Puc Ii PCMB Board Question Bank PDF

2ndPUC PHYSICS
PHYSICS
II PUC
QUESTION BANK
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
PHYSICS
List of the lecturers selected for preparation of II PU Physics question bank
Sl.no Name & address of the Mobile number Topic

resource person, Sri/Smt
Gayathri M.S. 9448936840 Chair-person
G I P U College, Agara, HSR lay Gayathri.msg@gmail.com
out, Bangalore
Sri. Venkata raya . 9480102040 Reviewer
Vijaya P U college 4th block venkataraya@gmail.com
Jayanagar, Bangalore
1 Sri. Venkata raya . 9480102040 14. Semi-conductor
Vijaya P U college 4th block venkataraya@gmail.com physics
Jayanagar, Bangalore 15.communication
2 Sathish kumar umadi 9901489635 6. EMI
Gulbarga satishkumar.umadi@gmail.com 7. Alternating current
3 Vishwanath kodlur 9901781785 1.Electric charges and
G P U C Manjalatti, chikkodi vvkoladur@gmail.com fields,
taluk, Belagavi 2.Electric potential &
capacitors
4. Shreenivasa bhat, 9964073075 9. Ray optics
G P U C Karwara smbhat82@gmail.com 10. wave optics
5 Sudheendra 9448294417 4.Moving charges &
G P U C , Mulabagilu shankara.sudhi@gmail.com magnetism
5.Magnetism & matter
6 Geetha. M.S 9448091513 3. current electricity
Vijaya composite PU college, geethashivu33@gmail.com 8. E. M .waves
Bangalore
7 Prema 7760599933 11. Dual nature
G P U C for girls, Hosakote, prema.nischal@gmail.com 12. Atoms
13. Nuclei
8 Venkatesh 9480224748 Model Question papers
Sarvodaya PU college, Tumkur venkatesh.kvlec@gmail.com
9 Z N Jagirdar (Reviewer) 9243227576 --------------------
G P U college,Gulbarga znjagirdargulbarga@gmail.com
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-1
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
One mark questions

1. What is the cause for seeing the spark or hearing the crackle when, we take off our synthetic
clothes particularly in dry weather? (K)
2. Which phenomenon is responsible for lightning in the sky during thunder storm? (K)
3. We experience a sensation of electric shock while opening the door of a car or while holding the
iron bar of a bus after sliding from our seat. Why? (K)
4. Who discovered the fact that amber rubbed with wool or silk attracts light objects? (K)
5. What happens when insulating surfaces are rubbed with each other? (K)
6. When amber is rubbed with wool or silk, it attracts light objects. Who is credited as the
discoverer of this phenomenon? (K)
7. How the name electricity is coined? (U)
8. How many kinds of electrification are there in nature? (K)
9. What is the meaning of the Greek word ‘elektron’ form which the name ‘electricity’ is coined?
(K)
10. How many types of charges exist in nature? (K)
11. What is the nature of force between like charges? (K)
12. What is the nature of force between unlike charges? (K)
13. What is meant by polarity of charges? (U)
14. What would happen when two oppositely charged objects are brought in contact? (K)
15. Who has named two types of charges as positive and negative? (K)
16. Why does a pair of objects get electrified on rubbing on each other? (U)
17. What is the cause of electrification of an object? (U)
18. When do we say that an object is charged or electrified? (U)
19. Name the instrument which detects the charge on an object. (K)
20. Name the instrument which detects the nature of the charge of the object. (K)
21. What is gold leaf electroscope? (K)
22. What does the degree of divergence of gold leaves in gold leaf electroscope indicate? (U)
23. How an object does acquire positive charge? (U)
24. How an object does acquire negative charge? (U)
25. When glass rod is rubbed with silk, glass rod acquires positive charge. Give reason. (U)
26. When plastic rod is rubbed with cat’s fur it acquires negative charge. Give reason. (U)
27. Why do electrostatic experiments not work well on humid days? (U)
28. When we walk briskly on the carpet in dry whether we are electrically charged. What type of
charge accumulates on us? (K)
29. Why can we not charge metal rod when held in hand and rubbed with wool? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
30. What are electric conductors? (K)

31. What are electric insulators? (K)
32. Electric charge can be transferred from one object to the other object using copper wire but not
with nylon thread. Give reason. (U)
33. Give an example of electric conductor. (K)
34. Given an example of electric insulator. (K)
35. What is meant by grounding/earthing? (K)
36. Name the three wires in household electrical wire systems (K)
37. Why do we connect the metal parts of the electrical appliances to the earthing wire? (U)
38. Why is it recommended that you touch the metal frame of your personal computer before
installing any internal accessories? (U)
39. If we rub a coin briskly between your fingers, it will not seem to become charged by friction.
Why? (U)
40. The number of electrons in an insulator is of the same order as the number of electrons in a
conductor. What is then the basic difference between a conductor and an insulator? (U)
41. Is pure water a conductor or insulator? (U)
42. What is charging by induction? (K)
43. When a charged comb is brought near a small piece of paper, it attracts the piece. Does the
paper become charged when the comb is brought near it? (K)
44. When do we treat a charged object as a point charge? (U)
45. What is meant by additive property of charge? (K)
46. What is meant by quantization property of charge? (K)
47. State the conservation property of charge. (K)
48. Why a charge on an object is said to be quantized? (U)
49. Write the expression for quantization property of charge. (K)
50. What is the nature of charge on an electron? (K)
51. What is the nature of charge on a proton? (K)
52. Name the scientist who suggested the quantization property of charge. (K)
53. Name the scientist who experimentally proved the quantitation nature of charge. (K)
54. Name the SI unit of charge. (K)
55. Give the value of the basic unit of charge. (K)
56. How many electrons make -1 C of charge? (A)
57. A glass rod rubbed with silk loses 108 electrons. What is the charge on glass rod? (K)
58. What is the least possible value of charge that an object can have? (K)
59. When do we neglect the quantization property of charge? (U)
60. How many electrons make -1 µC charge? (A)
61. What is the lower limit of the electric force between two charged particles placed at a separation
of 1 cm in vacuum? (A)
62. Initially sphere A has a charge of -50e and sphere B has a charge of +20e. The spheres are made
of conducting material and are identical in size. If the spheres are then touch, what is the
resulting charge on sphere A? (A)
63. State Coulomb’s law in electrostatics. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
64. Give the mathematical expression of Coulomb’s law in electrostatics. (U)

65. Name the device used by Coulomb to measure the electric force between two charged
spheres.(K)
66. How does the Coulomb force between the two point charges vary with the distance of separation
between them? (U)
67. What is the value of proportionality constant , in Coulomb’s law in SI unit? (U)
68. What is the physical significance of proportionality constant in Coulomb’s law? (U)
69. Define 1 C of charge. (U)
70. Express the proportionality constant in terms of permittivity of free space in Coulomb’s law.
(U)
71. Write the value of permittivity of free space in SI system. (K)
72. Two point charges of unknown magnitude and sign are at a distance apart. The electric field is
zero between them at a point on the line joining the two charges. What can you conclude about
the charges? (A)
73. If the electrons in a metal plate such as copper are free to move about, they must often find
themselves headed toward the metal surface. Why do they not keep on going and leave the
metal? (A)
74. An electron (charge = ) circulates around a helium nucleus (charge =+2 ) in a helium atom.
Which particle excerts the larger force on the other? (U)
75. Charges of 10 µC and 15 µC are separated by a certain distance. Which charge repels the other
with greater force? (A)
76. State the principle of superposition of Coulomb’s force. (U)
77. Write the expression for electric field at a point due to point charge. (U)
78. Define intensity of electric field. (U)
79. How does the electric field at a point vary with distance from a point electric charge? (U)
80. How electric field at a point does vary with the magnitude of source charge? (U)
81. Write the SI unit of intensity of electric field. (K)
82. What is source charge? (K)
83. What is test charge? (K)
84. What is the direction of electric field due to a positive point charge? (K)
85. What is the direction of electric field due to a negative point charge? (K)
86. Who first introduced the concept of electric field? (K)
87. An electron is located in the uniform electric field established between two parallel plates.
Where would the electron experience greatest force? (U)
88. A positively charged ball hangs from a long silk thread. We wish to measure the electric field at
a point in the same horizontal plane as that of the hanging charge. To do so, we put a positive
test charge at that point and measure . Will be less than, equal to, or greater than
at the point in question? (U)
89. Represent the variation of electric field with the distance from a point charge graphically. (S)
90. A point charge is taken from a point A to a point B in an electric field. Does the work done by the
electric field depend on the path of the charge? (U)
91. What is an electric field line? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
92. Draw electric field lines due to a point positive charge. (S)
93. Draw electric field lines due to a point negative charge. (S)
94. Draw electric field lines due to two equal but unlike charges. (S)
95. Draw electric field lines due to two equal but like charges. (S)
96. Draw electric field lines due to two like but unequal charges. (S)
97. Draw electric field lines due to two unlike but unequal charges. (S)
98. Draw electric filed lines of a uniform electric field. (S)
99. What is the polarity of test charge which is used to draw electric field lines? (K)
100. What does the relative density of electric field lines represent? (U)
101. Who invented picture of electric field lines? (K)
102. A point charge is moving in an electric field at right angles to the electric field lines. Does any
force act on it? (U)
103. Define electric flux through a surface. (U)
104. Write the SI unit of electric flux. (K)
105. Write the expression for electric flux. (U)
106. Is electric flux a vector or a scalar quantity? (K)
107. What is an electric dipole? (K)
108. Define electric dipole moment. (U)
109. Give the SI unit of electric dipole moment. (K)
110. What is the net charge on an electric dipole? (U)
111. How does the electric field at a point due to a short dipole vary with distance? (U)
112. What is meant by electric dipole axis? (K)
113. What is meant by equatorial plane of the electric dipole? (U)
114. What is the direction of electric dipole moment? (K)
115. Write the expression for the electric field at a point on its axial line due to an electric dipole. (U)
116. Write the expression for the electric field at a point on the equatorial plane of an electric dipole.
(U)
117. In the equatorial plane of an electric dipole, is the electric field parallel or antiparallel to the
electric dipole moment ⃗? (U)
118. Write the expression for torque experienced by a dipole when placed in a uniform electric
field.(U)
119. An electric dipole is placed antiparallel to the uniform electric field. What is the magnitude of
the torque on it? (U)
120. An electric dipole is placed parallel to the uniform electric field. What is the magnitude of the
torque on it? (U)
121. Write the expression for electric field at a point due to continuous charge distribution over a
small volume element with charge density ρ. (U)
122. State Gauss law in electrostatics. (K)
123. What is Gaussian surface? (K)
124. Write the mathematical expression for Gauss law in electrostatics. (U)
125. What is the electric flux through a cubicle Gaussian surface enclosed on an electric dipole? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
126. Write the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged, infinitely long straight
wire. (U)
127. Write the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged, infinite plane sheet. (U)
128. Write the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell. (U)
129. Does the electric field exist inside a charged spherical shell? (U)
Two mark questions

1. Explain what happens when long thin strips of paper lightly ironed brought near a TV screen or
Computer monitor which is switched on. (U)
2. Name the two types of electric charge. (K)
3. A glass rod is rubbed with silk. Name the type of charges acquired by each of them. (K)
4. A cat fur is rubbed with plastic rod. Name the type of charges acquired by each of them. (K)
5. Which type of charge is acquired by a plastic rod and wool when they are rubbed with each other?
(K)
6. Which are the two types of charges named by Benjamin Franklin? (K)
7. Draw the neat, labeled diagram of gold leaf electroscope. (S)
8. A charged rod attracts bits of dry cork dust which after touching the rod, often jump violently away
from it. Explain. (U)
9. What are electric conductors? Give an example. (K)
10. What are electric insulators? Give an example. (K)
11. Distinguish between electric conductors and electric insulators. (U)
12. Explain the additive property of electric charge. (U)
13. Explain the conservation property of electric charge. (U)
14. Explain the quantization property of electric charge. (U)
15. Justify with an example to prove the conservation property of charge. (U)
16. A plastic rod rubbed with cat’s fur gains 1013 electrons. Find the charge on plastic rod. (A)
17. An ion contains 12 electrons and 18 protons on. Find the net charge on the object. (A)
18. Find the electric charge in coulomb, contributed by 12.5×108 electrons. (A)
19. A glass is rubbed by silk cloth acquires a charge of 1.6×10-13 C. What is the charge on silk cloth? (A)
20. How many electrons enter in an ordinary 100 W, 230 V bulb per second when it is connected to DC
supply? (A)
21. Write Coulomb’s law in vector form and explain the terms.(U)
22. The force between two point charges is . What is the new force when the distance between them
is halved? (U)
23. In Coulomb’s law , what are the factors on which depends? (U)
24. Write the expression for intensity of the electric field in vector form and explain the terms. (U)
25. Find the electric field at a point located at 2 cm from a charge of 1 nC. (A)
26. What are the factors on which electric field at a point due to a point source charge depend? (U)
27. Write the physical significance of electric field. (U)
28. Two field lines never intersect each other. Give reason. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
29. Charge of 1 µC, -2 µC, 1 µC, -2 µC is placed at A, B, C and D respectively of a square of side 1.234 cm.
What is the electric field intensity at the center of the square? (A)
⃗⃗⃗⃗
30. The electric field due to a point charge at any point near it is defined as ⃗⃗ where is
the test charge and ⃗ is the force acting on it. What is the physical significance of limit as in
this expression? (U)
31. When do we say that electric flux is either positive or negative? (U)
32. Define electric flux through an area element. Mention the SI unit of electric flux. (U)
33. Write the physical significance of electric dipole moment. (U)
34. An electric dipole of 2×10-9 Cm is placed at an angle of 30° with uniform electric field of 4 N/C. Find
the magnitude of torque experienced by it. (A)
35. When does an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field experiences a) maximum
b) minimum torque? (U)
36. What happens to a free electric dipole when placed in a non-uniform electric field? Explain. (U)
37. Define linear charge density. Write its SI unit. (U)
38. Define surface charge density. Write its SI unit. (U)
39. Define volume charge density. Write its SI unit. (U)
40. Find the electric flux through a parallelepiped Gaussian surface which encloses one micro coulomb
charge. (A)
41. Find the electric flux through a closed surface, in the following diagram. (A)
S
+2 nC
1 nC
-1 nC
42. A charge of 1 µC is distributed on a circular ring of radius 5 cm. Find the linear charge density. (A)
43. A charge of 1 µC is distributed over a metallic spherical shell whose radius is 5 cm. Find the surface
charge density. (A)
44. 1 µC of charge is placed at one corner of a cube of side 1 cm. Find the electric flux through the cube.
(A)
Three mark questions

1. Describe an experiment to demonstrate that there are two types of charges using glass rod and
plastic rod. (U)
2. Describe an experiment to demonstrate there are two types of charges using pith balls. (K)
3. Describe how we use gold leaf electroscope to detect the presence of charge on an object. (U)
4. Describe how we can use gold leaf electroscope to detect the nature of charges on a charged object.
(U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
5. Explain how we can construct a simple electroscope? (K)

6. Explain the working of electroscope using paper strip experiment. (K)
7. Describe how two metal spheres can be oppositely charged by method of induction. (K)
8. How can we charge a metal sphere positively without touching it? (U)
9. Write the three basic properties of electric charge. (K)
10. If 109 electrons move out of an object to another object every second, how much time is required to
get a total charge of 1C on the other object? (A)
11. Obtain the expression for the force on a point charge due to multiple charges using principle of
superposition. (U)
12. Obtain the expression for electric field at a point due to system of charges. (U)
13. Write three properties of electric field lines. (K)
14. Derive the expression for the torque experienced by an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric
field. (U)
15. Find the electric flux though cylindrical Gaussian surface placed parallel to uniform electric field. (U)
Five mark questions

1. Obtain the expression for electric field at a point on the axial line of an electric dipole. (U)
2. Derive the expression for electric field at a point on the equatorial plane of an electric dipole. (U)
3. Using Gauss law derive the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight
uniformly charged wire. (U)
4. Obtain the expression for electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet using Gauss
law. (U)
5. Arrive at the expression for the electric field due to a thin spherical shell at a point outside the
sphere using Gauss law and write the expression for electric field on its surface. (U)
Numerical problems
1. Two point charges 20 µC and 10µC are separated by 0.05m in free space. Find the force between
them. Also calculate the force when a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 3 is introduced
between them. (A) [720N, 240N]
2. Two point charges 16nC and 8nC are situated at the corners B and C of an equilateral triangle of side
0.03m. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A of the triangle.
(A) [21.2X104NC-1 , 40053’ angle with E1]
3. Two pith balls of mass 10mg each are suspended by two threads from the same support are charged
identically. They move apart by 0.08m and threads make an angle 600 with each other. Find the
charge on each pith ball. (A) [6.33nC ]
4. Two identically oppositely charged metallic spheres placed 0.5m apart attract each other with a
force of 0.108N., when they are connected to each other by a copper wire for a short while, they
begin to repel with a force of 0.036N. Calculate the initial charges on the spheres. (A)
[+3µC, -1µC]
5. Two positively charged particles each of mass 1.7X10-27Kg, carrying a charge of 1.6X10-19C are kept at
a certain distance in air. If each charge experiences a repulsive force equal to its weight, find the
distance of separation between the charges. (A) [0.117m]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
**************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-2
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
One mark questions
1. Is Coulomb force between two stationary charges a conservative or non-conservative force? (K)
2. Write the expression for the work done by an external force in moving a charge through a distance
‘dr’ (U)
3. Define electric potential energy. (U)
4. Is the work done by electrostatic field in moving a charge from one point to another depend on the
path that it moves? (K)
5. While defining the electrostatic potential due to a point charge, the reference of unit positive charge
moving from infinity is considered. Why? (U)
6. Define electrostatic potential at a point. (U)
7. Mention SI unit of electric potential. (K)
8. Write the expression for work done in moving a charge from one point to another in an electric
field. (K)
9. Write the expression for electric potential due to a point charge. (K)
10. How does electric potential due to a point charge vary with distance from it? (U)
11. Write the expression for electric potential due to a short electric dipole. (K)
12. How does electric potential due to a short electric dipole vary with distance? (U)
13. What is the potential at a point which is at a distance of 9 cm from a point charge 1nC? (A)
14. What is the work done in bringing a charge of 3mC through a potential difference of 4000 V? (A)
15. Write the expression for electric potential at a point outside a uniformly charged spherical shell. (K)
16. What is the electric potential inside a uniformly charged spherical shell? (K)
17. Write the expression for electric potential due to system of charges. (K)
18. What is an equipotential surface? (U)
19. Draw equipotential surfaces for a uniform electric field. (S)
20. Draw equipotential surfaces for a dipole. (S)
21. Draw equipotential surfaces for two identical positive charges. (S)
22. What is the work done to move a charge from one point to another point on an equipotential
surface? (K)
23. Write the relation between the electric field and potential. (U)
24. Write the expression for potential energy of system of three charges. (U)
25. Define potential energy of a point charge ‘q’ kept in an external electric field. (U)
26. Define electron volt. (U)
27. Write the energy equivalence between electron volt and joule. (U)
28. Write the expression for potential energy of system of two charges in an external electric field. (U)
29. What are the mobile charges in a metallic conductor? (K)
30. Which electrons are free to move in metallic conductor? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
31. What are the charge carriers in electrolytic conductors? (K)

32. What is the value of electrostatic field inside a charged conductor? (K)
33. What is the direction of electric field on the surface of a charged conductor? (U)
34. If is the electric potential on the surface of a spherical conductor, what is the value of electric
potential inside it? (U)
35. What is electrostatic shielding? (U)
36. Where electrostatic shielding is made use of? (U)
37. What is a dielectric? (K)
38. What is polarization of a dielectric? (U)
39. What happens when a dielectric is placed in an external electric field? (U)
40. What is the direction of induced electric field in the dielectric medium when it is placed in a uniform
electric field? (U)
41. What are polar molecules? (K)
42. What are non-polar molecules? (K)
43. Give an example of non-polar molecule. (K)
44. Give an example of polar molecule. (K)
45. What are linear isotropic dielectrics? (K)
46. Define electric polarization for linear isotropic dielectrics. (U)
47. Define electric susceptibility of a dielectric medium. (U)
48. What is the effect of external electric field on a dielectric? (K)
49. Define electric capacitance of a capacitor. (U)
50. What is a capacitor? (K)
51. Draw the circuit symbol of a capacitor. (S)
52. Draw the circuit symbol of a variable capacitor. (S)
53. Give SI unit of electrical capacitance. (K)
54. Define dielectric strength of a dielectric medium. (U)
55. Mention the SI unit of dielectric strength. (K)
56. What is the value of dielectric strength of air? (K)
57. Define farad, the unit of capacitance. (U)
58. Write the expression for electric field between the two plates of parallel plate capacitor. (U)
59. What is the value of electric field outside the charged parallel plate capacitor? (K)
60. What is ‘fringing of the field’ in case of parallel plate capacitor? (U)
61. Mention the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (K)
62. Express dielectric constant in terms of permittivity of free space. (U)
63. When do we say that the two capacitors are in series? (U)
64. When do we say that the two capacitors are in parallel? (U)
65. Write the expression for equivalent of capacitance of two capacitors connected in series
combination. (U)
66. Write the expression for equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel
combination. (K)
67. Write the expression for energy stored in a capacitor. (U)
68. Which form of energy is stored in the capacitor? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
69. Write the expression for energy stored in the capacitor in terms of electric field. (U)
70. What is energy density? (K)
71. What is Van de Graaff generator? (K)
72. What is the approximate order of the voltage that can be built using Van de Graaff generator? (K)
73. Write an application of Van de Graaff generator. (K)
Two mark questions

1. Draw the curves representing the variation of electrostatic potential and field with the distance from
a point charge. (S)
2. Find the potential at a point P due to a charge of 4×10-9 C located 9 cm away from it. (A)
3. Write the expression for the potential at any point due to an electric dipole and explain the terms.
(U)
4. Why the electrostatic field is zero inside a conductor? (U)
5. What work is done in moving any charge from the center of a charged spherical shell to any point
inside it? Justify your answer. (U)
6. In the expression for the relation between electric field and potential which are the two important
conclusions we arrive at? (U)
7. Write the expression for potential energy of system of two charges and generalize it for a system of
three charges. (U)
8. Show that the work done to move a charge on an equipotential surface is zero. (U)
9. Justify that the electric field is normal to the equipotential surface at every point. (U)
10. What are the two important conclusions we can draw by the relation, ⃗⃗ (U)
11. Justify that the electric field lines on the surface of a conductor are always normal. (U)
12. Justify the statement, “There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor and any excess
charge must reside at the surface.” (U)
13. What are the two main factors on which the extent of polarization of a dielectric medium depends?
(K)
14. Distinguish between polar and non-polar dielectrics. (U)
15. What are the factors on which capacitance of a capacitor depend? (K)
16. Write the expression for capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor and explain the terms. (K)
17. Mention any two factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends? (K)
18. A material of dielectric constant 2 is inserted between the plates of a capacitor 3 micro F. calculate
the new value of the capacitance. (A)
19. Find the energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance 5nF when connected to a potential of 6V
source. (A)
20. Write the expression for energy density in case of a charged capacitor and explain the symbols used.
(K)
21. What are two principles used to construct the Van de Graff generator? (K)
22. Draw the neat schematic labeled diagram of Van de Graaff generator. (S)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS

1. Derive the expression for potential due to a system of charges. (U)
2. Obtain the expression for the relation between electric field and electric potential. (U)
3. Arrive at the expression for the potential energy of a system of two charges in the absence of an
external electric field.(U)
4. Obtain the expression for the potential energy of a system of two charges in the presence of an
external electric field. (U)
5. Obtain an expression for electric field at the surface of a charged conductor of arbitrary shape. (U)
6. Explain how a dielectric develops a net dipole moment in an external electric field. (U)
7. Mention any three factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends? (K)
8. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 1 F and the plates are separated by 1 cm. Find the area of
each plate of the capacitor. (A)
9. Obtain an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (U)
10. Derive the expression for the effective capacitance of a series combination of two capacitors. (U)
11. Arrive at the expression for the effective capacitance of a parallel combination of two capacitors. (U)
12. Derive the expression for the energy stored in a capacitor. (U)
13. Explain how Van de Graaff generator is charged. (U)
14. What is Van de Graaff generator? Explain its working with a neat diagram. (S)
Five mark questions

1. Define electrostatic potential due to a point charge and arrive at the expression for electric potential
at a point due to a point source charge. (U)
2. Obtain the expression for electrostatic potential at any point due to a short electric dipole. (U)
3. List out the important results regarding the (static charges) electrostatics of a conductor. (K)
4. Arrive at the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor when a dielectric is
introduced between its plates. (U)
5. Describe the construction and working of Van-de-Graaff generator with schematic diagram (S)
Numerical problems
1. PQRS is a square of side 1m. Four charges +10nC, -20nC, +30nC & +20nC are placed at the corners
PQRS respectively. Calculate the electric potential at the intersection of the diagonals. (A) [509V]
2. Charges +2nC, +4nC, and +8nC are placed at the corners ABC respectively of a square of side 0.2m.
Calculate the work done to transfer a charge of +2nC from the corner D to the center of the square.
(A) [627.4X10-9J]
3. A battery of 10V is connected to a capacitor of capacitance 0.1F. The battery is now removed and
this capacitor is connected to a second uncharged capacitor. If the charge distributes equally on
these two capacitors, find the total energy stored in each capacitor, and compare with the initial
energy of the first capacitor. (A) [2.5J, 0.5
times]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
4. A spherical drop of water carrying a charge of 3 X10-10C has a potential of 500V at its surface. Find
the radius of the drop. If two such drops of the same charge and radius combine to form a single
spherical drop, calculate the potential at the surface of the new drop. (A) [ 5.4X10-3m, 794V]
5. Two capacitors of capacitances 2µF and 8µF are connected in series and the resulting combination is
connected across a 300V battery. Calculate the charge, potential difference and the energy stored in
each capacitor. (A) [charge=4.8X10-4C, potential=240V, 60V, energy=5.76X10-2J & 1.44X10-2J]
*****************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER- 3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
One mark questions

1. Define instantaneous electric current through a conductor. (U)
2. Define steady current in a conductor. (U)
3. Give the SI unit of electric current. (K)
4. In the nature where do the free charged particles exist? (K)
5. Write the relation between coulomb and ampere. (U)
6. How many electrons per second constitute a current of one micro ampere? (U)
7. Is electric current a scalar or vector quantity? (K)
8. How many electrons flow per second through a conductor carrying a current of 0.5 mA? (A)
9. Define free electron density of a conductor. (U)
10. What is the net charge conducted across any section at zero potential difference? (U)
11. What is the conventional direction of electric current? (K)
12. What is the net flow of electric charges in any direction inside the solid conductor? (U)
13. Name the current carriers in metals or solid conductors. (K)
14. Name the current carriers in electrolytic solutions or liquid conductors. (K)
15. Name the current carriers in discharge tubes or gaseous conductors. (K)
16. State Ohm’s law. (K)
17. Define resistance of a metallic conductor. (U)
18. Write the SI unit of resistance. (K)
19. Define SI unit of resistance. (U)
20. How does the resistance of a conductor depend on its length? (U)
21. How does the resistance of a conductor depend on its area of cross section? (U)
22. Define electrical conductance. (U)
23. Mention the SI unit of conductance. (K)
24. Define resistivity of a material of a conductor. (K)
25. A wire of given resistivity is stretched to three times its length .What will be its new resistivity? (A)
26. Mention the relation between the resistance and resistivity? (U)
27. Mention the SI unit of resistivity? (K)
28. Define the term current density (j) (U)
29. Write the SI unit of current density. (K)
30. Is current density a scalar or a vector quantity? (K)
31. Define electrical conductivity. (U)
32. Mention the relation between current density and conductivity. (U)
33. Define drift velocity. (U)
34. What is the average velocity of free electrons in a metal at room temperature? (K)
35. What is the effect of temperature on the drift speed of electrons in a metallic conductor? (U)
36. Define relaxation time or mean free time. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
37. What is the effect of relaxation time of electrons on the conductivity of a metal? (K)
38. Define electron mobility. (U)
39. Mention the SI unit of mobility. (K)
40. Write the expression for mobility in terms of relaxation time. (U)
41. Name a material whose resistivity decreases with the rise of temperature. (K)
42. How does the resistance of an insulator change with temperature? (K)
43. What will be the value of resistance of a resistor having four colour bands in the order red, red,
orange and gold? (U)
44. Write the value of resistance of a resistor having four colour bands in the order brown, red, black
and silver? (U)
3
45. The value of resistance of a resistor is 2.5 10%. Write the colour sequence of the resistor.
(A)
46. Write the colour code for the resistors of resistance 500Ω, 5KΩ, 37Ω, 4.5X103Ω. (U)
(each one mark)
47. The colour sequence is Brown, black, red and gold on a resistor. Write its resistance value. (U)
48. The value of resistance of a resistor is 0.1 10%. Write the colour sequence of the resistor.(A)
5
49. What is the colour of the third band of a coded resistor of resistance 5.5 Ω? (A)
50. Draw a graph indicating the variation of resistivity of copper with temperature. (S)
51. Represent graphically the variation of resistivity of nichrome with temperature. (S)
52. Draw a graph indicating the variation of resistivity of a semiconductor with temperature.(S)
53. How does the resistance of a conductor vary with temperature?(U)
54. What happens to the resistivity of a conductor when the temperature is increased? (U)
55. How does the resistivity of a semiconductor vary with temperature? (U)
56. Name a material which exhibits very weak dependence of resistivity with temperature? (K)
57. Why manganin or constantan are used to make resistance coils. (U)
58. When are the two resistors said to be in series? (K)
59. When resistors are said to be in parallel? (K)
60. 3Ω and 5Ω resistors are connected in series, if the rate of flow of charge in 3Ω resistor is 5A, what is
the rate of flow of charge in 5Ω resistor? (A)
61. If V1 and V2 be the potential difference across resistors R1 and R2 in series, then what is the potential
difference across the combination? (A)
62. What is the equivalent resistance of ‘n’ resistors each of resistance R connected in series? (U)
63. What happens to the effective resistance of the combination when two or more resistors are
connected in series? (K)
64. What happens to the effective resistance when two or more resistors are connected in parallel? (K)
65. Two equal resistors are connected in parallel to the main current 3A source. What is the value of
current through each resistor? (A)
66. Define emf of a cell? (U)
67. Define internal resistance of a cell. (U)
68. Give the expression for the potential difference between the electrodes of a cell of emf ‘E’ and
internal resistance ‘r’? (U)
69. Write the expression for equivalent emf when two cells of emf E1 and E2 connected in series. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
70. Write the expression for equivalent emf when two cells of emf E1 and E2 connected in series such
that negative electrode of E1 to negative electrode of E2. (U)
71. Write the expression for equivalent emf of ‘n’ cells each of emf ξ connected in series. (U)
72. Give the expression for equivalent internal resistance of ‘n’ cells each of internal resistance ‘r’
connected in series. (U)
73. What is an electric network? (K)
74. What is a node or junction in an electrical network? (K)
75. What is a mesh or loop in an electrical network? (K)
76. State Kirchhoff’s junction rule. (K)
77. What is the significance of junction rule or KCL? (U)
78. State Kirchhoff’s loop rule? (K)
79. What is the significance of KVL or loop rule? (U)
80. Write the balancing condition for Wheatstone’s network. (K)
81. What happens to the balancing condition of a balanced Wheatstone’s network, if the galvanometer
is replaced by a voltmeter of resistance 5000Ω? (U)
82. What happens to the balancing condition of Wheatstone’s network, if the position of galvanometer
and battery are interchanged? (U)
83. Name the device which works on the principle of Wheatstone network. (K)
84. Is the balance point of Wheatstone network affected by the internal resistance of the cell? (K)
85. What is the principle of Meter Bridge? (K)
86. Mention one use of Meter Bridge. (K)
87. Write the expression for unknown resistance R in terms of standard resistance S and balancing
length l of a meter bridge. (U)
88. How the error in finding R the unknown resistance of a wire using Meter Bridge can be minimized?
(U)
89. Mention one application of potentiometer. (K)
90. Write the equation used to compare emf of two cells in terms of balancing length in potentiometer
experiment. (U)
91. Give the formula to determine the internal resistance of the cell using potentiometer. (U)
92. What is the advantage of potentiometer in the measurement of the internal resistance of a cell? (U)
93. In a potentiometer, potential difference per unit length of the wire in 2 Vm-1. What is the balancing
length for a cell of emf 1.4 V? (A)
TWO mark questions
1. Write any two differences between resistance and resistivity. (U)
2. Define the terms (1) drift velocity (2) relaxation time. (U)
3. Obtain an expression for acceleration of an electron in a current carrying conductor. (U)
4. State and explain Ohm’s law. (K)
5. Write the limitations of ohm’s law. (K)
6. Mention the factors on which resistivity of a metal depend. (U)
7. Write the expression for resistivity in terms of number density and relaxation time. (U)
8. Mention any two factors on which resistance of a conductor depends. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
9. State another equivalent form of ohm’s law in terms of current density and conductivity and explain
the terms. (K)
10. A cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across a resistor of 9 Ω. find the terminal
potential difference of the cell. (A)
11. Draw V-I graph for ohmic and non- ohmic materials. (S)
12. How does the resistance of (1) good conductor, (2) semiconductor vary with increase in
temperature? (U)
13. Define emf and internal resistance of a cell. (U)
14. Which are the two major types of resistors commercially made? (K)
15. Explain how wire bound resistors are made. (U)
16. To make resistors of high range which material is used and why? (U)
17. Distinguish between terminal potential difference and emf of a cell. (U)
18. Is terminal potential difference equal to the emf of a cell? Justify your answer. (U)
19. Terminal potential difference is less than the emf of a cell. Why? (U)
20. Mention the factors on which internal resistance of a cell depend. (K)
21. For what basic purpose, the cells are connected (1) in series (2) in parallel? (U)
22. Define electrical power and write its S.I unit. (U)
23. State and explain Kirchhoff’s junction rule/ current law. (K)
24. State and explain Kirchhoff’s loop rule / voltage law (K)
25. State Kirchhoff’s laws/rules of electrical network. (K)
26. What is the cause of resistance of a conductor? Explain (U)
27. A large number of free electrons are present in metals. But there is no current in the absence of
electric field across. Why? (U)
28. Why high voltage power from power generating station is preferred than high current for
transmission of electrical power. (U)
29. Mention two uses of potentiometer. (K)
30. Why the connecting resistors in a meter bridge are made of thick copper strips? (K)
31. A Carbon resistor has three strips of red colour and a gold strip. What is the value of resistance and
its tolerance? (U)
32. The potential difference between the terminals of an electric iron is 240 V and the current is 5.0A.
What is the resistance of the electric iron? (A) (48 Ω)
33. A potential difference of 20 volts is applied across the ends of a resistance of 5 Ω. What current will
flow in the resistor? (A) (4 A)
34. A current of 5 A flows through a wire whose ends are at a potential difference of 3 volts. Calculate
the resistance of the wire.(A) (0.6Ω)
35. An electric bulb draws a current of 0.35 A for 20 minutes. Calculate the amount of electric charge
that flows through the circuit. (A) (420 C)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
36. Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. (A)
( 45 Ω)
37. Find the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?
(5.45 Ω)

1. Arrive at the expression for electric current in terms of drift velocity. Or Derive where
the symbols have their usual meaning (U)
2. Derive E=Jρ or ⃗ ⃗⃗ or derive the expression for current density in terms of electric field and
conductivity of the material using ohm’s law. (U)
3. Explain how electric current is developed in conductors. (U)
4. Plot the graph of variation of resistivity with temperature for copper and explain why it is so? (S)
5. Explain how and why the transmission of high voltage power from power generating stations to
houses and factories is achieved. (U)
6. Arrive at the relation between terminal potential difference and emf of a cell using ohm’s law. (U)
7. How does resistivity of a conductor vary with temperature? Define temperature coefficient of
resistivity. Draw the graph of variation of resistivity of a conductor with temperature. (S)
8. Obtain the expression for effective resistance of two resistors in series. (U)
9. Obtain the expression for effective resistance of two resistors in parallel. (U)
10. What is the principle of Meter Bridge? Arrive at the expression for the (unknown) resistance using
Meter Bridge. (U)
Five mark questions
1. Explain how resistance depends on the dimensions of the conductor and hence arrive at the
expression for resistivity. (U)
2. Derive the expression for electrical conductivity. Or derive where symbols have usual
meaning. (U)
3. Assuming the expression for current in terms of drift velocity, deduce Ohm’s law. (U)
4. What is meant by equivalent resistance? Derive the expression for equivalent resistance of two
resistors connected in series. Write the expression for the effective resistance of ‘n’ resistors
connected in series. (U)
5. What is meant by equivalent resistance? Derive expression for equivalent resistance of two resistors
connected in parallel.(U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
6. Define emf and terminal potential difference of a cell. Derive an expression for main current using
Ohm’s law. (U)
7. Discuss the grouping of two cells in series and find their equivalent emf and internal resistance.(U)
8. Obtain the expression for the equivalent emf and internal resistance of two cells connected in
parallel. (U)
9. Define electrical power. Arrive at an expression for electrical power in terms of current, potential
difference and resistance of the conductor. (U)
10. What is a ‘node’ in electrical network? State and explain Kirchhoff’s rules of electrical network. (K)
11. Deduce the condition for balance of Wheat stone's network using Kirchhoff’s laws. (U)
Numerical problems
1. A wire of resistance R is cut into five equal pieces. These five pieces of wire are then connected in
parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination in terms of the original resistance R?
(A) [R/25]
2. A copper wire has a diameter of 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.68 10-8 Ωm. What will be the length of
this wire to make its resistance of 2 ohm? (A) [23.8 m]
3. What is the main current in the circuit?
[0.33 A]
4. What is the current through 30 Ω resistors in the given circuit?
[0.44 A]
5. What is the current through 20 Ω resistor?
[ 0.72 A ]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
6. Calculate the current through the galvanometer connected across P and R of 10 Ω resistance with a
potential difference of 20 V [ 0.0315A]

7. A grinder motor is designed to operate at a current of 5 A and at a p.d. of 200 V. What resistance
must be connected in series with the motor so as to maintain the rated current when it is operated
on a 220 V line? (A) [4 Ω]
8. A coil of wire has a resistance of 18 Ω at 10 and 18.48 Ω at 23 . Find the temperature coefficient
of resistance. What is the resistance at 0 (A) [ 0.0021/0C , 17.63 Ω ]
9. How do you arrange 45 cells, each of emf 1.4 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω so as to send maximum
current through an external resistance of 0.5 Ω. What is the maximum current? (A)
[ 3 branches of 15 cells each, 21 A]
10. A battery of 6V gives a current of 2 A when connected to a resistance of 2 Ω. What is the internal
resistance, terminal p.d. and lost voltage of the battery? Explain the term lost voltage. (A)
[1 Ω, 4 V]
11. Two resistors 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω and
a resistor of 7 Ω are connected to the resistor combination. What is the power dissipated across 7 Ω
resistor? (A) [0.28 W]
12. Two resistances 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in series to a 150 V supply. A voltmeter of
resistance 200 Ω is connected across 100 Ω resistor. What is the reading of voltmeter? (A)
[37.5 V]
13. 17. Three bulbs are rated 40 W- 220 V, 60 W- 220 V and 100 W- 220 V respectively. (i) Find the
resistance of each bulb. (ii) What is the maximum permissible current in each bulb? (A)
[1210 Ω, 806.7 Ω, 484 Ω, 0.45A ]
14. Two resistors of 2 Ω and 3 Ω are connected to the left gap of a metre bridge in turn. A standard
resistance of 4 Ω is connected to the right gap. Find the balancing lengths in each case. (A)
[0.333m, 0.429 m]
15. Two cells rated as 10 V, 2 Ω and 8 V, 1Ω are connected in parallel to send current in the same
direction across a 6 Ω resistor. Find the p.d. across 6 Ω resistor. (A) [7.8V]
16. In a typical Wheatstone network, resistances P, Q, R and S are 10 Ω, 20 Ω, 30 Ω and 50 Ω

respectively. Is the network balanced? If not, how do you vary (i) the arm R and (ii) the arm S to
balance the network? (A) (No, 150 Ω, 10 Ω)
*************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-4
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
One mark questions:

1. What was the conclusion made by Oersted when a magnetic compass needle is brought near a
current carrying straight wire? (U)
2. Who investigated the phenomena that “moving charges or currents produce a magnetic field
around its space”. (U)
3. Name the scientist who unified both the electricity and magnetism. (K)
4. Write the expression for the magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a uniform
magnetic field. (U)
5. Write the expression for the magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a uniform
magnetic field in vector form. (U)
6. What is the value of magnetic force when a charged particle moves parallel to the direction of
magnetic field? (U)
7. How many tesla makes one gauss? (U)
8. What should be the angle between the velocity vector of the charged particle and the
magnetic field to experience a maximum force, when a charged particle is moving in a uniform
magnetic field? (U)
9. What is the magnitude of the force experienced by a charged particle if it moves along the
direction of the magnetic field? (U)
10. An alpha particle and a proton are projected with same velocity v perpendicular to the
direction of the magnetic field B. which particle experiences maximum force? (U)
11. An alpha particle is moving along positive X- axis with a velocity v. What is the direction of the
magnetic force on it, when magnetic field is directed along positive Y-axis? (U)
12. A proton is projected along +X-axis, experiences a force due to magnetic field along +Y-axis.
What is the direction of the magnetic field? (U)
13. Does a neutron moving in a magnetic field experience a force? (K)
14. What is the magnitude of force experienced by a stationary proton in a magnetic field? (K)
15. Mention the rule used to find the direction force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic
field. (K)
16. State Fleming’s left hand rule. (K)
17. Define S.I unit of magnetic field in terms of force acting on a charged particle in a magnetic
field. (U)
18. What is Lorentz force? (U)
19. Write the expression for Lorentz force. (U)
20. Write the expression for Lorentz force acting on a charged particle in the vector form. (U)
21. A proton enters a magnetic field at 300. At what angle should it enter to experience double the
force? (A)
22. What happens to a current carrying conductor if it is placed in a magnetic field? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
23. Write an expression for the force acting on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
(U)
24. A current carrying conductor placed perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. What
is the direction of force acting on it? (U)
25. When is the mechanical force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field
is zero? (K)
26. Which rule gives the direction of the magnetic force acting on current carrying conductor kept
in a magnetic field? (K)
27. What will be the path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field, when it is moving
parallel to the field direction? (K)
28. What will be the path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field, when it is moving
perpendicular to the field direction? (K)
29. What is the nature of trajectory of a charged particle in uniform magnetic field when it enters
the field making an angle θ with the field? (K)
30. A proton and an alpha particle enter the region of uniform magnetic field at right angles to
the direction of the field with same velocity. Which particle describes greater circular path?
(K)
31. A proton and an electron having the same momentum enters a uniform magnetic field at right
angles to the direction of the field. Which particle describe smaller circular path? (K)
32. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field. Is the momentum of the particle affected?
(K)
33. How does the frequency of revolution of a charged particle in a magnetic field depends on its
charge? (U)
mass? (U)
velocity? (U)
36. Write the expression for the velocity of a charged particle in terms of crossed electric and
magnetic fields to move without deviation. (U)
37. What is the magnitude of the force experienced by a charged particle in a crossed electric and
magnetic fields when it proceeds without deviation? (K)
38. What is a cyclotron? (K)
39. On what principle a cyclotron works? (U)
40. Write the expression for the frequency of cyclotron. (K)
41. Mention any one use of cyclotron. (K)
42. What is a mass spectrometer? (K)
43. What is the principle of mass spectrometer? (U)
44. Give the vector form of Biot-Savart’s law. (U)
45. What is the direction of the magnetic field due to a current element? (K)
46. Write the S.I unit of current element? (K)
47. Write the S.I unit for permeability of free space. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
48. What is the value of ( ) in S.I system? (K)

49. Name the rule to find the direction of a magnet field due to a circular current loop. (K)
50. State right hand thumb rule. (K)
51. Write the expression for magnet field at the center of circular current loop. (U)
52. What is the direction of magnetic field at the center of a current carrying circular coil, when
current is flowing in clockwise direction? (K)
53. How does the magnetic field at the center of circular current loop depend on its radius? (U)
54. How does the magnetic field at center of circular current loop depend on number of turns of
the coil? (U)
55. What happens to the magnetic field at the center of the current loop when the current
through it is doubled? (U)
56. Graphically show the variation of magnetic field with distance from the center of a wire
carrying current. (S)
57. If the magnitude of the current through the circular coil is halved, then what is the magnitude
of magnetic field at its center? (U)
58. State Ampere’s circuital law. (K)
59. Write the expression for magnetic field at a point due to long straight current carrying
conductor. (K)
60. What is a solenoid? (K)
61. What is meant by an ideal solenoid? (K)
62. Write the expression for the magnetic field at a point inside current carrying solenoid. (K)
63. What is a toroid? (K)
64. Write the expression for the magnetic field at a point inside the air cored toroid. (U)
65. What is the magnitude of magnetic field at a point in the open space inside the toroid? (K)
66. What is the magnitude of magnetic field at a point outside the toroid?(K)
67. Write the expression for the force between two long straight parallel conductors carrying
currents. (U)
68. What is the nature of force between two parallel conductors carrying currents in the same
direction?(K)
69. What is the nature of force between two parallel conductors carrying currents in the opposite
direction?(K)
70. When do the two parallel conductors carrying currents attract each other? (K)
71. Two parallel long conductors carry currents in the same direction experience a force F. If the
direction of the current in one is reversed, then what is the force experienced by them? (U)
72. Two parallel beams of electrons travelling in the same direction, separated by a certain finite
distance. What is the nature of force between them? (U)
73. Define magnetic moment of a current loop. (U)
74. Write the expression for the torque exerted by a current loop kept in a uniform magnetic field.
(U)
75. Give the S.I unit of magnetic dipole moment. (K)
76. Write the expression for the magnetic dipole moment of a current loop in vector form. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
77. Is magnetic dipole moment a vector or a scalar quantity? (K)

78. How magnetic dipole moment does depend on strength of the magnetic field? (K)
79. Current in a loop is flowing in clockwise direction. This face of the loop behaves as which
magnetic pole? (K)
80. Current in a loop is flowing in anticlockwise direction. This face of the loop behaves as which
magnetic pole? (K)
81. What happens to the current loop when it is placed in a uniform magnetic field? (K)
82. Write the expression for the magnitude of the torque on a current loop in a uniform magnetic
field. (K)
83. Write the expression for torque on a current loop in a uniform magnetic field in vector form.
(U)
84. What is the direction of torque on a current loop placed in a uniform magnetic field? (U)
85. A current carrying loop does not tend to rotate in a uniform magnetic field. What do you
conclude from this statement? (U)
86. Write the expression for magnetic dipole moment of revolving electron in hydrogen atom. (K)
87. Define gyromagnetic ratio of the electron. (U)
88. Write the S.I unit of gyromagnetic ratio. (K)
89. Give the numerical value of gyromagnetic ratio of the electron. (K)
90. Define Bohr magneton. (U)
91. Write an expression for Bohr magneton. (U)
92. Give the S.I unit of Bohr magneton. (K)
93. Write the value of Bohr magneton. (K)
94. Mention the principle on which a moving coil galvanometer works. (K)
95. How current is measured in a moving coil galvanometer? (K)
96. When the galvanometer is said to be sensitive? (K)
97. Define current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer. (U)
98. Define voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer. (U)
99. Give the S.I unit of current sensitivity. (K)
100. Give the S.I unit of voltage sensitivity. (K)
101. What is an ammeter? (K)
102. How do you convert a galvanometer into an ammeter? (K)
103. What should be the resistance of an ideal ammeter? (U)
104. How do you increase the range of an ammeter? (U)
105. Which of the following has lower resistance (a) an ammeter or (b) a miliammeter? (K)
106. What is a voltmeter? (K)
107. How do you convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter? (K)
108. What should be the resistance of an ideal voltmeter? (U)
109. Which of the following has high resistance (a) a voltmeter or (b) a milivoltmeter? (K)
Two mark questions:

1. Write the expression for magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a uniform
magnetic field and explain the terms. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
2. Represent the direction of the magnetic field (i) into the plane of the paper (ii) emerging out of
the plane of the paper. (S)
3. Write the S.I unit of magnetic field and also its dimensions. (U)
4. Find the magnitude and direction of the force on 3nC of charge moving in a magnetic field of
strength 0.002T with a speed 4X105 ms-1 at perpendicular to the field. (A)
5. When is the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field (a) maximum and (b)
minimum? (K)
6. Does a moving charge always experience a force in a magnetic field? Explain. (U)
7. A proton and an electron enter a magnetic field at the same angle and with the same speed. Do
they experience the same force? Justify your answer. (U)
8. What is Lorentz force? Write the expression representing this force. (K)
9. Find the magnitude of the force experienced by an electron moving with a velocity 0.5X10 7ms-1
in a magnetic field of strength 0.5X10-2T making an angle 300 with the magnetic field. (A)
10. A proton and an electron moving with the same momentum enter a magnetic field at right
angles to it. Compare the radii of their trajectory. (A)
11. Write the expression for the force acting on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
and explain the terms.(K)
12. When is the force on a conductor carrying current in a magnetic field (a) maximum and (b)
minimum? (K)
13. Write the expression for radius of circular path described by a charged particle in a uniform
14. Arrive at the relation between speed of light, permeability of free space and permittivity of free
space. (U)
15. A 10 µC charge moving with a velocity of 2 x 105 ms-1 enters a uniform magnetic field of 2 T,
along the direction parallel to the field. Find the radius of its path. (A)
16. Write the expression for angular frequency of a charged particle moving in a uniform
transverse magnetic field and explain the terms. (U)
17. Write the expression for the pitch of the helical path traced by an electron in a uniform
18. What is meant by velocity selector? Give its importance. (U)
19. On what principle a cyclotron works? Explain. (U)
20. What are the functions of electric and magnetic fields in a cyclotron? (U)
21. Draw neat labeled diagram of cyclotron. (S)
22. Mention two places where cyclotron is used. (K)
23. Write the expression for cyclotron frequency and explain the terms. (K)
24. Write the expression for maximum kinetic energy acquired by the charged particles accelerated
by a cyclotron and explain the terms. (K)
25. Give the vector form of Biot-Savart’s law and explain the terms. (U)
26. Write the expression for magnetic field at a point due to current element and explain the
terms. (K)
27. When is the magnetic field at a point due to a current element (1) maximum and (2) minimum?
(K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
28. Write the expression for the magnet field produced at a point on the axis of circular current
loop and explain the terms. (U)
29. How will magnetic field strength at the center of the circular current loop change, if the current
through the coil is halved and radius of the loop is doubled? (A)
30. State and explain Ampere’s circuital law. (K)
31. Write the expression for magnetic field at a point due to long straight current carrying
conductor and explain the terms. (K)
32. How does the magnetic field at a point due to straight long current carrying conductor vary
with the
(a) strength of the current and
(b) Perpendicular distance of the point from the conductor. (U)
33. Write an expression for magnetic field at a point inside current carrying solenoid and explain
the terms. (U)
34. Mention the factors on which the magnetic fields at a point inside a solenoid depend. (U)
35. How does the magnetic field at a point inside an air cored solenoid vary with the (i) number
turns per unit length and (ii) strength of a current though the solenoid. (U)
36. Write the expression for the magnetic field at a point inside the air cored toroid and explain the
terms. (K)
37. Write the expression for the force between two long straight parallel conductors carrying
currents and explain the terms. (K)
38. What is the nature of the force between two parallel conductors carrying currents in the (a)
same direction and (b) opposite direction? (K)
39. Define ‘ampere’ the S.I unit of current by writing the expression for force between two parallel
currents. (U)
40. How does the force between the conductors carrying currents vary with (a) strength of current
in the conductor and (b) the distance between the conductors? (U)
41. When is the torque on a current loop in magnetic field (i) maximum and (ii) minimum (K)
42. Define gyromagnetic ratio of an electron. Mention its value. (U)
43. Write an expression for angular deflection produced by a coil in moving coil galvanometer and
explain the terms. (K)
44. Draw a neat labeled diagram of moving coil galvanometer. (S)
45. What is the significance of radial magnetic field in a moving coil galvanometer? (U)
46. What is the role of soft iron cylinder inside the coil in a moving coil galvanometer? (U)
47. Why an ammeter is always connected in series with a circuit? (U)
48. Why should an ammeter have low resistance? (U)
49. Why a voltmeter is always connected in parallel with a circuit? (U)
50. Why should a voltmeter have high resistance? (U)
Three mark questions:
1. Describe Oersted’s experiment. (K)
2. On what factors the force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field
depends? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
3. On what factors Lorentz force depends? (K)

4. Write the three features observed at the interaction of a charged particle in the presence of
both the electric field and the magnetic field. (U)
5. Arrive at the expression for the velocity selector by stating the condition, when a charged
particle is moving in combined electric and magnetic field. (U)
6. Mention the places where cyclotron is used. (K)
7. Derive the expression for the force acting on a conductor carrying current in a uniform magnetic
field. (U)
8. Obtain the expression for radius of circular path described by a charged particle in a uniform
magnetic field. (U)
9. Obtain the expression for time period of revolution of a charged particle in a uniform transverse
magnetic field. (U)
10. Obtain the expression for the maximum kinetic energy acquired by a charged particle
accelerated by a cyclotron. (U)
11. Give the theory of cyclotron. (or) Obtain an expression for cyclotron frequency. (U)
12. State and explain of Biot-Savart’s law. (U)
13. Assuming the expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current loop,
obtain the expression for the magnetic field at the center of the loop. (U)
14. Derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a straight infinite current carrying wire using
Ampere’s circuit law. (U)
15. Derive the expression for the magnetic field at a point inside a solenoid carrying current. (U)
16. Explain how a circular current loop behaves as a magnetic dipole. (U)
17. Assuming the expression for magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron in a hydrogen
atom, obtain the expression for Bohr magneton. (U)
18. Derive the expression for magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron. (U)
19. Explain how to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter. (U)
20. Explain how to convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter. (U)
21. Write any three factors on which the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends.
(U)
22. Write any three factors on which the voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends.
(U)
23. How do you increase the current sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer? (U)
24. How do you increase the voltage sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer? (U)
25. Does the increase in current sensitivity increase voltage sensitivity? Explain (U)
26. Give any three comparative differences between Biot-Savart’s law for magnetic field and
Coulomb’s law for electrostatic field. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Five mark questions:

1. With a neat labeled diagram, explain the construction and working of a cyclotron. (S)
2. What is the principle of cyclotron? Arrive at the expression for the cyclotron frequency and the
kinetic energy of the ions. (U)
3. Derive the expression for magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current loop. (U)
4. What is a toroid? Derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a toroid. (U)
5. Derive the expression for the force between two long straight parallel conductors carrying
currents and hence define ampere, the S.I. unit of current. (U)
6. Obtain the expression for the torque acting on a rectangular current loop placed in a uniform
magnetic field?(U)
7. Derive the expression for magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron in a hydrogen
atom.(U)
8. With neat labeled diagram, explain the working of a moving coil galvanometer.{OR} Give the
theory of moving coil galvanometer. (U)
Numerical problems
1. A current of 1A is flowing through a circular loop of 100mm radius. Find the magnetic field at a
point which is at a distance of 100mm from the center of this loop on its axis due to this current
loop. Also calculate the magnetic field at the center of this loop.(A)
[2.22X10-6T, 6.3X10-6T]
2. A magnetic field of 35.34X10-6T is applied on an electron in a direction perpendicular to its
motion. Find the time required for the electron to complete one revolution, also find the speed
with which the electron moves if the radius of the path is 2mm. Given mass of the electron =
9.1X10-31Kg, and charge= 1.6X10-19C. (A) {period=1X10-6s and
3 -1
speed = 12.42X10 ms }
3. Two straight parallel conductors of 2m length are 0.2m apart. Find the magnitude of the force
acting on the conductors if a current of 3A flows through each of them. Also find the force per
unit length of the conductor. (A)
[18X10-6N, 9X10-6N]
4. A miliammeter of resistance 0.5Ω gives full scale deflection for a current of 5mA. How to convert
it into an ammeter of range (0-0.5A) and a voltmeter of range (0-50V). (A)
5. A rectangular coil of length 0.06m and breadth 0.03m, having 100 turns is placed in a uniform
magnetic field of strength 0.5T such that its plane is parallel to the field. If 5mA of current is
flowing through the coil, find the force on each side of the coil and also the torque exerted by it.
(A) [1.5X10-2N, 4.5X10-4Nm]
***********************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-5
Magnetism and Matter
One mark questions:
1. How the name ‘magnet’ is derived? (K)
2. Does magnetic mono pole exist? (K)
3. Is source of magnetic field analogue to the source of electric field? (U)
4. What is a magnetic dipole? (K)
5. Define magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet. (U)
6. Is magnetic dipole moment a vector or a scalar quantity? (K)
7. What is the direction of dipole moment of a bar magnet? (U)
8. What happens to the magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet if it is cut into two pieces along its
length? (K)
9. What happens when a bar magnet is suspended freely? (K)
10. Is magnetic field a vector or a scalar quantity? (K)
11. What are the magnetic field lines? (U)
12. Is magnetic field lines form continuous closed loops. (K)
13. What happens when a magnetic needle is kept in a uniform magnetic field? (K)
14. Write the expression for torque acting on a compass needle kept in a uniform magnetic field. (K)
15. Write the expression for torque acting on a compass needle in a uniform magnetic field in vector
form. (U)
16. Mention the expression for the potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field. (K)
17. Write the expression for time period of oscillation of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic
field. (K)
18. How does the time period of oscillation of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic field
depends on its magnetic dipole moment? (U)
19. How does the time period of oscillations of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic field
depends on the strength of the external magnetic field? (U)
20. How does the time period of oscillations of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic field
depends on its moment of inertia? (U)
21. What happens to the time period of oscillation of a small magnetic needle if the strength of uniform
magnetic field in which it is kept increases by four times? (A)
22. Does the time period of oscillations of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic field depend on
temperature? (K)
23. Which parameter in magnetism is analogous to the permittivity in electrostatics of a dipole? (U)
24. State Gauss’s law in magnetism. (K)
25. Define magnetic meridian. (U)
26. Define geographic meridian. (U)
27. Define magnetic declination. (U)
28. Define inclination or magnetic dip. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
29. What is the value of dip at the equator? (K)

30. What is the value of magnetic dip at the poles? (K)
31. If the value of horizontal component of the earth BH is equal to vertical component BV, then what is
the value of dip at that place? (U)
32. How does the value of magnetic inclination/dip vary from equator to the poles? (K)
33. How does the value of magnetic declination vary with the latitudes? (K)
34. How does the value of horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field vary from equator to poles?
(K)
35. Write the relation connecting the angle of dip, horizontal and vertical components of magnetic field
of the earth at a place. (K)
36. Define magnetization of a magnetic material. (U)
37. Mention the S.I unit of magnetization of a magnetic material. (K)
38. Is magnetization of a magnetic material a scalar or a vector? (K)
39. Is magnetic flux through a scalar or vector quantity? (K)
40. How does the magnetization of a magnetic material vary with the magnetic intensity? (U)
41. Define magnetic susceptibility of a magnetic material. (U)
42. Mention the significance of magnetic susceptibility of a magnetic material. (K)
43. Define relative permeability of a material. (U)
44. How the relative permeability is related to its magnetic susceptibility? (U)
45. Give the relation between magnetic flux density B, magnetization of the material M and magnetic
intensity H. (K)
46. Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is 3000. What is its relative permeability? (A)
47. What happens when diamagnetic material is placed in varying magnetic field? (U)
48. How does magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic material depend on temperature? (U)
49. What does negative susceptibility signify in diamagnetic material? (U)
50. What is the net orbital magnetic moment of an atom of a diamagnetic material? (U)
51. Which type of magnetic material has relative permeability greater than one? (K)
52. For which material susceptibility low and negative? (K)
53. What is Meissner effect? (K)
54. What are paramagnetic materials? (K)
55. Give an example for paramagnetic material. (K)
56. Mention any one property of paramagnetic material. (K)
57. Sketch neat diagram to represent the distribution of magnetic field lines through paramagnetic
material when placed in a uniform magnetic field. (S)
58. How does magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic material depend on temperature? (U)
59. For which material susceptibility is low and positive? (K)
60. State Curie’s law in magnetism. (K)
61. What is Curie temperature? (K)
62. What happens to the property of a ferromagnetic substance when it is heated? (U)
63. How does the ferromagnetism change with temperature? (U)
64. Susceptibility of iron is more than that of aluminum. What is the inference of this statement? (U)
65. Can susceptibility be positive and negative for the same material? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
66. What is magnetic hysteresis? (K)

67. What is hysteresis loss? (K)
68. What is retentivity? (K)
69. What is coercivity? (K)
70. What is coercive field? (K)
71. What does the area under hysteresis curve represent? OR what is the significance of hysteresis
loop? (U)
72. What are permanent magnets? (K)
73. Why steel is preferred over soft iron for making permanent magnets? (U)
74. Mention a material which is used for making permanent magnets. (K)
75. Why should the material used for making permanent magnets have high coercivity? (U)
76. Why electromagnets are made of soft iron? (U)
Two mark questions:

1. Write any two properties of a bar magnet. (K)
2. Mention any two properties of magnetic field lines. (K)
3. Can two magnetic field lines intersect each other? Justify your answer. (U)
4. Explain a method to plot the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. (U)
5. When is the potential energy of a dipole in magnetic field (i) minimum (ii) maximum? (K)
6. When is the torque acting on a magnetic needle/bar magnet/magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic
field (a) maximum and (b) minimum? (K)
7. Write the expression for potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field and
explain the terms. (K)
8. Write the expression for the time period of oscillation of small magnetic needle in a uniform
9. State and explain Gauss’s law in magnetism. (U)
10. Mention the two differences between Gauss law in magnetism and Gauss law in electrostatics. (U)
11. Write the latitude and longitude locations of earth’s magnetic poles. (K)
12. Define magnetic declination and dip at a place. (U)
13. At what place on the earth the dip is (i) maximum and (ii) minimum? (K)
14. Define magnetization of a magnetic material. Mention its S.I unit (U)
15. Define magnetic intensity. Give its S.I unit. (U)
16. What is diamagnetism? Give an example of a diamagnetic material. (K)
17. Mention any two properties of diamagnetic materials. (K)
18. Explain why diamagnetic materials are repelled by magnets? (U)
19. Which are the two important properties required for a material to behave as superconductor? (U)
20. What is paramagnetism? Give an example of a paramagnetic material. (K)
21. Mention any two properties of paramagnetic materials. (K)
22. Explain why paramagnetic substances are weakly magnetized in the direction of the magnetic field?
(U)
23. State and explain Curie’s law in magnetism. (K)
24. Draw the behavior of magnetic field lines near a (i) diamagnetic (ii) paramagnetic substance. (S)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
25. What is ferromagnetism? Give an example of a ferro magnetic material. (K)

26. Mention any two properties of ferromagnetic materials. (K)
27. Why ferromagnetic substances magnetized easily and strongly? (U)
28. How does susceptibility of ferromagnetic vary with temperature? Explain. (U)
29. What is soft ferromagnetic material? Give an example. (K)
30. What is hard ferromagnetic material? Give an example. (K)
31. Draw the variation of magnetic field (B) with magnetic intensity (H) when ferromagnetic substance is
subjected to a cycle of magnetization. (S)
32. What are the salient features of a hysteresis curve? (U)
33. What is hysteresis curve? Mention the significance of hysteresis curve. (K)
34. Mention any two applications of hysteresis curve. (K)
35. What is a permanent magnet? Name the material used for making permanent magnet. (K)
36. Paramagnetic and diamagnetic substances cannot be used for permanent magnets. Why? (U)
37. Which type materials are required for the manufacture of electromagnets? Give an example. (K)
38. Which material is used to make electromagnets and why? (U)
39. Steel is preferred for making permanent magnets whereas soft iron is preferred for making
electromagnets. Why? (U)
40. What type of material is required for making permanent magnets? Give an example. (K)
41. The area of hysteresis curve of materials used in transformer cores and telephone diaphragms
should be narrow. Why? (U)
42. Give any two uses of permanent magnets. (K)
43. Mention any two methods to destroy magnetism of a magnet. (K)
1. Give any three properties of a bar magnet. (K)
2. Mention any three properties of magnetic field lines. (K)
3. Sketch the magnetic field lines of (a) a bar magnet (b) a current carrying finite solenoid (c) an electric
dipole. (S)
4. Arrive at the expression for magnetic potential energy of a dipole in a magnetic field. (U)
5. State and prove Gauss law in magnetism. (U)
6. What is ‘dynamo effect’ of earth? Explain. (U)
7. Name the elements of earth’s magnetic field. (K)
8. Define the terms: (1) Declination, (2) Inclination or Dip and (3) Horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field at a given place. (U)
9. Define the terms: (1) magnetization of a magnetic material, (2) magnetic intensity and (3) magnetic
susceptibility. (U)
10. Define magnetic permeability and magnetic susceptibility. Write a relation between them. (U)
11. Obtain the relation between relative magnetic permeability magnetic susceptibility. (U)
12. Mention any three properties of diamagnetic material. (K)
13. Explain the cause for the diamagnetic behavior of materials. (U)
14. Mention any three properties of paramagnetic material. (K)
15. Mention any three properties of ferromagnetic material. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
16. Mention any three differences between diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials. (U)
17. Mention any three differences between diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials. (U)
18. Mention any three differences between ferromagnetic and paramagnetic materials. (U)
19. Explain magnetic hysteresis by drawing hysteresis loop. (S)
20. Write the applications of electromagnets. (K)
21. Mention the different methods to magnetize a given material. (K)
22. Give the characteristics of magnetic materials used for making permanent magnets. (K)
23. The core of electromagnets is made of ferromagnetic material having high permeability and low
retentivity. Explain why? (U)

1. Which are the commonly known ideas regarding magnetism in nature till now? (K)
2. Show that a current carrying solenoid is equivalent to a bar magnet. (U)
(Or)
3. Derive the expression for magnetic field at a point along the axis of a current carrying solenoid and
hence show that a solenoid is equivalent to a bar magnet. (U)
4. Derive the expression for time period of oscillation of a dipole in a uniform magnetic field. [OR]
Obtain an expression for time period of oscillation of small magnetic needle in a uniform magnetic
field. (U)
5. Compare the electrostatic analogy of an electric dipole with a magnetic dipole in magnetism. (U)
6. Obtain the relation between magnetic susceptibility, magnetic permeability of a substance with
permeability of free space. (U)
Numerical problems
1. Find the vertical component and the total magnetic field at a place where the horizontal component
is 0.38X10-4T and the angle of dip is 170. (A) [0.12X10-4T,
0.4X10-4T]
2. A circular coil of radius 5X10-2m and 20 turns carrying a current of 2A is placed perpendicular to a
magnetic field of strength 2X10-3T. The coil is free to turn about an axis in its plane perpendicular to
the field direction. When the coil is slightly turned and released, it oscillates about its stable
equilibrium with a frequency of 1.5s-1. Calculate the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of
rotation. (A) [2.22X10-5Kgm2 ]
3. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 450 with a uniform external magnetic field of 3T
experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5X10-2J. Find the magnitude of the magnetic moment
of the magnet. (A)
*******************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER - 6
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
One mark questions
1. What is electromagnetic induction? (K)
2. Define magnetic flux through a surface. (U)
3. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (K)
4. Determine the direction of induced current in the loop given below if the loop moves out of the
region of magnetic field. (A)
5. State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (K)

6. What are eddy currents? (K)
7. Why eddy currents are undesirable in the metallic cores of the transformer? (U)
8. In the domestic electric power meters a rotating shiny metallic disc is seen. Why it rotates? (U)
9. How to minimize eddy currents? (U)
10. Define self-inductance of a coil. (U)
11. Write the S.I unit of self-inductance. (K)
12. Define the S.I unit of self-inductance. (U)
13. What is mutual inductance? (K)
14. Define co-efficient of mutual inductance. (U)
15. The strength of the electric current flowing in the wire from B to A is decreasing. In which
direction the current is induced in the metallic loop. (A)
16. What is motional emf? (K)

17. A wire pointing north –south is dropped freely towards earth. Will any potential difference be
induced across its ends? (U)
18. What happens to self-inductance of a coil if a ferromagnetic material is inserted inside the coil?
(U)
19. Mention the expression for magnetic potential energy stored in an inductor when current flows
through it. (K)
20. On what principle AC generator works? (K)
21. Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described by the figure. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Two mark questions

1. Define magnetic flux through a surface? Give its mathematical formula in vector form. (U)
2. A circular plate is placed in a uniform magnetic field such that the plane is making an angle θ with
the field. For what angle of inclination the magnetic flux through the surface is (a) maximum (b)
minimum? (K)
3. State and explain Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (U)
4. A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 revolutions per
minute in a plane normal to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field 0.4 x 10-4T.
What is the induced emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel? (A)
5. State and explain Lenz’s law in electromagnetic induction. (U)
6. Mention two methods of reducing eddy currents. (K)
7. Mention any two applications of eddy currents. (K)
8. The magnetic flux linked with a coil changes from 12 x 10-3 Wb (Tm2) to 6x10-3Wb in 0.01 second.
Calculate the induced emf in the coil. (A)
9. Give the expression for mutual inductance induced between two co-axial solenoids and explain the
terms. (K)
10. Give an expression for self-inductance of a coil and explain the terms. (K)
11. Draw a neat labeled diagram of AC generator. (S)

1. Describe coil and magnet experiment of Faraday and Henry to demonstrate electromagnetic
induction phenomena. (U)
2. Describe coil and coil experiment of Faraday and Henry to demonstrate electromagnetic induction.
(U)
3. Describe the experiment of two stationary coils carried out by Faraday and Henry to demonstrate
electromagnetic induction. (U)
4. Derive the expression for motional emf in a conducting rod moving in uniform magnetic field. (U)
5. Arrive at the expression for motional emf induced by considering Lorentz force acting on free charge
carriers of a conductor. (U)
6. Mention any three applications of eddy currents. (K)
7. Derive an expression for the charge flowing through a circuit when there is a change in the magnetic
flux linked with it. (U)
8. Obtain the expression for co-efficient of mutual inductance between two co-axial solenoids. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
9. Deduce the expression for self-inductance of a coil. (U)

10. Arrive at the expression for the emf induced in a coil due to varying current in the same coil. (U)
11. Obtain the expression for energy stored in an inductor. (U)
12. Explain the working of an AC generator with a neat labeled diagram. (S)
Five mark questions

1. Show that Lenz’s law is in accordance (consistent) with the law of conservation of energy.(U)
2. What are eddy currents? Mention its applications. (K)
3. A straight conductor is moving in a uniform time independent magnetic field. Show that the
mechanical energy needed to move the rod is converted into electrical energy and then to thermal
energy. [or] show that the power dissipated in a rod moving in a uniform magnetic field is
where r=resistance of the conductor. (U)
4. Describe the construction and working of AC generator with a labeled diagram and hence arrive at
the expression for the instantaneous value of emf induced in it. (S)
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. A circular coil of 100 turns, 0.2m radius has a resistance of 100Ω is held at right angles to a uniform
magnetic field of 2T. it is then turned through 450 about an axis at right angles to the field. Calculate
the charge induced in the coil. (A) [73.5X10-3]
-2
2. The electric current in a circuit varies from +2A to -2A in a time interval of 10 s.another coil of
resistance 20Ω and inductance 2H is placed near it. Find the induced current in the second coil. (A)
[40A]
3. A solenoid of radius 2.5cm, length 0.5m has 500 turns per centimeter. If a current of 1A is set up in
the solenoid calculate the magnetic flux through the solenoid. (A) [3Wb]
2
4. An iron core is inserted into a solenoid of length 0.5m, area of cross-section 0.001m and 400 turns
per unit length. Find the permeability of the core if 5A of current produces a magnetic flux of 1.6X10-
3
Wb through it. (A) [636.94]
5. A vertical copper disc of diameter 20cm makes 10 revolutions per second about a horizontal axis
passing through its center. A uniform magnetic field 10-2T acts perpendicular to the plane of the
disc. Calculate the potential difference between its center and rim. (A)
[3.14X10-3V]
*****************************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Chapter- 7.
ALTERNATING CURRENT
One mark questions
1. What is the phase angle between current and voltage across a resistor when AC is applied to a
pure resistor? (K)
2. Draw a graph representing current and voltage across a resistor when AC is applied to a pure
resistor. (S)
3. Define root mean square value of current or voltage. (U)
4. Write the expression for the power dissipated in the resistor when AC is passed through it. (K)
5. How the RMS value and peak value of current /voltage are related? (U)
6. If the peak value of current is 1.41A, then what is the value of root mean square current? (A)
7. What is a phasor diagram in AC circuits? (U)
8. How does the bandwidth of LCR series circuit vary with quality factor? (U)
9. Define power factor in an AC circuit. (U)
10. What is wattles current? (U)
11. The peak voltage of an AC supply is 300 V. What is the RMS voltage? (A)
12. Write the expression for inductive reactance in terms of frequency of AC applied. (K)
13. Write the expression for capacitive reactance in terms of frequency of AC applied. (K)
14. What is the value of average power supplied to an inductor in one complete cycle of AC? (K)
15. What is the power factor of an AC circuit containing a pure inductor? (K)
16. What is the power factor of an AC circuit containing only capacitor? (K)
17. What is the power factor of an AC circuit containing only pure resistor? (K)
18. Draw impedance diagram of a series LCR circuit. (S)
19. Give the expression for power factor in an AC circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a
resistor in series. (K)
20. What is electrical resonance in RLC series circuit? (U)
21. Define resonant frequency of an RLC series circuit. (U)
22. Define band width of LCR series circuit. (U)
23. Write the expression for Q factor or quality factor of an AC circuit. (K)
24. An AC source is connected to a 3pF capacitor and 3Ω resistor in series. Can we have resonance
phenomena in it? (K)
25. The power factor of an AC circuit is 0.5. What is the phase angle between voltage and current in
the circuit? (A)
26. What is an ideal transformer? (K)
27. On what principle a transformer works? (K)
28. The number of turns in the primary of a transformer is greater than the number of turns in the
secondary. Does the voltage steps-up or steps down in it? (U)
29. What is a step-up transformer? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
30. What is a step-down transformer? (K)

31. What is the reactance of an inductor in a dc circuit carrying a steady current? (K)
32. Why voltage is stepped up in large scale transmission? (U)
33. Which physical quantity in electrical system is analogue to ‘mass’ of the mechanical system? (U)
Two mark questions

1. Mention any two advantages of AC over DC. (K)
2. What is quality factor in an LCR series circuit? Give the expression for it. (K)
3. Write the expression for resonant frequency of RLC series circuit and explain the terms. (K)
4. Give the expression for quality factor in a RLC series circuit. Explain the symbols used. (K)
5. Alternating current is represented by the equation I = I0 Sin(314)t . Find the value of frequency
of AC. (A)
6. Write any two differences between inductive reactance and capacitive reactance. (U)
7. Give any two differences between step- up transformer and step- down transformer. (U)
8. An AC source of voltage is connected to an ideal inductor. Draw phasor diagram
for the circuit. (S)
9. What is the phase difference between voltage and current when an AC is connected to a
capacitor? Represent it using phasor diagram. (S)
10. What is the phase difference between voltage and current when an AC is connected to an
inductor? Represent it using phasor diagram. (S)
11. What is the phase difference between voltage and current when an AC is connected to a
resistor? Represent it using phasor diagram. (S)
12. Draw a graph of variation of voltage and current versus ωt in case of an inductor connected to
an AC source. (S)
13. Draw a graph of variation of voltage and current versus ωt in case of a resistor connected to an
AC source. (S)
14. Draw a graph of variation of voltage and current versus ωt in case of an inductor connected to
an AC source. (S)
15. What is capacitive reactance? Give the expression for it in terms of frequency of applied AC.(K)
16. What is inductive reactance? Give the expression for it in terms of frequency of applied AC. (K)
17. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its
primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in
order to get output power at 230 V? (A)
18. A charged 30 μF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH inductor. What is the angular frequency of
free oscillations of the circuit? (A)

1. Derive the expression for current in case of AC applied to a pure resistor. (U)
2. Obtain the expression for current in case of AC applied to an inductor. (U)
3. Derive the expression for current through a capacitor when AC is applied. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
4. Show that the average power over one complete cycle is zero in case of a capacitor connected in
series with AC. (A)
5. Derive the expression for the average power dissipated in a series RLC circuit. (U)
6. What is resonance in LCR series circuit? Obtain the expression for resonant frequency of it. (U)
7. Give the theory of LC oscillator. (U)
8. Explain how an LC circuit behaves as an oscillator. (U)
9. Define band width of LCR series circuit. Give an expression for band width explaining terms
used. (U)
10. Mention any three energy losses in a transformer. (K)
11. Explain how power is dissipated by writing the expression for power factor in case of (i) pure
inductive or capacitive (ii) series LCR (iii) series LCR at resonance circuits. (U)
Five mark questions

1. Show that the relation between AC current and AC voltage in case of AC applied to a resistor is
similar to that in the DC applied to it. (U)
2. Derive the expression for instantaneous current when AC voltage is applied to a pure inductor.
Draw phasor diagram for the circuit and represent graphically. (S)
3. Show that the instantaneous value of current is 900 ahead of voltage in case of AC applied to a
capacitor. Represent it graphically. (S)
4. Derive the expression for impedance and hence the current of an RLC series circuit connected to
an AC using phasor diagram. (U)
5. Show that average power over a complete cycle in a pure inductor connected to an AC source is
zero. (A)
6. Derive the expression for quality factor of a series RLC circuit connected to AC source. (U)
7. Give the construction and working of a transformer. (U)
8. What is a transformer? Mention the energy losses of a transformer. (K)
Numerical problems
1. A 50Ω resistor, 0.5H inductor and 200µF capacitor are connected in series with 220V and 50Hz
source. Find the impedance of the circuit and hence the current. (A) [149.7Ω, 1.47A]
2. A current of 4A flows in a coil when connected to a 12V d.c.source. if the same coil is connected
to 12V, 50Hz a.c. source, a current of 2.4A flows in the circuit. Calculate the self-inductance of
the coil. (A) [80mH]
3. A resistance of 10Ω is connected in series with an inductor of inductance 0.5H. These two are
connected to 200V, 50Hz a.c. source. Calculate the capacitance that should be put in series with
the combination to obtain the maximum current? Also find the current through the circuit. (A)
[20.24µF, 20A]
4. A source of 220V, 40Hz is connected to a series combination of 6Ω resistor, 0.01H inductor.
Calculate the phase angle and the power factor of the circuit. (A) [22042’, 0.92]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
5. In a step-down transformer having primary to secondary turns ratio 20:1, the input voltage
applied is 250V and output current is 8A. Assuming 100% efficiency calculate (i) voltage across
the secondary coil, (ii) current in primary coil (iii) output power. (A) [12.5V, 0.4A, 100W]
*******************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-8
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
One mark questions
1. Who has experimentally demonstrated the existence of electromagnetic waves? (K)
2. Name the scientist who argued that electric field changing with time gives rise to magnetic field.(K)
3. Which set of equations mathematically express all the basic laws of electromagnetism? (K)
4. Which is the most important prediction to emerge from Maxwell's equations?(K)
5. Whose work unified the domain of electricity, magnetism and light.(K)
6. What is displacement current?(K)
7. What modification was made by Maxwell in Ampere's circuital law?(U)
8. What is conduction current?(K)
9. Name the law associated with the following equation ∮ 0ic + 0ε0 (U)
10. What is the unit of displacement current?(K)
11. How electromagnetic waves are produced?(U)
12. Give an example for an accelerating charge.(K)
13. Name the Indian physicist who has worked in the field of production of electromagnetic wave.(K)
14. Mention the invention made by Indian physicist J.C.Bose in the field of electromagnetic waves. (K)
15. What is the angle between electric field vector and magnetic field vector of electromagnetic
waves?(K)
16. What is the angle between electric field vector / magnetic field vector with the direction of
propagation in an electromagnetic wave?(K)
17. What is the direction of magnetic field in a capacitor?(U)
18. What is the direction of electric field in a capacitor?(U)
19. Mention the expression for the speed of propagation of electromagnetic waves in free space in
terms of permittivity and permeability of free space. (K)
20. Mention the expression for the speed of propagation of electromagnetic waves in a material
medium.(K)
21. What is the source of an electromagnetic wave? (K)
22. Who proposed electromagnetic wave theory? (K)
23. Write the expression for the displacement current.(U)
24. What are electromagnetic waves?(K)
25. Name the hypothetical medium assumed for the propagation of transverse waves.(K)
26. Whose experiment demolished the hypothesis of ether?(K)
27. Is a material medium essential for the propagation of electromagnetic waves?(K)
28. Do electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum?(U)
29. What is radiation pressure?(U)
30. Write the expression for momentum transferred by an electromagnetic wave if it is absorbed
completely?(U)
31. Why do we feel warmth when exposed to sunlight?(U)
32. In which field the great technological importance of the property of electromagnetic waves carrying
energy is used? (K)
33. What is an electromagnetic spectrum?(K)
34. What are electromagnetic waves?(K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
35. Arrange IR rays, Gamma rays, visible rays, X- rays in increasing order of wave length.(U)
36. Arrange Micro waves, Gamma rays, visible rays, X- rays in increasing order of frequency.(U)
37. Name the electromagnetic radiation having highest frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum. (U)
38. Name the electromagnetic radiation with highest Wave length.(U)
39. Name the electromagnetic radiation with lowest frequency. (U)
40. Name the electromagnetic radiation with lowest wave length.(U)
41. What is the wave length range of visible light?(K)
42. How are radio waves produced?(U)
43. Mention one application of radio waves.(K)
44. How are micro waves produced?(U)
45. Name the domestic application of micro waves.(K)
46. How are IR waves produced?(U)
47. Name a source of UV rays?(K)
48. What is the harmful effect of UV rays? (K)
49. Why one should not continuously get exposed to U-V radiation? (U)
50. Why, one cannot get tanned or sun burn through glass window?(U)
51. Why do welders wear special glass goggles or face masks while in their work?(A)
52. Expand LASIK.(U)
53. What is the role of ozone layer in the atmosphere?(A)
54. How are X- rays produced?(U)
55. Give one use of Gamma rays.(K)
56. Mention the application of X-rays. (K)
57. How are gamma rays produced?(U)
Two mark questions
1. Distinguish between conduction current and displacement current. (U)

2. What is displacement current? Write the expression for displacement current.(K)
3. After the discovery of displacement currents what was the generalisation made by Maxwell? (U)
4. State Ampere-Maxwell law. Write its mathematical form.(K)
5. What was Marconi’s invention in electromagnetic waves? What for it is used now?(U)
6. Why it was not easy to demonstrate experimentally electromagnetic waves existence?(U)
7. Write the equations representing electric and magnetic fields of electromagnetic waves. (U)
8. Briefly explain, how does an accelerating charge act as a source of an electromagnetic wave? (U)
9. Write the expression for the speed of electromagnetic wave in (a) vacuum and (b)a material
medium in terms of electric permittivity and magnetic permeability . (K)
10. Obtain the relation between wavelength, frequency ad speed of electromagnetic wave. (K)
11. Give any two uses of radio waves.(K)
12. Write any two uses of micro waves.(K)
13. Give any two uses of IR-waves(K)
14. Mention any two uses of UV waves.(K)
15. Explain briefly the inconsistency in Ampere's circuital law.(U)
16. State any two properties of displacement current.(K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS

