Materials Engineer Reviewer - I (Soil & Soil Aggregates)

MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER I
1. What is quality?
 It’s the degree of excellence
2. What is control?
 Is to regulate
3. What is quality control?
 It is conformance to requirements
4. What is assurance?
 It’s the degree of certainty
5. What are the two kinds of control activities?
 Inspection and Testing
6. Who is the father of soil Mechanics?
 Dr. Karl Terzhagi
7. Consist of all works elements carried out by the manager or by those in his organization which
contribute to the quality of the output of some other organization.
 Quality Assurance Work
8. Refers to the process of making tests to determine the degree of compliance of delivered or
constructed materials with the specification.
 Materials Testing
9. These are prescribed in each project based on the estimated quantities it specify the number of
tests for each work items.
 Minimum Testing Requirements
10. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
 Summary of field tests and status of test
11. As work progresses, the Material Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted
and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to
what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the
construction materials being used in the project.
 Status of Test
12. Before the project starts, the Materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how
many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing
requirements. What program or report is this?
 Quality Control Program
13. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
 Materials test result/reports
14. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are
recorded in a _______.
 Materials Log Book
15. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity
represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date
sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of the tag for you as Materials
Engineer?
 Sample Card
16. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every_______?
 week
17. CQCA means
 Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
18. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the free haul distance.
 Overhaul
19. This shall consist of excavation and disposal of all materials regardless of its nature not classified
and included in the BOQ under other pay items.
 Unclassified Excavation
20. This shall consists of Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic Rock which cannot be excavated
without blasting or the use of rippers and all boulders having a volume of 1cu.m or more.
 Rock Excavation
SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 1/33

21. This shall consist of all excavation not included in the BOQ under rock excavation or other pay
items.
 Common Excavation
22. This shall consist of the removal and disposal of deposits of saturated or unsaturated mixture of
soils and organic matter not suitable for foundation materials.
 Muck Excavation
23. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
 4 – 5 feet
24. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading
on gravel, sand, silt, and clay?
 Mechanic Stabilization
25. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and
hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
moisture from the soil.
 Calcium Chloride or Rock Salt
26. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
 Clay soil becomes unstable if the moisture content increases, granular material
becomes unstable if it has dried
27. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
 Objectionable
28. The unit pressure greater that which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
 Bearing capacity
29. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive
up to
 0.1g
30. If a sample cannot be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it
will be placed inside a
 Desiccator
31. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry at constant weight/mass.
 4 hours
32. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from
the oven within
 1 hour
33. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature, the drying
time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be
dried in about
 2 hours
34. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
 Boring Test
35. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
 Calcium tri-chloride /calcium carbide gas pressure
36. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
 Low
37. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
 0.60 m
38. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
 CBR, Abrasion , GPCD 9-G,P,/300m3,2-Abrasion/1,500m3, 2-C/1,500m3, D/500m2-150mm, 9-
CBR/300m3
39. How many grading tests are required for a 3, 200 cu.m selected borrow topping (item
104)?embankment
 3 grading tests (1-Grading test/1500 m3)
40. As a materials Engineer what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as
item 200 is finer than the required materials? (aggregate sub-base)
 Blend Item 200 with coarser materials

41. What is the standard specification of LL and PI of item 201?(Aggregate Base Course)
 Maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
42. What is the CBR requirement for item 201?(aggregate Base Course)
 80% maximum
43. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200 & 201?
 Field Density Test
44. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
 Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit, (PI = LL-PL)
45. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
 Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Machine Analysis
46. What is the degree of compactions of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3 with an actual
moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum a dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
 101.85% (pls provide computation)
Wet Density 2,200
Dry Weight Density= ------------------------ = ----------------= 1,996.37
1 + MC/100 1+ 10.2/100
Dry Unit Wt 1,996.37
Degree of Compaction = ---------------------= --------------------- x 100 = 101.85 %
MDD 1,960
47. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven –
dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Orig Wt of soil – Oven Dry Wt of soil (162.5 – 138.2)
 17.58% MC = ----------------------------------------------- = ---------------------- x 100 =17.58%
Oven Dry Wt of Soil 138.2
48. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
 the soil is clayey
49. As a material Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already
oven – dried?
 if the sample reaches its constant weight
50. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
 110 ± 5˚C
51. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
 because it can affect its weight
52. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
 hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air-dried sample
 natural moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from
the field.
53. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
 No. 40 (0.425mm)
54. What compaction rammer shall be used if the spec given for Moisture – Density Relation Test
(MDR) in T – 180 & T - 99
 T-180, 4.54 kg with 457mm drop (10 lbs – 18” drop)
 T- 99, 2.5 kg with 305mm drop (5.5 lbs – 12” drop)
55. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the______?
 Contractor
56. As Materials Engineer when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
 Once the source is identified
57. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5,000 m 3 and to be laid in a 15cm compacted
depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
(1 Sieve test /300m3 1 CBR / 2500 m3)
2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
58. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for item 201 having a volume of 8,250cu.m?
 Six (6) compaction tests (1test /1,500m3)

59. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way
of reducing sample for testing size?
 apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
60. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to
21%. If this material is for item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
 yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
61. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
 before it is incorporated into work
62. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
 200mm loose measurement
63. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40cm
thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
 Three (3) (150mm/layer)
64. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality
test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a
week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
 One (1) month
65. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many ______days
before testing?
 Four (4)
66. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used
in field density test?
 Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
67. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your schedule field density test, are you going to
pursue your schedule? Why?
 No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
68. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
 Liquid limit device with grooving tool
69. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
 Glass Plate
70. Along the slope of high embankment ________ is provided as an erosion control measures and
also to improve the stability of the slope.
 Berm
71. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil
sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
 Specific gravity, abrasion, water content, atterberg limits, gradation, compaction,
relative density
72. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____
above the top of the conduit.
 1.0 m,
73. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300. (aggregate surface course)
 I inch
74. Required maximum liquid limit for item 300.
 35%
75. Required plasticity index range in item 300.
 4% to 9%
76. Range of sand size.
 2.0mm to 0.075 mm Ø
77. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
 Void ratio = Vv/Vs
78. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
 Moisture Content =Ww/Ws
79. Significance of grading test are, except
 gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the
potential cohesion of soil
80. Significance of plasticity index are, except

 indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil
81. In roadway construction test on sub-grade, the following will determine the economical thickness,
except
 embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
82. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
 Liquidity Index L.I.=W-PL/LL-PL
83. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
 shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
84. Item 202 – crushed aggregate base course, shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of __
 80%
85. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for item 201.(aggregate base course)
 ± 10mm
86. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard.
 No. 40
87. In item 200 (aggregate subbase course), the volume for the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test.
 Four (4) (1CBR/2,500 cu.m.)
88. The significance of liquid limit are the following; except
 Measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil,
fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg Limit.
89. In soil classification, 35% or less passing the No. 200 sieve are the ff. except
 A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
90. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
 Group Index
91. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings (item 104)
 30%
92. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
 6%
93. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
 80% and 55% respectively
94. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
 800 kg/cu.m or lower
95. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
 AASHTO T 90
96. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
 AASHTO T 89
97. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
 95% of MDD
98. The minimum compaction trial section of embankment
 10m wide by 50m long (500 sq.m)
99. At least how many in-situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m 2 of each layer of
compacted fill?
 three (3)
100. Maximum plasticity index for item 200-aggregate sub-base
 12%
101. Maximum liquid limit for item 200
 35%
102. Maximum size of grading requirement for item 200 and 201
 2”or 50 mm
103. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
 AASHTO T 96

