Professional Education:

Assessment of Student Learning

POST-TEST
1. Its results help teachers make decisions about the criteria and tests they will
employ to improve student performance.
A. Assessment C. Measurement
B. Evaluation D. Test

2. It answers “How much does a student learn or know?’.

A. assessment C. evaluation
B. measurement D. diagnosis

3. A junior high school principal wants to evaluate the science program. What is the
first he should take?
A. confer with parents
B. analyze pupil achievement scores
C. look at national norms for achievement in the sciences
D. review and, if necessary, revise objectives for the program

4. The primary purpose for which aptitude tests have been advised to use is to
_____________________________________________.
A. measure past learning
B. assess the ability to profit from teacher
C. spot areas needing additional instruction
D. predict success in some future occupation

5. It is a test given to determine the specific aspect of achievement made on certain

skills to provide the needed remedial help to the learning process.
A. Placement C. Diagnostic
B. Formative D. Summative

6. The primary purpose for which aptitude tests have been advised to use is to
_____________________________________________.
A. measure past learning
B. assess the ability to profit from teacher
C. spot areas needing additional instruction
D. predict success in some future occupation

7. Which type of measurement is used to identify an individual’s status with respect

to a previous established standard of performance preferably a behavioral
objective?
A. criterion-referenced type C. standardized achievement
B. norm-referenced type D. teacher-made test

8. The primary factor to consider in evaluating educational outcomes is

______________.
A. the needs of the learners C. the curricular program
B. the resources of the school D. the objective of education

9. One-half of the class scored very low. Teacher Janus gave another test to
determine where the students were weakest. What type of test is this?
A. Aptitude B. Diagnostic C. Readiness D. Remedial

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10. Which of the following statements DOES NOT fall under norm-referenced test?
A. Oscar got 90th percentile rank.
B. Keith ranked 3rd in the National Achievement Test.
C. Marie passed the Licensure Examination for Teachers.
D. The reading performance of Jessica is considered lowest in the class.

11. Under which type of guidance service does the concern of schools to put students
into their most appropriate courses fall?
A. Individual Inventory Service C. Placement Service
B. Information Service D. Research Service

12. What type of validity does a test have if it does not only correlate with other
measures with which it is supposed to correlate, but also fails to correlate with
measures of the concept from which it is supposed to be different?
A. Concurrent C. Content
B. Construct D. Predictive

13. Which type of validity is emphasized when the content in the test is taught in
class?
A. Concurrent C. Face
B. Content D. Instructional-related

14. Ms. Alviz wants to determine if the students’ scores in their Final test is reliable.
However, she has only one set of test and her students are already on vacation.
What test of reliability can she employ?
A. Equivalent Forms C. Test-Retest
B. Kuder-Richardson Method D. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms

15. Mr. Miguel wants to test students’ knowledge of the different places in the
Philippines their capital and their products and so he gave his students an essay
test. If you were the teacher, will you do the same?
A. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of
essay.
B. No, such method of assessment is inappropriate because essay is
difficult.
C. Yes, essay test could measure more than what other tests could
measure.
D. Yes, essay test is the best in measuring any type of knowledge.

16. This refers to the consistency of a test in measuring whatever it measures.

A. Fairness C. Usability
B. Reliability D. Validity

17. Which goes with the spirit of ‘assessment of learning’?

A. emphasis on grades and honors
B. emphasis on self-assessment
C. absence of formative tests
D. stress on summative tests

18. Setting up a rubric for scoring essay tests is meant to increase the:
A. Objectivity C. Subjectivity
B. Reliability D. Usability

19. Which type of validity must be present in an aptitude test?

A. Concurrent C. Content
B. Construct D. Predictive

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20. Which type of validity focuses on the extent to which a particular test correlates
with an acceptable measure of performance?
A. Content C. Curricular
B. Criterion D. Predictive

21. Which of these is not an internal error affecting test reliability?

A. test-taking skills C. sample of items
B. fatigue D. motivation

22. Teacher Bea makes her tests easy for students to understand, easy to administer
and score and suitable to test conditions, e.g. time. What is she achieving for her
tests?
A. Efficiency C. Usability
B. Reliability D. Validity

23. If the exam you have taken constitutes the competencies stated on the syllabus,
then we can say that the test has ___________ validity.
A. Concurrent C. Content
B. Construct D. Predictive

24. Of the types of validity tests, what is concerned with the relation of test scores to
performance at some future time, e.g. Freshmen college test can show success in
college?
A. Content C. Curriculum
B. Criterion D. Predictive