1. Why Maxwell suggested about displacement current? (U)
2. What are the predictions of Maxwell from Maxwell’s equations? (K)
3. Explain clearly how Maxwell was led to predict the existence of electromagnetic waves. (U)
4. What are the contributions of Hertz in the field of electromagnetic waves? (K)
5. Write any three properties of electromagnetic waves. (K)
6. Name the main parts of the electromagnetic spectrum giving their wavelength range or frequency
range (U)
7. Mention Maxwell's equations. (U)
8. Write any three applications of IR rays.(K)
9. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 97.2 K Hz travels in free space along x-direction.
Calculate the magnetic field at a point in space and time where the electric field is 9.6 Vm-1 in y-axis.
(A) [3.2X10-8 T]
10. Light from a source incident on a non-reflecting surface of area 25 cm2 for about 20 minutes. If the
energy flux of light is 20Wcm-2 calculate the total momentum absorbed for complete absorption. (A)
[ 2X10-3 Kgms-1]
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QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER -9
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
One mark questions
1. Mention the wavelength range of electromagnetic waves which can be detected by human eye.(K)
2. Give the wavelength range of visible light. (K)
3. In which medium the speed of light has maximum value? (K)
4. Give the value of speed of light in air/vacuum up to three decimal places accuracy. (U)
5. Define pole of a mirror. (U)
6. Define principal axis of a mirror. (U)
7. Define principal focus of a mirror. (U)
8. Define focal length of spherical mirror. (U)
9. Draw the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave mirror with object between P and F.
(S)
10. Draw the ray diagram for the formation of image by a convex mirror with object between P and
F.(S)
11. What is refraction of light? (K)
12. A ray of light travels from denser medium to rarer medium. If the angle of incidence is zero then
what is the angle of refraction? (U)
13. What happens to speed of light when a ray of light travels from air to glass? (U)
14. Does the frequency of light change when it travels from one optical medium to another optical
medium? (K)
15. The speed of light in a medium is 2X108 ms-1. What is the refractive index of that medium? (A)
16. State Snell’s law of refraction. (K)
17. Write the formula for refractive index of the material for normal refraction. (U)
18. When is Snell’s law of refraction not valid?
OR For what angle of incidence Snell’s law is not valid? (U)
19. Refractive index of carbon disulphide and glass are 1.63 and 1.5 respectively. Which is optically
denser? (U)
20. Two optical media of refractive indices n1 and n2 contain x and y waves of the same colour in the
same thickness. What is the relative refractive Index n21? (U)
21. Is the optical density and material density the same? (U)
22. Is speed of light same in all optical media? (K)
23. What happens to a ray of light when it travels from optically rarer to denser medium? (K)
24. Define critical angle of a medium. (U)
25. What is the angle of refraction for a light ray if it incident at critical angle from denser medium? (U)
26. For which colour of light refractive index of a medium is minimum? (U)
27. For which colour of light refractive index of a medium is maximum? (U)
28. For which colour of light critical angle is minimum when light passes from glass to air? (U)
29. What is total internal reflection? (K)
30. Mention the relation between refractive index and critical angle of a medium. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
31. A water tank is viewed first normally and then obliquely. Are the apparent depths the same in both
the cases? (U)
32. On what principle an optical fibre works? (K)
33. The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal to its radius of curvature. What is the value of
refractive index of the material of lens? (A)
34. Two converging lenses of equal focal lengths are placed in contact. What is the focal length of the
combination? (A)
35. Define power of a lens. (U)
36. Write the relation between power and focal length of a lens. (K)
37. Two lenses one converging and other diverging lens each of focal length f are placed in contact.
What is the power of the combination? (U)
38. Three lenses of powers +1D, -1D & +2D are kept in contact. What is the effective power of the
combination? (A)
39. Write the expression for the power of number of thin lenses in contact. (K)
40. Define linear magnification of a lens. (U)
41. Write the expression for linear magnification of a lens in terms of object distance and image
distance. (U)
42. An object is kept at a distance of 10cm from a lens whose magnification is 1.5. At what distance
from the lens image if formed? (A)
43. What is dispersion of light? (K)
44. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering. (K)
45. Name the phenomenon involved in the formation of rainbow in the sky. (K)
46. How does the sky appear when viewed (What would be the colour of sky) in the absence of
atmosphere? (U)
47. What is accommodation of eye? (U)
48. Define least distance of distinct vision? (U)
49. For normal vision what is the value of least distance of distinct vision? (K)
50. How to rectify myopia or near sightedness? (K)
51. How to correct hyper metropia or far sightedness? (K)
52. How to correct astigmatism defect in eye? (K)
53. Mention any one quality of a good refracting telescope. (K)
54. Define resolving power of an optical instrument. (U)
55. Where do we find the world’s largest objective lens refracting type telescope? (K)
56. The largest telescope of India is situated in which place? (K)
Two mark questions
1. Write mirror equation and explain the terms. (K)
2. State the laws of reflection (K)
3. State the laws of refraction. (K)
4. Draw the ray diagram for Lateral shift of a ray refracted through a parallel-sided glass slab. (S)
5. If a glass rod is put in a beaker containing a colorless liquid, the rod immediately seems to
disappear. What is the reason for this? Explain. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
6. A parallel sided slab is introduced in the path of converging beam of light. What will happen to the
point of convergence and why? (U)
7. A properly cut diamond sparkles but a similarly cut glass does not sparkle. Give Reason. (U)
8. Explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection. (U)
9. Mention the conditions for total internal reflection to occur. (K)
10. With the help of a diagram show how to bend rays of light by 900 using total internal reflecting
prisms. (S)
11. Represent with a diagram how to invert the image without changing its size using total internal
reflecting prism. (S)
12. Draw a diagram to represent the bending of light rays by 1800 using total internal reflecting prism.
(S)
13. Why does the surface of an air bubble inside water or glass shine when light falls on it? (U)
14. A man is standing very near a swimming pool looks at a stone lying at the bottom. The depth of
pool is ‘d’. At what distance from the surface of water (R.I. = n) is the image of the stone formed?
(U)
15. Mention any two uses of optical fibres.(K)
16. Why sunglasses have zero power even though their surfaces are curved? (U)
17. Name any two factors affecting focal length of a lens. (K)
18. Can convergent lens in one medium behave as a divergent lens in another medium? Explain. (U)
19. Write lens maker’s formula and explain the terms. (K)
20. Define power of a lens. Mention the expression for it. (U)
21. What is the SI unit of power? Define the SI unit of power of a lens. (U)
22. Define linear magnification and give the expression for linear magnification produced by a thin lens
in terms of object distance and image distance. (U)
23. Draw a neat labeled ray diagram representing the dispersion of white light by a prism. (S)
24. Draw a neat labeled ray diagram for the refraction of monochromatic light by a prism. (S)
25. Represent graphically the variation of angle of deviation with angle of incidence in case of a
triangular prism. (S)
26. Draw a Schematic diagram of Newton’s classic experiment on dispersion of white light through two
prisms. (S)
27. A ray of composite light passes through a prism. Which colour is (a) most deviated and (b) least
deviated? (U)
28. Write the expression for the refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of the angle of
the prism and the angle of minimum deviation, and explain the terms. (U)
29. Which colour of light has maximum speed in (i) free space (ii) glass? (U)
30. According to Rayleigh scattering for which colour, intensity, is (a) highest and (b) least? (U)
31. Why does sun appear red at dawn and dusk? (U)
32. Why does sky appear blue? Explain. (U)
33. Why sea appears blue? Explain. (U)
34. What is hyper metropia? How can it be corrected? (K)
35. What is myopia? How can it be corrected? (K)
36. What is Astigmatism? How can it be corrected? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
37. Explain how rainbow is formed in nature. (U)

38. What are the conditions for the formation of a rainbow? (K)
39. Draw the ray diagram for the formation of primary rainbow. (S)
40. Draw the ray diagram for the formation of secondary rainbow. (S)
41. Give two differences between primary rainbow and secondary rainbow. (U)
42. Draw a neat labeled ray diagram for the image formation by a simple microscope. (S)
43. Mention the expression for the magnifying power of a simple microscope when the image is
formed at near point, and explain the terms. (K)
44. Mention two optical instruments in which a system of combination of lenses is used? (K)
45. Give the expression for (a) tube length and (b) magnifying power of the refracting telescope.(K)
46. Draw a neat labeled ray diagram of an astronomical (reflecting) telescope. (S)
47. Give any two advantages of reflecting telescope over refracting telescope. (U)
48. Find the refractive index of a medium which has a critical angle of 45o. (A) [Ans.: n=√ ]
49. If the focal length of a glass lens = 20 cm, find the power of the lens? (A) [Ans.: 5 D]
50. A concave mirror of focal length 1 cm produces a real image 10 times the size of the object. What is
the distance of the object from the mirror? (A) [Ans.: 1.1cm]

1. Explain the Cartesian sign conventions used for measuring the distances in case of spherical
surfaces. (K)
2. Obtain the relation between focal length (f) and radius of curvature(R) of a mirror
OR show that f = R/2 for a mirror. (U)
3. Define critical angle and write the two conditions for total internal reflection to occur. (U)
4. Obtain the relation between refractive index and critical angle for a medium. (U)
5. Mention three illustrations of total internal reflection. (K)
6. Describe the demonstration of the phenomena of total internal reflection of light using a glass
beaker. (U)
7. With the help of ray diagram write the significance of Newton’s classic experiment on dispersion of
white light. (S)
8. Explain why sky is blue in colour. (U)
9. Why sun appears red at rise and set? Explain. (U)
10. Briefly explain the formation of mirage with a schematic diagram. (S)
11. Explain the function of human eye when light incident on it. (U)
12. Which are the common defects of human eye, how to rectify them? (K)
13. Obtain the expression for linear magnification of a simple microscope. (U)
14. Derive the expression for the angular magnification of a simple microscope. (U)
15. Deduce the expression for magnification of a compound microscope. (U)
16. Write any three distinguishing properties between refracting and reflecting type telescopes. (U)
17. What is a thin prism? Write the expression for the deviation produced by a thin prism. Explain the
symbols.(K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Five mark questions

1. Derive the mirror equation in the case of real and inverted image formed by a concave mirror. (U)
2. Derive the relation between object distance (u) and image distance (v) in terms of refractive index of
the medium (n) and the radius of curvature(R) of the spherical surface.
OR Obtain the relation between u, v, R and n for spherical surface. (U)
3. Briefly explain the principle, construction and working of optical fibres. (U)
4. Derive Lens maker’s formula for a double convex lens. (U)
5. Obtain the expression for the refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of the angle of
the prism and the angle of minimum deviation. (U)
6. Define focal length of a lens. Derive the expression for equivalent focal length of combination of two
thin convex lenses in contact. (U)
7. Which phenomenon is responsible for the formation of rainbow? Explain in detail the formation of
rainbow. (U)
8. With neat labeled ray diagram of a simple microscope for the image formation, briefly explain its
working and write the expression for its magnification when the image is at near point. (S)(U)
9. With neat labeled ray diagram of a compound microscope explain briefly its working and mention
the expression for its magnification when the final image is formed at (i) near point and (ii) at
infinity. (S)(U)
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. A candle is held 6 cm away from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 24cm. Where does the
image formed? What is the nature of the image?(A) [ v=12cm virtual and magnified erect image ]
2. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm. from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, by how much distance is the image
displaced? (A) [ v’= – 60cm]
3. A car has a convex mirror as its side mirror of focal length 30 cm. A second car is 5m behind the first
car. Find the position of the second car as seen in the mirror of first car. (A) [ 0.28m]
4. A ball is approaching a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm with speed 20 m/s. Calculate the speed
of its image when the ball was at 5 m from the mirror? (A) [ 0.064 m s−1]
5. A convex lens has a focal length of 0.3 m in air. Calculate its focal length when it is immersed in
water. Given that refractive index of water = 4/3 and refractive index of glass = 3/2. (A) [ 1.2m]
6. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 60 cm.
What is the area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out?
Refractive index of water is 1.33. (Consider the bulb to be a point source.) (A) [1.47m2]
7. A transparent cube of side 15 cm contains an air bubble in it. When viewed normally through one
face, the bubble appears to be at 6 cm from the surface. When viewed normally through the
opposite face the distance appears to be 4 cm. Find the actual distance of the bubble from the
second face and the refractive index of the material of the cube. (A) [ 6 cm, n = 1.5]
o
8. Find the refractive index of the material of a prism of angle 59 42’, if the angle of minimum
deviation produced for a particular colour of light is 39o 28’. Also find angle of incidence. (A)
[ n=1.53 and i =49o 35’ ]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
9. Find the angle of minimum deviation produced by an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.55. Also
find the angle of minimum deviation when the prism is completely immersed in water (n=1.33). (A)
[ Dm=410 36’ and Dm’=110 16’]
10. A ray light is incident on one face of an equilateral prism of glass of refractive index 1.55 at an angle
of 40o. Calculate the angle of deviation produced by the prism. For what other angle of incidence,
the deviation will be the same? (A) [ 44o 16’]
11. A convex lens of focal length 0.24 m and of refractive index 1.5 is completely immersed in water of
refractive index 1.33. Find the change in focal length of the lens (A) [ 0.70 m]
12. A convex lens of focal length 0.25 m is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal length 0.15m.
Calculate the focal length and power of the combination.(A) [ –0.375m and – 2.667 diopter]
13. An image of height 2cm is formed by a convex lens when an object of height 8cm is placed at a
distance of 80cm from it. Find the focal length and power of the lens. (A)
[f = 16 cm=0.16m and P = 6.25D]
14. A compound microscope has objective lens and eye−piece of focal lengths 5cm and 8 cm
respectively. If an object is placed at a distance of 8 cm from the objective, then find the
magnification produced by the microscope when the final image at near point. (A) [ -6.88]
**********************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER- 10
WAVE OPTICS
One mark questions
1. Who gave the corpuscular model for light before Newton? (K)
2. What was the drawback of corpuscular theory of light? (K)
3. Who proposed wave theory of light? (K)
4. Who proved experimentally that the speed of light in denser medium is less than in rarer medium?
(K)
5. Which model of light predicted that the speed of light in denser medium is less than in rarer
medium? (K)
6. Why wave theory of light was not readily accepted in the beginning? (U)
7. Who experimentally proved the wave nature of light? (K)
8. Which experiment proved the wave theory of light? (K)
9. Who proposed electromagnetic theory of light? (K)
10. What is the nature of light waves according to Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory of light? (K)
11. Define a wave front. (U)
12. What is the shape of a wave front obtained from a point source? (K)
13. Which type of wave front is obtained by a point source at a very large distance? (K)
14. To get a cylindrical wave front what should be the shape of the light source? (K)
15. What is the shape of the wave front obtained from a distant star? (K)
16. Which type of wave front is obtained when a plane wave is reflected by a concave mirror? (K)
17. State Huygens’ Principle. (K)
18. Name the physicist who experimentally studied the interference of light for the first time. (K)
19. State the principle of superposition of waves. (U)
20. What is interference of light? (K)
21. What is constructive interference of light? (U)
22. What is destructive interference of light? (U)
23. Define fringe width of interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment. (U)
24. Write the expression for fringe width of interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment.(K)
25. What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double-slit experiment when the
monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light? (U)
26. How does the fringe width of interference pattern vary with the wavelength of incident light? (K)
27. How does the fringe width of interference pattern vary with the intensity of incident light? (K)
28. Draw the graph of the intensity distribution of light in Young’s double-slit experiment. (S)
29. Instead of using two slits as in Young’s experiment, if two separate but identical sodium lamps are
used, what is the result on interference pattern? (U)
30. Does longitudinal wave exhibit the phenomenon of interference? (K)
31. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water, what will be the effect on the fringe width?
(U)
32. In which direction the energy of the light wave travels with respect to the wave front? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
33. Do the backward moving wave fronts exist in Huygens wave model for light? (K)
34. Young’s double slit experiment is performed using red light. If red light is replaced by blue light,
what is the effect on the fringe width of interference pattern? (K)
35. What happens to the fringe width of interference pattern when the distance of separation between
two slits is doubled in Young’s experiment? (U)
36. The distance between the slits and the screen in Young’s double slit experiment is doubled. What
happens to the fringe width? (U)
37. Let the fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment be . What is the fringe width if the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled and slit separation is halved?(U)
38. What is the intensity of light due to constructive interference in Young’s double slit experiment if the
intensity of light emerging from each slit is Io? (U)
39. In a single slit diffraction experiment if the width of the slit is doubled what happens to the width of
the central diffraction band? (U)
40. Name a phenomenon which confirms the wave nature of light. (K)
41. What is diffraction of light? (K)
42. Which colour of light undergoes diffraction to the maximum extent? (U)
43. How will the diffraction pattern due to a single slit change if violet light replaces green light? (U)
44. Do all types of waves exhibit diffraction or only light waves? (K)
45. What happens to the resolving power of an optical instrument when the wavelength of light used is
increased? (U)
46. Define the resolving power of an optical instrument. (U)
47. Write the expression for limit of resolution of telescope. (K)
48. How can resolving power of telescope be increased? (U)
49. Name a factor which affects the resolving power of a microscope. (K)
50. Mention the expression for limit of resolution of microscope. (K)
51. Express Doppler shift in terms of wavelength of light used. (K)
52. Write the formula for the Doppler shift in terms of frequency of light used. (K)
53. Give one application of the study of Doppler effect in light. (U)
54. Which phenomenon confirms the transverse wave nature of light? (K)
55. What is polarization of light? (K)
56. What is pass axis of the Polaroid? (K)
57. By what percentage the intensity of light decreases when an ordinary unpolarised (like from sodium
lamp) light is passed through a Polaroid sheet? (K)
58. The intensity of incident light on a Polaroid P1 is I. What is the intensity of light crossing another
Polaroid P2 when the pass-axis of P2 makes an angle 90o with the pass-axis of P1? (U)
59. What should be the angle between the pass axes of two Polaroids to get the maximum intensity of
transmitted light form the second Polaroid? (U)
60. State Brewster’s Law. (K)
61. Define Brewster’s angle (OR polarising angle). (U)
62. Write the relation between refractive index of a medium (reflector) and polarising angle. (K)
63. The intensity of light incident on a polariser is I and that of the light emerging from it is also I.
Is the incident light polarised or unpolarised? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
64. A ray of light is incident at polarising angle on a glass plate. What is the angle between the reflected
ray and refracted ray? (U)
65. What is partially polarised light? (K)
66. When can we have total transmission of light through a prism? (K)
67. Does the polarising angle depend on the refractive index of that medium? (K)
Two mark questions
1. Name the two theories of light in support of its wave nature. (K)
2. What are coherent sources? Give an example. (K)
3. Can two sodium vapour lamps be considered as coherent sources? Justify your answer. (U)
4. Which of the two, red and yellow produces wider interference fringes? Why? (U)
5. Name any two factors affecting fringe width of interference pattern in Young’s double slit
experiment. (K)
6. Is it possible to conclude that light is either transverse or longitudinal wave from interference
phenomenon? Justify your answer. (U)
7. Write the conditions for constructive and destructive interference in terms of path difference of
interfering waves. (U)
8. Mention the conditions for constructive interference in terms of path difference and phase
difference. (U)
9. Write the conditions for constructive and destructive interference in terms of phase difference of
interfering waves. (U)
10. Mention the conditions for destructive interference in terms of path difference and phase
difference of interfering waves. (U)
11. We do not encounter diffraction effects of light in everyday observations. Explain why? (U)
12. Why diffraction effects due to sound waves are more noticeable than due to light waves? (U)
13. Explain how the principle of conservation of energy is consistent with interference and diffraction
phenomena of light. (U)
14. Mention the conditions for diffraction minima and maxima in diffraction due to single slit. (K)
15. Represent graphically the variation of intensity of light due to diffraction at single slit. (S)
16. Give any two methods of increasing the resolving power of a microscope. (K)
17. What is Fresnel distance? Write its expression. (K)
18. What is red shift? What is its significance? (U)
19. What is blue shift? When does it occur? (U)
20. Write the mathematical expression for Malus law and explain the terms. (K)
21. Diagrammatically represent polarised light and unpolarised light. (S)
22. Mention any two methods of producing plane polarised light. (K)
23. Write any two uses of Polaroids. (K)
24. An unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass surface. Find the angle of incidence so that the
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other? (For glass n = 1.5). (A)
OR Give the value of Brewster angle for air to glass transmission of light if the refractive index of
glass is 1.5. (A) [Ans.: 56o18’]
25. The polarising angle for a medium is 520. Find its critical angle? (A) [Ans.: 51.4o]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
26. Brewster’s angle for a certain medium is 52o. Find the refractive index of the medium? (A)
[Ans.: n = 1.48]
27. The refractive index of certain glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in vacuum is 600nm. Find the
wavelength of this light in glass? (A) [Ans.: 400nm]

1. Who solved the major drawback of Huygens’s wave theory? Explain how it was solved. (U)
2. Using Huygens wave theory of light, show that the angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection
in case of reflection of a plane wave by a plane surface. (U)
3. Using Huygens principle show that the frequency of light wave remains the same when light travels
from one optical medium to another. (U)
4. Draw diagram representing refraction of a plane wave incident on a rarer medium from a denser
medium, and explain critical angle and total internal reflection. (S) (U)
5. Illustrate with the help of suitable diagram, the refraction of a plane wave by (i) a thin prism (ii) a
convex lens and reflection by a concave mirror. (S)
6. What is Doppler’s effect in light? Write the formula for the Doppler shift. Where it is used? (U)
7. Briefly describe Young’s double slit experiment with the help of a schematic diagram. (U) (S)
8. Give the theory of interference of light. (U)
9. Arrive at the condition for constructive and destructive interference in terms of phase difference
between the two waves. (U)
10. What is the effect on (i) the angular fringe width (ii) the linear fringe width in Young’s double-slit
experiment due to each of the following operations:
(a) The screen is moved away from the plane of the slits
(b) One monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of shorter wavelength
and
(c) The separation between the two slits is increased? (U)
11. Why interference pattern cannot be seen when pin hole of young’s double slit experiment is
illuminated by two identical but separate sodium sources? Explain (U)
12. How to get two coherent sources of light? Why they are said to be coherent? (U)
13. Compare the interference pattern of light obtained by young’s double slit experiment with
diffraction pattern due to single slit. (U)
14. Obtain the expression for limit of resolution of microscope. (U)
15. Briefly explain Polarization by reflection with the help of a diagram. (U) (S)
16. With the help of a diagram explain how polarised sun light is produced by scattering. (U) (S)
17. Show that the refractive index of a reflector is equal to tangent of the polarising angle.
OR show that OR Arrive at Brewster’s law. (U)
18. What are Polaroids? Mention any two uses of Polaroids. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Five mark questions

1. Using Huygens’s wave theory of light, derive Snell’s law of refraction. (U)
2. Obtain the expressions for resultant displacement and amplitude when two light waves having same
amplitude and a phase difference  superpose. Hence give the conditions for constructive and
destructive interference in terms of path difference/phase difference.
OR
Give the theory of interference. Hence arrive at the conditions for constructive and destructive
interferences in terms of path difference/phase difference. (U)
3. Derive the expression for the width of interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment. (U)
4. Explain the phenomenon of diffraction of light due to a single slit and mention the conditions for
diffraction minima and maxima. (U)
5. State Brewster’s law and arrive at it. (U)
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
1. Light is incident on a glass plate at an angle of 60o. The reflected and refracted rays are mutually
perpendicular to each other. Calculate the refractive index of the material of the plate? (A)
[ n = 1.732]
2. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are separated by 2.8 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m
away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be
1.2 mm. Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment. Also find the distance of fifth
dark fringe from the central bright fringe. (A) [ 600nm and 1.35mm]
3. A beam of unpolarised is incident on an arrangement of two Polaroids successively. If the angle
between the pass axes of the two Polaroids is 600, then what percentage of light intensity emerges
out of the second Polaroid sheet? (A) [ 12.5%]
4. An optical instrument resolves two points at a distance from it using light of wavelengths 450nm
and 600nm, find the ratio of their respective resolving powers.(A) [ 4:3]
5. A monochromatic light of wavelength 700 nm is incident on a 3.5 mm wide aperture. Find the
distance up to which the ray of light can travel so that its spread is less than the size of the aperture.
(A) [17.5 m]
6. Assume that light of wavelength 5000Å is coming from a star. What is the limit of resolution and
resolving power of a telescope whose objective has a diameter of 200 inch? (A)
[ 1.210–7 rad and 0.83107]
7. In Young’s double slit experiment the two slits are 0.3 mm apart and are illuminated by a light of
wavelength 650 nm. Calculate the distance of (i) the 3rd dark and (ii) 5th bright fringes from the mid-
point in the interference pattern obtained on a screen 1.2 m away from the slits. (A)
` [ (i) 6.5mm (ii) 13 mm]
8. In Young’s double slit experiment, fringes of certain width are produced on the screen kept at a
certain distance from the slits. When the screen is moved away from the slits by 0.1m, fringe width
increases by 6 10–5 m. The separation between the slits is 1 mm. Calculate the wavelength of the
light used. (A) [ 600nm]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
9. In Young’s double slit experiment, distances between 2nd and 10th bright fringes for a light of
wavelength 486nm is same as that of the distance between 3rd and 9th bright fringes for the light of
different wavelength is used. Find the wavelength of light. (A) [ 648nm]
10. In Young’s double slit experiment with monochromatic light and slit separation of 1.2mm, the
fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by
5cm towards the slits, the change in fringe width is 20 m. Calculate the wavelength of the light
used. (A) [ 480 nm]
11. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 625 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen 80 cm away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of
2.5 mm from the center of the screen. Find the (i) width of the slit (ii) angular width of central
maximum.(iii) linear width of central maximum.(A) [(i) 0.2 mm (ii)0.00625 rad (iii) 5mm ]
*************************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-11
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
One mark questions
1. Who discovered cathode rays? (K)
2. Name the scientist who has confirmed cathode ray hypothesis of William Crookes. (K)
3. Which observation with respect to cathode ray particles suggested universality of cathode
rays? (K)
4. Who named cathode ray particles as electrons? (K)
5. Who suggested that the electrons are fundamental constituents of matter? (K)
6. Who experimentally proved that the electric charge is quantized? (K)
7. The determination and measurement of the value of elementary charge credit goes to which
experimental work? (K)
8. Define work function of a photo sensitive material. (U)
9. Define electron volt. (U)
10. What is thermionic emission? (K)
11. What is field emission? (K)
12. Why metals are preferred for electron emission? (U)
13. Who discovered the phenomenon of photo electric emission? (K)
14. What is photo-electric emission? (K)
15. What are photo electrons? (K)
16. What is photo electric effect? (K)
17. Name the phenomenon which illustrates the particle nature of light. (K)
18. Can radiation of any frequency be used for electron emission from a metal surface? (K)
19. How photo current depends on intensity of incident radiation? (K)
20. Represent graphically the variation of photoelectric current with intensity of incident light. (S)
21. Do stopping potential depends on the intensity of incident radiation? (K)
22. Define threshold frequency for a photo sensitive metal. (U)
23. What is the effect of intensity of incident radiation on kinetic energy of photoelectrons? (K)
24. Why threshold frequency is different for different metals? (U)
25. In an experiment of photo electric effect a graph of kinetic energy of photoelectrons with
frequency of incident light is plotted. What does the slope of the curve indicate? (U)
26. What is meant by saturation current in photo electric emission? (U)
27. In an experiment of photo electric effect the kinetic energy of photo electrons is found to be 2
eV. for certain intensity of incident light. If the intensity of incident light is doubled what will
be the kinetic energy of photo electrons? (A)
28. How does the velocity of photo electrons emitted vary with frequency of incident light on a
photo cathode? (U)
29. What is the significance of stopping potential of a photo sensitive material? (U)
30. How does the stopping potential vary with frequency of incident radiation? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
31. Name the theory which explains the phenomenon of photo electric emission. (K)
32. Which physical constant can be determined from the slope of the graph of maximum kinetic
energy of photo electrons with the frequency of incident radiation? (U)
33. What is the charge on photons? (K)
34. Are photons deflected by electric and magnetic fields? (K)
35. Material particle collides with photons, do the momentum is conserved? (K)
36. In a collision between photon and particle, is energy conserved? (K)
37. Do the photon number is conserved in the process of collision between the particle and
photon? (K)
38. Who postulated the dual nature of matter? (K)
39. What are matter waves? OR what are de Broglie waves? (K)
40. State de-Broglie hypothesis of matter waves. (K)
41. Define de-Broglie wavelength. (U)
42. How does the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron depend on its velocity? (U)
43. A particle accelerates under the influence of an electric field. What happens to its
de-Broglie wavelength? (U)
44. Write the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of V volts? (K)
45. Who discovered the wave nature of electron? (K)
46. Name the experiment which confirms the wave nature of material particle. (K)
47. State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. (K)
48. Write the mathematical equation representing Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. (K)
49. What was the outcome of Davisson and Germer experiment? (K)
50. Mention one application of wave property of electrons. (K)
51. Mention one advantage of using the electron microscope over the optical microscope. (U)
Two mark questions
1. Mention the two discoveries which are the milestones in understanding atomic structure. (K)
2. Explain how cathode rays were discovered by William Crooke. (U)
3. What was the inference of Millikan’s oil drop experiment? (U)
4. Name any two types of electron emission. (K)
5. Mention two factors on which the photo electric work function of a metal depends? (K)
6. Mention the Hertz’s observations on photo electric effect. (U)
7. Why Alkali metals are photo sensitive even to visible light? (U)
8. Define "Stopping potential". How does it depend on the frequency of incident radiation? (U)
9. Graphically show the variation of photo electric current with intensity of incident light. (S)
10. Show graphically, the variation of photo current with stopping potential for different
frequencies but same intensity of incident radiation. (S)
11. Represent graphically the variation of photo current with collector plate potential for
different intensity of incident radiation. (S)
12. Draw the graph representing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident
radiation for a given photo sensitive material. (S)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
13. What was the picture given by Einstein about electromagnetic radiation to explain photo
electric effect? (U)
14. Write Einstein’s photo electric equation and explain the terms. (K)
15. Mention the expression for de-Broglie wavelength of matter waves and explain the terms.(K)
16. Mention the expression for de-Broglie wavelength of photon and explain the terms. (K)
17. Mention the expression for de- Broglie wavelength of a material particle in terms of kinetic
energy and explain the terms. (K)
18. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Compare their
de-Broglie wavelength. (U)
19. Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron having a kinetic energy of 500eV. (A)
20. Are matter waves electromagnetic in nature? Justify your answer. (U)
21. Why de-Broglie wavelength associated with macroscopic particles cannot be detected?
Explain. (U)
22. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 0.05 kg moving with a speed of
100ms-1. (A)
23. What is Born’s probability interpretation of matter waves? (U)
1. Who discovered the phenomena of photo electric emission? Explain how he discovered this
phenomenon? (K)
2. Explain briefly Hallwach’s experimental observations on photo-electric effect. (K)
3. Explain briefly the Lenard's experimental observations on photo electric effect. (K)
4. Describe the experiment to study the photo electric effect. (K)
5. Define the terms
(i) Threshold frequency (ii) Threshold wavelength (iii) Stopping potential, with reference to
photo electric effect. (U)
6. Explain why wave theory of light failed to explain photoelectric effect observations. (U)
7. Write three observed features of photoelectric effect which cannot be explained by wave theory
of light. (U)
8. State de-Broglie’s hypothesis of matter waves. What was the reason for stating this hypothesis?
(U)
9. Show that the wavelength of photon where h=Planck’s constant and p=momentum of
photon. (U)
10. Obtain the expression for de-Broglie wavelength in terms of accelerating potential. (U)
11. Derive the expression for de-Broglie wavelength in terms of kinetic energy of electrons. (U)
12. Describe Davisson and Germer experiment to establish the existence of wave nature of electron.
(U)
13. Write the applications of de-Broglie’s hypothesis of matter waves. (K)
Five mark questions
1. What were the observations of Hallwach’s and Lenard’s about photo electric emission? (K)
2. Describe the experiment to study photo electric effect with a neat labeled diagram. (U) (S)
3. Write the experimental observations of photo electric effect. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
4. Give Einstein’s explanation for photo electric effect experimental observations. (U)
5. Give the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. (U)
6. Mention five characteristic properties of photon. (K)
7. Describe Davisson and Germer electron diffraction arrangement with a neat labeled diagram.
(U) (S)
Numerical problems
1. Calculate the number of photons emitted per second by a 25W source of monochromatic light
of wavelength 600nm. (A) [7.546X1019]
2. The threshold wavelength of a photo sensitive metal is 275 nm. Calculate the maximum velocity
of the photo electrons ejected when light of 180nm incident on it. (A) [9.1X105ms-1]
3. Lithium has work function of 2.3eV. It is exposed to light of wavelength 4.8X10-7m. Find the
maximum kinetic energy with which electron leaves the surface. Also calculate the longest
wavelength which can produce the photoelectrons. (A)
4. The threshold frequency is of a photosensitive metal is 0.5X1015Hz, Calculate the photoelectric
work function of the metal. If a photon of frequency 0.75 × 1015Hz incident on this metal
surface, find the maximum kinetic energy (in eV) of photoelectrons emitted. (A)
[W = 2.072eV, K.Emax = 1.036eV]
5. The photo electric threshold for a metal surface is 600nm. Calculate the maximum
kinetic energy (in eV) of the photoelectrons emitted for radiation of wavelength
400nm. (A) [(K.E)max = 1.04eV)
6. The work function of cesium is 2.14eV. Find (a) the threshold frequency for cesium and
(b) the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping
potential
of 0.60V. (A) [γ0= 5.16 × 1014 Hz, λ = 454nm]
******************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER:12
ATOMS
One mark questions
1) Who proposed the first atom model? (K)
2) What is the name of the atom model given by J.J.Thomson? (K)
3) Is an atom electrically neutral? (K)
4) What are the constituents of an atom according to J.J.Thomson? (K)
5) Name the model of atom given by Rutherford. (K)
6) In Geiger-Marsden experiment which element is used as a source of α-particles? (K)
7) Who was first credited to discover the nucleus? (K)
8) What is the magnitude of charge on α-particle? (K)
9) In α-particle scattering experiment, which implication has led Rutherford to conclude that the
mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume? (K)
10) Which experiment determines the upper limit to the size of the nucleus? (K)
11) Name the experiment responsible for the discovery of atomic nucleus. (K)
12) How do we define angle of scattering in α-particle scattering experiment? (U)
13) Who discovered the nucleus of an atom? (K)
14) What was Balmer’s contribution for the study of hydrogen spectrum? (K)
15) Define the term ‘impact parameter in α-particle scattering experiment. (U)
16) Name the series of hydrogen spectrum which has least wavelength. (K)
17) Name the series of hydrogen spectrum that lies in UV region.
18) To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does Lyman series belong? (K)
19) Name the series of hydrogen spectrum which lies in the visible region. (K)
20) To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does Balmer series belong? (K)
21) To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does Paschen series belong? (K)
22) An electron transits from 5th orbit to 3rd orbit in hydrogen atom, Name the region of the
spectral line to which it belongs. (U)
23) What is meant by the series limit of a spectral series? (K)
24) Which force provides the centripetal force required for the electron to go round the nucleus in
uniform circular motion in Bohr atom? (K)
25) What does a stationary orbit mean according to Bohr in his atom model? (K)
26) Does an electron revolving round a nucleus in a Bohr atom radiate energy? (K)
27) Write Bohr's quantisation rule. (K)
28) When does an atom radiate energy according to Bohr's theory? (K)
29) How does the radius of the Bohr orbit vary with its principal quantum number? (K)
30) Are the electron orbits in hydrogen atom equally spaced? (K)
31) How does the energy of an electron vary with its principal quantum number? (U)
32) What is the significance of the negative sign in the expression of energy of an electron? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
33) What type of emission spectra is given by atoms? (K)

34) What is line emission spectrum? (K)
35) What is absorption spectrum? (K)
36) How absorption spectrum is obtained? (K)
37) What causes a line spectrum? (K)
38) Name a source of line emission spectrum. (K)
39) What kind of spectrum is obtained when substances are excited in their atomic state? (K)
40) What information do we get by the study of line spectrum? (K)
41) How is the wave number of a spectral line related to its wavelength? (U)
42) What is the value of Rydberg's constant? (K)
43) What is meant by the energy level diagram for an atom? (U)
44) In Bohr's atomic model which energy level corresponds to the minimum energy? (K)
45) What is ionization energy? (K)
46) What is excitation energy? (K)
Two mark questions

1. Who proposed plum pudding model for atom? Describe the arrangement of constituents of
atom in it. (K)
2. Who discovered electron? And which experiment has led to its discovery? (K)
3. Who proposed planetary model of atom? Explain how the constituents of atom are arranged
according to this model. (K)
4. Mention the two draw backs of Rutherford’s atom model. (K)
5. Show graphically the variation of number of α-particle scattered with the scattering angle for
a given energy of α-particle. (S)
6. Draw a schematic diagram of Geiger-Marsden α-particle scattering experiment. (S)
7. When the impact parameter is said to be (a) maximum? & (b) minimum? (K)
8. Give the names of first two members of the Balmer series. (K)
9. Calculate the wavelength of -line using Balmer formula. Given Rydberg constant=
7 -1
1.097X10 m . (A)
10. Write Balmer formula for the wavelengths of spectral series of hydrogen atom and explain the
terms. (K)
11. How do we get series limit using Balmer formula? Write the value of the shortest wavelength
in the Balmer series. (K)
12. Write the empirical formula for wave number of first two spectral series. (K)
13. Write Bohr's frequency condition and explain the terms. (K)
14. What is ‘Bohr radius’? Write its formula.(K)
15. Write the expression for Rydberg's constant and explain the terms. (K)
16. Write the formula for the energy of electron in nth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom in electron
volt and write the value for the third orbit. (U)
1. What are the experimental observations of Geiger-Marsden's scattering experiment? (K)
2. Explain briefly the conclusions of Rutherford α-particle scattering experiment. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
3. Draw the trajectories traced by different alpha particles in Geiger-Marsden experiment. (S)
4. Define impact parameter in α-scattering experiment. How does the scattering angle depends
on impact parameter and what is the conclusion drawn by Rutherford by analyzing this? (U)
5. State the basic assumptions of the Rutherford nuclear model of an atom. (K)
6. Name the first three spectral series of hydrogen atom. (K)
7. State the postulates of Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom. (K)
8. Sketch the energy level diagram of hydrogen atom. (S)
9. Obtain the Bohr's quantisation condition on the basis of de-Broglie's theory (wave picture of
an electron). (U)
10. Mention any three limitations of Bohr's atom model. (K)
Five mark questions
1. Explain with a schematic diagram, Geiger-Marsden experiment of α-particle scattering. (U)
2. Derive the expression for the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom on the basis of
Rutherford's atom model.(U)
3. Explain spectral series of hydrogen atom. (U)
4. Derive the expression for the radius of stationary orbit of hydrogen atom using
Bohr’s postulates. (U)
5. Derive the expression for the total energy of an electron in nth stationary orbit of hydrogen
atom by assuming the expression for orbit radius. (U)
6. Derive the expression for the frequency of radiation in hydrogen spectrum assuming the
expression for energy of electron in a stationary orbit. (U)
Numerical problems.
1. The wavelength of the first member of the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is 656.3nm.
Calculate the wavelength of the first member of the Lyman series in the same spectrum. (A)
[121.54 nm]
2. The energy of an excited hydrogen atom is -3.4eV. Calculate the angular momentum of the
electron according to Bohr’s theory.(A) [2.11X10-34Js]
3. A doubly ionized lithium atom has atomic number 3. Find the wavelength of the radiation
required to excite the electron in Li+2 from the first to the third Bohr orbit. Assume that the
ionization energy is 13.6eV. (A) [113.74 A0 ]
4. A stationary He+ emitted a photon corresponding to the first line of Lyman series. This photon
liberated a photo electron from a stationary hydrogen atom in the ground state. Find the
velocity of the photo electron. (A) [3.1X106ms-1 ]
5. A hydrogen atom rises from its n=1 state to the n=4 state by absorbing energy. If the potential
energy of the atom in n=1 state is -13.6 eV, calculate the potential energy in n=4 state and
energy absorbed by the atom in the transition from n=1 to n=4 state. (A)
6. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron moving with a kinetic energy 150 eV, and an
electron accelerated by a voltage of 50KV. given mass of the neutron = 1.675X10-27Kg, and that
of electron = 9.1X10-31 Kg. (A) [2.3X10-12 m, 5.5X10-12 m]
************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Chapter-13
NUCLEI
One mark questions
1) Define atomic mass unit (amu). (U)
2) Write the value of 1 atomic mass unit in kilogram. (K)
3) Name the instrument used to measure the atomic masses. (K)
4) How is the radius of the nucleus of an atom related to its mass number? (U)
5) What is the radius of a nucleus of mass number 216? (A)
6) What is the order of the magnitude of nuclear density? (K)
7) How does the nuclear density depend on the size of the nucleus? (U)
8) Is the nuclear density same for all the elements? (K)
9) Give an example for mass-energy conversion. (U)
10) Give an example showing the conversion of energy into mass. (U)
11) What happens when an electron and a positron collide? (U)
12) What is the energy equivalent to 1amu? (K)
13) Who discovered neutron? (K)
14) Do free neutrons are stable? (K)
15) Define mass number of nucleus? (K)
16) How many isotopes gold has? (K)
17) What are isobars? (K)
18) What are isotones? (K)
19) What is nuclear mass defect? (U)
20) Write the expression for mass defect in terms of masses of their nucleons. (K)
21) What is nuclear binding energy? (U)
22) Give the relation between binding energy and mass defect. (K)
23) What happens to the loss of mass involved in the formation of a nucleus? (U)
24) Mention the significance of binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus. (U)
25) What is binding energy curve? (K)
26) What are nuclear forces? (K)
27) Why nuclear forces are strongest of all the forces in nature? (U)
28) Why nuclear forces are called short range forces? (U)
29) Why nuclear forces are called exchange forces? (U)
30) Nuclear forces are non-central forces Explain? (U)
31) Nuclear forces are saturated forces why? (U)
32) Which property of nuclear forces is responsible for constancy of binding energy per nucleon?
(K)
33) Name the phenomenon by which energy is produced in star. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
34) Why nuclear fusion reactions are called thermo nuclear reactions? (K)
35) Write any one equation representing nuclear fusion reaction. (K)
36) Why nuclear fusion reaction is not possible in the laboratory? (K)
37) What is radioactivity? (K)
38) Who discovered the phenomenon of radio activity? (K)
39) How many types of radioactive decay occur in nature? (K)
40) What is the cause for the radioactivity in lighter nuclei? (U)
41) How does the number of radioactive atoms vary with time? (K)
42) Show graphically the variation or number of radioactive atoms in the sample with time. (S)
43) Define activity of radioactive substance. (U)
44) Mention the SI unit of activity. (K)
45) Define becquerel. (U)
46) Mention the practical unit of activity. (K)
47) Define curie. (U)
48) Write the equivalence between curie and becquerel. (K)
49) How does the half-life of a radioactive sample depend on its decay constant? (U)
50) Define mean life of a radioactive substance. (U)
51) Write the relation between mean life and half-life of a radioactive nuclide. (K)
52) What is disintegration energy or Q-value of a nuclear reaction? (U)
53) In which type of β-decay antineutrino is emitted? (K)
54) Which is the particle emitted along with electron, when a neutron is converted
into a proton in a nucleus? (K)
55) In which type of β-decay, the particle neutrino is emitted? (K)
56) In the following nuclear reaction identify the particle X. (U)
 n  e  X
p 
57) Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8:125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii? (A)
58) What is nuclear fission? (K)
59) What is the principle of nuclear reactor? (K)
60) Define’ multiplication factor’ in a nuclear reactor? (U)
61) For what value of ‘k’ the multiplication factor the operation of the reactor is said to be critical?
(K)
62) Which moderators are commonly used in nuclear reactors? (K)
63) Mention the disaster which occurred due to increase of multiplication factor in a nuclear
reactor. (K)
64) How nuclear reaction rate is controlled in a nuclear reactor? (K)
65) What is the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor? (K)
66) What is nuclear fusion? (K)
67) What is the estimated age of the sun based on nuclear reactions? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Two mark questions

1. What are isotopes? Give an example of it. (K)
2. Name the isotopes of hydrogen and write their masses. (K)
3. What are isobars? Give an example. (K)
4. What are isotones? Mention an example of it. (K)
5. Do free neutrons are stable in nature? Justify your answer. (U)
6. What is meant by binding energy per nucleon? Explain. (U)
7. Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature why? (U)
8. What are neutrinos? In which process they are obtained? (K)
9. Write any two characteristics of neutrinos. (K)
10. Where does the decay of proton to neutron take place? And why? (U)
11. State and explain radioactive decay law. (K)
12. Mention any two types of radioactive decay in nature. (K)
13. What is γ-decay? When does this occur? (U)
14. What is the change in atomic numbers and mass number of a nucleus when it emits an
α-particle? (A)
15. What is the change in atomic number and mass number of a nucleus during negative β-decay?
(A)
16. What is the change in atomic number and mass number of a nucleus during positive β-decay?
(A)
17. What happens to the atomic number and mass number of the nucleus during a γ-decay?(A)
238
18. 92U emits an α-particle and two β-particles. Write the atomic number and mass number of
the daughter nucleus. (A)
decay decay
19. The radioactive isotope D decays according to the sequence D 
 D1  D2
If the mass number and atomic number of D2 are 176 and 71 respectively find mass number
and atomic number of D. (A)
20. Give examples for controlled and uncontrolled nuclear fission reactions. (K)
21. What happens to the future of the sun when the hydrogen burning stops? (U)
22. Define the terms (i) mass defect and (ii) binding energy of a nucleus. (U)
1. Name the three isotopes of hydrogen and write their masses. (K)
2. Explain how neutrons were discovered. (U)
3. Mention any three characteristics of a nucleus. (K)
4. How the size of the nucleus is experimentally determined? Explain. (U)
5. Show that the density of the nucleus is independent of its mass number. (U)
6. Write any three characteristics or nuclear forces. (K)
7. Show graphically the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation and explain. (S) ((U)
8. What is a binding energy curve? Explain the main features of it. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
9. What is radioactive decay? How many types of decay are there in nature? Which are they?
(K)
10. What is nuclear fission? Explain with example. (U)
11. What is nuclear fusion? Explain with example. (U)
12. Arrive at the relation between activity and decay constant of a radioactive sample. (U)
13. Derive the expression for the half-life of a radioactive nuclide. (U)
14. Explain alpha decay by giving an example and when is it possible? (U)
15. Write three characteristics of neutrinos. (K)
16. What is negative β-decay? Explain with example. (U)
17. What is positive β-decay? Explain with example. (U)
18. What is γ-decay? Explain with example. (U)
19. Estimate the energy released during the fission of uranium. (A)
20. Explain how controlled chain reaction is sustained in the nuclear reactors. (U)
21. Draw a schematic labeled diagram of a nuclear reactor based on the thermal neutron fission.
(S)
22. Explain why very high temperature is essential for fusion reaction. (U)
Five mark questions

1. Explain the characteristics of nucleus. (K)
2. What are the conclusions drawn by observing the binding energy curve? (U)
3. State radioactive decay law and arrive at where the symbols have their usual
meaning. (U)
4. Show graphically, the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number and also
explain how energy is released in the process of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. (S) (U)
5. Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. (U)
6. Obtain the expression for the number of atoms present in a radioactive sample in a given
instant of time. (U)
7. Define half-life of a radioactive element. Derive the expression for half of a radioactive
element in terms of decay constant. (U)
8. Deduce the relation between half-life and mean life of a radioactive substance. (U)
9. Explain how electricity is generated in a nuclear reactor. (U)
Numerical Problems
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
1. One gram of a radioactive substance disintegrates at the rate of 3.7X1010 disintegrations per
second. The atomic mass of the substance is 226. Calculate its mean life. [2282 years]
2. Find the binding energy of an α-particle from the following data.
Mass of the helium nucleus=4.001265 a.m.u
Mass of the proton = 1.007277 a.m.u
Mass of the neutron = 1.00866 a.m.u (A) [7.10525 MeV]
14.
3. Calculate the mass defect and specific binding energy of 7N Given: The rest mass of nitrogen
nucleus is 14.00307 amu. Mp = 1.00783amu, Mn = 1.00867amu (A)
[Ans: Δm = 0.11243 amu, S.BE = 7.48 MeV]
4. Calculate the energy of released in the following fusion reaction of 1Kg of 1H2.
2
1H 1 H 2 
 He3  0 n1  Q
2
Given: Mass of 2He3 = 3.0161amu, mass of 1H2 = 2.0141amu and mass of neutron
1
0n = 1.0087amu. (A) [Ans: Q=4.769 X 1026MeV]
5. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30s calculate i) the decay constant and ii) time taken
to the sample to decay by 3/4th of the initial value? (A)
[Ans: λ=0.0231 per sec, t=60 sec]
6. Calculate the half- Given mass of
23
Radium -226 gram and 226 gram of radium consists of 6.023 × 10 atoms. (A)
[Ans: T = 5 X 1010 Sec, τ = 7.2 X 1010 Sec]
7. The half-life of a radioactive element is 4 × 108 years.Calculate its decay constant and mean
life. (A) [Ans: λ = 1.733 X 10-9 Per Year, τ = 5.772 X 108 Years]
8. Find the activity in curie of 1g of radon: 222, whose half-life is 3.825 days.
Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023, given; 1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second. (A)
[Ans: R = 1.5375 X 105 Ci]
9. Determine the mass of Na22 which has an activity of 5mci. Half-life of Na22 is 2.6 years.
Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023 atoms. (A) [Ans: m = 7.996 X 10-10 Kg]
10. Calculate the mass in gram of radium 226. Whose activity is 1 curie and half-life is 1620 years.
(Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023) (A) [Ans: m = 1.024 g]
*************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-14
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
One mark questions
1. Which devices were used instead of transistors before its invention? (K)
2. On what principle cathode ray tube (CRT) works? (K)
3. What is a semi-conductor? (K)
4. Give an example of elemental semi-conductor. (U)
5. Give an example of organic semi-conductor. (U)
6. How ‘energy bands’ are formed in a solid? (U)
7. What is a ‘valence band’ in solids? (U)
8. Where do the ‘conduction band’ is situated in solids? (K)
9. Do the ‘conduction band’ is filled with electrons or empty in solids normally? (K)
10. What is the value of energy gap in conductors? (K)
11. What is the value of energy gap in semiconductors? (K)
12. What is the value of energy gap in insulators? (K)
13. What is forbidden energy gap? (K)
14. What is fermi energy? (K)
15. For which type of material conduction band overlaps with valence band? (K)
16. How does conductivity of semiconductor change with temperature? (U)
17. What is the unique property of the semiconductor which is used is electronics? (U)
18. What is a ‘hole’ in semi-conductor? (U)
19. What are intrinsic semi-conductors? (K)
20. What are extrinsic semi-conductors? (K)
21. With the help of a diagram show that an intrinsic semi-conductor behaves as insulator at 0K (S)
22. What is meant by ‘doping’ a semi-conductor? (K)
23. What is the advantage of doping a semiconductor? / OR (U)
24. What is the necessity of doping of a semi-conductor? (U)
25. Which type of extrinsic semi-conductor is obtained by doping with pentavalent impurity? (K)
26. Mention the name of the extrinsic semi-conductor which is doped with trivalent dopant. (K)
27. Doping silicon with indium (boron/aluminum) leads to which type of semiconductor? (K)
28. Doping in silicon with phosphorous (arsenic, antimony) leads to which type of semiconductor? (K)
29. What is diffusion current in a p-n junction diode? (U)
30. What is ‘drift current’ in a p-n junction diode? (U)
31. What is barrier potential in a semiconductor diode? (U)
32. What is depletion region in a semiconductor diode? (U)
33. Write the circuit symbol of p-n junction diode. (S)
34. When the diode is said to be forward biased? (K)
35. When the diode is said to be reverse biased? (K)
36. What happens to the width of the depletion region when the diode is forward biased? (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
37. What happens to width of the depletion region when the diode is reverse biased? (K)
38. What is breakdown voltage of a semiconductor diode? (U)
39. What is cut-in voltage of a semiconductor diode? (U)
40. What is reverse saturation current? (U)
41. What is dynamic resistance in a semiconductor diode? (U)
42. What is a rectifier? (K)
43. What is a half-wave rectifier? (K)
44. What is a full-wave rectifier? (K)
45. How to get a steady d.c output from the pulsating d.c output of a full wave rectifier? (U)
46. What are filter circuits in rectifiers? (K)
47. What is internal field emission or field ionization in a Zener diode? (U)
48. Symbolically represent a Zener diode. (S)
49. In which region Zener diode is operated in voltage regulator? (K)
50. What is photo diode? (K)
51. What is LED? (K)
52. Mention any one use of LED? (K)
53. Give one application of photo diode. (K)
54. Why commonly used silicon diode will not emit light when it is forward biased? (U)
55. Which region of a transistor has maximum doping concentration? (K)
56. What is a BJT? (K)
57. Write the relation between emitter current, collector current and base current in a transistor. (K)
58. Define input resistance of a transistor in CE mode? (U)
59. Define output resistance of a CE transistor? (U)
60. Write the formula for a.c. current amplification factor of a common emitter transistor. (U)
61. Write the formula for d.c. current amplification factor of a common emitter transistor. (U)
62. Define current amplification factor of a common emitter transistor. (U)
63. What is voltage gain in an amplifier? (K)
64. Write the formula for voltage gain of the transistor amplifier in CE configuration. (U)
65. What is an amplifier in electronic circuits? (K)
66. What is a feedback amplifier? (K)
67. Why a transistor oscillator is also called tuned collector oscillator? (U).
68. Write the expression for the resonant frequency of oscillation of transistor oscillator. (U)
69. What are logic gates in electronics? (K)
70. What are digital signals in electronics? (K)
71. What are analogue signals in electronics? (K)
72. Write the circuit symbol of OR gate. (S)
73. Draw the circuit symbol of AND gate. (S)
74. Represent the circuit symbol of NOT gate. (S)
75. Write the circuit symbol of NAND gate. (S)
76. Draw the logic symbol of NOR gate. (S)
77. What is a ‘truth table’ in logic gates? (U)
78. What is the use of writing truth table for the logic gate? (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
79. Which logic gate is called as an ‘inverter’? (K)

80. Write the truth table of OR gate. (U)
81. Give the truth table of AND gate. (U)
82. Write the truth table of NOT gate. (U)
83. Represent the behavior of NAND gate using truth table. (U)
84. Give the truth table of NOR gate. (U)
85. The input of a NOT gate is ‘1’. What is its output? (A)
86. Which electronic components are used to construct logic gates? (K)
87. Why NAND & NOR gates are called universal gates? (U)
88. The inputs of a NOR gate is ‘1’ & ‘0’. Write the output of this gate. (A)
89. What is an integrated circuit? (K)
90. Which technology is most widely used in the fabrication of IC? (K)
91. Represent a typical analogue signal with a diagram. (S)
92. Represent digital signal graphically. (S)
93. What is the function of digital IC? (U)
94. OPAMP belongs to which category of IC? (K)
95. Expand OPAMP. (K)
96. Give an example for ‘passive component’ of an integrated circuit. (K)
97. Mention a component which is called as ‘active component’ in integrated circuits. (K)
Two mark questions
1. Write two advantages of semi-conductor devices over vacuum tubes. (K)

2. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. (U)
3. Distinguish between p-type and n-type semiconductors. (U)
4. How hole current is developed in intrinsic semi-conductors? Explain. (U)
5. What are extrinsic semiconductors? Mention the types of extrinsic semiconductor. (K)
6. Why majority charge carriers increase on doping a pure semiconductor? (U)
7. Draw the graphs showing the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode a) in forward bias b) in
reverse bias. (S)
8. Carbon, silicon and germanium have same lattice structure. Why carbon is an insulator while
germanium and silicon are semiconductors? (U)
9. Draw schematic block diagram of p-n junction of a semiconductor diode. (S)
10. Give any two applications of LED’s/ light emitting diode. (K)
11. Draw a graph representing the output characteristics of a transistor in CE mode. (S)
12. Draw input and output waveforms of a full wave rectifier. (S)
13. Represent I-V characteristics of a Zener diode graphically. (S)
14. Define the terms ‘threshold voltage’ & reverse saturation current in a p-n junction diode. (U)
15. What is space-charge region in a semiconductor? (U)
16. Which property of diode is used in rectification of a.c? And how it is used? (U)
17. Draw I-V characteristics of a solar cell. (S)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
18. What is a transistor? Mention the two different types of transistors. (K)
19. Name the universal gates in logic circuits. (K)
20. Two inputs are given to a NOR gate through two NOT gates. Write the truth table for the
resulting logic gate and identify the resulting logic gate. (A) (U)
21. The output a NOR gate is passed through a NOT gates. Write the truth table for the resulting
logic gate and identify the resulting logic gate. (U) (A)
22. Which are the two categories of integrated circuits? (K)
23. What is the function of linear IC? Give an example of it. (K)
24. Write the block diagram representing transistor amplifier with a feedback oscillator. (S)
25. How the junctions of a transistor are usually biased? (K)
26. Write the formula for voltage gain of a transistor in CE configuration and explain the terms. (U)
27. Obtain the expression for the power gain in a transistor in CE mode when it is used as an
amplifier. (U)
28. A transistor is having a β equal to 80 has a change in base current of 250μA. Calculate the
change in the collector current. (A)

1. Distinguish between conductors, semi-conductors and insulators on the basis of property of
conductivity.(U)
2. Classify on the basis of electrical resistivity metals, semi-conductors and insulators. (U)
3. Which are the three different types of compound semi-conductors, give an example for each. (K)
4. Distinguish between conductor, semiconductor and insulator based on band theory of solids. (K)
5. What is an intrinsic semiconductor? Explain the variation of conductivity with temperature in it. (U)
6. Explain how a p-n junction is formed in a semiconductor. (U)
7. With suitable circuit diagram, explain the V-I characteristics of a semiconductor diode under
forward bias. (U) (S)
8. Explain the V-I characteristics of a semiconductor diode under reverse bias by drawing a suitable
graph. (U) (S)
9. Explain why reverse current suddenly increases at the breakdown region in a Zener diode? (U)
10. With the help of a circuit explain how a capacitor filters ripples of pulsating d.c. in rectifier. (U)(S)
11. What is a Zener diode? How it is fabricated? (U)
12. Mention the three optoelectronic junction devices. (K)
13. Describe the construction and working of a photo diode. (U)
14. What are the advantages of LED’s incandescent low power lamps? (K)
15. Describe the construction and working of a solar cell. (U)
16. What are the criteria for the selection of material for solar cell fabrication? (U)
17. Give any three applications of solar cell. (K)
18. Which are the three segments (regions) of a transistor? Describe them in brief. (U)
19. Describe the action of a transistor. (U)
20. When is the transistor said to be switched ON and switched OFF? Represent it by drawing transfer
characteristics of a base biased transistor in CE configuration. (U) (S)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
21. Obtain the expression for voltage gain of n-p-n transistor, when it is used as an amplifier in CE
configuration. (U)
22. Define (i) input resistance (ii) output resistance and (iii) current amplification factor of a transistor
in CE mode. (U)
23. Describe the three important ac parameters of common emitter transistor in CE configuration. (U)
24. Write the block diagram of feedback amplifier. What is positive feedback? Write the expression for
frequency of LC coupled oscillator. (U) (S)
25. Why a feedback is essential for an oscillator? How it is achieved? (U)
26. Name any three feedback circuits. (K)
27. Mention any three applications of logic gates. (K)
28. Using only NOR gates, show with a circuit diagram, how to construct
(i) NOT gate, (ii) OR gate and (iii) AND gate.
29. A logical circuit with three inputs and one output is constructed using one NOR gate and one AND
gate. Two inputs A and B are given to NOR gate. A third input C and the output of NOR gate are
given as inputs to AND gate. Determine the input state which provide the final output Y=1 from
the AND gate.
Five mark questions

1. Describe the action of a semiconductor diode under forward and reverse bias with I-V diagrams.
(U) (S)
2. What is a rectifier? Explain with necessary circuit diagram, the construction and working of a
half wave rectifier. (U) (S)
3. What is a rectifier? Describe the construction and working of a full wave rectifier by drawing
input and output waveforms. (U) (S)
4. Explain with necessary diagram how a Zener diode acts as a voltage regulator. (U) (S)
5. Draw circuit arrangement for studying input and output characteristics of n-p-n transistor in CE
configuration and explain its action with the help of graphs. (U) (S)
6. Explain with necessary circuit diagram the working of n-p-n-transistor as an amplifier in CE
mode. (U) (S)
7. Explain with necessary circuit diagram the working of n-p-n-transistor as a switch. (U) (S)
8. With a necessary circuit describe the working of a tuned collector oscillator. (U) (S)
Numerical problems
1. The input frequency of a rectifier is 100 Hz. Calculate the output frequency if the rectifier is (a) half
wave rectifier (b) full wave rectifier. (A) [50HZ, 100Hz]
2. An amplifier of voltage gain 12 is connected in series with another amplifier of voltage gain 20. If
the input signal is 20 mV, calculate the output voltage of ac signal. (A) [4.8 V]
3. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction, based on a certain Ga-As-P semi-conducting material
whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Calculate the wavelength of the light emitted by this LED, also identify
the colour of the emitted light. (A) [650 nm, Red in colour]
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
4. A silicon transistor is connected in CE mode to use it as a switch, in which base voltage is varied
from 0-6.0 V. the transistors dc current gain is 300, base resistance 150 KΩ, collector resistance 1.5
KΩ & collector voltage 6 V. Assume that the transistor is saturated and if VCE =0V, VBE=1V,
calculate the minimum base current for which the transistor will reach saturation and hence
determine input voltage when the transistor is switched on. (A)
[13.3 µA, 1.995 V]
5. The current amplification factor of CE transistor amplifier is 110. An audio signal voltage across 2.5
KΩ collector resistor is 2.5V, calculate base current. (A) [9µA]
6. One cubic meter of silicon is simultaneously doped with 3.05X10 atoms of arsenic and 5X1014
16
atoms of indium. If intrinsic carrier concentration ni =4X1016, calculate the number of electrons and
holes. (A)
7. A p-n junction diode is connected in series with 5kΩ across a battery of emf 5.7V and negligible
internal resistance in such a way that the diode is forward biased. If the barrier potential in diode is
0.7V, calculate the current through the diode. What is the resistance that should be combined with
5kΩ so that the current through the diode becomes 3mA? (A)
8. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when an electromagnetic radiation of
wavelength shorter than 2480nm is incident on it. Calculate the energy band gap in eV for the
semiconductor. (A).
**********************************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
CHAPTER-15
COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
One mark questions
1. What is communication in electronics? (K)
2. Name the Indian scientist who has contributed to electronic communication. (K)
3. Who invented radio communication? (K)
4. What is a transmitter in communication? (K)
5. Give an example for a transmitter used in communication. (U)
6. What is a microphone? (K)
7. Name the device which converts sound signal into electrical signal. (K)
8. What is the purpose of using a transmitter in communication system? (U)
9. Which are the three essential elements used in communication? (U)
10. What a channel/medium in communication consists of? (U)
11. What is a carrier wave in communication? (K)
12. What is a signal in communication? (K)
13. Expand ‘BCD’ in communication. (K)
14. What does ‘ASCII’ represent in communication? (K)
15. What is ‘noise’ in communication? (U)
16. What is attenuation in communication system? (U)
17. Mention any one example for point to point communication. (K)
18. What is a transducer in communication? (U)
19. What function does a ‘receiver’ do in communication? (K)
20. What is attenuation in communication? (U)
21. What is amplification of signal in communication? (K)
22. Is amplification necessary in communication system? (K)
23. At what stage the amplification of the signal is done in communication? (K)
24. What does the word ‘range’ mean in communication system? (K)
25. What is the meaning of the term ‘frequency band width’ in communication? (K)
26. What is ‘modulation’ in communication? (K)
27. What is the need of modulation in communication? (U)
28. Which are the different types of modulation? (K)
29. What does ‘demodulation’ mean in communication? (U)
30. What is modulation index? (K)
31. What is the function of a ‘repeater’ in communication? (U)
32. What for the repeaters are used in communication? (U)
33. Give the audible range of frequency. (K)
34. What is the value of band width usually allocated for transmission of a TV signal? (K)
35. Mention the value of bandwidth for co-axial cable transmission medium. (K)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
36. From which layer of the earth’s atmosphere, radio waves are reflected? (K)
37. On what factor does the size of the antenna depend? (K)
38. For a given antenna, how does the effective power radiated by the antenna vary with wavelength?
(U)
39. Mention one advantage of frequency modulation (FM) over amplitude modulation (AM). (U)
40. What is phase modulation in communication? (U)
Two mark questions
1. Which are the two basic modes of communication system? (K)
2. Write the block diagram of a generalized communication system. (S)
3. Mention any two communication systems which make use of space wave mode of propagation.
(U)
4. Explain how transmission of electromagnetic waves takes place using sky waves. (U)
5. Which are the two types of signal used in communication? (K)
6. In digital electronics what does ‘0’ / ‘1’ corresponds to? (U)
7. Give the value of frequency and bandwidth for a speech signal. (K)
8. Explain how troposphere interacts with the propagating electromagnetic wave. (U)
9. Explain how D-part of stratosphere interacts with the propagating electromagnetic wave. (U)
10. Explain how E-part of stratosphere interacts with the propagating electromagnetic wave. (U)
11. Explain how mesosphere interacts with the propagating electromagnetic wave. (U)
12. Explain how thermosphere interacts with the propagating electromagnetic wave. (U)
13. Write the formula for the distance to the radio horizon of the transmitting antenna and explain the
terms. (U)
14. What is the meaning of the word ‘translation’ in communication system? Why is it required? (U)
15. Mention the different types of pulse modulation in communication. (K)
16. What are the significant characteristics of a pulse? (K)
17. Draw block diagram of a receiver in communication. (S)
18. Draw a block diagram of transmitter in communication. (S)
19. Draw a block diagram of a simple modulator for obtaining an AM signal in communication. (S)

1. Explain how transmission of electromagnetic waves takes place using ground waves. (U)
2. Explain how transmission of electromagnetic waves takes place using sky waves. (U)
3. Explain how transmission of electromagnetic waves takes place using space waves. (U)
4. What is modulation index? What is its maximum value and why is it so? (U)
5. Explain why modulation is necessary in communication. (U)
6. Explain amplitude modulation process using a sinusoidal signal as modulating signal. (U)
7. Explain how amplitude modulated wave is detected. (U)
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Numerical problems.
1. In a line of sight (LOS) communication mode a transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a
height of 36 m, and a receiving antenna at a height of 49m. Calculate the maximum distance
between them for satisfactory communication. Given radius of the earth 6400 Km. (A)
[46.51 Km]
2. A carrier wave of frequency 2.5 MHz and peak voltage of 25 V is used to modulate a message
signal of frequency 20 KHz and peak voltage of 10 V. calculate the modulation index and the side
bands produced. (A) [
0.4, (2.57—2.48)MHz]
3. A carrier wave of peak voltage 12V is used to transmit a message signal. What should be the
peak voltage of the modulating signal in order to have a modulation index of 75%. (A)
[9V]
4. A T.V transmitting antenna is 77m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving
antenna is at the ground level? (A)
[28.16X108 m2]
***************************************************************************
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
Model Question Paper-1

BLUE PRINT
II PUC PHYSICS (33)
TIME : 3 hours 15 minute Max Marks : 70
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
3 Marks(SA2)
2Marks(SA1)
1 Mark(VSA)
5 Marks(NP)
5 Marks(LA)
Number of
Chapter
Unit
Topic
1 1 Electric charges & Fields 9 8  

Electrostatic potential and
2 2 9 8   
Capacitance
3 3 Current electricity 15 13    
4 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10 10   

5 Magnetism and Matter 8 6  
5
6 Electromagnetic Induction 7 6   
7 Alternating Current 8 7 

6 
8 Electromagnetic Waves 2 2 
7 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 9 8  
8 10 Wave Optics 9 8   
Dual nature of Radiation and  
11 6 5
9 Matter 
12 Atoms 5 5 
13 Nuclei 7 6  
10 14 Semiconductor Electronics 12 10   
15 Communication Systems 4 3  
Total 120 105 10 16 24 30 25
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
PHYSICS (33)
II PUC
MODEL PAPER – 1
Time : 3:15 Hrs. Max Marks:70
Instructions:
1) All parts are compulsory.
2) Answer without relevant diagram / figure/circuit, where ever necessary will not carry any
marks.
3) Direct answers to the numerical problems without the relevant formulae and detailed
solutions will not carry any marks.
PART – A
I Answer All the questions: 10 x 1 = 10
1) Define electric potential at a point due to a point charge.

2) Mention any one application of potentiometer.
3) An aluminum piece is subjected to varying temperature. What is the effect of temperature on
its susceptibility?
4) How much emf is induced in a coil of self-inductance 2H if the current in it is changing at the
rate of 2As-1?
5) What is meant by power factor of an ac circuit?
6) Define polarizing angle for a material.
7) What are matter waves?
8) State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
9) Give an example for β+ decay process.
10) What is a transducer in communication?
PART – B
II Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 x 2 = 10
11) Distinguish between polar and non-polar molecules.

12) Define mobility of electrons. How is mobility of electrons in a conductor related to relaxation
time?
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
13) Give the expression for gyromagnetic ratio of an electron revolving round the nucleus and
explain the terms.
14) State and explain Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
15) Write the relation between the magnitude of electric and magnetic fields in an
electromagnetic wave with speed of light and hence find the magnitude of the electric field at a
point in space and time if the magnetic field at that place is 2 X 10-8 T.
16) What is Doppler Effect in light? Write the expression for Doppler shift.
17) Define the terms input resistance and current amplification factor of a transistor in CE mode.
18) Draw the block diagram of AM receiver in communication.
PART – C
III Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 x 3 = 15
19) Mention any three properties of electric charges.

20) Derive the expression for magnetic force on a conductor carrying current kept in a magnetic
field.
21) What are eddy currents? Mention any two applications of eddy currents.
22) Obtain the expression for the current in an AC circuit containing pure capacitor.
23) What is a transformer? On what principle it works? Mention one power loss in a transformer.
24) Draw the ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. What is meant
by tube length of a compound microscope?
25) Mention the three types of electron emission.
26) What is a NAND gate? Write its circuit symbol and truth table for two inputs.
PART – D
IV Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 x 5 = 10
27) Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. And hence write the
expression for the capacitance when a dielectric medium is inserted between its plates.
28) Obtain the expression for the conductivity of a conductor in terms of its relaxation time. Or
Deduce where the symbols have their usual meaning.
29) Show that a bar magnet behaves as an equivalent current carrying solenoid.
V Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 x 5 =10
30) Obtain the expression for the fringe width of interference fringes in Young’s double slit
experiment.
 t
31) State the law of radioactive decay. Show that N = NO e for a radioactive element.
32) What is a rectifier? Explain the working of semi-conductor diode as a full wave rectifier with a
necessary circuit diagram. Also give the input and output wave forms for the same
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
VI Answer any THREE of the following: 3x5=15
33) Two pith balls of mass 10mg each are suspended by two threads from the same support are
charged identically. They move apart by 0.08m and threads make an angle 600 with each other.
Find the charge on each pith ball
34) Two cells of 6 V and 4 V having internal resistance of 3  and 2  respectively are connected
in parallel so as to send a current through an external resistance 8  in the same direction.
Find the current through the cells and the current through the external resistance.
35) A circular coil of radius 0.08m consisting of 100 turns is carrying a current of 0.4A. Calculate the
magnitude of the magnetic field i) at the center of the coil and ii) at a point 0.2m from the
center of the coil on its axis.
36) A parallel beam of light is incident on a face of a prism of refracting angle 60o. Find the
refractive index of the prism if the angle of minimum deviation is 400. What is the new angle of
minimum deviation if the prism is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33?
37) Calculate the value of Rydberg constant if the wavelength of the first member of Balmer series
in the hydrogen spectrum is 6563 Å. Also find the wavelength of the first member of Lyman
series in the same spectrum.
*****
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS

BLUE PRINT
II PUC PHYSICS (33)
Number
2 marks
3 marks
5 marks
Teachin
Chapter
g hours
5 mark
1mark
marks
No of
Unit
(T)
(P)
Topic
of
1 1 Electric charges & Fields 9 8  
2 2 Electrostatic potential and Capacitance 9 8  



3 3 Current electricity 15 13   

4 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10 8  

5 Magnetism and Matter 8 6  
5
6 Electromagnetic Induction 7 7  

7 Alternating Current 8 8 
6

8 Electromagnetic Waves 2 2

7 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 9 8   
8 10 Wave Optics 9 8  
 
11 Dual nature of Radiation and Matter 6 5

9
12 Atoms 5 5 

10 13 Nuclei 7 6 
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
14 Semiconductor Electronics 12 10   

15 Communication Systems 4 3 
Total 120 105 10 16 24 30 25
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
PHYSICS (33)
MODEL PAPER – 2
Time : 3:15 Hrs. Max Marks:70
Instructions:
marks.
PART – A
1) Write the colour code for a carbon resistor of resistance is (2.5 K ± 20%)Ω
2) What is the magnetic moment associated with a current loop of area 2 x 10-3 m2 and carrying
current of 0.5A?
3) Which important property differentiates magnetic field lines and electric field lines.
4) What is meant displacement current?
5) Mention any one application of - ray.
6) Define critical angle for a pair of media.
7) Give the expression for de-Broglie wavelength of a charged particle in terms of its accelerating
potential.
8) Represent graphically the variation of photoelectric current with the intensity of incident
radiation for a given photo sensitive material.
9) Give an example for isobars.
10) Mention one advantage of frequency modulation (FM) over amplitude modulation (AM) in
communication.
PART – B
II Answer any FIVE of the following: 5 x 2 = 10
11) Mention any two limitations of Ohm’s law.

12) State Kirchhoff’s rules of electrical network.
13) Define ‘tesla’ using the expression for the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic
field.
14) Which are the two properties required for a material to be used as a core of electromagnets.
15) What are thermal generators? Mention the value of frequency of ac used in India.
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
16) Mention any two differences between primary rainbow and secondary rainbow.
17) What is a light emitting diode? Write an advantage of using it over conventional low power
lamps.
18) Explain the term ‘amplification’ in communication system. Why is it necessary?
PART – C
III Answer any FIVE of the following: 5 x 3 = 15
19) Derive the expression for torque on an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field.
20) What is an equipotential surface? Draw the equipotential surfaces for i) a uniform electric field
and ii) a point charge.
21) Draw the graphs representing the variation of resistivity with temperature for (1) copper (2)
nichrome (3) a typical semiconductor.
22) Define the term ‘angle of dip’. Find the value of dip at a place if the vertical component of
Earth’s magnetic field is √ times the horizontal component.
23) Show that the charges oscillate with a frequency given by when a charged capacitor
√
of capacitance C is connected to an inductor of inductance L.
24) What is meant by diffraction of light? Write the conditions for maxima and minima of
diffraction pattern in terms of the wavelength of light used for the diffraction at single slit.
25) Explain the experimental setup used to study photoelectric effect with a neat labeled diagram.
26) What are logic gates? Give the logic symbol of NOT and AND gates.
PART – D
IV Answer any TWO of the following: 2 x 5 = 10
27) State Gauss theorem in electrostatics. Derive the expression for electric field at a point due to
an infinitely long straight charged conductor.
28) Derive the expression for the effective emf and the effective internal resistance of two cells
connected in parallel.
29) Describe the construction and working of an AC generator and arrive at the expression for the
emf induced in it.
30) Derive for the prism. Where the symbols have their usual meaning.
31) State Bohr’s postulates for atom model. Mention any two limitations of Bohr’s atomic model.
32) With a suitable circuit explain the action of a transistor as an amplifier in CE configuration.
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
VI Answer any THREE of the following: 3x5=15
33) A 900 pF capacitor is charged by 100 V source. Calculate the electrostatic energy stored in the
capacitor? The capacitor is then disconnected from the source and connected to another
uncharged 900 pF capacitor. Find the common potential of the system?
34) A pointer galvanometer with a scale of 30 divisions has a resistance of 12 Ω. Full scale
deflection is obtained for a current of 3 mA. Calculate the current sensitivity of the
galvanometer. How will you convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V?
35) A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series to a 50 Hz ac source. The voltage (rms) across
the resistor and capacitor are 151V and 160.3V respectively. Calculate the rms voltage of the
source. Also find the capacitive reactance and impedance of the circuit, if the current in the
circuit is 0.755A.
36) Double-convex lens is to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both faces
of the same radius of curvature. Calculate the radius of curvature required if the focal length is
to be 20cm? Also find the focal length of the lens if it is immersed in water of refractive index
1.33?
37) Calculate the energy released in the reaction
Given: mass of
mass of ,
mass of
and mass of neutron = 1.008655 amu. Express the result in joules.
*****
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS

BLUE PRINT
II PUC PHYSICS (33)
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
3 Marks(SA2)
2Marks(SA1)
1 Mark(VSA)
5 Marks(NP)
5 Marks(LA)
Number of
Chapter
Unit
Topic
1 1 Electric charges & Fields 9 8   

Electrostatic potential and
2 2 9 8  
Capacitance
3 3 Current electricity 15 13    
4 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10 9   

5 Magnetism and Matter 8 6   
5
6 Electromagnetic Induction 7 6   
7 Alternating Current 8 8  
6
8 Electromagnetic Waves 2 2 
7 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 9 9   
8 10 Wave Optics 9 8   
Dual nature of Radiation and
11 6 6  
9 Matter
12 Atoms 5 5 
13 Nuclei 7 5  
10 14 Semiconductor Electronics 12 9 
 

15 Communication Systems 4 3 
Total 120 105 10 16 24 30 25
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
PHYSICS (33)
MODEL PAPER – 3
Time : 3:15 Hrs. Max Marks: 70
Instructions:
marks.
PART – A
1. Who discovered the fact that amber rubbed with wool or silk attracts light objects?
2. Define current density.
3. What should be the angle between the velocity vector of the charged particle and the magnetic
field to experience a maximum force, when a charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic
field?
4. Write the relation between relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility of a magnetic
material.
5. State Lenz’s law in electromagnetic induction.
6. An elderly person is facing difficulty while reading a book which is about 25cm distance from his
eyes. Name the eye defect from which the person is suffering.
7. Give any one application of Polaroid.
8. A graph of stopping potential of a photo sensitive metal with the frequency of incident radiation
is plotted. What does the slope of this curve represent?
9. How to get a steady d.c output from the pulsating d.c output of a full wave rectifier?
10. Represent a typical analogue signal with a diagram
PART – B
II Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 x 2 = 10
11. Write Coulomb’s law in vector form and explain the terms.
12. Define relaxation time of conduction electrons. How it depends on the temperature of the
conductor?
13. State and explain Gauss law in magnetism.
14. A coil of self-inductance 2H is carrying a current of 2A. Calculate the energy stored in the coil.
15. What was Marconi’s invention in the field of electromagnetic waves? What for it is used now?
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
16. Mention any two methods of increasing the resolving power of a microscope.
17. What are isotones? Give an example.
18. A transistor is having a β equal to 80 has a change in base current of 250μA. Calculate the
change in the collector current.
PART – C
III Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 x 3 = 15
19. Obtain the expression for electric potential energy of a system of two point charges in the
absence of external electric field.
20. What is a cyclotron? Give the expression for cyclotron frequency and explain the terms.
21. Mention any three properties of diamagnetic substance.
22. Derive the expression for emf induced in a straight conductor moving perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field.
23. What is meant by resonance in a series LCR circuit? Write the expression for the current through
LCR series circuit at resonance. Mention any one application of resonant circuits.
24. Obtain the relation between radius of curvature and focal length of a concave mirror with
necessary ray diagram.
25. Draw the schematic diagram of a nuclear reactor and label its parts. What is the function of a
moderator in a nuclear reactor?
26. Mention the three important reasons which necessitate the process of modulation in
communication.
PART – D
IV Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 x 5 = 10
27. Derive the expression for electric field at a point outside a charged spherical shell using Gauss
law. What is the electric field inside the charged spherical shell?
28. Obtain the condition for the balance of a Wheatstone’s network using Kirchhoff’s rules of
electrical network.
29. Deduce the expression for the force between two long parallel conductors carrying steady
currents and hence define ‘ampere’ the S.I. unit of electric current.
30. Give the theory of interference of light by considering waves of equal amplitude and hence
arrive at the conditions for constructive and destructive interference in terms of path difference.
31. Derive the expression for the total energy of an electron revolving in the nth orbit of hydrogen
atom, assuming the expression for the radius of the orbit.
32. With a necessary diagram explain how a Zener diode works as voltage regulator.
QUESTION BANK
2ndPUC PHYSICS
VI Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3x5=15
33. A parallel plate capacitor has two plates of dimensions 10 cm x 7 cm separated by a distance of
0.7 mm. A glass plate of thickness 0.4 mm (dielectric constant = 6) and another dielectric
medium of thickness 0.3 mm (dielectric constant = 2.5) are placed between the plates of the
capacitor. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor before and after introduction of the
dielectric media.
34. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C. Determine
the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver. Also find the resistance of the silver wire at 0
°C.
35. A resistor of 200 Ω, an inductor of 25 mH and a capacitor of 15.0 μF are connected in series to a
220 V, 50 Hz ac source. Calculate the current through the circuit. Also find the phase difference
between the voltage across the source and the current.
36. A ball is approaching a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm with speed 20 m/s. Calculate the
speed of its image when the ball was at 5 m from the mirror?
37. The threshold wavelength of photo sensitive metal is 5000Å. Find the velocity of the
photoelectrons emitted by it when radiation of wavelength 4000Å is incident on it.
Given h = 6.625x10-34Js, e = 1.6x10-19C and mass of electron = 9.1x10-31kg.
*******##*******
Chairperson: M.S.Gayathri.
Lecturer in physics
G.I.P.U.College, Agara
Bangalore
Reviewer : Venkataraya. K
Lecturer in physics
Vijaya P.U.College,
Bangalore
QUESTION BANK
Government of Karnataka
Department of Pre University Education
Subject : Chemistry
Class : II PUC
Disclaimer:
The question bank is prepared for the benefit of students and teachers, The
committee worked for the preparation of question bank made all efforts to
make it comprehensive and foolproof. However, if any mistakes, errors found,
please mail at questionbank.pue@gmail.com, academic.pue@gmail.com.
There is no guarantee that questions from this question bank will only appear
in the examination conducted by the department.
Copyrights:
The copyrights of the question bank lies with the Director, Department of Pre-
University Education. The question bank is prepared for academic purpose
only. No part of the question bank is allowed to be used for commercial gains.
Question Paper
BLUE PRINT
II PUC CHEMISTRY (34)
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
Part C III 8 x 3
Part A I 10x1
Part D IV & V
11 x 5 marks
Part B II 8x2
Number of
marks
marks
mark
Total
Unit
Group Topic
1 The Solid state 8 7 7

2 Solution 9 8 7
Group-I 3 Electrochemistry 9 8 8
Physical
4 Chemical kinetics 9 8 8
5 Surface chemistry 6 5 6
Total of Group-I 41 36 36
General principles and processes of
6 5 4 4
isolation of elements
Group-II 7 The p-block elements 11 10 10
Inorganic
8 The d-block elements 9 8 8
9 Coordination compounds 7 6 6
Total of Group-II 32 28 28
10 Haloalkanes and haloarenes 7 6 6
11 Alcohols, phenols and ethers 8 7 7
Aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic
12 9 8 8
acids
Group-III
Organic 13 Amines 6 5 5
14 Biomolecules 7 6 6
15 Polymers 5 5 5
16 Chemistry in everyday life 5 4 4
Total of Group-III 47 41 41
Total 120 105 10 10 15 35 105

BLUE PRINT FOR MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1
TIME : 3 hours 15 min Max Marks : 70
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
Part C III 8 x 3
Part A I 10x1
Part D IV & V
11 x 5 marks
Part B II 8x2
Number of
marks
marks
mark
Total
Unit
Group Topic
1 The Solid state 8 7   7

2 Solution 9 8   7
Group-I
3 Electrochemistry 9 8    8
Physical
4 Chemical kinetics 9 8    8
5 Surface chemistry 6 5   6
General principles and
6 processes of isolation of 5 4   4
elements
Group-II
7 The p-block elements 11 10   10
Inorganic
8 The d-block elements 9 8   8
9 Coordination compounds 7 6  6
Haloalkanes and
10 7 6   6
haloarenes
Alcohols, phenols and
11 8 7   7
ethers
Aldehydes, ketones and
12 9 8    8
Group-III carboxylic acids
Organic
13 Amines 6 5  5
14 Biomolecules 7 6   6
15 Polymers 5 5  5
16 Chemistry in everyday life 5 4  4
Total 120 105 10 10 15 35 105
1
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1
Time: 3.15 Hrs. Max. Marks: 70
Instructions:
1. The question paper has four parts: A, B, C and D. All parts are compulsory.
2. Write balanced chemical equations and draw diagrams wherever required.
3. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary. (Use of scientific calculator not
allowed).
PART – A
I. Answer all the following questions. 1 x 10 = 10
1. The experimental value for the molar mass of a non-volatile solute is twice the
theoretical value. What is the Van’t Hoff factor for the solute?
2. Define ppm.
3. Which of the following has a higher value for molar conductivity under similar
conditions? 0.1M KCl or 0.01 M KCl.
4. The rate equation for the reaction A + B → P is rate = K [A]1 [B]2. By how many times
does the rate of reaction increase when concentrations of A & B are doubled?
5. Name the biocatalyst involved in the conversion of glucose into ethanol and carbon
dioxide.
6. Write the formula of the volatile compound formed during the purification of nickel by
Mond’s process.
7. What is geometry of the oxide of xenon formed when XeF6 is hydrolysed?
8. Between chlorobenzene and chloroethane, which is more reactive towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction?
9. Pentan-3- one does not undergo iodoform reaction. Give reason.
10. Name the nitrogenous base present in DNA but not in RNA.
PART – B
II. Answer any five of the following questions. 5 x 2 = 10
11. i) What type of vacancy defect is shown by a crystal of sodium chloride?
ii) Which of the following is an example of a molecular solid?
Diamond, ZnS, Solid Iodine, gold
12. i) According to the equation Cu2++2e 

 Cu, how many moles of copper are
deposited when 965C of electricity is passed through a solution of Cu2+ ions?
(1F=96500 C).
ii) Mention any one application of Kohlrausch law.
2
13. Derive the relation between half life and initial concentration of a zero order reaction;
R 
 P.
14. What is the common oxidation state shown by Lanthanoids? Mention any one
consequence of Lanthanoid contraction.
15. C2H5OH + Na(Metal) 

 X: X + C2H5Br 
 Y. What are X and Y?
Williamson reaction
16. Explain the Wolff-Kischner reduction of acetone and write the equation for the same.
17. i) Give an example of ‘a narcotic’ analgesic.
ii) Based on theraupatic action, to which class of drug does ranitidine belong to?
18. i) What is the role of aspartame in the food industry?
ii) What is saponification?
PART – C
III. Answer any five of the following 5x3= 15
19. Write the equations for the reactions involved in the leaching of alumina from bauxite
ore.
20. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process:
i) Mention the optimum temperature and optimum pressure employed. 2
ii) What is the role played by potassium oxide (K2O)? 1
21. a) Complete the following equations:
i) PbS(s) + 4 O3 (g) 
 1
ii) 2 NaOH + SO2 

 1
b) Write the structure of oleum (H2S2O7) 1
22. a) Give reason:
i) Fluorine exhibits only one oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit
multiple oxidation states. 1
ii) Most of the reactions with fluorine are exothermic. 1
b) Write the missing product:
NH3 + 3 Cl2 (excess) 

 ? + 3 HCl. 1
23. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate from MnO2. Write the balanced
chemical equations for the reactions involved.
24. a) Give reasons:
i) Generally there is increase in density along 3d series of transition metals.
ii) Third ionisation enthalpy of manganese is unusually high. 2
b) Which of the following ions is coloured in aqueous solution?
i) Sc3+ ii) Co3+ iii) Cu+ 1
3
25. Using valence bond theory account for the geometry and magnetic nature of [NiCl 4]2
ion. (Atomic number of Ni = 28).
26. a) In the complex compound represented by CoCl3.4NH3, how many ammonia
molecules satisfy the secondary valence of cobalt if one mole of the compound upon
treatment with excess AgNO3 produces one mole of AgCl(s)? 1
b) What type of structural isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co (NH3)5 NO2]2+?1
c) Between t2g and eg sets of d-orbitals of a central metal in an octahedral complex,
which set has higher energy? 1
PART – D
IV. Answer any three of the following questions. 3x5=15
27. a) Calculate the packing efficiency in a simple cubic lattice. 3
b) An element crystallizes in a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 400 pm.
Calculate the density of the unit cell. (molar mass=60 g mol1)
(Avogadro number = 6.02  1023) 2
28. a) 24 g of a non–volatile, non–electrolyte solute is added to 600 g of water. The boiling
point of the resulting solution is 373.35K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute
(Given boiling point of pure water = 373 K and Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol1). 3
b) i) A non ideal solution has H mixing > 0. What type of deviation does it show from
Raoult’s law?
ii) What is an azeotrope? 2
29. a) Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell represented below:
Ni(s) | Ni02.1M || Ag 0.01M | Ag(s) at 298 Given, Ecell
0
= 1.05 V; 3
b) i) What is the composition of the cathode in the lead storage battery?

ii) Name the product discharged at the anode during the electrolysis of an aqueous
solution of sodium chloride. 2
30. a) Derive the integrated rate equation for expressing the rate constant of a first order
reaction R 
 P. 3
Ea Ea
 
b) In the equation; rate = ZAB  e RT
, what does the term e RT
represent? 1
c) What is the effect of a catalyst on G of a reaction? 1
31. a) i) What type of adsorption involves Van der Waal’s forces of attraction?
ii) Give an example for homogeneous catalysis. 2
b) i) What is peptization?
ii) What is the dispersed phase in a gel?
4
iii) Which one of the following electrolyte is required in the smallest quantity to
precipitate a negative sol.? MgCl2. AlCl3, NaCl. 3
V. Answer any four of the following : 4x5=20
32. a) Discuss the mechanism of the hydrolysis of tert-butyl bromide. 2
b) Identify the missing reactant / product in each of the following:
i) 2-Bromopentane + alc. KOH 
 A + KBr (where A is the major product)
dry ether
ii) 2 ‘B’ + 2 Na  C4H10 + 2NaBr. 2
c) Between and which is an allylic chloride?

