1. What is the main advantage of using a multi-function display unit?

A) It can be used to display basic flight information.

B) It can be configured for more than one type of information.
C) It can be set to display information from the standby magnetic compass.

2. The generation of image on a CRT by deflecting an electron beam requires the use of:

A) Oscilloscope
B) Evacuated glass enveloped
C) Focusing coil

3. Which of the following is TRUE about CRT construction?

A) Inside surface of screen is coated with carbon

B) A cylindrical grid which maintain at negative potential is use to control the voltage and
focusing the beam
C) Anode which maintained at positive potential is used to accelerate the electrons

4. A high frequency sawtooth is applied to the horizontal deflection system sawtooth and a
relatively low frequency sawtooth is applied to vertical deflection system. From this information,
this is applied to which scanning method?

A) Raster scanning
B) Interlace Scanning
C) Stroke scanning

5. During the operational test BITE programs will perform check of input signals, protection and
control circuitry. Once BITE detects faults:

A) Provides ground maintenance the operational status of system.

B) Perform isolation and initiates warning, caution or advisory.
C) Monitor and verify correct operation after properly repaired.

6. What is the primary purpose of Built-In-Test –Equipment (BITE) system in aircraft?

A) To assist service and repair station

B) To assist aircraft flight crew during flight operation
C) To assist line maintenance personnel for fault identification

7. The term ‘Glass Cockpit’ environment refers to the used of:

A) Toughened glass indicators.

B) CRT or LCD for cockpit displays.
C) Transparent protective glass layers.

8. CRT displays adopt Raster, Interlace or Stroke scanning method. What is the final screen format
used for all of those scanning method?

A) Polar coordinate form

B) Rho-theta form
C) Rectangular form
1
9. Which of the following is TRUE about LCD?

A) It is an active device (emit light)

B) Normally sandwiched between two pieces of glass, and the upper pieces normally has a
mirror
C) When no current passing through, the molecule is stable so the devise is
transparent.

10. When two objects rub together, they create friction. A by-product of this friction is _______

A) Magnetic field
B) Current
C) Heat *

11. Which of the following is TRUE concerning ESD and humidity?

A) ESD buildup is greatly increased in a humid environment

B) As the presence of moisture in the air is decreased, electrons are better able to discharge
safely into the air instead of another object
C) Using a humidifier to increase the air moisture in your work area can greatly
reduce ESD buildup. *

12. What is the function of ECAM control knobs?

A) To select the related system pages appears on the lower display

B) To select respective display on or off and control brightness
C) To simulates takeoff power application to trigger a warning if the airplane is not properly
configured for take off

13. The warning, status and memo messages of an ECAM are displayed on

A) The top CRT display

B) The bottom CRT display
C) The centre CRT display

14. What is the red warning on the ECAM indicates?

A) Emergency configuration of the aircraft

B) Abnormal configuration of the aircraft
C) Information on aircraft configuration that requires monitoring

15. EFIS consist of data being sent to symbol generator that

A) Transmit data to ground facilities

B) Monitor the engine performance
C) Convert data to symbols for display on the CRTs

16. Below are the advantages of EFIS system EXCEPT:

A) Can display less information than the conventional ADI/HSI

B) Reduce the amount of scanning required by the aircrew
C) Incorporate a light sensitive device that will automatically adjust the display brightness

2
17. How to prevent ESD damage?

A) Ensure that any electrostatic build-up is discharged immediately to ground

B) Using special electrostatic non-dissipative product
C) Create a clean and hygienic workplace so that ESD damage can be eliminate

18. The ACARS’s Polled Mode enables the

A) Flight crew to initiate communication with ground facilities

B) Airborne system to initiate communication with ground facilities
C) Airborne system to response when interrogated by ground facilities

19. ECAM system enables the crew to

A) Determine engine system status and alert them of abnormal operation

B) Determine aircraft system status and alert them of abnormal operation
C) Determine aircraft ‘s electrical system status and alert them of abnormal operation

20. What is the purpose of Primary Flight Display (PFD) of an EFIS?

A) To reduce the pilot’s loading by introducing colourful displays on the cockpit

B) To improve the pilot’s situational awareness by integrating flight information into
a single display
C) To help the pilot in maintaining the stability of the aircraft during long flight

21. All data for EFIS display are gained from the

A) Aircraft navigation system

B) Aircraft flight instrument systems
C) Both aircraft flight instrument and navigation system

22. During what mode ,the flight director cross and selected modes will not appear on EFIS?

A) Status mode
B) Normal mode
C) Manual mode

23. An electronics display that shows information related to the pitch and roll of the aircraft is:

A) EADI
B) EHSI
C) EICAS

24. EFIS is a complete electronic flight instrumentation system that includes the

A) EHSI, EICAS or ECAM

B) EHSI, EADI and ECAM
C) PFD, ND and EICAS

25. What will be put on view on the main display of EICAS?

3
 A) Synoptic display only
B) Primary engine data and crew alerting messages
C) Secondary engine data and synoptic display

