Bo de Thi Hoc Sinh Gioi Cap Tinh Mon Tieng Anh Lop 12 Co Dap An

SECTION I: LISTENING (3 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

- Bài thi nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi Nghe có
tín hiệu nhạc.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh ( bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài Nghe.
PART 1: Questions 1-6

● Look at the six sentences for this part.
● You will hear a conversation between a teenage girl called Anna and her father about a
party.
● Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a tick (√) in the box
under A for YES. If it is incorrect, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO.
A B
YES NO
1. Anna begins by asking her father to collect her from the party.
2. The party is to celebrate Tom’s birthday.
3. Some of Tom’s relations will be at the party.
4. Anna father is worried about her attending the party.
5. Anna’s father will take them to the party before the film starts.
6. Anna’s father insists that she leaves the party at 12.00.
You will hear a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job. For
each question, put a tick (√) in the correct box.
1. Where is Angela working at the A. Britain

moment? B. The USA
C. Asia
D. Brazil
2. Angela likes her job because A. she loves being in dangerous situation.
B. she never knows where she’ll go next.
C. she enjoys watching important events happen.
D. her job doesn’t have any disadvantages.
3. What did Angela bring home from A. pictures

Hong Kong? B. carpets
C. furniture
D. bits of art
4. What time does Angela’s working day A. 8.00 a.m.
begin? B. 6.30 a.m.
C. 10.00 a.m.
D. 8.30 a.m.
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5. Where did Angela meet her A. at her sister’s house
boyfriend? B. at university
C. in Hong Kong
D. in London
6. What does Angela do to relax? A. She cooks a meal.
B. She goes sailing.
C. She goes shopping.
D. She goes for a walk.

You will hear a schoolteacher talking to a group of students about a national poetry
competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL
The competition for 11-14s is called the (1)_____________________ Prize.
The topic for this year is (2) )_____________________.
The title of last year’s winning poem was (3) )_____________________.
This year the prize money available is (4) )_____________________ euros.
If successful, school will spend the money on the (5) )_____________________.
For further help, see the (6) )_____________________.
SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7 points)

2
PART 1: Choose the option (A,B,C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
Write your answers in the numbered table below.
1. Our country is rich ________ natural resources.
A. of B. with C. about D. in
2. The idea to ________ a visit to the local council residence was welcomed by all the visitors.
A. pay B. do C. go D. walk
3. In his anxiety to make himself________, he spoke too loudly and too slowly.
A. understand B. understanding C. understood D. to understand
4. ________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the
project.
A. If it hadn’t been B. If it had been C. Had it been D. Hadn’t it been
5. Some animals are on the ________ of becoming extinct.
A. edge B. verge C. side D. tip
6. The play is very long but there are three ________
A. intervals B. breaks C. rests D. naps
7. The last lecture ________ completely over my head.
A. got B. went C. was D. left
8. Could I pick your ________ on the subject before the meeting?
A. brains B. head C. intellect D. mind
9. I was prepared to lend my brother some money but he turned ________ my offer.
A. back B. up C. out D. down
10. I ________ with the performances but I got flu the day before.
A. was to have helped B. helped C. was to help D. had helped
11. The dying man’s speech was so________ that no one was able to interpret his last request.
A. incoherent B. indiscreet C. nonchalant D. impotent
12. Very soon I found some other people to ________ and we began to write songs.
A. keep up with B. team up with C. talk through with D. get along with
13. ________ chair the meeting.
A. John was decided to B. It was decided that John should
C. There was decided that John should D. John had been decided to
14. I thought about the problem but I couldn’t ________ a solution.
A. come in for B. come across C. come up with D. come out
15. ________, they slept soundly.
A. Hot though was the night air B. Hot though the night air was
C. Hot as was the night air D. Hot although the night air was
Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
PART 2: Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each gap. Use only ONE
word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answers in the
numbered table below.
3
Is your school just as you wanted (0)_______ to be? Or are there things you and your
classmates (1) ________ change, given the opportunity? This is your chance to express your
ideas about (2) ________ the ideal school is like. Our competition is open to (3) ________
student between the ages of twelve and eighteen. You can enter (4) ________ an individual or
your whole class can work together on a team entry. Your entry can take any form – a piece of
writing, a picture, or even architectural plans. It is completely (5) ________ to you. What we
are looking for is evidence (6) ________ originality, imagination and, above (7) ________, the
genuine views of young people.
By (8) ________ part in this, you will help in a study being carried out at a leading university.
All work entered (9) ________ the competition will be kept at the university and used in
research. Entries cannot be returned (10) ________ of this. But it also means that, even (11)
________ you do not win, your views will still be heard and will remain for future
educationalists to study.
Entries must reach us no (12) ________ than Friday 30 April. Winners will receive valuable
prizes of computer equipment and software for their schools.
0. it 1. 2. 3.
4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11.
12.
PART 3: Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct
and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). If the
line has a word that should not be there, write the word at the end of the line. There are two
examples at the beginning.
0 Congratulations on winning of the tennis championship! You must be of

00 very pleased, especially since the prize is quite a lot of money. √
1 What are you going to spend it on? You could even buy a new car
2 with all that money! You should have be in great shape after all the
3 training you have been doing. It must be so very hard work, practising
4 all those hours for every day but it is worth it in the end, isn’t it?
5 Perhaps you are thinking of going on holiday so that you can have
6 a break from tennis and relax. Can you tell me exactly what is kind of
7 tennis racket you chose for the competition? If I would get the same,
8 it might help me to improve my game. Anyway, congratulations on
9 your great victory! I’m still studying English every single day and the
10 course has three months to go. I have moved house, as if you can see
11 from my new address. Make sure you reply back to the right address!
12 Your last letter went to my old address, but it wasn’t by your fault
13 because I hadn’t told anyone who I had moved then. Did you know
14 that I have had a job for the last three weeks? I work in a restaurant
15 four evenings a week. I like it, but I don’t arrive at home until one
o’clock in the morning, which is a bit inconvenient.
4
PART 4: Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the passage.
Write your answers in the numbered table below. (0) has been done as an example.
18,000 years ago, much of Europe (0) ________(lie) (1)________(bury) beneath vast sheets
of ice, hundreds of metres thick. Ever since this astonishing fact (2)_______(discover) in the
last century, scientists (3) ________(speculate) on the nature of the Ice Age climate, and the
circumstances that brought it to an end.
More recently, people (4) ________(wonder) if climatic changes could (5)________(take)
place in our own time. During the early 1970s there (6)_______(be) disastrous droughts in
Africa, and frequent failures of Indian monsoon. In 1976, Europe sweltered in the hottest
summer for over a century, and (7)_______(experience) one of the worst droughts since
records began. Could such events as these be symptoms of a worldwide climatic shift?
Even small changes in climate that (8)________(occur) from time to time can have a highly
damaging effect on agriculture. With food reserves now (9)________ (stand) at only a few per
cent of annual production, the world is extremely vulnerable (10) ________(adverse) shifts in
climate. It is therefore vitally important for us to understand how climate changes take place.
0. lay 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.
9. 10.
PART 5: Think of ONE WORD only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.
Write your answers in the numbered table below. (0) has been done as an example.
0. She screamed for _______ and luckily someone heard her.
Thanks for all your _______ through such a difficult time.
Practical ________ is offered through our accommodation service to new students.
1. I get off at the next _______.
The referee was forced to _______ the game because of heavy snow.
Work has temporarily come to a _______ while the funding in reviewed.
2. Keep your _______ on your work.
Do you have anyone in _______ for this job?
Don’t _______ her. She didn’t mean what she said.
3. There is a little gift _______ around the corner.
I do a weekly _______ at the supermarket.
He didn’t expect his own mother to _______ him to the police.
4. Everyone wished her the best of _______ at university and hoped she would enjoyed it.
Jenny won the competition at her first attempt – perhaps it was beginner’s _______!
There is no such thing as _______, we are capable of creating our own good fortune.
5. Politicians can abuse their position of _______ .
The _______ supply to our house was cut because of roadwork.
I’m afraid I do not have the _______ to authorize this change.
6. Few people could have predicted the huge impact of information _______ .
5
No matter how advanced _______ becomes, machine will never be able to think like
humans.
It’s a waste of time for humans to do tasks that modern _______ can do.
7. She was struck by the sudden _______ that he might already have left.
He dived in after her without a second _______.
It was once _______ that the sun traveled around the earth.
8. Governments should give as much foreign _______ as possible to poorer countries.
In certain circumstances, emergency _______ in the form of money should be sent
immediately.
The most successful long-term _______ programmes encourage self-help.

0. help 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.
PART 6: For questions from 1-10, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the
end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. Write your
answers in the numbered table below. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Before going to an interview, it is (0)_________ to go through a mock ADVISE

interview. This will give you the opportunity to try out your technique
and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is
(1)__________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style BENEFIT
and general (2) _________ Just one mock interview will result in a PRESENT
(3)_________ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the NOTICE
same reason that a (4) _________ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper SPEAK
or floating in your head. It only exists when you give it (5)_________ ORAL
The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come out
nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a
question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the answer to that one.’ You need to
practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front
of a mirror. Seek out a (6) _________ and have the session videotaped. PROFESSION
Then you will have two opinions – the interview’s and your own. You
will find you get a completely different (7)________ when listening to IMPRESS
yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just
as your voice always sounds different on tape, so do your (8) _______. RESPOND
You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not in a potential
employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9)________ your VISIT
answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help
with any (10)________ and give you more confidence for the real EASE
interview.
Write your answers here

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0. advisable 1. 2.
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.
9. 10.
SECTION III: READING (4 points)
PART 1: Read the article below and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the numbered table below. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Students and jobseekers keen to get onto the course or into the workplace of their (0)________
hope that voluntary work will help them (1)________ from the crowd. This chance to
(2)________ experience – personally and professionally – is (3)________ on the wish-list of
young people.
A survey carried out last year revealed that young and old (4)________ said volunteering had
improved their lives, particularly those (5)________in conservation or heritage work.
Businesses recognise its importance and get to (6)________their profile in the community,
while staff get a break from their daily routine to develop ‘soft skill’, (7)________initiative
and decision-making. One volunteering organisation is (8)________ another survey to find out
if volunteering does make a difference in the workplace, or if it is something businesses do
simply to improve their (9)________ .
Not (10)________are business-sponsored placements becoming more common, the
government is also investing money and aiming to (11) ________volunteers. The push is
clearly on to make volunteering as attractive as possible to everyone.
And the more people who participate, the more the act fulfils its (12) ________of making the
world a better place.
0. A. alternative B. choice C. option D. election
1. A. stand out B. lift out C. pick out D. point out
2. A. win B. achieve C. collect D. gain
3. A. extreme B. high C. sharp D. strong
4. A. similar B. the same C. alike D. too
5. A. committed B. associate C. connected D. involved
6. A. raise B. increase C. arouse D. motivate
7. A. such B. such as C. such like D. such and such
8. A. governing B. guiding C. conducting D. directing
9. A. representation B. look C. image D. figure
10. A. only B. just C. merely D. simply
11. A. claim B. recruit C. bring D. enter
12. A. aim B. direction C. mark D. design