33. a) Write the equations involved in the preparation of phenol from cumene. 2
b) i) Give the IUPAC name of the product formed when tertiary butyl alcohol is
passed over copper heated to 573 K. 1
ii) Arrange the following in the increasing order of acidity and justify the same:
(CH3)3 COH, CH3OH, (CH3)2CHOH 2
34. a) Explain Stephen’s reduction with an example. 2
b) Complete the following equations: 3
i) 2 HCHO + conc. KOH 

ii) CH3CHO + NH2OH 

iii) CH3COOH + PCl5 

35. a) Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction and write the general equation
for the reaction involved. 2
b) i) Give reason: Aniline is a weaker base than ammonia.
NaNO2 Cu2 Cl2
ii) C6H5 NH2 
HCl, 273K
 X 
HCl
 Y . Write the formula of X & Y. 3
36. a) Write the Haworth structure of D-sucrose. Why is it a non-reducing sugar? 2

b) i) How many peptide bonds are in a hexapeptide?
ii) Write the general structure of the Zwiter ionic form of an -amino acid.
iii) Deficiency of which vitamin causes pernicious anemia? 3
37. a) i) Name the polymer whose partial structure is represented by
ii) What are the monomers of Nylon 6,6? 3
b) i) Name the catalyst used in the manufacture of high density polythene. 2
ii) What is the configuration at the carbon- carbon double bonds in natural rubber?
5
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
Part C III 8 x 3
Part A I 10x1
Part D IV & V
11 x 5 marks
Part B II 8x2
Number of
marks
marks
mark
Total
Unit
Group Topic

2 Solution 9 8   7
Group-I
Physical
elements
Group-II
Inorganic
Haloalkanes and
10 7 6   6
haloarenes
11 8 7   7
ethers
12 9 8    8
Organic
13 Amines 6 5  5
Total 120 105 10 10 15 35 105
6
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 2
Time: 3.15hrs Max Marks: 70
Instructions:
allowed).
PART-A
Answer each question in one word or in one sentence: 1x10=10
1. 68% aqueous nitric acid cannot be concentrated by further fractional distillation. Give
reason.
2. The cryoscopic constant and freezing point of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol1 and 278.6 K
respectively. At what temperature will one molal solution of benzene containing a non-
electrolyte (i=1) freeze?
3. E° of three metals A, B, C are +0.44 V, +1.37 V and 1.35 V. Arrange the metals in
increasing order of their reducing power.
4. Mention one difference between a catalyst and a inhibitor.
5. Write the mathematical expression for Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
6. Name the purest form of commercial iron.
7. A noble gas has the property to diffuse through rubber. Name the noble gas.
8. Write an equation for Swartz reaction.
9. CH3CHO   X. Give the IUPAC name of X.

1) dil.NaOH
2) 
10. Name the sugar moiety present in RNA molecule.
PART-B
Answer any five questions: 5 × 2 = 10
11. a) What do you mean by anisotropic solid?
b) When is ferrimagnetism observed in a substance?
12.  m of 0.05 M weak electrolyte is 50 Sm2 mol1,  0m of it is 440 Sm2 mol1. Calculate 
(degree of dissociation) of the electrolyte.

13. Draw a plot of ln[R] versus t for a first order reaction. What is slope of the line equal to?
14. Give reason: i) Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element.
ii) Actinoids show variable oxidation states.
7
 R   COOH
15. HCHO 
1. RMgX, ether
2. H O 2
 X 
H
 Y. What are the structures of X and Y?
16. Complete the equation and name the reaction:
17. Give reasons: i) Aspirin finds use in prevention of heart attacks.

ii) Sodium laurylsulphate is a anionic detergent
18. What is a broad spectrum antibiotic? Is penicillin a broad spectrum or a narrow
spectrum antibiotic?
PART-C
Answer any five questions: 5 × 3 = 15
19. Complete the following equations:
a) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 

b) ZrI4  
heat on
Tungsten
c) ZnO + C   coke

1673K
20. Give reasons: i) Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule

ii) Nitrogen cannot form a pentahalide
iii) Aluminium does not dissolve in conc. HNO3
21. Write the three steps (with conditions) involved in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by
contact process.
i) Cl2 + 2F 

ii) 6NaOH (hot and conc.) + 3Cl2 

iii) XX' + H2O 

23. Give reasons:
i) Cu+2 (aq) is more stable than Cu+
ii) Ionisation enthalpy increases along transition elements from left to right
iii) Zn has highest value for E° (M3+ / M2+) among 3d series elements
24. a) Write the two steps involved in the commercial process of converting MnO 2 to
potassium permanganate. 2
b) Write the structure of chromate ion. 1
25. Explain the hybridisation, geometry and magnetic property of [Ni(CN)4]2 using VBT.
26. a) What type of isomerism is exhibited by the square planar complex of type MABXY?
How many of these isomers are possible? 2
8
b) How is a metal-carbon  bond formed in metal carbonyls? 1
PART-D
IV. Answer any five of the following questions: 5 × 5 = 25
27. a) Calculate packing efficiency in CCP unit cell. 3
b) Explain with an example how impurity defect develops in NaCl crystal. 2
28. a) Calculate the mole fraction of CO2 in one litre of soda water sealed under a pressure
of 3.5 bar at 298 K. KH = 1.67  103 bar. 2
b) What are these? 3
i) solid solutions ii) colligative properties iii) isotonic solution
29. a) i) Name the product liberated at anode when dil. H2SO4 is electrolysed. 2
ii) What Faraday of current is required to electrolyse one mole of water?
b) i) Between mercury cell and nickel-cadmium cell, which is a secondary cell? 2
ii) Mention one advantage of H2O2 fuel cell.
c) Write Nernst equation for the cell represented as : Mg(s) | Mgaq2  || Al3aq  | Al (S) 1
30. a) Show that for a first order reaction, t99.9% = 10 t½. 3

b) In the graph drawn what does A and the shaded region B represent? 2
31. a) Name the phenomenon / process involved 3

i) mixing of hydrated ferric oxide (+ve sol) and arsenious sulphide (ve sol)
ii) An impure sol is purified by removing dissolved particles using suitable
membrane
iii) Movement of dispersion medium is observed in an electric field.
b) Mention any two characteristic of enzyme catalysis. 2
32. a) Write the equation for SN2 mechanism between CH3Cl and OH. What is the
stereochemical aspect of SN2 reaction? 2
b) i) Aryl halide with sodium in dry ether undergoes Fittig reaction. Write the
equation and name the product. 2
ii) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction. 1
9
33. a) What is the organic compound formed in the following: 3
b) Give reason: 2
i) o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by steam distillation.
ii) There is a large difference in boiling points of alcohols and ethers.
34. a) Write the structure of P and Q? Name the reaction that gives the product P. 3
b) Explain decarboxylation with an example. 2

35. a) Name the products X and Y? 2
b) Between methyl amine and ammonia which has lower pKb value and why? 2
c) Name the final product of ammonolysis of an alkyl halide. 1
36. a) Write the Haworth structure of -D() fructofuranose. 1
b) i) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine. What does this
indicate about the structure of glucose. 3
ii) Which is the most abundant polysaccharide in plants?
iii) Name the neutral -amino acid that is not optically active.
c) What major molecular shape does the tertiary structure of protein lead to? 1
37. a) What is a homopolymer? Give an example. 2
b) Write the equation for the formation of the polymer by the interaction of ethylene
glycol and terephthalic acid. Name the polymer. 2
c) Molecular mass of polymers are expressed as an average. Give reason. 1
10
Teaching hours
Marks Allotted
Part C III 8 x 3
Part A I 10x1
Part D IV & V
11 x 5 marks
Part B II 8x2
Number of
marks
marks
mark
Total
Unit
Group Topic

2 Solution 9 8   7
Group-I
Physical
elements
Group-II
Inorganic
Haloalkanes and
10 7 6   6
haloarenes
11 8 7   7
ethers
12 9 8    8
Organic
13 Amines 6 5  5
Total 120 105 10 10 15 35 105
11
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-3
Time: 3.15 Hrs. Max. Marks: 70
Instructions:
allowed).
Part-A
I. Answer ALL of the following. 1 x 10 = 10
1. Name the phenomenon involved: A raw mango in a concentrated salt solution loses
water and shrinks.
2. How does the solubility of a solute vary with increase in temperature if the dissolution
process is exothermic?
3. What is the oxidising agent in mercury cell?
4. Half life period of a reaction is directly proportional to initial concentration of the
reactant. What is the order of this reaction?
5. What should be the value of 1/n in the Freundlich adsorption isotherm, to show that
adsorption can be independent of pressure ?
6. An ore contains PbS and ZnS. Sodium cyanide is used as depressant. Which of these
sulphide comes with the froth?
7. Which noble gas has lowest boiling point?
8. What is retention of configuration?
9. Name the type of carbonyl compound which on oxidation gives a carboxylic acid with
lesser number of carbon atoms.
10. Name the element of group 17 present in Thyroxine hormone.
Part-B
II. Answer any FIVE of the following. 5x2=10
11. Mention the two crystal systems in which all edge lengths in their unit cell are the same.
12. A fuel cell generates a standard electrode potential of 0.7 V, involving 2 electrons in its
cell reaction. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction. Given F =
96487 C mol1.
13. The ratio of rate constants of a reaction at 300K and 291K is 2. Calculate the energy of
activation. (Given R = 8.314JK1mol1).
14. i) Write the general electronic configuration of tripositive lanthanoid ion.
12
ii) Name the element of lanthanide with maximum paramagnetic property.
15. Complete the following:
PCC
i) CH3 –CH = CH CH2OH  
16. Write the chemical equation to convert acetic acid to monochloro acetic acid. Name this
reaction.
17. a) What do we call a drug that binds to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function
b) What is the therapeutic use of iodoform ?
18. Classify the following into cationic and anionic detergents: Sodium
dodecylbenzenesulphonate and Cetyltrimethyammonium bromide.
Part-C
III. Answer any FIVE of the following. 5x3=15
19. a) Name the reducing agent used in the extraction of zinc from zinc oxide. Write the
chemical equation for this reaction. 2
b) Write the composition of copper matte. 1
20. In the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process, Write
a) the catalyst for the oxidation of ammonia by atmospheric oxygen. 1
b) the chemical equation for the dissolution of NO2 in water. 1
c) the dehydrating agent used to convert 68% by mass of HNO3 to 98%. 1
21. Complete the following equations: 3
i) NO + O3 

ii) 5SO2 + 2MnO4- + 2H2O 

iii) C + 2H2SO4 (conc.) 

22. a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the oxidation of acidified ferrous sulphate
solution by chlorine. 1
b) Give the composition of carnallite. 1
c) Fluorine does not exhibit positive oxidation state. Why? 1
23. a) Why VO2+ has lesser oxidizing power than Cr2O72? 1
b) What is the oxidation state of nickel in Ni(CO)4? 1
c) Write the unit for magnetic moment. 1
24. Write the chemical equations involved in the manufacture of potassium dichromate
from chromite ore. 3
13
25. With the help of VBT, explain the type of hybridization, geometry and magnetic property
of [Co(NH3)6]3+. 3
26. a) Explain synergic effect in the formation of metal carbonyls. 2
b) Give one example for a heteroleptic complex. 1
Part-D
IV. Answer any THREE of the following. 3x5=15
27. a) Calculate the packing efficiency of particles in a body centred cube. 3
b) Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and those of element A occupies 2/3rd of
tetrahedral voids. Calculate the formula of the compound formed by A
and B. 2
28. a) 18g of glucose is dissolved in 1000g of water at 300K. At what temperature does this
solution boil? (Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol1. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol1,
boiling point of water = 273.15 K) 3
b) What are the conditions of pressure and temperature under which solubility of
carbon dioxide in water can be increased? 2
29. a) For the electrochemical cell represented as: Cu(s) |Cu2+(aq) ||Ag+(aq) |Ag(s), write the
half cell reaction that occurs at (i) anode (ii) cathode 1+1
b) Write the relationship between equilibrium constant of the reaction and standard
potential of the cell. 1
c) Resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.1M KCl solution is 100 . Cell constant
of the cell is 1.29 /cm. Calculate the conductivity of the solution at the same
temperature. 2
30. a) Derive an expression for half life period of a first order reaction. 2
b) Explain the influence of a catalyst on rate of a reaction. 2
 2HI, the rate of disappearance of H2 is 1  104 Ms1.
c) For the reaction, H2 + I2 
What is the rate of appearance of HI. 1
31. a) What is Brownian movement? How is it caused? 2
b) Write the difference between physisorption and chemisorption with respect to
i) type of attractive forces between adsorbate and adsorbent
ii) number of layers of adsorption. 2
c) Name the enzyme that catalyses the reaction: H2NCONH2 +H2O 
 2NH3+CO2. 1
14
V. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. 4x5=20
32. a) Write SN1 mechanism for the hydrolysis of 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane. Why are SN1
reactions generally carried in polar protic solvents? 3
b) In the preparation of aryl halides by Sandmeyer’s reaction, name the
i) catalyst used ii) gas liberated. 2
33. a) Write the chemical equation for the conversion of,
i) phenol to salicylaldehyde ii) Salicylic acid to aspirin. 2
b) Explain Williamson’s ether synthesis. 2
c) Which class of alcohols do not readily form turbidity with Lucas reagent? 1
34. a) Explain Clemmensen reduction with an example. 2
b) Name the reaction to obtain benzaldehyde from:
i) toluene ii) benzene iii) benzoyl chloride. 3
35. a) How are primary amines prepared from nitro compounds? Write the equation. 2
b) How does Hinsberg’ s reagent react with ethyl amine? Write the equation. 2
c) Write the IUPAC name of 1
36. a) Name the water insoluble component of starch. 1

b) Name the type of linkage between two nucleotides in nucleic acid. 1
c) With respect to proteins, what do you mean by
i) primary structure ii) denaturation 2
d) Write an equation for the formation of a dipeptide between (glycine)
and (alanine) . 1
37. a) What is addition polymerization? Give one example for a copolymer. 2

b) Write the name of monomers required to manufacture Buna-N rubber. Write the
polymerization reaction for the same. 2
c) What is Zeigler-Natta catalyst? 1
15
MODEL ANSWER WITH VALUE POINTS FOR QUESTION PAPER-1
Q.No PART-A Marks
1 Half or ½ 1
2 Number of parts of the component 1
ppm = 106
Total number of pats of all components
3 0.01M KCl 1
4 8 times ( or rate increases 8 times) 1
5 Zymase 1
6 [Ni(CO)4] 1
7 Pyramidal geometry 1
8 Chloroethane 1
9 It is not a methyl ketone 1
10 Thymine 1
PART-B
11 (i) Schotty defect (ii) solid iodine 2
12 i) 0.005 mol 1
ii) any one of the following:
in determination of limiting molar conductivity ( 0m ) of a weak electrolyte, in 1
determination / calculation of degree of dissociation (α) OR / acid dissociation constant

(Ka) of a weak electrolyte.
13 For a zero order reaction
k=
R   R
0
At t = t½ , [R] =
1
[R0]
t 2 1
1
R   2 R 
0 0 R 
k=  t½ =
0 1
t1 2 2k
14 +3 : 1
Consequence :
4d and 5 d series transition elements have almost identical size / radii OR
Zr – Hf / M0 – W occur together in nature / difficult to separate. 1
15 X = C2H5ONa (sodium ethoxide) 1
Y = C2H5OC2H5 (ethoxy ethane) 1
16 Acetone is reduced to propane using NH2-NH2 followed by heating with KOH
CH3COCH3 1)NH2 NH2

  CH3CH2CH3 2
2)KOH/ethylene glycol,heat
OR self explanatory equation

17 i) Morphine / codeine 1
ii) antacid 1
18 i) Artificial sweetner / sweetening agent 1
ii) Formation of sodium salts of fatty acid upon heating a fat with sodium hydroxide. 1
PART - C
19 Al2O3(s) + 2NaoH(aq) + 3H2O 
 2 Na [Al(OH)4](aq) 1
2 Na [Al(OH)4](aq) + CO2(g) 
 Al2O3 x H2O(s) + 2NaHCO3(aq) 1
Al2O3 x H2O(s) 1470

 K
 Al2O3 + x H2O(s) each equation - 1M 1
20 i) Optimum temperature -  700 K OR 427C 1

Optimum pressure - 200 x 105 Pa OR 200 atm 1
ii) increase the rate of attainment of equilibrium / promoter / increase the activity of the 1
catalyst
21 a) (i) Pb S(s) + 4O3(g) 
 PbSO4(s) + 4O2(g) 1
ii) 2NaOH + SO2 

 Na2SO3 + H2O 1
22 a) (i) absence of d orbital in the valence shell 1

ii) Due to small size and strong bond formed by fluorine with other elements 1
iii) NH3 + 3Cl2(excess) 
 NCl3 + 3HCl OR NCl3 OR nitrogen trichloride
1
23 KMnO4 is prepared by the fusion of MnO2 with an alkali metal hydroxide / KOH, followed by
disproportionation 1
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 
 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O 1
3Mn O42 + 4H+ 

 2Mn O4 + MnO2 + 2H2O 1
OR Self explanatory equations

24 a) (i) Decrease in metallic radius coupled with increase in atomic mass causes increase in
density 1
ii) since d5 configuration in Mn2+ is disturbed 1
iii) Co3+ 1
25 Orbitals of Ni2+ ion :
Geometry : Tetrahedral 1
Magnetic property : Paramagnetic due to unpaired electrons 1
26 i) 4 1
ii) linkage isomerism 1
iii) eg 1
PART-D
27 a) In a simple cubic edge length a = 2r 1
Volume of one atom in unit cell of simple cube 1
Packing efficiency =  100%
Volume of unit cell
4 3
r
=3 3
(2r)
1
= 52.4%
zM 1
b) d = =
a3NA
4  60
d= 10
(400  10 cm)3  6.022  1023
d = 6.22 g cm–3 1
28 1000Kb w 2 1000  0.52  24 2
a) Molar mass of solute M2 = =
Tb  w1 0.35  600 1
M2 = 59.42 g mol1
b) i) positive deviation 1
ii) binary mixture having same composition in both liquid and vapour phase and boils at 1
constant temperature
29 0.059 [Ni2 ] 1
a) Ecell = Eocell  log
2 [Ag  ]2
0.059 0.1 1
= 1.05  log
2 (0.01)2
Ecell = 0.96 V 1
b) i) Pb, PbO2 1
ii) chlorine or Cl2 1
30 a) Consider a first order reaction: R 
 P. Let [R0] be the initial concentration and [R] be
the concentration of the reactant at time t.
dR 1
For the first order reaction, = k[R]1
dt
d R  dR 
We have
R 
1
= k dt Integrating on both sides:  R =   k dt 1
ln [R] = kt + I --- (1) where I is constant of integration
When t = 0 [R] = [R0] ; I = ln [R0]
 Equation 1 becomes ln[R] = kt + ln[R0]
1
kt = ln
R 
0
k=
1 R0 
ln
R t R
[R] = concentration of R at time t, [R0] = initial concentration of R
(b) e-a/RT represents the fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater than Ea. 1
(c) Catalyst has no effect on G of a reaction. 1
31 a) (i) physisorption / physical adsorption 1
(ii) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)   2SO3(g)

(g) NO
OR CH3COOCH3(l) + H2O(l)   CH3COOH(aq) + CH3OH(aq)

(l ) HCl
1
OR C12H22O11(aq) + H2O(l)  
  C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)
2 4(l ) H SO
1
(b) (i) process of converting a precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking it with small amount of
an electrolyte 1
1
(ii) liquid
(iii) AlCl3
32 a) Formation of t-butyl carbocation – step -1

followed by attack of nucleophile – step 2
1
b) (i) A = Pent -2-ene OR CH3-CH=CH-CH2CH3 2

(ii) B = C2H5Br
1
c) is allylic chloride
33 2
(b) i) 2-methylpropene
ii) (CH3)3C-OH < (CH3)2CH-OH < CH3OH 1
As number of CH3 groups increases 1
Polarity of O-H bond decreases 1
346 a) Reduction of nitriles to aldehydes using SnCl2 / HCl 2
CH2OH
O H H
5
CH3OCN +H SnCl2 
 CH3CHO
H
4 1
H
1 OH H
(b) i) 2HCHO conc
  HCOOK + CH3OH
KOH
- 1
OH OH OH
ii) CH3CHO + NH2OH   CH3-CH=N-OH

3 2
OH
2
H OH 1
iii) CH3COOH + PCl5   CH3COCl + POCl3 + HCl
-H2O
1
35 O 2
6
OH RCNH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH 
CH2OH
 RNH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O
5
O H H O H
1
4 Conversion of
H
1
amide to amine upon treatment with Br2 / NaOH
H OH H
O (b)
3
(i) Lone
2
OHpair density on nitrogen is less available than in aniline / due to +R effect / 1
2
Hresonance / delocalization 1
OH OH
ii) X = C6H5 – N  NCl (o r C6H5N2Cl)

MALTOSE
Y = C6H5Cl 1
36
H CH2OH
1 H O H
H
OH H 1
OH
2
H -H2O OH O 1
6
H OH
CH2OH
OH O
 H OH 
OH 
H  
CH2OH
 H
CH2OH OH
H SUCROSE
Both the reducing groups of glucose and fructose are involved in glycoside bond formation 1
b) (i) five (5)

1
ii) R
1
H3+NCHCO O 1
iii) vitamin B12
37 a) i) Polyacrylonitrile 1
2
ii) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid OR H2N (CH2)6–NH2 and COOH – (CH2)4-COOH
b) i) Zeigler – Natta catalyst

1
ii) Cis configuration 1
MODEL ANSWER WITH VALUE POINTS FOR QUESTION PAPER - 2
QNo PART-A Marks
1 It is an azeotrope. 1
2 273.48 K 1
3 B<A<C 1
4 A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction but a inhibitor reduces the rate of a reaction. 1
5 x 1 1
 kp n
m
6 Wrought or malleable iron 1
7 Helium or He. 1
8 CH3 Br + AgF 
 CH3F + AgBr 1
9 but-2-enal 1
10   D – ribose 1
PART-B
11 a) These are solids for which some physical properties have different values in different 1
directions.
b) When magnetic moments of the domains are aligned parallel and in anti parallel directions in 1
unequal numbers.
12 m 50
= = = 0.1136 2
m
0
440
13
14 i) Due to poor shielding by 5f electrons 1

ii) 5f, 4d, 6s have nearly same energy. 1
15 X = R – CH2OH 1
Y = R|-COOCH2R 1
16 RCOONa + CHCl3 Haloform reaction 2
17 i) It has anti blood clotting action 1
ii) The anion of it has cleansing action 1
18 An antibiotic that kills or inhibits a wide range of Gram-positive and negative bacteria. 1
Penicillin is a narrow spectrum antibiotic. 1
PART-C
19 i) 6Cu + SO2 1
ii) Zr + 2I2 1
iii) Zn + CO 1
20 i) It forms stable pπ – pπ multiple bond with itself. 1
ii) Due to non availability of ‘d’ orbitals in its valence shell. 1
iii) Due to the formation of passive film of oxide on the surface. 1
21 Burning of sulphur or sulphide ore in air to generate SO2 1
Conversion of SO2 to SO3 by its reaction with O2 in presence of V2O5 at 2 bar pressure and 720K 1
Absorption of SO3 in conc. H2SO4 to get oleum, which is diluted with water to get H2SO4 1
22 i) 2Cl + F2 1
ii) NaClO3 + 5NaCl + 3 H2O 1
iii) HX' + HOX 1
23 i) Due to much more negative  Hhyd
0
of Cu2+ 1
ii) Due to increase in nuclear charge as electron fill the inner ‘d’ orbitals. 1
iii) Due to the removal of the electron from stable d10 configuration of Zn2+ 1
24 fuse with KOH

a) MnO2 
oxidised by air or KNO3
Mn O24 1
Mn O24 
Electrolytic oxidation in
alkaline solution
Mn O4
1
25
1
2
Spin pairing and dsp hybridization
2
Geometry : tetrahedral, Magnetic property : diamagnetic
26 a) Geometric or cis – trans isomerism 1
3 isomers 1
b) M-C π bond is due to the donation of electron pair from filled ‘d’ orbital of the metal into 1
vacant antibonding π* orbital of CO.
PART D
27 Volume of 4 spheres in a unit cell 1
a) Packing efficiency =  100%
Total volume of unit cell
4r 1
In CCP, a = or 2 2 r, volume = a3
2
4
4  r 3
Packing efficiency = 3  100% = 74%
  1
3
2 2r
b) SrCl2 is added to molten NaCl and crystallized. Some Na+ sites will be occupied by Sr2+. Each
2
Sr2+ replaces two Na+ ions and thus cationic vacancy is produced for every Sr2+ ion added.
28 pCO2
a) x CO2 
KH 1
3.5 1
x CO2  = 2.095  103
1.67  103
b) i) A binary solution in which the solvent is a solid. 1
ii) Property of the solution that depends only on the number of solute particles and not on 1
their nature relative to the total number of particles in solution. 1
iii) Two solutions that have same osmotic pressure at same temperature.
29 a) i) Oxygen gas 1
ii) 2 or TWO 1
b) i) Nickel – cadmium 1
ii) Efficiency is more than in thermal power plants 1
3
0 0.059 Mg2 
c) Ecell = E cell  log 2 1
6  Al3 
30 2.303 100 2.303 100 1

a) log =k; log =k
t99% 1 t1/2 50
Equating both
2.303 2.303 1
log 100 = log 2
t99% t1/2
2 0.3010
=
t99% t1/2
t99% = 10 t½ 1
b) A is most probable kinetic energy 1
B is fraction of molecules having kinetic energy  Ea. 1
31 a) i) Mutual coagulation 1
ii) dialysis 1
iii) electro osmosis 1
b) Highly efficient, highly specific in action, highly active under optimum temperature or pH (any
2
two)
32 1
1
inversion of configuration
1
1
diphenyl or biphenyl
33
1
b) i) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile but p-nitrophenol is not. 1

ii) molecules of alcohol are associated through H-bonding. 1
34
a) P = Q= Gattermann Koch reaction 3
b) Carboxylic acid lose CO2 to form hydrocarbon when their sodium salts are heated with 1
sodalime.
NaOH CaO
CH3COONa 
heat
 CH4 + Na2CO3 1
HO C H
4
OH H C OH
5
OH H C OH
6 CH2OH
H2OH
D-(+)-glucose D-(-)-fructose
6 1
O H
35 a)CH
X OH
= aniline or benzenamine
2
CH OH 2 1
O
Y =Hacetanilide or 2N-phenylethanamide 1
1
H 5 OH
OH
2 H 4
b) MethylamineH – ItOHis a stronger base than ammonia 2
3
OH
OH
yraranose -D (-)-fructofuraranose
-
c) Quarternary ammonium salt 1
36
6
CH2OH OH
O
O OH
1
 H OH 

H
H  
CH2OH
H
2 OH H
OH
b) i)-D
Glucose does not have a free aldehydic group 1
-
ranose (-)-fructofuraranose
ii) Cellulose 1
O
1 iii) Glycine
H
6
OH 1
CH2OH O
H
OH 2 5 iv) Fibrous
H
H
or globular
OH
2 1
OH
3
37 a)OHPolymer
4 made
3 up of only one type of monomer. CH2OH
1 1
H OH H
se Teflon, PVC, Polythene, Polystyrene, Nylon6, Natural rubber

-D-(-)-fructopyranose 1
1
Terylene or dacron or PETP 1

c) A polymer contains chains of different lengths. 1
MODEL ANSWER WITH VALUE POINTS FOR QUESTION PAPER - 3
Q.No PART-A Marks

1 Osmosis 1
2 It decreases 1
3 Mercury (II) oxide or HgO 1
4 Zero order 1
5 Zero or 0 1
6 PbS 1
7 Helium or He 1
8 No change in the configuration at asymmetric carbon during a chemical reaction 1
9 Ketones 1
10 Iodine 1
PART-B
11 Cubic and rhombohedral (or trigonal) 2
12 G° = nFE0 =  2  96487  0.7 = 135 kJ 2
13 k2 TT 1
Ea = 2.303  8.314  log  1 2
k1 T2  T1
2.303  8.314  log2  300  291 1

Ea = = 55.9 kJ
9
14 i) 4fn where n = 1 to 14 1
ii) Neodynium 1
15 i) CH3CH = CH  CHO 1
16 i) Cl2 , red P
CH3COOH   Cl  CH2  COOH 1
ii) H2 O
1
Hell-Volhard -Zelinsky
17 a) Antagonists 1
b) Antiseptic 1
18 Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate - anionic 1
Cetyltrimethulammonium bromide - cationic 1
PART-C
19 a) Carbon (coke) : ZnO + C 
 Zn + CO 2
b) Cu2S + FeS 1
20 a) Pt / Rh gauze 1
b) 3NO2 (g) + H2O (l) 
 2HNO3 (aq) + NO (g) 1
c) conc. H2SO4 1
21 i) NO + O3 
 NO2 + O2 1
 5 SO24 + 4H+ + 2 Mn2

ii) 5SO2 + 2Mn O4 + 2H2O  1
1
iii) C + 2 H2SO4 
 CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
22 a) Cl2 + H2SO4 + 2FeSO4 
 Fe2 (SO4)3 + 2HCl 1
b) KCl MgCl2 6 H2O 1
c) It is the most electronegative element 1
23 a) Cr is more stable in lower oxidation state 1

b) Zero or 0 1
c) Bohr magneton or BM 1
24 4FeCrO4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 
 2Fe2O3 + 8Na2CrO4 + 8CO2 1
2Na2CrO4 + 2Cl+ 
 Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na+ + H2O 1
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl 
 K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl 1
25
1
Geometry : Octahedral
1
Magnetic property : Diamagnetic
26 a) Metal-carbon has both  and  bond between them.
MC  bond by donating electron pair from C to metal 1
MC  bond by donating electron pair from filled d of metal to * of carbon
Thus MC bond is strengthened. This is synergic effect. 1
b) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] or any other. 1
PART-D
27 volume occupied by two spheres in the unit cell 1
a) Packing efficiency =  100%
Total volume of the unit cell
4r
Volume of the unit cell = a3 ; a =
3 2
2   4 / 3 r 3
Packing efficiency =  100% = 68%
 
3
 4 / 3 r
 
2
b) B1 A2x2/3 = B3A4
28 a) Tb = Kb  m 1
18 1000 1
Tb = 0.52 +  Tb = 0.052 K
180 1000
Boiling point = 273.15 + 0.052 = 273.202 K 1
b) High pressure, low temperature 2
29 

a) anode : Cu (s)  2 
 Cuaq + 2e ;

cathode 2Ag aq 

+ 2e  2Ag(s) 2
0 0.059
b) Ecell = log K
n 1
cell constant 1.29
c) k = k= = 1.29  102 S cm1
resistance 100 2
30 2.303 R0  R  1
a) k = log ; when t = t½ [R] = 0
t R 2
k=
2.303
log
R0  1
t1/2 R0  / 2
0.693
k=
t1/2
b) A catalyst provides an alternate path of low activation energy. Lowering of activation 2

energy, increases the rate of the reaction.
c) rate of appearance of HI = 2  104 Ms1 1
31 a) Zig zag movement of colloidal particles in a medium. 1

Unbalanced bombardment of colloidal particles by particles of the dispersion medium. 1
b)
Physisorption Chemisorption
i) Van der Waal's forces Chemical bond formation 2
ii) Multi molecular layers Unimolecular layer.
c) Urease 1
32 

a) (CH3)3CBr  +
 (CH3)3 C + Br

(CH3)3 C+ + OH 
 (CH3)3 C  OH 2
Protic solvents solvate halide ion and provide energy 1
b) i) Cu2 X2 ii) Nitrogen 2
33
1
b) Alkyl halide react with alkoxide to form ether

2
RX + NaOR' 
 ROR' + NaX
c) Primary alcohols 1
34 a) Reduction of carbonyl group with Zn-Hg / conc. HCl to methylene group 2

Zn Hg
CH3COCH3 
conc.HCl
 CH3CH2CH3
Acetone propane
b) i) Etard reaction ii) Gatterman Koch iii) Rosenmund's 3
35 H2 /Ni
a) RNO2   RNH2 2
 C2H5NH  SO2 C6H5 + HCl

b) C2H5NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl  2
N-ethylbenzenesulphonamide
c) N, N - dimethylbenzenamine 1
36 a) Amylopectin 1
b) Phosphodiester bond 1
c) i) It refers to the sequence of -amino acids in its polypeptide chain. 1
ii) Loss in biological activity due to uncoiling of its globular or helical structure is
denaturation. 1
1
37 a) Linking large number of monomers by addition reaction 1
Nylon 6, 6 1
b) 1, 3 - butadiene and acrylonitrite 1
c) TiCl4 and triethyl aluminium. 1

The committee sincerely thanks the director and the personnel in the academic section
Pre-University Education, Karnataka, for giving us all an opportunity to work towards
preparing a question bank on chemistry subject for II PUC.
The president, reviewer and members considered the following points while finalising
the question bank for each chapter.
1. Questions were framed to cover almost all the concepts in a chapter.
2. Members were asked to go through the 12th board exam papers of CBSE to get an
idea as to how simple and intelligent questions are framed. Members have tried to set
some questions on these lines.
3. Many types / variety of questions than could be suitable set (reasoning, thinking,
application, matching type, fill in the blanks) for a chapter has been designed.
4. Questions carrying one, two and three marks has been framed for all the chapters.
Questions carrying five marks (split in many ways) has been done for few chapters.
5. Considering this task as only an initial step, as there is more scope in future for
improving and enriching the question bank by the department, we have sincerely tried
to keep the number of questions to a minimum without compromising with the quality
and the concepts.
We humbly admit that the question bank is not exhaustive and comprehensive. We
have definitely not included all the intext and chapter end questions given in prescribed text
book.
In spite of this we do believe that this question bank prompts a teacher to go through
the text keenly and get salient points to teach and question the students at all levels. The
question bank definitely helps the student to learn and practice all the concepts thoroughly
and boosts his confidence to face any type or variety of questions in the board as well as in
the competitive examinations.
The letters K, U, A, S against each question indicate the level or standard of the
question. However this classification is not foolproof as it is very subjective based on one's
intelligence.
We take full responsibility for any factual or typing errors that may have crept in.
Opinion/ suggestions for improving the question bank are welcome from all those concerned.
II PU CHEMISTRY QUESTION BANK
Subject Code: 34
Contents
Page
Unit Particulars
No
1 The Solid State 2
2 Solutions 6
3 Electrochemistry 11
4 Chemical Kinetics 17
5 Surface Chemistry 23
6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of 27
Elements
7 The p-block elements 30
8 The d and f block elements 37
9 Coordination Compounds 42
10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 47
11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 52
12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 57
13 Amines 62
14 Biomolecules 67
15 Polymers 71
16 Chemistry in everyday life 75
1
UNIT-1: THE SOLID STATE
One mark questions:
1. What is anisotropy? K
2. Between glass and copper, which one is isotropic in nature? U
3. Arrange these solids in their increasing order of inter molecular attractions: A
ice, I2, solid ammonia
4. Ionic solids conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid state. Give reason U
5. Is diamond a network or a metallic solid? K
6. What type of crystalline solid is AlN? K
7. Which type of crystalline solids have very high melting point? K
8. Define coordination number K
9. How many 3 dimensional crystal lattices are possible? K
10. What is the coordination number of a particle in hcp? U
11. How many octahedral voids are in ccp unit cell? U
12. What is an end centred unit cell? K
13. What is the formula of the compound if the unit cell of it contains atoms A, B and C A
and occupy the lattice points as shown?
14. Nickel crystallizes as FCC. How many unit cells are required to accommodate one
mole of nickel atoms? U
15. Define packing efficiency. K
16. Write the relationship between density and edge length of a unit cell. K
17. What type of defect is exhibited by the solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl? U
18. What are F-centres? K
19. What is the colour imparted to/by KCl due to anionic vacancies? K
20. ZnO turns yellow on heating. Name the type of defect created? K
21. What are non stoichiometric defects? K
22. A sample of nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O. Name the type of non
stoichiometric defect it exhibits. U
23. What are intrinsic semiconductors? K
24. How does electrical conductivity of an electrolyte vary with temperature? U
2
25. Name the type of semiconductor obtained when Ge is doped with indium. U
26. How are the domains arranged in MnO if it is a anti-ferromagnetic material? U
27. Give an example for the substance that exhibits ferrimagnetism. K
28. A metal has bcc system. What is the relationship between length of the body
diagonal and radius of the metal atom? U
Two mark questions
1. Distinguish crystalline and amorphous solids with respect to: K
i) melting point ii) heat of fusion
2. What type of attractive force exists between constituent particles in: i) solid CO2 U
ii) SiO2
3. Write the differences between metallic and ionic crystalline solids K
4. Write the differences between metallic and molecular crystalline solids K
5. Name two types of 2 dimensional close packing arrangement. U
6. Name the two parameters that characterise a unit cell. K
7. Define unit cell and crystal lattice. K
8. How many possible variations are in a cubic crystal system? Which one of these
has 4 particles / unit cell? U
9. What portion of the atom (or particle) belongs to a unit cell if it is located U
i) in the body of the unit cell
ii) at the centre of an edge of the unit cell?
10. How many lattice points in unit cell of i) FCC ii) end centred U
11. Write one similarity and one difference between hcp and ccp U
12. Calculate the number of atoms in face centred cubic unit cell. U
13. Calculate the number of atoms in body centred cubic unit cell. U
14. In a compound, atoms A form ccp, atoms of B occupy all the tetrahedral voids and
atom C occupy all the octahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound? A
15. A metal oxide crystallises in hcp arrangement for its oxide ions. 2/3rds of
octahedral voids are occupied by metal ions. What is the formula of the metal
oxide? S
16. Aluminium crystallizes in ccp structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm. Calculate the
length of the face diagonal of the unit cell. S
17. A metal crystallizes in bcc structure. Edge length of the unit cell is 300 pm. How
many unit cells are in 5 cm3 of the metal? S
18. What are point defects and line defects? K
3
19. Distinguish between Frenkel and Schottky defects. K
20. Explain metal excess defect due to anionic vacancy. K
21. Explain metal deficiency defect using ZnO as an example. U
22. Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor (i) increases with temperature (ii)
increases on doping with a suitable material. Give reasons. K
23. Write the differences between n-type and p-type semiconductors. U
24. What type of semiconductor is obtained when:
i) silicon is doped with phosphorus ii) silicon is doped with boron? A
25. Mention the factors responsible for the magnetic moment of an electron. K
26. Write the differences between ferrimagnetic and ferromagnetic substances U
1. Based on intermolecular forces, name the three types of molecular solids. Mention
the forces of attraction in them. K
2. Differentiate covalent and polar molecular solids based on
i) constituent particles ii) bonding iii) melting point U
3. Match the type of packing in column-I to column-II:
Column-I Column-II
i) Square close packing in 3 a) The first layer and the fourth layer are
dimensions identical
ii) Hexagonal close packing in 3 b) All layers are identical
dimensions c) The first layer and the third layer are U
iii) Cubic close packing in 3 identical
dimensions
4. What type of unit cells are A and B? How many particles per unit cell in B?
5. Calculate the packing efficiency in cubic close packing (ccp) structure . K
6. Calculate the packing efficiency in bcc structure. K
7. Calculate the packing efficiency in simple cubic lattice. K
8. An element crystalises in fcc and has edge length 0.56 nm. Calculate the density of
S
the element. Molar mass of the element is 40 gmol1.
9. An element X has a density of 6.23 g cm3. If the edge length of the unit cell is
4
4  108 cm, identify the type of cubic unit cell. S
Given : molar mass of the element = 60 gmol1.
10. A metal crystallizes in bcc unit cell. The atomic mass of the metal is 55.8 g mol 1, S
density = 7.9 g cm3. Calculate the edge length of the unit cell?
11. What type
i) of defect is introduced when molten NaCl is crystallised with SrCl2?
ii) of vacancy is produced? How many moles of these vacancies are created if the
crystal obtained has 103 mole of Sr+2 ions?
12. Account for the following: U
i) Silicon doped with Al is p type semiconductor

ii) Frenkel defect does not change the density of ionic crystals
iii) non-polar molecular solids have very low melting and boiling points.
13. Differentiate metals, insulators and semiconductors in terms of band theory. U
14. Arrangement of magnetic domains are as given: K
i)       ii)        
What type of magnetic property is in (i) and (ii)? Which one of this becomes
paramagnetic on heating? U

1. a) A cubic solid has elements P and Q. Atoms of Q at the corners and atom P at
the body centre. i) what is the formula of the solid? ii) What is the
coordination number of P & Q?
b) A compound forms hcp structure. What is the total number of voids in 0.4 mol
of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids? Given NA = 6.022  1023. A
2. With respect to Frenkel and Schottky defects:
i) In which type of crystalline solids are these found?
ii) When is Frenkel defect possible?
iii) What type of defect does these show? i) ZnS ii) NaCl iii) AgBr U
3. a) In FeO solid, some Fe2+ ions are missing, but the charge is balanced by the
presence of Fe3+ ions. i) If Fe2+ ions missing are 15, how many Fe3+ ions balance
the charge? ii) What type of defect does this lead to? iii) If for 100 O 2 ions the
number of Fe2+ and Fe3+ are 85 and 10 respectively, what is the composition of
the non-stoichiometric FeO solid formed?
b) i) How many types of primitive unit cells are known? ii) Name any one
crystal system for which only primitive unit cells are possible. S
5
UNIT-2: SOLUTIONS
One mark questions:
1. What is a binary solution? K
2. Give an example for a solution of a solid in a gas. U
3. 5 g of glucose is dissolved in 95g of water. What is the mass percentage of glucose? S
4. Write the expression to calculate volume percentage of solute. K
5. In a binary solution, mole fraction of a component is 0.85. What is the mole
fraction of the other component? U
6. What is the mass of sodium hydroxide present in 500mL of 1M NaOH solution?
(Molar mass of NaOH is 40 gmol1). S
7. Name a concentration term which is independent of temperature. U
8. How does the solubility of a solid solute in a liquid vary with increase in
temperature if the dissolution process is endothermic? U
9. Write the mathematical expression for Henry's law. K
10. KH values for the gases argon and methane in water at 298K are 40.3 /k bar and
0.413 / k bar respectively. Which gas is more soluble at this temperature? U
11. Cylinders used by Scuba divers is diluted with helium gas. Why? A
12. State Raoult’s law. K
13. Vapour pressures of chloroform and dichloromethane are 200mm of Hg and
415mm of Hg at 298K respectively. Which one is more volatile? U
14. What are ideal solutions? K
15. Give an example for a non ideal solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s
law. U
16. Based on inter molecular interactions, give the reason for a solution of A and B to
show positive deviation from Raoult’s law. U
17. Arrange the following aqueous solutions in decreasing order of their relative
lowering of vapour pressure:
i) 0.1M sucrose ii) 0.1 M NaCl iii) 0.05 M glucose iv) 0.1 M acetic acid A
18. Molal elevation constant for water is 0.52 Kkg mol1. What is the elevation in
boiling point produced for one molal aqueous solution of a solute for which i=1? A
19. Write the SI unit for Ebullioscopic constant. K
20. Write the relationship between Kb and enthalpy of vapourisation of the solvent. K
6
21. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have higher boiling point?
0.01M NaCl or 0.01M Na2SO4 (assume both undergo almost complete
ionisation) U
22. Sea water freezes at a temperature lower than that of pure water. Why? U
23. Ethylene glycol is added as antifreeze to petrol in cold countries. Why? U
24. Which solution would exhibit lower osmotic pressure? Aqueous solution of urea or
aqueous solution of common salt, both of same concentration. U
25. Give a definition for van't Hoff factor 'i'. K
26. Write the modified equation to calculate ∆Tb for i  1. K
Two mark questions.
1. Differentiate molarity and molality of a solution. Which one of these varies with
temperature? U
2. Concentration of urea in an aqueous solution is 45% by mass. Calculate the mass of
urea in 100g of water. S
3. 10mL of ethanol is mixed with 250 mL of water. Calculate the volume percent of
ethanol. S
4. 20g of glucose is present in 500mL of its solution. Calculate the mass by volume
percentage of glucose. S
5. 20g of HCl is present in 2dm3 of its solution. Calculate the molarity of HCl solution.
Given molar mass of HCl =36.5g/ mol S
6. 30g of urea is dissolved in 500g of water. Calculate the molality of this solution.
Given molar mass of urea =60 g/mol. S
7. One kg of a sample of hard water contains 3mg of calcium carbonate. Express the
concentration of calcium carbonate in ppm. S
8. State Henry's law. Aquatic species are more comfortable towards respiration in
cold water than in warm water. Why? U
9. Draw the graph of partial pressure of a gas in vapour phase versus mole fraction of
the gas in solution. What is the slope of a line equal to? S
10. Mention any two factors affecting solubility of a gas in a liquid. K
11. Draw the graph for, the plot of vapour pressure versus mole fraction of an ideal
solution. S
12. Write any two differences between ideal and non ideal solutions. K
13. What are azeotropes? What type of solutions form minimum boiling azeotropes? K
7
14. What are colligative properties? Molal cryoscopic constant of acetic acid is
3.9 Kkgmol1. What does this mean? K
15. 3 moles of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 15 mol of a solvent. Calculate the
relative lowering of vapour pressure. S
16. Vapour pressure of pure benzene at some temperature is 0.95 bar. Calculate the
vapour pressure of 1 molal solution of a non-volatile solute (i=1) in it. Given molar
mass of benzene = 78 gmol1. S
17. Vapour pressure of water at 295 K is 18.5 mm of Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure
of the solution containing 25 g urea dissolved in 400 g of water at the same
temperature. Given molar mass of urea = 60 g mol1. S
18. How does boiling point and freezing point of a solvent vary when a non volatile
solute is added to it? U
19. What is the effect on the i) vapour pressure ii) boiling point of a solvent, when
a non-volatile solute is dissolved in it? U
20. The molal depression constant of water is 1.86 K/m. Calculate the depression in
freezing point of 0.1 molal aqueous urea solution. S
21. Molal elevation constant for benzene is 2.52K/m. A solution of benzene containing
a solute (i=1) boils at 0.126°C higher than benzene. Calculate the molality of the
solution. S
22. i) Define osmotic pressure. ii) What are isotonic solutions? K
23. Molecular mass of polymers or proteins are more often determined by measuring
osmotic pressure rather than by any other colligative property. Give two reasons. A
24. What is the observation made when blood cells are placed in saturated salt
solution? What are such solutions called? A
25. What does the value of Van’t-Hoff factor indicate? What is the value i for a solute
that dissociates in a solvent? U
26. The value of i for acetic acid is i) > 1 in water ii) < 1 in benzene
What inference can be drawn regarding acetic acid in these solvents? A
27. Normal molar mass of a solute is 246 g mol1 and molar mass of the same in a
solvent is 346 gmol1. What is the value of i? Comment on the state of the solute in
the solvent. S
28. Explain the desalination of sea water using reverse osmosis technique. K
8
29. Name the phenomenon involved:
i) a piece of raw mango in salt solution shrinks.
ii) when pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on the solution side A
1. 3 moles of sodium chloride is dissolved in 250 moles of water. What is the mole
fraction of NaCl and water in the solution? S
2. Give reasons:
i) solubility of a gas in a solvent is always exothermic
ii) there is volume expansion when ethanol is added to water
iii) elevation in boiling point is observed when sea water is boiled at 1 bar
pressure A
3. Give reasons:
i) Liquids A and B on mixing produce a warmer solution
ii) Freezing point depression of 0.1 M aqueous NaCl is nearly twice that of 0.1 M
aqueous sucrose solution
iii) Blood cells when placed in water swells. A
4. Give reasons:
i) there is no osmosis when 0.1 M urea solution is separated from 0.1 M sucrose
solution by a semi-permeable membrane.
ii) molar mass of an electrolyte in a polar solvent determined by any colligative
property is less than its theoretical molar mass.
iii) 95% aq. ethanol by volume cannot be concentrated by fractional distillation A
5. The vapour pressure of pure water at 50°C is 12260Pa. 18.2g of solute was
dissolved in 100g of water at the same temperature. The lowering of vapour
pressure produced is 660Pa. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.
[A: 60.85 gmol1] S
6. The vapour pressure of pure water at 298K is 3.3kPa. Calculate the relative
lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing 20g of glucose
dissolved in 90g of water at the same temperature. (Molar mass of glucose =
180gmol1, molar mass of water = 18 gmol1). [A : 0.02173 ] S
7. At 100° C, benzene and toluene have vapour pressure of 1375 torr and 558 torr,
respectively. Assuming these two form an ideal binary solution, calculate the mole
fraction of benzene in vapour phase at 1 atm and 100° C. [A : 0.247] S
8. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 200mm of Hg. At
9
the same temperature, the vapour pressure of solution containing 2g of a non
volatile, non electrolytic solute in 78g of benzene is 195mm of Hg. Calculate the
molar mass of the solute. [A : 80 g mol1] S
9. 12.6g of a non electrolyte is dissolved in 75g of water. The freezing point of this
solution is 271.9K. If molar depression constant is 1.86 Kkgmol1, calculate the
molar mass of the solute. (Freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K)
[A: 250 g mol1] S
10. Using the graph answer the following:
i) What type of non-ideal solution shows such a
behaviour?
ii) What can you infer about the molecular interactions
before & after mixing A and B?
iii) What type of azeotrope will the mixture of A and B
form? S
11. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23K. When 1.8g of a non volatile solute was
dissolved in 90g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11K. Calculate the
molar mass of solute. (Kb = 2.52 K kg mol1) [A : 57.2 g mol1] S
12. 20 g of an organic acid is dissolved in 500 g of water. The depression in freezing

point of water was by 1°. Calculate the Van't Hoff factor and degree of dissociation
of the acid. (Molar mass of acid = 79 gmol1, Kf =1.86 K kgmol1). [A: i = 1.06 ; 0.06] S
13. Acetic acid exists in benzene solution in the dimeric form. In an actual experiment
the Van’t Hoff factor was found to be 0.52. Calculate the degree of association of
acetic acid. [A : 0.96] S
14. Calculate the boiling point of the solution which has 15 g of MgSO4 dissolved in 550
g of water. Assume i = 2 for the solute. Boiling point of pure water = 373.15 K.
(Molar mass of MgSO4 = 120 g mol1, Kb = 0.52 K kgmol1 ) [A : 373.38 K] S
15. Calculate the osmotic pressure of 5% (m/V) solution of urea at 300K. (The value of
R is 0.0821 L atm K1, Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol1). [A : 20.5 atm] S
16. A 1.46% solution of a compound has an osmotic pressure of 783 mm of Hg at 300K.

Calculate the molar mass of the compound. R = 62.36 L mm Hg K1 mol1.
S
[A : 348.8 g mol1]
17. Normal saline is 0.9% mass/volume sodium chloride solution. Calculate the
S
osmotic pressure of normal saline at 300 K. Given molar mass of NaCl=58.5 gmol1,
R=0.083 Lbar mol1 K1. [A : 3.8 bar]
10
UNIT-3 : ELECTROCHEMISTRY
One mark questions:
1. When can a Galvanic cell become an electrolytic cell? U
2. What is limiting molar conductivity? K
3. Why does the molar conductivity increase on decreasing the concentration of the
weak electrolyte? U
0
4. The value of m(NaBr) 0
 m(NaCl)  1.8 Scm2mol1, then calculate the value of
0 0 U
m(KBr)  m(KCl) .
5.  0H and  0OH  are 349.6 Scm2mol–1 and 199.1 Scm2mol–1 at 298 K respectively.
S
Calculate m0 of water.
6. When 1F of charge is passed through 1M HCl, volume of hydrogen liberated was
11.35L at STP. What is the volume of hydrogen liberated when same quantity of
electricity is passed through 1M H2SO4. A [11.35 L]
7. Differentiate between reactive and inert electrodes. U
8. What is the role of platinum in SHE? U
9. What is the value assigned to the electrode potential of SHE at 300K? U
10. A galvanic cell is constructed using SHE and silver electrode . [Ag+] = 1M and
EoAg+/Ag = +0.8V. What is the cell potential? S [0.8V]
11. Given ENi0 < EH02 , then between nickel and hydrogen which is more stable in reduced
S
form?
12. Mention an observation made when an iron rod is dipped into 0.1M CuSO4
U
solution?
0
13. Following are the values of Ered values of certain elements. Arrange them in the
descending order of their oxidizing power.
0
EMg = 2.36V, ENi0 2 /Ni = 0.25V, EFe
0
= 0.77V, E0Ag /Ag = + 0.8V, EF0 /F = 2.87V
2
/Mg 3
/Fe2 2 A
14. What is the electrode potential of a Daniell cell when the concentrations of copper
0
and zinc ions are 1M each. ECu2
/Cu
= 0.34V, E0Zn2 /Zn =  0.76V? A
15. ∆G for the reaction 2X+ + 2e 

 X2 is 84.92 kJ. What is the value of ∆G for the
reaction: X+ + e 
 ½ X2? [A:42.46kJ] A
o
16. Write the relationship between E cell and equilibrium constant. K
17. What is the major difference between a primary battery and a secondary battery? U
11
18. Name one metal which can be used as sacrificial electrode to prevent rusting of
iron. A
Two mark questions:
1. Differentiate between strong and weak electrolytes. U
2. Define conductivity of a solution. Write its SI unit. K
3. How does (i) conductivity (ii) molar conductivity of an electrolyte change with
dilution? U
4. The cell constant of a given cell is 0.47 cm1. The resistance of a solution taken in
the cell was found to be 31.6. Calculate the conductivity of the solution.
[A : 0.0148S cm1] S
5. The conductivity of 0.025 M solution of methanoic acid is 1.1525 S cm 1. Calculate

its molar conductivity. [A:46100 S cm2 mol–1] S
6. State (i) Faraday’s II law of electrolysis (ii) Kohlrausch law K

7. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between Pt electrodes using current of 5
amps for 20 mins. What mass of nickel is deposited at the cathode? (Molar mass of
Ni=58.7 g mol1. 1F = 96487 C) S [1.82g]
8. 96487C of charge is passed through both CuSO4 solution and AgNO3 solution. The
mass of copper deposited is 32g. What would be the mass of silver deposited?
(Molar mass of copper = 64gmol1 and silver =108g mol1) (1F=96487C) S [108g]
9. In electrolysis, lower the electrode potential, higher is the tendency for oxidation
reaction to occur. When aqueous NaCl is electrolysed, following two reactions are
possible. Which of these two is preferred and why?
Cl– (aq) 
 ½ Cl2 (g) + e– 0
Ecell = 1.36 V
 O2 (g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e–

2H2O (l)  0
Ecell = 1.23 V A
10. A total of 49750C of charge was required to reduce 9.5g of M+3 ion to metal.
Calculate the molar mass of the metal. 1F = 96500C. [A:55.28] S
2 –1
0
11. Calculate m0 for CaCl2 given  Ca2 = 119.0 Scm mol and  Cl0  = 76.3 Scm2mol–1.
[A: 271.6 Scm2 mol–1] S
12. Write the anodic reaction occurring during the electrolysis of dilute H 2SO4. What
would be the product if higher concentration of sulphuric acid is electrolysed? K
13. What are the conditions under which a hydrogen electrode is considered a
standard hydrogen electrode? U
14. Draw a neat labeled diagram of SHE and write its symbolic representation. S
12
15. Given ENi0 2 /Ni = 0.25V, ECr0 3 /Cr =  0.74V. Identify a stronger redox couple. Give
S
reason.
16. In a cell, the reaction Fe + 2H+ 
 Fe+2 + H2, takes place. What happens to the
emf of the cell when sulphuric acid is poured at the cathode. Give reason. A
17. The reduction potential of Mg+2 and Al+3 are 2.37 and 1.66 volts respectively.
Constructing a Galvanic cell using these electrodes, give the cell representation,
and write the Nernst equation . S
18. At which electrode will oxidation occur in a (i) Galvanic cell (ii) electrolytic cell U
0
19. ECu = +0.3V. Copper does not dissolve in HCl but dissolves in HNO3. Explain. U
20. EMF of a galvanic cell is 1.05V and 193000 Coulomb of charge is passed. Calculate
the reversible work done by the cell. [A: 202650J] S
21. Write the overall cell reaction occurring in a mercury-cell. Its cell potential remains
a constant value of approximately 1.35V during its life. Why? U
22. Write the reactions occurring during discharging of lead storage battery. K
23. What are the advantages of fuel cell over other conventional power plants in
producing energy? A
24. i) Chemically “what is rust”? ii) Write anodic reaction occurring during the rusting
of iron K
25. Give two methods for the prevention of corrosion. A
1. What do we mean by cell constant in conductivity measurements. If the resistance
of a conductivity cell filled with 0.02 M KCl solution is 520 , calculate its cell
constant, given κ = 0.248 Sm1.
[A: 128.96 m1] S
2. Molar conductivity of 0.05M acetic acid solution at 298K is 7.36 Sm2mol1.

0
Calculate the degree of dissociation of acetic acid and also Ka. [  CH3 COOH
= 390.7
Sm2mol1].
[A: 0.0188, 1.8  105] S
3. Predict the products of electrolysis for the following
i) aqueous solution of NaCl with graphite electrodes
ii) aqueous solution of CuSO4 with platinum electrodes
A
iii) aqueous solution of AgNO3 with silver electrodes
13
4. Electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution was carried out by passing 5 A
current for 3 hours. Calculate the volume of hydrogen liberated at STP, at the
cathode. [1F = 96500C, molar volume of hydrogen at STP = 22,400 cm3].
[A: 2089 cm3] S
5. In the electrolysis of copper sulphate solution using current of 5.3A, the mass of
cathode increased by 4.6g. Calculate the time taken in min for the electrolysis
(molar mass of copper = 64gmol1, 1F = 96500C)
[A: 43.6 mins] S
6. Given is the plot of Λm Vs C½ for a electrolyte ‘X’. What type of electrolyte is X?
What does the intercept refer to? What is its value?
7. Name the following:

i) The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no
current is drawn through the cell
ii) the quantity length/area of the electrode in a conductivity cell
S
iii) Mn+/M
8. Using Nernst equation calculate the concentration of Sn+2 ions at which the single
electrode potential becomes zero. Given : E0Sn2 /Sn = 0.14 V.
[A: 5.55  106 M] S

9. Using the Nernst equation for the following cell at 298K and calculate the EMF.
3 2
Al(S) ǀ Al0.001M ǀǀ Cu0.0001M ǀ Cu(s). Given E0Al3 /Al = 1.66 V and ECu
0
2
/Cu
= +0.34V
[A:1.941V] S
10. Give the cell diagram of a galvanic cell made of zinc and nickel showing the
direction of flow of electrons. Write the half cell reactions. ENi0 2 /Ni =  0.25V,
E0Zn2 /Zn = 0.76V. S
14
11. For the cell Mg(s) ǀ Mg+2(aq) ǀǀ Ag+(aq) ǀ Ag(s), calculate the EMF of the cell when the
concentration of Ag+ ions is 5 times that of concentration of Mg+2 ions. Given
0
Ecell = 3.17V.
[A : 3.211V]
S
+
12. Consider the following reaction; 2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H (aq) 
 2Fe+2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
0
Ecell = 1.67V. If [Fe+2] = 103 M, p O2 = 0.1 bar and pH = 3,
Calculate the cell potential at 25°C.

[A:1.56V] S
0
13. Calculate the value of Ecell for the reaction Fe + Cu+2 
 Fe+2 + Cu, if the
equilibrium constant for the reaction is 2.18  1026.

[A : 0.7769V] S
0
14. Ecell for the reaction Sn + Cu+2(aq) 
 Sn+2(aq) + Cu is 0.48 V. Write the value of
0
Ecell and calculate ∆G for the reaction 2Sn+2Cu+2(aq) 
 2Sn+2(aq)+2Cu. Given: 1F =
96500C.
S
[A : 0.48V, 185280J]
1. a) Name the anode, cathode and the electrolyte used in dry cell.
b) m0 of sodium benzoate, hydrochloric acid, sodium chloride are 82.4, 426.2,
26.53 Sm2mol1. Calculate m0 for benzoic acid. [A: 482.07 Sm2 mol–1] S
2. a) What are fuel cells? Write the schematic diagram of H2O2 fuel cell and give
the electrode reactions.
S
b) How is molar conductivity related to conductivity?
3. a) Depict the galvanic cell, in which the reaction Zn + 2Ag+(aq) 
 Zn+2(aq) + 2Ag
takes place. Which of the electrode is negatively charged? Give the reaction at
anode.
b) How much charge in coulombs is required to reduce 1 mole of Cr2O72 to
S
Cr2O3? Given: 1F = 96500C [A: 579000 C]
4. Given E0Ag /Ag = 0.8 V, ECl0 /Cl = 1.36 V, EMg
0
2
/Mg
= 2.36 V, EFe
0
2
/Fe
= 0.44 V
2
i) Identify the couple which is the

a) strongest reducing agent b) strongest oxidising agent
ii) Will iron displace Mg+2 or Ag+ from their salt solution?
0
iii) Calculate Ecell for : Fe Cl2, Pt [A : 1.8 V] S
15
5. a) 3Fe+2 + 2Ag+(aq) 
 2Fe+3(aq) + 2Ag is the reaction occurring in a galvanic cell.
0
Calculate its Ecell and ∆G0. EFe
0
3
/Fe2
= 0.77V, E0Ag /Ag = + 0.8V
[A: 1.57V, 303010J ]

b) Mention any two factors which can influence the products formed at the
S
electrodes during electrolysis?
6. a) For Daniell cell Zn ll Cu, E = 1.1V, when [Zn+2] and [Cu+2] are equal to 1M ;
i) When does the cell potential become zero, if the cell in a circuit is closed.
ii) What is observed when an external potential applied to the cell
a) is equal to 1.1V
b) is greater than 1.1V?
b) Between cell potential and free energy change ,which one is an intensive
property? ∆G0 for the reaction Cu+2 + H2 


 + 3
 Cu + 2H , is 65.6  10 J.
Calculate the work done if the hydrogen consumed is 0.5 mole.
[A: 32.8  103J] U
16
UNIT-4: CHEMICAL KINETICS
One mark questions:
1. Differentiate between average and instantaneous rate of a reaction. U
2. Express the rate of the reaction in terms of different reactants and products for;
2N2 O5 g  
 4NO2(g)  O2g  U
3. Define order of a reaction. K

4. What is an elementary reaction? K
5. Define molecularity of reaction. K
6. What is the slowest step in a complex reaction also called? K
7. For what type of reactions is molecularity and order the same? U
8. What is the order of the reaction for which the rate law is; Rate  k A  S
12
B3 2
9. Unit of rate constant of a reaction is same as the unit of rate of reaction. What is
U
the order of the reaction?
10. Mention any one condition under which a second order reaction of rate law:
U
rate = k[A]1[B]1 can be made a pseudo first order reaction.
Rate
11. For a reaction, the graph of rate of the reaction against molar
concentration of the reactant is as shown. What is the order of
A
the reaction?  A
12. Rate law of a reaction is : rate = k [NO]2 [O2]. By how many times does the rate of
S
the reaction increase if the volume of the reaction vessel is halved?
13. By how many times does the t½ of zero order reaction increase if the initial
S
concentration of the reactant is doubled.
14. t½ of a reaction is 10 minutes, for a first order reaction. What percent of the
S
reactant remains unreacted at the end of 50 minutes? [A:3.125%]
15. If t½ for a first order reaction is 25 s, what is the time required for 10 g of a reactant
to get reduced to 1.25 g? [A: 75 s] S
16. Oxygen is available in air, yet fuels do not burn spontaneously at room
temperature. Why? A
17. In the Arrhenius equation k  Ae Ea RT , What does e Ea RT represent? K
18. What is the relationship between the rate constant and activation energy of a
reaction? K
19. Differentiate between activation energy and threshold energy of a reaction. U
17
20. For many reactions, it is found that a large number of colliding molecules have
energy more than threshold value, yet the rate of the reaction is slow. What might
be the reason? U
21. What is collision frequency? K
Two mark questions
1. Mention the factors which affect the rate of a reaction. U
2. In a reaction 2A 
 products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 to 0.4
mol L1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the rate of reaction during this interval.
[A: 5  103 Mmin1] S
3. Identify the order of the reaction from the unit of rate constants.
i) L mol1 s1 ii) M2 min1 U
4. Write the order of the reaction and unit of the rate constant for the reaction:
 CH4 (g) + CO (g). Rate = k [CH3CHO]3/2
CH3CHO (g)  U
5. 2A 
 P; is second order reaction. How is the rate of the reaction affected if the
S
concentration of A is (a) doubled (b) reduced to half?
6. Define half-life period of a reaction. Give an expression for t½ for a zero order
K
reaction.
7. Show that half-life period for a zero order reaction R 
 P, is directly
K
proportional to initial concentration of the reactant.
8. Show that the half-life period of a first order reaction R 
 P is independent of
K
initial concentration of the reactant.
Pt
9. For a zero order reaction: 2NH3 (g) 

 N2 (g) + 3H2 (g), the rate constant
S
4 1 1
k = 2  10 mol L s . What are the rates of production of N2 and H2?
10. Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount in 55 minutes. If
the decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the
S
reaction.
11. What happens to half life time of a first order reaction when temperature is
A
increased? Give reason.
12. Draw a graph of concentration of R versus time for a zero order reaction R 
 P.
S
What is the intercept of the line equal to?
13. The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation: k = 4.5  1011 e28000/T.
Calculate Ea. Given R = 8.314 J K1 mol1. [A: 232.79 kJ] S
18
14. The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature T was found to be 2.303RT
J mol1. Calculate the ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor. [A: 1.25  102] S
15. Draw the plot of the distribution curves showing the temperature dependence on
the rate of the reaction at two temperatures t and (t+10). Mark Ea and shade the
relevant regions to show that fraction of molecules having energy greater than E a
doubles when temperature is increased by 10°. S
16. In the graph, what is the intercept and slope of the line equal to?
17. What does P and ZAB represent in the equation : rate = P ZAB e Ea RT ? K

1. A reaction is first order in X and second order in Y:
i) Write the differential rate law of the reaction.
ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of Y three times?
iii) Write the SI unit for the rate constant. S
2. For a general reaction A  B , plot of concentration of A vs. time is given. Answer
the following questions:
i) What is the order of the reaction? c o n c e n tra tio n o f
A
ii) What is the slope of the line equal to? S

tim e
iii) What is the unit of the rate constant?

3. Derive an integrated rate equation for the rate constant of a zero order reaction. K
4. Derive an integrated rate equation for the rate constant of a first order reaction. K
5. The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction
1
 2NO2(g) + O2(g) was 1.24  102 M at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5
N2O5 
2
after 60 minutes was 0.2  102 M. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at
318K. [A: k = 0.304] S
6. A first order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% completion. Calculate the rate
constant. [A: k = 0.0089 min1] S
7. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 3  103 s1. Calculate the
concentration of the reactant after 30 minutes if the initial concentration is 0.5 M.
[A: 0.00228 M] S
19
8. A first order reaction takes 69.3 minutes for 50% completion. How much time will
be needed for 80% completion? [A:160.9 min] S
9. The rate constant of a first order reactions 3  104 s1. What percentage of the
reactant will decompose in one hour? [A:66%] S
10. Show that the time required for 99% completion of a first order reaction is twice
the time required for completion of 90% of the reaction. S
11. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 60 s1. How much time will it take for
the reaction to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to 1/16th of its initial
value? [A: 4.62  102 s] S
12. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide at 600K is
1.6  105 s1. Its activation energy is 209 kJ/mol. Calculate the rate constant of the
reaction at 700K. [A: 6.353  103 s1] S
13. What is the effect of catalyst on a reaction with respect to its

i) energy of activation ii) G of the reaction
iii) time required for 50% of the reaction to be completed? A

1. a) The rate constants of a reaction at 500K and 700K are 0.02 s1 and 0.07 s1
respectively. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction.
[A:18.23 kJ mol1] S
b) What is pseudo first order reaction? Give an example.
2. a) The graph of log k vs. 1/T for a reaction is linear with intercept of 10 and
slope of 5.1  103. Calculate the frequency factor and Ea of the reaction. R =
8.314 JK1mol1 [A: Frequency factor : 1010, Ea = 97.65 kJ]
b) A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75% complete in 4 hours. What is
the order of the reaction? Explain. S
3. For a certain chemical reaction, variation in the concentration ln[R] vs time plot is
given: For this reaction write/draw
i) order of the reaction? ln  R 
ii) the units of rate constant k ?

iii) Give the relationship between k and t1 2 (half-life period)
t
iv) What does the slope of the line indicate?


v) Draw the plot of log
R0 
 vs. time S
 R 
20
4. a) Explain collision theory of reaction rate.
b) Draw a graph of potential energy vs. reaction co-ordinate to show the effect of
catalyst on the activation energy. S
5. a) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 (aq)) decomposes to H2O (l) and O2 (g) in a reaction that
is of first order in H2O2 and has a rate constant k = 1.06  103 min. How long
will it take for 15% of a sample of H2O2 to decompose? [A: t15% =153.4 min]
b) Mention two criteria for effective collision. S
6. a) Distinguish between molecularity and order of a reaction.
b) The activation energy for the reaction 2HI (g) 
 H2(g)+I2 (g) is 209.5 kJ/mol at
581 K. Calculate the fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater
than activation energy (R = 8.314 Jk1 mol1) [A: 1.471  1019] S
7. In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of ester in water the following results are
obtained.
t in seconds 0 30 60 90
Ester (M) 0.55 0.31 0.17 0.085
i) Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60
seconds.
ii) Calculate the pseudo first order rate constant for the hydrolysis of ester.
[A: (i) 4.67  103 mol L1 s1 (ii) 1.91  102 s1 ] S
8. a) Rate constant k of a reaction varies with temperature T according to the
Ea  1 
equation logk  log A 
2.303R  T 
1
When a graph is plotted for log k vs. a straight line with slope 4250 is
T
obtained. Calculate Ea for the reaction (R =8.314 Jk1 mol1) [A: 813.75 kJmol1 ]
 Products, rate = k[A]2[B], the rate constant is
b) For the reaction 2A + B 
4x105 mol2 L2s1. Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.5 M
and [B]=0.3 M. [A: 3  106 M sec1] S
9. a) Sucrose decomposes in an acid solution, following first order kinetics. Half –
life for the reaction is 3 hrs. Calculate the fraction of sucrose that remains after
8 hrs. [A: 0.1576]
b) What is the effect of temperature on the (i) rate constant and (ii) t1/2 of a
reaction. S
21
10. Following data was obtained for the reaction : A + B 
 P.
Experiment [A]M [B]M Initial rate [Ro] for appearance of product P
1 0.2 0.3 2 x 103 mol L1s1

2 0.2 0.1 2 x 103 mol L1s1
3 0.4 0.3 4x 103 mol L1s1
i) What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B?
ii) Write the rate law. iii) What is the rate constant.
iv) What is the half-life of the reaction. S
22
UNIT - 5 : SURFACE CHEMISTRY
One mark questions:
1. What is term sorption? K
2. Adsorption is always exothermic. Why? U
3. Give reason: A finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent. U
4. Out of physisorption and chemisorption which one leads to multimolecular
adsorption? U
5. Write the expression for Freundlich adsorption isotherm. K
6. Activated charcoal is used in gas masks. Why? U
7. Hydrogen free from CO is preferred in the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s
process. Give reason. U
8. Which property of the catalysts is illustrated in the example given
Ni
CO (g) + 3H2 (g)  CH4 (g) + H2O (g) and Cu
CO (g) + 3H2 (g)   HCHO U
9. Give an example for shape selective catalyst which converts alcohols into gasoline. K
10. What is shape-selective catalysis? K
11. Name the colloidal system in which gas is a dispersed phase and liquid is a
dispersion medium. K
12. What is the dispersed phase in emulsion. K
13. Name the dispersion medium in aerosol. K
14. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols. Give reason. U
15. What is peptization? K
16. What is the principle of dialysis? K
17. What is Tyndall effect? K
18. What is electro kinetic potential or zeta potential? K
19. What is electro-osmosis? K
20. State Hardy-Schulze Rule. K
21. In the coagulation of negative sol, arrange the following ions in ascending order of
their flocculating power: Ba2+, Na+, Al3+ U
22. What are protective colloids? K
23. What happens when an emulsion is centrifuged? U
24. Mention the role of alum in the purification of drinking water. U
Two mark questions:

1. Distinguish between adsorption and absorption. U
2. Hydrogen is adsorbed on nickel. Which is the adsorbent and adsorbate? U
23
3. How does (i) enthalpy (ii) entropy change during adsorption of gas on a solid? U
4. Between sulphur dioxide (critical temperature 630 K) and methane (critical
temperature 190 K), which gas is adsorbed more on 1 g of activated charcoal. Give
reason. U
5. Two isotherms drawn for physical adsorption is shown.
Comment on the effect of temperature and pressure on the
extent of adsorption of a gas. A
1
x 1
6.  kp n is the expression for Freundlich isotherm. For what value of will the
m n
expression show that i) adsorption become independent of pressure ii) adsorption
vary directly with pressure. A
7. What are promoters? Give an example. K
8. What is homogeneous catalysis? Give an example. K
9. What is heterogeneous catalysis? Give an example. K
10. Explain the mechanism of enzyme catalysis. U
11. For enzyme catalysis, between vitamin and metal ions which one of these will be
an example for : i) a coenzyme ii) an activator. U
12. Give two differences between lyophilic and lyophobic colloids? K
13. What are the two conditions required for the formation of micelles. U
14. Name the chemical reaction that leads to the formation of
i) Gold sol from AuCl3(aq) and H-CHO. ii) Fe(OH)3 sol from FeCl3 and H2O. U
15. Explain the preparation of colloids by using Bredig’s arc method. U
16. Explain how a precipitate gets converted into a sol during peptization. K
17. What is ultrafiltration? Explain how a filter paper is converted into an ultrafilter
paper using an example? U
18. Explain dialysis. K
19. Write two conditions which must be satisfied to observe Tyndall effect. U
20. Name the phenomenon in which colloidal particles are in zig – zag motion. Give
reason for the zig-zag motion. K
21. i) What is coagulation or flocculation value? K
ii) Between Na3PO4 and Na2SO4, which one of the electrolyte will have maximum
coagulating value for AgI / Ag+ sol? U
22. What is electrophoresis? K
23. How are delta regions formed? A
24
1. Mention any three factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids. K
2. Write three characteristics of physisorption. K
3. Write three characteristics of chemisorption. K
4. Distinguish between physisorption and chemisorptions based on i) reversibility
ii) enthalpy of adsorption iii) specificity. U
5. Write three applications of adsorption. A
6. Explain the mechanism of heterogeneous catalysis starting from adsorption to
desorption on the basis of adsorption theory. U
7. Distinguish macromoleular and multimoleular colloids based on type of particles of
dispersed phase. Give one example for each. U
8. Based on the type of particles of dispersed phase, how are these classified?
i) Sulphur sol. ii) Soap in water iii) starch sol. U
9. Explain the cleansing action of soaps. U
10. Write three characteristics of enzyme catalysis. K
11. What is the enzyme for the following biochemical processes?
i) Starch into maltose ii) Proteins into peptides (in stomach) iii) Milk into curds U
12. a) Give reason:
i) When AgNO3 solution is added to KI solution a negative charged AgI sol is
obtained.
ii) When FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water positively charged sol is obtained.
b) Name the experiment which confirms the presence of charge on colloidal
particles. U
13. What is coagulation of a sol? Name the two methods by which a lyophobic sol can
be coagulated. K
14. Name the two types of emulsions? What type of emulsion is milk? K
15. How do emulsifiers stabilize emulsion? Name two emulsifiers. K
16. What is the role of
i) the charcoal in production of high vacuum
ii) the silica gel in controlling humidity in a closed system
iii) eosin in detecting end point in precipitation titrations? A
17. Give reason:
i) Medicines in colloidal state are more effective.
ii) Alum stops bleeding from a small cut.
25
iii) Colloidal solutions give lower values for colligative properties than a true
solution of same concentration. A
18. Name the process / method involved in
i) Purification of sol by placing it suitably in an electric field.
ii) Animal hide (skin) containing positively charged colloidal particles is dipped in
tannin which has negatively charged colloidal particles.
iii) A freshly prepared precipitate is shaken with small quantity of electrolyte to
get a sol. A
19. What is observed ?
(i) when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol.
(ii) an electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol
(iii) electric current is passed through a colloidal sol. U
26
UNIT-6: GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF
ELEMENTS
One mark questions:
1. Name a carbonate ore of iron. K
2. Name an ore that contains both iron and Cu. U
3. Which type of ore is concentrated by froth flotation? K
4. Name the depressant used in the separation of an ore containing ZnS and PbS? K
5. Name the chemical reagent used in the leaching of bauxite. K
6. What is the flux used in the extraction of iron from concentrated heamatite ore. K
7. What is the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper? K
8. Give the composition of copper matte. K
9. Name the flux used to remove iron impurity from molten copper matte. K
10. Name the reducing agent used for the extraction of iron below 1073K. K
11. Give reason : CO becomes thermodynamically more stable as the temperature
increases. U
12. Which one of these metal is not extracted by using coke as a reducing agent?
Zn, Al, Fe U
13. What is the role of Na3AlF6 or CaF2 in Hall-Heroult process? K
14. Name the process by which copper is extracted from its low grade ores? K
15. Complete the overall equation for the extraction of chlorine by the electrolysis of

sea water (Brine): 2Claq + 2 H2O(l) 
 K
16. Metals having low melting point are refined by __________. K

17. Name the method by which titanium is refined. K
18. Is Al2O3 used as stationary phase or mobile phase in column chromatography? K
Two mark questions
1. Name the metal that is most abundant on earth's crust. Mention the principal ore
from which it is extracted. K
2. Mention the role of i) pine oil ii) cresol in froth flotation method. K
3. The reduction of a metal oxide is easier if the metal formed is in the liquid state at
the temperature of reduction. Give reason. U
4. How is cast iron different from pig iron? How is pig iron converted into cast iron? K
5. In Hall-Heroult process, what is the electrode at anode? It gets burnt up. Why? U
6. Write the formula of the slag formed. i) in the extraction of iron from haematite
ore ii) copper from sulphide ore K
27
7. Name the two by-products obtained during the electrolysis of sea water (brine) to
extract chlorine from it. U
8. Give reason:
i) Tin can be purified by liquation
ii) Zinc can be purified by distillation U
9. Name the method and principle involved in producing semiconductor of high
purity. U
10. Explain the procedure of zone refining of an element. K
11. Nickel is purified by Mond’s process. Write the equations for the reactions
involved. K
1. Draw a labelled diagram for the extraction of aluminium from purified bauxite by
Hall-Heroult process. Write the overall reaction taking place in the cell. S
2. If iron is extracted from siderite ore, the ore is calcined, but if zinc is extracted from
zinc blende, the ore is roasted. Give reasons and equation for the reaction
involved in any one of the processes. S
3. What is the significance of the following in the froth flotation process
1) Collectors 2) Stabilisers 3) Depressants? K
4. How is pure alumina obtained from bauxite by leaching process? K
5. Draw the Ellingham diagram for the formation of FeO from Fe, CO from C and CO2
from CO. Suggest a suitable reducing agent for the reduction of Fe2O3 below 1073K
and above 1073K temperature. S
6. Draw a neat labelled diagram of blast furnace. Mark the different zones. Write the
reaction taking place at slag zone. S
7. During the conversion of cast iron into wrought iron;
i) What is the lining of the reverberatory furnace made of and what is its role in
the process?
ii) What is the flux added? U
8. How is copper extracted from low grade ore of it? K
9. How is blister copper extracted from copper matte? K
10. In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process:
i) Give the composition of the electrolyte used.
ii) Write the equations for the electrolytic reactions occurring at anode and
cathode. K
28
11. How is gold extracted by cyanide process? Write equations. K
12. What are the two criteria required for the 'vapour phase refining' of a metal?
Name a metal purified by this technique. K
13. Give equations for the reactions involved in the purification of zirconium by Van-
Arkel process. What are the impurities associated with zirconium? K
14. What is the principle involved in
i) Hydraulic washing ii) Magnetic separation iii) Chromatography? K
Five mark questions
1. a) Match the following:
A. Copper Clay
B. Zinc Malachite
C. Aluminium Calamine
b) Complete the following equations:
i) Roasting of sulphide ore : 2Cu2S + 3O2 

ii) Auto reduction of Cu2O : 2Cu2O + Cu2S 
 K
2. For the extraction of zinc from zinc blende mention / write:

i. The composition of the ore
ii. The method used for concentration of ore
iii. The equation for the reaction involved in roasting of concentrated ore
iv. Equation for the reduction of ore with coke at 1673 K
v. The method used for purification of the metal. U
NaCN Zn
3. Au (in ore) 
O2
aq
 X [complex of Au]   Y + Z [complex of Zn]
Write the formula of X, Y, Z

Identify the i) leaching agent ii) reducing agent U
4. For the electrolytic refining of copper, a) what is the i) anode ii) cathode
iii) electrolyte?
b) i) What is anode mud? ii) Mention an element in it. K
29
UNIT-7: p - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Group-15 elements
Give reasons for the following (one mark each):
1. In group 15 elements, there is considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P
but small increase from As to Bi. Why? U
2. The ionization enthalpies of group 15 elements are higher than those of
corresponding members of group 14 and 16 elements. U
3. Bi (V) is a strong oxidizing agent. U
4. (CH3)3P= O exists but (CH3)3N= O does not. U
5. The boiling point of PH3 is lesser than NH3. U
6. Metallic character increases down the 15th group elements. U
7. NO2 dimerises to form N2O4. U
8. Cr, Al do not dissolve in concentrated HNO3. U
9. White phosphorus is the most reactive allotrope of the element. U
10. PCl3 fumes in moist air. U
11. The five bonds in PCl5(g) are not equivalent. U
12. The basicity of H3PO3 is 1. U
13. H3PO2 is a stronger reducing agent than H3PO3 U
One mark questions
1. Name the 15th group element that does not exhibit allotropy. K
2. Complete the equation: 3HNO2 

 disproportionation
K
3. Write the formula of the halide of nitrogen that is known to be stable. K
4. Give an example for a neutral oxide of nitrogen. K
5. Complete the equation: PCl3 + 3H2O 
 K
6. Which oxyacid of phosphorus on disproportionation gives H3PO4 and PH3? K
Two mark questions
1. N2 molecule is chemically inert while white phosphorus is more reactive. Give
reasons. U
2. How is nitrogen prepared in the laboratory? Write the equation for the reaction
involved. K
 caustic soda Cu2
3. Ammonium salt 

