Criminalistics Set One

CRIMINALISTICS SET ONE
CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Second Day - 8:00 p.m. – 11:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINALISTICS SET ONE
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful

class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
A
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and
proper, should contain a cross section of the material from known
sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
C
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
C
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
D
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
B
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.

A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
D
7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of
the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius bone
of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
D
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
D
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the
divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
C
10. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop
except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
B
11. The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint
ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
B
12. The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
C
13. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround
the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
C
14. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
C
15. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not
clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
D
16. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
D
17. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
B
18. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between
two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
D
19. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals
around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
A
20. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of
the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
C
21. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given
scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
B
22. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection
of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
D
23. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
A
24. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
C
25. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens
for a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitised material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
C
26. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
D
27. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

A. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Sodium Sulfite
D. Hydroquinone
B
28. A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
A. view finder
B. lens
C. shutter
D. light tight box
B
29. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of
the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
B
30. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood
pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
A
31. A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or
pulls the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the
rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
D
32. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
the questions in a polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
D
33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a detection

of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
D
34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears
to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
A
35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
A
36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction
A
37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics
A
38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action
B
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or
cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor
B. Ejector
C. Striker
D. Trigger
B
40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw
B. Range
C. Velocity
D. Trajectory
D
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
C
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.
A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Baterry Primer
D. Boxer Primer
D
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the
bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
D
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
B
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A. Calibre
B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge
D. Rifling
A
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
D
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
D
48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
A
49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and
for the purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards
D
50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
D. shading
C
51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of
acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
C
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the
intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by
which some disposition of agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
D
53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned
document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
C. standard document
D. compared document
C
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
D
55. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or

deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
B
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or
picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
A
57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of
the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
D
58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private
parties but notarised by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
C
59. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
C
60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused
drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine
D
61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and
composition of the following except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
A
62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?
A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
B
63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as
A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. “shabu”
D
64. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
A
65. The body of the crime.
A. Evidence
B. body of the victim
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
D
66. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.
A. Demerol
B. Caffeine
C. Morphine
D. nicotine
C
67. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is
tampering of serial number in
A. Typewriter
B. Firearm
C. Prisoners
D. Bank notes
B
68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to determine if
it was
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut
D
69. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in
the human body except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
D. Blood test
C
70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the examination

of evidence.
A. Forensic Medicine
B. Forensic Evidence
C. Criminalistics
D. Forensic Chemistry
D
71. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process.
A. Dialysis
B. Dilution
C. Distillation
D. Extraction C
72. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
A. Casting
B. Cementing
C. Moulage
D. Sticking
C
73. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly in
stained clothing.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberio’s Test
C. Microscopic Test
D. Ultra-Violet Test
A
74. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained material.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberio’s Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Phenolphtalein Test
C
75. It is the major component of a glass.
A. Lime
B. Soda
C. Silica
D. Gel
C
76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.
A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants
A
77. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
D
78. The study and identification of body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology
B
79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test
B
80. The circulating tissue of the body.
A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
A
81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,
circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death
D
82. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
B. minimum of six weeks
C. minimum of four weeks
D. minimum of two weeks
C
83. DNA stands for
A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
B
84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNE testing and
fingerprinting.
A. Alec Jeffries
B. Lowell C. Van Berkom
C. William Reynolds
D. Henry Van Dyke
A
85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of
oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
B
86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and
massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
C
87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in
the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and
starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
A
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger
one’s life.
A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
D. superficial wound
A
89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.
A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
C
90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external
wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
D
91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the

body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot
C. frostbite
D. gangrene
C
92. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual experience but not
had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
A
93. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or
has diffused to different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity
B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity
D. rigor mortis
B
94. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects left
in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
A. testimonial evidence
B. hearsay evidence
C. circumstantial evidence
D. physical evidence
D
95. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the conditions
governing that motion.
A. Ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. External Ballistics
A
96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.
A. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Ballistics
D. Forensic Medicine
D
97. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the
action of electro magnetic radiation rays.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Photography
D. Chemistry
C
98. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.
A. Endometer
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. ananometer
C
99. The scientific detection of deception.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Toxycology
D. Chemistry
A
100.The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder residue in
the hands of a suspect.
A. diphenylamine test
B. ultra violet test
C. paraffin test
D. Simon’s Test
C
Martes, Setyembre 17, 2013
CRIMINALISTICS SET TWO

Second Day - 8:00 p.m. – 11:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINALISTICS SET TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The following are types of medical evidence, except:

A. Photographic evidence
B. Experimental evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Autoptic evidence
B
2. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Palmistry
C
3. Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
A. Fingerprinting
B. Handwriting
C. Dental identification
D. Identification by close friends and relatives
D
4. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of
two persons compared, the greater the probability for the conclusion t
be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
A
5. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means
A. application of medicine to legal cases
B. application of medical science to elucidate legal
problems
C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
B
6. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the

following, except
A. Magnus test
B. Diaphanous test
C. I card’s test
D. Winslow’s test
C
7. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to
conduct death investigation, except -
A. Public Prosecutor
B. Judges of the regional trial court
C. Director PNP
D. SOCO team
B
8. The following statements are important in death determination. Which is
not valid?
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished
by death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the
heirs, if not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by
death
B
9. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
D
10. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ
Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Molecular Death
D. Cellular Death
A
11. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the
administration of Justice. Which of the following is the commonly used
method of deception detection?
A. Lie detection method
B. Hypnotism
C. Use of drugs
D. Confession
A
12. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in

A. 3-6 minutes
B. 3-6 hours
C. 20-30 minutes
D. 20-30 hours
A
13. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:
A. Hypostatic pressure
B. Diffusion
C. Gravitational pressure
D. All of the above
D
14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result of
suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the ligature.
What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
E
15. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the
following. Which one is not valid?
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be
stripped into layers
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots
are removed
C
16. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:
A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
B
17. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained Physician, to
determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
A
18. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidence
A
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or underneath
the mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them
A
20. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific
examination/identification?
A. Dental examination
B. Fingerprinting
C. Photography
D. Pictures Parle
B
21. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.
A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis
D. None of these
C
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of ascertaining the judicial
power/proceeding, the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A. Polygraph
B. Evidence
C. Lie detector
D. All of these
B
23. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:
A. Description
B. Perception
C. Identification
D. All of these
C
24. Types of fingerprint patters, except:
A. Arches
B. Ordinary
C. Loop
D. Whorl
B
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual,
preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any means
except sexual intercourse which results to bodily excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
D
26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is

characterized by a small opening of the wound.
A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
D
27. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for work
or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not more than
30 days.
A. Slight physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
D. less serious physical injury
D
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to
remedy:
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
C. Chemical burn
D. Radiation burn
D
29. The metal tube through which the bullet is fired is called
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Baretta
D. Bromet
B
30. The old form of gunpowder invented over a thousand years ago and
consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur.
A. Chinese Powder
B. Black Powder
C. Gray Powder
D. All of these
B
31. The inside of the barrel is generally termed as
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Rifling
D. Primer
A
32. The portion of the gun which is held or shouldered is called
A. Buckle
B. Buttstock
C. Handle
D. End joint
B
33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge ready
for firing is called
A. Gas tube
B. Chamber
C. Double-action
D. Trigger
B
34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate the
powder.
A. Spring
B. Trigger guard
C. Hammer
D. Revolver
C
35. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for
loading into the chamber. Also referred to as a "clip".
A. Clipper
B. Holder
C. Pin or pinhead
D. None of these
D
36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the sound of
a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
A. Buffer
B. Silencer
C. Magazine
D. Hanger
B
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American occupation in
the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint file has been
established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, the first
Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
A
38. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on
the science of fingerprinting was the case of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
A
39. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They
contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the type
of hair.
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
B
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said that an
intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of all forgeries
by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and
measuring tools?
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
C
41. In police photography studies, what are called the thin, gelatinous,
light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture the
color and shadings of a scene?
A. Films
B. Emulsions
C. Chemical Coatings
D. None of these
B
42. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to pass
though, they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of it is
called
A. Opaque object
B. Convection
C. Visible light
D. Prisms
A
43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions unrelated to
the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less
serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
C
44. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of
the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the
investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like the
print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
A
45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of any
appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
B
46. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or more
rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
B
47. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint
which maybe compared with the low area in a tire tread.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
C
48. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the quality of
paper that does not allow light to pass through or which prevents dark
objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
A
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
B
50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application of
chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
B
51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and
identification of rocks, rock forming minerals and soil. Also
includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and other such
materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
A
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. All of these
D
53. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon
called
A. attraction
B. diffraction
C. light curve
D. light fingerprint
B
54. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends upon the
angle of the light striking the material, which is referred to as the
A. angle of incidence
B. angle of biometry
C. angle of light
D. none of these
A
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure generated within the chamber
erroneously called breeched pressure?
A. Chamber Pressure
B. Barrel Pressure
C. Gunpowder
D. None of these
A
56. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the
projectile is called
A. Power to speed ratio
B. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio
C. Firing pin stroke ratio
D. All of these
B
57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to cause

the high explosives to exert full power of shock. The speed varies in
different explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards in a
second. This refers to
A. Energy
B. Gas
C. Detonation
D. Gun powder
C
58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in
firing?
A. Knocking Power
B. Hang fire
C. Recoil
D. None of these
B
59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued for purposes of
identification since time immemorial as found on a Chinese clay seal
made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
A. Hua Chi
B. Mah Whang
C. Wong Cho
D. Tiang Hin
A
60. Who has given the fame title as “Father of Dactyloscopy”?
A. Johannes Purkinje
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Charles Darwin
D. Sir Francis Galton
A
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to prevent
fraudulent collection of army pay account and for identification of
other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Alphose Bertillon
A
62. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to the
publication in 1882 of his book “Fingerprints.” That established the
individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns.
A. Francis Galton
B. Gilbert Thompson
C. Wayne Kate
D. Alphonse Bertillon
A
63. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to erase
his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time went by the
ridges were again restored to their “natural” feature.
A. John Feilding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
C
64. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
B
65. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a “Y” shape
formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
B
66. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at least
one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
A
67. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
D. Dr. John Larson
A
68. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?
A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. Blood
C
69. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are
contested either in whole or part with respect to its authen-
ticity, identity, or origin.
A. Questioned document
B. Illegal document
C. Falsified document
D. Disputed facts
A
70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which, if
adequate and proper, should contain a cross section of the
material from a known source for questioned document examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
B
71. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize
known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
B
72. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or
competent public official with solemnities required by law, it is
called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
B
73. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to make
the original invisible to as an addition?
A. Obliteration
B. Obscuration
C. Forged
D. None of these
A
74. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion. In
Court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the reasons for
arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
C
75. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with the
source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the
paper. Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations and some
other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
D
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just
below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). These
visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
B
77. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as
whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort. Some defined
it as “visible speech.”
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
C
78. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the whole
of writing or line of individual letters in words to the baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
B
79. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document examination
commonly called to as the identifying details si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
B
80. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their
identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but also the
mental act in which the element of one item are related to the
counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
D. Recording
C
81. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is
called
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
C. Sidestroke
D. None of these
A
82. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under
particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements,
and with a particular reason and purpose for recording his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
B. Freehand forged signature
C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
D
83. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and
banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or imitate; to make
a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the intent to
deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
A
84. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
B
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented the
first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
A
86. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of
rifling firearms?
A. Pinometer
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper
B
87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the firearms
examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity between two
fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously observing their
magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device
B. Compound microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
D. Photographic microscope
C
88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 “x”12”x 96, with a hinged to cover and with
one end open. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton and
separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in ballistics.
A. Firing point box
B. Bullet recovery box
C. Slug collection box
D. All of these
B
89. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and types.
What are the films that are sensitive to radiation?
A. Chrome Films
B. X-Ray Films
C. B&W Films
D. Colored Films
B
90. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of black and
white photography because it produces the most natural recording of
colors?
A. Panchromatic film
B. Chrome Films
C. X-Ray Films
D. Color Films
A
91. One film maybe rated ISO – 100, and another film ISO- 200. This means
that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitive to light)
than the ISO-100 film. This statement is
A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. partly false
A
92. Among the following speed of film, which has the fastest speed?
A. ISO – 25
B. ISO – 100 to ISO – 200
C. ISO – 400
D. ISO – 1000 and up
D
93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to
focus after passing through a lens, focusing of light of different
colors at different points resulting in a blurred image.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
C
94. What is the defect in which the light coming from an off-axis object
point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the object
is a vertical line, the cross section of the refracted beam at
successively greater distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads out again, and later
becomes a vertical line
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
A
95. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused
subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic
image.
A. Focus
B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick
D. Aperture
B
96. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object can be
stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced without blurring,
or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus
B. Shutter speed
C. Aperture
D. Lens
B
97. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet would not stay pointed
forward in flight, but would tumble over and over. The spinning motion
increases the accuracy of a bullet.
A. Bore
B. Gunpowder
C. Rifling
D. Shell
C
98. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in the
breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
A
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening
ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core
and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
A
100.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood is
the
A. Plasma count
B. Serum test
C. Benzidine test
D. Barberio’s test
C
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

First Day - 03:30 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippinesto suspend the

execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal
liability.
A. Parole
B. Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D. President’s clemency
B
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J
C
3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer,
which is not included?
A. The trick and treat techniques
B. The executive techniques
C. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
D. The manipulative techniques
A
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
A. Penology School
B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical
D. Positivist
B
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems
A. Meeting
B. Working
C. Recreation
D. Counselling
D
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting,

accounting, and other activities related to financial services. It
consolidates and prepares financial reports and related statements of
subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch
B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch
A
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any
time. His beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be
opened at anytime, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice
is known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound
D
8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment
D
9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of
penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner
C
10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has
not been convicted is a -
A. Detention Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
D. City Prisoner
A
11. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. Commutation
B. Reform model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
B
12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System

charged with the responsibility for the custody, supervision, and
rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. conviction
B. corrections
C. penalty
D. punishment
B
13. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?
A. before conviction
B. before trial
C. after conviction
D. during service of sentence
B
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal
job during the week and return to the jail to serve his sentence
during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
C. probation
D. delayed sentence
D
15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Redress
D. Expiration or atonement
C
16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.
A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
D. serve the sentence
A
17. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by showing to
others what would happen to them if they have committed the heinous
crime.
A. Protection
B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
D. Stoning
B
18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Encarceration
B
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
C. Application from C.H.R
D. Concurrence of the congress
D
20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the
A. Director
B. Secretary of the DND
C. Chief of Executive
D. Prison Inspector
A
21. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual
regeneration of the prisoner?
A. None of these
B. Work programs
C. Education programs
D. Religious programs
D
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to
enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius
therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less than
25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. None of these
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
B
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to others is
the theory of
A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality
C
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to
A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender
B. prevent the commission of offenses
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing
him with individualized treatment
D. All of these
D
25. In the Philippines, the most common problem of the National Prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes
B. Overcrowding
C. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding
D
26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume the
suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain
B
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;
A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition
B
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes
foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the
inmates. It maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and
submits a daily report to the Warden.
A. General Services Branch
B. Mittimus Computing Branch
C. Budget and Finance
D. Mess services Branch
D
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines
Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice
B. Judiciary
C. Chief Executive
D. Legislative
C
30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty
A
31. Parole is a matter of ___.
A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Grace
D. Requirement
A
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as
the super security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside
the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners
A
33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
A. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Director of Prison
D. Court
B
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed
upon him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
D
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less
serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. none of these
B
36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a
matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. none of these
B
37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the
individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his anti-social
behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
C. change
D. aggravate his behavior
C
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.
A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health
B
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3)
years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner
D
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
D. Warden
B
41. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. Lock up Jails
D. Insular Jails
B
42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American
Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the said jails?
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. DOJ
D. Municipal or City Mayor
B
43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization
A
44. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court
action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences or
penalty of imprisonment?
A. Jail
B. Lock-up
C. Penitentiary
D. Detention Cells
A
45. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature
of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the
convicted offender for service of sentence or detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Detention Mittimus
C. Sentence Mittimus
D. Detention Warrant
C
46. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who by
authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws
and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is
called –
A. custody
B. safe-keeping
C. classification
D. caring
A
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders
according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health,
criminal record, etc.?
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Security
D. Safe-keeping
A
48. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners in the
Philippines is the
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution
B
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which
exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or
prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru the
recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
C
50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform
for maximum security prison is -
A. Orange
B. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
D. Blue
A
51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it means:
A. He has taken the process of identification, record, fingerprint and
photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these
B
52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he
A. earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. serve minimum sentence
C. earned good behavior while serving prison term
D. all of these
D
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest
objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offenders
A
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are confined
at the
A. NBP Main Prison
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Sampaguita
D. Medium Security Prison
C
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary
cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board
D
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has
served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
C
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of the
Custodial Division?
A. Supervision of prisoners
B. Escort of inmates or prisoners
C. Keeping of records
D. None of the above
B
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the
latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention
A
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the
Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Davao
D. Occidental Mindoro
D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest code
prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly 100 years
older.
A. Hammurabic Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Justinian Code
D. Code of Draco
B
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance with law.
B
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Censor offender’s items
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
D
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just
been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall
immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or the director
A
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall
immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escapees
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning shots
A
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants
probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six
(6) years?
A. PD 603
B. RA 698
C. PD 968
D. PD 869
C
66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer

is known as –
A. Affiliation Guidance
B. Pre-sentenced Investigation
C. Supervision
D. Probation Guidance
C
67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
B
68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been regarded
the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate recidivism and
habitual offenders.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
C. court
D. correction
D
69. The traditional goal of penology is
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
B
70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
B
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not
commit another crime in the future.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
D
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of
society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison
sentence.
A. Reintegration
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation
A
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and served as
training schools for delinquent youths, provided housing and support
for older and poorer persons, and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections
B. Workhouses
C. Common jails
D. Penal colonies
B
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of
all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better system
of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation Administration
A
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
C
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody
and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those sentenced to
serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years
A. BJMP
B
77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women (CIW),
Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are
all under this agency.
A. BJMP
D. Department of Justice
B
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less
costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to
respond to individualized community based treatment programs.
A. BJMP
D
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
D
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
A
81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the termpenitentiaries)
through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
A
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside
the institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
B
83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person served
a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large,
subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
C
84. An alternative to incarceration that allows convicted persons to remain
at large and under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and
certain conditions imposed by the granting court.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
A
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons

awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a
short period of time.
A. Halfway houses
B. Penal colonies
C. Jails
D. All of these
C
86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted
offenders for longer or extended period of time, including those who
are waiting their death sentence.
A. Halfway house
B. Farm house
C. Jail
D. Prison
D
87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)is
A. RA 8551
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975
D. RA 4890
C
88. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three
(3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up
C
89. This theory in criminology states that people are totally responsible
for their behaviors and the stress is more on the effect of their
felonious act than upon the criminal.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Psychological Theory
C. Biological Theory
D. Classical Theory
D
90. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the
concurrence of congress?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole
C
91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____
Correctional Program.
A. Institutional
B. Integrated
C. Community – based
D. Traditional
C
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred
to as _______.
A. a corporal punishment
B. a determinate sentence
C. an indeterminate sentence
D. a capital punishment
C
93. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses
incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty described?
A. Bond
B. Retribution
C. Restitution
D. Renumeration
C
94. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or good
producing tasks?
A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative
C
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling,
prostitution and drunkenness?
A. Complex Crime
B. Organized crimes
C. Blue Collar crimes
D. Victimless crimes
D
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and
qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
D
97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?
A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates.
B
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals
convicted and meted out the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day
B
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal

disorders, chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. None of these
B. Age Reform
C. Age of Discernment
D. Age of Reason
A
100.What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A. Rehabilitation center
B. Jail
C. Halfway house
D. Prison
B
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

First Day - 03:30 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

1. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as

amended is known as
A. Correction Law
B. Jail Management Law
C. Prison Law
D. Parole and Probation Law
C
2. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement
used to hold back, keep in check or under control is the
A. Instrument of Restraint
B. Iron leg Lock
C. Handcuffs
D. Metallic chains
A
3. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of
information and other data of every prisoner into a case study to
determine the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of
custody and restriction under which an offender must live in
jail?
A. Classification Board
B. Board of Custody
C. Diagnostic Board
D. Treatment Board
A
4. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the
rate of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to
pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to
as
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Secondary Imprisonment
C. Preventive Imprisonment
A
5. The meaning of the word oblivion is
A. forgetting completely
B. class of persons
C. abolish
D. community based treatment
A
6. The process of determining the needs and requirements of

prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their
existing resources is called:
A. classification
B. quarantine
C. diversification
D. quality control
C
7. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:
A. public execution
B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. public trial
B
8. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be
sent away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming
against a specified territory. This is an ancient form of
punishment called:
A. Exile
B. Transportation
C. Banishment
D. Public trial
C
9. One of the following represents the earliest codification
of the Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
A. Twelve Tables
B. Burgundian Code
C. Code of Draco
D. Hammurabic code
A
10. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory movement
were the major influences of today’s correctional system. Alexander
Mochanochie was the one who introduced the __ of correction
A. Solitary system
B. Irish System
C. Marked System
D. Congregate system
C
11. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during
the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
A. E.O 727
B. E.O 292
C. E.O 645
D. E.O 104
B
12. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the
primitive society). The concept follows that the victim’s family or
tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence “blood feuds”
was accepted in the early primitive societies. Retaliation means:
A. Personal Vengeance
B. Tooth for a tooth
C. Eye for an Eye
D. All of these
A
13. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the
Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training
school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila
City Jail, famous as the :
A. “ May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail
A
14. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune
to prison reform. After his findings on English Prisons, he
recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation of
women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities, and
abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from
prisoners.
A. John Howard
B. Robert Peel
C. William Penn
D. Manuel Montesimos
A
15. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days from the
promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his place of
confinement. He maybe
A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. All of these
A
16. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving
her sentence she committed again the same crime. Ms Ines Bantog maybe
considered as a
A. recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinguent
D. mentally retarded person
A
17. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto for some legal ground but he
failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the prescribed
period of filing. What crime did Ramon committed?
A. arbitrary detention
B. illegal Detention
C. illegal arrest
D. no crime committed
B
18. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Medium Security Prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
C
19. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built under the
main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Wulnut Street Jail
C. Burgundian House
D. none of these
D
20. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is
violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of
imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced.
Offenders should be punished because they deserve it. This is one
justification of punishment called:
A. Atonement
B. Incapacitation
C. Deterrence
D. Retribution
D
21. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:
A. do away with the miscarriage of justice
B. break the rigidity of the law
C. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
D. all of the above
D
22. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the
frisking of the prisoner.
A. Identification
B. Searching
C. Briefing/Orientation
D. minimum security prisoners
B
23. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he
ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the __________
officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
B. Assistant
C. Most senior
D. Custodian
C
24. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the court
shall resolve the application for probation not later than-
A. 60 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 45 days
B
25. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
A. Jose Lacson
B. Juan Ponce Enrile
C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these
D
26. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal
justice under it’s common law, originated probation.
A. England
B. United States
C. Greece
D. France
A
27. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to
which the emergence of probation is attributed?
A. Recognizance
B. Reprieve
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance
D
28. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, sanctuary, and abjuration offered
offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of
A. harsh sentences
B. soft sentences
C. criminal liabilities
D. code of Hammurabi
A
29. In the United States, particularly in Massachusetts, different

practices were being developed. "Security for good behavior," also
known as good aberrance, was much like modern bail.
A. Penalizing
B. Good aberrance
C. Paying in cash
D. Collateral
B
30. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San Michelle, a
reformatory for delinquent boys
A. Montesquieu
B. Pope Clement XI
C. Samuel Romily
D. John Howard
B
31. The advocate of ultimate prison known as “the Panopticon” was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Samuel Romily
C. Walter Crofton
D. John Howard
A
32. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published a
short treaties “ On Crimes and Punishments” which contains his
reformatory ideas was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Enrico Ferri
C
33. Diversification means
A. Proper integration of prisoners
B. Proper classification of prisoners
C. Proper segregation of prisoners
D. Welfare of prisoners
C
34. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the
A. Mental hospital
B. CIW
C. Manila City Jail
D. Iwahig Penal Colony
B
35. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity
immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. ½ reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence
A
36. What is the name of the prison institution situated in Zamboanga, named
after Capt. Blanco of the Spanish Royal Army?
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Penal
C
37. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treat of their nature
and provides for their punishment
A. Remedial law
B. Criminal law
C. Civil law
D. Political law
B
38. One who investigates for the court a referral for probation or
supervises a probationer or both
A. police officer
B. probationer officer
C. intelligence officer
D. law enforcer
B
39. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the probation
officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
C
40. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
A. determinate sentence law
B. Indeterminate sentence law
C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration
B
41. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state prison
and became the first American penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Bride Well
B
42. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in single
cells at night and congregate work in stop during the day
A. Pennsylvania prison
B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory
D. Alcatraz prison
B
43. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C. Custodial officer
D. Security officer
B
44. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable and
dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside prisons.
A. Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
B
45. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in reformation
n which includes all the life experiences which shape a persons
attitudes and behaviors
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program
C
46. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly
movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital and
churches in accordance with the daily schedules
A. Control
B. Custody
C. Discipline
D. Inspection
A
47. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners will
be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound
C. Maximum Security Compound
D. Minimum Security Compound
A
48. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized
disciplinary measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty
D
49. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine is
common among ancient laws, specifically the
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon
B
50. “Lex Tallionis” means
A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
D. Suffering
B
51. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to confine
criminals during the early period of treating criminal offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys
A
52. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also considered as
the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France
A
53. The first house of correction in London England was the
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon
A
54. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay
A. Walnut prison
B. Alcatraz prison
C. New York prison
D. Red Rock penitentiary
B
55. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations are
considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds
D. Personal belongings
B
56. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the

transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals.
A. Prevention
B. Revenge
C. Penalty
D. All of the above
C
57. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of the
A. Department of Finance
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B
58. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?
A. Formal
B. Summary
C. Due process
B
59. Which is considered the forerunner of parole?
A. Mark system
B. Solitary system
C. Benefits of a clergy
D. Congregate system
A
60. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of probation
except
A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. Cooperate with the program of probation
C
61. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by means of
Lethal injection was
A. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga
C. Leo Echagaray
D. Gregorio S. Mendoza
C
62. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming refugee in a
church for a period of 40 days at the end of which time he has
compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him.
A. Penalty
B. punishment
C. trial
D. conviction
D
63. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of
criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Stocks
B
64. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of
psychological hedonism” or __________. That the individual calculates
pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by
the result of his calculations.
A. denied individual responsibility
B. free will
C. pleasures and avoiding pain
D. natural phenomenon
C
65. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the world,
which have been extended to and adopted by all countries aside from
those that produced them. Among the three, it was the __________ that
has the most lasting and most pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law
B. Anglo-American Law
C. Roman Law
D. Hammurabic Code
C
66. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for
A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Slavery
C
67. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal
Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is considered
as the best reform institution for young offenders today.
A. Evelyn Brise
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Walter Crofton
C
68. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology because it
has all the elements in a modern system.
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys
B
69. Capital punishment refers to:

A. Life imprisonment
B. Death Penalty
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. All of these
B
70. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised by the
executive branch of the government.
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty
A
71. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive
A. extinguishes criminal liability of offender
B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender
C. must be given before the prosecution of the offense
D. all of the above
D
72. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 created the BJMP. It operates as
a line bureau under the Department of Interior and Local Government
(DILG). This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
C
73. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of Director
General, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of Chief
Superintendent. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
D
74. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of sound
custody, security and control of inmates and their movements and also
responsible to enforce prison or jail discipline is the:
A. Security group for jails
B. Escort Platoon
C. Control Center groups
D. Warden
A
75. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is
given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays,
vaccinations and immunity is the:
A. Quarantine cell
B. NBP
C. Death row
D. Control Area
A
76. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to custodial
coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy, thus drastically
narrowing his access to source of personal satisfaction and reducing
his self-esteem. This principle is based on the ____ of community
based treatment programs.
A. Restorative aspect
B. Humanitarian aspect
C. Managerial aspect
D. Legal aspect
A
77. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the
absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences of
conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it restores the pardonee
to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino
C. People vs. Galit
D. None of these
A
78. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the
following, except:
A. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
violation of any election law may be granted without
favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the court
D
79. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional
pardon, the following points shall be considered as guides, except:
A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation
of the prisoner should be disregarded.
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people
in the community from which he was sentenced.
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed
to prison – social, economic.
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner.
D
80. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting transfer,
those in disciplinary status, and those who are chronically ill with
mental disabilities are considered:
A. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs
B. all of these
C. special group of offenders
B
81. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it as a
privilege to a qualified prisoner. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
C
82. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with
accordingly. In extreme cases, where the violation necessitate
immediate action, the warden or the Officer of the Day may administer
the necessary restraints and reports the action taken to the
Disciplinary Board. The statement is:
A. an SOP
B. an emergency plan
C. a general rule
D. not applicable to prisoners
A
83. Which of the following is a maximum security prison inOssining, New
York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) north of New
York City on the banks of the Hudson River which the Auburn Prison
system was applied.
A. Alcatraz prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Silver Mine Farm
B
84. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate
unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general
population, also sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit
B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit
D. Cell 45
A
85. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where
criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Execution room
B. Death row
C. Garotine
D. Galley room
B
86. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in which
persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in solitary
confinement at night, with enforced silence at all times.
The Auburn system is also known as
A. Albany system
B. Irish system
C. New York System
D. None of these
C
87. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is aprison in Bedford
Hills, Westchester County, New York,USA. It is the largest women's
prison in New York Stateand has hosted many infamous prisoners. It is
the only women's maximum security prison in New York State. This
statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
A
88. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English
philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design was
derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”. “Opticon’ means:
A. to allow an observer to observe
B. with out the prisoner
C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner
A
89. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a maximum
security prison located in New York in theUSA. The prison is located
in Chemung County, New Yorkin the City of Elmira.
A. “the school”
B. “the hill”
C. “the rock”
D. “the dungeon”
B
90. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison Reform”
in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Alexander Mocanochie
A
91. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely determined
by its contribution to overallutility, that is, its contribution to
happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons. It is thus a form
of consequentialism, meaning that the moral worth of anaction is
determined by its outcome—the ends justify the means.
A. Hedonism
B. Positivism
C. Determinism
D. Penology
A
92. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which means
___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. out of prison
C
93. In the history of capital punishment, what do they call this frame,
typically wooden, used for execution byhanging?
A. Galley
B. Gallows
C. Hulk
D. Double blade
B
94. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with a
fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the death of
the subject. The main application for this procedure is capital
punishment. Which of the following drug is injected to stops the heart
thus causing death by cardiac arrest?
A. Sodium thiopental
B. Pancuronium
C. Potassium chloride
D. Bicarbonate
C
95. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an
execution method originating in the United States in which the person
being put to death is strapped to a specially built wooden chair
andelectrocuted through electrodes placed on the body. In
the Philippines, its first use was in :
A. 1924
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918
A
96. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer, and founder of
the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Mocanochie
C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. Sir John Watson
C
97. Besides religious laws such as the Torah, important codifications of

laws were developed in the ancientRoman Empire, with the compilations
of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum. This law refers to
A. the Corpus Juris Civilis
B. the Twelve Tables
C. the Hammurabic code
D. lex taliones
B
98. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in China,
with the compilation of the
A. Tang Code
B. Wong Code
C. Ting Code
D. Chang Code
A
99. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation and
uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental cruelty and
those especially long-time death row inmates are liable to
become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is referred to as
the
A. death row phenomenon
B. Cruelty syndrome
C. Execution syndrome
D. None of these
A
100.After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to
execution, they will remain on death row while following
an appeals procedure, if they so choose, and then until there is a
convenient time for __.
A. Execution
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty
A
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

First Day - 12:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the
same on all three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make
available maximum manpower at the time the police service is of
greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process
C
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy
and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
C
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the
rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
B
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in
Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several
types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
C
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,

and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or
more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or
potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
D
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature
and extent of the workload and the availability of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
B
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail
personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
D
8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of
___________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
C
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical
defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
B
10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board
(PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
D
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its

suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
D
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the ______________.
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
C
13. Registration of a security agency must be done at the
_______________________.
A. Securities and Exchange Commission
B. National Police Commission
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group
A
14. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since
they can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered.
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth
D
15. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan
B
16. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the
investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A. rabbit
B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement
D. patrol
B
17. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police

service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific unit
assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance.
A. vice control
B. criminal investigation
C. traffic management
D. patrol
D
18. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A. managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections
C
19. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor I
formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
B
20. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant
police members?
A. District Director
B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police
D. Chief, PNP
D
21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have
enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will
you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for
police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a
roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot
patrol
D
22. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
D
23. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give
information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge B
24. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
D
25. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation
of physical evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their
medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
B
26. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s
mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
C
27. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation
is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
C
28. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best
penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
A
29. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
B
30. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes
from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
B
31. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and

graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
B
32. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a
municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the
people in the different barangays. He should adopt which of the
following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
A
33. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a
comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
C
34. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
A
35. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of
motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command
C
36. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses
his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
A
37. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT

A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
C
38. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos
Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. The thief’s desire to
steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the
_______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
D
39. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are
automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
C
40. 48.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of
the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship
B
41. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity. In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
A
42. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in
tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
A
43. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic

information because law enforcement officials must know exact
locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
C
44. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
B
45. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or
follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
D
46. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards,
PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
E. All of these
C
47. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty
and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
E. all of these
A
48. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the
end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the
road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching
back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you
applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
E. criss-cross
A
49. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them
believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
C
50. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park
areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
B
51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short
B
52. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around
needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
C
53. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
B
54. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
A
55. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
E. all of the above
C
56. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word
credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
E. all of these
C
57. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension
BONUS
58. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
B
59. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of
surprise is lost which is one of the ______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. importance
E. errors
C
68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large
buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
D
69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under
the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
D
70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?

A. general
B. investigator
C. patrol officer
D. traffic officer
E. The Chief of Police
E
71. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren
B
72. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover
C
73. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication
should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in
the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
A
74. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the
police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
E. 35 years
D
75. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as
such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
C
76. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control
the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
C
77. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against
the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
E. Ombudsman
B
78. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or
omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their
official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
E. responsible parenthood
C
79. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)
D
80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all the
authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
E. span of control
D
81. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for
every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his
original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
E. 20 percent
C
82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
E. on the way
D
83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing
his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules
and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
E. incarceration
C
84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National
Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent
appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
E
85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General
of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
A
86. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource
development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP
and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
D
87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
C
88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
C
89. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
D
90. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
C
91. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
D. Local Government
A
92. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP
recruitment is __.
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
D
93. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving
crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division
C
94. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to
exercise supervision and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
C
95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the
transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town
residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
D
96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. Judge
B. Chief of police
C. Mayor
D. Governor
C
97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws and
maintenance of peace and order.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
A
98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
B
99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP
units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombudsman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
D
100.The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend
for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
B
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

First Day - 12:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know
yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong
C
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information
concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to
foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation
C
3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning
organized crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation
C
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of
establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of,
either a monopoly, of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field
that provides a continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia
B
5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes

from the hobo to the moneyed gangsters or racketeers.
A. Criminal World
B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate
B
6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed at
unwelcome competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime
B
7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of
confidential information that filter into the possession of the
police, and the techniques employed in developing these lines of
information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intellignce
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence
C
8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable
tools of management; it is derived from organized information
available in the police records division which concerned with the
nature, size and distribution of the police problems of crime, vice
and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
C
9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with little or no
immediate practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
A
10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the
organization against its criminal enemies.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these
A
11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or

possible enemy or theatre of operations, including weather and
terrain, together with the conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
D. Covert Operation
A
12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for
more effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
D. Overt Operation
A
13. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as
to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation
A
14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent
interpretation, which includes determining the pertinence of
information, the reliability of the source and agency through which
the information was derived and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations
C
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use of personnel,
resources and equipment employed and/or utilized in planning the
collection of information, processing of information and
disseminations of intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence
A
16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,

honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies.
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral
A
17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual, his ethical
judgment in human relations and his respect to superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity
C
18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date
of issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs
A
19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of
encrypted data on radio communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security
B
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a
communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area
C. area access control
D. perimeter control
C
21. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an
intelligence text or language which conveys hidden meaning.
A. Cryptogram
B. Cryptography
C. Codes
D. Ciphers
A
22. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Classify
B. Reclassify
C. Upgrading
D. Declassify
D
23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:

A. Headquarters commandant
B. Members of the Base Platoon
C. Regional Director
D. Everybody
D
24. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified
matter rest exclusively with the:
A. head of office
B. receiving unit
C. Regional Director
D. originating unit
A
25. Information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would
cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically,
economically or militarily.
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Top Secret
D. Secret
C
26. Among the following, who has authority to classify Top Secret matters?
A. Chief of Police
B. Regional Director
C. Sec of DND
D. Provincial Director
C
27. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and
residence of the individual being investigated.
A. CBI
B. PBI
C. LAC
D. NAC
C
28. Applied methods of security for the purpose of super-imposing
camouflage radio transmission on communication network.
A. transmission security
B. physical security
C. cryptographic security
D. operation security
A
29. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room.
A. Control of operations area
B. Area access control
C. perimeter control
D. control of communications area
A
30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are

represented.
A. Ciphers
B. Cryptogram
C. Codes
D. Cryptography
D
31. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main
desire is for power.
A. ideological belief
B. material gain
C. revenge
D. personal prestige
D
32. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files
of national agencies.
A. LAC
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. NAC
D
33. The following are operational security methods except for:
A. cut-out device
B. communication
C. cover
D. proper operational planning
D
34. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified
operations.
A. transmission security
B. computer security
C. cryptographic security
D. operations security
A
35. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons
inside the premises of communication facility.
A. perimeter control
B. control of operations area
C. control of communications area
D. area access control
C
36. Among the following, who is not authorized to classify Top Secret
matter?
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief, PNP
C. Chief of Staff, AFP
D. Chief of Police Station
D
37. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through:
A. direct contact to officers concerned
B. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch
C. official courier
D. mail
D
38. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation.
A. Animal
B. Human
C. Energy
D. Structural
D
39. In the security industry and in large areas, the standard height of a
fence is
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 8 meters
B
40. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system
is ___ barrier.
A. Energy
B. Animal
C. Structural
D. Human
D
41. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A. member of the INP
B. members of the PC
C. jail guards
D. all of them
D
42. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __.
A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Unit
A
43. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
A. Deputy Dir General
B. Police Director
C. Police Chief Superintendent
D. Police Senior Superintendent
B
44. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the
NAPOLCOM?
A. R.A. 6975
B. R.A. 8551
C. P.D. 765
D. R.A. 4864
D
45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the
basic qualification for promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary
C
46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to
the rank of Police Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course
D
47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine
duty is called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty
D
48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines
C
49. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B
50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as
designated desk or office or spot is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector
A
51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and
administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College
D
52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct
C
53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership
B
54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
A
55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing
System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster
B
56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the
Philippines were known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri
B
57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before
he can apply for optional retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years
B
58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM C
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that
receives most of the call of the public which are directly related to
police function are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only
A
60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime,
types of crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in
the implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service
B
61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards
in each respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
A
62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all
criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime
A
63. Patrol hazard would include the following except
A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances
D
64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that
utilized dog patrol was the so called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians
A
65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow
Street Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
B
66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community

service role or social services is referred to as
A. crime prevention
B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation
C
67. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to
commit crime is known as
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. prevention of crime
D. arrest of criminals
C
68. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service
was organized in
A. New York
B. Boston
C. San Francisco
D. Philadelphia
D
69. The government agency that issue license for private and government
security guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office
A
70. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?
A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work
C
71. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize
representative recognizing a person to be qualified to perform his
duties as security guard or detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
C. Warrant
D. None of these
D
72. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?
A. first line
B. second line
C. third line
D. None of these
A
73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter

fences is commonly called __
A. Hangover
B. guard control
C. tower guard
D. none of these
D
74. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police
candidate’s family who might negatively influence performance of
official duties can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview
B
75. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure,
careful investigation on matters upon which such alteration should be
conducted for purpose of
A. Promotion
B. Appointment
C. Disqualification
D. Dismissal from Service
C
76. The aspect of police selection can not be accurately assessed by other
steps in the selection process can be measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination
B. Neigborhood Check
C. Oral Interview
D. Psychological Screening
C
77. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official
police function by authorizing a person to discharge the same pending
the selection of another appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal
B. Permanent Appointee
C. Temporary Appointment
D. Suspension
C
78. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and
affiliation with organization of police applicants are information
required in the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements
D
79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history

of a police applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.
A
80. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job
performance predictability is through a process known as:
A. Test Validation
B. Job Performance
C. Job Analysis
D. Retesting
C
81. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals
who are to be employed as police officers and this can only be
determined by administering rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
D. Medical Examination
D
82. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the
extent to which an applicant maybe able to perform required
responsibilities. Applicants maybe required climbing over a fence of 5
feet and 6 inches high without the aid of another person. This
physical test is called:
A. Body Drag
B. Obstacle Clearance
C. Foot Pursuit
D. Body Pull Ups
A
83. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:
A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues
C
84. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of
planning because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning
C
85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and

A. Business administration
B. good police decision-making
C. prediction
D. performance
B
86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is
A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it B
87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win
A
88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the
control of only one superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity
B
89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and
position is called
A. Command and Control
B. Authority
C. Order
D. All of these
B
90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the
PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo
B. Sandugo
C. Banat
D. Pagpapala
D
91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of
special activity and addresses immediate need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Synoptic Plan
D. Guideline
A
92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within

in the unit, the commander shall develop unit plans relating to,
except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems
D
93. SOP in police parlance means
A. Standard Operation Procedure
B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
D. Special Operation procedure
C
94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds
shall be outlined as a guide to officers and men in the field.
A. SOPs
B. HQ Procedures
C. Field Procedures
D. None of these
C
95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol
B. Investigation
C. Intelligence
D. Traffic Operations
C
96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to
A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
A
97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will
be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat
A
98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding
citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always
available to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will
just around the corner at all times. What does this situation
indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction
A
99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for

criminal attack or for creating a clamor for police service is
considered as
A. Patrol Hazards
B. Patrol Effort
C. Police discretion
D. None of these
A
100.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police
and community interests into a working relationship so as to produce
the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team policing
D. Directed Patrol
C
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE

First Day - 8:00 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his

father. What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide - B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on
suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was
the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing - B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live
together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had
sexual relationship with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane
loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie, if
any?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape - B
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the
two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face. What
was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion - B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million
pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What
was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery - D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule

made under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. parol evidence
B. ante mortem statement
C. suicide note
D. dead man statute - D
7. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence - C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture - C
9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first
instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction - C
10. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel - A
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment -C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be

exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench - C
13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975 - C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain,
by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief - B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force,

violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether
right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed - B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the
physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or herself to
lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants - D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises
designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal - B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to
change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault - C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person

without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention - A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a

man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage
can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality - C
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old - C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the
offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories - A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the
final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty - D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is
suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve - D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more

orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes - A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in

consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge
of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery - B
27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of

affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander - C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty - B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the
commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy - C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act - C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing
the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation - B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public
policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. complex crimes - C
33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.

A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation - B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender - A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning - C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case
work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to
court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial - B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by
him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as
required under the conditions specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant - C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of

the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of
determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment - A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused i9s guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment - D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether

there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an
offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof
and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
D. plea bargaining - C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from

conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented
on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence - A
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a
fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence - D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above - D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their
perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers - B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of human

fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide - A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized
into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray - D
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the

logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognisance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A.legal question
B.juridical question
C.prejudicial question
D.judicial question - C
50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the
law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to
which it attaches a lighter penalty.
A.reiteracion
B.recidivism
C.quasi-recidivism
D.habitual delinquency - A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that

is voluntary but not intentional.
A.impossible crime
B.mistake of facts
C.accidental crime
D.complex crime - B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

A.36 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours - D
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

A.ignorantia legis non excusat
B.parens patriae
C.res ipsa loquitur
D.dura lex sed lex - A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was

not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime - B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551 - C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of

the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility - D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner
or author.
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability - D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it
comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of
humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny - C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed
by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer
charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ - C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is
intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human
agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination - B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages

and rules of action which are not recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws - C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any
of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence,
though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating - A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the
law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating - C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers
slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the
consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism - B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in
the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism - A
66. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty - B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render
judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law - D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or
last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty
of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal - C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive - D
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive - D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay - A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons
alleged to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of
conviction.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence - C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years - A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals - D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which
casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor - B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction - B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized

magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit - D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without
authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name - C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been
convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before
beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari - A
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer
D. Municipal Councilor - C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances

in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat - A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days - C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or

employee.
A. illegal detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention - B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes

allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat - A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling - D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and
wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment - D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape - C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem - D
89. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem - A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution
and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished - C
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony - B
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing - A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable - B
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference - A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanours
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances - A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who
live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive - A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law - A
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to
answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention - C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft - C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old
girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime
committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these - C
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET TWO

First Day - 8:00 a.m. – 11:30 a.m.
=================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET TWO

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A kind of evidence which shows that a best evidence existed

as to the proof of the fact is in question
A. Real Evidence
B. Secondary Evidence
C. Best Evidence
D. Res gestae
B
2. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more
grave or less grave felonies or when an offense is a necessary
means for committing the other?
A. Complex
B. Composite
C. Continuing
D. compound
A
3. What must be considered in determining whether the crime
committed is only attempted, frustrated or consummated?
A. All of these
B. The elements constituting the felony
C. The nature of the offense
D. The manner of committing the felony
A
4. A person who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary
tribunal
A. Witness
B. Defense
C. Prosecution
D. Clerk of Court
A
5. What crime can be charged of one who retains a minor in his
service against the minor’s will and under the pretext of
reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by the child/s parents?
A. white slavery
B. exploitation of child labor
C. inducing a minor
D. kidnapping B
6. A, a notary public, issued a supposed copy of a deed of
sale, when in fact no such deed oæ sale was prepared by him. A is
liable for
A. Estafa
B. falsification
C. Forgery
D. All of these
A
7. Refers to family history or descent transmitted from one
generation to another
A. Pedigree
B. Inheritance
C. Tradition •Heritage
A
8. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by
which the existence of one fact is inferred from proof of some
other facts?
A. Conclusive
B. of"law
C. Disputable
D. of fact
C
9. During the pendency of his criminal case, A died due to
heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. termination of proceedings
B. suspension of the case
C. postponement of the case
D. dismissal of the case for lack of respondent
D
10. How may an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding the handwriting
of a person?
A. when he has to testify only as to the mental and emotional state of the
one who authored the handwriting
B. when it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient familiarity
C. when he is a questioned document examiner
D. when he is a graduate of criminology
B
11. Obligations imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by
proof are termed as "burden of proof" what is its Latin translation?
A. Factum probans
B. Factum probandum
C. Owe probandi
D. Owes probandi
D
12. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?

A. yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
B. yes, under the law she is a competent witness
C. no,she is incompetent as a witness

D. yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
B
13. Logical necessity which resists upon a party at any particular time
during the trail to create a prima facie case in his own favor or to
overthrow one created against him.
A. Res gestae
B. Burden of Evidence
C. Burden of Proof
D. Estoppel
B
14. A is a supply officer of a municipality. He entered into an agreement
with B. to supply the municipality with some office forms at a price
grossly disadvantageous to the municipality. The agreement was that
part of the purchase price must be given to A. The transaction did not
materialize. A may be liable for
A. attempted estafa
B. frustrated estafa
C. attempted fraud
D. consummated fraud
D
15. The probative value or credit given by the court to a particular
evidence
A. Preponderance of evidence
B. Evidentiary fact
C. Ultimate Fact
D. Weight of Evidence
D
16. Which among the following may disqualify a witness
A. Capacity of observation
B. Capacity of recollection
C. Capacity of Knowledge
D. Capacity of communication
C
17. That kind of evidence which can not be rebutted or overcome
A. Primary
B. Real
C. Best
D. Conclusive
D
18. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive

penalty?
A. Fine
B. arresto mayor
C. prison mayor
D. destierro
C
19. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant
on several occasions. He is, however, well-guarded at all times. The
warden allowed him to go out of his cell without any consideration
whatsoever. The warden may be charged with
A. negligence of duty
B. leniency or laxity
C. dereliction of duty
D. infidelity
D
20. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact
because they are already known to him
A. Cognizance
B. Judicial Admission
C. Judicial Knowledge
D. Judicial Notice
D
21. What if the offended party is a corporation, how do you indicate it in
the complaint or information?
A. state the name of the corporation
B. leave it blank as error is merely clerical and can be corrected during
trial
C. aver it in the charge sheet
D. aver that it is legally organized pursuant to SEC rules
A
22. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an
impending death.
A. Parole Evidence
B. Ante-mortem statement
C. Dean man statute
D. Post mortem statement
B
23. What crime is committed against mankind, and whose jurisdiction
consequently recognizes no territorial limits?
A. Piracy
B. Felonies
C. Theft
D. Suicide
A
24. Heads of State or Ambassadors can NOT be held criminally liable in

another state or place of assignment under the principles of
international law. This is an EXCEPTION to the general characteristic
of Criminal Law which is
A. Prospectivity
B. Generality
C. Territoriality
D. Immunity
B
25. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws
A. Felony
B. Mala Inse
C. Mala Incest
D. Mala prohibita
D
26. When several persons are co-accused for a crime committed, what is that
requirement that must be satisfied in order that one or more of those
accused can qualify as state witness?
A. he appears to be the least guilty
B. he does not appear to be the most guilty
C. not more than two accused can be state witness
D. he seems to be not guilty
A
27. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means:
A. Ignorance of the law
B. Mistake of facts
C. Mistake of the blow
D. Mistake in identity
A
28. Under this Rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country,
unless their commission affects the peace and security of the
territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
A. French Rule
B. Spanish Rule
C. American Rule
D. English Rule
A
29. What should the court do when the offense is less serious physical
injuries and the offense proved is serious physical injuries and the
defendant may be convicted only of the offense as charged?
A. do not dismiss the action
B. do not dismiss the action but should order the filing of a new
information
C. dismiss the action
D. stay with the action and decide accordingly to avoid double jeopardy
B
30. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the
felony is said to be
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
A
31. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered
relevant to the issue?
A. when it is not excluded by the rules
B. when it has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue
C. when it is not repugnant in taste
D. when it is not immoral
B
32. Infractions to the law punishable by Aresto Menor or a fine not
exceeding 200 pesos or both.
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
B
33. What circumstance can be considered aggravating with the slaying of an
80 year old woman?
A. abuse of confidence
B. disregard of age and sex
C. neglect of elders
D. disrespect of rank
B
34. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so
that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is
free from both criminal and civil liability.
A. Justifying circumstances
B. Mitigating Circumstance
C. Exempting circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
A
35. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where the
penalty prescribed by the law for the offense charged does not exceed
A. 3 years
B. six years
C. 6 months imprisonment
D. 4 years and 2 months
C
36. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available
witness, can a priest testify as to the alleged defamatory words given
to him by the accused during confession?
A. privilege given by a patient to a doctor
B. privilege given to a husband to a wife
C. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
D. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest
D
37. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as
dwelling, night time or recidivism.
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
A
38. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission of
the crime, without having principally participated therein, takes part
subsequent to the commission, either in profiting by the effects of
the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the crime?
A. Witnesses
B. Accessories
C. Principals
D. Accomplices
B
39. They are aggravating circumstance which change the nature of the crime,
e.i. homicide to murder in case of treachery
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
C
40. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by
mitigating circumstances?
A. Treachery
B. Night time
C. Ignominy
D. Taking advantage of superior strength
A
41. What are the infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society?
A. Mala prohibita
B. Felonies
C. Violation of ordinance
D. Mala in se
B
42. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by police officers in an illegal
search and seizure to be used against the accused?
A. Silver platter
B. Exclusionary doctrine
C. Fruit of the poisonous tree
D. Miranda ruling
A
43. Mr. Santos went to the United States. While he was there, he courted
Ms. Jane an American. They eventually got married. When Mr. Santos
returned to thePhilippines his wife, Alona filed an action against him
for violating their marriage. What is the liability of Mr. Santos, if
any?
A. None of these
B. Adultery
C. Concubinage
D. Bigamy
D
44. What is the liability of the jail guard if the evasion of a prisoner
should take place through his negligence?
A. delivering prisoners from jails
B. evasion through negligence
C. reckless imprudence
D. conniving with or consenting to evasion
B
45. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took
possession of the warrant, wrote the name of A, endorsed it at the
back and was able to encash it. B is liable for
A. Estafa
B. all of these
C. falsification
D. forgery
B
46. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release
or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same
offense particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and
robbery is considered as a:
A. recidivist
B. habitual Delinquent
C. delinquent
D. quasi-recidvist
B
47. What is the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial
proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact?
A. Evidence
B. Procedure
C. Investigation
D. Trial
A
48. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in
the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been committed by:
A. Group
B. Band
C. Brigands
D. Team
B
49. What is that statement made by a wounded person shortly after he
received several bolo stabs narrating therein the whole incident to
another which is admissible in evidence as part of
A. res nullus
B. res ipsa loquitur
C. res judicata
D. res gestae
D
50. A, B, C are boardmates of D. A, B and C conspire to kill X, a witch,
because he is perceived to cause misery among many in the barangay. D
knew about it all along. After the conspiracy but made no move to
report to the authorities. In this case, D
A. is liable for murder
B. is an accessory to the crime
C. is a conspirator
D. incurs no criminal liability
C
51. “Aberratio ictus” in which the perpetrator is criminally liable means
A. mistaken identity
B. mistake in the blow
C. results are less than intended
D. result is greater than intended
A
52. What acts punishable by law are either intended to directly impute to
an innocent person the commission of crime or which are calculated to
blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue?
A. oral defamation
B. blackmail
C. slander
D. incriminatory machinations
D
53. A, with intent to kill, fired a revolver at B. He inflicted a fatal
wound. A brought B to a hospital, and due to timely medical
assistance, B survived. What crime did A commit?
A. physical injuries
B. attempted felony
C. frustrated felony
D. no criminal liability
C
54. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes
allegiance to it.
A. Treason
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Espionage
D. Levying war
A
55. What is the order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer
commanding him to search for personal property described therein and
bring it before the court?
A. warrant of arrest
B. Search warrant
C. Subpoena
D. Summons
B
56. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual
assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design
by force
A. Aid or comfort
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Levying war
D. All of the foregoing
C
57. Under the new Constitution, who is empowered to order or change the
venue or place of trial in order to avoid miscarriage of justice?
A. executive judge
B. supreme court
C. regional trial courts
D. regional state prosecutor
B
58. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a
writing, the contents of which is the subject matter of inquiry
B. parole evidence
C. corollary evidence
D. best evidence
A
59. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted
person, subject to the three limitations to be executed by the
President?
A. Pardon
B. Amnesty
C. Reprieve
D. penalty
A
60. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to
disclose such information to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty
of what crime?
A. Treason
B. Conspiracy to commit treason
C. Espionage
D. Misprision of Treason
D
61. What crime is committed when the offender, acting under a single
criminal resolution, commits a series of acts in the same place at
about the same penal provision?
A. Composite
B. Compound
C. Continuing
D. complex
C
62. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate
strength in evidential value?
A. when it changes the burden of proof
B. when evidence for the prosecution is strong
C. where no positive and proper identification has been
satisfactorily made
D. when questions on whether or not accused committed the
offense is clear
B
63. It is a forcible depredation on the high seas without lawful authority
and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and intention of
universal hostility
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
D. Sedition
B
64. What is that rule where an offended party may intervene in the
proceeding personally or through a counsel?
A. Miranda Rule
B. rule of facilitation
C. rule of intervention
D. rule of reservation
A
65. Refers to resistance to a superior officer, or the raising of
commotions and disturbance on board a ship against authority of the
commander
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
D. Sedition
A
66. What kind of motion may be availed of anytime before arraignment?

