration Authority
702. Which function of the agency referred to in immediately-preceding question is considered 'quasi-judicial' or 'adjudicative'?
a. Act as appellate body in case of conflicting decisions and actions arising from the exercise of the physical planning
functions of the regional and/or local planning agencies.
b. Require all persons, corporations or other entities to furnish it with such physical and operational plans, maps and
other relevant information as it may need to discharge its duties

c. Formulate a multi-year integrated national plan on human settlements and identify and develop the spatial
implications and components of national and regional development plans, policies and programs
d. Conduct public hearings on all human settlements plans for submission to NEDA and on all other plans prepared by it
703. In the Philippines, this is historically the most commonly used tool of LGUs to implement land use plans
a. Zoning
b. Capital investment program
c. Seizure and closure
d. Legal expropriation
704. In the absence of a Department of Housing, which public official chairs the governing boards of government agencies that have
direct operational functions related Land Use, Urban Planning, and Mass Shelter?
a. Chairperson of HUDCC
b. Secretary of Socio-Economic Planning
c. Chairperson of Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
d. Secretary of Department of Environment and Natural Resources
705. Which of the following tends to have the least public accountability at the local level?
a. National Housing Authority
b. Fisheries & Aquaculture Resources Management Council
c. DILG - Local Government Operations Officer
d. Peace and Order Council
706. What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their local plans?
a. Zoning and reg1,.1lation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private investment
b. Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
c. Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
d. Clearance, non-conformance ,variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
707. If a Master plan such as NFPP and RPPF has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a City/Town land use plan may adopt
either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt0693) as suggested by Professor Ernesto Serote or the shorter timeframe
of ______ to cover maximum three terms of locally elected officials.
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 25 years
708. If a medium-term National Development Plan has a timeframe of 6 years, what would be the sensible timeframe of a multi-
sectoral Regional Development Plan in order to be compatible with the National Development Plan?
a. 12 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 20 years
709. Which is not a component of the multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan?

a. Regional Land Use Code
b. Environmental Protection, Conservation, and Management
c. Regional Infrastructure Development Plan
d. Regional Economic Production (agriculture, industry, services)
e. Regional Settlements Plan
710. What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describes and makes provisions for?
a. Provincial, city/municipal, barangay
b. Local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
c. Macro, meso, mela, and micro
d. National, regional, district, city/town, village
711. Which one describes the types of positions and employment in a Local Government Unit as per RA 7160 LGC?
a. Elective office, appointive office, rank and file {career Service and temporary, casual employment)
b. Executive, legislative, judiciary, protective (police)
c. Top management, middle management, Supervisorial ,clerical, field position, menial utility boy
d. Policy-makers, coterminous political appointees, technical specialists, bureaucratic employees

712. What is the role of Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the planning process?
a. Formulation of plans
b. Approval of plans of highly urbanized cities
c. Review of ordinances and resolutions approving municipal development plans
d. Approval of residential subdivision projects
713. Which is not a goal of the Provincial Physical Framework Plan?

a. Provide basis for adjudicating conflicts arising from the implementation of land use plans and development projects
that straddle the boundaries of two or more municipalities
b. Reconcile and rationalize land use proposals of component territories in relation to higher level framework plans
c. Guide government agencies and private developers on proper location of large scale infrastructure projects as well as
other
d. sectoral plans and activities that have to do with land, environment, and natural resources
e. Enhance the integration of the national economy through the balanced distribution of population, natural resources,
and economic activities
714. Which statement true about Executive Legislative Agenda ?

a. It highlights the common vision and reconciled priorities of elected officials for their -year term of office
b. It is a harmonized enumeration of LGU ordinances that stipulate criminal penalties and civil sanctions .
c. it is an integrated holistic plan that can serve as physical framework in the absence of CLUP
d. It is a political compromise between quarreling executive and legislative officials from rival parties
715. What percentage of composition of Local Development Councils is allocated to NGOs POs by RA 7160?
a. 25%
b. 35%
c. 40%
d. 20%
716. Which statement is false?

a. RLUC approves CLUPs of autonomous regions
b. NLUC prepares national physical framework .
c. HLURB approves EEEEs of all provinces and-CLUPs of Metro Manila cities and municipalities.
d. PLUC approves CLUPs of component cities and municipalities
717. Which of the following is not a specific responsibility of the Provincial Government?
a. Enforcement of uniform urban design for all component municipalities
b. Adjudication of conflicts which arise from the implementation of local zoning ordinances
c. preparation of development programs such as reforestation, Small-scale mining, fisheries development
d. Conservation of public lands through the Provincial Physical Framework Plan
718. According to RA7160 Sec.451, a province should have a population of at least 250,000 and minimum territory of?
a. 2000 sq.km
b. 2500 sq.km
c. 1500 sq.km
d. 1000 sq.km
719. According to RA 7160 Sec. 441, a municipality should have a population of at least 25,000, income of at least 2.5 million based
on 1991 constant prices, and a minimum territory of?
a. 50 sq.km
b. 100 sq.km
c. 150 sq.km
d. 200 sq.km
720. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec 16, the overall goals of an LGU need to be compatible with:
a. General Welfare clause
b. Sustainable Development
c. Corporate Nature & Goals
d. Declaration of Policies
721. In preparing LGU plans of all kinds, a multi-disciplinary committee composed of local experts with specialized knowledge of
various sectors, assists the overall planning body in interpreting wide-ranging, cross-sectoral issues.
a. Technical Working Group
b. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
c. One-Stop Action Center
d. Independent Study Group

722. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 236, "a province, city, or a municipality in Metropolitan Manila Area, may levy
an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceeding of the assessed value of the property which shall be in addition to the
basic real property tax:"
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 8%
d. 10%
723. Municipalities as a group are entitled to 34% of total Internal Revenue Allotment, distributed based on formula adoptedsince
3rd ear of RA 7160 implementation- 60% population, 40% land area The practical implication of this scheme is that -
a. Urbanization in already-populous towns is reinforced with bigger IRA allotments.
b. There is ambivalent signal for towns to control population growth and succeed in family planning.
c. The allocation does not consider ' actual need' such as poverty incidence or median family income.
d. All of the above
724. Because the value of real property rises in direct relation to perceived progress, RA 7160 Sec.235 allows LGUs to capture part
of private gains from "value added" by regular public spending on roads, infrastructure, and utilities by institutionalizing a
special levy at one percent (1%) of assessed value of real property which revenues are then funneled to the local treasury as
a. Special Education Fund
b. Development Fund
c. General Fund
d. Real Property Cost Recovery
725. Under RA 7160 Sec.271, how much is the share of each barangay from the total proceeds of Real Property Tax?
a. 35% for barangays in provinces, and 25% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
b. 30% for barangays in provinces, and 20% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
c. 20% for barangays in provinces, and 10% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
d. 25% for barangays in provinces, and 15% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
726. Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the village level?
a. Barangay Development Council
b. Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners
c. Associations
d. Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
e. Sangguniang Barangay
• Reference: RA 7160 Sec. 107b

• Barangay Development Council is composed of members of Sangguniang Barangay, Representative of
Congressman, Representative or NGOs operating in the Barangay not less than 1/4 of the members of the
Council.
727. This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector in infrastructure development
and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT,BOO, and the like.
a. Public-Private Partnership
b. State & Non-State Collaboration
c. Detente
d. Rapprochement
e. GO NGO Cooptation
728. As in the case of the ZTE National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national level
exceeds the value of PhP 300M,the approving government body is
a. NEDA Board
b. Investment Coordination Committee
c. Council of state
d. Cabinet of the President
729. The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result
from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is called
a. Toxic Prevention Protocol
b. Environmental Risk Assessment
c. Strategic Environmental Assessment
d. Chemical Containment and Control

730. The quantity of chemicals or wastes that could be dumped into the environment without causing damage of its uses or
dislocation of living organisms, is known as
a. Containment capacity
b. Pollution permit
c. Assimilative capacity
d. Sinking capacity
731. This is the technical planning term for abandoned, idle, or underused industrial and commercial facilities, usually vacant and
obsolete, where expansion or redevelopment is complicated by real or perceived environmental contamination.
a. Greenfield
b. Grayfield
c. Minefield
d. Brownfield
732. Which category of industries tends to be generally non-pollutive and nonhazardous?

a. Cyber-spatial
b. Heavy
c. Medium
d. Light
e. Transient and fleeting
733. The following projects, except one, need not submit Project Description nor Environmental Impact Statement but need only
to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or barangay.
a. Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
b. Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
c. Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
d. Municipal waterworks system
734. These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a simple Project Description
a. Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo , and pares in historic lntramuros, Manila
b. Home-based aquaculture using metal tanks and concrete ponds
c. Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers'cooperative
d. An urban grocery store of around 2500 sq.m. total area
• as per PD2146, B. Environmental Critical Areas, No. 2 & 4.

• Keyword = "Historic"
735. Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
a. High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for golf course
b. Tree planting on urban parks by 6000 students
c. Rain-fed fanning of around 50 hectares
d. Hydrophonic and aeroponic fanning inside greenhouse tents and cages
736. Why is a mass housing project in the watershed area of La Mesa Reservoir Dam unsound and environmentally dangerous?
a. All of the choices
b. Because trees to capture precipitation, not housing and impervious structures, are the priority in a catchment reserve
c. because domestic solid wastes and leachates from septic tanks can contaminate water supply for 12 million people
d. Because a declared watershed is a protected area and hence not alienable and disposable
737. Which project in a declared tribal land with CADT title does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact Assessment?
a. Sericulture & vermicomposting
b. National highway
c. Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
d. Mining
738. Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary Landfill for any city
or urban LGU?
a. About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
b. Around 20 kilometers from the city
c. About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
d. Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
739. According to RA 9003,which three environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be most concerned about?
a. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, water shed area
b. Flora, fauna, and biota
c. Landscapes, seascapes ,and viewscapes
d. Bionetwork, germplasm,and wildlife habitats

740. According to RA 9003, sorting or segregation of 'solid wastes' into biodegradable and non-biodegradable should be done
a. At source
b. At the factory level
c. At the end of production/consumption
d. At the option of family concerned
741. The following elements define planning experience" according to AICP. Which element most requires the planner to have
adequate skills in effective communication, social marketing, negotiation, and conflict management?
a. "Influencing public decision-making in the public interest"
b. "Employing an appropriately comprehensive point of view"
c. "Applying a planning process appropriate to the situation."
d. "Involving a professional level of responsibility and resourcefulness."
742. An architect is normally in charge of vertical or upward development, while a civil engineer normally handles
a. Horizontal and lateral construction
b. Mining
c. Diagonal oblique development
d. Sub-surface structures
743. Which of the following is not a challenge proper to a professional environmental planner?
a. He/she has to bridge the huge gap between the arts and the sciences.
b. He/she produces both diagnosis and prognosis of social problems; but his/her prescription is tempered by what is
feasible to government and what is acceptable to the public
c. He/she has to reconcile long term vision with short-term political exigencies and financial considerations
d. He/she has to be a generalist most of the time and a specialist at certain times;
744. According to American Planning Association, basic ethics for planners includes all but one of following principles:
a. Never be the last one in or the first one out.
b. Neither seek nor offer favors
c. Ensure full disclosure at public hearings
d. Avoid conflict of interest
745. As head city planner, you recommend an amendment to a Sanggunian ordinance to provide specific urban design guidelines
on form zoning building exteriors and streetscapes. You should emphasize in your report that this will
a. Provide legal basis for enforcing design guidelines
b. Allow community to enforce Transfer of Development Rights
c. Assure present quality of life will be preserved
d. Discourage big-box mall retailers from locating in town.
746. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs the recreational Country Club
and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool that would utilize water from a public spring. What is
the most rational action for you to do?
a. Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the
b. application
c. Just keep quiet about it
d. File for divorce.
e. Ask for job transfer or reassignment
747. The CPDC office has been criticized for poor client service. There have been a number of complaints from the public that
information is difficult to obtain over the counter, and that it takes too long to get zoning, general plan, and land ownership
information. Which of the following would be the best action for the CPDO Head to take?
a. Educate the planning staff that they have a special obligation to serve the public and they should work toward being
more responsive to public inquiries.
b. Place a complaint box on the counter and review the contents of the box twice a month
c. Ask the staff to work longer on volunteer time, so that at least 3 hours per day are spent purely on requests from the
public.
d. Allow the public to directly use the offices computer units so that the requesting parties can get the information
themselves without bothering the staff.
748. In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting Company, the following ethical principles apply except one.
a. A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.
b. A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
c. A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the planners professional fitness
d. A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.

