1) Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers, counselors,

and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically help them solve local
problems?
a. Action research
b. Basic research
c. Predictive research
d. Orientational research
2) How much confidence should we place in a single research study?
a. We should completely trust a single research study.
b. We should trust research findings after different researchers have found the same findings
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b
3) Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a. Rationalism
b. Deductive reasoning
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Probabilistic
4) Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but
different people" is which of the following?
a. Exploration
b. Hypothesis
c. Replication
d. Empiricism
5) ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. Rationalism
b. Deductive reasoning
c. Logic
d. Empiricism
6) According to the text, what are the five key objectives of science?
a. Prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description
b. Influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. Exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence
d. Questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary
7) A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children
learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
8) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation?
a. It is parsimonious
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories
9) Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?
a. Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b. It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claims
c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practices
d. Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is immoral
10) What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a researcher
advance an ideological or political position?
a. Evaluation research
b. Basic research
c. Action research
d. Orientational research
11) Which "scientific method" follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive b. Deductive
c. Inductive d. Top down
12) Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation?
a. Empiricism b. Rationalism
c. Expert opinion d. None of the above
13) Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
14) Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
15) Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
16) Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method
17) Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a. It most simply means "explanation"
b. It answers the "how" and "why" questions
c. It can be a well developed explanatory system
d. All of the above are correct
18) Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
 a. The collection of nonnumerical data
b. An attempt to confirm the researcher's hypotheses
c. Research that is exploratory
d. Research that attempts to generate a new theory
19) A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a. A constant
b. A variable
c. A cause-and-effect relationship
d. A descriptive relationship
20) A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. Categorical variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Independent variable
d. Intervening variable
21) All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. It relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. It can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. It uses the deductive scientific method
d. It rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
22. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a. It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. It relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. It is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. It uses the inductive scientific method
23) What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. Extraneous variables are never present
b. A positive correlation usually exists
c. A negative correlation usually exists
d. Manipulation of the independent variable
24) In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot manipulate
the independent variable.
a. Basic research
b. Quantitative research
c. Experimental research
d. Causal-comparative and correlational research
25)What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. Resistance to manipulation
b. Manipulation of the independent variable
c. The use of open-ended questions
d. Focuses only on local problems
26) A positive correlation is present when _______.
a. Two variables move in opposite directions.
b. Two variables move in the same direction.
c. One variable goes up and one goes down
d. Several variables never change.
27) Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative
paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. Basic research
c. Quantitative research
d. Mixed method research
28) Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a
stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
a. Action research
b. Basic research
c. Quantitative research
d. Mixed model research
29) Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. Experimental research
b. Historical research
c. Replication
d. Archival research
30) ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. Causal-comparative research
b. Experimental research
c. Ethnography
d. Correlational research
31) Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a. Age, temperature, income, height
b. Grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. Gender, religion, ethnic group
d. Both a and b
32) What is the opposite of a variable?
a. A constant
b. An extraneous variable
c. A dependent variable
d. A data set
33) In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. Variable
b. Method
c. Constant
d. Control group
34) When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two
variables, it is very important to avoid _______.
a. Checking the strength of relationship
b. Jumping to the conclusion of causality
c. Checking the direction of the relationship
d. Expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient
35) The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlation
d. Ethnography
36) Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
37) The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
38) A good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find
39) The "tool" function of theory is to:
a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories
40) The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study
41) Why is the statement "What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive
development of school age children" not a good statement of a quantitative research question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular activities
to conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of the
variables being investigated
42) A qualitative research question:
a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above
43) According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of
the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose
44) One step that is not included in planning a research study is:
a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
45) Sources of researchable problems can include:
a. Researchers' own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above
46) Which of the following is a function of theory?
a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory
47) A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do
which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above
48) What kind of ideas can't be empirically researched?
a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use
49) Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during the
literature review?
a. ERIC
b. Psych INFO
c. Socio FILE
d. All of the above are potentially useful data bases
50) Computer database searches can be done:
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above
51) The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
 b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above
52) A formal statement of the research question or "purpose of research study" generally ______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. b and c only
53) A statement of the quantitative research question should:
a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above
54) The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction b. Method
c. Data analysis d. Discussion
55). Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c
56). Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed
57) A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above
58) The Method section of the research plan typically specifies
a. The research participants
b. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
c. The planned research procedures
d. All the above
59) The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research, it
includes the research hypothesis
d. All of the above
60) According to the text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Theory
b. Practical issues & Everyday life
c. Past research
d. All of the above
61) Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. This is called:
a. Anonymity b. Confidentiality
c. Deception d. Desensitizing
62)What is it called when the participants are not revealed to anyone but researcher and staff?
a. Confidentiality b. Anonymity
c. Ethics d. Discretion
63) Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. Guidelines b. A commitment
c. Informed consent d. Private information
64) Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large study?
a. Duplicate publication
b. Partial publication
c. Triplicate publication
d. None of these
65) Systematic error is associated with:
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Explicability
d. None of the above
66) An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.
a. True
b. False
67)Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
a. Nominal b. Ordinal
c. Interval d. Ratio
68) Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens' four levels of measurement?
a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
c. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. Ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal
69) According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. All of the above
70) Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?
a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c. Avoid double-barreled questions
 d. All of the above
71) Which of these is not a method of data collection.
a. Questionnaires b. Interviews
c. Experiments d. Observations
72) Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?
a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above
73) Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier
time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes
74) Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher's
predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant's own words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant's own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants' own words
75) Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.
a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
d. None of the above

