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Form Number : Paper Code

(1001CMD305418054) )1//1CMD3/5418/54)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : TARGET 2019


Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : JIPMER
TEST DATE : 28 - 05 - 2019
TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS
Important Instructions
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only.

If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the
examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 2½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 800.

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer
is harmful.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your
Form No.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019


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JIPMER/28-05-2019
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. If frequency (F), velocity (V) and density (D) 5. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid
are considered as fundamental units, the support at A as shown in figure. Another rope
dimensional formula for momentum will be :- is tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally
(1) DV F 2 (2) DV2 F –1 with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle
q with the vertical, then the tension in the string
(3) D2V 2F 2 (4) DV4 F –3
AB is :
2. The error in measuring the mass and radius of
a solid sphere are ±1% and ± 0.5% respectively.
A
The error in calculation of the moment of inertia q B F
of the solid sphere will be about
(1) ± 1.5% (2) ± 2.5% M
(3) ± 3% (4) ± 2% (1) F sin q (2) F/sin q
3. A ball is thrown upward. It's height varies with (3) F cos q (4) F/cos q
time as shown in figure. Then the value of 6. The value of mass m for which 100 kg block
height 'h' is (g = 10 m/s2 ) :- remains in static equilibrium is :-

Height (m)
m
h 10
0
m =0.3 37°

(1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg (3) 88 kg (4) 85 kg


time (sec)
t=1 t=2 t=5 t=6 7. Force acting on a particle is (2iˆ + 3ˆj)N . Work
done by this force is zero, when a particle is
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m moved on the line 3y + Kx = 5. The value of
(3) 15 m (4) 25 m K is
4. A particle is moving along a straight line whose (1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4
8. A mass M is allowed to fall on a pedestal fixed
velocity-displacement graph is shown. The
on the top of a vertical spring. If the height of
acceleration of particle when displacement is 3m:-
the mass was H from the pedestal and the
compression of the spring is d then the spring's
v(m/s) force factor is given by :-
M

H
4

60°
O 3 s(m)
(H + d) (H - d)
(1) Mg (2) 2Mg
d2 d2
(1) -4 3 m/s2 (2) -3 3 m/s2
Mg H (H + d)
(3) - 3 m/s2 (4) -4 / 3 m/s2 (3) (4) 2Mg
2 d2 d2

1001CMD305418054 E-1/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019
9. A rotating rod covers 2 revolutions in 10 s 13. A belt moves over two pulleys A and B as
starting from rest, then find angular velocity shown in the figure. The pulleys are mounted
after 1 minute of its start :- on two fixed Horizontal axis. Raddi of the
(1) 2.4 p (2) 4.8 p pulleys A and B are 50 cm and 80 cm
(3) 1.2 p (4) 8 p respectively. Pulley A is driven at constant
10. Centre of mass of three particles of mass 1kg, angular acceleration 0.8 rad/s2. How long after the
2kg and 3kg lies at the origin of a coordinate pulley B achieve angular velocity of
system. The position vector of a fourth particle 10 rad/s.
of mass 4kg such that centre of mass of four
particle system lies at the point (3, 2, 1) is C
A B
a(3iˆ + 2ˆj + k)
ˆ , where a is a constant. The value
of a is :-
1 3 (1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 10
(1) (2)
2 2 14. A thin uniform rod AB of mass m = 1.0 kg
moves transitionally with acceleration a = 2.0 m/s2
5 10
(3) (4) due to two antiparallel forces F 1 and F 2. The
2 3
distance between the points at which these
11. A bullet of mass m and velocity v is fired into forces are applied is equal to d = 20 cm.
a block of mass M and sticks to it. The final Besides, it is known that F2 = 5.0 N. Find the
velocity of the system equals :- length of the rod.
M m
(1) .v (2) .v
m+M m+M F1 A
d
m+M
(3) .v (4) None of these F2
m
12. A particle of mass m moves with velocity
u1 = 20 m/s towards a heavy wall that is moving
with velocity v2 = 5 m/s as shown :
B

u1 3 1
(1) m (2) m
2 2

5
(3) m (4) 1 m
2
u2 15. A ball is thrown down a lawn with pure
translational velocity V0. If friction is sufficient
If the particle collides with the wall without to perform rolling, then speed of ball when pure
losing its energy, find the speed of the particle rolling starts
just after the collision : 2 2
(1) 30 m/s (1) V0 (2) V0
7 5
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s 5 3
(3) V0 (4) V0
(4) 25 m/s 7 5

E-2/20 1001CMD305418054
JIPMER/28-05-2019
16. If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, 21. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB
if g30 is value of acceleration due to gravity at of same heat conductivity k, it is conducting
the latitude of 30° and g at the equator, then an amount of heat H. The ADB part is now
the value of g – g30° is :- replaced with another metal keeping the
temperatures T 1 and T 2 constant. The heat
1 2 3 2
(1) wR (2) wR carried increases to 2 H. What should be the
4 4
heat conductivity of the new ADB part? Given
1 2 ACB
(3) w2 R (4) wR = 3:-
2 ADB
17. A space station is set up in space at a distance
equal to the earth's radius from the surface of C
the earth. Suppose a satellite can be launched
from the space station. Let v 1 and v 2 be the
escape velocities of the satellite from the earth's
A B
surface and space station, respectively. Then T1 T2
D
(1) v2 = v1
(2) v2 < v1
(3) v2 > v1
(4) (1), (2) and (3) are valid depending on the 7
(1) k (2) 2 k
mass of satellite 3
18. A rope of 1 cm diameter breaks if the tension in
5
it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that may (3) k (4) 3 k
2
be given to a similar rope of diameter 2 cm is -
22. A black body is heated from 7ºC to 287ºC. The
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N ratio of radiation emitted is:-
(3) 1000 N (4) 2000 N (1) 1:256 (2) 1:27 (3) 1:16 (4) 1:64
19. The cylindrical vessel is kept on horizontal 23. When water is heated from 0ºC to 4ºC, then :-
surface as shown in figure. The speed of water (1) Cp = Cv (2) Cp > Cv
coming out through small hole :- (3) Cp < Cv (4) Cp – Cv = R
M=45kg m=5kg 24. Three samples of the same gas X, Y and Z
Piston: 2
A=1m
æ 5ö
h=10m ç g = ÷ have initially equal volume. All the
è 3ø
4m
three samples undergo expansion to double
(1) 6 m/s (2) 0.6 m/s their volume. the process is adiabatic for X,
(3) 11 m/s (4) 1.1 m/s isobaric for Y and isothermal for Z. If final
20. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of pressures are equal for all three samples, the
a material of density r1. It is falling through a ratio of their initial pressures is :-
liquid of density r2(r2 < r1). Assume that the
liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is (1) 2 8 : 2 : 1
proportional to the square of its speed v (2) 4 : 2 : 1
i.e. F = – Kv2 ( K > 0) then how the terminal
velocity (vT) depends on volume :- (3) 2 3 4 : 1 : 2
(1) vT µ V (2) vT µ V1/2
3
(3) vT µ V2/3 (4) vT µ V3/2 (4) 2 : 1 : 4

