,c1.

Regular rhythmic uterine contraction elicited during bimanual examination is

 Piskacak’s sign - one is more firm then other is half (in implantation site )
 Jacqmer’s sign- blue discolration of lower segment of vigina
 Heger’s sign - upper part of the utrus is enlarge and lower part is empety
 Palmer’s sign reguler rythemic uterin contraction during bimanual examination
 Heartman sighn implantation bleeding

2. All are correctly matched except

 decreased fibrinogen – cryoprecipate

 increased INR – FFP
 decreased hemoglobin – packed cells
 increased APTT – platelets

3. The connecting link between glycolysis and kreb’s cycle in aerobic respiration is

 RUBP
 Acetyl COA
 Citric acid
 Oxalo acetic acid

4. The life span of a sperm is

 12 to 24 hours
 48 to 72 hours
 0 to 12 hours
 24 to 48 hours

5. Rate of uterine rupture in previous low vertical incision in the uterus is

 0.2 — 1.5%
 4 — 9%
 1 — 7%
 4 — 6%

6. Polarization of light is a convincing evidence of it’s

 Longitudinal nature
 Transverse nature
 Dual nature
 Quantum nature

7. The number of doses of vitamin A syrup, a five year old child does receive?

 Seven
 Eight
 Nine
 Ten

8. In emergency which blood group can be used

 A
 B
 AB
 O

9. Minimum Alveolar concentration of sevoflurane is

 0.75
 1.2
 2
 6

10. Red current jelly stool is seen in

 Volvulus
 Intususception
 Malabsorption
 Meckel’s diverticulum

11. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamine (B12) injections forthe past 6 weeks. Which laboratory
finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

 Neutrophil count of 60%

 Basophil count of 0.5%
 Monocyte count of 2%
 Reticulocyte count of 1%

12. During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet
(Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse’s first action should be to:

 Notify the hospital pharmacist

 Notify the nursing supervisor
 Notify the Board of Nursing
 Notify the director of nursing

13. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should
obtain which type of culture?

 Blood
 Nasopharyngeal secretions
 Stool
 Genital secretions

14. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in making the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?

 AST
 Troponin
 CK-MB
 Myoglobin

15. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses
the client’s ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for
follow-up after discharge?

 “I live by myself.”
 “I have trouble seeing.”
 “I have a cat in the house with me.”
 “I usually drive myself to the doctor.”

16. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of
the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

 A client 2 days post-appendectomy

 A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
 A client 3 days post-splenectomy
 A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

17. Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
 The nurse fails to wear gloves to remove a dressing.
 The nurse applies an oxygen saturation monitor to the ear lobe.
 The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check the blood pressure.
 The nurse places the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample.

18. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of hepatitis who is experiencing pruritis. Which would
be the most appropriate nursing intervention?

 Suggest that the client take warm showers B.I.D.

 Add baby oil to the client’s bath water
 Apply powder to the client’s skin
 Suggest a hot-water rinse after bathing

19. The nurse is obtaining a history of an 80-year-old client. Which statement made by the client might
indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

 “My skin is always so dry.”

 “I often use a laxative for constipation.”
 “I have always liked to drink a lot of ice tea.”
 “I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine.”

*20. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which
equipment should be kept at the bedside?

 A pair of forceps
 A torque wrench
 A pair of wire cutters
 A screwdriver

21. Surgical intervention for hydrocephalus is

 BT shunt
 Glen shunt
 Bidirectional shunt
 VP shunt

22. The term ‘saturated and unsaturated fats’ are related to degree of

 Digestability
 Taste
 Colour
 Colour

23. Which of the following intervention is contraindicated in a patient with deep vein thrombosis of the
right leg?

 Elevation of the limb

 Application of moist heat to the right leg
 Ambulation in the hall every 4 hour
 Administration of analgesics

24. The World Health Day theme for 2014 is

 small bite, big threat

 safe blood for saving mothers
 progress on drinking water and sanitation
 healthy blood pressure, aging and health

25. Due to Frenkel-defect the density of the ionic solids

 Decreases
 Increases
 Does not change
 Changes abnormally

 Always identify yourself before touching a blind person.