Answers
1. a
2. b 71. C 72. d 73. b 74. C 75. b
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. a
8. d
9. d
10. d
11. a
12. b
13. a
14. b
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. b
20. c
21. d
22. a
23. d
24. d
25. b
26. b
27. d
28. d
29. b
30. b
31. d
32. a
33. c
34. b
35. a
36. d
37. a
38. b
39. c
40. b
41. d
42. b
43. a
44. d
45. d
46. d
47. d
48. c
49. d
50. d
51. d
52. d
53. d
54. b
55. d
56. b
57. d
58. d
59. d
Page:of 7

Chapter 16
Multiple Choice Questions
(The answers are provided after the last question.)
1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?
a. SD
b.

c. r
d.

2. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated t
he mean for each of the
samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution) based on all of
those means, what would you have?
a. A population distribution
b. A sample distribution
c. A sampling distribution
d. A parameter di
stribution
3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?
a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the long run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will
not
include the population parameter
d. All of the above statements are true
4. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a 99 percent
confidence interval rathe
r than a 95 percent confidence interval?
a. It will be narrower
b. It will not change
c. The sample size will increase
d. It will become wider
5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
a. The coin is not fair
b. There is a
correlation in the population
c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
d. The defendant is guilty
6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means?
a. Three or more
b. Two
or more
7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?
a. Sampling error
b. Sample error
c. Standard error
d. Simple error
8. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential statistics?
a. Tru
e
b. False
9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic
10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical
characteristic of a popula
tion.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic
11. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?
a. Sample means
b. Sample correlations
c. Sample proportions
d. All of the above
12
. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 50%
d. none of the above
13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or she is
engaging in hypothesis testing?
a.
The alternative hypothesis
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis
14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it
means that the a
uthor has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a
significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False
15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship, it
means that the author has rejec
ted the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is using a
significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False
16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
a.
Confidence intervals
b.
Confidence limits
c.
Levels of confidenc
e
d. Margin of error
17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is actually
false.
a.
Type I error
b.
Type II error
c.
Type III error
d.
Type IV error
18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.
a.
Repeated sampling
b. Small sample
c. Large sample
d. Large population
19. The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more like a(n):
a. Point estimate
b. Interval estimate
20. Identify which of th
e following steps would
not
be included in hypothesis testing.
a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
b. Set the significance level before the research study
c. Eliminate all outliers
d. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such
as SPSS
e. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical decision
21. A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain probability of
including the population parameter over the long run.
a.
Hypothesis
b. Lower limit
c. Confidence interval
d. Probability limit
22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.
a. Standard error
b. Sample standard deviation
c. Replication error
d. Meta error
23. An
effect size indicato
r
is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship.
a. True
b. False
24. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator?
a. r
-
squared
b. r
c. Eta
-
squared
d. Omega
-
squared
e. All of the above
25. When the researcher re
jects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.
a. Type I
b. Type A
c. Type II
d. Type B
26. A post hoc test is ___.
a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
c. A follow
-
up tes
t to the analysis of variance when there are three or more groups
d. A follow
-
up test to the independent t
-
test
27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical conclusions about
populations based on sample data is referred
to as ___________.
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Inferential statistics
c. Sample statistics
d. Population statistics
28. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____.
a. One
-
way analysis of variance
b. Post hoc test
c.
t
-
test for correlation coefficients
d. Simple regression
29. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically significant
is called the ___________.
a. One
-
way analysis of variance
b. t
-
test for independent sampl
es
c. Chi
-
square test for contingency tables
d. t
-
test for correlation coefficients
30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is called the:
a. Significance level
b. Alpha level
c. Probability value
d. Both
a and b are correct
31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the
widest
(i.e., the least precise) for a
particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. None of the above
32. As sample size goes up, what tends to
happen to 95% confidence intervals?
a. They become more precise
b. They become more narrow
c. They become wider
d. Both a and b
33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.
a.
Type I error
b.
Type II error
c.
Type A error
d.
Type B error
34.
Which of the following statements is/are
true
according to the logic of hypothesis testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c. When the null hypothesis is false,
it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both b and c are true
35. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?
a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population par
ameter?
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null hypothesis?
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation
36. Assuming innocenc
e until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent person is
found guilty.
a. True
b. False
37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population parameter.
a. Standard error
b. Sampling error
c. Differen
ce error
d. None of the above
38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing?
a. Null
b. Alternative
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis
39. A Type I error is also known as a _
_____.
a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.
a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
41. If a finding is statistically significant on
e must also interpret the data, calculate an effect size
indicator, and make an assessment of practical significance.
a. True
b. False
42. The p
-
value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how strong a
relationship is. For exam
ple, if relationship A has a p=.04 and relationship B has a p=.03 then
you can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A.
a. True
b. False
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. d
5. c
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. a
10. c
11. d
12. b
13. a
14. a
15. b
16. b
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. c
21. c
22. a
23. a
24. e
25. a
26. c
27. b
28. a
29. d
30. d
31. a
32. d
33. b
34. e
35. a
36. a
37. b
38. a
39. a
40. b
41. a
42. b