A. motion to dismiss
B. motion for review
C. motion for reconsideration
D. motion to quash
C
67. Which among the following instances is an example of a qualifying
circumstance to a crime of murder?
A. Recidivism
B. Insanity
C. Treachery
D. Intoxication
C
68. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age
and under fifteen to incur criminal liability?
A. act with discernment
B. act carelessly or negligently
C. show criminal intent
D. show malice
A
69. Who is a person in authority among the following:
A. Policeman
B. MMDA enforcer
C. barangay captain
D. barangay tanod
A
70. What kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person commits
any of the crimes against person, employing such means, methods or
forms in the execution thereof which tend specially to ensure its
execution without risk to himself arising from the defense which the
offended partly might make?
A. capital punishment
B. complex crime
C. continuous offense
D. civil interdiction
A
71. A is known for writing obscene material. One of his writings, entitled
“Hayop”, was stolen from his office and was published by someone. The
authorities got hold of the obscene magazine. A is
A. not liable at all
B. liable for obscene publication (as co-publisher)
C. liable for pornography
D. liable for the obscene publications (as author)
A
72. What should be done in cases of offenses against property where the
name of the offended party is unknown?
A. court must cause the true name to be inserted
B. what is pivotal is the name and description of the offender
C. the police must label the property in a way that will
distinguish it from others
D. describe the property subject matter with such particularity
as to properly identify, the particular offense charged
D
73. How should the plea to a complaint or information be made by the
accused?
A. personally, in open court and of the record
B. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the
accused
C. through counsel in open court and on the record
D. personally by written motion
B
Situation 1 – A and B are neighbors. During a drinking spree, A
punched B without any provocation. B’s injury required medical
attendance for a period of seven (7) days. Immediately thereafter SP01
T. Anga whose help was sought by B, took the statement of B and did
not know what to do.
74. What crime was committed by A?

A. slight physical injury
B. serious physical injuries
C. ill treatment
D. less serious physical injury
B
75. Considering the nature of the offense committed by A, SP01 T. Anga
should:
A. file the case directly with the court
B. instruct B to file the matter first before the barangay C
C. file the case before the prosecutor’s office
D. file the case himself before the barangay court
C
76. Assuming that the result of the action of A was death, instead of mere
physical injuries against B, SP01 T. Anga should, in his investigation
and report concentrate and stress on:
A. whether or not A was drunk at the time
B. the Barangay Court has no jurisdiction over the case
C. whether or not B was also drunk
C
77. Assuming that A was drunk at the time that he committed the offense,
his drunkenness would be considered as:
A. mitigating circumstance
B. aggravating circumstance
C. exempting circumstance
D. alternative circumstance
D
Situation 2 – A and B who are brother-in-laws, are also mortal
enemies. One time, A threatened to kill B. A has a common reputation
of being a killer. One night in a lighted place, A suddenly stabbed B
from behind. Before A could escape, B was able to identify him. As B
lay wounded, SP01 Mahabagin responded and to whom B pointed to A as
the one who attacked him. SP01 arrested B on the basis of such
declaration.
78. Based on situation # 2, which of the following best describes the

statement of A?
A. Circumstantial
B. Corroborative
C. Hearsay
D. Direct
C
79. What crime was committed by A that night time of the stabbing?
A. Parricide
B. Grave threats
C. Homicide
D. Murder
A
80. Assuming that B was dying at the time that he informed SP01 Mahabagin
of the identity of his notorious assailant and believing that he was
dying at the time, but he did not actually die, what basis could be
used to establish the identify of A?
A. Common reputation
B. res gestae
a. dying declaration
b. declaration against interest
B
81. In the foregoing case, B’s statement identifying A as his assailant may
not be considered a dying declaration because:
A. B’s death is indispensable
B. The declaration was not written
C. No mention was made that B’s wound was fatal
D. B has a grudge against A
Situation 3 – During custodial investigation at the Central
Police District in Quezon City, “A” was informed of his constitutional
right, to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
He decided to waive his right to counsel and proceed to make a
statement admitting commission of a robbery.
82. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him because

A. The right to remain silent and to counsel cannot be waived
B. it was not made in the presence of the counsel
C. The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence of the counsel
D. It was not made in writing
A
83. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were properly observed
except the right to counsel which was waived because A could not
afford the service of one, A’s statement will be
A. Admissible because A was informed of his right to counsel but he could
not afford to hire one
B. Inadmissible because A must be provided with counsel free of charge
C. admissible because A did not insist on his right to counsel and he
voluntarily waived it
D. admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were
present in the waiver
A
84. Assuming that the public persecutor on the basis of the now written
confession of A, who waived his right of counsel because he could not
afford one, filed the information against him and the judge after
trial, convicted A on the basis of his written confession. A would
like to appeal his case to a higher court. The appeal should be filed
-
A. with 30 days from the time A’s counsel de oficio who was absent of the
time of the promulgation received a written copy of the judgment of
conviction.
B. within 30 days from the date the case was submitted for resolution
C. within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment
D. within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference
A
85. Assuming that A’s appeal was filed 30 days after his counsel de oficio
learned of the judgment, the appeal should
A. Not be given due course, because the judgment which were rendered after
trial was obviously correct anyway
B. be given due course because it was filed within the reglamentary period
C. not be given due course because the confession was really inadmissible
against A and the judgment of conviction must be reversed
D. None of these
A
86. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 (BP Blg 129) took effect on
A. January 17, 1983
B. August 1, 1983
C. January 1, 1983
D. December 1, 1980
D
87. Criminal jurisdiction over the subject matter shall be determined by
the
A. law enforced at the time of the commission of the offense
B. law enforced at the time of trial
C. law enforced at the time of the institution/filing of the offense
D. law enforced at the time of the discovery of the offense
A
88. Criminal procedure is a
A. substantive law
B. constitutional law
C. administrative law
D. procedural or remedial law
D
89. The stage of a judicial proceeding whereby the accused shall be
informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him, in
compliance of the mandate of the consultation and the rules and in
order to fix the identity of the accused is
A. criminal investigation
B. pre-trial conference
D. arraignment and plea
D
90. Defined as the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an offense
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Detention or imprisonment
D. Investigation
A
91. Under the law, the warrant of arrest shall remain valid unless
A. after the lapse of ten days from its issuance
B. it is served or lifted
C. after the lapse of the period for the police to execute the same
D. after the lapse of the period for the police to make his report
A
92. The procedure which allows the affidavit or counter-affidavit of the
parties or their witnesses to constitute as their direct oral
testimony in the case, subject however to cross examination
A. Revised Rule on Summary Procedure
B. Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure
C. Revised Rules on Evidence
D. Revised Penal Code
A
93. The right of an accused to bail is a matter of right in those cases -
A. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC before or after conviction,
except capital offenses
B. falling within the jurisdiction of the MTC before or after conviction
C. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC where the penalty for the
offense does not exceed twenty years imprisonment
D. all of these
A
94. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the
penalty provided by law for the offense charged is
A. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of fine
B. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
C. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment irrespective of
the amount of fine
D. not exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
C
95. Violation of City or municipal ordinance are within the
A. concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC and MTC
B. exclusive original jurisdiction of the RTC
C. exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court
D. exclusive original jurisdiction of the MTC
D
96. The process of adjudication of disputes in barangay level whereby the

Punong Barangay or the Pangkat members shall endeavor to convince or
encourage the parties to settle their dispute amicably.
A. Arbitration
B. Confrontation
C. Compromise
D. Mediation/conciliation
D
97. The power or authority of a court to try, hear and decide a class of
criminal case brought before it
A. criminal jurisprudence
B. criminal jurisdiction
C. criminal procedure
D. criminal due process of law
B
98. If no criminal action has yet been instituted, a motion to quash a
search warrant and/or suppress evidence obtained thereby by the police
shall be filed in and resolve by the
A. court which has jurisdiction over the place where the offense was
committed
B. court that issued the search warrant
C. court where the suspects reside
D. court within the judicial region of the place where the crime was
committed
B
99. The personnel of a court who shall take charge of the business of the
court, supervises all the other staff of the court or the alter ego of
the judge in all official businesses of the court in his absence.
A. court interpreter
B. clerk of court
C. legal researcher
D. personal secretary of judge
B
100. The law providing the rights of person arrested, detained or under
custodial investigation is
A. RA No 7691
B. RA No 8493
C. RA No 7438
D. RA No 7659
C
LEA - 4 Criminal Investigation

FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA-4 CriminalInvestigation)
SY2011-2012/2ndSemester
INSTRUCTION:Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
onlyoneanswer for each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter ofyour choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Preliminary Conduct
A. Attitude &Demeanor of Interrogator b. The Interrogation Room c. Techniques of
Interrogation
d.Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge B
2. Privacy
A. Attitude &Demeanor of Interrogator b. The Interrogation Room c. Techniques of
Interrogation
d.Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge B
3. Emotional State.
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Setting of interview C. Requisites of Interview
D. Attitude and Demeanor of Interrogator A
4. Language
D. Attitude and Demeanor of
Interrogator C
5. Forcefulness of Personality
D. Attitude and Demeanor ofInterrogator D
6. Warm-Up
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Techniques in ControllingDigression C. Typical Classes
ofInterviewees
D. Personalities of Interviewees A
7. Precise Questioning
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Techniques in Controlling Digression C. Typical Classes of
Interviewees
D. Personalities of
IntervieweesB
8. Middle age Person
A. Usual Stages of Interview B.Techniques in Controlling Digression C. Typical Classes
ofInterviewees
D. Personalities of Interviewees C
9. Sound & motion Picture
A. Method of Recording Interview B. Goals of Criminal Investigation C. Successful
Investigator
D. Responsibility of CriminalInvestigator
10. Addressing Problem A
A. Method of Recording Interview B. Goals ofCriminal Investigation C.Successful
Investigator
D. Responsibility of
CriminalInvestigator B
11. The identificationmay be established indirectly by providing other facts or circumstances.

a. Eye witness b. Motive c. opportunity d. Circumstantial evidence. A
12. It must have been physically possible for the suspectsto commit the crime.
a. Opportunity b. form c. intent d. corpus delicti. C
13. Motivated by a desire for revenge or personal gain.
a. opportunity b. eyewitness c. motive d.associative evidence C
14. The suspect could have been in the vicinity of the crimescene in the sense that it was not
improbable for him to have been there.
A. opportunity b. motive c. associativeevidence c. none of the aboveC
15. The perpetrator may leave some clue at the scene.
a. opportunity b. associative evidence c. motive d. confession B
16. Facts that the crime has been committed.
a. Corpus Delicti b. form c. intent d. role of reason B
17. It must be shown that the accused knew what he was doing
a. Possibility of chance b. intuition c. intent d. noneof the above C
18. To acquire knowledge of the elements of criminal ofoffenses, the investigator must study the
penal law.
a. Form b. corpus delicti c.opportunity d. motive A
19. Both inductive and deductive reasoning are applicable toinvestigation.
a. representative approach b. role of reason c. possibility of chance d. none of the above A
20. Consideration must also be given to the fact that chanceoften plays an important part in the
solution of crimes.
a. possibility of chance b. exploiting intuition c. representative approach d. art of interview D
2 1. A self – incriminatory statement by the subject fallingshort of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession b. coercion c. witnesses d. admission D
22. Is the testimony of a witness reduced to writing underoath or affirmation.
a. Statement b. deposition c. recalcitrant d. affirmative A
23. The foremost requirement upon which later admissibilityof an admission or confession depends.
a. Voluntariness b. fourfold warning c. record d. waiver D
24. To forego these rights, an affirmative statement ofrejection is required.
a. Fourfold warning b. proof of waiver c.proof of voluntariness d. record ofconduct B
25. Encompasses all interrogation practices which are likelyto exert such pressure on an individual
as to disable him from making a freeand rational choice.
a. Coercion b. proof of voluntariness c. record conduct d. awareness ofthe accusation B
26. It should reflect the continuous availability ofprotective devices for the suspects rights.
a. Intent b. record conduct c. duress d.psychological constraint C
27. It connotes theidea of physical force, it is the directapplication of illegal physical methods.
a. Employment of trickery b. coercion c. duress d.psychological constraint B
28. It is taken in the legal sense to mean the imposition ofrestriction on physical behavior.
a. Confession against another b. duress c. awareness of the accusation d. employment of
promises D
29. The free action of the will may be unlawfully restrainedby threats or another other method of
instilling fear.
a. Existence of forces b. psychologicalconstraints c. lighter sentence d. pardon A
30. The person under investigation must be mentally orvisually aware of an accusation.
a. Confession against another b. awareness of the accusation c. confession of several crimes
B
d. identity of the offender
31. It is the place where the essential ingredients of thecriminal act took place.
a. Investigation scene b. victims scene c. crime scene d.interrogation scene C
32. The first step in the crime scene search.
a. Collecting evidence b. photograph the crime scene c. preservation of its original
condition
d. markings of evidence B
33. It means protecting all the physical evidence and cluematerials.
a. Complete crime scene b. avoid contamination of crime scene c. protecting the crime
scene
d. controlling the crime scene C
34. Upon arrival at the crime scene the ------------should immediately ascertain the identity of
personswho may be valuable to the investigation.
a. Investigator b. witness c. first responder d. suspect
35. The ----------- should collects, preserves, and tagsarticles of evidence and maintains custody of
evidence.
a. Team leader b. photographer c. evidence man d. master note taker C
36. Implements the directions of the officer – in – charge .
a. Master note taker b. evidence man c. assistant officer –in- charge d. photographer e. sketcher
C
37. At this stage of the investigation, prohibition andnegative advice are most useful.
a. Preliminary survey b. preliminary action c.preliminary crime scene survey
d. preliminary investigation survey D
38. it can be prepared in a variety of ways a hand writtennotes, audio tape recording
and videotaping.
a. narrative search b. narrative interview c. narrative description d.narrative
investigation D
39. The Presence of__________ may deter a hesitant subject.
a. stenographer b. witness c. victim d. investigatorD
40. The crime scene provides a major opportunityto locate ------------------.
a. perpetrator b. evidence c. physicalevidence d. none of the above C
41. qualification and traits of the interrogator
a. written notes b. general knowledge and interest c. privacy d. subject B
42. Attitude anddemeanor of interrogator.
a. perseverance b. distracting mannerism c.privacy d. know nothing type A
43. Responsibilities of Criminal investigators.
a. Eyewitness b.Motive c. Locate & apprehend the perpetrator d.Intent C
44. Phases of Criminal Investigation.
a. opportunity.b. eyewitness testimony c.confession d. traced and located A
45. Clue materials, personal property or the characteristicspattern of procedure.
a. providing evidence of guilt b. locating the criminal offenders c. intent d. associativeevidence C
46. The available information is arrange and correlated.
a. role of reason b. elements of the offense c. possibility of chance d.representative approach e.
form B
47. The elements of the offense
a. corpus delicti b. art of interview c. type of interview d. elements of the offense A
48. Both inductive and deductive reasoning .
a. intent b.form c. corroborating d.exploiting intuition C
49. Asking question to a person who is believed to possessknowledge & cooperative in the conduct
of investigation.
a. witness b. information c. personality d. interview D
50. Qualities of a salesman, an actor, and psychologist.
a. requisites of interview b. background interview c. setting interview d. qualifications of
interviewerD
51. The relationship between the interviewer and the subjectdetermines the success of the
investigation.
a. setting of interview b. formal interview c. on the scene interview d. establish rapport D
52. Normal, group and pretext interview.
a. on the scene interview b. formal interview c. background d.approach B
53. It may be conducted by any law enforcement officer whofirst appears on the scene.
a. formal interview b. back ground interview c. routine d. on the sceneinterview D
54. Usual stage of interview
a. preparation b. appropriate time c. inaccuracies d. positive attitude A
55. A multiplicity of the questions tends to confuse theperson being interviewed.
a. One question at a time b. inaccuracies c.guiding conversation d. saving face A
56. Long, complicated, and legalistic questions only serveto confuse and irritate.
a. simplicity of question b. saving face c. yes or no question d. precise questioning D
57. This technique consist in asking a question whichrelates to the digression from original line of
questioning.
a. shunting b. precise questioning c. guessing d. C
58. Personalities of interviewees.
a. know nothing type b.breadth of interest c. art of interview d. intent A
59. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be
obtained.
a. alertness b. integrity c. perseverance d. logic mind C
60. The ________ of the interrogator should adapt to thesubjects cultural level.
a. dress b. attitude c, language d, privacy C
61. ______ should be designed for simplicity with the viewof enhancing the concentration of both the
interrogator and the subject.
a. extenuation b. mutt and jeff c. the interrogation room d. line up C
62. It is desirable to have facilities for others to observeand hear the suspect during the
interrogation.
a. interrogation log b. seating arrangement c. technical Aids d.extenuation C
63. In addition to his regular facilities for taking notesit is well for the investigator to have an available
_________.
a. technical aid b, seating arrangement c. interrogation Log d.control the interview C
64. The investigator must create a mood that is conducive toa confession..
a. kindness b. sympathetic approach c. friendliness d. emotional appeal D
65. the investigator does not take too serious a view of thesubject’s indiscretion,
a. mutt and jeff b. shifting the balance c. knowledge bluff d. extenuation D
66. The device is especially useful when dealing with aperson usually calm or nervous.
a. indifference b. stern approach c.indifference d. jolting A
67. The subject conviction is treated as a fait accomplice.
a. jolting b. stern approach c. bluff d.indifference C
68. In the beginning of the typical interrogation, theinvestigator has little need for control, the subject
should be permitted totell his story in his own way without interruption.
a. questioning b. emotional control c. strategic interruption d. initial phase D
69. Branch of forensic science concerned with the recording,scientific examination, and
interpretation of the minute details.
a. fingerprint b. ballistic c. questioneddocument d. polygraphy C
70. _______ is more likely to inspire confidence andfriendship in a criminal than a uniform.
a. barong c. gown c. formal dress d. civilian dress A
71. Must be able to convince the subject that it is futileto resist since the interrogator obviously has
sources of knowledge.
a. Knowledge bluff b.line up c. reverse line up d.initial phase A
72. The procedure is business like, but the interrogatorpauses meaningfully as if to give the suspect
one more chance to tell thetruth.
a. questioning as a formality b.indifference c. stern approach d.helpful adviser A
73. ________ uses instrumentation and sophisticatedlaboratory techniques to detect the presence of
substances in the victim.
a. forensic science b. role of crime lab c. facts of the case d. forensic medicine A
74. A criminalist ultimate task is the presentation oflaboratory findings to the court.
a. expert testimony b. clue material c. witness d. facts of the case A
75. Reconstruct how the crime was committed.
a. Role of the crime laboratory b.time element c. element of crime d.facts of the case A
76. The subject and the investigator should be seated withno large furniture between them.
a. seating arrangement b.technical aids c. interrogation log d.simplicity A
77. It is desirable for several reasons, to restrict thenumber of persons present at an interrogation.
a. presence of other people b. attitude of other people c. presenceof investigator d. control
theinterview A
78. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be
obtained.
a. perseverance b. integrity c. alertness d. logical mind A
79. Patience andflattery are necessary in dealing with the vain or self centered person.
a. boasting witness b. timid witness c. deceitful witness d. honest A
80. the suspect is instate of emotional confusion, he is unable to think logically and clearly.
a. anxiety b. helpful adviser c.extenuation d. helpful adviser A
Kindly choose and shade letter A if the answer is TRUE, B if FALSE, C if Partly True, D ifPartly
False
81. Color change is the frequent swallowing and wetting oflips B

82. Blood is a common clue material in many of the moreserious crimes against properties.A
83. Information, Interrogation, and Investigation are the 3basic mechanism for controlling the
behavior of those engaged in crime. A
84. 5H and 1W are the six cardinal points of criminalinvestigation. A
85. Grid method is a modification of the strip method. A
86. Information is used here to describe the knowledge whichthe investigator gathers from other
person. A
87. Forgetting all the details of information is one goodtraits of an investigator.B
88. Interview means skillful questioning of witnesses andsuspects. B
89. The presence of stenographer may deter a hesitant subject . A
90. An interview may not be consider a success unless it isfaithfully recorded. A
91. The disc, tape or wire recording are parts of writtennotes. A
92. The investigator should appear anger and egoistic duringthe conduct of interview. B
93. A Direct approach is most effective with willingwitnesses. A
94. Before questioning a suspect the investigator shouldrefresh his knowledge of the law. A
95. During the interview the investigator is not advisableto form a judgment regarding the credibility
of his witness. A
96. Do not explain to the suspect the general terms of thenature of offense under investigation. B
97. The investigator should carefully observe any unusualreaction to questions. A
98. The investigative process begins at the end ofinvestigation. B
99. Locality is used to show the general area of the crimescene. A
100. All camera position should not be recorded except forspecial attention. B
FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA 1 – POLICE ORGANIZATION &ADMIN. WITH POLICE PLANNING)
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answerfor each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each itemby shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answersheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Kind of Plan ordinarily include as part of a policedepartments written directives system;
a.Policy b.Operational c.Logistic d.Technical A
2. PNP Lateral Entry Sr. Inspector Rank qualifications;a.Dentist b.Chaplainc.Nurses
d.Engineers B
3. A section or territorial division of a large city eachcomprised of designated districts; a.District
b.Area c.Sector d.Regional B
4. Comprising behavioral regulations; a.Disciplines b.Doctrines c.Policiesd.Rules A
5. PNP Lateral Entry Inspector Rank qualifications; a.Chaplainb.Member of the bar c.Doctor of
Medicine d.PNPA Graduate D
6. Who is the Napolcom Present Executive Vice Chairman; a.JesseRobredo b.Avelino Razon
c.Alendro Urro d. Eduardo Escueta D
7. An Act establishing the PNP under a reorganized Department ofthe Interior and Local
Government; a.RA 6985 b.RA8551 c.RA 7610 d.RA 6975 D
8. Napolcom is under the department of; a.DOJ b.DILG c.PNPA d.Office ofthe President B
9. Functions that are designed to support the line functions andassist in the performance of the
line functions; a.Auxiliary b.Line c.Staff d.Primary C
10. Process of developingmethods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate ;
a.Managementb.Planning c.Unityof Command d.Command Responsibility B
11. PNP Senior Superintendent;a.3 sun b.2 sun c.1 star d.2 anahaw leaf A
12. PNP Chief shall beappointed by __________; a.DILGSec. b.Chief Justice c.Senate President
d.President A
13. Under PNP Chief is Deputyfor Administration and _____________; a.Logistics b.Operation
c.Management d.Finance D
14. The Chief of PNP mayextend his term thru this exception; a.Trust and Confidence by the
President b.Discretion of the Senatorsc.Supreme Court intervention d.National Emergency B
15. Next in lower rank ofPolice Superintendent; a.Inspector b. Chief Superintendent c.Chief
Inspectord.Senior Inspector C
16. PLEB Ratio to every cityor municipal police personnel; a.1:300 b.1:400 c.1:500 d.1:600 C
17. Structure according tofunctions and specialized units-depicts staff functions of the organization–
responsibilities are divided among authorities; a.Service b.Line c.Staff d.Functional D
18. Provides for theorganizational objectives also provides various actions, hence,
policies,procedures, rules and regulations of the organizations based on the statement;a.Principles
b.Implementations c.Doctrines d.Administrations D
19. Conferring of an amount ofauthority by a superior position to a lower level position; a.Span of
control b.Delegation of Authorityc.Hierarchy of Authority c.Unity of Command B
20. PNP Deputy DirectorGeneral is appointed by President and upon recommendation of; a.DILG
Secb.Napolcom Commissioners c.Chief of PNP d.Senate President D
21. PNP Director rank; a.2 star b.3 star c.4 stard.2 sun A
22. It includes the right tocommand and the power to require obedience; a.Supervision b.Hierarchy
c.Authority d.Directing C
23. RA 6975 ended theexistence of; a.AFP b.PNP c.PC d.PC / INP D
24. The making of detailedaccount of activities, work progress, investigations and unsual in order
tokeep everyone informed or what is going on; a.Investigation b.Log In Bookc.Daily sheet
d.ReportingD
25. The determination inadvance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained;
a.Purposeb.Goals c.Planningd.Objectives C
26. PNP Inspector Rank; a.One Anahaw b.Two Anahawc.3 Anahaw d.One sun A
27. PNP Superintendent rank;a.One Star b.One Sun c.2Sun d.2 Star C
28. An area containing two ormore beats, routes or posts; a.Beat b.Route c.Patrol d.Sector D
29. The hierarchy of authorityis the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of
theorganization; a.Command Responsibility b.Unity of Command c.Scalar chair d.Chain ofcommand
C
30. A fixed point or locationto which an officer is assigned for duty; a.Duty b.Post c.Allocation
d.Designation B
31. Disciplinary AppellateBoard consist of ___; a.1 b.2c.3 d.none of the above B
32. An area assigned forpatrol purposes, whether foot or motorized; a.Beat b.Route c.Holistic Patrol
d.Post A
33. A group of persons workingtogether for a common goal or objectives; a.Organization b.Planning
c.Managementd.Administration A
34. To compel obedience to alaw, regulation or command; a.Enforcementb.Policy c.Rules
d.Mandatory A
35. The process of directingand facilitating the work of people organized in formal groups in order
toachieve objectives; a.Authority b.Supervision c.Management d.Administration
36. Napolcom Staff Servicesconsist of ____; a.7 b.8 c.9 d.10 C
37. Involves the determinationand allocation of men and women as well as the resource of an
organizationachieve pre determined goals or objectives of the organization;
a.Subordinationb.Directing c.Organizing d.Management A
38. The forecasting in detailof the results of an officially recognized program of operations on the
highestreasonable expectations of operating efficiency; a.Budgeting b.Daily sheet c.Reporting
d.Detail ReportsC
39. Involves the overseeingand supervising of the human resources and the various activities in
anorganization to achieve through cooperative efforts of pre determined goals andobjectives of the
organization; a.Supervision b.Controlling c.Organizing d.Directing D
40. PNP Component Agenciescompose of ______ agencies; a.10 b.9 c.8 d.7 B
41. PNP Functions; a.Prevents and Investigatescrimes b.Conduct preliminary investigation
c.Discretion on Courtd.Determine Probable cause A
42. Napolcom Appellate Boardis composed of ___ divisions; a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6 B
43. DILG Secretary powers;a.Chief of PNP b.Appoint NBI agent c.Give Orders to PDEA Agent
d.Presiding Officer of Napolcom D
44. PNP Functions incounter-insurgency; a.Protect our territory b.Information gathering c.External
securityd.Monitor external threats B
45. Napolcom Commissioner iscomposed of ___ ; a.4 b.5 c.6d.7 C
46. The Vice Chairperson ofNapolcom is designated by ___________ ; a.DILG Sec. b.Chief of PNP
c.AFP Chiefof Staff d.PresidentD
47. RA 8551 approved on; a.Jan1998 b.Feb 1998c.March 1998 d.April 1998 B
48. An organizational processconcerned with the implementation of objectives and plans and
internaloperating efficiency; a.Administrationb.Management c.Organization d.Planning A
49. A group of trainedpersonnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in
theachievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace andorder,
protection of life and property, enforcement of the laws and theprevention of crimes;
a.PoliceOrganization b.Law Enforcement Organization c.Organization d.PoliceManagement A
50. The process involved inensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
statutes;a.Police Planning b.Police Management c.Police Administration d.Police Organization C
51. A fixed point or locationto which an officer is assigned for duty; a.Designation b.Post c.Duty
d.Allocation B
52. A length of streetsdesignated for patrol purposes also called Line beat; a.Foot Patrol
b.Beatc.Sector d.Route D
53. In England were militarycharge in areas, this areas were called _______; a.Shuri b.Shires
c.Shifers d.ShufB
54. Sheriff derived from theword _______ ________; a.Sher-iff b.Sheire-Rieve c.Sherei-Reih
d.Shrek-Reiif B
55. They called it as keeperof the house; a.Sheriff b.Praterion Guard c.Military d.Constabuli D
56. King Henry issued the lawscalled; a.Leges Hentai b.LegisAquila c.Leges Henrici d.Leges Henry
Sy B
57. Misdemeanors means;a.Crimes b.Violation c.Penalty d.Less Serious Crimes D
58. A body of men who inquirefacts of crime and eliminate the anglo saxon tribe ordeal system;
a.Jurorb.Jury c.Grand Juryd.Justices C
59. Magna Carta begins in_____; a.1212 b.1213 c.1214 d.1215D
60. In Magna Carta it embarksthe principle of ; a.Criminal Justice System b.Trial Jury System
c.Police Policing System d.Dueprocess System B
61. Body of Crime is; a.Corpus Delicti b.Sceneof Crime c.Delicti Corpus d.Corpse delicpee A
62. What period of policingoriginate the curfew laws?; a.Anglo Saxon b.Norman c.Westminster
d.England C
63. Replacement of Sheriff inWestminster period?; a.Peace Man b.Guard c.Police d.Justice of the
Peace D
64. Who is the person whowrote the book i London Bow Streets? ; a.Cesare Lombroso b.Henry
Fielding c.EdwinSutherland d.Robert Peel B
65. In what year _____ changewas made in policing in england; a.1829 b.1830 c.1831 d.1828 A
66. The supreme source ofgovernment for any particular organization; a.Hierarchy b.Police Power
c.Authority d.Taxation C
67. One Police Force means;a.Number b.Group as One c.Accountability d.Under One Leader D
68. PPSC is under _____?; a.DILG b.DOJ c.PNPA d.none of the above A
69. Robert peels Centralheadquarter is; a.Scottish Center Police b.Scotland Yard c.England HQ d.
England PeelCenter Scotland B
70. In England new police mencalled _____; a.Plebo b.Neophite c.Apprentice d.Bobbies D
71. Basic principle in England“The Best deterrent to crime is ; a.Patrol b.Curfew c.Police Visibilty
d.Apprehension of CriminalD
72. The term police derivedfrom the word; a.Politiae b.Politiac.Politics d.Polite B
73. A rural police inPhilippines established by the Royal decree of Jan.8, 1836; a.Guardia
Civilb.Carabineros c.Cuadrillerosd.Civil de Guardia C
74. Body of Filipino policemenorganized originally in each of the provincial capital and established
by theRoyal decree of Feb.12, 1852; a.Guardia Civil b.Carabineros c.Cuadrilleros d.Civil de
Guardia A
75. The assignment ofparticular personnel to particular tasks; a.Duty b.Mission Order
c.Specializationd.Obligation C
76. When is the R.A. 6975 enacted?;a. 1989 b.1990c.1991 d.1992 B
77. Profession means; a.powerto secure b.integrity and bravery c.announce a belief d.allof the
above C
78. An Act establishing thePNP under a reorganized Department of the Interior and Local
Government; a.RA6985 b.RA8551 c.RA 6975d.RA8555 C
79. In PNP mission it ensurespublic safety and _________ security; a.External b.Internal c.Extra
d.Domestic B
80. PNP LAW is created thruthe intention of ________; a.stability b.protection c.establishment
d.reorganized D
81. Who is the Ex OfficioChairman of Napolcom?; a.PNP Chief b.Napolcom Executive Head c.DILG
Sec d.DOJ Sec C
82. The Praetorian guard camefrom the city of _______; a.London b.Rome c.Italy d.Europe B
83. The process involved inensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
statutes;a.Police Planning b.Police Management c.Police Administration d.Police Organization C
84. The forecasting in detailof the results of an officially recognized program of operations on the
highestreasonable expectations of operating efficiency; a.Budgeting b.Daily sheet c.Reporting
d.DetailReports A
85. Height Limit in PO1 PNPQualifications for male; a.1.60m b.1.61m c.1.62m d.1.63m C
86. Height Limit in PO1 PNPQualifications for female; a.1.57mb.1.58m c.1.59m d.1.60m A
87. In Anglo Saxon Period smalltribal areas is called as; a.Balangai b.Tuns c.Towns d.Crib B
88. PNP Age qualificationsapplications for PO1; a.22-30 b.23-31 c.22-29 d.21-30 D
89. In Britain the village lawis called as; a.Hue andCry b.Code of Arthur c.Codals d.Lex Talionis A
90. Napolcom is under thedepartment of; a.DOJ b.DILG c.PNPA d.Office of the President D
91. Main intention of RA 8551to RA 6975; a.Reform the old b.Modify c.Amend d.Reorganized C
92. The hierarchy of authorityis the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the
organization;a.Command Responsibility b.Unity of Command c.Scalar chair d.Chain of command C
93. Who is the king of Francewho conquered and invaded England?; a.Norman William b.William
Norman c.Norman Wills d.William NormsA
94. Necessary for anorganization to function effectively, however, the state of the
disciplinaryprocess depends upon the quality of its leaders; a.Limitation b.Discipline
c.Loyaltyd.Integrity B
95. Subordinate should receiveorders from one superior only; a.Command responsibility b.Unity of
Command c.Chain of Commandd.Scalar Chair B
96. In accordance of RA 8551PNP chief Maximum tenure is; a.3 years b.4 years c.5 years d.6 years
B
97. The largest organicfunctional unit within a large department; a.Division b.Unit c.Section
d.Bureau D
98. A primary subdivision of abureau; a.Unit b.Divisionc.Bureau d.Section B
99. Functional unit within adivision that is necessary for specialization; a.Section b.Unit c.Bureau
d.Division A
100. Functional group within a section or the smallest functionalgroup within an
organization; a.Section b.Division c.Unit d.Bureau C
CRIM – 3 FORENSIC BALLISTICS

OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITYCollege of Criminology
FINAL EXAMINATION 1STSEM SY 2011-2012
CRIM – 3 FORENSICBALLISTICS
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each ofthe following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading thespace corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED.
1. The instruments especially designed to permit the firearm examiner todetermine the similarity and
dissimilarity between two fired bullets or twofired shell.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope b. Bullet Microscope
c. BuletComparison Microscope d. Bulet Microscope A
2. Itis generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and firedshells to determine the
relative distribution of the class characteristics.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope b. SterioscopicMicroscope
c. Stereouscopic Microscope d. Stereuoscopic Microscope A
3. A battery operated instrumentsgenerally used for the examination of the internal surface of the
gun barrel todetermine the irregularities that caused microscopic markings on the peripheralsurface
of the fired bullets.
a. Onoscope b.Onosecope
c. Onscope d. OnoescopeA
4. This contains a series ofmicroscopic lenses of different magnifications that can be used in
examiningfired bullets and fired shells to determine its class characteristics.
a. Shadowgraph b. Shadawgraph
c. Shadowgrap d. Shadawgrap A
5. An instruments designed tomeasure velocity of the bullets
a. Cronograph b. Cronograp
c. Chronograph d. Chronograp C
6. Type of a weapon fired from theshoulder.
a. Pistol b. Revolver
c. Machine gun d. Rifle D
7. Instrument used in test firingsuspected firearm or firearms to obtain test bullets for comparative
purposes
a. Bullet Recovery Bax b. Bullet Recavery Box
c. Bullet Recovery Box d.Bullet Recoviry Box
8. The depressed portion of therifling as you looked inside a barrel of a gun C
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch A
9. The elevated rifling of thebarrel of the gun.
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch B
10.Caliber .38 fired bullet found at the crime scene having 5 lands 5 grooves andright hand twist
indicate that it was fired from.
a. Colt b.Browning
c.Remington d. Smith and Wesson D
11. Colt firearms has
a. 5 lands 5 grooves,left hand twist b. 5 lands 5 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, left handtwist d. 6 lands 6 grooves, right hand twist C
12. Isthe study of the firearms identification by means of the ammunition firedthrough them or fired
through submitted suspected firearm.
a. Ballistics b. Forensic Ballistics
c. Terminal Ballistics d. Internal Ballistics B
13. Instruments used for makingmeasurement such as bullet diameter, bore diameter and barrel
length.
a. Caleper b. Caliper
c. Calleper d. Calliper B
14. Firearms which propelsprojectiles of less than one inch in diameter are generally classified as;
a. Artillery b. Small arms
c. Cannon d. Rifle B
15. The still block which closesthe rear of the bore against the forced of the charge is;
a. Breech face b. Breech block
c.Chamber d. Bore B
16. Characteristic which are determinableonly after the manufacture of the firearm. They are
characteristics whoseexistence is beyond the control of man and which have random
distribution.Their existence in a firearm is brought about through wear and tear, abuse,mutilation,
corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes;
a. Forensic Ballistics b. Rifling
c. Class Characteristics d. Individual Characteristics D
17. When the bulletenters the rifle bore from the stationery position and is forced abruptly intothe
rifling its natural tendency is to go straight forward before encounteringthe regular rifling twist, is
called;
a. Shavingmarks b. Skid marks
c. Individual Characteristics d. Slippage marks D
18. The practice of pulling the trigger to snap and unloadfirearm.
a.Firing gun b. Dry firing
c. Aiming gun d. Pointing gun B
19. Characteristicsof 9mm. Browning pistol.
a. 5 lands 5 grooves,right hand twist b. 3 lands 4 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, righthand twist d. 7 lands 7 grooves, right hand twist C
20. When a cartridgefails to explode on time or there is a delayed in combustion due to
faultyfunctioning of the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is;
a.Misfired b.Recoil
c. Hang fire d. Velocity C
21. A ring or serrated groovesaround the body of the bullet which contain substance in order to
minimizefriction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore.
a.Lead bullet b. Wad cutter bullet
c. Bullet cannelure d. Plated bullet C
22. A firearm having six land six grooves withright hand twist
a. Smith andweson b. Browning type
c. Colt type d. Webby type B
23. Instrument used for the propulsion of the projectiles by the expansiveforce of gases coming
from the burning powder.
a. Micrometer b. Firearms
c. Stereoscopic Microscope d. Comparison B
24. The part of the mechanism in a firearm whichcauses empty shells or cartridge cases to be
thrown from the gun is called;
a. Extractor b. Ejector
c. Hammer d. TriggerB
25. Thepart of cartridge that ignites the main powder charge when struck by the firingpin.
a. Shell b. Base
c. Primer d. Bulle Ct
26.Weapon in which pressure uponthe trigger both cocks and released the hammer.
a. Single action b. Trigger
c. Hammer d. Double action D
27. Weapon in which pressure upon thetrigger released the hammer that must bemanually cocked
is called.
a. Automatic b. Repeating Arm
c. Single action d. Ejector C
28. A policeman arriving at the crime scene, found a revolver.In reference to this, he should be most
careful
a. T see that it is not loaded b. To put the safety lock
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily d. To mark it readily to the barrel A
29. Lesser caliberfirearm but considered as powerful.
a. 9mm b. .38
c. .357 d. .45 C
30. The part of .45 caliber semi automatic pistol found at thecrime scene , normally marked for
identification in the;
a. Trigger b. Ejector
c. Slide d. Barrel D
31. It is the part of mechanism in a firearm that withdraws theshell or cartridge from the chamber
a.Ejector b. Primer
c. Striker d. Extractor D
32. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol orrifle barrels is called;
a. Land b. Grooves
c. Extractor marks d. One complete rotation of thebullet inside the
bore D
33.The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that;
a.The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer
c. The revolver can fire with or withoutautomatic shell ejection
d. The shell of the fired shot is ejected andfresh cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the same
time B
34. The secret of a good shooting form is;
a. Proper sighting of the target b. Relaxed and natural position
c. Firing slowly d. Keeping the thumb alongthe hammer B
35. Of the following the best method to use infiring a revolver is to keep
a. Both eyes closed b. Onlythe right eye is open
c. Both eye is open d. Only left eye is open C
36. A policeman should fire his pistol.
a. At no time at all b. Primarily to stop at quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen d. Only at the last resort D
37.The science dealing with the motion of the projectiles from the time the firersqueezes the trigger
up to the time it riches the muzzle of the barrel, iscalled.
a. Posterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics A
38. The science that deals with the effect of theimpact of the projectiles on target is called;
a. Exterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Anterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics D
39. The science which deals with themotion of the projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle up
to the time itshit the target, is known as;
a. Terminalballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exteriorballistics d. Forensic ballistics C
40. ClassCharacteristics are determinable even blank the manufacture of the firearm
a.During b. After
c. Before d. Never C
41. Rifling locatedinside the barrel of a gun is a combination
a. Pitch b.Twist
c. Lands and Grooves d. Cannelure C
42. A completed unfiredunit ammunition is inserted into the chamber of a firearm for firing isreferred
to as;
a.Bullet b.Shell
c. Primer d. Cartridge D
43. A copper jacketedfired bullet is usually fired from;
a. Revolver b. Pistol
c. Rifle d. Pistol and Revolver B
44. If a bullet isfired through a weapon in which the lands have been worn down or through a
borewhich is slightly oversized. The marks, is called;
a. Skid marks b. Slippage marks
c. Rifling marks d. Shearing marksA
45. A magnified photograph of a small object produce byconnecting a camera with the ocular of a
compound microscope
a. Photo Microphotograph b. Microfilm
c. Photomicrograph d. Photograph C
46. Commonly, these marks are found on bullets fired from arevolver due to poor alignment of the
cylinder of a bore
a. Shaving marks b. Skid marks
c. Pivot marks d. Landmarks A
47. To impart a motion or rotation of a bullet during itspassage inside the barrel , to insure
gyroscopic stability in its flight iscalled;
a. Range b. Gauge
c. Rifling d. Center fire C
48. A metallic cup charged with priming composition ,usually made up of potassium chlorate,
antimony sulfide and fulminate ofmercury.
a. Primer b.Gunpowder
c. Cartridge d.Primer cup A
49. A type of firearmwhich the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer.
a. Automatic b. Single action
c. Double action d. Slideaction type C
50. Part of Exterior ballistics which refers to the soundcreated at the muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy b. Muzzle blust
c. Muzzle noise d. Range B
51. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin onthe bullet that pass through it.
a. Land Rifling b. Rifling
c. Grooves d.All of these C
52. Raised portion between the grooves found inside thebarrel