104. The required abrasion loss for Item 200

 50%
105. The minimum CBR required for item 200
 25%
106. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by:
 AASHTO T 193
107. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
 100%
108. In-place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in
accordance with
 AASHTO T 191
109. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non-available, the use
______allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
110. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B. (item 201)
 1½ inch
111. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for item 202. (Crush Aggregate Base course)
 45%
112. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of item 202
 50%
113. Minimum required soaked CBR for item 202.
 80%
114. Maximum size of aggregate for item 202 under grading A
 ½ inch
115. Maximum size of aggregate for item 201 under grading A.
 2”
116. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B.
 1 inch
117. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate lime, water in
proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
 Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (item 203)
118. The required plasticity index for item 203 (Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course)
 4% to 10%
119. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on item 203.
 50%
120. Maximum size of aggregate for item 203 under grading A and B
 2”
121. In item 203, how much is he required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
 3% to 12%
122. Minimum soaked CBR for item 203
 100%
123. Required percent compaction for item 203
 100%
124. Soil stabilizing agent
 Lime – for silty and clayey soil
 Cement – for sandy soil
125. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid
 Shrinkage Limit
126. The calibration of the Universal Testing Machine is conducted______
 once a year
127. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
 highly organic soils

128. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in subbase or base course construction?
 to check the stability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the
construction method
129. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
 low liquid limit and low plastic limit
130. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
 Stabilization
131. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What
will be this test?
 Referee test
132. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less its considered________.
 weak subgrade
133. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered __________.
 very stable
134. Subgrade other than those defined in two above categories is considered _Normal
135. What is the significance of field density test?
 To determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in
embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction
136. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result, true or false?
 true
137. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?
 air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
138. If it is impossible to air-dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be
used?
 oven – dry the sample @ 60˚C
139. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
 Method A & B – use sample passing No.4
 Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
140. What is the particle size analysis?
 It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer
or a combination analysis
141. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
 distilled water
142. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a
height of __________?
 10 mm
143. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit are rotated?
 2 rps
144. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
 3.2 mm (1/8”)
145. What is specific gravity?
 It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the
ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
146. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
 335 sq.m
147. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under item 104?
 all particle size will pass 75mm or 3” openings and not more than 15% will pass
0.075mm (AASHTO T 11)
148. What is the minimum degree of compaction for item 200 and 201?
 100%
149. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test?
 Maximum Dry Density (MDD) and Optimum Moisture Content (OMC)

150. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
 Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No.
200 sieve
151. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
 ½ inch (12.7mm)
152. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
 sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand,
weighing scale, oven with temperature control chisel or digging tool, plastic
bags and labelling materials (tag name)
153. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an – situ test that measures what?
 Depth of soil layer
154. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were
the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would
recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of subbase course?
 Geotextiles
155. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required
density?
 Trial section
156. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
 Shelby tube (18” long)
157. A tube sampler is used in sampling disturbed sample
 Split spoon sampler
158. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

 Wax
159. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to
estimate shear strength and bearing capacity.
 Standard Penetration Test
160. A type of coring bit used in rock coring.
 Diamond bit
161. How many groups of there in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
 Fifteen (15) 1 for every 500 m2
162. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
 Clay content
163. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
 Air-dried condition
164. The method in the determination of density of soil in-place
 Sand cone method
165. Air-dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
 Sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
166. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
 Surfacing materials √
167. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good
embankment and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be
assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
 Good subgrade materials
168. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course
of material to be compacted.
 Control strip
169. It is equally as important as testing and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples
that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
 Sampling

170. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles
into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
 Disturbed samples
171. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that
provides clean hole before insertion of thin- walled tubes that is both the natural density and
moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.
 Undisturbed samples
172. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural
properties.
 Thin-walled tube sampling
173. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
 Government
174. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
 Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots
and sewage
 Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
 Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/ or PL exceeding 55%
 Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
 Soils with very low natural density, 800 kg/m 2
 soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer
175. What is the specification of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base
course?
 0-12% , (2-14% for Grading B)
176. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
 Liquid Limit Test
177. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape, and graduation.
 Compaction
178. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task make- up for
the past or future loss of time.
 Delivery control
179. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
 Base course
180. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
 Compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction spec’s and needs additional
compaction
181. Liquid limit is usually
 Greater than Plastic Limit
182. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
 100% modified proctor
183. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the
one tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
 Conduct immediate re-testing for verification
184. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
 Sampling of materials
 Analysis of test results of materials
 Scheduling of delivery of materials
 Design of concrete mix
185. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the following statement is true?
 Granular, well graded soils generally have fairly high maximum density at low
optimum moisture content.
 Clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
 Granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC

186. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than
the optimum moisture content?
 Dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
187. Geosynthetics may be used for
 Filtration or drainage reinforcement, erosion control
188. A one-lane road with a pavement width of 3.5m and shoulder width of 0.5m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of
300mm. If the thickness of subbase is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and
subbase courses shall be carried out in ________?
 Three (3) layer over the full width of 4.5m
189. Which of the following is not included in determining moisture content?
 Beam balance
 Oven
 Moisture can
 extruder
190. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements fails except
grading. What will you recommend?
 Reprocess the materials by blending
191. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
 Organic
192. What is the testing soil that involves as the application of energy and addition of water as
lubricant?
 Moisture-Density relation test
193. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
 0.002124 m3 ( h=4.584±.005”, 116.43±.127mm) therefore h=0.11643m
194. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve.
 Sand
195. What is ASTM?
 American Society for Testing & Materials
196. What is AASHTO?
 American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
197. DPWH thru Bureau of Research &Standards has prepared a revised laboratory testing procedure
manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under…...
 ASTM & AASHTO
198. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipment’s or
apparatus in pre- bidding qualifications?
 Large
199. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
 ½ of the thickness
200. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should be at least _____ above the specimen.
 25mm
201. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel, or sand and containing
silt- clay materials.
 Soil Aggregates
202. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
 Before the construction work
203. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
 Sand and Gravel
204. The use of geo-fabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade material for road
construction is classified as
 Soil Reinforcement Method

205. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves

 Depositing and spreading materials in layer of not more than 225mm depth,
loose materials and extending to the full width of the embankment
206. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having
void rather and usually not high water content.
 Weak Subgrade
207. What is Twelve-Inch Layer Method Embankment?
 The materials shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300mm in
depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to the
full width of the embankment
208. What is Rock Embankment Method?
 The material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by
means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2m in depth. It shall
not be place within 600mm of the other grade
209. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
 The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as
to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted.
210. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
 Strength of Subgrade (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)
211. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
 Were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work
consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed.
The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has reached stability
or the required settlement.
212. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
 This involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate
consolidation.
213. A test to determine the proper amount of mixing water to use when compacting the soil in the field
in order to obtain maximum density under the specified compactive effort.
 Laboratory Compaction Test
214. Four distinct stages in the compaction test.
 Wetting,
 Lubrication,
 Swell,
 Saturation
215. At optimum moisture the __________is reached.
 Lubrication
216. It is between the liquid and plastic states and it is defined as the lowest water content at which the
mass has the capacity to flow as a liquid.
 Liquid Limit
217. The is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
 Liquid Limit
218. It is between the plastic and semi-solid states and defined as the lowest water content at which
the mass can be readily molded without crumbling up to 1/8” Ø (3.2mm)
 Plastic Limit
219. This is between the semi-solid states and is defined as the highest water content at which mass
can attain its minimum but it continues to loss weight.
 Shrinkage Limit
220. This is the difference between the liquid and plastic limit.
 Plasticity Index
221. This the difference between the plastic and shrinkage limit.
 Shrinkage Index

222. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid
 Shrinkage Limit
223. Weight of soil sample needed for liquid limit determination.
 100 grams
224. For plastic limit determination.
 15 grams
225. For shrinkage limit.
 30 grams
226. It is the ratio of the weight of water in the soil to the weight of the dry soil after it has been dried to
constant weight at a temp. of 105-110˚C.
 Moisture Content
227. It is defined as the ratio of the weight in air of a given volume of a material to the weight in air of
an equal volume of a standard material at a stated temperature.
 Specific Gravity
228. It is determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined
analysis.
 Grain size or Mechanical Analysis
229. Three major groups of soil
 Coarse Grained,
 Fine – Grained,
 Organic
230. If the individual particles are visible to the unaided eye, the soil considered to be:
 Coarse Grained Soil
231. The two principal soil types that comprises the coarse grained soil.
 Gravel – loose H2O worn fragments of
 Sand – cohesive gritty & cohesionless
232. If its individual particles are not visible to the unaided eye.
 Fine – grained soil
233. The two principal type comprising this group are:
 silt – has smooth texture
 clay – cohesive and plastic when wet
234. This type contains an appreciable amount of decayed animal and or plant matter.
 Organic Soil
235. The limiting diameter of gravel is:
 3” to sieve #10 or 75mm to 2mm
236. The limiting diameter of sand is:
 from 2.0mm to 0.074mm (No. 200 sieve)
237. Rock fragments which are coarser than the upper limiting size for gravel are:
 boulders
238. Limiting size for silt:
 0.074mm to 0.005mm
239. Limiting size for clay:
 0.005mm to 0.001mm
240. Those smaller than 0.001mm are called:
 colloids
241. It shall have an even number of equal width chutes but not less than a total of eight for coarse
aggregate, or twelve for fin aggregates. which discharge alternately to each side.
 Sample Splitter
242. It is widely used in the classification and identification of soils. It is an important criterion in the
classification of highway subgrade materials. It is also related to permeability and capillarity of
cohesion less soil.
 Grain Size Distribution
243. The size of the portion passing 2.0mm to 0.425mm (#40) sieve shall be tested for:
 Hygroscopic Moisture Content

 Hydrometer Test
244. These indicate compressibility and related to permeability.
245. High Plasticity Index means high degree of compressibility of soil.
246. The higher the Plasticity Index the lower the permeability.
247. It is performed if the soil is granular, if a considerable portion is retained on the No.200 sieve
(0.074mm).
 Sieve Analysis
248. If the soil is fine-grained or nearly all its particles are finer than the No. 200 sieve.
 Hydrometer Analysis
249. For efficient compaction, the embankment materials should at the time of rolling be at.
 Optimum Moisture Content
250. For a road base course, the most preferable materials is one with CBR value of:
 80%
251. Peat and muck are:
 Unsuitable Soils
252. The plasticity index of aggregate base course should not be greater than:
 6
253. The natural water content of highly organic soil is:
 more than 100%
254. This is very important to achieve maximum contact between particles and maximum water
tightness of base materials.
 Gradation
255. In general, soils high value of this and P.I. are poor as engineering materials.
 Liquid Limit of Fines
256. Give indications of clay content in soil.
257. Use to evaluate the potential strength of soil aggregate.
 CBR
258. The behaviour of soil is markedly influence by the amount of
 Moisture Content
259. It is defined as the weight/mass per unit volume.
 Density of Soil
260. This is widely used as a control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.
 Field Density Test
261. It involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant.
 Compaction of Soil
262. It increases the shearing strength of aggregate of any size, shape/gradation.
 Compaction
263. This is the amount of moisture that allows the compacting force to overcome the frictional
resistance and the maximum density of soil mass is attained.
 Optimum Moisture Content
264. A test to determine the moisture content of soil.
 Calcium Carbide Gas Pressure/calcium trichloride
265. The amount of lime to be added in item 203 (Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course)
 3-12 mass % of dry soil aggregate
266. The amount of cement to be added in Item 204 (Portland Cement Stabilized Road Mix Base
Course)
267. The amount of asphalt to be added in Item 205 (Asphalt Stabilized Road Mix Base Course)
268. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by Lab. test, the degree of compaction required for
aggregate subbase should at least
 100%

269. What are the dead load equivalent of loose sand, earth & gravel fill
 1.603 tons/cu.m
270. The flow curve obtained when liquid limit test results are plotted on a semi-log scale is in the form
of
 Straight Line
271. What is the effect of increasing the compaction effect in compacting soil
 Higher Density
 Lower Optimum Water Content
272. An excavation and utilization of approved material sources required for the construction of
embankment, or for other portion of the work as shown on the plans or on the special provisions
 Borrow Excavation
273. On item 102, rock shall be excavated below sub-grade within the limit of the road bed to a
depth...
 150mm (6”)
274. Test requirement for selected borrow (topping) – 201(aggregate base course)
 P.I. not greater than 6
 L.L. not greater than 25
275. What is rolling distance extended outside the base course and surface course on pavement
 30cm
276. When can we eliminate sub-base during construction
 When CBR value is greater than 25%
277. If the type of soil in item 200 materials is non-plastic, what Atterberg Limit test can be performed?
 Liquid Limit
278. A sample of 95% passed No.200 sieve. What test should be done?
 Hydrometer Analysis
279. Per POW, the estimated volume of Item 201 is 7,500 cu.m. How many grading and plasticity test
are required?
 5 (1 G P /1,500 m3)
280. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75 % (which is 5% less than the minimum requirement) can
still be used in the design of a concrete pavement that the following are considered except one:
 the foundation contain unsuitable material
281. Bulldozer maybe used for moving earth effectively at a maximum distance of
 100 l. m.
282. Auger boring maybe made at an average interval of
 250 meters
283. This is the process whereby soil particles are contained more closely together through a
reduction in the air voids, generally by mechanical means.
Ans. Soil Compaction
284. This is provided for the purpose of counteracting moisture movement within the
structure either by seepage or capillary action.
Ans. Subsoil drainage
285. P e r t a i n s t o t h e r e l a t i v e d e n s i t y o f t h e s o i l material making up the constituents
particle not including the pore space within the particles that is accessible to water.
An s. Ap p aren t Sp ecif ic G rav it y
286. These are widely used to control the characteristics of soil which are to be incorporated in
roadway.
Ans. Liquid and Plastic Limits
287. This is used to determine the soil strength parameter.

Ans. Unconfined and Tri-axial Compression Test
288. This is used to determine the settlement characteristic of soil.
Ans. Consolidation
289. This d e t e r m i n e s t h e p i l e b e a r i n g c a p a c i t y b y l o a d i n g o n e o r m o r e piles and
measuring settlement under load.
Ans. Pile Load Test
290. This d e t e r m i n e s t h e i n - s i t e s h e a r s t r e n g t h o f s o f t t o m e d i u m c l a y .
Ans. Vane Shear Test
291. This d e t e r m i n e s t h e s o i l b e a r i n g c a p a c i t y b y l o a d i n g a s t e e l p l a t e usually
30 inches in diameter.
Ans. Plate Bearing test
292. Laboratory w h i c h m e a s u r e s e x a m i n e s , c a l i b r a t e o r o t h e r w i s e determine the
characteristic or performance materials or products.
Ans. Testing Laboratory
293. Standard technical procedure to determine one or more specified
characteristic of material product is called
Ans. Test Method
294. A d o c u m e n t w h i c h p r e s e n t s t h e t e s t r e s u l t s a n d o t h e r i n f o r m a t i o n relevant
to test is called
Ans. Test Report.
295. A d o c u m e n t s i g n e d b y t h e D i r e c t o r o f B R S i s s u e d t o Testing laboratory
authorizing them to perform the required test in behalf of DPWH.
Ans. Certificate of Accreditation
296. T h i s i s o n e o f t h e m o s t i m p o r t a n t e n g i n e e r i n g p r o p e r t i e s o f s o i l . It is defined
as its ability to resist sliding along internal surface within the mass.
.Ans.. Shearing Strength of Soil
297. This is the method in determining the in-place density of soil that can be used satisfactorily in
moist, cohesive fine grained material only. The sample is obtained by forcing a small thin-walled
cylinder into the material and driving head and hammer or other suitable apparatus.
Ans. Drive Cylinder Method
298. This method of test is intended to determine the density of cohesive soil and stabilized soil by
measuring the weight and volume of undisturbed samples.
Ans. Block Chunk or Core Sampling
299. This method covers the determination of the density in-place of compacted or firmly bonded soil
by using a flexible membrane and liquid that can be used to measure the volume of a test hole
soil with an accuracy within …%.
Ans. Rubber Balloon Method
300. This method covers the determination of the total or wet density of soil and soil aggregate in-
place by the attenuation of gamma rays where the gamma detector, or both, remains at or near
the surface.
Ans. Nuclear Method
301. What are the common Laboratory tests required for soils?
Ans. a) Sieve analysis and hydrometer test
a) Plastic and liquid limit test
b) Compaction test moisture-density relation
c) California bearing ratio test (CBR)
d) Abrasion test (mass % of wear)
e) Unit weight
f) Moisture content
302. What is the significance of field density test on soils?
Ans. To determine the degree of compaction of soil or control test in
embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.
303. What test are used in soils classification?
Ans. a) grading or sieve analysis
a) plastic and liquid limit test
304. What is the particle size analysis?
Ans. It is the determination of particle size distribution in soil by sieve,
hydrometer, or combined analysis
305. Require plasticity index for aggregates surface course;
a) 12 subbase course
b) 6 base course
c) 4 to 9
306. The following are the responsibility of the materials engineer, except;
a) Witness testing of materials
b) Prepare or check concrete design mix
c) Check and inspect materials logbook
307. Minimum soaked CBR for aggregates base course;
a) 70%
b) 75%
c) 80%
308. Materials smaller than 0.001 mm;
a) Colloids
b) Clay (.005mm to .0001mm)
c) Silt (.075mm to .0005mm)
309. Fine-grained spoils smaller than 0.002 mm
a) Clay
b) Silt
c) Colloids
310. The maximum required plasticity index for base course is 6, what is for the subbase course?
a) 4 to 9
b) 3 to 10
c) 12
311. Maximum required liquid limit for selected borrow for topping ?
a) 35%
b) 30%
c) 25%
312. The New Building Code of the Philippines
a) PD 1594
b) PD1096
c) PD 1870
313. Civil Engineering Law
a) R.A. 544
b) R.A. 554
c) R.A. 1080
314. Give an indication of clay content in soil;
a) Liquid Limit
b) Plasticity Index
c) Shrinkage Limit
315. Calibration of universal testing machine shall be done ;
a) Once a year
b) Every 6 months
c) Every 4 months
316. The significance test of soil, that will determine the potential strength of the soil;
a) Grading
b) Soaked CBR
c) Plasticity
317. The purpose of trial sections before subbase/base construction is started;
a) To check the suitability of the materials
b) To check the efficiency of the equipment used
c) Construction methods which is proposed to be used.
d) All of the above
318. Tolerance of thickness layer for subbase course;
a) ±10
b) ±15
c) ±20 mm