1001CMD305418054 E-3/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019
25. If coefficient of performance of a refrigarator 29. Two open pipes of length L are vibrated
is b and heat absorbed from refrigarated space simultaneously. If length of one of the pipe is
is Q, then work done on the system is :- reduced by y, then the number of beats heard
(1) bQ (2) (1+b) Q per second will be, if the velocity of sound is
V and y < L.
Q Q
(3) (4) b - 1 Vy Vy
1+ b (1) (2)
2L2 L2
26. A body is executing a simple harmonic motion
such that its potential energy is U1 at x and U2 Vy 2L2
at y displacement. When the displacement is x (3) (4)
2L Vy
+ y, the potential energy will be :-
30. A star is moving away from the earth with a
(1) U1 + U2 (2) U12 + U 22 velocity of 100 km/s. If the velocity of light is
3 × 108 m/s, then the shift of its spectral line of
(3) U1 + U2 + 2 U1 U 2 (4) U1 U 2 wavelength 5700 Å due to Doppler effect is :-
27. In a spring block system shown, the block of (1) 0.63 Å (2) 1.90 Å
mass m moves over a smooth horizontal (3) 3.80 Å (4) 5.70 Å
surface and under goes SHM with time period 31. Find electric field intensity at point P due to
T and amplitude A. A constant horizontal force uniformly charge rod of length L.
F now begins act on the block. Motion of the
block will be :- L
P
L
2l
k F
m l l
(1) 4 pÎ L (2) 2p Î L
0 0
(1) Periodic but not SHM
(2) SHM with time period = T l 4l
(3) SHM with time period = T + (F/mA)–1/2 (3) p Î L (4) p Î L
0 0
(4) SHM with time period = T–(F/mA)–1/2
32. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q are
28. A wire of variable mass per unit length m = m0x,
placed at the corners of a square of side 2L.The
is hanging from the ceiling as shown in figure. The
electric potential at centre of square will be -
length of wire is l0. A small transverse disturbance
is produced at its lower end. Find the time after
q –q
which the disturbance will reach to the other ends.

O
x
q 2L –q

8 l0 4 l0
(1) (2) kq
g g (1) (1 + 5) (2) Zero
L

2 l0 2kq 4kq
(3) (4) None (3) (4)
g L L

E-4/20 1001CMD305418054
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33. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C 36. The reading of Ammeter A 1 connected as
and 2C are connected in parallel and charged shown in the network is
to a potential difference V. The battery is then
disconnected and the region between the plates A1

of C is filled completely with a material of 12W 40W 60W


24V
dielectric constant K. The common potential A2
difference across the combination becomes :-

2V (1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 3A (4) 4A


(1)
K+2 37. A 1W voltmeter has a range of 1V. Find the new
range of voltmeter if a 99W resistance is
V connected with it in series.
(2)
K+2 (1) 10V (2) 100V
(3) 1000V (4) 10,000V
3V
(3) 38. A large straight current carrying conductor is
K+3 r
bent in the form of L shape. Find B at P :-
3V
(4)
K+2
34. For the circuit shown in figure, time constant
is : a P
i a
i
6R

+ R µ0i ˆ
3R (1) Zero (2) (2 + 2) k
– 4pa
C
µ 0i 2µ0i
(3) (4)
4pa pa
(1) t = RC (2) t = 2.1 RC 39. A particle of charge (+q) and mass 'm' enters
r
(3) t =
27
RC (4) t = 3RC ( )
with velocity v = v0 ˆi + kˆ in a magnetic field
4 r
B = B0 kˆ then :-
B
R R 2R mv 0
(1) it moves along a circular path of radius qB
35. R 0

A 2pmv 0
R R R (2) it moves along helical path of pitch qB0
Find equivalent resistance between A and B :-
(3) it moves along a helical path of pitch
6R 4R
(1) (2)
5 3 2 2pm
v0
qB0
R 5R
(3) (4)
3 3 (4) it moves along straight line along +z axis

1001CMD305418054 E-5/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019

40. The magnetic field existing in a region is given by 44. The reading of ammeter in the circuit shown
will be :-
æ xö
B = B0 ç1 + ÷ kˆ
è lø
A square loop of edge l and carrying current A
I is placed with its edges parallel to the X and
XC=5W
Y-axes. The magnitude of the net magnetic V 110 V
force experienced by the loop is :-
(1) 2B0 Il (2) zero
(3) B0 Il (4) 4B0 Il XL=5W R=55W
41. Magnetic susceptibility of the given paramagnetic
(1) 2 A (2) 2.4 A (3) zero (4) 1.7 A
substance at room temperature is :-
45. The graph shows variation of I with f for a series
R-L-C network keeping L and C constant. If R
0.4 decreases
x 0.3
0.2
I Im
0.1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 –3 –1
(in 10 K )
T f
fr
(1) 2.8×10–3 (2) 57
(3) 0.19 (4) 0.57 (a) maximum current increases
42. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of (b) sharpness of graph increase
length l = 1.0m is situated in a uniform (c) quality factor increases
magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane (d) band width increases
of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2W. Two (1) a,b,c (2) b,c,d (3) c,d,a (4) All
resistances of 6W and 3W are connected as 46. A point source S is located on a wall. A plane
shown in figure. The external force required to mirror M having length l is moving parallel to
keep the connector moving with a constant the wall with constant velocity v. The bright
velocity v = 2m/s is patch formed on the wall by reflected light will