0. B 1. 2. 3.
7
4. 5. 6. 7.
8. 9. 10. 11.
12.
PART 2: Look at the sentences below about a hotel. Read the text to decide if each sentence
is correct or incorrect.
If it is correct, write C. If it is incorrect, write I.
Write your answers in the numbered table below.
1. During the 1980s, few tourists used to go to the Arctic in summer.
2. People came in large numbers to Jukkasjärvi to see the Arctic Hall.
3. The artist encouraged people to sleep in the Arctic Hall.
4. Each winter, guests come and sleep in the hotel before it is finished.
5. Progress when building the hotel is influenced by the weather.
6. The temperature inside the hotel changes according to the temperature outside.
7. Some clothes are provided by the hotel.
8. Guests should buy boots which fit as tightly as possible.
9. Items ordered through the ICEHOTEL shop will be delivered to your home.
10. It is possible to take a train from the airport to the IceHotel.
THE ICEHOTEL
For many years the Arctic was a popular destination in the summer season to see the land of
the midnight sun but in winter the few inhabitants had the snow and ice to themselves. By the
end of the 1980s it was decided that the dark and cold winter should be seen as an advantage.
In the winter of 1990 the French artist Jannot Derit was invited to have the opening of an
exhibition in a specially built igloo (a building made of snow) in the little town of Jukkasjärvi
on the frozen Torne River. The building, named Arctic Hall, attracted many interested visitors
to the area. One night a group of foreign guests decided it would be a good idea to sleep in the
Arctic Hall. The following morning the brave group were very pleased with their experience
and the idea of an ice hotel was born. Today it is world famous.
As soon as winter begins, a team of snow builders, architects and artists from all over the
world come to Jukkasjärvi and they make the hotel for that year. As one part is completed, it
opens to visitors and overnight guests, while the other parts are still being built. The first part
is completed in December and each week after that a new part opens, until January 7th when
the hotel is completed. As the ICEHOTEL is built under the open sky, using the natural
materials of the winter season, the finishing date depends on nature and therefore there are
sometimes changes to the plan. In the spring, as the weather gets warmer, the hotel melts.
Inside the hotel, the temperature is never colder than –5 °C to –8 °C, however cold it may be
outside. Winter outer clothes such as warm overalls, hats and gloves are included in the cost of
guests’ stay at the hotel. In addition to this, it is a good idea for guests to bring sweaters and a
8
scarf as well as plenty of woolen socks and to choose footwear that is larger than normal to
allow space for thick socks.
If you are planning to come to the hotel, you can buy warm sweaters, woolen socks and much
more on the ICEHOTEL website. You can order these and the equipment you will need at the
same time as you book your visit. The items will be delivered to your room when you check in.
The hotel is in the village of Jukkasjärvi, 200 km above the Arctic Circle but only 15 km from
Kiruna airport and 17 km from Kiruna train station. Transport by bus can be arranged from the
airport or train station to the IceHotel.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART 3: Read the following passage and do the tasks below. Write your answers in the
numbered table.
The Atmosphere of Venus

Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to
the sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred
and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the
two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in
comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth.
Venus’s atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a
thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed
through radar mapping.
While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to
those of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s
atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a
small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400
degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more
than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse
effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by
which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a
real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps
radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher
atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A]
Studies show that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually
evaporation of all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet
today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists, as human being are
only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do
not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
9
Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its
daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other.
This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing
temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface
of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-
moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into
Venus’s atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt
impact caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In
1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings,
one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent
carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of
them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the
passage.
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because
A. it is very bright
B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning
D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could
be added to the passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
10
Question 8: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer
choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the
summary is provided bellowed.
Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.
●…………………………………………………
●…………………………………………………
●…………………………………………………
Answer Choices
A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in
carbon dioxide.
B. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is
denser and can even more large obstructions.
C. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have
revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with
the great surface pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of
carbon dioxide will produce a greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
PART 4: You are going to read a magazine article about learning how to fly a plane. Eight
paragraphs have been removed from the article. Choose from paragraphs A-I the one that
fits each gap (1-8). There is one extra paragraph that you do not need to use. Write your
answers in the numbered table below.
Learning to Fly
I had been testing cars and motorcycles for over twenty years. I couldn’t take any more. It
wasn’t terribly exciting and, in any case, new cars were beginning to look identical and drive
similarly. What I needed was a new challenge.
1
Unfortunately, I wore glasses. The Royal Air Force wouldn’t consider anyone for pilot
training unless they had perfect eyesight. Halfway through an aptitude test, they realised that
my eyes were far from perfect. I didn’t stand a chance.
2
It was an obvious choice. It’s just twenty minutes’ drive from my home. It’s very quiet, too, so
the £90 per hour for the training is spent flying in the air, not waiting on the ground for other
planes to take off.
3
It took me a whole year to get my private pilot’s license. It started well, with my first solo
flight coming after just seven hours. Then came all the studying, the exams, the hard work. I
never thought I’d get to the end of it.
4
11
Then came last winter and the end of the course was in sight. For weeks, the weather was so
terrible that for most of the time it was impossible to fly. Strong winds, heavy rain and even
snow and ice made flying conditions extremely hazardous.
5
But finally the first of three practical exams arrived – the navigation test. The examiner sets
you a course that you have to plan according to the weather, and then fly with him sitting
beside you.
6
I passed this test, but I don’t know how. The second test involves flying cross-country to two
other airports, which you can choose, and landing at both. The important thing is to give the
right messages to the air-traffic control people and understand their replies.
7
After this alarming episode, the exercises in the flight-handling test were simple. As we
complete the sixth exercise, the examiner suddenly turned to me and said, ‘Congratulations –
you’ve passed!’
8
I wasn’t sure why, because we usually land as slowly as possible. Then I turned round and
realised straight away: we were being followed by a British Airways jumbo jet!
A. A week which we had set aside for finishing the course came and went with no possibility
of getting in the air at all. And besides the problems with the weather, my second son was born,
and that made it even more difficult to find the time for lessons and studying.
B. But the real reason I chose this club was that a friend of mine, Andrew Wilkins, is the chief
instructor there. He impressed me by taking me out for a free flight just so that I could see
what it was like.
C. Unfortunately, I got myself lost this time and flew too far east. I completely missed the first
airport. However, I flew over a car factory I recognised and managed to get back on course.
D. Along the way, he’ll take the controls and fly off course, just to get you lost. Then he’ll
hand back the control to you and expect you to find your way home.
E. One day I was asked by an air-traffic controller if I could see another aircraft ahead. I said
yes, and immediately it disappeared into a cloud. I just didn’t know what to do.
F. At the time, taking private lessons to learn how to fly was financially beyond me. So I had
to delay my plans to become a pilot for quite a while. It was twenty years, in fact, before I
finally enrolled at a flying club in Hertfordshire.
G. Since getting my pilot’s license, I’ve been out flying a few times. The highlight so far was
flying up to Birmingham International Airport for a motor show with Andrew beside me. As
we approached the way, the air-traffic controller came on the radio asking for as much speed
as our little plane could manage.
H. For months, my head was always in a book and my head hurt from all the facts, figures and
flying instructions.
I. This feeling of needing a change coincided with my 40th birthday, which started me thinking
about what I’d been doing all those years. When I left school all I had really wanted to do was
fly.
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1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
SECTION 4: WRITING (6 points)
PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentences printed before it.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
 Should ___________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
 I cancelled ________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never ____________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
 The more
_________________________________________________________________
5. They will not announce the findings until next week.
 No announcement __________________________________________________________
6. Both of the lifts were out of order.
 Neither
___________________________________________________________________
7. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
 The operation left __________________________________________________________
PART 2: Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the
sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN.
You must use between three and five words, including the word given. There is an example
at the beginning (0).
0. You must do exactly what the manager tells you. (CARRY)
 You must carry out the manager’s instructions exactly.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
 The rain was ______________________________________________________________
3. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)
The two theories____________________________________________________________
4. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
 You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
13
5. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
 This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.
6. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
 It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
7. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
The police ________________________________________________________________
8. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
 The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
PART 3: In class, you have been discussing the statement ‘Old people should be looked
after by members of their family or it is better for them to live in nursing-home’. Your
teacher has asked you to write an essay expressing your own opinion.
Write your essay in 250-300 words.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
---The End---
14
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HÓA Năm học: 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 12-THPT
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 10 tháng 3 năm 2016
Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi này gồm có 07 trang
Họ tên thí sinh: ...................................................... Phòng thi số:..........Số báo danh:.............
PART A: PHONETICS (5pts)

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. (2pts)
1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D. mountain
2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. (3pts)
3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D. depend
4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual
5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15pts)
6. ..............1915 that the cinema really became an industry.
A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in
7. I really appreciate________ to help me, but I am sure I’ll be able to manage by myself.
A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you
offer
8. My friend’s uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “………….”
A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times C. more three times than
B. three times as much as D. as much three times as