319. The allowable tolerance permitted variation from design thickness of layer of aggregate base
course;
a) ±10 mm
b) ±15
c) ±20
320. The moisture content of subbase/base material shall be adjusted prior to compaction by;
a) Watering the approved sprinklers mounted on trucks
b) Drying out in order to obtain the required compactions
c) Remove and replace another materials
d) Either a) or b)
321. The process of producing a fill, subgrade, road base or road surface which is capable of
withstanding the existing traffic under all weather and moisture conditions;
a) Soil stabilization
b) Use of admixtures
c) None of the above
d) Both a) & b)
322. As an experience materials engineer, compacting 6” (15 cm) thick layers of soil will require, how
many passes.
a) 8 to 10 passes ( for 6” thick layer)
b) 15 to 20 passes (for 8” thick layer)
c) 15 to 30 passes
323. A sample is considered to be oven-dried if it has been dried in an apparatus at a temperature of
a) 110±5⁰C
b) 90⁰C
c) 100⁰C
324. How many CBR test are required for 4,000 cu.m. of Aggregate Base Course?
a) 1
b) 2 1 CBR / 2,500 m3
c) 3
325. The Liquid Limit is determined by the moisture content corresponding to how many blows?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 45
326. In determining the fineness modulus of sand, the percentage retained on all of the following
sieves except one are considered;3/8”, No. 4, No. 8, No. 16, No. 30, No. 50, No. 100 & No. 200.
a) No. 16
b) No. 100
c) No. 200
327. What test determines the % of dust, clay, dirt on your aggregates? (clay lumps & friable ASTM C-142)
a) Field Density Test
b) Wash Loss
c) none of the above
328. Samples dried in an oven or other drying apparatus at a temperature not exceeding _____are
considered to be air-dried.
a) 60⁰C
b) 85⁰C
c) 110⁰C
329. Not included in liquid limit determination
a) Balance , sensitive to 0.1 gm
b) Liquid limit device
c) Oven with temp control
d) Extruder
330. Liquid limit of unsuitable materials exceed
a) 80%
b) 60%

c) 55%
331. Plastic Limit of unsuitable materials exceed
a) 50%
b) 55%
c) 54%
332. Liquid limit is either.
a) Greater than plastic limit
b) Equal to plastic limit
c) Lesser than plastic limit
d) All of the above
333. Percent of compaction of ordinary soil
a) 90%
b) 95%
c) 100%
334. Minimum percent compaction requirement of fill materials above MLLW
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
335. Minimum size of special fill common material
a) 1½”
b) 2½”
c) 3”
336. Physical properties of soil that gives an indication of clay contents
a) Liquid limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Shrinkage limit
d) Plasticity index
337. In reducing field samples of aggregates by quartering, which of the following are to be considered
for testing?
a) All of the quarters
b) Two adjacent quarters
c) Opposite quarters
338. Moisture content determination of soil, gives the following results; weight of container plus wet
soil=120 grams, weight of container=70 grams, weight of container plus dry soil=108 grams. The
moisture content will be?
Wt of water (Wt of wet soil+ container)- (Wt of dry soil + container)
a) 30.28% MC = -------------- = ---------------------------------------------------------
b) 31.58% Wt of dry soil (Wt of dry soil + container)- (wt of container)
c) 31.70% 120 – 108
= ------------------------- x 100 = 31.58%
108 - 70
339. The weight of air-dried soil is 200 gms, the weight of mass of oven-dried soil is 175 grms,
therefore, the hydroscopic moisture content will be?
a) 14.29% wt. of air-dried soil – wt. of oven-dried soil
b) 14.50% Hydroscopic Moisture = ------------------------------------------------------------- x 100
c) 15.50% wt. of oven-dried soil
200 – 175
= --------------- x 100 = 14.285%
175
340. From the following data, compute for the Field Dry Density.
Wt. of compacted soil excavated from pit = 450 gms. Vol of pit = 412/1.45 = 284.14
Wt. of sand to fill the pit = 412 gms Wet unit wt of soil = 450/284.14 = 1.584
Bulk density of sand = 1.45 gm/cc wet density of soil 1.584
Water content of soil = 12.5% Field Dry Density = -------------------------- = --------- = 1.408
a) 1.41 gm/cc 1 + MC/100 1 + 12.5/100
b) 1.50 gm/cc
c) 1.45 gm/cc
341. Supposed in problem # 342, the laboratory dry density is 1.38 gm/cc. the field compaction will
be? Field Dry Density
a) 100.50% Field compaction%=-------------------------x100=(1.41/1.38 )100=102.17%
b) 101.10% Lab Density
c) 102.17%
342. If the soil is compacted with higher compactive effort, the curve will move up and to the left, this
means that the…………..
a) Optimum moisture will decrease and the maximum dry density will increase
b) Optimum moisture will increase and the maximum dry density will increase
c) The maximum dry density will decrease and the optimum moisture content will
increase
343. Thus for a given soil with given amount of compactive effort, there is a water-content at which the
weight of soil grains obtained in a unit volume of the compacted soil mass is maximum. This
water content is_______.
a) Minimum moisture content
b) Optimum moisture content
c) Hydroscopic moisture content
344. You are an experienced Material engineer of your firm, during compaction you found out that soil
is too wet, what economical recommendation will you give?
a) Remove and replace the soil
b) Reject the soil
c) Scarify and dry the soil by exposing it to air under suitable conditions
345. Clay when removed from the borrow pit comes out in the form of chunk. If you are the assigned
Material Engineer in the field, what is the most suitable compacting equipment will you
recommend?
a) Vibratory roller
b) Pneumatic tired roller
c) Sheep’s foot roller
346. Increments of loads applied in load test
a) Not to exceed 15% of proposed safe load
b) Not to exceed 20% of proposed safe load
c) Not to exceed 25% of proposed safe load
347. Minimum thickness of one layer in spreading and compacting base and subbase course
a) 150 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 300 mm
348. The binder materials for granular materials usually consist of the following, except.
a) Silt-clay
b) Limestone dust
c) Slags
349. In construction of control strips and determination of target density. The number of in-place
density test taken at randomly selected sites within the control strips will be?
a) 15
b) 18
c) 20
d) 25
350. In construction of control strips and determination of target density. A new control strip maybe
ordered or requested to construct when; except.
a) If the mean density of the control strip is less than 98% of the density of laboratory
compacted specimen.
b) Ten (10) days of production have been accepted without construction of a new control
strip
c) There is a reason to believe that a control strip is not representative of the materials
being placed
d) All of the above