X (g) 
aq
Y. What are X and Y? K
4. Complete the following equations :

K
(NH4)2Cr2O7  ii) Ca3P2 + 6H2O (l) 

heat
i)
30
i) Ba(N3)2 
heat
ii) PH4I + KOH 
 K

K
i) Cu + 4HNO3 (conc.) 
 ii) I2 + 10HNO3(conc.) 

i) 4Zn + 10HNO3(dil) 
 ii) P4 + 20HNO3(conc) 
 K
8. Complete the following equation and name the gas liberated:

K
P4+ 3NaOH + 3H2O 

9. i) What is the shape of PCl5 in gaseous and liquid state?
ii) In the solid state PCl5 exists as an ionic solid. Write the cation and anion in it. K
10. Draw the structures of: a) Nitric acid b) Hypophosphorous acid S
11. Draw the structure of H4P2O7. What is its basicity? S
12. What is the formula of cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid? How many P–O–P bonds are
in it? S

1. Arrange: NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3 as directed.
i) increasing order of base strength ii) decreasing order of stability
iii) decreasing order of reducing character U
2. For the preparation of ammonia by Haber’s process,
i) Write the balanced chemical equation ii) mention the reaction conditions
iii) Draw the flow chart K
3. How is HNO3 prepared commercially by Ostwald process? Write chemical
equations for the reactions involved. K
4. Give differences between white phosphorus and red phosphorus based on
i) structure ii) solubility in CS2 iii) reaction with air. U
5. P4 + 10Cl2 
 X   Y   Z. What are X, Y, Z? (All are
2 2 1 mol H O 3 mol H O
compounds of phosphorus) A

1. a) Give appropriate reason for the following anomalous behaviour of nitrogen:
i) it is a diatomic gas ii) it has least catenation property
iii) it does not form a pentahalide
b) Complete the following equations:
i) 4H3PO3 
heat
ii) 3HgCl2 + 2PH3 
 U
31
2. An unknown salt 'X' reacts with hot conc. H2SO4 to produce a reddish brown gas 'Y'
which intensifies on adding on copper turnings. On adding dilute ferrous sulphate
solution to an aqueous solution of X and then carefully adding conc. H2SO4 along
the sides of the test tube, a brown complex 'Z' is formed at the interface between
the solution and H2SO4. Identify X, Y and Z and write the chemical equations
involved in the reaction. A
3. a) How is PH3 prepared in the laboratory? How is it purified? Write the chemical
equations for the reactions involved.
b) Name the gas liberated when a solution of PH3 in water is exposed to light. K
4. A white waxy, translucent solid, X, insoluble in water but soluble in CS2, glows in
dark. X dissolves in NaOH in an inert atmosphere giving a poisonous gas (Y). X
catches fire in air to give dense white fumes of Z.
i) Identify X, Y and Z and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved. A
Group-16 elements
1. There is large difference between the melting and boiling points of oxygen and
sulphur. U
2. Oxygen has less negative electron gain enthalpy than sulphur. U
3. In group 16, +4 oxidation state becomes more stable than +6 oxidation state on
going down the group. U
4. Oxygen can show a maximum covalency of 4 and it cannot form hexavalent
compound. U
5. Boiling point of H2O is higher than that of H2S. U
6. H2S is more acidic than H2O U
7. O3 is thermodynamically unstable than O2 U
8. Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent. U
9. Sugar chars in concentrated sulphuric acid. U
10. SF6 is exceptionally stable. U
11. The bond lengths OO in ozone are identical. U
One mark questions:
1. Name the radioactive element in the 16th group. K
2. What is the oxidation number of oxygen in OF2? K
3. Write the structure of oleum. S
32
Two mark questions:
1. Write the chemical formula of : a) Gypsum salt b) Epsom salt K
2. Complete the equations: i) 2Pb3O4 (s) 

heat
ii) 4Al + 3O2 
heat K
3. Which among these is (i) basic oxide ii) mixed oxide?

a) Al2O3 b) Na2O c) Cl2O7 d) Fe3O4 U
4. How is ozone prepared? Mention the conditions required and write an equation. K
5. How is ozone estimated quantitatively? K

conc.H2 SO4 MnO2
i) C12H22O11   ii) 2KClO3 
heat
 K
7. How do you prepare β-sulphur from α-sulphur? K
8. Above 1000°C which species of sulphur is dominant? What is its magnetic

property? K
9. SO23 + 2H+ 
 A(gas)  Cl2
charcoal
 B. What are A and B? K
10. High pressure and low temperature favours maximum yield of sulphur trioxide in
contact process. Give reasons. U
11. Complete the equation: i) Cu + 2H2SO4 (conc.) 

 ii) CaF2 + H2SO4 (conc) 
 K
12. Write the formula of any two oxoacids of Sulphur. K
13. Draw the structure of H2S2O8 and name the acid. S
i) 3S + 2H2SO4 
 conc
ii) PbS + 4O3 
 K

K
i) 2KI + H2O + O3 
 ii) NaNO3 + H2SO4 

1. Give any three reasons for the anomalous behaviour of oxygen. K
2. Arrange: H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te as directed:
i) decreasing acidity ii) increasing reducing property
iii) increasing thermal stability U
3. Out of the following hydrides : H2S , H2O , H2Te which one will have :
i) lowest boiling point ii) highest bond angle
iii) highest electropositive hydrogen. U
4. Write chemical equations involved during the manufacture of sulphuric acid by
contact process mentioning the reaction conditions. K
33
Group-17 elements
1. The negative value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of
chlorine. U
2. Bond dissociation enthalpy of F2 is less than that of Cl2. U
3. Most of the reactions of fluorine are exothermic. U
4. HF is the weakest acid among hydrogen halides. U
5. Thermal stability of hydrogen halides decreases from fluoride to iodide. U
6. HF is a liquid while other hydrogen halides are gases. U
7. Halogens have maximum negative electron gain enthalpy in their corresponding
periods. U
8. Halogens are coloured. U
9. Halogens are strong oxidizing agent. U
10. Interhalogen compound is more reactive than the halogens from which it is
formed. U
11. HCl reacts with finely powdered iron to form ferrous chloride, but not ferric
chloride. U
One mark questions:
1. Name the gas liberated when fluorine reacts with water. K
2. Name the only oxyacid of fluorine. K
3. Arrange these in the decreasing order of their stability: I2O4, ClO2, BrO2. U
4. Name the iodine oxide that is used in estimation of carbon monoxide. K
5. Complete the equation: I2 + 6H2O + 5Cl2 

 K
6. Write the composition of bleaching powder. K
7. What is the composition of aqua regia? K
8. Write the structure of perchloric acid. S
9. Which one of the interhalogen compound is not known: ICl3 or ICl2? U
Two mark questions

1. Fluorine exhibits only –1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit positive
oxidation states also. U
2. Compare the reaction of fluorine and chlorine with water. Give equations. K
3. Describe how chlorine is manufactured by Deacon's process. Give the equation. K
4. KMnO4 + HCl 
 P (g) 
2 H S
Q (yellow solid). What are P and Q? A
34
i) SO2 + 2H2O + Cl2 
 ii) 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 
 K
i) 8NH3(Excess) +3 Cl2 
 ii) Cl2 + 2NaOH (cold and dil) 
 K
i) NH3 + 3Cl2(Excess) 
 ii) Cl2+ 6NaOH (hot & conc) 
 K
K
i) Fe + 2HCl   ii) Cl2 + 3F2(Excess) 
 573K
9. What is the cause for bleaching action of chlorine water? Explain it with equations. K
10. How are interhalogen compounds formed? IF7 is possible but not ICl7. Why? K
11. What is the shape of: i) ClF3 ii) IF7 ? S

1. Arrange the following in the order of the property indicated for each set.
i) F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 (Increasing bond dissociation energy).
ii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI (decreasing acid strength)
iii) Cl2O, Cl2O6, ClO2, Cl2O7 (increasing oxidation state of chlorine). U
2. Match the following:
Formula Property Use
i) O2F2 Bleaching Estimation of CO
ii) ClO2 Fluorinating Pu from spent fuel
iii) I2O5 Oxidising Water treatment A
3. X2 is a greenish yellow gas with pungent smell used in purification of water. It
partially dissolves in H2O to give a solution which turns blue litmus red. When X2 is
passed through NaBr solution, Y2 is liberated. Identify X2 and Y2. What is the colour
of Y2? A
4. What is aqua regia? How does it dissolve noble metals like Au? Write the ionic
equations for the reactions involved. K
1. a) Name two properties each that have exceptionally high and exceptionally low
values for fluorine.
b) Complete the equation: XX' + H2O 
 K
heat NaI A
2. a) Identify A, B and C: MnO2 + HCl   A (g) 
(aq)
 B 
excess
C
b) i) Between PbCl2 and PbCl4 which is more covalent?
ii) Arrange MF, MCl, MBr, MI in decreasing order of their ionic character. U
35
Group-18 elements
1. Group 18 elements have very high ionisation enthalpy. U
2. Noble gases have large positive value for electron gain enthalpy. U
3. Group 18 elements have very low boiling and melting point. U
One mark questions:
1. Name the main commercial source of helium. K
2. Radon is obtained by radioactive decay of the isotope __________ K
3. Name the most abundant noble gas present in dry air. K
4. The first ionisation enthalpy of which molecule is almost similar to ionisation
enthalpy of xenon? K
5. Arrange the following in the increasing number of lone pair of electrons on xenon:
XeF4, XeF6, XeF2 U
6. Name the noble gas that has lowest boiling point known and also diffuses through
rubber. K
7. Complete the equation: 2XeF2 (s) + 2H2O (l) 

 K
8. Complete the equation: XeF6 + NaF 
 K
Two mark questions:
1. Noble gases are chemically inert. Give two reasons. K
i) XeF6 + 3H2O 


Complete hydrolysis
ii) PtF6 + Xe 
 K
3. Draw the structures of : i) XeF2 ii) XeO3. S
4. What is the geometry of i) XeF4 ii) XeF6. S
5. How many lone pair of electrons in: i) XeOF4 ii) XeO3? K
36
UNIT-8: d-and f-Block elements
One mark questions:
1. What are transition elements? K
2. Write the general electronic configuration of d-block elements. K
3. Elements of which groups in the periodic table form the d-block? K
4. Zinc, Cadmium and Mercury are d-block elements but not regarded as transition
elements. Why? K
5. Why are Cu, Ag and Au included under transition elements even though they
contain completely filled d orbitals in their ground state? K
6. On what ground can you say that Sc (Z=21) is a transition elements but Zn (Z=30) is
not? K
7. Generally, how does the melting points of the transition metals vary in a series? K
8. Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states in their compounds. Why? U
9. Name one 3d-series element that does not show variable oxidation state. U
10. Name the 3d series metal which shows highest oxidation state. U
11. Name a metal in 3d-series which exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently. U
12. 3d-series transition metals exhibit +2 as the most common oxidation state
(except Sc) why? U
13. Complete the disproportination reaction: 2Cu+(aq) 
 U
14. Copper (II) compounds are more stable in aqueous solution than copper (I)
compounds. Give reasons. U
15. The E0 (M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34V) What is the possible reason for
this? U
16. Which of the following ion is coloured? Sc3+, Zn2+ and Cr3+ U
17. Arrange the following in their increasing value for E0 (M3+/ M2+) values:
Sc, Zn, Mn, Fe A
18. Transition metals and their compounds show paramagnetic behavior. Why? U
19. Vanadium has relatively low E0(M3+/M2+) value. Give reason. U
20. Write the formula of the oxidised product obtained when I ions are treated with
MnO4 in fairly alkaline medium. U
U
21. Between MnO and Mn2O7 which one of these has more covalent character?
22. Mention an important oxoacid of manganese. K
23. Arrange Cr2O3, CrO3 CrO in increasing order of their acid character. U
37
24. Between KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 which one of these is used as primary standard in
volumetric analysis? U
25. What are f-block elements? K
26. Name the two series of f-block elements? K
27. What are lanthanoids? K
28. What are actinoids? K
29. What is actinoid contraction? K
30. What is the composition of Mischmetall? K
31. What is the most common oxidation state of lanthanoids and actinoids? K
32. Give reason: Cerium shows +4 oxidation state. U
33. Actinoids contraction is more than lanthanoid contraction. Give reason? U
34. Actinoids shows larger number of oxidation state than lanthanoids, Why? U
35. Name an element that shows highest oxidation number among actinoids. K
Two mark questions
1. Name two characteristic properties exhibited by d-block elements due to their
partially filled d-orbitals? K
2. Transition elements exhibits higher enthalpies of atomization. Give reasons. U
3. Compare the variability and stability in the oxidation state of transition metals and
non transition (p- block) elements. U
4. Second ionisation enthalpy is unusually high for chromium (atomic number 24) but
for zinc (atomic number 30) it is unusually low. Give reasons. U
5. Give reason: Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalysts. U
6. Write equations to show the catalytic activity of Fe (III) in the reaction:
2I + S2O28 
 I2 + 2SO24 K
7. The transition metals generally form coloured compounds. Why? U
8. Transition metals form large number of complex compounds. Give reason. U
9. The second ionization enthalpy is unusually higher for Cr and Cu. Give reasons. U
10. Which is a stronger reducing agent between Cr2+ and Fe2+ and why ? U
11. E0 (Mn3+ / Mn2+) for manganese is comparatively high, but the same for Fe is low.
Give reasons. U
12. Among Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+, Ti3+ which one of these is most stable in aqueous solution?
Give reason. U
13. Mn3+ is a good oxidizing agent but Cr2+ is a good reducing agent even though both
have d4 configuration. Give reason. U
38
14. As the oxidation number of a metal in an oxide increases what happens to the
i) ionic character of the oxide ii) chemical nature of the oxide? K
15. What are diamagnetic substances? Between Ti3+ and Ti4+, which is diamagnetic? K
16. Sc3+ is diamagnetic and colourless in aqueous medium. Give reasons. U
17. Cu+ is diamagnetic and Cu2+ is paramagnetic. Why? U
18. Calculate the magnetic moment of Fe2+. (At no:26) S
19. What are interstitial compounds? Give an example. K
20. Give any two characteristics of interstitial compounds. K
21. Give two characteristics of transition metal alloys. K
22. Transition metals readily form alloys. Give reason. Name an alloy with a transition
and a non-transition element. U
23. Give the laboratory preparation of potassium permanganate, with an equation. K
24. What is the action of heat on potassium permanganate at 513K? Give the
equation. K
25. What is the gas liberated When
i) Crystals of potassium permanganate is heated to 513K.
ii) Acidified potassium permanganate is treated with oxalate ion at 333K? K
26. i) Complete the following equation: 2 MnO4 + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O 

ii) Write the structure of MnO24 ion. K
27. How do MnO4 and MnO24 ions differ with respect to :

U
i) oxidation state of Mn ii) Magnetic property ?
28. What is disproportionation of an oxidation state. Give an equation to show the
disproportionation of MnO42 in acidic solution. U
29. Show the inter conversion of chromate and dichromate ions? K
30. An aqueous solution contains CrO24 and Cr2O27 ions. When the pH of this solution
is increased, concentration of which of these ion increases? Give an equation to

justify your answer. U
31. Write the full ionic equation for the oxidation of
i) H2S ii) Sn2+ by acidified potassium dichromate solution K
32. Give the structure of chromate ions and dichromate ions. S
33. What is lanthanoid contraction? Why is it caused? K
34. Write the two consequences of lanthanoid contraction. U
3+
35. La is colourless and diamagnetic. Give reasons. U
39
36. What are the product/s formed when a lanthanoid reacts with i) Nitrogen gas
ii) water? K
37. What is the common oxidation state of f-block elements. What is the maximum
oxidation state shown by uranium? K
38. Study of actinoids is difficult. Give reasons. U
39. Eu and Yb show +2 oxidation state. Give reasons. U
1. Name the metal of the 1st row transition series that has
(i) highest value for magnetic moment
(ii) zero spin only magnetic moment in its +2 oxidation state
(iii) zero spin only magnetic moment in its +1 oxidation state U
2. Give reasons:
i) Transition metals have high melting points
ii) Metal ions of same charge in a row of 'd' block elements show decrease in
radius
iii) Density of metals in a row of d-block increases. U
3. Between scandium (atomic number 21) and zinc (atomic number 30) which has
higher and lower value for E0 (M3+ / M2+) values. Justify your answer. U
4. i) Oxygen is better than fluorine in stabilizing higher oxidation states of transition
metals. Give reason.
ii) Write the formula of the fluoride and oxide of manganese in which it exhibits
highest oxidation state. U
5. Name the cupric halide that does not exist. Give reason with an equation. U
6. a) Write the steps involves in the commercial preparation of potassium
permanganate.
b) Permanganate titrations in presence of hydrochloric acid are unsatisfactory.
Why? K
7. How is potassium dichromate prepared from chromite ore? Give equations. K
8. Write ionic equations for the oxidation of :
i) thiosulphate ions in fairly alkaline KMnO4 solution
ii) iodide ions in acidified K2Cr2O7 solution K
+2
iii) Fe ions by acidified K2Cr2O7 solution.
9. Give three characteristics of lanthanoids. K
10. Give three chemical properties of lanthanoids. K
40
11. Give three characteristics of actinoids. K
12. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of lanthanoids with respect to
i) Electronic configuration ii)Oxidation state iii) Chemical reactivity U
13. Match the following:
i) Ferrous alloy bullets
ii) Mischmetall + Mg polymerisation
iii) Nickel complex steel U
41
UNIT-9: COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
One mark questions:
1. What is a coordination entity? K
2. Identify the Lewis acid in : [CoCl(NH3)5]2+. U
3. Give an example for didentate ligand. K
4. Which type of ligands form chelates? U
5. Give an example for homoleptic complex. U
6. Write the IUPAC name of the following (1 mark each)
Sl.No Co-ordination compound
1 K[Au(CN)2]
2 [Fe(en)3]Cl3
3 [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
4 [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3]
5 [Ag(CN)2]–
6 K3[Fe(CN)5(CO)]
7 K3[Co(C2O4)2Cl2]
8 [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Br3
9 [Cr(C2O4)3]3
10 [Ag(NH3)2] [Ag(CN)2] K
7. Using IUPAC names write the formulae for the following: ( 1 mark each)
i) Tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
ii) Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(II) nitrate
iii) Potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
iv) Dichloridobis(ethane -1,2-diamine)platinum (IV) nitrate.
v) Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II)
vi) Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt (III) K
8. What type of ligand can give rise to linkage isomerism? U
9. How many isomers can the complex [CoCl2 (NH3)4] Cl form? U
10. Which isomer of [CoCl2 (en)2]+ cannot show optical isomerism? U
11. What is linkage isomerism? K
12. Indicate the type of isomerism in the following set of complex compound
[Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] Cl U
13. What is the geometry of a complex if the hybridisation of the central metal is dsp2. U
14. What is crystal field splitting? K
42
15. How is the energy separation t and 0 related when the metal, ligand and metal
ligand distances are the same? U
16. What is spectrochemical series? K
17. Is [Co (NH3)6]3+ an inner orbital or outer orbital octahedral complex? U
18. Why are different colours observed in octahedral and tetrahedral complexes when
the metal and ligands are same? U
19. Many tetrahedral complexes are high spin complexes. Why? U
20. A six coordinated high spin complex is bonded to weak ligands. What would be the
hybridisation of the central metal? U
21. Complete the following definition: The dissociation constant of a coordination
compound is defined as _____________ K
22. Which coordination complex is used in treatment of lead poisoning? A
Two mark questions:
1. What is a double salt? Give an example. K
2. What is ambidentate ligand? Give an example. K
3. What are heteroleptic complexes? Give an example. K
4. What are primary and secondary valencies? K
5. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs of complexes?
i) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Co(CN)6] [Cr(NH3)6]
ii) [Cr(H2O)6] Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5 Cl] Cl2 H2O A
6. Draw the structures of cis -trans isomers for [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] S
7. Draw Fac-mer isomers of [Co(NH3)3Cl3] S
8. Explain geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds with an example. K
9. Explain optical isomerism in a coordination compounds with a suitable example? K
10. Write d and l isomers of cis [Pt (en)2 Cl2]2+ S
11. Which is the most stable complex among the following and why?
[Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(NH3)6]3+, [Fe(C2O4)3]3, [FeCl6]3 A
12. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3 is weakly paramagnetic.
Explain. A
13. Mention the two factors on which the magnitude of crystal field splitting 0
depends on? K
14. Give any two differences between crystal filed splitting in tetrahedral and
octahedral field. U
43
15. Explain why [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex where as [CoF6]3 is an outer
orbital complex? A
16. Write the energy level diagram for the crystal field splitting in octahedral
complex. K
17. Explain crystal field splitting in tetrahedral co-ordination entities with a neat
labelled diagram. K
18. Give the limitations of crystal field theory. K
19. How are M-C  and M-C  bond formed in metal carbonyls ? U
1. Give the postulates of Werner theory of coordination compounds. K
2. Match the coordination compounds given in column I with type of isomerism
exhibited by them in column II:
Column I (Coordination compound) Column II (Isomerism)
A) [Co(en)3] Cl3 1. Linkage isomerism
B) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] 2. Optical isomerism
+2
C) [Co(NH3)5 (SCN)] 3. Coordination isomerism U
3. Using valence bond theory account for hybridization, geometry and magnetic
property of [Ni(CN)4]2–. K
4. Using valence bond theory account for hybridization, geometry and magnetic
property of [Co(NH3)6]3+. K
5. Write the name, structure and magnetic behaviour of the complex K2[Ni(CN)4],
which is a low spin complex. A
6. Applying VBT, predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar
[Pt(CN)4]2 ion. (Given outer EC of Pt = 5d96s1) A
7. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2 is 5.9 B.M. predict the geometry of
the complex. A
8. Compare the following high spin complexes with respect to the shape,
hybridization and number of unpaired electrons: i) [NiCl4] 2 ii) [CoF6]3 A
9. Give the oxidation state, hybridization and coordination number of the central
metal ion in the complex: (NH4)2 [CoF4] U
10. Mention any three limitations of VBT that can be accounted for in CFT. K
11. Which d-orbitals form the eg set in a tetrahedral field? Between t2g and eg which set
has lower energy in octahedral complex? Give reason. K
44
12. Explain colour in coordination compounds using CFT taking [Ti(H2O)6]3+ as an
example. K
13. Complex ions [Co(NH3)5 H2O]3+, [Co(NH3)6] 3+
and [Co(CN)6]3 in aqueous medium
exhibit colour. Wavelengths of light absorbed was 475 nm, 310 nm and 500 nm.
Match the complexes with their absorbing wavelengths correctly. U
14. Mention any three applications of co-ordination compounds A
15. Give one example each for the applications of coordination compounds in
a) Extraction of metals b) Analytical chemistry c) Biological systems A
16. Match the coordination compounds given in column I with central metal atoms
given in column II:
Column I (Coordination compound) Column II (Central metal atom)
A. Chlorophyll 1. Rhodium
B. Blood 2. Cobalt
C. Wilkinson catalyst 3. Calcium
D. Vitamin B12 4. Iron
5. Magnesium A

1. For the complex [Fe(en)2 Cl2] Cl (At.No. Fe : 26)
i) What is the oxidation state of metal ion?
ii) Mention the geometry of hybrid orbitals.
iii) What is its magnetic behaviour?
iv) Give the IUPAC name
v) How many moles of AgNO3 is required to react with one mole of the complex? A
2. a) A complex MXYAB has square planar geometry. How many geometrical isomers
are possible? Write their structures.
b) Between [Ni(CN)4]2 and [Ni(CO)4] in which one of these does the metal-carbon
bond has both  and  character? A
3. CoSO4Cl.5NH3 exists in two isomeric forms ‘A’ and ‘B’. Isomer ‘A’ reacts with AgNO3
to give a white precipitate, but does not react with BaCl2. Isomer ‘B’ gives white
precipitate with BaCl2 but does not react with AgNO3. Answer the following
questions.
i) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their structural formulas.
ii) Name the type of isomerism involved.
iii) Give the IUPAC name of ‘A’ and ‘B’. A
45
4. a) Differentiate [Fe (CO)5] and K[Fe(NH3)2 (CN)4] with respect to
i) oxidation state of metal ii) shape
b) Assuming complete ionisation, how many ions per molecule are formed by
K4[Mn(CN)6] in its aqueous solution?
c) Between [Fe(C2O4)3]3 and [Fe(NH3)6]3+ which one is more stable and why? A
5. a) On basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of d4 in terms
of t2g and eg in octahedral complex when
i) 0 > P ii) 0 < P
b) How many metal-metal bonds and bridged CO groups are in [Co(CO)8]
complex?
c) Geometrical isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes. Give reason. A
46
UNIT-10: HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
One mark questions:
1. Write the IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl. K
2. Give an example for geminal dihalide. K
3. Which one of the following is a benzylic halide?
4. Give the IUPAC name of K
5. Identify A in the following reaction
6. How many isomeric (structural) monochlorides can be obtained from 2-

methylbutane? A
A
7. Identify A : ROH + HCl 
 RCl + H2O K
8. Write the general equation for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohol using
SOCl2. K
9. Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohol with KI? U
10. Name the reagent that brings about the conversion of benzene diazonium chloride
to iodobenzene. K
dry acetone
11. Name the reaction: CH3Br + NaI   CH3I + NaBr K
12. What is the major product formed when n- propyl bromide is treated with
alcoholic KOH? K
13. Ethyl chloride on heating with AgCN forms a compound X. Mention the functional
isomer of X. U
14. What is the major product formed in the following reaction: RX + NaOR' 
 K
15. What is optical activity? K
16. Write the IUPAC name of the first member of optically active chloroalkane. U
17. A haloalkane when boiled with aqueous KOH gives alcohol having inverted
configuration. Name the mechanism involved in this reaction. U
18. Out of CH2=CH–CH2Cl and CH3–CH2–CH2Cl which is more reactive towards SN1
reaction? U
19. In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes SN1
reaction faster? U
47
20. Why are allylic and benzylic halides highly reactive towards SN1 reaction? U
21. Tertiary alkyl halide undergoes SN1 reaction very fast. Why? U
22. Arrange the following in decreasing order towards SN1 reaction:
23. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN2 reaction (CH3)3CBr, CH3Br,
(CH3)2CHBr? U
24. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to SN2 substitution reaction? Give reason. U
25. Identify the product P:
26. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity with
sodium hydroxide solution: o-nitro chlorobenzene, chlorobenzene, benzylchloride U
27. What is the major product formed when chlorobenzene is treated with acetyl
chloride + anhy. AlCl3? K
K
28. Complete the equation : RMgX + H2O 

29. Mention the product formed when 2 molecules of isopropyl chloride is treated
K
with metallic sodium in dry ether.
30. Identify the major product A in the following reaction:
K
31. Name the synthetic halogen compound used for the treatment of malaria. A
32. What are freons? K
Two mark questions:
1. Write the structure and IUPAC name for neo – pentyl bromide. U
2. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
48
3. How many structural isomers are possible for C4H9Cl? Name the isomer that is
optically active. A
4. What are X and Y?
5. Explain Finkelstein reaction with an example. K

6. i) Boiling points of alkyl halides are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular mass. Give reason
ii) What happens to the boiling point of isomeric haloalkanes with increase in
branching? U
7. Arrange R – Cl, R – I, R – Br, R – F as directed :
(i) increasing order of density (ii) increasing order of boiling points U
8. Name the class (family) of the main product formed when RX reacts with i) LiAlH4
ii) RNH2. K
9. Write the differences between SN1 and SN2 mechanism with respect to i) order of
reaction ii) Solvent used. K
10. i) How do polar protic solvents help the first step in SN1 reaction?
ii) Iodination of arenes by electrophilic substitution requires an oxidizing agent.
Why? U
11. Write the mechanism (SN2) involved in the reaction between methylchloride and
hydroxyl ion. What is the order of the reaction? K
12. Which compound in the following couple will react faster in SN2 displacement and
why?
1 - bromopropane or 2 - bromopropane U
13. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity towards SN2
displacement reaction:
i) C2H5Br, C2H5I, C2H5Cl ii) (CH3 )3CBr, CH3CH2CHBrCH3, CH3CH2CH2CH2Br U
14. Write the structures of the compounds formed when an aromatic compound A
(C7H8) is treated with Cl2 in the presence of FeCl3. S
HCl  anhydrous ZnCl2
15. Identify A and B: C2H5OH  Na/Ether
A  B U
16. Identify P and Q (major products):

U
49
17. State Zaitsev rule. K
18. i) What is a chiral carbon or asymmetric carbon?
ii) How many asymmetric carbon atoms are in 2, 3-dichlorobutane? K
19. a) What is chirality?
b) Identify chiral and achiral molecule in the following pair of compounds.
20. i) What is racemisation?

ii) A racemic mixture is optically inactive. Give reason. K
21. i) Write the general formula of Grignard reagent.

ii) Why is it necessary to avoid even traces of moisture during the preparation
and use of Grignard reagent? K
22. i) Write the general equation of Wurtz reaction.

ii) How many alkanes are formed if CH3I and C2H5I are mixed in equal proportions
and the mixture is treated with metallic sodium in dry ether? K
23. Give reasons: halogen atom in haloarene is ring deactivating and also ortho-para
directions. U
24. Out of ortho and para dibromobenzene which one has higher melting point? Why? U
25. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution compared to alkyl
halides. Give two reasons. U
26. What are polyhalogen compounds? Give one example. K
27. Give reasons :

i) chloroform stored in dark coloured bottles.
ii) ortho and para halotoluenes can be separated easily. U

1. Complete the following reaction by identifying X, Y and Z.
H2 SO4
C2H5OH  Br2
 X  alcoholic KOH
 Y  Z U
443K CCl4
2. Write the mechanism involved in the reaction between tertiary butyl bromide and
aqueous KOH. Mention its order.
K
3. Following compounds are given to you:
Identify the compound which is
50
i) most reactive towards SN2 reaction.
ii) optically active
iii) most reactive towards  - elimination reaction. A
4. a) What are ambident nucleophiles?
b) Name the compounds formed when ethyl bromide reacts with the following
compounds: i) alcoholic KNO2 ii) alcoholic AgNO2 K
5. Complete the following:
i) C2H5Br + KCN 
 -------- + ---------
K
iii) 3 R – OH + PX3 
 ---------- + ------------
6. Match the columns P, Q and R
P Q R
a) R – X + NH3 R – NC Nitroalkane
b) R – X + KCN R – NH2 alkyl nitrile
c) R – X + AgNO2 R – CN alkyl isonitrile
R – NO2 Primary amine A
1. Name the reagent used to convert
a) 1 – chloropropane to 1 – nitropropane b) Bromoethane to ethoxyethane
c) Chloroethane to butane d) Bromoethane to ethyl acetate
e) ethene to iodoethane A
2. a) Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound
(B). Compound (B) reacts with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). When
(A) is treated with sodium metal it gives compound (D), C8H18 which is different
from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium.
Give the structural formulae of A, B, C and D.
b) Between chlorobenzene and chloromethane which is more reactive towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction? A
3. a) How do you prepare the following compounds from chlorobenzene. Write the
equations and name the reactions: i) diphenyl ii) toluene
b) What are enantiomers? U
51
UNIT-11: ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
One mark questions:

1. Write the IUPAC name of K
2. Write the structure of 2, 3 - diethyl phenol. K

3. Which of the following is allyl alcohol?
CH2 = CHCH2CH2OH, CH2=CHOH, HOCH2CH=CH2. U
4. C-O-H bond angle in alcohols is less than 109°28'. Give reason. U
5. Identify 'X' : CH3COOH  X

1) LiAlH
4 U
2) H O 2
6. Write equation for the conversion of ethanal into propan-2-ol using a Grignard
K
reagent.
7. Ethanol and methoxymethane have same molar mass. But ethanol has higher B.P
U
than methoxymethane. Give reason.
K
8. Give a reaction to show the acidic nature of alcohols.
9. Arrange the following in the increasing order of acid strength: CH3CH2OH,
U
CH3CH(OH)CH3, (CH3)3COH.
10. What type of alcohols do not give turbidity at room temperature when treated
with Lucas reagent? K
11. Dehydration of 2° or 3° alcohols fails to give ethers. Why? U
12. Name a metal which is used as catalyst for dehydrogenation of alcohols. K
13. Write the IUPAC name of the organic product obtained if t-butyl alcohol is heated
with copper at 573 K. U
14. Mention the reagent used to prepare benzene from phenol. K
15. Which alcohol is known as 'wood spirit'? K
16. What is denaturation of alcohol? K
17. Consumption which alcohol causes blindness? K
18. Name the alcohol obtained by destructive distillation of wood. K
19. Name the enzyme involved in the following reaction:

K
C6H12O6 
 2C2H5OH + 2CO2.
20. Name the product obtained in the following reaction:
K
21. Write the general equation for Williamson synthesis. K
52
22. What is P in the following reaction? C6H5OR + P 

 C6H5OH + RX. K
Two mark questions:

1. OH bond length in phenol is slightly less than the same in methanol. Give two
reasons. U
2. Give an example for the preparation of 3° alcohol from a Grignard reagent. A
3. Write the equation for the preparation of phenol from cumene. K
 __________ 
a) HCHO + R-MgX 
ether 2
 _________ H O
U
b) 
oleum
 __________ 
1) NaOH
2) H 

 ________
5. Write the structures of P and Q

A
6. How is aniline converted into phenol? Write the equation. K

7. Write the equations for the conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol. K
8. How does b.p of alcohols change
a) With increase in number of carbon atoms
b) With increase in branching U
9. i) Propanol has a higher boiling point than butane even though they have nearly
the same molar mass. Give reason.
ii) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile but not p-nitrophenol U
10. a) Alkoxide ion is stronger base than hydroxide ion, why?
b) Phenoxide ion is more stable then alkoxide ion. Give reason. U
11. Arrange 3°, 2°, 1° alcohols in
a) decreasing order of acid strength
b) relative order of ease of dehydration U
12. Explain Kolbe's reaction. K
13. Write the structure of the final product and name the reaction:
14. What is the effect of EWG on acid strength of phenol? U
15. Give reasons: Phenol is a stronger acid than an alcohol. U
16. Cresols are less acidic than phenol. Why? U
17. i) What is the composition of Lucas reagent?

ii) What happens if a 3° alcohol is treated with Lucas reagent? K
53
18. Name a reagent for the following conversion. KMnO4 cannot used for this, explain
U
19. How is aspirin prepared from salicylic acid? K
20. What is the role of pyridine in the following reaction? Identify the product
obtained.
K
ArOH + CH3COCl  ___________ + HCl
pyridine
21. Give reasons for the following:

i) Fermentation of glucose takes place under anaerobic conditions.
ii) Electrophilic substitution of phenol and anisole takes place at ortho and para
U
positions.
22. Give the structures of the major products in the following:
H
a) CH3CH = CH2 + H2O 
b) + Br2 
2 CS
K
23. Bring out the following conversions:
a) phenol into sodium phenoxide K
b) anisole into 4-methoxy acetophenone
24. Draw the structure of the product in the following reactions.
a) Phenol treated with bromine water K
b) 2-propanol treated with PCC or CrO3 in anhydrous medium
25. How will you convert phenol into picric acid? K
26. Identify the major product in

K
i. 
dil.HNO3

ii. CH3CH2OH  
2conc.H SO
4
413K
27. How is methanol manufactured commercially? K
28. Write the equations along with enzymes involved in the manufacture of ethanol
from molasses. K
29. Explain Williamson synthesis with an example. K
30. How is anisole prepared by Williamson synthesis? K
31. Write the IUPAC names of the products in
a) CH3I + NaOC2H5 

K
b) CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH  
2 4 conc.H SO
32. Complete the equation :
54
A
What is the order of reactivity of HBr, HI and HCl in this reaction?
33. Complete the following equation. Mention whether the reaction is SN1 or SN2.
A
34. Write structures of the products formed in the given reactions.
a) 

H 2 O/H

 A
b) 
HBr
35. Which of the following is better method for the preparation of t-butyl ethyl ether?
Give reason.
A
36. How does anisole react with a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4?
37. Write equations for
a) Friedel-Craft's methylation of anisole. K
b) Bromination of anisole in acetic acid medium

1. Give the mechanism for acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethene. K
2. Write equations for the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to diethyl ether. K
3. Write the structures of A, B and C
Hint: A, B are primary alcohols and C is secondary alcohol.

H O /  OH
4. CH3CH = CH2   P   Q. Identify P and Q.
BH
3 2 2
A
Is the final product obtained as per Markownikov's rule or opposite to it?
H I
5. CH3OCH2CH3  ? 
 [Intermediate] 
 final products
55
Write the structures of protonated product, intermediate and its final products. U
1. Write the structures of any two alcohol and three ethers with the formula C4H10O. U
2. a) Give the structures of X, Y, Z and write the IUPAC name of Z.
b) Name the alcohol that is used as solvent in varnishes. A

3. a) Identify A, B, C. Write the IUPAC name of C.
b) Carbolic acid is usually called _____________ A

4. a) Identify the missing compounds, P, Q, R, S:
H O/H 
CH3CH2OH   Q 
 P 
PCC 2
 R 

HCN 4
S LiAlH
b) What is the IUPAC name of CH3OCH2CH2OCH3? A
5. Write all the possible structures which are aromatic compounds with the formula
C7H8O. A
6. a) Match the following acids with their pka values:

A B
a) p-cresol i) 15.9
b) phenol ii) 10.2
c) p-nitrophenol iii) 9.98
d) ethanol iv) 7.1
(Hint: Greater the pKa value, weaker is the acid)
b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of bond angle around oxygen
atom.
56
UNIT-12: ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
One mark questions:
1. Give the IUPAC name of C6H5CH=CHCHO K
2. Give the IUPAC name of :

K
H2 SO4 U
3. CH  CH + H2O 
HgSO4
 X. Give the IUPAC name of X.
1) Ether
4. A (nitrile) + C6H5MgBr   C6H5COCH3. Write the structure of A. U
2) H O+
3
DIBAL H
K
5. Complete the following equation: CH3CH = CH  CH2  CN H2 O

6. Name the oxidizing agent used in Etard reaction. K

7. Complete the following equation: 2R'COCl + R2Cd 
 K
8. Name the family of carbonyl compound formed by Friedel-Craft acylation reaction. U
9. What type of attractive forces are there between molecules of aldehydes or
ketones? U
10. Why is there a large difference in the boiling points of Butanal (b.p. 348K) and
Butan-1-ol (391K)? U
11. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
Propanal, acetone methoxyethane, n-butane and propan-1-ol U
12. Lower members of aldehydes and ketones are miscible with water? Give reason. U
13. Give reasons: Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic addition
reaction. U
14. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their reactivity in
nucleophilic addition reaction: Ethanal, propanal , propanone, butanone. U
15. What is the reducing agent used in Clemmensen reduction? K
16. Write the equation to illustrate Wolff-Kishner reduction, for K
17. What is X?
18. Between benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde, which one of these does not answer
K
Fehling's test?
19. Write the general equation for haloform reaction. K
57
20. Name a reaction given by carbonyl compounds due to the acidic nature of
α- hydrogen atom. K
21. Write the IUPAC name of : HOOC  COOH K
22. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their acid strength: CH3COOH,
FCH2COOH, ClCH2COOH. U
Two mark questions:
1. How is benzaldehyde prepared by Rosenmund reduction? Give the equation. K
2. Explain Stephen reaction with the general equation. K
3. Give the structure and the IUPAC name of the product (an aldehyde) in the
following reaction:
O
(b)
OCH3 1.AlH(i-Bu)2 U
2.H2O

H3O
 A 
4. In the following reaction identify A and B: C6H5CN + SnCl2 + HCl  B K
5. What is DIBAL-H? Give one specific use of it. K
CS2
6. Identify A and B: A + CrO2Cl2  H3O
 B 

Benzaldehyde. K
7. Benzene is converted into acetophenone using acetylchloride in presence of anhy

AlCl3. Give the equation. Name the reaction. K
8. Write the two steps involved in the manufacture of benzaldehyde from toluene. K
9. How do you preapare benzaldehyde by Gatterman Koch reaction? Write the

equation. K
10. What is the i) geometry of the intermediate ii) change in the hybridisation state of
U
carbon, when a nucleophile attacks the carbonyl carbon of an aldehyde.
11. Between benzaldehyde and propanal which is more reactive in nucleophilic U

addition reaction? Justify your answer.
12. 
+ NaHSO3  
 X (final product). Write the structure of X. Mention
H
K
one application of the reaction.
13. Name the reagents used to convert as directed:
K
i) Aldehyde into an hemiacetal ii) ketone into a phenylhydrazone
14. Which of the following do not answer iodoform test?
U
i) CH3CHOH CH3 ii) CH3CH2CH2OH iii) C6H5COCH3 iv) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 v) CH3CHO
15. Illustrate Clemmensen reduction with a general equation. K
16. What is Tollens reagent? What observation is made in Tollens test? K
58
17. What is Fehling’s reagent? What observation is made in Fehling’s test? K
18. α- hydrogen atoms of carbonyl compounds are acidic. Give reasons. U
19. Write the Aldol condensation reaction by taking ethanal as an example. K
20. Complete the equation and name the product:
21. HCHO + HCHO + conc. KOH 

 A + B. Name the compounds A and B. K
22. Which one of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation and
which one Cannizzaro's reaction?
U
23. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols. Give reasons.
24. What is the effect of an electron releasing group on the acidity of acids? Give
U
reason.
K
25. Illustrate Hell-volhard-Zelinsky reaction with a general equation?
26. Benzoic acid is less reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction. Why?
U
Name the product obtained when benzoic acid is brominated.
1. What are A and B in the following reaction? Write the IUPAC name of B.
ether
C6H5MgBr + CH3CH2CN   H3O
 A  B

K
2. Write the equations for the steps involved in the mechanism of base catalysed
addition of HCN to a carbonyl compound. K
3. Write equations for the reactions:

i) acetaldehyde with HCN
ii) Benzaldehyde with Sodium hydrogen sulphite
iii) Acetone with barium hydroxide and heat (an aldol). K
4. Write the structure of any three cross aldol condensation products A, B, C:

dil.NaOH
CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO   A+B+C K
heat
5. Benzaldehyde undergoes self oxidation- reduction on heating with concentrated

K
alkali. What are the products formed and what is the name of the reaction?
6. Predict the main product formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with
59
i) Tollen's reagent ii) NH2OH iii) Zn-Hg HCl A
7. Show how each of the following compounds can be converted to Benzoic acid:
a) Ethyl Benzene b) benzamide c) benzoyl chloride? A
8. Benzoic acid can be prepared starting from bromobenzene. Show this conversion
using only inorganic reagents in the correct order (neglect organic solvent used in
any step) A
i) CH3COOH + NaHCO3 

iii) (C6H5CO)2O + H2O 

 K
10. An aromatic acid X on reduction using diborane gives Benzyl alcohol. The sodium
salt of X on heating with soda lime gives Y, and on electrolysis gives Z. Identify X,Y
and Z? A
11. Give one simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of
compounds.
i) acetic acid and acetaldehyde
ii) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
iii) Benzaldehyde and Benzophenone U
1. Give the equations for the conversions of a) Ethanoic acid to Ethanoic anhydride
b) phthalic acid to phthalimide K
2. a) Name simple chemical tests to distinguish
i) propanal and ethanal ii) benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate
Mg , ether
b) CH3Br  1) CO2
 A  CH3OH/H
 B 

 C. Identify the compounds A, B and C U
2) H2 O 
3. a) Given A = . Write the structures of the product formed when A

reacts with
i) NH2NH2 ii) boiled with acidified KMnO4.
b) Name the reaction by which
i) sodium benzoate is converted into benzene
ii) Propanoic acid is converted into 2-bromopropanoic acid
c) Arrange the following in increasing order of their acid strength:
benzoic acid, 4-nitrobenzoic acid, 4-methoxybenzoic acid
A
60
4. a) Give reasons:
i) oxidation of toluene by CrO2Cl2 in CS2 does not yield benzoic acid
ii) benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Craft reaction
* *
iii) In NH2 CONHNH2 (semicarbazide) the NH2 group is not involved in
formation of semicarbazone
b) Write a self explanatory equation for Clemmensen reduction of propanone.
5. Identify A. B, C, D and E in the following and write their names: U
dry HCl

6. a) CH3CHO + CH3OH    CH3OH

 A  B. Write the structures of A and B. A

b) Write the general equation for the conversion of Grignard reagent into
carboxylic acid
c) Arrange the following in increasing order of their reactivity towards HCN:
acetone, acetaldehyde, methyl tert - butyl ketone, propanaldehyde
K
7. a) Identify the compounds A, B and C:
b) Give the IUPAC name of P. Name the reaction.
A
CH3COCl Zn Hg conc. HCl 1) KMnO4 KOH, 
8. C6H6 
anhy AlCl3
 A   B  2) H O+
 C.
3
'A' reacts with NaOI to form D and E. Write the structures of A, B, C, D and E.
PCl5 H2 ,Pd,BaSO4 NaBH4
A
9. C7H6O2 (A)   P   Q   R.
(aromatic acid)
i) Identify P, Q, R
ii) Write the equation for the reaction between 'A' and 'R' in presence of H+ and
A
name the reaction.
10. a) Complete the following equations:
ii) RCH2OH  

1) Alk. KMnO
4
2)H O  3
b) Mention one use each of : i) formaldehyde ii) acetone iii) ethanoic acid
K
61
UNIT-13: AMINES
One mark questions:
1. What is the shape of trimethyl amine? K
2. Write the IUPAC name of (CH3)3 N. K
3. Write the structure of ethane-1,2 - diamine K
4. Write the IUPAC name of simplest arylamine. K
5. The bond angle CNC in an aliphatic amine is less than 109.5°. Give reason. U
6. What is the product obtained when a nitro compound is reduced using H2 / Pd? K
7. Scrap iron and hydrochloric acid is preferred as reducing agent during the
preparation of primary amines from nitrocompounds. Give reason. U
H2 /Ni
8. Identify the major product X in the following reaction: RCN   X. K
9. CH2=CHCH2Cl + NH3 
 X. X is a primary amine. Give its IUPAC name. K
10. Write the general formula of Quartenary ammonium salt. K
11. Write the structure of an amide which gives propanamine by Hoffmann

bromamide reaction. U
12. Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Why? U
13. Why is aniline soluble in aqueous HCl? U

14. Between NH3 and CH3NH2, which has higher pKb value? U
15. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular mass? U
16. Why is pyridine used during the acylation of primary amines by acid chloride? U
17. C6H5COCl + CH3NH2 
 CH3NHCOC6H5 + HCl. Name the reaction. K
18. What is the gas liberated when methanamine is treated with nitrous acid. K
19. Primary aliphatic amines quantitatively evolves nitrogen gas with nitrous acid.
Mention one application of this reaction. A
20. Write the chemical name of Hinsberg’s reagent. K
21. Which one of the following reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a product insoluble in
aqueous alkali? C6H5CH2NH2, C2H5NHCH3, (C2H5)3 N U
22. A foul smelling gas is liberated when aniline is heated with chloroform and
ethanolic potassium hydroxide solution. Name the gas. K
23. C6H5CH2NH2 NaNO2 /HCl at 0°C

  X. Write the structure of X. K
24. Diazonium salts are not stored. Why ? U
62
25. Name the diazonium salt that is insoluble in water and stable at room
temperature. K
26. Give reason: Although amino group is ortho and p-directing in aromatic
electrophillic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount
of m-nitroaniline. U
27. Write the structure of the product obtained when aniline reacts with bromine
water at room temperature. K
28. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft reaction. Why? U
29. Write the zwitter ion form of sulphanilic acid. K
30. Complete the coupling reaction :
K
Two mark questions:

alc.KCN
1. What are A and B in: RX  H2 /Ni
 A   B? K
NH3 ,
2. RCOOH  (i) LiAlH4 ii) H2 O
 A   B. Write the structures of A and B. K
conc.H4 SO4  HNO3 and heat

3. C6H6  Sn/HCl
 A   B. Give the IUPAC names of A and B. K
4. How is nitrobenzene converted to N - methylaniline? Write the equation. K
ammonolysis 2 moles of
5. Benzyl chloride   A (1° amine) 
chloromethane
 B. Name the products A
K
and B.
6. Complete the following acid–base reaction and name the product:
K
(C2H5)3N + HCl 

7. Name any two effects that decide the basic strength of alkylamine in aqueous
K
solution.
8. Arrange the following as directed:
i) C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2 NH, C2H5NH2 (increasing order in their solubility in water)
ii) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, (C2H5)2 NH (decreasing order in base strength in aqueous
U
medium)
9. Explain carbylamine reaction for methanamine with an equation. K
CuCN
10. Write the IUPAC names of A and B: C6H5N2Cl  LiAlH4
 A   B K
alc.KCN
Cu2 Cl2 /HCl

11. Complete the following equation and name the reaction: C6H5N2Cl   A K
+B
R K
12. If : C6H5N2X  C6H5Cl + N2+ CuX is an example for Gatterman reaction, what
should be the reagents R? K
63
13. How is aniline converted into phenol? Write the equation.
U
14. Write the name of the main products A and B .
NaNO2 /HCl at 0°C
C6H5NH2  H3PO2 /H2 O
 A   B U
15. Between aniline and acetanilide which is more reactive towards electrophilic
substitution reaction. Give reason.
1. Write the equations for the reactions involved in the conversion of Primary amine
to quaternary ammonium salt. (General equation). K
2. Explain Gabriel phthalimide synthesis reaction for the preparation of
methanamine. Write the equations. K
3. Give reasons:
i) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water.
ii) Methanamine is a stronger base than ammonia.
iii) pkb of aniline is much higher than that of ammonia. U
4. Arrange : (CH3)3N, CH3CH2CH2NH2, CH3NHCH2CH3, as directed
i) Increasing order in their base strength in gas phase.
ii) Decreasing order in their base strength in aqueous medium.
iii) Increasing order in their solvation in aqueous medium. U
5. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their base strength. Give reason:
Aniline, p-nitoraniline, p-toluidine. U
6. Discuss briefly the separation of primary, secondary and tertiary amines using
Hinsberg reagent. K
7. An isocyanide on reduction gives a secondary amine. Using this as hint, name X, Y
H2 /Ni
and Z: C6H5CN  CHCl3  alc.KOH
 X  1) LiAlH4
 Y  Z A
 2) H2 O
8. What do you mean by acylation for an amine? Write the equation for the acylation
K
of ethanamine with acetylchloride. Name the product formed.
9. Among the different isomers corresponding to molecular formula C3H9N write the
structure of the isomer,
i) that reacts with Hinsberg reagent to form a product insoluble in an alkali
ii) (any one) that forms a quaternary ammonium salt with 3 moles of R-X?
A
iii) that does not undergo acylation
10. What is diazotization? Give an example for a diazonium salt. Mention one aromatic
U
compound synthesized from a diazonium salt.
64
11. Aniline is nitrated in 3 steps to get p-nitroaniline as a major product. Name the
reactions involved in three steps in the correct sequence. U
12. What is the reagent/s (X) and products Y and Z in the following sequence of
reaction:
13. An aromatic compound “A” on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating
forms compound “B”. B on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound “C” of
molecular formula C6H7N. The compound C can form a diazonium salt. Give the
A
IUPAC names of the compounds A,B and C.
14. Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions:
U

CuCN/KCN H2 O/H NH3 /heat
C6H5N2X   A   B  C
15. Aniline is converted to Fluorobenzene. Write the equations for the reaction
U
involved.
Five mark questions
1. Identify A,B and C in the following conversion.
Fe/HCl
C6H5NO2  NaNO2 /HCl at 0°C
 A  CuCN/KCN
 B   C. A
Name the reaction involved in the conversion of A to B and B to C.

Br2 /KOH HNO2
2. a) CH3CONH2   X   Y. Write the IUPAC names of X and Y.
b) Name the inorganic reagent that helps to convert :
i) ArN2 Cl into ArI ii) ArN2 Cl into ArOH
c) Arrange these in the increasing order of their boiling points:

A
(CH3)3N, CH3CH2CH2NH2, CH3NHCH2CH3
3. What are X, Y and Z? Name the two inorganic reagents that are used to convert Z
into nitrobenzene.
4. a) Between N-methylethanamine and propan-2-amine, which will liberate N2 gas

on treatment with nitrous acid. Write the equation for the reaction.
b) What should be the reagents X and Y to bring about the following conversions?
65
 -
H or OH
c) Phenols or aryl amines + A   azo dyes. What should be A?
5. a) Give reason : A
i) Aryl diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salts.
ii) Tertiary amine cannot form intermolecular hydrogen bond.
i) LiAlH4 ii) H2 O C6H5 SO2 Cl
b) C6H5CONH2   P   Q . Write the structure of P and Q.
c) Arrange the following in the deceasing order of their pKb value.
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, NH3
U
6. a) Give the general equation for Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.
Why is this called degradation reaction? Explain the migration involved in the
reaction.
b) Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with phenol in presence of OH– to form an
orange dye. Write the structure of the dye.
c) pKb values of amines A, B, C are 3.25, 9.3, 4.7 respectively. Arrange the amines
A, B, C in increasing order of their basic strength.
U
7. An aromatic amide ‘A’ with the formula C7H7ON on reaction with NaOBr forms a
compound ‘B’. ‘B’ reacts with HNO2 at 0° C to form ‘C’. C is reduced using ethanol.
The products formed contains two organic compounds D and E, one of which is an
aromatic compound. What are A,B,C,D and E?
A
8. a) Write the structure of P,Q,R.
b) Name the family of compounds that gives carbylamine reaction.Give the

general equation for the reaction.
K
66
UNIT-14 : BIOMOLECULES
One mark questions:
1. What are monosaccharides? K
2. What are oligosaccharides ? K
3. Is galactose an aldose or ketose sugar ? U
4. What are reducing sugars? K
5. What is the product obtained when glucose is oxidised by bromine water? K
6. Glucose 
 X. What is X?
oxidation with nitric acid K
7. Identify the monomer for the polysaccharide :
7. How do you account for the absence of free aldehyde group in the pentaacetate
of D-glucose? K
8. What is an anomeric carbon? K

9. Write the Haworth's structure for -D () fructofuranose. K
10. What do you mean by glycosidic linkage? K
11. During curdling of milk, what happens to sugar present in it? K
12. Name the water soluble component of starch. K
13. Give the general representation for -L- amino acid. K
14. The solubility of amino acids in water are generally higher than that of the
corresponding halo acids. Explain. U
15. How many peptide bonds are present in a pentapeptide? K
16. Maya is suffering from Pernicious anaemia . Name the vitamin deficient in her. U
17. Name the vitamin whose deficiency in our body results in impaired clotting of
blood. K
18. Name a hormone which controls the level of excretion of water and salt from
kidneys. K
19. Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their solubility in water or
fat. In which class will you place vitamin D ? U
20. Name the sugar moiety present in DNA molecule. K
21. What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide? U
67
Two mark questions:
1. What are disaccharides? Give an example. K
2. What are polysaccharides ? Give an example. K
3. What reactions of glucose support to show that :
i) it has a carbonyl group ii) it has a chain of six carbon atoms? K
4. Mention two reactions and facts that cannot be explained by the open chain
structure of glucose. K
5. How do the two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ? What are these two
forms called? K
6. What are the hydrolytic products of maltose? Why is it a reducing sugar? K
7. What is the composition of invert sugar? How is it obtained? U
8. Give two differences between amylose and amylopectin units of starch. U
9. What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose? U
10. Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants. K
11. Write the zwitter ion form of -amino acid. In this form amino acids are
amphoteric. Give reason. K
12. Give the name and structure of the simplest α- amino acid which is optically
inactive . K
13. Draw the structure of Glycylalanine. Mark the peptide linkage in it. K
14. Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body. Why? U
15. Name the hormone which contains iodine. What is the function of this hormone? K
16. What are the common types of secondary structures of proteins? K
17. The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain. K
1. With respect to the sugar in milk:
i) name the sugar ii) name the hydrolytic products of the sugar
iii) which carbon atoms are involved in the formation of glycoside bond in it? U
2. What does , D, (+) in the name   D (+) glucose signify? U
3. i) Write the Haworth's structure of D(+) sucrose:
ii) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Why?
iii) What is the main source of sucrose? U
4. From the following polysaccharides : glycogen, cellulose, amylose, answer the
followings:
i) Which one is a linear polymer of - glucose ?
68
ii) Which one is a polymer of  – glucose ?
iii) Which one is a polymer present in liver and muscle ? U
5. What is glycogen? How is it different from starch? U
6. What type of linkages are responsible for the formation of
i) Primary structure of proteins
ii) Cross linking of polypeptide chains
iii) -helix formation? U
7. Match the items in A, B and C correctly
A B C
a) Valine Non essential amino acid Basic amino acid
b) Aspartic acid Essential amino acid Neutral amino acid
c) Lysine Essential amino acid Acidic amino acid K
8. What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Is glycine an essential or non-
essential amino acid? K
9. What are these with respect to proteins

(i) Peptide linkage (ii) Primary structure (iii) Denaturation. K
10. Explain the terms primary and secondary structure of proteins. What is the
difference between -helix and -pleated sheet structure of proteins? U
11. Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins with one example for each. U
12. What is a native protein? Explain how it gets denatured? U
13. What are the forces that stabilises the 2° and 3° structures of proteins? K
14. How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin deficiency of which leads to
convulsions? K
15. Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential to us? Mention one source for
vitamin C. K
16. Name:
i) a water soluble vitamin.
ii) a fat soluble vitamin.
iii) the disease caused by deficiency of vitamin D. K
17. Match the items in A, B and C correctly:

A B C
a) Vitamin A Green vegetables Scurvy
b) Vitamin C Carrot Beri beri K
c) Vitamin B1 Citrus fruit Night blindness
69
18. Match the items in A, B and C correctly:
A B C
a) Glucagon pancreas Decreases blood glucose
b) Thyroxin Pancreas Increases blood glucose K
c) Insulin Thyroid Stimulates metabolism
19. What are nucleic acids? Mention their two important functions. K
20. Write the important functional differences between DNA and RNA. K
21. Name the products that would be formed when a nucleotide is completely
hydrolysed? K
22. Name the linkage that joins:
i) two monosaccharides ii) two -amino acids iii) two nucleotides K
23. What information can you get from 1° and 2° structure of DNA? How is the 2°
structure of DNA stabilised? K
24. Give differences between RNA and DNA with respect to :

i) sugar moiety ii) N-base iii) structure K
70
UNIT-15: POLYMERS
One mark questions:
1. Based on the source, what type of polymer is rayon? K
2. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their intermolecular forces:
Buna N, Polystyrene, Polyester U
3. Mention one difference between thermoplastic and thermosetting polymer. U
4. What must be the criteria for a monomer to form an addition polymer? U
5. What is the most common mechanism suggested for addition polymerization? U
6. What is the role of benzoyl peroxide in the polymerization of ethene? K
7. Complete the chain propagation step: C6H5 CH2CH2• + CH2 = CH2 
 K
8. Give reason : Polythene prepared under high pressure and temperature has low
density. U
9. Give the composition of Zeigler Natta catalyst? K
10. Name the polymer that is resistant to attack by corrosive reagents and used in
making non stick utensils. A
11. Name the monomer for the polymer with a partial structure K
12. A saturated monomer has two different functional groups. What type of polymer U
is obtained from it?
13. What type of fibre can be formed by the polycondensation of dicarboxylic acids U
and diols?
14. Ethylene glycol is polymerised with terephthalic acid. Name the type of U
polymerization involved.
15. a polymer. Name the polymer.
K
16. Unbreakable crockery is a copolymer of formaldehyde and nitrogen containing
monomer. Name the monomer.
A
17. Is melamine polymer a cross linked or a branched polymer?
K
18. Rubber has elastic properties. Give reason.
U
19. What is the configuration at the carbon carbon double bond in natural rubber?
K
20. Name the element that helps cross linking of rubber molecules during
Vulcanization.
K
21. Molecular mass of polymers are expressed as an average. Give reason.
U
71
22. Write the structure of the biodegradable co-polymer obtained using
NH2–CH2–COOH and NH2–(CH2)5–COOH K
23. Synthetic aliphatic polyesters are preferred over synthetic aromatic polyesters.
Why? U
Two mark questions:
1. Name two semi synthetic polymers derived from cellulose. K
2. Based on molecular forces polymers are classified. Name any two such class. K
3. Based on structure what type of polymer is : a) urea - formaldehyde resin b) LDPE K
4. How is an addition polymer formed? Write the structure of the addition polymer
from styrene. K
5. Asha uses a synthetic polymer which is a substitute for wool. What is the
monomer used for such a polymer? Write the structure of the polymer. A
6. Name the monomer for the polymers
7. What are the monomers required for the preparation of nylon 6,6? K
8. Mention the type of polymerization reaction that occurs when these monomers
are polymerized. a) CF2 = CF2 b) Caprolactum K
9. Write an equation for the preparation of nylon 6. K
10. Name a a) polyester b) polyamide fibre K
11. Handles of utensils are made by a thermosetting polymer. Name the polymer,
write its structure. K
12. Identify the monomers for these polymeric structures.
13. Give two differences between natural rubber and Buna – S. U
14. Give one example each for a synthetic biodegradable polymer that is a
a) polyester b) polyamide K

1) Based on various types of classification of polymers, mention any three class that
polyvinylchloride belongs to. U
72
2) Write the steps involved in the free radical mechanism of the polymerization of
ethene. U
3) Classify the given polymers as ; a) addition b) condensation c) network polymers
i) Dacron ii) Bakelite iii) Neoprene K
4) Distinguish LDPE & HDPE based on
i) method of preparation ii) structure iii) toughness/use K
5) With one example for each, distinguish chain-growth and step-growth
polymerization. U
6) Match the items in A, B and C correctly
A B C
a) Bakelite x) Condensation p) Elastomer
b) Nylon – 6 y) Addition q) Thermosetting
c) Buna – N z) Homopolymer r) Fibre U
7) Give one example each of a synthetic polymer that is used as:
a) fibre b) elastomer c) plastic A
1) With respect to the monomer styrene :
i) Write the structure of its homo polymer.
ii) Name the polymer obtained when it is polymerized with 1,3 – butadiene.
iii) What characteristic property will the polymer in (ii) get? Mention one use of it
iv) If the homo polymer has 60% chains of molar mass 10000 each, 30% chains of
molar mass 12000 each and 10% chains of molar mass 16000 each, what will
be the molar mass of the polymer? U
2) a) Correct the underlined part in the following statements suitably:
i) Terylene is a polyamide fibre
ii) Cellulose nitrate is rayon.
iii) Many synthetic polymers are biodegradable.
b) Write the structures of the monomer for the polymers
i) Nylon-6 ii) Polystyrene
3) a) Which of the following is an elastomer, polyamide, thermosetting polymer? K
i) Urea – formaldehyde ii) Neoprene iii) Nylon – 6
b) Write any two advantages in the Vulcanization of rubber.
4) a) How is a homopolymer different from a copolymer? K
b) Write the names of the polymer obtained from
73
i) CH2 = CHCN ii) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
c) Write the equation for the polymerization of chloroprene to get neoprene.
5) a) Write any two differences between Nylon 6 and Nylon 2 - Nylon 6. K
b) Complete the following polymerization reactions:
Name P and Q. Give one use of P.

b) Give reason : i) Fibre has close packing of chains and crystalline nature.
ii) Polythene prepared using Zeigler Natta catalyst has high
U
density.
7) a) A polymer is as shown below:
Based on the structure what type of polymer is it? Give one example for such a
polymer.
b) Name a polymer each with the following characteristic and use :
i) crease resistant hence used to blend with cotton & wool.
ii) resistant to attack by petrol and other organic solvents and used for tank
lining.
iii) Resistant to chemicals, insects and fungi and used in making fibers such as
A
orlon.
74
UNIT-16 : CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
One mark questions:
1. Define Chemotherapy. K
2. What are Drugs? K
3. Name any one force that holds the drugs to the active site of enzymes. K
4. Drugs that are classified on the basis of Pharmacological effect is useful for
doctors. Why? K
5. Name a macromolecule that is chosen as a drug target. K
6. Some proteins are important to body’s communication. What are they called? K
7. Name the chemical which stimulates the secretion of HCl and Pepsin in stomach. K
8. Prostaglandins in our body stimulates inflammation and cause pain. Name a drug
effective against it. K
9. Name the chemical synthesised in the body which acts as a potent vasodilator. K
10. Why do anti allergics not act as antacids? U
11. The drug cimetidine is an antacid. Why? U
12. What are hypnotics? K
13. What is the role of noradrenaline in the body? K
14. If a person is suffering from tension suggest a drug that may be given to that
person. U
15. What are analgesics? K
16. Name the drug that could be used in the prevention of heart attack. U
17. What types of analgesics are mainly used for the relief of pain of terminal cancer? K
18. What are antipyretic drugs? K
19. What are antimicrobials? K
20. To which class of antimicrobials does sulpha drugs belong to? K
21. What are artificial sweetening agents? K
22. Why are artificial sweetening agents preferred over natural sweeteners? U
23. Chemically what are 'soaps'? K
24. What is saponification? K
25. Sodium salts of alkylbenzenesulphonates are classified as anionic detergents. Give
reason. U
26. After saponification, the sodium salt of fatty acid (soap) in colloidal form is
precipitated by adding _____. U
75
Two mark questions
1. Name any two criteria by which the drugs are classified. K
2. What are the two major functions by which an enzyme catalyses a reaction. K
3. What are antagonists and what are agonists? K
4. Where are receptors found? What is their role in the body? K
5. What are antihistamines? Give an example. K
6. Low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are
needed to control depression? Give one example. K
7. Name two classes of analgesics. K
8. Following drugs are analgesics. One of them is different from the others. Identify it
and give reason: Morphine, heroin, aspirin, codeine K
9. What are antibiotics? Give an example. U
10. Name any two classes of antimicrobial drugs. K
11. What are bactericidal antibiotics? Give an example K
12. What are bacteriostatic antibiotics? Give one example. K
13. What are broad spectrum antibiotics? Give Example K
14. What are narrow spectrum antibiotics? Give example. K
15. Name a disease that can be cured by giving chloramphenicol antibiotic. Why it is
given orally? U
16. What are antiseptics? Give an example. K
17. What is the composition of dettol? K
18. What is tincture iodine? What is its therapeutic use? K
19. What are antifertility drugs? Give an example. K
20. What are disinfectants? Give an example. K
21. Name two gases (inorganic) which in very low concentrations act as disinfectants. K
22. Chemicals are added to food. Mention any two advantages. K
23. Name any two antioxidants which are used in wine and beer K
24. What are food preservatives? How do they help in the perseveration of food? K
25. What is the role of aspartame as food additive? Why is its use limited to cold food K
and drinks?
26. Write an equation for saponification of (C17H32COO)3 C3H5 by sodium hydroxide. K
Name the byproduct. U
27. Detergents are preferred over soap. Give reasons K
28. Explain the cleansing action of soap? K
76
29. What is meant by the term non ionic detergent and where are they used? U
30. Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of synthetic detergents.
31. Distinguish between anionic and cationic detergents by giving one example for U
each.
32. Which is a better synthetic detergent? One with branched chains or one without U
branched chains. Give reason for the choice made.
1. a) What are receptors?
b) What are these known as:
i) drugs that bind to receptor site and inhibit its function
ii) drugs that act like natural messengers and hence activate the receptors? K
2. Classify these as: i) tranquilisers ii) anti-allergic iii) antacid
a) seldane b) ranitidine c) barbituates K
3. What is the role of these as food additives:
i) sodium benzoate ii) BHA iii) sucralose? A
4. Give reasons:
i) Bithional is added to soap
ii) Metal hydroxides are better than sodium bicarbonate, ranitidine is better than
metal hydroxides to treat acidity. U
5. Name the therapeutic action of the following drugs on human body:
i) Luminal ii) Streptomycin iii) Morphine K
77
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QUESTION BANK
II PU MATHEMATICS
DEPARTMENT OF PRE UNIVERSITY

EDUCATION
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2
Question Bank: Department of Pre University Education
CONTENTS
Chapter Topic Page
CHAPTER -1 RELATION AND FUNCTION 4
CHAPTER -2 INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTION 13
CHAPTER-3 MATRICES 19
CHAPTER-4 DETERMINANTS 28
CHAPTER-5 CONTINUITY 33
DIFFERENTIABILITY 37
CHAPTER-6 APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES
DERIVATIVE AS A RATE CHANGE 45
TANGENT AND NORMAL 46
INCREASING AND DECREASING FUNCTIONS 51
MAXIMA AND MINIMA 54
APPROXIMATION 59
CHAPTER-7 INTEGRALS 61
CHAPTER-8 APPLICATION OF INTEGRALS 84
CHAPTER-9 DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 87
CHAPTER-10 VECTORS 97
CHAPTER-11 THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY 102
CHAPTER-12 LINEAR PROGRAMMING 107
CHAPTER-13 PROBABILITY 111
3
CHAPTER -01
RELATIONS AND FUNCTIONS
One Mark questions.
1. Define a reflexive relation [K]
2. Define a symmetric relation . [K]
3. Define a transitive relation [K]
4. Define an equivalence relation [K]
5. A relation R on A = {1, 2, 3} defined by R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (3, 3)} is not symmetric why ? [U]
6. Give an example of a relation which is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive. [U]
7. Give an example of a relation which is transitive but neither reflexive and nor symmetric. [U]
8. Give an example of a relation which is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive. [U]
9. Give an example of a relation which is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive . [U]
10. Define a one-one function. [K]
11. Define an onto function [K]
12. Define a bijective function. [K]
13. Prove that f : R  R defined by f(x) = x2 is many-one. [U]
14. Prove that f : Z  Z defined by f(x) =1+ x2 is not one one. [U]
15. Let A = {1, 2, 3} B = {4, 5, 6, 7} and f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} be a function from A to B. Show that f
is one-one. [U]
16. Write the number of all one – one functions from the set A = {a, b, c} to itself. [U]
17. If A contains 3 elements and B contains 2 elements, then find the number of one-one functions
from A to B. [U]
4
18. Define a binary operation. [K]
19. Find the number of binary operations on the set {a,b}. [K]
20. On N, show that subtraction is not a binary operation. [U]
21. On Z (The set of positive integers) define * by a *b  a  b .Determine whether * is

a binary operation or not.
[U]
22. On Z , define * by a *b  ab , (where Z+ = The set of positive integers), Determine
whether * is a binary operation or not.

[U]
23. On Z , define * by a *b  ab2 ,(where Z+ = The set of positive integers) Determine

[U]
24. On Z , define * by a *b  a b ,where Z+ is the set of non negative integers, Determine
whether * is a binary operation or not. [U]
25. On Z , define * by a *b  a  b , (where Z+ = The set of positive integers)Determine
26. On Z , define * by a *b  a , (where Z+ = The set of positive integers),Determine whether

* is a binary operation or not. [U]
27. Let * be a binary operation on N given by a * b = H.C.F. write the value of 22 * 4. [U]
28. Is * defined on the set A={1, 2, 3, 4, 5} by a * b = L C M of a and b, a binary operation ? Justify
your answer. [U]
29. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and * is a binary operation on A defined by a * b = H C F of a and b
Is * commutative? [U]
30. Let * be a b.o on N given by a * b = L.C.M.of a and b. find 5*7 [K]
31. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and * is a binary operation on A defined by a * b = H C F of a and b.
Compute (2 * 3) . [U]
32. Let * be a b.o on N given by a * b = L.C.M.of a and b. find 20*16. [U]
33. On Z , define * by a *b  a  b where Z+ is the set of non negative integers, determine
34. On Z , define * by a *b  a b where Z+ is the set of non negative integers, determine

[U]
5
35. On Z (the set of nonnegative int egers) define * by a *b  a  b a, b  Z
Is * is a binary operation on Z+ . [U]
36. On Z (the set of nonnegative integers) define * by a *b  a  b a, b  Z .
Is * a binary operation on Z+ . [U]

37. Show that ‘0’ is the identity for addition in R. [K]
38. Show that 1 is the identity for multiplication in R. [K]
39. Show that there is no identity element for subtraction (division) in R. [U]
40. On Q * is defined as , a * b = a – b .Find the identity if it exists. [U]
41. On Q * is defined as a * b = a + ab. Find the identity if it exists. [U]
ab
42. On Q * is defined as a * b   a, b  Q, find identity. [K]
4
43. On Q * is defined as a *b  a  b  a, b  N, find identity if it exists. [U]
44. On N, a * b = L.C.M of a and b. Find the identity of * in N. [K]

45. Show that –a is the inverse of a under addition in R. [K]
1
46. Show that is the inverse of a  a  0  under multiplication in R. [K]
a
47. Given a non-empty set X, consider the binary operation *: P  X   P  X   P  X  given by
A*B  A  B  A, B  P  X , where P(X) is the power set of X. Show that X is the

identity element.
[U]
48. Given a non-empty set X, let *: P  X   P  X   P  X  defined by
A  B   A  B   B  A 
Show that the empty set  is the identity and all the elements of P(X). [U]
6
Two Mark Questions.
1. Define a reflexive relation and give an example of it. [K]

2. Define a symmetric relation and give an example of it. [K]
3. Define a transitive relation and give an example of it. [K]
4. Define an equivalence relation and give an example of it. [K]
5. If f : R  R is defined by f(x) = 3x – 2. Show that f is one-one. [A]
If f : N  N given by f  x   x check whether f is one-one and onto. Justify your

2
6.
answer.[U]
If f : Z  Z given by f  x   x check whether f is one-one and onto. Justify your answer. [U]
2
7.
If f : R  R given by f  x   x
2
8. check whether f is one-one and onto. Justify
your answer. [U]
If f : N  N given by f  x   x check whether f is one-one and onto. Justify your answer.

3
9.
[U]
10. If f : Z  Z given by f  x   x 3 check whether f is one-one and onto. Justify your answer.
[U]
11. Show that the function f : N  N , given by f(x) = 2x is one-one but not onto. [U]
12. Show that the function given by f(1) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = x – 1, for every x > 2, is onto but not
one-one. [U]
13. Prove that the greatest integer function f : R  R given by f(x) = [x] is neither one-one nor
onto [U]
14. Show that the modulus function f : R  R given by f(x) = | x | is neither one-one nor
onto.[U]
x
 ,x0
15. Show that the Signum function f : R  R defined by f  x    x is neither one-
0 , x  0

one nor onto [U]
 n 1
 2 if n is odd
16. Let f : N  N defined by f  n    State whether f is bijective. Justify
 n if n is even
 2
your answer. [U]
7
17. Let A and B are two sets. Show that f : A  B  B  A such that f(a, b) = (b, a) is a bijective
function. [U}
18. If f : R  R is defined by f(x) = 1 + x2, then show that f is neither 1-1 nor onto. [U]
19. Prove that f : R  R given by f(x) = x3 is onto. [U]
20. Let f :2, 3, 4, 5  3, 4, 5, 9 and g : 3, 4, 5, 9  7, 11, 15 be functions defined
f(2) = 3, f(3) = 4, f(4) = f(5) = 5 and g(3) = g(4) = 7 and g(5) = g(9) = 11. Find gof. [U]
21. Let f : 1, 3, 4  1, 2, 5 and g :1, 2, 5  1, 3 given by f = {1, 2), (3, 5), (4, 1)} and
g = {(1, 3), (2, 3), (5, 1)} write down gof..[U]

22. If f : A  B and g : B  C are one-one then show that gof : A  C is also one-one.[K]
23. If f : A  B and g : B  C are onto then show that gof : A  C is also onto.[K]
24. State with reason
whether f : 1, 2, 3, 4  10 with f  1, 10  ,  2, 10  ,  3, 10 , (4,10)
has inverse.[K]
25. State with reason whether
g  5, 6, 7, 8  1, 2, 3, 4 with g   5, 4  ,  6, 3 ,  7, 4  , 8, 2  has
inverse.[K]
26. State with reason whether
h : 2, 3, 4, 5  7, 9, 11, 13 with h   2, 7  ,  3, 9  ,  4, 11 ,  5, 13
has inverse.[K]
27. Consider the binary operation V on the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} defined by a v b = min {a, b}. Write
the operation table of the operation V. [K]
28. On Z, defined by a * b = a – b Determine whether * is commutative. [U]
29. On Q, defined by a * b = ab + 1. Determine whether * is commutative [U]
ab
30. On Q , * defined by a * b  Determine whether * is associative. [U]
2
31. On Z+, * defined by a *b  2ab . Determine whether * associative. [U]
a
32. On R – {–1}, * defined by a * b  Determine whether * is commutative [U]
b 1
ab
33. Verify whether the operation * defined on Q by a * b  is associative or not . [U]
2
8
Three Mark Questions.
1) A relation R on the set A = {1, 2, 3......14} is defined as R = {(x, y) : 3x – y =0}. Determine whether
R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive. [U]
2) A relation R in the set N of natural number defined as R = {(x, y) : y = x + 5 and x < 4}. Determine
whether R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive. [U]
3) A relation ‘R’ is defined on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} as R = {(x, y) : y is divisible by x}. Determine
whether R is reflexive, symmetric, transitive.
4) Relation R in the set Z of all integers is defined as R = {(x, y) : x – y is an integer}. Determine
whether R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
5) Determine whether R, in the set A of human beings in a town at a particular time is given by
R = {(x, y) : x and y work at the same place}
6) Show that the relation R in R, the set of reals defined as R = {(a, b) : a < b} is reflexive and
transitive but not symmetric.
7) Show that the relation R on the set of real numbers R isdefined by R = {(a, b) : a < b2} is neither
reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive.
8) Check whether the relation R in R the set of real numbers defined as
R = {(a, b) : a < b3} is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

9) Show the relation R in the set Z of integers give by R = {(a, b) : 2 divides (a – b)} is an equivalence
relation.
10) Show the relation R in the set Z of integers give by R = {(a, b) : (a – b) is divisible by 2} is an
equivalence relation.
11) Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) : |a-b| is even} is an
12) Show that the relation R on the set A of point on cordinate plane given by
R = {(P, Q) distance OP = OQ, where O is origin is an equivalence relation.
13) Show that the relation R on the set A  x  Z : 0  x  12 given by
R = {(a,b) a  b :is a multiple of 4 }is an equivalence relation.
14) Show that the relation R on the set A  x  Z : 0  x  12 given by R = {(a,b) :a=b }is an
15) Show that the relation R on the set A  x  Z : 0  x  12 given by
R = {(a,b) a  b :is a multiple of 4 }is an equivalence relation.
9
16) Let T be the set of triangles with R – a relation in T given by R = {(T1, T2) : T1 is congruent to T2}
Show that R is an equivalence relation.

17) Let L be the set of all lines in a plane and R be the relation in L defined as R = {(L1, L2) : L1 is
perpendicular to L2}. Show that R is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive.
18) Let L be the set of all lines in the XY plane and R is the relation on L by
R = {(l1, l2) : l1 is parallel to l2}. Show that R is an equivalence relation.
Find the set of all lines related to the line y = 2x + 4.
19) Show that the relation R defined in the set A of polygons as

R = {(P1, P2) : P1 and P2 have same number of side } is an equivalence relation.
20) If R1 and R2 are two equivalence relations on a set, is R1  R 2 also an equivalence relation.?
Justify your answer. [A]

21) If R1 and R2 are two equivalence relations on a set, then prove that R1  R 2 is also an
equivalence relation.[A]
22) Find gof and fog if f : R  R and g : R  R are given by f(x) = cos x and g(x) = 3x2.
Show that gof  fog. [U]
23) If f & g are functions from R  R defined by f  x   sin x and g  x   x Show that
2
gof  fog. [U]
24) Find gof and fog, if f  x   x and g  x   5x  2 [U]
25) Find gof and fog, if f  x   8x and g  x   x [U]

3 13
26) If f : R  R defined by f(x) = (3 – x3)1/3 then find fof(x). [U]

27) Consider f : N  N, g : N  N and h : N  R defined as f(x) = 2x, g(y) = 3y + 4,
h(z) = sin z  x, y, z  N. Show that f (g h)  (f g) h [U]

28) Give examples of two functions f and g such that gof is one -one but g is not one-one.[ S]
29) Give examples of two functions f and g such that gof is onto but f is not onto.[S]
10
Five Mark Questions
7  3 3x  4
1) Let A  R    , B  R    define f : A  B by f  x   and
5 5  5x  7
7x  4
g : B  A by g  x   . Show that fog = IB and gof = IA. [U]
5x  3
2) Consider f : R  R given by f(x) = 4x +3.Show that f is invertible.Find the inverse of f. [U]
3) Consider f : R  R given by f(x) = 10x + 7. Show tht f is invertible. Find the inverse of f. [U]
4x  3 2 2
4) If f  x   , x  , show that f o f(x) = x for all x  . What is the inverse of f
6x  4 3 3
[U]
5) Consider f : R    4,   given by f(x) = x2 + 4. Show that f is invertible with the inverse
[U]
f–1 of f given by f 1  y   y  4, where R+ is the set of all non-negative real numbers. [U]
6) Consider f : R +   5,   given f(x) = 9x2 + 6x –5. Show that f is invertible with
 y  6 1 
f 1  y     .
 3
 
[U]
7) Let f : N  R. be a function defined as f(x) = 4x2 + 12x + 15. Show that f : N  S. Where S is
the range of f, is invertible. Find the inverse of f
[U]
8)  
Let Y  n 2 : n  N  N. Consider f : N  Y as f(n) = n2. Show that f is invertible.
Find the inverse of f.