B
6W l v 3W

(1) 6N (2) 4N (3) 2N (4) 1N


43. A lamp emits monochromatic green light (1) move with uniform velocity v and will have
uniformly in all directions. The lamp is 3% a length 2l.
efficient in converting electrical power to (2) move with uniform velocity 2v and will
electromagnetic waves and consume 100 W have a length l.
of power. The amplitude of electric field (3) move with uniform velocity 2v and will
associated with the electromagnetic radiation have a length 2l.
at a distance 5m from lamp will be (4) move with uniform velocity but will have
(1) 1.34 V/m (2) 2.68 V/m a changing length.
(3) 4.02 V/m (4) 5.36 V/m

E-6/20 1001CMD305418054
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47. A given ray of light suffers m inimum 51. Wave equation of light used in PEE at a given
deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional point is given by E = E0[sin5wt + cos15wt] here
prisms Q and R of identical shape and material t is time. If work function of e– emitter is f then
are now added to P as shown in figure. The value of stopping potential will be :
ray will suffer :-
(1) hn – f

h æ 15w ö f
Q
(2) ç ÷-
P R e è 2p ø e

(1) Greater deviation


h æ 5w ö f
(2) Same deviation (3) ç ÷-
e è 2p ø e
(3) No deviation
(4) Total internal reflection
48. A compound microscope is used to enlarge an æ 15w ö
object kept at a distance 0.03 m from its objective (4) h ç ÷-f
è 2p ø
which consists of several convex lenses in contact
and has focal length 0.02 m. If a lens of focal length 52. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 keV which
0.1 m is removed from the objective, find out the is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of
distance by which the eye piece of the microscope photon is l2 and that of proton is l1. The ratio
must be moved to refocus the image? of l1 / l2 is proportional to :-
(1) 9 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm
(1) E2 (2) E1/2
49. Certain plane wavefronts are shown in figure.
Then refractive index of medium is :- (3) E–1 (4) E –1/2

2m
53. The following diagram indicates the energy
vaccum levels of a certain atom when the system moves
from 4E level to E. A photon of wavelength l1
A' medium
1m
is emitted. The wavelength of photon produced
A''
7
(1) 2 (2) 4 during it's transition from E level to E is l2.
3
(3) 1.5 (4) can not be determine
50. Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d l1
The ratio will be :-
apart and illuminated by light of wavelength l l2
passing through an ideal source slit S placed
on the line through S2 as shown. The distance 4E
between the planes of slits and source slit is D. 7
E
3
A screen is held at a distance D from the plane
of the slits. The minimum value of d for which
there is a darkness at O. E

S1 9 4
(1) (2)
S O 4 9
S2
D D
3 7
3lD lD (3) (4)
(1) (2) lD (3) (4) 3lD 2 3
2 2
1001CMD305418054 E-7/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019
54. The intensity distribution of X-rays from two 57. A diode is connected to 220 V (rms) ac in series
coolidge tubes operated on different voltages with a capacitor as shown in figure. The voltage
V1 and V2 using different target materials of across the capacitor is
atomic numbers Z1 & Z2 as shown in figure :-

I 220 V C
Ka
ac
Ka
(1) 220 V
(2) 110 V
1 (3) 311.1 V
2
220
l (4) V
l1 l2 2
58. In the circuit shown below, the knee current of
Which one of the following inequalities is true- ideal zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 volts
(1) V1 > V2 , Z1 < Z2 (2) V1 > V2 , Z1 > Z2 across the load RL, the minimum value of RL is:-
(3) V1 < V2 , Z1 > Z2 (4) V1 = V2 , Z1 < Z2
55. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass
number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. 100W
W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the
10V ILoad
curve. The process that would release energy
Vz = 5V RL
is :-

Y
8.5
8.0 X
(1) 125 W (2) 100 W
7.5 W
(3) 200 W (4) 250 W
59. An npn transistor in a common emitter mode
5.0 Z is used as a simple voltage amplifier with a
collector current of 4 mA. The terminal of 8V
battery is connected to the collector through a
30 60 90 120 load resistance R L and to the base through a
Mass number of nuclei resistance R B. The collector-emitter voltage
(1) Y ® 2Z (2) W ® X + Y VCE= 4V, base emitter voltage VBE = 0.6 V and
(3) W ® 2Y (4) X ® Y + Z base current amplification factor b dc = 100.
56. A radioactive substance X decays into another Calculate the values of RL and RB.
radioactive substance Y. Initially, only X was (1) 1 kW and 185 kW
(2) 100 W and 2 kW
present. l x and l y are the disintegration
(3) 10 kW and 150 kW
constants of X and Y, Ny will be maximum
(4) 100 kW and 185 W
when : 60. 'Output is LOW if and only if all the inputs are HIGH'
Ny ly N l Indicate the logic gate for which the above
(1) N - N = l - l (2) N - N = l - l
x x

x y x y
statement in ture :–
x y x y
(1) AND (2) OR
(3) l yNy = l xNx (4) l yNx = l xNy (3) NOR (4) NAND

E-8/20 1001CMD305418054
JIPMER/28-05-2019
61. What is the product of the following reaction ? OH
Å Å
PCC (i) OH OH / H H3O
CH2CH3 64. A
(1 eq)
B C

OH (ii) CH 3–Mg–Br
TsCl
CH3 OH ¾¾¾ Cl
® ¾¾®
what is C ?
H
CH3 OH CH3 OH
CH2CH3 CH2CH3
(1) (2)
(1) CH3 Cl (2) CH 3 OTs CH2–OH C H
H H O

CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH3 OH O

(3) Cl CH3 (4) TsO CH3 CH3


(3) (4)
CH OH
H H
O
65. CO O H
CHO conc.KOH (A) ¾¾®
HÅ C O OH
62.
CHO¾¾¾¾ ® B
D D cyclicproduct
OH H