351. The layer used in the pavement system between the subgrade and the base course.
a) Embankment
b) Subbase
c) Surfacing
352. In California Bearing Ratio determination, the corrected load at 0.20 inch penetration is 1,255psi.
the percent CBR will be?
a) 83.67% Actual Corrected Load 1,255
b) 83.20% %CBR =----------------------------- x 100 = ------------ x 100 =83.67%
c) 82.50% (0.20 inch) Std Load 1,500
353. In laboratory compaction test, the dry density is 1,940 kg/m 3, the percent water content is
13.40%. The wet density will be?
a) 1,966 kg/m3 Wet Density = Dry Density (1 + MC/100)
b) 2,049 kg/m3 = 1,940 (I + 13.4/100)
c) 2,200 kg/m3 = 2,200 kg/m3
354. In laboratory compaction test, the wet density is 2,040 kg/m 3, the percent of water content is
4.20%. The wet density will be? Wet Density
a) 1,966 kg/m3 Dry Density = ------------------------ x 100
b) 2,049 kg/m3 1 + MC/100
c) 2,200 kg/m3
2,040
= -------------- x 100 = 1,956 kg/m3
1 + 4.2/100
355. Compaction curve produce in the laboratory compaction curve means.
a) Flow curve
b) Moisture density curve
c) Optimum moisture
356. You are the Material Engineer of your firm, it so happen that in the preparation of the as-staked
plans it was found out that there was an increase and new additional item of work from the
original quality control program as submitted. What will you recommend?
a) Maintained the old submitted quality control program
b) Revised the quality control program
c) Delete the increase and the new additional item
d) Any of the above
357. The highest moisture content in the plastic consistenc y of fine -grained soil is the
liquid limit
a) plastic limit
b) shrinkage limit
c) Liquid Limit
358. Compaction increases the strength of soil by
a) expelling air from its voids
b) forcing soil particles into intimate contact
c) both a and b
359. Indicates a range of moisture content over which soil is plastic
a) plastic limit
b) shrinkage limit
c) plasticity index
360. W ater content of an undisturbed soil is called
a) optimum moisture content
b) h ygroscopic m oisture content
c) natural water content
361. In the performance of Moisture Density Relations Test, the equipment used is
a) liquid limit device
b) sand-cone apparatus
c) rammer and mold
d) none of the above

362. Peat and muck are

a) fair subgrade soils
b) stable soils
c) unstable soils
363. The particle size distribution of a soil is determined by
a) liquid limit test
b) sieve analysis test
c) plastic limit test
d) any of the preceding
364. To prevent intrusion of soft subgrade material into the aggregate base or subbase
a) reinforced earth
b) rock buttress
c) geotextiles may be used
365. The CBR value is generally selected at
a) 0.10 inch or 2.54mm
b) 0.0375 inch
c) 0.05 inch
d) 0.20inch penetration
366. One of the methods in improving the properties of a soil to make it suitable for a particular
purpose is
a) particle rearrangement
b) sodding or springing
c) paving
367. An aggregate base course of 21,600 m3 will require___ quality test
a) 14
b) 15 1 Q / 1500 m3
c) 72
368. Coarse aggregate for Crushed Stone Aggregate Surface Course should have not less than____
with at least one (1) fractured face
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 60 %
369. Crushed Gravel Base Course, Grading C, shall be compacted in layers of not more than ___
loose thickness
a) 10 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 20 cm
370. Which plasticity index is most suitable for aggregate base course? [The fraction passing the
0.425mm (No.40) shall have a liquid limit not greater than 25 and plasticity index not greater than
6]
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 50,
371. During construction of a road project, if all the materials to be used are tested for quality,
inspection is no longer required
a) true
b) false
372. The degree of compaction of an embankment in our present Specifications is based on
a) CBR method
b) Unconfined compression test
c) AASHTO Designation T-180 (modified proctor compaction test)
d) Bulk Specific Gravity
373. Under Excavation for Structure, Item 106, the backfilling operation shall be done in 20 cm loose
layer and compacted to at least 95 %.
374. Soils are natural aggregates of minerals connected by strong and permanent cohesive forces
a) true
b) false
375. The boundary between sand and gravel is
a) 0.425 mm (# 40)
b) 4.750 mm (# 4)
c) 2.00 mm (# 10)
d) 0.075 mm ( # 200)
376. A a) sandy clay, b) clayey sand, c) sand clay, d) none of the preceding, is a soil which exhibits
the properties of a clay but contains an appreciable amount of sand.
377. Plasticity test is done on soils passing
a) 0.425 mm (# 40)
b) 2.00 mm ( # 10)
c) 0.075 mm (# 200) sieve
378. What are the other terms or particles size analysis?
Ans. 1) sieve analysis
2) mechanical analysis
3) grading test/analysis
379. What is the formula for plastic limit?
Ans. PL = (Wa – Wb) / Wb x 100
Where: Wa = original wt of crumbled soil thread
Wb = wt of oven dried crumbled soil
380. What is Plastic Index (PI)?
Ans. It is the difference between the liquid limit and the plastic limit;
PI = LL-PL
381. What is specific gravity?
Ans. It is a gravimetric-volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio
of the wt in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temp.)
382. What is the approximate area for density control strip?
Ans. 335 sq. m.
383. The physical and engineering properties of soils may be improved by
a) compaction
b) stabilization
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
384. Water content of soils is generally based on the.
a) total weight of soil
b) total volume of soil
c) weight of solids
d) none of the preceding
385. The density to which a soil can be compacted is related to
a) compactive efforts
b) water content
c) both a and b
d) none of the preceding
386. Disturbed samples may be used for…
a) sieve test
b) liquid limit (AASTHO T89)
c) compaction test
d) any of the preceding
387. A soil with a Group Index of 5 is stronger than another with a Group Index of 10...
a) true
b) false
c) it depends on the water content
388. a) Water content, b) void ratio, c) degree of saturation, d) porosity determines the relative
amount of water in the voids.
389. The efficient compaction, the embankment material should at the time of rolling be.
a) dry
b) wet
c) at optimum moisture content
390. The degree of compaction required for embankment is at least ____ of the
maximum density as determine by AASTHO T -90 Method
a) 100%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 85%
391. Roadway embankment in earth material shall be placed and compacted in
horizontal layer not exceeding
a) 150 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 250 mm loose requirements, before the next layer is placed
392. In Aggregate Sub-base Course, the degree of compaction of each layer shall
continue until a field density of at least _____ of the maximum dry density
determines in accordance with AASTHO T -180 Method D has been attained.
a) 100%
b) 95%
c) 90 %
393. The maximum percentage wear allowed for Aggregate Subbase Course in a coarse
portion retained on a 2.0 mm (No. 10) sieve is…. by Los Angeles Abrasion Test
determine by AASHTO T -96
a) 45
b) 50
c) 40
d) 55 %
394. This is used in soil stabilized road surface due to its high ____ property, that is, it absorbs and
retains water.
a) Potassium Chloride c) Magnesium Chloride
b) Calcium Chloride d) Sodium Chloride
395. The mass % wear of soil aggregate used in cement/lime proportions should not be more than
a) 40 % c) 45 %
b) 50 % d) 55 %
396. The uniform rate at which the movable head of the CBR machine travel is _____.
a) 0.05 in/ min (1.2mm/min) c) 0.08 in /min
b) 0.10 in /min d) 0.09 in /min
397. The specific gravity of Sodium Sulfate used in soundness test for aggregate should be within the
range of _______________.
a) 1.151 to 1.174 c) 1.051 to 1.154
b) 1.250 to 1.178 d) 1.058 to 1.184
398. The specific gravity magnesium sulfate solution used in soundness test for aggregate should be
within the range of __________.
a) 1.280 to 1.408 c) 1.295 to 1.308
b) 1.180 to 1.308 d) 1.195 to 1.318
399. The solution used in the soundness test of aggregate shall be cooled to a temperature of 21 ±1⁰
C and maintain at that temperature for at least _____.
a) 24 hours c) 48 hours
b) 36 hours d) 18 hours
400. Proper compaction of the fill materials is very important, as it will ______.
a) Increase the shear strength c) Minimize compressibility
b) Decrease permeability d) All of the above