a. Land b. Caliber
c. Gauge d. Rifling B
53. It refers to theplacement of the right and left specimen in side by side position
a. Drag marks b. Positively matched
c. Juxtaposition d. Pseudomatch C
54. A part of ballistics dealing with firearmsidentification
a. Interiorballistics b. Exterior ballistics
c. Terminal ballistics d. Forensic ballisticsA
55. The tumbling ofthe bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target sideways
a. Key hole shot b.Ricochet
c. Hangfire d. Misfire D
56. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy toprevent leading.
a. Jacketed bullet b. Metal cased bullet
c. Metal point bullet d. Plated bullet A
57. A smooth boremilitary firearm which has no rifling
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Pistol d. Revolver A
58. This part of the firearm strike the primer causing thefiring pin of the cartridge
a. Hammer b. Ejector
c. Trigger d. Firing pin D
59. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land
a Gauge b. Mean diameter
c. Caliber d. Rifling C
60. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placedinto gun chamber
a. Cartridge b.Primer
c. Bullet d.Shell A
61. Failure of a cartridge to discharge
a. Misfire b.Hang fire
c. Ricochet d.Key hole shot A
62. Most common individual characteristics that are visibleon the base portion of then fired cartridge
a. Firing Pin impression b. Ejector marks
c. Extractor marks d. Chamber marks A
63. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a completeunfired unit
a. Bullet b. Primer
c. Gunpowder d. All of these D
64. Distance that the rifling advances to make one completeturn
a. Pitch ofrifling b. Choke
c. Trajectory d. Recoil A
65. A rearward movement of a firearm from firing
a. Recoil b. Force
c. Back fire d. Shot force A
.66. Refer to thechannels cut in the interior surface of the barrel
a. Rifling b. Land
c. Groove d. Cannelure C
67. Part of the firearmwhich closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge
a. Breechblock b. Breechface
c. Ejector d. Breechface marks A
68. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot anumber of lead pellets in one charge
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Musket d. Pistol A
69. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a singleround lead ball
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Musket d. Pistol C
70. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin
a. Trigger b.Hammer
c. Sear d.Main spring C
71. The science which deals with the effect of the impact ofthe projectile on the target
a. Interior ballistics b. Exterior ballistics
c. Terminal ballistics d. Posterior ballistics B
72. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles ofthe same time it leaves the muzzles of the
firearm to the time it hits thetarget
c. Terminal ballistics d. Posterior ballistics C
73. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet
a. Projectile b. Ball
c. Shell d. Missile A
74. Measuring device used to measure the velocity ofprojectiles
a. Caliper b. Chronograph
c. Test bullet d. Bulletrecovery box B
75. A bullet fired from a firearm with anoversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down
would produce whatkind of marking?
a. Slippage marks b. Skid marks
c. Rifling marks d. Shearing marks A
76. It literary meansdelay in discharge or the cartridge failure to explode on time
a. Misfire b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet d.Key hole shot B
77. The most reliableof all individual characteristics when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks b. Ejector marks
c. Chamber marks d. Breech face mark D
78. When looking a fired bullet, the mark used to identifyit is placed on
a. Its base b. Its side
c. Its side and base d. Its nose A
79. It is produced when the muzzle is held against thetarget or body when fired
a. Smudging b. Tatooing
c. Contact burn d. Contact wound D
80. It is result when the firearm is shot a around 2 to 8inches to the target
a. Smudging b. Tatooing
c. Contact burn d. Contact wound A
81. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as
a. Part of the firearm b. Nomenclature
c. Accessory d. Complete firearm D
82. Scientific examinationsof bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a crime
c. Terminal ballistics d. Forensic ballistics D
83. Rifling in the bore ofsmall arms is primary designed for.
a. Increase the speed of thebullet b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Increase impact knowledge d. Prevent the bullet fromturning end over in the air D
84. The type of the cartridge whose case has a well definedupstanding rim around the base or
simply with rim diameter greater than thebody.
a. Rimmed type b. Semi-rimmed type
c. Rim less type d.Rebated type A
85. The cartridge has a rimless form, but with a closer lookthe rim is slightly greater than the body.
c. Rim less type d. Rebated type B
86. Refer to the cartridgewith a rimless pattern, which has a rim diameter smaller than the body of
thecase.
c. Rim less type d. Rebated type D
87. A type of a cartridge with a case having a rim diameterequal to diameter of the body with an
extraction grooves cut around the base.
c. Rim less type d. Rebated type C
88. A cartridge with a prominent raise belt around its bodyjust in front of the extraction grooves.
c. Rim less type d. Belted type D
89. It is very carefully made replica of a cartridge,usually a tool steel and carefully dimensioned to be
used as weapons byinstructor and repairman.
a. Dummy b. Drill ammunition
c. Blank ammunition d. Liveammunition A
90. This type of ammunition is used in mill training topractice loading and manipulation of the gun.
c. Blank ammunition d. Liveammunition
B
91. A cartridge without a bullet, containing gunpowder thatis designed to generate a loud noise to
indicating firing
c. Blank ammunition d. Liveammunition C
92. Is the term applied for complete unit of unfired cartridge.
c. Blank ammunition d. Live ammunition D
93. The projectiles propelled through the barrel by theexpansive force of heated gas, sometimes
called slug.
a. Bullet b. Cartridge case
c. Gunpowder d. Primer A
94. The container for thegunpowder, sometimes called shell
c. Gunpowder d. Primer C
95. Sometimes calledPropellant or powder charge when ignited by the primer flash.
c. Gunpowder d. Primer C
96. The chemical compound or priming mixture contained inthe primer cup. This mixture is highly
susceptible to friction.
c. Gunpowder d. Primer D
97. Instrument usedin determining more or less weight of bullets and shotgun pellets.
a. Analytical Ballance b. Torsion Ballance
c. Analytical Balance d. TursionBalance C
98. Father of thePercussion of powder
a. Alexander JohnForsyth b. Alexander Forsyth
c. Edward Colt d. Henry Colt A
99. Similar in used like calipers
a. Micrometer b. Mecrometer
c. Micrommeter d. Mecrommeter A
100. It is used primarily forthe examination an interior surfaces of the gun barrel
a. Halexometer b. Helixometer
c. Hallexometer d. Hellixometer B
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
1. When the light hits a transparent glass which would allow the light to pass through
its medium. This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or
passing through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is
the type of light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of
the human eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
6. ASAis also known as
A. AssociationStandards American
B. American Standards Association
C. America StandardsAssociation
D. AmericanStandard Associations B
7. ISOis also known as
A. InternationalStandards Organization
B. International Standard Organization
C. InternationalStandard Organizations
D. InternationalStandards Organizations B
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp
or clear image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens
exposing the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
11. Whichof the following film is considered to be the fastest in terms of theirexposure?
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
12. Whatpart of the camera that controls the depth of field?
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
13. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the
administration of justice refers to
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
14. Themechanical and chemical result of Photography is called
C. Photograph
D. Photography C
15. Whichof the following lens defects will produce a sharp center object but with ablurred sides?
A. Lateral aberration
B. Chromatic aberration
C. Spherical aberration
D. Distortion C
FINAL EXAMINATION
(CS 2 - JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND CRIME PREVENTION
SY2011-2012/2nd Semester
INSTRUCTION: Select thecorrect answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answerfor each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choiceon the answer
sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. It is an act committed by a minor who violates thepenal code of the government refers to:
a. delinquency b. juvenile c. delinquent d. juvenile delinquency D
2. An anti-social or act which does not conform with thestandards of society.
a. delinquency b. juvenile c. delinquent d. juvenile delinquency D
3. One whose behavior has brought him into repeatedconflict with the law, regardless of whether
he has been taken before a courtor not refers to:
a. child b. delinquent c. anti-social behavior d. recidivist B
4. The doctrine that does not consider delinquent acts ascriminal violation, thus making
delinquents non-criminal persons
a. parenspatriae b. parentspatriae c. RA 9344 d. doctrine on
juveniledelinquency A
5. Truancy, running away from home and violating curfeware examples of offenses who
committed by:
a. statusoffenders b. juveniledelinquents c. recidivist d. delinquency A
6. One who has internalized his conflicts and ispreoccupied with his own feelings
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental A
7. One whose delinquent acts have a cold, brutal andvicious quality for which the youth feels no
remorse
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental C
8. A delinquent youth who lacks moral conscience
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental C
9. One who is essentially sociable and law-abiding buthappens to be at the wrong time and place
and becomes involved in delinquentacts.
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental D
10. An aggressive youth who resents authority of anyone whomakes an effort to control his behavior
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental B
11. An approach that advocates that youth misconduct is adirect result of faulty biology
a. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic B
12. Views youthful misdeed as a result of a learningprocess through interactions with other
members of society
a. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic C
13. Views youthful misdeed as a result of a learningprocess through interactions with other
members of society
b. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic A
14. ____________ theory believe that delinquent behavior isthe result of youth’s biological make up
and life experiences, feel treatmentshould include altering one or more factors that contribute to
unlawfulbehavior.
a. trait theory b.biological theory c. positivist theory d. psychological theory
C
15. ___________ was the first formal explanation of crimeand delinquency held that human
behavior was a matter of choice.
a. trait theory b.choice theory c. biological theory d.
psychological theory C
16. According to this theory people weigh the benefit andconsequence of their future actions before
deciding on a course of behavior.
a. trait theory b.biological theory c. classicalcal theory d. psychological theory.
D
17. The popularity of the ___________ approach was in part responsible for thedevelopment of
the prison as an alternative to physical punishment .
a. trait approach b.psychological approach c.biological d. classical approach
18. ___________ theory was derived from positivist theory.
a. classical theory b.biological theory c.psychological theory d. trait theory. D
19. ___________ theory was derived from classical theory.
a. choicetheory b. biologicaltheory c. psychological theory d. trait theory. A
20. View delinquency as essentially psychological.
a. choice theory b.biological theory c. psychological theory d. trait theory. C
21. The first and most basic institution of societyresponsible for developing a child’s potential in all
aspects like physical,emotional, spiritual, moral, intellectual and social refers to________________?
a. family b. school c.environment d. home A
22. Considered the second home of a child, with teachers asthe second parents.
a. family b. school c.environment d. home B
23. Institution that responsible for the training of youngpersons intellectual, as well as social skills
which they need for them to growup as productive, law- abiding and responsible citizens.
a. family b. school c.environment d. home B
24. The culture, norms and behavior of the child’ssurroundings may very well influence the
upbringing of the child especiallyduring their formative years refers to ______________.
a. family b. school c. environment d. home C
25. Children raised in homes with one or both parentsabsent may be prone to anti-social behavior.
This contributory factor injuvenile delinquency refers to:
a. familybreak-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence A
26. Nuclear families that are the product ofdivorce/separation and remarriage, blending one parent
from each of twofamilies and their combined children into one family unit, refers to:
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. blended family D
27. Children raised by parents who lack proper parentingskills are more at risk than those whose
parents are supportive and effectivelycontrol their children in a non-coercive fashion, refers to:
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence D
28. Parents of delinquent youth have been found to sufferneurological conditions linked to antisocial
behaviors, and these conditionsmay be inherited genetically. This study refers to?
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence
B
29. ___________________ means placing a child in the temporary care of a family other than
itsown as a result of state intervention into problems that are taking placewithin the birth family; can
be used as a temporary shelter while a permanent sadoption effort being completed.
a. abandonment b. neglect c. foster care d. abuseC
30. ________________ refers to parents physically leavetheir children with intention of completely
severing the parent-childrelationship.
a. fostercare b. neglect c. abandonment d. abuse C
31. ____________ refers to passive neglect by a parent orguardian depriving children of food,
shelter, health care and love.
a. fostercare b. neglect c. abandonment d. abuse
B
32. ____________ anyphysical, emotional or sexual trauma to a child, including neglecting to
giveproper care and attention, for which no reasonable explanation can be found.
a. child abuse b. physical
abuse c. physicalneglect d. emotional abuse A
33. Leaving the school before completing the requiredprogram of education refers to?
a. dropping out b. underachievers c. truancy d. absence A
34. Those who fail to meet expected levels of schoolachievement refers to?
a. dropping out b. underachievers c. truancy d. absence B
35. ______________isa direct cause of delinquent behavior. Children who fail at school soon
feelfrustrated & rejected.
a. truancy b. underachievers c.school failure d.dropping out C
36. Smallgroups of friends who share intimate knowledge and confidences
a. crowds b. cliques c.controversial youth d. gang B
37. Loosely organized groups who share interests andactivities.
a. crowds b.cliques c. controversialyouth d. gang A
38. Anaggressive kids who either liked or intensely disliked by their peers and whoare the ones
most likely to become
engaged in anti-social behavior.
a. crowds b.cliques c. controversial youth d. gang C
39. Groupscontaining law-violating juveniles and adults that are completely organizedwith
established leadership &
membership rules refers to?
a. crowds b.cliques c.controversial youth d. gang D
40. Inscriptionsor drawings made on a wall or structure & used by delinquents for gangmessages
and turf definition.
a. graffiti b.posting c. representing d. trade
mark A
41. Asystem of positions, facial expressions & body language used by gangmembers to convey a
message.
a. graffiti b.
posting c. representing d. trademark B
42. Tossing or flashing gang signs in the presence ofrivals, often escalating into a verbal or physical
confrontation refersto? a. graffiti b.
posting c. representing d. trademark C
43. Youths inhale vapors from lighter fluid, paint thinner,to reach a drowsy dizzy state sometimes
accompanied by hallucination, this isan example of what kind of drugs?
a. inhalants b. sedatives c.tranquilizers d.stimulants A
44. Drugs used by athletes and bodybuilders to gain musclebulk and strength.
a. anabolic steroids b.designer drug c.tranquilizers d. alcoholA
45. Thedried leaves of the cannabis plant. It is the drug most commonly used byteenagers.
a. marijuana b. cocaine c. hashish d.heroin A
46. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Code, refers to?
a. PD 605 b. PD 608 c. PD 603 d.PD 606 C
47. Under this Presidential Decree, it shall apply topersons below ________ years old except those
emancipated in accordance withlaw. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Code, refers to?
a.14 b. 17 c. 15 d. 21 D
48. Former ________________ signed this Presidential Decreeon 1974?
a.Pres. Ramos b. Pres. Marcos c. Pres. Quirino d.Pres.
Quezon B
49. "Special Protection of Children Against ChildAbuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.", refers
to?
a.RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d. RA 9775 C
50. The “VAWC law” of 2004, refers to?
a.RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d.RA 9775 B
51. The “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006” , refersto?
a. RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d.RA 9775 A
52. What Republic Act is the Anti-Child Pornography Law of2009?
a. RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d. RA 9775 D
53. Any citizen whohas personal knowledge of the crime can file a criminal complaint, thisstatement
pertains to?
a. private crime b. public crime c. specialcrime d. personal crime B
54. Refers to any acts that include bodily orphysical harm, refers to what violence/abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological A
55. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make awoman financially dependent, pertains to what
form of abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychologicalB
56. Refers to an act which is sexual in nature,committed against woman or her child?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological C
57. Refers to an act or omissions causing orlikely to cause mental or emotional suffering of the
victim, pertains to whatform of violence/abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological D
58. Rape, acts of lasciviousness, makingdemeaning and sexually suggestive remarks are
examples of _________ abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological C
59. Intimidation, stalking, causing or allowing the victim to witnessabusive injury to pets are
examples of _________ abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological D
60. Withdrawal of financial support or preventing thevictim from engaging in any legitimate
profession occupation, business oreconomic activity, refers to ______________ violence?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological B
61. Refers to a situation wherein the parties live ashusband and wife without the benefit of marriage
or/are romantically involvedover time and on a continuing basis during the course of relationship,
what kind of relationship is this?
a. sexual b. dating c. marital d.one night stand B
62. Refers to asingle sexual act which may or may not result in the bearing of a common child,what
kind of relationship is this? a. sexual b. dating c. marital d.one night
stand A
63. BarangayProtection Order is effective within ______ days? A
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d.60 A
64. TPO iseffective within ______ days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d.60 A
65. PPO iseffective within ______ days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. none of the above D
66. TPO stands for__________ Protection Order?
a. transition b. transitory c. temporary d. temporal C
67. PPO stands for__________ Protection Order?
a. parents b. permanent c. parental d. none of the above B
68. The Inter-Agency Council of ViolenceAgainst Women and Their Children?
a. PNP b. DSWD c. DOJ d. all of the above D
69. Refers torefers to scientifically defined pattern of psychological and behavioralsymptoms that
have resulted from cumulative abuse found in woman living inbattering relationship.
a. battery b. physical injury c. battering d. battered woman syndromeD
70. Refers to anact of inflicting physical harm upon the Woman or her child resulting tophysical and
psychological oremotional distress?
a. battery b. physical injury c. battering d. battered woman syndrome
A
71. Refers to anyrepresentation, whether visual, audio, or written combination thereof, byelectronic,
mechanical, digital, optical, magnetic or any other means, of childengaged or involved in real or
simulated explicit sexual activities?
a. pornography b. child production c. production d. child pornography D
72. Refers to a website,bulletin board service, internet chat room or news group, or any other
internetor shared network protocol address?
a. internet café/kiosk b. internet address c. internet content host d.Internet
Service Provider (ISP) B
73. Refers to an establishment that offers or proposes to offerservices to the public for the use of its
computer/s or computer system for thepurpose of accessing the internet, computer games or related
services.
a. internet café/kiosk b. internet address c. internet contenthost d.
Internet ServiceProvider (ISP) A
74. Refers to a person who hosts or who proposes to host internetcontent in the Philippines.
a. internet café/kiosk b. internetaddress c. internetcontent host d.Internet
Service Provider (ISP) C
75. Refers to a person or entity that supplies or proposes to supply,an internet carriage service to
the public.
a. internetcafé/kiosk b. internet address c. internet contenthost d. Internet
Service Provider (ISP) D
76. Refers to the act of preparing a child or someone who the offenderbelieves to be a child for
sexual activity or sexual
relationship bycommunicating any form of child pornography. It includes online enticement
orenticement through any
other means. a.
grooming b. luring c. pandering d.cleaning A
77. Refers to the act of communicating, by means of a computer system,with a child or someone
who the offender believes be a child for the purpose offacilitating the commission of sexual activity or
production of any form ofchild
pornography. a.grooming b. luring c. pandering
d.cleaning B
78. Refers to the act of offering, advertising, promoting, representingor distributing through any
means any material or purported material that isintended to cause another to believe that the
material or purported materialcontains any form of child pornography, regardless of the actual
content of thematerial or purported material.
a. grooming b. luring c. pandering d.
cleaning
LEA – 5 TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENTINVESTIGATION

OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITY
College of Criminology
FINAL EXAM 1ST SEM SY 2011-2012
LEA – 5 TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENTINVESTIGATION
INSTRUCTION: Select thecorrect answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
foreach item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice onthe answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURE
1. The traffic law enforcement is performed bythe court through Prosecution, Adjudication and
Penalization of cases.
a. Court TrafficLaw Enforcement b. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Enforcement System d. Road Users System A
2. Theenforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violators, special assistance toprosecutors and
courts and incidental service to highway users.
a. Court Traffic Law Enforcement b.Road User System
c. E.O. 266 Enforcement System d. Police Traffic Law Enforcement D
3. The Systemspecifies correct and incorrect road user behavior.
a. Road Users System b. Road System
c. EnforcementSystem d. Court System C
4. If the plate number of a motor vehicle isAVC 536, what week of the month should it be
registered?
a. 1st b. 2nd
rd
c. 3 d. 4th A
5. If a driver is involved in a trafficaccident, he must report to the nearest police station.
a. within 48 hours b.within 72 hours
c. at once d. after 3 hours C
6. What is the most common traffic violationcommitted by road users?
a. overloading b. expired license
c. illegal parking d. intoxicated driver C
7. This element includes pedestrians, pedalcyclist, drivers, passengers and others
a. Enforcement System b. Road users Systems
c. Road System d. Court System B
8. On a highway, a traffic sigh reads 80 kph asthe maximum speed. While the area isvery foggy, a
man
Drivers on 80 Kph. If you are a trafficpatrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the
driver
For:
a. Overspeeding b. underspeeding
c. reckless driving d. failure to slow down C
9. As a general rule, you should overtake on theleft side, except when:
a. the coming traffic is free from anyobstruction
b. the opposite traffic is free fromoncoming
motor vehicles
c.traversing on a two-way lane highway

d. cruising along a four lane two way traffic way.
10.Which of the following is a safe place for overtaking? D
a. commercial places b. expressway c. ruralhighways d. dry paved
11John was issued with a new professional drivers license on March 16,2005. when should john
renewhis
License?
a. March 16, 2006 b. March 16, 2007
c. March 16 2008 d. March 16, 2009 C
12.Parking is allowed in the following places, except:
a. within an intersection. b. ona one-way street.
c. none of these d. on a two-way street A
13.Many traffic congestion are caused by slow drivers or poor driving habits,pedestrian mistakes,
officers errors, poor planning, poor legislation.
a.physical inadequacy b. poor control measures
c. human errors d. poor maintenance C
14. Joe was issued a studentdrivers permit on January 25, 2009. when can he be qualified to apply
for Non-professionaldrivers license?
a. after June 25,2009 b. on orafter June 25, 2009
c. after May 25,2009 d. after February 25,2009. D
15. Empowering the LandTransportation Commission to control and supervise the operations of
motorvehicle driving schools.
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 B
16.The color of the background for regulatory sign is-
a. blue b.green
c. yellow d. white D
17.The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is-
a. amber b. red
c. brown d. green A
18.From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the traffic light?
a. red, yellow, green b. green, red, yellow
c. green, yellow, red d. red, green, yellowC
19.The double solid white line-
a. doesn’t allow lane changing b. allows lane changing
c. allows overtaking d. allows parking A
20. What Memorandum Circular, Clarificatory guidelines for theregistration/operation of new private
vehicles particularly in the use ofconduction sticker?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. MemorandumCircular 94-002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-209 D
21.When the vehicle in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasizethe-
a. the direction of the motor vehicles b.the general view of the road or intersection
c. close-up view of the damage d. none of the above C
22.This area is composed of the entire road and vehicles complex, as well as alltraffic rules and
regulations
a. Road System b.Enforcement System
c. Court System d. Road User System A
23. What Memorandum Circular, Sanctions on operators arising from theviolations of their drivers.?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-209
24.Means of transportation balanced on one shoulder is a popular carrying device.
a. manpower b. carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers B
25.How should a driver approach an intersection?
a. be at the right of way b. give a signal
c. be at full stop d. overtake other vehiclesB
26.Means of transportation the load is held on the back by a strap passing overthe chest.
a. manpower b.carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers C
27. What Memorandum Circular, Enjoining all public utility operators to usegarage instead of public
places or side streets in parking their vehicles?
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002 A
28. What Memorandum Circular, Directing all public land transportationservice operators and
drivers to display in any conspicuous place of theirvehicles the authorized fare matrix for the specific
route granted them toavoid conflict?
c. MemorandumCircular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002 C
29.What is that movement of persons, goods and vehicles either powered by animalor are animal-
drawn vehicles on by combustion system from one place to another?
a. engineering b. Traffic management
c. traffic d. construction C
30.What traffic formation facilities safe movement of vehicles and pedestrian intraffic?
a. Traffic Control b. Management
c. supervision d. enforcement d. construction A
31. What Memorandum Circular, Issuance of driver’s license to disabledpersons?
32.What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land transportationOffice (LTO) to operate
a
Vehicles on public highways?
a. driver’s ID b. franchise
c. driver’s license d. operator’s license C
33.What is the traffic engineering system that employs prescribed traffic rulesand regulations and
devices
Such as signals, and markings, to relievevehicular congestion and to promote safety and
pedestrian
Mobility?
a. traffic direction b.traffic engineering
c. traffic control d. traffic rules and regulations C
34. What P.D. Declaring thesyndicated printing, manufacture, distribution, possession or use of
fakeofficial Bureau of Land Transportation form, documents, plates and stickers asoffenses involving
economics sabotage
a. P.D. No. 1730 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
35. What P.D. Requiring compulsory insurance for all typesof Motor Vehicles against third party
liability as an additional prerequisitefor registration by the LTO
a. P.D. No. 612 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
36 What P.D. Imposing a tax on every motor vehicleequipped with air conditioner
a. P.D. No. 1686 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
37.What is that point or place where two or more, either single or double ormulti-lanes certainly meet
at a
Point?
a. parallel b. corner
c. intersection d. crossfire C
38. What P.D. Providing for the abatement of air pollutionfrom motor vehicles and for other
purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1181 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
39. What P.D. Granting theMetropolitan Manila Commission certain powers related to traffic
Management andcontrol in Metropolitan Manila providing penalties, and for other purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
40. What P.D. Regulating the issuance of licenseplates of all motor vehicles?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 C
41.What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
a. ‘keep to the left b. “keep to the right“
c. none of these d. “watch out” B
42. What Executive OrderCreating the Land Transportation Franchising and Regulatory Board (
LTFRB)?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 A
43. What Executive Order Reorganizing the DOTC,defining its powers and functions and for other
purposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 D
44.The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another isreferred to as-
a. transportations b. traffic
c. traffic management d. a and b arecorrect A
45. What Letter of Instruction, Prohibiting freight and cargo trucksfrom using roads, highways and
bridges whose load capacities are in excess ofspecific allowable limits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter ofInstruction No. 716 A
46.The application of the processes of planning, organizing, directing andcontrolling to traffic affairs
is
Referred to as-
a. traffic administration b. traffic management
c. traffic operation d. traffic supervision B
47.What is the slang term used in referring a narrow portion of the roadway due totraffic congestion
or
Where “to build Up” usually occurs?
a. gridlock b.congestion
c. traffic jam d. bottleneck D
48.R.A. 8750 is otherwise known as-
a. clean air act b. Philippine Land TransportationCode
c. seatbelt law d.anti-car napping act C
49. . What Letter ofInstruction, Directing the law enforcement agencies to implement the
PollutionControl Program?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b.Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 B
50.If the plate number of the motor vehicle is top 688, what month should it beregistered?
a. January b. March
c. August d.September C
51.It refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicle either powered byanimals by animals or
Animal-drawn vehicles or by combustionsystem from one place to another for purpose of save
travel?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. trafficenforcement B
52.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to theprocess of giving training
and
Travel and practice in the actual application of trafficsafety knowledge.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economicsB
53. What is Letter ofInstruction No.______ Prohibiting freight and cargo trucks from using
roads,highways and bridges whose load capacities are in excess of specific allowablelimits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No.551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No.716 A
54.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to thescience of measuring traffic
and
Travel?
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economics C
55. This is belong to the 5’E Pillars of Traffic Management, it is the study dealing with
potentiallydisastrous
disastrous population explosions. Changesin urban environment due to scale.
c. ecology or environment d. traffic economics C
56. What LTC MemorandumCircular No. ______,dated 12 September 1972. Providing guidelines in
the apprehension ofillegally parked motor vehicles?
a. LTC M.C. No. 33, b. LTC M.C. No. 15,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d.LTC M.C. 94-199 A
57. What LTC MemorandumCircular No.______,dated 19 January 1972. Regulating and laying
instructions in the use ofSpecial Commemorative Motor Vehicle Plates?
a. LTC M.C. No. 15 b. LTC M.C. No. 18,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d. LTC M.C. 94-199 A
58. This study is centered inthe urban environment which was change because the scale and
density of the
New urban concentrations and the natureof the new activities carried out there.
a. DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and environment d.Public works / engineering offices C
59. It is device mounted oron a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words
or
Symbols officially erected or installedfor the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.
c. traffic ecology and environment d. traffic signs D
60. It define as a signaloperated manually, electrically by which traffic is alternatively commanded
tostop
And permitted to proceed.
a.DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals d. traffic signs C
61. This were the areaswithin the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels
through
Which vehicular traffic guided.
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island D
62. What is Letter ofInstruction, Requiring all motor vehicles owners,users, or drivers to have in their
possession at all times while driving atleast one (1) pair of every warning device ( EWD ) for use
when the vehicle isdisabled on roads, streets and highways or other emergencies compelling
thevehicle to be on stop position?
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 C
63. It is represented by 3 color, red, yellow, green.
a. saturation flow b. traffic signal
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island B
64 What is Letter of Instruction,Every motor vehicle to equip at least a pair of early warning device?
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d.Letter of Instruction No. 716 D
65. It belong to the trafficsignal that permit the driver to proceed into the intersection, but requiresthat
the intersection furthest crosswalk be cleared before the red lightappears
a. saturation flow b red
c. yellow or amber d. green C
66.What Executive Order Providing for two service units in the Office of the Asst.Sec. for Land
Transportation in the DOTC( Law Enforcement Services and TrafficAdjudication Services), defining
the powers and functions thereof and for otherpurposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 C
67. It coordinated with thered signal and the green signal. A flashing pedestrian signal indicates
theyellow (amber) as warning period.
a. green b red
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal D
68. What Presidential DegreeRegulating the use of sirens, bells, hors, etc.,, by prohibiting the
attachmentof any siren, horn bell, etc. on motor vehicles which produce unusual orstarting sounds
as well as brinkers and other similar devices unless thevehicle belongs to the AFP, NBI, LTO, PNP,
BJMP, Hospitals and Fire Departmentand are specifically intended for use in emergencies.
a. P.D. No. 96. b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
69. It is created when anytwo or more signals or any traffic routes or roadway are coordinated with
afixed time relationships among the several intervals.
a. signal system b timing
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal A
70. It is complete electricaltiming mechanism mounted on a cabinet with control operation.
a. signal system bTraffic signal control
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal B
71. What R.A. thebasic law regulating land transportation in the Philippines?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 A
72.What R.A. which is knownas the “ Anti Carnapping Act of 1972” The act preventing and
penalizingcarnapping?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 C
73. What R.A. imposing a tax on privately owned passengerautomobiles, motorcycles and
scooters?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d.R.A 8749 B
74. What R.A. Also known asthe “ Clean air Act which regulates emission of toxic gases of both
gasolineand diesel engines?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 D
75. What R.A. It provides forthe attachment of seat belts for all types of motor vehicles and
imposespenalty for the non-compliance thereof?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 8750 D
76. What R.A. The Actcreating the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority, defining its powers
and functions, providingfunds therefore and for other purposes?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 7924 D
77. A condition on thetraffic way characterized by slow movement of roadway users due to
theovercrowding of motor vehicles, pedestrians and other road users.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic congestion
c. traffic engineering d.traffic economics B
78. It refers to reduced riskof accident or injury on the roads, achieved through
multidisciplinaryapproaches involving road engineering, and traffic management , education
andtraining of road users, and vehicle design.
a. traffic enforcement b. roadsafety
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economics B
79. This is means of havingtraffic violators appears in court with out physical arrest.
a. Traffic Citation b.Traffic Warning
c. Reprimand d. Traffic Arrest A
80. The court after dueprocess imposes the penalty upon the accused if found guilty
a. Penalization b Detection
c. Prosecution d.Apprehension A
81. An elevated orunderground structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing
busyhighways?
a. median barriers b Pedestrian over/underpass
c. offset d.guardrail B
82. What P.D. Expediting the methods of prescribing,redefining or modifying the lines and modes of
operations of public utilitymotor vehicles in the Philippines?
a. P.D. No. 101 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
83. What P.D. Declaring as part of the laws of the Philippines theviennaConvention on Road Traffic
Signs and Signals?
a. P.D. No. 207 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
84. It is used to increasevisibility of traffic way at night?
a. median barriers b street light
c. Fence d. drainage B
85. It is an enforcementaction which consists of taking a person into custody for the purpose
ofholding or detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
a. Traffic Arrest b Traffic Citation
c. Traffic Warning d.Reprimand A
86. It is highlyunsystematic, this is usually carried out in the home through parentaleducation and in
kindergarten and day nurseries.
a. noise barriers b traffic safety for children
c. Fence d.drainage B
87. It is safety educationfor elder pedestrians and drivers is relatively easier compared to
theeducation designed for younger children?
a. traffic safety for adults b traffic safety forchildren
c. Fence d.drainage A
88. In general driverinstruction aims primarily to teach the rudiments of driving.
a. traffic safety for adults btraffic safety for children
c. driver’s education dLTO C
89. Who administrate theissuance of driver’s license?
a. traffic safety for adults b LTO
c. driver’s education d traffic safety for children B
90. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license affords the holder thereof
theprivilege to make driving a means of livelihood?
a. Professional Driver’s License bLTO
c. driver’s education d traffic safety forchildren A
91. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license only entitles the holder to drive
hisown vehicles and not to earn a livelihood.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. Non-Professional Driver’s License dtraffic safety for children C
92. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the Phil. Motor’s Assn., the basis of which is
thelocal license.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children C
93. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the PNP / AFP to police or military personnel
andauthorized the holder to thereof, to drive only police or military vehicles?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children A
94. This license issued to aperson who is 16 years old of age and valid for one year?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b Student’s Driver’s Permit
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safetyfor children B
95. What is Letter ofInstruction NO.______ Owners and/oroperators of motor vehicles are
authorized to pay the annual premiums for theinsurance of their motor annual premiums for the
insurance of their motorvehicles on quarterly
96. It refers to executivefunctions such as planning, organizing, directing, supervising,
coordinating,operating, recording, and budgeting traffic affairs?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. traffic enforcement A
97. What is Letter of Instruction NO._______ Providing for the removal of all impedimentson roads,
streets and highways such as constructions, stalled or parkedvehicles and other movables property
that obstruct free passage?
98. The step that determinesthe guilt or innocent of the accused.
a. Prosecution b. Adjudication
c. Detection d. Apprehension B
99. It is also a whole police function which involves the actualtaking of enforcement actions.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication B
100. A whole policeresponsibility that entails looking for defects in the behavior of
motorist,pedestrians, vehicle, equipment and roadway condition.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication A
SET B
FINAL EXAM
CRIM 2 (PolicePhotography)
2ndSemester SY 2011-2012
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer
by shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO
ERASURE..
============================================================================
====
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Isthat surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the lightsensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material?
A. Base
B. Emulsion
C. Anti halationbacking
D. Silver halide B
2. Whatis that range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object thatis sharp when the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance B
3. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from
ultraviolet color to all colors of white light?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Blue sensitive film
D. X-ray film B
4. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge
the size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
5. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of
a given lens is called
A. Scale bed
B. Focal length
C. View finder
D. Depth of field C
6. Thecharacteristics of a lens which controls the degree of sharpness of a givenobject refers to
A. Scale bed
B. Ground glass
C. Split image focus
D. Focusing D
7. Theutmost use of photography in criminal investigation is
A. Identificationpurposes
B. Record purposes
C. Investigationpurposes
D. Sketching purposes
8. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to
any type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
A. View finder type

B. Twin lens reflex
C. Single lens reflex
D. View or press C
9. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in
an infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
C. Hyperfocaldistance
D. Depthof field B
10. Whatpart of the sensitized material is responsible for absorbing excess light doespreventing light
reflects?
A. Base
B. Anti halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
11. Thetaking of a magnified photograph of small object through attaching a camera tothe ocular of a
compound microscope so as to show minute details of thephysical evidence refers to
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA
12. Theaverage speed of the light is:
A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
D. 188,00miles/sec. C
13. Howmany essential parts do a camera?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
14. Whichof the following makes up the emulsion layer of the colored film?
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
15. Acamera and a human eye have a lot in common. What is that part of the humaneye, which is
almost, corresponds to the shutter of a camera?
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
16. Whatunit of film sensitivity is expressed in both arithmetic and logarithmic form?
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
17. Whichof the following film speed indicator is expressed in arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
18. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is1/125, f-11, what will
be the normal exposure of the same film under hazysunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
19. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable
focal length?
A. Short focus lens

B. Medium focus lens
C. Telephotolens
D. Zoom lens D
20. Thetype of lens defects in which light of various wavelength are focus inirregular proportion, thus
producing color blurredness. This refers to
A. chromatic aberration
B. Lateralaberration
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
21. Whichof the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through in itsmedium?
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
22. Whichof the following prefix or suffix would indicate that a film is a black andwhite?
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
23. Afocusing method, which is done by actual measurement or estimation of the lensof camera to
subject distance refers to
A. Scale Bed
B. Co- Incident Image
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
24. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of
the human eye. This refers to
A.
B. Sunlight
C. Visible light
D. Invisiblelight
E. Artificiallight D
25. Aphotographic filter is used to _____ light or color during the picture taking.
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for
ordinary photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
2. Artificial light B
27. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather
affects the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Curvatureof field C
28. Whatis the basic exposure of a film ASA 200 at bright sunlight 1/125?
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
29. Thedistance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane refersto
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
2. Hyperfocal Distance C
1. What type of lens is that whose center is thinner and the sides are thicker?
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the
negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for

recording. What is that part of the camera that provides means of determining better
perspective?
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far
from the object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Wide angle lens

2. Telephoto lens
3. Normal lens
4. Shot focus lens B
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the
type of camera, which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?
1. Fixed focus camera

2. Variable focus camera
3. Polaroid camera
4. Miniature camera C
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens
exposing the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens
in proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
4. Electronics Flash B
1. What kind of diaphragm opening must one used to get the wider depth of field?
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp
or clear image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective
is to freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or
contracted. This refers to
1. Diaphragm opening
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. The controlling factor of the sharpness of the image in photography is called
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length
4. Hyper focal distance B
1. To get the maximum depth of field of the lens, we look for the:
1. Hyper focal distance

2. Focal length
3. Scale bed
4. Focal distance A
1. The most difficult lens defect line is known as the:
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to:
1. Record the image

2. Exclude all unwanted lights
3. Makes the image visible
4. Makes the image permanent B
1. Which of the following is not a factor in the computation for exposure?
1. ASA ratio of the film

2. Type of camera
3. Lighting condition
4. Type of subject B
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming
from the object being photograph?
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting

condition of the object being photograph?
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended
inward or outward thus producing deformed image refers to
1. Spherical aberration
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
4. Lateral aberration C
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical
axis on the same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines
or vice versa is called
1. Coma
3. Astigmatism
4. Curvature of field C
1. Why must the taking of photograph from unusual camera position be avoided?
1. It distorts focus
2. It distorts magnification
3. It distorts perspective
4. It distorts the texture C
1. Kodalith film is also known as
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared�
SET A
FINAL EXAM
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE..
================================================================
================
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Once the light hits a mirror and itbounce back. This called
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
A. Base
B. Emulsion
D. Silver halide B
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance
6. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from ultraviolet
color to all colors of white light?
D. X-ray film B
7. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge the
size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
8. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the
administration of justice refers to
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
A. Policephotography
B. Policeinvestigation
C. Photograph C
D. Photography
10. Whichof the following lens defects will produce a sharp center object but with ablurred sides?
A. Lateralaberration
B. Chromaticaberration
C. Sphericalaberration
D. DistortionC
11. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of a
given lens is called
A. Scalebed
B. Focallength
C. View finder
D. Depthof field C
A. Scalebed
B. Groundglass
D. Focusing D
B. Record purposes
D. Sketchingpurposes B
14. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to any
type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
A. View finder type

B. Twin lens reflex
D. View or press C
15. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in an
infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
D. Depthof field B
reflects?
A. Base
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA
A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
24. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is1/125, f-11, what will be
the normal exposure of the same film under hazysunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
25. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable focal
length?
A. Short focus lens

C. Telephotolens
D. Zoom lens D
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
A. Scale Bed
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
30. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of the
human eye. This refers to
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
C. Invisible light
D. Artificial light D
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for ordinary
photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
33. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather affects
the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for recording. What is
that part of the camera that provides means of determining better perspective?
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far from the
object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Wide angle lens

2. Telephoto lens
3. Normal lens
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the type of camera,
which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?

3. Polaroid camera
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens in
proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective is to
freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or contracted. This
refers to
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length

2. Focal length
3. Scale bed
4. Focal distance A
1. Coma
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. Record the image


2. Type of camera
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming from the
object being photograph?
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting condition of the
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended inward or
outward thus producing deformed image refers to
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical axis on the
same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines or vice versa is called
1. Coma
3. Astigmatism
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared
4. Pan-X Plus A
1. A film that is sensitive to ultraviolet light up to green colors only is called
1. Panchromatic
2. Infrared film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Blue sensitive film C
1. The best source of light for outdoor photography refers to
1. Invisible
2. Sunlight
3. Visible light
1. That part of the film that is capable of retaining the latent image is called
1. Coating of animal gelatin

2. Base
3. Emulsion
4. Anti-halation backing C
1. Hazy sunlight will cast object in open space:
1. Transparent shadow
2. Double shadow
3. No shadow
4. Deep and prominent shadow A
1. Film and photographic paper is considered as
1. Transparent material
2. Sensitized material
3. Translucent material
4. Opaque material B
1. Bright sunlight is:

1. When object in open space casts transparent shadow
2. When object in open space casts no shadow
3. When object in open space casts a deep and prominent shadow
4. All of the above C
1. There are two kinds of colored film; the negative type and the reversal, which of the following
prefix will indicate that a colored fill is negative type?
1. Ortho
2. Pan
3. Chrome
4. Color D
1. The light sensitivity of the film is known as;
1. Emulsion content
2. Spectral sensitivity
3. Emulsion speed
4. Reversal negative C
1. What is the use of thin coat of animal gelatin on a film?

1. To prevent halation
2. To retain the latent image
3. It supports the emulsion
4. To protect the emulsion from abrasion D
1. All, except one, are essentials of photography.
1. Light
2. Developing
4. F numbers D
1. That part of film that supports the emulsion refers to
1. Base
2. Anti-halation backing
3. Emulsion
4. thin coat of animal gelatin A
1. Which of the following film has the longest spectral sensitivity?
1. Blue sensitive film

2. Panchromatic film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Infrared film D
1. That sensitized material that produces positive print is called
2. Photographic paper
3. Film
4. Silver chloride B
1. Which of the following is considered as the two main layers of the film?
1. Base and coat of gelatin

2. Base and emulsion
3. Anti halation and base
4. Emulsion and anti-halation backing
1. The surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material is called
1. Base
3. Emulsion
4. Coat of animal gelatin C
1. The photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to 1000 millimicrons refers
to
1. X-ray
2. Infrared rays
3. Ultraviolet ray
4. Visible light B
1. The combination of blue and green produces what color?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange A
1. The combination of green and red produces what color?

1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange C
1. The combination of red and blue produces what color?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange B
1. All, Except One, are secondary colors of light?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Red D
1. All, Except One, are primary colors of light?
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. Green D
1. A lens that produce a virtual image refers to
1. Convergent
2. Concave
3. Positive
4. Convex B
1. A lens with focal length of less than the diagonal length of its negative material is called
1. Wide Angle
2. Telephoto
3. Normal
4. Zoom A
1. The person coined the word photography was
1. Sir John F. W. Herschel

2. Sir Alphonse Bertillon
3. Sir Henry Fox Talbot
4. Sir Mande Daguerre A
1. The art and science of reproducing image by means of light through some sensitized material
with the aid of a camera, Lens and its accessories and the chemical process refers to
1. Photograph
2. Photography
3. Police Photography
4. Forensic Photography B
1. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work is called
2. Forensic Photography
3. Photography
4. Crime Scene Photography A
1. A generic term refers to all kinds of formed image is called
1. Picture
2. Image
3. Photograph
4. Photo A
1. The first application of photography is police work is refers to
1. Personal Identification
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Crime Prevention A
1. The first police who utilized photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his
Anthropometry system was
1. Alphonse Bertillion
2. Henry Fox Talbot
3. William Herschel
4. Mande Gaguerre A
1. One of the most universal methods of communication considering that no other language can be
known universally than ____________.
1. Photograph
2. Letter
3. Verbal
4. Radio A
1. The utmost used of photography in police work is for
1. Crime Prevention
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Personal Identification B
1. The view in taking photograph shows direction and location of the crime scene is called
1. Extreme Close-up view

2. Close-up view
3. Medium view
4. General View D
1. The taking of the photograph of the scene of the crime by dividing it into section. This view will
best view the nature of the crime. This refers to
1. General View
2. Medium View
3. Close-up view
4. Extreme close-up view B
1. The taking of individual photograph of the evidence at the scene of the crime. It is design to
show the details of the crime. This refers to
1. General view
2. Medium view
3. Close-up View
4. Extreme Close-up View C
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
93. When the light hits a transparent glass whichwould allow the light to pass through its
medium. This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or passing
through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is the type of
light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder B
SET B
FINAL EXAM
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE..
================================================================
================
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
A. Base
B. Emulsion
D. Silver halide B
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance B
3. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from ultraviolet
color to all colors of white light?
D. X-ray film B
4. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge the
size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
5. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of a
given lens is called
A. Scalebed
B. Focallength
C. View finder
D. Depthof field C
A. Scalebed
B. Groundglass
D. Focusing D
B. Record purposes
D. Sketchingpurposes
8. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to any
type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
A. View finder type

B. Twin lens reflex
D. View or press C
9. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in an
infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
D. Depthof field B
reflects?
A. Base
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA

A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
18. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is 1/125,f-11, what will be
the normal exposure of the same film under hazy sunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
19. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable focal
length?
A. Short focus lens

C. Telephotolens
D. Zoom lens D
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
A. Scale Bed
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
24. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of the
human eye. This refers to
A.
B. Sunlight
C. Visible light
D. Invisiblelight
E. Artificiallight D
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for ordinary
photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
27. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather affects
the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for recording. What is
that part of the camera that provides means of determining better perspective?
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far from the
object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Wide angle lens

2. Telephoto lens
3. Normal lens
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the type of camera,
which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?

3. Polaroid camera
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens in
proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective is to
freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or contracted. This
refers to
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length

2. Focal length
3. Scale bed
4. Focal distance A
1. Coma
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. Record the image


2. Type of camera
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming from the
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting condition of the
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended inward or
outward thus producing deformed image refers to
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical axis on the
same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines or vice versa is called
1. Coma
3. Astigmatism
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared
4. Pan-X Plus A
1. A film that is sensitive to ultraviolet light up to green colors only is called
1. Panchromatic
2. Infrared film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Blue sensitive film C
1. The best source of light for outdoor photography refers to
1. Invisible
2. Sunlight
3. Visible light
1. That part of the film that is capable of retaining the latent image is called
1. Coating of animal gelatin

2. Base
3. Emulsion
4. Anti-halation backing D
1. Hazy sunlight will cast object in open space:
1. Transparent shadow
2. Double shadow
3. No shadow
4. Deep and prominent shadow A
1. Film and photographic paper is considered as
1. Transparent material
4. Opaque material B
1. Bright sunlight is:

1. When object in open space casts transparent shadow
2. When object in open space casts no shadow
3. When object in open space casts a deep and prominent shadow C
4. All of the above
1. There are two kinds of colored film; the negative type and the reversal, which of the following
prefix will indicate that a colored fill is negative type?
1. Ortho
2. Pan
3. Chrome
4. Color B
1. The light sensitivity of the film is known as;
1. Emulsion content
2. Spectral sensitivity
3. Emulsion speed
4. Reversal negative C
1. What is the use of thin coat of animal gelatin on a film?

1. To prevent halation
2. To retain the latent image
3. It supports the emulsion
4. To protect the emulsion from abrasion D
1. All, except one, are essentials of photography.
1. Light
2. Developing
4. F numbers A
1. That part of film that supports the emulsion refers to
1. Base
3. Emulsion
4. thin coat of animal gelatin B
1. Which of the following film has the longest spectral sensitivity?
1. Blue sensitive film

2. Panchromatic film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Infrared film D
1. That sensitized material that produces positive print is called

2. Photographic paper
3. Film
4. Silver chloride B
1. Which of the following is considered as the two main layers of the film?
1. Base and coat of gelatin

2. Base and emulsion
3. Anti halation and base
4. Emulsion and anti-halation backing B
1. The surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material is called
1. Base
3. Emulsion
4. Coat of animal gelatin C
1. The photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to 1000 millimicrons refers
to
1. X-ray
2. Infrared rays
3. Ultraviolet ray
4. Visible light B
1. The combination of blue and green produces what color?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange A
1. The combination of green and red produces what color?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange C
1. The combination of red and blue produces what color?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange B
1. All, Except One, are secondary colors of light?
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Red D
1. All, Except One, are primary colors of light?
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. Green D
1. A lens that produce a virtual image refers to
1. Convergent
2. Concave
3. Positive
4. Convex B
1. A lens with focal length of less than the diagonal length of its negative material is called
1. Wide Angle
2. Telephoto
3. Normal
4. Zoom A
1. The person coined the word photography was
1. Sir John F. W. Herschel

2. Sir Alphonse Bertillon
3. Sir Henry Fox Talbot
4. Sir Mande Daguerre A
1. The art and science of reproducing image by means of light through some sensitized material
with the aid of a camera, Lens and its accessories and the chemical process refers to
1. Photograph
2. Photography
4. Forensic Photography B
1. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work is called
2. Forensic Photography
3. Photography
4. Crime Scene Photography A
1. A generic term refers to all kinds of formed image is called
1. Picture
2. Image
3. Photograph
4. Photo A
1. The first application of photography is police work is refers to
1. Personal Identification
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Crime Prevention A
1. The first police who utilized photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his
Anthropometry system was
1. Alphonse Bertillion
2. Henry Fox Talbot
3. William Herschel
4. Mande Gaguerre A
1. One of the most universal methods of communication considering that no other language can be
known universally than ____________.
1. Photograph
2. Letter
3. Verbal
4. Radio A
1. The utmost used of photography in police work is for
1. Crime Prevention
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Personal Identification A
1. The view in taking photograph shows direction and location of the crime scene is called
1. Extreme Close-up view

2. Close-up view
3. Medium view
4. General View D
1. The taking of the photograph of the scene of the crime by dividing it into section. This view will
best view the nature of the crime. This refers to
1. General View
2. Medium View
3. Close-up view
4. Extreme close-up view B
1. The taking of individual photograph of the evidence at the scene of the crime. It is design to
show the details of the crime. This refers to
1. General view
2. Medium view
3. Close-up View
4. Extreme Close-up View C
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
1. When the light hits a transparent glass which would allow the light to pass through its medium.
This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or passing
through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is the type of
light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
98. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the administration
of justice refers to
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
A. Policephotography
B. Policeinvestigati
CDI-5 (DRUG EDUCATION AND VICECONTROL)

CDI-5 (DRUG EDUCATION AND VICECONTROL)
FINALEXAMINATION FOR GRADUATING
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the bestanswer.
1. Oneof the coverage on the Rules of Anti-Drug Operations is Buy-bust operations.Buy-bust operation
is a form:
a. Entrapment operation
b. Surveillance operation
c. Casing operations
d. Search and Seizure operation A
2. Itis a general rule in Anti-Drug Operations that all drug law-enforcement andprevention operation
prior to actual conduct should be covered with:
a. Warrant
b. Pre-operation report
c. Post-operation report
d. None of these B
3. WhatNational Anti-Drug Campaign strategy is carried out by preventive education andinformation
drive?
a. Supply Reduction Strategy
b. Demand Reduction Strategy
c. International Coordination
d. All of these B
4. Whatanti-drug operation is used to build-up relevant and competent evidence, whichare vital in the
development of a drug case?
a. Buy-bust operation
b. Mobile Checkpoints
c. Controlled delivery
d. None of these D
5. Inthe conduct of dangerous drug death investigation where the cause of deathnoted is petechial
hemorrhage, the drug possibly taken is:
a. Cocaine
b. Amphetamine drug
c. Barbiturate drug
d. Hallucinogen drug A
6. Manydrug seizures are made as a result of a raid. Raid involving dangerous drugseizures are usually
covered by:
a. Search Warrant
b. Warrant of Arrest
c. Memorandum Order
d. Documentary Evidence C
7. Whena drug evidence is transferred from one investigator to another, the process ofevidence
transfer is called:
a. Evidence Gathering
b. Evidence Protection
c. Chain of Custody
d. Chain of Evidence Transfer B
8. Whatis the technique in anti-drug operation that is carried out by allowing suspectconsignment of
illegal drugs, psychotropic substances substituted for them topass out into one or more country with
knowledge of their competent authoritieswith a view to identify persons involved in the commission of
drug relatedoffenses?
a. Buy-bust operations
b. Controlled delivery
c. Undercover operations
d. Airport/Seaport Interdictions C
9. Ifthe increasing local supply of shabu is the major concern of the lawenforcement pillar in the drug
control effort, what about the court pillar?
a. Lack of community support
b. Unabated marijuana cultivation
c. Undue delay in the disposition ofdrug cases
d. Lack of integrity of the policeand prosecution in the presentation of evidence B
10. In drug control and preventionefforts, the mission of the law enforcement pillar is to:
a. Reduce the incidence of dangerousdrug cases through proper administration of justice
b. Enforce the drug laws inaccordance with existing national legislation
c. Provide a highly specialized andproperly motivated prosecution service
d. Provide comprehensive and moreeffective programs and services of treatment and rehabilitation
process C
11. When the anti-drug investigatortakes a sample of the seized drug, the desired sample should be
place in asuitable container. It should then be sealed in such a way as to preventtampering preferably
with the signature of the suspect and the officerappearing on the seal. Such process is called:
a. Transfer of evidence
b. Evidence gathering
c. Evidence marking
d. Evidence protection D
12. To conduct a sustainable,comprehensive and integrated drug prevention education program in
thePhilippines, the community pillar should target groups such as the:
a. Family
b. Youth
c. Community leaders
d. All of these D
13. The unabated marijuanacultivation and or production in some parts of the country is caused by:
a. Cultivation is clandestine
b. Danger of operation due topresence of hostile forces
c. Costly eradication due todifficulty of accessibility
d. All of the above A
14. Is a person suffering from anysigns and symptoms of drug abuse? This question guides the
investigator todetermine whether the person
a. is an addict or not
b. has just used any drug or not
c. is intoxicated of alcohol or not
d. is under the influence of drug ornot B
15. Which among the pillars of theCriminal Justice System is considered the weakest pillar with respect
toanti-drug operation?
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Correction
d. Court B
16. In the conduct of custodialinvestigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the protection
againstself-incrimination and rights is found on the grounds of:
a. Public policy and morality
b. Humanity and conscience
c. Public policy and humanity
d. All of the above D
17. When does the court acquirejurisdiction over a case filed by the anti-drug operatives?
a. The moment the case is filed with theprosecutor office
b. The moment that it is filed withthe court
c. The moment that the trial or thecase begins
d. The moment that the partiespresents their evidence A
18. What should be conducted in orderto determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the
Regional TrialCourt?
a. Inquest Proceeding
b. Preliminary Investigation
c. Search and Seizure
d. Preliminary Conference B
19. The presence of drugparaphernalia at the drug scene in the form of syringe and needle,
tourniquet,spoon or bottle top “cookies” and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug beingadministered are:
a. liquid drugs
b. tablet drugs
c. capsule drugs
d. leaves for smoking C
20. The body sign in dangerous drugdeath investigation of bluish discoloration of the face and or
fingernails dueto insufficient oxygenation of the blood caused by increase in carbon dioxidein the body is
called?
a. Asphyxia
b. Cyanosis
c. Hematoma
d. Petechial hemorrhage B
21. The burning of a small quantityof the suspected substance and determining the odor or smell having
similar toburnt banana leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal thedrug as:
a. Opium
b. Coca leaves
c. Marijuana
d. Peyote Cactus A
22. To beef up intelligencecapability to interdict extensive manufacture of shabu, the law
enforcementpillar should:
a. Conduct extensive intelligenceoperations
b. Motivate public to be vigilantand assistive
c. Provide attractive reward system
d. All of the above D
23. The physical desire to repeat theuse of drugs intermittently or continuously is commonly known as:
a. Addiction
b. Habituation
c. Potency
d. Toleration C
24. The drug addict or user generallyacquires the drug habit because of being:
a. Powerlessand less self-control
b. Emotionallyunstable
c. Socially maladjusted
d. Allof these C
25. It refers to the state of mind inwhich a person has lost the power of self-control in respect of a drug.
a. Drug addiction
b. Drug toleration
c. Drug habituation
d. Drug experimentation A
26. One who uses drug to keepwakefulness or additional energy in performing an important work is a:
a. Habitual drug user
b. Situational drug abuser
c. Spree user
d. None of these C
27. On the part of the drug user, thelost of interest to study, failure in school works, shifting from one
course toanother, transfer of school of lower standards and eventually dropped is anindication of:
a. Changes in physical appearance
b. Changes of mood
c. Changes of interest
d. Changes in behavior A
28. In acute cases withdrawal ofdrugs causes serious physical illness also called abstinence syndrome. It
isalso otherwise known as:
a. Psychological dependence
b. Physical dependence
c. Addiction
d. Withdrawal syndrome C
29. What kind of drug examination ismade during the initial investigation conducted by the first
respondingofficers?
a. Filed Testing
b. Color Reaction Testing
c. Laboratory Analysis
d. All of these B
30. In detecting drug abusers, oneshould consider appearance and associations of the suspected person.
Thepresence of linear scars in the arms, forearms or abdomen is a good indicationthat the:
a. Subject is a marijuana user
b. Subject is a syrup user
c. Subject is a cocaine user
d. Subject is liquid drug user B
31. What drug is known as the “kingof all drugs” for being the most abused drug in the world?
a. Hallucinogen
b. Solvent
c. Amphetamine
d. Alcohol D
32. Among the group of hallucinogendrugs, which of them is considered the most powerful?
a. Demerol
b. DMT
c. LSD
d. STP B
33. The reaction produced by a drugin addition to the desired effects is called:
a. Overdose
b. Side effects
c. Tolerance
d. Idiosyncrasy C
34. Traditionally, the term drugabuse referred to the use of any drug that is:
a. Prohibited by law
b. Natural in origin
c. Chemically synthesized
d. Prescribed by a physician D
35. What color reaction test is usedto identify a substance as cocaine?
a. Cobalt Thiocyanate
b. Marquis Test
c. Nitric Acid Test
d. PABA D
36. What drug was considered to bethe first local anesthetic to be discovered?
a. Cocaine
b. Opium
c. Morphine
d. Heroin D
37. The chemical name of the drugheroin is:
a. Diacetylmorphine
b. Dimorphine hydrochloride
c. Both A and B
d. None of these C
38. According to effects, thedangerous drugs are classified into:
a. Stimulant-depressant-narcotics
b. Depressant-narcotics-hallucinogen
c. Hallucinogen-depressant-stimulant
d. None of these D
39. For the tentative identificationof the barbiturates, the ______ test is used:
a. Marquis test
b. Zwikker Test
c. KN Test
d. Nitric Acid Test D
40. What is the chemical name of thedrug shabu?
a. Amphetamine Hydrochloride
b. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
c. Methamphetamine Hydrosulfate
d. None of these A
41. What group of drugs is alsocalled the Deliriant?
a. Inhalant
b. Solvent
c. Volatile Substance
d. All of these D
42. What is the active ingredient oralkaloid of the marijuana plant?
a. Hul Gil
b. THC Canabinnol
c. Hashis
d. None of these B
43. One of the following slang termsrefers to the drug cocaine.
a. Beer
b. Extra
c. Ice
d. Strong C
44. Duquenois-Levine test is formarijuana; Symone’s test is for:
a. Cocaine
b. Barbiturates
c. Opium derivatives
d. Shabu C
45. The substance known as the“miracle drug” refers to:

a. Cocaine
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin A
46. What is called the “visualevidence” in drug related cases?
a. Asphyxiation
b. Skin diseases
c. Internal body signs
d. Needle marks/tracks B
47. Marijuana plant is scientificallyknown as:
a. Hashis
b. Hashasan
c. Cannabis Sativa
d. Papaver Somniferum C
48. What is called the “poor man’scocaine”?
a. Codeine
b. Cocaine
c. Marijuana
d. Methamphetamine hydrochloride A
49. Chemically known as methamphetaminehydrochloride.
a. Valium
b. LSD
c. Ketamine
d. Shabu C
50. What drug is known as the“assassins of the youth”?
a. Cannabis sativa
b. Methamphetamine hydrochloride
c. Diacetylmorphine
d. None of these D
II. MATCHING TYPE: Match Column A to Column B.Choose the best answer from the
givenoptions.
Column A Column B
51. Philippine Drug EnforcementAgency B a. Narcotics Law of 1953
52. Dangerous Drugs Board C b. policy-making andstrategy-formulating
body
53. Republic Act 9165 D c. Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972
54. Republic Act 6425 E d.Implementing arms of DDB
55. Republic Act 953 A e. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of
2002
Column A ColumnB
56. Section 1, Art I, RA 9165 B a. possession of dangerous drugs
57. Section 4, Art II, RA 9165 A b. comprehensive dangerous drugs act of 2002
58. Section 11, Art II, RA 9165 D c. use of dangerous drugs
59. Section 15, Art II, RA 9165 E
60. Section 21, Art II, RA 9165 C d. Custody and Disposition of
Confiscated, Seized,and/or Surrendered Dangerous Drugs, Plant Sources of Dangerous Drugs,Controlled
Precursors and Essential Chemicals, Instruments/Paraphernalia and/orLaboratory Equipment
e.importation of dangerous drugs/Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals
Column A ColumnB
61. Employees and Visitors of a Den,Dive, Resort D a. Section 5, Article II, RA 9165
62. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus A
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs. b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
63. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus E
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
During Parties, Social Gatherings or Meetings.
64. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous Drugs. C d.Section 14, Article II, RA 9165
65. Sale, Trading, Administration, Dispensation, B
Delivery, Distribution and Transportation of e. Section 18, Article II, RA 9165
Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors
and Essential Chemicals.
Column A Column B
66. A rapid test performed to establish potential/ B a. dispense
presumptive positive result
67. Any act of giving away, sellingor distributing C
medicine and/or dangerous drugswith or without b. screening test
the use of prescription.
68. Any act of knowingly planting,growing, raising, D
or permitting the planting,growing, or raising of c. clandestine laboratory
any plant which is the source ofa dangerous drug.
69. An analytical test using adevice, tool or equipment E
with a different chemical orphysical principle that d. cultivation and culture
is more specific which willvalidate and confirm
the result of the screening test.
70. Any facility used for the illegalmanufacture of A e.confirmatory test
any dangerous drug and/orcontrolled precursor and
essential chemical.
ColumnA Column B
71. Minimum of six (6) months rehabilitation A a. Section 5(Selling), Article II, RA 9165
in agovernment center for the first offense
72. Life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging B b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
From P 500,000.00 to P10,000,000.00
73. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years of imprisonment A c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
and a fine ranging fromP100,000.00 to P500,000.00
74. Imprisonment ranging from 6 months and 1 day to A
4 years and a fineranging from P10,000.00 to d. Section 15, Article II, RA 9165
P50,000.00
75. Imprisonment ranging from 12 years and 1 day to A
20 years and a fine ranging from P100,000.00 to e.Section 5 (Protector/Coddler),
P500,000.00 ArticleII, RA 9165
ColumnA ColumnB
76. Qualifying Aggravating Circumstances in A a.Section 24, Article II, RA 9165
the Commission of a Crime by an Offender
under the Influence of Dangerous Drugs. b. Section 25, Article II,RA 9165
77. Criminal Liability for ‘Planting’ of Evidence. C
78. Responsibility and Liability of Law c. Section 29,Article II, RA 9165
Enforcement Agencies and other Government
Officials and Employees in Testifying as d. Section 91, Article X, RA 9165
Prosecution Witnesses in Dangerous Drugs Cases. B
79. Delay and Bungling in the Prosecution of DrugCases. A
80. Non-Applicability of the Probation Law for A e. Section 92,Article X, RA 9165
Drug Traffickers and Pushers
III. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE. Blackenthe circle of the letter that best corresponds
to your answer. The conditionsare given below:
<a></a><a>A – If the twostatement are both true</a>