 Diabetes is an important cause of blindness.
 Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all.
 Ask if a blind person needs help before giving assistance.

2. It is important that dressings remain:

 clean and dry

 loose to admit air
 tight to keep out bacteria
 untouched until ordered removed

3. A patient suddenly complains of feeling weak on one side while he is getting a bed bath. The nurses’
assistant should:

 tell him that weakness is normal at his age

 report this to a licensed person immediately
 prop him up with pillows
 pass it on at end of shift

4. Which of the following causes the most infections in healthcare facilities?

 unwashed hands
 airborne bacteria
 contaminated food
 sick visitors

5. Average volume of blood in a healthy person is _________

 2 – 3 ltrs
 8 – 10 ltrs
 5 – 7 ltrs
 10 – 12 ltrs

6. _________ is infected through oral route.

 Erysipelas
 Malaria
 Hepatitis B
 Hepatitis A

7. PCOD stands for _________.

 Pre cyclic ovarian disease

 Post cyclic ovarian disease
 Poly cyclic ovarian disease
 Poly cystic ovarian disease

*8. ‘Caloric Test’ is done in _________.

 Fever
 Vertigo
 Lumbago
 Meningitis
9. Jaundice is seen in _________.

 Leptospirosis
 Typhoid
 Brain tumor
 Lymph adenitis

10. Amoebiasis is caused by _________.

 Entamoeba hystolitica
 Escherichia coli
 Enterobacterium leprae
 Staphylococcus aureus

11. MMR stands for __________.

 Mumps, Malaria, Rubella

 Mumps, Malaria, Retinitis
 Mumps, Measles, Rubella
 Mumps, Measles, Rabies

15. The grahyamsa of Dhathaki is _________.

 Flower
 Stem
 Root
 Bark

16. Normal value of Fasting Blood Sugar level is _________.

 80 mg – 110 mg/100 ml
 150 mg – 200 mg/100 ml
 Below 50 mg/100 ml
 80 gm – 110 gm/100 ml

 visham

18. ___________ is an example for air borne disease.

 Cholera
 Dysentery
 Influenza
 Typhoid

19. DPT stands for __________.

 Dysentery, Pneumonia, Tetanus

 Dysentery, Poliomyelitis, Tetanus
 Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus
 Diphtheria, Polydipsia, Typhoid

 in intensified by food

2. Cellulitis on the floor of mouth is known as…???

 Stomatitis
 Glositis
 Angina pectoris
 Ludwing’s Angina
3. Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would indicate
this complication to the nurse would be:

 Intermittent claudication
 Pitting edema of the area
 Severe pain when raising the legs
 Localized warmth and tenderness of the site

4. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:

 early in the evening.

 anytime during the day
 in the morning, as soon as the client awakens
 before bedtime.

5. Client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse
assess first?

 Blood pressure
 Respirations
 Temperature
 Cardiac rhythm

*6. Method to diagnosis & locate seizures?

 EEG
 PET
 MRI
 CT scan

7. The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?

 Enhance comfort
 Improve respiratory status
 Peripheral edema decreased
 Increase cardiac output

8. The type of stroke that can develop in a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation is

 Embolic stroke
 Thrombotic stroke
 Haemorrhagic stroke
 Mini stroke

9. The drug that should only be administered in diluted form is

 Sodium bicarbonate
 Pottasium chloride
 Sodium chloride
 Calcium gluconate

10. Signs of meningeal irritation include all the following, EXCEPT

 Kernig’s sign
 Brudzinski’s sign
 Kehr’s sign
 Neck stiffness

11. A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to

 Viscosity
 Capillarity
 Buoyancy
 Surface Tension

12. A client is given oxytocin for induction of labour. The side effect of oxytocin is

 vomiting
 increased urine outflow
 hypertension
 bradicardia

13. According to Lewis concept acid is

 Electron pair acceptor

 Proton acceptor
 Electron pair donor
 Proton donor

14. Equimolar solution in the same solvent have

 same boiling point but different freezing point

 same freezing point but different boiling point
 same boiling point and same freezing point
 different boiling point and different freezing point

15. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in a patient with glaucoma who is scheduled for
surgery?