401. Unconfined compressive strength test is usually performed on______.

a) Sandy soils c) Organic soils
b) Silty soils d) Clayey soils
402. Consolidation test is usually performed on ____ samples
a) Disturbed c) Consolidated
b) Undisturbed d) both a & b
403. The cohesion and internal friction of soil is tested by
a) Tri axial shear test c) Bearing test
b) Direct shear test d) All of the above
404. Rock shall be excavated to a depth ____ below sub grade within the limit of the roadbed
a) 100 mm c) 200 mm
b) 150 mm
405. For how many years does the small Contractor given to procure necessary testing equipment?
a) 2 years c) 5 years
b) 4 years d) 6 years
406. In soil, all boring shall be carried to a depth of at least ____ below the proposed grade line.
a) 0.50m c) 1.5 m
b) 1.0 m d) 1.8 m
407. The test that determines pile bearing capacity by loading one or more pile and measuring
settlement under load is _____.
a) Vane shear test b) Pile load test c) Plate Bearing Test
408. The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger or split spoon shall be at least ____.
a) 1 kg c) 10 kg
b) 20 kg d) 100 kg
409. The length of Shelby Tube of an undisturbed sample is _____.
a) 10” long b) 18” long c) 20” long
410. I n a soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is questionable, the minimum depth of boring
into the bedrock should be _______.
a) 1.5 m c) 2.5 m
b) 2.0 m d) 3.0 m
411. What is the wash loss of fine aggregates in the no. 200 sieve?
a) 1 % c) 3 %
b) 2 % d) 4 %
412. When group index = 0, what is the grade of soil?
a) weak soil b) poor soil c) good soil
413. ______ is a process of breaking down of rocks into small pieces of various sizes that can range
from large boulders to very small clay particles.
a) Consolidation b) Un-consolidation c) Weathering
414. ________ is the limit were further loss of water due to evaporation which will not result in
reduction of volume.
a) Plastic limit b) Liquid Limit c) Shrinkage limit
415. ________a classification of soil which 35% or less the particles pass through no. 200 sieve.
a) Grain size soil 8c) Silty-Clay materials
b) Granular materials d) Clayey materials
416. ________ a classification of soil which 35% or more of the particles pass through no. 200 sieve
a) Course Sand Soil c) Silty-Clay Materials
b) Granular Materials d) Clayey Materials
417. It evaluates the quality of soil as highway sub grade material.
a) Atterberg Limit c) Group Index
b) Plasticity Index d) Liquid Limit
418. When soil has plasticity index value of 10, what’s the criterion of the material?
a) Coarse grained soil c) Clayey
b) Sandy d) Silty
419. When plasticity index is equal or greater than 11, soil is?
a) Coarse grain c) Clayey Plasticity Index- indicates clay content
b) Sandy d) Silty
420. _______ is an empirical number used in evaluation for G.I.

a) 0 – 15 c) 0 – 20 G.I. – relative supporting power of sub-grade
b) 5 – 20 d) 0 – 25
421. It indicates good sub-base materials when G.I. is equal to _____.
a) 0 c) 10
b) 5 d) 20
422. I It indicates very poor sub-base materials when G.I. is equal to _____.
a) 0 c) 10
b) 5 d) 20 silt-clay materials
423. ______ indicates the composition of soil.
a) Atterberg Limit c) Liquidity Index
b) Plasticity Index
424. The higher the value of G.I. of the soil, the weaker will be the soil performance as a sub-grade.
a) True c) Depend
b) False d) None of the above
425. _______ the Plasticity Index of A-1 group of soil
a) 0 c) 10
b) 6 d) 11
426. _______ is the minimum percent of A-6 group classification of soil.
a) 0 % c) 35 %
b) 25 % d) 36 %
427. _______ is the maximum of G.I. of Silty Clay Materials,
a) 0 c) 20
b) 25 d) 35
428. When the value of G.I. is negative, what will be the soil performance?
a) Poor Sub-grade c) Good sub-grade
b) Very good sub-grade d) None of the above
429. The weight of Sandy soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______.

a) 10 grams c) 50 grams
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams
430. The weight of Clayey or Silty soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______.
a) 10 grams c) 50 grams
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams
431. A 25 grams fine grained soil can be dried in about ______.
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours
432. A 25 grams sandy soil can be dried in about ______.
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours
433. _______ is a type of soil in which most of the soil grains are of the same size.
a) Poorly graded c) Gap graded
b) Well graded d) None of the above
434. The soil grained are force apart by the water added, thus the grain is reduced, what is the method
used?
a) Lubrication c) Swelling
b) Wetting d) Saturation
435. Percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested for clay lump is _____.
a) 0.1 mass percent c) 0.8 mass percent
b) 0.25 mass percent d) 1.0 mass percent
436. The mass percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested in soft fragment is ____.
a) 0.10 % c) 3.5 %
b) 0.25 % d) 1.00%
437. If slag is used, the density of coarse aggregate is ______.
a) 30 – 100 kg/cu. m c) 1,120 kg/cu. m
b) 150 kg /cu. m d) 1,400 kg/cu. m
438. Mass percent loose for fine aggregates when tested in Clay Lumps is.
a) 0.10 % c) 0.80%
b) 0.25 % d) 1.0 %
439. _ _ _ _ is an instrument used for rapid in-site measurement of the structural properties of existing
road pavement.
a) Pundit Ultra Sonic Concrete Tester
b) Dynamic Core Penetrometer
c) Falling Weight Deflectometer
d) Core Test
440. ________determines the effect of water on the cohesion of the mixture
a) Stability Test c) Distillation
b) Solubility d) Immersion-Compression Test
441. The distance of the sample by grooving before rotating the brass cup is_____.
a) ¼” c) ¾”
b) ½” d) 1”
442. The most common method of assessing strength and stiffness of both sub-grade and pavement.
a) FDT c) SPT
b) CBR d) None of the above
443. How many days do the specimen for CBR soaked?
a) 1 day c) 3 days
b) 2 days d) 4 days
444. The different test for soil classification are:
a) Compaction and FDT
b) Hydrometer test and moisture content
c) Grading, LL and PL test
445. The apparatus/equipment used in the liquid limit and plastic limit test is
called___.
a) sieves and chisel
b) Atterberg Device and glass plate
c) mortar and pestle
446. _______ is a method of laboratory sampling.
a) Mixing c) Proportioning
b) Using mechanical splitter / quartering
447. In laboratory compaction test/moisture density relation test, what is the
specification of rammer?
a) 5.5lb. (2.5kg) with 12 in drop
b) 8 lb. (3.6 kg) in weight with 16 in drop
c) 10lb. (4.5kg) in weight with 18 in drop
448. W hat is the specification of mass percent passing in sieve
0 . 0 7 5 m m ( N o . 200) grading “A” for aggregate base course?
a) 20-14 b) 0 -12 c) 0 – 6
449. The minimum percent compaction for embankment is _______.
a) 92% b) 95% c) 97%
450. The minimum percent compaction for base of the road is ______.
a) 95% b) 97% c) 100%
451. The CBR value of aggregate base course is not less than ____.
a) 80% b) 85% c) 90%
452. The CBR value of aggregate sub base course is not less than ___.
a) 25% b) 30% c) 35%
453. The drying temperatures of samples.
a) 110±5⁰C b) 100±10⁰C c) 100⁰c
454. Embankment materials delivered at the job site was about 12,000 cu. m. The minimum test
requirement calls for 1 – G, P, C for every 1,500 cu. m.
a) 10 – G, P, C b) 8 – G, P, C c) 6 – G, P, C
455. A quality test is one of the minimum requirements for item 200–aggregate sub-base course.
a. True b) False c) optional
456. There is no CBR test for item 300 – aggregate surface course.
b. True b) False c) optional
457. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by laboratory test, the degree of compaction
required for aggregate sub-base should be at least ____.
a. 95% c) 100%
b. 98% d) none of the above
458. The fineness modulus is highest for _________________.
a) fine sand c) very coarse sand
b) very fine sand d) coarse sand
459. The plasticity index of aggregate base course should be not greater than___.
a) 6 c) 10
b) 8 d) 12
460. The natural water content of highly organic soil is __________.
a) less than 20 c) between 50 and 100
b) between 20 and 50 d) more than 100%
461. Which of the following dead load is equivalent for loose sand, earth and gravel fill?
a) 2,403 tons/cu.m. c) 1,603 tons/cu.m.
b) 1,922 tons/cu.m. d) 2,150 tons/cu.m.
462. The opening of No. 4 sieve is bigger than the opening of a ¼ sieve.
a) true b) false c) they are the same
463. The standard compaction test on predominantly fine grained soils is performed on soil fraction
passing sieve no. ___________.
a) 200 c) 16
b) 40 d) 4 sieve # 4 (4.75mm)
464. A soil which is classified A-7 by the highway research board method will have a sub-grade rating.
a) excellent c) fair
b) good d) poor
465. The empirical number used in design is ____________.
a) plasticity index b) group index c) both of the preceding
466. Soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture content.
a) true b) false c) it depends on void ratio
467. Water content of soil is generally base on ____________. MC= H2O m
a) total weight of soil c) weight of solids wt of solids
b) total volume of soil d) unit weight test
468. Optimum water content of soil is determined by ______________.
a) field density test c) compaction test
b) liquid limit test d) unit weight test
469. The particle size distribution of soil is determined by ____________.
a) liquid limit granular c) sieve analysis test
b) plastic limit test d) any of the preceding test
470. Which of the following are most suitable for construction of highway embankments?
a) granular c) plastic
b) fine- grained d) clayey
471. The best soil for a road sub-grade would behave a group index of ___.
a) less than 5 c) 11 to 15
b) 5 to 10 d) 16 to 20
472. Which of the following is characterizes unsuitable materials?
a) soil with liquid limit exceeding 80
b) plasticity index exceeding 55
c) soil with natural water content exceeding 100%
d) all of the above
473. Shrinkage factor test is _______________.
a) test to determine pay volume
b) test to determine strength characteristic
c) test to determine volume change