B – If the first statement istrue; while the second is false
C – If the first statement isfalse; while the second is true
D – If the two statement are bothfalse
81. Plant of joy is Opium. Sacredtree is Marijuana. C

82. Depressant means “downer.”Hallucinogen means “narcotic”. A
83. “Ma Huang” is the plantephedrine. “Hashish” is known as Marijuana. B
84. Diacetylmorphine is Heroin.Methamphetamine hydrochloride is Shabu. C
85. Erythroxylon Coca is known asCocaine. Diacetylmorphine is known as Heroin. C
86. Pistillate is the female plant ofmarijuana. Staminate is the male plant of marijuana. A
87. RA 9165 was signed into law on June 4, 2002. RA 9165 tookeffect on July 4, 2002. A
88. Pres Gloria Macapagal Arroyosigned into law RA 9165. Pres Diosdado Macapagal signed into law RA
6425. B
89. Papaver Somniferum is thescientific of Opium Poppy plant. Cannabis Sativa is the scientific name
ofMarijuana plant. A
90. Withdrawal syndrome is a suresign that a drug is dependency producing. Drug dependence may lead
to drugabuse. B
IV. LABELLING: Label the following blank space bychoosing the best answer below.
DISPOSITIONFLOWCHART
(SECTION21 OF RA 9165)
Seizure/Confiscation
<img> 96.__________C________
91. C
<img> 97.______E____________
<img>92. D
Within24n hours
<img>
If volume manageable 98. ______B_______

<img>93. E
Partial Results Issued
<img>99._________ D______ within 24 hours
Ocular Inspection
<img>within 24 hours
<img>Court (thru PDEA) shall cause destruction/burning
<img>94. B
<img>95. A
A 100.______________________________
Destruction Burning of Representative Sample
Choices:
A
Resolution of case/court decision
Within 24 hours from receipt of evidence
B
DDB issues sworn certification ofdestruction/burning & representative
Sample forwarded to Courtfor Evidence.
If not manageable
C
Inventory and Photograph
Immediate
D
PDEA Forensic Laboratory
(Conduct of Qualitativeand Quantitative Exams)
72 hours after filing ofcase in court
E
Complete LaboratoryResults issued under oath
Within 24 hours
FINALEXAMINATION
(CLJ-3Criminal Procedure)
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each ofthe following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shadingthe space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer
sheetprovided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
I. 1-20 Multiple choice. Cite if the following acts would result in:
a. Violation of right against self-incrimination

b. Violation of right to presumption of innocence
c. Violation of right to speedy trial
d. Violation of right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
e. No violation of right against self-incrimination
1. During preliminary investigation for an allegedforgery, the respondent Pedro was required
by the prosecutor to give samples ofhis handwriting for comparison with the documents allegedly
forged. To require Pedro to give his handwritingsample constitutes what violation? A
2. In a trial for murder, the accused oncross-examination was asked by the judge to give a
re-enactment of theincident. The re-enactment wouldconstitute what violation of the rights given to the
accused? A
3. Mario is charged with rebellion before the RTC ofMakati City. While the case is
stillpending, Mario filed his candidacy for Senator. The COMELEC rejected his candidacy by reason of his
pending case. The rejection of Mario’s candidacyconstitutes what violation? B
4. The accused, during the trial was required topresent evidence ahead of the prosecution, in
order for him to prove hisinnocence. There are no grounds thatwould justify a modification of the order
of trial. What right of the accused was violated?B
5. In a trial for adultery, the woman was required tosubmit herself to a pregnancy test to
determine if she is indeed pregnant. To require her to undergo pregnancy testconstitutes _____.E
6. The prosecutor must prove the guilt of the accusedbeyond reasonable doubt. The
convictionof the accused must rely on the strength of the prosecution evidence and not onthe weakness
of the defense. To rule otherwise would result in _______.B
7. The accused in a rape case was required by thejudge to give his semen sample for DNA
testing. The accused objected. To requirethe accused to give the sample constitutes _____.A
8. When the Carlo was arrested at the NAIA forcarrying shabu in his luggage, he was asked
to affix his signature on thepackages of shabu taken from his luggage. This constitutes _______. A
9. During the trial for murder where footprints werefound in the crime scene, the judge
required the accused to remove his shoe andto place his foot on the footprint to determine if they
match. The act of the judge constitutes _____.E
10. During the investigation in a rape case where thevictim became infected with gonorrhoea,
the suspect was asked by the policemanto allow them to extract fluids coming out of his penis to
determine thepresence of gonorrhoea. The act of thepolice constitutes _____.E
11. A suspect in a drug case was required to undergodrug test using the suspect’s
urine. Thedrug test, if done without the suspect’s consent results in _____.E
12. At the crime scene a trouser (pants) werefound. The trousers were believed to beleft
behind by the fleeing suspect. During the trial the accused was required to put on the pants todetermine
if they fit. This results in____.E
13. In a homicide case, the accused was required togive his blood sample. This
constitutes_____.E
14. Duringarraignment the accused, who does not speak or understand English or Tagalog(as
he spoke only Cebuano) was nevertheless arraigned in English. He pleaded “guilty,” not knowing what
he wasbeing asked. The arraignment resulted in____.D
15. During the trial for rape, the private complainantasked for five (5) consecutive
postponements citing therein flimsy excuses suchas traffic congestion and other personal reasons. What
right of the accused is violated?C
16. During the trial for rape, the accused was requiredto present his diary to show that entries
therein tend to show that hedeveloped an obsession towards the victim. To require the acused to do so
results in _____.A
17. The complainant alleged that his attacker had aneagle tattoo o his chest. During the trial,
the accused was required by thecourt to remove his shirt to show if he had a tattoo. If the accused is
compelled to do so, this wouldconstitute ______.E
18. Mark was charged with homicide. During the trial evidence proved that whatwas actually
committed was murder. Markwas convicted of murder. The convictionresults in _____.D
19. The accused, after posting bail asked permissionfrom the court to travel to the U.S.to
undergo medical treatment for her neck injuries. Absent any showing that the accused is aflight risk, the
denial of the travel would result in _____.B
20. The witness for the prosecution (the arrestingpolice officer) failed to show up at the trial
three times, to testify despitebeing subpoenaed. This results in ______C
II. MultipleChoice. Choose the best answer fromamong the options given.
21. Is the danger of being tried, convicted andpunished of a crime for which a person has been
previously tried, and the saidprevious case either resulted in conviction, acquittal or dismissal without
hisexpress consent.
a. Jeopardy c.Incrimination
b. DoubleJeopardy d.All of the Above B
22. It is the security given for the release of a personin custody of the law, furnished by him or
a bondsman, to guarantee hisappearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafterspecified.
a. Surety Bond c.Cash Deposit
b. Bail d.All of the above B
23. Is an offensewhich, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of
theapplication for admission to bail, may be punished with death.
a. HeinousCrime c.Non-bailable offense
b. Capital offense d. None of theabove B
24. Is an obligation of record, entered into before some courtor magistrate duly authorized to
take it, with the condition to do someparticular act, the most usual condition in criminal cases being the
appearanceof the accused for trial.
a. CorporateSurety c.Recognizance
b. Property Bond d.Cash Deposit A
25. The presence of theaccused is required during the trial except:

a. Arraignment c. When the judge will ask
himquestions
b. Promulgation of Judgment d. When required by the court
foridentification C
26. It is thru this document that the accused is informedof the nature and cause of the
accusation against him.
a. Information c.Bail
b. Resolution d.None of the above A
27. Pedro suspects Petraof adultery. Pedro claims that Petrais pregnant by another man. Can
thecourt compel Petrato subject herself to a pregnancy test?
a. Yes. Because this is not a violation of her rightagainst self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Petra willbe assisted by her lawyer
c. No. This would violate Petra’s right against self-incrimination.
d. No. Because the pregnancy test is irrelevant to thecharge of adultery.
A
28. Max is the president of Superman, Inc. a privatecorporation which is charged with violating
the Internal Revenue Code (taxevasion). Can the court compel him tosubmit the private records of the
corporation such as financial statements?
a. Yes. Becausethis is not a violation of the right against self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Max will be assisted by counsel.
c. No. This wouldviolate Max’s right against self-incrimination.
d. No. Because the financial statement is irrelevant intax evasion.
C
29. Atty. Bolalacao represented Chloe in a criminalcase. The case was mishandled because
itturned out that Atty. Bolalacao is not a member of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines andonly reached
2nd year of law school . Can Iris be given a new trial because he wasnot represented by a real lawyer?
a. Yes. Because her right to counsel was violated.

b. Yes. But onlyif the prosecutor will agree.
c. No. Because itwas iris’ fault and she is bound by her mistakes.
d. No. BecauseIris is guilty anyway.
A
30. X is charged with falsification. Can she be compelled to give her specimenhandwriting
before the court?
a. Yes. Becausethis is not a violation of the right against self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif X is assisted by her lawyer.
c. No. This wouldviolate X’s right against self-incrimination.
d. No. Because the specimen handwriting is irrelevant infalsification
C
31. Yis charged with a crime where the suspect left clothing on the crime scene. CanY be
required by the court to put on clothing believed to be worn by thesuspect to see if they fit?
a. Yes. Because this is not a violation of the rightagainst self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Y is assisted by her lawyer.
c. No. This would violate Y’s right againstself-incrimination.
d. No. Because whether or not the clothes fit isirrelevant to the case.
A
32. Whatif, instead of putting on clothing, Y was asked to remove her shoes to see ifthey fit the
foot marks left on the crime scene? Can she be compelled to do so?
a. Yes. Because this is not a violation of the rightagainst self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Y is assisted by her lawyer.
c. No. This would violate Y’s right againstself-incrimination.
d. No. Because whether or not her foot matches the footmarks is irrelevant to the case.
A
33. DonMoen, the accused, was ordered by the court to produce his blood sample forcross-
matching with those found on the crime scene. This is:
a. Not a violationof the right against self-incrimination.
b. Not a violation if the accused is assisted by herlawyer.
c. A violation of the accused’s right againstself-incrimination.
d. None of the above.
A
34. Whatif Don Moen was asked to produce semen sample, the compulsion (to produce
thesample) would be:
a. Not aviolation of the right against self-incrimination.
b. Not a violation if the accused is assisted by herlawyer.
c. A violation ofthe accused’s right against self-incrimination.
d. None of the above.
C
35. Whilein Manila towatch a Goo Goo Dolls concert, Brad was apprehended at the airport for
havingshabu in his possession. The seizedshabu were packed in a sealed envelope and Brad was asked
to sign theenvelopes. Brad can:
a. Refuse to sign because it isself-incriminatory.
b. Refuseto sign because he does not know what was inside the envelope.
c. Beforced to sign because it is not self-incriminatory
d. Beforced to sign because he is presumed guilty.
A
36. Is the security given for the release of aperson in custody of the law.
a. Parole c. Bail
b. Probation d. None of the above
C
37. Bailmay be given in the following forms:
a. corporate surety c. cash deposit
b. property bond d. all of the above
D
38. Noperson under detention by legal process shall be released or transferredexcept:
a. When ordered by the court c. Absconded
b. Admitted to bail d. None of the above
A
39. Bailis a matter of right in the following cases, except:
a. Before conviction by theMetropolitan Trial Court
b. Before conviction by the RTC of an offense punishable by reclusionperpetua.
c. After conviction in theMetropolitan Trial Court
d. None of the above
B
40. Is an order in writing issued in the name of thePeople of the Philippines, signed by a judge
and directed to a peace officer,commanding him to search for personal property described therein and
bring itbefore the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest b. Search Warrant c. Seizure Order d. Cease and
Desist Order
B
41. It is used to induce a person to commit a crime as the said personhimself intends to commit the
crime but must be caught doing so to facilitatehis arrest.
a. Instigation c. Entrapment
b. Inducement d.All of the above
C
42. A person is induced to commit the crime and the police officerhimself is a co-principal.
a. Instigation c.Entrapment
A
43. Is the conception and planning of an offense by an officer and hisprocurement of its commission by
one who would not have perpetrated it exceptfor trickery, persuasion or fraud of the officer.
a. Instigation c.Entrapment
A
44. Any questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a personhas been taken into custody or
otherwise deprived of his freedom of action.
a. Entrapment c.Preliminary Investigation
b. CustodialInvestigation d.None of the above
B
45. It is the stage where the police investigation is no longer ageneral inquiry into an unsolved crime but
has begun to focus on a particularsuspect taken into custody by the police who carry out a process
ofinterrogation that aims to elicit incriminating evidence.
a. Entrapment c.Preliminary Investigation
b. CustodialInvestigation d.None of the above
B
46. Objects in plain view of an officer who has the right to be in theposition to have that view are subject
to seizure and may be presented asevidence.
a. Plain view doctrine c. Waiver
b. Stop and Frisk Rule d.Search incidental to a lawful arrest
A
47. This doctrine is usually applied where a police officer is notsearching for evidence against the accused
but nonetheless inadvertently comesacross an incriminating object.
a. Plain viewdoctrine c.Waiver
b. Stop and Frisk Rule . d. Hot pursuit
A
48. Is defined as the right of a police officer to stop a citizen on thestreet, interrogate him, and pat him
for weapons.
a. Plain view doctrine c. Waiver
b. Stop andFrisk Rule d.Hot pursuit
B
49. A person lawfully arrested may be searched for dangerous weapons oranything which may be used
as proof of commission of the offense w/o a searchwarrant.
a. Plain view doctrine c. Search of moving vehicle
b. Stop and Frisk Rule d. Search incidental to a lawful
arrest
D
50. Such facts and circumstances which would lead areasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has beencommitted and that the objects sought in connection with that offense
are inthe place sought to be searched.
a. Probable Cause for arrest c. JustCause
b. Probablecause for a search warrant d. All of the above
B
51. Is a document containing an order in the name ofthe People of the Philippines, signed by
the judge and directed to a peaceofficer, commanding him to search for personal property described
therein andbring it before the court.
a. SearchWarrant c.Warrant of Distraint and Levy
b. Warrant of Arrest d.Writ of Execution
A
52. Which of the following are not among the personalproperty to be seized pursuant to a
search warrant?
a. Subject of the Offense c. Used to commit the
Offense
b. Fruits of the Offense d. None of the Above
D
53. After serving the search warrant, theofficer must make a return to the court together with
__.
a. A complete inventory b. A detailed receipt c. A bond d. All of the above
A
54. Isthe legal remedy available to a person who desires to suppress the evidenceseized by
virtue of a search warrant.
a. Motionto Dismiss b. Motion to Suppress c. Motion to Quash d. none of the Above
C
55. Deliois arrested for vagrancy. The backpack hehad with him was searched. The search
ofthe backpack is justified under ___.
a. Waiver b. Stop andFrisk c. Plain View Doctrine d. Search incidental to a
lawfularrest
D
56. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whetherthere is sufficient ground to engender a
well-founded belief that a crime hasbeen committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and
should beheld for trial.
a. Inquest b. Preliminary Investigation c. Stop and Frisk d. All of
the above
B
57. Anapplication for search warrant MAY be filed with the following:
a. Any court within whose territorialjurisdiction a crime was committed.
b. For compelling reasons, any court of thejudicial region where the crime was committed.
c. Where the criminal action is pending.
d. All of the above
D
58. . A searchwarrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property:
a. Subject of the offense; c. Used or intended to be used as the means ofcommitting an
offense.
b. Fruits of the offense d. All of the above
xxxxx
D
59. Theofficer, if refused into the place of directed search after giving notice ofhis purpose
and authority, may:
a. Apply for awarrant c. Break
out of a building
b. Break open any outer or inner door or windowof a house d. All of the above
B
60. No search of a house, room, or any other premisesshall be made except:
a. In the presence of the lawful occupantthereof or any member of his family
b. In thepresence of two witnesses who are Barangay officials
c. In thepresence of the Barangay Chairman
d. All ofthe above
A
61. As a general rule, a search warrant is served:
a. In the day time only, c. At the time when the person is in the
placeto be searched
b. At anytimeof the day or night d. All of the above
A
62. A searchwarrant shall be valid for _______ days from its date.
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. no expiration
B
63. A checkpoint to screen vehicular traffic wasmade due to a confidential report that the suspects
on board a jeepney(description provided in the tip) will be transporting marijuana. The search of the
jeepney is justified basedon _____.
a. Plain view doctrine c. Search of moving vehicle
b. Stop and Frisk Rule d.Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C
64. After the seizure of the items pursuant of asearch warrant, the police officer shall make:
a. A detailed receipt of the items seized c. A detailed
description of the items seized
b. A deliveryof the items seized together with the inventory d. All of the above
A
65. A person lawfully arrested may be searched for:
a. Dangerousweapons
c. Contraband
b. Anything which may be used as proof in thecommission of an offense d. None of
the above
B
66. After the prosecution has rested, the accused may file a motioncalling for the dismissal of the action
based on insufficiency ofevidence. The motion is called a __
a. Motion to Dismiss b. Demurrer to Evidence c. Motion for Summary
Judgment d. None of the above
B
67. The order of trial insofar as presentation of evidence, is asfollows:
a. Prosecution/Defense / Rebuttal by Prosecution / Rebuttal by Defense
b. Defense / Prosecution / Rebuttal by Defense / Rebuttal by Prosecution
c. Rebuttal Evidence by Prosecution / Rebuttal by Defense
d. In any order subject to the discretion of the judge
A
68. During arraignment, Pablo was diagnosed to be suffering frominsanity. The arraignment will __.
a. Push through as scheduled c.Be conducted at the hospital
b. Suspended d.Be subject to second call
B
69. What if Pablo is sustained injuries from a motorcycle accident andis confined to the hospital, the
arraignment will be ____.
a. Push through as scheduled c.Be conducted at the hospital
b. Suspended d.Be subject to second call
B
70. This involves a similar issue in a civil suit which was pending whenthe criminal action was
instituted.
a. Probable Cause b. JustCause c. Cause of Action d. Prejudicial
Question
D
71. Martin filed a civil action for the nullification of the deed ofsale of his house and lot on the ground
that his signature the deed of sale isforged. Thereafter, a criminal case forfalsification was filed against
Alex, the alleged forger of the document. The civil case fro the nullification of thedeed of sale is called a
_____.
a. Probable Cause b. JustCause c. Cause of Action d. Prejudicial
Question
D
72. This is the stage of thetrial after arraignment where the parties to a criminal case tackle
issues likeplea bargaining, stipulation of facts, marking of evidence, waiver of objectionto admissibility of
evidence and other matters that will expedite the case.
a. Arraignment b. Pre-Trial c. Trial d. Judgement
B
73. The conduct of pre-trial before the MTC, RTC, and Sandiganbayan is____.
a. Discretionary upon the court b. Not required c. Optional on the parties d.
Mandatory
D
74. Is the adjudication by the court that the axccused is guilty or notguilty of the offense charged and the
imposition on him of the proper penaltyand civil liability, if any.
a. Arraignment b.Pre-Trial c.Trial d. Judgement
D
75. Upon promulgation by the Municipal Trial court, the judgment ofacquittal is _____.
a. Final and Executory c.Appealable to the Court of Appeals
b. Appealable to the Supreme Court d.Appealable to the Regional Trial Court
A
76 -100 TRUE OR FALSE. State whether the statement is:
a. True c. Partially True

b. False d. Partially False
76. Theaccused may, at any stage of the proceeding, request the court for the issuanceof
compulsory process to secure the attendance of witnesses and production ofother evidence in his behalf.
A True
77. Theaccused is not entitled to a speedy, impartial and public trial. B False
78. Theaccused may appeal in all cases even whenever it is allowed by law.A True
79. Thepresence of the accused during trial is required during arraignment.A True
80. Thepresence of the accused is required during promulgation. A True
81. A searchwarrant is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines,signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search forpersonal
property described therein and bring it before the court. A True
82. Anapplication for search warrant shall be filed with any court within whoseterritorial
jurisdiction a crime was committed. A True
83. Forcompelling reasons, an application for search warrant may be filed in any courtwithin
the judicial region where the crime was committed if the place of thecommission of the crime is known,
or any court within the judicial region wherethe warrant shall be enforced.ATrue
84. If thecriminal action has already been filed, the application shall only be made inthe court
where the criminal action is pending. A True
85. A searchwarrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property, which
isclassified as “Subject of the offense.”A True
86. Theaccused has the right to be presumed innocent until the contrary is provedbeyond
reasonable doubt. A True
87. Theaccused must be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him.A
True
88. Theaccused has the right to be present and defend in person and by counsel atevery
stage of the proceedings, from arraignment to promulgation of thejudgment. A True
89. Theaccused may, however, waive his presence at the trial pursuant to the stipulationsset
forth in his bail, unless his presence is specifically ordered by the courtfor purposes of identification. A
True
90. Theaccused has the right to testify as a witness in his own behalf.A True
91. Theaccused may testify in his own behalf without cross-examination by the
opposingparty.B
92. Theaccused himself who chooses to testify may be cross-examined on matters coveredby
direct examination only. ATrue
93. Thesilence by the accused is an indication of guilt. B False
94. Theaccused is exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself. A True
95. Theaccused can cross-examine the witnesses against him at the trial. A True
isclassified as “Stolen or embezzled” and “other proceeds, or fruits of theoffense.” A True
isclassified as “Used or intended to be used as the means of committing anoffense.”B False
98. A search warrantshall not issue except upon probable cause in connection with one
specificoffense.A True
99. A searchwarrant shall not issue except upon personal determination of probable cause
bythe judge.A True
100. Thedetermination of probable cause by the judge is made after examination underoath
or affirmation of the complainant and the witness he may produce.A True
The PNP Organizational Set Up

The PNP OrganizationalSet UpThe PNP shall be headed by a Chief who shall be assisted by two(2)
deputy chief, one (1) for operationsand one (1) for administration, bothof whom shall be appointed
by the Presidentupon recommendation of the Commission from among the most senior and
qualifiedofficers in the service:
Provided, however, that in no case shall any officer who hasretired or is retirable within six
(6)months from his compulsory retirement age be appointed as Chief of the PNP.
The PNP shall be composed of a national office, regional offices,provincial offices, district
offices, city or municipal stations. At the national level, the PNP shallmaintain its national
headquarter in CampCrame, office in Metropolitan Manilawhich shall house the directorial
staff,service staff and special support units.
At the regional level, the PNP shall have regional offices,including that of the National CapitalRegion,
which may be divided intotwo (2) separate regions without prejudice to the pertinent provisions
ofthe Organic Act for the Autonomous Regions of the Cordilleras andMuslim Mindanao relative to the
creation of a regional office force in thearea of autonomy. Each of these regional offices shall be
headed by a regionaldirector for peace and order.
At the provinciallevel, there shall be a PNP office, each headed by a provincial director. In the case
of large provinces, policedistricts may be established by the Commission to be headed by a district
director. At the city or municipal level, there shall bea PNP station, each headed by a chief of
police.
Powers and FunctionsThe PNP shall have the following powers and functions:
a. Enforce all laws and ordinances relative to the protectionof lives and properties;
b. Maintain peace and order and take all necessary steps toensure public safety;
c. Investigate and prevent crimes, effect the arrest of criminaloffenders, bring offenders to justice and
assist in their prosecution;
d. Exercise the general powers to make arrest, search andseizure in accordance with the Constitution
and pertinent laws;
e. Detain an arrested person for a period not beyond what isprescribed by law, informing the person so
detained of all his rights under theConstitution;
f. Issue licenses for the possession of firearms andexplosives in accordance with law;
g. Supervise and control the training and operations ofsecurity agencies and issue licenses to operate
security agencies, and tosecurity guards and private detectives, for the practice of their
professions;and
h. Perform such other duties and exercise all other functionsas may be provided by law.
Powers and Functions ofthe PNP ChiefThe command and direction of the PNP shall be vested in
theChief of the PNP with the following powers and functions:
a. Direct and control tactical as well a strategic movements,deployment, placement, utilization of the
PNP or any of its units andpersonnel, including its equipment, facilities and other resources.
Suchcommand and direction may be delegated to subordinate officials with therespect to units under
their respective commands in accordance with theprescribed NAPOLCOM rules and regulations.
b. Issue detained implementing policies and instructionsregarding personnel, funds, properties,
records, correspondence and such asother matters. The Manning Levels On the average nationwide, the
manning levelsof the PNP shall be approximately in accordance with a police-to-populationratio of
one (1) policeman for everyfive hundred (500) persons.
The actual strength by cities and municipalities shall dependon the state of peace and order,
population density and actual demands of the servicein the particular area: Provided, That the
minimum police-to-population ratioshall not be less than one (1) policemanfor every one thousand
(1,000) persons: Provided, further, That urban areas shall have a higher minimumpolice-to-population
ratio as may be prescribed by regulations.
Rank ClassificationFor purposes of efficient administration, supervision andcontrol, the rank
classification of the members of the PNP shall be as follows:
Director General
Deputy Director General
Director
Chief Superintendent
Senior Superintendent
Superintendent
Chief Inspector
Senior Inspector
Inspector
Senior Police Officer IV
Senior Police Officer III
Senior Police Officer II
Senior Police Officer I
Police Officer III
Police Officer II
Police Officer I
Key PositionsThe head of the PNPwith the rank director general shallhave the position title of Chief
of thePNP. The second in command of thePNP with the rank of deputy director generalshall be
the Deputy Chief of the PNP forAdministration. The third in commandwith the rank also of deputy
directorgeneral shall be the Deputy Chief ofthe PNP for Operations. At the national office, the head
of the directorial staff with the rank of deputy director general shall be known as Chief of the
Directorial Staff of the PNP.
The heads of thevarious staff divisions in the directorial staff shall have the rank of director with
the position title of Director of theDirectorial Staff of their respective functional divisions. The head
of the Inspectorate Division with therank of chief superintendent shallassume the position title of
InspectorGeneral.
The heads of theadministrative and operational support divisions shall have the rank of chief
superintendent. The head of the NCR with the rank of director shall assume the position title of NCR
Director. The heads of the regional offices with the rank of chief superintendent shall
assumethe position title of Regional Director.
The heads of the NCRdistrict offices with the rank ofchief superintendent shall have the position
title of District Director. The headsof provincial offices with the rankof senior superintendent shall
be known as Provincial Director. The headsof the district offices with the rankof
superintendent shall have the positiontitle of District Director. The headsof the municipality or city
offices with the rank of chief inspector shall be known as Chief of Police.
General Qualificationsfor AppointmentNo person shall be appointed as officer or member of the
PNPunless he possesses the following minimum qualifications:
(a) A citizen of the Philippines;
(b) A person of good moral conduct;
(c) Of sound mind and body;
(d) Must possess a formal baccalaureate degree forappointment as officer and must have finished at
least second year college orthe equivalent of seventy-two (72)collegiate units for appointment as
non-officer or an equivalent trainingor experience for those already in the service upon the affectivity
of thisAct.
(e) Must be eligible in accordance with the standards set bythe Commission;
(f) Must not have been dishonorably discharged from militaryemployment or dismissed for cause from
any civilian position in the Government;
(g) Must not have been convicted be final judgment of anoffense or crime involving moral turpitude;
(h) Must be at least one meter and sixty-two centimeters (1.62 m.) in height for male and one meter
and fifty-seven centimeters (1.57m.) for female;(i) Must weight not more or less than five kilograms
(5 kg.)of the standard weight corresponding to his or her height, age, and sex; and
(j) For a new applicant, must not be less than twenty-one(21) nor more than thirty (30)years of age.
Appointment of PNPOfficers and MembersThe appointment of the officers and members of the PNP
shallbe effected in the following manner:
(a) Police Officer Ito Senior Police Officer IV. – Appointed by the PNP regional
director for regionalpersonnel or by the Chief of thePNP for the national
headquarterspersonnel and attested by the CivilService Commission.
(b) Inspector to Superintendent.– Appointed by the Chief of the PNP,as recommended by their
immediatesuperiors, attested by the Civil ServiceCommission;
(c) SeniorSuperintendent to Deputy Director General. – Appointed by
the President upon recommendation of the chief of the PNP, with proper endorsement by the
Chairman of the CivilService Commission and subject toconfirmation by the Commission on
Appointments; and
(d) Director General.– Appointed by the President fromamong the senior officers down to the rankof
chief superintendent in the service, subject to confirmation by the Commission on Appointments:
Provided,That the Chief of the PNP shall serve a tour of duty not to exceed four (4) years: Provided,
further, That, in times of war or other nationalemergency declared by Congress, the President may
extend such tour of duty.
Examinations forPolicemenThe Civil ServiceCommission shalladminister the qualifying entrance
examinations for policemen on the basis ofthe standards set by the NAPOLCOM.
Lateral Entry of Officers into the PNP In general, alloriginal appointments of commissioned officers in
the PNP shall commence withthe rank of inspector, to includeall those with highly technical
qualifications applying for the PNP technicalservices, such as dentist, optometrists, nurses, engineers,
and graduates offorensic sciences.
Doctors of medicine, members of the Bar, and chaplains shallbe appointed to the rank of
seniorinspector in their particular technicalservice.
Graduates of the PhilippineNational Police Academy (PNPA) shall be automatically appointed to the
initialrank of inspector. Licensedcriminologists may be appointed to the rank of inspector to fill up any
vacancyafter promotions from the ranks are completed.
Qualifications of Chiefof City and Municipal Police Stations1. No person may be appointed chief of a
city police stationunless he holds a bachelor's degree from a recognized institution of learningor has
served in the Philippine Constabulary or in the police department of anycity or municipality with the
rank of captain or its equivalent therein for at leastthree (3) years.
2. No person may be appointed chief of a municipal policestation unless he holds a bachelor’s degree
from a recognized institution oflearning or has served as officer in the Philippine Constabulary or in
thepolice department of any city or municipality for at least two (2) years withthe rank lieutenant or
its equivalent: Provided,
3. That a member of the Bar with at least five (5) yearsexperience in active law practice and who
possesses the general qualificationsunder Section 30 of this Act shall be qualified for appointment as
chief of acity or municipal police station: Provided, further, That the chief of policeshall be appointed
in accordance with the provisions of Section 51, paragraphb), subparagraph (4) (i) of this Act.
PNP Support UnitsThe PNP shall be supported by the following support units:
(a) AdministrativeSupport Units.
1. Crime Laboratory.There shall be established a central Crime Laboratory to be headed by a Director
with the rank of chiefsuperintendent, which shall provides scientific and technical investigativeaid
and support to the PNP and other government investigative agencies. Itshall also provide crime
laboratory examination, evaluation and identificationof physical evidences involved in crimes with
primary emphasis on theirmedical, chemical, biological and physical nature. There shall be likewise
beingestablished regional and city crime laboratories as may be necessary in all regionsand cities of the
country.
2. Logistic Unit.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, the LogisticsUnit shall
be responsible for the procurement, distributions and management ofall the logistical requirements of
the PNP including firearms and ammunition.
3. Communications Unit.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, the
CommunicationsUnit shall be responsible for establishing an effective police communicationsnetwork.
4. Computer Center.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, theComputer
Center shall be responsible for the design, implementation andmaintenance of a database system for
the PNP.
5. Finance Center.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, the FinanceCenter
shall be responsible for providing finance services to the PNP.
6. Civil Security Unit.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, the CivilSecurity
Unit shall provide administrative services and general supervisionover organization, business operation
and activities of all organized privatedetectives, watchmen, security guard agencies and company
guard houses. Theunit shall likewise supervise the licensing and registration of firearms and
explosives.The approval applications for licenses to operate private security agencies, aswell as the
issuance of licenses to security guards and the licensing offirearms and explosives, shall be
decentralized to the PNP regional offices.
(b) OperationalSupport Units.
(1) Maritime Police Unit.Headed by a Director with the rankof chief superintendent, theMaritime
Police Unit shall perform all police functions over Philippineterritorial waters and rivers.
(2) PoliceIntelligence Unit. Headed by a Directorwith the rank of chief superintendent,the Police
Intelligence Unit shall serve as the intelligence andcounterintelligence operating unit of the PNP.
(3) Police SecurityUnit. Headed by a Director withthe rank of chief superintendent,Police Security
Unit shall provide security for government officials, visitingdignitaries and private individuals
authorized to be given protection.
(4) CriminalInvestigation Unit. Headed by a Directorwith the rank of chief superintendent,the
Criminal Investigation Unit shall undertake the monitoring, investigationand prosecution of all crimes
involving economic sabotage, and other crimes ofsuch magnitude and extent as to indicate their
commission by highly placed or professionalcriminal syndicates and organizations. This unit shall
likewise investigate allmajor cases involving violations of the Revised Penal Code and operate
againstorganized crime groups, unless the President assigns the case exclusively tothe National Bureau
of Investigation (NBI).
(5) Special ActionForce. Headed by a Director withthe rank of chief superintendent,the Special
Action Force shall function as a mobile strike force or reactionunit to augment regional, provincial,
municipal and city police forces forcivil disturbance control, counterinsurgency, hostage-taking rescue
operations,and other special operations.
(6) Narcotics Unit.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, theNarcotics Unit
shall enforce all laws relative to the protection of thecitizenry against dangerous and other prohibited
drugs and substances.
(7) Aviation Security Unit.Headed by a Director with the rank of chief superintendent, theAviation
Security Unit, in coordination with airport authorities, shall secureall the country’s airports against
offensive and terroristic acts that threatencivil aviation, exercise operational control and supervision
over all agenciesinvolved in airport security operation, and enforce all laws and regulationsrelative to
air travel protection and safety.
(8) Traffic ManagementUnit. Headed by a Director withthe rank of chief superintendent,the Traffic
Management Unit shall enforce traffic laws and regulations.
(9) Medical and DentalCenters. Headed by a Directorwith the rank of chief superintendent,the
Medical and Dental Centers shall be responsible for providing medical anddental services for the PNP.
(10) Civil RelationsUnits. Headed with a Directorwith the rank of chief superintendent,the Civil
Relations Unit shall implement plans and programs that will promotecommunity and citizens’
participation in the maintenance of peace and order andpublic safety.
Status of PNP MembersThe members of the PNP shall be considered employees of theNational
Government and shall draw their salaries there from: Provided, thatPNP members assigned in
Metropolitan Manila, chartered cities and first classmunicipalities may be paid in additional monthly
allowance by the localgovernment unit concerned.
Performance Evaluation SystemThere shall be established a performance evaluation systemwhich shall
be administered in accordance with the rules, regulations andstandards, and a code of conduct
promulgated by the Commission for members ofthe PNP.
Such performance evaluation system is administered in such away as to foster the improvement of
individual efficiency and behavioraldiscipline as well as the promotion of organizational effectiveness
and respectfor the constitutional and human rights of citizens, democratic principles andideals and the
supremacy of civilian authority over the military.
The rating system as contemplated herein shall be based on standardsprescribed by the Commission
and shall consider results of annual physical,psychological and neuropsychiatric examinations
conducted on the PNP officer ormember concerned.
Promotions(a) A member of the PNP shall not be eligible for promotionto a higher position or rank
unless he has successfully passed thecorresponding promotional examination given by the Commission,
or the Bar orcorresponding board examinations for technical services and other professions,and has
satisfactorily completed an appropriate and accredited course in the PNPor equivalent training
institutions. In addition, no member of the PNP shalleligible for promotion unless he has been cleared
by the People's LawEnforcement Board (PLEB) of complaints proffered against him, if any.
(b) Special promotionmay be extended to any member of the PNP for acts of conspicuous courage
andgallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty or selectedas such in a nationwide
search conducted by the PNP or any accredited civic organization.
Two Types ofRetirements:1. CompulsoryRetirementCompulsory retirement, for officer and non-
officer, shall beupon the attainment of age fifty-six(56): Provided, that, in case of any officer with the
rank of chief superintendent,director or deputy director general, the Commission may allow his
retention in theservice for an unextendible period of one (1) year.
2. Optional RetirementUpon accumulation of at least twenty (20) years of satisfactory active service,
an officer ornon-officer, at his own request and with the approval of the Commission, shallbe retired
from the service and entitled to receive benefits provided by law.
Internal AffairsServiceAn Internal Affairs Service (IAS) of the PNP has been createdto have the
following powers and functions:
(a) Pro-actively conduct inspections and audits on PNPpersonnel and units;
(b) Investigate complaints and gather evidence in support ofan open investigation;
(c) Conduct summary hearings on PNP members facingadministrative charges;
(d) Submit a periodic report on the assessment, analysis, andevaluation of the character and behavior
of PNP personnel and units to theChief PNP and the Commission;
(e) File appropriate criminal cases against PNP membersbefore the court as evidence warrants and
assist in the prosecution of thecase;
(f) Provide assistance to the Office of the Ombudsman incases involving the personnel of the PNP. The
IAS shall also conduct, motu proprio, automatic investigation of the following cases:
(a) Incidents where a police personnel discharges a firearm;
(b) Incidents where death, serious physical injury, or anyviolation of human rights occurred in the
conduct of a police operation;
(c) Incidents where evidence was compromised, tampered with,obliterated, or lost while in the custody
of police personnel;
(d) Incidents where a suspect in the custody of the policewas seriously injured; and
(e) Incidents where the established rules of engagement havebeen violated. Finally, the IAS shall
provide documents or recommendations asregards to the promotion of the members of the PNP or the
assignment of PNPpersonnel to any key position.
COMMON PROVISIONS FORUNIFORMED PERSONNELIncentives and AwardsThere shall be established
an incentives and awards systemwhich shall be administered by a board under such rules, regulations
andstandards as may be promulgated by the Department: Provided, That equivalentawards shall be
given by the Department for every award duly given byrespectable civic organizations in a nationwide
selection for outstandingachievement and/or performance of any member.
Health and WelfareIt shall be the concern of the Department to provideleadership and assistance in
developing health and welfare programs for its personnel.The heads of all bureaus and other offices
created under this Act shall takeall proper steps towards the creation of an atmosphere conducive to a
goodsupervisor-subordinate relationship and the improvement of personnel morale.
Longevity Pay andAllowancesUniformed personnel of the Department shall be entitled to alongevity
pay of ten percent (10%)of their basic monthly salaries for every five(5) years of service, which shall
be reckoned from the date of thepersonnel's original appointment in the AFP, or appointment in the
police, firejail or other allied services to the integration of the PC and the INP:
Provided, that the totality of such longevity pay shall not exceedfifty percent (50%) of the basic
pay.They shall also continue to enjoy the subsistence allowance, quarter’sallowance, clothing
allowance cost of living allowance, hazard pay, and allother allowances as provided by existing laws.
Active ServiceFor purposes of this Act, active service of the uniformed personnelshall refer to services
rendered as an officer and non-officer, cadet, traineeor draftee in the PNP, Fire or Jail Force or in the
municipal police prior tothe integration of the PC-INP or in the AFP, and services rendered as acivilian
official or employee in the Philippine Government prior to the date ofseparation or retirement from
the PNP, Fire or Jail Force:
Provided, That, for purposes of retirement he shall haverendered at least ten (10) years ofactive
service as officer or non-officer in the AFP, and /or in the INP and/orin the PNP, Fire or Jail Force:
Provided, further, that services rendered as cadet, probationaryofficer, trainee or draftee in the AFP
or as cadet or trainee in the INP andPNP shall be credited for purposes of longevity pay:
Provided, finally, that, for cadet services, the maximumnumber of service to be credited shall not
exceed the duration of thepre-commissionship course specified in the curriculum.
Permanent Physical DisabilityAn officer or non-officer who, having accumulated at least twenty (20)
years of active service,incurs total permanent physical disability in line of duty shall becompulsorily
retired: Provided, That, if he has accumulated less than twenty(20) years of active service, he shall be
separated from the service and beentitled to a separation pay equivalent to oneand one-fourth
(11/4) months base pay for every year of service, or afraction thereof, and longevity pay of the
permanent grade he holds.
Retirement in the Next Higher Grade Uniformed personnelcovered under this Act shall, for purposes of
retirement pay, be retired in one(1) grade higher than the permanent grade last held: Provided that
they haveserved for at least one (1) year of active service in the permanent grade.
Retirement BenefitsMonthly retirement pay shall be fifty percent (50%) of the base pay and longevity
pay of theretired grade in case of twenty (20) years of active service, increasing by two and one-half
percent (2.5%) forevery year of active service rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a maximum
ofninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36) years of active service and over.
Death and Disability BenefitsUniformed personnel and/or his heirs shall be entitled to allbenefits
relative to the death or permanent incapacity of said personnel, asprovided for under this Act, and/or
other existing laws.
Exemption fromAttachment and TaxesAll benefits granted by this Act, including benefits
receivedfrom the Government Service Insurance System, shall not be subject toattachment, levy,
execution or any tax of whatever nature.
Uniformed PersonnelMissing in ActionAny uniformed personnel who while in the performance of
dutyor by reason of his being an officer or member of the PNP, Fire or Jail Force,is officially confirmed
missing inaction, kidnapped or captured by lawlesselements shall, while so absent, be entitled to
receive or to have credited tohis account the same pay and allowances to which such officer or
uniformedmember was entitled at the time of the incident:
Provided, That the compulsory retirement of a person missingin action shall be processed to allow the
members of the next of kin to enjoythe retirement benefits: Provided, further, That should the Chief
of the PNP, Fireor Jail Force, as the same may be, upon the recommendation of the proper
authorityand/or immediate supervisor, subsequently determine that the officer oruniformed member
concerned have been absent from duty without authority, suchmember or his heirs shall reimburse the
PNP, Fire or Jail Force all such amountand allowances received by him in accordance with this section
and thefollowing section.
Payment of Salary andAllowances to the Heirs of Uniformed PersonnelIn case any uniformed
personnel has been officially confirmedas missing in action under any of the circumstances provided in
the precedingsection, the Chief of the PNP, Fire or Jail Force, as the case may be, shalldirect payment
of the absent uniformed personnel’s monthly salary andallowances and other emoluments pertinent
thereto his/her heirs for theirsupport for a maximum period of one (1) year from the date of
commencement ofabsent or when last heard from as those kidnapped or captured by lawless elements.
Finding of Death andTermination of Payment of Salary and AllowancesUpon the termination of the
one (1) year period as specifiedin the preceding section, the missing uniformed personnel shall
beautomatically terminated. In the event said personnel shall thereafter be foundto have been alive
and is not entitled to the benefits paid under the precedingsections of this Act, said benefits shall be
reimbursed to the State within six(6) months from the discovery of the fact or his reappearance.
However, if his continueddisappearance was fraudulent or made in bad faith he shall, together with
hisco-conspirators, be prosecuted according to law.
Complaints andGrievancesUniformed personnel shall have the right to presentcomplaints and
grievances to their superiors or commanders and have them heardand adjudicated as expeditiously as
possible in the best interest of theservice, with due regard to due process in every case. Such
complaints orgrievances shall be resolved at the lowest possible level in the unit ofcommand and the
respondent shall have the right to appeal from an adversedecision to higher authorities.
Republic Act No. 8551Approved: February 25, 1998AN ACT PROVIDING FOR THE REFORMAND
REORGANIZATION OF THE PHILIPPINENATIONAL POLICE AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES,AMENDING CERTAIN
PROVISIONSOF REPUBLIC ACT NUMBERED SIXTY-NINE HUNDRED ANDSEVENTY-FIVE ENTITLED,"AN ACT
ESTABLISHING THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICEUNDER A RE-ORGANIZED DEPARTMENT OF THE
INTERIOR AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT, ANDFOROTHER PURPOSES"
THE ROLE OF THE PNP INCOUNTER-INSURGENCY FUNCTIONSSection 3. Section 12 of Republic Act No.
6975is herebyamended to read as follows:"SEC. 12. Relationship of the Department withthe Department
of National Defense The Department of the Interior and LocalGovernment shall be relieved of the
primary responsibility on matters involvingthe suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to
national security.The Philippine National Police shall, through information gathering andperformance
of its ordinary police functions, support the Armed Forces of thePhilippines on matters involving
suppression of insurgency, except in caseswhere the President shall call on the PNP to support the AFP
in combatoperations."In times of national emergency, the PNP, the Bureau of FireProtection, and the
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology shall, upon thedirection of the President, assist the armed
forces in meeting the nationalemergency."
THE PHILIPPINE NATIONALPOLICEA. REORGANIZATIONSection 13. Authority of the Commission to
Reorganize thePNP.– Notwithstanding the provisions of Republic Act No. 6975 on the
organizationalstructure and rank classification of the PNP, the Commission shall conduct amanagement
audit, and prepare and submit to Congress a proposed reorganizationplan of the PNP not later than
December 31, 1998,subject to the limitationsprovided under this Act and based on the following
criteria:
a) increased police visibility through dispersal of personnelfrom the headquarters to the field offices
and by the appointment andassignment of non-uniformed personnel to positions which are
purelyadministrative, technical, clerical or menial in nature and other positionswhich are not actually
and directly related to police operation; and
b) Efficient and optimized delivery of police services to thecommunities. The PNP reorganization
program shall be approved by Congressthrough a joint resolution.
B. QUALIFICATIONSUPGRADINGSection 14. Section 30of Republic Act No. 6975is hereby amended to
read as follows:"SEC. 30. General Qualifications for Appointment.– No person shall be appointed as
officer or member of the PNP unless he or shepossesses the following minimum qualifications:"
a) A citizen of the Philippines;"
b) A person of good moral conduct;"
c) Must have passed the psychiatric/psychological, drug andphysical tests to be administered by the
PNP or by any NAPOLCOM accreditedgovernment hospital for the purpose of determining physical and
mentalhealth;"
d) Must possess a formal baccalaureate degree from a recognizedinstitution of learning;"
e) Must be eligible in accordance with the standards set bythe Commission;"
f) Must not have been dishonorably discharged from militaryemployment or dismissed for cause from
any civilian position in theGovernment;"
g) Must not have been convicted by final judgment of anoffense or crime involving moral turpitude;"
h) Must be at least one meter and sixty-two centimeters (1.62m.) in height for male and one meter and
fifty-seven centimeters (1.57 m.) forfemale;
i) Must weigh not more or less than five kilograms (5 kgs.)from the standard weight corresponding to
his or her height, age, and sex;and"
j) For a new applicant, must not be less than twenty-one (21)nor more than thirty (30) years of age:
except for the last qualification, theabove-enumerated qualifications shall be continuing in character
and an absenceof any one of them at any given time shall be a ground for separation orretirement from
the service:
Provided, That PNP members who are already in the serviceupon the effectivity of this Act shall be
given at least two (2) more years toobtain the minimum educational qualification and one (1) year to
satisfy the weightrequirement."
For the purpose of determining compliance with therequirements on physical and mental health, as
well as the non-use ofprohibited drugs, the PNP by itself or through a NAPOLCOM accredited
governmenthospital shall conduct regular psychiatric, psychological drug and physicaltests randomly
and without notice."
After the lapse of the time period for the satisfaction of aspecific requirement, current members of
the PNP who will fail to satisfy anyof the requirements enumerated under this Section shall be
separated from theservice if they are below fifty (50) years of age and have served in Governmentfor
less than twenty (20) years or retired if they are from the age of fifty(50) and above and have served
the Government for at least twenty (20) yearswithout prejudice in either case to the payment of
benefits they maybe entitledto under existing laws."
Section 15.Waivers forInitial Appointments to the PNP.– The age, height, weight, and
educationalrequirements for initial appointment to the PNP may be waived only when thenumber of
qualified applicants fall below the minimum annual quota: Provided,That an applicant shall not be
below twenty (20) nor over thirty-five (35)years of age: Provided, further, That any applicant not
meeting the weightrequirement shall be given reasonable time but not exceeding six (6) monthswithin
which to comply with the said requirement: Provided, furthermore, Thatonly applicants who have
finished second year college or have earned at leastseventy-two (72) collegiate units leading to a
bachelor's degree shall beeligible for appointment: Provided, furthermore, That anybody who will
enterthe service without a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum of four (4)years to obtain
the required educational qualification: Provided, finally, Thata waiver for height requirement shall be
automatically granted to applicantsbelonging to the cultural communities.
Section 16.SelectionCriteria Under the Waiver Program.– The selection of applicants under theWaiver
Program shall be subject to the following minimum criteria:
a) Applicants who possess the least disqualification shalltake precedence over those who possess more
disqualifications.
b) The requirements shall be waived in the following order:
(a) age,
(b) height,
(c)weight, and
(d) education.
The Commission shall promulgate rules and regulations toaddress other situations arising from the
waiver of the entry requirements.
Section 17.Nature ofAppointment Under a Waiver Program.– Any PNP uniformed personnel who
isadmitted due to the waiver of the educational or weight requirements shall beissued a temporary
appointment pending the satisfaction of the requirementwaived. Any member who will fail to satisfy
any of the waived requirementswithin the specified time periods under Section 13 of this Act shall
bedismissed from the service.
Section 18.Re-applicationof Dismissed PNP Members Under a Waiver Program.– Any PNP member who
shallbe dismissed under a waiver program shall be eligible to re-apply forappointment to the PNP:
Provided, That he or she possesses the minimum qualificationsunder Section 14 of this Act and his or
her reappointment is not by virtue ofanother waiver program.
Section 19.The FieldTraining Program.– All uniformed members of the PNP shall undergo a
FieldTraining Program for twelve (12) months involving actual experience andassignment in patrol,
traffic, and investigation as a requirement forpermanency of their appointment.
Section 20.IncreasedQualifications for Provincial Directors.– No person may be appointedDirector of a
Provincial Police Office unless:
a) he or she holds a master's degree in publicadministration, sociology, criminology, criminal justice,
law enforcement,national security administration, defense studies, or other related disciplinefrom a
recognized institution of learning; and
b) Has satisfactorily passed the required training and careercourses necessary for the position as may
be established by the Commission. AnyPNP personnel who is currently occupying the position but lacks
any of the qualificationsmentioned above shall be given three (3) years upon the effectivity of this
Actto comply with the requirements; otherwise he or she shall be relieved from theposition.
Section 21. Section 32 of Republic Act No. 6975is herebyamended to read as follows:"SEC.
32. Examinationsof Policemen. – The National Police Commission shall administer theentrance and
promotional examinations for policemen on the basis of thestandards set by the Commission."
Section 22. Section 34of Republic Act No. 6975is hereby amended to read as follows:"SEC.
34. Qualifications of Chief of City andMunicipal Police Stations. – No person shall be appointed chief
of a citypolice station unless he/she is a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or has finishedall the required
courses of a master's degree program in public administration,criminology, criminal justice, law
enforcement, national securityadministration, defense studies, and other related disciplines from a
recognizedinstitution of learning. No person shall be appointed chief of a municipalpolice station unless
he or she has finished at least second year Bachelor ofLaws or has earned at least twelve (12) units in a
master's degree program inpublic administration, criminology, criminal justice, law enforcement,
nationalsecurity administration, and other related disciplines from a recognizedinstitution of learning:
Provided, That members of the Bar with at least five(5) years of law practice, licensed criminologists
or graduates of thePhilippine National Police Academy and who possess the general qualificationsfor
initial appointment to the PNP shall be qualified for appointment as chiefof a city or municipal police
station: Provided, further, That the appointee hassuccessfully passed the required field training
program and has complied withother requirements as may be established by the Commission:
Provided,furthermore, That the chief of police shall be appointed in accordance with theprovisions of
Section 51,paragraph (b), subparagraph 4(i) of this Act."
Section 23.QualificationsUpgrading Program.– The Commission shall design and establish
aqualifications upgrading program for the Philippine National Police officers andmembers in
coordination with the Civil Service Commission, and the Commissionon Higher Education through a
distance education program and/or an in-serviceeducation program or other similar programs within
ninety (90) days from the effectivityof this Act.
C. ATTRITION SYSTEMFOR UNIFORMED PERSONNELSection 24. AttritionSystem.– There shall be
established a system of attrition within theuniformed members of the PNP within one (1) year from the
effectivity of thisAct to be submitted by the PNP to the Commission for approval. Such attritionsystem
shall include butis not limited to the provisions of the followingsections.
Section 25. Attritionby Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position.– The maximum tenure of
PNPmembers holding key positions is hereby prescribed as follows:
POSITION MAXIMUM TENUREChief four (4) yearsDeputy Chief four (4)yearsDirector of the Staff
Services four (4) yearsRegional Directors six(6) yearsProvincial/City Directors nine (9) yearsOther
positions higher than Provincial Director shall havethe maximum tenure of six (6) years.Unless earlier
separated, retired or promoted to a higher position inaccordance with the PNP
Staffing Pattern, police officers holding the above-mentionedpositions shall be compulsorily retired at
the maximum tenure in positionherein prescribed, or at age fifty-six (56), whichever is earlier:
Provided,That in times of war or other national emergency declared by Congress, thePresident may
extend the PNP Chief's tour of duty: Provided, further, That PNPmembers who have already reached
their maximum tenure upon the effectivity ofthis Act may be allowed one (1) year more of tenure in
their positions before themaximum tenure provided in this Section shall be applied to them, unless
theyshall have already reached the compulsory retirement age of fifty-six (56), inwhich case the
compulsory retirement age shall prevail. Except for the Chief,PNP, no PNP member who has less than
one (1) year of service before reachingthe compulsory retirement age shall be promoted to a higher
rank or appointed toany other position.
Section 26. Attritionby Relief.– A PNP uniformed personnel who has been relieved for just causeand
has not been given an assignment within two (2) years after such reliefshall be retired or separated.
Section 27. Attritionby Demotion in Position or Rank.– Any PNP personnel, civilian or uniformed,who
is relieved and assigned to a position lower than what is established forhis or her grade in the PNP
staffing pattern and who shall not be assigned to aposition commensurate to his or her grade within
eighteen (18) months aftersuch demotion in position shall be retired or separated.
Section 28. Attritionby Non-promotion.– Any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for
acontinuous period of ten (10) years shall be retired or separated.
Section 29. Attritionby Other Means.– A PNP member or officer with at least five (5) years
ofaccumulated active service shall be separated based on any of the followingfactors:
a) Inefficiency based on poor performance during the last two(2) successive annual rating periods;
b) Inefficiency based on poor performance for three (3)cumulative annual rating periods;
c) Physical and/or mental incapacity to perform policefunctions and duties; or
d) Failure to pass the required entrance examinations twiceand/or finish the required career courses
except for justifiable reasons.
Section 30.Retirementor Separation Under the Preceding Sections.– Any personnel who is
dismissedfrom the PNP pursuant to Sections 25, 26, 27, 28 and 29 hereof shall be retiredif he
or she has rendered at least twenty (20) years of service andseparated if he or she has rendered less
than twenty (20) years of serviceunless the personnel is disqualified by law to receive such benefits.
D. PROMOTION SYSTEMSection 31.RationalizedPromotion System.– Within six (6) months after the
effectivity of this Act,the Commission shall establish a system of promotion for uniformed andnon-
uniformed personnel of the PNP which shall be based on merits and on theavailability of vacant
positions in the PNP staffing pattern. Such system shallbe gender fair and shall ensure that women
members of the PNP shall enjoy equalopportunity for promotion as that of men
.Section 32.Promotionby Virtue of Position.– Any PNP personnel designated to any key positionwhose
rank is lower than that which is required for such position shall, aftersix (6)months of occupying the
same, be entitled to a rank adjustmentcorresponding to the position: Provided, That the personnel
shall not bereassigned to a position calling for a higher rank until after two (2) yearsfrom the date of
such rank adjustment: Provided, further, That any personneldesignated to the position who does not
possess the established minimumqualifications therefore shall occupy the same temporarily for not
more thansix (6)months without reappointment or extension.
Section 33. Section 38 (a) and (b) of Republic Act No. 6975ishereby amended to read as follows:"SEC.
38. Promotions. – (a) A uniformed member of the PNP shall not beeligible for promotion to a higher
position or rank unless he or she hassuccessfully passed the corresponding promotional examination
given by the Commission,or the Bar, or the corresponding board examinations for technical services
andother professions, has satisfactorily completed the appropriate and accreditedcourse in the PNPA or
equivalent training institutions, and has satisfactorilypassed the required psychiatric/psychological and
drug tests. In addition, nouniformed member of the PNP shall be eligible for promotion during the
pendencyof his or her administrative and/or criminal case or unless he or she has beencleared by the
People's Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) and the Office of theOmbudsman of any complaints proffered
against him or her, if any."
(b) Any uniformed member of the PNP who has exhibited acts ofconspicuous courage and gallantry at
the risk of his/her life above and beyond thecall of duty, shall be promoted to the next higher rank:
Provided, That suchacts shall be validated by the Commission based on established criteria."
E. UPGRADING OFSALARIES AND BENEFITSSection 34. Section 75of the same Act is hereby amended
toread as follows:"SEC. 75. RetirementBenefits. – Monthly retirement pay shall be fifty percent
(50%) of the base pay and longevity pay of theretired grade in case of twenty (20) years of active
service, increasing by twoand one-half percent (2.5%) for every year of active service rendered
beyondtwenty (20) years to a maximum of ninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36)years of active service
and over: Provided, That, the uniformed personnel shallhave the option to receive in advance and in
lump sum his retirement pay forthe first five (5) years: Provided, further, That payment of the
retirementbenefits in lump sum shall be made within six (6) months from effectivity dateof retirement
and/or completion: Provided, finally, That retirement pay of theofficers/non-officers of the PNP shall
be subject to adjustments based on theprevailing scale of base pay of police personnel in the active
service."
Section 35. Section 73of the same Act is hereby amended toread as follows:"SEC.
73. PermanentPhysical Disability. – An officer or non-officer who is permanently andtotally disabled as
a result of injuries suffered or sickness contracted in theperformance of his duty as duly certified by
the National Police Commission,upon finding and certification by the appropriate medical officer, that
theextent of the disability or sickness renders such member unfit or unable tofurther perform the
duties of his position, shall be entitled to one year'ssalary and to lifetime pension equivalent to eighty
percent (80%) of his lastsalary, in addition to other benefits as provided under existinglaws."Should
such member who has been retired under permanent totaldisability under this section die within five
(5) years from his retirement,his surviving legal spouse or if there be none, the surviving
dependentlegitimate children shall be entitled to the pension for the remainder of thefive (5) years
guaranteed period."
Section 36. Section 36 of Republic Act No. 6975is herebyamended to read as follows:"SEC. 36. Statusof
Members of the Philippine National Police. – The uniformed members ofthe PNP shall be considered
employees of the National Government and shall drawtheir salaries therefrom. They shall have the
same salary grade level as thatof public school teachers: Provided, that PNP members assigned in
MetropolitanManila, chartered cities and first class municipalities may be paid financialincentive by the
local government unit concerned subject to the availability offunds."
Section 37.Early RetirementProgram.– Within three (3) years after the effectivity of this Act, any
PNPofficer or non-commissioned officer may retire and be paid separation benefitscorresponding to a
position two (2) ranks higher than his or her present ranksubject to the following conditions:
a) that at the time he or she applies for retirement, he orshe has already rendered at least ten (10)
years of continuous governmentservice;
b) The applicant is not scheduled for separation orretirement from the service due to the attrition
system or separation forcause;
c) He or she has no pending administrative or criminal case;and
d) He or she has at least three (3) more years in the servicebefore reaching the compulsory retirement
age and at least a year before his orher maximum tenure in position.
Section 38.Rationalizationof Retirement and Separation Benefits.– The Commission shall formulate
arationalized retirement and separation benefits schedule and program within one(1) year from the
effectivity of this Act for approval by Congress: Provided,That the approved schedule and program shall
have retroactive effect in favorof PNP members and officers retired or separated from the time
specified in thelaw, unless the retirement or separation is for cause and the decision deniesthe grant of
benefits.
LEA-1POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION WITH