25. What cognitive domain is involved in the student’s clarifying information from
conclusion?
A. Analysis C. Evaluation
B. Application D. Synthesis

26. Which form of the foundation of all cognitive objects without which the next
level of higher thinking skills cannot be attained?
A. Analysis C. Knowledge
B. Application D. Synthesis

27. Liza wants to choose the proper behavior to be used in formulating learning
objectives. Which of these is she only allowed to use in order to follow the criteria
SMART?
A. become C. grasp the significance of
B. B. discriminate D. learn

28. Which assessment activity is most appropriate to measure the objective “to
explain the meaning of molecular bonding” for the group with strong interpersonal
intelligence?
A. Draw diagrams that show bonding patterns.
B. Demonstrate molecular bonding using students as atoms.
C. Write down chemical formulas and show how they were derived.
D. Build several molecular structures with multi-colored pop beads.

29. It is highest level in the psychomotor learning targets wherein one acts “without
thinking”.
A. Articulation C. Naturalization
B. Manipulation D. Precision

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30. Written reports, oral presentations and art products are characterized under
which learning target?
A. Affective C. Reasoning
B. Product D. Skill

31. Mr. Ramos is preparing a table of specifications for the periodical test of his
students. What is he trying to establish?
A. Concurrent validity C. Content validity
B. Construct validity D. Predictive validity

32. Which of the following directly measures competence?

A. paper and pencil test C. performance test
B. personality test D. standardized test

33. The test questions in Teacher Dae Dae’s test were confusing and subject to wrong
understanding, especially to poorer students. What was wrong with the test?
A. Ambiguity
B. Unclear directions
C. Inappropriate level of difficulty of items
D. Test items inappropriate for outcomes being measured

34. What is the first step in constructing a periodic test?

A. Study the content.
B. Go back to the instructional objectives.
C. Decide on the number of items for the test.
D. Decide on the type of test to be constructed.

35. In her test, Teacher Marian R unknowingly gave clues to the answers that reduce
usability of the test. What was wrong with the test?
A. Ambiguity
B. Test too short
C. Unclear directions
D. Poorly constructed test items

36. “Why does validity imply reliability but not the reverse?” is a category of essay
question under ___________________________.
A. decision C. statement of relationship
B. analysis D. classification

37. Aside from attitudes, self-efficacy and interests, which one is under affective
learning target?
A. Reasoning C. Mastery
B. Values D. Creativity

38. Which of the following tests requires the assumption of a normal distribution of
scores for accurate interpretation?
A. Achievement C. Formative
B. Diagnostic D. Placement

39. An entering college would like to determine which course is best suited for him.
Which test is appropriate for this purpose?
A. Achievement C. Diagnostic
B. Aptitude D. Intelligence

40. Which of the following may not be adequately assessed by a paper and pencil
test?
A. Sight reading in music C. Subject-verb agreement
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 B. Multiplication skills D. Vocabulary meaning
41. Among written categories of assessment methods, what did teacher Maggie Lagid
use when she assessed the stock knowledge of her students through questioning
in an open class?
A. Oral questioning C. Product Rating Scale
B. Performance test D. Observation and self-report

42. Considering the theory of multiple intelligences, what would be a weakness of the
pencil and paper test?
A. It lacks reliability.
B. It utilizes so much time.
C. It is not easy to administer.
D. It puts the non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage.

43. To reduce the subjectivity in scoring an essay test, it would be best for the
teacher to:
A. observe clearly defined criteria
B. consider the length of the answer
C. rate the answers to all questions
D. identify the owner of the test paper

44. This is the component in a multiple choice type of test which serves as a “joker”.
A. obstractor C. error
B. distractor D. stem

45. This is a type of matching type test in which an option is the only answer to one of
the items in Column A.
A. perfect matching C. imperfect match
B. sequencing matching D. multiple matching

46. Which test item measures a wide range of educational outcomes?

A. essay C. alternative response
B. completion D. multiple choice

47. What are the two components of a matching type test item?
A. choices and stem C. distractors and premises
B. premises and responses D. stem and distractors

48. Which has the highest diagnostic value when we are tasked to develop our skills
in synthesizing?
A. essay test C. completion test
B. portfolio D. multiple choice test

49. Which one is a convergent question?

A. Why did the La Solidaridad come about?
B. Who was the first editor of La Solidaridad?
C. Did the La Solidaridad accomplish its purpose? Why or why not?
D. If you were the editor of the La Solidaridad, what would you do?

