1. Under the Public Land Act, which of the following is not classified as land of the public domain?

a. Alienable or disposable lands c. Mineral lands

b. Timber lands d. National Park
2. It is a right or interest in property that has been fixed and established and is no longer open to
doubt or controversy
a. right c. registration
b. vested right d. decision
3. What is the maximum area obtainable under homestead?
a. 3 has c. 12 has
b. 5 has d. 24 has

4. What is the maximum area available for individual under lease of agricultural lands?
a. 1000 has c. 24 has
b. 500 has d. 12 has
5. The duration of lease of public agricultural land is?
a. 10 yrs
b. 5 yrs.
c. 15 yrs
d. 25 yrs
6. Submerged land emerging into the surface by deliberate act oc of filling or dredging is?
a. Marshy land
b. Island
c. Foreshore land
d. Reclaimed land
7. These are lands adjacent to the sea, which is alternately covered and uncovered by the ordinary
flow of tide.
a. Marshy land
b. Island
c. Foreshore land
d. Reclaimed land
8. Lands bordering on shores and banks of navigable rivers and lakes is?
a. Marshy land
b. Island
c. Foreshore land
Reclaimed land
9. To be able to issue a sales patent, at least ___ of the land within 5 years should be cultivated?
a. 1/3
b. ½
c. 1/5
d. ¼
10. _________ refers to such lands of the public domain which are subject to alienation and disposal
by the state.
a. private land
b. public land
c. homestead
d. mineral land
11. _________ are lands containing deposits of valuable, useful or precious minerals in such
quantities as to justify expenditures in the effort to extract them.
a. mine
b. quarry
c. mineral land
d. treasure hunting
12. This is a work for the excavation of minerals by pits of pits, shafts, levels, tunnels and others.
a. mine
b. quarry
c. mineral land
d. treasure hunting
13. It means that minerals belong to the state wherever they may be found, whether in public lands or
private lands.
a. royalty
b. Regalian Doctrine
c. Mining claim
d. Patrimonial property
14. This is the basis of ownership.
a. Registration
b. Title
c. DEEDS
d. Private Property
15. _______ refers to the act where the state provides public record of title itself.
a. Registration
b. Title
c. DEEDS
d. Private Property
16. Act 496 is otherwise known as_____.
a. Public Land Act
b. The Cadastral Act
c. Land Registration Act
d. Mining Act
17. An appeal by the aggrieved party in land registration proceeding should be done within
_____days from the date of notice of decision.
a. 180
b. 60
c. 30
d. 360
18. This is the transcript of the decree of registration made by the register of deeds.
a. Torrens title
b. Certificate of title
c. Registration
d. Decree of registration
19. It indicates the control, which a court has, during pendency of an action, over the property
involved therein.
a. Torrens system
b. Lis Pendens
c. Writ of peossesion
d. Subpoena
20. This title could be acquired by virtue of hereditary succession to the estate of the deceased owner.
a. Title by voluntary transfer
b. Title by descent
c. Title by prescription
d. Title by reclamation
21. It is anything which is or may be the object of appropriation.
a. Property
b. Ownership
c. Possession
d. Accession
22. _______ is the independent right of exclusive enjoyment and control of a thing for the purpose of
deriving there from all advantages required by the reasonable needs of the owner and the
promotion of the general welfare but subject to the restrictions imposed by law and the rights of
others.
a. Property
b. Ownership
c. Possession
d. Accession
23. _______ is the holding of a thing or enjoyment of a right, either by material occupation or by the
fact of subjecting the thing or right to action of our will.
a. Property
b. Ownership
c. Possession
d. Accession
24. The power of the government to take private property for public use upon payment of just
compensation.
a. Escheat
b. Police Power
c. Power of Taxation
d. Eminent Domain
25. The reversion of the property to the government when the owner dies without leaving a will or
heirs.
a. Escheat
b. Police Power
c. Power of Taxation
d. Eminent Domain
26. ________ is the power of the government or any of its instrumentalities or agencies to regulate
private real estate ownership to protect the health, safety, morals and well being and general
welfare of its citizens.
a. Escheat
b. Police Power
 c. Power of Taxation
d. Eminent Domain
27. The government extracts taxes on property for the general support of the state and for
maintenance of public service, if not collected the government sells the property.
a. Escheat
b. Police Power
c. Power of Taxation
d. Eminent Domain
28. ________ is that which belongs to the state as private individual, without being devoted to
common use.
a. Patrimonial Property
b. Private Property
c. Paraphernal property
d. Capital Property
29. The exclusive property of the wife.
a. Patrimonial Property
b. Private Property
c. Paraphernal property
d. Capital Property
30. The exclusive property of the husband.
a. Patrimonial Property
b. Private Property
c. Paraphernal property
d. Capital Property