 Demerol (meperidine) 50 mg IM
 Valium (diazepam) 2 mg IM
 Atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM
 Phenergan (promethazine) 25 mg IM

16. The typical findings on the assessment of a client with acute pancreatitis?

 Hypoactive bowel sounds, decreased amylase and lipase levels

 Fever, Hypoglycemia, DHN
 Melena, persistent vomiting, hyperactive bowel sounds
 Steatorrhea, abdominal pain, fever

17. A 46 year old uncontrolled diabetic male patient developed swelling at the root of the nose. Biopsy
showed a necrotizing areas with the blood vessel walls invaded by broad non septate branching fungal
hyphae. Probable fungus would be

 Mucormycosis
 Candidiasis
 Aspergillosis
 Rhinosporidiosis

18. In Marfans syndrome,there is increased risk for

 Pneumonia
 Pleural effusion
 Pneumothorax
 All of the above

19. An aide is pushing a resident down the hall with a wheelchair when a call light lights up. The aide
should
 continue pushing the patient and assume someone else will answer the call.
 take the patient inside the room while answering the call.
 put the patient back to bed and then answer the call.
 push the patient to a safe place, apply the wheel locks, and answer the call.

20. The optimum level of fluoride in drinking water is between

 0.6 – 0.9 mg/liter

 0.2 – 0.4 mg/liter
 0.3 – 0.7 mg/liter
 0.5 – 0.8 mg/liter

21. Peripheral neuropathy is the principal adverse effect of

 INH
 Rifampicin
 Pyrazinamide
 Ethambutol

22. In patient with normal renal function, oral morphine should be given

 8 hourly
 6 hourly
 4 hourly
 2 hourly

23. Angular stomatitis is caused by

 Iodine deficiency
 Thiamine deficiency
 Pyridoxine deficiency
 Riboflavin deficiency

24. International Red Cross Society is founded by

 Charles Dickson
 Charles Darwin
 Henry Dunant
 Von pirguet

25. Anti sterility vitamin is

 Vitamin A
 Vitamin E
 Vitamin K
 Vitamin D

The hormone which is produced from pineal gland is

 Calcitonin
 Progesterone
 Ghrelin
 Melatonin

2. The name of presentation in which the buttocks of foetus lies in the lower pole of uterus

 vertex
 face
 brow
 breech
3. One gram of fat gives __________ calory energy when broken down.

 9 calories
 8 calories
 4 calories
 2 calories

4. Which of the following is a killed vaccine?

 OPV
 BCG
 MMR
 Rabies

5. The type of isolation technique used in conditions when pathogens are transmitted through fecal
matter is

 respiratory isolation
 enteric isolation
 skin isolation
 blood isolation

6. Immediate treatment of dog bite is

 Hospitalize
 Application of antiseptic
 Wash wound with soap and water
 Suturing of wound

7. In an autoclave temperature set for sterilization should be

 63° C
 90° C
 121° C
 115° C

8. Who discovered the Polio vaccine?

 Louis Pasteur
 Jonas Salk
 Konrad Zuse
 Eli Whitney

9. Insects responsible for transmitting diseases are called

 Transmitter
 Drones
 Vector
 Conductor

10. Which of the following blood pressure value denotes hypotension?

 120/80 mm of Hg
 130/90 mm of Hg
 160/110 mm of Hg
 80/60 mm of Hg

11. Which of the following foods has the highest protein content?

 Cereals
 Legumes
 Millets
 Tubers

12. Mark the correct statement :

 All sperms fertilize all eggs

 Eggs are fertilized by many sperms
 Each egg is usually fertilized by one sperm
 Each sperm fertilizes one egg