50. What diagram is used to determine the social interactions among individuals in a
group?
A. scatter diagram C. stem-leaf
B. sociogram D. kurtosis

51. Which of the following is an example of a selective-response item?

A. completion C. matching
B. essay D. short-answer

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52. What does the test mean if the difficulty index is 1?
A. very difficult C. very easy
B. missed by everyone D. a quality item

53. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The higher the value of difficulty index, the easier is the item.
B. The lower the value of difficulty index, the easier is the item.
C. The difficulty index represents the percentage of the total number of
students who got wrong in an item.
D. There is a direct relationship between the magnitude of the index and
what it purports to represent.

54. Which is NOT an element in an item analysis?

A. examination of the difficulty level of the items
B. examination of the scoring scheme in an essay test
C. determination of the discriminating power of each item
D. examination of the effectiveness of distractors in a multiple choice

55. Which of these tells a teacher the degree to which a test item differentiates the
high achievers from the low achievers in the class?
A. index of discrimination C. item analysis
B. index of difficulty D. frequency distribution

56. A 100-item test was administered to 300 Education students. Item number 7 has a
difficulty index of 0.41. What is true about this item?
A. The students find the item easy.
B. The test is reliable.
C. The item is particularly of average difficulty.
D. Forty-one percent of the students did not answer the test item.

57. The discrimination index of a test item is -0.53. What does this mean?
A. More from the upper group got the item correctly.
B. More from the lower group got the item correctly.
C. The test is quite reliable.
D. The test item is valid.

58. What can we say of a test item when its level of difficulty is average and
discriminating power is positive?
A. It must be rejected. C. It must be modified.
B. It must be revised. D. It must be retained.

59. In her test, Teacher Tom made tests that were either too difficult or too easy.
What was wrong with her test?
A. Ambiguity
B. Unclear directions
C. Identifiable patterns of answers
D. Inappropriate level of difficulty of the test items

60. What does it mean to say that the facility index of a test item is .50?
A. It is valid. C. It is very easy.
B. It is reliable. D. It is moderate in difficulty.

61. What should be done with test item whose difficulty index is .98?
A. Revise it
B. Retain it
C. Reject it
D. Reserve it for another group of students
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62. The mode of a score distribution is 23. What does this mean?
A. There is no score of 23.
B. 23 is the score that occurs most.
C. 23 is the score that occurs least.
D. 23 is the average of the score distribution.

63. The sum of all the scores in a distribution always equals

______________________________.
A. the mean times the interval
B. the mean divided by the interval size
C. the mean times N
D. the mean divided by N

64. Which measure of central tendency is most reliable when scores are extremely
high and low?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. cannot be identified unless individual scores are given

For items 65-68: Mr. Perez obtained the following scores of his students in their
examination in Educational Technology course: 40, 40, 45, 55, 60.

65. What is the median?

A. 40 B. 45 C. 47 D. 48

66. What is the modal score?

A. 40 B. 45 C. 47 D. 48

67. What is the mean?

A. 40 B. 45 C. 47 D. 48

68. What is the range of the scores?

A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
69. What can be said of student performance in a positively skewed score
distribution?
A. Most students performed well.
B. Most students performed poorly.
C. A few students performed excellently.
D. Almost all students had average performance.

70. What is the percentage of scores that fall below a score with 98th percentile rank?
A. 50% B. 98% C. 2% D. 48%

71. What is the shape of the distribution if the Mean = 50, Median = 50 and the Mode =
50?
A. asymmetric C. negatively skewed
B. positively skewed D. normal

72. The fourth year students were given an achievement test in English. Majority of
the students got low scores. How would you describe the distribution?
A. Platykurtic C. Positively skewed
B. Mesokurtic D. Negatively skewed

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73. Which of the graph below shows a negatively skewed distribution?