[U]
Show that f :  1, 1  R, given by f  x  

x
9) is one-one.
x2
Find the inverse of the function f :  1, 1  Range of f.
[U]
11
 4 4x
10) Let f : R     R be a function defined by define f  x   . Find the inverse of
 3 3x  4
 4
the function f : R     Range of f.
 3
[U]
12
CHAPTER -02
INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS
One Mark Questions
1. Write the domain of f(x) = sin–1x [K]
2. Write the domain of f (x)  cos 1 x [K]
3. Write the range of y  cos1 x [k]
4. Write the domain of f(x) = sec-1x [K]
5. Write the principal value of branch of f(x) = sin–1x [K]
6. Write the domain of f (x)  tan 1 x [K]
7. Write the set of all principal values of cosec–1x. [K]
8. If x = sin–1y, then find set values of y . [K]
  
9. Write a range of f (x)  sin 1 x other than   ,  . [U]
 2 2
10. Write a range of f (x)  cos 1 x other than 0,  . [U]
 3
11. Find sin 1    [K]
 2 

12. If y = . /, then find value of y . [K]

√
13. Find the principal value sin

1
 1 .[K]
  1  
14. Find sin   sin 1   [U]
2  2 
  3 
15. Find sin   sin 1     [U]
 2  
 3 
1 
16. Find sin  sin 1  1  [U]
2 
17. Find the principal value of tan 1  3   [K]
 1
18. Find the principal value of cos 1    [K]
 2
13
19. Find the principal value of cosec1  2   [K]
 1 
20. Find the principal value of tan 1    [K]
 3
Find the principal value of cos  1

1
21. [K]
22. Find the principal value of sec1 (2) [K]
 2x 
23. Write the set of value of x for which 2 tan 1 x  tan 1  holds. [K]
1  x 
2
1 1 1  x 2 
24. Write the set of value of x for which 2 tan x  cos  2
holds [K]
 1  x 
25. 
Find the value of cos sec1 x  cosec1x  x  1 [U]
26. 
Find the value of sin tan 1 a  cot 1 a  [U]
27. Find ( ) ,| | . [U]
Two Mark Questions

1. Prove that cos  x     cos x ,
1 1
x   1, 1 [U]
2. Prove that sin  x    sin x where

1 1
x   1, 1 [U]
3. Prove that tan  x    tan x , x  R [U]

1 1
4. Prove that cosec  x   cosec x , x  1 [U]

1 1
5. Prove that sec  x     sec x ,

1 1
x 1 [U]
6. Prove that cot  x     cot x , x  R

1 1
U]
 1  1  1 
7. Find the value of tan 1 1  cos 1    sin   [U]
 2   2 
1 1
8. Find the value of cos 1  2sin 1   [K]
2 2
9. Find the values of tan 1 3  sec1  2  [K]
10. Find the value of tan 1 3  cot 1  3   [K]
  1 
11. Find the value of sin   sin 1     [U]
3  2 
14
  3 
12. Find the value of sin   sin1     [U]
 2  
 2 
  3 
13. Find the value of sin   sin1    [U]
 2  
 2 
14. Evaluate sin 1 sin 1100  [K]
 2 
15. Evaluate sin 1 sin  [K]
 3
 
16. Evaluate cos 1 cos 13  [K]

6 
 7 
17. Evaluate tan 1  tan  [K]
 6 
1
18. Prove that sin 1 x  cosec1 [U]
x
1
19. Prove that cos 1 x  sec1 [U]
x
1
20. Prove that tan 1 x  cot 1 [U]
x

21. Prove that sin 1 x  cos 1 x  ,  1  x  1 [U]
2

22. Prove that cosec1x  sec1 x  , x  1 [U]
2

23. Prove that tan 1 x  cot 1 x  ,    x   [U]
2
 3 
24. Evaluate sin 1 sin  [U]
 5
 
25. Evaluate cos 1 sin  [U]
9  
 1 
26. If sin  sin 1  cos 1 x   1, then find x. [U]
 5 
1  1 
27. Express tan   , x  1, in the simplest form. [U]
 x 2
 1 
1
 
x
28. Express tan   , x  a in simplest form. [U]
 a x 
2 2
15
29. Prove that √ , -. [U]
1  3a 2 x  x 3  a a
30. Express tan  2 
, a  0, x in simplest form [U]
 a  3ax 
3
3 3
 1  cos x 
31. Write tan 1   , 0<x   in simplest form [U]
 1  cos x
 
 1  cos x 
32. Write tan 1   x  2n in simplest form [U]

 1  cos x 
  1
33. Express cot 1   , x>1 in the simplest form [U]
 x 1 
2
1  3cos x  4 sin x  3
34. Simplify tan   , if tan x  1. [U]
 4cos x  3sin x  4
 a cos x  bsin x  -1 a
35. Prove that tan 1    tan  x [U]
 b cos x  a sin x  b
 2x 
36. Prove that 2 tan 1 x  sin 1
 2 
, x  1 [U]
 1 x 
1 x2
37. Prove that 2 tan 1 x  cos 1 , x  0 [U]
1 x2
2x
38. Prove that 2 tan 1 x  tan 1  1  x  1 [U]
1 x2
39. Prove that  

sin 1 2x 1  x 2  2sin 1 x,
1
2
x
1
2
[U]
40. Prove that  

sin 1 2x 1  x 2  2cos 1 x,
1
2
 x  1 [U]
 1 1 

41. Prove that 3sin 1 x  sin 1 3x  4x 3 , x    ,
 2 2 
[U]
1 

42. Prove that 3cos 1 x  cos 1 4x 3  3x , x   , 1 [U]
2
  

43. Prove that sin tan 1 x   x
, x  1 [U]
1 x2
9 9 1 1 9 1 2 2
44. Prove that  sin  sin [U]
8 4 3 4 3
1 3
45. Prove that 2 tan 1    tan 1 [U]
3 4
16
3 24
46. Prove that 2sin 1  tan 1 . [U]
5 7
1 2 3
47. Prove that tan 1  tan 1  tan 1 [U]
2 11 4
2 7 1
48. Prove that tan 1  tan 1  tan 1 [U]
11 24 2
1  a cos x  b sin x  a
49. Simplify tan   , if tan x  1. [U]
 b cos x  a sin x  b
Three Mark Questions

 xy 
1. Prove that tan -1x  tan 1 y  tan 1   , xy  1 [U]
 1  xy 
 xy 
2. Prove that tan 1 x  tan 1 y  tan 1   , xy  1 [U]
 1  xy 
1 1 31
3. Prove that 2 tan 1  tan 1  tan 1 [U]
2 7 17
1 1 1 1 
4. Prove that tan 1  tan 1  tan 1  tan 1  [U]
5 7 3 8 4
x 1  x  y  
5. Prove that tan 1    tan   [U]
y xy 4
1  cos x  sin x 
6. Write tan   , 0  x   in simplest form [U]
 cos x  sin x 
 1 x  1 x   1 1
7. Prove that tan 1  1
   cos x,  x  1 [U]
 1 x  1 x  4 2 2
 1  sin x  1  sin x  x  
8. Prove that cot 1    , x   0  [U]
 1  sin x  1  sin x  4
  2
1  cos x   3
9. Express tan  ,   x  in the simplest form [U]
 1  sin x  2 2
8 3 77
10. Prove that sin 1  sin 1  tan 1 [U]
17 5 36
3 8 84
11. Prove that sin 1  sin 1  cos 1 [U]
5 17 85
63 5 3
12. Prove that tan 1  sin 1  cos 1 [U]
16 13 5
17
4 12 33
13. Prove that cos 1  cos 1  cos 1 [U]
5 13 65
12 3 56
14. Prove that cos 1  sin 1  sin 1 : [U]
13 5 65
12 4 63
15. Prove that sin 1  cos 1  tan 1  [U]
13 5 16
1  3x  x 
3
1 1 2x 1
16. Prove that tan x  tan  tan  2 
x  [U]
1 x 2
 1  3x  3
1 2 4 
17. Prove that tan 1  tan 1  tan 1   = [U]
2 11 3 2

18. Solve for x tan 1 2x  tan 1 3x  : [U]
4
 x 1  1  x  1  
19. Solve for x : tan 1    tan    [U]
 x2  x2 4
20. Solve : 2 tan  cos x   tan  2 cosec x  [U]
1 1
 1 x  1
21. Solve : tan 1  1
  tan x  x>0  [U]
 1  x  2

22. Solve : sin 1 1  x   2sin 1 x  [U]
2
18
CHAPTER -03
MATRICES
One mark questions:
1. Define a scalar matrix. (K)
2. Define an Identity matrix. (K)
3. Define a diagonal matrix. (K)
2 5 19  7
 5 
4. In the matrix A   35  2 12  , write: (i) the order of the matrix
 2 
 3 1  5 17 
(ii) The number of elements (iii) Write the elements a13, a21, a33, a24, a23 . (U)
5. If a matrix has 24 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? What, if it has 13
elements? (U)
6. If a matrix has 18 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? What, if it has 5
elements? (U)
7. Find the number of all possible matrices of order 3 ×3 with each entry 0 or 1 ? (U)
8. If a matrix has 8 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? (U)
9. Construct a 2 × 2 matrix, A = [aij], whose elements are given by; (A)
(i  j ) 2 i (i  2 j ) 2
(i) aij  (ii) aij  (iii) aij 
2 j 2
1
10. Construct a 3 × 3 matrix whose elements are given by aij  |i 3j | (A)
2
11. Construct a 3 × 4 matrix, whose elements are given by: (A)
1
(i) aij  | 3 j  j | (ii) aij = 2i –j
2
12. Find the values of x, y and z from the following equations:
 x  y  z  9 
4 3  y z   x  z   5 
(i)    (U) (ii)
    (A)
 x 5  1 5  y  z  7
19
1 3  y 0 5 6
13. Find x and y, if 2    (U)
0 x   1 2 1 8
 2  1 10
14. If x    y      , find the values of x and y. (U)
 3  1  5
3 2   1 0
15. Find X, if Y    and 2 X  Y    (A)
1 4  3 2
16. Find the values of x and y from the following equation
x 5  3  4  7 6 
2   (U)
7 y  3 1 2  15 16
17. Find the value of a, b, c and d from the equation:
 a  b 2a  c    1 5 
2a  b 3c  d    0 13 (A)
   
 1 1 5
 
18. Show that the matrix A  1 2 1 is a symmetric matrix. (U)
 
 5 1 3
 0 1 1

19. Show that the matrix A  1 0 1  is a skew symmetric matrix. (U)

 1 1 0 
 2 4  1 3  2 5
20. Let A =  ,B=  2 5 , C=  3 4 . Find each of the following
 3 2    
(i) A + B (ii) A – B (iii) 3A – C (iv) AB (v) BA (U)
21. Consider the following information regarding the number of men and women workers in
three factories I, II and III
Men Workers Women workers
I 30 25
II 25 31
III 27 26
Represent the above information in the form of a 3 × 2 matrix. What does the entry in
the third row and second column represent? (U)
20
2 5 1
 3 1 1  
22. Given A    and B   1  , find A + B (U)
 2 3 0 2 3
 2 
1 2 3  3  1 3
23. If A =   and B =   , then find 2A – B (U)
2 3 1   1 0 2
6 9  2 6 0
24. Find AB, if A =   and B =   (U)
2 3 7 9 8 
1 0  0 1   0 1 0  1
25. If A =   and B = 1 0 , then prove that i) AB =  1 0 and ii)BA = 1 0  . (U)
0 1      
0  1 3 5
26. Find AB, if A =   and B = 0 0  (U)
0 2   
 cos  sin    sin   cos  

27. Simplify cos     sin   (A)
 sin  cos   cos  sin  
 10  2
28. Find P – 1, if it exists, given P =   (A)
 5 1 
3 3 2  2  1 2
29. Find the transpose of each of the following matrices: A =   and B = 1 2 4  .
4 2 0  
(U)
3 3 2  2  1 2
30. If A =   and B =   , verify that (A)
4 2 0 1 2 4 
(i)  A   A (ii)  A  B   A  B
31. Compute the following (A)
 a b  a b  a 2  b 2 b 2  c 2   2ab 2bc 
(i)    (ii)     
  b a  b a  a  c
2 2
a 2  b 2   2ac  2ab
 1 4  6 12 7 6
    cos 2 x sin 2 x   sin 2 x cos 2 x 
(iii) 8 5 16  8 0 5
    (iv)  2 2 
 2 2 
 sin x cos x  cos x sin x 
 2 8 5   3 2 4
32. Compute the indicated products: (U)
21
1 
 a b  a  b    1  2 1 2 3
(i)    (ii) 2 2 3 4 (iii)   
 
  b 1  b a  3 2 3  2 3 1
2 3 4 1  3 5  2 1 2  3
      1 0 1  3  1 3 
(iv) 3 4 5 0 2 4
   (v) 3 2 
   1 2 1 (vi)    1 0 
4 5 6 3 0 5  1 1     1 0 2  3 1 
 
Three marks questions:

x  y 2  6 2
1. Find the values of x, y and z from the following equations:   . (S)
5  z xy  5 8
x z  1  1  3 5
2. Solve the equation for x, y, z and t, if 2   3   3  (U)
y t  0 2   4 6
x y   x 6  4 x  y
3. Given 3     , find the values of x, y, z and w. (S)
 z w  1 2w  z  w 3 
4. Find the values of a, b, c and d from the following equation
2a  b a  2b   4  3
5c  d 4c  3d   11 24  (A)
   
 x  3 z  4 2 y  7  0 6 3 y  2

5. If  6 a  1
 
0    6  3 2c  2  (S)

b  3  21 0  2b  4  21 0 
Find the values of a, b, c, x, y and z.
6. Using elementary transformations, find the inverse of each of the matrices (A)
1  1 2 1 1 3   2 3 2 1 
(i)   (ii)   iii.   iv.   v.  
2 3  1 1 2 7  5 7  7 4 
2 5 3 1 4 5 3 10 2  6
vi.   vii.   viii.   ix.   xi.  
1 3 5 2  3 4 2 7  1  2 
 6  3  2  3 2 1 
xii.   xiii.   xiv.  
 2 1   1 2   4 2
22
1 2 
7. By using elementary operations, find the inverse of the matrix A =   (U)
2 1
7 0  3 0
8. Find X and Y, if X + Y =   and X – Y = 0 3 (U)
 2 5  
 2 3  2  2
9. Find X and Y, if 2X + 3Y =   and 3X + 2Y =  1 5  (U)
 4 0  
8 0   2  2
 
10. If A = 4  2 and B =
4 2  , then find the matrix X, such that 2A + 3X = 5B. (A)
  
3 6   5 1 
5 2  3 6 
11. Find X and Y, if X + Y =   and X – Y = 0 1 (U)
0 9   
2 5 2 3 
3 1 1
3 5 5
1 2 4 1 2 4
12. If A =   and B =   , then compute 3A – 5B (A)
3 3 3 5 5 5
7 2
2 7 6 2
 3 3   5 5 5 
cos x  sin x 0
 
13. If F(x) = sin x cos x 0 , show that F  x   F  y   F  x  y  (A)
 
 0 0 1
 cos  sin  
14. If (i) A =  , then verify that A A = I (A)
 sin  cos  
 sin  cos  
(ii) If A =  , then verify that A A = I
 cos  sin  
5  1 2 1 2 1 5  1
15. Show that      (U)
6 7  3 4 3 4 6 7 
1 2 3  1 1 0  1 1 0 1 2 3
   
16. Show that 0 1 0 0  1 1  0  1 1 0 1 0
  (A)
     
1 1 0  2 3 4  2 3 4 1 1 0
23
  1 2 3  4 1  5
 
17. If A = 5 7 9 and B =
 1 2 0  , then verify that
   
 2 1 1  1 3 1 
(i) (A + B) = A + B (ii) (A – B) = A - B (U)
 3 4
   1 2 1
18. If A =  1 2 and B =  , then verify that (U)
 
 1 2 3
 0 1 
(i) (A + B) = A + B (ii) (A – B) = A – B
  2 3  1 0
19. If A =   and B =  1 2 , then find (A + 2B) (U)
 1 2  
2 3
 1  2 3 4 5 then find AB, BA. Show that AB  BA.
20. If A =   and B = (U)
 
 4 2 5
2 1
21. In a legislative assembly election, a political group hired a public relations firm to promote
its candidate in three ways: telephone, house calls, and letters. The cost per contact (in paise) is
given in matrix A as
Cost per contact
 40  Telephone
 
A = 100 Hou sec all
 
 50  Letter
The number of contacts of each type made in two cities X and Y is given by
Telephone Hous sec all Letter
1000 500 5000   X

B=  . Find the total amount
3000 1000 10000  Y
spent by the group in the two cities X and Y. (A)
22. A trust fund has RS. 30,000 that must be invested in two different types of bonds. The first
bond pays5 % interest per year, and the second bond pays 7 % interest per year. Using matrix
multiplication, determine how to divide Rs. 30,000 among the two types of bonds. If the trust
fund must obtain an annual total interest of :
(a) Rs. 1800 (b) Rs. 2000 (A)
24
23. A book shop of a particular school has 10 dozen chemistry books, 8 dozen physics books, 10
dozen economics books. Their selling prices are Rs. 80, Rs. 60 and Rs. 40 each respectively. Find
the total amount the bookshop will receive from selling all the books using matrix algebra. (A)
24. If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then show that AB is symmetric if and
only if A and B commute, that is AB = BA. (K)
 3  2 1 0
25. If A =   and I =   , find k so that A = kA – 2I
2 (A)
 4  2 0 1 
1 5
26. For the matrix A =   , verify that (U)
 6 7 
(i) (A + A ) is a symmetric matrix (ii) (A - A ) is a skew symmetric matrix
 0 a b
1 1 
27. Find ( A  A' ) and ( A  A' ) , when A =  a 0 c
 (U)
2 2  
  b  c 0
28. Express the following matrices as the sum of a symmetric and skew symmetric matrix: (U)
 6 2 2 
3 5   
(i)   (ii)  2 3  1
 
1 1  2  1 3 
 2  2  4

29. Express the matrix B =  1 3 4  as the sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric

 1  2  3
matrix. (U)
30. If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then show that AB is symmetric
(K)
if and only if AB = BA.
31. If A and B are invertible matrices of the same order, then prove that  AB   B 1 A1
1
(K)
32. Prove that for any square matrix A with real number entries, A  A is a symmetric matrix
and A  A is a skew symmetric matrix. (K)
33. Prove that any square matrix can be expressed as the sum of symmetric and skew
symmetric matrix.
(K)
34. Prove inverse of a square matrix, if it exist, is unique. (K)
25
Five marks questions:
 2 
 
1. If A  4 , B  1 3 6 , verify that  AB   B A . (U)
 
 5 
1 2  3  3  1 2  4 1 2

4. If A = 5 0 2  , B = 4 2 5 and C = 0 3 2 (U)
    
1  1 1  2 0 3 1  2 3
Then compute (A + B) and (B – C).Also, verify that A + (B – C) = (A + B) – C
1 1  1  1 3
 1 2 3  4
5. If A = 2 0
 3  , B =  0 2 and C =
  2 0  2 1  , find A(BC), (AB)C and show
3  1 2   1 4  
that (AB)C = A(BC). (U)
2 0 1

6. Find A – 5 A  6I , if A  2 1 3
2  (U)
 
1 1 0 
 0 6 7 0 1 1  2
     
7. If A  6 0 8 , B  1 0 2 , C  2
     
 7 8 0  1 2 0   3 
Calculate AC, BC and (A + B) C. Also, verify that (A + B)C = AC + BC. (U)
1 1 1 
 
8.If A  1 2 3 , verify that A3  6 A2  5 A  11 I  O ,
 
 2 1 3 
where O is zero matrix of order 3 x 3. (A)
 1 2 3
 
9. If A = A  3 2 1 , then show that A3 – 23 A – 40I  O . (A)
 
 4 2 1
1 0 2
 
10. If A  0 2 1 , prove that A3 – 6 A2  7 A  2I  0 . (A)
 
 2 0 3 
26
 2 1 5 2  2 5
11. Let A = A    ,B    ,C    . Find a matrix D such that CD – AB  O (U)
3 4  7 4   3 8
 
 0  tan 
12. If A  
2 and is the identity matrix of order 2, show that
 I
 tan  0 
 2 
cos   sin  
I  A   I – A  . (S)
 sin  cos  
****************************************
27
CHAPTER -4
DETERMINANTS
One marks questions;
1. If 0 1, find| |.
2. Find the values of for which | | | |.
3. If 0 1, Find | |.
4. If is a square matrix with | | . Find the value of | |.
5. If 0 1, find| |.
6. If is a square matrix of order 3 and | | . Find the value of | |.
7. If is a square matrix and | | , then find the value of | |.
8. If is a invertible matrix of order 2, then find | |.
9. If is a square matrix of order 3 and | | , then find| |.
10. Find if | | | |.
11. If 0 1, find .
12. Without expansion find the value of | |.
13. Evaluate | |.
( )
14. Without expanding, prove that | ( )| . ( 2 Marks Question)
( )
15. Evaluate | |.
16. If | | | |, find .
17. If is a square matrix of order , find the value of | |.
18. If | | | |, find the values of .
19. Evaluate | |.
20. If [ ], then find | |.
21. Examine the consistency of the system of linear equations and .

22. If 0 1, then show that | | | |.
23. Evaluate | |.
28
24. If [ ], find | |.
25. Evaluate | |.
Two marks questions;

1. Find the equation of the line joining the points ( ) and ( ) using determinants.
2. Find the equation of the line joining the points ( ) and ( ) using determinants.
3. If each element of a row is expressed as the sum of two elements then verify for a third order
determinant that the determinant can be expressed as sum of two determinants.
4. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are ( ) ( )and ( ) using determinants.
5. Prove that the value of the determinant remains unaltered if its rows and columns are
interchanged by considering a third order determinant.
6. Without expansion, prove that | | .
7. If the area of the triangle with vertices ( )( ) and ( ) is 4 square units. Find the value
of using determinants.
8. Examine the consistency of the system of equations and .
9. Without expansion find the value of | |.
10. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are ( )( )and ( ) using determinants.
11. Find , if the area of the triangle is 3 square units and whose vertices are ( )( ) and ( )
using determinants.
12. If 0 1, show that and hence find . ( 4 Marks Question)
13. Prove that | | | | , where is the matrix of order .
14. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are ( ) ( ) and ( ) using determinants.
15. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are ( ) ( ) and (10,8) using determinants.
16. Without expansion, prove that | | .
17. If in a determinant, any two rows or columns are interchanged, then prove that the sign of the
determinant changes.
18. Prove that | | ( )( ) . ( 4 Marks Question)
19. If each element of a row or a column of a determinant is multiplied by a constant , then prove
that the whole determinant is multiplied by the same constant .
20. Solve the system of linear equations using matrix method:
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv) .
21. Prove that | | ( ). ( 4 Marks Question)
29
Four marks questions;
1. Prove that | | .
2. Prove that | | ( ) .
3. Prove that | | ( )( )( )( ).
4. Prove that | | ( ) .
5. Prove that | | ( )( )( )( ).
6. Prove that | | ( ) .
7. Show that | | ( )( )( )( ).
8. Prove that | | ( )| |.
9. Prove that | | .
10. Prove that | | .
11. Prove that | | | |.
12. Prove that | | | |.
13. If are all different from zero and | | , then show that .
14. If | | and are all different from zero
Then prove that ∑. / .
15. Show that | | . /.
16. Prove that | | ( )( )( ).
30
17. Prove that | | ( )( ) .
–
19. Prove that | | ( )( )( )( ).
20. Prove that | | ( )( ).
22. Prove that | | ( ) .
23. Prove that | | ( )( )( ).
24. Prove that the determinant | | is independent of .
25. Evaluate | |.
( )
26. Prove that | ( )| .
( )
28. Solve the equation | | .
Five marks questions;

1. Solve the system of equations and by matrix
method.
2. Solve the system of equations and 4 by
matrix method.
3. If [ ], find . Using , solve the system of equations
and .
4. The cost of 4 kg onion, 3 kg wheat and 2 kg rice is Rs 60. The cost of 2 kg onion, 4 kg wheat and 6
kg rice is Rs 90. The cost of 6 kg onion, 2 kg wheat and 3 kg rice is Rs 70. Find the cost of each
item per kg by matrix method.
31
5. The sum of three numbers is 6. If we multiply the third number by 3 and add the second number
to it we get 11. By adding the first and third numbers, we get double the second number.
Represent it algebraically and find the numbers using matrix method.
6. Solve the equations and by matrix method.
7. Solve the equations 2  3  10  4, 4  6  5  1 and by matrix
x y z x y z
method.
1 1 2   2 0 1 
8. Use the product
0 2 3  9 2 3 to solve the system of equations
  
3 2 4   6 1 2 
, .
9. Solve the system of equations and by
matrix method.
10. Solve the system of equations and by matrix
method.
11. Solve the system of equations and by
matrix method.
32
CHAPTER-5
CONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY
CONTINUITY
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. Check the continuity of the function f given by f ( x)  2 x  3 at x  1 . (U)
2. Examine whether the function f given by f ( x)  x 2 is continuous at x  0 . (U)
3. Discuss the continuity of the function f given by f ( x)  x at x  0 . (U)
 x3  3, for x  0
4. Show that the function f given by f ( x)   is not continuous at x  0
1, for x  0
.(U)
5. Check the points where the constant function f ( x)  k is continuous. (U)
6. Prove that the identity function on real numbers given by f ( x)  x is continuous at every
real number. (U)
7. Is the function defined by f ( x)  x , a continuous function? (U)
8. Discuss the continuity of the function f given by f ( x)  x3  x 2  1 . (U)
1
9. Discuss the continuity of the function f defined by f ( x)  , x  0 . (U)
x
10. Show that every polynomial function is continuous. (U)
11. Show that every rational function is continuous. (U)
12. Prove that the function f ( x)  5x  3 is, continuous at x  0 .(U)
13. Prove that the function f ( x)  5x  3 is, continuous at x  3 .(U)
14. Prove that the function f ( x)  5x  3 is, continuous at x  5 .(U)
15. Examine the continuity of the function f ( x)  2 x 2  1 at x  3 .(U)
16. Examine the following functions for continuity: (Each question of 2 Marks)
a) f  x  x  5 b) f  x   x  5
x 2  25 1
c) f  x   , x  5 d) f  x   , x  5 . (U)
x5 x 5
17. Prove that the function f ( x)  x n is continuous at x  n , where n is a positive
integer. (U)
18. Discuss the continuity of the following functions: (Each question is of 2 Marks)
a) f ( x)  sin x  cos x b) f ( x)  sin x  cos x c) f ( x)  sin x  cos x . (U)
19. Discuss the continuity of the cosine, cosecant, secant and cotangent functions. (U)
33
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
 x  2, if x  1
1. Discuss the continuity of the function f defined by f ( x)   . (U)
 x  2, if x  1
 x  2, if x  1

2. Find all the points of discontinuity of the function f defined by f ( x)   0, if x  1 . (U)
 x  2, if x  1

 x  2, if x  0
3. Discuss the continuity of the function f defined by f ( x)   . (U)
  x  2, if x  0
 x, if x0
4. Discuss the continuity of the function f defined by f ( x)   2 .(U)
 x , if x0
5. Discuss the continuity of the sine function. (U)
6. Prove that the function defined by f ( x)  tan x is a continuous function. (U)
7. Show that the function defined by f ( x)  sin( x 2 ) is a continuous function. (U)
 x, if x  1
8. Is the function f defined by f  x    continuous at x  0 ? At x  1 ? At x  2 ?
5, if x  0
(U)
FOUR MARK QUESTIONS

1. Find all points of discontinuity of the greatest integer function defined by f ( x)  [ x] ,
where [ x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. (U)
2. Show that the function f defined by f ( x)  1  x  x , where x is any real number, is a
continuous function. (U)
2 x  3, if x  2
3. Find all points of discontinuity of f , where f is defined by: f  x    .
2 x  3, if x  2
(U)
 x  3, if x  3

4. Find all points of discontinuity of f ,where f is defined by: f  x   2 x, if  3  x  3
6 x  2, if x  3

.(U)
 x  1, if x  1
5. Find all points of discontinuity of f , where f is defined by: f  x    2 .
 x  1, if x  1
(U)
x
 , if x  0
6. Find all points of discontinuity of f ,where f is defined by: f  x    x . (U)
1, if x  0

34
x
 , if x  0
7. Find all points of discontinuity of f , where f is defined by: f  x    x . (U)
0, if x  0

 x3  3, if x  2
8. Find all points of discontinuity of f , where f is defined by: f  x    2 .
 x  1, if x  2
(U)
 x10  1, if x  1
9. Find all points of discontinuity of f , where f is defined by: f ( x)   2 .
 x , if x  1
(U)
 x  5, if x  1
10. Is the function defined by f  x    a continuous function? (U)
 x  5, if x  1
11. Discuss the continuity of the function f , where f is defined by:
3, if 0  x  1

f  x   4, if 1  x  3 . (U)
5, if 3  x  10

 2 x, if x  0

f  x   0, if 0  x  1 . (U)
 4 x, if x  1

2, if x  1

f  x    2 x, if  1  x  1 . (U)
2, if x  1

14. Find the relationship between ‘ a ’ and ‘ b ’ so that the function ‘ f ’ defined by
ax  1, if x  3
f ( x)   is continuous at x  3. (U)
bx  3, if x  3
  x 2  2 x  , if x  0

15. For what value of  is the function defined by f  x    is

 4 x  1, if x  0
continuous at x  0? What about continuity at x  1? (U)
16. Show that the function defined by g  x   x   x  is discontinuous at all integral points.
Here  x  denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x . (U)
17. Is the function defined by f  x   x 2  sin x  5 continuous at x   ? (U)
 sin x
 , if x  0
18. Find all the points of discontinuity of f , where f  x    x . (U)

 x  1, if x  0
35
 2 1
 x sin , if x  0
19. Determine if f defined by f  x    x is continuous function? (U)

0, if x  0
sin x  cos x, if x  0
20. Examine the continuity of f , where f is defined by f  x    .
1, if x  0
(U)
 k cos x 
   2 x , if x  2 
21. Determine the value of k, if f ( x)   is continuous at x  . (U)
 3,  2
if x 
 2
kx 2 , if x  2
22. Find the value of k if   
f x  is continuous at x  2 . (U)
3, if x  2
kx  1, if x  
23. Find the value of k so that the function f  x    , is continuous at
cos x, if x  
x   . (U)
kx  1, if x  5
24. Find the value of k so that the function f  x    , at x  5 is a
3x  5, if x  5
continuous function. (U)
 5, if x  2

25. Find the values of a and b such that f ( x)  ax  b, if 2  x  10 is a continuous
 21, if x  10

functions. (U)
26. Show that the function defined by f  x   cos  x 2  is a continuous function. (U)
27. Show that the function defined by f  x   cos x is a continuous function. (U)
28. Examine that sin x is a continuous function. (U)
29. Find all the points of discontinuity of f defined by f  x   x  x  1 . (U)
@@@@@@@@@@
36
DIFFERENTIABILITY
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Find the derivative of y  tan(2 x  3) . (U)
dy
2. If y  sin( x 2  5) , find .(U)
dx
dy
3. If y  cos  sin x  , find . (U)
dx
dy
4. If y  sin(ax  b) , find . (U)
dx
dy
5. If y  cos( x ) , find . (U)
dx
dy
6. Find , if y  cos 1  x  .(U)
dx
dy
7. If y  log  sin x  , find . (U)
dx
dy
8. Find , if x  y   . (U)
dx
dy
9. Find , if y  e x . (U)
dx
dy
10. Find , if y  sin(log x), x  0 . (U)
dx
11. Find
dy
dx
 
, if y  cos 1 e x .(K)
dy
12. If y  ecos x , find .(U)
dx
dy 1
13. Find , if y  esin x . (A)
dx
dy
, if y  e x .(U)
3
14. Find
dx
dy
15. Find , if y  log(log x), x  0 . (U)
dx
dy
16. Find , if y  x3  tan x. (K)
dx
dy
17. Find , if y  x 2  3x  2 . (K)
dx
dy
18. Find , if y  x 20 . (K)
dx
dy
19. Find , if y  x cos x . (U)
dx
dy
20. Find , if y  log x . (U)
dx
37
dy
21. Find , if y  tan 1 x . (U)
dx
dy
22. Find , if y  sin(log x) . (U)
dx
dy
23. If y  elog x , prove that  1 . (A)
dx
dy
24. Find , if y  5x . (U)
dx
TWO MARK QUESTIONS

dy
1. If y  (2 x  1)3 , find . (K)
dx
2. Find the derivative of the function given by f ( x)  sin( x 2 ) . (U)
dy
3. Find , if y  sin y  cos x . (U)
dx
dy
4. Find , if 2 x  3 y  sin x . (U)
dx
dy
5. Find , if 2 x  3 y  sin y . (U)
dx
dy
6. Find , if ax  by 2  cos y . (U)
dx
dy
7. Find , if x2  xy  y 2  100 . (U)
dx
dy
8. Find , if sin 2 x  cos2 y  1 . (U)
dx
dy y
9. If x  y  10 , show that   0. (U)
dx x
dy  2x 
10. Find , if y  sin 1  2 
. (U)
dx  1 x 
dy  3x  x3  1 1
11. Find , if y  tan 1  2 
, x . (U)
dx  1  3x  3 3
 1  x2  dy
12. If y  cos 1  2 
, 0  x  1 , find . (U)
 1 x  dx
dy  1  x2 
13. Find , if y  sin 1  2 
, 0  x  1 . (U)
dx  1 x 
dy  2x 
14. Find , if y  cos 1  2 
,  1  x  1 . (U)
dx  1 x 
15. Find
dy
dx

, if y  sin 1 2 x 1  x 2 ,
1
2
x
1
2
. (U)
38
dy  1  1
16. Find , if y  sec1  2  , 0  x  . (U)
dx  2x 1  2
dy
17. Find , if y  log a x . (A)
dx
dy ex
18. Find , if y  . (K)
dx sin x
19. Find
dy
dx

, if y  sin tan 1 e x . (A) 
20. Find
dy
dx

, if y  log cos e x . (A) 
dy
, if y  e x  e x  e x .....  e x . (U)
2 3 5
21. Find
dx
dy
22. Find , if y  e x , x  0 . (U)
dx
dy cos x
23. Find , if y  , x  0 . (K)
dx log x
dy
24. Find , if y  cos(log x  e x ), x  0 . (U)
dx
25. Differentiate a x with respect to x, where a is a positive constant. (K)
26. Differentiate xsin x , x  0 with respect to x . (U)
27. Differentiate  log x 
cos x
with respect to x . (U)
dy
28. If y  x x , find . (U)
dx
x
 1
29. Differentiate  x   w. r. to x . (U)
 x
 1
dy  x 
30. Find , if y  x x  . (U)
dx
, if y   log x  OR y  x  . (U)
dy x
31. Find
log x
dx
, if y   sin x  OR y  sin 1 x .(U)
dy x
32. Find
dx
dy
33. Find , if y  xsin x OR y   sin x   .(U)
cos x
dx
dy
34. Find , if y  log7 (log x ) . (A)
dx
, if y  cos  sin x  . (U)
dy 1
35. Find
dx
dy
36. Find , if y  (3x 2  9 x  5)9 . (U)
dx
39
dy
37. Find , if y  sin 3 x  cos6 x . (U)
dx
, if y   5 x 
dy 3cos 2 x
38. Find . (U)
dx
39. Find
dy
dx
 
, if y  sin 1 x x ,0  x  1 .(K)
x
cos 1
dy 2 ,  2  x  2 (K)
40. Find , if y  .
dx 2x  7
, if y   log x  , x  1 . (U)
dy log x
41. Find
dx
dy
42. Find , if y  cos(a cos x  b sin x), for some constant „a‟ and „b‟. (U)
dx
dy
43. Find , if y  x3 log x . (U)
dx
dy
44. Find , if y  e x sin 3x .(U)
dx
dy
45. Find , if y  e6 x cos3x . (U)
dx

1. Differentiate sin(cos( x 2 )) w. respect to x . (U)
 
2. If y  sec tan( x ) , find
dy
dx
.(U)
sin(ax  b) dy
3. If y  , find . (U)
cos(cx  d ) dx
dy
4. If y  cos x3  sin 2 ( x5 ) , find . (U)
dx
5. Prove that the function f given by f  x   x  1 , x  R is not differentiable at
x  1 . (K)
6. Prove that the greatest integer function defined by f  x   [ x], 0  x  3 is
not differentiable x  1 and x  2 . (A)
dy
7. If y  2 cot( x 2 ) , find . (U)
dx
dy
8. Find , if x  sin xy  y  0 . (K)
dx
dy
9. Find , if xy  y 2  tan x  y . (K)
dx
dy
10. Find , if x3  x2 y  xy 2  y 3  81 . (K)
dx
40
dy
11. Find , if sin 2 x  cos xy  k . (K)
dx
12. Find the derivative of f given by f ( x)  sin 1 x assuming it exists. (K)
13. Find the derivative of f given by f ( x)  tan 1 x assuming it exists. (K)
14. Differentiate e x w. r. to x from first principle method. (K)
15. Differentiate log e x w. r. to x from first principle method. (K)
( x  3)( x 2  4)
16. Differentiate with respect to x . (K)
3x 2  4 x  5
dy
17. Find , if y x  x y  x x  ab . (K)
dx
dy
18. Find , if y  cos x  cos 2 x  cos3x . (K)
dx
( x  1)( x  2)
19. Differentiate with respect to x . (K)
( x  3)( x  4)( x  5)
dy
20. Find , if x x  2sin x . (K)
dx
, if y   x  3   x  4    x  5 . (K)
dy 2 3 4
21. Find
dx
dy
22. Find , if x y  y x  1 . (U)
dx
dy
23. Find , if x y  y x . (U)
dx
dy
24. Find , if xy  e x  y . (U)
dx
26. Find the derivative of the function given by f ( x)  (1  x)(1  x2 )(1  x 4 )(1  x8 )
and hence find f (1). (K)
27. Differentiate ( x2  5x  8)( x3  7 x  9) by using product rule. (K)
dy x2  1
28. Find , if y  x x cos x OR y  2 . (U)
dx x 1
dy 1
29. Find , if y   x cos x  OR y   x sin x  x .(U)
x
dx
30. If u, v and w are functions of x, then show that
d d d d
(uvw)  uv w  vw u  wu v
dx dx dx dx
dy
31. Find , if x  a cos , y  a sin  . (U)
dx
dy
32. Find , if x  at 2 , y  2at . (U)
dx
41
, if x  a   sin   , y  a 1  cos   . (U)
dy
33. Find
dx
2 2 2
dy
34. Find , if x 3  y 3  a 3 . (U)
dx
dy y
35. If x  a cos3 and y  a sin3 , prove that   3 . (A)
dx x
dy
36. Find , if x  2at 2 , y  at 4 . (U)
dx
dy
37. Find , if x  a cos , y  b cos  . (U)
dx
dy
38. Find , if x  sint, y  cos 2t .(U)
dx
dy 4
39. Find , if x  4t , y  . (U)
dx t
dy
40. Find , if x  cos  cos 2 , y  sin   sin 2 . (U)
dx
 
41. If x  a   sin   and y  a 1  cos   then prove that
dy
  cot   . (A)
dx 2
dy sin 3 t cos3 t
42. Find , if x  , y . (U)
dx cos 2t cos 2t
dy  t
43. Find , if x  a  cos t  log tan  , y  a sin t . (A)
dx  2
dy
44. Find , if x  a sec , y  btan  .(U)
dx
, if x  a  cos   sin   , y  a  sin    cos  . (U)
dy
45. Find
dx
1 1 dy y
46. If x  asin t
and y  acos t
  . (A)
, then prove that
dx x
 
48. If x  a   sin   and y  a 1  cos   . Prove that
dy
 tan   . (A)
dx 2
49. Verify Rolle‟s Theorem for the function y  x2  2, x [2, 2] . (K) “OR”
Verify Rolle‟s Theorem for the function y  x2  2, a  2 and b  2 . (K)

50. Verify Mean Value Theorem for the function y  x 2 in the interval [2, 4]. (K)
51. Verify Rolle‟s Theorem for the function y  x2  2 x  8, x [4, 2] . (K)
52. Verify Mean Value theorem, if f ( x)  x 2  4 x  3 in the interval [a, b] , where
a  1 and b  4. (K)
53. Verify Mean Value Theorem if f ( x)  x3 – 5x2 – 3x in the interval [1,3] . (K)
42
dy 1
54. Find , if y  3x  2  . (U)
dx 2x  4
2
sec2 x
 3cos1 x . (K)
dy
55. Find , if y  e
dx
 2 x 1
56. Find f ( x) , if f ( x)  sin 1   .(A)
 1 4
x

 sin x 
57. Find f ( x) , if f ( x)  tan 1   .(A)
 1  cos x 
58. Find f ( x) if f ( x)   sin x 
sin x
for all 0  x   . (U)
a
 1
1
dy t
59. For a positive constant „a‟ find , where y  a t and y   t   . (U)
dx  t
60. Differentiate sin 2 x with respect to ecos x . (K)
dy  1  sin x  1  sin x  
61. Find , if y  cot 1   , 0  x  .(A)
dx  1  sin x  1  sin x  2
dy  sin x cos x   3
62. Find , if y   sin x  cos x  , x . (K)
dx 4 4
dy
63. Find , if x x  xa  a x  a a , for some fixed a  0 and x  0 . (K)
dx
dy x2 3 x2
64. Find , if y   x    x  3 , for x  3 . (U)
dx
dy  
65. Find , if y  12(1  cos t ), x  10(t  sin t ),   t  . (U)
dx 2 2
dy
66. Find , if y  sin 1 x  sin 1 1  x2 , 0  x  1. (A)
dx
dy 1
67. If x 1  y  y 1  x  0, for  1  x  1 . Prove that  .(K)
dx (1  x)2
dy cos 2 (a  y )
68. If cos y  x cos(a  y), with cos a  1 prove that  . (K)
dx sin a
69. If f ( x)  x , f ( x) exists for all real x and find it. (U)
3
d n
70. Using mathematical induction prove that x  nx n 1 for all positive
dx
integer n .(U)
71. Using the fact that sin( A  B)  sin A cos B  cos A sin B and the
differentiation, obtain the sum formula for cosines. (U)
72. Does there exists a function which is continuous everywhere but not
differentiable at exactly two points? Justify your answer. (A)
43
f ( x ) g ( x ) h( x ) f ( x) g ( x) h( x)
dy
73. If y  l m n , prove that,  l m n . (S)
dx
a b c a b c
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

d2y
1. If y  A sin x  B cos x , then prove that  y  0. (K)
dx 2
d2y dy
2. If y  3 e  2 e , then prove that
2x 3x
2
 5  6 y  0. (K)
dx dx
d2y dy
3. If y  sin 1 x , then prove that (1  x 2 ) 2
x  0. (U)
dx dx
d2y
4. If y  5cos x  3sin x , then prove that  y  0. (U)
dx 2
d2y
5. If y  cos 1 x, find in terms if y alone. (S)
dx 2
6. If y  3cos(log x)  4sin(log x), show that x2 y2  xy1  y  0. (U)
d2y dy
7. If y  Ae mx
 B e , prove that
nx
2
 ( m  n)  (mn) y  0. (K)
dx dx
8. If y  500 e7 x  600 e7 x , show that y2  49 y. (K)
9. If e y ( x  1)  1, show that y2  y12 . (K)
2
d 2 y  dy 
10. If e  x  1  1 , Prove that
y dy
 e y hence prove that    . (K)
dx dx 2  dx 
11. If y   tan 1 x  , show that (1  x2 )2 y2  2 x(1  x 2 ) y1  2. (U)
2
a cos1 x d2y dy
12. If y  e ,  1  x  1 , show that (1  x ) 2  x  a 2 y  0. (A)
2
dx dx
d2y
13. If x  a(cos t  t sin t ) and y  a(sin t  t cos t ), find . (A)
dx 2
3
14. If  x  a    y  b   c2 , for some c  0, prove that

2 2 1  y12  2
is a constant
y2
independent of a and b. (A)
44
CHAPTER -06
APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES
Rate of Change of Quantities:
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
1. A balloon, which always remains spherical on inflation, is being inflated by pumping in 900 cubic
centimeters of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon increases when
the radius is 15 cm.(U)
1
2. The radius of an air bubble is increasing at the rate of cm / s . At what rate is the volume of the
2
bubble increasing when the radius is 1cm ?(U)
3
3. A balloon, which always remains spherical, has a variable diameter  2 x  1 . Find the rate of
2
change of its volume with respect to x .(U)
4. The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 3 cm / minute and the width y is increasing
at the rate of 2 cm / minute . When x  10 cm and y  6 cm , find the rate of change of
(i) the perimeter and (ii) the area of the rectangle.(U)

5.The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm / minute and the width y is
increasing at the rate of 4 cm / minute . When x  8 cm and y  6 cm , find the rates of

change of (i) the perimeter, (ii) the area of the rectangle.(U)
6. The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3 / s . How fast is the surface area increasing
when the length of an edge is 12 cm ?(A)
7. The volume of a cube is increasing at a rate of 9 cubic centimeters persecond. How fast is the
surface area increasing when the length of an edge is 10centimeters?(U)
8. An edge of a variable cube is increasing at the rate of 3 cm / s . How fast is the
volume of the cube increasing when the edge is 10 cm long?(U)
9. A water tank has the shape of an inverted right circular cone with its axis vertical and vertex
lowermost. Its semi-vertical angle is tan 1 (0.5) . Water is poured into it at a constant rate of 5
cubic meter per hour. Find the rate at which the level of the water is rising at the instant
when the depth of water in the tank is 4m.(A)
10. A sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12cm3/s. The falling sand form a cone on the ground
in such a way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth of the radius of the base.
45
How fast is the height of the sand cone increasing when the height is 4cm ?(A)
11.A ladder 5 m long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is Pulled along the ground,
Away from the wall at the rate of 2 m / sec .How fast is its height on the wall decreasing when
the foot of the ladder is 4 m away from the wall? (A)
12.A ladder 24 feet long leansagainst a vertical wall. Thelower end ismoving away at the rate of
3feet/sec. findthe rate at which the top of the ladder ismoving downwards, if its foot is 8 feet
from the wall.(A)
13.A man of height 2 meters walks at a uniform speed of 5 km/hour, away from a lamp post which
is 6 meters high. Find the rate at which the length of the his shadow increases.(A)
14.A particle moves along the curve 6 y  x3  2 . Find the points on the curve at which the
y  coordinate is changing 8 times as fast as the x  coordinate.(U)

15. The total cost C ( x) in Rupees, associated with the production of x units of an item is given by
C ( x)  0.005x3 – 0.02 x2  30 x  5000 . Find the marginal cost when 3 units are produced,
where by marginal cost wemean the instantaneous rate of change of total cost at any level of
output.(U)
16. The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R( x)  3x2  36 x  5 . Find the marginal revenue, when x  5 , where by marginal revenue

we mean the rate of change of total revenue with respect to thenumber of items sold at an
instant.(U)
17. The total cost C ( x) in Rupees associated with the production of x units of an item is given by
C ( x)  0.007 x3 – 0.003x 2  15x  4000 .Find the marginal cost when 17 units are produced.(U)
18. The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is
given by R( x)  13x 2 +26 x  15 . Find the marginal revenue when x  7 .(U)
19. Find the total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R( x)  3x2  36 x  5 . The marginal revenue, when x  15 .(U)

20. The radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate of 3 cm / s . Find the rate at which the
area of the circle is increasing when the radius is 10 cm .(U)
21.Find the rate of change of the area of a circle with respect to its radius r at r  6 cm .(U)
22. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles at a speed of 4cm per second. At
the instant, when the radius of the circular wave is 10 cm , how fast is the enclosed area
increasing?(U)
46
23. A car starts from a point P at time t  0 seconds and stops at point Q. The distance x , in meters,
 t
covered by it, in t seconds is given by x  t 2  2   . Find the time taken by it to reach Q and
 3
also find distance between P and Q.(U)
24. Find the rate of change of the area of a circle per second with respect to its radius r when
r  5 cm .(U)
25. The radius of a circle is increasing at the rate of 0.7 cm/s. What is the rate of increase of its
circumference?(U)
47
TANGENT AND NORMAL:
Two mark questions:
1. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y  x3 – x at x  2 . (U)
2. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y  3x 4 – 4 x at x  4 . (U)
x 1
3. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y  , x  2 at x  10 . (U)
x2
4. Find the slope of the tangent to curve y  x3 – x  1 at the point whose x  coordinate is 2. (K)
5. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y  x3 – 3x  2 at the point whose x  coordinate is
3. (K)
6. Find the equation of the normal at the point (am2 , am3 ) for the curve ay 2  x3 .(U)
7. Find the slope of the normal to the curve y  2 x 2  3sin x at x  0 . (K)
2
1. Find the point at which the tangent to the curve y  4 x  3  1 has its slope . (K)
3
2
2. Find the equation of all lines having slope 2 and being tangent to the curve y   0 . (K)
x 3
x2 y 2
3. Find points on the curve   1 at which the tangents are parallel to x  axis . (U)
4 25
x2 y 2
4. Find points on the curve   1 at which the tangents are parallel to y  axis . (U)
4 25
x7
5. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y  at the point where it cuts the
( x  2)( x  3)
x  axis . (U)
2 2
6. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the curve x 3  y 3  2 at (1, 1) . (U)
7. Find the equation of tangent to the curve given by x  a sin 3 t , y  b cos3 t at a point where

t . (K)
2

8. Find the slope of the normal to the curve x  a cos3  , y  b sin 3  at   . (K)
4

9. Find the slope of the normal to the curve x  1  a sin  , y  b cos2  at   . (K)
2
10. Find points at which the tangent to the curve y  x3 – 3x 2 – 9 x  7 is parallel to the X  axis .
(K)
11. Find a point on the curve y  ( x – 2)2 at which the tangent is parallel to the chord
joining the points (2, 0) and (4, 4) . (S)
12. Find the point on the curve y  x3 –11x  5 at which the tangent is y  x –11 . (K)
1
13. Find the equation of all lines having slope –1 that are tangents to the curve y  , x  1 . (K)
x 1
48
1
14. Find the equation of all lines having slope 2 which are tangents to the curve y  , x  3 . (K)
x 3
15. Find the equations of all lines having slope 0 which are tangent to the curve
1
y . (K)
x  2x  3
2
x2 y 2
16. Find points on the curve   1 at which the tangents are parallel to X  axis .(K)
9 16
x2 y 2
17. Find points on the curve   1 at which the tangents are parallel to Y  axis .(K)
9 16
19. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curve y  x 4 – 6 x3  13x 2 –10 x  5
at (0,5) . (U)
20. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curve y  x 4 – 6 x3  13x 2 –10 x  5
at (1,3) . (U)
21. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curve y  x3 at (1,1) . (U)
22. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curve y  x3 at (0, 0) . (U)

23. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curve x  cos t , y  sin t at t  .
4
(K)
24. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y  x 2 – 2 x  7 which is parallel to the line
2 x – y  9  0 .(K)
25. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y  x 2 – 2 x  7 which is perpendicular to the
line 5 y –15x  13 .(K)
26. Show that the tangents to the curve y  7 x3  11 at the points where x  2 and x  –2 are
parallel. (K)
27. Find the points on the curve y  x3 at which the slope of the tangent is equal to the y 
coordinate of the point. (K)
28. For the curve y  4 x3 – 2 x5 , find all the points at which the tangent passes through the origin.
(K)
29. Find the points on the curve x 2  y 2 – 2 x – 3  0 at which the tangents are parallel to the
x  axis . (K)
29. Find the equation of the normals to the curve y  x3  2 x  6 which are parallel to the line
x  14 y  4  0 . (K)
30. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the parabola y 2  4ax at the point (at 2 , 2at ) .
(U)
31. Prove that the curves x  y 2 and xy  k cut at right angle if 8k 2  1 . (A)
x2 y 2
32. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the hyperbola   1 at the point
a 2 b2
( x0 , y0 ) . (U)
49
33. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y  3x  2 which is parallel to the line
4 x  2 y  5  0 . (K)
34. Find the point at which the line y  x  1 is a tangent to the curve y 2  4 x . (U)
35. Find the equation of the normal to curve y 2  4 x which passes through the point (1, 2) . (U)
36. Show that the normal at any point  to the curve x  a cos  a sin  , y  a sin   a cos 
is at a constant distance from the origin. (U)
37. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve x  t 2  3t – 8, y  2t 2 – 2t – 5 at the point (2, 1) .
(K)
38. Find the value of ‘ m ’ so that the line y  mx  1 is a tangent to the curve y 2  4 x . (U)
39. Find the equation of the normal to the curve 2 y  x 2  3 at the point (1,1) .(U)
40. Find the equation of the normal to the curve x 2  4 y at (1, 2) . (U)
41. Find the points on the curve 9y 2  x3 , where the normal to the curve makes equal intercepts
with their axes. (U)
42. Find the equation of tangents to the curve y  cos( x  y), – 2  x  2
that are parallel to the line x  2 y  0 . (K)
50
Increasing and Decreasing Functions
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1.Show that the function given by f ( x)  7 x – 3 is strictly increasing on R . (U)
2.Show that the function f given by f ( x)  x3  3x 2  4 x , x  R is strictly increasing on R .(U)
3. Find the interval in which the function f given by f ( x)  2 x 2  3x is strictly increasing. (U)
4. Prove that the function given by f ( x)  cos x is strictly decreasing in (0,  ) .(U)
5. Prove that the function given by f ( x)  cos x is strictly increasing in ( , 2 ) .(U)
6. Prove that the function given by f ( x)  cos x is neither increasing nor decreasing in (0, 2 ) .(U)
7.Show that the function given by f ( x)  3x  17 is strictly increasing on R .(U)
8.Show that the function given by f ( x)  e2 x is strictly increasing on R .(U)
9.Show that the function given by f ( x)  sin x is strictly increasing in . /.(U)
 
10.Show that the function given by f ( x)  sin x is strictly decreasing in  ,   (U)
2 
11.Show that the function given by f ( x)  sin x is neither increasing nor decreasing in  0,   .(U)
12.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  2 x 2  3x is strictly increasing.(U)
13.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  2 x 2  3x is strictly decreasing.(U)
14.Prove that the logarithmic function is strictly increasing on (0, ) .(U)
15. Show that the function given by f ( x)  cos x is strictly decreasing in . /.(U)
16. Show that the function given by f ( x)  cos 2 x is strictly decreasing in . /.(U)
17. Show that the function given by f ( x)  cos3x is strictly decreasing in . /.(U)
18. Show that the function given by f ( x)  tan x is strictly decreasing in . /.(U)
19.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  x  3x  3x  100 is increasing in R .(U)
3 2
20.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  x 2e x is increasing in  0, 2  .(U)

1. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  x 2  4 x  6 is strictly increasing. (K)
2. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  x 2  4 x  6 is strictly decreasing. (K)
3. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  4 x3  6 x 2  72 x  30 is strictly
increasing. (K)
4. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  4 x3  6 x 2  72 x  30 is strictly
decreasing. (K)
 
5.Find intervals in which the function given by f ( x)  sin 3x, x  0,
 2 
is increasing. (U)
 
6.Find intervals in which the function given by f ( x)  sin 3x, x  0,  is decreasing. (U)
 2
7.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  2 x3  3x 2  36 x  7 is strictly
increasing.(U)
8.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  2 x3  3x 2  36 x  7 is
strictly decreasing. (U)
51
9.Find the intervals in which the function f given by x2  2 x – 5 is strictly increasing. (U)
10.Find the intervals in which the function f given by x2  2 x – 5 is strictly decreasing. (U)
11.Find the intervals in which the function f given by 10 – 6 x – 2 x 2 is strictly increasing. (U)
12.Find the intervals in which the function f given by 10 – 6 x – 2 x 2 is strictly decreasing. (U)
13.Find the intervals in which the function f given by 6 – 9 x – x 2 is strictly increasing. (U)
14.Find the intervals in which the function f given by 6 – 9 x – x 2 is strictly decreasing. (U)
15.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  x 2  x  1 is neither strictly increasing nor strictly
decreasing on (–1,1) . (U)
16.Show that the function given by f ( x)  x100  sin x  1 is strictly decreasing in (0,1) . (K)
 
17.Show that the function given by f ( x)  x100  sin x  1 is strictly decreasing in  ,   .(K)
2 
18.Show that the function given by f ( x)  x100  sin x  1 is strictly decreasing in . /.(K)
19.Find the least value of ‘ a ’such that the function f given by f ( x)  x 2  ax  1 is strictly
increasing on (1, 2) . (K)
20.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  log(sin x) is strictly increasing on . /.(U)
 
21.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  log(sin x) is strictly decreasing on  ,   . (U)
2 
22.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  log(cos x) is strictly decreasing on . /.(U)
 
23.Prove that the function f given by f ( x)  log(cos x) is strictly increasing on  ,   . (U)
2 
24.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  sin x  cos x , 0  x  2 is strictly
increasing or strictly decreasing.
25.Find the intervals in which the following functions are strictly increasing or decreasing:
(i) –2 x3 – 9 x2 –12 x  1 (ii) ( x  1)3 ( x  3)3 .
2x
26.Show that y  log(1  x)  , x  1, is an increasing function of x throughout its domain.
2 x
27.Find the values of x for which y   x( x  2) is an increasing function.
2
4sin   
28.Prove that y    is an increasing function of  in 0, 2  .
(2  cos  )
3 4 4 3 36
29.Find intervals in which the function given by f ( x)  x  x  3x 2  x  11 is
10 5 5
(a) strictly increasing (b) strictly decreasing.
30.Show that the function f given by f ( x)  tan 1 (sin x  cos x), x  0 is always an strictly
 
increasing function in  0, .
 4
4sin x  2 x  x cos x
31.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  is
2  cos x
(i) increasing (ii) decreasing.
1
32.Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  x3  , x  0 is
x3
52
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  sin x  cos x ,

0  x  2 is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.
2. Find the intervals in which the following functions are strictly increasing
or decreasing: (i) –2 x3 – 9 x2 –12 x  1 (ii) ( x  1)3 ( x  3)3 .
3. Show that y  log(1  x)  2 x , x  1, is an increasing function of x
2 x
throughout its domain.
4. Find the values of x for which y   x( x  2) is an increasing function.
2
4sin   
5. Prove that y    is an increasing function of  in 0, 2  .
(2  cos  )
6. Find intervals in which the function given by
3 4 36
f ( x)  x 4  x3  3x 2  x  11 is (a) strictly increasing (b) strictly
10 5 5
decreasing.
7. Show that the function f given by f ( x)  tan 1 (sin x  cos x), x  0 is always
 
an strictly increasing function in  0,  .
 4
8. Find the intervals in which the function f given by
4sin x  2 x  x cos x
f ( x)  is (i) increasing (ii) decreasing.
2  cos x
1
9. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f ( x)  x3  , x  0 is
x3
@@@@@@@@@
53
Maxima and Minima
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:
1.Find the maximum and the minimum values of the function f given by f ( x)  x , x  R . (U)
2
2.Find the maximum and minimum values of the function f given by f ( x)  x , x  R . (U)
3. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function f given by f ( x)  x, x  (0,1) . (K)
4.Prove that the function f ( x)  e do not have maxima or minima. (U)
x
5.Prove that the function g ( x)  log x do not have maxima or minima. (U)
6.Prove that the function h( x)  x  x  x  1 do not have maxima or minima. (U)
3 2
7.It is given that at x  1 , the function f ( x)  x – 62 x  ax  9 attains its maximum value, on the
4 2
interval [0, 2] . Find the value of ‘a’. (U)

8. Find all points of local maxima and local minima of the function f given by f ( x)  x – 3x  3 . (U)
3
9. Find all the points of local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  2 x – 6 x  6 x  5
3 2
.(U)
10. Find local minimum value of the function f given by f ( x)  3  x , x  R. (U)
11. Find all the points of local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  2 x 3 – 6 x 2  6 x  5 .
(U)
log x
12. Show that the function given by f ( x)  has maximum at x  e .(U)
x
13. At what points in the interval [0, 2 ] , does the function sin 2x attain its maximum value? (U)
14. Prove that the function f(x)= ex do not have maxima or minima.
15. Prove that the function f(x)=logx do not have maxima or minima.
1 . Find local maximum and local minimum values of the function f given by
f ( x)  3x4  4 x3 –12 x2  12 (U) 2. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given
by f ( x)  (2 x –1)  3 . (U)
2
2. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by f ( x)  9 x  12 x  2 .(U)
2
3. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by f ( x)  ( x –1)  10 (U)
2
4. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by g ( x)  x  1 .(U)
3
5. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by f ( x)  x  2 –1 .(A)
6. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by g ( x)   x  1  3 (A)
7. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by h( x)  sin(2 x)  5 .(U)
8. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by h( x)  sin 4 x  3  5 .(U)
54
9. Find both the maximum value and the minimum value of 3x4 – 8x3  12 x2 – 48x  25 on
the interval [0,3] .(U)
10. Find the maximum and minimum values of the function given by h( x)  x  1, x  (1,1) . (U)
1
11. Find the maximum value of [ x( x  1)  1]3 , 0  x  1 . (A)
12. Find two positive numbers whose sum is 15 and the sum of whose squares is minimum. (A)
13. Find two numbers whose sum is 24 and whose product is as large as possible. (A)
14. Find two positive numbers x and y such that x  y  60 and xy is maximum. (A)
3
15. Find two positive numbers x and y such that their sum is 35 and the product x 2 y5 is a
maximum. (A)
16. Find two positive numbers whose sum is 16 and the sum of whose cubes is minimum. (A)
17. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function g ( x)  x  3x . Also find the local
3
maximum
and the local minimum values. (U)
18. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  x . Also find the local maximum
2
and the local minimum values. (U)


19. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function h( x)  sin x  cos x, 0  x  .
2
Also find the local maximum and the local minimum values. (U)
20. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  x  6 x  9 x  15 .
3 2
Also find the local maximum and the local minimum values. . (U)
x 2
21. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function g ( x)   , x0.
2 x
22. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  sin x  cos x, 0  x  2 .
23. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function f ( x)  x 1  x , x  0 .
1
24. Find the local maxima and local minima of the function g ( x)  .
x 2
2
25. Find the absolute maximum value and the absolute minimum value of the function
f ( x)  ( x  1)2  3, x [– 3,1] . (U)
f ( x)  x3 , x [– 2, 2] . (U)
27. Find the absolute maximum and minimum values of a function f ( x)  2 x –15x  36 x  1
3 2
on the interval [1,5] . (U)
55
28. Find absolute maximum and minimum values of a function f given by
4 1
f ( x)  12 x 3  6 x 3 , x [1,1] . (U)
f ( x)  sin x  cos x, x [0,  ] . (U)
1  9
f ( x)  4 x  x 2 , x   – 2,  . (U)
2  2
31. Find the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function f given by
f ( x)  cos2 x  sin x, x [0,  ] . (U)

 x 
32. Manufacturer can sell x items at a price of rupees  5   each.
 100 
x 
The cost price of x items is Rs   500  .
5 
Find the number of items he should sell to earn maximum profit. (A)
33. Find the maximum profit that a company can make, if the profit function is given by
p( x)  41– 72 x –18x 2 .(A)
34. What is the maximum value of the function sin x  cos x ?( U)
35.Find the maximum value of 2 x3 – 24 x  107 in the interval [1,3] . (U)
36. Find the maximum value of 2 x3 – 24 x  107 in [3, 1] .( U)
37.Find the maximum and minimum values of x  sin 2 x on [0, 2 ] .( U)
38. Find the points at which the function f given by f ( x)  ( x  2)4 ( x  1)3 has
(i) local maxima(ii) local minima. (U)
1  x  x2
39.For all real values of x , find the minimum value of . (U)
1  x  x2
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1. If length of three sides of a trapezium other than base are equal to 10cm, then find the area of
the trapezium when it is maximum. (A)
2. Prove that the radius of the right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which
can be inscribed in a given cone is half of that of the cone. (A)
3. An Apache helicopter of enemy is flying along the curve given by y  x  7 .
2
A soldier, placed at (3, 7) , wants to shoot down the helicopter when it is nearest to him.
Find the nearest distance. (A)
4.A square piece of tin of side 18 cm is to be made into a box without top, by cutting a square
from each corner and folding up the flaps to form the box. What should be the side of the square
to be cut off so that the volume of the box is the maximum possible. (A)
56
5.A rectangular sheet of tin 45 cm by 24 cm is to be made into a box without top, by cutting off
square from each corner and folding up the flaps. What should be the side of the square to be cut
off so that the volume of the box is maximum ? (A)
6.Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square has the maximum
area.(A)
7.Show that the right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume is
such that its height is equal to the diameter of the base. (A)
8.Of all the closed cylindrical cans (right circular), of a given volume of 100 cubic
centimeters, find the dimensions of the can which has the minimum surface area? (A)
9.A wire of length 28 m is to be cut into two pieces. One of the pieces is to be
made into a square and the other into a circle. What should be the length of the
two pieces so that the combined area of the square and the circle is minimum? (A)
10.Prove that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R
8
is of the volume of the sphere. (A)
27
11.Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface area and given volume has an
altitude equal to 2 time the radius of the base. (A)
12.Show that the semi-vertical angle of the cone of the maximum volume and of
1
given slant height is tan 2 .(A)
13.Show that semi-vertical angle of right circular cone of given surface area and
1
maximum volume is sin 1   .(A)
3
14.An open topped box is to be constructed by removing equal squares from each corner of a 3
meter by 8 meter rectangular sheet of aluminum and folding up the sides.
Find the volume of the largest such box. (A)
15.The two equal sides of an isosceles triangle with fixed base ‘b’ are decreasing at the
rate of 3 cm per second . How fast is the area decreasing when the two equal
sides are equal to the base ? (A)
x2 y 2
16.Find the maximum area of an isosceles triangle inscribed in the ellipse 2  2  1 with its
a b
vertex at one end of the major axis. (A)
17.A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed so that
3
its depth is 2 m and volume is 8 m . If building of tank costs Rs 70 per sq metres for the base
and Rs 45 per square metre for sides. What is the cost of least expensive tank? (A)
18.The sum of the perimeter of a circle and square is k, where k is some constant .Prove that the
sum of their areas is least when the side of square is double the radius of the circle. (A)
19.A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening.

The total perimeter of the window is 10 m . Find the dimensions of the window to
admit maximum light through the whole opening. (A)
57
20. A point on the hypotenuse of a triangle is at distance ‘a’ and ‘b’ from the sides of the triangle .
3
 23 
2 2
Show that the maximum length of the hypotenuse is  a  b 3  .(A)
 
21.Show that the altitude of the right circular cone of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a
4r
sphere of radius r is .(A)
3
22.Show that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of
2R
radius R is . Also find the maximum volume. (A)
3
23.Show that height of the cylinder of greatest volume which can be inscribed in a right circular cone
of height h and semi vertical angle  is one-third that of the cone and the greatest volume of
4
cylinder is  h3 tan 2  .(A)
27
24. Find the point on the curve x 2  2 y which is nearest to the point (0,5) .(U)
@@@@@@@@@@
58
Approximations
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1.Use differential to approximate 36.6 . (U)
1
2.Using differentials, find the approximate value of (25) 3 . (U)
3.Using differentials, find the approximate value of 25.3 up to 3 places of decimal.(K)
4.Use differential to approximate 25.3 .(U)
5.Use differential to approximate 0.6 .(U)
6. Using differentials, find the approximate value of 49.5 . (U)

1
7. Using differentials, find the approximate value of (0.009) 3 .(U)
1
10
8. Using differentials, find the approximate value of (0.999) .(U)
1
9.Use differential to approximate (15) 4 .(U)
1
1
1
4
12.Use differential to approximate (82) up to 3 places of decimal.(K)
1
13.Use differential to approximate (401) 2 up to 3 places of decimal.(K)
1
14.Use differential to approximate (0.0037) 2 .(U)
1
15.Use differential to approximate (26.57) 3 .(U)
1
4
16.Use differential to approximate (81.5) .(U)
3
17.Use differential to approximate (3.968) 2 . (U)
1
18.Use differential to approximate (32.15) 5 . (U)
19.Find the approximate change in the volume V of a cube of side x meters caused by increasing the
side by 2%. (A)
59
20.If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 cm with an error of 0.03 cm ,
then find the approximate error in calculating its volume.(A)
21.Find the approximate change in the volume V of a cube of side x meters caused by increasing
the side by 1%.(A)
22.Find the approximate change in the surface area of a cube of side x meters
caused by decreasing the side by 1%.(A)
23.If the radius of a sphere is measured as 7 m with an error of 0.02 m , then find the approximate
error in calculating its volume.(A)

24.If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 m with an error of 0.03 m , then find the approximate
error in calculating its surface area.(A)
25.Find the approximate change in the volume of a cube of side x meters caused by increasing the
side by 3%. (A)
26.Find the approximate value of f (3.02) , where f ( x)  3x 2  5x  3 .(A)
27. Find the approximate value of f (3.02) , where f ( x)  3x 2  5x  3 .(A)
28.Find the approximate value of f (2.01) , where f ( x)  4 x 2  5x  2 .(A)
29.Find the approximate value of f (5.001) , where f ( x)  x3 – 7 x 2  15 .(A)

1
 17  4
30.Using differentials, find the approximate value of   .(U)
 81 
1

5
31.Using differentials, find the approximate value of (33) .(U)
32.A circular disc of radius 3 cm is being heated. Due to expansion, its radius increases at the
rate of 0.05 cm / s . Find the rate at which its area is increasing when radius is 3.2 cm .(A)
@@@@@@@@@@@@
60
CHAPTER -7
INTEGRALS
ONE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Find: sin mxdx (U)
2. Find:  (1  x) xdx (U)
1
3. Find the anti-derivative of , x  1 with respect to x (K)
x x 1
2
 x 1 
e
x
4. Find:  2  dx (A)
 x 
5. Find:  cos ecx(cos ecx  cot x)dx (U)
 (2x  3cos x  e )dx .

x
6 . Find: (U)
 tan
2
7. Evaluate : 2 x dx (U)

8. Find: sin(2  5 x) dx (U)
1 x
9. Find:  x
dx (A)
 x  x

10. Find: sin   cos   dx
2 2
(A)

11 . Find: e x sec x(1  tan x)dx (A)
12 . Find:  (sin x  cos x)dx (U)
 1 
13. Find the anti derivative of x 2 1   with respect to x. (A)
 x2 
14. Write the antiderivative of e2x with respect to x. (A)
15. Find an anti-derivative of 3x with respect to x. (A)
16. Find an anti-derivative of logex with respect to x. (A)
17. Find the anti-derivative of sin2x with respect to x (A)
18. Find the antiderivative of cos3x with respect to x. (A)
19. Find the antiderivative of (ax+b)2 with respect to x. (A)
20. Find the anti derivative of sin 2 x  4e3 x with respect to x. (A)
61
 1 
21. Find the anti derivative of  x   with respect to x. (A)
 x
dx
22. Find: x 2
 16
` (U)
 xe dx
x
23. Find: (U)
 (4e  1)dx
3x
24. Find: (U)
 (ax  bx  c)dx
2
25. Find: (U)
 (2 x  e x )dx
2
26. Find: (U)
x3  5 x 2  4
27. Find:  x2 dx (U)
x3  3x  4
28. Find:  x
dx (U)
x3  x 2  x  1
29. Find:  dx (U)
x 1
30. Find:  log xdx (A)
31. Find:  ax  bdx (A)
e
2 x 3
32. Find: dx (A)
33. Find  x (3x 2  2 x  3)dx (U)

34. Find (2 x  3cos x  e x )dx (U)
 (2x  3sin x  5 x )dx

2
35. Find (U)

36. Find sec x(sec x  tan x)dx (U)
sec2 x
37. Find  cos ec2 x dx (U)

38. Find: sin 1 (cos x)dx (S)
39. Find  1  cos 2xdx (A)
40. Find  1  cos 2xdx (A)
41. Find  1  sin 2xdx (A)
62
 /2
42. Evaluate: 

 /2
sin 7 xdx (S)
2x

43. Evaluate: cos5 xdx
0
(S)
 /2
44. Evaluate:
 /2


sin 3 xdx (S)
b
45. Evaluate:  xdx
a
(U)
5
46. Evaluate:  ( x  1)dx
0
(U)
 x dx
2
47. Evaluate: (U)
2
 (x  x)dx
2
48. Evaluate: (U)
1
 e dx
x
49. Evaluate: (U)
1
 (x  e
2x
50. Evaluate: )dx (U)
0
4
dx
51. Evaluate:  16  x
0
2
(U)
3
dx
52. Evaluate :  1 x
1
2
(A)

x x
 (sin  cos 2 )dx
2
53. Evaluate: (S)
0
2 2
3
dx
54. Evaluate: x 2
2
1
(U)
 /4
55. Evaluate:  sin 2xdx
0
(A)
 /2
56. Evaluate:  cos 2xdx
0
(A)
 /4
57. Evaluate:  tan xdx
0
(A)
63
1
dx
58. Evaluate: 
0 1  x2
(U)
59. ∫( ) (U)
60.Evaluaate: ∫( ) (U)
61.Evaluate; ∫( ) (U)
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

sin 2 x
1. Find  dx (A)
1  cos x
1
2. Find  sin 2
x cos 2 x
dx (A)
3. Find ∫ (A)

4. Find 2 x sin( x 2  1)dx (A)
sin(tan 1 x)
5. Find  dx (A)
1  x2

6. Find tan xdx (A)

7. Find cot xdx (A)

8. Find sec xdx (A)

9. Find cos ecxdx (A)
10 x9  10 x log e 10
10. Find :  x10  10x dx (A)
dx
11. Find: x 2
 6 x  13 (A)
 x e dx
3
2 x
12. Find: (A)
2  3sin x
13. Find  cos 2 x
dx (A)
dx
14. Find:  3x 2
 13x  10
(A)
1  cos 2 x
15. Find  1  cos 2 xdx (A)
64
1  cos 2 x
16. Find  1  cos 2 xdx (A)
dx
17. Find  5x2  2 x
(A)
 sin 2 x 
 tan
1
18. Find   dx (A)
 1  cos 2 x 
 sin 2 x 
 tan
1
19. Find   dx (A)
 1  cos 2 x 
2
 1 
20. Find:   x   dx (A)
 x
1  sin x
21. Find  cos 2 x
dx (A)
3cos x  4
22. Find  sin 2 x
dx (A)
1
23. Find  1  cos x dx (A)
2x
24. Find  1 x 2
dx (A)
(log x) 2
25. Find  x dx (A)

26. Find sin x sin(cos x)dx (A)

27. Find sin(ax  b) cos(ax  b)dx (A)

28. Find (4 x  2) x 2  x  1dx (A)
x
29. Find  x4
dx (A)
x2
30. Find  (2  3x3 )3 dx (A)
dx
31. Find  x(log x) m
, x  0, m  1 (A)
x
32. Find  9  4x 2
dx (A)
x
33. Find e x2
dx (A)
65

34. Find x 1  2 x 2 dx (A)
1
e tan x
35. Find  dx (A)
1  x2
e2 x  1
36 . Find  2 x dx (A)
e 1

37.Find tan 2 (2 x  3)dx (A)

38. Find sec2 (7  4 x)dx (A)
sin 1 x
39. Find  1  x2
dx (A)
1
40. Find  cos 2
x(1  tan x) 2
dx (A)
2cos x  3sin x
41. Find  6cos x  4sin xdx (A)
cos x
42. Find  x
dx (A)
43. Find  sin 2 x cos 2 xdx (A)
cos x
44. Find  1  sin x
dx (A)
45. Find  cot x log sin xdx (A)

46. Find cos 2 xdx (A)

47. Find sin 2 x cos3xdx (A)

48. Find sin 3 xdx (A)

49. Find log xdx (A)

50. Find e x (sec x)(1  tan x)dx (A)
cos 2 x
51. Find  (sin x  cos x) dx 2
(A)

52. Find tan 1 xdx (A)

53. Find sin 3 x cos 2 xdx (A)
66
3x 2
54. Find  x6  1dx (A)
1
55. Find  1  4 x2
dx (A)
1
56. Find  (2  x) 2  1
dx (A)
1
57. Find  9  25 x 2
dx (A)
3x
58. Find  1 2x 4
dx (A)
59. Find ∫ (A)
x 1
60. Find  x2 1
dx (A)
x2
61. Find  x6  a6
dx (A)
sec2 x
62. Find  tan 2 x  4
dx (A)
dx
63. Find  x  2x  2
2
(A)
dx
64. Find  9x 2
 6x  5
(A)
dx
65. Find  7  6x  x2
(A)
dx
66. Find  ( x  1)( x  2)
(A)
dx
67. Find  8  3x  x 2
(A)
dx
68. Find x 2
 2x  2
(A)
dx
69. Find  9 x  4 x2 (A)
70. Find  x sin xdx (A)
67
71. Find  x sin 3xdx (A)
 x e dx
2 x
72. Find (A)
73. Find  x log xdx (A)
74. Find  x log 2 xdx (A)
x
2
75. Find log xdx (A)
 x sec xdx
2
76. Find (A)
77. Find  x 2  2 x  5dx (A)
78. Find  3  2x  x 2 dx . (A)
79. Find  4  x 2 dx (A)
80. Find  1  4x 2 dx (A)
81. Find  x 2  4 x  6 dx (A)
82. Find  x 2  4 x  1 dx (A)
83. Find  1  4x  x 2 dx (A)
84. Find  1  3x  x 2 dx (A)
85. Find  x 2  3xdx (A)
86. Find  1  x 2 dx (A)
87. Find  7  8x  x 2 dx (A)
x2
88. Find  1
9
dx (A)

89. Evaluate (4 x3  5 x 2  6 x  9)dx
1
(A)
 /4
90 . Evaluate  sin 2xdx
0
(A)
 /2
91. Evaluate  cos 2xdx
0
(A)
68
 /2
 cos
2
92. Evaluate xdx (A)
0
3
xdx
93. Evaluate x
2
2
1
(A)

2
94. Evaluate xe x dx (A)
0
2/3
dx
95. Evaluate  4  9x
0
2
(A)
3
xdx
96. Evaluate x
2
2
1
(A)
 /4
97. Evaluate 

 /4
sin 2 xdx (A)

98. Evaluate sin 5 x cos 4 xdx
1
(A)
 /2
99. Evaluate 

 /2
sin 7 xdx (A)
2
 cos
5
100. Evaluate xdx (A)
0
 /2
101. Evaluate
 /2


( x3  x cos x  tan 5 x  1)dx (A)
102. Find  cos 6 x 1  sin 6 xdx (A)
THREE MARKS QUESTION

3
1. Find the antiderivative of f(x)=4x 3  such that f(2)=0 (A)
x4
2. Find the antiderivative of F of f defined by f(x)=4x3-6, where F(0)=3 (A)
dx
2. Find  x  x log x (A)
tan 4 x sec2 x
3. Find  x
dx (A)
sin x
4. Find  sin( x  a) dx (A)
1
5. Find  1  tan xdx (A)
69
e2 x  1
6. Find  e2 x  1dx (A)

7. Find tan 2 (2 x  3) dx (A)
1
8. Find  cos 2
x(1  tan x) 2
dx (A)
1
9. Find  1  tan xdx (A)
1
10. Find  ! cot xdx (A)
( x  1)( x  log x) 2
11.Find  x
dx (A)
tan x
12. Find  sin x cos xdx (A)
x3 sin(tan 1 x 4 )
13. Find  1  x8 dx (A)
1  log x 
2
14. Find  x
dx (A)
15. Find  sin 2 x cos 2 xdx (A)
sin x
16. Find  1  cos x dx (A)
sin x
17. Find  (1  cos x) dx 2
(A)
1
18. Find  1  cot xdx (A)
(sin 2 x  cos 2 x)
19. Find  sin 2 x cos2 x dx (A)
sin 3 x  cos3 x
20. Find  sin 2 x cos2 x dx (A)
21. Find x x  2dx (A)
x2
22. Find  2x 2
 6x  5
dx (A)
x3
23. Find  5  4 x  x2
dx (A)
70
dx
24. Find  ( x  a)( x  b)
(A)
4x 1
25. Find  2 x2  x  3
dx (A)
x2
26. Find  4 x  x2
dx (A)
x2
27. Find  x2  2 x  3
dx (A)
x3
28. Find x 2
 2x  5
dx (A)
5x  3
29. Find  x  4 x  10
2
dx (A)
dx
30. Find  ( x  1)( x  2) (U)
x2  1
31. Find  x2  5x  6dx (A)
3x  2
32. Find  ( x  1) ( x  3)dx
2
(A)
x2
33. Find  ( x2  1)( x2  4)dx (A)
(3sin   2) cos 
34. Find  5  cos 2
  4sin 
d (S)
x2  x  1
35. FInd  ( x  2)( x2  1) dx (A)
x
36. Find  ( x  1)( x  2)dx (A)
dx
37. Find x 2
9
(A)
3x  1
38. Find  ( x  1)( x  2)( x  3)dx (A)
3x  1
39. Find  ( x  1)( x  2)( x  3)dx (A)
2x
40. Find x 2
 3x  2
dx (A)
71
1  x2
41. Find  x(1  2 x)dx (A)
x
42. Find  (x 2
 1)( x  1)
dx (A)
3x  5
43. Find x 3
 x2  x  1
dx (A)
2x  3
44. Find  (x 2
 1)(2 x  3)
dx (A)
5x
45. Find  ( x  1)( x 2
 4)
dx (A)
x3  x  1
46. Find  x2  1 dx (A)
2
47. Find  (1  x)(1  x )dx 2
(A)
3x  1
48. Find  ( x  2) dx 2
(A)
dx
49. Find x 4
1
(S)
1
50. Find  x( x n
 1)
dx (S)
cos x
51. Find  (1  sin x)(2  sin x)dx (S)
( x 2  1)( x 2  2)
52. Find  ( x2  3)( x2  4) dx (S)
2x
53. Find  (x 2
 1)( x 2  3)
dx (S)
dx
54. Find  x( x 4
 1)
(S)
dx
55. Find e x
1
(A)
xdx
56. Find  ( x  1)( x  2) (A)
dx
57. Find  x( x 2
 1)
(A)
72
x sin 1 x
58. Find  1  x2
dx (A)

59. Find e x sin xdx (A)

60. Prove that e x [ f ( x)  f '( x)]dx  e x  c (A)
 x sin
1
61. Find xdx (A)

62. Find x tan 1 xdx (A)

63. Find x cos 1 xdx (A)

64. Find x(log x)2 dx (A)

65. Find ( x 2  1) log xdx (A)

66. Find e x (sin x  cos x)dx (A)
 1  sin x 

67. Find e x  dx
 1  cos x 
(S)
xe x
68. Find  dx (S)
(1  x) 2
1 1 

69. Find e x   2 dx
x x 
(A)
( x  3)e x
70. Find  ( x  1)3 dx (S)

71. Find e2 x sin xdx (A)
 2x 

72. Find sin 1  2 
 1 x 
dx (A)

73. Find e x sec x(1  tan x)dx (A)
2
 (x  1)dx as the limit of sum

2
74. Evaluate (S)
0
b
75. Evaluate  xdx
a
as the limit of sum (S)
5
76. Evaluate  ( x  1)dx as the limit of sum
0
(S)
73
3
 x dx as the limit of sum

2
77. Evaluate (S)
2
 e dx as the limit of sum

x
78. Evaluate (S)
1

79. Evaluate ( x 2  x)dx as the limit of sum
1
(S)

80. Evaluate ( x  e 2 x )dx as the limit of sum
0
(S)
9
x
81. Evaluate  (30  x
4
3/2 2
)
dx (A)
2
xdx
82. Evaluate  9( x  1)( x  2)
1
(A)
 /4
 sin
3
83. Evaluate 2t cos 2tdt (A)
0
2x  3
1
84. Evaluate  5x
0
2
1
dx (A)
2
5x2
85. Evaluate 1 x2  4 x  3dx (A)
 /4
 (2sec x  x3  2)dx
2
86. Evaluate (A)
0
6x  3
2
87. Evaluate x
0
2
 4
dx (A)
1
x

88. Evaluate ( xe x  sin
0
4
)dx (A)

89. Evaluate 5 x 4 x5  1dx
1
(A)
tan 1 x
1
90. Evaluate 0 1  x2 dx (A)
 /2
91. Evaluate 
0
sin  cos5  d (A)
74
 2x 
1

92. Evaluate sin 1 
0
2 
 1 x 
dx (A)

93. Evaluate x x  2dx
0
(A)
 /2
sin x
94. Evaluate  1  cos
0
2
x
dx (A)
2
dx
95. Evaluate  x4 x
0
2
(A)
1
dx
96. Evaluate x
1
2
 2x  5
(A)
1 1  2x
2
97. Evaluate    x  2x
0
2 

e dx (A)
( x  x3 )1/3
1
98. Evaluate  x4 dx
1/3
(A)

99. If f(x)= t sin tdt , then find the value of f '(x)
0
(A)
 a
f ( x)dx   0
2 f ( x)dx if f(2a-x) =f(x)
2a
100. Prove that  (A)
0 0 if f(2a-x) =-f(x)

2a a a
101. Prove that 0
f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f (2a  x)dx
0 0
(A)
( x 4  x)1/4
102. Find  x5 dx . (S)
x 4 dx
103. Find  ( x  1)( x2  1) . (S)
 1 
104. Find  log(log x)  (log x) 2 dx

(S)
105. Find   cot x  tan x dx . (S)
sin 2 x cos 2 x
106. Find  9  cos 4 (2 x)
dx (S)
75
1
107. Find  x  x dx 3
(S)
1
108. Find  xa  xb
dx (S)
1
109. Find x ax  x 2
dx (S)
1
110. Find  x (x
2 4
 1)3/4
dx (S)
1
111. Find x 1/2
 x1/3
dx (S)
5x
112. Find  ( x  1)( x 2
 9)
dx (S)
sin x
113. Find  sin( x  a) dx (S)
e5log x  e4log x
114. Find  e3log x  e2log x dx (S)
sin 8 x  cos8 x
115. Find  1  2sin 2 x cos2 x dx (S)
1
116. Find  cos( x  a) cos( x  b)dx (S)
x3
117. Find  1  x8
dx (S)
ex
118. Find  (1  e x )(2  e x )dx (S)
1
119. Find  (x 2
 1)( x 2  4)
dx (S)
 cos xe
3 logsin x
120. Find dx (S)

121. Find e3log x ( x 4  1)1 dx (S)
 f '(ax  b)  f (ax  b)

n
122. Find dx (A)
1
123. Find  sin x sin( x   )
3
dx (A)
sin 1 x  cos 1 x
124. Find  sin 1
dx, x   0,1 (S)
x  cos 1 x
76
1 x
125. Find  1 x
dx (S)
2  sin 2 x
126. Find  1  cos 2 x dx (S)
x2  x  1
127. Find  dx (S)
( x  1) 2 ( x  2)
1 x
 tan
1
128. Find dx (S)
1 x
x 2  1 log( x 2  1)  2 log x 
129. Find  x4
dx (S)

 1  sin x 
e
x
130. Find  dx (S)
 /2  1  cos x 
 /4
sin x cos x
131. Find 
0
cos 4 x  sin 4 x
dx (S)
 /2
cos 2 x
132. Find 
0
cos 2 x  4sin 2 x
dx (S)
 /3
sin x  cos x
133. Find

 /6 sin 2 x
dx (S)
1
dx
134. Find 
0 1 x  x
(S)
 /4
sin x  cos x
135. Find  9  16sin 2 xdx
0
(S)
 /2
 sin 2 x tan
1
136. Find (sin x)dx (S)
0
4
137. Find   x  1  x  2  x  3  dx
1
(S)
3
dx 2 2
138. Prove that  x ( x  1)  3  log 3
1
2
(S)
 xe dx  1
x
139. Prove that (S)
0
 /4
 2 tan xdx  1  log 2

3
140. Prove that (S)
0
77
1


141. Prove that sin 1 xdx 
0
2
1 (S)
e
2 3 x
142. Evaluate dx as a limit of sum. (S)
0
dx
143. Find e x
 e x
(A)
cos 2 x
144. Find  (sin x  cos x) dx 2
(A)
a
145. If f(a+b-x)=f(x), then find  xf ( x)dx
b
(A)
a a
146. Show that  f ( x) g ( x)dx  2 f ( x)dx, if f and g are defined as f(x)=f(a-x) and
0 0
g(x)+g(a-x)=4. (A)
 2x 1 
1
 tan
1
147. Evaluate  2 
dx (S)
0  1 x  x 
FIVE MARKS QUESTION

1 dx
1. Find the integral of
a2  x2
with respect to x and evaluate  2 x  x2
(A)
1 dx
2. Find the integral of with respect to x and evaluate  (A)
a2  x2 9  25x 2
1 dx
a2  x2
with respect to x and evaluate  8  3x  x 2
(A)
1 dx
a2  x2
with respect to x and evaluate  9 x  4x2
(A)
1 dx
a x2 2
with respect to x and evaluate  7  6x  x2
(A)
1 dx
x  a2
2
with respect to x and evaluate x 2
 16
(A)
78
1 dx
7. Find the integral of with respect to x and evaluate  2 (A)
x a
2 2
3x  13x  10
1 dx
x  a2
2
 16
(A)
1 x 2 dx
a2  x2
with respect to x and evaluate  1  x6 (A)
1 sin xdx
a x22
1  4cos 2 x
1 dx
x  a2
2
 6 x  13
(A)
1 dx
x  a2
2
 16
(A)
1 dx
x a22
9x  4
1 dx
x a22
2 x  50
1 3x 2 dx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  x6  1 (A)
1 dx
x  a2
2
 2x  2
(A)
1 dx
x a22
9x  6x  5
1 3xdx
x a22
1  2 x4
1 sin xdx
x a22
1  cos2 x
1 cos xdx
x a22
1  sin 2 x
1 dx
x a22
a cos x  b2 sin 2 x
2
1 dx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  ( x  1)( x  2)
(A)
1 dx
x a2 2
with respect to x and evaluate  ( x  a)( x  b)
(A)
79
1 dx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  5x2  2 x
(A)
1 dx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  1  4x2
(A)
1 x6 dx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  x6  a6
(A)
1 sec2 xdx
x2  a2
with respect to x and evaluate  tan 2 x  4
(A)
1 dx
x a
2 2
with respect to x and evaluate  (2  x)2  1
(A)
1 dx
x a
2 2
with respect to x and evaluate  x  2x  2
2
(A)
30. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with respect to x and evaluate  x2  4 x  1dx (A)
31. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with respect to x and evaluate  x2  3xdx (A)
32. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with respect to x and evaluate  x2  8x  7dx (A)
33. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with respect to x and evaluate  x 2  4 x  6dx (A)
34. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with espect to x and evaluate  x 2  2 x  5dx (A)
x2
35. Find the integral of x 2  a 2 with espect to x and evaluate  1
9
dx (A)
36. Find the integral of a 2  x 2 with espect to x and evaluate  4  x 2 dx (A)
37. Find the integral of a 2  x 2 with espect to x and evaluate  3  2 x  x 2 dx (A)
38. Find the integral of a 2  x 2 with espect to x and evaluate  1  4 x  x 2 dx (A)
39. Find the integral of a 2  x 2 with espect to x and evaluate  1  3x  x 2 dx (A)
40. Find the integral of a 2  x 2 with espect to x and evaluate  1  4 x 2 dx (A)
41. Find the integral of x 1  x  x with respect to x.