749. Under RA 9184 Government .Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of government
procurement of goods and services?
a. Competitive bidding
b. Single source procurement or direct contracting
c. Negotiated procurement
d. Selective bidding or limited source bidding
750. In emergency cases such as typhoon. or-earthquake damage-where the need for. supplies and services is exceptionally urgent
or absolutely indispensable and in order to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency
purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided
a. Public safety and vita! public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are rescinded,
abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
b. It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three preselected suppliers
kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track record
c. Amount is within the range of 50,000-250000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved by the
Government
d. Procurement Policy Board
e. Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government agency under L01755 and EO 359
f. All of the above
751. Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question which of the following should not chair the Bids and Awards
Committee?
a. Audio-Visual Technician
b. Chief of Administrative Division
c. Head of Engineering Section
d. Planning Officer V
752. The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a guarantee of good faith on his/her part to
execute the contracted work in accordance with the terms of the approved contract.
a. Performance Bond
b. Retention or Retained Earnings
c. Surety Bond
d. Completion Guarantee
e. Insurance
f. Collateral
753. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec, government may hire Consulting Services for the following
functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental planners generally
least prepared?
a. Construction supervision;
b. Management-related services and technical.
c. Design; Services
d. Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
e. Advisory and review services
754. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUC) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-ZO for an approved budget of contract
(ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got
89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company 0, 42 points as the last company missed out on
the required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts
were revealed as follows: Company A= 6.8 million; Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5
million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or "lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive
the Notice of Award of Contract from the head of agency.
a. Company C
b. Company B
c. Company D
d. Company A
• RA9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002 Art.10 Sec. 34.

• Interpretation: 6 Million Contract
• Company A =89 pts (Highest Rated Bid=OK)/6.8M (Bid exceed=DQ); Company B= 64 pts/6.2M (Bid
exceed=DQ); Company C= 78pts(Rate OK)/5.9M (Bid OK); Company D= 42 pts (requirement not met=DQ)/
4.2 M (Lowest Calculated Bid=OK)
• Therefore, Project to be awarded to Company C for not having DQs.
755. As a planner, you schedule a series of public meetings and workshops. Why should you evaluate such open participation
events?
a. To improve future events
b. To demonstrate that this event worked better than previous such events
c. To establish a record of the event
d. To estimate level of attendance
756. Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time" for the right people
a. John Ratcliffe
b. Lewis Keeble
c. Brian Mcloughlin
d. Alan Wilson
757. A Under the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, which line agency' has the departmental battle cry ''The
Right Project at the Right Cost with the Right Quality"?
a. DOTC
b. DOT
c. DPWH
d. DENR
e. DOH
758. Urban' is distinguished from 'rural' by means of

a. Population size
b. Population density
c. Cultural heterogeneity
d. Multiple Economic Functions
e. Level of Administration
f. All of the Above
759. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the Philippines is
a. Larger than the total rural population
b. Plateauing at a steady growth rate
c. Stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population
d. Fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks
760. Which is not a key feature of professional planning process?

a. Algorithmic
b. Proactive
c. Problem-solving
d. Futuristic
761. According to the American Institute of Certified Planners, four of the following define environmental planning practice, except
one?
a. Post-modern
b. Planning process
c. Professional level .
d. Comprehensive
e. Public interest
762. In Francis Stuart Chapins Venn's diagrams (1965), land use is shaped by a confluence of factors emanating from Economy,
Nature, and Society, which are profit making values, public interest values, and socially rooted values. Environmental services"
or the functions of environmental elements to ensure livable Conditions for humankind fall under
a. 'public interest values'
b. 'spiritual & otherworldly value’
c. 'socially-rooted values'
d. ‘profit-making values’
e. None of the above
763. In Third World countries where majority of people have low purchasing power, the biggest pressure to alter current land use
comes from
a. Population growth
b. Transport system. layout
c. Natural hazards
d. GDP growth
e. Popularity of automobile

764. Environmental issues and dilemmas are described as follows, except
a. 'unrelated'
b. ‘complex'
c. 'non-linear'
d. 'uncertain'
e. 'interconnected'
765. The use of technology often alters the equilibrium in ecosystems. With which statement would most ecologists agree on?
a. Humans should use their knowledge of Nature to consider the needs of future generations of all species
b. Humans should develop new technology to expand the influence of humans on natural communities
c. Humans should control every aspect of environment so that damage due to technology will be spread evenly
d. Humans should develop the uninhabited parts of Earth for population expansion.
766. 863. The concept of strong sustainability'' recognizes that the fundamental limits on human endeavor are essentially
a. Ecological
b. Economic
c. extra-terrestrial
d. So technological
767. Which is the best scientific explanation for the phenomenon of Territoriality" in Nature, particularly among animals?
a. Insures propagation of the species by controlling density
b. Provides a frame in which things are done - places to eat, learn, play, or hide
c. coordinates individual activities and clusters individuals in groups
d. Separates one species from another so that disease and disaster are not spread
768. ''There is no to be thorough & comprehensive. You can work even with inadequate data for only the short-term is·.-· workable.
Do not aim for 'the best' if what is feasible is good enough. Progress is pursued bit by bit, piece by piece; why seek an
overarching theory, framework or masterplan? A 'succession of limited comparisons' can show the way."
a. Incremental planning
b. Communicative Planning
c. Allocative Planning
d. Transactive Planning
769. The concepts of input - throughput - output - feedback" comes from what school of planning?
b. Incremental Planning
c. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
d. Systems Theory of Planning separates one species from another so that disease and disaster are not spread
e. DLF Planning
770. Which type of planning does not follow the cycle of "plan –do-check - act"?
b. Rational-Comprehensive Planning
c. Policy Planning
d. Strategic Planning
e. DLF planning
771. He repaired the walled and moated city of Ferrara in Emilia-Romagna, Italy (1484), one of UNESCO's world heritage site, and
became regarded as one of the earliest urban designers of the Renaissance period.
a. Biagio Rossetti
b. Leone Battista Alberti
c. Domenico Fontana
d. Eugene Henard
e. Luciano Pavarotti
772. During the period called Rationalism, Enlightenment. and Scientific Revolution, Nicolaus Copernicus, Galileo Galilei, Sir Isaac
Newton, and Rene Descartes examined natural laws governing the universe by -
a. Observation and experimentation observation and experimentation
b. relying on ideas of medieval thinkers
c. Acceptance of traditional teaching authority or magisterium of the Church
d. Self-expression & liberation of ones innermost feelings and emotions

773. He is often quoted for the line, a house is a machine for living in" -
a. Le Corbusier
b. Robert Venturi
c. Frank Lloyd Wright
d. Buckminster Fuller
774. What do you call the doctrine or school of thought that says that a building cannot be beautiful unless it answers its functions
in the most simple and direct way - and that, if a building answers its functions in the most simple and direct way, then it will
automatically be beautiful?
a. Functionalism
b. Symbolic lnteractionism
c. Modernist Cubism
d. Formalism
775. A Unity disguised as chaos - complexity and contradiction are what make works of art both exciting and profound (1966)?
a. Robert Venturi
b. Philip Johnson
c. Michael Graves
d. Kenzo Tange
776. “A Design as if you were a child” is a quotation attributed to -

a. Michael Graves
b. Alvar Aalto
c. Louis Khan
d. Renzo Piano
e. Mies van der Rohe
777. This is a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, legally recorded as a single piece, and subject to single owners
a. Parcel
b. Tract
c. Partition
d. Plot
e. Plat
778. This legal concept means holding a property by reference to a superior entity, such as the State
a. Tenure
b. Management
c. Trust
d. Concession
e. Franchise
779. According to America' founding fathers and writers of the 1787 US Constitution, "property rights" are a bundle of sticks with
several constituent rights, namely:
a. Right to use, right to determine disposition, right of access, and right to bar access
b. Right to use, right to reuse, right to misuse, right to abuse
c. Right to life, liberty, property, privacy, and happiness
d. Divine right, natural right, customary right, statutory right
780. As head of forestry and agriculture under four US presidents from 1898-1910, he was the earliest to define conservation with
the same meaning as today's ·sustainable development? · ...
a. Gifford Pinchot
b. John Muir
c. Francis Burton Harrison
d. George Perkins Marsh
781. Alfred Bettman prepared the first comprehensive plan of Cincinnati and, as president of ASPO, advocated before the US
Supreme Court the first comprehensive zoning code in America drafted by Edward M. Bassett for the local government of
a. New York City
b. Ohio
c. Los Angeles
d. Miami

782. The first US city to carry out in 1951 an urban design equivalent to transit-oriented development before the latter's formal
conceptualization in 1993.
a. New York
b. Los Angeles
c. Houston
d. Miami
783. Of McGee's urban land use models that deviate from the Chicago school of human ecology, which statement is true?
a. The affluent classes in Latin American cities tend to live near the center while the poor live on the edges.
b. Outside the historic port zone, Southeast Asian cities are undifferentiated - not zoned at all
c. Western European cities are actually small cores of large clusters of suburbia.
d. Islamic cities emphasize large public areas because private space is less important to Muslims.
784. 'Edge Cities' have been described as tenements of the "information Age" because they have
a. Many high-density condominium developments designed for people Working in nearby .Office towers
b. Sprung up in gray fields, brownfields, and abandoned industrial or Commercial sites
c. Populations made up mostly of recent immigrants
d. Been built around clusters of dilapidated townhouses and ghettoes in the edges of the cities
785. According to Edward Soja of UCLA (2000), 'carceral cities' in post-industrial era refers to fortress-like enclosures or
settlements which are seemingly obsessed about their Security and their privatopia, which can be observed in
a. Gated subdivisions
b. Cybercities
c. SkyScrapers
d. Medium-Security Correctional
e. Gangbased Communities
786. The 'network hypothes' is attributed to neo-marxists Manuel Castells, AJ Scott, and Lojkine maintains that
a. All of the choices
b. planning of major transport routes do not prioritize access of
c. poor communities, thus increasing their marginalization
d. Social and economic connection, more than physical location, determines job opportunities.
e. Business and government conspire to segregate the poor.
787. A 21st century innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 20% additional "floor space incentive" if it
can create and maintain a large open space around it, is called
a. Privately-Owned Public Spaces
b. Landscape Concordat
c. Public-Private Partnership
d. Quid Pro Quo
788. A 21st century incentive in New York City wherein a private building can earn 33% additional "floor space" if it can allocate
20% of its dwelling units to low-income households, is called
a. Inclusionary Housing'
b. 'Preferential Housing'
c. 'Philantrophic Shelter'
d. 'Habitat for Humanity'
789. What key words are not part of "Plan NYC 2030" vision of New York. City, the financial capital of the World?
a. 'business-oriented'
b. 'bottom-up'
c. 'street-level'
d. 'pedestrian-oriented'
e. 'neighborhood-based
f. 'human scale'
790. The Green Revolution refers to the

a. Propagation of hybrid crops and scientifically-modified high yielding varieties (HYVs) to increase farm harvest
b. Agricultural progress of East Asian tiger economies like Korea and Taiwan which was their springboard to NIChood
c. Popularization of greenways, greenfields and garden cities by the Parks and Conservation Movement
d. Success of Green Parties and Greenpeace activists in the sphere of electoral politic

791. High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from other parts of the country, thus favoring
them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar effect: increased demand in expanding centers spurs additional
investments, which in tum will increase incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments..."
a. Cumulative Causation
b. Positive Reinforcement
c. Economic Modernization
d. Circuits of Capital
792. According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the "development of external economies for an industry's products"
while 'backward linkage' refers to
a. Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
b. Attraction of capita! and ent1prises to exploit expanding demands
c. Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside
d. None of the choices
793. 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing, grocery, catering, recreation, etc while
services that cut across different types of firms such as security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc are called ·
a. Diagonal
b. financial
c. Logistical
d. interlocal
e. Transborder
f. Messengerial
794. Which type of special growth zone is not under the direct jurisdiction of either DTI Board of Investments or PEZA? ·
a. University science & techno hub
b. industrial ecozone
c. IT ecozone
d. Tourism ecozone
e. Retirement haven
795. The first county outside Europe to establish an export-oriented special economic zone was ·
a. India
b. Singapore
c. Brazil
d. South Korea
e. Puerto Rico
796. In 2010, this country is known as "call center capital of the world," particularly in voice services, a significant segment of
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) industry
a. Philippines
b. Singapore
c. Brazil
d. South Korea
e. Puerto Rico
797. The following are major contributions of American colonial government to Philippine development, except one
a. Railways
b. Public school system
c. Zoning
d. Public health & sanitation333
e. Democratic elections
798. Introduced the concepts of 'historicism' and 'collective memory' to urban design, and proposed a 'collage metaphor' to
understand the mixture of new and older forms within the same urban space
a. Aldo Rossi- architecture of the city
b. Charles Enfant
c. Leonardo Batiste
d. Charles Dickens
799. Cities have to learn that preserving history makes a lot more sense than starting from zero
a. Aldo Rossi- architecture of the city
b. Charles Enfant
c. Leonardo Batiste
d. Le Corbusier