31. When the ownership of an undivided thing or right belongs to different persons.
a. Co-possession
b. Co- Ownership
c. Co-property
d. Writ of possession
32. ________ is a real right by virtue of which a person is given the right to enjoy the property of
another with the obligation of preserving its form and substance.
a. Easement or servitude
b. Usufruct
c. Writ of possession
d. Lease contract
33. This is an encumbrance imposed upon an immovable for the benefit of another immovable
belonging to a different owner
a. Easement or servitude
b. Usufruct
c. Writ of possession
d. Lease contract
34. The Comprehensive reform program is governed by
a. RA 6557
b. RA 6657
c. RA 6577
d. PD 157
35. The maximum are that a beneficiary can acquire under CARP is?
a. 5 has
b. 3 has
c. 12 has
d. 500 has
36. The retention limit for the landowner under CARP is?
a. 5 has
b. 3 has
c. 12 has
d. 500 has
37. Any land acquired under the CARP could naot be encumber, sold or transfer within ____ year
after the award.
a. 25
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5
38. The following are lands exempted from the coverage of CARP except
a. Breeding ground
b. Agricultural land
c. Penal colonies
d. Research center
39. Under PD 27, the retention limit of the landowners is
a. 7 has
b. 5 has
c. 3 has
d. 12 has
40. The maximum time to pay a land acquired under the CARP is?
a. 10 yrs.
b. 20 yrs.
c. 30 yrs.
d. 25 yrs.

41. All original survey of lands, claimed or owned by individuals, partnership, corporations or any
other form of organization, undertaken for use in original land registrations proceedings pursuant
to the provisions of PD No. 1529 otherwise known as Property Registration Decree is called:
a. Private Land Surveys c) Public Land Surveys
b. Conversion Surveys d) Amendment Surveys
42. All original surveys of land administered by or belonging to the National Government or any of
its branches is called;
a. Government Land Surveys c) Cadastral land Surveys
b. Public Land Surveys d) Resurvey
43. All classes of surveys of isolated parcels of land for agricultural, residential, commercial,
resettlement or any other purpose is called:
a. Cadastral Land survey c) Verification Survey
b. Isolated land Survey d) Amendment Survey
44. All surveys made for the purpose of determining political boundaries, verifying or relocating
prior surveys, subdividing patented, leased or decreed properties, determining geographic
coordinates, establishing location monuments triangulation stations, locating roads and street is
called;
a. Government Land Survey c) Other Land Survey
b. Relocation Survey d) Amendment Survey
45. All surveys made of extensive areas consisting of several lots for cadastral registration
proceedings, agricultural development or for any purpose pursuant to provision of Cadastral Act
No. 2259 is called:
a. Cadastral Land survey c) Public land Surveys
b. Isolated land Survey d) Other Land Survey
46. Who may execute surveys for registration and other related purposes?
a. GE and Jr. GE duly registered in accordance with the Rep. Act 4374
b. Senior GE only
c. Jr. GE only
d. GE and Jr. GE of the Bureau of Lands
47. Who may execute or undertake public land surveys, private land surveys, government land
surveys, and other land surveys subject to the administration; direction, control and supervision of
the Director of Lands?
a. Government GE and Jr. GE
b. GE and Jr. GE in the Bureau of Lands
c. Assistant GE
d. All licensed GE and Jr. GE
48. Before a geodetic engineer in private practice maybe authorize to undertake the survey of isolated
parcels of public or government lands under the administration of the Bureau of Lands, he shall
make a cash deposit as bond for each survey at the regional land office concerned of not less than.
a. P 200 c) P 100
b. P 500 d) P 300
49. All survey converting graphical cadastral lots into numerical cadastral lots, computed and plotted
in the system of the cadastral project is called:
a. Cadastral Land survey c) Other Land Survey
b. Conversion Land Survey d) Amendment Survey
50. A geodetic engineer in private practice who has been authorized to undertake a cadastral project
shall file a performance bond in the amount to be fixed but the Director of Lands which shall not
be less than
a. 10% of the contract cost of project
b. 12% of the contract cost of project
c. 15% of the contract cost of project
d. 20% of the contract cost of project
51. Period within which to review certificates or registration for transits and theodolites.
a. One year c) Five years
b. Two year d) Three years
52. All original surveys of lands of the public domain classified as alienable or disposable pursuant to
the provisions of the public land laws is called:
 a. Public land Surveys c) Conversion Surveys
b. Government Land Surveys d) Private land Surveys
53. Period of renewal of certificates of registration of tapes
a. One year c) Five years
b. Two year d) Three years
54. Who are qualified to be employed as instrument men by geodetic engineers?
a. Registered GE and Jr. GE
b. Persons registered with the Board of Geodetic Engineering as GE aides
c. Assistant GE
d. Any person who is a high school graduate
55. Official surveys to be used in the granting of land patents and leases or adjudication of titles and
in other administrative or judicial proceedings shall be made with transits or theodolites where
the telescope should have a magnifying power of not less than:
a. 20 diameters c) 40 diameters
b. 30 diameters d) 50 diameters