11. We bought some ________.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
12. After years of neglect, there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. Refurbishment
13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_____ the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto
14. On the_____, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today.
A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D. opponent
15. You had your house decorated, .............. ?
A. hadn’t you B. didn’t you C. weren’t you D. haven’t you
16. A part – time job gives me the freedom to ………… my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the
pond, .............., and the pond’s location.
A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality
C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality
18. __________ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine.
A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D. Despite
19.______ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown
C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants
20. ______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical
illusion.
A. What the Moon B.The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the word(s) on
your answer sheet (10 pts) (Questions 21-30).
Line
1 As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied
English and Law. After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and now I
organise few hours for people who wanting to go to Australia and the United States.
Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get more experience and it would seems to
5 me that working as a specialized tour guide in England would help me for do that. I would
rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise my English. I spend one
year at London University, which it was most useful. I did much conversation classes and at
first I thought that I would find them difficult. However, they turned out to be very enjoyable.
I will have no any difficulty in coming to England for an interview if you will let me know in
10 plenty of the time. I enclose details of my present employer who will be too pleased to send
11 you a reference.
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
31. By the time the war is over, thousands of innocent people (kill)_________.
32. Tom will never forget (send)______ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old.
33-34. The accident (report)_______(cause)________ by a reckless motorist.
35. Many people (invite) ______ to the party couldn’t come because it rained heavily.
36. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ______ at a hospital abroad last year
37. Hardly our teacher (enter)________the classroom when it started to rain.
38. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony Orchestra
and 17 traditional musicians, (come)_________to Vietnam since yesterday.
39. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) _______ for the escaped prisoner.
40. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) _________ yesterday.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts)
41. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save _______ species. (DANGER)
42.There are some ______ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam.
(SIMILAR)
43. He resigned for a ___________________ of reasons. (VARIOUS)
44. We have to decide to interview only the best six __________ for the job. (APPLY)
45. Her son is always mischievous and ______, which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
46. Sugar is the_________ of healthy teeth. (DESTRUCTION)
47. What percentage of the city’s _______ live in poverty? (HOUSE)
48. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of ______(POWER)
49. Mr. Pike has_________ his wife by three years. (LIVE)
50. I was a bit_______ by my performance in the first exam, but I decided (MORAL)
to make an extra effort in the ones left.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10pts)
Childhood is the time when there are (51)_________ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a
child has good parents, he is (52) _________ , looked after and loved, whatever he may do. It is
improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in
return. In (53) _________, life is always presenting new things to the child- things that have lost their
interest for older people because they are too well- known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain ,
or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. But a child has his (54)
_________ .He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told
not to do things, or being punished (55) _________ what he has done wrong. His life’s therefore not
perfectly happy.
When a young man starts to (56) _________his own living, he becomes free from the
discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no
longer expect (57) _________ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he
wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will
be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go
to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of trouble and has good health, he can have the
greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58)_________ in his job and of building up for
himself his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old
to be unhappy. With old age (59)_________wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely
given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their
grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a
useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60)_________ the battle of life safely and of having
reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight.
51. A. little B. a few C. a little D. few
52. A. eaten B. fed C. feeded D. fetched
53. A. short B. term C. addition D. reality
54. A. injury B. difficulty C. problem D. pain
55. A. because B. by C. at D. for
56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn
57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone
58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments
59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come
60. A. out B. across C. through D. back

Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10pts)
THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in___61___.Many species
of animals are threatened, and could easily become ____62__ if we do not make an ___63___ to
protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for
other valuable ___64___ of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught ___65___ and sold
as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat-the place ___66____ they live-is
disappearing. More ___67___ is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open
spaces ___68___ there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops
but these chemicals ___69__ the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on
earth - human beings- will soon be the only ones ___70___ unless we can solve this problem.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape.
They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often
harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide
considerable environmental benefits.
Line 5 One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit
oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb
the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks
also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island
Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the
Line 10 sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass.
Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually
warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the
Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is
Line 15 already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban
environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by
encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most
people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting
gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and
Line 20 require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can
create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden
Line 25 spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to
replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the
Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens
prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling
bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete
Line 30 radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens
can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets
healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a
Line 33 smart environmental investment.
71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigatebelongs to which of the following word
groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ........................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ..................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. b and c B. a and b C. a D. a, b, and c
74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except ........................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs

C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that
they ........................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
77. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that
rooftop gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can
remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a
rooftop garden.
79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program
that ..................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop
gardens.
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens.
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city
park.
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the
peak of summer.
PART D: WRITING (20pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5pts)
81. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
 Had ___________________________________________________
82. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The ___________________________________________________
83. My decision to get up to dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.
 The moment ___________________________________________
84. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
 He is the most __________________________________________
85. We were all shocked by his reaction.
 His reaction came_________________________________________
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
86. I left my last job because I didn’t really agree with my manager’s approach. (EYE)
I left my last job because I_______________________ with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that the accident was my fault. (BLAME)
All the witnesses said that___________________________ the accident.
88. It was childish of him not to accept my apologies. (REFUSED)
 He _________________________________________________ of him.
89. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
 What ____________________________________________ last night.
90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. (FOUND)
 She _______________________________________ the class on time.
Question III. Essay writing (10pts):
Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell phones
have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 150 - 200 words, write an
essay to assert your point of view on this problem.
---------- THE END ---------

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HOÁ Năm học: 2015-2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Lớp 12 THPT
Ngày thi: 10/03/2016
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang.
A- ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.
6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B
11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B
16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D
Question II.
WORD LINE WORD LINE
21. Few 3 26. much 8
22. Who 3 27. any 9
23. Would 5 28. will 10
24. For 6 29. the 10
25. It 7 30. too 11
Question III
31. will have been killed 36. having been treated
32. being sent 37. had our teacher entered
33. was reported 38. has come
34. to have been caused 39 must be looking
35. Invited 40. hadn’t left
Question IV
41.endangered 42.similarities 43.variety 44. applicants 45.disobedient

46.destroyer 47.households 48. powerlessness 49. outlived 50. demoralised/
demoralized
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

(Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51.D 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.D
56.D 57.C 58.A 59.B 60.C
Question II.
61. danger 62. extinct 63. effort 64. parts 65. alive
66. where 67. land 68. than 69. pollute 70. left
Question III.
71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. A
76. C 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81. - Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
- Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.
82. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.
83. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
84. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem
85. His reaction came as a shock to us all
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

86. I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.
88. He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him
89. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
90. She found it too difficult to come to the class on time.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)

Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân
bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp
trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3
điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 (CHUYÊN)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 24 tháng 3 năm 2016
================
Điểm bài thi Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách
Bằng số: Họ tên: Họ tên:
Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:
* Ghi chú: Đề thi gồm 13 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
PART ONE: PHONETICS: (10pts)

I. Choose the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others (5pts)
1. A. kerosene B. tinsel C. pessimism D. mussel
2. A. considerate B. candidate C. associate D. adequate
3. A. scowl B. frown C. sprout D. dough
4. A. bombard B. discard C. mustard D. retard
5. A. intellectual B. situation C. digestion D. Greenwich
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three (5pts)
6. A. mischievous B. miscellaneous C. intimacy D. veterinary
7. A. infamous B. inventory C. negligence D. congenial
8. A. impotent B. ignorant C. admirable D. affidavit
9. A. primate B. asset C. innate D. preface
10. A. monetary B. paralysis C. protagonist D. analogous
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (60pts)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences (20pts)
11. You can’t believe a word that woman says – she is a _____ liar.
A. dedicated B. devoted C. committed D. compulsive
1
12. There can be no _____ fixes or magic solutions to the problem of unemployment.
A. fast B speedy C. quick D. sudden
13. When you come down the hill, do drive slowly because it is not _____ obvious where the turning is.
A. immediately B. directly C. instantaneously D. quite
14. At her trial in 1431, Joan of Arc was accused of being in _____ with the devil.
A. cooperation B. association C. league D. conjunction
15. The flights are full at the moment, so you’ll have to _____.
A. run a stroke of luck B. get a better luck
C. be down on your luck D. take pot luck
16. I heard ______ that Jack has been dropped from the basketball team.
A. in the woods B. on the grapevine C. under your feet D. on the olive branch
17. Many habitats change ________ the types of plants and animals that live there.
A. with respect to B. in respect for C. as for D. as against
18. Unfortunately some really ill animals have to be _______ by our center.
A. put down B. turned over C. passed away D. taken out
19. John first dabbled _____ buying old maps for his collection.
A. in B. on C. at D. for
20. It’s a matter of urgency to put right at once but nothing suitable _____ to mind.
A. returns B. emerges C. sprouts D. springs
21. When my father was a young student, they were taught to memorize information and _____ it for
exams. Thankfully, those teaching techniques have become outdated.
A. pinpoint B. dock C. regurgitate D. revise
22. He was arrested for trying to pass _____ notes at the bank.
A. counterfeit B. fake C. camouflaged D. fraudulent
23. Living in the countryside is a far cry from reading about it. It _____. You have to deal with _____
poverty and go through the bad patch.
A. is of crass stupidity/ grueling B. is no mean feat/ grinding
C. goes against the grain/ abject D. dwindles away to nothing/ extreme
24. He had his money _____ in a secure bank account.
A. hammered away at B. jabbered about C. slaved away D. squirreled away
25. The train service has been a _____ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
26. ‘The film was pretty bad, wasn’t it?’ – ‘Yes, I think it was _____’.
A. exemplary B. excruciating C. expeditious D. explicit
2
27. When the forces on an object are balanced, you can say that the object is in _____.
A. collusion B. equilibrium C. collision D. incubation
28. There were a number of strong candidates for the post but Peter’s experience _____ the scales in
his favor.
A. weighted B. tipped C. balanced D. overturned
29. We are conscious that sleeplessness usually _____ those who are exposed to a great deal of stress,
anxiety or depression.
A. betrays B. bestows C. besets D. bemoans
30. I think that the artist’s cartoons are usually rather _____________ as they are intended to appeal to
a mass number of audiences.
A. lowbrow B. highbrow C. dearly D. impenetrable
II. Fill in each of the numbered blanks with one suitable preposition. (10pts)
31. This soup is too hot to eat. I’ll wait for it to cool _____.
32. Tim is seventeen and at the moment he doesn’t care very much _____ anything except clothes.
33. Last year Ross was charged _____ a variety of crimes, including assault and car theft.
34. It’s a long journey so remember to fill _____ the petrol tank before you go.
35. Luckily, the bomb which went _____ near the bank last Friday didn’t kill anyone.
36. A car suddenly pulled _____ in front of me and I couldn’t stop in time.
37. Luckily, the rain held _____ so we were able to play the match.
38. I don’t think I’ll ever rich, but you live _____ hope, don’t you?
39. Mr. Deacon next door had a very serious operation. Apparently, it’s a miracle he pulled_____.
40. I don’t know what happened. I was just sitting at my desk and I suddenly blacked _____ for a few
minutes.
III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided in the column
on the right. (0) has been done as an example (10pts)
Example: 0: willingly
We are the only animal that chooses what it will look like. True, the chameleon changes color-
but not (0. WILLING) ________. Unlike us, it doesn’t get up in the morning and ask itself, “What
shall I look like today?”, but we can and do. Indeed, the (41. ANTIQUE) _________ of body
decoration points to the conclusion that it is a key factor in our development as the (42. DOMINATE)
_________ life-form on our planet. No human society has ever been found where some form of body
decoration is not the norm.
By (43. CUSTOM) _________ their physical appearance, our ancestors distanced themselves
from the rest of the animal (44. KING) _________. Within each tribe this helped them to mark out
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differences of role, status and (45. KIN) _________. Our ancestors developed (46. ORDINARY)
_________ techniques of body decoration for (47. PRACTICE) _________ reasons. How to show
where on tribe ends and another begins? How to memorably underline the (48. SIGNIFY) _________
of that moment when an individual becomes an adult member of society? (49. ARGUE) _________,
without the expressive capabilities of such “body language” we would have been (50. FINITE)
_________ less successful as a species.
IV. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them (20pts)
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of
a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have all concluded
that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder
Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit the
total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and another minor events supposedly
forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although the physical basic for memory is not
yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an
almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by patterns of activity.
Repeated references with the same information support recall. In other word, improved performance is
the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
PART THREE: READING (70pts)
I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (15pts)
Reports that the government is about to _____ (61) the go ahead to plans for the building of a
new runway at London's Gatwick airport have angered local _____ (62) and raised fears of increased
noise and exhaust pollution. The _____ (63) plans also include permission for additional night flights
and will _____ (64) the compulsory purchase of farmland, _____ (65) the demolition of a number of
private homes. According to sources close to the Ministry of Transport, the government is known to be
concerned by the increasing _____ (66) of traffic at London Heathrow, where there are no plans for
further runways in the foreseeable _____ (67) Gatwick is widely _____ (68) as a better _____ (69) for
expansion than London's third airport, Stansted, which still _____ (70) from poor transport links. A
spokesperson for the Keep Gatwick Quiet association, _____ (71) up of local people, accused the
government of _____ (72) back on promises made before the General Election. 'We were told then that
the airport authority had no _____ (73) of building another runway and we believe that the government
has a duty to _____ (74) its pledges. Prominent figures in the government are also believed to be
concerned at the news, although the Prime Minister, interviewed last night, is _____ (75) as saying that
reports were 'misleading'. However, he would not give an assurance that plans for building a runway
had definitely been rejected.
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61. A. sign B. make C. give D. approve