800. Cultural properties which have been singled out from among the innumerable cultural properties as having exceptional
historical and cultural significance to the Philippines but are not sufficiently outstanding to merit the classification of national
cultural treasure
a. Important cultural Properties
b. National cultural treasure properties
c. National Treasure
d. Heritage site
801. A unique object found locally, possessing outstanding historical, cultural, artistic and/or scientific value which is highly
significant and important to this country and nation.
a. National Cultural treasure
b. Important cultural Properties
c. National Treasure
d. Heritage site
802. Wrote “De re Aedificatoria” Designed parts of St. Peter’s Basilica of Vatican City and many features of Florence, Built upon the
radio centric pattern ofcathedral cities. “Ideal Cities” of the Renaissance – star-shaped plans with streets radiating from a
central point, a church, palace or castle
a. Leon Battista Alberti
b. Inigo Jones
c. Baron Georges Eugene Haussmann
d. Vitruvius
803. Forms of government control in land ownership & use except

a. Escheat
b. Police Power
c. Eminent Domain
d. Taxation
804. This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning related guidelines and standards to guide the
formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
a. Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
b. Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
c. National Framework for Physical Planning
d. Regional Physical Framework Plan
805. Which of following determinants of land use, land allocation, and management refers to multi-functionality of resource?
a. Geology & geomorphology
b. Demography
c. Economic and related development activities
d. Existing and potential uses
e. Environmental and other natural resource constraints
f. Government policies on land utilization, land distribution, land disposition
806. The “comprehensive” in CLUP means it encompasses all

a. Resources, means, reserves, assets, and possessions of government
b. Ecosystems, land and water processes, surface and sub-surface, terrestrial and extra-terrestrial entities
c. Geographic areas, sectors and sub-sectors of development, functions that have spatial dimension
d. Powers and authority of State, laws and statutes, goals and priorities of the body politic
807. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
a. Urban morphology and physiognomy
b. Data collection and analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives
c. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
d. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
808. Which is not a basic element of the Executive Legislative Agenda?

a. Spatial Strategy
b. Vision-Mission-Goals-Objectives
c. Priority Programs, Projects, Capacity Development Needs
d. Determining Legislative Requirements

809. Which of the following least illustrates the strategic dimension of the CLUP CDP- ELA as integrated process?
a. Forecast future patterns, build spatial scenarios, weigh costs and benefits of each scenario
b. Select spatial strategies, choose "trigger" or "lynchpin actions" crucial to attainment of overall vision
c. Conduct at least two mandatory public hearings which should be process-oriented and participatory
d. Formulate success indicators and measures to determine effectiveness and efficacy of actions taken
e. Executive-Legislative Agenda statement on local government priorities for three years
810. In ideal conditions, constituents are engaged by LGU in participative manner throughout the entire CLUP-ZO process, but
public hearings and open consultations are mandatory at which step of 12 steps?
a. After area inventory, profiling, scanning, analysis, and forecasting
b. After adoption of spatial strategy, land use policies, and zoning plan
c. After formulation of Vision-Mission-Goals
d. After completion of opinion poll or survey
811. What document makes possible that funds tor priority projects enumerated in LOP are budgeted and released yearly?
a. Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
b. Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
c. Annual Investment Plan
d. PBBS
e. Memorandum of Undertaking
f. Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
812. That portion of SEPP which looks into relationships among key actors, factors, and connectors, is called?
a. Scanning
b. Inventory
c. Assessment
d. Analysis
e. Scenario-Building
813. In HLURB Guidelines, which of the following does not fall under the social sector?
a. Education
b. Tourism
c. Health
d. Police Protective Services
e. Sports and Recreation
814. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the economic sector?
a. Housing
b. Mining
c. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing .
d. Mariculture.
e. Small Scale Industries
815. Which of 27 'sectoral' plans from LGUs have been required by the Department of Trade and Industry and its agencies?
a. Agriculture and Fisheries Management Plan, Coconut Development Plan, Food Security Plan, Local FARMC Plan
b. Local Entrepreneurship Development Plan, SME Development Plan, Information Strategic and Management Plan
c. Gender and Development Plan, Action Plan For Protection Of Children, Plan For The Elderly, Nutrition Action Plan
d. Solid Waste Management Plan, Forest Management Plan, Watershed Management Plan, Coastal Management Plan
816. Which of the following identify the public purpose/s to which land use controls are employed?
a. Regulate land non-use or disuse
b. Curb land misuse to protect public interest
c. Prevent land abuse
d. Guide land use to promote community development
817. If there is no conscious effort to integrate, the CLUP/COP will likely overlap with following plans mentioned by laws, except
a. Sustainable development plan under PA 21
b. ADSDPP under RA 8371 IPRA
c. Local Poverty Reduction Plan
d. Millennium Development Goals plan under NEDA/DILG
e. Local Shelter Plan under HUDCC

818. The purpose of a security / peace-and-order plan is to
a. Ensure national security program is carried out
b. Determine areas of town/city that require no protection
c. Comply with relevant directives from leadership of AFP & PNP
d. Provide guidance, assign responsibility, and set standards for protection security of people, property, and products.
819. Continuous observation of a critical area requires that security force supervisors provide which of the following type of
protection?
a. Fixed post
b. Random patrol
c. Aerial pass
d. Surveillance by satellite
e. Deep throat undercover penetration
820. The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU, except one.
a. Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
b. Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development Plan
c. Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal & decentralization of
development
d. Already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
821. Which of the following is not considered a criterion in selecting industrial estates in the Philippines?
a. Presence of natural resources
b. Physical boundary
c. Availability of labor
d. Existing infrastructure and utilities
e. Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
822. The following five factors determine how soils develop. Which factor does 'alluvium' fall under?
a. Time
b. climate
c. Organisms active in soil
d. Parent material
e. Relief or landscape position
823. Under Philippine Land Capability classes by BSWM, lands that are very level and often wet such as mangroves, swamps and
fresh marshes are deemed appropriate for fishponds and categorized as Class X" while lands that are very hilly, rugged,
mountainous, and generally barren are deemed fit for recreation or Wildlife and categorized as
a. Class Y
b. Class Z
c. Class W
d. Class A
e. Class H
824. To cover the entire Philippine archipelago including territorial sea, the maps of NAMRIA most commonly use the Scale (A)
a. 1:500,000
b. 1:400,000
c. 1:250,000
d. 1:300,000
825. What is the percent slope of a parcel of land that has a change in elevation of 8 meters and is 160 meters long?
a. 8%
b. 7%
c. 6%
d. 5%
e. 4%
826. According to BP 220, high-density residential structures can be allowed in flatlands with slope 0-5%, but low to medium
density residential development would be ideally located in areas with slope of
a. 5% to 10%
b. 5% to 15%
c. 5% to 18%
d. 5% to 20%
e. 5% to 25

827. There are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel
of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed in the issuance of a development permit?
a. Planning Consultant
b. Real Estate Broker
c. Natural Scientist
d. Head Local Planner
e. Legislator-Sponsor
828. In the GRZ or R-1 zone, what is the maximum height of a residential structureas measured from the highest natural grade line
on the property or from sidewalk level up to its roof
a. 5m
b. 7m
c. 9m
d. 11m
829. This refers to the process of amending the zoning ordinance in such a way that a property may be developed less intensively
or at a lower density than before.
a. Regressive zoning
b. Downzoning
c. Retrogression
d. Reconfiguration
830. What would be the most suitable land use for buffer strip of geologic fault line of at least 5 meters on both sides from the line?
b. Venice-like canals
c. Floodway
d. Open space or park
e. Wildlife refuge
831. The following are basic considerations in agricultural land use planning in the United States, except one.
a. Prime farmland soils are involved
b. A strong local farm economy exists
c. Non-farm buildings are not permitted
d. Used only for cereals and grans production
e. Local land values are low enough for farms to make a profit
832. Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code, if the total width of water body between two seaside municipalities is less than 30 km, each
ones municipal waters is determined by using
a. Comparative sizes of fishing population
b. A median line on common water body
c. Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
d. Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
833. Using Dr. Candido Cabrido Jr's framework for 'ecological zoning,' the coastal portion of any LGU can be sub-classified into the
following sections. Which grouping is essentially equivalent to production land use?
a. Estuaries, mangroves, lagoons, intertidal flats, fish sanctuaries, protection buffer against tsunami and tidal surge
b. Government institutional complex, fisherfolk village, fisherman's wharf, social services centers
c. Mariculture, recreation/tourism area, port, navigation zone, open season & closed season fishery areas
d. Seaworld, Oceanarium, underwater observatory, undersea mineral exploration
834. Which of the following human activities can increase the rate of Coastal erosion or scouring due to tidal action?
a. Pumping groundwater from a confined aquifer located near the coast
b. Loss of seagrass beds as a result of sedimentation and runoff from higher land areas causing murky muddy waters
c. Approving permits for 200 large fishing boats with gross weight of over 3.1 tons g
d. Constructing sea wave breakers far below known tsunami wave heights
e. Up current patterns observed near groin, jetty, and breakwater structures.
835. All of Earth's land, water, and atmosphere within which life exists, meaning all species together with their environments are
collectively known as
a. Biosphere
b. Metapopulation
c. World community
d. Geosphere
e. Gaia

836. A functional unit containing living plants, animals, and microbes interacting with each other and interacting with their abiotic
environment to perpetuate themselves in a sustainable manner, is called
a. Population
b. Web of Life
c. Ecosphere
d. Ecosystem
e. Biodiversity
837. 'lacustrine' is lake or lake-type environment;' palustrine' is a swamp or marsh type of non-tidal wetlands with cattails, while
__ refers to algae, plant and animal materials that accumulate on beaches at high water marks.
a. 'wrack'
b. 'morass'
c. 'moraine'
d. 'esker'
e. 'algal bloom'
838. Which of the following results from the misuse of wetlands?

a. Loss of habitat
b. Decreased erosion control
c. Decreased flood protection
d. Decreased biological cleaning of water
839. Loss of biodiversity is caused by

a. Deforestation
b. Pollution
c. Exploitation of species for commerce and recreation
d. Conversion of natural habitats into agricultural uses
e. Indiscriminate mining and quarrying
840. Which of the following is not an ecosystem?

a. All the organisms; sometimes hundreds of species, in a given area
b. River mouth estuary with mangroves, mudfish, and crustaceans
c. A leaf that has fallen to the ground
d. A tropical rainforest
841. Why can many different species coexist in an-ecosystem when they are competing for the same limited resources?
a. Each species occupies a different niche
b. Each species occurs in a slightly different habitat
c. Each species is found in a different biome
d. Each species comprises a different population
e. Resources are shared among all species
842. Which element of the Theory of Natural Selection points to the need to be compatible with one's natural environment?
a. Elimination is random
b. Not all offspring's survive
c. Individuals even from same family can wary in characteristics and in thresholds
d. What enhances survival is not size but individuals trait most suited to external conditions
843. According to modem evolutionary theory, genes responsible for new traits that help a species survive in a particular
environment will usually
a. Not change infrequency
b. Decrease gradually infrequency
c. Decrease rapidly in frequency
d. Increase in frequency
844. The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March, 1973 has been helpful in protecting
endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800, by
a. Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
b. Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
c. Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
d. Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
e. Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products

845. Most of Earths deserts are at approximately 30" latitude, north and south, because these latitudes are characterized by
a. Generally warm ocean currents
b. Descending dry air currents
c. Predominantly low atmospheric pressure
d. Slow-moving jet streams
e. Enhanced solar radiation
846. A watershed is principally a source of

a. Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper
b. Charcoal for grill requirements of five star restaurants
c. Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
d. Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
847. 'Hazard' differs from 'risk' in that

a. 'Hazard' can be avoided while 'risk' always resultin disaster
b. 'Hazard' can be remedied or mitigated while risk is imminent and inevitable.
c. 'Hazard' is merely geologic while risk is essentially economic.
d. 'Hazard' refers to likely occurrence of natural events while 'risk' involves clear and present threat to human life,
property, and community welfare.'
848. Which is not a key element of hazard mitigation planning?

a. Land-use plans
b. Development control or management
c. Land titles
d. Hazard assessment
849. The following are all environmentally critical areas under Presidential Decree 2146. If a common hazard such as geologic fault
line runs through all of them, which of these areas would have the greatest risk?
a. Areas with critical slopes
b. Natural parks, Watershed reserves, Wildlife preserves, and Sanctuaries.
c. Areas traditionally occupied by ICCs/lPS
d. Habitat of any endangered or threatened species or indigenous Philippine Wildlife (flora and fauna)
850. A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic of a drainage basin causes
it to have an efficient response to rainfall'?
a. Sloping topography in bowl-like formation
b. Permeable soils
c. Plasticity of clay bottom
d. Filtration by its wetlands
851. At the headwaters of a stream where the local gradient/energy is highest, the process of 'erosion' dominates while at the
stream's base level where a delta forms, the process that dominates is called
a. Percolation
b. Evapo-transpiration
c. Sedimentation
d. Nundation
e. Infiltration
852. What does 'lag time' refer to in the context of flooding?

a. The time required to clean up an area following a flood
b. The time it takes for emergency officials to provide relief to residents of a flood-stricken area
c. The time it takes for streamflow to travel from the drainage divide to the mouth of the stream
d. The time between rainfall and peak streamflow
853. What effect does urbanization have on rainfall-runoff relationships?

a. Impermeable surfaces tend to inhibit in filtration and thus increase peak flood discharges
b. Storm sewers tend to route runoff to streams more quickly and thus reduce the lag times
c. Urbanization tends to decrease the recurrence interval of any given flood
d. Urbanization tends to increase the frequency of any given flood
854. What is the mechanism that causes land subsidence?

a. A reduction in sub surface fluid pressures within sedimentary layers
b. An increase in weight at the land surface
c. A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
d. The dissolution of soluble bedrock suclh as limestone exposed at the land surface