A. C.

B. D.

74. Felly’s score is within x ± 1 SD. To which of the following group does she belong?
A. below average C. needs improvement
B. average D. above average

75. A distribution in which the scores are clustered at either end shows a curve
which is _________________________.
A. normal B. bimodal C. skewed D. mesokurtic

76. The distance of the scores from the mean is called _________________.
A. Deviation B. Mean C. Mode D. Range

77. The least reliable measure of dispersion is the ______________________________.

A. Range C. Mode
B. Quartile Deviation D. SD

78. About what percent of the cases fall between +2 and -1 in the normal curve?
A. 68.2% B. 99.8% C. 81.85% D. 95.4%

79. What measure of central tendency is most appropriate for skewed distribution?
A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Standard Deviation

80. Which quartile separates the bottom 25% from the top 75% of the scores?
A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. Q4

81. How should a student’s 80 percentile score be interpreted?

A. 80% of the specified content
B. High in all the skills being tested
C. Better relative to the competencies targeted
D. Higher than 80% of the members of the group

82. A Mathematics test was given to all Grade V pupils to determine the contestants
for the Math quiz bee. Which statistical measure should be used to identify the top
15?
A. percentage score C. quartile score
B. mean percentage score D. percentile score

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83. Below shows Karen’s score in comparison with her class test profile.
Math Test Filipino Test
Karen’s Score 65 80
Class Mean 50 70
Class Standard
5 4
Deviation

Total Number of Items 75 90

Which of the following statements best describes Karen’s performance in the

two tests as compared to the class performance?
A. She performs better in Math than in Filipino.
B. She performs better in Filipino than in Math.
C. She has been very consistent in topping the test.
D. She has been consistent in her class standing in two tests.

84. What computation did teacher Panny use in getting the difference between the
highest and lowest scores in each class?
A. Mean B. Range C. Standard Deviation D. Median

85. Which is true when the standard deviation is small?

A. Scores are toward both extremes
B. Scores are spread apart
C. Scores are tightly bunched together
D. The bell curve is relatively fat

86. Which of the following indicates a strong negative correlation?

A. -0.75 B. -0.15 C. -0.10 D. -0.25

87. Which of these is/are essential in constructing a scoring rubric?

I. Description of criteria to serve as standard
II. Clear descriptions of performance at each level
III. Levels of achievement (mastery)
IV. Rating scheme
A. I only B. I and II C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV

88. What is an alternative assessment tool that consists of a collection of work

artifacts or in progress accomplishment by a targeted clientele?
A. Achievement test C. Portfolio
B. Evaluation instrument D. Rubric

89. It is an evaluation tool for essay tests that gives quantitative and qualitative
descriptions of the different qualities of essay responses.
A. checklist B. questionnaire C. rubric D. instrument

90. The most common and easiest instrument in the affective domain in which
respondents mark simple items as ‘absent’ or ‘present’
A. checklist B. rating scales C. rubric D. self-report

91. A personal feeling, either positive or negative towards an object, a person or an

institution
A. attitude B. aptitude C. opinion D. interest

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92. What is an effective tool in measuring students’ awareness of values?
A. anecdotal record C. moral dilemma
B. Likert scale D. projective techniques

93. Self-evaluation can be done in various ways, but this is not one of them:
A. Use of an evaluation instrument
B. Written reflection
C. Self-videotape of class performance
D. Peer feedback session

94. Using extrinsic motivational assessment, what could be the most noble motive in
students pursuing a lifetime work and mission for the teaching profession?
A. Respected position in society
B. Economic security and welfare
C. Promise of high rank and prestige
D. Social service to upcoming generations

95. Which of these approaches would reform assessment outcomes?

A. Apply sanctions on low performing schools
B. Compare results of performance of all schools
C. Focus on testing without investing the learner’s needs
D. Use understanding as means of giving feedback on students learning

96. The Rorschach Test and Thematic Association Test are examples of
_______________ test.
A. projective C. sociometric
B. psychometric D. analytic

97. It reveals episodes of behavior that may indicate a profile of the students.
A. Sociometric C. Anecdotal records
B. Internal reports D. Projective tests

98. It requires respondents to rate each indicator on a rating scale bounded at each
end by polar adjectives or phrases.
A. Likert Scale C. Semantic Differential
B. rubric D. Stapel Scales

99. Mrs. Hilario presented the lesson on baking through a group activity so that the
students will not just learn how to bake but also develop their interpersonal skills.
How should this lesson be assessed?
I. She should give the students an essay test explaining how they baked the
cake.
II. The students should be graded on the quality of their baked cake using a
rubric.
III. The students in a group should rate the members based on their ability to
cooperate in their group activity.
IV. She should observe how the pupils perform their tasks.
A. I, II and III only C. I, II and IV only
B. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

100. Among general categories of assessment methods, what instruments did pre-
school teacher Justine use when he rated the handwriting of his students using a
prototype handwriting model?
A. Product rating scale C. Written response instruments
B. Performance test D. Observation and self-reports
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