POLICE PLANNING
POP SHEETS IN LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
LEA-1 POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE PLANNING Law Enforcement
Administration (LEA)
The course deals with the study of principles underlying police organization and management with
particular focus on the Constitutional mandate, Republic Acts 6975 and 8551, and previous laws and
issuances relating thereto.
It includes the organizational structure and organization of the Philippine National Police, on the national
and local levels.
Emphasis is given on direction, supervision, coordination and control of all local police forces as a
homogeneous body under a single command.
It also includes the basic management functions in so far as these are applied to the police organization.
Police planning is integrated into this course, and it is designed to equip the students with knowledge on
the development of effective plans, particularly on strategies and tactics for effective operations.
The emphasis is on the special techniques and procedure applicable to unusual needs like unusual
criminal activities, civil disturbances, special community events, disaster plans, and civil defense.
Introduction: The organization with management and administration is directed towards the achievement
of goals and objectives.
Goals are broad statements of general and long term organizational purposes often used to define the
role of the police, for instance, to prevent crime, maintain order or help solve community problems.
Objectives are specific short term statements consistent with an organizations goal.
The organization guides members in its operation of the assigned duties. It enhances better
administration of the department. Good organization and administration would eventually mean effective
and efficient police work. Organization can also distinguished by their degree of formality and structure:
1. Formal Organization-is defined as those organizations that are formally established for explicit
purpose of achieving certain goals. (Stable social institutions.)
2. Informal Organization- are those sharing the basic characteristic of all organizations arise through
the social interactions of individuals or through family grouping.
What is Organization?
It is a form of human association for the attainment of goal or objective.
It is the process of identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating
responsibility and authority establishing relationships for the propose of enabling people work effectively.
What is Police Organization?
Police organization is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged
in the achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of crimes.
Administration of Police Organization - It is the systematic structure of management of a police

organization.
What is Police?
Police is a branch of the criminal justice system that has the specific responsibility of maintaining law
and order and combating crime within the society.
The term police are derived from the word POLITIA, meaning condition of a state,government and
administration, POLITIA organization is from the Greek word POLITEIA which means government,
citizenship, or the entire activity of a POLIS, a city.
POLICE (broadest sense) means the internal organization or regulation of a state, the control and
regulation of a community or state through the exercise of the constitutions power of the government.
POLICE (less broadest sense)it denotes the power of the government which concerns the tranquility,
public order, peace,security of persons and property and the protection of the public health and moral.
In the very restricted sense, the word police refer exclusively to that body of armed men which as an
institution is capable of exercising its duties by armed physical forces in the preservation and detection of
crime and the execution of laws.
Police Activities:
1. The prevention of Criminality.
2. Repression of Crime.
3. Apprehending of offenders.
4. Recovery of Property.
5. Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct.
6. Performance of Related Miscellaneous Service.
The organization of the police force commonly requires the following organizational units:
Functional Units:
1. Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of
divisions:
2. Division - a primary subdivision of a bureau.
3. Section -functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization.
4. Unit -functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
Territorial Units:
1. Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk or
office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty.It is a spot location for general guard duty.
2. Route -a length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT.
3. Beat - an area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.

4. Sector - an area containing two or more beats, routes, or post.
5. District-a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
6. Area- a section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
Other Items and Terminologies
1. Sworn Officers-all personnel of the police department who have oath and who posses the power to
arrest.
2. Superior Officer- one having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over
officers of lower rank.
3. Commanding Officer- an officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an

area, or a district.
4. Ranking Officer- the officer who has the senior rank in a team or group.
5. Length of Service- the period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.Previous active services may be included or added.
6. On Duty - the period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
7. Off Duty - the nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
8. Special Duty -the police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the
performance of his active regular duty.
9. Leave of Absence- period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid\acceptable
reason, approved by higher authority.
10. Sick leave -period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
11. Suspension - a consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
12. Department Rules- rules established by department directors\superiors to control the conduct of
the members of the police force.
13. Duty Manual -describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified post
or position.
14. Order – an instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate, either:

a. General Order,
b. Special, or
c. Personal
15. Report - usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal reports;
verbalreports should be confirmed by written communication.
Nature of Police Organization

The police department is truly a complex bureaucracy. It is mostly a multi-level organization,organized
in the form of a pyramid with the top-level administrator being the chief of police.
At the bottom level of the organization, one finds the patrolman or line officer.
The patrol officer is the backbone of the police department.
The lowest level worker found in many, if not most, complex organizations who usually performs the
routine, repetitive kind of work necessary to keep the organization functioning.
The police department by its very nature places the line officer in a position where he is a decision maker
and manager of his area o responsibility from the first time he is given a beat to patrol.
There are indeed few agencies in which the efficiency and parameter of the law enforcement functions
are vested in those individuals quite likely have the least amount of experience and expertise in the
organization.
Types of Police Organizational Structures
An organizational structure is a mechanical means of depicting, by an arrangement of symbols,the

relationships that exist between individuals, groups, and functional relationships between groups and
individuals clearly defined to ensure accountability and compliance.
Line Organization
The straight line organization, often called the individual,military or departmental types of organization, is
the simplest and perhaps the oldest types; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of authority and
responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures, authority is definite and
absolute.
While the line type of organization has many advantages, it also has some inherent weaknesses which,for
many organizations, make its use impractical.
Perhaps its greatest advantages it that, it is utterlysimple. It involves a division of the work into units of
eight people with aperson in charge who has complete control and who can be hold directlyresponsible or
accountable for result, or lack of them.
Quick decisions can be made in the line organization because of the direct lines authority.
Because of these direct lines, each member in the chain of command knows to whom he is clearly fixed.
Discipline is administered in this type of the organization.
Responsibility for making decisions is well identified. Singleness of purpose is fostered.
Coordination of effort is relatively easy to achieve because functional overlapping in between units, a
prime cause of friction in any organization can be minimized.
Functional Organization
The functional organization in its pure form is rarely found in present day organizations,except at or
near the top of the very large organizations.
Unlike the type of structure, those establishment organized on a functional basis violate the prime rule
that men perform best when they have but one superior.
The functional responsibility of each functional manager is limited to the particular activity over which he
has control, regardless of who performs the function.
Coordination of effort in this type of organization becomes difficult since the employees responsible for
results may be subject to functional direction of several persons.
Discipline is difficult to administer because of this multi-headed leadership.
There may be considerable conflict among the functional administrators, resulting in much conclusion
among line personnel.
Line of authority and responsibility are fragmented into many functional channels, making each superior
responsible to several superiors depending upon the function he happens to be performing.
The functional organization in its purest form is rarely found in present-day organization except at or near
the top level.
Advantages
1. divides responsibility and authority between several specialists;
2. Functional responsibility is limited to the particular activity over which he has control regardless of who
performs the functions.
Disadvantages
1. Coordination of effort becomes difficult;
2. Discipline is difficult to administer;
3. Conflict among the functional administrators.
Line and Staff Organization
The line and staff organization is a combination of the line and functional types.
It combines staff specialist such as the criminalists, the training officers, the research and development
specialists, etc. channels of responsibility is to think and provide expertise for the line units.
The line supervisor must remember that he obtains advice from the staff specialist.
In normal operations, the staff supervisor has line commands but with recognized limitations such as
coordination between line and staff personnel can be achieved without undue friction.
Failure to recognize these line and staff relationship is the greatest and most frequent source of friction
and a barrier to effective coordination.
The advantage of this kind would be- it combines staff specialistor units with line organization so that
service of knowledge can be providedline personnel by specialist.
POLICE SERVICE
Fundamental Theories of Police Service
1. The Continental Theory - police are servant of higher authorities and the people have little or no
share at all in their duties, nor any direct connection with them.
2. The Home Rule Theory - policemen are considered as servants of the community who defend for
the effectiveness of their function upon the express wishes of the people.
Concepts of Police Service
1. Old Concepts -this old philosophy means throwing more people in jail rather than keepingthese out
jail. Punishment is the sole instrument of crime control. Theyardstick of efficiency of the police is more on
arrests.
2. Modern Concept -police service today has broadened its activities to include certain aspect ofsocial
service for the welfare of the people. Their yardstick of efficiency is the absence of crime.
All police function and activities can be categorized as their line or non-line. Line functions are those tasks
that directly facilitate the accomplishment of organizational goals, whereas non-line functions are those
tasks that supplement the line its task performance.
Line activities are further broken into the sub-categories: primary line and secondary line functions, both
of which are field service.
1. Line Function
1.1. Primary Line Function
The primary line function is police patrol; that is the patrol activities of a police organization are
considered basic and the first priority.
The patrol division has the initial responsibility for crime prevention and dictation of the apprehension of
offenders.
It also assists in the preparation in the facts for presentation in a court of law.
Theoretically,if the patrol force were 100 percent effective in the execution of its assigned tasks, the need
for specialized units (traffic and detective) would be eliminated.
The patrol function is accurately called the backbone of the police service.
1.2. SecondaryFunction
Historically, police department were established only as police patrols, however as municipalities
increased in population, area, and technology (for example, the invention of the automobile), the burden
of this patrols was greatly increased.
The department, were unable to provide additional personnel because of budgetary limitations, were
unable to increase the number of the officers on the patrol beat in proportion to the rising population and
rate of crime and was force to enlarge each officers beat.
2. Non-Line Function
Simply put, non-line functions are those services that support the line.
Whereas the line provides services directly to the citizens, non-line activities help the line to accomplish
its primary task.
Traditionally non-line or support activities consist of two major categories: staff and auxiliary services.
2.1. Staff Services
These activities that have the responsibility and personal development and department management are
staff services.
Personal development includes recruitment, selection, training, and supervision.
Budget, planning and research, inspection, and similar activities fall under the heading of managerial
activities.
2.2. Auxiliary Services
All non-line not regarded as staff service are classified as auxiliary services.
Typically, they provide support service of both a technical and non-technical nature to both line and non-
line activities.
Polygraph examiner, photographer, fingerprint and crime scene technicians, and the police laboratory are
technical auxiliary services that support the line activities.
The jail and the communication system and non-line (staff) activities.
Some activities are extremely difficult to classify as either the staff or auxiliary.
In many instances they perform a dual service. Police communityrelation units, although performing
secondary line service, may be designatedas an auxiliary or even a staff function.
LINE FUNCTION
Primary Secondary Staff Auxiliary

-Patrol
-Criminal Investigation
-Vice Investigation
-Planning and Research
-Inspection
-Police record System
-Identification service
-Traffic Regulation and control
-Crime Prevention
-Personnel Administration
-Training
-Budgeting Control
-Purchasing
-Public Relation
-Property control
-Communication
-Crime Laboratory
-Jail-Supply
-Transportation
-Maintenance
PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIZATION
To understand the organization and operation of public departments certain general basic principles of
organization must be understood.
These principles of organization were generated by the experience of industry, business, and the military
services.
They have no absolute values,but they do provide a check list against which an organization can be
structurally and functionally evaluated.
This notion will become more defined as each principle is considered.
Division of Labor
For a police organization to be effective, work assignments must be designed so that similar tasks,
functions, and activities are given to an individual or group for accomplishment.
Police functions are sub-divided into units that are described as follows:
1. Branch -usually the largest unit within station
2. Division - partof the branch having a department-wide function
3. Section -basically one of the several functional elements of a division
Unity of Command
Unity of command requires that an individual be directly accountable to only one superior. No person
can effectively serve twosuperiors at a given time.
Chain of Command
Primarily this principle provides for the vertical movement of authority up and down established channels
in the organizational hierarchy.
To illustrate this concept, consider a directives originating in the office of the patrol chief intended for the
patrol force (downward movement).
Two levels of authority fall between the patrol chief and the patrol officer inspector.
Because both levels are held responsible for various aspects of patrol supervision,both must be aware of
such directives.
If either supervisor is by-passed, that one can not beheld accountable for the lack of knowledge.
Further, performance of supervisory duties is greatly hindered, and potentially serious problem is
created.
Delegation of Responsibility and Authority
There must be a clear line of normal authority running from the top to bottom of every organization.
Ultimate authority and responsibility for a police organization lies at the top of the chain of command-
with the chief.
However, if a subordinate is to be held responsible for the accomplishment of a given task, he or she
must be given the authority to carryout those responsibilities.
It is important, also the responsibility and the authority be clearly defined.
If the patrol officers are given the responsibility for evaluating police response time on a given day or in
a specific situation, the officer must be given the authority to procure the communication logs from the
communication center.
Without this authority, the entire task cannot be accomplished.
Delineation of Responsibility and Authority
A clear-out delineation of responsibility and authority is essential to prevent confusion of lines of

authority.
If responsibility and authority are not clearly defined, conflicts, duplication and overlaps of function lead
to confusion and inefficiency.
Each officer and each organization segment of authority delegated to accomplish the job.
Span of Control
The number of officers or units reporting directly to the supervisor should not exceed the number that
can be feasibly and effectively coordinate and directed.
There are an innumerable factor that limits the span control including distance, time, knowledge,
personality, and the complexity of the work to be performed.
It is not unusual to fine fifty or sixty workers to perform identification function reporting to one
supervisor.
On the other hand,as we ascend the chain of command and the diversity of functions increases, the
number of individuals that a police executive supervises decreases rapidly.
Objective
All organizational elements must contribute, directly or indirectly, to the accomplishment of the objectives
of the enterprise.
Each organizational element should be formed for a definite purpose, and this purposes must be
accomplish the major objective.
Any police function and organizational elements that is not required in the accomplishment of the overall
objectives should be eliminated.
Coordination
The organizational structure must facilitate the development of close, friendly, and co-operative relations,
especially between line and staff activities.
Effective coordination is dependent almost entirely upon adequate communication among all element of a
police organization.
Time
The police service is among the few public services that maintain a twenty-four hour schedule.
It is necessary to the department to assigned officers in sufficient number to meet the demands at any
given time.
Watch or Shift
A time division of the day to ensure proper allocation of personnel.

Shifts are normally eight consecutive hours, five days, giving an officer a forty-hour a week.
However, longer working hours and work weeks are common.

Further, shifts frequently overlaps to provide additional personnel during peak period.
Territory
Territorial distribution is necessary to ensure theavailability and general suitability of the patrol service
throughout ajurisdiction. Geographical or territorial divisions of the department can beerdescribed as
follows:
1. Post - a fixedor stationary point location (e.g., a specified street intersection,surveillance site, or an
assigned desk or office).
2. Route or Lined Beat- a length of street normally assigned to the traffic and patrol officerswhether
foot or mobile. The rout has the characteristics of being continuous,in a straight line, or the line sight.
3. Beat - ageographical area, once again assigned to either foot or mobile patrol andtraffic officer.
4. Section - twoor more beats, routes, posts, or any combination thereof.

Clientele
The distribution of patrol services with respect to thecharacteristics of the population served must be
recognized and dealt with incontemporary law enforcement. The development of specialized functional
unitsexpresses the principle of the organization by clientele.
Nature of the Office ofa Policeman
A police man must have a mind of a lawyer the soul of aclergyman, the heart of the social worker,
discipline of an army sergeant, theintegrity of a saint. He must believe in a community of law, while
seeinglittle but lawlessness; believe in the goodness of man, while seeing the manmost often at his
worst, depend on his faithfulness, know his jurisdictionslike a sociologist, and he must understand people
like a psychologist. He musttake long view of life like a philosopher and yet never losing his
commontouch.
POLICE OPERATIONS
Police Operation
Another word in the large collection of police serviceterminology is operations. For the most part,
operation is synonymous with line function. In accordance with previousdefinitions, operations are
inclusive of both primary and secondary line functions.
Subdivision of the Operation
Area.
1. District - is asubdivision of a province and shall consist of a metropolitan city or ametropolitan city
and adjacent municipalities\ small cities, or several adjacentmunicipalities and small cities.
2. Station -is asubdivision of a district and shall consist of a large municipality or a smallcity or
municipalities\small city and some adjacent smaller municipalities or severaladjacent municipalities.
3. Sub-station -is a subdivision of a station and shall consist of a large municipality or smallcity or a
municipality itself.
Operating Unit of aPolice Station
1. PatrolDivision\Section - shall be responsible for crime prevention; generalpreservation of peace

and order; crime suppression, and other public safetyservices.
2. InvestigationDivision\section - shall be charged with the duty of carrying on theobjectives of

criminal investigation, that is, to identify and locate theguilty party and provide evidence of his guilt
through criminal proceedings.
3. Vice ControlDivision\Section - shall be responsible for the neutralization orsuppression of vices

such as gambling, prostitution and drug abuse.
4. JuvenileDivision\Section - shall be primarily concerned with children and youth, thecorrection and
rehabilitation of youth offenders.
5. IntelligenceDivision\Section - shall work for the detection of syndicated crimes andsubtle criminal
activities, including subversion and threats to the security ofthe state.
6. TrafficDivision\section - shall be responsible from the enforcement of trafficlaws and regulation of

traffic. This section is primarily concerned with themotorist and pedestrians.
7. HomicideDivision\Section - shall be charged with the duty to investigate homicideand murder

cases.
8. Municipal PoliceSub-station - shall be concerned with the general maintenance of peace,order and
public safety within their respective jurisdictions. The MunicipalPolice Sub-station shall consist of two
principal sections with correspondingfunctions as indicated below:
a. Patrol Section
1. Preservation of peace and order

2. Suppression of criminal activities
3. Crime prevention
4. Inspection activities
5. Enforcement of traffic laws and regulations
6. Fire prevention and control
b. Investigation section
1. Crime investigation
2. vice control
3. Control of juvenile delinquency
4. Custody of prisoners
Peace Officer of SmallPolice Station
Peace officers of small Police stations are considered asgeneralist. Most small police station within the
limits of their capabilities,are responsible for all activities in the fields of law enforcement and
publicsafety. They provide routine patrol, conduct premise inspection, make criminaland traffic
investigations, make arrest, and in other ways, provide for thecommunity security. In such stations, its
members and officers are by and largegeneralist.
Historical Backgroundon Policing
Primitive Policing Law enforcement can be traced back to thecave dwellers, who were expected to follow
certain rules or face banishment ordeath. The customs depicted in early cave dwelling may represent the
beginningof law and law enforcement. The prehistoric social order consisted of smallfamily groups living
together as tribes or clans. Group living gave rise tocustoms everyone was expected to observe. The
tribe’s chief had executive,legislative and judicial powers and often appointed tribe members to
performspecial task to include guarding the community against depredation of lawless elements.
Ancient Law Enforcement
The Sumerians
The earliest record of ancient peoples need to standardizerules and methods of enforcement to control
human behavior dates toapproximately 2300 B.C., when the Sumerian rulers Lipithstar and Eshumma
setstandards on what constituted an offense against society.
The Babylonians
The Code of King Hammurabi (2100 B.C.) –during the time ofBabylonian King Hammurabi, he established
rules for his kingdom that designatednot only offenses but punishment as well. The principle of the code
was thatthe strong shall not injure the week. Hammurabi originated the legal principleof LEX Talionis- the
eye for an eye, tooth for a tooth doctrine.
Ancient Egypt
The early Egyptians established laws and court and arudimentary rule of law. The first account of a
developing court system originatedin Egypt in approximately 1500 B.C. the court system was presided by
judges whowere appointed by the pharaoh. They later organized marine patrols andcustomhouses to
protect commerce.
Ancient Greece
The Greeks had an impressive of law enforcement called theEphori. Each year at Sparta, a body of
Ephors was elected and given almostunlimited powers as investigator, judge, jury and executioner. These
five menalso presided over the senate and assembly, assuring that their rules anddecrees were followed.
From the Greek philosopher PLATO, who lived from 427 to347 B.C., was the idea that punishment should
serve the purpose rather thansimple retaliation.
Ancient Rome
The Romans had a high development system of administering justice.The 12Tabulae (12 tables) were the
first written laws of the Roman Empire. Itdeals with legal procedures, property ownership, building codes,
marriagecustoms and punishment for crimes. At the reign of Emperor Augustus, he created
the Praetorian Guard, which consisted of about 7000 men\soldiers toprotect the palace and the City of
Rome, together with the Urban Cohorts to patrol the city. He created the so called Vigiles who were
assigned asfirefighters and eventually given law enforcement responsibilities. As the firstcivilian police
force the Vigiles sometimes kept the peace very ruthlessly,hence the word vigilantes. Anotherimportant
event was the time of JustinianI, ruler of the Eastern Roman Empire (527 to 265 A.D.) who collected
allRoman laws and put it into his Justinian Code-they became known the Corpus Juris Civilis which
means Body of Law.
The Early PolicingSystem
The policing system is divided into different systems namely:
The Anglo-Saxon Period
The Anglo-Saxons were influential in developing the earlypolice forces. The following are the features of
this period:
1. Tun Policing System- Tun is the forerunner of the word town. Under this system all maleresidents
are required to guard the town and to preserve the peace and control,to protect life and property from
harm or disturbance.
2. Hue and Cry - asystem of apprehending a criminal whereby a complaint goes to the middle of
thestreet and shouts to call all males to assemble. The victim reports his complaintto the assembly and
gives the whereabouts of the perpetrator. All male residentswould then proceed to locate and apprehend
the culprit. When apprehended, trialis conducted giving the culprit a chance to depend himself.
3. The Royal Jude -a person who conducts criminal investigation and gives punishment.
Punishmentusually fits the crime committed.
4. Trial by Ordeal- a system of determining guilt and innocence in the ancient times which wasbased on
painful test of skills. It is usually accompanied by harsh punishment.For instance, suspects were required
to place their hands in boiling oil orwater. When not hurt, it indicated guilt and the suspect placed under
punishment.
The Normal Period ofPolicing (1066-1285)
1. Shire-Rieve System- England at the time of William Norman,divided England into 55military
districts known as the Shire-Rieve. Shire was the district, Rieve was the ruler who makes laws,pass
judgment and impose punishment. He was assisted by a constable (forerunnerof the word constabulary).
2. The Traveling Judge- one responsible in passing judgment which was taken from the Shire-Rieve
inview of some abuses by the Rieves.
3. Leges Henri -the law of King Henrie I. Duringthis period:

a. offenses were classified as against the king andindividual
b. police men were considered public officials
c. police and the citizens have the broad power to arrest
d. a grand jury was created to inquire on the facts of thelaw.
4. The Magna-Carta- laws were enacted upon the demand of the Knights of the Round Table andforced
the king to sign the same. Examples of the principles of law include thefollowing:
a. no free men shall be taken or imprisoned, disposed oroutlawed except by legal judgment of his peers
b. no person should be tried from murder unless there isproof the body of the victim
c. Beginning of the national and local government as well as legislation.
The Westminster Periodof Policing (1285-1500)
1. The Statute of 1295- this law prescribed the closing of the gates of London at sundown. Start
ofcurfew systems.
2. Justice of thePeace - this was position which gives a person the power to arrest, pursueand impose
imprisonment.
3. The Star Chambercourt - a special court which try offenses against the state.
Modern policing System
This period came to the limelight when a bill creating the Scotland Yard was passed by theparliament
of England. It was sponsored and expanded by Sir Robert Pell who was made to be the first head of
the policeorganization. He was referred as the Fatherof Modern Policing system due to his
contributions in the modernization ofthe police force. The following are the principles were considered
inorganizing and administering the Scotland Yard known as the Peels Principles:
1. Stable and effective police force should be undergovernment control.
2. Absence of crime is the best proof of efficiency.
3. Fast distribution of new to the people is essential.
4. Proper distribution of personnel according to shift and byhour.
5. The best qualification of peace officers is control oftemper.
6. Proper selection and training is the basis of efficiency.

7. Police cannot function properly without wholeheartedsupport of the people.
8. Every police must sell himself to the people.
9. Police officers must go out to their way to help or assistthe people.
Philippine NationalPolice
The Philippine National Police or PNP is the national policeforce of the Republic of the Philippines with a
manpower strength of 113,928 asof end-July 2007. It provides law enforcement services through its
regional,provincial, municipal, district and local police units all over the islands.Created by virtue of
Republic Act 6975, otherwise known as the “Department ofthe Interior and Local Government Act of
1990", the PNP came into being onJanuary 29, 1991, at Camp Crame, Quezon City, when the Philippine
Constabularyand the Integrated National Police were retired as mandated by law.
History Early Policing
Organized policing started in 1500s when nightmen or bantayans patrolled the streets of Manila. The
nightmenwere under the direction of the alguacilmayor who provided them with muskets as weapons
and alarm bells as theirmeans of communication. In 1836, the Spanish colonial authorities formed
the Cuadrillo, a rural police force, toenforce peace in the countryside. Six years later, its general
function wasassumed by the Cuerpo de Carabineros deSeguridad Publica.
The Carabineros deSeguridad Publica was organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying outlawsof
the
Spanish government. Native Filipinos served up to the rank of sergeantunder the command of Spanish
officers. It was the earlier version of mounted riflemenin the history of the Philippine police system.
In 1852, the notoriously dreaded Guardia Civil took over peacekeeping duties in the islands under
aRoyal Decree. Guardia Civil in the provinces was composed mainly of Filipinoswho worked under the
jurisdiction of the alcaldes or mayors. They followed amilitary structure and received semi-military
training yet lacked otherdimensions of today’s police service.
The capture of General Emilio Aguinaldo, president of theFirst Philippine Republic, signaled the start of
the American occupation of thePhilippines. Maintaining peace and order, particularly in the
countryside,remained the biggest problem of the Americans.
The Americans failed to subdue the followers of Aguinaldolike Gen. Macario Sakay. Hostilities continued in
Batangas, Mindoro, Cebu, Boholand Samar. A military solution to the peace and order problem was ruled,
hence,the birth of the Philippine Constabulary.
Pacification Campaigns
To fight rampant lawlessness, the Philippine Constabularydivided the entire country into constabulary
districts. Banditry was rampant inSouthern Luzon. Records referred to the bandits as tulisanes. The style
offighting of the early American Constables and the bandits was “man-to-man, onfoot, and generally by
arms and bolos.”
The American foot soldiers had a hard time repelling the tulisanesin their fight in the mountains as their
enemies were familiar with theterrain. Malaria and cholera were the diseases that the afflicted the
Americantroops whenever they conducted foot patrol in the hinterlands.
The Insular Force
The Americans are credited for creating the Philippine Constabulary, the principalinstrument of the
civil authorities for the maintenance of peace and order. ThePC began as a small unit—the InsularForce
in 1901.
It was set up by virtue of Organic Act No. 175, enacted by the Second Philippine Commission on
July 18, 1901.The Constabulary thenwas composed of six thousand men led by American officers and
former members ofthe Spanish Guardia Civil. Under close American direction and control, itfunctioned as
a military organization.
Since its formation, the Constabulary had been primarilydischarging police law enforcement and public
safety functions. Its officersand men had served with distinction both in the field of law enforcement and
incombating violence and lawlessness, and in various aspects of public service.
There was even a time in history when they performed theduties of teachers, sanitary inspectors,
midwives, doctors and foresters.
The Philippine Constabulary was mandated as a civilianorganization on March 15, 1945 whenit was
placed under the general supervision of the Interior then latertransferred to the Secretary of
NationalDefense on March 30, 1950.
The Secretary ofInterior had supervision over the Constabulary as early as January 13, 1939 until
the outbreak ofWorld War II.As an insular police force, the officers of the Constabularycarried the civilian
title of “inspector.” Its peacekeeping duty was limited toareas where military rule had been lifted.
The Constabulary At War
The participation of the Constabulary in the dark years ofthe Second World War began upon President
Roosevelt’s declaration of a state ofemergency in the United States. Manila prepared for war.
The word had been sent: Japan, the Axis power’s ally in Asia,would soon attack the Far East. Filipinos
woke up on the morning of December 8, 1941 to the news that theJapanese had attacked Pearl
Harbor.
The first war casualties of the Constabulary came from thebombing of Pan-American Airways installation
at San Pedro, Makati in theafternoon of December 8. Six Constables from the Headquarters Company
werewounded.
The next days and months saw relentless Japanese bombings on thecountry’s landmarks, airfields and
naval bases.
The Death March
The Japanese had taken Manila but were surprised that nodefense forces were waiting to be captured.
The Japanese forces then began thesiege of Bataan, ordering four infantry regiments with artillery and
tanksupport to crush the American and Filipino soldiers.
The Japanese then prepared to transfer the prisoners andsurrendered troops to Camp o’ Donnel
inCapas, Tarlac in what has been known as the “Death March.” Because oftorture and
starvation, 4,326 prisonersof war died in the infamous march.
The Postwar Constabulary
The county was left in shambles after the Second World War.Manila was in ruins. Loose firearms and
dead bodies littered the streets. Thiswas also the period when communist ideology had been propagated
in thecountryside and hard-line supporters had been won.
The Hukbong Mapagpalaya ng Bayan or Hukbalahap became a forceto reckon with in Central Luzon.
The Hukbalahapwas born in Pampanga and was spawned by a feudal land system in theprovince
dominated bylandlords. Pampanga was an “ideal ground” for the agrarianunrest. It achieved legal status
during the Japanese occupation when it mergedwith the guerilla forces in fighting the Japanese.
The communist movement, meanwhile, capitalized on theagrarian problems of the country to cement its
presence. Agrarian unrest wasprevalent in agricultural lands in Luzon as well as the sprawling haciendas
in thesouth.
Luis Taruc became a leader of the HMBs and foundedhis own government in Central Luzon. It was
during this turbulent period thatthe Philippine Constabulary was reactivated into the Military Police
Command.
Faced with peace and order problems, the Military Police Commandwas suffering from its own internal
crises.
The last war had killed manyConstables. There was a dearth for trained personnel who would be utilized
toaddress the problems.
Constabulary records showed that there were about 20,000Hukbalahaps in Luzon in 1946. The Military
Police Command, on the other hand,had 23,000 informal enlistees.
Reorganization
On January 1, 1944, the Military Police Command was dissolvedby virtue of Executive Order No.
94 issuedby President Manuel A. Roxas. TheCommand’s 12,000 officers and men were absorbed by
the newly reorganizedPhilippine Constabulary. The revitalized PC was in charge of the country’speace and
order “except those which were purely military in nature.”
Brig. Gen. Mariano Castañeda became chief of the PC and institutedreforms. On June 21, 1948,
PresidentElpidio Quirino offered general amnesty to the Huks. Taruc, who had beenelected a
member of Congress representing Pampanga, returned to Manila. ButTaruc had no plans to surrender.
He only went to Manila to collect his backsalaries and used the money for his comrades’ operations in
Central Luzon.
President Ramon Magsaysay was credited for crippling the Huk movementby mobilizing the Philippine
Constabulary. Magsaysay used the “friendly touch”for winning over the Huks, building roads for them and
giving them lands.
The Rise of theCommunist Party of the Philippines
The Philippine Constabulary’s attempt to maintain peace andorder did not end with the decimation of the
Huks.
On December 26, 1968, Jose Maria Sison, a Political Science student atthe University of the
Philippines, founded the Communist Party of thePhilippines.
The communist ideology spread through a small discussiongroup called Kabataan Makabayan organized
by Sison and his colleagues in themiddle sixties. Sison then rose to become the leader of the CPP and
organized themilitary wing of the CPP, the New People’s Army.
But the communists suffered a crushing blow on January 9,1969 in the hands of the Constabulary who
killed the most number of communistleaders in one encounter in Orani, Bataan.
The PC MetropolitanCommand
The upsurge of mass demonstrations and violence during thelatter part of the 60s and the expansion
efforts of the communist movementtriggered the creation of the PC Metropolitan Command.
To quell the unrest, President Ferdinand Marcos issued Executive Order Number 76 on July 14,
1967establishing the PC Metrocom whichbecame the PC’s striking force as it was authorized to conduct
24/7 patrol inthe entire Metro Manila and was tasked to “supplement or complement localpolice action in
the repression and prevention of crimes…”
Martial Law and the PC
The Philippine Constabulary took on a pivotal role whenPresident Marcos declared Martial Law
on September21, 1972.
Marcos mobilized the Constabulary and other major services ofthe military to dismantle the
“unconstitutional opposition” and to preventwidespread hooliganism and gangsterism. Convinced that
there was a need torestructure the social base that bred lawlessness, Marcos reorganized thegovernment
machinery to effect his desired changes in the social, economic andpolitical structures.
On March 21, 1974,President Ferdinand E. Marcos signed PresidentialDecree 421 unifying all the
police, fire and jail services in Metro Manila.The move was significant as it created an elite force,
the Metropolitan Police Force that was placed under the aegis of the PCMetrocom. The decree was
also the first step in fulfilling the constitutionalmandate for an integrated national police force.
The Metropolitan Police Force was tasked to carry out theintegration of all police units
nationwide. Brigadier General Prospero A. Olivas, commanding general of theMetrocom, was
assigned the task of launching the pilot project under thesupervision of Fidel V. Ramos
and BrigadierGeneral Cicero C. Campos, deputy Chief for police matters.
General Olivas would have the power and direction over the Metrocom,including tactical, strategic
movements, deployments, placements and utilization of the entire force and the training thereof.
On August 8, 1975,Marcos issued Presidential Decree No.765 establishing the Integrated National
Police with the Philippine Constabulary as the nucleus and all police officers as components.
They wereall placed under the supervision of the Ministry of National Defense.
The Creation of the Philippine National Police
The People’s Revolution of 1986 saw the birth of the 1987 Constitution that included a provision on the
PNP which was to be “national in scope and civilian in character.”
In 1991, the Philippine National Police was created with the passage of Republic Act No. 6975, otherwise
known as the“Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990.”
The principal authors of the Republic Act 6975 were Senators Ernesto N. Maceda and Aquilino
Pimentel, Congressmen Jose S. Cojuangco Jr. and Rodrigo Gutang.
Upon its signing into law on December 13, 1990, the PNP underwent a transitory period;and on 31
March 1991, President Corazon Aquino named General Cesar Nazareno as the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police.
On January 29, 1991,at Camp Crame, Quezon City, thePhilippine Constabulary and the
Integrated National Police were retired officially and the Philippine NationalPolice was born.
Like any new evolving organization, the PNP suffered from birth pains. To address these
concerns, RepublicAct 8551 or the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998 was enacted
on February 17, 1998 to amend certainprovisions of Republic Act No. 6975.
This move was in response to the growing clamor to transform the PNP “into a more responsive, effective
and relevant police organization.”
Under this Act, the PNP shall be strengthened and evolved into a highly efficient police force that is
community and service-oriented and fully accountable in the performance of its action.
Officer
Training Officers for the Philippine National Police are sourced from the Philippine National Academy as
well as through lateral entry,for specialized disciplines and requirements such as doctors, engineers and
other technical positions.
The Philippine National Police Academy is located in Silang, Cavite and is the primary training school for
the PNP.
Recruitment and Training

The PNP conducts regular recruitment programs, depending on annual budget allocations.
The entry level for non-commissioned officers is the rank of Police Officer 1 or PO1, with a starting salary
of P14, 265.00 inclusive of allowances.
The new recruits undergo Police Basic Recruit Course for six months and a Field Training Program for
another six months prior to deployment to various units.
Republic Act No. 6975 Approved: December 13, 1990
-An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the Interior and
Local Government, and for other purposes. PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE (PNP) The Philippine National
Police (PNP) has been established initially consisting of the following:
a. Members of the police force who were integrated into theIntegrated National Police (INP)pursuant
to PD 765;
b. Officers and enlisted personnel of the PhilippineConstabulary (PC) which include:
•Those assigned with the Narcotics Command (NARCOM);
•Those assigned with the Criminal Investigation Service (CIS);
•Those of the technical services of the AFP assigned with thePC.
•Civilian operatives of the CIS.

c. Regular operatives of the abolished NAPOLCOM Inspection,Investigation and Intelligence Branch may
also be absorbed by the PNP. Inaddition, the PNP shall absorb the Office of the National Action
Committee onAnti-Hijacking (NACAH) of the DND, all the functions of the Philippine AirForce Security
Command (PAFSECOM), as well as the police functions of the CoastGuard.
IMPORTANT TERMS TO PONDER