855. Tremors or vibrations of the Earth due to shock waves generated by the rupturing of deep layer rocks are known as
a. Raptures
b. Fault scarp
c. Earthquakes
d. Continental drift
e. Plate tectonics
856. The natural movement downslope of soil, regolith, or rocks under the influence of gravity without seismic motion or heavy
rainfall is collectively called
a. Avalanche
b. Mass wasting
c. Crustal abrasion
d. Erosion by wind
e. Shear stress
857. 'Intensity' varies from place to place according to its distance from the epicenter of a tremor, while approximates the total
physical energy released at the epicenter during a seismic movement.
a. "scale"
b. "heft''
c. "grade'
d. "magnitude"
e. "enormity"
858. What relevant maps would have to be combined in order to construct a composite hydrometeorologic risk map?
a. Historic paths of Philippines' 21 cyclones average per year over a ten-year period
b. Precipitation, cloudiness, mean temperature, wind patterns of southwest & northeast monsoons, high tide and low tide
c. Location of population, type of climate, average rainfall, slope, elevation, rivers and waterways, 50 year or 100 year
flood level
d. Coastal surges, saltwater intrusion, groundwater overdraft, land subsidence, loss of soil strength, liquefaction hazard
859. These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of the Earth; the First gives the location
of a place above or below the equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from at the equator to 90° at the poles,
while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime meridian, and is measured in
angles ranging from at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
a. Landmass and ocean
b. Cartesian x,y points
c. North pole and south pole
d. Latitude and longitude
860. In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and line data by means of geometric
coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space
a. Vector
b. Polygon
c. Curvature
d. Field
e. Node
861. In a computer graphics/mapping system, the point at which a line changes direction or tenninates
a. Vertex / vortex
b. Centrifuge
c. Intercept
d. Intersect
862. An aerial photograph taken from a helicopter at a height of 80 meters would produce a map scale of 1:60 with a margin of
error of 15 millimeters. If taken from an airplane at an altitude of 10,000, what would be the resulting map scale?
a. 1 : 1,000
b. 1 : 2,000
c. 1 : 5,000
d. 1 : 25,000
863. In eco-engineering or convergence analysis as popularized by Dr Meliton Juanico, what kind of map is derived by
superimposing 'land suitability' and 'physical constraints' on 'existing land use'?
a. Proposed land use
b. Agro-ecological zones
c. Heritage & tourism overlay zones
d. Disaster-resilient communities

864. A "tripolar" or "bipolar" form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new sections as magnets or
complete attractions for population and business, in order to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
a. Simple Dispersion
b. Concentrated Dispersion
c. Simple Concentration
d. Compact Development
865. 'It is the merchants ethos, with our consent, that sustains the slumlord and the land rapist, the polluters of rivers and
atmosphere. In the name of profit they preempt the seashore and sterilize the landscape, fell the great forests, fill protective
marshes, build cynically in the flood plain. It is the claim of convenience - or its illusion - that drives the expressway through
neighborhoods, homes, and priceless parks, a taximeter of indifferent greed'
a. Jane Jacobs
b. Ian McHarg
c. Konstantinos Doxiadis
d. Rachel Carson
e. Ame Naess
866. In the perception of space, which sense affects placement of rooms which could limit unpleasant odors?
a. Auditory
b. Olfactory
c. Visual
d. Thermal
e. Tactile
f. Kinesthetic
867. Which sensual type enables one to identify materials at a distance?

a. Auditory
b. Olfactory
c. Visual
d. Themal
e. tactile
f. Kinesthetic
868. What type of distance in space is that which is psychological and is indicated by a hidden band that contains two or more
individuals in a group?
a. Critical distance
b. Hypnotic distance
c. Flight distance
d. Personal distance
e. Social distance
869. The 'clutter-of- cities' consists of disorderly, crisscrossing electricity/telephone utility cables, superfluous signage, political
oversized billboards advertising messages of sensualism, materialism, and conspicuous consumption all -of which hinder ones
appreciation of outstanding built structures and cityscapes.
a. Visual blight
b. Litter and nuisance
c. Aesthetic decay
d. Street anarchy
e. Communicative pollution
870. This refers to phenomenon in an area of high building density where heat buildup is intense and characterized by mean
temperature increase of Celsius due to solar reflectance on impervious surfaces, concentration of air pollutants, dust dome,
and smog, all affecting local air circulation and microclimatic conditions.
a. Kelvin Aberration
b. Pollution Plumes
c. Thennal Dorne
d. Infernal City
e. Urban Heat Island
871. Which the following indicates good site planning?

a. Best Orientation to Sun, Sea and Wind
b. Congruence and compatibility with its surrounding
c. Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
d. Maximized space
e. Efficient circulation

872. Which one is not an innovative element of Planned Unit Development?
a. Cul-de-sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
b. Usable open space
c. Complementarity of building types
d. Preservation of significant natural land features
873. This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or
ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the
environment in built-up areas.
a. Reforestation
b. Miniature Forestry
c. Urban Forestry
d. Silvicuture
e. Agro-Forestry
874. Presidential Decree 2146 defines amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values such as the following , except one.
a. Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
b. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
c. Heritage sites and historic places
d. municipal plazas and public parks
875. Which is not a benefit from having large green space in cities?
a. Absorbs air pollution
b. Gives off oxygen
c. Cools the air as Water transpires
d. Provides habitat to wild beasts
e. Provides shade with less electricity required
f. Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
876. This nonrenewable resource is the most pollutive source of energy that releases toxic elements such as lead and arsenic
a. Krypton
b. Coal
c. Hydropower
d. Titanium
e. Natural gas
f. Ethanol
877. Which natural source of energy can be tapped by barangays and cooperatives for the electrification of all rural villages
a. Tidal power and Ocean current
b. Coal and natural gas
c. Solar energy
d. Geothermal
e. Methane and biogas from sanitary landfills, septic tanks, sewage treatment
f. Biomass
878. All of the following, except one, interfere in the harnessing of Solar energy and natural Wind by means of photovoltaic cells,
windmills and turbines?
a. Oversized roadside tarpaulin signs
b. Height restrictions in zoning
c. Large smokestack cylinders and industrial chimneys
d. Trees in urban parks and on street medians
879. This refers to the goal or principle of Urban Design that a place needs to foster a 'sense of security and pleasantness' emanating
from
a. Legibility
b. Imageability
c. SIR - smooth interpersonal relations
d. Conviviality
e. Peace and tranquility
880. An eco-centric urban design would focus on

a. 'Oikos' or the dynamics of the home as a collection of kindred individuals
b. Human thrill and excitement derived from living with biodiverse species and wild beasts
c. Rhythm and balance of the ecosystem; human communion with Nature in a spiritual as well as ethical sense
d. Man's self-satisfaction as the apex of Creation and master-subduer of the Earth as stated in the Holy Scriptures

881. Under Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) of the US Green Building Council, which refers to 'xeriscape’
a. Planting trees that can provide food for building occupants such as mango, avocado, apple, and orange trees.
b. Landscape design_ that requires little or no irrigation or maintenance
c. Using artificial turf in place of real glass on parts of a building
d. Advanced drip irrigation system that responds to water demand by sensing soil moisture content
e. Landscape design that directs the flow of rainwater on-site to the area that requires the most irrigation.
882. Which design can be credited for 'Community Connectivity' under LEED of the US Green Building Council?
a. Greenfield site located within short walking distance to many common amenities
b. Public rental housing connected by on-ramps to a large freeway intersection
c. Seven-storey commercial building linked to a food processing plant at a center a 10 hectare complex
d. Socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university
e. Suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation
883. In air-conditioning systems, the term 'free cooling' is used to describe the use of the cooling capacity of ambient air to directly
cool the space, thereby:
a. Reducing the peak cooling load
b. Reducing the running hours of the chiller
c. Increasing ventilation rates
d. Increasing the size of chiller required
884. An example of positive easement is one that

a. Preserves a certain habitat
b. Protects a certain stream
c. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
d. Stipulates not to drain a wetland
885. Which of the following population characteristics are important in determining 'housing need'?
a. Socio-economic characteristics
b. Overcrowding
c. Formation of new households/families
d. In-migration, out-migration
886. 997. A tool used to create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity, characterized by imitation of rustic estates or
feudal-age manors, detailed ornamental iconography, and other manifestations of conspicuous consumption
a. Millionaires row
b. Red light boulevard
c. Gentrification yacht and polo club
d. Large lot zoning
887. Which agency is tasked with the registration of subdivision and condominium dealers, brokers, salesmen, associations?
a. National Housing Authority
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
c. Securities and Exchange Commission
d. Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor.
e. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
f. Professional Regulation Commission
888. In the Philippines, low density housing development means dwelling units per hectare.
a. 35 and below
b. 36 to 150
c. 151 to 210
d. 211and above
889. Under the National Building Code,residence is not just the home structure proper but can include accessory structures such
as private garage, servants quarter, storehouse, home office,sari sari, and -
a. Carinderia
b. Farm and poultry
c. Day care center
d. Guardhouse
e. Warehouse

890. A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is
a. Good for one household
b. Intended for ownership
c. Completely surrounded by a yard
d. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
891. The body under the immediate control and supervision of the President of the Philippines, charged with the main function of
coordinating the activities of the government housing agencies to ensure the accomplishment of the National Shelter Program.
a. NEDA
b. HUDCC
c. NHA
d. HLURB
892. All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977, except
a. Traditional indigenous family dwellings
b. Socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220
c. Garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth
d. Piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sqm
e. Sheds, outhouses, greenhouses ,gazebos, aviaries, not exceeding 6 sqm in total area
893. Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of the sidewalk to that of the right of way?
a. 1/4
b. 1/5
c. 1/6
d. 1/2
e. 1/7
894. Under PD 1096, what is referred to as written authorization by the building official allowing a constructed structure to be used
by the owner?
a. Building permit
b. Inspectorate clearance
c. Certificate of completion
d. Certificate of occupancy
e. All of the above
895. Under PD 957, which one of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of the site for economic or socialized
housing?
a. Physical suitability
b. Availability of basic needs
c. On the perimeter of an ecozone
d. Presence of geohazard
e. Conformity to the national development plan
f. Links to the transportation network
896. A mixed use building has 6 storeys of 1.00 sq. meter each on a lot area of 2,000 sq. meter. What is the FAR?
a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 4:1
d. 5:1
e. 6:1
• 6 storeys x 1000 sq.m.=6000 sq.m./2000 sq.m.= 3
897. 1009. What is conventional Euclidean zoning most concerned about?

a. Unhampered flow of ideas, people, goods and services
b. Efficiency of land occupancy and non-wastage of space
c. Compatibility and non-compatibility of land uses
d. Liberalization and free play of market forces
898. This type of town regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height, bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play
down, or draw attention away from a landmark (eg Eiffel Tower), natural landscape, or character of place
a. Design aesthetics
b. Architectural masterplan
c. Cultural mapping
d. Form-zoning

899. Exemptions, special permissions and relief from provisions of land use plan and zoning ordinance are obtained from?
a. Office of the Mayor/Local Chief Executive
b. Planning Commission or Planning & Development Office
c. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
d. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
e. Regional Development Office
f. Provincial Development Office
900. The test of 'rational basis,' as defined by the US Supreme Court,

a. Requires that all government actions be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the goal
b. Justifies a governmental action if there is a reasonable connection between the action and its goal
c. Tests the relationship between a variance and its hardship
d. Only applies to zoning actions
e. All of the above
901. The test of compelling governmental interest as defined by the US Supreme Court,
a. Means that conditions compel government to act the way that it does
b. Requires that governmental action be written in forceful language to compel citizens to obey
c. Requires that legislation generally be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the objective
d. Applies only if the challenged legislation has an impact on a fundamental religious tenet or suspect classification
e. All of the above
902. According to scientific studies at UPLB, one degree Celsius (1°C) increase in temperature and humidity reduces total rice yield
by at least 8% and corn yield by at least 5%. In livestock, the loss is as much as 33% of new offspring due to
a. Congenital defects and deformations due to mutation
b. Reduced appetite, feed intake, and body energy reserve
c. Excessive burning of calories and loss of weight
d. Loss of mating opportunities for breeders
e. All of the above
903. Which of following substances has lowest potential to contribute to air pollution & atmospheric/meteorologic anomalies?
a. Nitrous Oxide - N20
b. Nitrogen Dioxide - NOx
c. Chlorofluorocarbons - CFCs
d. Hydrogen-containing CFCs (HCFCs)
e. Methane
f. Ozone
904. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule and was consequently phased
out by the Montreal Protocol in 1989?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Chlorofluorocarbon
d. Methane
e. Nitrous oxide
905. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of climate change?

a. Loss of fertile delta regions for agriculture
b. Change in global patterns of precipitation
c. Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
d. Increased frequency of hurricanes
e. Extinction of some species that have narrow temperature requirements
f. None of the choices
906. Climate change will affect the distribution of species because

a. Hot places will become hotter and cold places will become even colder
b. It will change the location of habitats that provide requirements for growth, survival, or reproduction
c. Carbon production and carbon footprint of different species are unequal and unevenly distributed worldwide
d. Many areas submerged in water will become dry, thus forming new land bridges like in the last glacial age

907. Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA) to make the world safer and to substantially reduce disaster losses. Which of 5
priority areas below pertains to each community's coping mechanisms and modifications in its way of life?
a. Ensure that disaster risk reduction becomes a national and local priority with strong institutional basis for
implementation
b. Identify, assess, and monitor disaster risks and enhance early warning systems.
c. Use knowledge, innovation and education to build a culture of safety and resilience at all levels.
d. Reduce the underlying risk factors
e. Strengthen disaster preparedness for effective response at all levels
908. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1.5 meters or 5 feet while the setback of a disposal field
or leach field is 25 meters or 8 feet. What should be the minimum distance between your septic tank and leach field from your
neighbors' exterior wall?
a. 2 meters
b. 3 meters
c. 4 meters
d. 5 meters
e. 6 meters
909. 'Traffic calming' is a

a. Course of Tai Chi and 'Qi Gong' exercises to de-stress drivers
b. Package of grade-separation measures to physically segregate vehicles and pedestrians
c. Package of measures to increase capacity of local roads so that traffic can move more quickly
d. Package of traffic engineering measures to reduce speed on local roads and divert through-traffic elsewhere
e. Police enforcement campaign to reduce vehicle noise and emissions
910. Which of the following is not a measure of travel demand management (TDM)?
a. Controls on public transport
b. Controls on land use development
c. Controls on vehicle ownership
d. Controls on vehicle use
e. Controls on parking
911. The following represent how government subsidizes automobile use over mass transit, except one.
a. Large annual funding for highway maintenance
b. Government research on development of fuels
c. Investment incentives for tollway and expressway corporations
d. Market rate and cost-recovery level for light rail fares
e. All of the above
912. In contrast to pedal-driven 'trisikad', what is environmentalists' basis of opposition to two-stroke motor-driven tricycles?
a. Greater incidence of road accidents
b. Increase in air pollution
c. Limited Service capacity and range of movement
d. Slower speed increases congestion along national highways
e. All of the above
913. The following are the basic elements of human settlements according to Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the
built environment or physical capital?
a. Anthropos
b. Nature
c. Shells and networks
d. Society
e. Social structure
914. An individual, group, organization, sector or Community who has a direct or indirect interest in a policy, program, or project,
who affects or is affected by - positively or negatively - the implementation and outcome of it, is called
a. Recipient/beneficiary
b. Proponent/exponent
c. Advocate
d. Stakeholder
e. Shareholder

915. What is a 'theory' in urban and regional planning as a field of social Science?
a. An educated guess being tested by numerous experiments
b. Outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors and factors
c. A set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society
d. A set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that has been supported by several studies in the past
916. A prediction is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical computation or statistical model that uses
available data to extrapolate past and present trends into the future, while _______ is a judgmental statement of what an analyst
believes to be the most likely log future according to his/her subjective evaluation.
a. Premonition
b. Forecast
c. Foresight
d. Vibration
e. Prophecy
917. In the structure of informant interviews, the acronym "STAR" method stands for
a. Select, Talk, Articulate ,Relate
b. Solve, Test, Analyze, Repeat
c. Situation, Task, Action. Result
d. Salaries, Travels, Add-ons, Refunds
e. Simple, True, Action, Reflection
918. In 'Quality of Life Assessment,' which category of indicators of human ability and well-being would have a clear spatial
dimension?
a. "to be"
b. "not to be"
c. "to dream"
d. "to become"
e. "to do"
919. An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on experimental results. If the experimental results
are to be valid, environmental chemists in other laboratories should be able to
a. Repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results
b. perform the same experiment and obtain different results
c. Repeat the same experiment and obtain the same results
d. Perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and obtain the same results
e. All of the above
920. An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold spore growth. Two groups of mold spores
were grown under identical conditions, except one group was exposed only to ultraviolet light, while the other group was
grown in total darkness. In this investigation, the group of mold spores grown in total darkness is known as the
a. Experimental group
b. Pilot group
c. Control group
d. Manipulated group
e. Focus group
921. Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A technician exhaled through a straw into each tube, and the
bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic green plant was placed into each tube, and the tubes were corked. One tube was
placed in the dark, and one was placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue, while the one
in the dark remained yellow. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight turned to a blue
color?
a. Oxygen was used for photosynthesis.
b. Oxygen was removed by respiration.
c. Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
d. Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration
e. None of the above
922. The negative criteria for the approval of variance is that

a. Such relief may be granted without substantial detriment to the public good
b. Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the land use plan
c. Such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the zoning ordinance
d. All of the above

923. The use of a variety of methods, sources. or field team members, at least three in kind or category, to cross check and validate
information in order to limit possible biases in a research study is called
a. Corroboration
b. Confirmatory test
c. Triangulation
d. Reconnaissance
e. Cross-disciplinary control
924. This method uses words rather than numbers to describe and measure key actors and critical factors. Words are then arranged
on a descriptive scale and given approximate numeric values for analytic purposes, but such scale cannot accurately reflect
magnitude or intensity of variables and dimensions .
a. Multi-variate Analysis
b. Qualitative Analysis
c. Muddling Through
d. Phenomenology
925. What is the smallest time frame using the cohort survival method of population analysis?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
e. 6 years
926. A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 35 percent. If the growth rate remains
constant, what will be the population of this country in 40 years?
a. 150 million
b. 200 million
c. 300 million
d. 400 million
e. 600 million
927. This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied to the group's members without regard
for individual variation or unknown factors that can come from human attitude and idiosyncratic behavior.
a. Sweeping generalization
b. Argumentum ad hominem
c. Ecological fallacy
d. Equivocation
e. Begging the question
f. Fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent
928. How many square meters are there in one acre?

a. 328
b. 1, 250
c. 4,047
d. 8,700
e. 43,560
929. How many acres are there in one hectare?

a. 2.47
b. 0.96
c. 3.28
d. 10
e. 100
930. How many hectares are there in one square kilometer

a. 10
b. 100
c. 1,000
d. 10,000
e. 100,000

931. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water onedegree Celsius, its approximate equivalent in Syteme
Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules .
a. Calorie
b. Kelvin
c. BTU-British Thermal Unit
d. Kilojoule
e. Psi- pounds per square inch
932. Tempo of urbanization refers to

a. The rate at which population increases in a given year due to the surplus of births over deaths, expressed as percentage
of base population.
b. An indicator used to express the speed at which an area is urbanizing, usually measured as difference between urban
growth rate and rural growth rate.
c. Rate at which the population is increasing (or decreasing) due to natural increases and net migration expressed as a
percentage of the base population.
d. The number of years a population would take to double in size if its current growth rate remains the same.
933. The key to Urban Sustainability lies in

a. Holistic approaches which deal with environmental, economic, social and political needs and pressures
b. Large infrastructure projects funded by donors motivation consumer choices
c. Stopping people migrating to the city
d. Teaching people discipline
934. The change in global average human life expectancy between the years 1900 and 2000 is most likely the result of
a. Medical research progress and introduction of new techniques to control disease
b. Abundance of food and eradication of world hunger
c. Improved technologies to ensure air quality and soil quality
d. Improved land management and land use regimes
935. Labor Force is more accurately defined as comprising all persons

a. aged 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive work or employment
b. 18 to 65 years currently employed, under employed, or active in the informal sector or underground economy
c. Aged 16 to 64 years regardless of gender, economic status, qualification, physical fitness, mental health condition
d. Aged 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy, numeracy, Writing, and analytical skills
936. Base on National Statistics Offices definition, women of this age range are presumed to be fertile and childbearing.
a. 15yrs to 49yrs
b. 12yrs to 42yrs
c. 14yrs to 44yrs
d. 16yrs to 36yrs
937. Of 145,382 informal settler households in Metro Manila 2004-2010, 6,802 households settled along Pasig River, 21'047 settled
along esteros, 34'367 settled along the riles, and 82'896 households occupied public and private lands. What is primary mode
of informal settlement in Metro Manila?
a. 'occupation of public and private land'
b. 'along da riles'
c. 'along esteros'
d. 'along the Pasig'
938. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes the
mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines
a. RA7279
b. RA7160
c. RA1010
d. RA 6969
939. In the words of PO 933, "the human settlements approach" emphasizes

a. Habitability, quality of life, efficiency ,economy, social opportunity, convenience and beauty
b. Family, employment, community, (folk-work-place), freedomof belief, and ecological balance
c. Plato's ideals of the true, the good, and the beautiful
d. Socialized housing, low-cost housing, economic housing, and cooperative housing

940. Under Executive Order 90, the agency that is responsible for coordinating activities of government agencies to ensure the
accomplishment of the National Shelter Programs is
a. HUDCC
b. NHA
c. HLURB
d. NHMFC
941. In a 'house and lot' package, the price of the lot shall not be more than ____ of the whole.
a. 40%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 35%
942. Under BP 220, the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the following order of importance.
a. Water, roads for circulation, storm water drainage, disposal of solid and liquid wastes, power, park/playground
b. Electricity recreation, transport vehicles, market for foodstuffs, water supply, solid waste facilities.
c. Health center, daycare center, church, public school, assembly hall, basketball court, and cell sites
d. Police station, fire station, government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk lines police station, fire station,
government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk lines
943. According to PD 957 Sec.28, when a government office or public institution is located inside a private subdivision, the rights
of access of which group should take precedence?
a. The rights of the general public over the rights of the subdivision homeowners
b. The rights of property owners over the rights of the taxpayers
c. The rights of government officials over the rights of businessmen
d. The rights of public utility vehicle operators over the rights of private car owners
944. Land Banking or land assembly refers to the right of the State to acquire land in advance of actual need through
a. Sale, purchase, exchange, negotiation, and similar techniques L314
b. Eminent domain, expropriation ,confiscation
c. Readjustment, realignment, reflating
d. Raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills
945. Under PD 1517, a disposition technique used by the State to enable occupants of government-owned land to exercise
ownership over occupant introduced improvements.
a. Tenure improvement
b. Dole out
c. Land grant
d. Co-ownership
946. Following Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, a smaller percentage of the workforce tends to be employed in.
a. Agriculture, because investment in technology increases yield per unit effort and decreases labor demand
b. Agriculture, because industrialization decreases the value of rural land
c. Industry, because the profit from extracting natural resources increases
d. Services, because technology increases efficiency in the provision of services
947. Economic self-sufficiency or spatial closure, as in the case of isolationist Cuba and Bhutan, is regarded by a few thinkers as a
desirable goal of territorial development because.
a. It cushions a territory from external economic shocks
b. It shifts attention to the promotion of tourism
c. It earns substantial remittances from workers sent abroad
d. It leads to an increase in both imports and exports through globalization
948. Which of the following illustrates why natural resource development may not promote local economic development?
a. All of the above
b. Foreign engineers and technical specialists are given priority in mining employment
c. Royalties from forestry are remitted only to national tax collection agencies
d. Profits repatriated by Multi-National Corporations are larger than their yearly Foreign Direct Investment
e. Filipino managers and employees use only imported luxuries and foreign-branded products
949. Which of the following is not virtue of free markets?

a. 'equity'
b. 'efficiency'
c. 'productivity'
d. 'motivation'
e. 'diverse consumer choices'

950. In what way is the mix of basic sector employment and non-basic employment in a city/town important?
a. Basic workers rely on the areas non basic workers in the preparation of food, clothing and shelter
b. A little farm villages economic structure will be mostly basic
c. Cities/towns with more basic than non-basic jobs tend to be more self-sufficient
951. employment brings money into the area; non basic employment sends money out of the area 'Break-of-bulk' points explain
why economic activities are where they are, which best illustrates a break-of-bulk point?
a. A village develops at a portage where traders must carry their canoes across land
b. Service industries appear near or around urban industrial zones
c. A third grocery store locates in the gap between two competitors
d. Company reaches the critical size when it feels the need to franchise
952. Remittances of migrant Filipinos and overseas contract workers add up to around US$20-billion per year, almost 20% of
Philippines Gross Domestic Product. In economics, these cash transfers are collectively called.
a. Net Facto; Income from Abroad
b. Non-portfolio investment
c. Overseas Filipino Investment
d. Foreign Direct Investment
e. Family obligations
f. Balance of Payment
953. Which combination of three is the best example of primary, secondary and tertiary activities in that order?
a. Farmer, shoemaker, newspaper reporter
b. Lumber mill, gas station attendant, car manufacturer
c. Forester, carpenter, cabinet-maker
d. Miner, tanner, banker
954. In the formula of CLUP, Location Quotient (LQ) analysis is uses to identify.
a. Comparative advantage
b. Diversity of industry
c. Compatibility of land uses
d. Centrality of location
955. This refers to sustainable travel to a heritage area or natural area to observe wildlife or exotic ecosystems, to help preserve
nature; while also providing for community participation, protection and management of natural resources, environmental
education, and economic benefits for the enrichment of host communities and the satisfaction of visitors.
a. Ecotourism
b. Domestic tourism
c. Cultural tourism
d. Educational excursion
e. Pleasure trip
956. Which of the following institutions would be least-involved in the official determination of a heritage site?
a. Cultural Center of the Philippines
b. HLURB
c. National Museum
d. National Commission on Culture and the Arts
e. National Historical Institute
f. Department of Tourism
957. It is a preliminary study undertaken before an endeavor actually starts to ascertain the likelihood of its success by examining
in detail its market, technical, environmental, social, financial, economic and organizational viability.
a. Feasibility Study
b. Investment Study
c. Interdisciplinary Study
d. TQM Total Quality Management
958. Government development projects, whether sectoral or cross-sectoral, generally aim to.
a. Maximize impact
b. Minimize costs
c. Minimize effects
d. Maximize profits