H OH
Absolute configuration of above molecule is :-
Structure of (B) is :- (1) 2R, 3S (2) 2S, 3S (3) 2R, 3R (4)2S, 3R
66. Which of the following is most acidic :-
O
(1) (2)
COOH
(1) O (2)
CH2OH
(3) (4) CH2=CH2
67. The compound C 4H10O can show :-
(1) Metamerism
O
(2) Functional group isomerism
O COOK (3) Positional Isomerism
(3) (4) (4) All
CH2OH
68. Find no. of stereoisomers
CH3–CH=C=CH–CH–CH=CH–CH3
63. Correct order of reactivity towards E.S.R for CH3
following compound is :- (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 10
69. The major product of the reaction is :-
OCH3 Cl NO2 CH3
NaNO 2 + HCl
Major product
NH2 OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV (1) (2)


H OH
(2) I > IV > II > III
(3) II > I > III > IV (3) (4)
O N
(4) III > I > II > IV
H
1001CMD305418054 E-9/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019
70. Match the column : 74. The structure of D–(+)–Glucose is :
CHO
Column-II
Column-I Cleansing H OH
Structure agents HO H
(i) CH3 (CH2 )16 COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH Cationic H OH
(a)
detergent H OH
Anionic CH2OH
(ii) C17 H35 COO– Na+ (b)
detergent
Nonionic The structure of L–(–)–Glucose will be :
(iii) CH3 –(CH2 )10CH2 OSO3Na (c)
detergent
CHO CHO
CH3
HO H H OH
(iv) CH3(CH2)15—N—CH 3 Br (d) Soap
H OH HO H
CH3 (1) HO H (2)
H OH
HO H HO H
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c CH2OH CH2OH
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b CHO CHO
71. The distillation technique most suited for HO H HO H
HO H HO H
separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap (3) (4) HO
H OH H
industry is : HO H H OH
(1) Distillation under reduced pressure CH2OH CH2OH
(2) Simple distillation 75. Which of the following correct set of name
(3) Fractional distillation reaction :
(4) Steam distillation –
CHO COO CH2–OH
72. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect :-
(a) +
(a) PHBV and Nylon 2 - nylon 6 are
biodegradable polymer.
(b) Bakelite is polymer of urea and Cannizzaro reaction
formaldehyde.
(b) CH3–CH2–CHO ¾¾¾
NaOH
D
® CH3–C=CH–CH2–CH3
(c) Novolac is linear product of phenol and
formaldehyde and used in paints. CHO
Aldol condensation reaction
(d) Terylene and Nylon 6, 6 are the example
of thermoplastic polymers.
(c) CH3–CH2–COOH ¾¾¾ ® CH3–CH–COOH
Cl2
Re d P
(e) Teflon is an addition polymer.
Cl
(1) a, c, d (2) b, c, e HVZ reaction
(3) c, d (4) b, d
HgSO 4 O
73. C6H5–CºC–CH3 A NH2
H2SO 4 C
(d) NH2 ¾¾¾
Br2
®
KOH
Product (A) will be :-
O
Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction
(1) (2)
O
(1) a, b (2) b, c
(3) C6H5– C = CH – CH3 (4) C6H5– CH = C – CH3
OH OH (3) a, b, c (4) All

E-10/20 1001CMD305418054
JIPMER/28-05-2019
80. Which reaction show correct major product?
H3C H CH3
C OH OH
O 2 ,D
76. ¾¾¾
catalyst
® P ¾¾¾¾
dil. H 2SO 4
® Q + Acetone CHO
(i) CHCl3 + OH
(A)
(ii) H
OH OH
Q does not react with COOH
(i) CO2 + NaOH + 140°C
(B)
(1) Na (ii) H
OH
(2) NaOH
+ mild Basic medium
(3) NaHCO3 N NCl
(C)
(4) Zn, D
N N OH

CH3
Ph Br
77. ¾¾¾ ¾
Zn/ether
® Major product :- NH2 NH2
Ph Br D
Br Br
3Br2 /H2O
CH3 (D)

Br
Ph Ph Ph CH3
(1) A,B,C (2) A,C,D (3) A,B,C,D (4) B,C,D
(1) (2) 81. Hydrogen gas produced by heating NaOH
CH3 CH3 H3 C Ph with which metal :-
(1) Ag (2) Cu
Ph CH3 Ph CH3 (3) Zn (4) Au
(3) (4) 82. Main chemical change during roasting of CuFeS2-
Ph CH3 Ph CH2 D
(1) CuFeS2 + O2 ¾¾ ® Cu2O + FeO + SO2 .
D
(2) CuFeS2 + O2 ¾¾
78. Which has highest boiling point ? ® Cu2 S + FeS + SO2 .
(1) CH3 (CH2)6 CH3 (2) + FeO
D
(3) CuFeS2 + O2 ¾¾
OH ® Cu2S + FeO + SO2 .
D
(4) CuFeS2 + O2 ¾¾
(3) (4) CH3–CHO ® Cu2O + FeS + SO2 .
83. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-
79. The appropriate reagent for given conversion is:-
(1) ZnCO3 ® Zn Calcination followed by
O smelting
HO C–CH3 HO CH2–CH3 (2) Al(OH)3 ® Al Calcination followed by
electrolytic reduction
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (3) PbS ® Pb Partial roasting followed
by self reduction
(2) H2N–NH2/KOH
(4) Cu2S ® Cu Roasting followed by
(3) redP/HI carbon reduction
(4) H2/Pd
1001CMD305418054 E-11/20
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84. IUPAC nomenclature of the complex 88. A complex has magnetic moment 1.73 B.M.
compound Na3 [Cr(O) 2 (O 2)(O2 ) 2(NH3 )] where Which of the following configuration of metal
half of the coordination number are occupied
ion is not possible ?
by neutral ligands with magnetic moment
m= 15 B.M. must be (1) d7 octahydral, lowspin
(2) d5 octahydral, lowspin
(1) Sodium
amminedioxidodioxygensuperoxidochromate(III) (3) d8 square planar
(2) Sodium (4) d9 tetrahydral
amminedioxygendioxidodisuperoxidochromate
(III) 89. Na2S 2O3.5H2O is used in photography to :-