62. A. inhabitants B. dwellers C. occupants D. residents
63. A. controversial B. debatable C. notorious D. doubtful
64. A. involve B. concern C. assume D. need
65. A. further to B. as well as C. moreover D. what's more
66. A. sum B. size C. volume D. length
67. A. years B. period C. time D. future
68. A. regarded B. believed C. felt D. held
69. A. potential B. outlook C. prospect D. likelihood
70. A. affects B. undergoes C. experiences D. suffers
71. A. made B. set C. brought D. taken
72. A. getting B. falling C. going D. turning
73. A. desire B. intention C. wish D. objective
74. A. bear out B. count on C. pull off D. stand by
75. A. quoted B. known C. thought D. written
II. Fill each gap in the passage below with ONE appropriate word. (20pts)
AN ECONOMIC PROBLEM
Inflation is not a new phenomenon, (0) ….but… one that has existed at various times in various
places. In _____ (76) severest form; however, hyperinflation can destroy a nation's economy. _____
(77) happened in revolutionary France and Weimar Germany; _____ (78) bundles of notes were
needed to pay for a loaf of bread. But what is inflation? Briefly, it may be defined as a continual
increase in prices affecting the economy. The rate of inflation is determined _____ (79) changes in the
price level, which is an average of all prices. When _____ (80) prices rise while others fall, this will
not necessarily affect the price level, as inflation occurs _____ (81) if most major prices increase. The
problem with inflation is that it reduces the value of purchasing power of money, as well as eroding
people's savings. Wage increases which are below or equal _____ (82) the level of inflation will result
in a declining or static _____ (83) of living for workers, while wage increases above the rate of
inflation will merely stoke the fire for further inflation. So what can a government do to stop the
process? It can increase taxes, raise interest rates, decrease the money supply, reduce government
spending or set a ceiling _____ (84) price and wage rises. Why none of these is a popular measure is
understandable, but if they reduce inflation _____ (85) a mild two to four percent per annum, as
opposed to allowing it to rise to double-digit severe inflation, it is preferable in the long run.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text.
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Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (12pts)

Orientation and Navigation
To South Americans, robins are birds that fly north every spring. To North Americans, the
robins simply vacation in the south each winter. Furthermore, they fly to very specific places in South
America and will often come back to the same trees in North American yards the following spring. The
question is not why they would leave the cold of winter so much as how they find their way around.
The question perplexed people for years, until, in the 1950s, a German scientist named Gustavo
Kramer provided some answers and. in the process, raised new questions.
Kramer initiated important new kinds of research regarding how animals orient and navigate.
Orientation is simply facing in the right direction; navigation involves finding ones way from point A
to point B.
Early in his research, Kramer found that caged migratory birds became very restless at about
the time they would normally have begun migration in the wild. Furthermore, he noticed that as they
fluttered around in the cage, they often launched themselves in the direction of their normal migratory
route. He then set up experiments with caged starlings and found that their orientation was, in fact, in
the proper migratory direction except when the sky was overcast, at which times there was no clear
direction to their restless movements. Kramer surmised, therefore, that they were orienting according
to the position of the Sun. To test this idea, he blocked their view of the Sun and used mirrors to
change its apparent position. He found that under these circumstances, the birds oriented with respect
to the new "Sun." They seemed to be using the Sun as a compass to determine direction. At the time,
this idea seemed preposterous. How could a bird navigate by the Sun when some of us lose our way
with road maps? Obviously, more testing was in order.
So, in another set of experiments, Kramer put identical food boxes around the cage, with food
in only one of the boxes. The boxes were stationary, and the one containing food was always at the
same point of the compass. However, its position with respect to the surroundings could be changed by
revolving either the inner cage containing the birds or the outer walls, which served as the background.
As long as the birds could see the Sun, no matter how their surroundings were altered, they went
directly to the correct food box. Whether the box appeared in front of the right wall or the left wall,
they showed no signs of confusion. On overcast days, however, the birds were disoriented and had
trouble locating their food box.
In experimenting with artificial suns, Kramer made another interesting discovery. If the
artificial Sun remained stationary, the birds would shift their direction with respect to it at a rate of
about 15 degrees per hour, the Sun's rate of movement across the sky. Apparently, the birds were
assuming that the "Sun" they saw was moving at that rate. When the real Sun was visible, however, the
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birds maintained a constant direction as it moved across the sky. In other words, they were able to
compensate for the Sun's movement. This meant that some sort of biological clock was operating-and a
very precise clock at that.
What about birds that migrate at night? Perhaps they navigate by the night sky. To test the idea,
caged night-migrating birds were placed on the floor of a planetarium during their migratory period. A
planetarium is essentially a theater with a domelike ceiling onto which a night sky can be projected for
any night of the year. When the planetarium sky matched the sky outside, the birds fluttered in the
direction of their normal migration. But when the dome was rotated, the birds changed their direction
to match the artificial sky. The results clearly indicated that the birds were orienting according to the
stars.
There is accumulating evidence indicating that birds navigate by using a wide variety of
environmental cues. Other areas under investigation include magnetism, landmarks, coastlines, sonar,
and even smells. The studies are complicated by the fact that the data are sometimes contradictory and
the mechanisms apparently change from time to time. Furthermore, one sensory ability may back up
another.
86. Which of the following can be inferred about bird migration from paragraph 1?
A. Birds will take the most direct migratory route to their new habitat.
B. The purpose of migration is to join with larger groups of birds.
C. Bird migration generally involves moving back and forth between north and south.
D. The destination of birds' migration can change from year to year.
87. The word ‘perplexed’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. defeated B. interested C. puzzled D. occupied
88. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Experiments revealed that caged starlings displayed a lack of directional sense and restless
movements.
B. Experiments revealed that caged starlings were unable to orient themselves in the direction of their
normal migratory route.
C. Experiments revealed that the restless movement of caged starlings had no clear direction.
D. Experiments revealed that caged starlings' orientation was accurate unless the weather was overcast.
89. The word ‘preposterous’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. unbelievable B. inadequate C. limited D. creative
90. According to paragraph 3, why did Kramer use mirrors to change the apparent position of the Sun?
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A. To test the effect of light on the birds' restlessness