IMPORTANT TERMS TO PONDER:
1. Enforcement – to compel obedience to a law, regulation or command.
2. Policing – is defined in two ways:
Ø To ensure that law and order is maintained in aparticular area or event, using the police or the military
force;
Ø To ensure that rules and procedures are followedcorrectly in something or that something is
implemented as agreed.
3. LawEnforcement Agency or Agent – pertains to a person or organizationresponsible for enforcing
the laws, especially referring to the so-called “Police Organization”.
4. Law Enforcement Administration – is the process involved inensuring strict compliance, proper
obedience of laws and related statutes.
5. Police – is a branch of the Criminal Justice System that has thespecific responsibility of maintaining
law and order and combating crime withinthe society.
6. Police Power – is the exercise of the sovereign right of anygovernment to promote order, safety,
morals, and the general welfare withinConstitutional limits.
7. Police Administration – focuses on the policing process or howpolice agencies are organized and
managed in order to achieve the goals of lawenforcement most effectively, efficiently and productively.
Ø Police Efficiency – refers to theskillfulness in avoiding wasted time and effort; optimum utilization
ofavailable resources. It measures whether or not important task goals are beingattained.
Ø PoliceEffectiveness – refers to the quality of being able to bring about aneffect or the power to be
effective. It measures how well the resources arebeing utilized.
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND ONPOLICING
The history of the police serviceis as old as organized society. Man has always need protection, first
fromanimals, and then from his own kind. His first attempt to protect himself and hisdaily activities
involved barricading the entrance to its cave.
Then as mankind multiplied, theygrouped together in small communities and protection developed into a
communityaffair. Warfare has always been a part of man’s social history, and since eachcommunity have
warriors to carry the task of war, the duties of policeprotection usually involved night patrols of soldiers
about the town or city,and major points within the same town or city.
The word “police” originated from the Greekword “Politeia”- meaning governmentof city. It applied to
civil officers and not necessarily police man. The Roman changed the word slightly to “Politia”.
The French changed the word to “Police”and applied it to that person who actually enforced the law.
Thereafter, theEnglish and the Americans borrowed the word intact from the French and used itto
describe a law enforcer. The terms which assimilated to the English and TheAmerican language were
French in origin. The words “Constable and Patrol” are likewise of French.
THE EARLY POLICING SYSTEMS
The Anglo-Saxon Period
1. Tun Policing System – Tunis the forerunner of the word “town”.Under this system all male
residents are required to guard the town and topreserve the peace and order, to protect life and property
from harm ordisturbance.
2. Hue and Cry – a system of apprehending a criminal whereby acomplainant goes to the middle of the
street and shouts to call all males toassemble. The victim reports his complain to the assembly and gives
thewhereabouts of the perpetrator. All male residents would then proceed to locateand apprehend the
culprit. When apprehended, trial is conducted giving theculprit a chance to defend himself.
3. The Royal Judge – a person who conducts criminal investigation andgives punishment. Punishment
usually fits the crime committed.
4. Trial by Ordeal – a system of determining guilt and innocence inthe ancient times, which was based
on painful test of skills. It is usuallyaccompanied by harsh punishment. For instance, suspects were
required to placetheir hands in boiling oil or water. When not hurt, suspect should beacquitted, when
hurt, it indicated guilt and the suspect placed underpunishment.
5. The Bow Street Runners – In 1748, Henry Fielding became the ChiefMagistrate at Bow
Street in Middlesex, London. He organized agroup of men known as Bow Street Runners – whose task
was to run errands forthe Bow Street Court. He laterformed the Bow Street Horse Patrolwhose duty
was to patrol the main roads thus secure the travelers fromhighwaymen or highway bandits. According to
some books, the Bow Street Runnerswas the first organized foot patrol and Bow Street Horse Patrol was
the firstmounted police on patrol.
Modern Policing System
This period came to the limelightwhen a bill Metropolitan Police Actcreating a Metropolitan Police
Force was passed by the parliament of England. This police force was latercalled Scotland Yard which
is viewedby some historians as the first organized police form. It was sponsored andexpanded by Sir
Robert Peel who wasmade to be the first head of the police organization. He was referred as
the Father of Modern Policing System due tohis contributions in the modernization of the police
force.
The following are principles wereconsidered in organizing and administering the Scotland Yard known
as the Peel’sPrinciples:
1. Stable and effective policeforce should be under government control.
2. Absence of crime is the bestproof of efficiency.
3. Fast distribution of news tothe people is essential.
4. Proper distribution ofpersonnel according to shift and by hour.
5. The best qualification ofpeace officers is control of temper.
6. Proper selection and trainingis the basis of efficiency.
7. Police cannot functionproperly without wholehearted support of the people.
8. Every police must sell himselfto the people.
9. Police officers must go out oftheir way to help or assist the people.
First Police Organization (headedby Louis-Marie Debelleme) – intruth, the French were the first to
established a group of uniformed policeofficers tasked to patrol the city of Paris. This police force was
called “Sergent de Ville” (servant of the city)which was organized six months earlier before the creation
of the MetropolitanPolice Force of London.
What is PATROL?
It is the most vital component ofpolice work. In fact, in organizing the police organization, patrol
isconsidered the skeletal foundation. It is the backbone of a police department.However, making it
simpler, patrol may refer to the regular tour made by aguard in a place in order to protect it or to
maintain order. It could alsomean a person or a group (such as police or military unit) sent to carry out
atour of duty in a certain place with a particular mission either forreconnaissance purposes or simply to
provide protection
Patrol – may also simplymean the concept of a person traveling around a defined jurisdiction,
observingthe situation and maintaining the safety and security of people and property.
As a patrol officer, you’ll bedoing the most difficult, demanding and dangerous job in all of
lawenforcement. You’re there on the frontline, breaking up fights and makingarrests, and at the greatest
risk of being sued and generating citizen’scomplaints.
Regardless of how your agencyoperates to the general public it’s you, the patrol officer, who represents
thelaw enforcement and the presence of the government. When a citizen is hurt or Ineed of assistance,
he is looking for a uniformed patrol officer to come to hisaid. That’s you!
IMPORTANT DEFINITIONS
CODE – any system of rulesor principles. The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics is a basic system of
ethicalrules for police officers.
ETHICS – the principles ofconduct dealing with what is right and wrong, and with moral duty
andobligation. The rules in the Code of Ethics describe the moral duties andobligations of police officers.
INTEGRITY – this isclosely related to honesty, integrity is the firm and incorruptible adherenceto a code
of moral values.
MORALS – the judgments wemake relating to societal principles of right and wrong behavior.
OATH – a formal and solemncommitment usually asking God and others to witness that you sincerely
intendto do what you say and promising that what you say is the absolute truth. Whena police officer
swears to The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics, he promises thathe intends to follow and obey these
rules and asks God and others to witnessand hold him accountable to that promise.
PRINCIPLES – a rule orcode of conduct. The Code of Ethics are the basic rules that every policeofficer
must follow and a system of rules that must control your behavior bothon-duty and off-duty.
VALUES – a principle orquality that is intrinsically desirable. These are the priorities that anindividual
gives to the elements in his life and career based on his ethics,morality and integrity.
THE IMPORTANCE OF APROFESSIONAL ATTITUDE
You must have the right attitude,giving your best effort each and everyday.
Police Humor
Having the right attitudeincludes remembering your place in the order of your organization. Most
policeofficers have a great sense of humor (although sometimes a bit bizarre). Youwill observe the police
officers playing jokes and seeming to have a lot offun. You’ll see a lot of humor in the irreverent way they
deal with themselves,their partners, and often with their supervisors. Remember your place! Treatthe
other officers and their supervisors with proper respect at all times, anddemonstrate your support for
your superiors and their positions. There is a verythin line between the typical station-house humor and
outright insubordination,and it’s a bit early in your career to find yourself on the wrong side of thatline.
The Survival Attitude
Last of all, but most important,you must have the right attitude about officer survival. Death would
definitelyinterfere with your career plans and limit any future advancement. It would bea great waste of
time and effort on your part, and on behalf of your agency, ifyou got yourself killed. You have to be
totally committed to coming home everynight and equally committed making sure your partner comes
home as well. Youneed to have a survival mentality, knowing that whatever you face, whateverhappens
to you, no matter how badly you are hurt or injured, you will survive!
Etymology of the Term Patrol
The word “patrol” – originated directly or via German Patrolla from the
French Patrouller (patroullier) – which originally means “to walk through mud in a military
camp”.
ROLE OF POLICE PATROL
The primary law enforcement bodyof the state is the police. It is the first component of the Criminal
JusticeSystem in the Philippine setting and is responsible in performing thesefundamental functions:
1. Prevention of Crime andRepression of criminal activities
2. Preservation of Peace andOrder
3. Protection of life andproperty
4. Enforcement of laws andordinances and regulation of non-criminal conduct
5. Investigation of crimes
6. Apprehension of criminals
7. Safeguarding of citizensrights and public morals
Police functions can begeneralized into two categories:
Ø LawEnforcement
Ø Peaceand Order Maintenance
Law Enforcement embraces crimeprevention and control including customary police functions.
Peace and Order Maintenancecovers the peace keeping role and community-oriented services
(communityservice role). It has no law enforcement implications.
“To Serve and Protect” – the bottomline of police work. Basically, that’s the job of a patrol
officer.
Why is it that the citizensusually call first the police when a social problem occurs?
Traditionally speaking, these arethe reasons: Because the police are constantly available when
needed;dependable when called upon; and capable of providing advice to decide orsettle interpersonal
conflicts. Thus, there are two broad duties of policeofficers while on patrol.
1. Provide public protectionthrough:
Ø Preventiveenforcement - progressive and continuous patrolling
Ø Selectiveenforcement – research and investigation
2. Render social services
Ø Information services
Ø Police Escort
Ø Assisting other agencies
Ø Serving court notices (warrants)
PATROL AND POLICE DISCRETION
Police Discretion– refers to the wise use of one’s judgment based on personal experience andcommon
sense to decide in a particular situation.
Police Officers, especially those on patrol, must developedthe positive side of split-second decision-
making. When a patrol officercontrols a situation, he must immediately decide – that his decision must
notonly be on time but at its best. It is ironic that an officer on patrol makesmore decisions and exercise
broader discretion regarding the people lifeeveryday than a judge who normally decides one or two cases
in a day. Notefurther that no law, no book, no lawyer, no judge can instruct a police officeron the beat
regarding the proper exercise of discretion.
What is the Importance of PolicePatrol?
The following are the specificpoints that justify the importance of Police Patrol:
Ø Patrol is the essence of Police Operations
Ø The patrol group is the single largest unit inthe police organization
Ø Actions taken by the patrol officer have themost direct impact on the citizen’s satisfaction and on the
accomplishments ofpolice goals and objectives
Ø Patrol operation is the most visible form ofactivity that enhances the welfare and security of the
community
Ø Individual patrol officer represents the policedepartment in its contact with the community
Ø Individual patrol officer plays a major role indetermining the quality of justice in a given community.
Errors made by thepatrol officers have significant negative effect in the public’s perception onthe police
and on the other components of the Criminal Justice System
Ø The patrol officer is the most important humanelement of the police organization since all police field
operations are supportedby the patrol activity.
What are the Patrol Functions?
Ø Protection of persons and properties
Ø Preservation of peace and order
Ø Prevention of crimes
Ø Suppression of criminal activities
Ø Apprehension of criminals
Ø Enforcement of laws and ordinances
Ø Regulation of criminal conduct
Ø Performing necessary service and inspections
What is the Concept of Crime Prevention and CrimeSuppression?
Crime Prevention– involves the suppression of the desire of potential criminals to commitcrimes.
Crime Suppression– involves the elimination of the opportunity of criminals to perform actsagainst the
law.
Manning Level of Patrol Force
Ideally for the Philippinesetting, the “rule of thumb”regarding the manning level of the police is
provided under Sec. 27 of R.A.6975. The standard manning level is 1:500 in rural areas (1 police officer
forevery 500 residents), 1:1000 in urban areas (1 police officer for every 1000residents).
Deployment of Patrol Force
A choice of patrol method must bebased on:
Ø The purpose of the patrol
Ø The conditions under which it is to be provided
Factors that determine Patrol Deployment
1. Resident and transientpopulations in the business and tourist districts and the university belts.Some
areas may double its population in day time because of the transientswhile some may be virtually empty
during working hours on weekdays.
2. Numbers and types of crimesand arrests
3. Locations of crimes and arrest
4. Traffic accident statisticsand pattern. Location of accident prone areas and frequent incidents or
hazardsrequiring concentrated police coverage such as sports arenas, stadium, popularnight spots, bars,
theatres, transportation terminal or other places wherepeople usually gather.
5. Disproportionateconcentrations of population, such as widely separated single-family residentsversus
the heavily concentrated dwellings in the depressed areas.
6. Socio-economic factors. Peoplefrom the higher-income groups tend to stay away from home more
often thanlow-income groups who have no choice but to stay at home.
7. Zoning plan of the city(relative locations of business, industrial, residential and other types ofzoning).
By their nature, certain types of places call for higher volumes ofpolice services.
8. Size of jurisdiction and shape
9. Geography and Topography
10. Location, sizes, and accessto parks and recreational facilities.
11. Age, male-female, andmarried-unmarried ratios of the population.
12. Homogeneity and /or mixtureof various ethnic-cultural populations.
13. Modes of transportation andlocation of transportation terminals.
14. Number and qualification ofofficers available for field duties.
15. Amount of trust andconfidence of the people to the police, which may influence the frequency
andtypes of calls for police service.
PATROL THEORIES AND METHODS
a. Theories of Patrol
Ø Theoryof Police Omnipresence – high police visibility discourages criminals.Normally, criminals
think twice before executing their plans if there isobvious presence of police officers. Thus, patrol activity
should be carried ina manner that attracts maximum attention to the police officer or policevehicles. This
theory applies the principle of overt operation or high policevisibility.
Ø LowProfile Theory – low police visibility increases the opportunity toapprehend criminals. Deceptive
absence of the police officers will letcriminals believe that they will not be detected or caught if they
executecrimes that they plan. In this theory, the objective is to attract as littleattention as possible while
on the process of patrolling. The officers shouldoperate in a manner that it would be difficult for either
criminals or thepublic to determine that the police are around. The principle of covertoperation is
integrated in this theory.
b. Patrol Methods
Beat patrol
a. Foot patrol
b. Bicycle patrol
Sector Patrol (Motorized patrol)
a. Automobile patrol
b. Motorcycle patrol
c. Aircraft patrol (Helicopterand fixed wing)
Specialized Patrol
a. Horse (Mounted) Patrol
b. Marine (Water) Patrol
c. Canine (K-9) Assisted Patrol
d. Special Terrain Patrol
FOOT PATROL
Foot patrol is restricted to small areas and is used to deal withspecial situations while maintaining radio
compact with officers in patrolcars. It is used to secure two types of police geographical units:
Ø Post– a fixed location where an officer is assigned for guard duty.
Ø Beat– the area specifically assigned for patrol purposes.
Fixed foot patrol – is usually used for traffic, surveillance,parades, and special events.
Line Beat Patrol – is used in securing a certain portion of a roador street. Random foot patrol is used in
checking residential buildings,business establishment, dark alleys, and parking lots.
WHAT ARE THE FACTORS TO BECONSIDERED IN DETERMINING THE SIZE OF THE BEAT?
1. Area to be patrolled
2. Man-made and Natural barriers
3. Number of men to patrol thearea
4. Type of patrol to be used
WHAT ARE THE FACTORS TO BECONSIDERED IN DETERMINING THE NUMBER OF MEN TO BE
DEPLOYED?
1. Size or Area to be patrolled
2. Topography (Physicalcharacteristics or terrain of the area)
3. Crime rate
4. Possible problems to beencountered on the beat
WHAT ARE THE BASIC TECHNIQUES ANDPROCEDURES OF FOOT PATROL?
1. Do not establish a set ofpattern of patrolling procedure.
Ø Ifyou patrol your beat along certain streets and make regular stops at specifictimes and locations,
criminals will learn your habits and take steps to avoid.
Ø Turncorners as often as possible to avoid being followed.
Ø Refrainfrom taking meal or coffee breaks at the same time and place during your shift.
Ø Reversethe direction of your patrol route, often and at random.
Ø Cutthrough lanes and alleys.
2. Walk systematically (withpurpose) on the beat while on patrol.
Ø Pauseoften during your patrol and look around you.
Ø Ifyou are not paying attention to your surroundings, you are not patrolling butyou’re strolling.
3. Do not smoke nor drink whileon patrol during night or day shift.
4. Walk near the curve duringdaylight. This technique offers:
Ø Abetter view for observing street activity;
Ø Lesschance of obstruction by pedestrians on the side walk if you are to take quickaction;
Ø Higherpolice visibility, which is effective in crime prevention.
5. Walk near the buildings duringnight patrol.
Ø Checkthe window glass of street level stores or offices for cracks or broken glass.
Ø Avoidlooking backwards, unless necessary. Use the reflection in store windows to seeyour back.
Ø Movediscreetly to avoid tipping off burglars or muggers.
Ø Pausefrequently in shadows to observe without being seen.
Ø Useconvenient light to check doors in case of forcible entry.
6. Do not immediately open the door when intending to getinside. Observe and evaluate first the
situation.
7. Check the interiors of buildings and rattle door knobs toensure that premises are secured.
8. Enter and inspect alleys when not by public.
9. Watch for persons loitering or hiding in doorways, eitheringress or egress.
10. Use fire escapes to inspect building rooftops once in awhile.
11. Be attentive or on alert for the sound of breaking glassor any unusual noise they may be caused by
criminal activity.
ADVANTAGES OF FOOT PATROL
1. Greater personal contact with the public leading to increase community support for the police.
Police becomes closer to the community residents.
2. Greater opportunity to develop sources of information.
3. High police visibility. Regular police presence discourages criminals and provides greater sense of
security to storekeepers, females and elderly persons.
4. Places not accessible by motor vehicle are reached and patrolled. Patrol officers can enter small
alleys and side streets.
5. Easier detection of criminal activities. Foot patrol provides closer observation of the environment
and the circumstance that may require immediate police attention.
6. Easy discovery and familiarization on the layout of the beat. In-depth knowledge of the character
and problems of the patrol area.
DISADVANTAGES OF FOOT PATROL
1. Low mobility resulting to limited coverage of the patrol area.
2. Low response time to telephone complaints.
3. Foot patrol method involves a large number of personnel, since officers are assigned on small
areas of jurisdiction called posts and beats.
AUTOMOBILE PATROL
The Automobile Patrol has the greatest mobility andflexibility. Most experts on patrol operations agree
that it is mostcost-effective method of patrol.
GENERAL PROCEDURES AND TECHNIQUES IN AUTOMOBILE PATROL
1. Thoroughly check the patrolcar before leaving the garage. Know your BLOWAG.
2. Do not establish routepatterns in patrolling the area of jurisdiction. Recommended patrol patterns:
Ø Clockwise pattern – usually done duringthe first hour of patrolling.
Ø Zigzag or free-willing pattern – start atone corner of the patrol area and work your way
diagonally across to theopposite corner.
Ø Criss-cross pattern – this is more orless similar to zigzagging.
Ø Straightway pattern – the easiest toobserve because as the name implies, the patrol officer just
follow the lengthof the street.
3. Do not develop the habit of using only the main road inyour area. Most criminal activity occurs at the
backstreets, out of sight fromthe main thorough fares.
4. Do not spend too much time in drive-inns or coffee spots.
5. Always take note (jut down) the plate numbers of strangeor suspicious vehicles.
6. Get out from the patrol car regularly or frequently to bevisible and accessible to the public and develop
personal contacts in theneighborhood.
Ø Cloverleaf pattern – a highwayintersection designed so as to route traffic without interference, by
means ofsystem of curbing ramps from one level to another, in the form of a 4-leafclover.
Ø Counter-clockwise pattern – usuallydone before the tour of patrol duty ends.
7. Set an example to othermotorists
Ø Observe/obeyall traffic laws for both safety and public relation reasons, unless you are inroute to an
emergency or while on pursuit.
Ø Alwayspark the patrol car in the legal way.
Ø Useseatbelts or shoulder straps and other safety devices.
Ø Usethe proper traffic signal lights and hand signals.
8. Avoid driving too fast ongeneral patrol conditions except during emergencies or in pursuing
somecriminals/suspects. Maintain a cruising speed of 20-25 mph during patrol. Thisis slow enough to
make detailed observations without impending the traffic law.
9. Maintain frequent contact withthe radio dispatcher or other communication personnel in the field or at
theheadquarters.
10. Minimize hiding behind hills,curves or signboards to trap traffic violators. This is bad public
relationsand serves to erode community or public confidence in the police sense of fairplay.
11. Frequently check thepotential trouble spots in your patrol area.
12. Stop periodically amongparked cars at the entrance side streets to observe activity on the streets.
13. Check the occupants ofvehicles that stop beside and behind you at intersections.
14. Regularly check parking lotsfor abandoned stolen vehicles.
15. In stopping and checking avehicle, park at the rear side of the suspect’s vehicle. Leave the
doorslightly open unless the area is highly populated.
16. Do not leave the key in thepatrol car especially if the place is in a high-crime or congested area.
ADVANTAGES OF AUTO MOBILEPATROL
1. High mobility allowing coverage of greater area.
2. Quicker response time to complaints. Greater efficiency in responding to emergency calls and
other called-for services.
3. More economical as compared to foot patrol.
4. Enable more effective street pursuit of offender.
5. Enable more effective traffic enforcer.
6. Provide an element of surprise, especially when crime is in progress.
7. Provide the officer with necessary protection during inclement weather.
8. Enable officers to carry supplementary equipment essential in patrolling.
DISADVANTAGES OF AUTO MOBILEPATROL
1. Diminished personal contact with the public.
2. Little opportunity to develop sources of information.
3. Marked police vehicle hampers apprehension and surveillance operations.
BICYCLE PATROL
This is growing in popularitybecause of easy operation and its acceptance by the public,
particularlychildren who view them as a non-threatening form of patrol. Bicycles are nowused in many
countries as a simple and inexpensive means of silenttransportation to carry police officers throughout
their patrol districts.Often, bicycles are used in parks and on beaches and have many of the
sameadvantages and disadvantages as motorcycles.
ADVANTAGES OF BICYCLE PATROL
1. Lower-cost (inexpensive) tooperate as compared to motorcycle and automobiles.
2. Areas not accessible by patrolcars or are too wide for foot patrol can be covered by bicycle.
3. Increased mobility and stealthsince bicycle can be operated quietly and without attracting too
muchattention.
MOTORCYCLE PATROL
ADVANTAGES OF MOTORCYCLE PATROL
1. Speed and maneuverability
2. Greater access to some areas and are better suited to heavy traffic, narrow alleys and rugged
terrain.
DISADVANTAGES
1. Costly to operate.
2. Hazardous to the driver.
3. Inoperative during inclement weather when the police should be most active in the enforcement
of traffic regulations or readily available for special escort duties.
4. It is tiring for the driver and has no capacity to transport prisoners, other personnel or
equipment.
HORSE PATROL
ADVANTAGE OF HORSE PATROL
Ø It covers large areas or similar places whereautomobiles cannot go or may be forbidden. Mobile cars
cannot be expected to goto race on grassy fields or wooded areas but horses can.
DISADVANTAGE
Ø Expensive in its maintenance.
AIRCRAFT PATROL
ADVANTAGE OF FIXED-WING AIRCRAFT PATROL
Ø Patrolling long stretches of highway or expensesof inaccessible land.
Ø Excellent for traffic control in long stretchesof highways, for search and surveillance and other special
mission.
DISADVANTAGES
Ø It has very little flexibility in congestedmetropolitan areas.
Ø Needs a span of flat land for lift-off andlanding.
Ø Very expensive to operate.
ADVANTAGES OF HELICOPTERPATROL
1. Able to travel at low speed, to hover if necessary and to land even in small patch of flat land.
2. Increased visual range/scope.
3. More efficient for rescue, medical evacuation, surveillance, and other high profile police activities.
4. Improved response time to emergency call and other called-for service.
5. Increased rate of apprehension of professional and organized crime groups.
6. Improved efficiency of regular patrol units through airborne reconnaissance.
7. Increased ability in conducting searches for missing or lost people.
8. Provide a better system of flood lighting areas to be patrolled at night.
9. Capable of broadcasting information to a large area through airborne speakers.
10. Provide rapid emergency transportation of personnel
11. Added security to patrol officers on foot, motorcycles, or in patrol cars through back-up offered
by aerial patrol.
DISADVANTAGES
1. Very expensive – high cost of training of pilots, fuel and special facilities for housing and
maintenance.
2. Public complaints about the noise and about being spied upon.
3. Forcibly grounded during bad weather.
4. Element of surprise is lost since criminals could hear the helicopter coming even from a greater
distance.
MARINE PATROL
Ø This is extremely used in areas with extensivecoasts or a great deal of lake or river traffic.
DISADVANTAGE
Ø Expensive to operate and maintain.
CANINE (K-9) ASSISTED PATROL
ADVANTAGE
Ø It provides great assistance in search andrescue as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs.
DISADVANTAGES
Ø Most police dogs work with only one handler
Ø They are territorial
Ø Dog training is expensive
WORKING THE STREET
Preparation for Duty – the patrol officers’ job starts even beforethey are in the AOR because they
need to prepare the following that arenecessary in the performance of their routines.
A. Equipment check
1. Police uniform
2. Weapons
3. Watch
4. Money
5. Flashlight, spare battery andbulbs
6. Notebook or tickler
7. List of stolen and wantedvehicles
8. Handheld radio and otherequipment as required
B. Information Check – Prior to actual patrolling the policeofficer should:
1. Secure and review descriptions of missing and wanted persons.
2. Arrange any follow-up work from previous shifts.
3. Check with the officer being relieved for any problems requiring your attention during the shift.
4. Check patrol area log for problem areas requiring extra surveillance.
C. Vehicle Check – in case of patrol officers assigned on mobilecars:
1. Check the inside of your patrol car, paying particular attention to the rear seat.
2. Record the condition of your vehicle’s interior in your notebook for possible latter use as
evidence.
3. Check your vehicles siren, roof light, radio and otherequipment to ensure that they are in proper
working order. Note any damage ormechanical problems.
COVERING THE PATROL AREA
Attitude
Ø Always present an alert, businesslike, anddisciplined appearance while on patrol – speak and span.
Ø Do not loiter on the street, business places, orin parked cars. Do not engage in a lengthy, idle
conversation.
Ø Report to your dispatcher or supervisor ASAPwhenever you are required to leave your patrol area on
unassigned duties.
Communications
Ø Your message must be clear and to the point.
Ø Use the telephone for lengthy, detailed orhighly confidential exchanges of information.
Ø Learn the locations of all the operative paytelephones in your patrol area.
SOURCES OF INFORMATION
Ø Develop contact in your patrol area by adoptinga friendly, approachable attitude. Be helpful and grant
reasonable requestswhenever possible.
Ø Your contacts can save your life.
ü Ifthey know you, they will tend to watch out for you.
ü Theymay warn you if a dangerous individual is in the neighborhood.
ü Theyay come to your aid in a physical conflict in which you are outmatched.
WHAT IS THE SO-CALLED “STREET KNOWLEDGE”?
Ø A thorough geographic knowledge of the patrolarea.
Ø An understanding of the character, fears,concerns, problems and attitudes of the local residence.
FAMILIARIZATION OF THE PATROLAREA
Ø Study the local map to develop a broadunderstanding to the layout of your patrol area.
Ø Regularly examine crime reports to determine:
ü Neighborhood crime pattern
ü Areas reporting a high number of robberies orburglaries
ü Areas where violent domestic conflicts occur
ü Likely sites for gang fights
ü Locations of gang clubhouses and meeting places
Ø Develop personal contact
Ø Seek other informations from fellow officers
POTENTIAL TROUBLE SPOTS
1. Public parks and playgrounds
2. Bars and taverns
3. Theatres and drive-inn restaurants
OBSERVATION SKILLS
1. Description of persons
a. During your patrol, frequentlyexamine pedestrians who walk past you and mentally record their
appearance,including estimated height and weight, hair color, color facial features, etc.
b. Double back and determine howclose your mental record is to the subject’s true appearance.
2. Discuss with other officerswhat events or characteristics arouse their suspicious about specific
situationor persons.
3. Interview persons in custody.
a. Ask about their methods ofoperation
b. Encourage them to brag aboutthe methods they used to elude police in the past.
4. Study a book on memory improvementto learn techniques which will assist you in recalling detailed
observations.
CHECKING SUSPICIOUS SITUATIONS
Warning Signs
1. Vehicles parked improperly or with the motor running outside banks, store or other business
premises. They could be getaway cars for crimes in progress.
2. Stacked boxes or ladders placed against the side or rear of buildings.
3. Banks or stores where people are seen entering, but not leaving. This could indicate a holdup or
hostage situation.
4. Parked vehicles in which persons are apparently sleeping. These subjects may be look-outs,
missing or wanted persons seeking shelter, or they may be attempting suicide.
5. Any other activity or situations which do not reflect normal behavior or routine activity.
“Gut Feelings”
1. Do not ignore your so-called “gut feelings”
2. Hunches are often important messages or warnings, which are based upon information or
experiences recorded in your subconscious mind.
3. Although they may not seem logical, your hunches will often prove to be correct. They should be
acted upon-with discretion-in appropriate circumstances.
Check on Public Hazards
1. Vacant buildings which juveniles may use as a playground.
2. Open manholes particularly at construction sites where deep water has accumulated.
3. Construction sites
4. Defective roadways, street lights or sidewalks
5. Sagging electrical cable wires
6. Broken water pipes (can cause a roadway to sink)
7. Any object or situation which may present hazard to children
PATROL MANAGEMENT
1. Reactive Patrol – it is the oldest system of police patrol activitywhich consists of continuously driving
around the area of patrol waiting forsomething to happen and to react accordingly in case something
does happen.
2. Proactive Patrol – is preventive in nature. It is the moreeconomical alternative patrol system, which
has an objective approach againstcriminality as much as practicable. It addresses crime at its very root
beforeit develops into a felonious act.
3. Participative Law Enforcement – is a system where citizenry and thepolice work together to
reduce crime, prevent juvenile delinquency and criminalbehavior, maintain the peace and reduce local
problems which are the mutualresponsibility of the police and the people.
4. Police Omnipresence – it is a crime repression activity of thepolice which is accomplished by making
their presence known is such a way thateven if they are no longer present in a certain location, would-be
criminalswould still have the impression that they are still around and would thereforerefrain from
committing a crime.
5. COPS – the acronym COPS refers to the Community Oriented PolicingSystem. It is the deploying of
policemen in police blocks to provide police andpublic safety services. It also involves the breaking down
of large andimpersonal police departments into small units to create a series ofmini-police precincts which
are responsive to smaller communities.
6. Community Policing – is a philosophy, management style andorganizational strategy that promotes
proactive problem-solving andpolice-community partnerships to address the causes of crime and fear as
wellas other community issues.
7. Community Partnership – is a flexible term referring to anycombination of neighborhood residents,
schools, churches, businesses,community-based organizations, elected officials and government agencies
whoare working cooperatively with the police to resolve identified problems thatimpact or interest them.
8. Problem Solving – refers to the process of identifyingproblems/priorities through coordinated
community/police needs assessment;collecting and analyzing information concerning the problem in a
thorough,though not necessarily complicated manner; developing or facilitating responsesthat are
innovative and tailor-made with the best potential for eliminating orreducing the problem; and finally,
evaluating the response to determine theeffectiveness and modifying it as necessary.
What are the Objectives of thePNP’s New COPS?
1. To enhance police visibility in order to reach out to the community.
2. To improve police community relation to gain public acceptance, build mutual respect and trust
and promote cooperation.
3. To attend sustained and integrated police-community participation in crime prevention and
suppression.
What is the so-called “HouseVisitation”?
Ø It is a function of NCOBs where police officerson patrol visit every house and workplace to offer crime
prevention advice andto organize the neighborhood crime watch groups.
What is the so-called “StreetQuestioning” method?
Ø It is a method whereby police officers on patrolmay interview within the bounds of the law suspicious
personalities at randomin order to serve as deterrence to those who intend to commit a crime.
What are the social services of the PNP?
1. Midwife duties for childbirth
2. Render first aid to accident victims.
3. Get relief assistance to disaster victims
4. Mediate in family quarrels
5. Delivery of death
Concept of “Team Policing”
Ø It is a grass root approach undertaken to bringthe people and the police together in a cooperative
situation. Itsdistinguishing feature is the establishments of neighborhood crime watch groupsto
encourage the people to report crimes and to assume greater interest andresponsibility in crime
prevention and suppression.
What is Patrol Hazard?
Ø This is a term used frequently to describe aspecific condition or place that requires a patrol officer’s
special attention.
What is the purpose of theDistrict Orientation Tour in preparing for patrol?
Ø Its purpose is to familiarize a police officerabout the patterns and characteristics of his patrol area
before he conductsactual patrol.
What are the primary lineunits concerned with the accomplishment of the police operational
tasks?
Ø The primary line units in the police includepatrol, investigation, traffic, vice and juvenile patrol.
Types of call responses by thepolice patrol
ROUTINE CALL - under this category, the mobile car is required toobserve all traffic laws and rules and
does not normally use its flashinglights and siren while on its way to the scene. This includes when the
policeresponds to:
Ø Provide police car transportation
Ø Obtain reports about offenses discovered afterthe criminal has left and which does not involve injury.
Ø Obtain information the nature of which is notgiven.
Ø Investigate apparently abandoned vehicles.
Ø Obtain damage reports.
Ø Provide additional traffic control anddirection.
URGENT CALL – this is similar to the routine call, which alsorequires the responding police car to
observe all traffic rules and does notuse its flashing lights or siren. However, it proceeds directly to its
destinationand does not stop unless an incident of far more serious nature occurs. Thisincludes when the
police responds to investigate:
Ø Trouble of unknown nature
Ø Shoplifter complaint
Ø Vehicular accidents in which there no physicalinjuries
Ø Prowler complaints
Ø Lost children complaints
Ø Report of mob activities
Ø Reports of domestic conflicts
EMERGENCY CALL – in most cases, this category requires the use ofthe flashing light and fluctuating
siren although there are exceptions, whichinclude the attempt to surprise criminals in the act. It is
permissible in thiscase for the responding police car to violate traffic laws provided thatextreme care is
exercised while driving at high speed. This includes when thepolice responds to:
Ø Investigate a crime in progress
Ø Investigate a traffic accident in which peopleare injured
Ø Rescue or assist another patroller in trouble
Ø Aids an injured person
Ø Pursue or apprehend suspected criminal/s
Ø Assist in firefighting
Ø Stop an ongoing fight
What are the two schools ofthoughts regarding the best means of approaching any scene where a crime
isbelieved to be in progress?
Ø First is to approach the scene with lights andsiren flashing and to pull on directly at the scene of the
reported crime. Theidea here is to frighten the criminal in order to prevent him from completinghis
criminal act. Second is to approach the crime scene as inconspicuously aspossible in order to use the
advantage of surprise in apprehending the criminalor preventing his escape.
What are the factors to beconsidered by the patroller in choosing the manner by which an approach to
acrime in progress is to be made?
Ø These are the factors of: time and day;condition of traffic; possibility of ongoing physical assault; and
theneighborhood characteristics.
How Police Visibility isattained?
Police visibility can be done inthree (3) ways: physical presence by being visible as police and easy to
locatepolice units; patrolling scheme through mobile, integrated, and widespread,supportive, and
redundant coverage; and response which should be proper,adequate and timely (ideal is 5minutes
response time).
Further, the Police VisibilityProgram of the PNP can be accomplished thru the use of the Integrated
PatrolSystem (PNP-IPS). The PNP-IPS has the following features:
Ø Pre-emptive
Ø Widespread and Forward Deployment
Ø Force Mixture (complementary & supportive)
Ø Cross checking of Deployment
Ø Force Multiplier
Ø Support the COPS
9 RULES IN STOPPING VEHICLES
1. During daytime, select the widest portion of the road where to stop motorists.
2. Signal the motorist to pull closer to the right side of the curb with the patrol car parked behind
the violators’ vehicles.
3. Observe flow of traffic coming from behind before opening the door and alighting from the patrol
car.
4. In issuing a citation, occupy the right side of the vehicle using the hood to accomplish the
citation.
5. At nighttime, select a well-lighted place to stop a motorist.
6. Never stand to do anything in front of a stopped vehicle with its engine running and its driver is
still at the steering wheel or is still inside the vehicle.
7. Never stand on the way of the door of the stopped vehicle if you are ordering a suspicious driver
to get out of the vehicle.
8. Never allow a person being interrogated to stand on the firearm side.
9. Never allow an apprehended suspect to sit inside the patrol car on the side where the police
officers firearm is tucked.
PURSUIT DRIVING TECHNIQUES
1. Pick the location of your stop. Wait to try to pull over the suspect’s vehicle until you have the
maximum advantage.
2. Wait for as much back-up as possible. One of the biggest mistakes that officers commit in
attempting to make high-risk stops is to attempt to stop prematurely.
3. Get close to the suspect’s vehicle. Let the suspect think that you have covered every possible
escape route.
4. Don’t be afraid to quit. You are supposed to exemplify courage, but sometimes the bravest thing
you can do is to know when to back out the pursuit.
TECHNIQUES IN TERMINATING APURSUIT
1. Boxing – this is done by literally surrounding the suspect’s vehicle with police cars and then
slowing as group to a stop.
2. Channelizing – this is done by deliberately directing a vehicle into a given path or location such
as unpaved roadway, dead-end, or a parking lot.
3. Ramming – is simply running into the other vehicle in a manner designed to force hi to stop.
4. Roadblocks – this is done by physically blocking the roadway using stationary objects such as
barricades, patrol cars or semi-trucks.
5. Spikes – this is deployed ahead of a pursuit. As the suspect’s vehicle passes over the strip, the
spikes penetrate the tires and flattened it.
MECHANICS OF ARREST
Basic concepts to keep in mindwhen making arrest:
1. Prevent problems before they happen. Taking control of the suspect from the first moment of
encounter will help avoid assaults. Establish firm control by placing suspects where you want. Think
ahead and keep control.
2. Always maintain your safety zone when contacting suspects.
3. Maintain situational alertness. You must keep your focus on the situation at hand, monitoring the
suspect’s hands at all times, being aware of all other persons in your proximity.
4. Don’t over-commit. Never jump into a situation you are not sure you can handle on your own. If
you’re going to arrest a large unruly suspect, wait until more officers arrive to help you.
5. Always use superior force. The suspect’s resistance will dictate what force you use. You must
survive every attack, you must win every fight. To lose may mean death.
6. Take the suspect on the ground. It’s far safer for you to effect arrest, with a suspect on the
ground.
Operational Guidelines for theconduct of Patrol
The following are the guidelinesnormally observe by the PNP in the conduct of patrolling not necessary
underthe IPS:
1. Pre-patrol (Pre-deployment phase)
a. Fall-in-information in ranks
b. Roll-call-accounting of patrolelements by the patrol commander (PC)
c. Inspection of uniform,appearance & equipment by the PC
d. TI & E (Troop Informationand Education) and dissemination of instructions/orders by PC
e. Reading of assignment of PBsby Sarhento de Mesa or field duty officer (FDO)
f. Issuance of equipment toPatrol Officers
g. Report to higher headquartersby FDO
2. Deployment Phase
a. Report to SD by the PatrolOfficers (Patrollers)
b. Patrol Officers make patrolplan and follow patrol procedures
c. Adopt the buddy-buddy system
d. Make situation report or anhourly basis or upon reaching the end of their line beat.
e. Report all unusual incidents.
3. Post-Patrol (Post-deployment Phase)
a. Regrouping and formation
b. Accounting
c. Inspection
d. Debriefing/submission of dailypatrol report
e. Recall of equipment issued
f. Dismissal by the PatrolCommander
Who are the members of theAuxiliary Police?
1. Private Security Guards
2. Traffic Enforcers and Aides
3. Junior Police
4. Law Enforcement Services Cadets
5. Barangay Chairman and Tanods
6. Civilian Volunteer Organizations (CVOs) such as civilian volunteers.
7. Non-Government Organizations (NGOs) like Bantay Bayan
8. http://newsinfo.inquirer.net/556571/sc-extends-modified-judicial-affidavit-rule
Ethics
PART 1- CONTENT UPDATES
I. DEFINITIONS
Ethics- A normative scienceof the conduct of human being living in a society. They are rules of conduct.
Police Ethics- A practicalscience that treats the principles ofhuman morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement.
Virtue- A habit thatinclines person to act in a way that harmonizes with his nature.
Moral Virtue- It concerns thoseactions pertaining to one’s duties towards his neighbors and himself.
Conscience- It is a voice ofreason bending oneself to something right or avoids something wrong.
Command- It is an authority aperson lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of his rank or
assignmentor position.
Responsibility- The obligation toperform duties and functions and to the consequences of activities
under one’scommand.
Command Responsibility- Thedoctrine the impose commensurate accountability to the one who is
vested withauthority to exercise management leadership functions.
Maximum Tolerance- Aconceptual policy laid down for observance of all law enforcement personnel
toexercise utmost restraint and self-control in the performance of their officialfunctions.
II. FOUR (4)CARDINAL VIRTUES THAT SERVE AS THE BASESOF FORMULATING

STANDARD BEHAVIOR OF A POLICE OFFICER
A. Prudence- An ability to govern and discipline oneself bemeans of reason and sound judgment. It is
a virtue that attracts the intellectto choose the most effective means of accomplishing what is morally
good andfor avoiding what is evil.
B. Temperance- Anability to moderate or avoid something. It is a virtue that regulates thecarnal

appetite for sensual pleasure
C. Fortitude- Firmnessof mind. It is the courage to endure without yielding. A virtue that
incitescourage. It is exercise by means of:
1) Patience- calmnessand composure in enduring something;

2) Perseverance- theability to go on despite of the obstacles and opposition; and
3) Endurance- it is theability to last.
D. Justice- Thevirtue that inclines the will to give to each one of his rights. There arethree (3) division
of justice, to wit:
1) Commutative- virtuethat regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between
oneanother;
2) Distributive- itregulates those actions that involve the rights that an individual may claimform
society; and
3) Legal- virtuethat regulates those actions which society may justly require to the individualfor the
common good.
III. THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE CODE OFPROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND

ETHICAL STANDARS
1. Foundations of PNP Ethical Doctrine
1. Divine and moral precepts

2. Section 1, Article XI, 1987 Constitution
3. Articles 203-245, Title VII(Crimes Committedby Public Officers) of the Revised Penal Code
4. Republic Act 6713- Code of Conduct andEthical Standards for Public Officials and Employees
5. Republic Act 3019- Anti-Graft and CorruptPractices Act
6. Republic Act 6975- DILG Law of 1991 asAmended
7. The Original Police Manual
8. Related Special Laws such as: RA7080-Anti-Plunder Act; RA9485-Anti-Red Tape Act of 2007, etc.
9. NAPOLCOM Resolution No. 92-4 (12 March 1992)- Approving the draft of the PNPCode of
Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards.
10. NAPOLCOMResolution No. 93-023-Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards ofPolicemen
11. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and EthicalStandards (COPCES)
1. Fundamental Police Principles

1. Prevention of Crime and Disorder
2. Community Approval
3. Willingness of the People to Assist
4. Use of Physical Force and Compulsion
5. Offering of Individual Service to PreservePublic Favor
6. Resort Minimum Degree of Physical Force whenNecessary
7. Police is the People and the People in thePolice
8. Refrain from Usurping the Power of Judiciary
9. Test of Police Efficiency
10. Test of Law Enforcement Integrity
11.Constant Development of Police Education andTraining
12. Stability on the Republic and the Strength ofDemocracy
13. MagnificentPrinciple: Love God; Honor the Government; and Respect the People.
14. People-Peacemaker, Police- Peacekeeper, LGU-Peace observer
1. Canons of Police Ethics
1. Primordial Police Responsibility

2. Limitation of Police Authority
3. Knowledge of the Law and otherResponsibilities
4. Use of Proper Means to Obtain Proper Ends
5. Cooperation with Public Officials
6. Proper Conduct and Behavior
7. Conduct Towards the Community
8. Conduct in Arresting Law violators
9. Firmness in Refusing Gifts
10. Impartial presentation of Evidence
11. Attitude Towards Police Profession
1. Purposes of the COPCES
1. Foster individual efficiency, behavioraldiscipline and organizational effectiveness, as well as respect

forconstitutional and human rights of citizens, democratic principles and idealsand the supremacy of
civilian authority over the military;
2. Set the moral tone and norms of professionalconduct in the police service;
3. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNPmembers; and
4. Enlighten members of the police service ofwhat behavior is really acceptable- to define what is
permitted and what isprohibited.
1. Policies and Principles the Guide the PNP Towards Professionalized and Dedicated
Law Enforcers (Section 2, Chapter 1-Declaration of Policy)
1. Public office is a public trust

2. All public servants must at all times beaccountable to the people
3. Serve with utmost responsibility, integrity,morality, loyalty and efficiency
4. Respect to human rights and dignity as ahallmark of a democratic society
5. Bear faithful allegiance to the legitimategovernment
6. Support and uphold the Constitution
7. Respect the duly constituted authority and beloyal to the police service
1. Basic Police Values (Sec. 1, Chap. II- Police Officers Creed and Stand on Basic Issues)
1. Love of God
2. Respect to authority
3. Selfless love and service for people
4. Respect for women and sanctity for marriage
5. Responsible dominion and stewardship overmaterial things
6. Truthfulness
1. Police Officers Creed (Sec. 2, Chap. II)
1. I believe in God, The Supreme Being, A GreatProvider, and the Creator of all men and
everything dear to me.
Inreturn, I can do less than love Him above all by obeying His word, seek Hisguidance in the
performance of my sworn duties and honor Him at all times.
2. I believe that respect for authority is aduty.
a) I respect and uphold the Constitution, thelaws of the land and the applicable rules and regulations.
b) I recognize the legitimacy and authority ofthe leadership; and obey legal orders of my superior
officers.
3. I believe in selfless love and service topeople.
Towardsthis end, I commit myself to the service of my fellowmen over and above mypersonal
interest.
4. I believe in the sanctity of marriage andrespect for women.
Ishall set the example of decency and morality and shall have high regard forfamily life and
value of marital fidelity.
5. I believe in the responsible dominion andstewardship over material things.
a) I shall inhibit myself from extravagance andostentatious display of material things;

b) I shall help protect the environment andconserve nature to maintain ecological balance; and
c) I shall respect private and public propertiesand prevent others from destroying it
6. I believe in the wisdom of truthfulness.
Imust be trustworthy and I shall speak the truth at all times.
1. PNP Stand on Basic Issues (Sec. 3, Chap II)
1. PNP Image
AllPNP members should conduct themselves in a manner the would not place the PNPin the bad light.
Instead they must live in accordance with the PNP core valuesand possess the following virtues:
a) Honor;
b) Integrity;
c) Valor;
d) Justice;
e) Honesty;
f) Humility;
g) Charity; and
h) Loyalty to the service
2. Career Management
ThePNP shall formulate and implement policies and human resources developmentsystem for all
personnel, from recruitment to retirement.
3. Police Management Leadership

Theprimary basis in the selection of personnel for employment and deployment shallbe the individual’s
capabilities and competent leadership.
4. Equality in the Service

Thereshall be judicious and equitable distribution of opportunity to prove one’sworth in the PNP service
and it shall strictly adhere to the rule of merit and fitness system .
5. Delicadeza
PNPmembers must have moral courage to sacrifice self-interest.
6. Police Lifestyle
PoliceOfficer must be free from greed, corruption and exploitation. The publicexpects a police officer to
live a simple, credible and dignified life.
7. Political Patronage
AllPNP members must inhibit himself solicitingpolitical patronage on matters pertaining to assignment,
awards, trainings andpromotion.
8. Human Rights
AllPNP members must respect and protect human dignity and man’s inalienable rightsto life, liberty and
property.
9. Setting Example
AllPNP members shall set good example to their subordinates and follow goodexample from their
superiors.
1. Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards (Sec. 1-3, Chap. III)
Standard of Police Professionalism- All PNPmembers shall perform their duties with excellence,
competence, integrity,intelligence and expertise in the application of specialized skill andtechnical
knowledge.
Police Professional Conduct
1. Commitment to Democracy
PNPpersonnel must commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values;maintain the principles
of public accountability, uphold the Constitution atall times and be loyal to the country, people and the
organization.
2. Commitment to Public Interest

PNPpersonnel must always uphold public interest over and above personal interest.They shall use public
resources and properties economically and judiciously toavoid wastage of public funds.
3. Non- Partisanship
PNPmembers shall provide services to everyone without discrimination.
4. Physical Fitness and Health

PNPmembers shall strive to be physically and mentally fit and in good health atall times.
5. Secrecy Discipline
PNPmembers shall guard the confidentiality of classified information againstunauthorized disclosure.
6. Social Awareness
AllPNP personnel and their immediate family members shall be encouraged toactively get involved in the
religious, social and civic activities to enhancethe image of the organization but without affecting their
official duties.
7. Non-Solicitation of Patronage
PNPmembers shall seek self-improvement through career development and shall notdirectly or indirectly
solicit influence or recommendation from politician,government officials, prominent citizens, person
affiliated with civic orreligious organization with regards to promotion, assignments, transfer etc.
8. Proper Care and Use of Public Property

PNPmembers shall be responsible for the security, proper care and use of publicproperty issued to them
or deposited under their custody.
9. Respect for Human Rights

PNPmembers shall respect and protect human dignity and uphold the human rights ofall persons.
10. Devotion to Duty

PNPmembers shall perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness, efficiency,enthusiasm,
determination, and manifest concern for public welfare.
11. Conservation of Natural Resources

PNPmembers shall help in the development and conservation of the natural resourcesfor ecological
balance and posterity.
12. Discipline
PNPmembers shall conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with therules and regulations of
the organization.
13. Loyalty
Above all, PNPmembers must be loyal to the Constitution and the police service as manifestedby their
loyalty to their superiors, peers and subordinates.
14. Obedience to Superiors

AllPNP members shall obey lawful orders and be courteous to superior officers andother appropriate
authorities within the chain of command.
15. Command Responsibility

Immediatecommanders shall be responsible for the effective supervision, control anddirection of their
personnel.
Ethical Standards
Referto established and generally accepted moral values and ethical acts
1. Morality
PNPmembers must adhere to high standard of morality and decency and shall set goodexamples for
others. During their term of office they should not be involved asowners, operators or investors of any
house of ill refute or activities thatpromote vices. They should be likewise faithful to their lawfully
weddedspouses.
2. Judicious Use of Authority

PNPmembers shall exercise proper and legitimate use of authority in theperformance of duty.
3. Integrity
PNPmembers shall not allow themselves to be victims of corruption and dishonestpractices.
4. Justice
PNPmembers shall strive constantly to respect rights of others.
5. Humility
PNPmembers must perform their duties without arrogance. They should recognizetheir own inadequacies,
inabilities and limitations as individuals and performtheir duties without attracting attention or expecting
the applause of others.
6. Orderliness
AllPNP members shall follow logical procedures in accomplishing task assigned tothem to minimize waste
in the use of time money and effort.
7. Perseverance
Oncea decision is made, all PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve thegoal even in the face
of internal and external difficulties and despiteanything, which might weaken their resolve in the course
of time.
1. Police Customs and Traditions
Definitions
1. Customs-established usage or social practices carried on by tradition that haveobtained the force of
law.
2. Traditions- bodies ofbelief , stories , and customs usages banded prom the generation to
generationwith the effect of unwritten law.
3. Courtesy- amanifestation or expression of consideration and respect for others.
4. Ceremony- a formalacts established by customs or authority as proper to special occasion.
5. SocialDecorum-a set of norms or standard practiced by members during social and otherfunctions.
1. Police Customs on Courtesy
1. Salute- the usualgreeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing
personentitled to salute.
2. Salute tothe National Color and Standard- members stand at attention and salutethe national
color and standard as it pass by them or lowered duringceremonies.
3. Address/Title-juniorin rank address senior members who are entitled to salute with word “Sir”
1. Police Customs and Courtesy Calls
1. CourtesyCall of Newly Assigned/ Appointed Members - PNP members who arenewly

appointed or assigned in a unit or command call on the chief of the unitor command and to other key
personnel for accounting, orientation and otherpurposes.
2. ChristmasCall- PNPmembers pay a Christmas call on their local executive in their respective areaof
responsibility.
3. New Year’sCall-PNP members pay a new year’s call on their superiors or key officials on
theirrespective area of responsibility.
4. PromotionCall –newly appointed PNP members call on their unit heads. On this occasion, theyare
usually given due recognition and congratulations by their peers for suchdeserved accomplishment.
5. Exit Call – PNP members pay anexit call in their superior in their command when relieved or
reassigned out ofthe said unit or command.
6. Courtesyof the Post – the host unit extends hospitality to visiting personnelwho pays respect to
the command or unit.
7. Rank-Has-It-OwnPrivilege (RHIP) – PNP members recognize the practice thatdifferent ranks

carry with them corresponding privileges.
1. Police Customs on Ceremonies
1. FlagRaising Ceremony – The PNP members honor the flag by raising itand singing the National
Anthem before the start of official day’s work.
2. FlagRetreat Ceremony – At the end of the official day’s work, thePNP members pause for the
moment to salute the lowering of the flag.
3. Half-Mast– Theflag is raised at half-mast in deference to deceased uniformed members of

thecommand.
4. FuneralService and Honors – Departed uniformed members, retirees, warveterans, PC/INP

members are given vigil, necrological services, and gravesidehonors as a gesture of farewell.
5. CeremoniesTendered to Retirees – In recognition to their long and faithful andhonorable service

to the PNP, a testimonial activity is rendered to theirhonor.
6. Honor ofCeremony – Arrival and Departure honor ceremonies are tendered tovisiting dignitaries.
VIP’s, PNP officer with the grade of Chief Superintendentand above and AFP officers with the equivalent
grade , unless waived.
7. Turn-overCeremony- Therelinquishment and assumption of command or key position of command

ispublicity announced in a turn-over ceremony by the outgoing and incomingofficer in the presence of the
immediate supervisor or his representative.
8. WeddingCeremonies- During marriage of PNP members , a ceremony is conductedwith participant
in uniform and swords drawn.
9. Anniversary- The birthor institutional establishment of the command or unit is commemorated in

ananniversary ceremony.
1. Police Customs on Social Decorum
1. ProperAttire – PNPmembers always wear appropriate and proper attire in conformity with
theoccasion.
2. TableManners – PNPmembers always observe table etiquettes at all times.
3. SocialGraces – PNPmembers should conduct themselves properly in dealing with people during
socialfunctions.
4. Uniform/Appearance–the public looks upon the PNP members as distinctively a man among men.
It is awelcome sight when the PNP members wear their uniform wherever they may be,since disciplined
PNP members are the best exemplified by those who are in neatappearance and wearing the prescribed
uniform, they must therefore observe thefollowing, to wit;
4.1.Wearing of prescribed uniform;

4.2 . Wearing as part of the uniform, awards, anddecorations earned in accordancewith the
prescribed rules and regulations.
4.3.Adherence to haircut prescribed by rules andregulations.
5. Manner ofWalking – EveryPNP member is expected to walk with pride and dignity.
1. Other Police Customs
1. Visitingthe Sick –PNP members who are sick in the hospital, their residence or any place
ofconfinement are visited by their immediate commanders or other availableofficers of the unit in order
that their needs are attended to.
2. SurvivorAssistance to Heirs of Deceased Members – When PNP members die,a survivor officer
is designated to render maximum assistance to theirlegitimate bereaved family until all benefits due shall
have been received.
3. Visitingthe Religious Leader – PNP officers visits religious leaders intheir area of assignment to
establish or maintain rapport or cooperationbetween the different religious leaders and the PNP.
4. Athletics–All PNP members indulge in physical fitness activities to insure that theirproper physical
appearance and bearing are maintained with waistlinemeasurement always smaller that the size of his
chest and in conformity in thestandard set forth by the organization.
5. HappyHours –Usually on Friday or any other day suitable for the occasion, PNP membersgathered
together at their PNP club for light hearted jesting or airing ofminor gripes.
1. Police Traditions
1. SpiritualBeliefs – ThePNP members are traditionally religious and God-loving person. They
attendreligious services together with the members of their family.
2. Valor – Historyattest that the Filipino law enforcers have exemplified the traditions of valorin
defending the country from aggression and oppression. They sacrificed theirlimbs and lives for the sake
of their countrymen whom they have pledged toserve.
3. Patriotism–The PNP members are traditionally patriotic by nature. They manifest their loveof
country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend theconstitution.
4. Discipline–the discipline of the PNP members are manifested by instinctive obedience tolawful
orders and through spontaneous action towards attainment oforganizational objectives guided by moral,
ethical, and legal norms.
5. Gentlemanliness–the PNP members are upright in character, polite in manners, dignified

inappearance, and sincere in their concern to their fellowman.
6. Word ofHonor –the PNP members’ word is their bonds. They stand by and commit to uphold it.
7. Duty – the PNPmembers have historically exemplified themselves as dedicated public servantswho
perform their tasks with deep sense of responsibility and self-sacrifice.
8. Loyalty – thepolicemen are traditionally loyal to the organization, country, or people, asborne by
history and practice.
9. Camaraderie–the binding spirit that enhances the teamwork and cooperation in the
policeorganization, extending to the people they serve, is manifested by the PNPmembers’ deep
commitment and concern to one another.
Q. The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
As a law enforcementofficer, my fundamental duty is to serve mankind; to safeguard life andproperty; to

protect the innocent against deception; the weak againstoppression or intimidation; and the peaceful
against violence or disorder; andto respect the Constitutional right of all men, to liberty, equality,
andjustice.
Iwill keep my private life unsullied as an example to all, maintain courageous calm in the face
ofdanger, scorn or ridicule, develop self-restraint and be constantly mindful ofthe welfare of others.
Honest in thought and in deed in my both personal andofficial life, I will be the exemplary in obeying the
laws of the land andregulations of my organization. Whatever I see or hear of a confidential natureor that
is confided to me in my official capacity will be kept ever secretunless revelation is necessary in the
performance of my duty.
Iwill never act officiously or permit personal feelings , prejudices,animosities or friendships to

influence my decision. With no compromise forcrime and with relentless prosecution of criminal, I will
enforce the lawcourteously and appropriately, without fear or favor, malice or ill-will, neveremploying
unnecessary force or violence and never accepting gratuities inreturn.
Irecognize the badge of my office as a symbol of public faith and I accept itas public trust to be
held so long as Iam true to the ethics of the police service. I will never engage in the acts ofcorruption,
or bribery, nor will I condone such acts by other police officers.I will cooperate with all legally authorized
agencies and their representativesin the pursuit of justice.
Iknow that I alone, am responsible for my own standard of professionalperformance and will
take every reasonable opportunity to enhance and improvemy level of knowledge and competence. I will
constantly strive to achieve theseobjectives and ideals, dedicating myself before God to my
chosenprofession……law enforcement.
1. Police Officers’ Pledge
1. I will love and serve God, my country andpeople;

2. I will uphold the Constitution and obey legalorders of the duly constituted authorities;
3. I will oblige myself to maintain a highstandard of morality and professionalism;
4. I will respect the customs and traditions ofthe police service; and
5. I will live a decent and virtuous life toserve as an example to others.
IV. POLICECOMMUNITY RELATIONS (PCR)
1. Background on Police-Community Relations
Section 2of the RA 6975 reads:
Sec. 2.DECLARATION OF POLICY – it is hereby declared to be the policy of the State topromote peace
and order, ensure public safety and further strengthen local government capability aimedtowards the
effective delivery of the basic services to the citizenry throughthe establishment of a highly efficient and
competent police force that isnational in scope and civilian in character. Towards this end, the state
shallbolster a system of coordination and cooperation among the citizenry, localexecutives
and the integrated law enforcement and public safety agencies createdunder this act.
Saidprovision was later amended by RA 8551, which reads:
Sec 2.DECLARATION OF POLICY AND PRINCIPLES – it is hereby declared the policy of thestate to
establish a highly efficient and competent police force which isnational in scope and civilian in character
administered and controlled by aNational Police Commission.
ThePhilippine National Police (PNP) shall be a community and service

orientedagency responsiblefor the maintenance of peace and order and public safety.
1. PNP VISION
Themen and women of the PNP is committed to a vision of a professional, dynamicand highly motivated
Philippine National Police working in partnership with a responsive community towards
theattainment of a safe place to live, work, invest and do business with.
1. PNP MISSION
Toenforce the law, to prevent and control crimes, to maintain peace and order,and to ensure public
safety and internal security with the active support of the community.
1. DEFINITIONS
Ø POLICE
- A group of persons established, maintainedand organized for keeping order, safety, protection of
lives and property, andfor the prevention and detection of crimes.
Ø COMMUNITY
- Refers to the civilian populace or the publicin general, and shall be used interchangeably with the
terms, public,citizenry, society and private sectors.
- A body of people organized into political,municipal or social unity or a body of persons living in the
same locality.
- Derived from the Latin word “communis” which means “common” and “tatis” which means
“fellowship”.
Ø POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
- The sum total of the dealings between thepolice and the people it serves, and whose goodwill and
cooperation it craves,for the greatest possible efficiency in the service.
- Refers to the reciprocal attitudes of thepolice and the community
Ø PUBLIC RELATIONS
- The act of bringing about betterunderstanding, confidence and acceptance for an individual or an
organization.
Ø POLICE PUBLIC RELATIONS

- The continuing process by which endeavors aremade to obtain the goodwill and cooperation of
the public for effectiveenforcement of the law and accomplishment of the police purposes.
Ø HUMAN RELATIONS
- Consists of the fundamental rules both moraland legal, which govern the relationship of men in all
aspects of life.
Ø MEDIA/MASS MEDIA
- The channels through which information isdisseminated to the public.
- May be in form of television, movies, radioor newspaper, and the like.
Ø PROPAGANDA
- The planned use of mass communication forpublic purposes.
Ø POLICE PUBLIC IMAGE

- Refers to how people in the communityperceive or regard the police.
1. FOUNDATION OF COMMUNITY RELATIONS
Thefoundation of community relations is EFFICIENTSERVICE.
1. REQUIREMENTS FOR GOOD COMMUNITY RELATIONS
1. Sincerity in serving the public;

2. Full knowledge of the job;
3. Deep conviction in the mobility of his workas a necessary service to promote individual or national
welfare;
4. Sound police ethics; and
5. High standards of management and operations.
1. THREE ASPECTS OF POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
1. Community Service
- Activities that provide service to thecommunity may be in form of medical-dental mission, sports
clinic, feedingprograms, seminars, etc.
2. Community Participation
- Involvement of the community in the varioussocial projects, particularly, in the area of crime
prevention
- Awareness of the community of their role incrime prevention.
3. Public Relations
- Activities directed at creating andmaintaining favorable impressions to the public.
- Projection of the police public image to thepeople to gain their support and cooperation
1. OBJECTIVES OF POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
1. To maintain and develop the goodwill andconfidence of the community for the police;
2. To obtain cooperation and assistance;
3. To develop public understanding and support,and appreciation for the service of the police;
4. To create broader understanding and sympathywith the problems and needs of the police;
5. To facilitate law enforcement and compliance;
6. To build public opinion in favor of thepolice; and
7. To achieve the police purposes of preservingthe peace, protection of life and property, and the
prevention of crime.
1. PRINCIPLES OF POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS

1. Community support must be maintained.
2. Community resentment must be avoided.
3. Community goodwill must be developed.
4. Community must be kept informed.
1. FOUR (4) GENERAL APPROACHES IN POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
1. Externally-OrientedApproach
- Directed towards the general public orvarious enclaves within the society.
2. Youth-OrientedApproach
- Directed the majority of police effortstowards the youth of the community
3. Service-OrientedApproach
- Emphasis is given to the alleviation ofsocial problems as the basic objective of the program.
4. Internally-OrientedApproach
- Essential characteristics is the realizationthat the officer on beat creates community relations
because “Every officer ofthe organization, is a police-community relations officer”
TYPES OF POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS

1. TYPES OF POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
1. Public Information Program

- Designed to bridge the communication gapbetween the police and the public.
Forms of Media used:

a. PersonalMedia
- Consists of face-to-face communication , suchas meetings, rallies, delivering speeches and house-
to-house visitation.
b. Mass Media
- Includes printed matter and audio-visualcommunications.
2. Public Relations Program
- Designed to maintain harmony and mutualsupport between the police and the community.
- Designed to “sell” the police to the public.
3. Civic Action Program

- Designed to maintain and encourage communitydevelopment.
4. Psychological Program
- Designed to condition both friendly andhostile public, ensuring the facilitation of the attainment of
policeobjectives.
1. DUTIES OF PUBLIC RELATIONS OFFICER
1. He shallissue press releases from time to time regarding police activities which arepublic concern;
2. He shallbuild good image through actual commendable performance, without inefficiencyand
corruption; and
3. He shallevaluate public opinion and attitude with respect to policies, methods, andpersonnel of the
police stations.
1. DUTIES OF A CIVIC ACTION OFFICER
1. He shallencourage and actively participate in athletic competitions to promote youth development

by wisely coordinating withthe social elements of the populace;
2. He shallinitiate fund-raising campaigns for juvenile delinquents who are beingrehabilitated;
3. He shallbe alert to safeguard the community against loss and damages to the propertiesand
possible death, in the events of calamity;
4. He shallrender possible assistance, especially to the men folk in enabling them toobtain the means
of productive endeavors and discourage them from loitering inthe streets or engaging in uneconomic
activities, such as illegal gambling andothers.
1. MEASURES TO ENHANCE POLICE PUBLIC IMAGE
1. Increasedpolice visibility through the dispersal of personnel from the headquarters tothe field
offices;
2. Efficientand optimized delivery of police services to the communities;
3. Constantdialogues and meetings with the barangay officials in their respectiveterritorial jurisdictions;
4. Communityservice-oriented policing by conducting seminars for the traffic aides, policeaides, and
the barangay tanod; and
5. Coordinationwith the media for image-enhancing projects.
1. THE POLICE OFFICER’S INDIVIDUAL AND PROFESSIONAL PUBLIC RELATIONS
Categoriesof Individual Public Relations
1. Domestic Relations- Police Officer’s dealing with his family,parents and immediate relatives.
2. Neighborhood Relations- PoliceOfficer’s dealing with his neighbors.
3. Community Relations- PoliceOfficers’ dealing with citizens of the community, city or town where
he lives,and his membership or contribution to the civic organization or communityassociations in the
locality.
4. Church Relations- Police Officer’s dealings with the religiouscongregation or faith where he
belongs.
5. Government Relations- PoliceOfficer’s dealings with the government and its instrumentalities.
Categoriesof Professional Public Relations
1. Intra-Departmental Relations – PoliceOfficers relations with men and women in his own
department, superiors, thestation commanders as well as the city or municipality mayors where he
isassigned.
2. Inter-Departmental Relations – PoliceOfficers relations with other police agencies.
3. Citizens’ Relations –includes all dealings or contacts with the citizens in relation to
theenforcement of the law and maintenance of peace and order, together with thegiving of information
to the public of criminal and non-criminal activities.
4. Complainants’ Relation – includes apolice officer’s dealings with complaints, the techniques of
interviews, mannerof approach, and treatment of witnesses, as well as informers or assets.
5. Relation with Accused Persons – consistsof proper treatment of suspects, the recognition of
their constitutional rightsduring custodial investigation and the handling of accused persons
duringconfinement.
6. Relations with the State Prosecutors orFiscals –includes a peace officer’s duty to cooperate
during preliminary investigationsand gatherings of further evidence when so recovered by the fiscal.
7. Judicial Relations – consistsof peace officer’s duties towards the courts when appearing as
witnesses andthe honesty in testimony.
8. Governmental Relations – includeshis dealings with other non police agencies of the government
both national andlocal; in connection with official duties such as request for verification,coordination, or
whatever help are needed.
1. INTEGRATED POLICE ADVISORY COUNCIL
In orderto involve civil officials and the citizenry in the preservation of peace andorder and the promotion
of public safety, there shall be created an advisorycouncil in every level of the command of the PNP./
Ø Composition of the Integrated Police AdvisoryCouncil
1. LocalCivil Officials
2. Representativesof the Judiciary
3. Representativesof the Industrial Sector
4. Representativesof the Commercial Sector
5. Representativesof the Agricultural Sector
6. Representativesof the Religious Sector
7. Representativesof the Youth Sector
8. Representativesof the Educational Sector
9. OtherCivic organizations
Ø Functions of the Integrated Police AdvisoryCouncil
1. To advisethe commander on matters pertaining to peace and order and public safety.
2. Torecommend necessary measures to improve the law enforcement system and publicsafety
conditions
3. To assistthe PNP in community relations, and public information, and in enhancing orpromoting
citizen’s involvement in the preservation of peace and order, andpublic safety.
I. LEGALBASIS AND CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGISTS
THE BOARD EXAMINATIONS FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS
Republic Act 6506 – An ActCreating the Board of Examiners for Criminologists in the Philippines andfor
Other Purposes.
SECTION 1.Creation and composition of the Board. – There shall becreated a Board of Examiners
for Criminologists in the Philippines to becomposed of a Chairman and two members possessing
thequalifications prescribed in Section 3 of this Act, who shall be appointed bythe President of the
Philippines upon the recommendation of the Commissioner ofthe Civil Service from among the registered
criminologists, if any, or fromknown criminologists of recognized standing in the profession, with the
consentof the Commission on Appointments: Provided, That the first Board of Examinersfor
Criminologists to be created pursuant to this Act shall be issued acertificate of registration as
Criminologists without prior examination inaccordance with the provisions of this Act.
SECTION 2.Powers vested in the Board – The Boardof Examiners for Criminologists is vested with
authority, conformably with theprovisions of this Act, to administer the provisions thereof, to issue,
suspendor revoke certificate of registration for the practice of criminology and toadminister oaths.
SECTION 3. Qualifications of Board Members – The Members of theBoard shall at the time of their
appointment be:
1. Naturalborn citizens of the Philippines.