(3) Sodium amminebis- (1) Reduce AgBr to metallic Ag


(dioxygen)dioxidoperoxidochromate (III) (2) Remove reduced Ag
(4) Sodium amminebis- (3) Remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble
(dioxygen)dioxidoperoxidochromium (II) complex
85. N2 O cant be prepared by (4) Convert metallic Ag to silver salt
D
(1) NH 4 NO3 ¾¾ ® 90. Plaster of paris is hardened by :-
(1) Liberating CO2
(2) Zn + dil HNO3 ¾¾
®
(2) Giving out water
(3) NaNO3 + NH 4Cl ¾¾
D
® (3) Combining with water
(4) Changing into CaCO3
(4) Cu + dil.HNO3 ¾¾
®
91. A compound 'x' on heating gives a colourless
86. Number of stereo isomers shown by gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain
[Pt(en)(NH3)2Cl2 ] Cl2 :- 'y', excess CO 2 is bubbled through aqueous
(1) 2 (2) 3 solution of y and z is formed. 'z' on gentle
(3) 4 (4) 5 heating gives back x. The 'x' is :-
87. Compound Total stereoisomers (1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(HCO 3)2
(A) [Co(en)2Br 2] +
(M) 2 (3) NaHCO 3 (4) NaOH
(B) K3 [Co(OX)3 ] (N) 3 92. Select the correct option for melting point ?
(C) [Pt(NH3)2 Cl2 ] (O) 4 (1) SnCl4 < SnCl2 (2) ZnO > ZnS
(D) [Pt(NH3 )3Br3 ] + (P) 5 (3) PbCl4 < PbCl2 (4) All
Correct is : 93. In the crystal lattice of diamond, carbon atoms
adopt :-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of
(1) O M O O 50% tetrahedral holes

(2) N M M M (2) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of


25% tetrahedral holes
(3) M O M M
(3) fcc arrangement along with occupancy of
(4) N N M M
25% octahedral holes
(4) bcc arrangement

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94. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 102. The Vapour density of a mixture containing
(1) During N+2 formation, one electron is removed NO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27°C, Calculate the
from the bonding molecular orbital of N2. degree of dissociation of N2O4 :-
(2) During O+2 formation, one electron is removed (1) 0.537 (2) 0.20 (3) 0.837 (4) 0.337
from the antibonding molecular orbital of O2. 103. Ka for the acid HA is 1 × 10–6. The value of K
(3) During O–2 formation, one electron is added for the reaction A– + H3O+ ƒ HA + H2O is :-
to the bonding molecular orbital of O 2. (1) 1 × 10–6 (2) 1 × 1012
(4) During CN– formation, one electron is added (3) 1 × 10–12 (4) 1 × 106
to the bonding molecular orbital of CN. 104. A person living in Manali observed that
95. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is not operative, the cooking food without using pressure cooker
paramagnetic species among the following is :- takes more time. The reason for this
(1) Be2 (2) B 2+2 observation is that at high altitude:
+
(3) C 2 (4) O2–2 (1) pressure increases
96. Which of the following molecular orbital has
(2) temperature decreases
two nodal planes :-
(3) pressure decreases
(1) p 2Py (2) s 2S
(3) p* 2Py (4) s* 2Pz (4) temperature increases
97. Which of the following order is not correct 105. Which of following is Incorrect?
(1) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 (Ionic character) (1) 'Aerosol' is solid dispersed in gas
(2) PO4–3 > CO3–2 > SO4–2 (avg. Formal charge (2) 'Foam' is gas dispersed in liquid
on terminal oxygen) (3) 'Gel' is liquid dispersed in solid
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F 2 > I2 (Bond energy) (4) 'Gel' is liquid dispersed in liquid
(4) Cl2 < Br2 < F 2 < I2 (Bond length) 106. The reaction :
98. Which of the following is correct statement ? X ƒ 2Y
(a) AlCl 3 is conducting in fused state goes to 50% completion. If the initial
(b) Mobility of Li+ ion in water is greater than Cs+ ion concentration of X be 0.5 mol in 0.5 L, the ratio
of the active masses of Y and X at equilibrium
(c) MCl2 is more volatile than MCl4
is
(d) BeSO4 is more soluble in water than BaSO4
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5
(1) a, b (2) b, c, d (3) 0.2 (4) 2.0
(3) b, d (4) Only d 107. consider the plots for a reaction nA ® B+C
99. Select the reaction, which is not disproportionation These plots respectively correspond to the
reaction :- reaction order
(1) NH4NO 3 ¾¾
D
®? (2) Cl2 + NaOH —®
(3) P4 + NaOH ¾¾
D
® ? (4) H3PO3 ¾¾
D
®? t1/2 t1/2 t1/2
100. S 2O 8 2–
have :- [A] 1/[A]®
[A]
(1) S–S bond
(I) (II) (III)
(2) S–O bridge
(1) 0, 1, 2 (2) 1, 2, 3
(3) O–O bridge (3) 1, 0, 2 (4) None of these
(4) All S–O bond length same 108. A compound is formed by two elements Y and
101. Hydrolysis of XeF 6 can't give :- Z. The element Z forms ccp and atoms Y
occupy 1/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula
(1) XeOF 2 (2) XeO2F 2
of the compound is :
(3) XeOF 4 (4) XeO3
(1) Y2Z3 (2) YZ (3) YZ3 (4) Y2Z