26. What happen to EICAS display if the computer fails?

A) The EICAS display will display N1,N2, EGT and operating limit values
B) The information will be transferred to an engine standby indication
C) EICAS display unit will display only N1, and N2 speeds

27. EICAS is widely used on

A) Airbus aircraft
B) Boeing aircraft
C) All aircraft

28. There will be a blank space at the upper part of primary EICAS display which usually reserved
for:

A) Engine data including RPM and fuel flow and quantity

B) Status messages
C) Alert messages

29. How can we differentiate between caution and advisory message that appear on EICAS display?

A) Advisory message is green and caution is amber

B) Caution and advisory is indented one space to the right
C) Caution and advisory message is indented one space to the left

30. Aircraft engine controls are considered as flight control because they_______

A) uses electrical power

B) have to be constantly monitored
C) change speed

31. In an Airbus fly-by-wire system, the electrical control for the aircraft’s roll-and-pitch maneuver
is controlled by

A) SEC computer
B) ELAC computer
C) FAC computer

32. In an Airbus fly-by wire system, how many control computers are installed?

A) 3 ELEC, 2 SEC and 2 FAC

B) 2 ELEC, 3 SEC and 2 FAC
C) 2 ELEC, 2 SEC and 3 FAC

33. What type of servo is normally used to actuate the control surfaces of small aircraft autopilots?

4
 A) Hydro-pneumatic Servos
B) Hydraulic Servos
C) Pneumatic Servos

34. In FMS system, CDU is used as the interface between pilot and FMC. What is purpose of scratch
pad on CDU?

A) Entering the data into the system only

B) Entering the data into the system and editing the data displayed
C) Deleting the data

35. What happen if the pilot pushes the CLR button on the FMS CDU once and releases it?

A. All data in the scratch pad will be cleared

B. Selected data in the CDU page display will be deleted
C. It will clear only the last character of the data in the scratch pad

36. What information is derived from the received GPS signal?

A) Position and Velocity

B) Position and Weather
C) Velocity and Altitude

37. Where in an airborne GPS antenna located?

A) Mounted below of the aircraft fuselage

B) Mounted on top of the aircraft fuselage
C) Mounted at the vertical stabilizer

38. The information below are provided by GPS system EXCEPT:

A) Position and coordinates

B) Accurate time measurement
C) Geographical contour of flight path

39. What is the altitude of a GPS satellite from mean sea level?

A) 10,900 kilometres
B) 20,200 kilometres
C) 12,900 kilometres

40. What is Inertial Navigation System (INS)?

A) An automatic navigation system that fully depends on GPS

B) An automatic aid to navigation that depends on outside references
C) An automatic aid to navigation that is independent of outside references

5
41. What is an aircraft’s accelerometer?

A) A sensing device that measure the rate of rotation around a particular axis during flight
B) A sensing device that measure acceleration along a particular axis during flight
C) A sensing device that measures the G-force during flight

42. What is aircraft’s laser gyro?

A) A sensing device that measure the rate of rotation around a particular axis during
flight
B) A sensing device that measure acceleration along a particular axis during flight
C) A sensing device that measures the G-force during flight

43. A basic IRS platform consist of:

A) 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros

B) 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros
C) 2 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros

44. What is the function of gyros and accelerometers in an IRS/INS?

A) Gyro provides attitude reading and accelerometer provides speed and velocity data of
aircraft
B) Gyro provides means of stability and accelerometer provides the coordinate reading of the
aircraft
C) Gyro provides feedback data for the autopilot and accelerometer provides the
speed and velocity data for autopilot

45. Initialization of an aircraft’s IRS is the operation of

A) Entering the aircraft’s present position and speed data into the IRU
B) Entering the aircraft’s present latitude and velocity data into the IRU
C) Entering the aircraft’s present latitude and longitude data into the IRU

46. There are three set of four annunciator installed on Mode Select Unit (MSU). If aircraft battery
power is insufficient to maintain IRU operation, which of the annunciator will illuminate?

A) DC FAIL
B) FAULT
C) ON DC

47. If the intruder aircraft symbol shows a solid yellow circle on Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI),
what does it mean?

A) Aircraft in the resolution advisory level

B) Aircraft in the traffic advisory level
C) Non-treat aircraft

48. Which of statement is false during Resolution Advisories?

A) Pilot needs to disengage autopilot immediately during this level

B) This is not the highest alert level
6
 C) Flight director commands as well as ATC advisories have to be ignored

49. A standard Traffic Collision and Avoidance System (TCAS) operates at frequencies of

A) 1090 MHz for interrogation and 1030 MHz for response cycle
B) 1030 MHz for interrogation and 1090 MHz for response cycle
C) 1130 MHz for interrogation and 1190 MHz for response cycle

50. The following is correct about the TCAS EXCEPT:

A) It monitors the airspace around the aircraft for other nearby aircraft
B) It provides warns and advice to the pilot on incoming air conflicting
C) It communicates with ground ATC for information of other nearby aircraft