B. To test whether birds were using the Sun to navigate
C. To simulate the shifting of light the birds would encounter along their regular migratory route
D. To cause the birds to migrate at a different time than they would in the wild
91. According to paragraph 3, when do caged starlings become restless?
A. When the weather is overcast
B. When they are unable to identify their normal migratory route
C. When their normal time for migration arrives
D. When mirrors are used to change the apparent position of the Sun
92. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4 about Kramer’s reason for filling one
food box and leaving the rest empty?
A. He believed the birds would eat food from only one box.
B. He wanted to see whether the Sun alone controlled the birds' ability to navigate toward the box with
food.
C. He thought that if all the boxes contained food, this would distract the birds from following their
migratory route.
D. He needed to test whether the birds preferred having the food at any particular point of the compass.
93. According to paragraph 5, how did the birds fly when the real Sun was visible?
A. They kept the direction of their flight constant.
B. They changed the direction of their flight at a rate of 15 degrees per hour.
C. They kept flying toward the Sun.
D. They flew in the same direction as the birds that were seeing the artificial Sun.
94. The experiment described in paragraph 5 caused Kramer to conclude that birds possess a biological
clock because _____.
A. when birds navigate they are able to compensate for the changing position of the Sun in the sky
B. birds innate bearings keep them oriented in a direction that is within 15 degrees of the Suns
direction
C. birds' migration is triggered by natural environmental cues, such as the position of the Sun
D. birds shift their direction at a rate of 15 degrees per hour whether the Sun is visible or not
95. According to paragraph 6, how did the birds navigate in the planetarium's nighttime environment?
A. By waiting for the dome to stop rotating
B. By their position on the planetarium floor
C. By orienting themselves to the stars in the artificial night sky
D. By navigating randomly until they found the correct orientation
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96. Which of the following best describes the author's presentation of information in the passage?
A. A number of experiments are described to support the idea that birds use the Sun and the night sky
to navigate.
B. The author uses logic to show that the biological clock in birds is inaccurate.
C. A structured argument about the importance of internal versus external cues for navigation is
presented.
D. The opposing points of view about bird migration are clarified through the study of contrasting
experiments.
97. The word ‘accumulating’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. new B. increasing C. convincing D. extensive
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow (13pts)
MAKING EVERY DROP COUNT
A. The history of human civilization is entwined with the history of the ways we have learned to
manipulate water resources. As towns gradually expanded, water was brought from increasingly
remote sources, leading to sophisticated engineering efforts such as dams and aqueducts. At the height
of the Roman Empire, nine major systems, with an innovative layout of pipes and well-built sewers,
supplied the occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts of the
industrial world today.
B. During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19th and 20th centuries, the
demand for water rose dramatically. Unprecedented construction of tens of thousands of monumental
engineering projects designed to control floods, protect clean water supplies, and provide water for
irrigation and hydropower brought great benefits to hundreds of millions of people. Food production
has kept pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation systems
that make possible the growth of 40% of the world's food. Nearly one fifth of all the electricity
generated worldwide is produced by turbines spun by the power of falling water.
C. Yet there is a dark side to this picture: despite our progress, half of the world's population still
suffers, with water services inferior to those available to the ancient Greeks and Romans. As the
United Nations report on access to water reiterated in November 2001, more than one billion people
lack access to clean drinking water; some two and a half billion do not have adequate sanitation
services. Preventable water-related diseases kill an estimated 10,000 to 20,000 children every day, and
the latest evidence suggests that we are falling behind in efforts to solve these problems.
D. The consequences of our water policies extend beyond jeopardizing human health. Tens of
millions of people have been forced to move from their homes - often with little warning or
compensation - to make way for the reservoirs behind dams.' More than 20% of all freshwater fish
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species are now threatened or endangered because dams and water withdrawals have destroyed the
free-flowing river ecosystems where they thrive. Certain irrigation practices degrade soil quality and
reduce agricultural productivity. Groundwater aquifers are being pumped down faster than they are
naturally replenished in parts of India, China, the USA and elsewhere. And disputes over shared water
resources have led to violence and continue to raise local, national and even international tensions.
E. At the Outset of the new millennium, however, the way resource planners think about water is
beginning to change. The focus is slowly shifting back to the provision of basic human and
environmental needs as top priority - ensuring 'some for all,' instead of 'more for some'. Some water
experts are now demanding that existing infrastructure be used in smarter ways rather than building
new facilities, which is increasingly considered the option of last, not first, resort. This shift in
philosophy has not been universally accepted, and it comes with strong opposition from some
established water organizations. Nevertheless, it may be the only way to address successfully the
pressing problems of providing everyone with clean water to drink, adequate water to grow food and a
life free from preventable water-related illness.
F. Fortunately - and unexpectedly - the demand for water is not rising as rapidly as some predicted.
As a result, the pressure to build new water infrastructures has diminished over the past two decades.
Although population, industrial output and economic productivity have continued to soar in developed
nations, the rate at which people withdraw water from aquifers, rivers and lakes has slowed. And in a
few parts of the world, demand has actually fallen.
G. What explains this remarkable turn of events? Two factors: people have figured out how to use
water more efficiently, and communities are rethinking their priorities for water use. Throughout the
first three-quarters of the 20th century, the quantity of freshwater consumed per person doubled on
average; in the USA, water withdrawals increased tenfold while the population quadrupled. But since
1980, the amount of water consumed per person has actually decreased, thanks to a range of ' new
technologies that help to conserve water in homes and industry. In 1965, for instance, Japan used
approximately 13 million gallons of water to produce $1 million of commercial output; by 1989 this
had dropped to 3.5 million gallons (even accounting for inflation) - almost a quadrupling of water
productivity. In the USA, water withdrawals have fallen by more than 20% from their peak in 1980.
H. On the other hand, dams, aqueducts and other kinds of infrastructure will still have to be built,
particularly in developing countries where basic human needs have not been met. But such projects
must be built to higher specifications and with more accountability to local people and their
environment than in the past. And even in regions where new projects seem warranted, we must find
ways to meet demands with fewer resources, respecting ecological criteria and to a smaller budget.
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Choose the correct heading for paragraph B - H from the list of the headings below. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There has been an example at the beginning.
List of headings
i. Scientists' call for a revision of policy
ii. An explanation for reduced water use
iii. How a global challenge was met
iv. Irrigation systems fall into disuse
v. Environmental effects
vi. The financial cost of recent technological improvements
vii. The relevance to health
viii. Addressing the concern over increasing populations.
ix. A surprising downward trend in demand for water
x. The need to raise standards
xi. A description of ancient water supplies
Your answers
Ex: Paragraph A: xi 98. Paragraph B: 99. Paragraph C: 100. Paragraph D:
101. Paragraph E: 102. Paragraph F: 103. Paragraph G: 104. Paragraph H:
Do the following statements agree with information given in the Reading Passage? In the
corresponding numbered boxes, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
105. Water use per person is higher in the industrial world than it was in Ancient Rome.
106. Feeding increasing populations is possible due primarily to improved irrigation systems
107. Modern water systems imitate those of the ancient Greeks and Romans.
108. Industrial growth is increasing the overall demand for water.
109. Modern technologies have led to reduction in the domestic water consumption.
110. In the future, governments should maintain ownership of water infrastructures.
V. You are going to read a newspaper article containing reviews of performances. For questions
111 – 120, choose from the reviews (A-D) (10pts)
THAT’S ENTERTAINMENT!
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Felix Masterson decided to engage artists to put on performances in his own home for his family’s
private enjoyment. Here is his report.
A. Opera Recital
For the first of our “home performances”, we decided on opera, a form of art that especially
moves me. The other art form that I adore – ballet – could hardly be performed in the confined space
of a normal house, no matter how much ingenuity was employed! My wife and I were particularly
looking forward to the performance by Footstool Opera, a touring company that specializes in
mounting productions in confined spaces, often coming up with a programme to order as suits the
occasion. When I was planning the event, I imagined the opera company would bring with them a
high-quality sound system of some sort to provide musical accompaniment, but the manager informed
me that all they required was “a piano in good working order.” I hastily arranged for our ancient
upright to be tuned, and to my relief, pianist Antonia Holmes pronounced it entirely satisfactory when
she tested the instrument before the performance. We had made it clear that no particular requirements
would be imposed upon the performers, so they gave us a medley of familiar pieces from popular
operas, and my daughter – who had previously been of the view that opera was unspeakably idiotic –
was entranced. If I were to be brutally honest, I would have to say that the performers, apart from one
tenor, were not in the top class. But I don’t imagine many people would notice this, and it certainly
didn’t detract from our enjoyment of the evening.
B. Puppet Show
Having grown up with that curiously British phenomenon of puppet theatre, the Punch and
Judy show, I was determined to find one of the traditional practitioners of the art and secure his
services. Alas, times have changed. There was once a time when no seaside resort in the country was
complete without a Punch and Judy show on the pier, but today puppet theatre of this sort can hardly
compete with video games at holiday resorts. Besides, who can afford to work only during the summer
months? Consequently, there are, according to the theatrical agencies I contacted, none of the old-
fashioned puppeteers left. However, I did manage to find a puppet theatre company called Little Man
Theatre that included traditional Punch and Judy shows in its repertoire, so I went ahead and booked
them. They arrived with a surprising number of boxes and cases. Naively, I had expected a miniature
theatre to require a minimal amount of equipment. In this case, the size of the venue did indeed present
a problem, though the nature of the difficulty was the reverse of what I had feared. We actually had
some trouble making out the words of the crocodile character, largely – I suspect – because William
Daniels, one of the two puppeteers, was suffering from a terrible cold, complete with high fever and a
voice virtually reduced to a croak. Like a true pro, though, he struggled through the performance
bravely. And once the first act was under way, I began to appreciate why so many props were needed.
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This wasn’t Punch and Judy as I remembered it but a twenty-first century version of the story,
requiring a staggering number of scene changes. A breathtaking performance, and though I felt sad at
the demise of the old-time favorites, our children enjoyed it immensely.
C. Jazz Concert
I had initially set myself the task of finding performers of whom I knew absolutely nothing,
simply by sitting down with the Yellow Pages, when a colleague of my wife’s started raving about a
particular jazz ensemble. It seemed churlish to do otherwise than engage them and The Hot Jazz
Quintet turned out to be a group of highly professional musicians who appeared to make a point of
being scrupulously polite and tidy. It was as though the stereotype image of the egocentric musician
were being overturned in front of my very eyes: a surprising experience for anyone old enough to have
seen The Who smash their instruments live onstage several decades ago.
Despite being in such close proximity to the musicians, it had not occurred to me that we would
be required to adopt a more active role until the saxophone player handed my son a set og bongo
drums and invited him to join in. As luck would have it, Mike is a percussionist with his school
orchestra, and he was able to acquit himself creditably, to the delight of the professional performing for
us. Not being a connoisseur of this type of music myself, I had frankly not been prepared to enjoy this
evening as much as the other members of my family. This perhaps makes it more of a tribute to the
Quintet that I found myself getting quite carried away by the intricate rhythms and spectacular solos.
D. Murder Mystery Theatre
We invited Murder Incorporated, a theatre company that specializes in murder mysteries, to
perform Death Calls for us, and to those of you who have not been initiated in the workings of
“murder mystery theatre”, a word of explanation is needed. This is no ordinary production. In fact, one
could claim that it doesn’t really come under the category of theatre at all, and it is not normally
presented on a stage, either. The basic idea is that a murder is “committed” just out of sight of the
audience. After the “body” is found, the task of the audience is to work out who the murderer is by
following up on certain clues.
A few moments after the actors had arrived, when we were still under the impression that
preparations were being made for the performance, a piercing scream caused us all to rush out into the
hall. There we stumbled – literally – over a body oozing fake blood that was so convincing it almost
caused my wife to faint. Yes, it had started. As we followed the actors around the house for scenes in
various locations, we tried to work out who the murderer could be. It was a fascinating experience, and
I have to report that my wife proved to be a brilliant sleuth, solving the mystery in record time. Death
Calls was a masterpiece of condensed theatre that had me fondly recalling a production of 2001, A
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Space Odyssey at the Edinburgh Fringe Festival, which featured a cast of two, an audience of two and
an old car as the venue. Highly recommended.
In which review are the following stated?
Performers worked seasonally at one time. 111. ________
The venue did not allow for a performance of a particular art form. 112. ________
The performance reminded the writer of an unusual performance he had once 113. ________
enjoyed.
The performers were free to devise their own program. 114. ________
The performers had been recommended to the writer. 115. ________
The behavior of the performers was contrary to the writer’s expectations. 116. ________
The performance challenged the conventions of an art form. 117. ________
Performances of this sort used to be very popular. 118. ________
The performance prompted someone to reconsider a prejudice about an art form. 119. ________
The performance had unexpectedly sophisticated requirements. 120. ________
PART FOUR: WRITING (60pts)

I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (5pts)
121. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
=> She flatly ____________________________________________________________________
122. There is grave concern about confirmed cases of cholera that originated in the makeshift shelters.
=> Of __________________________________________________________________________
123. Alternative medicine is a complete mystery to some people.
=> Some people are _______________________________________________________________
124. You may be disqualified if you don’t obey the regulations.
=> Failure _______________________________________________________________________
125. They declared war on the pretext of defending their territorial rights.
=> The excuse ___________________________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using the word
given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Do not change the
word given. (5pts)
126. There’s not that much difference between irony and sarcasm. (line)
=> There’s _________________________________________________ between irony and sarcasm.
127. I sincerely promise you that I’m telling you the truth. (bottom)
=> I promise you ____________________________________________ that I’m telling you the truth.
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128. As far as I know, no one’s talking about you behind your back. (best)
=> To ________________________________________, no one’s talking about you behind your back.
129. Maybe I didn’t explain exactly what I mean – our relationship is over. (clear)
=> Maybe I didn’t ______________________________________________ - our relationship is over.
130. I’m finding it difficult to cope with all the work I have to do. (top)
=> All the work I have to do _________________________________________________ me.
III. The graphs below show the amount of money spent on protecting crops in three different
regions of the world in 2005.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant. Write at least 150 words. (20pts)
Millions $
Your answer:
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IV. Essay writing (30pts)

Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following question:
“International travelers can cause problems in the countries to which they travel. On the other hand,
international travelers can bring real advantages with them.” Do the problems international
travelers cause greater than the advantages they bring?
(NB: You continue your writing on the back page)
Your answer:
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-------- THE END -------
16
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
Đáp án và HDC gồm 03 trang MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 (CHUYÊN)
================
Total points: 200

PART ONE: PHONETICS: (10pts)
I. Choose the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others (5 x 1p =
5pts)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three (5 x 1p = 5pts)
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. A
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (60pts)

I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences (20 x 1p = 20pts)
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. A
II. Fill in each of the numbered blanks with one suitable preposition. (10 x 1p = 10pts)
31. down 32. about 33. with 34. up 35. off
36. out 37. off 38. in 39. through 40. out
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 x 1p = 10pts)
41. antiquity 42. dominant 43. customizing 44. kingdom 45. kinship
46. extraordinary 47. practical 48. significance 49. Arguably 50. infinite
V. Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them (10 x 2pts = 20pts)
No Line Mistake Correction No Line Mistake Correction
51 2 variation variety 56 6 details detail
52 3 storing stored 57 7 one that
53 4 neurosurgery neurosurgeon 58 8 cell cells

54 4 can could 59 9 with to
55 5 another other 60 9 word words
PART THREE: READING (70pts)

I. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each space by circling the letter A, B, C
or D. (15 x 1p = 15pts)
61. C 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. B
66. C 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. D
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. A
II. Fill each gap in the passage below with ONE appropriate word. (10 x 2pts = 20pts)
76. its 77. This 78. where 79. by 80. some
81. only 82. to 83. standard 84. on 85. to
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (12 x 1pt = 12pts)
86. C 87. C 88. D 89. A 90. B 91. C 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. C 96. A 97. B
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow (13 x 1pt = 13pts)
Ex: Paragraph A: xi 98. Paragraph B: iii 99. Paragraph C: vii 100. Paragraph D: v
101. Paragraph E: i 102. Paragraph F: ix 103. Paragraph G: ii 104. Paragraph H: x
105. NO 106. YES 107. NOT GIVEN

108. NO 109. YES 110. NOT GIVEN
V. You are going to read a newspaper article containing reviews of performances. For questions
111 – 120, choose from the reviews (A-D) (10pts)
111. ____B____
112. ____A____
113. ____D____
114. ____A____
115. ____C____
116. ____C____
117. ____D____
118. ____B____
119. ____A____
120. ____B____
PART FOUR: WRITING (60pts)

I. Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. (5 x 1pt = 5pts)
121. She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
122. Of grave concern are confirmed cases of cholera that originated in the makeshift shelters.
123. Some people are completely mystified by alternative medicine.
124. Failure to obey the regulations may lead to/result in disqualifications.
125. The excuse for the declaration was defending/the defense of ….
II. Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using the word
given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Do not change the
word given. (5 x 1pt = 5pts)
126. a fine line
127. from the bottom of my heart
128. the best of my knowledge
129. make myself clear/make it clear/make (clear) exactly what I mean (clear)
130. is getting on top of
III. Chart description (20pts)
IV. Essay writing (30pts)
The mark given to these parts is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured
3. Language: (30% of total mark)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)

a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking
the papers.
– THE END –
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC: 2015 – 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 (KHÔNG CHUYÊN)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
================
Điểm bài thi Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách
Bằng số: Họ tên: Họ tên:
Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:
* Ghi chú: Đề thi gồm 09 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0POINT)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.(0.5pt)
1. A. supposedly B. markedly C. allegedly D. determinedly
2. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
3. A. complete B. command C. common D. community
4. A. comb B. climb C. debt D. cable
5. A. neighbour B. height C. sleigh D. weight
Your answers:
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5pt)
1. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D. instrument
2. A. environment B. mystery C. contribute D. terrific
3. A. deficiency B. psychology C. ecological D. competitor
4. A. recommend B. difficulty C. admirable D. document
5. A. encouragement B. interviewer C. acknowledge D. miraculously
Your answers:
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences. (2.5pts)
1. Only after the atomic bomb ________ and development in the air travel _______, ______ science
fiction really become popular.
A. had created/ had taken off/ was B. had been created/ had been taken off/ has
C. had been created/ had taken off/ did D. had been created/ / had taken off/ had
2. We’ve bought some ________ chairs for the garden so that they are easy to store away.
A. adapting B. adjusting C. bending D. folding
3. I don’t think she can get her message _______ to the students. She seems too nervous.
A. across B. around C. out D. over
4. _______, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.
A. None of us wanted to go in the first place
B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them
C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected
D. Seeing that we couldn’t solve anything in the end
5. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
6. This car has many features including _________.
A. stereo, safety devices, air condition, and it saves gas
B. good music, safety devices, air conditioning, and gas
C. stereo, safety devices, air conditioned, and good gas
D. stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low gas mileage
7. Round and round ___________.
A. the wheels of the engine went B. did the wheels of the engine go
C. went the wheels of the engine D. going the wheels of the engine
8. The replacement of shops such as the groceries and chemists’ by the café _______ the housewives
with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
9. Your argument _______ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case.
A. outlines B. presupposes C. concerns D. presents
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion
11. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ___________ .
A. fail B. failure C. trouble D. mistake
12. One of the first exercises in math class is ______ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to

13. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired
14. I don’t know French, but I’ll ________.
A. get Tom to translate it B. have it translate
C. have Tom to translate it D. make it translate
15. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to
C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
16. _______ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
A. Wherever people B. There are people who
C. Where people D. People
17. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.
A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect
18. _______ team sports require cooperation.
A. Of all B. They are all C. Why all are D. All
19. Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.
A. there are that more people B. more people that are
C. that there are more people D. people there are more
20. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
21. Dick put ____ ball in ____ net in _____ second half but ____ goal was disallowed.
A. a - a - a - a B. the - the - the - the
C. the - the - a - a D. a - a - the - the
22. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened _______ a sudden loud noise.
A. being there B. should there be C. there was D. there have been
23. The computer has dramatically affected ______ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way
24. Six novels a year, you say? He’s certainly a __________ writer.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific
25. The handwriting is completely ______ . This note must have been written a long time ago.
A. inedible B. indellible C. illegible D. unfeasible
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____

10.____ 11.___ 12.___ 13.___ 14._____ 15.___ 16.___ 17.___ 18.___
19.____ 20.____ 21.___ 22.___ 23.___ 24.___ 25.____
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5pt)
a. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (1. go) ________ out and they (2. sit)
________ in the dark.
b. What tune (3. play) ________ when we (4. come) ________ in?
c. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (5. wear) ________ her seat belt, she (6. not
hurt) ________ so badly.
d. It is vital that no one else (7. know) _______ about the secret government operation.
e. It seems strange to be standing here, (8. look) _______ out at Sydney Harbor.
f. Tom had a lucky escape. He (9. kill) ________ when a car crashed into the front of his house.
g. _____ (10. Rank) as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it
was created.
Your answers:
1.____________________________ 2. ____________________________
3. ____________________________ 4. ____________________________
5. ____________________________ 6. ____________________________
7. ____________________________ 8. ____________________________
9. ____________________________ 10. ___________________________
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently
people got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with
astronomy seem much more important. Egyptologists have often asked them how long it spent to
build them and why people built them in first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the
Egyptians may have believed in the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many
agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in propotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing,
then, was by the chance. Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberatedly being project through
shafts to reach at their goal of the Orion constellation.
Your answers:
No Line Mistake Correction
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5pt)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (1. INTERACT)
______ and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has
undergone a dramatic transformation, not for all the good. Email, while (2. DOUBT) _____ a swift
means of communication providing your server is fully (3. FUNCTION) ______ and that the address
you have contains no (4. ACCURATE) _____ has had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect on certain
people’s behaviour, both at home and business. For those people, the use of email has become
irresistibly (6. ADDICT) _____ to the extent that it is (7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical
health. Addicts spend their day (8. COMPULSION) _____ checking for email and have a (9. TEND)
______ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day
sending and receiving messages, the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative
effect on (10. PRODUCE) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
Your answers:
1.____________________________ 2. ____________________________
3. ____________________________ 4. ____________________________
5. ____________________________ 6. ____________________________
7. ____________________________ 8. ____________________________
9. ____________________________ 10. ___________________________
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the
following questions.(2.0pts)
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the
economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and
transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as
canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways;
first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvements; second, by providing part
of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of
direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets
reflected both similarities and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of
today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers,
innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came
understate inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject
to state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation
designed to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of
work and restrictions on price-fixing by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government
was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native
industries. Toward these ends, the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established
a national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of
relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to
public western lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which
title to land could be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that
was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests
produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States's rights versus federal rights.
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century.
D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the
nineteenth century EXCEPT _________.
A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D. provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were
_________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber
7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth
century?
A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder.
B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked.
C. Regulation of the supply of money.
D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands.
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____ 10.____
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0pts)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this is
true. An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than four
“thank yous” merely to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, “I’m here.”. The
second accompanies the handling over of the money. The third, again from the conductor, (4) ____
“Here is your ticket.”, and then the passenger utters a final one as he accepts the tickets. Such
transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted in total silence. In sharp contrast
to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6) _____ ritual phrases for
social interaction. The exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in so (7) ______ other languages to fellow-
diners before a meal, does not exist in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner! – is said
only by people who will not be pataking of the meal in question. What’s more, the British (8) ____
happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as
birthdays, (10) _____ the Greeks routinely wish all and sundry a “good week” or a “good month”.
Your answers:
1._____________ 2._____________ 3._____________ 4._____________ 5.____________
6._____________ 7._____________ 8._____________ 9._____________ 10.____________
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0pts)
Media and advertising
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here to
(1) ______ . There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2) ______ a
variety of grounds. Did it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radioactivity? Did
the advertisements contain subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to
violence through watching it, either because so (4) ______ programs taught them how to shoot, rob,
and kill, or because they had to do something to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny
screen? Or did it simply create a vast passive (5) ______ drugged by glamorous serials and inane
situation (6) ______ ? On the other hand did it increase anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the
news which was (7) ______ by suitable pictures] and filling our living rooms with war, famine and
political unrest? (8) ______ in all, television proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the second half
of the century, blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly watched. For no (9) ______ how much we
despised it, feared it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us away from the old paradise of family
conversation and hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the
screen, aware that our own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be B. stay C. exist D. prolong
2. A. with B. over C. by D. on
3. A. screen B. danger C. machine D. reason
4. A. that B. far C. many D. what
5. A. program B. personality C. audience D. tense
6. A. comedies B. programs C. perhaps D. consequently
7. A. taken B. presented C. capable D. accompanied
8. A. Taken B. All C. Somewhat D. Thus
9. A. one B. matter C. difference D. reason