13. The disease caused by deficiency of protein in children is called

 Pellagra
 Marasmus
 Beri-Beri
 Rickets

14. The richest source of Vitamin A is

 Cheese
 Milk
 Spinach
 Cod liver oil

15. The second stage of labor extends from

 full dilatation of cervix to the birth of baby

 starting of true labor pains to full dilatation of cervix
 from birth of baby to the expulsion of placenta
 from engagement of foetal head to the rupture of membranes

16. The milk of which of the following mammal has highest content of fat?

 Buffalo
 Human
 Goat
 Cow

17. Which of the following indicates impending eclampsia in a woman with pre eclampsia?

 Fatigue
 Headache
 Oedema of feet
 Vaginal bleeding

18. Pigmentation of skin is due to

 Leucocytes
 Lymphocytes
 Monocytes
 Melanocytes

*19. Which of the following is a hormonal contraceptive?

 Depo provera
 Diaphragm
 Male condoms
 Spermicidal jelly
20. Which among the following hormone can be used as a drug to treat cardiac arrest?

 Thyroxin
 Calcitonin
 Epinephrine
 Insulin

*21. Commonest type of Genito urinary fistulae

 Vescico vaginal
 Utero vaginal
 Vescico uterine
 Urethro vaginal

*22. Indication for classical caesarian

 Obstructed labour
 C_AC_X carcinoma of cercix
 Placenta praevia
 Twin pregnancy

*23. According to MTP Act 2nd doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is
 10 wks
 6 wks
 > 12 wks
 > 20 wks

24. Which is true regarding Appendicitis in pregnancy?

 Leucocytosis is helpful in diagnosis

 Pain and tenderness prominent in right lower quadran
 Pregnant woman has symptoms typical for non pregnant patients with appendicitis
 More likely to cause generalised peritonitis

25. Which test indicates lung maturity?

 NST
 Shake test
 Kleuher test
 Fetal breathing movements

1. The expected date of delivery of a woman with LMP on January 20 is

 July 20
 October 20
 September 27
 October 27

2. The process of developing and providing planned experiences to supply information, change attitudes
and influence behavior is

 Health promotion
 Wellness
 Health education
 Coordinated school health
3. An android pelvis is one which has

 Kidney shaped brim

 5th lumbar vertebra fused to sacrum
 Heart shaped brim
 Ovoid brim

4. An increase in thyroid hormone results in

 Addison’s disease
 Cretinism
 Cushing’s disease
 Grave’s disease

5. The UV radiation from the sun is likely to cause ___________ in human.

 Skin cancer
 Lung cancer
 Liver cancer
 Brain cancer

6. Which of the following correctly lists the items from smallest to largest?

 DNA, genome, chromosome, gene

 DNA, gene, chromosome, genome
 Genome, gene, DNA, chromosome
 Gene, genome, DNA, chromosome

7. Which of the following is not a function of medulla oblongata?

 Coordination of skeletal muscles

 Control of heart beat
 Control of respiratory rate
 Control of digestion

8. The normal human uterus is described as

 unicornuate
 anteverted
 bicornuate
 subseptate

9. The normal head circumference in a new born baby is

 35-40 cm
 33-35 cm
 20-30 cm
 45-50 cm

10. Which of the following is an indication for induction of labor?

 Unrealiable EDD
 Cephalopelvic disproportion
 Malpresentation
 Previous large bab

11. __________ is a de worming agent.

 Permethrin
 Amoxycillin
 Mebendazole
 Lysol

12. Bad breath is called

 Tuberculosis
 Halitosis
 Pediculosis
 Mycoses

13. The first sign of dehydration in a child with diarrhoea is

 pinched skin retracts slowly

 unconsciousness
 increased thirst
 sunken fontanelles

14. One sub centre covers the area of _________ population in general.

 5000
 10000
 20000
 30000

15. ”Rules of nines” helps to identify the severity of

 haemorrhage
 burns
 growth retardation
 physical disability

16. The following shows bleeding from an artery

 colour of blood is dark red

 blood oozes slowly
 profuse continuous bleeding
 blood squirts intermittently

17. Heimlich maneuver is used as a first aid for managing

 choking
 poisoning
 shock
 burns

18. Iso sorbid dinitrate is a drug used in the treatment of which of the following diseases

 Heart disease
 Infection
 Hypertension
 Cancer

19. Normal haemoglobin for adult female is

 10-12 gm%
 13-17 gm%
 16-18 gm%
 12-15 gm%

20. ”Quickening” occurs in primy gravida at __________ weeks of pregnancy.