2. Holdersof the degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology (B.S. Crim.) or Master ofCriminology (M.
Crim) conferred by a reputable and legally constituted Collegeor Institute of Criminology recognized by
the Government;
3. Atleast thirty years of age;
4. Registeredcriminologists with at least ten years experience in the profession: Provided, That the
requirements of registrationshall not apply to appointments to the first Board;
5. Non-membersof the Faculty of any school, college or institute where a regular course incriminology
is taught, nor have any pecuniary interest in such institution; and
6. Notconnected with any government agency, which operates an academy, trainingschool or institute
for the education or training of peace officers or lawenforcement agents.
SECTION 4.Term of Office – Themembers of the Board shall hold office for a term of three
years after their appointments unless sooner removed for anyof the causes enumerated in section six of
this Act. In which case theirsuccessors shall be appointed immediately and duly qualified, who shall
servethe unexpired term only. Each member of the Board shall qualify by taking theproper oath of office
to entering upon the performance of his duties.
SECTION 5.Executive Officer and Secretary of theBoard – The Commissioner of Civil Service shall
be executiveofficer of the Board and shall conduct the examination given by the Board. TheSecretary of
all the Boards of Examiners for Criminologists. All records andminutes, of the deliberations of the Board,
including examination papers, shallbe kept by the Civil Service Commission under the direct custody of
theSecretary.
SECTION 6.Removal of Board Members – ThePresident of the Philippinesmay remove any member
of the Board for neglect of duty or incompetency or forunprofessional or dishonorable conduct, after
having given the member concernedan opportunity to defend himself, in the proper administrative
investigation.
SECTION 7.Compensation of Board Members – Themembers of the Board shall each receive
compensation of not exceeding ten pesosfor each applicant examined. All fees shall be received by the
officerdesignated by competent authority as collecting officer for the Civil ServiceCommission, and such
officer shall pay all authorized expenses of the Board,including the compensation provided for by this Act
for the members of theBoard.
SECTION 8.Annual Report – The Boardshall submit an annual report to the President of the
Philippinesafter the close of each fiscal year, giving detailed account of itsproceedings, during the year
and making such recommendation, as it may deemnecessary and proper.
SECTION 9.Inhibition Against the Practice ofCriminology – No person shall practice or offer to
practiceas a criminologist in the Philippineswithout having previously obtained a certificate of registration
from theBoard.
SECTION10. Exemption from registration – Registrationshall not be required of the following

classes of persons.
A. Criminologists from other countries called infor constitutions or for a special project related to
Criminology not requiringmore than five months residence in the Philippines in any twelve months
period;Provided, however, That suchcriminologists are legally qualified to practice as such in their own
State orcountry.
B. Foreigners employed as technical officers,professors or consultants in such special branches of

Criminology or may, inthe judgment of the President of the Philippines, be necessary andindispensable
for the try: Provided,however, That they are internationally recognized experts and that they donot
engage in private practice during their stay in the Philippines.
SECTION11. Examination required – Except asotherwise specifically allowed under this Act, all
applicants for registrationas criminologists shall be required to undergo an examination as provided inthis
Act.
SECTION12. Qualifications for examination – Any personapplying for examination and for a
certificate, shall, prior to admission toexamination, establish to the satisfaction of the Board that:
A. He is at least eighteen years of age and acitizen of the Philippines;

B. He must be a person of good moral character,as certified to by at three persons of good standing in
the community whereinhe resides;
C. He must not have been convicted of a crimeinvolving moral turpitude; and
D. He has graduated in Criminology from aschool, college or institute recognized by the Government
after completing afour-year resident collegiate course leading to the degree of Bachelor ofScience in
Criminology (B.S. Crim.): Provided,That holders of Bachelor of Laws degree may, within five years after
theapproval of this Act, take this examination after completing at leastninety-four (94) units of
Criminology, Law Enforcement, Police Science andPenology subjects.
SECTION13. Holding of examination – The Boardis hereby authorized to conduct examination in the
Cities of Manila, Baguio,Legaspi, Cebu and Davao whenever practicable at least once a year and on
suchworking days and place as the Board may fix with the approval of theCommissioner of Civil Service.
Written or printed notice of examination shall bepublished in newspapers and copies mailed to each
candidate who has filed hisname and address with the Secretary of the Board, at least thirty days prior
tothe date of examinations.
SECTION14. Scope of examination – Theexamination shall be in writing and shall cover the following
subjects withtheir respective relative weights:
Subjects: RelativeWeights
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedures 20%
Law Enforcement Administration 20%
Correctional Administration 15%
Criminalistics 20%
Criminal Sociology 15%
Ethics and Human Relations 10%
However, the Board may change or revise anyof the above subjects in the event the Department of
Education shallcorrespondingly change the curriculum prescribed for the Degree of Bachelor ofScience of
Criminology.
In the conduct of the examination, the Board,in its discretion, may give practical, and field examinations
in each subject,as it may deem fit.
NOTES:
Under Resolution NO. 01, Series of 2010, EntitledPROMULGATION OF REVISED SYLLABI AND
TABLES OF SPECIFICATIONS FOR THE SUBJECTSIN THE BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATIONS
FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS, the scope of theexaminations for criminologists was revised as
follows:
Subjects Weight
CriminalJurisprudence, Procedure and Evidence 20%
LawEnforcement Administration 20%
CrimeDetection and Investigation 15%
Criminalistics 20%
Sociologyof Crimes and Ethics 15%
CorrectionalAdministration 10%
SECTION15. Rating in the examination – In orderto pass the examination, a candidate must obtain
a general average of at least seventy five percent withno rating below fifty percent in anyof the
subjects.
SECTION16. Report of ratings – The Boardshall within ninety days after the date of the completion of
the examination,report the ratings obtained by each candidate to the Commissioner of CivilService.
SECTION17. Oath taking – Allsuccessful candidates shall be required to take a professional oath
before theBoard or before any person authorized to administer oaths prior to enteringupon the practice
of criminology in the Philippines.
SECTION18. Issuance of certificate – Uponpayment of the registration fee as provided in this Act,
the Board shall issuea certificate of registration as criminologists to any applicant who, in theopinion of
the Board has satisfactorily met all the requirements specified inthis Act.
Allcertificates of registration issued under this Act shall show the full name ofthe registrant; shall have
serial numbers, shall be signed by all the membersof the Board, shall be attested by the Secretary of the
Board; Provided, That upon application fieldwithin six months after the approval of this Act, the Board
shall issue acertificate of registration without examination to persons who have beengraduated with the
Degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology (B.S. Crim.)and who have been in the practice of
criminology for at least ten years priorto the enacted of this Act.
SECTION19. Fee for examination and registration– Allapplicants for examination shall pay an
application fee of fifty pesos andevery applicant for registration shall pay a registration fee of thirty
pesos.
SECTION20. Revocation of Certificate ofRegistration – The Board may, after giving due notice
andhearing to the party concerned, revoke or suspend his certificate ofregistration if found guilty of
malpractice, incompetency, unprofessionalconduct, serious ignorance or gross negligence in the practice
of criminology.He shall be required to surrender his certificate of registration to the Board.The decision of
the Board, however, may be appealed within thirty days to thePresident of the Philippineswhose decision
shall be final.
SECTION21. Reissue of revoked certificate andreplacement of lost certificate – After the

expirationof one year from the date of revocation of a certificate of registration, andafter payment of the
required fee, the Board may, for reasons it may deemsufficient, entertain an application for new
certificate from a person whosecertificate has been revoked.
A new certificate of registration to replacea certificate lost, destroyed or mutilated may be issued, subject
to the rulesof the Board and upon payment of a fee of thirty pesos.
SECTION22. Criminologists defined – Acriminologists is any person who is a graduate of the Degree
of Criminology,who has passed the examination for criminologists and is registered such by theBoard.
SECTION23. Practice of Criminology – A personis deemed to be engaged in the practice of

Criminology if he holds himself outto the public in any of the following capacities:
1. As a professor, instructor or teacher inCriminology in any university, college or school duly

recognized by thegovernment and teachers any of the following subjects; (a) Law
EnforcementAdministration, (b) Criminalistics, (c) Correctional Administration, (d)Criminal Sociology and
allied subjects, and (e) other technical and specializedsubjects in the Criminology curriculum provided by
the Department of Education.
2. As law enforcement administrator, executive,adviser, consultant or agent in any government or

private agency.
3. As technician in dactyloscopy, ballistics,questioned documents, police photography, lie detection,

forensic chemistry andother scientific aspects of crime detection.
4. As correctional administrator, executivesupervisor, worker or officer in any correctional and penal

institution.
5. As counselor, expert, adviser, researcher inany government or private agency on any aspects of
criminal research or projectinvolving the causes of crime, juvenile delinquency, treatment of
offenders,police operations, law enforcement administration, scientific criminalinvestigation or public
welfare administration.
SECTION24. Privileges of certifiedcriminologists – All certified criminologists shall be exemptfrom

taking any other entrance or qualifying government or civil serviceexaminations and shall be considered
civil service eligible to the followinggovernment positions: (1) dactylographer, (2) ballistician, (3)
questioneddocument examiner, (4) correctional officer, (5) law enforcement photographer,(6) lie
detection examiner, (7) probation officer, (8) agents in any lawenforcement agency, (9) security officer,
(10) criminal investigator, or (11)police laboratory technician.
Certified criminologists shall be eligiblefor appointment as Patrolman in chartered cities and
municipalities, providedthey posses the general qualifications for appointment, provided in Sectionnine,
Republic Act Numbered Forty-eight hundred and sixty-four.
SECTION25. Penal provisions – Any personwho shall hold himself out as a criminologist without being
duly registered andcertified in accordance with the provisions of this Act, or who shall give anyfalse or
fraudulent evidence of any kind to the Board in connection with anyexamination, or who shall violate any
of the rules and regulations promulgatedby the Board in connection with the practice of Criminology in
the Philippinesshall upon conviction be sentenced to a fine of not less than two thousandpesos nor more
than ten thousand pesos or to suffer imprisonment for a periodof not less than one year but not
exceeding three years or both, at thediscretion of the court.
SECTION26. Repealing clause – All laws,executive orders, administrative orders or ordinances

inconsistent with anyprovision of this Act are hereby repealed or modified accordingly.
SECTION27. Effectively – This Actshall take effect upon its approval.
2
CANON OF ETHICS FORREGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST
ARTICLE 1-Primary Responsibility of Registered Criminologist
a. The primary responsibility of every personadmitted to the practice of Criminology as a Registered

Criminologist is tobear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to hisprofession.
They shall accept as a sacred obligation and responsibility ascitizens to support the Constitution of the
Philippines and as a RegisteredCriminologist to defend the principles of liberty as defined in the
Constitutionand Laws.
b. As a Registered Criminologist, they shallstrive to improve their effectiveness by diligent study and
sincere attentionto improvement and welcome the opportunity to disseminate practical and
usefulinformation relating to matters accruing to the benefit of public safety andwelfare.
ARTICLE 2-Limitation of Authority
a. The first duty of a criminologist as upholderof the law is to know its bonds upon him, be aware of
limitations andprescriptions and recognize the system of government that gives to no man,group or
institution absolute power, He must ensure that he is a prime defenderof that system and as such must
never pervert its character.
b. They shall in the performance of their dutybe just, impartial and reasonable, never according anyone
more preferentialtreatment than another. They shall recognize the limitation of their authorityand at no
time use the power of their profession for personal advantage.
ARTICLE 3-Private Conduct
a. The Registered Criminologist must be mindfulof his special identification by the public as an upholder
of the law. He mustnever be lax in conduct or manner in private life, express disrespect for thelaw, nor
weak to gain special privilege that would be reflective upon theprofession. He must so conduct his private
life that the public will regard himas an example.
b. He must be strive to elevate the standing ofthe profession in the public mind, strengthen public
confidence in lawenforcement, develop and maintain complete support and cooperation of thepublic and
insure the effectiveness by encouraging complete cooperation ofmembers of their mutual benefit.
ARTICLE 4-Conduct Towards the Public
a. The Criminologists reminded at all times thatdignity, fairness and genuine willingness to help are
essential to their publicimage and their ability to do a good job.
b. The Criminologists, mindful of theirresponsibility to the whole community, deal with individuals of the
communityin a manner calculated to instill respect for its laws and her profession.
c. They shall be habitually courteous and accepttheir responsibility by being punctual and expeditions in
their engagements andduties. They shall regard their profession as a public trust and in thedischarge of
their duties, bear constantly in mind their obligation to servethe public efficiently and effectively.
ARTICLE 5-Attitude Towards Profession
a. The Criminologists shall strive to make thebest application of science to the solution of crime, by
diligent study andsincere attention to self-improvement, and in the fields of humanrelationships, strive for
effective leadership and public influence in mattersaffecting public safety.
b. He shall appreciate the importance andresponsibility of his profession as an honorable one rendering
valuable serviceto his community and country. They shall strive to attain certain technical andprofessional
conclusions capable of the most withering cross-examinationparticularly from fellow criminologist and
associate.
c. He shall avoid outside influence from overzealousand overanxious clients and his findings shall be
based solely and entirely onlogical and scientific deduction derived from a fair and impartial
examinationpersonally performed by him.
d. He must never lose sight of the importantfact that he should not only work for the identification,
apprehension andconviction of criminals, but must strive with greater if not equal vigor to theclear
innocent.
ARTICLE 6-Attitude Towards Fellow Criminologists
a. The Criminologists shall strive constantly toimprove professional standing of Criminology through
association with others inthe profession and keeping abreast with the fast moving world of science
andtechnology through constant research and development.
b. He shall cooperate fully with fellowcriminologists regardless of personal prejudice. He should

however, be assuredthat such action is proper and in accordance with law and guard against the useof
his office or person, knowingly or unknowingly in any improper or illegalaction. He must always bear in
mind at all times that it is not sufficient tobe proficient in one’s work, he must also have a high sense of
dedication tohis profession and a sense of duty and obligation to his fellowmen.
c. He shall cooperate with fellow criminologistsand public officials to the end that safety and general
welfare of the publicwill be assured, never permitting jealousies or personal differences toinfluence their
professional duties and obligations.
ARTICLE 7-Code of Ethics
The universallyaccepted Code of Ethics for Law Enforcement shall be temporarily adoptedpending
formulation of a more specific code that embraces all aspects ofCriminology.
LAW ENFORCEMENT CODE OF ETHICS

As a Law Enforcement Officer, my fundamentalduty is to serve mankind; to safeguard lives and property;
to protect theinnocent against deception, the weak against oppression or intimidation, andthe peaceful
against violence or disorder; and to respect the constitutionalrights of all men to liberty, equality and
justice.
I will keep my private life insullied as anexample to all; maintain courageous calm in the face of danger,
scorn orridicule; develop self-restraint; and be constantly mindful of the welfare ofothers. Honest in
thought and deed in both my personal and official life, Iwill be exemplary in obeying the laws of the land
and the regulation of mydepartment. Whatever I see or hear of a confidential nature or that it isconfided
to me in me in my official capacity will be kept ever secret unlessrevelation is necessary in the
performance of my duty.
I will never act officiously or permitpersonal feelings, prejudices, animosities or friendships to influence
mydecisions. With no compromise for crime and with relentless prosecution ofcriminals, I will enforce the
law courteously and appropriately without fear orfavor, malice or ill will, never employing unnecessary
force or violence andnever accepting gratuities in return.
I recognize the badge of my office as asymbol of public faith, and I accept it as a public trust to be held
so longthat I am true to the police service. I will constantly strive to achieve theseobjectives, and ideals,
dedicating myself before God to my chosen profession….law enforcement.
ARTICLE 8-Affectivity
This Code of Ethicsfor Registered Criminologists shall be effective upon approval hereof by
theCommission and after fifteen (15) days following its publication in theOfficial Gazette (Published
October 12,1987).
ENHANCING TEST TAKING SKILLS

PART3- ENHANCING TEST TAKING SKILLS
Direction: Choosethe letter of the best answer
1. Derived from the Greek word “ethos” which means characteristic way of acting.
a. Ethics c.Code of Ethics
b. Professional Ethics d. Ethical behavior
A
1. Set of moral code that every profession subscribes to promote a high standard of ethics in public
service, because practice of profession cannot be regulated entirely by legislation.
a. Police Ethics c.Professional Ethics
b. Ethical Standards d. All of the above
C
1. Practical science that treats the principles of human morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement.
a. Ethics c.Code of Ethics
b. Police Ethics d.Professional Standards
B
1. The basic mission for which the police exist is to________.
a. Prevent crime and disorder c. Arrest the criminal
b. Investigate crime d. All of the above
A
1. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon______________.
a. Willing cooperation of the public
b. People’s voluntary observance of the law
c. Public approval of police actions
d. Relationship with the public
C
1. The test of police efficiency is_________________________, not the visible evidence of police
action in dealing with it.
a. Arrest of a criminal c. Repression of criminal conduct
b. Prevention of crime d. Absence of crime and disorder
D
1. Ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
a. Prudence c.Fortitude
b. Temperance d.Justice
A
1. Courage to endure without yielding, except one.
a. Endurance c.Physical courage
b. Perseverance d.Perseverance
C
1. Mandated to establish a Code of conduct for the PNP members to foster their individual
efficiency, behavioral discipline and organizational effectiveness.
a. PNP Directorate for Plans
b. PNP Directorate for Human Resource andDoctrine Development
c. National Police Commission
d. Internal Affairs Service
C
1. The Code of Conduct for PNP members is necessary to________________.
a. Set the moral tone and norms of professionalconduct in the police service
b. Ensure that PNP members adhere to thefundamental tenets of police service
c. Punish erring police officers
d. Make sure that all police officers liveaccording to the PNP’s Code of Ethics
A
1. When does the PNP’s Ethics Day is celebrated?
a. July 23 c.March 12
b. January 7 d.May 19
B
1. It was culled from the PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards which
is anchored on the divine and moral precepts, the constitution, RPC, Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices
Law, Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees and other special laws.
a. PNP Ethical Doctrine c. PNP Code of Ethics
b. PNP Ethical Standards d. PNP Professional Ethics
A
1. The Oath of commitment to the PNP Ethical Doctrine is done by the PNP Members on the
following occasion, except one-
a. Upon entry to the police service c. Upon promotion to the next higher rank
b. Upon transfer from one office to another d. Upon assumption of office/position
B
1. PNP COPCES is subject to review for possible revision every______.
a. 3 years c.5 years
b. 10 years d.4 years
C
1. PNP members are duty bound to uphold the ethical doctrine and live upon the customs and
traditions of the organization. In case of conflict in the practice of the customs and traditions and the
performance of duties, which shall prevail?
a. Performance of duties c. Obedience to superior order
b. Practice of customs and traditions d. Law
A
1. Violation of the PNP Ethical Doctrine shall be penalized under, except.
a. RPC, RA 6713 and other Special Laws
b. Rules and Regulations promulgated by theNAPOLCOM
c. Articles of War
d. CSC Rules and Regulations
C
1. PNP Core Values, except.
a. Love of God, respect for authority andselfless love and service for people
b. Sanctity of marriage and family life
c. Obedience to superior officer and supremacyof the law
d. Responsible dominion and stewardship overmaterial things and truthfulness
C
1. An embodiment of the core values and principles which a police officer is sworn to uphold to win
the hearts and minds of the people, which is the ultimate objective of police community relations.
a. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and EthicalStandards
b. PNP Police Ethics Manual
c. Code of Conduct for Government Officials andEmployees
d. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
A
1. The police should realize that the test of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and
disorder, not the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with them. One of the following
supports the preceding statement.
a. The police must concentrate more on crimeprevention effort
b. The police must work further to improve itscrime solution efficiency
c. The police must always observe maximumtolerance in dealing with civil disturbance
d. The police must at all times respect humanrights
A
1. The reputation of any organization affects the esprit de’ corps, morale and welfare of the
members and sense of pride to the organization. Thus, all PNP members should act in a manner that
would give best impression to the organization by living to its core values to enhance its-
a. Integrity c.Efficiency
b. Credibility d.Image
D
1. In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity in the service, PNP members must
have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle
of_______________.
a. Honesty c.Delicadeza
b. Moral courage d. Palabra de honor
C
1. The PNP promotes to maintain modest and yet dignified life for its members. They are required
to be free from greed, corruption and exploitation.
a. PoliceLifestyle c.Police Integrity
b. PoliceLife d.Police Fairness
A
1. PNP members are restraint to seek political influence on matters pertaining to assignment,
award, training and promotion.
a. Influence peddling c. Political patronage
b. Political corruption d. Politicking
C
1. Police_________________ is the performance of duties with integrity, intelligence and
competence in the application of specialized skills and technical knowledge with excellence and
expertise.
a. Professionalism c. Efficiency
b. Competence d.Effectiveness
A
1. PNP members’ commitment to democratic way of life, valuing and maintaining the principle of
accountability, upholding the Constitution and loyalty to the country.
a. Love of Country c. Commitment to Democracy
b. Loyalty to the Flag d. Commitment to the Constitution
C
1. Police Officers should use government properties and resources effectively, honestly and
efficiently.
a. Commitment to the government c. Commitment to publicinterest
b. Commitment to ethical standards d. Commitment to public duty
C
1. PSI Jocelyn Cruz was assigned as head of the Violence Against Women and Children Division of
the Manila Police District. The Mayor of Manila facilitated her designation in that office. One day a
Barangay Chairman known to be a critic of the city mayor went to her office to seek police assistance
which she immediately attended to. What police professional conduct did Cruz exercised?
a. Political neutrality c. Non-partisanship
b. Respect for human rights d. Non-politicalpatronage
C
1. SPOIV Antonio Torres was elected twice as president of homeowners association in the barangay
where he resides. As homeowners association president, he is credited for maintaining order in the
community. His involvement in this civic organization has never prejudice his official duties as member
of the PNP. Torres exercise-
a. Social awareness c. Civic duties
b. Social responsibility d. Police communityrelations
C
1. Ethical Doctrine requires PNP members to perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness,
efficiency, enthusiasm, determination and manifest concern for public welfare. They are refrain to
engage in any activity, which would be in conflict with their duties as public servants.
a. Dedication to the police service c. Work ethics
b. Devotion to duty d. Hard work
B
1. Former PNP Chief DG Nicanor Bartolome required all PNP personnel to plant trees to help in the
development and conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and posterity. This is in
compliance with the PNP Professional Conduct of-
a. Conservation of environment
b. Conservation of natural resources
c. Environmental protection
d. Maintenance of ecological balance
B
1. A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty and responsibility that unites a disciplined group of
people.
a. Unity c.Solidarity
b. Camaraderie d.Esprit de’ corps
D
1. Logical procedures in accomplishing tasks to avoid wastage of time money and effort.
a. Orderliness c.Effectiveness
b. Efficiency d.Discipline
A
1. Taking of legitimate means to achieve the goal despite of internal and external difficulties that
may be faced which might weaken the resolve in the course of time.
a. Prudence c.Patience
b. Diligence d.Perseverance
D
1. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees.
a. RA 6713 c.PD 46
b. RA 7080 d.RA 3019
A
1. Higher level of professional police service is on demand in view of___________.
a. Higher pay rate due to salary standardization
b. Changing economic environment
c. Increasing number of police applicants
d. Changing role of the police
D
1. The police must generate citizens’ support and involvement in the maintenance of peace and
order because the police does not operate in a__________.
a. Isolation c.selected location
b. Vacuum d.alone
B
1. When a police officer is taught how to deal with people in a warm and friendly manner, he is
trained in________________.
a. Media relations c. Public relations
b. Community relation d. Human relations
D
1. Ideas, actions, habits or experiences that contribute to the promotion of human life.
a. Moral virtues c.Values
b. Virtues d.Moral values
C
1. Person’s choice of values.
a. Personality c.Reputation
b. Character d.Behavior
B
1. Formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special
occasions.
a. Ceremony c.Customs
b. Traditions d.Social Decorum
A
1. A symbol of public faith and public trust.
a. Police uniform c. Police logo
b. Philippine flag d. Police badge
D
1. Love of country is manifested with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
Constitution.
a. Nationalism c.Patriotism
b. Duty d.Loyalty
C
1. Manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders, thorough spontaneous actions towards
attainment of organizational objectives guided by moral, ethical and legal norms.
a. Respect for authority c. Gentlemanliness
b. Discipline d.Camaraderie
B
1. A set of norms and standards practiced by the PNP members during social activities and other
functions.
a. Social Decorum c. Discipline
b. Customs d.Social Etiquette
A
1. The reciprocal attitudes between the police and the community.
c. Police public relations c. Police communityrelations
d. Human relations d. Community relations
C
1. Aspects of police community relations except-
a. Community involvement c. Community service
b. Community participation d. Public relations
B
1. Not among the activities of police community relations
a. Police Media Relations
b. Public relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
c. Civic Assistance and Development
d. Community Organization and Mobilization
A
1. PCRG is the office in the PNP which tasks to win the trust, confidence and support of the people
in the framework of____________________________.
a. Do good and tell the people about it
b. Be good and the people will like it
c. Tell the people of the good intention of thepolice
d. Involve the people in police work
A
1. What is the chief cornerstone of an effective police community relation program?
a. The individual police officer c.Law violators
b. The people in the community d. Complainants
A
1. Police community relations is designed to____________________.
a. Bring citizens’ support to criminal justicecomponents, remove apathy, and cause total community
involvement
b. Encourage police officers to project betterimage
c. Promote a set of examples to citizens
d. Win the cooperation of the people
A
ANALYZING TEST ITEMS

PART 2- ANALYZING TEST ITEMS
MULTIPLECHOICE
Direction:Choosethe letter of the best answer.
1. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values and
maintain the principle of_______.
a. Equality of the service c. Policelifestyle
b. Public accountability d. Socialawareness
1. It greatly enhance personnel professionalism process with regards to procurement, training,
promotion, assignment, placement, awards and retirement.
a. Basic Management c.Management leadership
b. Career Pattern d.Career management
1. Member of the PNP shall serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty, and
efficiency with due respect to human rights and dignity as hallmark of a __________.
a. Peace loving society c.Liberated society
b. Democratic society d. Friendly society
1. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on one hand and in the performance
of duties on the other, one that shall prevail is ________.
a. Customs c.Traditions
b. Performance of Duties d. Writtenorders
1. All PNP members in the performance of their duties shall abide by this _________.
a. Code of Conduct c.Ethical Doctrine
b. Behavioral Conduct d.Gentlemanliness
1. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of _______.
a. Police visibility c.Personal moral
b. Crime and disorder d. Adherence to the law
1. The use if which diminishes proportionality in achieving law enforcement objectives.
a. Dialogue c.Debate
b. Agreement d.Physical Compulsion
1. Application of which in the police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and maintain
respect of the profession.
a. Applied principles c. Fundamental principles
b. Basic Principles d. Approved principles
1. Any other day suitable for the occasion, where PNP members gather together at their PNP club
for a light hearted jesting or airing minor gripes.
a. Happy Hours c.Lunch of time hours
b. Off hours b.After wok hours
1. It is taboo in the uniform service.
a. Flat stomach c.Bulging stomach
b. Thin Stomach d.Regular stomach
1. Usual greeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing person entitled to
_______.
a. Salute c.Verbal Greeting
b. Shaking Hands d.Bowling of heads
1. Established usage of social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the force of the
law.
a. Authority c.Behavior
b. Customs d.Traits
1. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages headed down from generation to generation.
a. Habits c.Tradition
b. Manners d.Character
1. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect.
a. Politeness c.Loyalty
b. Honesty d.Courtesy
1. A set of norms and Standards and practice by members during social and other functions.
a. Social Decorum c.Character traits
b. Personality development d. Human Behavior
1. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. Love of women c.Love of God
b. Selfless love of people d. Love of power
1. Which of the following is prohibited from engaging in strikes, rallies, demonstrations and other
similar concerted activities?
a. Member of the first family
b. Family member of the officers of the PNP
c. Thirddegree of consanguinity relatives of the officers of the PNP
d. Membersand officers of the PNP
1. The new PNP ethical doctrine is substantially based on ________.
a. PNP code of ethics
b. PNP Fundamental Doctrine and Code of ProfessionalConduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP code of conduct
d. R.A. 6713
1. Which of the following is the main purpose of the PNP ethical Doctrine?
a. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNPmembers
b. Established uniform behavior among PNPpersonal
c. Prescribe conduct that PNP organic andnon-organic member be observed
d. Provide proper and standard behavior for PNPmembers and sanction on case of violation.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine applies to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the PNP.
a. True c.Either true or false
b. False d.Partially false
1. Which of the following occasions should the PP recited.
a. Flag Raising and Flag Retreat ceremonies,jointly with the Panunumpa sa Watawat.
b. PNP training/course opening and closingceremonies.
c. Seminar on moral values ceremonies and otherceremonies.
d. All of the above.
1. Rigid application of fundamental principles in police work is necessary to avoid human rights
violation and maintain respect of the profession.
a. True c. Partially true
b. False d. partially false
1. Which of the following is not false as far as fundamental principles of police work are concern?
a. Fulfillment of police functions is notdepended upon community approval because the latter is just a
passivebeneficiary of police service.
b. Cooperation and assistance of communitydiminishes proportionately the need of the use of physical
force and compulsionin achieving law enforcement.
c. Police officers are members of a regimentedorganization who are paid to render public services due
upon every citizen.
d. The test of police efficiency is the visibleevidence of law enforcement action in dealing crime and
disorder.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine recognized that “The people are the peace maker, the police are the
peace keeper, and the local government is the peace observer.” If he goes beyond and above of his
role, he must observe the three (3) C’s in internal and external relations, except one. Which one?
a. Consult c. Contribute
b. Coordinate d. Cooperate
1. The oath of commitment to the ethical doctrine by all members of the PNP upon ________.
a. Entry into the PNP c. Assumption ofoffice/position
b. Promotion to the net higher rank d. All of the above
1. How does the PNP members, uniformed or non-uniformed adhere to PNP ethical doctrine?
a. By Police Officers Pledge c. By Pledge of Covenant
b. By Police officers Creed d. all of theabove
1. Recognized as ever “Magnificent Principle” of police service.
a. Love of God c.Respect the people
b. Honor the Government d. All of the Above
1. Assume that you are a criminologist member of the PNP. How can you sick and preserve public
favor?
a. By soliciting public opinion
b. By effective public relation program
c. By constant demonstration of impartiality byreading offering of individual service and congeniality.
d. All of the above
1. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge f allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
constitution.
a. Patriotism c. loyalty
b. Nationalism d. Valor
1. Jhon Dean Ramos, a newly appointed police Inspector constantly speak and act with
professionalism, gaining him the admiration of his subordinates, he likewise follow geed deeds and
work ethics of his superior Sr/Insp. Eugene Velarde. Both officers stand on what basic issues?
a. PNP image c. Setting example
b. Delicadeza d. Police lifestyle
1. Known as an Act Creating the Board Examiners for Criminologists.
1. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6506
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 4864
2. What law that regulated the Criminology profession in the Philippines?
1. R.A. 4864 c. R.A. 8551
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 6506
3. What is the term of office of the Members of the Board of Criminology?
1. 3 years c, 6 years
2. 4 years d. 2 years
4. In order to pass the Licensure Examinations for Criminologists one must--
1. Obtain a general weighted average of 75%
4. Obtain a general average of 75% with no rating below 50% in any subject
5. A Criminologist is any person who?
1. Is a graduate of the degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for
Criminologist
2. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the Board Examination for
Criminologists and is registered by the Board
3. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the board and finished his Master of
Science in Criminology
4. All of the above
6. Which of the following is not a practice of Criminology?
1. As a teacher/professor of Criminology
2. As a technician in the Crime Laboratory
3. As a law enforcement officer
4. As a business adviser
7. When does R.A. 6506 was approved?
1. July 1, 1972 c. October 12, 1987
2. October 15, 1998 d. None of the above
8. How can a Criminologist improve his effectiveness in the exercise of his profession?
1. By faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
2. By diligent study and disseminating knowledge that will accrue to the benefit of the
public
3. By accepting as sacred obligation to support the Constitution
4. None of the above
9. Known as Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologists
1. Code of Ethics for Registered Criminologist
2. Ethics for Criminology Professional
3. Law Enforcement Ethics
4. P.N.P. Code of Ethics
10. What is the primary responsibility of Registered Criminologist?
1. Bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his profession
2. Support the Constitution of the Philippines
3. Defend the principles of liberty
4. All of the above
11. Professional capacities in which Criminologist are governed by the Canon of Ethics
1. Private and Public Conduct
2. Conduct toward the Profession
3. Conduct towards fellow criminologist
4. All of the above
12. SPOI Jalandoni is known to have two families- one is in the Regional Police Office where he is
assigned as a CIDG operative and the other is in Manila where is maintaining a permanent abode.
Which of the following statement applies to him in regard to COPCES for police officer?
1. SPO1 Jalandoni is immoral
2. SPO1 Jalandoni does not practice the value of respect to woman and sanctity of marriage
3. SPO1 Jalandoni violated the police ethics
4. SPO1 Jalandoni does not follow the police professional conduct
13. PSI Mercado’s word is his bond, he stand by it and committed himself to uphold it. What
police tradition does inspector Mercado upholds?
1. Delicadeza c. Word of Honor
2. Camaraderie d. Honor Code
14. January is declared to be Police Community Relations Month under Proclamation Number-
1. 783 c. 738
2. 387 d. 873
15. A police officer who sacrificed his life and limb for the sake of his countrymen whom he pledged
to serve lives the tradition of________ among Filipino Law enforcers.
1. Physical courage c. Valor
2. Bravery d. Courage
16. Manifested by the PNP members’ deep commitment and concern to one another. This police
tradition binds spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the organization which is extended
to the people the police serves.
1. Loyalty c. Esprit de corps
2. Camaraderie d. Tradition
17. One of which is not a police social decorum. Which one?
1. Proper attire and table manners c. Marching
2. Social graces and appearance d. Manner of Walking
18. PSSupt Pinaglabanan is due to relinquish his position as Provincial Director of Laguna in favor of
PSupt Castor. What police customs on ceremony shall be observed?
1. Honor ceremony c. Transfer of position ceremony
2. Turn-over ceremony d. Farewell to the troops ceremony
19. What rank in the PNP is entitled to have an honor ceremony during arrival or departure from
visits from any police office?
1. P/SSupt c. Brigadier General
2. P/CSupt d. NCR Director
20. PCSupt Pedro Ruiz is an incumbent Regional Director of Region IV-A covering CALABARZON. His
Police Regional Office is visited by another Regional Director and the members of his group. What
customs on courtesy should Ruiz be observed?
1. Courtesy calls c. RHIP
2. Courtesy of the post d. entrance call
21. SPOIII Debayan refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill-refute and faithful to his legal
spouse. Debayan satisfies the ethical standard of-
1. Integrity c. Humility
2. Loyalty d. Morality
22. POIII Lihis visibly tucked his PNP issued and personal firearms in his waist and act like a cowboy
in the 19th Century Texas. By his words, he assumes that he is a master of the people; performs his
duties with arrogance, feeling that he invincible and always desires applause and publicity of his
accomplishments. Lihis does not practice-
1. Perseverance c. Integrity
2. Humility d. Humbleness
23. A moral courage to sacrifice self-interest.
1. Esprit de corps c. Valor
2. Camaraderie d. Delicadeza
24. Improving police community relations is a matter of concern to-
1. PCO c. All members of the police force
2. PNCO d. community leaders
25. Requirements for a good community relations, except-
1. Full knowledge of the job
2. Sound police ethics
3. Kindness, generosity and willingness to follow the will and whims of the people
4. Deep conviction in the nobility of work.
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
HUMANDEVELOPMENT
A. Definition
Development–a progressive series of changes that occur as a result of maturation andexperience
B. TheDevelopmental Changes
Thegoal of developmental changes is to enable people to adapt to the environmentin which they live;
achieve through self realization or as it sometimes calledself actualization. Because selfrealization plays
an important role in mental health, people who make goodpersonal and social adjustments must have
opportunities to express theirinterests and desires in ways that give them satisfaction but at the same
time,conform to the accepted standards. Lack of these opportunities will result infrustrations and
generally negative attitudes toward people and toward life ingeneral.
C. SignificantFacts About Development

1. Early foundations are critical
2. Rolesof maturation and learning in development
3. Developmentfollows a definite and predictable pattern
4. Allindividuals are different
5. Eachphase of development has characteristicbehavior.
6. Eachphase of development has hazards
7. Developmentis Aided by Stimulation
8. Developmentis Affected by Cultural Changes
9. SocialExpectations for Every Stage of Development
10. TraditionalBelief about People of all Ages
D. Stagesin the Life Span

1. The Prenatal Period:Begins at conception and ends at birth.
Þ Approximately270 to 280 days or nine calendar months
2. Infancy: Birthto the end of second week

Þ Theshortest of all developmental periods
Þ Timeof radical adjustments
Þ Plateauin development
Þ Hazardousperiod
3. Babyhood: Endof second week to end of second year
Þ Truefoundation of age
Þ Ageof rapid growth and change
Þ Ageof decreasing dependency
Þ Ageof increased individuality
Þ Thebeginning of socialization
Þ Appealingage
Þ Beginningof creativity
Þ Hazardousage
4. Early Childhood: twoto six years
Characteristics:
Parents – problem or troublesome age
Educators – preschool age
5. Late Childhood: Sixto ten or twelve years
Characteristics:
Parents – troublesome age/sloppyage/quarrelsome age
Educators – Elementary school age
Psychologists – gang age/age ofconformity
6. Puberty or Preadolescence: Tenor twelve to thirteen or fourteen years
Þ Overlappingperiod
Þ Shortperiod
Þ Dividedinto stages (prepubescent, pubescent and post pubescent stages)
Þ Timeof rapid growth and change
Þ Occursat a variable age
7. Adolescence:Thirteen or fourteen to eighteen years
Þ Animportant period
Þ Atransitional period
Þ Aperiod of change
Þ Aproblem age
Þ Atime of search of identity
Þ Adreaded age
Þ Atime of unrealism
Þ Athreshold of adulthood
8. Early Adulthood:Eighteen to forty years
Þ Reproductiveage
Þ Problemage
Þ Periodof emotional tension
Þ Periodof social isolation
Þ Timeof commitment
Þ Oftena period of dependency
Þ Timeof value change
Þ Timeof adjustment to new lifestyle
Þ Creativeage
9. Middle Age:forty to 60 years
Þ Adreaded period
Þ Atime of transition
Þ Atime of stress
Þ Adangerous age
Þ Anawkward age
Þ Atime of evaluation
Þ Evaluatedby a double standard
Þ Thetime of empty nest
Þ Atime of boredom
10. Old Age or Senescence:sixty years to death
Þ Aperiod of decline
Þ Judgeby different criteria
Þ Thereare many stereotypes of old people
Þ Socialattitudes towards old age
Þ Elderlyhave a minority – group status
Þ Agingrequires role changes
Þ Pooradjustments id characteristics of old age
Þ Thedesire for rejuvenation is widespread in old age
E. TheDevelopmental Tasks
Purposes
1. Servesas guidelines that enable individuals to know what society expects of them atgiven ages.
2. Itmotivates individuals to do what the social group expects them to do at certainages during their
lives
3. Itshow individuals what lies ahead and what they will be expected to do when theyreach their next
stage development.
DevelopmentalTask during the Life Span

1. Babyhoodand Early Childhood
1.1 Learningto take solid foods
1.2 Learningto walk and talk
1.3 Learningto control the elimination of body waste
1.4 Learningsex differences and sexual modest
1.5 Gettingready to read
1.6 Learningto distinguish right and wrong and beginning to develop a conscience
2. LateChildhood
2.1 Learningphysical skills necessary for ordinary games
2.2 Buildingwholesome attitude toward oneself as a growing organism
2.3 Learningto get along with age-mates
2.4 Beginningto develop appropriate masculine on feminine social roles
2.5 Developingfundamental skills in reading, writing and calculating
2.6 Developingconcepts necessary for everyday living
2.7 Developinga conscience , as sense of morality, and a scale of values
2.8 Developingattitudes toward social groups and institutions
2.9 Achievingpersonal independence
3. Adolescence
3.1 Achievingnew and more mature relations with age-mates or both sexes
3.2 Achievinga masculine of feminine social role
3.3 Acceptingone’s physique and using one’s body effectively
3.4 Desiring,accepting, and achieving socially responsible behavior
3.5 Achievingemotional independence from parents and other adults
3.6 Preparingfor an economic career
3.7 Preparingfor marriage and family life
3.8 Acquiringa set of values and an ethical system as a guide to behavior-developing anideology
4. EarlyAdulthood
4.1 gettingstarted in an occupation
4.2 Selectinga mate
4.3 Learningto live with a mai
4.4 Startinga family
4.5 Rearingchildren
4.6 Managinga home
4.7 Takingon civic responsibility
4.8 Findinga congenial social group
5. MiddleAge
5.1Achieving adult civic and social responsibility
5.2Assisting teenage children to become responsible and happy adult
5.3Developing adult leisure-time activities
5.4Relating oneself to one’s spouse as a person
5.5Accepting and adjusting to physiological changes of middle age
5.6Reaching and maintaining satisfactory performance in one’s occupation career
57Adjusting to aging parents
6. OldAge
6.1 Adjusting to decreasing physical strength and health
6.2 Adjusting to retirement and reduced income
6.3 Adjusting to death of spouse
6.4 Establishing an explicit affiliation with member ofone’s age group
6.5 Establishing satisfactory physical living arrangement
6.6 Adopting to social roles in a flexible way
F. FACTORSINFLUENCING MASTERY OF DEVELOPMENTAL TASKS

Handicapsto Mastery
1. Aretarded developmental level
2. Lackof opportunity to learn the developmental tasks or lack of guidance in theirmastery
3. Lackof motivation
4. Poorhealth
5. Physicaldefects
6. Alaw intellectual level
Aidsto Mastery
1. Anormal or accelerated developmental level
2. Opportunitiesto learn the developmental tasks and guidance in mastering them
3. Motivation
4. Goodhealth and the absence
5. Ahigh level of intelligence
6. creativity
HUMAN BEHAVIOR
I.Concepts and Principles of Human Behavior
A. Definition
HumanBehavior- voluntary or involuntary attitude of a person adopts tofit society’s
idea of rightand wrong.
B.Viewpoints in the Study of Human Behavior

1. Neurological- emphasizeshuman actions in relation to events taking place inside the body,
especially the brain and the nervous system.
2. Behavioral- focuseson the external activities that can be observed and measured.
3. Cognitive- concernedwith the way the brain processes and transforms information in various
ways.
4. Psychoanalytical- emphasizesunconscious motives stemming from represses sexual and
aggressiveimpulses in childhood.
5. Humanistic- focuseson the subject’s experience, freedom of choice and motivation towards
self- actualization.
C. Factors that Affect Human Behavior

1. Heredity-itis determined by genes. Genes are segments of cell structures calledchromosomes by
which parents pass on traits to their offspring.
2. Environment- consistsof the conditions and factors that surround and influence on individual.
3. Learning-is the process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
D.Motivation of Human Behavior
1.The Needs Theory of Human Motivation
Thistheory states that, throughout the life, desires, wishes and drives,collectively
called needs, motive all.When not fulfilled, these needs place the individual under stress and in order
to relieve the tensions created, one hasto strive for appropriate satisfactions.
Theseneeds are arranged according to its hierarchy, to wit:
1. Physiological needs: hunger, thirst, air, etc.
2. Safety needs: the need for freedom from threat and danger
3. The Sense of Belonging and Love Needs: the need for affiliation,belongings
and acceptance
4. Esteem Needs: the need for achievements, strength, competence,reputation and status
or
prestige
5. The Need for Self- Actualization: the need for self fulfillment to realizepotentialities
to
become what one iscapable of becoming.
2. The Psychodynamics of Human Motivation
Psychodynamics , which literally meansmotivation to action, define human behavior
in terms of the inner personality of theinner self. The concept of subjective life
and inner forces within,called “mental personality”. It claimedthat the mind has three
levels by which its psychic forces operate, namely: the Id, Ego and Superego.
E. Causes and Conflicts in HumanBehavior
1. Physical Causes
Refers to natural causes, like typhoon, earthquake, fire, flood, storm, etc
2. Social Conflicts
Restrictions of rules in the home, school and community
3. Economic Conflict
Result from one’s inability to acquire material things because of poverty, or other financial obligation
F. TwoBasic Types of Human Behavior

<img> <img> <img>
Type Concept Example

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1. Inherited Behavioralresponse or reflex exhibited by Breathing,ingesting food,
Behavior people due to their geneticendowment or voiding waste,mating and
theprocess of natural selection. Defendingoneself.
<img>
2. Learned Involves cognitive adaptation thatenhances Verbal Communication,
Behavior the human beings ability to cope withchanges Logical problem solvingtechniques,
In the environment andto manipulate the job skills,etc.
Environment in ways toimprove the changes
For service
G. Other types of Behavior

<img><img><img> Types Behavior
1. Habitual Motor,emotional, language
2. <img><img>Instinctive Unlearnedbehavior
3. <img>Symbolic Substitutebehavior
4. Complex Twoor more habitual behavior occur in one situation
H.Causes of Human Behavior

1. Sensation-feeling or impression of stimulus
1.1 Visual- sight
1.2 Olfactory-smell
1.3 Cutaneous-touch
1.4 Auditory-hearing
1.5 Gustatory-taste
2. Perception-knowledge of stimulus
3. Awareness- psychological activity, it is accordance withthe interpretation and experience
of objectsof stimulus
I. Attributes of Human Behavior
1. Duration- how long in terms offunctions of time.
2. Extensity- spatialcharacteristics.
3. Intensity- magnitude,disintegrative.
4. Quantity- normal or abnormal,unacceptability.
J.Characteristics of Behavior
1. Primarily native or learned.
2. Evokedby external stimuli or internal need.
3. Automatic,voluntary, conscious motor or intentional.
K. Personality Dimensions that Affect Human Behavior
<img><img><img>
Types Characteristics Effect
<img>
1. Extraversion Frequently seek stimulation, excitement Get them in trouble greatest role
Andthrills incrime and delinquency
<img>
2. Neuroticism Intensely react to stress, generallymoody, Enhance habits and influence the
touchy, sensitive toslights and anxious or individual tobehave anti-socially
nervous.
<img>
3. Psychoticism cold cruelty, social insensitivity,disregard Impulse aggressive individualw/

for danger,troublesome behavior, dislike outappreciable conscience or
of others, attractiontowards the unusual concern forothers
FRUSTRATION IN HUMAN BEHAVIOR