1001CMD305418054 E-13/20
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109. Calculate Ecell of the reaction 114. Consider the reaction at 300 K
Mg(s) + 2Ag+ ® Mg+2 + 2Ag(s) 15
(0.0001M) (0.100M) C6H6(l) + O2 (g) ¾® 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l);
2
If E cell = 3.17 V
0
DH = –3271 KJ.
(1) –2.96 V (2) +2.96V What is DU for the combustion of 1.5 mol of
(3) 3.38 V (4) – 3.38 V Benzene at 27°C ?
110. Which of the following statements is correct for (1) –3267.25 KJ (2) –4906.5 KJ
an electrolytic cell? (3) –4900.88 KJ (4) –3274.75 KJ
115. Consider the reaction
(1) electrons flow from cathode to anode
through external battery H 2 O(l) ¾¾¾
380K
1atm
® H 2 O(g)
(2) electrons flow from cathode to anode within Sign of DS & DG will be :-
the electrolytic solution
(1) –, + (2) +, +
(3) Migration of ions along with oxidation
(3) –, – (4) +, –
reaction at cathode and reduction reaction
116. The potential energy of electron in fourth shell
at anode
of He+ ion is :-
(4) migration of ions along with reduction
reaction at cathode and oxidation reaction RCh RCh RCh RCh
(1) - (2) - (3) (4) -
at anode 4 2 2 8

111. 0.004 M Na 2 SO 4 is isotonic with 0.01 M 117. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were
glucose. Degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is :- filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount
of water produced in this reaction will be :-
(1) 75% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 85% (1) 2 mol (2) 3 mol
112. 4g CH4 and 2g He are mixed under NTP. What (3) 4 mol (4) 1 mol
is the partial pressure of He? 118. Predict the total spin in Ni+2 ion :-
3 1 5 1
(1) atm (2) atm
4 4 (1) ± (2) ±
2 2
2 1
(3) atm (4) atm 3
3 3 (3) ± (4) ±1
2
113. A 100 mL portion of water is added to each of
119. Which reaction does not represent
the following two solutions :-
disproportionation reaction :-
(i) 100 mL of 0.02 M HCOOK (1) Cl2 + OH– ¾® Cl– + ClO3– + H2O
(2) 2H2O2 ¾® H2O+O2
(ii) 100 mL of 0.02 M AgCN
(3) 2Cu+ ¾® Cu2+ + Cu
Which of the following statements is correct ? (4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 ¾® N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
120. Incorrect option(s) about a CCP structure
(1) There will be no change in pH of solution is/are?
(i) and (ii)
(A) First layer and fourth layer are repeated
(2) The pH of solution (i) will remain the same (B) First and third layer repeated
but pH of solution (ii) will increase
(C) Second and fourth layers are repeated
(3) The pH of solution (i) will increase but (D) First, third and six layers are repeated
of solution (ii) will remain same
(1) A, B, D (2) B, C, D
(4) The pH of solution (ii) will remain same but (3) B, C (4) Only A
of solution (i) will decrease

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121. Read the following statements regarding 126. In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid,
bryophytes and do as ask next to them :- the bacterial cells must be made :-
(A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction (1) recombinant (2) transformant
division to produce haploid spores. (3) Competent (4) Non recombinant
(B) They play an important role in plant 127. Which restriction site is found in ampR gene in
succession on barren rocks. pBR322–
(C) Plant body is thallus like and prostate or (1) EcoR I, Cla-I (2) BamH I, Sal-I
(3) Pvu I, Pst I (4) Hind III, Cla I
errect and attached to the substratum by
128. Photosystem concerned with photolysis of
unicellular or multicellular rhizoids.
water and reduction of NADP in C3 plants are
(D) They prevent soil erosion.
respectively :-
(E) Sex organs are multicellular. Male and (1) PSI, PSI (2) PS II, PS II
female sex organs are called archegonium (3) PS I, PS II (4) PS II, PS I
and antheridium respectively. 129. TCA cycle is amphibolic because the intermediate
How many of the above statements is/are not succinyl-CoA is used as raw material for :-
correct? (1) Gibberellins (2) Pyrimidines
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 (3) Carotenoids (4) Cytochromes
++
122. Read the following paragraph and fill in the 130. Zn is required for the precursor of :-
blanks with appropriate words :- (1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin
In pteridophytes the main plant body is (3) Auxin (4) ABA
__(A)__which bears sporangia that are subtended 131. Cells controlling the quantity and type of
by leaf-like appendages called__(B)__. The solutes reaching protoxylem belong to :-
sporangia produce spores by__(C)__ and after (1) Cortex (2) Pericycle
germination of spores, they give rise to (3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
132. All of the following are viral STI except :-
photosynthetic gametophytes called__(D)__.
(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts
choose the correct option:-
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Hepatitis-B
A B C D 133. According to the 2011 census Indian
(1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema population growth rate (annual%) is around:-
(2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte (1) 16.4% (2) 6.41%
(3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus (3) 1.64% (4) 1.46%
(4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema
134. Find the incorrect statement related to human
123. In the members of green algae the cell wall is reproduction.
double layered, inner cell wall is cellulosic (1) Endocrine activity in the ovaries is not essential
while outer cell wall is composed of :- for sexual differention during fetal life.
(1) Cutin (2) Pectose (2) Most ovarian germ cells die before puberty
(3) Algin (4) Lignin in female
124. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thick (3) Ovarian inhibin controls FSH secretion by
cuticle sunken stomata are the characteristic negative feedback action in posteriar pituitary
feature of the which group of plants :- (4) Spermatozoa require a period of epididymal
maturation.
(1) Pteridophyte
135. During embryonic development human brain
(2) All bryophytes
is from which layer?
(3) Gymnosperm (Conifers)
(1) Trophoblast (2) Hypoblast
(4) Angiosperm
(3) Epiblast (4) Cytotrophoblast
125. The processes include separation & purification,
136. Basal part of diencephalon not regulates:-
which are collectively refered to as-
(1) Upstream processing (1) Temperature of human body
(2) Down stream processing (2) Sympathetic activities of human body
(3) Biosynthetic phase (3) Biological clock of human body
(4) Biofortification (4) Voluntary muscles movements of human body