 10-12 weeks
 18-20 weeks
 20-24 weeks
 26-28 weeks

21. Chlorpheniramine is an _________ group of drug.

 Anticonvulsant
 Antihistamine
 Antacid
 Antibiotic

22. One pint is equal to ________ ml.

 150
 200
 350
 500

23. The direct cause of bedsore in a patient with incontinence of urine is __________.

 Pathogens
 Friction
 Pressure
 Moisture

24. Inflammation of tongue is ___________.

 Glossitis
 Stomatitis
 Gingivitis
 Sinusitis

25. Premature separation of a normally situated placenta after 28th week of pregnancy is

 placenta praevia
 habitual abortion
 placental abruption
 vesicular mole

1. Best time to check IOP ?

 Early morning
 After noon
 Late evening
 At Noon

2. World Cancer day is …?

 January 30
 December 1
 February 4
 March 7

3. A client says to the nurse “I know that I’m going to die.” Which of the following responses by the nurse
would be best ?

 “We have special equipment to monitor you and your problem.”

 “Don’t worry. We know what we’re doing and you aren’t going to die.”
 “Why do you think you’re going to die?”
 “Oh no, you’re doing quite well considering your condition.”

4. A nurse is assessing a group of clients. The nurse knows that which of the following clients is at risk
for fluid volume deficit ?

 Client diagnosed with liver cirrhosis.

 Client with diminished kidney function.
 Client diagnosed with congestive heart failure.
 Client attached to a colostomy bag.

5. The client is brought to the emergency department due to drug poisoning. Which of the following
nursing interventions is most effective in the management of the client’s condition ?

 Gastric lavage
 Activated charcoal
 Cathartic administration
 Milk dilution

6. When caring for a patient who has intermittent claudication, a cardiac/vascular nurse advises the
patient to:

 Apply graduated compression stockings before getting out of bed.

 Elevate the legs when sitting.
 Refrain from exercise.
 Walk as tolerated.

7. A dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis , it may indicate

 Prostatitis
 Distended Bladder
 Peritonitis
 Pelvic inflammatory disease

8. The nurse is preparing to administer an I.M. injection in a client with a spinal cord injury that has
resulted in paraplegia. Which of the following muscles is best site for the injection in this case ?

 Deltoid
 Dorsal gluteal
 Vastus lateralis
 Ventral gluteal

9. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. The physician orders 600 mg of ceftriaxone
(Rocephin) oral suspension to be given once per day. The medication label indicates that the strength is
150 mg/5ml. How many milliliters of medication should the nurse pour to administer the correct dose ?

 2.5 ml
 4 ml
 10 ml
 20 ml

10. Which type of nursing intervention does the nurse perform when she administers oral care to a clie
nt?

 Supervisory
 Educational
 Psychomotor
 Maintenance
11. An obese client has returned to the unit after receiving sedation and electroconvulsive therapy. The
nurse requests assistance moving the client from the stretcher to the bed. There are 2 people available
to assist. Which of the following is the best method of transfer for this patient?

 Carry lift
 Lift sheet transfer
 Sliding board
 Hydraulic lift

12. The nurse is to collect a sputum specimen from a client. The best time to collect this specimen is:

 in the morning, as soon as the client awakens.

 anytime during the day.
 early in the evening.
 before bedtime.

13. The nurse is assessing the reflexes of a newborn. The nurse assesses which of the following
reflexes by placing a finger in the newborn’s mouth?