474. Soil is fully saturated if the water content is ______________.

a) at optimum amount c) more than 100%
b) 100% d) none of the preceding
475. The density to which a soil can be compacted is related to ___.
a) compactive effort c) both a and b
b) water content d) neither a or b
476. The trial section for compaction for each type of fill materials and type of equipment to be used in
the work should have an area of__________.
a) 500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m.
b) 335 sq. m. d) 400 sq. m.
477. Control strip shall have an area of approximately ____________.
a) 500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m.
b) 335 sq. m. d) 400 sq. m.
478. As Materials Engineer, what would you recommend in order to check the suitability and efficiency
of the equipment to use prior to sub base construction for item 310, Bituminous Concrete Surface
Course?
a) make a trial section b) establish control strips c) make trial mix
479. In DPWH Contract Projects, Quality Control is the sole responsibility of_______.
a) the DPWH project personnel
b) the government’s Materials Engineer
c) the Contractor
480. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing of materials to be
incorporated into the work?
a) Before final payment
b) Before start of work items
c) Before first partial payment
481. Problems regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly by the
Contractor’s Materials Engineer to the ____________.
a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor d) none of the above
482. Soil properties can be improved by ____________.
a) Adequate compaction c) Maximizing water content
b) Additional binder d) Stabilization
483. As construction progresses, you noticed that the m aterials delivered at
the project site are different from the one tested and passed the requirement, as Materials
Engineer what would you do?
a) Authorize the use of the materials
b) Conduct immediate retesting of the materials for verification purposes
c) Reject materials
d) Replace the materials
484. If the soil is properly compacted at MDD it will __________.
a) increase stability/strength
b) minimize future settlement
c) decrease permeability
d) all of the above
485. Which contractor is required by DPWH to own the minimum material testing equipment for pre-
qualification purposes?
a) small c) large
b) medium d) all of the above
486. You can classify a soil sample in accordance to AASHTO through ____.
a) Grain size analysis c) both a and b
b) Atterberg limit d) none of the above
487. W ho should take samples of materials and bring them to the laboratory
for acceptance purposes?
a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor’s Materials Engineer d) DPWH Project Engineer
488. The purpose of trial section is to check ___________________.

a) the suitability of materials
b) the efficiency of the equipment
c) the construction method proposed to be used
d) all of the above
489. In FDT, the volume of hole is determined by what?
a) Sand to fill hole over unit weight of dry sand
b) Total material taken from hole over volume of hole
c) Wet unit weight over 1 + MC/100
d) Dry unit weight over MDD x 100
490. This is the stage in compaction in which all free air is expelled and replaced by water, if further
pressure is applied to the soil mass; the tendency is to reduce its volume.
a) wetting stage c) saturation stage
b) swelling stage d) none of the above
491. In this stage, additional water replaces some of the entrapped air and the soil particles move
closer together with a resulting increase in density.
a) wetting stage c) lubricating stage
b) swelling stage d) all of the above
492. All boring during soil exploration survey shall generally be carried to a depth of at least ______
meter below the proposed grade line.
a) one ( 1 ) meter c) 0.30
b) two and half ( 2 ½ ) d) 0.50
493. What is the factor that will influence the construction of stabilized road?
a) Depletion of the supply of economically available materials
b) High cost involved in the construction of the conventional types of road
c) If the road structure may be built by stages, and a properly designed road
might function briefly as a wearing course
d) All of the above
494. As Materials Engineer, will you permit the use of salvage soil aggregate for lime stabilized road
mix base course?
a) Yes c) It depends
b) No d) Let the DPWH Project Engineer to decide
495. Is the accredited private testing laboratories owned by companies involved in the supply of
construction materials for DPWH project be allowed to test their own products?
a) Yes c) It depends
b) No d) Either a or c
496. Unsuitable materials are those materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials,
such as grass, roots, and sewerage and those that is _____________.
a) high organic soils
b) soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 and / or PI > 55
c) soils with very low density, 800kg/cu. m. or below
d) all of the above
497. The CBR is generally selected at what penetration?
a) 5.08 mm. c) 2.54 mm.
b) 3.1 mm. d) 3.50 mm
498. A soil aggregate that has a CBR value of 20 means that in the condition tested, the resistance to
penetration of the standard piston was ______ of the standard resistance of a compacted soil or
aggregate.
a) 40% c) 10%
b) 20% d) 80%
499. The basic aim of compaction is to produce a soil mass that will satisfy what criteria?
a) settlement c) permeability
b) stability d) all of the above