959. What is the first element of the Project Planning Cycle?
a. Problem analysis needs assessment
b. Project preparation
c. brainstorming of ideas
d. Budget & appropriations
960. Which is not among the direct benefits of a project?

a. Cash transfer
b. Producer surplus
c. consumer satisfaction
d. Government fiscal savings
e. Higher value of goods
961. The function of a baseline study is to assist project management to.

a. See whether change takes place
b. Understand the bottom line of a project
c. Find the lowest possible level of costs
d. Determine minimum deliverables to the principals
962. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Social analysis identifies needs and priorities of project beneficiaries
b. Social analysis quantifies risk and potential damage to society
c. Social analysis screens and selects people ideal for a project
d. Social analysis shows the conceptual detail that convinces donor agencies to fund a project
963. A Cost-Benefits Analysis (CBA) usually includes.

a. Estimation of social, economic, and other possible gains and losses for people affected whether directly and indirectly
b. Measurement of expenditure, trade-offs, as well as stakeholder benefits, implementer's profits and psychic income
c. Transparent overview of monetary costs and benefits to investors
d. An explanation or justification for overspending or under spending on the projects budget
964. Which is not a component of Cost-Benefit Analysis?

a. Accounting profit before taxes
b. Internal rate of return
c. Net present value
965. A tool used to estimate the difference between public costs and public revenues generated by a project for the LGU in which it
occurs specifically the projects bearing on LGU finances, without considering overall economic effects on the community.
a. Fiscal impact analysis
b. Cost-revenue analysis
c. Zero-based budgeting
d. Capital rationing
966. In infrastructure development, "un-solicited proposals" are in a sense "irregular" because.

a. All of the above
b. They might not conform to the set goals and priorities of incumbent administration and it's declared plans/policies
c. Their proponents are usually not in existing government database of contractors/implementors with proven record
d. They are not subjected to background investigation or character investigation which is standard for private banks
e. Current system has very short period to check the worth, the viability of and alternatives to, unsolicited projects
967. Which of the following can be clustered as the 'biophysical' dimension in infrastructure planning and development?
a. Topography, hydrology, lithology (soils), vegetation, landcover, climate
b. Sand, gravel, cement, asphalt, steel, wrought iron, galvanized iron, alloys and component materials
c. Who benefits? who pays? what are revenues to LGU? obligations of contractor? borrowings of national government?
d. Site layout, structural design, fade, frontage, etrorse, vertical soundness, horizontal spread,
968. Under which phase of the Project Cycle does "detailed design and engineering" fall?
a. Investment Phase
b. Pre-investment Phase
c. Project Appraisal and Funding Approval
d. Project Preparation and Feasibility Study
e. Project Screening
f. Project Operation

969. In project implementation and project management, what is Murphy's Law?
a. "lf something can go wrong, eventually it will go wrong"
b. "If you fail to plan, then you plan to fail"
c. "If you don't learn from the mistakes of the past, you are bound to repeat them"
d. "If something is paid for, it will get done for sure"
e. "If you have the money, there is no point not to spend it"
970. In personnel management, a "competency" is defined as ability to perform a particular task effectively. What are the basic
types of competencies?
a. Knowledge-based competencies and behavioral competencies
b. Competitiveness , assertiveness, aggression
c. Talent, aptitude, giftedness, virtuosity
d. Reading, numeric, and analytic competencies
e. Field-based competencies and office-based competencies
971. Which of the following statements is false?

a. A 'performance assessment' is based on observed results and behavior
b. A 'performance assessment' !s generally done every 1 to 2 years
c. A 'performance assessment' s based on information from at least two sources
d. A 'performance assessment is dialogue with a negotiated outcome
e. A 'performance assessment must be a transparent process
972. You are working with Human Resource Department in analyzing the staffing and deployment for your project. Which of the
following documents would you primarily refer to during this process?
a. Resource Breakdown Structure
b. Salary Scale and Payroll Form
c. Breakdown Structure
d. Organizational Breakdown Structure
973. You are at a critical stage of your land use project. Unfortunately your infrastructure engineer and the GIS specialist from your
partner-agency do not get along. What is the best thing to do?
a. Bring the two together to solve the problem
b. Ignore the situation, it is just a personal conflict
c. Ask the partner-agency to replace the GIS specialist
d. Talk to each and tell them that it is clearly the other ones fault
974. Which of the following is not a win-win principle of getting to 'Yes' style of conflict management of the Harvard's JFK School
of Government?
a. Try sub comment and grease instead of head-on collision
b. Separate people from the problem
c. Focus on interests, not on positions
d. Focus on the problem, not on the people
975. According to the Harvard's JFK School of Government, the most collaborative response to conflict from the list below is?
a. Negotiation
b. Litigation
c. Mediation
d. Adjudication
e. Confrontation
976. A very important principle in project implementation is.

a. Get the project done as planned, on time, and within the budget
b. Scrimp and save as much as possible to pool money for the year-end incentives pay
c. Pay all participants generously to attain stakeholder satisfaction even if project is not completed
d. Be principled and never make any adjustments to the project's Log Frame
e. Make sure that PR practitioners write reports in glowing language and submit them in world-class layout-format
977. What are the three documents that form the basis of financial management?
a. Income Statement, Expenditure Report, Budget
b. Ledger, Book of Accounts, Balance Sheet
c. Cash-Flow Statement, Profit-Loss Statement, Bank Statement
d. Capital Outlay, Income b:efore Taxes, End-of-Year Statement on Financial Performance

978. What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?
a. Surety
b. Assurance
c. Performance
d. Warranty
e. Reparation
979. It is the systematic, timely and regular gathering of feedback about the progress of a project in terms of inputs, operations and
outputs and the timely provision of appropriate support or intervention, if necessary.
a. Monitoring
b. Surveillance
c. Reconnaissance
d. Supervision
e. Espionage
980. A system of inputting, collating, and organizing data that would provide selective data and analytic reports to management, to
assist in monitoring 2nd controlling a projects organization, resources, activities and results.
a. MIS - Management Information System
b. EDP - Electronic Data Processing
c. ICT - Information and Communication Technologies
d. PDS - Project Development information Service
981. To implement cross-sectoral development projects that are spread widely apart in an archipelago, what would be a more
suitable organizational setup?
a. Hierarchic command structure
b. Strong horizontal or matrix organization
c. TQM learning circles
d. Ad hoc task forces
e. Centralized Project Management Office
f. Management By Objectives
982. What is a major difference between monitoring and evaluation?

a. There is no difference between 'monitoring and evaluation that's why they always go together.
b. Monitoring looks at objective quantifiable data while evaluation weighs subjective judgments and perceptions.
c. Evaluation looks into the 'why' question while monitoring looks into how much.
d. Monitoring assesses the performance of project staff, evaluation assesses performance of project management
e. Monitoring is done within the control of project management while evaluation is done by higher management
983. Which of the following statements on evaluation is false?

a. 'Efficiency' criterion asks whether results were achieved at reasonable costs
b. 'Effectiveness' criterion assesses how results impacted on the objective
c. 'Relevance' criterion assesses if the project fitted into the Wider social context and priorities of government.
d. 'Sustainability' criterion assesses whether the issuance of CNC or ECC was justified
e. 'Impact' criterion assesses whether project has made a dent on real-life conditions & needs of target beneficiaries
984. 'Impact' criterion assesses whether project has made a dent on real-life conditions & needs of target beneficiaries
a. time, talent, treasure, trust
b. outputs, outcomes, results, effects
c. adequacy, anticipation, timeliness, responsiveness
d. impartiality, stakeholder participation, credibility and usefulness
985. An analytical, presentational, and management tool that involves problem analysis, stakeholder analysis, developing a ladder
like chain of objectives, and selecting a preferred implementation strategy, usually taking the form of a four-by-four table that
summarizes what the project intends to do and how, what the key assumptions are, and how outputs and outcomes will be
monitored and evaluated
a. Primavera
b. Force Field Analysis
c. Logical Framework
d. Logical Decision Window
986. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the Log Frame?
a. Results define the objective and activities contribute to goals.
b. The goal leads to objectives, which contribute to results, which define activities
c. The results of objectives lead to activities that contribute to the goal
d. Activities lead to results, which lead to the objective, which contributes to a goal

987. Which of the following ordered steps of Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) refers to ascertaining the
difference between expected time and latest time?
a. define tasks
b. link tasks in sequence
c. estimate time to complete each task
d. find slack time
e. find probability of meeting expected time
988. Which of the following ordered steps of Critical Path Method (CPM) is 'iterative' or continually the active to enable the whole
process to make adjustments under different assumptions or different conditions
a. revise PERT estimates to arrive at minimum time, neither wasting nor sparing costs
b. estimate time and cost, crashed and normal
c. determine cost-per-week for crashing(crashed costs/time saved)
d. 'crash' cheapest path on the critical path
e. recalculate project network, continue 'c' & 'd' until all paths are 'crashed'
f. ease up on noncritical paths, until all paths are critical
989. Substantive due process" refers to the legitimacy of government purpose to protect public good, through a conceivable,
believable rationalizing its decisions: What dimension of due process refers to notice and an opportunity to be heard in a
fundamentally fair hearing by an impartial tribunal?
a. fundamental due process
b. judicial due process
c. procedural due process
d. administrative due process
990. An example of this is when government acquires land for public buildings, highways, and public welfare purposes.
a. Sovereignty
b. Constitutional Supremacy
c. Eminent domain
d. Seizure & confiscation
e. Transfer & exchange
991. Which benefit from a 'national land use code' would strengthen preservation/conservation rather than market mechanisms
a. guarantee land rights, enhance security of tenure, enhance mobility and ease of transfer of A & D properties
b. Reduce land disputes and thus improve urban planning and infrastructure development
c. serve as rational basis for land taxation and property taxation
d. protect State lands and promote environmental management
e. develop land markets and system of mortgage finance, provide access to loans and security of credit
992. 'TEPO' from the Supreme Court of the Republic of the Philippines, means
a. Transmutation of Environmental Penalty Ordinance
b. Temporary Environmental Protection Order
c. Trans-agency Edict on Pollutive Occupations
d. Total Elimination of pornography and Obscenity
993. Used in case against Exxon Valdez oil spill in 1989, this doctrine of common law maintains that the State holds natural
resources in trust for the public, now and in the future, and that government has the duty to protect the public's interest in
natural resources, which citizens cannot do separately and individually.
a. Environmental justice
b. Transparency and accountability
c. Public trust doctrine
d. State stewardship
994. Which kind of land can be converted into other uses with the least legal complication?
a. mangrove swamps
b. shrub land and grassland
c. mudflats & salinas
d. municipal plaza
e. road right of way
995. Under RA 6657 CARL, the owner of land under CARP can retain for himself/herself alone
a. 3 hectares
b. 5 hectares
c. 7 hectares
d. 9 hectares
e. 11 hectares

996. Of the following cases of land conversion, which one needs to prove that the land has ceased to be "economically feasible and
sound for agricultural purposes," to be certified by the Secretary of Agriculture?
a. conversion of cropland into irrigation facility
b. conversion of cropland into national RROW
c. conversion of cropland into commercial center
d. conversion of cropland into protected area for rare species
e. conversion of cropland into heritage site and eco tourist spot
f. conversion of cropland into LGU buffer flood holding area
997. The following were made members of the NEDA Board between 2001-2010, all of them without Cabinet rank, except one.
a. Governor of Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
b. National President, Union of Local Authorities of Phils.
c. Chairman of Metro Manila Development Authority
d. Chairman. of Commission on Information & Comm. Technologies
e. Chairman of Subic-Clark Area Development Corporation
f. Governor of Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao
998. Who among the current members of the Regional Development Council do not hold an appointive office?
a. Regional executive directors of agriculture, agrarian reform, DENR
b. LCEs of component provinces & chartered or autonomous units
c. Regional director of Philippine National Police
d. Official reps or proxies of congressmen
999. What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage?
a. Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be contracted, Expected ROI
b. Rationale, location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives , Manpower Requirements, Cost, Duration &
Schedule
c. Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management, and Marketing
d. Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating Entities
1000. What are the basic elements of an EIA study?

a. Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect ,Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and Institutional Aspect
b. Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data, Conclusions, Recommendations
c. Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extent, Duration, and Complexity
d. Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions , Post Implementation
1001. Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?

a. Performance standards
b. 'LOS' or accommodation standards
c. Design standards
d. Convenience standards
1002. Which would not be a priority for investigation in EIA of a complex proposing limestone quarrying and cement production?
a. Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered .species
b. Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes
c. Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
d. Company policies on hiring and firing and common management training
1003. If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of thermal pollution, the immediate result will most
likely be
a. An increase in the sewage content of the lake
b. A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
c. An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
d. A decrease in the amount of phosphates in the lake
1004. A common layman's attitude that says solid waste or hazardous facilities should not be located near one's borne QL
community.
a. P.I.M.O
b. N.I.M.B.Y.
c. F.O.N.S.I
d. E.T.J
e. B.o.B.