 Moro reflex
 Sucking reflex
 Rooting reflex
 Babinski reflex

14. In adults, Normal endotracheal suction pressure?

 40-90 mm of Hg
 70-140 mm of Hg
 130- 180 mm of Hg
 180-320 mm of Hg

15. The primary goal of therapy for a client with pulmonary edema and heart failure?

 Enhance comfort
 Improve respiratory status
 Peripheral edema decreased
 Increase cardiac output

*16. SABLA Scheme focuses on

 Destitute women
 Maternity benefits
 Victims of commercial sexual exploitation
 Adolescent girls

17. The vaccine which is given as intramuscular injection

 Measles vaccine
 BCG
 DT
 OPV

18. The green stick type of fracture is common in which of the following group

 children
 elderly people
 women
 obese persons
19. Venom of cobra attacks on

 Digestive system
 Nervous system
 Circulatory system
 Respiratory system

20. Puerperium is the period in a woman’s life which is

 First week after her first menstruation

 First 6 weeks after delivery
 First 2 weeks after marriage
 Period from conception to delivery

*21. Following is not a staff under primary health center

 Medical officer
 Health worker female
 Lab technician
 CT scan technician

22. Following is a disease spread through the urine of rats

 Leptospirosis
 Chikungunya
 Malaria
 Dengue fever

23. At how many weeks of gestation, uterus reaches the level of umbilicus

 32 weeks
 20 weeks
 22 weeks
 12 weeks

24. MDT is a treatment approach for which disease

 AIDS
 Leprosy
 Tuberculosis
 Hepatitis

25. Mission Indradhanush is a programme related to

 Palliative care
 Antenatal care
 Immunization
 Mental health

1. One of the following drug causes reddish discoloration of urine ?

 Isoniazid
 PAS
 Rifampicin
 Ethambutol

2. The muscle relaxant of choice in patients with liver disease is ?

 Rocuronium
 Pancuronium
 Atracurium
 Tubo Curarine

3. Antiseptic solution containing bleaching powder is ?

 AF lotion
 Magsulf solution
 Mercurochrome solution
 Eusol

4. Bile is secreted by ?

 Liver cells
 Hepatic duct
 Cystic duct
 Gall bladder

*5. The mode of human to human transmission of Ebola Virus Disease ?

 Airborne
 Direct contact
 Vector borne
 Water

6. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a
hemorroidectomy?

 High fiber
 Low residue
 Bland
 Clear liquid

*7. Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is a voluntary agency related to the disease ?
 Tuberculosis
 Filaria
 Malaria
 Leprosy

*8. The control of ………….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease ?
 Mosquito
 Rat flea
 Cyclops
 Sand fly

9. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

 1-10% formalin
 1% crude phenol
 5% cresol
 8% bleaching powder

10. Zero dose of polio vaccine means ?

 No vaccination
 No antibody response
 Dose before first dose
 Vaccination at mobile camps

11. All are components of under five clinic except ?

 Patient referral treatment

 Growth monitoring
 Oral rehydration
 Immunization

12. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is ?

 10-99 degree C
 20-79 degree C
 20-60 degree C
 10-60 degree C

13. One teaspoon contains …………. ml ?

 2 ml
 25 ml
 5 ml
 15 ml

14. Mode of transmission of Pertussis ?

 Faecoral
 Through contaminated water
 Droplet infection
 Vector transmission

15. ……… is the permanent method of sterilization ?

 MTP
 D&C
 Tubectomy
 Diaphragm

16. Total weight gain during pregnancy is ?

 7-8 kg
 13-14 kg
 10-11 kg
 15-16 kg

17. Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called ?

 Streptomycin
 Neomycin
 Tetracycline
 Penicillin

18. A trial septal defect occurs due to the persistence of ?

 Formen ovale
 Mitral valve
 Ductus venosus
 Ductus arteriosis
 19. Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is called ?