500. When do the embankment become friable in dry weather, ravel at the edges and abrade severely
under traffic and will become dusty in service and much of the binder soil is simply blown away
during the dry season.
a. the embankment is non- plastic
b. the embankment lacks compaction
c. materials fails CBR test
d. none of the above
501. When the embankment tends to soften in wet weather, and PCCP constructed of such material
develop ruts under traffic and may shift and shove to develop a wash board surface, the plasticity
index of such material is ____________.
a) P.I. is too high c) P.I. is too low
b) neither a & b d) both a & c
502. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by laboratory test, the degree of compaction
required for aggregate sub-base should be at least _____________.
a) 95% c) 100%
b) 98% d) 90%
503. Where to determine the amount of mixing water to use when compacting the soil in the field to
attain maximum density.
a. Trial Section c) Control Strip
b. Field Density Test d) Lab. Compaction Test
504. For soil classification purposes as in AASHTO M45, what is not required?
a) combined sieve and mechanical analysis
b) sieve analysis
c) the wash test
d) none of the above
505. This is widely used to control the characteristics of soil which are to be incorporated in roadways.
a. The Limit Test c) The Group Index
b. The soil classification d) all of the above
506. In direct shear test, the soil is sheared to failure by moving one part of the soil sample relatively to
the other part along a pre-determined plane. When several tests are made on a soil under
different normal loads and the results are plotted in arithmetic scales, the resulting line is made in
the form of ____________.
a. Straight line c) parabola
b. Hyperbola d) semi-elliptical
507. In conducting soil exploration survey, what equipment you will use in obtaining undisturbed
samples.
a. split spoon sampler c)screw type soil auger sampler
b. thin-walled sampler d) Post-hole auger sampler
508. T h i s i s a n e w m e t h o d o f s o i l s t a b i l i z a t i o n b e i n g i n t r o d u c e d t o i m p r o v e the
properties of soil which is effective and at the same time cheaper.
a) Stabilization by the use of Geo-textiles
b) Cement stabilization
c) Bituminous stabilization
d) Lime stabilization
509. This is the empirical indicator of the clay fraction of a binder material in a stabilized soil mixture.
b) Group Index
c) Liquid Limit
d) Plasticity Index
e) Plastic Limit

510. Requirement Embankment Subbase Base Course

1. Liquid Limit /> 30 /> 35 /> 25
2. Plasticity />6 /> 12 /> 6
3. Abrasion Index - /> 50 />50
4. CBR >7 ≥ 25 ≥ 80%
511. Tolerance Subbase Base Course

1. Thickness of Layer ± 20mm ± 10mm
2. Level of Surface + 10mm + 5mm
- 20mm -10mm
3. Surface Irregularity 20mm 5mm
4. Longitudinal Grade over 25m ±0.1% ± 0.1%
5. Crossfall or Camber ±0.3% ±0.2%
512. FORMULAS
a) Moisture Content Determination Where: W1 = wt. of can + wet soil

MC = W1 – W2 x 100 W2 = wt. of can + oven dry soil
W2 – WC Wc = wt. of container
b) Organic Content by loss on Ignition
O.C. = A – B x 100
A–C
Where: A = wt. of crucible + oven dried soil before Ignition
B = wt. of crucible + sample after ignition
C = wt. of crucible to the nearest 0.001 grams
513. Compaction Test / Moisture Density Relation
Step 1: Solve for Moisture content

2: Determine the Density of wet soil
= wt. of wet soil
Vol. of mold
3: Solve for the dry density
= Density of wet soil
1 + MC /100
4: Draw the Moisture Density Curve
5: Determine the OMC & MDD in the curve
514. Calibration of Air Dried Sand
Step 1: Weigh the container

2: Fill the container with air dried sand & weigh
3: Fill the container with water & weigh
4: Solve for the volume of container by the
Formula = Weigh of H2O = M3
1000
5: Solve for the wt. of air dried sand
= Cont. filled with sand – wt. of container
6: Solve for the unit wt. of dry sand
= wt. of air dried sand = kg/m3
Vol of container
7: Det. the wt. of sand to fill sand cone

515. Liquid Limit Calculation.
a) LL = W1 - W2 X 100 Where: W1 = wt. of wet sample

W2 W2 = wt. of oven dried sample
516. Plastic Limit Calculation
a) PL = Wa - Wb X 100 Where : Wa = wt. of crumbled soil thread

Wb Wb = wt. of oven dried crumbled soil
517. Shrinkage Limit Calculation
a) SL = W – V - VO x 100 Where: W = H2O content of wet soil

WO = wt. of wet soil – wt. of dried soil x 100
wt. of dried soil
V = Vol. of wet soil pat.
VO = Vol. of dried soil pat.
WO = wt. of oven dried soil pat.
518. Determination of Air Content when Sp. Gr of cement = 3.15
Air Content = 100 – W (182.7 + P / 2000 + 4P)

Where: W = wt. of mortar
P = % of mixing H2O based on wt. of cement
When S.P. Gr. of cement = 3.15
Vol of H2O
P = ---------------------- x 100
Mass of Cement
wt. of cement + wt. of sand +(wt. of cement + Px0.01)
Wc = ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
Wt. of cement + wt. of sand + [wt. of cement + P x 0.01]
Sp.Gr Sp. Gr. 1.0
Air content, Vol. % = 100 [1 – (Wa/Wc)]
519. Computation
 % Wear = Orig. wt. of sample – washed oven dried sample retained # 12 x 100
Original weight of sample
520. Specific Gravity
a) C.A. Wt. of SSD sample in air

Sp.Gr. Bulk SSD = --------------------------------------------------------
Wt. of sample air – wt. of sample in H2O
b) F.A. Wt. of SSD sample in air

Sp.Gr.Bulk (SSD) =------------------------------------------------------------------------
Wt. of SSD sample + wt.pf pycnometer + H2O –
(wt. of pycnometer + H2O + sample)
521. Absorption
a) C.A. wt. of SSD sample in air – wt. of oven dried sample

Absorption = ----------------------------------------------------------------------- x 100
Wt. of oven dried sample in air
b) F.A. wt. of SSD – wt. of oven dry sample

Absorption = ------------------------------------------------------ x 100
wt. of oven dry sample
522. F.D.T.
a) Vol. of hole = Sand to fill hole

unit wt. of dry sand
b) Wet unit wt. = Total material taken from hole
Vol. of hole
c) Dry Weight Density = Wet unit weight
(1+ MC/100)
d) Degree of Compaction = Dry unit wt. x 100
MDD
e) Unit wt. of Dry Sand = Wt. of air dry sand
Wt. of Bucket
523. C.B.R.
C.B.R. at 0.1” = Corrected Psi x 100

1000
C.B.R. at 0.2” = Corrected Psi x 100
1500
% Swell = change in length in “inch” during soaking x 100
4.584
where: 4.584 is the ht. of sample in the mold
H2O to be added:
= Air-dried soil (OMC – HMC)
_______________100_____
(1+ HMC)
100
524. Fineness Modulus of Sand
= Sum of % Retained from 3/8” sieve to #100

100

Materials Engineer Reviewer - I (Soil & Soil Aggregates)

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MATERIALS ENGINEERS (DPWH) ACCREDITATION EXAM REVIEWER I

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 1/33

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80. Significance of plasticity index are, except

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 5/33

104. The required abrasion loss for Item 200

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158. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

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205. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves

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287. This is used to determine the soil strength parameter.

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362. Peat and muck are

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 23/33

401. Unconfined compressive strength test is usually performed on______.

420. _______ is an empirical number used in evaluation for G.I.

429. The weight of Sandy soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______.

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 27/33

474. Soil is fully saturated if the water content is ______________.

488. The purpose of trial section is to check ___________________.

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 29/33

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 30/33

510. Requirement Embankment Subbase Base Course

511. Tolerance Subbase Base Course

a) Moisture Content Determination Where: W1 = wt. of can + wet soil

b) Organic Content by loss on Ignition

Step 1: Solve for Moisture content

514. Calibration of Air Dried Sand

Step 1: Weigh the container

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 31/33

515. Liquid Limit Calculation.

a) LL = W1 - W2 X 100 Where: W1 = wt. of wet sample

a) PL = Wa - Wb X 100 Where : Wa = wt. of crumbled soil thread

a) SL = W – V - VO x 100 Where: W = H2O content of wet soil

Air Content = 100 – W (182.7 + P / 2000 + 4P)

Air content, Vol. % = 100 [1 – (Wa/Wc)]

520. Specific Gravity

a) C.A. Wt. of SSD sample in air

b) F.A. Wt. of SSD sample in air

a) C.A. wt. of SSD sample in air – wt. of oven dried sample

b) F.A. wt. of SSD – wt. of oven dry sample

a) Vol. of hole = Sand to fill hole

C.B.R. at 0.1” = Corrected Psi x 100

= Sum of % Retained from 3/8” sieve to #100

SOIL & SOIL AGGREGATES Page 33/33

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