2
(A)
42. Find the integral of x x  x with respect to x.

2
(A)
80
43. Find the integral of ( x  1) 2 x 2  3 with respect to x. (A)
44. Find the integral of ( x  3) 3  4 x  x 2 with respect to x. (A)
SIX MARKS QUESTION

a a  /4

1. Prove that f ( x)dx 
0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  log(1  tan x)dx
0 0
(A)
a a  /2
sin x

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate 
0 0 sin x  cos x
dx (A)
a a  /2
sin 3/2 x

0
0 0
sin 3/2 x  cos3/2 x
dx (A)
a a  /2
cos5 x

0
0 0
sin 5 x  cos5 x
dx (A)
a a  /2
sin 4 x

0

0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate 
0
sin 4 x  cos 4 x
dx (A)
a a a
x

0
0 0 x  ax
dx (A)
 /2
sin x  cos x
a a

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  1  sin x cos xdx
0 0
(A)
a a 
x sin x

0

0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  1  cos
0
2
x
dx (A)
a a 
x

0

0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  1  sin x dx
0
(A)
a a  /4

0

0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  log(1  tan x)dx
0
(A)
 /2
 4  3sin x 
a a

0

0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  log  4  3cos x  dx
0
(A)
a a  /2

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  log sin xdx
0 0
(A)
a a 

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  log(1  cos x)dx
0 0
(A)
81
a a  /2

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  (2log sin x  log sin 2 x)dx
0 0
(A)
a a 
x tan x

0
 f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate  sec x  tan x dx
0 0
(A)
a a 
x

0
0
f (a  x)dx and hence evaluate a
0
2
cos x  b2 sin 2 x
2
dx (A)
b b  /3
dx
17. Prove that 
a
f ( x)dx   f (a  b  x)dx and evaluate
a

 1
/6 tan x
. (A)
 a
f ( x)dx   0
 /2
2 f ( x)dx if f(x) is even
a
18. Prove that  hence evaluate  sin 7 xdx . (A)
a 0 if f(x) is odd  /2

 a
f ( x)dx   0
 /4
a
19. Prove that  hence evaluate  sin 2 xdx (A)
a 0 if f(x) is odd 
 /4

 a
f ( x)dx   0
a 1
20.Prove that  hence evaluate  x17 cos 4 xdx . (A)
a 0 if f(x) is odd 1

 a
f ( x)dx   0
a 1
  sin
5
21. Prove that hence evaluate x cos 4 xdx . (A)
a 0 if f(x) is odd 1

 a
f ( x)dx   0
a
22. Prove that  hence evaluate
a 0 if f(x) is odd

 /2


 /2
( x3  x cos x  tan 5 x)dx .
(A)
 a
f ( x)dx   0
 /2
a
23. Prove that  hence evaluate  sin 2 xdx . (A)
a 0 if f(x) is odd  /2

a c b 2
 f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx hence evaluate  x  x dx .

3
24. Prove that (A)
b a c 1
a c b 5
25. Prove that 
b
f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx hence evaluate
a c

5
x  2 dx . (A)
82
a c b 8
26. Prove that  f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx hence evaluate  x  5 dx .
b a c 2
(A)
a c b 4
27. Prove that  f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx hence evaluate  x  1dx
b a c 0
(A)
a c b 3/2
28. Prove that  f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx   f ( x)dx hence evaluate 
b a c 1
x sin( x) dx (S)
 a
f ( x)dx   0
2 f ( x)dx if f(2a-x)=f(x)
2a
29. Prove that  hence evaluate
0 0 if f(2a-x)=-f(x)

∫ (A)
 a
f ( x)dx   0

2 f ( x)dx if f(2a-x)=f(x)
2a
x tan x
30. Prove that  hence evaluate  sec x  tan xdx . (A)
0 0 if f(2a-x)=-f(x) 0

 a
2 f ( x)dx if f(2a-x)=f(x)
2a 
31. Prove that  f ( x)dx   0 hence evaluate  log(1  cos x)dx . (A)
0 0 if f(2a-x)=-f(x) 0

*******************************
83
CHAPTER -08
APPLICATION OF INTEGRALS
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Find the area enclosed by the circle x 2  y 2  a 2 . (A)
x2
y2
2. Find the area enclosed by the ellipse 2  2  1 . (A)
a b
x2 y 2
3. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse   1. (A)
4 9
x2 y 2
4. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse   1. (A)
16 9
x2
y2
5. Find the area bounded by the ellipse 2  2  1 and the ordinates x=0 and x=ae,
a b
where b2  a 2 (1  e2 ) and e<1. (A)
6. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y 2  x and the lines x=1, x=4
and the x-axis in the first quadrant. (A)
7. Find the area of the region bounded by y 2  9 x and the lines x=2, x=4
and the x-axis in the first quadrant. (A)
8. Find the area of the region bounded by x 2  4 y , y=2,y=4 and the y-axis
in the first quadrant. (A)
9. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y=x2 and the line y=4. and the y-axis
in the first quadrant. (A)
10. Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y=x2 and y= x . (S)
a
11. Find the area of the smaller part of the circle x 2  y 2  a 2 cut off by the line x  . (A)
2
12. The area between x = y2 and x=4 is divided into equal parts by the line x=a,
find the value of a. (A)
13. Find the area of region bounded by the curve y2=4x , y-axis and the line x=3. (A).
14. Find the area bounded by the curve x2=4y and the line x=4y-2. (A)
84
15. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2=4x and the line x=3. (A)
16. Find the area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by the circle x 2  y 2  4
and the lines x=0, and x =2.
17. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y  x 2  2, y  x, x  0 and x=3. (A)
18. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2= 4x, y-axis and the line y= 3. (A)
19. Find the area of the parabola y 2  4ax bounded by its latus rectum. (A)
20. Find the smaller area enclosed by the circle x2  y 2  4 and the line x+y=2 . (A)
21. Find the area lying between the curves y 2  4 x and y=2x . (A)
22. Find the area of the region enclosed by the parabola x2=y, the line y=x+2 and the x-axis. (A)
23. Find the area under the given curves and given lines y=x2,x=1,x=2 and x-axis. (A)
24. Find the area under the given curves and given lines y=x4,x=1,x=5 and x-axis. (A)
25. Find the area between the curves y = x and y = x2. (A)
26. Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant and bounded by y=4x2.x=0,y=1 and y=4. (A)
27. Find the area bounded by the curve y=cosx between x=0 and x=2  . (A)
28.Find the area bounded by the curve y=sinx between x=0 and x=2  . (A)

29. Find the area bounded by the y-axis, y= cosx and y=sinx when 0  x  (S)
2
30. Find the area bounded by the curves ( x, y) : y  x 2

and y= x  . (S)
31. Find the area bounded by the curve y=x3, the x-axis and the ordinates x=-2 and x=1. (A)
32. Find the area bounded by the curve y=x x , x axis and ordinates x=-1 and x=1. (A)
0
33.Sketch the graph of y  x  3 and evaluate  x  3 dx .
6
(S)
FIVE MARKS QUESTION

1. Find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the x-axis,
the line y=x, and the circle x 2  y 2  32 . (A)
2. Find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by x-axis, line x= 3y
and the circle x 2  y 2  4 . (A)
3. Find the area lying above x-axis and included between the circle x 2  y 2  8x and
inside of the parabola y 2  4 x . (A)
85
4. Using integration find the area of the region bounded by the triangle whose vertices
are (1, 0), (2,2) and (3,1). (A)
5. Find the area of the region enclosed between the two circles:
x2  y 2  4 and (x-2)2  y 2  4 . (A)
6. Find the area of the circle 4 x 2  4 y 2  9 which is interior to the parabola x2=4y. (A)
7. Find the area bounded by curves ( x  1)2  y 2  1 and x 2  y 2  1 . (A)
8. Using integration find the area of the region bounded by the triangle whose
vertices are (-1, 0), (1,3) and (3,2). (A)
9. Using integration find the area of the triangular whose sides have the equations
y=2x+1, y=3x+1 and x=4. (A)
10. Prove that the curves y 2  4 x and x 2  4 y divide the area of the square by
x=0, x=4, y=4 and y=0 into three equal parts. (A)
11. Find the area of the region ( x, y) : 0  y  x  1,0  x  2 . (A)
12. Find the area enclosed between the parabola y 2  4ax and the line y=mx. (A)
13. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y=3x2 and the line 2y=3x+12. (A)
14. Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse
x2 y 2 x y
  1 and the line   1. (A)
9 4 3 2
x2 y 2 x y
15. Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse 2
 2  1 and the line   1. (A)
a b a b
16. Find the area of the region enclosed by the parabola x2=y, the line y=x+2 and the x-axis. (A)
17. Using the method of integration find the area bounded by the curve x  y  1. (A)
18. Using the method of integration find the area of the triangle ABC, coordinates of
whose vertices are A(2,0),B(4,5) and C(6,3). (A)
19. Using method of integration find the area of the region bounded by line
2x+y=4, 3x-2y=6 and x-3y+5=0 . (A)
 
20. Find the area of the region ( x, y) : y 2  4 x, 4 x 2  4 y 2  9 . (S)
21. Find the area of the circle x2+y2=16 exterior to the parabola y2=6x. (A)
22 Find the area of the region bounded by the two parabolas y=x2 and y2=x. (A)
86
CHAPTER -09
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
TWO MARKS QUESTION

dy
1. Find order and degree of the differential equation  cos x  0 (U)
dx
2
d2y  dy  dy
2. Find order and degree of the differential equation xy 2  x    y 0 (U)
dx  dx  dx
3. Find order and degree of the differential equation y '''  y 2  e y  o

'
(U)
2
 d2y   d3y 
4. Find order and degree of the differential equation  2   sin  3   0 (U)
 dx   dx 
4
 ds 
2
d s
5. Find order and degree of the differential equation    3s 2  0 (U)
 dt  dt
2
 d2y   dy 
6. Find order and degree of the differential equation  2   cos    0 (U)
 dx   dx 
7. Find order and degree of the differential equation y '  5 y  0 (U)
d2y
8. Find order and degree of the differential equation  cos 3x  sin 3x (U)
dx 2
9. Find order and degree of the differential equation  y '''   y ''   y '  y 5  0
2 3 4
(U)
10. Find order and degree of the differential equation y ' y  e x (U)
11. Find order and degree of the differential equation y ''' ( y ')2  2 y  0 (U)
12. Find order and degree of the differential equation y '' 2 y ' sin y  0 (U)
3
 d 2 y   dy 
2
 dy 
13. Find order and degree of the differential equation  2      sin    1  0 (U)
 dx   dx   dx 
 d 2 y   dy 
2
14. Find order and degree of the differential equation 2 x  2 
 3   y  0 (U)
 dx   dx 
87
3 2
 dy   dy 
15. Find order and degree of the differential equation    4    7 y  sin x (U)
 dx   dx 
d4y  d3y 
16. Find order and degree of the differential equation  sin  3 0 (U)
dx 4  dx 
2
d2y  dy 
17. Find order and degree of the differential equation 2  5 x    6 y  log x (U)
dx  dx 
18. Find the number of arbitrary constants in the general solution of differential equation of fourth
order also find the number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of differential
equation of third order.
(U)
dx
19. Find the general solution of a differential equation:  P1 x  Q1 . (U)
dy
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
d 2 y dy
1. Verify that the function y= e3x is a solution of the differential equation   6y  0 (A)
dx 2 dx
2. Verify that the function y= a cosx +b sinx, where a,b  R is a solution of the differential equations
d2y
 y 0. (A)
dx 2
3. Verify that the function y= e x  1 is a solution of the differential equation y '' y '  0 . (A)
4. Verify that the function y  x 2  2 x  c is a solution of the differential equation y'-2x-2=0 . (A)
5. Verify that the function y=cosx+C is a solution of the differential equation y’+sinx=0. (A)
xy
6. Verify that the function y  1  x 2 is a solution of the differential equation y'= . (A)
1  x2
7. Verify that the function y=Ax is a solution of the differential equation xy’=y(x  0 ). (A)
8. Verify that the function y  x sin x is a solution of the differential equation
xy'=y+x x2  y 2 ( x  0 and x>y or x<-y) (A)
9. Verify that the function xy=logy+C is a solution of the differential equation

y2
y'= (xy  1) (A)
1  xy
88
10. Verify that the function y- cosy =x is a solution of the differential equation
(ysiny+cosy+x)y’=y. (A)
11. Verify that the function x+y=tan 1 y is a solution of the differential equation
y2 y '  y 2  1  0 . (A)
12. Verify that the function y= a 2  x 2 x  (-a,a) is a solution of the differential equation
dy
x+y  0( y  0) . (A)
dx
13. Verify that the function y=ae x +be x +x 2 is a solution of the differential equation
d2y dy
x 2
+2 -xy+x 2 -2=0 (A)
dx dx
14. Verify that the function y=e x (acosx+bsinx) is a solution of the differential equation .
d 2 y dy
-2 +2y=0 . (A)
dx 2 dx
15. Verify that the function y=xsin3x is a solution of the differential equation
d2y
 9 y  6cos 3x  0 . (A)
dx 2
16. Verify that the function x 2  2 y 2 log y is a solution of the differential equation
dy
(x 2  y 2 )  xy  0 . (A)
dx
17. Form the differential equation representing the family of curves y=asin(x+b), where a,b are
arbitrary constants.
(A)
18. Form the differential equation representing the family of ellipses having foci on x-axis and centre
at the origin. (A)
19. Form the differential equation of the family of circles touching the x-axis at origin. (A)
20. Form the differential equation representing the family of parabolas having vertex at origin and
axis along positive direction of x-axis. (A)
21. Form the differential equation representing the family of circles touching the y-axis at origin. (A)
22. Form the differential equation representing the family of parabolas having vertex at origin and x-
axis along positive y-axis. (A)
23. Form the differential equation representing the family of ellipses having foci on y-axis and
centre at origin. (A)
89
24. Form the differential equation representing the family of hyperbolas having foci on x-axis and
centre at origin. (A)
25. Form the differential equation representing the family of circles having centre on y-axis and
radius 3 units. (A)
26. Form the differential equation representing the family of curves given by (x-a)2  2y 2  a 2 ,
where a is an arbitrary constant. (A)
27. Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the first quadrant which touch the
coordinate axes. (A)
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
dy x  1
1. Find the general solution of the differential equation  , ( y  2) (A)
dx 2  y
dy 1  y 2
2. Find the general solution of the differential equation  . (A)
dx 1  x 2
3. Find the particular solution of the differential equation
dy
 4 xy 2 given that y=1, when x=0. (A)
dx
4. Find the equation of the curve passing through the point (1, 1) whose differential equation is
xdy  (2 x 2  1)dx( x  0) . (A)
5. Find the equation of a curve passing through the point (-2, 3), given that the slope of the tangent
2x
to the curve at any point (x, y) is . (A)
y2
6. In a bank, principal increases continuously at the rate of 5% per year. In how many years Rs.1000
double itself? (A)
dy 1  cos x
7. Find the general solution of the differential equation  . (A)
dx 1  cos x
dy
8. Find the general solution of the differential equation  4  y 2 (2  y  2) . (A)
dx
dy
9. Find the general solution of the differential equation  y  1( y  1) . (A)
dx
10. Find the general solution of the differential equation sec2 x tan ydx  sec2 y tan xdy  0 . (A)
11. Find the general solution of the differential equation (e x  e x )dy  (e x  e x )dx  0 (A)
90
dy
12. Find the general solution of the differential equation  (1  x 2 )(1  y 2 ) . (A)
dx
13. Find the general solution of the differential equation y log ydx  xdy  0 . (A)
dy
14. Find the general solution of the differential equation x5   y5 . (A)
dx
dy
15. Find the general solution of the differential equation  sin 1 x . (A)
dx
16. Find the general solution of the differential equation
e x tan ydx  (1  e x )sec2 ydy  0 . (A)
dy 1 y2
17. Find the general solution of the differential equation   0. (A)
dx 1  x2
dy
18. Find the general solution of the differential equation  e x y . (A)
dx

dy
( x3  x 2  x  1)  2 x 2  x; y  1 when x=0 . (A)
dx
dy
20. Find the particular solution of the differential equation x(x 2  1)  1; y  0 when x=2 . (A)
dx

 dy 
cos    a(a  R); y  2 when x=0 . (A)
 dx 
dy
22. Find the particular solution of the differential equation  y tan x; y  1 when x=0 . (A)
dx

(1  e2 x )dy  (1  y 2 )e x dx, given that y=1 when x=0 (A)
24. Find the particular solution of the differential equation ( x  y)(dx  dy)  dx  dy given that y=-
1, when x=0. (A)
25. Find the equation of a curve passing through the point(0,0) and whose differential equation is
y '  e x sin x . (A)
91
dy
26. For the differential equation xy  ( x  2)( y  2) , find the solution curve passing through the
dx
point (1,-1). (A)
27. Find the equation of curve passing through the point (0,-2) given that at any point (x,y) on the
curve, the product of the slope of its tangent and y coordinate of the point is equal to the x
coordinate of the point. (A)
28. At any point (x,y) of a curve, the slope of the tangent is twice the slope of the line segment
joining the point of contanct to the point (-4,-3). Find the equation of the curve given that it
passes through (-2,1). (A)
29. The volume of spherical balloon being inflated changes at a constant rate. If initially its radius is
3 units and after 3 seconds it is 6 units. Find the radius of balloon after t seconds. (A)
30. In a bank, principal increases continuously at the rate of r% per year. Find the value of r if Rs.100
if Rs.100 double itself in 10 years(loge2=0.6931). (A)
31. In a bank principal increases continuously at the rate of 5% per year. An amount of Rs.1000 is
deposited with this bank, how much will it worth after 10 years (e0.5=1.648). (A)
32. In a culture, the bacteria count is 1,00,000. The number is increased by 10% in 2 hours. In how
many hours will the count reach 2,00,000, if the rate of growth of bacteria is proportional to the
number present? (A)
dy
33. Show that the differential equation ( x  y )  x  2 y is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
dx
 y  dy  y
34. Show that the differential equation x cos    y cos    x is homogeneous and solve it.
 x  dx x
(S)
x x
35. Show that the differential equation 2 ye dx  ( y  2 xe )dy  0 is homogeneous and find its
y y
particular solution, given that, x=0 when y=1. (S)
36. Show that the family of curves for which the slope of the tangent at any point (x,y) on it is
x2  y 2
, is given by x 2  y 2  cx
2 xy
37. Show that the differential equation ( x2  xy)dy  ( x 2  y 2 )dx is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
x y
38. Show that the differential equation y '  is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
x
39. Show that the differential equation ( x  y)dy  ( x  y)dx  0 is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
92
40. Show that the differential equation ( x2  y 2 )dx  2 xydy  0 is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
dy
41. Show that the differential equation x 2  x 2  2 y 2  xy is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
dx
42. Show that the differential equation xdy  ydx  x 2  y 2 dx is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
43. Show that the differential equation

  y  y    y  y 
 x cos    y sin    ydx   y sin    x cos    xdy is homogeneous and solve it.
 x  x    x  x 
(S)
dy  y
44. Show that the differential equation x  y  x sin    0 is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
dx x
 y
45. Show that the differential equation ydx  x log   dy  2 xdy  0
x
is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
x x
x
46. Show that the differential equation (1  e y )dx  e y (1  )dy  0
y
is homogeneous and solve it. (S)
47. For, (x+y)dy+(x-y)dx=0, find the particular solution satisfying the given condition,
y=1 when x=1. (S)
48. For x 2 dy  ( xy  y 2 )dx , find the particular solution satisfying the given condition,
y=1 when x=1. (S)
  y 
49. For,  x sin 2    y  dx  xdy  0; find the particular solution satisfying the given condition,
 x 
y   / 4 when x=1. (S)
dy y  y
50. For,   cos ec    0; find the particular solution satisfying the given condition, y=0
dx x x
when x=1. (S)
dy
51. For, 2 xy  y 2  2 x 2  0; find the particular solution satisfying the given condition,
dx
y=2 when x=1. (S)
dy
52. Find the general solution of the differential equation  y  cos x . (A)
dx
93
dy
53. Find the general solution of the differential equation x  2 y  x 2 ( x  0) . (A)
dx
54. Find the general solution of the differential equation ydx  ( x  2 y 2 )dy  0 . (A)
dy
55. Find the general solution of the differential equation  2 y  sin x . (A)
dx
dy
56. Find the general solution of the differential equation  3 y  e2 x . (A)
dx
dy y
57. Find the general solution of the differential equation   x2 . (A)
dx x
dy
58. Find the general solution of the differential equation  (sec x) y  tan x(0  x   / 2) . (A)
dx
dy
59. Find the general solution of the differential equation cos 2 x  y  tan x(0  x   / 2) . (A)
dx
dy
60. Find the general solution of the differential equation x  2 y  x 2 log x . (A)
dx
dy 2
61. Find the general solution of the differential equation x log x  y  log x . (A)
dx x
62. Find the general solution of the differential equation (1  x2 )dy  2 xydx  cot xdx( x  0) . (A)
dy
63. Find the general solution of the differential equation x  y  x  xy cot x  0( x  0) . (A)
dx
dy
64. Find the general solution of the differential equation ( x  y ) 1. (A)
dx
65. Find the general solution of the differential equation ydx  ( x  y 2 )dy  0 . (A)
dy
66. Find the general solution of the differential equation ( x  3 y 2 )  y ( y  0) . (A)
dx
dy
67. For,  2 y tan x  sin x , find the particular solution satisfying the given condition y=0 when
dx

x= . (A)
3
dy 1
68. For, (1  x 2 )  2 xy  , find the particular solution satisfying the given condition y=0
dx 1  x2
when x=1. (A)
94
dy
69. For,  3 y cot x  sin 2 x find the particular solution satisfying the given condition y=2 when
dx

x= . (A)
2
70. Find the equation of a curve passing through the origin given that the slope of the tangent to the
curve at any point (x,y) is equal to the sum of the coordinates of the point. (S)
71. Find the equation of a curve passing through the point (0,2) given that the sum of the
coordinates of any point on the curve exceeds the magnitude of the slope of the tangent to the
curve at that point by 5. (S)
dy
72. Find the general solution of the differential equation x  y  2x2 . (A)
dx
dx
73. Find the general solution of the differential equation (1  y 2 )  yx  ay(1  y  1) . (A)
dy
74. Verify that the function y  c1eax cos bx  c2eax sin bx, where c1 , c2 are arbitrary constants is a
d2y dy
solution of the differential equation: 2
 2a  ( a 2  b 2 ) y  0 . (S)
dx dx
75. Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the second quadrant and touching the
coordinate axes. (S)
 dy 
76. Find the particular solution of the differential equation: log    3x  4 y given that y=0
 dx 
when x=0. (S)
 y  y
77. Solve the differential equation: ( xdy  ydx) y sin    ( ydx  xdy ) x cos   . (S)
x  x
78. Solve the differential equation: (tan 1 y  x)dy  (1  y 2 )dx . (S)
79. Prove that x 2  y 2  c( x 2  y 2 )2 is the general solution of differential equation

(x3  3xy 2 )dx  ( y3  3x2 y)dy , where c is parameter. (S)
dy y 2  y  1
80. Show that the general solution of the differential equation   0 is given by
dx x 2  x  1
(x+y+1)=A(1-x-y-2xy), where A is parameter. (S)
 
81. Find the equation of the curve passing through the point  0,  whose differential equation is
 4
sinxcosydx+cosxsinydy=0. (S)
95
82. Find the particular solution of the differential equaton: (1  e2 x )dy  (1  y 2 )e x dx  0 given that
y=1 when x=0. (S)
x x
83. Solve the differential equation: ye dx  ( xe  y 2 )dy ( y  0) .

y y
(S)
84. Find a particular solution of the differential equation (x-y)(dx+dy)=dx-dy, given that y=-1,
when x=0. (S)
 e2 x
y  dx
85. Solve the differential equation :     1( x  0) . (S)
 x x  dy
86. Find a particular solution of the differential equation :

dy 
 y cot x  4 x cos ecx( x  0), given that y=0 when x= . (S)
dx 2
dy
87. Find a particular solution of the differential equation ( x  1)  2e y  1, given that y=0
dx
when x=0. (S)
88. The population of a village increases continuously at the rate proportional to the number of its
inhabitants present at any time. If the population of the village was 20,000 in 1999 and 25000 in
the year 2004, what will be the population of the village in 2009? (S)
ydx  xdy
89. Find the general solution of the differential equation: 0. (A)
y
90. Find the general solution of the differential equation: e x dy  ( ye x  2 x)dx  0 . (A)
96
CHAPTER-10
Vector algebra
One mark problem
1.Find the magnitude of the vector ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂. [K]

√ √ √
4.Define collinear vectors. [K]

5.Define negative of a vector. [K]
6.Define a unit vector. [K]
7.Define a null vector. [K]
8.Define cointial vector. [K]
9.Define position vector of a point. [K]
10.When the two vectors are said to be equal. [K]
11.Write two different vectors having same magnitude. [U]
12.Write two different vectors having same direction. [U]
13.Find the values of x and y so that the vectors ̂ ̂ and ̂ ̂ are equal. [K]
14.Find the unit vector in the direction of the ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ [U]
15.Find the unit vector in the direction of the ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ [U]
16.If ⃗ is a non zero vector of magnitude a and ⃗ is a unit vector ,find the value of [K]
17.For what value of , the vectors ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ are perpendicular to each
other? [U]
18.For what value of , is the vector ̂ ̂ ̂ a unit vector? [U]
19. Find the value of for which ( ̂ ̂ ̂ ) is a unit vector. [U]

20.Show that the vectors ̂ ̂ ̂ and ̂ ̂ ̂ are collinear. [U]
21.If ̂ ̂ ̂ and ̂ ̂ ̂ are collinear then find a. [U]
22. Write the vector joining the points A(2,3,0) and B(-1,-2,-4). [U]
23. Find the angle between two vectors ⃗ and ⃗⃗ with magnitude √ and 2 respectively and
⃗ . ⃗⃗ √ . [U]
24.If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ are two equal vectors,then write the value of x+y+z.[U]
25.Find the direction cosines of the vector ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂. [U]

26.Write the scalar components of the vector joining the points ( ) and
97
( ). [K]
27. If vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ , find the position vector OA . [U]
28. Find the scalar components of vector with initial point (2,1) and terminal point (7,5) .
29.Find the unit vector in the direction of a + b, where a = 2i - j + 2k and b = -i + j -k . [U]
30.Find the position vector of a point R which divides the line joining two points P and Q whose
position vectors are i + 2j -k and -i + j + k respectively, in the ratio 2 : 1 internally. [U]
31.Find the position vector of the mid point of the vector joining the points P (2, 3, 4) and
Q (4, 1, 2). [U]
32.Show that (a - b)×(a + b) = 2(a ×b) [U]
33.Show that the vector i + j + k is equally inclined to the axes OX , OY and OZ. [U]
Two mark problems:

1.Find the angle between the vectors i - 2j + 3k and 3i - 2j +k . [U]
2.Find angle between the vectors a = i + j -k and b = i + j +k . [U]
3.If a = 5i - j - 3k and b = i + 3j - 5k, then show that the vectors a + b and a - b are perpendicular.
[U]
4.Find the magnitude of two vectors a and b, having the same magnitude and such that the angle
1
between them is 60 and their scalar product is . [U]
2
5.Find |x|, if for a unit vector a, (x - a).(x + a) = 12 [U]
6. If a  b  a  b , prove that a and b, are perpendicular. [U]
7. Find |b|, if (a + b).(a - b) = 8 and |a|= 8|b|.
[U]
8.Find the projection of the vector i + 3j + 7k on the vector 7i - j + 8k .
[U]
9.Find the projection of the vector a = 2i + 3j + 2k on the vector b = i + 2j +k .
[U]
10.If two vectors a and b such that |a|= 2, |b|= 3 and a.b = 4, find |a - b|.
[U]
11.If a = 4i + 3j +k and b = i - 2k, then find |2b × a|
[U]
12.Find the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are determined by the vectors a = i - j + 3k
and b = 2i - 7j +k .
[U]
13.Find the area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are given by the vectors a = 3i + j + 4k and
b = i - j +k .[U]
98
14.Find the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides determine by the vectors a = i + j -k and
b = i - j +k .[U]
15.Find the area of the triangle whose adjacent sides are determined by the vectors a = -2i - 5k and
b = i - 2j -k .[U]
2
16.Let the vectors a and b be such that |a|= 3, |b|= and a × b is a unit vector.Find the angle
3
between a and b
[U]
17.Find  and , if (2i + 6j + 27k)×(i + λj +μk) = 0 .
[U]
18.If a . a =0 and a.b =0, then what can be concluded about the vector b ?
[U]
19. Show that the points A(-2,3,5), B(1,2,3) and C(7,0, -1) are collinear.
[U]
20. Show that the points A(1,2,7), B(2,6,3) and C(3,10, -1) are collinear.
[U]
21.Show that |a| b + |b| a is perpendicular to|a| b - |b| a ,for any two nonzero vectors a and b .
[U]
22.If either vector a =0 or b =0 ,then a . b =0.But the converse need not be true.Justify your answer
with an example.
[U]
23.Find |a × b|, if a = i  7j + 7k and b = 3i - 2j + 2k
[U]
24.Find the area of the triangle with vertices A(1,1,2), B(2,3,5) and C(1,5, 5)
[U]
25.The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 2i - 4j + 5k and i - 2j  3k .Find the unit vector
parallel to its diagonal.
[U]
26.Find the volume of the parallelepiped whose coterminous edges are represented by the vectors
a = i - 2j + 3k, b = -2iˆ + 3j - 4k and c = i - 3j + 5k .
[U]
27.Find the projection of a on b if a . b =8 and b = 2iˆ + 6j  3k

[U]
Three mark problems:
1.Show that the position vector of the point P, which divides the line joining the points A and B
mb + na
having the position vectors a and b internally in the ratio m : n is .
m+n
[A]
2.Find a unit vector perpendicular to each of the vectors a + b and a - b , where a = i + j +k,
b = i + 2j + 3k . [U]
99
3.Find , if the vectors a = i + 3j +k, b = 2i - j -k and c = λi + 7j + 3k are coplanar.
[U]
4.Show that the four points A, B, C and D with position vectors 4i + 5j +k, -j -k, 3i + 9j + 4k and
4(-i + j +k) respectively are coplanar.
[U]
5.Find , such that the four points A (3, 2, 1), B (4, , 5), C (4, 2, 2) and D (6, 5, 1) are coplanar.
[U]
ˆ ˆ ˆ
6.Show that the four points with position vectors 4i  8 j  12k , 2i  4 j  6k , 3i  5 j  4k and
5i  8 j  5kˆ are coplanar.
[U]
7.Prove that [a b c + d] = [a b c]+[a b d]
[U]
8.Prove that [a + b b + c c + a] = 2[a b c]
[U]
9.Show that the vectors a, b and c are coplanar if a - b, b - c and c - a are coplanar.
[U]
10.If a,b, c are unit vectors such that a + b + c = 0, find the value of a  b  b  c  c  a .
[U]
11.Show that the points A  2iˆ  ˆj  k

ˆ  B  î  3ˆj  5k
, ˆ
and C  3iˆ  4ˆj  4k
ˆ
are the vertices of a
right angled triangle

[U]
12.If the vertices A, B and C of a triangle are 1,2,3 ,  1,0,0  and  0,1,2 respectively,then find
the ABC .[U]
13. Three vectors ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗ satisfy the condition a + b + c = 0, . Evaluate the quantity ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
⃗ ⃗⃗ , if | ⃗⃗| |⃗ | | ⃗|
[U]
14. Find the vector of magnitude 5 units and parallel to the resultant of the vectors
⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂
[U]
15. If ⃗ , ⃗⃗ & ⃗ are three vectors such that | ⃗| , | ⃗⃗| , | ⃗| & each vector is
orthogonal to sum of the other two vectors then find | ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗|.
[U]
16.If ̂ ̂ ̂, ̂ ̂, ̂ ̂ ̂& ̂ ̂ ̂ are the position vectors of points A,B,C
& D respectively then find the cosine angle between ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ & ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ .
[U]
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17.If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ , ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ & ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ such that ⃗ is perpendicular to
( ⃗⃗ ⃗) then find .
[U]
18.The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are ̂ ̂ ̂, ̂ ̂ ̂ then find the
unit vector parallel to its diagonal.Also find area of the parallelogram.
[U]
19.The scalar product of the vector ̂ ̂ ̂ with a unit vector along the sum of vectors
̂ ̂ ̂ & ̂ ̂ ̂ is equal to one. Find the value of [U]
20. If ̂ ̂ ̂ are mutually perpendicular unit vectors , ⃗ ̂ ̂, ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ , then
express ⃗ in the form ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ where ⃗ is parallel to ⃗ and ⃗ is perpendicular to ⃗.

[U]
21.If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ , ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ & ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ then find the unit vector
perpendicular to both ⃗ ⃗⃗ & ⃗⃗ ⃗. [U]

22. If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ , ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂&⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ then find a vector ⃗ which is
perpendicular to both ⃗ & ⃗⃗ and ⃗ ⃗ . [U]

23.If ⃗, ⃗⃗ & ⃗ are mutually perpendicular vectors of equal magnitudes then prove that the
vector ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ is equally inclined to ⃗, ⃗⃗ & ⃗ . [U]
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CHAPTER-11
THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. If a line makes the angles 900 ,600 and 300 with the positive directions of x ,z and z-axes
respectively, find its direction cosines. (U)
2. If a line makes angles 900,1350 and 450 with the positive direction of x, y and z-axes
respectively ,find its direction cosines. (U)
3. If a line has direction ratios 2,-1,-2 , determine its direction cosines. (U)
4. If a line has direction ratios -18,12,-4 then what are its direction ratios. (U)
5. Find the direction cosines of the line passing through two points (-2,4,-5) and (1,2,3). (U)
6. Find the direction ratios of the line = 3y = . (U)
7. The cartesian equation of a line is = = . Write its Vector form. (U)
8. Find direction cosines of x-axis. (K)
9. Find direction cosines of y-axis. (K)
10. Find direction cosines of z-axis. (K)
11. Find the direction cosines of the line which makes equal angles with coordinate axis. (U)
12. Find the direction cosines of the line passing through two points (-2,4,-5) and (1,2,3). (U)
13. Find the distance of the plane 2x-3y+4z=5 from the origin. (U)
14. Find the distance of the plane z=2 from the origin. (U)
15. Find the direction cosines of the normal to the plane x + y + z =1.(U)
16. Find the direction cosines of the normal to the plane 5y+8 = 0.(U)
17. Find the cartesian equation of the plane .(i+j+k)=2. (U)
18. Find intercept cut off the plane 2x+y-z=5. (U)
19. Find the equation of the plane with intercept 4 on z -axiz and parallel to XOY plane. (U)
20. Find equation of the plane cuts coordinate axis at (a,0,0) ,(0,b,0),(0,0,c). (U)
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21. Find the vector equation of the plane passing through the point (1,0,-2) and normal to the
plane ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ (U)
22. Find cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (1,4,6) and normal to the
vector ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ (U)
23. Find vector equation of the plane passing through the point(1,2,3) and perpendicular to the
vector ⃗ (⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) (U)
24. Find the cartesian equation of the plane ⃗ ( ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) (U)
25. Show that the planes 2x+y+3z-2=0 and x-2y+5=0 are perpendicular. (U)
26. Show that the planes 2x-y+3z-1=0 and 2x-y+3z+3=0 are parallel. (U)
27. Find the equation of the line in vector form which passes through (1,2,3) and parallel to the
vector ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ (U)
28. Define skew lines. (K)
29. Find the distance between the 2 planes 2x+3y+4z=4 and 4x+6y+8z=12. (U)
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
1. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1,2,3) and parallel to the
vector ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ,both are in vector and cartesian form. (U)
2. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the points (3,-2,-5) and (3,-2,6). (U)
3. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the points (-1,0,2) and (3,4,6). (U)
4. Find the angle between the lines ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗+λ(⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) and
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ( ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) (U)
5. Find the angle between the lines and . (U)
6. Show that the line passes through the points (4,7,8) , (2,3,4) is parallel to the line passing
through the points (-1,2,1) and (1,2,5). (U)
7. Find the vector equation of the plane which is at a distance 7 units from the origin and
which is normal to the vector ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ (U)
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8. Find the vector equation of the plane which is at a distance of units from the origin and
√
its normal vector from the origin is ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ (U)
9. Find the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 3x-y+2z-
4=0 and x+y-z-2 =0 and the point (2,2,1). (U)
10. Show that the points (2,3,4) ,(-1,-2,1) and (5,8,7) are collinear. (U)
11. Show that the line through the points (1,-1,2) ,(3,4,-2) is perpendicular to the line through
the points (0,3,2) and (3,5,6). (U)
12. Find the distance of the point (3,-2,1) from the plane 2x-y+2z-3=0. (U)
13. Find the distance of the point (2,5,-7) from the plane ⃗ ( ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) (U)
14. Find the angle betweens the planes 3x-6y+2z=7 and 2x+2y-2z=5. (U)
15. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the points (-1,0,2) and (3,4,6). (U)
16. Find the vector and cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (1,0,-2) and
normal to the plane is i+j-k. (U)
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:
1. Find the shortest between the lines l1 and l2 whose vector equations are
⃗ ( )and ⃗ ( ). (U)
2. Find distance between the lines l1 and l2 given by ⃗ ( )and
⃗ ( ) (U)
3. Find shortest distance between the lines and (U)
4. Find the value of p,so that the lines and are at right
angles. (U)
5. Find the vector and cartesian equation of the line passing through the point (3,-2,-5) and
(3,-2,6). (U)
6. Find the vector equation of the plane passing through the three points (1,-1,-1) ,(6,4,-5) and
(-2,2,-1) . (U)
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7. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1,2,3) and is parallel to the
vector 3i+2j-2k both in vector and cartesian form. (U)
8. Find the direction cosines of unit vector perpendicular to the plane

⃗( ⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) passing through origin. (U)
9. Find vector equation of the plane passing through the intersections of the planes
3x-y+2z-4=0 and x+y+z+2=0 and the point (2,2,1). (U)
10. Find vector equation of the plane passing through the intersections of the planes
x+y+z=1 and 2x+3y+4z=5 which is perpendicular to the plane x-y+z=0 . (U)
11. Find distance between the point P(6,5,9) and the plane determined by the points A(3,-1,2) ,
B(5,2,4) and C(-1,-1,6). (U)
12. Show that the lines and are co-planar. (U)
13. Find the coordinates of foot of perpendicular drawn from the origin to the plane
2x-3y+4z-6=0. (U)
14. Find the angle between the planes 2x+y-2z=5 and 3x-6y-2z=7 using vector method. (U)
15. Find the angle between the planes 3x-6y+2z=7 and 2x+2y-2z=5 using cartesian form. (U)
16. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points A(3,4,1) and B(5,1,6)
crosses x-y plane. (U)
17. Find equation of the plane passing through the point (-1,3,2) and perpendicular to each of
the planes x+2y+3z=5 and 3x+3y+z=0 . (U)
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Derive the equation of the line in space passing through the point and parallel to the vector
both in the vector form and cartesian form. (U)
2. Derive the equation of the line in space passing through two given points both in vector and
cartesian form. (U)
3. Derive the angle between two lines in vector and cartesian form. (U)
4. Derive the shortest distance between skew lines both in vector and cartesian form. (A)
5. Derive the distance between the parallel lines ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ( ⃗⃗)and ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ( ⃗⃗). (U)
6. Derive the equation of the plane in normal form (both in vector and cartesian form). (U)
105
7. Derive the equation of the plane perpendicular to the given vector and passing through a
given point both in cartesian and vector form. (U)
8. Derive equation of a plane passing through three non-collinear with position vectors
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗(both in vector and cartesian form). (U)
9. Derive equation of the plane passing through the intersection of two given planes both in
vector and cartesian form.(U)
10. Derive the condition for the co-planarity of two lines in space both in vector and cartesian
form. (U)
11. Derive the formula to find distance of a point from a plane both in vector and cartesian
form. (U)
106
CHAPTER -12
Linear programming
One mark questions:
1) Define linear programming problem
2) Define an objective function of a LPP
3) Define a constraints of a LPP
4) Define a feasible region of a LPP
5) Define a feasible solution of a LPP
6) Define a infeasible solution of a LPP
7) In a LPP, if the feasible region is bounded, with corner points. Where does the
optimum value of LPP exists.
8) Define optimal )feasible) solution of a LPP
9) If he corner points of the feahble rigion determined by the linear constrants of LPP
are (0.5), (4, 3), (0, 6) then find the minimum value of the objective function Z =
200x + 500y
10) If the corner points of the feasible region determined by the linear constrants of a
LPP are (0, 0) (30,0) (20, 30) and (0, 50) find the maximum value of the objective
function Z = 4x + y
Six mark questions

1, Solve the following linear programming problems graphically
1) Maximize z=3x+4y subject to x + y
2) Maximize subject to
3) Maximize and minimize : subject to
4) Maximize and minimize : subject to
107
1) Reshma wishes to mix two types of food P and Q in such a way that the vitamin contents
of the mixture contain at least 8 units of vitamin A and 11 units of vitamin B. Food P
costs Rs 60/kg and Food Q costs Rs 80/kg. Food P contains 3 units/kg of Vitamin A and 5
units / kg of Vitamin B while food Q contains 4 units / kg of Vitamin A and 2 units / kg
of vitamin B. Determine the minimum cost of the mixture.
2) One kind of cake requires 200g of flour and 25g of fat, and another kind of cake requires
100g of flour and 50g of fat. Find the maximum number of cakes which can be made
from 5kg of flour and 1 kg of fat assuming that there is no shortage of the other
ingredients used in making the cakes.
3) A factory makes tennis rackets and cricket bats. A tennis racket takes 1.5 hours of
machine time and 3 hours of craftman’s time in its making while a cricket bat takes 3
hours of machine time and 1 hour of craftman’s time. In a day, the factory has the
availability of not more than 42 hours of machine time and 24 hours of craftsman’s time.
 What number of rackets and bats must be made if the factory is to work at full
capacity?
 If the profit on a racket and on a bat is Rs 20 and Rs 10 respectively, find the

maximum profit of the factory when it works at full capacity.
4) A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It takes 1 hour of work on machine A and 3
hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts. It takes 3 hours on machine A and 1
hour on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of Rs 17.50 per
package on nuts and Rs 7.00 per package on bolts. How many packages of each should be
produced each day so as to maximize his profit, if he operates his machines for at the
most 12 hours a day ?
5) A factory manufactures two types of screws, A and B. Each type of screw requires the
use of two machines, an automatic and a hand operated. It takes 4 minutes on the
automatic and 6 minutes on hand operated machines to manufacture of package of screws
A, while it takes 6 minutes on automatic and 3 minutes on the hand operated machines to
manufacture a package of screws B. Each machine is available for at the most 4 hours on
any day. The manufacturer can sell a package of screws A at a profit of Rs 7 and screws
B at a profit of Rs 10. Assuming that he can sell all the screws he manufactures, how
many packages of each type should the factory owner produce in a day in order to
maximize his profit? Determine the maximum profit.
108
6) A cottage industry manufactures pedestal lamps and wooden Shades, each requiring the
use of a grinding / cutting machine and a sprayer. It takes 2 hours on grinding / cutting
machine and 3 hours on the sprayer to manufacture a pedestal lamp. It takes 1 hour on the
grinding / cutting machine and 2 hours on the sprayer to manufacture a shade. On any
day, the sprayer is available for at the most 20 hours and the grinding / cutting machine
for at the most 12 hours. The profit from the sale of a lamp is Rs 5 and that from a shade
is Rs 3. Assuming that the manufacturer can sell all the lamps and shades that he
produces, how should he schedule his daily production in order to maximize his profit ?
7) A company manufactures two types of novelty souvenirs made of plywood. Sourvenirs of

type A require 5 minutes each for cutting and 10 minutes each for assembling. Souvenirs
of type B require 8 minutes each for cutting and 8 minutes each for assembling. There are
3 hours 20 minutes available for cutting and 4 hours for assembling. The profit is Rs 5
each for type A and Rs 6 each for type B souvenirs. How many souvenirs of each type
should the company manufacture in order to maximize the profit?
8) A merchant plants to sell two types of personal computers – a desktop model and a
portable model that will cost Rs 25,000 and Rs 40,000 respectively. He estimates that the
total monthly demand of computers will not exceed 250 units. Determine the number of
units of each type of computers which the merchant should slock to get manimum profit
if he does not want to invest more than Rs 70 lakhs and if his profit on the desktop model
is Rs 4,500 and on portable model is Rs 5000.
9) There are two types of fertilizers F1 and F2, F1 consists of 10% nitrogen and 6%
phosphoric acid and F2 consists of 5% nitrogen and 10% phosphoric acid. After testing
the soil conditions, a farmer finds that she needs atlesast 14 kg of nitrogen and 14 kg of
phosphoric acid for her crop. If F1 costs Rs 6/kg and F2 costs Rs 5/kg. determine how
much of each type of fertilizer should be used so that nutrient requirements are met at a
minimum cost. What is the minimum cost ?
10) (Diet problem) : A dietician has to develop a special diet using two foods P & Q. each
packet (containing 30g) of food P contains 12 units of calcium, 4 units of iron 6 units of
cholesterol and 6 units of vitamin A. each packet of the same quantity of food Q contains
Z unit of calcium, 20 units of iron, 4 units of chaleshol and Z units of vitamin A. the diet
requires atleast 240 units of calcium, at least 460 units of iron and atmost 300 units of
109
cholesterol. How many packets of each food should be used to minimize the amount of
vitamin A in the diet ?That is the minimum amount of vitamin A.
11) Manufacturing problem : A manufacturing company makes two models A and B of a

product. Each piece of model A requires 9 labour hour for fabricating and 1 labour hour
for funishing. Each piece of model B requires 12 labour hours for fabricating and 3 labour
hour for finishing. For fabricating and finishing, the maximum labour house available are
180 and 30 respectively. The company makes a profit of Rs 8,000 on each piece of model
A & Rs 12,000 on each piece of model B. how many pieces of model A & B should be
manufactured in a week to realize maximum profit. What is maximum profit per week.
12) (allocation problem) : A cooperative society of farmers has 50 hectares of land to grow
two crops X and Y. the profit from the crops X & Y per hectare are estimated as Rs
10,500 and Rs 9,000 respectively to control weeds, a liquid herbicide has to be used for
crops X and Y at rates of 20 litres and 10 litres per hectare. Further no more than 800
litres of herbiade should be used in order to protect fish and wild life using a pond which
collects rinage from this land. How much land should be allocated each crop so as to
maximize the total profit of the society.
110
CHAPTER-13
PROBABILITY
1 mark questions
1) If ( ) ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (U)
2) If ( ) ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (U)
3) If ( ) ( ) then find ( | ) (U)
4) If ( ) ( ) then find ( | ) if exists. (K)
5) If P(A) = 0 and P(B) = ½, then find P(A ) if exists. (U)
6) If A and B are two events such that P(A) . Find P(B/A) , if A is a sub set of B. (U)
7) If ( ) ( ) ( | ) then find ( ). (U)
8) If ( ) ( ) ( | ) then find ( ). (U)
9) If A and B are two events such that P(A) . Find P(B/A) ,if .(K)
10) If P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.4 find P(A ), if A and B are mutually exclusive events. (K)
11) If ( ) ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (U)
12) If ( ) ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (K)
13) If P(A) = and P(B/A) = , then find P(A ). (U)
14) If A and B are two events such that P(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) .Find P(A/B) . (U)
15) If ( | ) ( | ) ( ) ( ). (K)
16) If A is a subset of B then prove that ( | ) . (K)
17) If ( ) , prove that ( | ) . ( )
18) Define independent events. ( )
19) If P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.4 find P(A ), if A and B are independent events. (U)
20) Given that the event A and B are such that P(A)= , P(A B) = and P(B) = k, find k if A and B are
independent. (U)
21) If ( ) ( ) then find ( ) if A & B are independent events. (U)
22) Let E and F be two events such that ( ) ( ) ( ) Are E and F independent
events. (U)
23) If A and B are independent events with ( ) ( ) then find ( ). (U)
24) If A and B are independent events such that ( ) ( ) find P(A and B). (U)
25) If A and B are independent events such that ( ) ( ) find P(A and not B). (U)
26) If A and B are independent events with ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (U)
27) Define Theorem of total probability. (K)
28) An urn contains 5 red and 2 black balls, two balls are randomly selected. Let x represents
the number of black balls. What are the possible values of x. (K)
29) An urn contains 4 green and 2 black balls. Two balls are randomly selected. Let X represents the
number of black balls, what are the possible values of X? (K)
111
30) If x represent the difference between the number of heads and number of tails obtained when a
coin is tossed six times, , what are the possible values of X? (K)
31) If X denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two fair dice are rolled. What are possible values
of X. (K)
32) A coin is tossed 3 times let x represents the number of tails. What are the possible value of x. (K)
33) Probability distribution of x is
X 0 1 2 3 4
P(X) 0 k 2k 2k k
Where k is constant ,then find k. (U)

34) Probability distribution of x is
X 0 1 2 3 4
P PP(X) 0.1 k 2k 2k k
Find k. (U)
35) The random variable has a probability distribution P (x) has following form where k is
constant. ( ) { Find value of k. (U)
36) Is the given distribution of X is a Probability distribution of random variable X.

XXX 0 1 2 3 4
PP(P(X) 0.1 0.5 0.2 0.1 0.3
(U)
37)Give the reason for the following distribution of X is not a Probability distribution of random variable
X.
0 1 2 3 4
P( ) 0.1 0.5 0.2 -0.1 0.3
(U)
Two mark questions

1. If ( ) ( ) ( | ) then find ( ). (U)
2. Prove that ( | ) ( | ) (U)
3. If A and B are independent events with ( ) ( ) then find ( ) (U)
4. If ( ) ( ) ( ) then find ( | ). (U)
5. A and B are an events such that ( ) ( ) ( )
then find q if A and B are independent. (U)
6. Let A and B are two events such that ( ) ( | )
( | ) then find ( ) (U)
7. A fair die is rolled consider an events * + * + then find ( | ) (K)
112
8. A fair die is rolled. Consider events E ={ 1,3,5 } and F = {2,3,5} , find P(F/E). (K)
9. A couple has two children. Find the probability that both children are males if it is known that at
least one of the children is male. (K)
10. Mother, Father and son line up at random for a family picture , find P(E/F).If E: son on one end, F:
father in middle. (K)
11. Consider an experiment of tossing two fair coins simultaneously. Find the probability that both are
heads. Given that at least one of them is head. (K)
12. A couple has 2 children find the probability that both are female if it is known that elder child is
female. (K)
13. Given that the 2 number appear in on throwing two dices are different. Find the probability of an
event the sum of the number is 4. (K)
14. Find the conditional probability of obtaining the sum 8 given that the red die resulted is a number
less than 4. (K)
15. In a hostel 60% of students read Hindi newspaper, 40% of students read English newspaper and 20%
read both Hindi and English newspapers. A student is selected at random then, If she reads Hindi
newspaper find the probability that she also reads English newspapers. (K)
16. A coin is tossed 3 times then find ( | ), where E : Head on third toss and F : Head on first two
tosses .(U)
17. A coin is tossed 3 times then find ( | ),where E :at least two heads and F : at most two heads.(U)
18. A black and red dice are rolled. Find the conditional probability of obtaining the sum greater than 9.
Given that black die resulted as 5. (U)
19. A black and red dice are rolled. Find the conditional probability of obtaining the sum greater than 9.
Given that black die resulted as 5. (U)
20. If A and B are independent events, then prove that A and B’ are also independent. (K)
21. If A and B are independent events, then prove that A’ and B are also independent. (K)
22. If A and B are independent events, then prove that A’ and B’ are also independent. (K)
23. If A and B are two independent events then prove that the probability of occurrence of at least one
of A and B is given by ( ) ( ). (K)
24. If ( ) ( ) ( ) then state whereas A or B are independent. (U)
25. If A and B are two events such that ( ) ( ) Then ( ) then
Find P(not A and not B) . (U)
26. Find the probability of getting even prime number on each die, when a pair of dice is rolled. (U)
27. Two cards are drawn random without replacement from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the
probability that both are black cards. (U)
28. Two cards are drawn successfully with replacement from a pack 52 cards find the probability
distribution of number of ace cards. (U)
29. A Urn contains 10 black and 5 white balls, 2 balls are drawn one after the other without
replacement. What is the probability that both drawn balls are black. (U)
30. Three cards drawn successively without replacement from a pack of 52 well shuffled cards. What is
the probability that 1st two cards are king and 3rd card drawn is ace. (U)
31. Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a box containing 10 black and 8 red balls find
the probability that both are red. (U)
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32. Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a box containing 10 black and 8 red balls find
the probability that 1st ball is black and second is red. (U)
33. A die is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at least once. (U)
34. Probability of solving specific problem independently by A and B are and respectively. If both try
to solve the problem independently. Find the probability that the problem is solved. (U)
35. Find the probability distribution of number of heads in two tosses of a coin. (K)
36. . Find the probability distribution of number of tails in three tosses of a coin. (K)
37. Find the probability distribution number of success in 2 tosses of die where success is defined as
number > 4. (K)
38. Probability distribution of X is
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P(X) 0
Find i) k ii) P(X<3) . (K)

39. The probability distribution of the random variable X is given
0 1 2 3
P( ) 1/8 3/8 3/8 1/8
Find E(X). (K)

40. If P( ) = ½ , P( )= ½ and P( )= ½, P( )= ¼ . Find P( ). (K)
41. If E(X) = and E( ) ,find the standard deviation of X. (K)
42. If Var (X) = 9 and E( ) , find E(X). (K)
43. The probability distribution of X is ,
X 0.5 1 1.5 2
K
P(X)
Find the mean of X. (K)
Three mark questions.

1. A die is thrown twice and sum of the numbers appeared is observed to be six.
What is the conditional probability that the number 4 has appeared at least once. (U)
2. A die is thrown 3 times events A and B are defined as follows. Event A : 4 on first throw and Event B :
6 and 5 on second and third throw. Find the probability of ‘A’ given that ‘B’ has already occurred. (U)
3. A pair of die are thrown, an event A and B are as follows, A : the sum of 2 numbers on the die
is 8 and B : there is an even number on the first die. Find the conditional probability ( | ).
(U)
114
4. 10 cards numbered from 1 to 10 are placed in a box mix up thoroughly and 1 card is drawn
random, if it is known that the number on the drawn card is more than 3. What is the
probability that it is an even number. (U)
5. An instructor has question bank consisting of 300 easy true/false questions, 200 difficult
true/false questions, 500 easy multiple choice questions and use 400 difficult MCQ’s. If a
question is selected at random from the question bank. What is the probability that it will
be a easy question given that it’s a MCQ. (U)
6. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find where events E
and F are independent. E : the card drawn is a spade and F: the card drawn is an ace.(U)
7. A die is marked 1,2,3 in red and 4,5,6 in green is tossed. Let ‘A’ be an event that ‘the number
is even’ and B be an event that ‘the number is red. Are A and B independent.
8. An unbiased dies is thrown twice, let A be an event ‘odd number on the first thrown’ let ‘B’
be an event odd number on the 2nd thrown check the independence of the events A and B .
(U)
9. A die is thrown, if E bean event, the number appearing is a multiple of 3 and F be an event
the number appearing is even, then find whether E and F are independent. (U)
10. A bag contains 4 red and 4 black balls, another bag contains 2 red and 6 black balls. One of
the two bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from the bag. What is the probability
that the ball is red. (U)
11. An urn contains 5 red and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random, its colour is noted and is returned
to the urn. Moreover, 2 additional balls of the colour drawn are put in the urn and then a ball is
drawn at random. What is the probability that the second ball is red ? (A)
12. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black bolls and Bag II contains 4 red and 5 black bolls. One ball is
transferred from Bag I to Bag II and then a ball is drawn from Bag II . The ball so drawn is found to be
red in colour. Find the probability that the transferred ball is black. (U)
13. A bag contains 3 red and 4 black balls, another bag contains 5 red and 6 black balls. One of the two
bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from the bag which is found to be red. Find the
probability that the ball is drawn from the first bag. (U)
14. There are three coins, one is a two headed coin, another is a biased coin that comes up head
75 an unbiased coin. One of the three coins is chose at random and
tossed it shows head. What is the probability that it was the two headed coin. (U)
15. Given three identical boxes I, II and III, each containing two coins. In box I, both coins are gold coins,
in box II, both are silver coins and in the box III, there is one gold and one silver coin. A person
chooses a box at random and takes out a coin. If the coin is of gold, what is the probability that the
other coin in the box is also of gold? (U)
16. An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and 6000 truck drivers. The
probabilities of an accident are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15 respectively. One of the insured person meets
with an accident. What is the probability that he is a scooter driver? (U)
115
17. A manufacturer has three machine operators A, B and C. The first operator A produces 1% defective
items, where as the other two operators B and C produce 5% and 7% defective items respectively. A
is on the job for 50% of the time, B is on the job for 30% of the time and C is on the job for 20% of
the time. A defective item is produced, what is the probability that it was produced by A? (U)
18. A doctor is to visit a patient from the past experience it is known that the probabilities that he will
come by train, bus scooter or by other means of transportation are respectively. The
probability that he will be late are If he comes by train, bus scooter respectively. But he
comes by the means of transport he will not be late. When he arrive, is late. What is the probability
be will come by trains. (U)
19. Of the students in a college it is known that 60% reside in hotel and 40% are day scholar (not
residing in hostel) previous year results report that 30% of the student who reside in hostel
attain ‘A’ grade and 20% of day scholars attain ‘A’ grade in their annual examination. At the
end of the year one student is chosen at random from college and he has ‘A’ grade. What is
the probability that the student is a hosteller? (U)
20. In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 25%,
35% and 40% of the bolts. Of their outputs, 5, 4 & 2 percent are respectively defective bolts.
A bolt is drawn at random from the product and is found to be defective. What is the
probability that it is manufactured by the machine B? (U)
21. In answering a question on a multiple choice test a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let
¾ be the probability that he knows the answer and ¼ be the probability that he guesses. Assuming
that a student who guesses the answer will be correct with probability ¼ .What is the probability
that a student knows the answer given that he answered it correctly. (U)
22. A men is know to speak truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports that it is six. Find the
probability that it is actually six. (U)
23. Probability that a person speaks truth is , A coin is tossed a person reports that head appears. Find
the probability that it is actually head. (U)
24. Suppose that 5% of men and 0.25% of women have grey hair, A grey haired person is
selected at random, what is the probability of this person being male? Assume that there
are equal number of males and females. (U)
25. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn
and are found to be both diamonds. Find the probability of the lost card being a diamond. (U)
26. A factory has two machines A and B. Past record shows that machine A produced 60% of the
items of output and machine B produced 40% of the items. Further, 2% of the items
produced by machine A and 1% produced by machine B were defective. All the items are
put into one stockpile and then one item is chosen at random from this and is found to be
defective. What is the probability that it was produced by machine B? (U)
116
27. Suppose that the reliability of a HIV test is specified as follows: Of people having HIV, 90% of the test
detect the disease but 10% go undetected. Of people free of HIV, 99% of the test are judged HIV–ve
but 1% are diagnosed as showing HIV+ve. From a large population of which only 0.1% have HIV, one
person is selected at random, given the HIV test, and the pathologist reports him/her as HIV+ve.
What is the probability that the person actually has HIV? (U)
28. Suppose a girl throws a die if she gets 5 or 6 she tosses a coin 3 times and notes the no of
head . If she gets one, 2, 3 or 4 she tosses a coin once and notes whether head or tail is
obtained. If she obtained exactly one head what is the probability that she got I,2,3 or 4
with a die. (U)
29. Suppose a girl throws a die if she gets 5 or 6 she tosses a coin 3 times and notes the no of
head . If she gets one, 2, 3 or 4 she tosses a coin once and notes whether head or tail is
obtained. If she obtained exactly one head what is the probability that she got I,2,3 or 4
with a die. (U)
30. If A,B,C and D are 4 boxes containing coloured marbles as given below. (U)
Marbles
Box
Red White Black
A 1 3 6
B 6 2 2
C 8 1 1
D 0 6 4
31. One of the boxes has been selected at random and a single marble is drawn from it. If the
marble is red, what is the probability that it was drawn from box A?, box B?, box C? (U)
32. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. If X denotes the number of sixes. Find the mean (expectation)
of X. (U)
33. Find the mean number of heads in 3 tosses of a fair coin. (U)
34. Find the variable of the number of obtained on a thrown of unbiased die. (U)
35. Two cards are drawn simultaneously without replacement from a pack of 52 cards. Find the
mean of the number of kings. (U)
36. A class has 15 students whose ages are 15,17,15,14,21,17,19,20,16,18,20,17,16,19 and 20
years. One student is selected in such a manner that each has same chance of being chosen
and the age X of the selected student is recorded. Find mean of X. (U)
37. Two cards are drawn simultaneously without replacement from a pack of 52 cards. Let X be
the number of aces obtained. Find the value of E( X). (U)
38. Find the mean of the numbers obtained on throwing a die having writing 1 on three faces.2
on two faces and 5 on one face. (U)
117
Five mark questions.
1. A die is thrown six time. If getting an odd number is a success, what is the probability of
i ) exactly five success ii)at least five successes. (A)
2. Find the probability of getting at most two sixes and at least three sixes in six throws of
a single die. (A)
3. If a fair coin is tossed 10 times. Find the probability of (i) exactly six heads. and (ii) at least six heads.
(A)
4. A fair coin is tossed 8 times find the probability of a) At most five heads b) At least five heads . (A)
5. A pair of dice thrown 4 times. If getting a doublet is considered as success. Find the probability of
two successes and at most three successes. (A)
6. Find the probability of getting five exactly twice in 7th throws of a die. (A)
7. Five cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards.
What is the probability that i) all the five cards are spades. ii) only 3 cards are spades, and iii) none is
a spade. (A)
8. A person buys a lottery ticket in 50 lotteries, in each of which his chance of winning a prize is .
What is the probability that he will win a prize at least once and exactly once. (A)
9. The probability that a bulb produced by a factory will fuse after 150 days of use is 0.05.Find the
probability that out of 5 such bulbs i) none will fuse after 150 days ii)not more than one fuse
after 150 days. (A)
10. There are 5% defective items in a large bulk of items. What is the probability that a sample
of 10 items will include not more than 1 defective item. (A)
11. In an examination 20 questions of true false type are asked suppose a student tosses a fair
coin to determine his answer to each question. If the coin falls head. He answers true if it
false he answers false. Find the probability that he answers at least 1 questions correctly.
(A)
12. On a multiple choice examination with 3 possible answer for each of the 5 questions. What
is the probability that a candidate would getting 4 or more correct answers just by guessing.
(A)
13. Ten eggs are drawn successively with replacement from a lot containing 10 defective eggs.
Find the probability that there is at least one defective and at most one defective egg. (A)
14. It is known that 10% of certain articles manufacture are defective. What is the probability
that in a random sample of 12 such articles 9 are defective. (A)
15. Suppose x has binomial distribution . / show that is the most likely outcome.
(A)
16. The probability that a student is not swimmer is . Then Find the probability that out of five
students, four are swimmer. (A)
118
17. If 90 of people are right handed. What is the probability that at most 6 of a random sample of 10
people are right handed. (A)
18. An urn contains 25 balls of which 10 balls bear a mark X and the remaining 15 bear a mark Y. A ball is
drawn at random from the urn its mark noted down and it is replaced ,6 balls are drawn in this way.
Find the probability that i) all will bear X mark, ii) not more than 2 will bear Y mark. (A)
****************
119
Design of the Question Paper
MATHEMATICS (35) CLASS : II PUC
Time: 3 hour 15 minute ; Max. Marks: 100
(of which 15 minute for reading the question paper).
The weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the
question paper shall be as follows:
I. Weightage to Objectives:
Objective Weightage Marks
Knowledge 40% 60/150
Understanding 30% 45/150
Application 20% 30/150
Skill 10% 15/150
II. Weightage to level of difficulty:

Level Weightage Marks
Easy 35% 53/150
Average 55% 82/150
Difficult 10% 15/150
III. Weightage to content/subject units:

No. of
Chapter
Chapter teaching Marks
No.
Hours
1 RELATIONS AND FUNCTIONS 11 11
2 INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS 8 8
3 MATRICES 8 9
4 DETERMINANTS 13 12
5 CONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY 19 20
6 APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES 11 10
7 INTEGRALS 21 22
8 APPLICATION OF INTEGRALS 8 8
9 DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS 9 10
10 VECTORS 11 11
11 THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY 12 11
12 LINEAR PROGRAMMING 7 7
13 PROBABILITY 12 11
TOTAL 150 150
120
IV. Pattern of the question paper:
Number of
Number of
questions
Part Type of questions questions Remarks
to be
to be set
answered
1 mark questions
A 10 10 Compulsory part
2 mark questions
B 14 10 -------------
C 3 mark questions 14 10 -------------
D 5 mark questions 10 6 Questions must be

asked from
specific set of
topics as
10 mark questions mentioned below,
(Each question with two sub under section V
E 2 1
divisions namely
a)6 mark and b)4 mark )
V. Instructions:
Content areas to select questions for PART – D and PART – E
a) In part D
1. Relations and functions: Problems on verification of invertibility of a
function and writing its inverse.
2. Matrices: Problems on algebra of matrices .
3. Determinants: Problems on finding solution to simultaneous linear
equations involving three unknown quantities by matrix method.
4. Continuity and differentiability: Problems on second derivatives only.
5. Application of derivatives: Problems on derivative as a rate measurer.
6. Integrals: Derivations on indefinite integrals and evaluation of an
indefinite integral by using the derived formula.
7. Application of integrals: Problems on finding the area of the bounded
region by the method of integration.
8. Differential equations: Problems on solving linear differential equations
only.
9. Three dimensional geometry: Derivations on three dimensional
geometry (both vector and Cartesian form)
10. Probability: Problems on Bernoulli Trials and Binomial distribution.
121
b) In PART E:
i) 6 mark questions must be taken from the following content areas

 Integrals: Derivations on definite integrals and evaluation of a definite
integral using the derived formula.
 Linear programming: Problems on linear programming.
ii) 4 mark question must be taken from the following content areas.
 Continuity and differentiability: Problems on continuous functions.
 Determinants: Problems on evaluation of determinants by using
properties.
122
SAMPLE BLUE PRINT
II PUC MATHEMATICS (35)
TIME: 3 hours 15 minute Max. Mark: 100
Total marks
PART PART PART PART PART
Teaching
Number
A B C D E
hours
CONTENT
Chapter
1 2 3 5 6 4
mark mark mark mark mark mark
RELATIONS AND
1 11 1 1 1 1 11
FUNCTIONS
INVERSE
2 TRIGONOMETRIC 8 1 2 1 8
FUNCTIONS
3 MATRICES 8 1 1 1 9
4 DETERMINANTS 13 1 1 1 1 12
CONTINUITY AND
5 19 1 2 2 1 1 20
DIFFERENTIABILITY
APPLICATION OF
6 DAERIVATIVES
11 1 1 1 10
7 INTEGRALS 21 1 2 2 1 1 22
APPLICATION OF
8 8 1 1 8
INTEGRALS
DIFFERENTIAL
9 EQUATIONS
9 1 1 1 10
10 VECTOR ALGEBRA 11 1 2 2 11
THREE DIMENSIONAL
11 GEOMETRY
12 1 1 1 1 11
12 LINEAR PROGRAMMING 7 1 1 7
13 PROBABILITY 12 1 1 1 1 11
TOTAL 150 10 14 14 10 2 2 150
1
Model Question Paper -1
II P.U.C MATHEMATICS (35)
Time : 3 hours 15 minute Max. Marks : 100
Instructions :
(i) The question paper has five parts namely A, B, C, D and E. Answer all the parts.
(ii) Use the graph sheet for the question on Linear programming in PART E.
PART – A
Answer ALL the questions 10  1=10
1. A relation R on A={1,2} defined by R={(1,1),(1,2),(2,1)} is

not trasitive, why?
2. Write the principal value branch of
3. Define a diagonal matrix.
4. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and | |=5, then find |adjA|.
5. Differentiate the function tan x with respect to x.
6. Evaluate  cos ec2   dx .
x
2
7. For what value of , is the vector k a unit vector?
x 1 2z  3
8. Find the direction ratio of the line  3y 
2 4 .
9. Define optimal solution in linear programming problem.
10. If P(A) = 0 and P(B) = ½, then find P(A ) if exists.
PART B
Answer any TEN questions: 10  2=20
11. Find the gof and fog if ( ) and ( ) .
√
12. Write the function ( )x , in the simplest form.
13. Prove that

14.If area of the triangle with vertices  2, 0  ,  0, 4  and  0, k  is 4 square
units, find the value of „k‟ using determinants.
15 Find , if , where ( ) .
16.If x = 2at, y = Find
17. Show that the function given by ( ) – – is
strictly increasing on .
123
18. Find e
x
sec x 1  tan x  dx .
dx
19. Evaluate:  .
sin x cos 2 x
2
20. Find the order and degree of the differential equation

=
21. The position vectors of two points P and Q are î  2jˆ  kˆ and î  ˆj  kˆ
respectively. Find the position vector of a point R which divides the line
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ in the ratio 2 : 1 internally.
22. Prove that a,b,c  d   a,b,c   a,b,d  .

23. Find the angle between the pair of lines r  3iˆ  5jˆ  kˆ   î  ˆj  kˆ   and

r  7iˆ  4kˆ   2iˆ  2jˆ  2kˆ . 
24. If P( )= ½ ,P( )= ½ and P( )= ½, P( )= ¼ . Find P( ).
PART C
25. If and defined as a b = | |and a b =a

, Show that is commutative but not associative and is
associative.
26. Prove that
27. Express 0 1 as the sum of a symmetric and skew symmetric

matrices.
28. If y = . /
29. If y = find
30.Find two positive numbers x and y such that x  y  60 and xy3
is maximum.
( )
31. ∫ ( )
32. Evaluate ∫ as the limit of sum.
33.Find the area between the curves y = x and y = x2.
dy
34. For the differential equation xy   x  2 y  2 , find the solution curve
dx
passing through the point (1,-1).
35. Find the unit vector perpendicular to each of the vectors a  b and a  b ,
where ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂
124
36.If ⃗ ⃗⃗ and ⃗ are three unit vectors such that a  b  c  0 , find the
value of a  b  b  c  c  a .
37 . Find the angle between the line and the plane
.
38.Two dice are thrown simultaneously. If X denotes the number of sixes.
Find the mean (expectation) of X.
PART D
Answer any SIX questions: 6  5=30
39. If is the set of all non-negative real numbers prove that the function
, ) defined by ( ) is invertible. Write also
( ).
40. If A=[ ] , B = , - Verify that ( ) = .
41. Solve the following system of equation by using matrix method:

x + y + z = 6,y + 3z -11= 0 and x + z = 2y.
42. If ( ) . /
43. The volume of a cube is increasing at a rate of 9cc/sec . How fast is the
surface area increasing when the length of an edge is 10 cm.
44.Find the integral of √ with respect to and hence
evaluate∫ √ .
45. Find the area bounded by the curve and the line –
46. Solve the differential equation,
47. Derive the equation of a line in space passing through two given points
both in the vector and Cartesian form.
48. If a fair coin is tossed 6 times. Find the probability of (i) at least five
heads and (ii) at most five heads (iii) exactly 5 heads.
PART E
Answer any ONE question: 1  10=10
49. (a) Prove that  f  x  dx   f  a  b  x  dx and evaluate 
b b  /3 dx
a a  /6
1  tan x
1  a 2  b2 2ab 2b
 1  a 2  b 2 
3
(b) Prove that 2ab 1 a  b
2 2
2a
2b 2a 1  a 2  b2
50. (a)Solve the following linear programming problem graphically: Minimize
and maximize , subject to constraints
,
(b) Discuss the continuity of the function ( ) { .
125
Instructions :
PART – A
1. Define a binary operation on a set.

2. Write the range of f(x)=sin-1x in [0,2]other than 0 1.
3. If a matrix has 7 elements, write all possible orders it can have.

4. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A|=4 , then find | |.
5. If y=elogx , Show that =1.

6. Evaluate ∫ . / .
7. If ⃗ is a unit vector such that ( ⃗ ⃗) ( ⃗ ⃗) , find | ⃗|.

8. Find the equation of plane with the intercepts 2, 3 and 4 on x, y and z
axis respectively
9. Define Optimal Solution in Linear Programming Problem.
10. A fair die is rolled . Consider the events E={1,3,5} and F={2,3} ,
find P(E|F).
.
PART B
11. Define an equivalence relation and give an example.
12. Prove that 3 ( ) 0 1.
1  cos x
13. Write in the simplest form of tan1 , 0  x  .
1  cos x
 3 1
14. If A    , show that A2  5A  7I  O . Hence find A 1 .
 1 2
126
15 Prove that the function f given by f  x   x  1 , x  R is not differentiable
at x  1 .
16. Find „c‟ of the mean value theorem for the function f(x)=2x2 -10x+29 in
[2,7].
17. Find a point on the curve y = ( ) at which the tangent is parallel to
the x-axis.
18. Evaluate ∫
19. Find ∫
20. Form the differential equation of the family of curve a( )
21. Find the unit vector in the direction of a  î  2jˆ , also find the vector
whose magnitude is 7 units and in the direction a .
22. If ⃗ ⃗⃗ √ | ⃗⃗| √ and angle between ⃗ and ⃗⃗ is , find | ⃗|
23. Find the angle between the pair of planes 7x+5y+6z+30=0 and
3x-y-10z+4=0
24. Find the probability distribution of number of heads in two tosses of a
coin.
PART C
25. If f N , N and h N defined as f(x) = 2x, g(y) = 3y + 4 and
h(x) = x,y,z in N. Show that h g f   h g f .
12 4 63
26. Show that sin1  cos 1  tan1 
13 5 16
 cos x sin x   cos 2x sin 2x 
27. If A    , show that A    sin 2x cos 2x  and AA  I .
2
  sin x cos x   
dy
28. Find , if x3  x2 y  xy 2  y 3  81
dx
29. Differentiate ( ) ( ) with respect to x.
30. Find the absolute maximum value and the absolute minimum
value of the function f(x)=sinx+cosx, x[0,π].
127
xe x
31. Find  dx
(1  x) 2
32. Evaluate: ∫ ( )( )
33. Find the area bounded by the curve y = cos x between x = 0 and x = 2π.
34. Find the general solution of +y =1 (y ).
35. Find the value of p so that the lines

are at right angles.
36. Find the area of the rectangle having vertices A, B, C and D with P. V
̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ ̂ respectively.
37. Show tha the four points A, B,C and D with position vectors 4i+5j+k,
-(j+k), 3i+9j+4k and -4i+4j+4k respectively coplanar.
38. In answering a question on a multiple choice test a student either
knows the answer or guesses. Let ¾ be the probability that he knows the
answer and ¼ be the probability that he guesses. Assuming that a student
who guesses the answer will be correct with probability ¼ . What is the
probability that a student knows the answer given that he answered it
correctly.
PART D
Answer any SIX questions: 6  5=30
39. If defined by ( ) , where 2 3 ,show that f is

invertible and .
 1 1 1  1 3
  1 2 3 -4 
40. If A=  2 0 3  , B   0 2  and C=  Prove that (AB)C= A(BC)
 3 1 2   2 0 -2 1 
   1 4 
41. Solve by matrix method:
42. If y  3cos  log x   4sin  log x  show that x y2  xy1  y  0 .

2
43. A ladder long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is
pulled along the ground, away from the wall at the rate of .
How fast is its height on the wall decreasing when the foot of the ladder
128
is away from the wall?.
44. Find the integral of √ with respect to x and hence evaluate
∫√ dx
45. Find the area of the smaller region enclosed by the circle x2+y2=4 and
the line x+y=2 by integration method.
46. Solve the differential equation =sinx, y=0 when x=

47. Derive the equation of a plane perpendicular to a given vector and
passing through a given point in both vector and Cartesian form.
48. In an examination 20 question of true-false are asked. Suppose a

student tosses a fair coin to determine his answer to each question. If the
coin falls heads, the answers „true‟, if it falls tails, he answers. “false” find
the probabilities that he answers at least 12 questions correctly.
PART E
Answer any ONE question: 1  10=10
49. (a) One kind of cake requires 200 gm of flour and 25 g of fat and
another kind of cake requires 100 gm of flour and 50 gm of fat. Find the
maximum number of cakes which can be made from 5 kg and 1 kg of fat
assuming that there is no shortage of the other ingredients used in making
the cakes.
1 1 1
(b) Prove that a b c   a  b  b  c  c  a  a  b  c 
a3 b3 c3
a  a
20 f  x  dx, if f(x) is an even function
50. (a) Prove that a f  x  dx  

0, if f(x) is an odd function
and hence evaluate ∫ ( )
(b) Find all points of discontinuity of f, where f is defined by
2x  3, if x  2
f x   .
2x  3, if x  2
******
129
Instructions :
PART – A
1. Let * be a binary operation on N given by a*b=LCM of a and b. Find

20*16.
2. What is th reflection of the graph of the function y=sinx along the line
y=x.
3. What is the number of possible square matrices of order 3 with each
entry 0 or 1?
4. For what value of x, the matrix 0 1 are singlular.
5. Write the derivative of sin-1(cosx) with respect to x.

6. Evaluate ∫ dx
7. Find if the vector ̂ ̂ ̂ and ̂ ̂ are perpendicular to each
other.
8. Write the vector form of the equation of the line
9. Define optimal solution in Linear programming problem.
10. If P(A)=0.3 , P( not B) = 0.4 and A and B are independent events , find
P (A and not B).
PART B
Answer any TEN questions 10  2=20
1 if x  0

11. Show that the signum function f: RR given by f(x)= 0 if x  0 is
1 if x  0

neither one-one nor onto.
12. Find the value of , -.

13. If the matrix A=0 1 and A2=kA, then write the value of k.
130
14. If x=√ , y=√ , then Show that
15. Write the inverse trigonometric function .√ / |x|<a, in

simplest form.
16. If sin2x + cos2y=1, Show that
17. If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 cm with an error of 0.03 m,

find the approximate error in calculating its surface area.
18. Evaluate ∫ ( )
19. Find ∫ √
20. Verify that y=√ is a solution of the differential equation

=0
21. Find the magnitude of two vector ⃗ and ⃗⃗ and their scalar product is
22. Show that ( ⃗ ⃗⃗ ) (⃗ ⃗⃗) (⃗ ⃗⃗)
23. If the lines and are perpendicular, find

the value of k.
24. A die is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at
least once.
PART C
Answer any TEN questions 10  3=30
25. Show that the relation R in the set A={ + is given by

R={(a,b):|a-b| is a multiple of 4} is an equivalence relation.
26. Prove that . / , -
1 3 
27. Using elementary operations ,find the inverse of the matrix  
2 7
28. If y=(logx)cosx + xsinx find
29. If x= ( . / and y= , Show that .