 Biomagnification
 Biochemical oxygen demand
 Eutrophication
 Algal bloom

20. Birth weight of a child triples by ?

 One and a half years

 Six months
 One year
 Two years

21. Which of the following neurotransmitter is known to be associated with sleep, mood and appetite ?

 Acetylcholine
 Dopamine
 Serotonin
 GABA

22. MAO inhibitors produce mood elevation because they ?

 Block synthesis of dopamine

 Increase synthesis of serotonin
 Decrease breakdown of serotonin
 None of the above

25. Which of the following vaccination is recently recommended for adolescent girls ?

 Tetanus toxoid
 Rubella vaccine
 Penta vaccine
 Typhoid vaccine

1. PAP smear is a simple test to predict the occurrence of __________ in females.

 Ovarian cancer
 Breast cancer
 Oral cancer
 Cervical cancer

2. The relationship of foetal head and limb to it’s trunk is ___________

 Attitude
 Lie
 Presentation
 Polarity

3. Anganwadis function under which central government programme

 BSS
 ICDS
 NMEP
 NRHM

4. What is the management of postpartum haemorrhage?

 Give oxytocic drug

 Start an IV infusuion
 Massage uterine fundus in circular motion
 All the above

5. Which of the following is a description of a 3rd degree tear after delivery?

 2 cm long tear on right medio lateral area of vagina after labour

 A tear involving vaginal muscles
 A tear involving anal sphincter
 A tear extending into vaginal mucosa

6. A child doubles it’s birth weight at

 6 months
 8 months
 10 months
 12 months

7. Photo therapy is used to treat __________ in newborns.

 Physiological jaundice
 Anemia
 Convulsions
 Fever

8. For a poor anaemic woman which of the following foods may be added to her diet in plenty

 Milk and curds

 Green leafy vegetables
 Fruits
 Cucumber

9. Kidneys are composed of millions of functional units called ___________

 Neurones
 Rod cells
 Nephrons
 Follicles

10. Which day is observed as world TB Day?

 October 30
 September 29
 February 14
 March 24

11. _________ is added to water to remove temporary hardness.

 Calcium hydroxide
 Ion exchange resins
 Sodium carbonate
 Calcium carbonate

12. __________ is the best spacing method for a woman who has one child.

 Copper T
 Tubectomy
 Oral pills
 Vasectomy

13. MTP act came into force in India in the year _____________.
 1971
 1948
 1986
 1969

14. Which of the following statements about the rights of children in India is false?

 A child has the right for physical emotional and social development
 A child’s right to survival begins from birth
 A child has the right to be protected against all sorts of abuse
 A child has the right to participate in any decision directly involving himself

15. The causative agent of Diphtheria is ___________.

 Bordetella
 Salmonella
 Coryne bacterium
 Mycobacterium

16. Obesity is defined as a body mass index

 more than 30
 less than 18
 between 25 to 29
 From 20 to 25

17. AIDS is transmitted by

 Bite of bed bugs

 Sitting on same bench with a patient
 Sexual contact with a patient
 Shaking hands with a patient

18. The incubation period of influenza is

 1-2 days
 1-2 weeks
 15-20 days
 1-6 months

19. The following is a measure to control dengue fever epidemic in your locality

 washing hands before eating food

 drinking only boiled water
 remove all collections of water from old tyres, broken toys etc
 covering mouth and nose while in public places with a mask

20. The following is an advice given to an ante natal woman

 Do not wear cotton garments

 Do not eat fruits in early pregnancy
 Do not take vitamin supplements
 Do not take over the counter medicines

21. Which of the following is a true statement about breast feeding?

 Breast feeding will not help in weight gain of a newborn baby

 If a baby develops diarrhoea breast feeding may be stopped temporarily
 Breast feeding should be started 2 hours after normal delivery
 Breast feeding promotes bonding between mother and baby
 22. Meconium is __________

 Blood in urine
 First stool of a new born
 Breast milk produced in the first few days after delivery
 Discharge from uterus after delivery

23. Pentavalent vaccine will NOT protect a baby against the following disease

 Hepatitis
 Pertussis
 Polio
 Diphtheria

24. Ratio of cardiac compression to ventilation in giving basic life support for an adult is

 15 : 2
 20 : 2
 30 : 2
 40 : 2

25. Oral pills should not be given to a woman with

 Menstrual problems
 Hypertension
 Asthma
 Vaginal infection

Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of:

1. 10-15 years
2. 2-3 years
3. 20-25 years - Given
4. 1 year

The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is:

1. DPT
2. yellow fever - Given
3. influenza
4. meningitis

Quickening means:

1. Hearing of the fetal heart sound

2. The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother - Given
3. Nausa and vomiting in the morning
4. Sudden cessation of Menstruation

Modifiable risk factors in case of Hypertension include all, EXCEPT:

1. Obesity
2. Salt intake
3. Alcohol intake
4. Age - Given
 Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization Programme:

1. 6 months
2. 18 months
3. 9 Months - Given
4. 6 weeks

Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through milk is all, EXCEPT:

1. Brucellosis
2. Malaria - Given
3. Q fever
4. Tuberculosis

Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

1. lateral aspect of thigh

2. forearm
3. deltoid - Given
4. gluteal

Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during

1. incubation period
2. prodromal period
3. onset of swelling - Given
4. after swelling appears

Shick test is done in:

1. pertussis
2. polimyelitis
3. diphtheria - Given
4. meningitis

The diseases notifiable to the WHO under the International Regulation Act are all except:

1. Yellow Fever
2. Cholera
3. Diphtheria - Given
4. Plague

Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called:

1. Streptomycin
2. Penicillin
3. Tetracycline - Given
4. Neomycin

Saturated fatty acids are all, EXCEPT:

1. Palmitic
 2. Lauric
3. Stearic
4. Oleic - Given

Red man syndrome is associated with:

1. Vancomycin - Given
2. Chloramphenicol
3. Erythromycin
4. Tetracycline

The bacillus that causes plague is called:

1. C. perfringens
2. Fusobacterium clostridiformis
3. S. aureus
4. Yersinia pestis - Given

Which of the following drugs has neuromuscular blocking adverse effect?

1. Cephalosporin
2. Macrolides
3. Aminoglycosides - Given

Which of the following is a orally effective first-generation cephalosporin?

1. Ceftriaxone
2. Cefazolin
3. Cephalexin
4. Ceftazidime - Given

Ciprofloxacin is a belongs to which group of antibiotics?

1. macrolide
2. aminoglycosides
3. cephalosporin - Given
4. fluoroquinolone

Which of the following is NOT a macrlide group of antibiotics?

1. Roxithromycin
2. Erythromycin - Given
3. Azithromycin
4. Gentamicin

Grey baby syndrome, seen in infants, characterised by progressive abdominal distention, pallor,

cyanosis and vasomotor collapse 3-4 days are asscociated with used of:

1. sulphadiazine
2. chloramphenicol. - Given
3. clindamycin
4. Vancomycin
Nitrofurantoin is a bactericidal agent used for the treatment of:

1. urinary tract infections - Given

2. skin infections
3. staphylococcal infections
4. respiratory tract infections

Which of the following is a bacteriostatic, which acts by reversible inhibition of ribosomal protein

synthesis?

1. Tetracyclines
2. Isoniazid - Given
3. Vancomycin
4. Cephalosporins

Fluoroquinolones are NOT effective against:

1. klebsiella
2. proteus
3. clostridium difficile
4. pseudomonas - Given

Patients with G6PD deficiency may develop haemolysis when treated with_:

1. Isoniazid
2. E rythromycin
3. Cephalosporins
4. Sulphonamides - Given

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Vibrio cholerae were identified by:

1. Robert Koch (1843-1910)

2. Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)
3. Van Helmholtz (1843) - Given
4. Van Leeuwenhoek (1683),

Which of the following antibiotics is effective only against gram-positive bacteria?

1. Streptomycin
2. Pencillins - Given
3. Gentamicin
4. Amikacin

Bone marrow depression is an adverse reaction of :

1. Azithromycin
2. Netilmycin
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Tetracycline - Given

Which of the following antibiotics is specifically effective against anerobic bacteria?

1. Amphotericin B
2. Erythromycin
3. Metronidazole
4. Gentamicin - Given