1001CMD305418054 E-15/20
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137. Which one is not possible during depolarisation? 145. During karyokinesis, which one structure is
(1) Working of Na+ gated channels directly helpfull for movement of chromosomes
(2) Working of pump during cell division ?
(3) working of leaky channels (1) Cell membrane (2) Plastids
(4) Working of leaky channels & Na+ gated (3) Cytoskelton (4) Cell wall
channels
138. Which hormone promotes conversion of 146.
vitamine-D into active form :-
(1) Cortisol
(2) ADH
(3) PTH
(4) TCT
139. Which one is a group antagonistic hormone?
(1) MSH & Melanine (2) Calcitriole & ADH Choose the correct statement for given figure:-
(3) PTH & calcitonine (4) Glucagon & cortisol (1) Centrosome which had undergone
140. Melanine pigments & blood supply found in :- duplication during interphase, begins to
(1) Sclera move towards opposite poles of the cell.
(2) Choroid (2) Spindle fibres attach to kiretochores of
(3) Retinal sensory layer chromosomes
(4) Cornea (3) Centromere split and chromatids separate.
141. Which one is not a correct match:- (4) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
(1) Saccule – perceives vertical movement 147. Choose the correct match:-
(2) utricle – Perceives horizontal movement (1) M-phase – Non-apparent division
(3) Cerumen– Perceives removal of dust in (2) Interphase – Apparent division
internal ear. (3) Chromatid– Longitudinal half of a metaphase
(4) Semicircular canals – Perceives rotational chromosome
movement (4) Haplopappus gracillis ® Chromosome
142. Simple cuboidal epithelium is not characterised by:- number in gamete (n) is 4
(1) Centrally located spherical nuclei. 148. O
(2) Secretion & absorption
(3) Cilia found in germinal epithelium O CH2–O–C–R1
(4) Presence in PCT of nephron. R2–C–O–CH O
143. Earthworm does not show :-
(1) Bilateral symmetry CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
(2) Schizocoelom OH N
(3) Tube within tube plan CH3 CH3
(4) Radial symmetry CH3
144. Choose the correct option for given structural
formula:-
(1) Palmitic Acid
(2) Triglyceride
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Phospholipid (Lecithin)
149. __A__ does not contains complex helices and
hence cannot hold __B___.
Choose the correct option for A and B
(A) (B) (C)
(1) A–starch, B– I2
In above given diagrams , which one has (2) A-Glycogen, B-I2
maximum arm ratio ?
(1) A (2) B (3) A–Homopolymer Cellulose, B-I2
(3) B and C both (4) C (4) A– heteropolymer cellulose, B-I2

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150. In pheretima there are red coloured rounded bodies 156. The cyclic seasonal morphological variations
in 4th, 5th and 6th segments above the alimentary among certain organisms is called :-
canal. They are believed to be involved in :- (1) Hibernation (2) Aestivation
(1) Excretion (3) Cyclomorphosis (4) Diapause
(2) Digestion 157. In thermal stratification of lake, identify a, b,
(3) Reproduction c in given diagram-
(4) Leucocytes production
c
151. In cockroach which pair is correctly matched:
(1) Anal cerci ® From 10th sternum of abdomen b
(2) Anal style ® From 9th sternum of abdomen a
(3) Phonoreceptor ® 4th, 5th and 6th sternum
(1) a = Epilimnion b = Metalimnion c = Hypolimnion
of abdomen
(4) Labial palp® 5-segmented structure. (2) a = Hypolimnion b = Metalimnion c = Epilimnion
152. Among followings how many statement is/are (3) a = Metalimnion b = Epilimnion c = Hypolimnion
correct about food chain :- (4) a = Hypolimnion b = Epilimnion c = Metalimnion
(a) GFC is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic 158. A Diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci.
ecosystem. How many types of gametes can it produce?
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not (1) 4 (2) 8
direct sunlight. (3) 16 (4) 32
(c) DFC may be connected to GFC some where. 159. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is
(d) In GFC size of organisms commonly decreases caused by a mutation in :-
at higher level. (1) BRCA1 (2) BRAF
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) Dystrophin (4) FOXP2
153. If A represents angiosperm while D represent 160. If following is the sequence of nucleotide in mRNA,
fungi then C represents:- predict the number of amino acid coded by it :-
CACAUG UUU CCC AAA GUG GGG UAA AAC
E F (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7
161. In Birds, Sex of the offspring will depend on:-
D (1) Type of only sperm
A (2) Type of only ovum
C (3) Type of both sperm and ovum
B
(4) Sex detrmination in birds, does not depend
(1) Fern and Alies (2) Algae on gametes
(3) Lichen (4) Mosses 162. Match the column I and ColumnII and find out
154. Sum total of biotic and abiotic factors which do most correct option:-
not allow a population to achieve its biotic Column-I Column-II
potential is :- A. Atlas-66 (i) Leaf and stripe rust
(1) Environmental resistance B. Pusa gaurv (ii) Protein rich wheat
(2) Carrying capacity C. Pusa Sawani (iii) Mustard
(3) Ecological amplitude D. Pusa sem 3 (iv) Bhindi
(4) Ecological natality E. Himgiri (v) Flat beam
155. Greater biological diversity of tropics than (vi) Bacteria blight
temperate regions is due to the - (vii) Shoot and fruit borer
(1) Presence of more seasonal environment (viii) Black rot
(2) Frequent glaciations in the past A B C D E
(3) Highly variable climate and availability of (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
less solar energy in the past. (2) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv) (i)
(4) Availability of more solar energy which (3) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (i)
contributes high productivity. (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

