1. How can you avoid spatial disorientation when flying in IMC ?
a. By believing the flight instruments b. Never believing the flight instruments c. Flight instrument calibrated d. All instruments.
2. Name the pitot-static flight instruments ?
a. The ASI, The altimeter and the AH b. The ASI, the altimeter and the VSI c. The altimeter, The VSI and the AH d. Artificial Horizon and Heading Indicator
3. What sort of instrument it the attitude indicator ?
a. Electrical instrument b. A vaccum indicator c. A gyroscopic instrument and the secondary control instrument d. A gyroscopic instrument and the primary control instrument
4. What sort of instrument is the airspeed indicator ?
a. A vaccum instrument b. A pressure instrument c. Electrical instrument d. A barometric instrumenjt
5. What is the ratio of the true airspeed to the speed of sound called ? a. The ultrasonic unit b. The mach number c. The wave of sound d. All answer above are correct
6. What sort of instrument is the heading indicator ?
a. Electronic instrument b. Magnetic instrument c. A gyro instrument d. Pressure instrument
7. What sort of instrument is the altimeter ?
a. A vaccum instrument b. A gyro Instrument c. An Electrical Instument d. A pressure instrument
8. What sort of instrument is the turn indicator ?
a. A pressure instrument b. A rate gyro instrument c. An Electrical instrument d. A vaccum instrument
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EXAMINATION IR BANDUNG PILOT ACADEMY 60 minutes INSTRUMENT RATING CLOSED BOOK
9. Name the pitch instruments
a. The AI, altimeter, VSI, and ASI b. The Heading Indicator, altimeter, VSI c. The gyro instrument d. The pressure instriment
10. What is the primary performance guide that the pitch attitude selected on the AI is correct during climb or descent ? a. Turn and bank b. The ASI c. The VSI d. The Barometric
11. How is the quality of any turn indicated ?
a. By AH b. By Vaccum indicator c. By turn and bank d. By the position of the coordination ball
12. What instruments indicate a nose-high or nose-low attitude ?
a. The Vaccum indicator b. The AI, altimeter, VSI, and ASI c. The AI and Vaccum indicator d. The AI and the gyro instrument
13. What is the correct sequency for recovery from a nose-high, banked turn, reducing airspeed, unusual flight attitude ? a. Correct the bank attitude, lower the nose to a level attitude and Apply power. b. Apply power, lower the nose to a level attitude, and correct the bank attitude c. Lower the nose to a level attitude, Apply power and correct the bank attitude d. Lower the nose to a level attitude, Apply power and correct the bank attitude
14. If the airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the AI has exceeded its limits, which two instrument should be relied on to determine the pitch attitude before starting recovery ? a. The ASI and altimeter b. The ASI and VSI c. The VSI and altimeter d. The VSI and AI
15. What approximate rate of descent in fpm is required to achieve a 3⁰ glide slop, which is 300 feet per NM, if the groundspeed of the airplane is the following: 60 knots? And 90 knots?
a. 200 fpm and 300 fpm
b. 300 fpm and 450 fpm c. 300 fpm and 400 fpm d. 400 fpm and 600 fpm
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16. What is RBI an abbreviation for ?
a. Remark bearing indicator b. Relative bearing indicator c. Return ball indicator d. Remark ball indicator
17. What effect can atmospheric conditions, such as electrical storms or the periods of sunrise and sunset, have on NDB signals ? a. Atmospheric conditions can not distort NDB signals b. Some atmospheric conditions can distort NDB signals, making ADF indications less reliable c. Some atmospheric conditions can distort NDB signals, making ADF indications more reliable d. All answer above are correct
18. What requency does the VOR operate on ?
a. VHF b. UHF c. HF d. SW
19. How far above touchdown is the glide slope of a typical ILS at the middle marker (MM) ? a. Approximately 200 feet HAT b. Approximately 300 feet HAT c. Approximately 400 feet HAT d. Approximately 500 feet HAT
20. At 1.9 NM, the glide-slope needle is 2 dots below its central position, and the localizer needle is 2 dots left of its central position. What is the lateral and vertical deviation from the desired flight path ? a. 140 feet high, and 710 feet right of the localizer b. 240 feet high, and 710 feet right of the localizer c. 140 feet high, and 510 feet right of the localizer d. 240 feet high, and 510 feet right of the localizer
21. What does DME measure ?
a. Distance Measuring Equipment b. Approach distance c. Flare distance d. Slant distance
22. DME readings are accurate if the airplane is what altitude above the elevation of the DME ground station ? a. 0.5 NM per 1000 feet b. 1 NM per 1,000 feet c. 2 NM per 1000 feet d. 1 NM per 2000 feet
23. What are fixed along an off-airways route known as ?
a. NDB b. ADF c. Waypoints d. All above are false
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24. What does LORAN-C use to fix position ?