56. What office in the government is mandated to approved or disapproved application for
conversion, restructuring or adjustment of agricultural lands into non-agricultural uses?
a. DAR b) HLURB c) NEDA d) DENR
57. The subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree applies only to titled residential
land which is:
a. For sale
b. Offered to the public for sale
c. Offered to the public for sale in a public offering in which prospectus, brochures,
advertisements, solicitation letters, etc. are used.
d. For lease
58. Under the Salient Feature on CARP (R.A. 6657) The maximum area for retention for each land
owner is:
a. 5 hectares b) 12 hectares c) 7 hectares d) 24 hectares

59. The minimum lot area requirements for a corner lot of a semi-detached dwelling unit:
a. 36 aq. m. b) 54 sq. m c) 72 sq. m. d) 48 sq. m.
60. Minimum lot frontages for a single detached unit:
a. 6 meters b) 8 meters c) 72 sq. m. d) 48
61. What office in the government is mandated to approved or disapproved application for
conversion, restructuring or adjustment of agricultural lands into non-agricultural uses?
a. DAR b) HLURB c) NEDA d) DENR
62. The subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree applies only to titled residential
land which is:
a. For sale
b. Offered to the public for sale
c. Offered to the public for sale in a public offering in which prospectus, brochures,
advertisements, solicitation letters, etc. are used.
d. For lease
63. Under the Salient Feature on CARP (R.A. 6657) The maximum area for retention for each land
owner is:
a. 5 hectares b) 12 hectares c) 7 hectares d) 24 hectares
64. The official or standard time used in the Philippines is the mean time corresponding to;
a. 120° meridian east of Greenwich b) 100°meridian east Greenwich
c. Greenwich d) 120° meridian west of Greenwich
65. Quality of control to be used for isolated land surveys with an area over 15,000 hectares:
a) primary control b) Secondary control c) tertiary control d) none of the
66. All main control stations except the Bureau of Land Location Monuments shall be defined by
cylindrical concrete monuments 10 cm. In diameters by 60 cm. In length and set not more than
___ cm. Above the ground.
a) 10 cm. b) 5 cm. c) 15 cm. d) 20 cm.
67. When the primary control consists of one traverse circuit along the perimeter of the project,
astronomical observations for azimuth shall be made at every ______ stations to check the
current grid azimuth of the lines.
a) 20 to 25 stations b) 30 to 50 station c) 25 to 30 station d) 40 to 100
station
68. The astronomical azimuths determined at the main control lines shall be corrected for
convergency of meridians in accordance with the rules and regulations and shall agree within
______ of arc with the current grid azimuth of lines.
a) 30 seconds b) 20 seconds c) 1 minute d) 15 minutes
69. The difference between the grid azimuths of the common control lines as carried from the
respective base meridians when reduced by the angle of convergency between these base
meridians shall be less than _______.
a) 20 seconds of arc b) 30 seconds of arc c) 1 minute of arc d) 15 minutes
of arc
70. The right pertaining to the owner of a thing over everything which is produced thereby, or which
is incorporated or attached thereto, either naturally or artificially is known as:
a) Accession b) Alluvium c) Avulsion d) Accretion
71. All properties obtained by the husband and wife during marriage is known as:
a) Patrimonial property b) Conjugal property c) Capital property d) Paraphernal
property
72. What is the maximum area of land that maybe distributed to qualified beneficiaries under the
Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law of 1988.
a) 3 hectares b) 5 hectares c) 7 hectares d) 12 hectares
73. Review of a decision or relief from judgment must be filled within a period of _____ days from
the time the petitioner learn of the judgment and not beyond ______ months from the entry
thereof:
a) 60 days, 6 months b) 30 days,6 month c) 90 days, 12 month d) 45 days, 12 month
74. Decree of registration become final only after the laps of _____ from the date of its issuance and
entry.
a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 1 year d) 90 days
75. A writ of execution commanding the sheriff to enter the land and give position thereof to the
person entitled under the judgment.
a) Writ of Lis Pendens b) Writ of sheriff c) Writ of possession d) Writ of Decision
76. A single family attached dwelling containing three or more separate living units grouped closely
together relatively compact structures is known as:
a) Cluster housing c) Single-Family Attached
b) Single-Family Detached d) Row-house
77. A parcel pf land bounded on the sides by streets or alley or pathways or other natural or man-
made features and occupied by or intended for buildings is called:
a) Dwelling b) Alley c) Block d) Row-house
78. Area requirements for a park or playground in terms of percentage of the gross area of a
subdivision with less than 150 lots or living unit per hectares is:
a) 30% b) 3.5% c) 7% d) 9%
79. Allocation of areas for park and playground in a subdivision with 200 lots or living unit per
hectares in percentage of gross area of a subdivision is:
a) 7% b) 3.5% c) 3.5% d) 6%
80. The Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992 is known as:
a) R. A. No. 2779 b) R. A. No. 7279 c) R. A. No. 7972 d) R. A. 2997
81. Any of the lots, whether residential, commercial, or industrial lots in a subdivision projects is
known as:
a) Industrial lot b) Housing lot c) Subdivision lots d) Residential lot