1005. What are L.U.L.U.'s?
a. Legally Unhampered Land Utilization
b. Large Unified Land Undertakings
c. Locally Unwanted Land Uses
d. Legally Under-Aged Lady Urbanites
1006. The presence of which of the following contaminants would be the strongest reason for judging municipal sewage sludge as
unfit for conversion into and use as fertilizer.
a. Human feces
b. Ammonia
c. Phosphates
d. Heavy metals
e. Nitrates
1007. Which of the following constitutes pre-consumer recycled content?

a. a tile facility reuses shards of tile broken during the manufacturing process to maximize a new tile.
b. a steel manufacturing facility uses recycled steel melted down from old cars
c. a steel manufacturing facility recycles rebar from Old Construction projects to make steel beams
d. a curtain manufacturer purchases scrap trimmings from a carpet manufacture
1008. At present, the major environmental problem with nuclear power as Source of electricity is
a. shortage of uranium and plutonium
b. disposal of radioactive waste
c. meltdown of the core nuclear reactor
d. large-scale combustion or explosion as in Japan, March 12,2011
e. fissures and leaks on building walls
f. GHG emission and air pollution
1009. The process in which toxic and hazardous waste (THW) materials are injected into an underground rock layer is called
a. fission
b. sub-littoral deposition
c. deep-well injection
d. surface impoundment
e. chemical neutralization
1010. Exposure to Cosmic rays, -rays, ultraviolet rays, and radiation from radioactive Substances may promote
a. the production of similar organisms
b. new inheritable characteristics
c. hyperactive stimulation of internal organs
d. a change from sexual to asexual reproduction
1011. Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?

a. A species of trout becomes extinct in a e1,1trophic lake,
b. The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
c. The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
d. PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with PCBs.
e. A parcel of forestland is declared a state park.
1012. Whereas the EIA of the 1970s has traditionally focused on the impact of specific projects on the environment, Strategic
Environmental Assessment (SEA) focuses on
a. The impact of overall development programmes, plans, and policies on the natural environment
b. The methods to assess environmental damage and their negative impacts on Society
c. The strategies to maximize impact of environment and natural resource utilization
d. The strategies to lessen environmental degradation as a necessary trade-off in development
1013. Which of these does not improve the effectiveness of social participation?
a. Identify interested and affected parties in relation to the proposed development
b. Provide accurate, understandable, relevant & timely information
c. Ensure that decision-makers are kept at a distance frominterested and affected parties
d. Incorporate public concerns into decisions
1014. Public participation is important for each of the following reasons except
a. Decision-making competency improves
b. The legitimacy of the decision increases
c. The decision-making process is speeded up
d. Participants become more responsible democratic citizens

1015. The Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act of the Republic of the Philippines is numbered as
a. Republic Act 3019
b. Republic Act 1530
c. Republic Act 6040
d. Republic Act 69
1016. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics tor Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec. 11,the "primary obligation of the
Environmental Planner is to"
a. "Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.
b. "Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
c. "Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with Colleagues and other professionals
d. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
e. Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner ln a noble undertaking.
1017. Which of the following is the role of the planner according to the APA Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?
a. assist in the clarification of community goals, objectives, and policies in plan-making
b. strive to give citizens the opportunity to have a meaningful impact on the development of plans and programs
c. have special concern for the long range consequences of present actions
d. ensure that participation be broad enough to include people who lack formal organization or influence
e. all of the above
1018. Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planners responsibility to his/her private client?
a. Do not plagiarize.
b. Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
c. Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
d. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party
e. When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.
1019. Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?

a. the abovefalsely injures the practice of other environmental planners
b. provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
c. affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
d. enters competitions where she has direct involvement in program formulation
e. all of
1020. In the Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners, to whom does the EnP have responsibility to seek opportunities of
constructive service in civic community affairs?
a. Own Clientele
b. Professional Organization
c. Public or Society-at-Large
d. Political Party in Power
1021. Which of the following compensation methods apples to cases where the environmental planners personal time is rendered,
such as at Conferences, seminars, fora, ceremonial activities, etc.
a. commission on total project cost
b. one-time lump sum fee
c. regular retainers' fee
d. percentage cut of direct personnel services (PS)
e. per diem plus reimbursement of actual expenses
f. moderate their greed
1022. A private sector planner is preparing a site plan for a private company. He intends to secure local government approval for his
clients development project' since it could lead to additional work for him in the subsequent phases of the project.
a. This constitutes a conflict of interest
b. There is no conflict of interest in this case
c. There is variance in codal standards for public and private planners
d. The Code of Ethics has inadequate provision for this kind of dilemma
1023. A group of concerned residents who live near a proposed petrol refinery takes their case to court and subpoenas the CPDC to
testify. The CPDC provides some information to the citizens' group as they prepare their case. He also testifies truthfully in
court about the value of project to the community. The following are true about the behavior of CPDC, except
a. The CPDC was acting in ethically responsible manner in trying to protect the integrity of the natural environment
b. The CPDC served the public interest by providing information to stakeholders preparing their case
c. The CPDC exhibited a concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed land use changes.
d. The CPDC should not have testified in court because the obey first before complain rule" means that a planner merely
accepts the decisions of his/her principals.

1024. In contrast to project managers in the private sector, project managers of public sector development projects are often
handicapped operationally and forced to
a. Work without objectives
b. Work with contradicting objectives
c. Ignore objectives and concentrate on "getting the job done"
d. Spend much time in adjusting objectives to reality
1025. According to Kerzner, a Project Manager should spend 90% of his/her time communicating. If you are manager of a team of 5,
how many communication channels do you personally have in the team?
a. four
b. five
c. twenty-four
d. twelve
1026. This is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team to accomplish the
project objectives and produce the required deliverable.
a. Multi-Tasking Protocol
b. Work Breakdown Structure
c. Shewhart Deming Control Chart
d. Ishikawa Fishbone Diagram
1027. Due to greater division of labor, there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of workers beginning with
a. Primitive subsistence society
b. Pre-industrial society
c. Industrial society
d. Post-industrial society
1028. In the biggest and most crowded city during Antiquity, poor residents of Rome (44 BCE) lived on units in multi-storey
residential buildings which they rented but could not own; these were called
a. 'abode'
b. 'domus'
c. 'appartement'
d. 'tenema'
1029. This refers to a period in US planning history (1890s) when cities were conceived as total systems designed with broad
circulation arteries, network of parks, cluster of focal buildings, and blocks of civic centers in aesthetic harmony.
a. New Towns Movement
b. City Efficient Movement
c. City Beautiful Movement
d. City Functional Movement
1030. An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon the historic city of traditional
neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and homes would be within walking distance of each other.
a. Neo-Populism
b. Eco-Village
c. New Urbanism
d. Dynapolis
e. Transit-Oriented Development
1031. In Clarence Steins Six Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns traffic caused by roadside parking
a. Plan simply, but comprehensively
b. Provide ample sites in the right places for community use
c. Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful transportation of people and goods
d. Cars must be stored inside homes
e. Bring private land and public land into relationship
f. Arrange for the occupancy of houses
1032. All of the following are true about urban planning except
a. Changing a city's physical form does not automatically reshape social life
b. Planning always takes place within a framework of economic and political realities
c. Planners should be allowed to control all technical aspects of how cities are built
d. The goals of the planning experiments of the last century have not been met
e. Cities should be designed in a way that fosters economic, social, cultural and environmental integration.

1033. In his ''Theory of Good City Form,' he argued that norms such as vitality, sense, fit, access, control, efficiency, and justice - ought
to characterize the performance of cities as settlements.
a. Kevin Lynch
b. Edward Tollman
c. John Trawls
d. Camillo Sitte
1034. What is the smallest unit in the human settlements planning by Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
a. House
b. Anthropos
c. Organism
d. Neighborhood
e. Hamlet
1035. Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under ekistics school of Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?
a. Ecumenopolis
b. Megalopolis
c. Metropolis
d. Agropolis
e. Eperopolis
1036. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, one of the following is not among the types of cities in the Philippines.
a. Highly Urbanized Cities
b. Independent Cities
c. Sister Cities
d. Component Cities
1037. In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a service viable.
a. Resident population
b. Captive market
c. Threshold population
d. Population explosion
1038. 'Young dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
a. 0-4
b. 0-6
c. 0-10
d. 0-14
1039. "Old dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
a. 60 and above
b. 65 and above
c. 70 and above
d. 80 and above
1040. 'Working-age population" including those actively seeking and not seeking work, covers those with ages between
a. 10-65
b. 15-64
c. 18-65
d. 21-60
1041. In the following formal statement on population policy(2010-2016) from President Benigno Simeon Aquino 111, which
statement pertains to the States obligation to inform its citizens of all family planning alternatives from A to Z.
a. " ... I am against abortion as outlawed by the Philippine Constitution.
b. " ... I am in favor of giving couples the right to choose how best to manage their families so that in the end, their welfare
and that of their children are best served.
c. ... The State must respect each individual's right to follow his or her conscience and religious convictions on matters
and issues pertaining to the unity of the family and the sacredness of human life · from conception to natural death.
d. ... In a situation where couples, especially the poor and disadvantaged ones, are in no position to make an informed
judgment, the State has the responsibility to provide complete information:
e. ...ln the range of options provided to couples, natural family planning and modern methods shall always be presented
as equally available."

1042. A duly-registered cooperative acquires a river-dredging machinery and waste-water treatment equipment. Should such
acquisitions be subject to real property taxation under RA 7160 LGC Section 234?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It depends on the Local Chief Executive
d. Subject to the discretion of Assessor
1043. Which of the following is not a part of the General Welfare Clause of RA 7160 LGC Section 167
a. Hospitality and festivity
b. Economic prosperity
c. Balanced ecology & social justice
d. Health and safety
e. Preservation & enrichment of culture
f. Appropriate self-reliant science & technology
1044. Which of the following is not considered idle land under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 2377
a. Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole area bare and uncultivated
b. Urban land of at least 1,000 sqm. with 50% of whole area unutilized and unimproved upon
c. Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
d. Stud farm on public land with no ongoing· breeding or training activities
1045. Under RA 7160 LGC, who among the following incumbents' may be allowed to practice his/her primary profession while in
public office?
a. Local Chief Executive
b. Congressman Representative
c. Vice-Governor
d. Municipal Accountant
1046. Under the super-region concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega Manila Extended Urban Region,
would focus on
a. Hacienda farming
b. Meat processing
c. Commodity logistics chain
d. Cyber services
e. Tourism
1047. Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul Davidoff (1965)
a. Single women with children were assisted to find employment
b. Social planning was moved from backroom negotiations into the open public forum
c. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
d. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
e. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
1048. "Decide, announce, defend" summarizes "top-down" planning and management; its opposite in 'bottom up' planning and
management that involves multiple stakeholders would be described as -
a. Delegate, deload, discharge
b. Discuss, decide, deliver
c. Debate, distill, deliberate
d. Dispute, discourse, direct
1049. Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which steps' would require the planner to perform
'facilitation' role rather than, "advice," "direction," or "manipulation"?
a. Counseling; therapy
b. Consultation; placation
c. Informing
d. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control
1050. UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban-land (residential, commercial, industrial, etc) and 6
hectares of farm need to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town of 22,000?
a. 62.7 hectares
b. 125.4 hectares
c. 220 hectares
d. 1.14 hectares
• 5.7 has.(urban land only) x 22=125.4 hectares

1051. UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to education (public and private) per thousand
populations. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
a. 40 hectares
b. 24 hectares
c. 10 hectares
d. 240 hectares
• every 1000 people

• 0.6 has. x 40= 24 hectares
1052. In terms of land use compatibility, what specific use would be least suitable next to a military police firing range?
a. Funeraria
b. Memorial park
c. Residential
d. Open space
e. Forest
1053. What would be the most suitable use of geologic fault line with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both sides from the line?
b. Floodway
c. Venice-like canals
d. Open space farm
e. Wildlife refuge
1054. In classic urban morphology, since cemeteries' perform solemn private functions' that require neither exchange nor access to
commerce, they ought to be located in
a. Prime agricultural land
b. Caves and rocky hills
c. Fringe belts
d. Desert
e. Marginal land
1055. Under the current setup, what government agency has the final authority on conversion of agricultural land?
a. DAR
b. Department of Agriculture
c. Land Registration Authority
d. Land Management Bureau
e. HLURB
f. HUDCC
1056. This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of tide, technically, to a string of land
margining a body of water, between the low-water line usually at the seaward margin of a , low tide terrace and the upper
limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or berm.
a. Seaside
b. Seaboard
c. Foreshore
d. Seagrass bed
e. Beachfront
1057. Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring moratorium on the cutting and harvesting of timber," which of the
following is exempted from the total log ban until the year 2016?
a. Concessions signed by DENR secretary
b. Conversion of mangrove forests
c. Selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
d. Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging', and kaingin
1058. Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program as DA-DAR-DENR Convergence
Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each government employee plant each year, a requirement that also applies to
students identified by DEPED and CHED?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
e. 35