1001CMD305418054 E-17/20
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163. Which process is crucial to the success of the 171. Haemoglobin can act as a buffer at physiological
breeding objective and requires careful scientific pH because of its high quantity of :-
evaluation of the progery :- (1) Lysine (2) Arginine
(1) Evaluation and selection of parents (3) Histidine (4) Glutamate
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents. 172. 'Warfarin' Shows antagonistic effect to :-
(3) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (1) Vit D (2) Vit K
(4) Testing, release and commercialisation of (3) Vit B (4) Vit E
new cultivars. 173. Which of the following match is incorrect?
164. Which of the following is example of the passive (1) Pea – Marginal placentation
immunity ? (2) Tomato – Axile placentation
(1) Hepatities-B vaccine (3) Sunflower – Parietal placentation
(2) Antigen administration (4) Marigold – Basal placentation
(3) Colostrum 174. Fruit of fabaceae is :-
(4) Infection (1) Legume (2) Capsule
165. Which of the following statement is not correct? (3) Berry (4) Siliqua
(1) Morphine is extracted from unriped fruit of 175. Which of the following match is correct?
Papaver somniferum. (1) Banyan – Stilt root
(2) In ECG end of T wave represent end of systole (2) Sugarcane – Stilt root
(3) L.S.D is a cannabinoid and it causes hallucination (3) Twisted aestivation – Pea
(4) Psoriasis and Rheumatoid arthritis both are (4) Syncarpour condition – Rose
autoimmune diseases. 176. Which of following statement is incorrect?
166. Reabsorption of HCO–3 from glomerular filtrate (1) Bark is a non technical term
occur at which part of nephron? (2) Spring wood is lighter in colour
(1) PCT and descending limb of loop of (3) Pith is well developed in monocot root
Henle (4) In dicot stem, radial vascular bundles are present.
(2) PCT, DCT and collecting duct. 177. Phloem fibres are made up of
(3) PCT and DCT (1) Parenchymatous cells
(4) Ascending limb of loop of henle and DCT. (2) Sclerenchymatous cells
167. Here are some statements about myosin protein (3) Collenchymatous cells
of muscle, select the incorrect one- (4) Meristematic cells
(1) Each myosin molecule is a polymer 178. Which tissue forms the major component within
composed of monomers called meromyosin. organs :-
(2) Head of myosin has ATP binding site and (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
actin binding site. (3) Sclenenchyma (4) Xylem
(3) Myosin head is called HMM and tail is called 179. Which of the following statement is correct?
LMM (1) Pollination by water is quite common in grasses.
(4) Tail of myosin run along with thick filament (2) Castor is a dioecious plants
and head project outward (3) Wheat is an example of endospermic seed
168. Cytoskeletal elements such as microfilaments (4) Strawberry is a type of true fruit
are involved in amoeboid movement. The 180. The portion of embryonal axis above the level
protein used as motor in this movement is :- of attachement of scutellum is :-
(1) Actin (2) Myosin (1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
(3) Dystrophin (4) Dynein (3) Perisperm (4) Pericarp
169. Which one of the following acts as 'universal One word substitution :
tooth brush'? 181. Word for word reproduction.
(1) Uvula (2) Tongue (1) Copying (2) Mugging
(3) Teeth (4) Palate (3) Verbatim (4) Photostat
170. Functional Residual capacity is :- 182. A person who collects coins.
(1) TV + ERV (2) ERV + IRV (1) Philatelist (2) Numismatist
(3) ERV + RV (4) TV + ERV + RV (3) Narcissist (4) Fatalist

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Directions : Choose the word which is most nearly 194. In an examination Raj got more marks than
the same in meaning as the word given. Modi but not as many as Meena. Meena got
183. Encourage
more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh
(1) Animate (2) Urge
got less marks than Modi but his marks are not
(3) Stimulate (4) Dissuade
184. Self-sufficient the lowest in the group. Who is second in the
(1) Adequate (2) Dependent descending order of marks?
(3) Overflowing (4) Self-reliant (1) Meena (2) Rupali
Pick out the most effective word/phase to make the (3) Raj (4) Ganesh
sentance meaningfully complete. 195. Ayush was born two years after his father’s
185. He knelt at his side and comforted him marriage. His mother is five years younger than
with.......words.
his father but 20 years older than Ayush who
(1) Harsh (2) Silent
(3) Kind (4) Cruel is 10 years old. At what age did the father get
186. We cannot.............of life without suitable married ?
environment. (1) 23 years (2) 25 years
(1) Live (2) Buy (3) 33 years (4) 35 years
(3) Extract (4) Think 196. Select the related letters from the given
187. From the given alternative words, select the one alternatives: 
which can be formed using the letters of the
FJSP : DLQR :: GMIL : ?
given word EXAMINATION.
(1) ANIMAL (2) EXAMINER (1) EOGN (2) JNIO
(3) NATIONAL (4) ANIMATION (3) HOGN (4) IONG
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given 197. The following equation is incorrect. Which two
word. signs should be interchanged to correct the
188. CROWDED equation?
(1) Deserted (2) Lonely 12 - 16 × 25 ÷ 80 + 10 = 7
(3) Empty (4) Barren
(1) ÷ and × (2) - and +
189. MAGNANIMOUS
(3) × and - (4) ÷ and -
(1) Selfish (2) Naive
(3) Generous (4) Small 198. Choose the correct alternative that will continue
190. FILTHY the same pattern and replace the question mark
(1) Stainless (2) Shining in the given series.
(3) Sterilized (4) Clean   120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?
191. From the given alternatives, select the word (1) 35 (2) 38 (3) 39 (4) 40
which cannot be formed using the letters of 199. In a certain code language, “SLOPE” is written
the given word.
as “54973” and “CRAMP” is written as
Contemptuous
(1) Con (2) Tom “18627”. How is “PROMO” written in that code
(3) Pretty (4) Post language?
192. Which of the following terms follows the trend (1) 76828 (2) 96838
of the given list? (3) 76939 (4) 78929
BAAAAAAB, ABAAAAAB, AABAAAAB, 200. A shopper in a mart loads his trolley and walks
AAABAAAB, AAAABAAB, _________ 30 m through an alley which is going South,
(1) AAAAABAB (2) AAAAAABB then he turns to his left and walks 10 m, then
(3) BAAAAAAB (4) ABAAAAAB he turns North and walks another 10 m, then
193. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of he turns West and walks 45 m and then he turns
girls, Ravita ranked 17th from the top. If there North and walks 20 m. Where is he now with
are 9 boys ahead of Ravita, how many girls reference to his starting position?
are after her in the rank? (1) 35 m West (2) 55 m West
(1) 26 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 33 (3) 35 m East (4) 55 m East

1001CMD305418054 E-19/20
Target : Pre-Medical 2019/JIPMER/28-05-2019
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-20/20 1001CMD305418054