30. At what points, the function f(x)=sinx-cosx, , attains local
maxima and minima
31. Evaluate ∫
32. Find ∫ ( )
dx
131
33. Find the area of the region enclosed by the circle x2+y2=a2 by
integration method.
34. Solve the differential equation
35. Show that the points ( ̂ ̂ ̂) (̂ ̂ ̂) ( ̂ ̂ ̂ ) are

the vertices of right angled triangle.
36. Three vectors satisfy the condition ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ satisfy the condition

⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗, Find the value of ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗, if | ⃗| | ⃗⃗| | ⃗|
37. Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the
planes x+y+z=1 and 2x+3y+4z=5 which is perpendicular to the plane x-
y+z=0.
38. A random variable x has the following probability distribution
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P(x) 0 k 2k 2k 3k K2 2k2 7k2 + k
Determine (i) k (ii) p (x < 3)
PART D
Answer any SIX questions 6  5=30
39. Let R+ be the set of all non negative real numbers , Show that the
function f:R+ [4,∞) defined by f(x)=x2 +4 is invertible. Also find the inverse
of f(x)
40. If 0 1, 0 1 verify that is a skew symmetric

matrix and is a symmetric matrix.
2 3 5 
41. If A  3 2 4 , find A 1 . Using A 1 solve the system of equations
1 1 2
2x  3y  5z  11 ; 3x  2y  4z  5 and x  y  2z  3
1 d2y dy
42. If y  ea cos x ,  1  x  1 , show that (1  x 2 ) 2
 x  a 2 y  0. .
dx dx
132
43.Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of . The falling sand
forms a cone on the ground in such a way that the height of the cone is
always one-sixth of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of the
sand cone increasing when the height is ?
44.Find the integral of √

with respect to x and evaluate ∫ √
.
45. Find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line x = 4y – 2
46. Derive an equation of a plane in the normal form both in vector and
Cartesian form.
dy 2xy 4x2
47. Solve   given that y=0 when x=0
dx 1  x2 1  x2
48. The probability that a bulb produced by a factory will fuse after 150
days of use is 0.05. Find the probability that out of 5 such bulbs i) none
ii) not more than one iii) more than one iv) at least once will fuse after
150 days of use?
PART E
Answer any ONE question 1  10=10
49. (a)Prove that∫ ( ) ∫ ( ) ∫ ( ) and hence evaluate
∫ | | .
(b) Show that | | ( )( )( )( )
50. (a) A dietician has to develop a special diet using two foods P and Q.
Each packet (containing 30 g) of food P contains 12 units of calcium, 4 units
of iron, 6 units of cholesterol and 6 units of vitamin A. Each packet of the
same quantity of food Q contains 3 units of calcium, 20 units of iron, 4
units of cholesterol and 3 units of vitamin A. The diet requires atleast 240
units of calcium, atleast 460 units of iron and at most 300 units of
cholesterol. How many packets of each food should be used to minimise the
amount of vitamin A in the diet? What is the minimum amount of vitamin
A?
(b) Find the relationship between a and b so that the function f defined
ax  1, if x  3
by f  x    is continuous at x  3.
bx  3, if x  3
133
QUESTION BANK COMMITTEE
NEELI SATYANARAYANA
VASUDEVA K H
RAVISHANKAR S
UDAYSHANKAR
SATHISH VAMAN NAIK
SHASHIKANTH R BENAKATTI
HEMA REDDY
LAWRENCE SEQUEIRA
DR . RAVINDRA BANDI
BHADRSHETTY R P
SHESHAGIRI VAIDYA
PRASHANTH BELOOR
134
DEPARTMENT OF PRE-UNIVERSITY
EDUCATION
QUESTION BANK
CLASS: II YEAR PUC
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY (36)
1
DISCLAIMER
The question bank is prepared for the benefit of
students and teachers. The committee that worked for the
preparation of question bank has made all efforts to make
the question bank comprehensive and foolproof.
However, if any mistakes or errors are found in the

question bank, please mail at questionbank.pue@gmail.com
and academic.pue@gmail.com. There is no guarantee that
only the questions from this question bank would appear in
the examination conducted by the department.
COPYRIGHTS
©
The copyrights of the question bank lies with the Director,
Department of Pre-University Education. The question bank
is prepared for academic purpose only. No part of the
question bank is allowed to be used for commercial gains.
2
Chapter 1
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define reproduction. (K)
2. What is the significance of reproduction? (K)
3. What is life span? (K)
4. What is asexual reproduction? (K)
5. What is sexual reproduction? (K)
6. Offspring obtained from asexual reproduction are called clones. Why? (A)
7. Name the organism in which cell division itself is a mode of reproduction. (K)
8. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Penicillium. (K)
9. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Chlamydomonas. (K)
10. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Hydra. (K)
11. Name the mode of asexual reproduction in yeast. (K)
12. Name the asexual reproductive structures in sponges. (K)
13. Name the mode of asexual reproduction in Amoeba. (K)
14. Name the asexual reproductive spores produced by Amoeba. (K)
15. Name a fungus that undergoes asexual reproduction by means of conidia. (K)
16. Name a fungus that undergoes asexual reproduction by means of budding. (K)
17. Name an animal that undergoes asexual reproduction by means of budding. (K)
18. Name an organism that undergoes asexual reproduction by means of zoospores. (K)
19. Name organisms that undergo asexual reproduction by means of gemmules. (K)
20. Name the organism which undergoes asexual reproduction by means of encystation and
sporulation. (K)
21. What is encystation? (K)
22. What are gemmules? (K)
23. What are vegetative propagules? (K)
24. Name the vegetative propagule in potato. (K)
25. Name the vegetative propagule in ginger. (K)
26. Name the vegetative propagule in water hyacinth. (K)
27. Name the vegetative propagule in Agave. (K)
28. Name the vegetative propagule in onion. (K)
29. Name the vegetative propagule in Bryophyllum. (K)
30. Mention an example for a plant which produces tuber as vegetative propagules. (K)
31. Mention an example for a plant which produces rhizome as vegetative propagules. (K)
32. Mention an example for a plant which produces bulb as vegetative propagules. (K)
33. Mention an example for a plant which produces offset as vegetative propagules. (K)
34. Mention an example for a plant which produces bulbil as vegetative propagules. (K)
35. Mention an example for a plant which produces adventitious leaf buds. (K)
36. What is juvenile phase of life span? (K)
37. What is reproductive phase of life span? (K)
38. What is senescent phase of life span? (K)
39. Give the scientific name of the plant which produces flowers once in 12 years. (K)
3
40. Name the plant that flowers only once in its life time. (K)
41. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are seasonal breeders. (K)
42. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are continuous breeders. (K)
43. Name the type of reproductive cycle that occurs in non-primate mammals. (K)
44. What are seasonal breeders? (K)
45. What are continuous breeders? (K)
46. Define gametogenesis. (K)
47. What are homogametes or isogametes? (K)
48. What are heterogametes? (K)
49. What are homothallic organisms? (K)
50. What are heterothallic organisms? (K)
51. What is a monoecious plant? (K)
52. What is a dioecious plant? (K)
53. Why Cucurbita plant is called a monoecious plant? (A)
54. Why papaya plant is called a dioecious plant? (A)
55. Why coconut palm is called a monoecious plant? (A)
56. Why date palm is called a dioecious plant? (A)
57. Mention an example for a monoecious plant. (K)
58. Mention an example for a dioecious plant. (K)
59. What is a staminate flower? (K)
60. What is pistillate flower? (K)
61. What are hermaphrodites? (K)
62. Mention an example for a hermaphrodite. (K)
63. Why tapeworm is considered as a hermaphrodite? (A)
64. Why leech is considered as a hermaphrodite? (A)
65. Why earthworm is considered as a hermaphrodite? (A)
66. Why sponges are considered as hermaphrodites? (A)
67. What are pre-fertilisation events? (K)
68. What are post-fertilisation events? (K)
69. What are meiocytes? (K)
70. If 2n = 40 in an organism, what would be the number of chromosomes in its meiocytes? (A)
71. Why the number of male gametes produced in majority of the organisms is several thousand
times the number of female gametes produced? (A)
72. Define fertilization or syngamy. (K)
73. Define parthenogenesis. (K)
74. What is internal fertilization? (K)
75. What is external fertilization? (K)
76. Give an example for an animal where fertilization is external. (K)
77. Give an example for an animal group where fertilisation is internal. (K)
78. Give an example for a plant group where fertilisation is internal. (K)
79. Why external fertilization is disadvantageous to animals when compared to internal fertilization?
(A)
80. Why internal fertilization is advantageous to the animal when compared to external
fertilization? (A)
81. What type of cell division occurs in zygote of organisms with haplobiontic life cycle? (K)
4
82. What type of cell division occurs in the zygote of organisms with diplontic or haplo-diplontic
cycle? (K)
83. Define embryogenesis. (K)
84. What are oviparous animals? (K)
85. What are viviparous animals? K
86. Why the chances of survival of young ones are more in viviparous animals than in oviparous
animals? (A)
87. Name the protective wall of fruit. (K)
88. What is pericarp? (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any two differences between asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction. (K)
2. Water hyacinth is known as “terror of Bengal”. Justify the statement. (A)
3. What are vegetative propagules? Mention two examples. (K)
4. Mention any two vegetative propagules of angiosperms. (K)
5. Mention the vegetative propagules of Agave and ginger (K)
6. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Penicilliium and Hydra. (K)
7. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Chlamydomonas and sponges. (K)
8. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Amoeba and yeast. (K)
9. Name the vegetative propagules in potato and ginger. (K)
10. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and ginger. (K)
11. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and potato. (K)
12. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and potato. (K)
13. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and ginger. (K)
14. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and onion. (K)
15. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and potato. (K)
16. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and onion. (K)
17. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and ginger. (K)
18. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Agave. (K)
19. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Eichhornia. (K)
20. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and Agave. (K)
21. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and Agave. (K)
22. Name the vegetative propagules in potato and Agave. (K)
23. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger and Agave. (K)
24. Name the asexual spores produced by Amoeba and Chlamydomonas. (K)
25. Name the asexual spores produced by Amoeba and Penicillium. (K)
26. Name the asexual spores produced by Penicillium and Chlamydomonas. (K)
27. Give two examples for plants which exhibit unusual flowering phenomenon. (K)
28. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and estrous cycle. (U)
29. Differentiate seasonal breeders from continuous breeders. (U)
30. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are seasonal breeders. Give an
example for a seasonal breeder. (K)
31. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are continuous breeders. Give an
example for a continuous breeder. (K)
32. Distinguish between homogametes and heterogametes. (U)
5
33. What are heterogametes? Mention an organism which produces heterogametes. (K)
34. What are homogametes? Mention an organism which produces homogametes. (K)
35. Distinguish between monoecious plants and dioecious plants. (U)
36. Distinguish between homothallic plants and heterothallic plants. (U)
37. What are homothallic organisms? Mention an example. (K)
38. What are heterothallic organisms? Mention an example. (K)
39. Distinguish between pistillate and staminate flowers. (U)
40. What are hermaphrodites? Mention one example. (K)
41. What is fertilization? Mention the types. (K)
42. What is external fertilization? Why is it disadvantageous compared to internal fertilization? (U)
43. What is internal fertilization? Why is it advantageous compared to external fertilization? (U)
44. Differentiate internal fertilization and external fertilization. (U)
45. What is parthenogenesis? Name two organisms which exhibit this. (K)
46. Differentiate between gametogenesis and embryogenesis. (U)
47. What is embryogenis? Mention two important events that occur during embryogenesis. (K)
48. Differentiate oviparous animals from viviparous animals. (U)
49. What are oviparous animals? Why ovipary is disadvantageous? (U)
50. What are viviparous animals? Why vivipay is advantageous? (U)
THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate asexual reproduction from sexual reproduction. (U)
2. What is asexual reproduction? Explain encystation and sporulation in Amoeba. (U)
3. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in potato and ginger. (K)
4. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and ginger. (K)
5. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and potato.(K)
6. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and potato. (K)
7. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and ginger. (K)
8. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and onion. (K)
9. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and potato.
(K)
10. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and onion. (K)
11. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and ginger. (K)
12. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Agave. (K)
13. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and
Eichhornia. (K)
14. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and Agave. (K)
15. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and Agave. (K)
16. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in potato and Agave. (K)
17. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in ginger and Agave. (K)
18. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and ginger. (K)
19. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Agave. (K)
20. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Bryophyllum. (K)
21. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Eichhornia. (K)
22. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Eichhornia. (K)
23. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Agave. (K)
6
24. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Brophyllum. (K)
25. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Agave and Bryophyllum. (K)
26. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Agave and Eichhornia. (K)
27. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia. (K)
28. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Agave. (K)
29. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Bryophyllum. (K)
30. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Eichhornia. (K)
31. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Agave and Bryophyllum. (K)
32. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Agave and Eichhornia. (K)
33. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia. (K)
34. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger, Agave and Bryophyllum. (K)
35. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia. (K)
36. Name the vegetative propagules in Agave, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia. (K)
37. Explain the distinct phases of life span in organisms. (U)
38. Distinguish between homogametes and heterogametes. Give an example each of organisms
producing these. (U)
39. Distinguish between homothallic and heterothallic organisms. Give an example for each. (U)
40. Distinguish between monoecious plants and dioecious plants with an example for each. (U)
41. Define fertilization. Differentiate external fertilization and internal fertilization. (U)
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Describe any five modes of asexual reproduction. (U)
2. Describe sexuality in organisms. (U)
3. Write a detailed account of fertilization as an event during sexual reproduction in organisms. (U)
-----
7
Chapter 2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Name the male reproductive structure of the flower. (K)
2. Name the female reproductive structure of the flower. (K)
3. How many thecae are present in a typical mature anther of angiosperms? (A)
4. What is a dithecous anther? (K)
5. How many microsporangia are present in a typical anther of angiosperms? (K)
6. How many microsporangia are present in each lobe of an anther? (K)
7. How many wall layers are present in a microsporangium? (K)
8. Name the innermost wall layer of microsporangium? (K)
9. What is the function of tapetum? (K)
10. What is a sporogenous tissue? (K)
11. Define microsporogenesis (K)
12. Name the tissue in the microsporangium which produces microspores. (K)
13. Which type of cell division occurs in pollen mother cell during microsporogenesis? (K)
14. If a microsporangium has 450 pollen mother cells, how many microspores are produced? (A)
15. What is the ploidy of functional microspore in flowering plants? (K)
16. What does pollen grain represent? (K)
17. Name the outer layer of pollen grain. (K)
18. Name the layer of pollen grain which is generally made of sporopollenin. (K)
19. Name the organic chemical present in exine of pollen grain. (K)
20. What is the biological significance of sporopollenin? (K)
21. What are germ pores? (K)
22. Name the region on the exine of pollen grains where sporopollenin is absent. (K)
23. Name the organic chemical present in intine of pollen grains. (K)
24. Name the large cell of a mature pollen grain. (K)
25. Name the small cell of a mature pollen grain. (K)
26. Why pollen grains are very well preserved as fossils? (K)
27. How many cells do a mature male gametophyte has in majority of angiosperms just before it
germinates on the stigma? (K)
28. Name the cell in the male gametophyte of angiosperms which produces the male gametes (K)
29. Name the cell in the male gametophyte of angiosperms which produces the pollen tube. (K)
30. Name the solution used to promote pollen germination and formation of pollen tube. (K)
31. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: (U)
32. Pollen grain, Sporogenous tissue, Microspore tetrad, Pollen mother cell, Male gametes
33. Give an example for a plant that causes pollen allergy. (K)
34. How are pollen grains preserved? (K)
35. What is a monocarpellary pistil? (K)
36. What is a multicarpellary pistil? (K)
37. What is a syncarpous pistil? (K)
38. What is an apocarpous pistil? (K)
39. What is megasporogenesis? (K)
8
40. Name the type of cell division that the megaspore mother cell undergoes? (K)
41. What is monosporic development of embryo sac? (K)
42. What is the ploidy of functional megaspore in flowering plants. (K)
43. What is chalaza? (K)
44. Name the basal part of an angiosperm ovule. (K)
45. Name the region of the ovule present opposite to the micropylar end. (K)
46. What is micropyle? (K)
47. Name the opening of the angiosperm ovule where the integument is absent. (K)
48. Name the opening of the ovule through which pollen tube enters. (K)
49. Name the stalk of the angiosperm ovule. (K)
50. What is funicle? (K)
51. Name the region on the body of the ovule to which the funicle is attached. (K)
52. What is hilum? (K)
53. What are the protective envelopes of the ovule called? (K)
54. What are integuments? (K)
55. What is nucellus? (K)
56. Name the nutritive tissue with reserve food present in an angiosperm ovule. (K)
57. Name the mass of cells enclosed within the integuments in an ovule. (K)
58. What is free-nuclear division of functional megaspore? (K)
59. Name the cells present at the micropylar end in the embryo sac. (K)
60. What is ‘filiform apparatus’? (K)
61. Name the special cellular thickenings of the synergids. (K)
62. What is the function of filiform apparatus? (K)
63. Mention the number of nuclei found in a typical mature angiosperm embryo sac. (K)
64. Mention the number of cells found in a typical mature angiosperm embryo sac. (K)
65. Name the structure found inside the megasporangium which is 7-celled and 8-nucleated. (K)
66. Define pollination? (K)
67. The distribution of bryophytes and pteridophytes is limited with respect to sexual reproduction.
Why? (A)
68. Define autogamy. (K)
69. What are chasmoganous flowers? (K)
70. Give one example for a chasmogamous flower. (K)
71. What are cleistogamous flowers? (K)
72. Give one example for a cleistogamous flower. (K)
73. Why cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous? (A)
74. Cleistogamy is advantageous to the plant. Why? (A)
75. Define geitonogamy. (K)
76. Even though geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination involving pollinating agents, it is
genetically similar to autogamy. Why? (A)
77. Define xenogamy. (K)
78. Papaya plants exhibit xenogamy only. Why? (A)
79. Name the type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen to the stigma. (K)
80. Mention one abiotic agent used by plants to achieve pollination. (K)
81. Mention one biotic agent used by plants to achieve pollination. (K)
82. Give one example for wind pollinated plant. (K)
9
83. Give one example for water pollinated plant. (K)
84. How are pollen grains protected from wetting in water pollinated species? (U)
85. Which are the dominant pollinating agents among insects? (K)
86. Mention one important feature of insect pollinated flower. (K)
87. Mention one floral reward provided by the flower to a pollinating animal. (K)
88. Give an example for a plant that gives floral reward by providing safe place to lay insect eggs. (K)
89. Why wind and water pollinated flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when compared to
the number of ovules available for pollination? (A)
90. What is the floral reward that the flower of Amorphophallus provides to pollinating agent? (K)
91. Name the plant which has the tallest flower. (K)
92. Some insects are called ‘pollen robbers’ or ‘nectar robbers’. Why? (A)
93. Why many flowering plants have developed devices to discourage self pollination and encourage
cross pollination? (A)
94. Mention one strategy evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers. (K)
95. What is self incompatibility? (K)
96. What is pollen-pistil interaction? (K)
97. What is artificial hybridization? (K)
98. What is emasculation? (K)
99. Why bisexual flowers of a plant are emasculated in artificial hybridization? (A)
100. Why emasculated flowers are covered with bags of butter paper? (A)
101. What is bagging with reference to artificial hybridisation? (K)
102. What is triple fusion? (K)
103. What is double fertilization? (K)
104. What does the primary endosperm cell develop into? (K)
105. What is the ploidy of the primary endosperm cell? (K)
106. Expand PEN. (K)
107. What is embryogeny? (K)
108. Why do you think that the zygote is dormant for sometime immediately after fertilization in an
ovule? (A)
109. What is epicotyl? (K)
110. What is hypocotyl? (K)
111. What is scutellum? (K)
112. What is coleorrhiza? (K)
113. What is coleoptile? (K)
114. What is seed? (K)
115. What are non-albuminous seeds? (K)
116. What are albuminous seeds? (K)
117. Give an example for a plant which produces albuminous seeds. (K)
118. Give an example for a plant which produces non–albuminous seeds. (K)
119. Seeds of pea, groundnut and beans are considered as non-albuminous seeds. Why? (A)
120. Seeds of wheat, maize, barley, castor, coconut and sunflower are considered as albuminous
seeds. Why? (A)
121. Give one example for a seed in which the endosperm is completely consumed during the
development of embryo. (K)
122. Give one example for a seed in which the endosperm may persist in a mature seed. (K)
10
123. What is perisperm? (K)
124. What is the residual persistent nucellus of a seed called? (K)
125. Give an example for a plant which produces seeds that has perisperm. (K)
126. What is pericarp? (K)
127. Name the protective wall of fruit. (K)
128. What is a false fruit? (K)
129. Why apple is called a false fruit? (A)
130. What is a true fruit? (K)
131. Give one example for a fleshy fruit. (K)
132. Give one example for a dry fruit. (K)
133. What are parthenocarpic fruits? (K)
134. Give an example for a plant which naturally produces parthenocarpic fruit. (K)
135. How can parthenocarpy be induced? (U)
136. What is apomixis? (K)
137. What is polyembryony? (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophytes takes place. (K)
2. Mention two differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. (U)
3. Name the male gametophyte of flowering plants. What is the ploidy of functional microspore in
flowering plants? (K)
4. Mention four wall layers of microsporangium. (K)
5. What are the functions of tapetum of microsporangium and filiform apparatus of synergids? (K)
6. What is filiform apparatus? What is its significance? (K)
7. Differentiate syncarpous and apocarpous pistils. (U)
8. What are the functions of integument and nucellus of megasporangium. (K)
9. Define pollination. Mention three types of pollination. (K)
10. Differentiate autogamy and geitonogamy. (U)
11. Differentiate autogamy and xenogamy. (U)
12. Differentiate xenogamy and geitonogamy (U)
13. What is xenogamy? Mention its importance. (K)
14. Differentiate between chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. (A)
15. Mention two advantages of cleistogamy (K)
16. Mention one advantage and one disadvantage each of cleistogamy. (K)
17. Mention any two characteristic features of flowers that exhibit anemophily (K)
18. Mention any two characteristic features of flowers that are pollinated by animals (K)
19. Yucca plant and a species of moth cannot complete their life cycle without each other. Why? (U)
20. Mention any two outbreeding devices in angiosperms to prevent self pollination (K)
21. What is self incompatibility? Why self-pollination does not lead to seed formation in self
incompatible species? (K)
22. What is artificial hybridisation ? Name the techniques that are employed to achieve this? (K)
23. What is meant by emasculation ? When does a plant breeder employ this technique? (U)
24. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in artificial hybridisation? (U)
11
25. With regard to artificial hybridization, what do you understand by emasculation and bagging
techniques? (U)
26. What do you understand by double fertilization and triple fusion? (U)
27. Mention the four stages of embryogeny in a dicotyledonous embryo (K)
28. Distinguish between albuminous and non – albuminous seeds (U)
29. Differentiate hypocotyl and epicotyl. (U)
30. Differentiate coleoptile and coleorrhiza. (U)
31. Differentiate integument and testa. (U)
32. Differentiate perisperm and pericarp. (U)
33. What is perisperm? Give an example for a plant that produces seeds with perisperm. (K)
34. Mention two favourable conditions which promote the germination of seeds (K)
35. Mention two advantages that the seeds offer to angiosperms (K)
36. What are true fruits? Give an example for a plant that produces false fruit. (K)
37. What are false fruits? Give an example (K)
38. Why apple is called a false fruit? Which part of the flower also forms a part of the fruit in apple
plant? (U)
39. Distinguish between true fruits and false fruits.. (U)
40. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give an example for a plant that produces false fruit. (K)
41. Name the phenomenon of formation of seed without fertilization in angiosperms. Give an
example for a plant which exhibits this phenomenon. (K)
42. What is parthenocarpic fruit? Mention a plant which naturally produces parthenocarpic fruit. (K)
43. What is apomixis and what is its importance? (K)
44. Define polyembryony. Mention an angiosperm which exhibits polyembryony (K)

1. Draw a diagrammatic representation of the L.S. of a flower. (S)
2. Mention three differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. (K)
3. Draw a labeled diagram of transverse section of a young anther. (S)
4. Draw a labeled diagram of an angiosperm ovule. (S)
5. Explain the structure of a mature female gametophyte in flowering plants (K)
6. Differentiate autogamy, geitonogmy and xenogamy. (U)
7. Differentiate chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. How is cliestogamy advantageous ? (K)
8. Mention any three characteristic features of flowers that are pollinated by animals. (K)
9. List three characters of insect pollinated flowers. (K)
10. List three characters of wind pollinated flowers. (K)
11. Explain briefly pollination in Vallisneria. (U)
12. Explain briefly pollination in Zostera. (U)
13. Briefly describe three outbreeding devices in flowering plants. (K)
14. What is meant by emasculation? When does a plant breeder employ this technique and why? (K)
15. Write a short note on pollen-pistil interacton (K)
16. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place in the megasporangium? Name the nuclei
involved in triple fusion. (K)
17. Draw a labeled diagram of a typical dicot embryo. (S)
18. Draw a labeled diagram of the L.S. of an embryo of grass. (S)
19. Explain the structure of a typical dicot embryo (U)
12
20. Explain the structure of a typical monocot embryo. (U)
21. Differentiate albuminous and non – albuminous seeds with an example for each. (U)
22. Mention three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperms. (K)
23. Draw a diagram of the section of fruit in apple. (S)

1. Explain the T.S. of a microsporangium with a labeled diagram. (U)
2. Describe the structure of a mature male gametophyte (U)
3. Describe the structure of an anatropous ovule with a labeled diagram. (U)
4. Explain the structure of a typical dicot embryo with a labeled diagram. (U)
5. Explain the structure of a typical monocot embryo with a labeled diagram. (U)
6. Mention five differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. (K)
7. Explain the development of female gametophyte in angiosperms. (U)
8. Explain how some plants are adapted for achieving pollination through wind. (U)
9. How Vallisneria and Zostera achieve pollination? (U)
10. What is autogamy ? Explain the devices that the plants have developed to prevent this (K) + (U)
11. With a neat diagram, explain the structure of a mature female gametophyte of angiosperms. (U)
12. Why plants have developed devices to discourage self pollination? Explain the the devices that
flowering plants have developed to encourage cross pollination. (U)
13. Give the definitions of the following: (K)
(a) Perisperm (b) Pericarp (c) Parthenocarpic fruits (d) Apomixis (e) Polyembryony
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13
Chapter 3
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What is scrotum? (K)
2. Scrotum in human males is situated outside the abdomen. What is the significance of this? (U)
3. What are seminiferous tubules? (K)
4. Name the functional units of testis where spermatogenesis occurs. (K)
5. Write the function of Leydig cells. (K)
6. Name the cells of testis that synthesise and secrete androgens. (K)
7. Mention the type of cells which provide nutrition to spermatogonia. (K)
8. Mention one function of sertoli cells. (K)
9. Sertoli cells are very much essential during spermatogenesis. Why? (A)
10. Name an accessory duct of the male reproductive system in humans. (K)
11. Name an accessory gland of the male reproductive system in humans. (K)
12. What is urethral meatus? (K)
13. What is glans penis? (K)
14. What is foreskin? (K)
15. What is seminal plasma? (K)
16. Name an accessory duct of the female reproductive system in humans. (K)
17. Name the funnel shaped part of the fallopian tube which lies close to the ovary. (K)
18. Name the finger-like projections present at the edges of the infundibulum of oviduct. (K)
19. Name the middle part of the oviduct or fallopian tube. (K)
20. Name the last part of the oviduct or fallopian tube. (K)
21. What is birth canal? (K)
22. Name the inner glandular layer of the uterus. (K)
23. Name the layer of uterus which undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle. (K)
24. Name the layer of the uterus which exhibits strong contractions during parturition. (K)
25. What is hymen? (K)
26. Define gametogenesis. (K)
27. Define spermatogenesis. (K)
28. What is the ploidy of primary spermatocytes? (K)
29. What is the ploidy of secondary spermatocytes? (K)
30. What is the ploidy of spermatids? (K)
31. What would be the number of chromosome in the spermatids? (K)
32. Define spermiogenesis. (K)
33. Define spermiation. (K)
34. Expand GnRH. (K)
35. Mention the role of LH during spermatogenesis. (K)
36. In the absence of LH, spermatogenesis does not occur. Why? (A)
37. Mention the role of FSH in spermiogenesis. (K)
38. In the absence of FSH, spermiation does not occur. Why? (A)
39. Name the cap-like structure that covers the nucleus of the sperm anteriorly. (K)
40. Mention the role of acrosome. (K)
14
41. What is semen? (K)
42. Define oogenesis. (K)
43. Name the stage of meiosis in which the primary oocytes exist. (K)
44. What are primary ovarian follicles? (K)
45. What are secondary ovarian follicles? (K)
46. What are tertiary ovarian follicles? (K)
47. Name the cavity of graafian follicles. (K)
48. Name the cavity present in the tertiary ovarian follicles of human females. (K)
49. Define ovulation. (K)
50. Define menstrual cycle. (K)
51. What is menarche? (K)
52. What is menopause? (K)
53. During which phase of the menstrual cycle the endometrial lining of uterus and its blood vessels
breakdown resulting in bleeding? K
54. Mention a gonadotropin which promotes follicular development during menstrual cycle. (K)
55. Name the hormone which induces the rupturing of Graafian follicle. (K)
56. Name a hormone which induces ovulation. (K)
57. Ovulation takes place on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Why? (K)
58. During which phase of the menstrual cycle the mature Graafian follicle ruptures to release the
ovum? (K)
59. During which phase of the menstrual cycle corpus luteum is formed? (K)
60. Name the hormone secreted by corpus luteum. (K)
61. Mention the function of progesterone. (K)
62. What is coitus? (K)
63. What is insemination? (K)
64. Define fertilisation. (K)
65. In which part of the fallopian tube of the female reproductive system fertilization occurs? (K)
66. Why all copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy in healthy couple? (A)
67. When does the secondary oocyte complete second meiotic division? (U)
68. Define cleavage. (K)
69. What is trophoblast ? (K)
70. Why the cells of the inner cell mass of blastocyst are called stem cells? (A)
71. What are stem cells? (K)
72. Define implantation. (K)
73. Name the finger like projections that appear on the trophoblast after the implantation. (K)
74. Define is placenta? (K)
75. Expand hCG. (K)
76. Expand hPL. (K)
77. Mention any one hormone secreted by the placenta. (K)
78. Mention one function of placenta. (K)
79. Name any one hormone in human females which is produced only during pregnancy. (K)
80. Mention the hormone produced only during pregnancy by the ovary in human females. (K)
81. Which part of the female reproductive system produces relaxin? (K)
82. In which month of pregnancy, embryo’s heart is formed? (K)
83. In which month of human pregnancy, foetus develops limbs and digits? (K)
15
84. At which month of pregnancy first foetal movement and appearance of hair on head can be
noticed? (K)
85. What is gestation period? (K)
86. Define parturition. (K)
87. What is foetal ejection reflex? (K)
88. Name a hormone which induces parturition. (K)
89. Why oxytocin is necessary for parturition? (A)
90. Name the hormone released by the pituitary gland in response to foetal ejection reflex in human
female. (K)
91. Define lactation. K
92. What is colostrum? (K)
93. “Colostrum is considered as essential for newborn baby”. Give reason. (A)

1. Mention two functions of sertoli cells. (K)
2. What are the functions of sertoli cells and interstitial cells of the testis? (K)
3. Name the hormones secreted by Leydig’s cells and corpus leuteum. (K)
4. Name any two accessory ducts of the male reproductive system in humans. (K)
5. Name any two accessory glands of the male reproductive system in humans. (K)
6. Name any two accessory ducts of the female reproductive system in humans. (K)
7. Mention any four parts of the external genitalia in human females. (K)
8. Mention any two hormones secreted by ovary. (K)
9. Differentiate spermiogenesis from spermiation. (U)
10. Define spermiation. What is the role of FSH in spermiation? (K)
11. Mention the roles of LH and FSH during spermatogenesis. (K)
12. “Acrosome and middle piece of the sperm are very essential parts of the sperm without which
fertilization does not occur”. Justify the statement. (A)
13. How is primary ovarian follicle different from secondary ovarian follicle? (U)
14. How is secondary ovarian follicle different from tertiary ovarian follicle? (U)
15. Mention one function each of FSH and LH. (K)
16. Mention one function each of LH and oxytocin. (K)
17. Mention one function each of FSH and oxytocin. (K)
18. Mention one function each of FSH and progesterone. (K)
19. Mention one function each of progesterone and LH. (K)
20. What is menstrual cycle? Name the hormones which regulate menstrual cycle. (K)
21. Name the gonadotropins whose concentration gradually increases during the follicular phase of
menstrual cycle. (K)
22. Mention two events that occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle. (K)
23. Define ovulation. Mention the hormone that induces ovulation. (K)
24. Mention two events that occur during the leuteal phase of menstrual cycle. (K)
25. Differentiate menarche and menopause. (U)
26. Define fertilization. In which part of the fallopian tube of the female reproductive system
fertilization occurs? (K)
27. Define the terms cleavage and implantation. (K)
28. Define the terms fertilization and implantation. (K)
16
29. Define the terms fertilization and cleavage. (K)
30. Mention the functions of placenta. (K)
31. What is placenta? Mention any two hormones secreted by placenta. (K)
32. List any four hormones secreted by placenta. (K)
33. Name any four hormones which increase several folds in maternal blood during pregnancy. K
34. Name any two hormones in human females which are produced only during pregnancy. (K)
35. Define parturition. Name the hormone released by the pituitary which induces parturition. (K)
36. Mention one function each of progesterone and oxytocin. (U)
37. “Unless foetal ejection reflex is produced, normal parturition does not occur”. Substantiate the
statement. (K)
38. What is colostrum? Mention its benefits. K

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of sectional view of seminiferous tubules. (S)
2. Write the schematic representation of spermatogenesis. (S)
3. Briefly explain the role of three hormones during spermatogenesis. (U)
4. Write the schematic representation of oogenesis. (S)
5. Mention the events that occur during the folloicular phase of menstrual cycle. (K)
6. Mention the events that occur during the leuteal phase of menstrual cycle. (K)
7. Briefly explain the process of fertilization in humans. (U)
8. Define placenta. Mention the functions of placenta. (K)
9. In humans, sex of the baby is determined by the father and not the mother. Justify. (A)
10. Define gestation. Name any two hormones in human females which are produced only during
pregnancy. (K)
11. Explain the neuroendocrine mechanism which induces parturition. (U)

1. Describe the male reproductive system in humans. (U)
2. Draw a labelled diagram of human male reproductive system. (S)
3. Describe the internal structure of testis. (U)
4. Describe the female reproductive system in humans. (U)
5. Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of female reproductive system. (S)
6. Describe the structure of mammary gland. (U)
7. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the sectional view of mammary gland. (S)
8. Explain spermatogenesis with the help of a schematic representation. (U)
9. Explain oogenesis with the help of a schematic representation. (U)
10. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm. (S)
11. Describe the various events that occur during menstrual cycle. (U)
12. Briefly explain the embryonic development in humans. (U)
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17
Chapter 4
RERPODUCTIVE HEALTH
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Expand the abbreviation WHO. (K)
2. Define reproductive health according to WHO. (K)
3. In which year was family planning programme initiated in India? (K)
4. What does RCH stand for? (K)
5. Name the current national programme in operation which is related to reproductive health. (K)
6. Define amniocentesis(K)
7. Name the foetal sex determination test. (K)
8. Why statutory ban on amniocentesis is needed? (A)
9. Mention one negative application of amniocentesis. (A)
10. Expand the abbreviation Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow. (K)
11. What is the statutory marriageable age of males in India? (K)
12. What is the statutory marriageable age of females in India? (K)
13. What is family planning? (K)
14. What are contraceptives? (K)
15. The use of contraceptives has become very essential. Give reason. (A)
16. Name a natural method of contraception. (K)
17. Mention the principle involved in natural method of contraception. (U)
18. What is the advantage of natural method of contraception?(K)
19. What is periodic abstinence. (K)
20. Define withdrawl method of contraception. (K)
21. Define coitus interruptus? (K)
22. "Use of condoms not only prevents conception, but also has additional benefits". Justify with
one reason. (A)
23. Avoiding coitus from 10th day to 17th day of menstrual cycle prevents conception. Why? (A)
24. What is lactational amenorrhea? (K)
25. How does lactational amenorrhea become a birth control method?(A)
26. During the period of intense lactation following parturition, chances of conception are nil even
after sexual intercourse. Why? (A)
27. How contraceptive barriers prevent conception? (A)
28. What are condoms? (K)
29. Name a popular brand of condom for the male. (K)
30. How do condoms act as effective contraceptive devices? (A)
31. What is the additional benefit of condom apart from being a contraceptive device? (U)
32. What are diaphragms? (K)
33. What are vaults? (K)
34. How do diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults act as contraceptive devices? (A)
35. What is the benefit of using spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with some of the
contraceptive barriers? (U)
36. How can the efficiency of contraceptive barriers be increased? (A)
37. What are Intra Uterine Devices? (K)
18
38. Expand the abbreviation IUDs. (K)
39. Where are IUDs inserted in the body of woman? (K)
40. Give an example for non-medicated IUDs. (K)
41. Give an example for copper releasing IUDs. (K)
42. Give an example for hormone releasing IUDs. (K)
43. How do copper releasing IUDs prevent conception? (A)
44. Identify a contraceptive device that releases ions to suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing
capacity of sperms. (A)
45. Name an IUD that would be recommended to promote the cervix hostility to the sperms. (A)
46. How do hormone releasing IUDs prevent conception? (A)
47. How does LNG-20 act as contraceptive? (A)
48. What are oral contraceptives? (K)
49. What is the hormonal composition of oral contraceptive used by females? (K)
50. Name a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill. (K)
51. Name ‘once-a-week’ oral contraceptive pill. (K)
52. What is the hormonal composition of an implant which used as a contraceptive? (K)
53. What is sterilization method of contraception? (K)
54. How do surgical methods prevent conception? (A)
55. Define vasectomy? (K)
56. Name the terminal method of contraception in male. (K)
57. How does vasectomy prevent conception? (A)
58. Define tubectomy? (K)
59. Name the terminal method of contraception in female. (K)
60. How does tubectomy prevent conception? (A)
61. What is the disadvantage of surgical method of contraception? (K)
62. Expand the abbreviation MTP. (K)
63. What is medical termination of pregnancy ? (K)
64. What is induced abortion? (K)
65. When did Government of India legalize MTP? (K)
66. Government of India legalized MTP in 1971 with strict conditions for MTP in our country. Justify
giving a reason. (A)
67. Which period of pregnancy is considered as relatively safe for MTPs? (K)
68. What are sexually transmitted diseases? (K)
69. What are venereal diseases? (K)
70. Expand the abbreviation STD. (K)
71. Expand the abbreviation VD. (K)
72. Expand the abbreviation PID. (K)
73. What are reproductive tract infections? (K)
74. Sharing of injection needles by two individuals is not recommended. Why? (A)
75. Define is infertility? (K)
76. Expand the abbreviation IVF-ET. (K)
77. Expand the abbreviation ZIFT. (K)
78. Expand the abbreviation GIFT. (K)
79. Expand the abbreviation IUT. (K)
80. Expand the abbreviation ICSI. (K)
19
81. Expand the abbreviation IUI. (K)
82. What is In-vitro fertilization? (K)
83. Define in-vivo fertilization. (K)
84. What is Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer? (K)
85. What is Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer? (K)
86. What is Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection? (K)
87. Define Intra-uterine insemination. (K)
88. What is artificial insemination? (K)
89. Name the method of obtaining an embryo in the laboratory by direct injection of a sperm into
ovum. (K)
90. Which is the correct assisted reproductive technique technique when male partner fails to
inseminate or produces semen with low sperm count in the ejaculates? (U)
91. Semen from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the uterus of the
female. What is this technique called? (U)
92. Suggest an assisted reproductive technique that can help the couple to have a child where the
problem is with the male partner. (A)
93. Suggest an assisted reproductive technique that help the couple to have a child where the
problem is with the female partner who cannot conceive. (A)
94. Name a contraceptive device that inhibits ovulation and implantation. (K)
95. Mention one Assisted Reproductive Technology. (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention two objectives of action plans and programmes for reproductive health. (K)
2. Mention two means to create awareness among the people about problems regarding
reproductive health. (K)
3. Mention two strategies to promote reproductive health. (K)
4. What are the benefits of introducing sex education in schools? (K)
5. List any two indicators that indicate a reproductively healthy society. (K)
6. Mention any two reasons for population explosion in India. (K)
7. What are contraceptives ? Mention two qualities of an ideal contraceptive. (K)
8. Mention any four characteristics of ideal contraceptives. (K)
9. Mention any two natural methods of contraception. (K)
10. A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. If you agree
with the statement, give reasons for your answer. (A)
11. Which days of menstrual cycle are identified as “fertile period” and why? (K)
12. Mention any four devices used as barriers by males and females to prevent conception. (K)
13. Mention two benefits of condoms which are used as contraceptive devices. (U)
14. What are IUDs ? Give any two examples. (K)
15. Mention any two types of IUDs with an example for each. (K)
16. IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. Justify with two
reasons. (A)
17. Briefly describe the principle of working of IUDs. (U)
18. List any two types of IUDs that are available for human females and state their mode of
action.(U)
19. CuT can act as an effective contraceptive. Justify. (A)
20
20. Explain the contraceptive actions of Multiiload 375. (U)
21. Progestasert can act as an effective contraceptive. Justify. (A)
22. Write the mode of action of oral contraceptives. (U)
23. Why do women use ‘Saheli’, the oral contraceptive pill as a well accepted method? (A)
24. What are emergency contraceptives? Write their hormonal combination. (K)
25. List one contraceptive method each in males and females with poor reversibility. (K)
26. Differentiate vasectomy from tubectomy. (U)
27. List the possible ill-effects of various contraceptive methods. (K)
28. What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy? Mention the safe period for Medical Termination of
Pregnancy. (K)
29. When does medical termination of pregnancy become essential? (U)
30. List any four reproductive tract infections. (K)
31. List any four sexually transmitted diseases. (K)
32. Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the genital region. (K)
33. List the complications a person suffers from untreated sexually transmitted diseases. (K)
34. List any two preventive measures of STD. (K)
35. List the modes of transmission of HIV. (K)
36. List the modes of transmission of hepatitis-B infection. (K)
37. Mention the reasons for infertility. (U)
38. List the types of assisted reproductive technologies (ARTs). (K)
39. Suggest any two ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
female partner. (A)
40. Explain the procedure involved in conceiving the baby by test tube baby programme. (U)
41. After successful in-vitro fertilization, the fertilized egg begins to divide. Where is this egg
transferred before it reaches the 8-celled stage and what is this technique called? (U)
42. Differentiate ZIFT from IUT. (U)
43. Differentiate ZIFT from GIFT. (U)
44. Explain the procedures involved in GIFT and Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection. (U)
45. Name the two regions of female’s reproductive system into which the zygote or embryos are
transferred in Embryo Transfer technique. (K)
46. Explain Artificial Insemination. (U)
47. Explain the technique that can help a healthy married woman who is unable to produce viable
ova but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development and wants
to bear a child. (U)
48. Differentiate in-vitro fertilization from in-vivo fertilization. (U)
49. How is ICSI different from ZIFT ? (U)
50. How is ICSI different from GIFT? (U)
51. How is IUI different from ICSI ? (U)
52. How is IUI different from GIFT ? (U)
53. How is IUI different from ZIFT? (U)

1. Mention any three objectives of action plans and programmes for reproductive health. (K)
2. Mention three strategies to promote reproductive health. (K)
3. Mention any three reasons for population explosion in India. (K)
21
4. List the measures to check the population growth rate. (K)
5. Explain natural methods of contraception. (U)
6. Explain barrier methods of contraception. (U)
7. How does barrier method helps in contraception ? Mention any four devices which are used as
barriers by males and females to prevent conception.
8. List the types of intra uterine devices with one example for each. (K)
9. Categorise the following into different kinds of IUDs such as non-medicated, copper releasing or
hormone releasing ones. (K)
(a) Progestasert (b) Lippes loop (c) CuT (d) LNG-20 (e) Cu7 (f) Multiload 375
10. Intra uterine devices are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. Justify
with three reasons. (A)
11. What is the chemical composition of oral contraceptives? How do they prevent conception? (U)
12. Name a terminal method to prevent pregnancy in humans. Explain the procedure of the terminal
method employed in human male and female. (U)
13. What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy? Mention two reasons for a woman to undergo
medical terrmination of pregnancy. (K)
14. List any six reproductive tract infections. (K)
15. List three principles through which one could be free of STDs. (K)
16. Define venereal disease. Mention any two modes of transmission of HIV or Hepatitis B virus. (K)
17. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the
genital region. (K)
18. Suggest any three ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
male partner. (A)
19. Write a note on the steps involved in the creation of “test tube baby”. (U)
20. Explain any three methods employed to assist infertile couples to have children. (A)
21. What are Assisted Reproductive technologies (A RTs)? Explain the role of ZIFT and GIFT as two
important ARTs. (U)
22. What do you understand by GIFT, ICSI and AI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies. (K)
23. What do you understand by GIFT, ICSI and IUI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies. (K)
24. What do you understand by GIFT, IUI and AI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies. (K)
25. How ZIFT and GIFT are useful as assisted reproductive technologies to overcome infertility? (A)
26. A healthy couple came to know that both of them are unable to produce functional gametes and
should look for an ART (Assisted Reproductive Technique). Name the ART that can be suggested
to help them bear a child and explain the procedure involved in it. (A)

1. Explain five measures that can be taken to build up a socially responsible and reproductively
healthy society? (U)
2. Explain any five birth control methods.(U)
3. Explain natural method and sterilization method of contraception. (U)
4. What are IUDs? Mention any two types with an example for each. How do IUDs help in
preventing conception? (U)
5. List the types of Intra Uterine Devices with one example each. Explain their mode of action. (U)
6. Explain how oral contraceptives and sterilization help in contraception. (U)
7. With the help of labeled diagrams, explain the surgical methods of contraception in human. (S)
22
8. What are sexually transmitted diseases ? Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the
genital region. Mention any four complications of STDs if they are not detected early and treated
properly. (K)
9. What are assisted reproductive technologies? How infertility is treated by assisted reproductive
technologies? (U)
10. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by assisted reproductive technologies like IVF-ET and
ZIFT? (U)
11. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by assisted reproductive technologies like GIFT, ZIFT,
AI and ICSI? (U)
12. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by GIFT, ICSI, IUI and AI? (U)
13. Explain the steps involved in In vitro fertilization popularly known as ‘test tube baby’ programme
and mention the importance of this IVF programme. (U)
14. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies? How is infertility treated by IVF – ET and ZIFT? (U)
15. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)? How is infertility treated by ZIFT, GIFT, ICSI
and AI? (U)
16. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies? How is infertility treated by GIFT, ICSI, IUI and AI?
(U)
17. Define the following: (a) Amniocentesis (b) Artificial Insemination (c) Infertility (d)
Venereal diseases (e) Assisted Reproductive Technologies (K)
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23
Chapter 5
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define Genetics. (K)
2. Define inheritance. (K)
3. Define heredity. (K)
4. Define variation. (K)
5. Define genes. (K)
6. Define alleles. (K)
7. What is a dominant allele? (K)
8. What is a recessive allele? (K)
9. What is genotype? (K)
10. What is phenotype? (K)
11. What are homozygous individuals? (K)
12. What are heterozygous individuals? (K)
13. What is a true breeding plant? (U)
14. What is monohybrid cross? (K)
15. What is a monohybrid? (K)
16. What is Punnette square? (K)
17. Mention the phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross. (K)
18. Mention the genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross. (K)
19. State the law of segregation. (U)
20. What is dihybrid cross? (K)
21. Mention the phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross. (K)
22. State the law of independent assortment. (U)
23. What is test cross? (K)
24. Mention monohybrid test cross ratio. (K)
25. Mention dihybrid test cross ratio. (K)
26. Mention the significance of test cross. (K)
27. Define incomplete dominance. (K)
28. Mention the phenotypic ratio with respect to incomplete dominance in Snapdragon. (K)
29. Mention the genotypic ratio with respect to incomplete dominance in Snapdragon. (K)
30. Define codominance. (K)
31. What are multiple alleles? (K)
32. Mention an example for multiple allelism. (K)
33. How many genotypes are possible for the four blood groups in ABO blood group system? (K)
34. IA and IB alleles which determine blood group in man are considered as codominant. Why? (A)
35. What is polygenic inheritance? (K)
36. Mention an example for polygenic inheritance. (K)
37. What is pleiotropy? (K)
38. Mention an example for pleiotropy. (K)
39. What is phenylketonuria? (K)
40. Mention one reason why Mendel’s work remained unrecognized for a long time. (U)
24
41. Define linkage. (U)
42. Define recombination. (U)
43. Even when genes are grouped on the same chromosome, some genes show very low
recombination. Give reason. (A)
44. Mention the type of sex determination mechanism in Drosophila melanogaster. (K)
45. Mention the type of sex determination mechanism in humans. (K)
46. Mention the type of sex determination mechanism in insects like grasshopper. (K)
47. Mention the type of sex determination mechanism in birds. (K)
48. What is haplo-diploid sex determination mechanism? (K)
49. Define male heterogamety. (K)
50. Define female heterogamety. (K)
51. Define mutation. (K)
52. What is deletion mutation? (K)
53. What is insertion mutation? (K)
54. What is point mutation? (K)
55. Mention an example for point mutation. (K)
56. What is frame shift mutation? (K)
57. What are mutagens? (K)
58. What is pedigree analysis? (K)
59. What is thalassemia? (K)
60. What are Mendelian disorders? (K)
61. Mention an example for a mendelian disorder. (K)
62. What are chromosomal disorders? (K)
63. Mention an example for chromosomal disorder. (K)
64. Give an example for sex linked recessive disease in humans. (K)
65. Name an autosomal recessive Mendelian disorder in humans. (K)
66. Mention an example for an inborn error of metabolism caused due to a recessive allele on the
autosome. (K)
67. Name the enzyme that is not produced due to gene mutation which causes phenylketonuria. (K)
68. Phenyl pyruvic acid and its derivatives are excreted through urine in phenylketonuria. Why? (A)
69. Why persons with phenylketonuria normally suffer from mental retardation. (A)
70. What is haemophilia? (K)
71. Why the possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare? (A)
72. In a haemophilic patient, why even a simple cut results in non-stop bleeding ? (A)
73. What is colourblindness? (K)
74. What is sickle cell anaemia? (K)
75. RBCs become sickle-shaped in persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia. Why? (U)
76. Name the amino acid which substitutes glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin in
sickle cell anaemia. (K)
77. Name the amino acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin which is substituted by valine in
sickle cell anaemia. (K)
78. Mention the sixth codon of beta globin chain in normal haemoglobin. (K)
79. Write the sixth codon of beta globin chain in haemoglobin of sickle celled anaemic patients. (K)
80. Which genetic disease is characterized by the reduced synthesis of haemoglobin ? (K)
81. Define polyploidy. (K)
25
82. What is the cause for polyploidy? (U)
83. Define aneuploidy. (K)
84. What is trisomy ? (K)
85. What is monosomy ? (K)
86. What is the cause for aneuploidy? (U)
87. Give an example for trisomy of sex chromosomes. (K)
88. Mention the karyotype of Down’s syndrome. (K)
89. Mention the karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome. (K)
90. Mention the karyotype of Turner’s syndrome. (K)
91. Mention an example for aneuploidy of autosomes. (K)
92. Give an example for allosomal monosomy. (K)
93. Give an example for autosomal trisomy. (K)
94. Mention an example for allosomal trisomy. (K)
95. Why does a person with Klinefelter’s syndrome exhibit feminine characters? (A)
96. What is gynaecomastia ? (K)
97. Why does a person with Turner’s syndrome lack certain female secondary sexual characters and
has rudimentary ovaries? (A)
98. Write the symbol used to represent ‘affected individuals’ in pedigree chart. (K)
99. Write the symbol used to represent ‘consanguineous mating’ in pedigree chart. (K)
100. Write the symbol used to represent ‘male’ in pedigree chart. (K)
101. Write the symbol used to represent ‘female’ in pedigree chart. (K)
102. Write the symbol used to represent ‘individual of unspecified sex’ in pedigree chart. (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate homozygous and heterozygous conditions. (U)
2. Differentiate dominant and recessive alleles. (U)
3. Distinguish between monohybrid and dihybrid crosses. (U)
4. What is test cross? Write its significance. (K)
5. State the law of segregation and law of independent assortment. (U)
6. What is incomplete dominance? Mention an example. (K)
7. What is codominance? Mention an example. (K)
8. What are multiple alleles? Give an example of human trait regulated by multiple alleles. (K)
9. What are multiple alleles? Why alleles IA and IB for blood group are considered codominant ? (U)
10. A child has blood group ‘O’. If the father has blood group ‘A’ and mother blood group ‘B’, work
out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offspring. (A)
11. Differentiate between incomplete dominance and codominance. (U)
12. Differentiate polygenic inheritance and pleiotropy. (U)
13. What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example. (K)
14. What is polygenic inheritance? Explain it taking the inheritance of skin colour in man. (U)
15. Define pleiotropy. Mention an example. (K)
16. Mention two similarities in the behaviours of chromosomes and genes. (K)
17. Differentiate linkage and recombination. (U)
18. List two features of Drosophila melanogaster which make it suitable for genetic experiments. (K)
19. What are the conclusions drawn by T H Morgan from the crossing experiment in Drosophila with
respect to linkage? (U)
26
20. Mention two features in Drosophila which made T H Morgan to select it for his genetical
experiments. (K)
21. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and humans. (K)
22. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and Drosophila melanogaster. (K)
23. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and birds. (K)
24. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in humans and birds. (K)
25. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in Drosophila melanogaster and birds. (K)
26. What is male heterogamety ? Give an example. (K)
27. What is female heterogamety ? Give an example. (K)
28. Differentiate male haterogamety from female heterogamety. (U)
29. What is haplo-diploid sex determination mechanism? Mention an animal which exhibits this. (K)
30. Define mutation. What are mutation causing agents called? (K)
31. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its importance. (K)
32. Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of myotonic dystrophy as an
example for autosomal dominant trait. (S)
33. Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of sickle cell anaemia as an example
for autosomal recessive trait. (S)
34. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention two examples. (K)
35. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention two examples. (K)
36. What are Mendelian disorders? Give an example for sex linked recessive Mendelian disorder in
humans. (U)
37. What are Mendelian disorders? Name an autosomal recessive Mendelian disorder in man. (K)
38. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention an example for an inborn error of metabolism caused
due to an autosomal recessive allele. (K)
39. What is phenylketonuria? Write two symptoms. (K)
40. Mention the causes and effects of phenylketonuria. (K)
41. What is phenylketonuria? Why phenyl pyruvic acid and its derivatives are excreted through urine
in phenylketonuria. (U)
42. What is phenylketonuria? Why persons with phenylketonuria normally suffer from mental
retardation. (U)
43. What is haemophilia? Why the possibility of female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare? (U)
44. What is haemophilia? In a person suffering from haemophilia, why even a simple cut results in
non-stop bleeding? (U)
45. What is sickle cell anaemia? Why RBCs become sickle-shaped in persons suffering from sickle cell
anaemia? (U)
46. Mention the sixth codons of the beta globin chain in normal haemoglobin and the haemoglobin
of person with sickle celled anaemia. (K)
47. What is thalassemia? Mention the types. (K)
48. Write a note on α – thalassemia. (U)
49. Write a note on β – thalassemia. (U)
50. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Turner's syndrome. (K)
51. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Klinefelter’s syndrome. (K)
52. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Down’s syndrome. (K)
53. Define aneuploidy. How is it caused? (U)
54. Distinguish between aneuploidy and polyploidy. (U)
27
55. Define aneuploidy. Mention an example for a syndrome caused by aneuploidy in humans. (K)
56. Define monosomy. How is it caused? (K)
57. Define trisomy. How is it caused? (K)
58. Define monosomy . Mention an example for it in humans. (K)
59. Define trisomy. Mention an example for it in humans. (K)
60. What is the karyotype in Turner’s syndrome? Mention two symptoms of the syndrome. (K)
61. What is the karyotype in Klinefelter’s syndrome? Mention two symptoms of the syndrome. (K)
62. What is the karyotype in Down’s syndrome? Mention any two symptoms of the syndrome. (K)
63. Mention four symptoms of Down’s syndrome. (K)
64. Give an example for trisomy in humans and mention three of its symptoms. (K)
65. Give an example for monosomy in humans and mention three of its symptoms (K).

1. Write the flow chart that depicts Mendelian monohybrid cross for the inheritance of height in
pea plant. (S)
2. Write the flow chart that depicts Mendelian dihybrid cross for the inheritance of colour and
shape of seed in pea plant. (S)
3. Write the flow chart that depicts incomplete dominance in Antirrhinum. (S)
4. Define pleiotropy. Explain it with respect to phenylketonuria. (U)
5. “Mendel’s work was not recognized during his time.”? Give any three reasons. (A)
6. Mention the similarities between the behaviours of chromosomes and genes according to
chromosomal theory of inheritance. (U)
7. Mention three features of Drosophila melanogaster which makes it suitable for genetic
experiments. (K)
8. Explain sex determination in humans. (U)
9. Explain sex determination in Drosophila melanogaster. (U)
10. Explain sex determination in birds. (U)
11. Explain sex determination mechanism in grasshopper. (U)
12. Explain sex determination mechanism in honey bees. (U)
13. What is pedigree analysis? Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of
myotonic dystrophy as an example for autosomal dominant trait. (S)
14. What is pedigree analysis? Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of sickle
cell anaemia as an example for autosomal recessive trait. (S)
15. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention a Mendelian disease and its types where there is
reduced synthesis of haemoglobin. (K)
16. Write a note on phenylketonuria as an example for Mendelian disorder. (U)
17. Mention the cause, symptoms and inheritance of haemophilia. (K)
18. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any four symptoms of Down’s syndrome. (K)
19. Mention the causes of Down’s syndrome and mention four of its symptoms. (K)
20. Mention the karyotype of Down’s syndrome and mention four of its symptoms. (K)
21. Write the karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome. (K)

1. State law of segregation. Explain it with reference to the inheritance of height of the plant in pea
garden pea. (U)
28
2. Explain the concept of dominance. (U)
3. State the law of Independent assortment. Explain it with reference to the inheritance of colour
and shape of the seed in pea plant. (U)
4. What is incomplete dominance? Explain it with respect to flower colour in snapdragon. (U)
5. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its significance. Write the representative pedigree analysis
(pedigree chart) of myotonic dystrophy as an example for autosomal dominant trait. (U)
6. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its significance. Write the representative pedigree analysis
(pedigree chart) of sickle cell anaemia as an example for autosomal recessive trait that you have
studied. (U)
7. Explain the cause, symptoms and inheritance pattern of sickle cell anemia. (U)
8. Explain thalassemia as an example for Mendelian disorder. (U)
9. Define aneuploidy. What is the cause for aneuploidy? Mention the karyotype of Down’s
syndrome and four of its symptoms. (U)
10. What is trisomy? What is its cause? Mention the karyotype of Down’s syndrome and four of its
symptoms. (U)
11. Explain Morgan’s experiment on Drosophila to show the relation between linkage and
recombination.(U)
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29
Chapter 6
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Name the pentose sugar present in DNA. (K)
2. Name the pentose sugar present in RNA. (K)
3. Mention an example for purine. (K)
4. Mention an example for pyrimidine. (K)
5. Name the bond present between pentose sugar and nitrobase in a nucleoside. (K)
6. Name the bond present between a nucleoside and the phosphate group. (K)
7. Name the bonds present between the two strands of a DNA molecule. (K)
8. Name the bond formed between sugar and phosphate back bone of single stranded DNA. (K)
9. What is the alternative chemical name of thymine? (K)
10. Name the nitrogenous base present in DNA but not in RNA. (K)
11. Name the nitrogenous base present in RNA but not in DNA. (K)
12. Name the nucleoside present only in DNA. (K)
13. Name the nucleoside present only in RNA. (K)
14. What was the observation of Erwin Chargaff for a double stranded DNA? (U)
15. The two strands in a DNA molecule are said to be antiparallel. Why? (A)
16. Which nitrogenous base provides additional stability to DNA? (K)
17. State the central dogma of molecular biology. (U)
18. What is reverse dogma of molecular biology? (U)
19. What is nucleosome? (K)
20. Name the proteins which form the core of nucleosomes. (K)
21. Mention any one basic amino acid present in large quantities in the histone proteins of
nucleosomes. (K)
22. How many base pairs (bp) of a DNA helix are found in a typical nucleosome? (K)
23. What is chromatin? (K)
24. What is euchromatin? (K).
25. Define heterochromatin. (K)
26. What is the loosely coiled and lightly stained region of chromatin called? (K)
27. What is the densely packed and darkly stained region of chromatin called? (K)
28. Replication in the region of euchromatin would be faster. Justify. (A)
29. Replication in the region of heterochromatin would be slow. Justify. (A)
30. Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive when compared to euchromatin. Give reason. (A)
31. Name the scientific name of bacteria used by Griffith in his experiment. (K)
32. Why the mouse dies when the mixture of heat killed ‘S’ strain and live ‘R’ strain of Streptococcus
pneumoniae is injected? (A)
33. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA. Justify with one reason. (A)
34. Define replication. (K)
35. Why replication in DNA is referred to as semi-conservative replication? (A)
36. Name the enzyme involved in the polymerization of nucleotides during DNA replication. (K)
37. What is the function of DNA polymerase during replication? (K)
38. Mention the template polarity on which replication occurs continuously. (U)
30
39. Mention the template polarity on which replication occurs discontinuously. (U)
40. Name the enzyme which joins discontinuously synthesized fragments of DNA during DNA
replication. (K)
41. What is the function of DNA ligase during replication? (K)
42. What is origin of replication? (K)
43. In which phase of the cell cycle DNA replication occurs? (K)
44. Define transcription. (K)
45. “Both the strands of DNA do not act as templates during transcription”. Justify with a reason. (A)
46. Name the enzyme involved in polymerization of nucleotides during transcription. (K)
47. What is a ‘coding strand’ with respect to transcription? (K)
48. What is ‘template strand’ with respect to transcription? (K)
49. What is the significance of promoter site on a transcription unit? (U)
50. What is a cistron? (K)
51. What do you mean by monocistronic transcriptional unit? (U)
52. What is polycistronic transcriptional unit? (U)
53. What are exons? (K)
54. What are introns? (K)
55. What are split genes? (U)
56. Why eukaryotic genes are called split genes? (A)
57. Mention the function of mRNA. (K)
58. Mention the function of tRNA. (K)
59. Mention the function of rRNA. (K)
60. Why tRNA is called an adaptor molecule? (A)
61. Mention the factors that temporarily associate with RNA polymerase during initiation of
transcription in prokaryotes. (K)
62. Mention the factors that temporarily associate with RNA polymerase during termination of
transcription in prokaryotes. (K)
63. Mention the enzyme that transcribes mRNA in prokaryotes. (K)
64. In bacteria, translation can begin much before mRNA is fully transcribed. Give one reason. (A)
65. Mention the enzyme that transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes. (K)
66. Which enzyme is involved in transcription of tRNA in eukaryotes? (K)
67. Which enzyme is involved in transcription of 28SrRNA in eukaryotes? (K)
68. Mention the function of RNA polymerase I.
69. Mention the function of RNA polymerase II.
70. Mention the function of RNA polymerase III.
71. What is hnRNA ?
72. What is ‘capping’ with reference to post-transcriptional stage in eukaryotes ?
73. What is ‘tailing’ with reference to post-transcriptional stage in eukaryotes ?
74. Define ‘splicing’ with respect to post-transcriptional stage in eukaryotes.
75. Define genetic code. (K)
76. What is triplet code? (K)
77. Name the Severo Ochoa enzyme. (K)
78. What is the special property of Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase)? (U)
79. Name the enzyme which is helpful in polymerizing RNA with defined sequences in a template
independent manner. (A)
31
80. Name the initiator codon. (K)
81. Why AUG is considered as initiator codon? (A)
82. What other function the initiator codon performs in addition to initiating translation? (U)
83. Name the amino acid coded by initiator codon. (U)
84. Mention terminator codon. (K)
85. Why UAA is considered as terminator or stop codon? (A)
86. Why UAG is considered as terminator or stop codon? (A)
87. Why UGA is considered as terminator or stop codon? (A)
88. Why genetic code is referred to as degenerate? (A)
89. Why genetic code is said to be universal? (A)
90. Why genetic code is said to be unambiguous or specific? (A)
91. What is point mutation? (K)
92. What is frame shift insertion mutation? (K)
93. What is frame shift deletion mutation?
94. Mention an example for a genetic disorder which is a result of point mutation. (K)
95. Define translation. (K)
96. Name the cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins. (K)
97. What do you mean by charging of tRNA with respect to translation? (U)
98. What do you mean by aminoacylation of tRNA with respect to translation? (U)
99. Mention the enzyme involved in peptide bond formation during protein synthesis. (K)
100. What is the function of ribosome during chain elongation of translation? (K)
101. Which type of rRNA acts as ribozyme for the formation of peptide bonds during translation in
bacteria? (K)
102. Mention the type of RNA that has anticodon? (K)
103. Expand UTR with reference to mRNA. (K)
104. What is an operon? (K)
105. What is lac operon? (K)
106. Name the protein produced by lac ‘i’ gene. (K)
107. What is the function of regulatory gene of Lac-operon? (K)
108. Why transcription in E.coli does not occur in the absence of lactose in the medium? (A)
109. How does repressor protein prevent the transcription of structural genes? (U)
110. What is the function of repressor in an operon? (K)
111. Name the enzyme encoded by the lac ‘z’ gene. (K)
112. Name the enzyme encoded by the lac ‘y’ gene. (K)
113. Name the enzyme encoded by the lac ‘a’ gene. (K)
114. What is the function of β – galactosidase in E.coli? (K)
115. Mention the function of permease in E.coli. (K)
116. What is the importance of operator in Lac-operon? (K)
117. Mention the inducer that inactivates Lac repressor protein. (K)
118. Why lactose is termed as inducer with reference to Lac-operon? (A)
119. What is negative regulation? (K)
120. What are expressed sequence tags? (K)
121. Define sequence annotation. (K)
122. Mention a common vector used for the amplification of DNA fragments during the sequencing of
human genome. (K)
32
123. Which is the largest known human gene? (K)
124. Which chromosome in humans has the largest number of genes? (K)
125. Which chromosome in humans has the least number of genes? (K)
126. With reference to Human Genome Project, what do SNPs refer to? (K)
127. What is single nucleotide polymorphism? (K)
128. What is repetitive DNA? (K)
129. What is satellite DNA? (K)
130. Define DNA polymorphism. (K)
131. Expand VNTR. (K)
132. What is a VNTR probe or DNA probe? (U)
133. ‘Restriction endonucleases are important tools in DNA finger printing technique’. Justify. (A)
134. Why gel electrophoresis is an important step in DNA fingerprinting? (A)
135. Mention one application of DNA fingerprinting. (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the four nitrobases present in DNA. (K)
2. Mention the four nitrobases present in RNA. (K)
3. List the nucleosides of DNA. (K)
4. Mention the nucleosides of RNA. (K)
5. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, calculate the percent of adenine in the DNA. (A)
6. Explain the central dogma of molecular biology with a schematic representation. (U)
7. Draw a labeled diagram of nucleosome. (S)
8. Mention two differences between euchromatin and heterochromatin. (U)
9. How many base pairs of DNA are present in a typical nucleosome? Mention the types of proteins
present in a nucleosome. (K)
10. Write the conclusion that can be drawn from Griffith’s experiment. (K)
11. Mention any two criteria that a molecule must fulfill to act as genetic material. (K)
12. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA. Justify with two reasons. (A)
13. Mention the functions of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase during replication. (K)
14. Draw a labeled diagram of replication fork. (S)
15. “Both the strands of DNA molecule do not act as templates during transcription”. Justify with
two reasons. (A)
16. Write the schematic structure of a transcriptional unit. (S)
17. Write any two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription unit. (U)
18. Differentiate monocistronic transcriptional unit from polycistronic transcriptional. (U)
19. Differentiate introns and exons. (U)
20. Differentiate template strand from a coding strand in DNA. (U)
21. Write the coding strand and the sequence of base on mRNA synthesized by DNA template with
the sequence 3’-ATGCATAGCAT-5’. (A)
22. Write a note on the role of sigma factor and the rho factor in transcription in prokaruotes. (K)
23. What is heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)? How is it converted into functional mRNA? (K)
24. Mention the functions of mRNA and rRNA. (K)
25. Mention the functions of mRNA and tRNA. (K)
26. Mention the functions of rRNA and tRNA. (K)
33
27. In bacteria, translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed. Justify with two
reasons. (A)
28. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes. (K)
29. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes. (K)
30. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes. (K)
31. With reference to transcription, define splicing and capping. (K)
32. Mention any two differences with reference to transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. (U)
33. Define the terms transcription and translation. (U)
34. Name Severo Ochoa enzyme. Mention its function. (K)
35. Explain any two properties of genetic code. (U)
36. Mention the initiator and terminator codons. (K)
37. Name the initiator codon and the amino acid coded by it. (K)
38. “Codon AUG has dual function”. Justify the statement. (A)
39. List the essential roles of ribosome during translation. (U)
40. Differentiate point mutation and frame-shift mutation. (U)
41. What is point mutation? Give an example for a genetic disorder in human beings caused by point
mutaion. (K)
42. Mention the four levels at which regulation of gene expression can be exerted in eukaryotes. (K)
43. Mention the enzymes encoded by lac ‘z’, lac ‘y’ with their function. (K)
44. Mention the role of repressor and inducer in regulation of gene expression. (U)
45. Mention the functions of β-galactosidase and permease in lactose metabolism in E. coli. (K)
46. How does the Lac-operon function in the absence of inducer (lactose) in the medium? (U)
47. How does the Lac-operon function in the presence of inducer (lactose) in the medium? (U)
48. Mention the role of repressor and inducer in regulation of gene expression. (U)
49. Mention the function of repressor protein. What change occurs when lactose is added to the
medium containing E. coli? (U)
50. In the medium where E.coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the Lac-operon.
Then, why does Lac-operon shut down some time after addition of lactose into the medium. (U)
51. Mention any two goals of Human Genome Project (HGP). (K)
52. Mention the two approaches with respect to the methodology of sequencing DNA in Human
Genome Project. (K)
53. Mention two salient features of human genome. (K)
54. With reference to human genome, what is single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)? Mention its
significance. (K)
55. Mention two applications of Human Genome Project. (K)
56. Mention two common vectors used for the amplification of DNA fragments during the sequening
of human genome. (K)

1. The base sequence in one of the DNA strands is TAGCATGAT. Based on this answer the
following: (U)
(a) Give the base sequences of its complementary strand.
(b) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
(c) What was the observation of Chargaff on the base ratio in double stranded DNA?
2. Explain packaging of DNA in prokaryotes. (U)
34
3. The length of a DNA molecule in a typical mammalian cell is calculated to be approximately 2.2
meters. How is the packaging of this long molecule done to accommodate it within the nucleus
having a size of approximately 6µ. (A)
4. List any three criteria that a molecule has to fulfill to act as a genetic material. (K)
5. Why is DNA molecule a more stable genetic material than RNA? Explain. (U)
6. Explain how Avery, MacLeod and McCarty did determine, the biochemical nature of the
molecule responsible for transforming R – strain into S – strain bacteria. (U)
7. Draw a labeled schematic sketch of replication fork of DNA. Explain the role of enzymes involved
in DNA replication. (U)
8. Describe the structure of a transcriptional unit. (U)
9. “RNA polymerases in eukaryotes show a clear cut division of labour”. Substantiate.
10. Explain the function of the following: (K)
(a) Promoter (b) tRNA (c) Exons
11. Explain the stages of post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA in eukaryotes.
12. With reference to post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes, explain splicing, capping and
tailing. (U)
13. Given below is a part of the template strand of a structural gene TAC CAT TAG GAT. Based on
this, answer the following: (U)
(a) Write its transcribed mRNA strand with its polarity
(b) Explain the mechanism involved in initiation of transcription on this strand.
14. Draw a schematic representation which shows the structure of a transcription unit and show the
following in it: (U)
(a) Direction in which transcription occurs (b) Polarity of the two strands involved (c) Template
strand (d) Terminator
15. Explain non-overlapping nature, unambiguity and degeneracy of genetic code. (U)
16. Explain three features of genetic code. (U)
17. Define the terms point mutation, frame – shift insertion mutation and frame – shift deletion
mutation. (K)
18. Define translation. Mention the initiator codon and three stop codons. (U)
19. Mention the role of ATP and ribosomes in protein synthesis. (K)
20. Why tRNA is called an adapter molecule? Draw the structure of the tRNA adapter molecule
which can bind with initiator codon. (A)
21. Mention the anticodon of AUG. Justify the statement that AUG has dual role in translation. (A)
22. Mention the structural genes of Lac-operon and the ezymes produced by each of them. (K)
23. Draw a diagrammatic sketch of the Lac-operon when lactose is absent in the medium. (S)
24. Draw a diagrammatic sketch of the Lac-operon when lactose is present in the medium. (S)
25. (a) In human genome, which one of the chromosomes has the most genes and which one has
the least? (K)
(b) What is single nucleotide polymorphism? Mention the significance SNPs. (K)
26. Mention the three goals of HGP. (K)
27. Mention any three salient features of HGP. (K)
28. Mention three applications of Human Genome Project. (K)
29. List out three applications of DNA fingerprinting. (K)
30. What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention two of its applications. (K)
31. List the steps of DNA finger printing technique. (K)
35
1. Explain the structure of double helical DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick. (U)
2. Draw the diagram of a nucleosome and explain the packaging of DNA in eukaryotes. (U)
3. Explain Griffith’s transformation experiment which proved that DNA is the genetic material. (U)
4. Describe the experiment of Hershey – Chase which proves that DNA is the genetic material. (U)
5. Explain semi-conservative replication of DNA with a diagram. (U)
6. Describe the experiment of Messelson and Stahl that proves that replication of DNA is semi-
conservative. (U)
7. Explain the structure of transcription unit with a labeled diagram. (U)
8. Describe the process of transcription in bacteria with a labeled diagram. (U)
9. Describe the process of transcription in eukaryotes with a labeled diagram. (U)
10. What is genetic code? Explain any four salient features of genetic code. (U)
11. Explain the different steps involved in translation. (U)
12. Explain Lac-operon concept with diagrams. (U)
13. Mention any five salient features of HGP. (K)
14. What is DNA finger printing? Write the sequential steps involved in DNA fingerprinting. Mention
two applications of this technique. (K)
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36
Chapter 7
EVOLUTION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What does evolutionary biology deal with? (K)
2. Name the unit used to measure stellar distances? (K)
3. How old is the universe? (K)
4. Mention the theory that explains the Origin of Universe. (K)
5. Name the galaxy to which earth belongs. (K)
6. Why the atmosphere on earth before the origin of life is regarded as reducing atmosphere? (A)
7. Who proposed the theory of chemical evolution of origin of life? (K)
8. When was the earth formed? (K)
9. What does the theory of Panspermia propose? (K)
10. State the theory of spontaneous generation.(K)
11. Who provided an experimental proof for chemical evolution of life? (K)
12. What was the temperature maintained in Stanley Miller's experiment in the spark discharge
chamber? (K)
13. What is ‘fitness’ according to Charles Darwin? (K)
14. What are fossils? (K)
15. Name the method which is used to calculate the age of a fossil? (K)
16. Who proposed embryological evidence for evolution? (K)
17. Who disapproved the embryological evidence for evolution which was proposed by E Heckel? (K)
18. What are homologous organs ? (K)
19. Mention an example for homologous organs. (K)
20. Define divergent evolution. (K)
21. Give an example for divergent evolution. (K)
22. What kind of evolution thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represent? (K)
23. With respect to evolution, what do the forelimbs of whales, bats and cheetah signify? (K)
24. “Even though the forelimbs of bat, whale, cheetah and human being perform different
functions, they indicate common ancestry”. Justify the statement. (A)
25. “Homologous organs originated due to divergent evolution”. Justify with a reason. (A)
26. What are analogous organs? (K)
27. Give an example for analogous organs. (K)
28. Define convergent evolution. (K)
29. Give an example for convergent evolution. (K)
30. Why the wings of butterfly and birds are called analogous organs? (A)
31. “Analogous organs arose due to convergent evolution”. Justify with a reason. (A)
32. Why evolution is considered as a stochastic process? (A)
33. Anthropogenic action hastens evolution. Justify with an example. (A)
34. State a reason for the increased population of dark coloured moths coinciding with the loss of
lichens (on tree barks) during industrialization period in England. (A)
35. What is adaptive radiation? (K)
36. Give an example for adaptive radiation. (K)
37. “Darwin’s finches represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation”. Justify. (A)
37
38. “Australian marsupials represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation”. Justify. (A)
39. Define saltation. (K)
40. What is the reason for speciation according to Hugo de Vries? (K)
41. Name the plant on which Hugo de Vries worked. (K)
42. Define gene pool. (K)
43. Define gene frequency. (K)
44. Define genetic equilibrium. (K)
45. State Hardy-Weinberg's principle. (K)
46. What does Hardy-Weinberg equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 convey? (A)
47. What would an alteration in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium lead to? (A)
48. Define gene migration. (K)
49. Define gene flow. (K)
50. Define genetic drift. (K)
51. Define natural selection. (K)
52. Predict the type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire mean character value for
different traits. (A)
53. Predict the type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire value other than the
mean character value for different traits. (A)
54. Predict the type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value
at both ends of the distribution curve for different traits. (A)
55. When the first invertebrates formed on earth? (K)
56. Name the ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders. (K)
57. When did jawless fish evolved on earth? (K)
58. When were the sea weeds found for the first time on earth? (K)
59. Which were the first organisms that invaded land? (K)
60. What is the significance of Coelacanth in evolution? (K)
61. Name the fish with stout and strong fins that appeared during the course of evolution which
could move on land and go back to water. (K)
62. Name the fish which evolved into the first amphibians. (K)
63. Name the ancestral form of dinosaurs. (K)
64. Name a fish like reptile that lived in water. (K)
65. Name the biggest dinosaur. (K)
66. When did dinosaurs disappear from earth? (K)
67. Name a character that makes reptiles more successful than amphibians. (K)
68. Name the first mammals to evolve on earth. (K)
69. Where did Australopithecines live? (K)
70. Write the scientific name of Java man. (K)
71. Name the ancestor of man who essentially ate fruit and hunted with stone weapon .(K)
72. Name the first human like being to evolve on earth. (K)
73. What is the brain capacity of Homo habilis? (K)
74. When was pre-historic cave art developed by Homo sapiens?(K)
75. What is the brain capacity of Homo erectus ?(K)
76. What is the brain capacity of Neanderthal man?(K)
77. Where did Neanderthal man live?(K)
78. Mention the approximate period in which Neanderthal man lived? (K)
38
79. Name the ancestor of human who used hides to protect his body and buried the dead. (K)
80. Write the scientific name of man-like primate who probably lived in East African grasslands
about 3 – 4 million years ago. (K)
81. Name the first human-like hominid to evolve who had a brain capacity of 650 – 800 cc. (K)
82. Write the scientific name of man-like primate that lived about 1.5 million years ago which had a
large brain with cranial capacity of 900 cc. and which probably ate meat. (K)
83. When did modern Homo sapiens arise? (K)
84. When did agriculture came and human settlements started? (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name any two theories that explain the origin of life. (K)
2. How could the experiment of Louis Pasteur dismiss theory of spontaneous generation of life.
(A)
3. Mention two assumptions of Oparin and Haldane with reference to Origin of life. (K)
4. How does Miller's experiment supports the theory of chemical evolution? (A)
5. Name the naturalist who also came to similar conclusions on evolution as Darwin and where did
he work? (K)
6. List any four areas which provide evidences for evolution. (K)
7. What is divergent evolution? Give an example. (K)
8. What is divergent evolution? Mention an example in plants. (K)
9. What is divergent evolution? Mention an example in animals. (K)
10. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution which is based on homology. (U)
11. State the evolutionary relationship giving reasons between the thorn of Bougainvillea and
tendril of Cucurbita. (A)
12. Give two examples for homologous organs. (K)
13. What are homologous organs? Mention an example. (K)
14. What are homologous organs? Mention an example from plants. (K)
15. What are homologous organs? Mention an example from animals. (K)
16. Comment on the similarity between the thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita with
reference to evolution. (U)
17. Analyze the evolutionary relationship between forelimbs of whales and human. (A)
18. Mention the type of evolution that has resulted in the development of flippers of penguins and
dolphins. What are such structures called? (U)
19. (a) Select the homologous structures from the combinations given below: (U)
(i) Tuber of potato and sweet potato
(ii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(iii) Forelimbs of whales and bats
(iv) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(b) State the kind of evolution they represent. (U)
20. What is convergent evolution? Give an example. (K)
21. What is convergent evolution? Give an example in plants. (K)
22. What is convergent evolution? Give an example in animals. (K)
23. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution which is based on analogy. (U)
24. State the evolutionary relationship giving reasons between sweet potato and potato. (A)
25. Give two examples for analogous organs. (K)
39
26. What are analogous organs? Give an example. (K)
27. What are analogous organs? Give an example from plants. (K)
28. What are analogous organs? Give an example from animals. (K)
29. What type of organs the eye of an octopus and that of a human are called? Name the
evolutionary process they represent. (U)
30. Is the eye of octopus analogous or homologous to the eye of humans? Give reasons to support
your answer. (A)
31. Is sweet potato analogous or homologous to potato tuber? Give reasons to support your
answer. (A)
32. Differentiate divergent evolution from convergent evolution. (U)
33. Differentiate homologous organs and analogous organs. (U)
34. What is adaptive radiation? List two examples for adaptive radiation. (K)
35. Mention an example where more than one adaptive radiation have occurred in an isolated
geographical area. Name the type of evolution involved in it. (U)
36. Mention two examples of evolution by anthropogenic action. (K)
37. Mention the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution. (K)
38. How does ‘fitness’ of individuals help in evolution according to Darwin? (A)
39. List any four factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg's equilibrium. (K)
40. List any four factors that affect genetic equilibrium. (K)
41. Giving two reasons, explain how Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected ? (U)
42. What is natural selection ? Mention the three ways through which natural selection operates. (K)
43. Mention the evolutionary significance of the following organisms: (a) Shrews (b) Lobefins (K)
44. Write the names of any two extinct dinosaurs. (K)
45. List any two characteristic features of Tyranosaurus rex. (K)
46. Name the fish like reptile and the largest dinosaur that appeared on earth during the course of
evolution.
47. About 65 million years ago, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth. What could be
the reasons. (U)
48. Name the primates that lived 15 million years ago. Mention any two of their characteristics. (K)
49. Mention two features of Ramapithecus.
50. List two characteristic features of Australopithecines. (K)
51. Mention two features of Neanderthal man.
52. Mention any two characteristic features of Homo erectus. (K)
53. Write the probable differences in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo errectus.(K)

1. Explain Big Bang theory of origin of universe. (K)
2. What were the conditions on primitive earth before the origin of life according to the theory of
chemical evolution of life? (K)
3. Draw a labelled diagram of Miller’s experimental set-up.
4. (i) What were the different gases did the flask used as an experimental setup by S.L.Miller
contained? (K)
(ii) What conditions of primitive earth was recreated in the flask? (K)
(iii) Write the conclusion drawn from this experiment. (K)
5. How paleontological evidences have helped in understanding the evolution of life forms? (U)
40
6. After industrialization in England, it was observed that white winged moth did not survive.
(i) What is the cause? (K)
(ii) What was the change and why it had happened? (K)
(iii) Which organism is known as natural indicator to air pollution? (K)
7. Differentiate homologous and analogous organs with an example for each. (U)
8. Differentiate convergent evolution and divergent evolution with an example for each. (U)
9. “Australian marsupials and Australian placental mammals explain convergent evolution and
adaptive radiation”. Justify the statement. (A)
10. (i) Mention the evolutionary process that has resulted in evolution of placental wolf and
Tasmanian wolf. (K)
(ii) Explain the evolutionary process by which Tasmanian wolf evolved. (U)
(iii) Compare placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf. (U)
11. Explain Lamarck's theory of evolution of life forms. (U)
12. How is Darwin's concept of evolution different from that of Hugo de Vries concept of mutation?
(A)
13. Explain Hardy-Weinberg principle with the help of equation. (A)
14. State Hardy – Weinberg law. List four evolutionary factors which disturb genetic equilibrium. (K)
15. State Hardy – Weinberg law. Explain two evolutionary factors which disturb Hardy – Weinberg
equilibrium. (U)
16. Explain briefly three factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg or genetic equilibrium. (U)
17. Define the terms gene pool, gene flow and genetic drift. (K)
18. Define the terms saltation, gene pool and gene flow. (K)
19. Define the terms saltation, gene pool and genetic drift. (K)
20. Describe three different ways by which natural selection can affect the frequency of a heritable
trait in a population. (K)
21. List three characteristic features of Dryopithecus. (K)
22. Mention any three features of Homo habilis. (K)
23. Mention three characteristics of Neanderthal man who lived in near east and Central Asia? (K)
24. Write the brain capacities of the following pre-historic human: (K)
(i) Homo habilis (ii) Homo erectus (iii) Neanderthal man.
25. List the period, brain capacity and probable food of Homo erectus stage of human evolution. (K)
26. List the period, brain capacity and probable food of Homo erectus stage of human evolution.
27. List the period, brain capacity and one feature of Neanderthal man of human evolution.
28. Name the different stages of human evolution in sequential order. (K)
29. Arrange the following ancestral forms of man in the order of their evolution:
(a) Homo habilis (b) Homo erectus (c) Neanderthal man (d) Dryopithecus (e) Ramapithecus
(f) Australopithecines (K)