1059. The 'bundle of rights' over private alienable-&-disposable property include all of the following rights except
a. Utilize, cultivate, develop
b. Enjoy benefits and earn from
c. Access, prevent access & control
d. Non-use, abuse, and misuse
e. Mortgage, sell, or dispose
1060. Transfer and pass on Which is not an instrument to prove private rights over land?
a. Certificate of Title
b. CLOA
c. Free Patent
d. DTI-IPR Patent
e. Tax Declaration
f. CADT
1061. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects undertaken by the government or the private sector
for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which include sites and services development, long-term financing, liberalized
terms on interest payments, and other related benefits.
a. Economic housing
b. Socialized housing
c. Low-cost housing
d. Open-market housing
1062. Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized housing with row house design. Which deficiency
is considered the principal cause of the failure of off-city relocation in the Philippines?
a. 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
b. Each dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening, and domestic crop production
c. Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by means of protective trees
d. Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or employment centers
1063. In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' should be rationally matched with
a. Materials & machines
b. Nuts and bolts
c. Service capacity infrastructure
d. Investments of government
1064. In water supply planning, what classification of water should a residential consumer get from a faucet?
a. Class AA
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e. Class E
1065. A water system composed of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and communal faucets. Usually, one faucet serves 4 to 6
households, generally suitable for rural and urban-fringe areas where houses are clustered densely to justify a simple piped-
system.
a. Level I
b. Level II
c. Level III
d. Level IV
1066. Under PD198 dated May 25, 1973, if a 'water district' can be created for at least one municipality or cluster of municipalities,
what would be the minimum population to be serviced within a water district?
a. 15,000
b. 25,000
c. 35,000
d. 45,000
e. 55,000
1067. Since the permitted width of four-wheel vehicle is 2.5 meters and the minimum clearance between two parallel vehicles is
0.50 meters, what should be the ideal width of a two-lane farm-to-market road also called barangay road?
a. 3 meters
b. 6 meters
c. 9 meters
d. 12 meters

1068. According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the additives to gasoline that are harmful to both people and
nature?
a. Methyl tertiary butyl ether
b. Isooctane and heptane
c. Molybdenum oxide
d. Tetraethyl
1069. The following factors combine to cause flashfloods and large-scale flooding, except
a. Amount of rainfall
b. Winds and gusts
c. Loss of tree cover causing erosion & siltation
d. waterways clogged with household wastes
e. Impervious concrete surfaces
f. Natural topography
1070. The shifts in perspective from victim as receiver to victim as actor, 'from dole-out of goods to capacity building and institution-
building,' 'from individual aid to restoration of the social system,' 'from outside response to community initiatives' -all form
part of the paradigm of
a. Quick emergency response
b. Disaster risk reduction
c. Disaster recovery management
d. Search, rescue & rehab
1071. In the equation, Disaster = (Hazard)x (Exposure/Preparedness) x (Vulnerability/Coping Capacity), Disaster can be reduced
by
a. Decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard
b. Training people to cope and cope unceasingly
c. Preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
d. Changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
1072. The logical equation to describe "Risk" would be

a. Risk = Susceptibility x Vulnerability divided by Adaptive/Coping capacity
b. Risk = Exposure x Duration x Extent x Frequency
c. Risk = Hazard x Population Density + Income
d. Risk = Exposure x Probability x Coincidence
1073. In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the innermost circle in the diagram is
a. Farming of the most expensive crops
b. Terminal for commuters, central rail station
c. Central park
d. Shopping & retail services
1074. In Ernest Burgess' concentric model (1925), factories and workshops would most likely locate in
a. The innermost circle
b. The outermost circle
c. The second circle from the center
d. The third circle from the center
1075. In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end subdivisions?
a. Section 'A'
b. Section 'B1'
c. Section 'C'
d. Section 'D'

1076. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' commonly results from what Pierce F. Lewis calls
a. Circumferential City
b. Multi-cellular City
c. Stellar City
d. Galactic City
1077. In classical theories of industrial location by Weber, Losch, and lsard, what are the three factors that firms are most concerned
about?
a. Minerals, electricity, water
b. Costs of money, taxes, stock exchange growth
c. Location of raw materials, location of market, transport
d. Product image, promotion & advertising, public relations
1078. According to R. Hurd, since land value depends on economic rent, and rent on location, and location on convenience, and
convenience on nearness, we may eliminate the intermediate steps and say that land value depends on nearness."
a. Social connection
b. Proximity and access
c. Ease of movement
d. Free play of market forces
1079. Why do land values at the center of an overpopulated city fall drastically?
a. Pollution, land degradation, disease
b. Urban blight, decay, and criminality
c. Congestion, overcrowding, traffic
d. Deteriorating quality of life
1080. The highest and best use of a 30 sq. km freshwater lake based on computation of both monetary and non-monetary values, is
best illustrated in the following combination:
a. Five-star resort hotel that caters to foreign tourists, with boating, wakeboarding, jetski and other sports facilities;
b. Five-star resort hotel plus high-end Retirement Haven that contributes substantial revenues to the LGU;
c. Manufacturing park with 20 locators and ready facilities for industrial cooling and dumping of factory wastewater;
d. Ecotourism plus fisheries, ferry transport, sports, wellness centers, flood holding area, aquatic parks and sanctuaries
1081. Which is not one of Nature's ecosystemic services and functions as adopted by the United Nations?
a. Climate regulation
b. Food and fiber
c. Nutrient cycling
d. Soil formation
e. Physical aberrations and anomalies
f. Biological treatment of water and storm runoff
1082. "Conservation" from the perspective of environmental economics' would include all but one of the following
a. Society's savings from strict preserves
b. Elimination of social and economic waste
c. Orderly and efficient resource use
d. Maximization of social net returns over time
1083. "Environmental Economics" by Randall and Howe calculates the value in use of natural resources by creating them as
a. Stock resources, flow resources, reproducing resources
b. Renewable, replenishable, replicable
c. Extant, extinct, exhaustible
d. Inputs, throughputs, outputs
1084. In "Ecological Economics" by Daly and Costanza, non-use of ENR has economic value because it can result in greater
"environmental protection and security"
a. Existence value
b. Insurance value
c. Bequest value
d. Vicarious value
e. All of the above

1085. 'Republic Act that provides for conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their habitats is numbered as
a. RA 9147
b. RA 9714
c. RA 4791
d. RA 1479
• R.A. 9147 "Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act."
1086. Under RA 7076 People's Small scale Mining Act of 1991, who are the preferred holders of small-scale mining permits?
a. Guilds
b. Cooperatives
c. Sanggunian
d. NGOs
e. Micro-scale and cottage enterprises
1087. Under RA 7076 People's Small-scale Mining Act of 1991, the following are characteristics of small-scale mining except
a. Capitalization of not more than 10 million
b. Use of explosives for excavating and tunneling
c. Not more than 20 hectares in total size
d. Gross production not more than 50,000
e. Artisanal and labor-intensive
1088. Under RA 7942 Philippine Mining Act of 1995, a mining enterprise with capitalization of more than 10 million and an operating
area of over 20 hectares, can be considered
a. Medium-scale
b. Global-scale
c. Large-scale
d. Cottage-scale
1089. An area within a city or town where the average density is 20 dwelling units per hectare or below, with majority of lot sizes
are between 300-800 square meters or more, is zoned as
a. R-1
b. R-2
c. R-3
d. R-4
e. Mixed Use Zone
1090. An area in most cities ·where regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers
are located, is zoned as
a. C-1
b. C-2
c. C-3
d. Tourism zone
e. Financial District
1091. An LGU regulation prohibiting a landowner from using his/her residential lot as a firing range is considered an exercise of the
power of the State called
a. Escheat
b. Eminent domain
c. Taxation
d. Police power
e. Moral suasion
f. Sovereignty
1092. "Identity, structure, and meaning - Cities that have buildings and natural features with strong identities, street patterns that
are easy to comprehend, and other form elements that have functional and symbolic meanings are likely to be more imageable
than cities lacking such attributes."
a. Kevin Lynch
b. Edward Tollman
c. John Trawls
d. Camilo Sitte
1093. Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas Center?
a. Landmark
b. Cosmopolitan
c. District
d. Downtown

e. Estate
1094. What does the Gini coefficient measure?

a. Savings rate
b. Real estate tax
c. Income inequality
d. Poverty
e. Return on investment
1095. Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?
a. Population forecasts
b. Employment trends
c. Income levels
d. Cohort survival
e. Poverty incidence of households
f. Retail sales of registered enterprises
1096. Which of the following is not a function of the National Economic and Development Authority?
a. Proper allocation of expenditures for each development activity between current operating expenditures and capital
outlays;
b. Evaluation of the fiscal, monetary and balance of payments implications of major national projects,
c. Privatization and public accountability of corporations and assets owned, controlled or acquired by the government
d. Advice the President on matters concerning social development, education, manpower, health and nutrition,
population and family planning, housing, human settlements, and the delivery of other social services;
e. Recommend appropriate policies, programs and projects consistent with national development objectives
1097. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing need would reach
6,732,464 by year 2016, but governments capacity to directly provide houses only averages 120,000 units per annum. What
would be a more rational strategy for housing development?
a. Leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of market forces;
b. Allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;
c. Rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot packages;
d. LGUs should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low
e. Stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing production.
1098. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing need According to the
Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, among nine countries in East Asia being compared, the Philippines
has the highest officially-reported poverty incidence at 26.6%, the highest Gini coefficient at 0.448, the lowest rate increase in
real per capita income at 2.3% per annum, and among the highest unemployment rates per annum. These figures indicate that
a. Philippine growth is not broad based and could not create vast employment opportunities for the majority;
b. Macroeconomic growth has not been adequately translated into human development and social progress.
c. Public investment favors few competitive sectors in central and urban places to the neglect of the marginal and
disadvantaged sectors;
d. Economic growth in real terms' is often too small to be offset by high population growth.
e. Bad governance means there are chronic leakages of government resources & low accountability and transparency in
the development management.
1099. In Urban land use models of the Chicago school of human ecology, the affluent and middle classes are inclined to E- away from
downtown and inner-city in favor of suburban locations and this process results in a paradox or "spatial mismatch" as regards
labor.
a. Sophisticated upper classes locate in city-edges with semi-rural conditions where no employment is available
b. Lower-classes who cannot create employment by themselves are left to occupy high-priced land in the inner core of
cities
c. Blue-collar workers are forced to accept !ow-skill jobs as maids, yayas, gardeners in affluent suburban subdivisions
d. Non-tax paying people in the informal sector are closer to the seat of government than the landed gentry
1100. To conserve freshwater by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
a. Sub-terranean drilling to interconnect deep-wells
b. Partially grassed waterways
c. Mini-dams and dikes to slow down stream flow to the sea
d. Small water impounding projects (SWP)
e. Rainwater harvesting thru man-made ponds, small farm reservoirs (SFRs)

1101. Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA) to make the world safer and to substantially reduce disaster losses. Which of 5
priority areas below pertains to each community's coping mechanisms and modifications in its way of life?
a. Ensure that disaster risk reduction becomes a national and local priority with strong institutional basis for
implementation
b. Identify, assess, and monitor disaster risks and enhance early warning systems.
c. Use knowledge, innovation and education to build a culture of safety and resilience at all levels
d. Reduce the underlying risk factors
e. Strengthen disaster preparedness for effective response at all levels

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ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING BOARD EXAMINATION_______________________

3. Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?

6. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:

1|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

2|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

21. The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" come from what school of planning?

3|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

4|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

5|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

6|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

7|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

8|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

• LR = 3,500 kgs(17.00-12.00) – 3,500(1.00)(5km)

9|P age (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

10 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

96. Which is not a method to delineate a region?

11 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

12 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

13 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

14 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

15 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

140. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?

16 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

17 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

152. Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?

153. Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?

156. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as

18 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

161. Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?

162. 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate

163. An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more

19 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

175. All but one of the following is sub-categories of Forest Reserve.

177. A 'watershed' is principally a source of

20 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

• PD 1067 Chapter 4 Article 51 (Water Code of the Philippines)

21 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

190. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?

• 2.5 has every 1000 people

22 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

199. What are the elements of 'urban form'?

201. Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?

23 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

• Reference: PD 1096 National Building Code

208. What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?

• I1-Z, I2-Z, I3-Z

209. What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?

• General I-Z, Special I-Z

210. What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?

211. An example of positive easement is one that

24 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

25 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

227. Which of the following results from the mis-use of wetlands?

228. Loss of biodiversity is caused by

26 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

231. Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that

27 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

240. Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards

241. What is the mechanism that causes 'land subsidence'?

28 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

255. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?

29 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU

30 | P a g e (SOURCE OF QUESTIONS & ANSWERS: WWW.PROPROFS.COM) ARCH. JOSANDYLU