82. The entire parcel of real property divided or to be divided primarily for residential purposes into
condominium units, including all structures thereon is called:
a) Subdivision project c) complex subdivision project
b) Condominium project d) housing project
83. Residential subdivision are classified as:
a) simple and compound subdivision c) consolidation and complex subdivision
b) models A,B and C d) all of the above
84. Complex subdivision located in second class municipalities shall be classified as:
a) Model B b) Model A c) Model C d) None of the
above
85. A part of the condominium project intended for any type of independent use or ownership
including one or more rooms or spaces located appended thereto is known as:
a) Condominium unit b) common area c) housing unit d) dwelling
unit
86. Land covered from agricultural to non-agricultural lands 5 hectares or less under R. A. 6657
(CARP) shall be developed and completed at a certain period starting from the issuance of the
development permit which is:
a) 2 years b) one year c) 4 years d) 5 years
87. A judicial process observed in reproducing, after observing the procedure prescribed by law, lost
or destroyed titles in the same form they existed when the lost or destruction occurred of title:
a) re-registration of lost title b) reconstitution of title c) renewal of title d)
duplication of lost title
88. A written instrument executed in accordance with law, wherein a person grants or conveys to
another a certain land, tenements or hereditaments is called:
a) certificate of ownership b) title c) deeds d) registration
89. An act to define condominium, established requirements for its certain, and government its
incidents.
 a) PD 202 b) PD 957 c) Rep. Act 4374 d) Rep. Act No. 4726
90. Which of these lands of the Public domain not included under Public Land Act 141?
a) National parks c) timber lands
b) Alienable or disposable lands d) mineral lands
91. Who is the officer authorized under public land act to administer oath relative to public land
applications?
a) Director of Lands c) Chief of Survey Division of the BL
b) Judge of RTC d) all of the above
92. What office would you file an application for purchases of public agricultural lands?
a) director of Land Management Bureau c) RTC
b) DENR d) NEDA
93. Maximum area of public agricultural land allowed for lease for an individual who is a Filipino
citizen of lawful age (21 yrs. Old).
a) 48 hectares b) 500 hectares c) 12 hectares d) 1000
hectares
94. Reclaimed, foreshore and marshy lands are available only by lease not to exceed:
a) 96 hectares b) 144 hectares c) 48 hectares d) 500
hectares
95. Lands bordering on shores and banks of navigable rivers and lakes.
a) Foreshore lands b) marshy lands c) reclaimed lands d) friar lands
96. With respect to registered lands what is the best evidence of ownership?
a) Documents b) Torrents title c) possession d) actual
occupation

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