10. A. fault B. reflection C. situation D. consciousness
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____ 10.____
PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (2.0pts)
1. If the work is finished by lunchtime, you can go home.
 Get _____________________________________________________________________
2. You haven’t done your work, have you?
 It’s about ___________________________________________________________________
3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
 Only on his __________________________________________________________________
4. He said that he had won as a result of good luck.
 He attributed _________________________________________________________________
5. That reminds me of the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
That takes me _________________________________________________________________
6. People rumour that he is rich but stingy.
 What _______________________________________________________________________
7. Such a ridiculous proposal isn’t worth serious consideration.
There is _______________________________________________________________________
8. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very ______________________________________________________________________
9. We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
 There is an_____________________________________________________________________
10. The staff hated Frank’s new policies so intensely that they went on strike.
 So intense ______________________________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets.
Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0pts)
1. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”. (dawned)
_______________________________________________________________________________
2. After the scandal, he was asked to resign. (HAND)
_______________________________________________________________________________
3. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (likened)
_______________________________________________________________________________
4. My father is not feeling well these days. (weather)
_______________________________________________________________________________
5. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (catch)
_______________________________________________________________________________
6. His arrival was completely unexpected. (took)
_______________________________________________________________________________
7. The success of our local theater has made our city famous. (map)
_______________________________________________________________________________
8. He is certainly not a reliable witness. (means)
_______________________________________________________________________________
9. Our company is the only company allowed to import these chemicals. (monopoly)
_______________________________________________________________________________
10. It’s uncertain whether the band’s tour will take place. (BALANCE)
_______________________________________________________________________________
III. Essay writing (2.0pts)

Some high schools require all students to wear school uniforms. Other high schools permit
students to decide what to wear to school. Which of these two school policies do you think is better?
In about 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion, using specific reasons and
examples to support your opinion.
(You may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
----THE END---
UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 12 (Không chuyên)
===============
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0POINT)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5pt)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5pt)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.(2.5pts)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5.C 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A
15. B 16. A 17. B 18.D 19. C 20. C 21. B
22. B 23. D 24. D 25. C
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5pt)
1. had gone 2. were sitting
3. was being played 4. came
5. had been wearing 6. wouldn’t have been hurt
7. (should) know 8. looking
9. could have been killed 10. To be ranked
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may (1. have solved  have been
solved). Until quite recently people got used (2. to think to thinking) that they were just tombs for
pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy (3. seem  seems) much more important.
Egyptologists have often asked (4. them  themselves) how long it (5. spent  took) to build them
and why people built them in (6. first place  the first place). Experts came up with a suggestion
that the Egyptians may have (7. believed in believed that) the River Nile was the earthly equivalent
of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in propotion to the three
stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was (8. by the chance  by chance). Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs
were deliberatedly being (9. project  projected) through shafts to (10. reach at  reach) their goal
of the Orion constellation.
No Line Mistake Correction
1 1 have solved have been solved
2 2 to think to thinking
3 3 seem seems
4 3 them themselves
5 3 spent took
6 4 first place the first place
7 5 believed in believed that
8 7 by the chance by chance
9 7 project projected
10 8 reach at reach
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. INTERACTION 2. UNDOUBTEDLY 3. FUNCTIONAL
4. INACCURACIES 5. SIGNIFICANT 6. ADDICTIVE
7. THREATENING 8. COMPULSIVELY 9. TENDENCY
10. PRODUCTION
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the
following questions.(2.0pts)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0pts)
1. considered 2. some 3. no 4. means 5. other
6. in 7. many 8. wish 9. celebrations 10. while
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0pts)
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C
6.B 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.B
PART FOUR: WRITING (6POINTS)
I. Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the given words. (2.0pts)
1. Get the work finished by lunchtime and you can go home.
2. It’s about time you did your homework.

3. Only on his fourth proposal did she accept to marry him.
4. He attributed his win/ victory/ success/ achievement/ triumph to good luck.
5. That takes me back to the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
6. What people rumour is that he is rich but stingy.
7. There is no point in considering such a ridiculous proposal seriously.
8. The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
9.There is an absence of animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
10. So intense was the hatred for Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets.
Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0pts)
1. It suddenly dawned on me what the meaning of a “freebie” was.
2. After the scandal, he was asked to hand in his resignation.
3. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument
4. My father is feeling (a bit) under the weather these days.
5. I don’t think this record will ever catch on.
6. His arrival took us (completely) by surprise.
7. The success of our local theater has put our city on the map.
8. He is by no means a reliable witness.
9. Our company has got the monopoly of/on/in importing these chemicals.
10. The band’s tour is in the balance.
III. Essay writing (2.0pts)
Marking scheme
The mark given to part III is based on the following scheme:
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa
1. Bố cục 0.40
 Câu đề dẫn phải thể hiện được rõ ý kiến của người viết 0.10
 Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ 3 phần: 0.15
mở bài, thân bài, kết luận.
 Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 0.15
2. Phát triển ý 0.40

 Phát triển ý có trình tự logic và mạch lạc 0.20
 Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của người 0.20
viết
3. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.40
 Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết 0.10
 Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu 0.15
trúc.
 Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 0.15
4. Nội dung 0.40

 Đủ thuyết phục người đọc 0.15
 Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận 0.15
 Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 10 % 0.10
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.40

 Sử dụng đúng dấu câu 0.10
 Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả 0.10
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm
của bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
 Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây 0.20
hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)
Tổng 2.00
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before
marking the papers.
UBND THÀNH PHỐ ĐÀ NẴNG KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 Số phách do
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016 Chủ tịch Hội đồng
************************************* chấm thi ghi
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo Điểm
Giám khảo 1: Bằng số Bằng chữ
Giám khảo 2:
Đề thi gồm 07 trang.

Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và ghi câu trả lời vào ô trống tương ứng cho mỗi câu hỏi.
SECTION A: LISTENING
You will hear an interview with a man who enjoys flying in a small aircraft called a microlight.
Fill each gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. Write your answers in the numbered boxes for answers.
Before his retirement, Brian worked as a pilot for a company called (1) ____________ for a long time.
Brian feels like a bird when flying his microlight because he doesn't have a (2) ____________ around him.
Brian disagrees with the suggestion that steering a microlight is like steering a (3) ____________.
Brian's record-breaking flight ended in (4) ____________.
Brian organized his flight in advance to avoid needing other people as (5) ____________ on the way.
Brian's microlight was modified so that it could carry more (6) ____________ on board.
It took Brian (7) ____________ to plan the record-breaking flight.
Brian feels that flying over miles and miles of (8) ____________ was the most dangerous part of the trip.
Brian describes his navigation system as both (9) ____________ and easy to use.
Brian says that his main problem on the flight was the fact that he became very (10) ____________.
Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR

I. Select the best option for each sentence. Write your answers in the numbered boxes for answers.
1. Did you hear him ______ the whole sonata last night?
A. play B. to playing C. to play D. played
2. Everyone knew that _______ this task would require a considerable effort.
A. working B. engaging C. making D. completing
3. Don't get so nervous about his coming late. When you get to know him better, you'll learn to take it
______.
A. easy B. loose C. nice D. fine
4. He’s ______ changed at all since I last saw him - just as lively and outgoing as he always was.
A. slightly B. hardly C. subtly D. nearly
5. “Never say that again, ______?”
A. won’t you B. do you C. don’t you D. will you
Page 1 of 7
6. Driving a car with faulty brakes is ______ quite a risk.
A. putting B. taking C. setting D. being
7. Recent corruption scandals mean that the party now stands only a(n) ______ chance of victory in
the forthcoming elections.
A. fair B. realistic C. slim D. inside
8. ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off.
A. Scarcely B. No longer C. Hardly D. No sooner
9. John’s failure _______ great disappointment to his parents.
A. forced B. made C. caused D. provided
10. I have to admit I'm in two ______ about whether to tell her or not.
A. minds B. choices C. camps D. options
11. That minister’s ______ of party politics is well-known to the public.
A. disgust B. objection C. dislike D. opposition
12. Even ______ for inflation he thought it was a good investment.
A. considering B. allowing C. taking account D. calculating
13. John's up ahead so Greg is pedaling fast to ______ up with him.
A. catch B. keep C. stay D. hold
14. That is a ______ table I have ever seen.
A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful round large wooden D. wooden large beautiful round
15. The relations between the two countries have become tense since both ______ their claim to the
disputed territory.
A. placed B. laid C. assumed D. put
Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes for answers.
1. You promised you would do it. Why did you go ____________ on your word?
2. They set ____________ early in the morning to avoid the rush hour traffic.
3. Jim is looking ____________ to his trip to Berlin.
4. He wanted to save money on a regular basis and put ____________ fifty pounds a month.
5. I can’t make ____________ what he’s doing; it’s so dark down there.
Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
III. Use the word given in CAPITALS to form a word that fits in each space. Write your answers in the
numbered boxes for answers.
PUTTING SOME FUN INTO THE WORKPLACE
A study of 737 chief executives of major corporations found that 98 per cent
would hire someone with a good sense of humor in (1) ____________ to someone who 1. PREFER
seemed to lack one.
Having fun at work also inspires (2) ____________ in employees. According to a 2. LOYAL
survey of 1,000 workers, those who rated their manager's sense of humor “above
average” said there was a 90 per cent probability that they would remain in their job for
more than a year. If they worked for a boss whose sense of humor they described as
'average' or 'below', the employee's (3) ____________ of staying dropped to 77 per 3. LIKELY
cent.
So laughter is (4) ____________ and good for business. This knowledge could, 4. BENEFIT
however, add to the stress of (5) ____________ when they are interviewed if making 5. APPLY
Page 2 of 7
jokes doesn't come naturally to them. But being funny doesn't 6. NECESSARY
(6)____________ mean being a stand-up (7) ____________. The important thing is to 7. COMEDY
strive for a light-hearted atmosphere in the workplace.
There is, (8) ____________, a downside to all this. For instance, some people 8. FORTUNE
working in retail jobs are required to smile (9) ____________. Such enforced happiness 9. CONTINUE
can apparently cause (10) ____________ at work and result in emotional stress. 10. SATISFY
Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
IV. There are TEN mistakes in the passage below. Read the passage carefully, UNDERLINE THE
MISTAKES and WRITE YOUR CORRECTIONS on the CORRESPONDING LINES in the box for
answers. There is an example.
THIEVES IN THE SAFARI PARK Answers
Visitors to Hampton safari park has been warned not entering 0. has  have
the monkey enclosure if they have roof cases on their cars as the ……………………………………..
monkeys are likely to open it and steal the contents. The animals ……………………………………..
appear to have worked out a way of unlocking the cases with jumping ……………………………………..
on them; they even seem to be working together in group to do it. ……………………………………..
One family said they know they couldn’t get out of the car and ……………………………………..
so could only watch in horror while the monkeys ran away with every ……………………………………..
their holiday clothes and disappeared up trees with everything from ……………………………………..
bikinis to shoes. One young monkey was seeing holding onto a child’s ……………………………………..
teddy bear. ……………………………………..
Keepers at a safari park said the monkeys had broken into more ……………………………………..
than ten roof cases at the beginning of the summer holidays. As a ……………………………………..
result, they have now set up an alternative route for cars with ……………………………………..
luggage on the roof because they can avoid the thieving monkeys. ……………………………………..
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes for answers.
HOSPITALITY
Hospitality - looking after visitors - is universal, but in different cultures hosts are expected to
receive guests in different ways.
In much of the ancient (1) ______, it was the custom to provide passing travellers with food and
water and (2) ______ after them well. Indeed in some regions, if visitors were in the middle of a long
(3)______, servants would wash their feet.
Today, some old customs have (4) ______ in a traditional Japanese household, if a guest admires a
(5) ______ object in the house, the host will give it to the guest straightaway. And it is still (6) ______ in
parts of Russia to greet guests with bread and salt on a special cloth. The guest is (7) ______ to kiss
them and hand them back to the host. Sometimes the guest breaks off a small piece of bread, dips it in
the salt and eats it.
In some countries, when (8) ______ guests arrive from abroad they may feel they have been given
a particularly (9) ______ meal. But this is probably because the host politely keeps on offering more food
and drink, and the guest is too embarrassed to (10) ______ anything down. Answers
1. A. globe B. earth C. world D. planet 1.
2. A. look B. name C. take D. go 2.
3. A. day B. travel C. term D. journey 3.
4. A. supported B. survived C. preserved D. existed 4.
Page 3 of 7
5. A. usual B. precise C. distinct D. particular 5.
6. A. typical B. everyday C. ordinary D. average 6.
7. A. needed B. wanted C. required D. desired 7.
8. A. strange B. foreign C. alien D. unfamiliar 8.
9. A. strong B. dense C. wide D. heavy 9.
10. A. slow B. turn C. keep D. take 10.
II. Read the following passage and complete it by filling each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in the numbered boxes for answers.
THE GREAT LIBRARY IN ALEXANDRIA
Today, there are libraries in almost every town in the world. Even in areas (1) ____________
there are no libraries, there are often mobile libraries which take books from one village to
(2)____________. But in the days when books were copied by hand (3) ____________ than printed,
libraries were very rare. The reason is simple: books took a very long time to produce, and there were
(4)____________ fewer copies of any given work around. The greatest library (5) ____________ all, that
in Alexandria, had 54,000 books. In the ancient world, this number (6) ____________ considered huge. It
was the first time that anyone had ever collected so many books from all around the world
(7)____________ one roof. There are many theories about how these books were lost. (8) ____________
is that the library accidentally burned down. Another is that one of the rulers of the city ordered the books
to (9) ____________ burned. They were taken to various places and it took six months to burn them.
(10) ____________ happened, the collection there was priceless. Many of the library’s treasures were lost
forever - some books were never recovered. We cannot even know what exactly the library contained.
Answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. You are going to read an article in which five people talk about what they have done to raise money
for charity. Choose from the people (A-E). The people may be chosen more than once. Write your
answers (A-E) in the numbered boxes for answers.
Which person or people: Answers

would not repeat what they did to raise money? 1.
tried to encourage others to do things to raise money for charity? 2
spent a long time preparing for what they did? 3.
says the experience was unique and memorable? 4.
had a family member help them with the preparation for the event? 5.
says the hardest part was the beginning of the activity? 6.
mentions more than one type of charity event? 7.
sees taking part in charity events as a way of learning about people in need? 8.
took part in the same event many times? 9.
didn’t enjoy the event as much as the preparation? 10.
RAISING MONEY FOR CHARITY
A Housewife and grandmother

I abseiled off a cliff to raise money for charity. It was an enormous challenge as I’m actually quite
afraid of heights. It was only really the moment of going over the edge that was difficult; after that
it was very easy. You just have to get into the rhythm and not go too fast. My son is very into
climbing and things like that and he and some of his friends from his university climbing club set
everything up and organized the whole event. There were about twenty of us who did it and
Page 4 of 7
between us we raised well over the target amount. It was a great success but I don’t think I’ll be
doing anything like that again. Once was enough!
B Lawyer
I ran a triathlon and managed to get over 50 people to sponsor me. I had to train for months and it
was really hard work but well worth it. I actually enjoyed the training more than the final event
because on the day the weather was terrible. In the months running up to the event I followed a
very strict regime and it felt good to be working towards such a specific goal. I would often get up
at 5 o’clock in the morning so I could train before going to work. Knowing that I was going to be
able to give a large donation to charity made me even more determined to do it. It wasn’t
compulsory to get sponsorship and giving money to charity wasn’t my main motivation when I first
signed up to do it but I wanted to make the most of the opportunity and all my friends and family
were really supportive and wanted to help and give money. It was such a positive experience I’m
going to do it again next year.
C Environmental consultant
I cycled from L.A. to Quito last spring. All my family thought I was mad but I love cycling and I
knew it would be an amazing way to see lots of really interesting places that most people never see.
I managed to raise quite a bit of money for charity through sponsorship although that wasn't my
main objective. I turned 30 in March and I really wanted to be doing something totally different
rather than just sitting at my desk in the office. I wanted it to be different and something I could
look back on when I am older and feel proud of. It is something I’ll be able to tell my grandchildren
about and the fact that I was able to do something to help those less well off than me at the same
time, well that made it even better.
D Theatre manager
When I was a child I took part in a lot of sponsored walks. Each year my school would organise the
walks and although it wasn’t compulsory my friends and I would always take part. It was fun. Each
walk was about 15 km long so it took quite a long time but it was a nice way to spend a day. The
first year I did it I was only 11 years old and my father came with us to keep an eye on us but once
we were older we went by ourselves; there were about 8 or 9 of us that all walked together. We
managed to get quite a bit of money between us; in fact it became our challenge to raise more
money than the year before, which we always achieved, so there was a great sense of satisfaction.
E Retired primary school head teacher

We used to make a big effort to get the children involved in charity events as I think it helps raise
their awareness of world events and the fact that in many places there are people, particularly
children like themselves, who live in very different circumstances to them. I think they get a great
sense of satisfaction too from knowing that they are able to do something to help. Each year we
had a mufti day; where all the children paid a small amount of money and then came to school for
one day in their own clothes and not in school uniform. We also regularly held school fetes where
the children were encouraged to donate old toys and books and things which we then sold. The
children got involved in running the stalls too and all the money we made went to our chosen
charity.
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it is closest in meaning to the first sentence. Use
the word given in bold. Do not change the word given.
1. I think it's time the children went to bed now. HAD
I think the children …………………………………………………………………….. to bed now.
2. Would you please keep your mobile phone switched off during the flight? MIND
Would you ……………………………………………………………………………….. the plane is airborne?
Page 5 of 7
3. No student can be expected to know every word in the book. STUDENTS
Nobody can ……………………………………………………………………………. in the book.
4. I don't like it when people I don't know very well ask me personal questions. BEING
I …………………………………………………………………. people I don't know very well.
5. Maybe John has not remembered about tonight's party. COULD
I suppose John …………………………………………………………………….. about tonight's party.
6. "Should I ask for help or do it myself?" Jeff wondered. HIMSELF
Jeff …………………………………………………………………………………. do it himself.
7. The big increase in hits on his website came as a surprise to Philip. GOT
Much ……………………………………………………………… a big increase in hits on his website.
8. Because he thought it might break down, Dan always kept a mobile phone in his car. CASE
Dan kept a mobile phone in his car ……………………………………………………………… down.
9. I was just about to call you to see what time you were coming. POINT
I ………………………………………………………………… you to see what time you were coming.
10. I'm worried about that bruise on your hand. LOOK
I don't .............................................................................. that bruise on your hand.
II. Choosing a career is one of the most important decisions one will make in life.
What are the three most important factors that one should take into consideration when choosing a
career?
Write an essay to answer the question. Use reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You should write about 200 words.
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--- The End ---
Page 7 of 7

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SECTION I: LISTENING (3 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

PART 1: Questions 1-6

1. Where is Angela working at the A. Britain

3. What did Angela bring home from A. pictures

PART 3: Questions 1-6

POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL

The competition for 11-14s is called the (1)_____________________ Prize.

The topic for this year is (2) )_____________________.

The title of last year’s winning poem was (3) )_____________________.

This year the prize money available is (4) )_____________________ euros.

If successful, school will spend the money on the (5) )_____________________.

For further help, see the (6) )_____________________.

SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7 points)

Write your answers here:

0 Congratulations on winning of the tennis championship! You must be of

Write your answers here:

Before going to an interview, it is (0)_________ to go through a mock ADVISE

Write your answers here

SECTION III: READING (4 points)

Write your answers here

Write your answers here

The Atmosphere of Venus

SECTION 4: WRITING (6 points)

Họ tên thí sinh: ...................................................... Phòng thi số:..........Số báo danh:.............

PART A: PHONETICS (5pts)

B. three times as much as D. as much three times as

60. A. out B. across C. through D. back

B. savings on heating and cooling costs

---------- THE END ---------

41.endangered 42.similarities 43.variety 44. applicants 45.disobedient

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)

Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:

PART ONE: PHONETICS: (10pts)

61. A. sign B. make C. give D. approve

Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (12pts)

A. To test the effect of light on the birds' restlessness

PART FOUR: WRITING (60pts)

IV. Essay writing (30pts)

-------- THE END -------

UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Total points: 200

PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (60pts)

53 4 neurosurgery neurosurgeon 58 8 cell cells

PART THREE: READING (70pts)

105. NO 106. YES 107. NOT GIVEN

PART FOUR: WRITING (60pts)

4. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)

Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:

PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0POINT)

A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to

1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____

9. A. one B. matter C. difference D. reason

III. Essay writing (2.0pts)

UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0POINT)

2. It’s about time you did your homework.

2. Phát triển ý 0.40

4. Nội dung 0.40

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.40

Đề thi gồm 07 trang.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.