1. Explain Miller's experiment with the help of a neat labeled diagram. Write the conclusion that
can be drawn from the experiment. (S)
2. Explain evolution by natural selection by taking an example of white-winged moths and dark-
winged moths of England in pre and post-indutrialization period. (U)
3. How does comparative anatomy and morphology act as an evidence for evolution? Explain with
the help of suitable examples. (U)
41
4. Identify the following pairs as homologous or analogous. (K)
(a) Bones of forelimbs of whales and bats
(b) Eyes of octopus and of mammals
(c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(d) Sweet potato and potato
(e) Wings of butterfly and birds.
5. According the Darwinian theory, the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to their life
cycles. Explain. (U)
6. Explain Darwin's view about evolution. (U)
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42
Chapter 8
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define health. (K)
2. What are pathogens? (K)
3. What are infectious diseases? (K)
4. Mention an example for infectious disease. (K)
5. What are non-infectious diseases? (K)
6. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes typhoid. (K)
7. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation, loss of appetite. (K)
8. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation, loss of appetite. (K)
9. Mention the mode of transmission of Salmonella typhi. (K)
10. Name the disease diagnosed by Widal test. (K)
11. Name the test which confirms typhoid. (K)
12. Name the test which confirms infection by Salmonella typhi. (K)
13. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes malaria. (K)
14. Name the diasease caused by Plasmodium vivax in man. (K)
15. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like chill and high fever recurring every three
to four days.(K)
16. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes chill and high fever recurring every three
to four days. (K)
17. Name the infectious forms of Plasmodium which enter human body through mosquito bite. (K)
18. Name the sexual stages of Plasmodium that are developed in human RBCs. (K)
19. Name the toxin released by the ruptured RBCs which causes chill and high fever recurring every
three to four days in malaria. (K)
20. In which cells of human body, Plasmodium reproduces only by asexual method? (K)
21. In which cells of human body, Plasmodium reproduces both by asexual and sexual methods? (K)
22. Name the fish which is used to control the population of mosquito larvae. (K)
23. Mention the scientific name of the vector which transmits malaria. (K)
24. Mention any one vector-borne disease in man. (K)
25. Write the scientific name of the vector which transmits chikungunya. (K)
26. Write the scientific name of the vector which transmits dengue. (K)
27. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes pneumonia. (K)
28. Name the disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae in man. (K)
29. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. (K)
30. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. (K)
31. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes common cold. (K)
32. Name the disease caused by rhinoviruses in man. (K)
43
33. Name the disease you have studied with symptoms like nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarsenes, cough and headache. (K)
34. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarsenes, cough and headache. (K)
35. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes amoebiasis. (K)
36. Name the disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica in man. (K)
37. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like stools with excess mucous and blood clots,
abdominal pain and cramps and constipation. (K)
38. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes abdominal pain and cramps, stools with
excess mucous and blood clots and constipation. (K)
39. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ascariasis. (K)
40. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. (K)
41. Write the scientific name of the intestinal parasite which causes blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. (K)
42. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes filariasis. (K)
43. Name the disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. (K)
44. Name the disease caused by Wuchereria malayi. (K)
45. Name the disease you have studied with symptoms like inflammation of the lower limbs and
deformities in the genital organs. (K)
46. Mention the pathogen which causes inflammation of the lower limbs and deformities in the
genital organs. (K)
47. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ringworm disease. (K)
48. Name the disease caused by Epidermophyton in man. (K)
49. Name the disease caused by Microsporum in man.
50. Name the disease caused by Trichophyton in man.
51. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. (K)
52. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. (K)
53. Define immunity. (K)
54. Define innate immunity. (K)
55. Mention one physical barrier that provides immunity to our body. (K)
56. How does skin provide immunity to the body? (U)
57. How does mucus membrane provide immunity to the body? (U)
58. Mention one physiological barrier that provides immunity to our body. (K)
59. How do physiological barriers provide immunity to the body? (U)
60. Mention one cellular barrier that provides immunity to our body. (K)
61. How do natural killer cells and macrophages provide immunity to the body? (U)
62. Mention one cytokine barrier that provides immunity to our body. (K)
63. What are interferons?(K)
64. How do interferons provide immunity to the body? (U)
65. Name the protein produced by the virus-infected human cells which prevent further
multiplication of viruses. (K)
66. What is primary immune response? (K)
44
67. What is secondary immune response? (K)
68. What do you mean by anamnestic response of the immune system? (U)
69. Why secondary response of the immune system to a pathogen is highly intensified and fast? (A)
70. Name the type of immunity given by antibody producing B- lymphocytes. (K)
71. Define an antibody. (K)
72. How many polypeptide chains are present in an antibody molecule? (K)
73. What is the function of T-lymphocyte? (K)
74. Name the type of immunity given by T- lymphocytes. (K)
75. Name the type of immunity which is responsible for the graft rejection. (K)
76. What is responsible for ‘graft rejection’ in some of the organ transplantation surgeries? (U)
77. Define active immunity. (K)
78. Mention an example for active immunity. (K)
79. Define passive immunity. (K)
80. Mention an example for passive immunity. (K)
81. What is colostrums? (K)
82. Mention the chief type of antibody present colustrum of human female. (K)
83. Which property of immune system is the principle of immunization or vaccination? (U)
84. Define vaccination. (K)
85. Define passive immunization. (K)
86. Mention the type of immunity provided by preformed antibodies when administered against
snake bite. (K)
87. Name the fungus which is used to produces hepatitis B vaccine. (K)
88. What is allergy? (K)
89. What are alleregens (K)
90. Name the immunoglobulin that is released during allergy. (K)
91. Name a chemical produced by the mast cells which causes allergy. (K)
92. Mention a drug that is used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. (K)
93. Define autoimmunity. (K)
94. Give an example for autoimmune disorder. (K)
95. What are lymphoid organs? (K)
96. What are primary lymphoid organs? (K)
97. What are secondary lymphoid organs? (K)
98. Mention an example for primary lymphoid organ. (K)
99. Mention an example for a secondary lymphoid organ. (K)
100. Why bone marrow and thymus considered as primary lymphoid organs? (A)
101. Why spleen, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix are considered as secondary
lymphoid organs? (A)
102. Name the site of lymphocyte production. (K)
103. Name the organ in human body which acts as ‘blood filterer’. (K)
104. Why spleen can be regarded as the ‘blood filterer’ of human body? (A)
105. Expand AIDS. (K)
106. Expand HIV. (K)
107. Expand ELISA. (K)
108. What is syndrome? (K)
109. Name the group of viruses to which HIV belongs. (K)
45
110. Name the causative virus for AIDS. (K)
111. Mention one mode of transmission of HIV. (K)
112. Name the process by which the genome of HIV replicates in the host cell. (K)
113. Name the enzyme by which the HIV genome replicates in the host cell. (K)
114. Why a person suffering from AIDS is at a risk of suffering from infections by different kinds of
pathogens? (A)
115. How is HIV in AIDS patients responsible for decreased immunity to various pathogens? (U)
116. Which is the widely used diagnostic test for AIDS? (K)
117. What are tumors? (K)
118. What are benign tumors? (K)
119. What are malignant tumors? (K)
120. Define metastasis. (K)
121. What is contact inhibition? (K)
122. Why normal cells do not exhibit uncontrolled growth and division unlike cancer cells? (A)
123. What are proto-oncogenes? (K)
124. What are oncogenic viruses? (K)
125. What are carcinogens? (K)
126. How do UV rays cause neoplastic transformation?(U)
127. Mention one diagnostic tool which is used to detect cancer. (K)
128. Name the biological response modifier used in the treatment of cancer. (K)
129. How does the administration of α-interferons help cancer patients? (U)
130. Why the immune system should be activated in cancer patients by administering biological
response modifiers? (A)
131. What is adolescence? (K)
132. Write the scientific name of the plant from which cannabinoids are obtained. (K)
133. Write the scientific name of the plant from which coca alkaloids are obtained. (K)
134. Mention the chemical present in heroin. (K)
135. Which drug is commonly called ‘smack’? (K)
136. Which drug is commonly called ‘coke’? (K)
137. Which drug is commonly called ‘crack’? (K)
138. Give an example for a plant with hallucinogenic properties. (K)
139. Name a drug which is used as an effective sedative and painkiller in patients who have
undergone surgery. (K)
140. Why morphine is often used in patients who have undergone surgery? (A)
141. How is nicotine responsible for raised blood pressure and increased heart rate in man? (U)
142. How does smoking cause oxygen deficiency in the body? (U)
143. Define addiction. (K)
144. With reference to drugs, define dependence. (K)
145. Why persons taking drugs intravenously are more likely to acquire infections like AIDS and
hepatitis B? (A)
146. How some narcotic drugs and anabolic steroids enhance the performance of sports persons? (U)

1. What are infectious diseases? Mention an example. (K)
2. What are non-infectious diseases? Mention an example. (K)
46
3. Differentiate infectious diseases from non-infectious diseases. (U)
4. Mention any four means by which good health can be achieved. (K)
5. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause: (K)
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Fialariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Amoebiais (b) Pneumonia
(a) Amoebiais (b) Common cold
(a) Amoebiais (b) Ascariasis
21. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which causeK)
(a) Amoebiais (b) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiais (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis
47
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis
(a) Common cold (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis
(a) Ascariasis (b) Ringworm disease
(a) Filariasis (b) Ringworm disease
33. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes typhoid and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
34. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes malaria and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
35. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes pneumonia and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
36. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes common cold and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
37. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes amoebiasis and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
38. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ascariasis and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
39. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes filariasis and mention its mode of
transmission. (K)
40. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ringworm disease and mention its mode
of transmission. (K)
41. With regard to malaria, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms. (K)
42. With reference to pneumonia, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two
symptoms.(K)
43. With regard to typhoid, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms. (K)
44. With reference to common cold, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two
symptoms. (K)
45. With regard to ascariasis, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms. (K)
46. With reference to ringworm disease, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen and
two symptoms. (K)
47. With reference to amoebiasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen and two
symptoms. (K)
48. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent of this disease. (K)
49. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation and loss of appetite. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this
disease. (K)
48
50. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this
disease. (K)
51. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarseness, cough and headache. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen
of this disease. (K)
52. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like chill and high fever recurring every three
to four days. Mention the scientific name of the pathogen causing this disease. (K)
53. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like stools with excess mucous and blood clots,
abdominal pain and cramps and constipation. Mention the scientific name of the pathogen
causing this disease. (K)
54. Name a disease you have studied characterized by slowly developing chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and gross deformities of limbs. Mention the scientific name
of the pathogen causing this disease. (K)
55. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this
disease. (K)
56. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation, loss of appetite. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
57. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
58. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarseness, cough and headache. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
59. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes chill and high fever recurring every three
to four days. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
60. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes abdominal pain and cramps, stools with
excess mucous and blood clots and constipation. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
61. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes slowly developing chronic inflammation
of lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and gross deformities of limbs. Mention the name of this
disease. (K)
62. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
63. Write the scientific name of the intestinal parasite which causes blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. Mention the name of this disease. (K)
64. Mention any two types of innate barriers of defence with an example each. (K)
65. Mention any two physiological barriers that provide non-specific type of defense to our body. (K)
66. Mention the roles of B and T lymphocytes. (K)
67. Draw a neat labeled diagram of an antibody molecule. (S)
68. List four secondary lymphoid organs of our body. (K)
69. Differentiate primary and secondary immune responses. (U)
70. Name the two of special types lymphocytes present in our blood which are responsible for
primary and secondary responses. (K)
71. What are primary lymphoid organs? Mention two examples. (K)
72. What are secondary lymphoid organs? Mention two examples. (K)
73. Differentiate primary and secondary lymphoid organs. (U)
49
74. Define vaccine. Mention the principle on which vaccination or immunization is based. (K)
75. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity. (U)
76. What is colostrum? Name the antibody present in it. (K)
77. What is an allergy ? Name two chemicals released by the mast cells at the time of allergy. (K)
78. What is allergy? Name the antibody produced during allergic responses. (K)
79. What is allergy? List two symptoms of allergic reactions. (K)
80. What is auto-immune disease? Mention an example. (K)
81. Distinguish between benign and malignant tumors. (U)
82. The cells of malignant tumors are considered dangerous. Justify with two reasons. (A)
83. Mention any two characteristics of cancer cell. (K)
84. What are carcinogens? Mention any examples. (K)
85. Mention two modes of transmission of HIV in humans. (K)
86. Mention any four common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse in youth. (K)
87. Name an opioid drug and its source plant (scientific name). How does it affect human body? (K)
88. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cocaine is obtained. What is the effect of cocaine in
humans? (K)
89. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cannabinoid is obtained. What is the effect of
cannabinoids in humans? (K)
90. Mention the names of any two drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial name
of the plants from which these drugs are extracted. (K)
91. Mention any four effects of smoking cigarettes. (K)
92. Differentiate addiction and dependence with reference to alcohol and drugs. (U)
93. What is ‘dependence’ with respect to drug abuse? Mention any two withdrawal symptoms. (K)
94. Mention any four withdrawal symptoms in drug addicts. (K)
95. Mention any four adverse effects of drug abuse. (K)
96. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males. (K)
97. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females. (K)
98. Explain any two prevention and control measures of drug and alcohol abuse. (K)

1. Differentiate infectious diseases from non-infectious diseases with an example for each. (U)
2. With reference to typhoid, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms. (K)
3. With reference to pneumonia, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
4. With reference to common cold, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
5. With reference to amoebiasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
6. With reference to malaria, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
7. With reference to ascariasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
8. With reference to filariasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
50
9. With reference to ringworm disease, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode
of transmission and two symptoms. (K)
9. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause: (K)
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Pneumonia
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Ascriasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
51
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Filarisis (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
52
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
65. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases: (K)
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Pneumonia
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
53
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Ascriasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Typhoid (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
54
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Malaria (b) Filarisis (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
55
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
121. Mention three types of innate barriers of defence with an example each. (K)
122. Define immunity. Explain how skin and mucous membrane help in providing immunity as
physical barriers? (U)
123. Differentiate active immunity and passive immunity with an example for each. (U)
124. Differentiate primary and secondary lymphoid organs with two examples for each. (U)
125. What is allergy? List the symptoms of allergic reactions. (K)
126. Mention any three characteristics of cancer cell. (K)
127. What are carcinogens? Mention any two groups of carcinogens with an example for each. (K)
128. Mention the names of three drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial name of
the plants from which these drugs are extracted. (K)
129. Briefly explain any three prevention and control measures of drug and alcohol abuse. (U)

1. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following: (K)
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Amoebiasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Ascariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Filariasis
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Ringworm disease
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Ascariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Filariasis
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Ringworm disease
(a) Common cold (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis (d) Ascariasis (e) Filariasis
(a) Common cold (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis (d) Ascariasis (e) Ringworm disease
10. What is innate immunity? Briefly discuss any four innate immunity barriers. (U)
11. What are lymphoid organs? Mention the types with their functions and examples. (K)
12. List different lymphoid organs and tissues and explain their role in immunity. (U)
13. Define immunity. Explain active immunity and passive immunity with examples. (U)
14. Explain the life cycle of HIV in human body. (U)
15. Write the schematic representation of the life cycle of HIV. (S)
16. Explain different techniques which help in cancer detection and diagnosis. (U)
17. What is addiction? List four warning signals and four harmful effects caused by drug abuse. (K)
18. Explain prevention and control measures of alcohol and drug abuse. (K)
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56
Chapter 9
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD
PRODUCTION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What is animal husbandry? (K)
2. What is dairying? (K)
3. What is dairy farm management? (K)
4. Name an improved breed of cow. (K)
5. What is poultry? (K)
6. Name an improved breed of poultry bird. (K)
7. What is a breed? (K)
8. What is the aim of animal breeding? (K)
9. What is inbreeding? (K)
10. Mention the strategy that is used to develop purelines in cattle? (K)
11. Mention the strategy that is used to increase homozygosity in cattle for desired character. (K)
12. Name the kind of breeding which exposes harmful recessive genes? (K)
13. How harmful recessive genes are eliminated in inbreeding? (U)
14. What is inbreeding depression? (K)
15. How is inbreeding depression overcome? (A)
16. What is out breeding? (K)
17. What is out-crossing? (K)
18. What is cross-breeding? (K)
19. What is interspecific hybridization? (K)
20. Name a breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino ram. (K)
21. How was Hisardale breed developed by cross breeding technique? (U)
22. Give an example for an interspecific hybrid animal. (K)
23. What is artificial insemination? (K)
24. Why cow is administered hormones in MOET? (A)
25. What do you mean by super ovulation? (K)
26. At which stage the fertilized eggs are recovered and transferred to surrogate mother in MOET
technique? (U)
27. Name the technology that can successfully increase the herd size of cattle in a short time. (K)
28. Define bee keeping or Apiculture. (K)
29. Name the most common species reared in India for bee keeing. K
30. List any one economically important products for human obtained from Apis indica. U
31. What is fishery? (K)
32. Name a common edible marine fish. (K)
33. Name a common edible fresh water fish. (K)
34. What is plant breeding? (K)
35. What is germplasm collection? (K)
36. Expand IRRI. (K)
37. Name the Nobel Laureate who developed semi dwarf variety of wheat. (K)
57
38. Name any one disease resistant and high yielding variety of wheat introduced in India. (K)
39. Write the scientific name of south Indian sugarcane. (K)
40. Write the scientific name of north Indian sugarcane. (K)
41. How is north Indian sugarcane inferior to south Indian sugarcane? (U)
42. Give an example for viral pathogen of cultivated crops. (K)
43. Give an example for fungal disease of crop plants. (K)
44. Give an example for bacterial disease of cultivated crops. (K)
45. Name the wheat variety that is resistant to hill bunt. (K)
46. Name the Brassica variety that is resistant to white rust. (K)
47. Name the cauliflower variety that is resistant to black rot. (K)
48. Name the cowpea variety that is resistant to bacterial blight. (K)
49. Name the chilli variety that is resistant to Chilly mosaic virus. (K)
50. Name the disease for which Pusa Swarnim (Karan rai) variety of Brassica is resistant. (K)
51. Name the disease for which Pusa Shubra variety of cauliflower is resistant. (K)
52. Name the disease for which Pusa Komal variety of cowpea is resistant. (K)
53. Name the disease for which Sada Bahar variety of chilli is resistant. (K)
54. Name the diseases for which Himgiri variey of wheat is resistant. (K)
55. What is mutation breeding? (K)
56. Name the pathogen to which Parbhani Kranti is resistant. (K)
57. Name the variety of bhindi or lady’s finger (Abelmoschus esculentus) that was obtained by
mutation breeding. (K)
58. Name the insect pest for which Pusa gaurav variety of Brassica crop is resistant. (K)
59. Name the insect pest for which Pusa sem 2 variety of flat bean crop is resistant. (K)
60. Name the insect pest for which Pusa sawani variety of bhindi crop is resistant. (K)
61. Name the improved variety of Brassica which is resistant to aphids. (K)
62. Name the improved variety of flat bean which is resistant to jassids, aphids and fruit borers. (K)
63. Name the improved variety of bhindi which is resistant to fruit and shoot borer. (K)
64. Define hidden hunger. (K)
65. Define biofortification. (K)
66. What are single cell proteins? (K)
67. Give an example for an organism that is used to obtain single cell proteins. (K)
68. Name an alternative source of protein for animal and human nutrition. (K)
69. Name the microorganism having high rate of biomass production and growth which is used for
the production of single cell proteins. (K)
70. Why Methylophilus methylotrophus is a preferred microorganism in the production of single cell
proteins? (A)
71. What is tissue culture? (K)
72. Define the term totipotency. (K)
73. Why are plant cells considered as totipotent? (A)
74. A part of the internode of a plant can give rise to thousands of plants through tissue culture.
Which property of plant is responsible for this? (A)
75. Define the term explant. (K)
76. Sucrose is necessary in the plant tissue culture nutrient medium. Give reason. (A)
77. Mention a growth regulator used in tissue culture nutrient medium. (K)
78. What is micropropagation? (K )
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79. Name the technique employed to get large number of plants in a short period. (K)
80. Define the term somaclones. (K)
81. Why plants obtained through micropropagation are termed as somaclones? (A)
82. How are virus-free plants obtained by tissue culture technique? (A)
83. Plants raised by tissue culture using meristem as explants are virus-free. Why? (A)
84. What are somatic hybrids? (K)
85. What is somatic hybridization? (K)
86. A protoplast of tomato plant is fused with that of potato to form a new hybrid plant. Name the
hybridization technique involved here.
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name any two poultry birds which are used for food and eggs. (K)
2. Write any two advantages of inbreeding. (U)
3. What is inbreeding? Mention the drawback of inbreeding? (K)
4. Write the reason for inbreeding depression. How can it be overcome? (U)
5. What happens if there is continuous inbreeding in animals? Discuss the strategy to overcome
the problem associated with continuous inbreeding. (U)
6. Write the difference between inbreeding and outbreeding. (U)
7. Differentiate between outcrossing and crossbreeding. (U)
8. What is interspecific hybridization? Give suitable example. (K)
9. Name two major controlled breeding techniques employed in animal breeding. (K)
10. Name the breeds used to develop a new breed of sheep called Hisardale. (K)
11. Why bee hives are kept in a crop field during flowering period? A
12. Give any two examples for edible fresh water fishes. (K)
13. Give any two examples for edible marine water fishes. (K)
14. List any two edible aquatic animals other than fishes. (K)
15. Name the two culture techniques which can increase production of both marine and fresh water
plants and animal. (K)
16. Write any four traits for which plant breeding is done. (K)
17. Mention the drawbacks of cross hybridization among selected parents in plant breeding? (K)
18. Name two high yielding wheat varieties which were introduced in India in 1963. (K)
19. Which are the two rice varieties that were used to produce semi dwarf rice variety in 1966 in our
country? (K)
20. Name two high yielding semi dwarf rice varieties developed in India. (K)
21. Why Sonalika and Kalyan varieties are superior to the traditional varieties of wheat? (A)
22. Why is the south Indian sugarcane, Saccharum officinarum, preferred by agriculturists? (A)
23. Name two species of sugar cane of India which were hybridized to get a better variety. (K)
24. What do you mean by resistance of host plant to diseases? (K)
25. Name any two fungal diseases in plants. (K)
26. Name any two viral diseases in plants. (K)
27. How are disease resistant varieties advantageous over traditional varieties of crop plants in plant
breeding? (A)
28. Name any two diseases for which Himgiri variety of wheat is resistant. (K)
29. What are the effects of diet which lacks essential micronutrients? (K)
30. Mention any two objectives of biofortification. (K)
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31. How biofortified maize and wheat are considered as nutritionally improved? (A)
32. Name any two microorganisms which are used for the production of single cell proteins. (K)
33. Write the ingredients that are used in the tissue culture nutrient medium. (U)
34. Name two growth regulators used in plant tissue culture nutrient medium. (K)
35. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and explant. (K)
36. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and micropropagation. (K)
37. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somaclones. (K)
38. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and meristem culture. (K)
39. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somatic hybrid. (K)
40. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somatic hybridisation. (K)
41. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and micropropagation. (K)
42. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somaclones. (K)
43. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and meristem culture. (K)
44. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somatic hybrid. (K)
45. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somatic hybridisation. (K)
46. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somaclones. (K)
47. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and meristem culture. (K)
48. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somatic hybrid. (K)
49. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somatic hybridisation.
(K)
50. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms somaclones and meristem culture. (K)
51. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms somaclones and somatic hybridisation. (K)
52. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms meristem culture and somatic hybrid. (K)
53. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms meristem culture and somatic hybridisation.
(K)
54. Differentiate between somaclones and somatic hybrids. (U)

1. Mention the measures to be taken to realize the yield potential in cattle in a dairy farm. (K)
2. What is inbreeding? Describe the breeding strategy employed in inbreeding. (U)
3. What is inbreeding? Write any two advantages of inbreeding. (K)
4. Differentiate out-crossing, cross breeding and interspecific hybridization. (U)
5. Differentiate inbreeding, outbreeding and cross breeding. (U)
6. Explain cross breeding with an example. (U)
7. Explain the steps involved in MOET. (U)
8. List the characteristics of Saccharum officinarum and Saccharum barberi. What are the
combined desirable characters obtained by hybridizing these two varieties? (U)
9. List the diseases caused by fungi in cultivated crops. (K)
10. Write the disease resistant crop varieties for the following diseases. (K)
(a) White rust (b) Black rot (c) Hill bunt
11. Write the resistant crop varieties for the following insect pests: (K)
(a) Aphids (b) Jassids (c) Shoot borer
12. List three examples for morphological, biochemical or physiological characters which give
natural insect or pest resistance in host crop plants. (K)
13. What is biofortification? List two examples for biofortified crop plants and their importance. (U)
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14. Write any three objectives of plant breeding for improved nutritional qualities. (U)
15. Give any three examples for biofortified plants with their significance. (K)
16. Mention any three biofortified vegetable yielding plants with their significance. (K)
17. Write three applications of plant tissue culture. (U)
18. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following: (K)
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Micropropagation
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somaclones
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somatic hybrid
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Meristem culture
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somatic hybridization
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybrid
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somaclone
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybrid
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Meristem culture
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybridisation
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Soamatic hybrid
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Meristem culture
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Soamatic hybridisation
(a) Explant (b) Soamatic hybrid (c) Meristem culture
(a) Explant (b) Soamatic hybrid (c) Somatic hybridization

1. List out any five aspects of dairy farm management. (K)
2. Define poultry. List out any four components of poultry farm management. (K)
3. (a) What is artificial insemination? What is its advantage in animal breeding? 2M (U)
(b) Discuss the MOET technique of animal breeding. 3M (U)
4. Write five requirements for successful Bee keeping. K
5. What is bee-keeping? Write any four points to be followed for successful bee-keeping. (K)
6. What is artificial insemination? What is its significance? Explain a controlled breeding technique
in which artificial insemination is employed. (U)
7. Describe the steps involved in breeding a new variety of genetic crop. (U)
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8. What is biofortification? Mention its objectives. Mention two examples for biofortified crops
with their importance. (U)
9. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following: (U)
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somaclones (d) Somatic hybrids (e) Micropropagation.
10. List three objectives of biofortification. Why are biofortified maize and wheat varieties
considered as nutritionally improved varieties? (A)
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62
Chapter 10
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Name the bacterium that converts milk into curd. (K)
2. Expand LAB. (K)
3. How does LAB convert milk into curd? (A)
4. Why small amount of curd is added to fresh milk as inoculums to convert it into curd? (A)
5. Write any one use of LAB other than curding. (K)
6. How LAB increases nutritional quality of milk? (A)
7. Mention the gas which is responsible for the puffed up appearance of dough. (K)
8. Dough used for making ‘dosa’ has puffed up appearance. Why? (A)
9. Name the scientific name of the microorganism used to for making bread. (K)
10. Write the scientific name of baker’s yeast. (K)
11. Write the scientific name of fungus used in the fermentation of dough in bakery. (K)
12. What is toddy? (K)
13. Name the traditional drink obtained from fermenting sap from palm. (K)
14. Name the plant from which toddy is obtained. (K)
15. Name the bacterium that is used for production of ‘Swiss cheese’. (K)
16. Name the gas responsible for large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’. (K)
17. Mention the group of organisms which are used in the production of ‘Roquefort cheese’. (K)
18. Write the scientific name of brewer’s yeast. (K)
19. Name the metabolic reaction which results in the production of ethanol by yeast. (K)
20. Name alcoholic drink obtained without distillation. (K)
21. Name alcoholic drink obtained with distillation. (K)
22. Name the scientific name of the organism used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices to
produce ethanol. (K)
23. Name the product obtained by fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices. (K)
24. Name the first antibiotic to be discovered. (K)
25. Name the scientist who discovered penicillin. (K)
26. Name the antibiotic that was extensively used to treat American soldiers who were wounded in
World War II. (K)
27. Name the scientific name of the source organism for citric acid. (K)
28. Name the scientific name of the source organism for lactic acid. (K)
29. Name the scientific name of the source organism for butyric acid. (K)
30. Name the scientific name of the source organism for acetic acid. (K)
31. Name the scientific name of the source organism for streptokinase. (K)
32. Name the scientific name of the source organism for Cyclosporin A. (K)
33. Name the scientific name of the source organism for Statin. (K)
34. Name the scientific name of the source organism for ethanol. (K)
35. Name the scientific name of the source organism for penicillin. (K)
36. Name the microorganism which produces butyric acid.
37. Name the microorganism which produces acetic acid.
38. Name the microorganism which produces lactic acid.
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39. Name the microorganism which produces acetic acid.
40. Name the enzyme used in laundry to remove oily stains? (K)
41. Why lipases are used in detergent formulations? (A)
42. Name an enzyme used to clarify bottled fruit juices. (K)
43. Why bottled juices are clearer than homemade juices? (A)
44. What is clot buster? (K)
45. Write the clinical significance of clot buster. (U)
46. A person has been diagnosed with ‘clots’ in his blood vessels. Suggest a bioactive chemical of
microbial origin to treat this person. (A)
47. Write the clinical significance of Cyclosporin A. (U)
48. Patients who have undergone organ transplantation are administered Cyclosporin A. Why? (A)
49. Write the clinical significance of Statin. (U)
50. How statin reduces cholesterol? (A)
51. A person after a clinical analysis of blood finds out that his blood has high cholesterol content.
Suggest a bioactive chemical of microbial origin to treat this person. (A)
52. Why sewage water cannot be discharged directly into rivers? (A)
53. How floating debris is removed in primary sewage treatment? (A)
54. How grit is removed in primary sewage treatment? (A)
55. Expand STP. (K)
56. What is primary sludge? (K)
57. Expand BOD. (K)
58. What is the significance of BOD? (K)
59. Define Biological Oxygen Demand? (K)
60. Why sewage water is treated until the BOD is reduced? (A)
61. What are anaerobic sludge digesters? (K)
62. What is active sludge? (K)
63. What are flocs? (K)
64. Write the scientific name of the microbe present in the rumen of the cattle. (K)
65. What is the function of Methanobacterium in the rumen of cattle? (K)
66. What are methanogens? (K)
67. Which is the major gaseous component of biogas? (K)
68. Define biocontrol. (K)
69. Biocontrol of insects and pests is desirable and beneficial compared to the use of insecticides
and pesticides. Justify this with a reason. (A)
70. Identify the principle on which biocontrol is based. (A)
71. Why eradication of pests completely is undesirable? (A)
72. Mention a biocontrol agent which gets rid of aphids. (K)
73. Mention a biocontrol agent which gets rid of mosquitoes. (K)
74. Give an example for a biocontrol agent against butterfly caterpillar. (K)
75. Name the fungus used in biological control of pathogens which cause plant diseases. (K)
76. Why baculoviruses are excellent biological control agents? (A)
77. Name the species specific baculovirus which is used in the biocontrol of many insects and other
arthropods. (K)
78. Expand IPM in relation to agriculture and farming. (K)
79. What are biofertilizers? (K)
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80. Use of biofertilisers in agriculture ensures a better environment. Justify. (A)
81. Name the scientific name of the microorganism that serves as an important biofertilizer in paddy
fields. (K)
82. Give an example for a fungus which forms mycorrhiza. (K)
83. Name the bacterium found in the root nodule of leguminous plants. (K)
84. Write the function of Rhizobium in roots of leguminous plants. (K)
85. Give an example for free living bacterium which fixes atmospheric nitrogen. (K)
86. Mention the role of Azospirilum as biofertilizer. (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any two significant roles of LAB. (K)
2. Write any two uses of LAB other than its role in converting milk into curd. (K)
3. Name any two distilled and two undistilled alcoholic beverages. (K)
4. Name two enzymes used to clarify bottled juices. (K)
5. Name any two bacteria which are used in the production of organic acids. (K)
6. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of streptokinase. How does this bioactive
molecule function in our body? (U)
7. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of cyclosporin A. Mention the function of
cyclosporine A. (K)
8. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of antibiotic penicillin. Mention the
function of penicillin. (K)
9. List any two bioactive molecules of fungal origin and explain how those molecules help in
restoring good health in humans. (U)
10. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and acetic acid. (K)
11. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and citric acid. (K)
12. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and lactic acid. (K)
13. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of acetic acid and citric acid. (K)
14. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of acetic acid and lactic acid. (K)
15. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of lactic acid and citric acid. (K)
16. Name the microbe used for statin production. How do statins lower blood cholesterol level? (A)
17. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and butyric acid. (K)
18. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and lactic acid acid. (K)
19. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and acetic acid. (K)
20. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and citric acid. (K)
21. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and penicillin. (K)
22. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and streptokinase. (K)
23. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and cyclosporin A. (K)
24. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and statin. (K)
25. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and penicillin. (K)
26. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and streptokinase. (K)
27. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and cyclosporin A. (K)
28. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and statin. (K)
29. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and penicillin. (K)
30. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and streptokinse. (K)
31. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and cyclosporin A. (K)
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32. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and statin. (K)
33. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and penicillin. (K)
34. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and streptokinase. (K)
35. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and cyclosporin A. (K)
36. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and statin. (K)
37. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and penicillin. (K)
38. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and streptokinase. (K)
39. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and cyclosporin A. (K)
40. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and statin. (K)
41. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and streptokinase. (K)
42. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and cyclosporin A. (K)
43. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and statin. (K)
44. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of streptokinase and cyclosporin A. (K)
45. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of streptokinase and statin. (K)
46. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of statin and cyclosporin A. (K)
47. Write the steps involved in primary treatment of sewage. (U)
48. What is BOD? Write its significance. (U)
49. What are flocs? Write their significance in sewage treatment. (U)
50. Name two groups of organisms which constitute flocs. Write their significance. (U)
51. Name any two gases produced during sludge digestion in sewage treatment. (K)
52. Write two uses of biogas. (U)
53. Biocontrol of insects and pests is desirable and beneficial compared to the use of insecticides
and pesticides. Justify this with two reasons. (A)
54. Give any two examples for free living bacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen. (K)
55. Give any two examples for cyanobacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen. (K)
56. How do cyanobacteria act as biofertilizers? (A)

1. Write about any three microorganisms and their role in household products. (U)
2. What are antibiotics? Name thefirst antibiotic to be discovered and the person who discovered
it. (K)
3. Mention any three bacteria which are used in the production of organic acids. Mention the
products obtained from them. (K)
4. Explain three biological methods to control pests and diseases. (U)
5. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, cyclosporin A and
statin. (K)
6. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, cyclosporin A and
streptokinase. (K)
7. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, streptokinase and
statin. (K)
8. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of streptokinase, cyclosporin A
and statin. (K)
9. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and penicillin in human welfare. (K)
10. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and streptokinase in human welfare. (K)
11. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and statin in human welfare. (K)
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12. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and cyclosporin A in human welfare. (K)
13. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and streptokinase in human welfare. (K)
14. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and statin in human welfare. (K)
15. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and statin in human welfare. (K)
16. Explain the roles of penicillin, statin and streptokinase in human welfare. (K)
17. Explain the roles of penicillin, statin and cyclosporin A in human welfare. (K)
18. Explain the roles of statin, streptokinase and cyclosporin A in human welfare. (K)
19. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Biogas plant. (S)
20. Explain the role of any three microorganisms as biofertilizers. (K)
21. Mention any three significances for plants having symbiotic association with fungi. K
22. List any three benefits for plants from mycorrhiza. (U)

1. Explain the role of microbes in house-hold products. (U)
2. Explain the role of microbes in the production of industrial products. (U)
3. Explain different stages involved in sewage treatment. (U)
4. Describe the biogas plant with a neat labeled diagram. (U)
5. Explain the role of any five microorganisms as biocontrol agents.
6. Describe the role of microbes as biofertilizers. (U)
7. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained: (K)
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Lactic acid
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Statin
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Streptokinase
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Cyclosporin A
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Statin
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Streptokinase
13. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained: (k)
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Cyclosporin A
(a) Butyric acid (b) Citric acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Statin (e) Streptokinase
(a) Butyric acid (b) Citric acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Statin (e) Cyclosporin A
(a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid (c) Statin (d) Streptokinase (e) Cyclosporin A
17. Write the products obtained from following microorganisms: (K)
(a) Clostridium butylicum (b) Trichoderma polysporum (c) Aspergillus niger (d) Monascus
purpureus (e) Streptococcus
(a) Clostridium butylicum (b) Aspergillus niger (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Monascus
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(a) Trichoderma polysporum (b) Aspergillus niger (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Monascus
20. Mention the products obtained from the following microbes and explain their roles in human
welfare: (K)
(a) Methanobacterium (b) Trichoderma polysporum (c) Penicillium notatum (d) Monascus
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68
Chapter 11
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define biotechnology. (K)
2. How genetic engineering overcomes the limitation of traditional hybridization? (U)
3. What is genetic engineering? (K)
4. What is gene cloning? (K)
5. What is the role of ‘ori’ in DNA cloning? (K)
6. Why alien DNA is linked with ‘ori’ site of a vector in gene cloning? (A)
7. The desired gene cannot multiply unless it gets incorporated into host genome. Why? (A)
8. What is plasmid? (K)
9. What is the contribution of Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer to the field of biotechnology? (U)
10. Name the group of enzymes that are called “molecular scissors”. (K)
11. Why restriction endonucleases are called ‘molecular scissors’ ?
12. What is plasmid? (K)
13. Write the function of DNA ligase. (K)
14. Why DNA ligases can be considered as “molecular glues” or “molecular stitchers”? (A)
15. Name the enzyme used to join two DNA fragments. (K)
16. What are exonucleases? (K)
17. What are endonucleases? (K)
18. Restriction enzymes are considered as a type of endonucleases. Why? (A)
19. Mention an example of REN. (K)
20. What does ‘R’ stand for in EcoRI? (K)
21. What are recognition sequences or sites in DNA? (K)
22. What are palindromic sequences? (K)
23. What is the importance of gel electrophoresis in recombinant DNA technology? (K)
24. Name the technique used to separate DNA fragments in rDNA technology. (K)
25. Why DNA fragments move towards anode under electric field through a medium in gel
electrophoresis? (A)
26. “Gel electrophoresis is considered as a very important technique in recombinant DNA
technology”. Why? (A)
27. Which stain is used to visualize the separated DNA in gel electrophoresis? (K)
28. What is elution? (K)
29. Why origin of replication in a vector is considered an essential site? (A)
30. What is a selectable marker? (K)
31. With reference to recombinant DNA technology, what is transformation? (K)
32. Why selectable marker in a vector is considered as an essential site? (A)
33. What does ‘rop’ code for in pBR322? (U)
34. Vectors need to have very few or preferably single recognition site in recombinant DNA
technique. Why?(A)
35. Why selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure. (A)
36. What is insertional inactivation? (K)
37. Name a plant pathogenic bacterium used as vector for cloning genes in dicot plants. (K)
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38. Name the organism in which Ti plasmid is present. (K)
39. Name the plasmid present in Agrobacterium tumefaciens. (K)
40. Name a pathogenic virus which can be disarmed and used to deliver genes into animal cells. (K)
41. Retroviruses are disarmed before using to deliver desired genes into animal cell. Why? (A)
42. With reference to recombinant DNA technology, what is meant by competent host? (U)
43. What is microinjection?(K)
44. What is the significance of microinjection? (K)
45. What is biolistics? (K)
46. What is the significance of bioliistics or gene gun? (K)
47. Mention the enzyme used to isolate DNA from bacterial cell. (K)
48. Mention the enzyme used to isolate DNA from plant cell. (K)
49. Mention the enzyme used to isolate DNA from fungal cell. (K)
50. What is the use of chitinase in recombinant DNA technology? (U)
51. What is the use of cellulase in recombinant DNA technology? (U)
52. Why chilled ethanol is used in DNA isolation. (A)
53. Expand PCR. (K)
54. What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? (K)
55. What is primer? (K)
56. Name the thermostable enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction. (K)
57. Name the bacterium from which thermostable Taq polymerase is obtained. (K)
58. What is the unique feature of Taq polymerase? (U)
59. What is the use of Taq polymerase enzyme? (U)
60. Why Taq polymerase is preferred over the normal DNA polymerase in polymerase chain
reaction? (A)
61. What is recombinant protein? (K)
62. What are bioreactors? (K)
63. What is downstream processing? (K)

1. What is biotechnology? Mention any two uses of it to mankind. (K)
2. Mention two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology. (K)
3. What is the limitation of traditional hybridization procedures of plant and animal breeding? How
is this overcome by genetic engineering? (U)
4. Name two bacteria that were used for developing recombinant DNA technique by Stanley Cohen
and Herbert Boyer. (K)
5. Mention any four biological tools required for recombinant DNA technology. (K)
6. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease. (U)
7. Explain the convention for naming restriction endonucleases scientifically. (U)
8. What are restriction enzymes? Mention any two examples. (K)
9. Mention any four restriction enzymes. (K)
10. Write note on functioning of restriction endonuclease. (U)
11. Mention the roles of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase in genetic engineering. (K)
12. Name the technique involved in separation and isolation of DNA fragment. Which dye is used to
stain gel to make the DNA visible under UV light? (K)
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13. Explain the steps employed during genetic engineering to isolate the DNA fragments that are
separated by gel electrophoresis? (U)
14. Draw a neat labeled diagram of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis unit. (S)
15. What is selectable marker? What is its role in genetic engineering? (K)
16. Write a note selectable marker. (U)
17. With reference to plasmids, what are the roles of ‘ori’ and selectable marker? (U)
18. A selectable marker is a must in a vector. Why? (A)
19. With reference to rDNA technology, what do you mean by ‘insertional inactivation’ and write the
significance of it. (U)
20. With reference to recombinant DNA technology, explain microinjection and biolistics. (U)
21. How bacteria like Escherichia coli are made competent to take up recombinant DNA? (U)
22. What is biolistics? In which organisms is it generally used? (K)
23. Name the bacterium from which Taq polymerase is obtained. What is the unique feature of Taq
polymerase? (U)

1. What is biotechnology? Mention two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern
biotechnology. (K)
2. Explain three basic steps of gene cloning. (U)
3. Mention the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism. (K)
4. What are restriction enzymes? How do they function? (U)
5. Make a diagrammatic representation of recombinant DNA technology.(S)
6. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of ‘ori’ in a plasmid. (K)
7. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of selectable marker in a plasmid. (K)
8. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of cloning site in a plasmid. (K)
9. Explain the procedure of making bacterial cells and animal cells competent to take up
recombinant DNA. (U)
10. Explain the procedure of making bacterial cells and plant cells competent to take up
recombinant DNA. (U)
11. Sketch and label pBR322. (S)
12. Sketch and label three steps of PCR technique. (S)
13. What is polymerase chain reaction? List three stages of PCR technique. Mention the polymerase
enzyme used in PCR. (K)
14. Mention six optimum conditions which are maintained in bioreactor. (K)
15. Mention sequential steps involved in rDNA technology. (K)
16. With reference to recombinant technology, define: (K)
(a) Cloning (b)Elution (c) Transformation(K)
17. Write a note on isolation of DNA in recombinant DNA technology. (U)
18. Explain the steps involved in the separation and isolation of DNA fragments in recombinant DNA
technology. (U)
19. Write a note on bioreactor. (U)
20. Draw a labelled diagram of simple stirred tank bioreactor. (S)
21. Draw a neat diagram of sparged stirred tank bioreactor. (S)
22. Write a note on downstream processing. (U)
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1. Explain structure of pBR322 with neat labeled diagram.(S)
2. Describe the characteristics that a plasmid should possess to be used as a cloning vector in
genetic engineering. (U)
3. Explain briefly the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology. (U)
4. What is polymerase chain reaction? Name the bacterium from which the polymerase enzyme
used in this technique is obtained. Write the schematic representation of this technique. (K/S)
5. Give reason for the following statements: (A)
(a) Alien DNA is linked with ‘ori’ site of a vector in gene cloning.
(b) Restriction enzymes are called ‘molecular scissors’.
(c) DNA ligase can be called ‘molecular glue’ or ‘molecular stitcher’.
(d) Gel electrophoresis is considered as a very important technique in recombinant DNA
technology.
(e) DNA fragments move towards anode under electric field through a medium in gel
electrophoresis.
6. Give reason for any five of the following statements. (U)
(a) Origin of replication in a vector is an essential site required for gene cloning.
(b) Selectable marker in a vector is essential site without which identifying recombinant DNA
becomes difficult.
(c) Vectors need to have very few or preferably single recognition site in recombinant DNA
technique.
(d) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure.
(e) Chilled ethanol is used in DNA isolation.
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72
Chapter 11
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Expand GMO. (K)
2. How the use of harmful effects of fertilizer and chemicals can be reduced by using
biotechnological applications? (A)
3. What is gene therapy? (K)
4. What does ‘Bt’ represent in Bt cotton? (K)
5. Even though Bt toxin can kill many insects, it will not kill the bacteria that produces it. Why? (A)
6. Even though Bt toxin is inactive, it kills the insect when enters its midgut. Why? (A)
7. Mention a gene that produces insecticidal protein in Bt cotton. (K)
8. Why is the gene encoding ‘cry’ protein inserted into a crop plants? (A)
9. Define RNA interference. (K)
10. What are transposons? (K)
11. Which biotechnological technique is used to avoid Meloidogyne incognitia infestation in tobacco
plant? (K)
12. Name the nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plant and reduces the yield. (K)
13. Why the translation of mRNA is prevented in RNA interference process? (A)
14. Why is it advisable to use insulin obtained through genetic engineering rather than insulin
obtained from an animal source? (A)
15. Name the disease which can be treated by clinical gene therapy. (K)
16. Expand ADA. (K)
17. Which method is a permanent cure for ADA deficiency disorder? (U)
18. Expand ELISA. (K)
19. Mention the principle on which ELISA is based. (U)
20. Which method of disease diagnosis is used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients? (K)
21. Define biopiracy? (K)
22. Mention an Indian traditional herbal medicine on which biopiracy attempts were made. (K)
23. What are transgenic animals? (K)
24. Name the first transgenic cow? (K)
25. Name the human protein produced by genetically modified animal which is used to treat
emphysema? (K)
26. What is the special feature of milk produced by the transgenic cow, Rosie? (K)
27. A multinational company outside India tried to sell new varieties of turmeric without proper
patent rights. What is such an act referred to as? (A)

1. Mention any four benefits of genetically modified organisms. (K)
2. Mention two genes that are responsible for producing Cry protein to control cotton bollworms.
(K)
3. How does inactive protoxin of Bt toxin kills the insect once it is ingested? (U)
4. Which animals were the sources of insulin before the genetically engineered insulin was
produced? Why this insulin was replaced by genetically engineered insulin. (U)
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5. Define gene therapy. Mention a disease which has been treated using this technique.
6. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into a ADA deficiency patient not
a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure.
7. Mention any two modern methods of disease diagnosis. (K)
8. Mention two applications of Polymer Chain Reaction as a molecular diagnostic tool.
9. ELISA is one of the methods of molecular diagnosis. What is the principle of this technique and
how does it help in detecting HIV infection ?
10. What are transgenic animals? Give any two examples. (K)
11. What is the role of Genetic Engineering Approval committee (GEAC)? (U)
12. Explain any two benefits of transgenic animals.
13. How transgenic animals can help in the study normal physiology and development? (U)
14. How transgenic animals can help in the study diseases? (U)
15. Transgenic animals can be used to produce biological products. Justify with two examples. (A)
16. How transgenic animals can be help in the study of vaccine safety? (U)
17. How transgenic animals can help in the study chemical safety? (U)
18. Differentiate between pro-insulin and a mature insulin. (U)

1. Mention three critical research areas of biotechnology. (K)
2. What are genetically modified organisms? Mention any four benefits of genetically modified
organisms. (K)
3. Mention six benefits of genetically modified organisms. (K)
4. What is Bt toxin? How does it kill cotton boll worms? (U)
5. Explain the procedure of developing nematode resistant tobacco plant by RNA interference. (U)
6. What is gene therapy? Explain the steps involved in curing ADA deficiency by gene therapy. (U)
7. Mention three applications of PCR as a tool of molecular diagnosis. (K)
8. Briefly explain the steps involved in PCR based molecular diagnosis to detect mutations in cancer
patients. (U)
9. What is biopiracy? Explain it with respect to Basmati rice. (U)
10. Write a note on production of human insulin by genetic engineering. (U)
11. Explain any three benefits of creating transgenic animals.
12. What is biopiracy? Explain it with reference to Basmati Rice. (U)

1. “Genetically modified plants can reduce the use of chemical pesticides”. Justify this. (A).
2. Define RNA interference. Name the nematode for which tobacco plant was made resistant by
this technique. Explain how this resistance was achieved in tobacco plant. (U)
3. Explain the applications of biotechnology in the field of medicine. (U)
4. One of the applications of biotechnology is the production of insect resistant crop plants. Justify
the statement with reference to Bt cotton. (U)
5. Explain various techniques of molecular diagnosis. (U)
6. Give reasons: (A)
(a) Even though Bt toxin can kill many insects, it will not kill the bacteria that produces it.
(b) Even though Bt toxin is inactive, it kills the insect when enters its midgut.
(c) The gene encoding ‘cry’ protein inserted into a crop plants.
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(d) The translation of mRNA is prevented in RNA interference process.
(e) It advisable to use insulin obtained through genetic engineering rather than insulin obtained
from an animal source.
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75
Chapter 13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What is ecology? (K)
2. Define ecological niche. (K)
3. What are eurythermal organisms? (K)
4. What are stenothermal organisms? (K)
5. What are euryhaline organisms? (K)
6. What are stenohaline organisms? (K)
7. Define homeostasis. (K)
8. Why are certain organisms in the ecosystem called regulators? (U)
9. Why are certain organisms in the ecosystem called conformers? (U)
10. Why evolutionary biologists believe that mammals are successful animals on earth? (A)
11. What is the significance of sweating profusely in mammals during summer? (U)
12. What is the significance of shivering in mammals during summer? (U)
13. Very small animals are rarely found in polar region. Give reason. (U)
14. Why conformers have not evolved to become regulators? (A)
15. How do seeds remain dormant for considerable period of time? (A)
16. Define migration. (K)
17. Define aestivation (K)
18. Define hibernation(K)
19. Define diapause. (K)
20. What is an adaptation? (K)
21. How do kangaroo rats in North American deserts meet their water requirement? (A)
22. How does kangaroo rat in North American deserts conserve water? (A)
23. Many desert plants have a special photosynthetic (CAM) pathway. How does this help the desert
plants? (K)
24. Mention an adaptation in desert plants to conserve water. (K)
25. Many desert plants have their stomata arranged in deep pits. How does this help these desert
plants? (K)
26. “Some animals, if unable to migrate, might avoid the stress by escaping in time”. Justify the
statement citing one example. (A)
27. State Allen’s rule. (K)
28. Why mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs? (A)
29. Mention an adaptation in aquatic mammals of polar seas to reduce loss of body heat. (K)
30. What is blubber? (K)
31. Why total haemoglobin content is higher in people who live at high altitudes, than people living
in the plains. (U)
32. At higher altitudes, a man suffers from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue and
heart palpitation. Why? (A)
33. Define population. (K)
34. What is age distribution with respect to population? (K)
35. Define natality. (K)
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36. Define mortality. (K)
37. What is immigration with reference to population? (K)
38. What is emigration with reference to population? (K)
39. What is an age pyramid? (K)
40. Percent cover or biomass is a more meaningful measure of the population size. Justify the
statement with an example. (U)
41. What is meant by exponential growth of population? (K)
42. Write the equation for exponential growth of a population. (K)
43. Write the integral form of the equation for exponential growth of a population. (K)
44. What is meant by logistic growth of population? (K)
45. Write the equation for logistic growth of a population. (K)
46. The logistic growth model is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Give
reason. (A)
47. Why exponential growth model is not realistic compared to logistic growth model (A)
48. Name an animal that breeds only once in its life time. (K)
49. Name a plant that breeds only once in its life time. (K)
50. Mention the type of population interaction where both the interacting species are benefitted.(K)
51. Name the type of population interaction in which only one interacting species is benefitted while
the other is neither benefitted nor harmed. (K)
52. Name the type of population interaction in which only one interacting species is benefitted while
the other is affected. (K)
53. Name the type of population interaction in which one interacting species is harmed while the
other is unaffected. (K)
54. Define amensalism. (K)
55. Name the principle behind biological pest control method adapted in agriculture. (K)
56. Predators in nature are prudent. Why? (A)
57. How do some species of insects and frogs avoid being detected easily by their predators? (A)
58. What are phytophagous insects? (K)
59. Why cattle and goats never browse Calotropis? (A)
60. Mention one chemical substance produced by plants as defence against grazing animals. (K)
61. Define competition. (K)
62. What is interference competition? (K)
63. Define competitive release. (K)
64. State Gause’s competitive exclusion principle. (K)
65. What is resource partitioning? (K)
66. What are ectoparasites? (K)
67. What are endoparasites? (K)
68. Mention an example for parasitic plant. (K)
69. What is brood parasitism? (K)
70. Define commensalism. (K)
71. Define mutualism. (K)
72. Define mycorrhizae. (K)
73. Name the type of interaction between fungi and roots of higher plants. (K)
74. Name the type of interaction between cattle and egret. (K)
75. Name the type of interaction between cuckoo and crow. (K)
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76. Give the name of Mediterranean orchid that exhibits ‘sexual deceit’.(K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the four basic levels of biological organization that ecology is concerned with? (K)
2. Name the two factors responsible for the formation of major biomes on earth. (K)
3. List the major biomes of India. (K)
4. Mention the major abiotic factors of an environment. (K)
5. Differentiate eurythermal and stenothermal organisms. (U)
6. Differentiate euryhaline and stenohaline organisms.(U)
7. Mention four measures by which organisms cope with stressful conditions in their habitat. (K)
8. Write the mechanisms in humans to regulate body temperature in summer and winter. (K)
9. Show a diagrammatic representation of organismic response to abiotic stresses. (S)
10. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. Justify the statement with
example. (A)
11. Explain with an example how animals keep constant body temperature by behavioral means?
(U)
12. What is migration? Give an example. (K)
13. The organisms if unable to migrate might avoid the stress by escaping in time. Justify the
statement with two examples. (K)
14. What is diapause? Mention an example. (K)
15. Write any two adaptations in desert plants to minimize water loss. (K)
16. How do kangaroo rats meet their water requirement and also minimize water loss? (U)
17. Mention two physiological adaptations in kangaroo rat for desert life. (K)
18. Mention any two measures by which the human body compensates low oxygen availability at
higher altitudes. (K)
19. Mention any four population attributes. (K)
20. Name the four basic processes that fluctuates population density. (K)
21. Mention the two patterns of population growth in organisms. (K)
22. Show diagrammatic representation of exponential and logistic growth curves of population
growth in a combined diagram. (S)
23. Mention any four types of interspecific interactions in organisms. (K)
24. Define predation. Give any two examples. (K)
25. Mention two adaptations in plants to escape from grazers and browsers. (K)
26. Explain interference competition with an example. (U)
27. Explain competitive release with an example. (U)
28. Write short note on resource partitioning with a suitable example. (K)
29. Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life. (K)
30. What are ectoparasites? Give example. (K)
31. What are endoparasites? Give an example. (K)
32. Define commensalism. Give examples. (K)
33. Define mutualism. Give an example. (K)
34. What is brood parasitism? Give an example. (K)

1. Describe any three suspended activities in organisms against abiotic stresses with appropriate
examples. (K)
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2. Mention the cause and any two symptoms of altitude sickness. Explain how the human body
compensates oxygen loss at high altitude? (U)
3. Write a note on altitude sickness. (U)
4. What is resource partitioning? Describe with an example. (K)
5. What is parasitism? Mention the types of parasites with an example for each. (K)
6. What is parasitism? Write a note on brood parasitism. (U)
7. What is parasitism? Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life. (K)
8. What is mutualism? Why plant – animal interaction often involves co - evolution of mutualists?
(U)
9. Explain how Mediterranean orchid ‘Ophrys’ employs sexual deceit to ensure pollination? (U)

1. What is ecology? Explain the role of major abiotic factors in any ecosystem. (U)
2. Define homeostasis. Describe how organisms cope with stressful conditions in their habitat. (U)
3. Explain Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth with a diagram and write its mathematical expression. (S)
4. Describe exponential growth with a suitable diagram and give its mathematical equation. (S)
5. Mention any five population interactions with an example for each. (K)
6. Define competition. Explain interference competition and competitive release with suitable
examples. (U)
7. Explain the role of predation in an ecosystem with suitable examples. Add a note on
morphological and defensive adaptations in plant and animal preys against their predators? (A)
8. What is mutualism? Explain any four examples of mutualism. (U)
10. What is mutualism? Why does plant - animal interaction often involves co - evolution of
mutualists? Justify your answer with an example. (U)
9. ‘Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and free meals’. Justify the statement by listing the
special adaptations developed by parasites. (U)
10. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples: (K)
(a) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of humans
(b) Wasp pollinating an inflorescence
(c) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone
(d) Disappearance of smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated the coast of Scotland
(e) Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree
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Chapter 14
ECOSYSTEM
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define ecosystem. (K)
2. Biosphere is regarded as global ecosystem by ecologists. Give reason. (U)
3. Define stratification. (K)
4. Define productivity. (K)
5. What is primary productivity? (K)
6. What is secondary productivity? (K)
7. What is gross primary productivity? (K)
8. What is net primary productivity? (K)
9. Define decomposition. (K)
10. Define detritus. (K)
11. Earthworms are called ‘farmer’s friends’. Why? (A)
12. What are detrivores? (K)
13. Define humification. (K)
14. What is mineralization with reference to decomposition? (K)
15. Define food chain. (K)
16. Define trophic level. (K)
17. In which food chain, organic matter occupies the base? (K)
18. In terrestrial ecosystem, through which food chain greater fraction of energy flows? (K)
19. In aquatic ecosystem, through which food chain greater fraction of energy flows? (K)
20. Define food web. (K)
21. What is standing crop? (K)
22. State 10% law. (K)
23. What are ecological pyramids? (K)
24. Why is the pyramid of biomass in sea generally inverted? (A)
25. Pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be inverted. Why? (A)
26. Give an example for inverted ecological pyramid. (K)
27. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with a reason. (A)
28. What is ecological succession? (K)
29. What are pioneer species? (K)
30. What is climax community? (K)
31. Define sere(s). (K)
32. What are seral stages or seral communities? (K)
33. What is primary succession? (K)
34. What is secondary succession? (K)
35. What is hydrarch succession? (K)
36. What is xerarch succession? (K)
37. Why is primary succession a very slow process? (A)
38. Why is secondary succession much faster than primary succession? (A)
39. Define standing state. (K)
40. Define biogeochemical cycle. (K)
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41. Why is carbon cycle considered as a gaseous cycle? (A)
42. Whys is phosphorous cycle considered as a sedimentary cycle? (A)
43. Human activities have influenced carbon cycle. Justify with a reason. (A)
44. What are ecosystem services? (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List two basic or fundamental categories of ecosystems on earth with an example for each. (K)
2. Mention the four primary functions of an ecosystem. (K)
3. Define productivity and mention its types. (K)
4. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity. (U)
5. Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity. (U)
6. Mention two conditions which increase the rate of decomposition in ecosystem. (K)
7. Mention two conditions which decrease the rate of decomposition in ecosystem. (K)
8. Show schematic representation of grazing food chain (GFC). (S)
9. Distinguish between food chain and food web. (U)
10. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with two reasons. (A)
11. Distinguish between primary and secondary ecological successions. (U)
12. What are pioneer species? Give an example. (K)
13. Differentiate between pioneer species and climax community. (U)
14. Differentiate standing crop and standing state. (U)
15. Compare gaseous and sedimentary cycles. (U)
16. List two differences between carbon cycle and phosphorous cycle. (U)

1. Describe the components of an aquatic ecosystem taking pond as an example. (U)
2. Explain the factors that regulate decomposition. (U)
3. Define food chain. Mention the types of food chain. (K)
4. Show diagrammatic representation of different trophic levels in an ecosystem. (S)
5. What are ecological pyramids? Mention any two types. (K)
6. Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem with
appropriate units. (S)
7. Write diagrammatic representation of an erect pyramid of biomass with appropriate units. (S)
8. Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of energy with appropriate units. (S)
9. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with three reasons. (A)
10. Define ecological succession. Differentiate primary and secondary ecological successions. (U)
11. Define ecological succession. Mention the two types of succession in plants based on the nature
of habitat. (K)
12. With reference to ecological succession, define the following: (a) Sere (b) Pioneer species (c)
Climax community. (K)
13. Explain primary succession on bare rocks. (U)
14. Explain primary succession in water. (U)
15. What is biogeochemical cycle? Mention the types of biogeochemical cycles with an example for
each. (K)
16. Compare gaseous and sedimentary cycles with an example for each. (U)
17. List three differences between carbon cycle and phosphorous cycle. (U)
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18. Write the schematic representation of phosphorous cycle. (S)
19. “Ecosystem services should carry a hefty price tag”. Justify with six of reasons. (U)

1. What is productivity? Mention the types of primary productivity. Compare primary productivity
and secondary productivity in an ecosystem. (K)
2. Describe the various steps involved in the process of decomposition. (U)
3. What are ecological pyramids? Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of energy
with appropriate units. Why is pyramid of energy always upright and can never be inverted? (U)
4. What are ecological pyramids? Write the diagrammatic representation of an erect pyramid of
biomass. Why pyramid of biomass in sea generally inverted? (U)
5. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with four reasons. (A)
6. Define ecological succession. Differentiate primary and secondary ecological successions. Why
the rate of primary succession is slower but that of secondary succession is faster? (U)
7. Describe ecological succession on bare rock and in water. (U)
8. Write the simplified model of carbon cycle in the biosphere. (S)
9. Explain carbon cycle in the biosphere. (U)
10. Explain phosphorous cycle with a schematic representation. (S)
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Chapter 15
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define Biodiversity. (K)
2. Who popularized the term ‘biodiversity’? (K)
3. What is genetic diversity? (K)
4. India has more than 50,000 different strains of rice. Mention the level of biodiversity it
represents. (U)
5. Give an example for genetic diversity. (K)
6. Name an active chemical produced by medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria. (K)
7. What is species diversity? (K)
8. What is ecological or ecosystem diversity? (K)
9. Among vertebrates, which group of animals has the highest number in global biodiversity? (K)
10. What is India’s share (in percentage) in global species diversity? (K)
11. How many mega diversity countries are present in the world? (K)
12. Write the equation that describes species richness – area relationship. (U)
13. What are frugivorous animals? (K)
14. Who proposed the ‘rivet popper” hypotheses? (K)
15. Name the forest which is referred to as the ‘lungs of the planet’? (K)
16. How the current species extinction is different from the previous episodes of extinction? (K)
17. How does fragmentation of large habitats due to human activities lead to the decline of wildlife
population? (U)
18. Give example for a species which has become extinct due to overexploitation. (K)
19. Name an alien species which has been introduced into India that has posed threat to native
species in India. (K)
20. “Introduction of alien species causes biodiversity loss”. Justify this statement with one
appropriate example. (A)
21. What is co-extinction? (K)
22. Define bioprospecting. (K)
23. What are ‘biodiversity hotspots’? (K)
24. How many biodiversity hotspots have been identified so far in the world? (K)
25. How many biodiversity hotspots have been identified in India? (K)
26. Why Western Ghats range is considered as one of the biodiversity hotspots? (A)
27. Name one biodiversity hotspot in India. (K)
28. What are endemic species? (K)
29. What is in situ conservation? (K)
30. Give an example for in situ conservation. (K)
31. What are sacred grooves? (K)
32. How are sacred grooves important in conserving biodiversity? (U)
33. What is ex situ conservation? (K)
34. Give an example for ex situ conservation. (K)
35. How cryopreservation helps in the conservation of biodiversity? (U)
36. Mention any one advanced technique used in ex situ conservation. (K)
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TWO MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define biodiversity. Write any two levels of biodiversity. (K)
2. Differentiate genetic diversity and species diversity. (U)
3. Differentiate genetic diversity and ecological diversity. (U)
4. Differentiate species diversity and ecological diversity. (U)
5. “India is rich in genetic diversity”. Justify the statement by giving two examples. (A)
6. How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world? (U)
7. Name the most species-rich taxonomic group among animals and mention its percentage within
animal species. (K)
8. Write the major problems in completing the biological wealth inventory of India. (U)
9. Mention David Tilman’s observation with respect to species richness in a community. (U)
10. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list. (K)
11. Mention “The Evil Quartet” of biodiversity loss. (K)
12. Give examples of two species which have become extinct due to overexploitation. (K)
13. “Introduction of alien species causes biodiversity loss”. Justify this statement with two
appropriate examples. (A)
14. Write a note on co-extinction. (U)
15. List any two ecosystem services provided by biodiversity. (K)
16. Mention two biodiversity hotspots of India. (K)
17. Mention methods for conserving biodiversity. (K)
18. Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation. (U)
19. What is ex situ conservation? Mention two examples. (K)
20. What are sacred groves? Mention any two examples. (K)
21. Write any two advanced techniques used in ex situ conservation. (K)

1. Briefly explain the three levels of biodiversity. (U)
2. “Tropical rain forests have greater biodiversity compared to temperate forest”. Justify with three
reasons. (A)
3. Draw a graphical representation of species area relationship. (S)
4. Explain the species-area relationship of biodiversity according to Alexander Von Humboldt. (U)
5. In the formula Log S=Log C- Z log A to find out species-area relationship, what does ‘S’, ‘A’ and ‘Z’
stand for? (U)
6. Write the salient features of stable community with reference to biodiversity. (U)
7. Describe the “rivet popper” hypothesis. (U)
8. List out the three general effects of loss of biodiversity. (K)
9. Explain any three major causes of biodiversity loss. (U)
10. “Alien species invasion leads to extinction of indigenous species”. Justify the statement by giving
three appropriate examples. (A)
11. “There is a great need to conserve biodiversity”. Justify with six reasons. (A)
12. Briefly explain narrowly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity. (U)
13. Briefly explain broadly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity. (U)
14. “Biodiversity plays a major role in providing many ecosystem services”. Justify the statement
with three reasons. (A)
84
1. Define biodiversity. Explain the major causes of biodiversity loss. (U)
2. What are endemic species? Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation with
examples. (U)
3. Explain species area relationship with graphical representation. (S)
4. Describe different ecosystem services provided by biodiversity. (U)
-----
85
Chapter 16
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define pollution. (K)
2. What are pollutants? (K)
3. Name the act passed by government of India to control environmental pollution. (K)
4. What is electrostatic precipitator? (K)
5. Mention the purpose for which scrubber is used in industries. (K)
6. Why lead should not be added to petrol that is used as fuel in modern automobiles? (A)
7. Name any one metal catalyst used in catalytic converters. (K)
8. What is noise? (K)
9. Expand CNG. (K)
10. “Compressed Natural Gas is advantageous over petro or diesel”. Justify with one reason. (A)
11. “Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is an index of water pollution”. Justify with a reason. (A)
12. How do you estimate the amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water? (K)
13. Why is there a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream a river from the point of sewage
discharge? (A)
14. What is algal bloom? (K)
15. Define biomagnification. (K)
16. Why addition of wastes from agricultural operations to water bodies may cause excessive
growth of algae? (A)
17. What is eutrophication? (K)
18. What is cultural eutrophication? (K)
19. Name the large masses of floating plants formed in the lake during eutrophication. (K)
20. Disposal of sewage into water without proper treatment may cause outbreak of serious diseases
in humans. Give reason. (A)
21. What is ecological sanitation? (K)
22. How hospital wastes are disposed? (U)
23. Mention the role of incinerators in controlling pollution. (K)
24. What is e-waste? (K)
25. What is polyblend? (K)
26. Nuclear waste is extremely potent waste which can cause damage to organisms. Justify with a
reason. (A)
27. What is greenhouse effect? (K)
28. Why does a traditional greenhouse warm up? (A)
29. What would be the average temperature of the earth’s surface without greenhouse effect? (K)
30. What is global warming? (K)
31. Mention one effect of global warming? (K)
32. Why CO2 is considered as a green house gas? (A)
33. Which part of the atmosphere ha ‘bad’ ozone? (K)
34. Which part of the atmosphere ha ‘good’ ozone? (K)
35. Name one chemical responsible for ozone layer depletion. (K)
36. What is ‘ozone hole’? (K)
86
37. Mention the function of ozone layer in the stratosphere. (K)
38. Name the unit used for measurement of thickness of ozone in a column of air. (K)
39. What is snow blindness? (K)
40. What is the main goal of Montreal Protocol? (K)
41. Define deforestation. (K)
42. Define reforestation. (K)
43. In which part of India Jhum cultivation is practised? (K)
44. Name the award instituted by the Government of India for protection of wildlife. (K)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write any four effects of air pollution. (K)
2. Mention four effects of noise pollution in humans. (K)
3. Write any two preventive measures for noise pollution. (K)
4. Write any two preventive measures of air pollution. (K)
5. Name the gaseous pollutant that is removed by a scrubber. How is this pollutant removed by the
scrubber? (U)
6. Write the harmful effects of particulate matter present in air on human health. (U)
7. How do catalytic converters help in controlling air pollution? (U)
8. “Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is better than petrol or diesel”. Justify with two reasons. (U)
9. List two causes of water pollutuion. (K)
10. List two effects of water pollution. (K)
11. Write the effects of DDT magnification in fish eating birds. (U)
12. What is algal bloom? Mention its effects. (K)
13. What is cultural or accelerated? Mention the two chief contaminants present in sewage,
industrial and agricultural wastes which is responsible for this. (K)
14. Write the effect of thermal waste water on aquatic ecosystem. (K)
15. What is ecological sanitation? Mention its advantages. (K)
16. What is polyblend? Write the advantages of polyblend? (U)
17. Name any four green house gases. (K)
18. Write any two control measures of global warming. (A)
19. Ozone layer in the stratosphere becomes thinner due to the release of CFCs. Give s reason. (A)
20. Explain briefly the international efforts to prevent ozone layer depletion. (U)
21. List four causes of desertification. (K)
22. Mention the major causes for soil erosion. (K)
23. Differentiate deforestation and reforestation. (U)
24. Mention two causes of deforestation. (K)
25. Mention the percentage of forest cover recommended by the National Forest Policy (1988) for
the plains and the hills. (K)
26. Write four consequences of deforestation. (K)

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of scrubber. (S)
2. What is electrostatic precipitator? How are particulate matter removed by electrostatic
precipitators? (U)
3. Draw a diagram of electrostatic precipitator. (S)
87
4. Write the measures taken by Delhi government to reduce the vehicular pollution. (K)
5. What is noise? Mention four effects of noise pollution in humans. (K)
6. List three causes of water pollutuion. (K)
7. List three effects of water pollution. (K)
8. What is biomagnification? How biomagnification of DDT affects fish-eating birds? (U)
9. Schematically represent biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain. (S)
10. Write a note on e-wastes. (U)
11. Mention the effects of radioactive wastes in humans. How are these wastes disposed? (U)
12. Explain the mechanism by which thinning of ozone layer occurs. (U)
13. Name a chemical that causes ozone depletion in the stratosphere. Mention any two effects of
ozone depletion in humans. (K)
14. List three effects of ozone depletion. (K)
15. What is desertification? Mention the causes for desertification. (K)
16. What is deforestation? Mention two causes of deforestation. (K)
17. What is deforestation? List two consequences of deforestation. (K)
18. Write a note on Jhum cultivation. (U)

1. What is pollution? Mention the causes and preventive measures of air pollution. (U)
2. Write a brief account of functioning of electrostatic precipitator with a neat labeled diagram. (U)
3. Define eutrophication? Explain the stages involved in eutrophication. (U)
4. Explain the effects of water pollution. (U)
5. What measures, as an individual, would you take to reduce environmental pollution? (A)
6. How does greenhouse effect occur in nature? (U)
7. What is global warming? Explain effects of global warming and list the control measures to
prevent global warming. (U)
8. Discuss the consequences of global warming and ozone layer depletion. (U)
9. Write the meaning of the following: (K)
(a) Algal bloom (b) Biomagnification (c) Eutrophication (d) Polyblend (e) Greenhouse effect
10. What is integrated organic farming? Explain the organic farming technique practised by Ramesh
Chandra Dagar. (U)
11. Describe the participation of people in the conservation of forests by taking Bishnoi community
incident and Chipko movement as examples. Add a note on Joint Forest Management (JFM). (U)
-----
88
DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours 15 Minutes (of which 15 minutes for reading the question paper)
Max. Marks: 70
The weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the

question paper shall be as follows:
A. Weightage to Objectives:
Objective Weightage (%) Marks
Knowledge 40 % 42
Understanding 30 % 33
Application 15 % 15
Skill 15 % 15
Note: 1% or 2% variation is allowed per objective.

Note: Variation of one mark per chapter/unit is allowed. However the total marks
should not exceed 105.
B. Weightage to forms of questions:
Number of Number of
Units to be
Part Type of questions Main question to question to
covered
be set be answered
A 1 mark – Very short 10 10
answer (VSA)
All Units (05

B 2 mark – short answer 8 5
(SA1)
Units)
C 3 mark – short answer 8 5
(SA2)
5 mark – long answer Section –I 05 04
D (LA)
Section – II 05 03
C. Weightage to level of difficulty:

Level Weightage % Marks
Easy 40 % 28
Average 40 % 28
Difficult 20 % 14
General Instructions:
 Questions should be clear, unambiguous understandable and free from
grammatical errors.
 Questions which are based on same concepts, law, fact etc. and which
generate the same answer should not be repeated under different forms
(VSA, SA and LA)
89
WEIGHTAGE TO THE UNIT/CHAPTER (BLUE PRINT FOR ENTIRE
SYLLABUS)
TOTAL
TEACHING NO. OF
UNIT TOTAL
UNIT HOURS - CHAPTER NAME TEACHING MARKS
NO. MARKS
UNIT HOURS
WISE
1.REPRODUCTION IN
5 5
ORGANISMS
2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
VI REPRODUCTION 10 8 25
29 IN FLOWERING PLANTS
3.HUMAN REPRODUCTION 9 7
4. REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 5 5
5. PRINCIPLES OF
INHERITANCE AND 12 10
GENETICS VARIATION
VII 26
AND 30 6. MOLECULAR BASIS OF
EVOLUTION 12 10
INHERITANCE
7. EVOLUTION 6 6
8. HUMAN HEALTH AND
10 7
DISEASE
BIOLOGY AND
VIII HUMAN 9. STRATEGIES FOR 21
25 ENHANCEMENT OF FOOD 9 8
WELFARE
PRODUCTION
10. MICROBES INHUMAN
6 6
WELFARE
11. BIOTECHNOLOGY:
7 6
PRICNIPLES AND PROCESSES
BIOTECHNOLOGY
IX 12 11
12. BIOTECHNOLOGY AND
5 5
ITS APPLICATIONS
13. ORGANISMS AND
7 6
POLULATION
14. ECOSYSTEM 6½ 6
X ECOLOGY 24 15. BIODIVERSITY AND
3½ 4 22
CONSERVATION
16. ENVIRONMENTAL
7 6
ISSUES
TOTAL 120 105
90
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER – 1
Time: 3 Hours and 15 minutes Max Marks: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) This question paper consists of four parts – A, B, C and D. Part D consists of two parts,
Section-I and Section-II.
(ii) All the Parts are compulsory.
(iii) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabelled diagrams or illustrations do not attract any
marks.
PART – A
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each: 10 x 1 = 10
1. Name the type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen to the stigma.
2. Mention the role of LH during spermatogenesis.
3. What is foetal ejection reflex?
4. With reference to the Mendelian laws of inheritance define the term “dominance”.
5. Which genetic disease is characterized by the reduced synthesis of haemoglobin?
6. ‘Evolution can also occur by anthropogenic action’. Give an example for this.
7. Mention the role of Azospirillum as biofertilizer.
8. “Gel electrophoresis is considered as a very important technique in recombinant DNA
technology”. Why?
9. Define ‘standing state’.
10. How cryopreservation helps in the conservation of biodiversity?
PART – B
Answer FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences each, wherever applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
11. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Compared to internal fertilization, external fertilization is disadvantageous to the animal.
(b) Chances of survival of young ones are more in viviparous animals than in oviparous animals.
12. Write a note on double fertilization.
13. Sketch and label a nucleosome.
14. Mention any two physiological barriers that provide non-specific type of defense to our body.
15. List any two bioactive molecules of fungal origin and explain how those molecules help in
restoring good health in humans.
16. Explain the method of introduction of alien DNA into bacterial cells.
17. “Alien species are highly invasive and are a threat to local species”. Substantiate this with any
two examples.
18. Mention any two effects of Ozone depletion on humans.
PART – C
Answer FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each, wherever applicable: 5 x 3 = 15
19. Name the following:
(a) The organism in which cell division itself is a mode of reproduction
(b) The type of reproductive cycle in non-primate mammals
(c) The plant that flowers only once in its life time
20. List any six features of genetic code.
21. Explain sex determination in birds.
22. Mention the important points needed for successful beekeeping.
91
23. Sketch and label a typical biogas plant.
24. What is gene therapy? Explain the steps involved in curing ADA deficiency by gene therapy.
25. Describe rivet popper hypothesis.
26. “Ecosystems should carry a hefty price tag for its various services”. Enlist any three of them.
PART-D
Section-I
Answer FOUR of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 4 x 5 = 20
27. Answer the following:
(a) Write a note on Pollination in Vallisneria. (2)
(b) List the differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. (2)
(c) What is the number of chromosomes in each of the endosperm cells of a plant that has 36
chromosomes in its meiocytes? (1)
28. Draw a neat labeled diagrammatic view of human male reproductive system.
29. (a) Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive. (2)
(b) Write a note on the steps involved in the creation of “test tube baby”. (2)
(c) Name a hormone releasing IUD. (1)
30. State the law of Independent assortment. Explain it with an example.
31. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the process of transcription in bacteria.
32. What were the views of Charles Darwin about the evolution of life forms?
Section-II
Answer THREE of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
33. (a) Explain how different techniques help in cancer detection and diagnosis. (4)
(b) How does smoking cause oxygen deficiency in the body? (1)
34. Describe briefly the steps involved in the breeding of new genetic variety of crops.
35. (a) Explain how DNA is isolated from cells. (3)
(b) Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease. (1)
(c) What is the uniqueness of Taq polymerase? (1)
36. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples:
(a) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of humans.
(b) Wasp pollinating an inflorescence.
(c) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone.
(d) Disappearance of smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated the coast of Scotland.
(e) Five closely related species of warlbers living on the same tree.
37. Draw a neat labeled diagram of electrostatic precipitator and explain. Mention the importance
of electrostatic precipitator.
92
93
(iv) This question paper consists of four parts – A, B, C and D. Part D consists of two parts,
(v) All the Parts are compulsory.
(vi) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabelled diagrams or illustrations do not attract any
marks.
PART – A
1. What is Perisperm?
2. Name the oral contraceptive for the females developed by CDRI.
3. Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
4. Name the diagnostic test which confirms typhoid.
5. Name the pathogen which causes malignant malaria.
6. What is the medical use of cyclosporin A?
7. A restriction enzyme digests DNA into fragments. Name the technique used to check the
progression of this enzyme and to separate the DNA fragments.
8. State Allen’s rule.
9. Define standing crop.
10. How cryopreservation is useful in conserving biodiversity?
PART-B
Answer FIVE of the following in 3 – 5 sentences each, wherever applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
11. What are meiocytes? Mention the chromosome number in meiocyte of human beings.
12. Differentiate chasmogamous flowers and cleistogamous flowers.
13. How are non medicated IUDs different from hormone releasing IUDS?
14. Mention any four objectives of RCH.
15. Mention the number of chromosomes found in the following cells of humans:
(a) Primary oocyte (b) Secondary oocyte (c) Ootid (d) Follicle.
16. What is modified allele? How the modified allele affects the phenotype of an organism?
17. Distinguish between the template and coding strands of DNA.
18. Mention two classes of nucleases. Suggest their respective roles.
PART-C
Answer FIVE of the following in 40 – 80 words each, wherever applicable: 5 x 3 = 15
19. Name any three units of vegetative propagation in plants with the names of plants in which they
are present.
20. What is pedigree analysis? Draw schematic representation of Autosomal dominant trait
(Myotonic dystrophy).
21. State any three criteria which a molecule must fulfill to act as a genetic material.
22. Explain mutation breeding with note on plants developed through mutation breeding.
23. Mention any three features of vectors that are most suitable for the purpose for recombinant
DNA technology.
24. What do you mean by biodiversity? What are the different types of Biodiversity?
25. Explain how solid wastes can be disposed in different ways.
94
26. Draw a neat labeled diagram of electrostatic precipitator.
PART-D
Section I
Answer FOUR of the following in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 4 x 5 = 20
27. Explain the structure of mature female gametophyte with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
28. What is menstrual cycle? Explain the phases of menstrual cycle.
29. State the law of independent assortment. Explain hybrid cross experiment with reference to
seed colour and seed shape.
30. Describe the experiment conducted by Hershey and Chase which proves that DNA is the genetic
material?
31. Describe Miller’s experiment with neat labeled diagram.
32. Explain the components of a biogas plant with a neat labeled diagram
Section II
Answer THREE of the following in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
33. Explain the life cycle of plasmodium with reference to malaria disease.
34. Briefly describe the steps involved in plant breeding technology.
35. What are genetically modified organisms? How are GM plants useful?
36. Define the following terms and give one example for each:
(a) Amensalism (b) Parasitism (c) Commensalism (d) Resource partitioning (e) Competitive
release
37. Represent schematically & describe the phosphorus cycle in an ecosystem.
95
(i) This question paper consists of four parts – A, B, C and D. Part D consists of two parts,
(ii) All the Parts are compulsory.
(iii) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. Unlabelled diagrams or illustrations do not attract any
marks.
PART – A
1. Why pollen grains are very well preserved as fossils?
2. Replication in the region of euchromatin would be faster. Justify.
3. With reference to Human Genome Project, what do SNPs refer to?
4. Define genetic equilibrium.
5. How does the administration of α-interferons help cancer patients?
6. Write the scientific name of the microbe which is used in the manufacture of citric acid.
7. Mention the principle on which ELISA is based.
8. Logistic growth model is more realistic than exponential growth model. Why?
9. Why is the pyramid of biomass in sea generally inverted?
10. What is the disadvantage of lead in petrol which is used as a fuel in modern automobiles?
PART – B
Answer the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences each, wherever applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
11. Why is water hyacinth called “the terror of Bengal”?
12. What do you understand by pericarp and perisperm?
13. Differentiate spermiogenesis and spermiation.
14. How is ZIFT different from ICSI?
15. Define pleiotropy. Mention an example.
16. Write the scientific name of the plant from which cocaine is obtained. What is the effect of
cocaine in humans?
17. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into a ADA deficiency patient not
a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure.
18. Justify with the help of two examples where a deliberate attempt by humans has led to the
extinction of a particular species on earth.
PART – C
Answer FIVE of the following in 40 – 80 words each, wherever applicable: 5 x 3 = 15
19. What is asexual reproduction? Explain encystation and sporulation in Amoeba.
20. Name the hormonal composition of the oral contraceptive used by human females. How does it
help in contraception?
21. Explain sex determination mechanism in honey bees.
22. Explain why DNA is a better genetic material than RNA.
23. What is divergent evolution? Explain this with reference to the forelimbs of Cheetah and whales.
24. What is biofortification? Mention four examples for biofortified crops.
25. What is Bt toxin? How does it toxin kill cotton boll worms?
96
26. Biodiversity plays a major role in providing many ecosystem services. Explain.
PART-D
Section I
Answer FOUR of the following in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 4 x 5 = 20
27. Describe the structure of megasporangium of angiosperms with a diagram.
28. Draw a labelled diagram of human sperm.
29. With the help of a diagram, explain the structure of transcriptional unit.
30. Write the schematic diagram of the life cycle of Plasmodium.
31. What is polymerase chain reaction? Name the bacterium from which the polymerase enzyme
used in this technique is obtained. Write the schematic representation of this technique.
32. What is cultural eutrophication? Explain the stages involved in eutrophication.
Section II
Answer THREE of the following in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: 3 x 5 = 15
33. Explain thalassemia as an example for Mendelian disorder.
34. (a) How is the herd size increased by Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer (MOET)
technology? (3)
(b) Differentiate out-crossing and cross breeding. (2)
35. Explain the various statges in the secondary treatment of sewage.
36. ‘Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and free meals’. Justify listing the special adaptations
developed by parasites.
37. Describe the various steps involved in the process of decomposition of detritus.
97
QUESTION BANK PREPARATION COMMITTE
PUC II – BIOLOGY (36)
LIST OF MEMBERS
SL.NO. NAME DESIGNATION EMAIL
ARAVIND KUMAR.K
1 GPU College, CHAIRMAN aravindbiology@gmail.com
ANAVERI – 577243
A.SUDHEENDRA HEBBAR
2 Sri Ramakrishna Vidyashala, Yadavagiri, REVIEWER ashebbar66@gmail.com
MYSURU – 570020
DR. PUTTASWAMAIAH.B.V
3 MG GPU COLLEGE (UU016), MEMBER dprsbiology@gmail.com
KUNIGAL-572130
LAKSHMINARAYAN.K.P
4 GPU College, KARKALA, MEMBER Kpln143@gmail.com
UDUPI DIST
UMESH.H.C
5 DVS (Ind) PU College, MEMBER umeshbrahmi@gmail.com
SHIMOGA-577201
DIWAKAR.S.K
6 GPU College, MALUR, MEMBER divakarbiology@gmail.com
KOLAR DIST
ASHA KUMARI C R
7 GPU College for Girls (Main), RC ROAD, MEMBER ashagopal.madhu@gmail.com
HASAN-573201
VERGEES. P
8 GPU College (Girls - Main), MEMBER p.vargees@gmail.com
UDUPI
ASHA BAGADEKAR
9 GPU College (Ind), MEMBER ashauppin@gmail.com
KUNDAGOL (JJ291), DHARWAD DIST
DR.NIKKY JOHNSON
10 GPU College (RR078), Police Colony, MEMBER nickyjsk@gmail.com
RAICHUR-584102
DEVARAJU R
11 GPU College, KR PURAM, MEMBER reachindev@yahoo.com
BANGALORE – 560036
DR.SAMPATH
12 GPU College (Boys), MEMBER sampath.sringeri@gmail.com
PB Road, PJ Extension,
DAVANAGERE -577002
GIRISH TONAPI
13 GPU College (JG192), Siddalinganagar, MEMBER girishtonapi@gmail.com
Mulugund Road,
GADAG
98

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2ndPUC PHYSICS

Sl.no Name & address of the Mobile number Topic

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

One mark questions

30. What are electric conductors? (K)

64. Give the mathematical expression of Coulomb’s law in electrostatics. (U)

Two mark questions

Three mark questions

5. Explain how we can construct a simple electroscope? (K)

Five mark questions

31. What are the charge carriers in electrolytic conductors? (K)

Two mark questions

Three mark questions

Five mark questions

One mark questions

36. Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. (A)

Three mark questions

4. What is the current through 30 Ω resistors in the given circuit?

potential difference of 20 V [ 0.0315A]

16. In a typical Wheatstone network, resistances P, Q, R and S are 10 Ω, 20 Ω, 30 Ω and 50 Ω

One mark questions:

48. What is the value of ( ) in S.I system? (K)

77. Is magnetic dipole moment a vector or a scalar quantity? (K)

Two mark questions:

3. On what factors Lorentz force depends? (K)

Five mark questions:

29. What is the value of dip at the equator? (K)

66. What is magnetic hysteresis? (K)

Two mark questions:

25. What is ferromagnetism? Give an example of a ferro magnetic material. (K)

Five mark questions:

5. State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (K)

16. What is motional emf? (K)

Two mark questions

Three mark questions

9. Deduce the expression for self-inductance of a coil. (U)

Five mark questions

30. What is a step-down transformer? (K)

Two mark questions

Three mark questions

Five mark questions

Two mark questions

1. Distinguish between conduction current and displacement current. (U)

Three mark questions

37. Explain how rainbow is formed in nature. (U)

Three mark questions

Five mark questions

Three mark questions

Five mark questions

33) What type of emission spectra is given by atoms? (K)

Two mark questions

Two mark questions

Five mark questions

79. Which logic gate is called as an ‘inverter’? (K)

Two mark questions

1. Write two advantages of semi-conductor devices over vacuum tubes. (K)

Three mark questions

Five mark questions

Three mark questions

Model Question Paper-1

TIME : 3 hours 15 minute Max Marks : 70

1 1 Electric charges & Fields 9 8  

4 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10 10   