a. LORAN-C uses time-difference measurement from widely separated LORAN stations to fix position using hyperbolic position lines b. LORAN-C uses distance-difference measurement from widely separated LORAN stations to fix position using hyperbolic position lines c. LORAN-C uses altitude measurement from widely separated LORAN stations to fix position using parabolic position lines d. LORAN-C uses time-difference measurement from widely separated LORAN stations to fix position using parabolic position lines
25. The space element of GPS consists of how many satellites orbiting the earth ? a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36
26. How are ionospheric effect offset by the GPS receiver ?
a. By data transmit to the satellites b. By data received from the satellites c. By data transmit to the station d. By data received from the satelites
27. What is the Coriolis force ?
a. An apparent force resulting from the base station b. An apparent force resulting to the base station c. An apparent force resulting from the passage of the air over the rotating earth d. An apparent force resulting from the passage of the air over pole the earth
28. At any level in the atmosphere, windshear can be associated with any change in: a. Wind speed b. Wind direction c. Wind speed or wind direction d. None of the above
29. Poor visibility in more likely result with :
a. stable air b. unstable air c. wind direction d. wind speed
30. What sort of air is indicated by turbulence, good visibility, cumuliform clouds, and showery precipitation ? a. Stable air b. Unstable air c. Wind direction d. Wind speed
31. What sort of air is indicated by the presence of stratiform clouds ?
a. Stable air b. Unstable air c. Wind direction d. wind speed
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EXAMINATION IR BANDUNG PILOT ACADEMY 60 minutes INSTRUMENT RATING CLOSED BOOK
32. If an unstable air mass is forced to mountain slope, what type cloud is most likely to develop? How much, if any, vertical development will there be ? a. The cloud type most likely to develop is cumuli form cloud. There will be extensive vertical development. b. The cloud type most likely to develop is cumuli form cloud. There will be extensive horizontal development. c. The cloud type most likely to develop is stratos form cloud. d. The cloud type most likely to develop is cirus form cloud.
33. What two conditions must be met for structural icing to occur on airplane ? a. Visible moisture and a temperature at or below freezing b. Visible moisture and a high temperature c. Unvisible moisture and a temperature d. All answer above are false
34. The risk of clear ice forming on the airplane’s structure is greater when flying in which type of clouds ? a. stratoform cloud b. Comuliform cloud c. cirrusform cloud d. all answer above are false
35. What is the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm characterized by ?
a. Updrafts b. Downdrafts c. crosswind d. Downburst
36. As a general rule, by what distance should you avoid severe thunderstorm ? a. At least 2 NM b. At least 5 NM c. At least 10 NM d. At least 20 NM
37. What is a Jetstream ?
a. A wind of 100 knots or greater b. A wind of 80 knots or greater c. A wind of 70 knots or greater d. A wind of 50 knots or greater
38. What defines the tripopause ?
a. An abrupt change in temperature lapse rate b. A stable in temperature c. A stable in pressure altitude d. An abrupt change in prssure altitude lapse rate
39. What is meant by IFR conditions ?
a. Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles b. Ceiling less than 2,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles c. Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 2 miles d. Ceiling less than 2,000 feet and/or visibility less than 2 miles
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40. What is meant by VFR conditions ?
a. Ceiling greater than 2,000 feet and/or visibility greater than 5 miles b. Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and/or visibility greater than 5 miles c. Ceiling greater than 4,000 feet and/or visibility greater than 5 miles d. Ceiling greater than 5,000 feet and/or visibility greater than 5 miles
41. Who is directly responsible for the operation of an aircraft ?
a. The pilot in command b. The Flight officer c. The Student Pilot d. All above are false
42. Name the visibility and distance from clouds requirements for a special VFR clearance ? a. Visibility 1 SM, Distance from clouds are clear of clouds b. Visibility 2 SM, Distance from clouds are clear of clouds c. Visibility 3 SM, Distance from clouds are clear of clouds d. Visibility 4 SM, Distance from clouds are clear of clouds
43. What do the letters MEA stand for ?
A. Maximum en route altitude B. Maximum en route distance C. Minimum en route altitude D. Minimum en route visibility
44. What is MOCA an abbreviation for ?
a. Maximum obstruction clearance altitude b. Maximum clouds ceilling c. Minimum obstruction clearance altitude d. Minimum Clouds ceilling
45. What are standard take offs minimums stated as ?
a. Visibility n wind direction b. Clouds ceilling only c. Wind direction only d. Visibility only
46. What are the standard take off minimums for airplanes with 1 or 2 engines? What RVR is this equivalents to ? a. Visibility 5 SM. This is equivalent to an RVR of 5,000 feet b. Visibility 4 SM. This is equivalent to an RVR of 5,000 feet c. Visibility 2 SM. This is equivalent to an RVR of 5,000 feet d. Visibility 1 SM. This is equivalent to an RVR of 5,000 feet
47. If ATC issues an instruction or a clearance, some aspect of which is not clear to you, what should you do ? a. Request info b. waiting verification c. Request verification d. All answer above are true
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48. You are operating on a composite flight plan. What radio calls would you make to change from VFR to IFR ? a. Prior to transitioning from VFR to IFR, close the VFR portion of your plan with FSS and request an IFR clearance b. Directly request an IFR clearance c. Maintain the VFR portion of your plan d. Change from VFR to IFR, as you want.
49. The shape of a typical holding pattern is a:
a. Circle b. Racetrack c. Rectangle d. Ellipse
50. The radar controller advises “traffic at 2 o’clock, 5 miles, southbound. “Wind is calm. Where should you look ? a. You should look approximately 60⁰ right a. You should look approximately 30⁰ left b. You should look a head c. You should look approximately 30⁰ right