Frustration Defined
Frustration refers to the situation whichblocks the individual’s motivated behavior. Sustained
frustration may becharacterized by anxiety, irritability, fatigue or depression.
Three Basic Forms ofConflict
1. Approach-Avoidance Conflict - Approach can beindicated by a plus sign and avoidance is
represented by a minus sign.Approach-avoidance occurs when an <a>individual</a>moves closer to a
seemingly desirable object, only to have the potentiallynegative consequences of contacting that object
push back against the closingbehavior.
2. Approach-Approach Conflict - This is aconflict resulting from the necessity of choosing between
two desirablealternatives. There are usually two desirable thingsare wanted, but only one option can be
chosen.
3. Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict - Thisform of conflict involves two undesirable or unattractive
alternatives where aperson has to decide of choosing one of the undesirable things. A conflict
betweentwo dangers or threats is usually more disturbing. For example, a man maydislike his job
intensely but fear the threat of unemployment if he quits.
Manifestation of Frustration
An individual may manifestfrustration by anxiety, irritability, emotional tension, depression or
fatigue.The frustrated individuals are usually unhappy or restless. Frustration mayusually starts if a
person failed to satisfy his needs or goals in life.Obstacles and difficulties sometimes stand a way in the
between the individualand his goal. Some of the reason why some people failed to realize or achievetheir
goals is the following:
1. Unrealistic Goals – itcan be seen when a person’s level of aspiration is much higher than his
levelof achievement.
2. Harmful or Antisocial Goals – when a person’s desire or intention to reach his goal isharmful to
others.
3. Conflicting Goals –when two or more goals of a person rebound to his personal interest and
thebenefit of the goal is one sided.
4. Environmental Difficulties – when goals cannot be simply attained due to so manyhindrances
within a person.
Coping Mechanism
Copingmechanism is defined as the way people react to frustration. People differin the way
they react to frustration. This could be attributed to individualdifferences and the way people prepared in
the developmental task they facedduring the early stages of their life.
DevelopmentalTask – refers to the task imposed on the individual by maturation andculture
that prepares a person to the next stages of their life.
Frustration Tolerance
The ability to withstand frustration withoutdeveloping inadequate modes of response such as
being emotionally depressed orirritated, becoming neurotic, or becoming aggressive.
Some people can manage to withstandprolonged period of frustration without showing any sign
of abnormality.However, some may exhibit abnormal behavior.
Afrustration reaction can be broadly classified into fight-flight:
1. Fight – is manifestedby fighting the problem in a constructive and direct way by means of
breakingdown the obstacles preventing the person reaching his goals.
2. Flight – it can bemanifested by sulking, retreating, becoming indifferent and giving up.
Reactionsto frustration can also be recognized into different types such as:
1. Direct approach - can be seen amongpeople who handle their problems in a very objective way.
They identify firstthe problem, look for the most practical and handy way to solve it, andproceeded with
the constructive manner of utilizing the solution which willproduce the best results.
2. Detour - when an individualrealizes that in finding for the right solution of the problem, he always
endup with a negative outcome or result. Thus, he tries to make a detour or changedirection first and
find out if the solution or remedy is there.
3. Substitution - most of time areresulted to in handling frustration when an original plan intended to
solve theproblem did not produce the intended result, thus the most practical way toface the problem, is
to look for most possible or alternative means.
4. Withdrawal or retreat- iscorresponding to running away from the problem or flight which to some
is thesafest way.
5. Developing feeling ofinferiority -comes when a person is unable to hold on to any solution
which gives a positiveresult. Being discourage to go on working for a way to handle a frustrationcould
result to diminishing self-confidence, until the time when inferioritycomplex sets in.
6. Aggression - is a negativeoutcome of a person's inability to handle frustration rightly. Manifestation
inphysical behavior can be observed in one's negative attitudes towards life bothin the personal and
professional aspect.
7. Use of DefenseMechanism –is the most tolerated way of handling frustration. It is a man’s last
resultwhen a person attempts to overcome fear from an anticipated situation or event.
Defense Mechanism – An unconsciouspsychological process that serves as safety valve that

provides relief fromemotional conflict and anxiety. A form of self-deception that a person may notbe
aware of. It is often resulted to whenever equilibrium is threatened bysevere emotional injury arising
from frustration.
Common Defense Mechanisms

1. Displacement - strong emotion, such as anger, is displaced onto another person or object as
the recipient of said emotion (anger), rather than being focused on the person or object which
originally was the cause of said emotion.
2. Rationalization - isthe defense mechanism that enables individuals to justify their behavior
tothemselves and others by making excuses or formulating fictitious, sociallyapproved arguments to
convince themselves and others that their behavior islogical and acceptable
3. Compensation - isthe psychological defense mechanism through which people attempt to
overcomethe anxiety associated with feelings of inferiority and inadequacy in one is ofpersonality or body
image, by concentrating on another area where they canexcel.
1. Projection - manifest feelings and ideas which are unacceptable to the ego or the superego and
are projected onto others so that they seem to have these feelings or ideas, which free the individual
from the guilt and anxiety associated with them.
2. Reaction formation - is defined as the development of a trait or traits which are the opposite
of tendencies that we do not want to recognize. The person is motivated to act in a certain way, but
behaves in the opposite way. Consequently, he is able to keep his urges and impulses under control.
6. Denial – when a person uses this,he refuses to recognize and deal with reality because of strong
inner needs.
7. Repression – is unconsciousprocess whereby unacceptable urges or painful traumatic experiences
arecompletely prevented from entering consciousness.
1. Suppression - which is sometimes confused with that of repression, is a conscious activity by
which an individual attempts to forget emotionally disturbing thoughts and experiences by pushing
them out of his mind.
9. Identification - in this defense mechanism, an individual seeks toovercome his own feelings of
inadequacy, loneliness, or inferiority by takingon the characteristics of someone who is important to him.
An example, is achild who identifies with his parents who are seen as models of intelligence,strength and
competence
1. Substitution - through this defense mechanism, the individual seeks to overcome feelings of
frustration and anxiety by achieving alternate goals and gratifications. Unanswered emotions of love,
unfulfilled longings, unattainable plans and ambitions, and unacceptable urges and impulses, will
create feelings of anxiety and guilt unless some substitute gratification is attained.
2. Fantasy - this is resulted to whenever unfulfilled ambitions and unconscious drives do not
materialize.
12. Regression – a person reverts toa pattern of feeling, thinking or behavior which was appropriate
to an earlierstage of development.
13. Sublimation – isthe process by which instinctual drives which consciously unacceptable
arediverted into personally and socially accepted channels. It is a positive andconstructive mechanism for
defending against own unacceptable impulses andneeds.
ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR
A. Definitions
Abnormal Behavior is abehavior that fails to meet the characteristics of a normal person such as:
freeexpression of personality; adequate security feeling; efficient contact withreality; adaptability to
group norms; emotional maturity; adequate selfknowledge; and Integrated and consistent personality.
Criminal Psychology is a study that deals on criminal behavior.
B. Typesof Abnormal Behavior
1. PERSONALITYDISORDER
It originates duringearly development process leading to maladaptive behavior.
Classification of Personality Disorder
<img> <img>
<img>Classification Characteristics
1. Passive-Aggressive Passive dependent aggressivedue to overindulgence.
2. Hysterical personality disorder Easilyexcitable emotional instability, dramatically
attention getting, immature, with tendencyto sexualize
<img> contacts with opposite sex.
3. Compulsive Personality Disorder Excessive concern forconformity, rigid, maybe intelligent
<img> but trait of characterexplains his undoing.
4. Paranoid Personality Hypersensitive unwarrantedsuspicion, jealousy, envy,
feelings of excessive importance
2. NEUROSES
Neurosesor psychoneuroses are behavioral disorder brought about by emotional
tensionresulting from frustration, conflicts, repression or insecurity. Theycompromise with reality by
developing imaginary ailments, phobias, obsessions, compulsion, anxiety ordepression.
Factors to be Considered in Understandingthe Causes of Neuroses

1. Predisposingor Constitutional Factors
2. ChildhoodDevelopment Patterns
3. TheImmediate Life Situation
4. TheCultural Factor
Classification of Neuroses According to the Most Striking Symptoms
1. Anxiety Reactions
Principallymanifested in diffused and consciously experience feelings of anxiety
andapprehension for which there seem to be no specific basis in reality.
2. Hysteria
Manifested byexperiencing disabilities which include paralysis of the limbs, intenseaches and
pains, deafness, blindness, loss of voice, continuous vomiting, heador hand tremors without any
pathological basis.
Forms of Hysteria
2.1 Amnesia- adisorder in which the individual cannot recall his or her name and remembers little or
nothing about the past.
Typesof Amnesia
a) Anterograde-the inability to retain information which has just been seen or read.
b) Retrograde-the inability to recall any event which took place during certain period oftime.
c) Localized-the inability to recall events which are related to a particular situation.
2.2 Fugue- an amnesia statewhere one wonders away from his or her home or usual surroundings and
whenawareness set in, there is no recollection as to how he or she came to bethere.
2.3 Multiple Personality- adramatic form of Hysteria where the patient develops two or more
separated andvery different personalities.
2.4 Somnambulism- adreamlike state where the person walks about and carries on certain
activitieswhich are not remembered later.
3. Psychastenia
A psychoneurotic conditionaccompanied by a vast range of mental and emotional symptoms
which cannot becontrolled. The person is fear-ridden by unreasonable dreads or phobias,
obsessionsand compulsion. Other symptoms of Psychastenia are unreasonable elation,constant
depression or over inhibition.
Formsof Psychastenia
3.1 Phobias- anirrational or exaggerated fear of an object, person, act or situation.
Characteristics of Phobia
a) Reasons for the fear do not make sense.
b) The fear paralyzes instead of enhances theability to deal with the problem.
c) The fear seems to be caused by the threat ofa discharge of self destructive aggressions.
SomeExamples of Phobias
a) Achluphobia or nyctophobia- fear of dark
b) Acrophobia- fear of high places
c) Aerophobia- fear of flying
d) Agoraphobia- fear of open spaces
e) Ailurophobia- fear of cats
f) Anglophobia- fear of pain
g) Amaxophobia- fear of vehicles and driving
h) Anthophobia- fear of flowers
i) Antrophobia- fear of people
j) Aquaphobia- fear of water
k) Arachnophobia- fear of spiders
l) Astraphobia- fear of thunder, lightning orstorms
m) Cheimophobia- fear of cold
n) Claustrophobia- fear of closed places
o) Gynophobia- fear of dogs
p) Dipsophobia- fear of drinking
q) Ecophobia or Oikophobia - fear of home
r) Electrophobia- fear of electricity
s) Erythrophobia- fear of blushing
t) Gamophobia-fear of marriage
u) Hematophobia- fear of blood
v) Hydrophobia- fear of water
w) Ideaphobia- fear of thoughts
x) Ochlophobia- fear of crowds
y) Ophidiophobia- fear of snakes
z) Ornithophobia- fear of birds
aa) Pathophobia- fear of disease
bb) Phobophobia- fear of developing a phobia
cc) Rypophobia- fear of dirt
dd) Sitophobia- fear of eating
ee) Taphophobia- fear of being buried alive
ff) Thermophobia- fear of heat
gg) Xenophobia- fear of strangers
3.2 Obsession- anidea or series of ideas which recur so frequently that it interferes withnormal
thinking.
3.3 Compulsion- anirresistible tendency to perform an act or ritual which the individual feels
tocompelled to carry out even though it it recognized as irrational- he or she mustdo so in order to
reduce the tension.
Examples of Compulsion
1. Arithmomania- the impulse to count everything.
2. Dipsomania-the impulse to drink liquor
3. Homicidalmania- the impulse to kill
4. Kleptomania-the impulse to steal
5. Megalomania-the impulse for fame or power
6. Pyromania-the impulse to set things on fire
7. Suicidalmania- the impulse to take one’s life
4. Traumatic Neuroses
Itis manifested in a situation where the individual fears for his or her safety.
5. Operational Fatigue
Otherwise known as war neuroses, itis manifested in response to a battle environment.
3.PSYCHOSES
Seriousmental illness where behavior is unpredictable. Psychotic persons have a whollyunrealistic
interpretation of the self and the life around them. Their ego haslost control over the personality.
Theyhave great mood swings- extreme depression to extreme exaltation. They are quitand docile at one
moment and hyperactive, even violent, the next. They aresocially inept.
Classification of Psychoses
1. Organic/Somatogenic
Stemfrom a wide variety of causes, but damage or injury to the brain or other partsof the central
nervous system is always involved.
Types of Organic Psychoses

2.1 Psychosesassociated with infectious disease
2.2 Psychosesassociated with toxins
2.3 Psychosesassociated with head injuries
2.4 Psychosesassociated with old age
Symptoms of Organic Psychoses

a) Impairment of intellectual functions
b) Emotional instability, shown by generalirritability or violent mood swings without apparent cause.
c) Inappropriate behavior and changes in generalconduct, including lack of interest in personal
appearance, neglect ofresponsibilities and an anti social behavior.
2. FunctionalPsychosis
Aserious mental disorder involving the total personality with no observable tissue damage.
Having no organic basis, theseailments are believed to result from years of living under emotional stress.
Formsof Functional Psychosis

2.1 Schizophrenia-apsychotic condition marked by withdrawal from reality, indifference
concerning everyday problems, andtendency to live in a world of fantasy. It was formerly called dementia
praecoxby Emil Kreaplin, a GermanPsychiatrist. The term schizophrenia was given by Eugene
Bleuler whichliterally means “splitting of theminds”. It may be simple (withdraws from social
contact); hebephrenic (fits of laughter orchildish giggling, grimacing for hours without apparent
reasons; catatonic (cycles of psychomotorreactions in stupor); paranoidSchizophrenia (marked by
delusions and hallucinations).
2.2 Affective Disorder-characterizedby periods of depression or elation orboth (manic, depressed and
mixed)
2.3 Paranoia-main symptom is characterized by suspicion.
Typesof Paranoia
a) PersecutoryParanoia- having delusions of persecution. The person believesthat some persons
are plotting to harm him or her in some way.
b) LitigiousParanoia- having delusions of both persecution and grandeur, andmay go to great
lengths to bring alleged persecutors to court.
c) EroticParanoia- also called amorous paranoia- having delusions that acertain person is in love
with him or her.
d) ExaltedParanoia- having grandiose delusions and believes him/ herself assomeone with great
power or importance; usually a religious crusader, a socialreformer, or inventor.
e) JealousParanoia- the most numerous, marked by extreme and irrationaljealousy.
4.ANTI-SOCIAL PERSONALITY
Thisis a mentally- disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon
whichsociety is based.
Characteristics of Anti-Personality
a) A classic manipulator or con artist.
b) One of the most significant characteristicsof this personality is the absence of conscience or any
guilt feeling.
c) The person has not incorporate the moralvalues of society into his life.
d) He is often a glib and convincing speaker andpresents himself extremely well.
e) The anti-social personality is selfish andstrives for physical pleasure.
f) Most of his pursuits revolves aroundmanipulating people to acquire personal gains.
g) He is often impulsive and demands immediatelysatisfaction.
h) He is unable to learn from past experiences.
He is also a chronic liar
4.ANTI-SOCIALPERSONALITY
Thisis a mentally- disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon
whichsociety is based.
a) A classic manipulator or con artist.
b) One of the most significant characteristicsof this personality is the absence of conscience or any
guilt feeling.
c) The person has not incorporate the moralvalues of society into his life.
d) He is often a glib and convincing speaker andpresents himself extremely well.
e) The anti-social personality is selfish andstrives for physical pleasure.
f) Most of his pursuits revolves aroundmanipulating people to acquire personal gains.
g) He is often impulsive and demands immediatelysatisfaction.
h) He is unable to learn from past experiences.
i) He is also a chronic liar
SEXUAL DEVIANCY
A. Definitions
Sexuality- behaviorassociated with relation between sexes and reproductive organ.
Normal Sexuality- sexualcompletion that leads to mature and adjusted individual capable of
enteringrelationships with a member of the opposite sex which are physically andmentally stable and
satisfying heterosexual.
Abnormal Sexuality/ Sexual Deviancy- sexual behavior which seek stimulation
and gratificationby means other than heterosexual.
B. Classification of SexualAbnormalities
1. As to Choice of Sexual Partner
Typesof Abnormality Characteristics

1. Heterosexua Sexualdesire towards opposite sex; socially
Andmedically acceptable
2. Homosexual Sexual desiretowards the same sex
3. Infantisexual Sexual desiretowards an immature person
4. Bestosexual Sexual desiretowards animals
5. Autosexual A form of selfabuse or solitary vice carried
without the cooperation ofanother person
6. Gerontophilia Sexualdesire with elder person
7. Necrophilia Sexualperversion characterized by erotic
desire or actual sexualintercourse with a corps
8. Incest Sexualrelations between person who by reason
of blend relationshipcannot legally married
2. Asto Instinctual Sexual Urge
Types Characteristics
1. Satyriasis Excessive sexualdesire of men to intercourse
2. Nymphomania Strongsexual feeling of a woman
3. Sexual Anesthesia Absence of sexual desire orarousal during
sexual act in women
4. Dyspareunia Painful sexual actin women
5. Vaginisimus Painfulspasm of the vagina during sexual act
6. Old Age Weakening ofsexual feeling in the elderly
3. Asto the Mode of Sexual Expression or Way of Sexual Satisfaction
1. Oralism( Irrumation) The use of mouth as a way of
sexualgratification such as Fellatio, Cunnilingus,Anilingus
2. Sado- Masochism Pain o cruel acts as afactor for gratification
(Algolagnia) suchas: sadism and masochism
3. Fetishism A form of sexual perversion where in the
realor fantasized presence ofan object or
bodily part is necessary for sexual stimulation
or gratification.
Ex. Anatomic, Clothing, Necrophilia, Odor,etc.
4.Asto the Parts of the Body
1. Sodomy Sexualact through the anus of another
human being
2. Uranism Sexualgratification is attached by
fingering, fondling the breast,licking parts of the body, etc.
3. Frottage Afrom of sexual gratification characterized by
the compulsivedesire of a person to rub his
sexual organ against some parts of the body of another
4. Pantialism Aform of sexual deviation wherein a person
has special affinity tocertain parts of the female body
5. As to Visual Stimulus
1.Voyeurism A form of sexualperversion characterized by
a compulsionto peep to see a person
undress or performother activities
2. Mixoscopia Sexualperversion wherein sexual pleasure is
(Scoptophilia ) attached by watching a couple undress or during
Theirsex intimacies
6.As to Number
1.Froilism Aform of sexual perversion in which
three (3)persons are participating in the
sexual orgies
(Suixante-neve)
2.Pluralism Aform of sexual deviation in which a group
of personparticipate in the sexual orgies
(sexual festival)
7.Other Sexual Deviates
1. Corpolalia A formof sexual deviation characterized by
the needto use obscene language to obtain
orgies
2. Don Juanism Itdescribes a form of sexual
deviation characterizedby
promiscuity and making seductionof
many women as part of his career
3. Indecent Exposure The willful exposure in public places ofone’s
(Exhibitionism) genitalorgan in the presence of other person’s
Usuallyof the opposite sex
HANDLING OF PERSONS WITH ABNORMAL ORDEVIANT BEHAVIOR
AbnormalBehavior Hints in Handling
1. Anxiety Reassurance
2. Depressed Putself on the shoes of the sufferer; place in the hospital;
Word of caution; alert of possiblesuicide
3. Obsessive-Compulsive Understand that sufferer isdisturbed and not crazy;
refer to appropriate facility
4. Phobia Supportive intervention
5. Psychoses Displayof guns, force and restraints should be avoided
Unlessthere is a manifestation of danger tolife and
send thepsychotic to the hospital. If he desists, be firm.
6. Psychopathy 1.Review arrest records

2.Recognize con-man’s glib conversation
3.Don’t bluff, he is a master of this and certainly
better than anybody
4. The best is to interview him afterknowing every detail
of the case.
5. Psychopathic can beat lie detector. He isimmune
to anxiety unless placed understress
6. Be firm and clear. Psychopath maybecharming but
can also make very angry and maymaneuver to
violate hisrights.
7. Drug- Dependent 1.Patience, but firm- the person is not himself

2. Keep himtalking to relieve the stress; use form
of restraints.
3. Do not place in drunk tank, butappropriate hospital
8. Paranoid Behavior 1. Understanding-never give theimpression that he

is crazy.
2.Friendliness & neutrality is usually the best approach
3. Do notfurther or heightens anxieties, to provoke anxiety is
toinvite violent reactions.
4.Assure the paranoidthat your presence is to help and protect
him.
5.Do not frighten or order the paranoid around with weapon.
Paranoidmay panic and react violently. However,not to let down guard. Remember,paranoid is
suicidal and homicidal.
CRISIS MANAGEMENT
I. INTRODUCTION
A. Definitions
1. Crisis- Came from the GREEK word CRISIS, which means to SEPARATE. Itis a turning point in
the progress of an affair or a series of events.
2. Emergency- Came from the LATIN word EMERGENTIA, which meansDIPPING; PLUNGING. It
is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling forimmediate action.
3. Crisis Management- An expert handling of a crisis or emergencyto reduce or eliminate danger or
damage, or the like, especially on the part ofthe government.
B. Emergency, Crisis and Disaster Distinguished
If the situationis still controlled and the response given is for the purpose of containing
thesituation from getting out of control then it is just an EMERGENCY. If the situationis already beyond
normal control what is happening is already a CRISIS. If the effects ofthe crises can no longer be
controlled even by its author, it is now a DISASTER.
C. Two EssentialElements of Crisis Management
1. Incident Management- Refers to anact containing the situation within certain level mostly by law
enforcementinterventions.
2. Consequence Management- An act focused on mitigation of adverse effects that may be
brought aboutby the incident by utilizing non-law enforcement elements such as medical andfire services.
D. Purpose of CrisisManagement
SALVARI VITAS (to save lives)
E. Objectives of CrisesManagement
1. Resolved without further incident
2. Safety of all participants
3. Apprehension of all participants
4. Accomplish the task within the framework of currentcommunity standards.
F. Theory of CrisesManagement
1. Contain and Negotiate
2. Protect the innocent from harm
3. Allow passage of time so that the perpetrators canbe reasoned with through negotiation
4. Allow the passage of time so that the response forcecan evaluate the situation gather
information, explore alternatives andformulate a plan of action
G. Musts in CrisesManagement
1. Rely on continuous flow of information from allsources
2. Press perpetrators to abandon their position
3. Receive, analyze and disseminate all information
4. Prepare for a rapidly escalating series of events
H. Types ofCrises /Emergencies
a. Man-Made Crises/Emergencies
1. Civil Disturbance
1.1 Labor strikes /demonstration
1.2 Riots
1.3 Anarchy
1.4 Welga ng Bayan
2 Revolt
2.1 Mutiny
2.2 Insurrection
2.3 Coup d' etat
3 Revolution
4 Border Incident
5 War
5.1 Conventional
5.2 Nuclear
6 Kidnapping
7 Hijacking
7.1 Air
7.2 Sea
7.3 Land
8 Hostage-taking
9 Terrorists Activities
10 Attacks /Raids on government installations/facilities & vitalfacilities
b. Natural Crises/Emergencies
1. Fire
2. Marine/Air Disaster
3. Structural Collapse
4. Hazardous Spills
5. Utilities Failure (Power, Water, telephone)
6. Nuclear Accidents
7. Food Scarcity/ Famine
8. Fuel Shortage
9. Pestilence/Epidemic
10. Floods
11. Volcanic Eruption
12. Earthquake
13. Tidal Wave
14. Typhoons
15. Drought
I. Phases of Crisis Management[Four(4) P’s]
a. Proactive Phase
1. Prediction
2. Prevention
3. Preparation
b. Reactive Phase
4. Performance (implementation and Contingency Plan)
a. Initial Action
b. Action (Negotiation or Tactical Action Intervention)
c. Post Action
J. Legal Regimes in Dealing withCrises
1. Section 6, ArticleXV, 1987 Constitution- The State shall establish andmaintain one police
force, which shall be national in scope and civilian incharacter, to be administered and controlled by a
National Police Commission.The authority of local executives over the police units in their jurisdictionshall
be provided by law.
2. Section 444 and 445,R.A. 7160 (Local Government Code)
The mayor shall act as the deputized representativeof the National Police Commission, formulate the
peace and order plan of theCity or Municipality, and upon its approval, implement the same; and as
such,exercise general and operational control and supervision over the local policeforcers in the city or
municipality.
3. Section 5 R.A. 6975as Amended (DILG Act of 1990)

The mayors shall exerciseoperational supervision and control over PNP units in their
respectivejurisdiction except during the thirty (30) day period immediately preceding andthe thirty (30)
day following any national, local and barangay elections.
Operational supervision and Control- the power to direct, superintend, oversee and inspect the
police unitsand forces, which shall include the power to employ and deploy units orelements of the PNP,
through the station Commander, to ensure public safety andeffective maintenance of peace and order
within the locality.
4. Executive Order No.309 s. 1987 and Executive No. 366 s. 1996 - CreatingNational Peace
and order Council, Local Peace and order Council and BarangayPeace and Order Committees respectively.
5. Memorandum Order No.21 - The government shall exhaust all peaceful meansin seeking a
resolution to a crisis to minimize, if not, prevent the loss oflife and destruction of property. If all peaceful
means are exhausted, thegovernment shall act promptly, decisively, and effectively, choosing from
thewhole range of police and military actions appropriate to the circumstance, orotherwise known as the
'final option".
6. PNP Manual on Crisismanagement s. 1996
II. HOSTAGE SITUATION
A. Hostage SituationDefined
A hostage situation is aset of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a
personcaptive with the use of force and threat of violence while the law enforcementofficers are in close
contact with the suspect and his captive.
B. Motives in HostageTaking
1. In political terrorism, reasons include showing thepublic that the government is unable to protect
its own citizens.
2. Hostage taking guarantees immediate media coverage,and after repeated hostage incidents, it is
the hope of the hostage takers thatthe government might overreact and become excessively restrictive
with its owncitizen, thus causing civil discontent and a grassroots movement to overthrowthe
government.
3. Warring nations seek peace after exchange ofhostages a guarantee of reciprocity
4. In urban guerrilla warfare, hostages are taken withlittle regard for law and order.
5. Law enforcement officers will most likely encounterhostage incidents that u\involve either criminal
or the mentally-disturbed.
6. A husband or wife may take a child hostage incustody battles.
7. A mentally disturbed person may take hostage inorder to right what he believed to be wrong.
8. Whatever the initial reason for hostage taking it isclear that the motive for holding hostages may
changes.
C. Categories ofHostage-Taker
1. Persons in Crisis - People who take hostages during a period of prolonged frustration,despair and
problems.
2. Psychotics - Mentally-ill people who take hostage during a period of psychiatricdisturbance.
3. Common Criminals - People who take hostages for personal, rather than ideological reason.
4. Prisoner - People who take hostages because of dissatisfaction and discontentregarding their living
condition in prison.
5. Political Terrorist - Ideologically-inspired individuals or groups of people who takehostages
because of political and ideological beliefs.
D. Priorities in HostageSituation
1. Preservation of Life
2. Apprehend hostage taker
3. To successfully negotiate; there must be need to live on the part of thehostage taker and a threat
of force by the authorities.
E. Four Courses ofAction that Can be Taken in a Hostage Taking Incident

1. The use of chemical agents to force the hostage-taker out of position.
2. Direct assault on the hostage-position either deception or by uniformedentry team
3. The use of marksmen to shoot and main the hostage taker.
4. Negotiation for the release of the hostages.
F. General OperationProcedures During Hostage Taking

1. Under all circumstances the use of force is justifiable only by virtue ofthe "Doctrine of SelfDefense",
and Defense of Stranger; as a last resort, and when all otherpeaceful means have been exhausted.
2. Whenever force is resorted, only necessary and reasonable to subdue orovercome a clear and
imminent danger.
3. In actual shootout with the suspect avoid panic firing.
4. Ensure that no bystanders are hit. Observe extreme caution in firing aweapon in the congested
area.
5. After the shootout check whether the suspect still poses danger or hasbeen wounded and maimed.
6. Use police sirens and megaphones to influence or warn offenders to stopand peacefully give up.
7. Use of force shall be tempered with such considerations as keeping onminds the safety of the
hostages and prevention of crossfire casualties orinjuries to third parties.
8. Immediate removal of casualtiesfrom the scene shall be undertaken after the necessary sketches,
pictures andother investigative requirements are accomplished victims' bodies shall besegregated from
those of the suspects.
9. Strictly respect human rights at all times.
G. OperationalProcedures and Guidelines During Hostage Situations

1. Safety of all participants-victims, suspects, police officers andbystanders is paramount
2. There shall be a Crisis Management Team (CMT) in every locality trainedand ready for deployment.
3. There shall be only one ground Commander in the area.
4. The incident area shall be condoned off.
5. Assaults shall be well planned and assaulting team must be alerted fordeployment in case
negotiations failed.
6. Negotiations shall be designated and no one shall be allowed to talk tothe suspects without
clearance from the negotiating panel or ground Commander.
7. An ambulance with a medical crew and a firetruck shall be detailed at theincident area.
8. Proper Coordination with all participating elements is necessary to unifyefforts in solving the crisis.
H. Tactical Proceduresto Followed in Hostage-taking Incident

1. Containment of theHostage Position
1.1 Stabilize the incident
1.2 Determine the exact location of the hostage-taker
1.3 Physically contain the action to the smallest area
1.4 Isolate the scene
1.5 Evacuating the adjoining areas
1.6 Blocking avenues for escape
2. Communication
2.1 By the use of telephone
2.2 By written notes
2.3 By the use of loudspeaker
2.4 By the use of bullhorn
2.5 By the use of megaphone
3. Visual and AudioSurveillance

3.1 Binoculars
3.2 Telescopes
3.3 Portable searching lights
3.4 Night vision devices
3.5 Television camera
3.6 Spike or contact microphone
3.7 Telephone
3.8 Intercoms
4. Assault Alternative
4.1 When the victims are in imminent danger of injury
4.2 When the victims are in imminent danger of death
4.3 When the hostage takes gained the control of crime or potential victims
4.4 If hostages have already been killed
I. Important Factors tobe Considered in a Hostage Taking Incident

1. Intelligence Gathering- It must focus on identifying the hostage takers and hostages,
determiningthe hostage-takers capabilities to resist an assault and identifying the weaponbeing used.
2. Motive- Determines firstwhat type of hostage-takers you are dealing with, identifying the
hostagestakers will lead to his motives.
3. Hostage Location- The exact locationof the hostages and how they are secured.
4. Setting- A detailedknowledge of the hostage scene’s immediate vicinity. A complete
reconnaissanceof the hostage area; terrain leading to the hostages site; obstruction; areasof
concealment; viewing points; possible and/or potential escape route;location of doors, windows and
entrances; exits and fire escapes.
5. Formulation of the Plan- In casethat assault will be opted, it must be planned to occur at a time
that permitsthe assault team members to take their position without detection as well as tolimit the
opportunity of the hostage takers to resist because when thesurprised element is used, the hostage-
takers have a reduced capability toreact violently, escape, hide or harm the hostages.
J. The Command Post
a. Command Post Considerations

1. Establish outer and inner perimeters
2. Safe accessible routes to responding personnel
3. Defense against snipers, mobs onlookers
4. Sufficient parking
5. Adequate staging area
6. Availability of water supplies, restrooms andtelephones
7. Accessibility to helicopters
8. Maintain communication lines
9. Notify administrators
10. Maintain command post chronological log
11. Only authorized personnel will be given access
12. Public Information Officer (PIO) to give pressbriefings
b. Command Post Staffing

1. Commander
2. Asst. Commander
3. Negotiators
4. Emergency Services team Tactical Adviser
5. Radio Operator
6. Intelligence Officers
7. Investigators
8. Staff Psychologists
9. Chronographers
10. Communications Specialists
11. Liaison Personnel
12. Police Administrators
K. Time-Events BarricadeMatrix
Time
Incident Matrix
-o-
Incident occurs
0+1
Notification
0+2
Police Response
0+5
Location (Most dangerous time
0+6
Confrontation 9firearms, discipline)
0+7
Notification (of the dispatcher & CMT)
0+8
Containment
0+9
Preparation (for the arrival of CMT)
0+10
Isolation
0+15
Evaluation
0+16
Evacuation
0+17
Segregation
0+19
Pre-Conflict Management team Actions
0+25
Actions of the Crisis Management Team
0+26
Pre-Negotiations Actions
0+30
Negotiations Begins
III. HOSTAGE NEGOTIATIONAND RECOVERY

A. Definition
NegotiationApproach is a systematic process of starting to work on a task ofnegotiating and dealing
with hostage takers, wherein the primary considerationare the arrangements of terms and conditions
between the authorities andsuspects necessary fir the release of the hostages.
B. Principles of Hostage Negotiation and Recovery
1. Thehostage has no value to the hostage taker. His only value is a tool to get whatthe he wants; not
from the hostage but from the authorities.
2. Prioritiesin hostage situations is preservation of life and the apprehension of hostagetaker, recover,
and protect property.
3. Hostagesituation must not go violently, for the interest of the hostage, the hostagetaker and the
authorities. In any case, if it goes violent, the authoritiesmust always come out the victor.
4. Tosuccessfully negotiate, there must be a need to live on the part of the hostagetaker because a
hostage taker who is bent of killing himself is anon-negotiable case.
C. The Crisis Negotiating Team (CNT)

Providesverbal and tactical support to the SWAT Team, responsible for controlling abarricaded suspect or
hostage situation.
ThreeKey Objectives:
1. Safetyfor all people involved
2. Saferelease or rescue of hostage
3. Apprehensionand prosecution of suspect involved
Composition
1. TeamSupervisor
2. PrimaryNegotiator
3. SecondaryNegotiator
4. Psychologist
Note:
Commander should Not Serve as Negotiator because:
1. HTwill have a sense of importance;
2. Hemay make impossible demand, knowing that he is dealing with Commander;
3. Conflictof Commander as negotiator and Commander; and
4. Asa cardinal rule, Commander don’t negotiate, negotiator don't command.
D. Hostage takers Intent and Wants
Types
Intent
Wants
1. Professional Criminal
Crime
Escape
2. Psycho Case
Attention
Varies - vindication, relief
3. Prisoners
Attention
Escape, better treatment
4. Terrorist
Attention
Political, economic leverage
E. Handling of Specific Hostage Situation
Type of Hostage Taker

Description
Proper Handling
1. Professional Criminal
Usually the easiest to deal with considered relatively rational thinker, after assessing the situation and
weighing the odds, in most cases, come to terms with the police
Show force but refrain from unnecessary violence or useless killing.
2. Psychotic Individual
Presents different and somewhat complex problems. Tends to be irrational, and less predictable. These
actions, works and the demands he makes are valuable clue to his mental condition. He harbors great
inner conflicts and frustrations.
The hostage taker may feel a degree of pleasure form has predicament as he finds himself important,
being a center of attraction. Prolonging tome is essential that will positively work for authorities.
3. Terrorist
A more difficult hostage situation- viewed a psychopathic with a cause, under a leader of the group.
When caught they rationalize by claiming to be revolutionaries a situation they resolve to die for the
cause.
Their causes may deteriorate in the passage of time. In any case, if they kill one of the several hostages,
the negotiators then must set to save the remaining hostages - they will likely kill them all.
F. Immediate Actions of the Negotiator Upon Arrival at theScene of Incident

1. Containment - controlling situation and area by peopleinvolved. Other people bystanders must be
obliged to get from the areas as theymay add more problems.
2. Established Contract - Immediately after positioning atadvantage position, communicate with the
leader. He may introduce himself bysaying "My name is ___________, I am a ___________. I am willing
tohelp. Never tell him your rank; the hostage taker might think you can giveall. So that he may ask for
impossible demand. Neither, should the negotiatorgive the feeling that he has the authority to decide. Do
not bluff.
3. Time Lengthening - Give more time for the police toorganize and coordinate plan of action.
4. Telephone Negotiation technique - Be the caller, planand prepare, be ready with graceful exit,
and discipline yourself to listen.Where a demand is impossible to get, still time by explaining that you
need totalk to other people. Hold on to your concession. But release of sick oldpeople in exchange. When
there is no demand, hostage taker may really have nodemand at all.
5. Need to face to face - Don't be over anxious, prepare forproper psychological, physical and
emotional confrontation. Wear body armor,posses a weapon, but if ask to come without a weapon,
ensure that theyshould too should lay down arms before entering. In entering, see to t that youre
protected with tactical back-up. And consider that hostage taker might havebody trap in some portions of
the area, door or window of the building. Comingup on face-to-face situation, maintain proper distance,
observe their movement.Elicit a promise or motivate them to surrender. In retreating, or in gettingout of
the room, face hostage taker slowly back out the door with good cover ortactical back-up.
6. Surrender Approach- starts with a positive approach; act as ifhostage taker will surrender. Do not
talk too much. Gradually ask him tosurrender. Reassurance is the wisest thing to do. Talk details of
surrenderprocess. And explain why not is better than later.
Advantage ofTelephone Negotiations

1. Easierto say No
2. Easierto conclude the conversation
3. Conversationis quicker
4. Importantitems are more easily committed
5. Callerhas the advantage
G. Hostage Takers' Demands

Demands of Hostage Takers
1. Negotiable
a. Food
b. Cigarettes
c. Drinks
d. Alcohol
e. Transportation
f. MediaCoverage
g. Freedom
2. Not Negotiable
a. Weapons/Ammunition
b. Drugs
c. Release of prisoners
d. Exchange of hostages
Handling Demands
1. Avoidasking for demands
2. Avoidoffering anything
3. Donot give anything not specifically asked for and should not give more thanabsolutely necessary to
fulfill the agreement
4. Nevergive anything without getting something in return
5. Avoiddismissing any demand as trivial
6. Ignoredeadlines and do not set deadlines for the incident resolution
7. Negotiatefirst for the sick or injured hostages
8. Monitorthe types of demands
9. Assesthe personality type of the hostage taker based on the types of the demandsmade
10. Delay,impress hostage taker even simple demands are hand to get; that you need totalk with
commander or other people etc.
H.Effects of Time in the Negotiation

a. Positive Effect of Time
1. Hostage taker will wear downemotionally/psychologically
2. Hostagetaker have more demand for food and water
3. Anxietyreduces; hostage taker will be given a chance to organize his true self.
4. Hostagetaker's rationally increase
5. Hostage taker-negotiator relationships getimprove
6. Hostagetaker's demand may be reduces
7. Stockholm Syndrome may develop
b.Negative Effect of Time

Exhaustion and boredom may havecreeping effects on both hostage takers and authorities; for
hostage takers mayeventually commit suicide or may forget all demands altogether.
I.On Life and Death Negotiation

1. Keepin mind that in one H.T., show of force may be unnecessary
2. Speakfirmly but nit in threatening manner
3. Donot be overfriendly, it may be interpreted as weakness
4. HTshould not be driven to desperation (give hope, security etc.)
5. Showof force in necessary if there are several hostage taker (HT)
J. Failure of Negotiation ( or Situation Permits)

1. Final move must be made swiftly withoutlooking back
2. Any assault must proceed with skill andprofessionalism, when:
a. HTbegins executing hostages
b. HTthrows out first body
K.Concluding a Hostage Incident

1. Removeperpetrators as quickly as possible
2. Secure the Scene
3. Brief Media
4. Collect Evidence
5. Assemble involved personnel
6. Retrieve equipment
7. Identify all property damaged
8. Identify critique data and handledebriefing

TERRORISM
TERRORISM
A . Definitions
Thecalculated use of violence or the threat of violence to attain goals, oftenpolitical or ideological in
nature. Through fear, intimidation or coercion. Itusually involves a criminal act often symbolic in nature
and intended toinfluence an audience beyond the immediate victim.
Aviolent criminal behavior designed to generate fear in the community or asubstantial segment of it, for
political purposes.
B. Three Groups or Terrorist

1.National terrorist-a terrorist who operates and aspires to win political power within a single
nation.
2. Transnational Terrorist- a terrorist whooperates across national borders, whose actions and
Political aspirations affectindividual of more than one nationality.
3. International Terrorist- a terrorist who is controlled by, and whoseactions represent the
interest
of a sovereign state.
C. Group Classification and Motivation ofTerrorist

1. Minority Nationalistic Group - groups fighting themajority of the community where the support
base will depend on ethnic,religious, or linguistic minorities at odds with the majority community.
2. Marxist Revolutionary Group- the terroristmovement is characterized by its possession of
coherent Marxist, ideology, orany persuasion, and of a long-term strategy for bringing about a
socialistrevolution.
3. Anarchist Group- there who bring lawlessness and disorder,which is natural state in which human
exist
4. Pathological Groups- A phenomenon of individuals ratherthan specific groups. Their motivations
normally have more to do with personalinadequacy, hatred of family or specifically identified persons or
things, thanwith acquired ideology.
5. Neo-Fascist and Extreme Right Wings Groups- Those who appear tocounter the activities of
the left and may pose a more serious threat tosecurity forces than the more traditional terrorist groups.
6. Ideological Mercenaries- It is new for ofterrorism from man and women, who for the sake of
shared ideology and commonfaith in worldwide revolution, rather than money, are ready to cross-
frontiersto pursue their causes.
D. Phases of a terrorist Attack
1. Pre-incident Phase- The planning of the event, normally based onthe intentions short-rang
objectives and long-term strategy and on informationand experience. This is by for the most important
for it involveintelligence-gathering activities through surveillance, target penetration andeven the use of
informants, logistics preparations, including he acquisitionand transportation of radios, arms, ammunition
and explosives, and rehearsals.During this phases secrecy and operations security are of outmost
important forsuccess.
2. Initiation Phase- This is the point of no return. It is the event thatmarked the beginning of the
operation. It is marked by movement of theobjective, followed by the detonation of a bomb, or an
ambush. The physicaltaking of hostages. It is the most unnerving for the terrorist since they haveno
absolute control over the consequences.
3. Climax Phase- It may follow the initiation phases as in a single bombincident, or may host for
days or weeks as in a live hostage situation. Theclimax marks the end of the incident.
4. Post-Incident Phase- it us the time when the terrorist regroupand engage in self-criticism. The
criticism will provide valuable input for thepre-incident phases of subsequent operations.
a. Common Tactics ofTerrorist
1. Bombing
2. Hoaxes
3. Arson
4. Hijacking
5. Ambush
6. Kidnapping
7. Hostage-taking
PART III: ANALYZINGTEST ITEMS
Direction: Choose the letter ofthe best answer. There is only one correct answer.
1.In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped expand a greatdeal of emotional,
physicaland psychic energy, hence,
a. Swift and precise attack will be oneadvantage for the authorities
b. Shortening the time will pressed him tosurrender
c. Prolonging the passage of time shall wearthem down
d. Aggravating their stress will lead them tosurrender
2.The following are manifestations of a calm attitude of a negotiator which areadvisable in dealing with a
hostage situation except:
a. Avoid words/ actions that could have theappearance of ego threat
b. Be firm and avoid indecision orambivalence
c. Build a rapport with the hostage taker
d. Giving the hostage taker of their demandswhich are negotiable
3.When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they
were left with three options, a) Choose martyrdome,kill hostages and commit suicide, b) lessen demands
to more realisticproportions; and c) surrender. If they choose martyrdome and kill hostages, theuseful
action is---
a. Attack themswiftly with precision
b. Withhold the media from terrorist
c. Give all of their demands
d. Let the hostages killed
4.A strong attachment of the hostage victim to their captors after a long periodof captivity, by which they
become a sympathizer of the hostage takers
a. Hostage Victim Syndrome c. StockhlomSyndrome
b. Hostage Trauma Syndrome d. Attachment Syndrome
5.In a hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness andwillingness to listen can
be shown by
a. A posture of a folded arms in a dominantposition
b. Calmly repeating words of comfort orassurance
c. By not attempting to trick or lie
d. Keeping arms open and with other gesturethat indicates that you are willing to negotiate
6.The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is
a. To accept their beliefs as being true
b. To try to commence them that their beliefsare wrong
c. To show them that they are just crazy
d. To try to bluff or trick them
7.The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate except:
a. Fears of police assault and punishment
b. Criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. They are familiar with police operationsand tactics
d. Their ultimate desire is to surrender andtheir possible punishment could be mitigated
8.Which of the following is not the reason why dealing with the terrorist hostagetakers is difficult?
a.Terrorists are usually highly-trained combatants who have been politically
andideologically indoctrinated
b. Terrorists acts as part of a group, andtheir behavior will be pressured by group dynamics.
c. The terroristhostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts of principles that arenot easy to
resolve
d. Most of theterrorist groups receive training in the techniques that will be used againstthem in
the country chosen for theattack.
9.To control the hostage-taking situation it means the following conditions arepresent, except
a. Absolutecontainment of the perpetuator
b. By placing a set-up for a bargainingposition
c. Evaluation and isolation of the targetarea
d. Effective command and control activitiesfor coordination and proper decision- making
10.The negotiators in hostage-taking incident should strive to
a. Be mediators not arbitrators
b. Refute all views of the terrorists
c. Promise that all their demands be met
d. Set the pace, mood and topic ofconversation be themselves
11.A negotiation team should always have an
a. Officer in charge c.Sharpshooter
b. Media men d.Photographer
12.One of the following is not a terrorist tactics
a. Bombing c.Assassination
b. Hostage-taking d. Media exposure
13.Which of the following is not a terrorist goal?
a. Worldwide/ local recognition
b. Disruption of community and mobility
c. Harassment, embarrassment weakening ofgovernment
d. Understanding of social environment
14.There are three categories of terrorists which of the following does not belongto the classification of
terrorist
a. Crusaders c.Criminals
b. Crazies d.Preachers
15.It is an effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniquesfor dealing with sudden
violent acts of terrorists
a. Crisis Management c. StressManagement
b. Hostage negotiation d.Police Analysis
16.Kidnappers may ________their kidnap victims, due to attritional factors, use ofnegotiations, and use
of force by law enforcement authority
a. Kill c.Ransom
b. Keep d.Release
17.In hostage negotiations, one good communication techniques is thru the use of -
____________opening statements
a. Specific c.Trembling
b. Aggressive d.Broad
18.The negotiators in any hostage situation must be credible,________, collectedand trained
a. Opportunist c.Aggressive
b. Cool d. Coward
19.In urban are alike Metro Manila, the communist terrorist commonly used _______in their assassination
activities
a. Bladed weapons c. Handguns
b. Grenades d.Machine Guns
20.The NPA sparrows capitalize on these activities of their targets in order toassassinate them
a. Extra- curricular activities c. Patternedmovements
b. Limited movements d. Leisure activities
21.Collection of money or goods, from the people by the insurgents is known as:
a. Pledge c. Forced taxation
b. Support d.Contribution
22.Which of the following is not one of the tactical procedures in hostage- takingsituation
a. Containment of the hostage position
b. Communication and surveillance
c. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
d. Assault alternative
23. Itis characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
a. Psychoses c.Neuroses
b. Abnormality d.Psychopathy
24. Adistortion or reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.
a. Psychoses c.Neuroses
b. Abnormality d. Psychopathy
25. Studythat deals with criminal behavior.
a. CriminalSociology c.Criminal Psychology
b. Criminology d. Criminal Psychiatry
26. Personalitydisorder is defined as the aberration in the development process leading tomaladaptive
behavior. Maladaptive behavior means:
a. Falsesensory perception
b. Theperson has a false belief
c. Deviation from morality or acceptable normality
d. Delusionalthinking
27. Hallucinationis experience by having
a. Falsebelief c. maybe awarebut could not
b. False sensory perception d. deviation
frommorality or acceptable normality
28.Delusion ismanifested by a person who
a. Deviatesfrom morality or acceptable normality
b. Has false belief
c. Hasfalse sensory perception
d. Psychophysiologicaldisorder
29. Whena woman does not want to have a heterosexual relationship but seek to have abasic
attention or love, and when she gets it, she is fainted. That woman isclassified as suffering—
a. Passive-aggressivedisorder c.
Compulsivepersonality
b. Hysterical personality disorder d. Depressive
neuroses
30. Itis characterized by the general loss of interest to environment, which includehis home, family,
work or schooling and a tendency to be more critical withoutjustification or apparent reason.
a. Generalanxiety c. DepressiveNeuroses
b. Anxietyneuroses d. psychoses
31. Whena person is experiencing a delusion of persecution or grandeur or auditoryhallucination, he is
suffering—
a. Simpleschizophrenia c.Dissociative Neuroses
b. Paranoidschizophrenia d. Hebeborenic schizophrenia
32. Aperson who has unimpaired intellect but lost a power of self-control. Itincludes unprincipled
businessman, crooked lawyers, high pressured salesman
a. Psychopathic behavior c.Psychotic behavior
b. NeuroticBehavior d. Paranoid behavior
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
33. Itsmain cause is the parent rejection, absence or parental discipline which ifpresent, is inconsistent
and lenient in form during the early childhooddevelopment.
a. Paranoidbehavior c. Psychoticbehavior
b. Neuroticbehavior d.psychopathic
behavior
34. Itis characterized by high level of anxiety, suspiciousness, distrust are coreelements; seclusive, don't
confide to others, if he does, expect betrayal, ifthere is a laughter suspect that it is directed to him
a. Paranoid behavior c.Neurotic behavior
b. Psychoticbehavior d. Psychopathic
behavior
35. Partof the natural development of an adolescent are grown,
_________ andmaturation.
a. Playing c. Working
b. Learning d.Singing
36. Abranch of psychiatry that deals with the evaluation,
prevention and cure ofcriminal behavior.
a. Criminology c.Psychology
b. Criminal Psychiatry d.Psycho
37. Behaviorseen most members of the same community
a. DeviantBehavior c.Average behavior
b. Abnormal d. Unusual
38. Anabnormal mental condition whereby a person perform an
act while sleeping
a. Delirium c. Somnambulism
b. Severeabnormality d.Somnolencia
39. Astate of confusion of the mind characterized by incoherent speech,hallucinations, delusions,
restlessness, and apparently purposeless motions.
a. Delirium c.Somnambulism
b. Severeabnormality d. Somnolencia
40. Astate whereby a person is half asleep or in condition
between sleep and beingawake
a. Delirium c. Somnambulism
b. Severe abnormality d. Somnolencia
41. Asopposed to introvert, a person highly adaptive to living and derivingsatisfaction from external
world; he is interested in people and things thanideas, values and theories.
a. Selfcentered individual c.Conceited
b. Extrovert d.Exhibitionist
42. Atransmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease,etc. form parents
offspring.
a. Heredity c.Environment
b. Inheritance d. Introvert
43. Anuncontrollable morbid propensity to steal, or pathological
stealing.
a. Kleptomania c.Legal insanity
b. Phobia d. Introvert
44. Amorbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of
religious feeling.
a. Mania c. Mania Fanatica
b. Delusion d. Legal insanity
45. Morbidcraving, usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies.
a. Sexmaniac c. Masochism
b. Necrophilism d. Bestialism
46. Aterm applied to a specialist in the study of mental disorders; sometimesinterchangely used
with psychiatrist.
a. Anthropology c. Psychology Expert
b. Alienist d.Behaviorist
47. Asexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from
being demented orcruelly treated.
a. Maturation c. Bestialism
b. Masochism d.Megalomania
48. PSSupt.Jessie Villanueva is the highest ranking PNP Officer who first to arrive in ahostage taking
incident. As a rule he servers now as a ground commander on thesaid crisis. Having decided to conduct
hostage rescue operations, the objectsare as follows, except one--
a. Ensurethat the hostages are safe or unharmed, and
set free
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to thedemands of the hostage takers
c. Hostage-takersdesist from his threats
d. Hostage-takerscome to the fold of the law by
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
49. Ina hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a
“Cardinal Rule”_____
a. Tobear a weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
face-to-face.
b. Seekbetter alternative than a negotiated agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Neversay "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
50. Hostagesituations happen everywhere and almost every time but whatever or whoever
thehostage maybe, when there is a threat to life, then it is a crisis situationand it must be managed for
the purpose of no other but "SALVARIVITAS", which means
a. To save lives c.to kill the hostage-taker
b. Toneutralize the hostage taker d.to free the
hostage
51. Consideredas a "Mortal Sin" in hostage negotiation.
a. Givingall the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Actingthat would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. Deceivingand bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
52. ThePNP Operational Procedures Manual follows the 3S Principle in dealing withhostage-taking
situations. These 3S are composed of the following, except one
a. SingleCommand
b. Single Commander and Negotiator
c. SingleNegotiating Party
d. SingleAccess to Communication
53.This part of man’s personality is present at birth representing unconsciousbiological drives for sex,
food and other life-sustaining necessities andfollows the “pleasure principle” which requires instant
gratification and hasno concern for the rights of others.
a.Id c. Superego
b. Ego d. Alter ego
54. Astage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex c. doing gender
b. Electra complex d. chivalryhypothsis
55. Aserious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawalfrom reality.
a. Psychosomatic illness c. Psychoticism
b. Psychoneurosis d. Psychosis
56. Mentally disturbed person who opposed the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath
57.Defense mechanism that enables individuals to justify their behavior tothemselves and others by
making excuses or formulating fictitious, sociallyapproved arguments to convince themselves and others
that their behavior islogical and acceptable.
a. sublimation c. projection
b. fantasy d. rationalization
58. Itoccurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration c.conflict
b. anxiety d. apathy
59.This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or stateof affairs at the same time
repulsion towards something associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. avoidance-approach
60.Process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or feeling that causepain, shame or guilt.
a. identification c. regression
b. suppression d. fixation
61.This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traitsby emphasizing a
desirable type of behavior.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
62. An aggregate observable responses of anorganism to internal and external stimuli.
a. human behavior c.behavior
b. personality d. attribute
63.Process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
a. actualization c. learning
b. thinking d. feeling
64. Afield of medicine that specializes in the understanding, diagnosis, treatment,and prevention of
mental problems.
a. psychology c. psychiatry
b. philosophy d. sociology
65.Type of conflict that occurs when there are two desirable but mutuallyexclusive goals.
d. multiple
66.Conflict transpired when there are two courses of action, each of which hasboth pleasant and
unpleasant consequences.
d. multiple
67.Process of excluding into the consciousness a thought or feeling that causespain, shame, or guilt.
a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation
68. Anattempt to disguise or cover up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits byemphasizing a desirable
type.
69.Interpreting of behavior in way that is more acceptable to the self by usingreasoning and alibis to
substitute causes.
70.Region of the mind which the perceptionof an individual whether within or outside is brought into
awareness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
71.Materials of which one is not aware of but with the effort maybe brought to theconsciousness.
72.Region of the mind which an individual is not aware of.
73.This part of the psychic structure is the source of instinct, instinctiveenergy, occupies the unconscious
region, reservoir of percept, libido, habittendencies, pleasure principle region, immoral, illogical, no unity
of purposeand the repressed materials join or pleasure it.
a. id c.superego
b. ego d. alter ego
74.Part of the psychic structures merges with the id. It is mostly conscious andpartly unconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
75.Outgrowth modification of the ego. It is generally unconscious and partlyconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
76.False interpretation of an external stimulus.
a. hallucination c.delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
77. itresults from the degeneration or disorder of the brain characterized by generalmental weakness,
forgetfulness, and loss of coherence and total inability toreason.
a. melancholia c. amnesia
b. dementia d. apathy
78. Afalse or erroneous belief in something, which is not a fact.
a. hallucination c.delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
79. Anexcessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situationor object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
80. Asexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from being demented orcruelly treated.
a. sadism c. bestiality
b. masochism d.megalomania
81. Anamnesia state where one wonders away from home or usual surroundings and whenawareness set
in, there is no recollection as to how he or she came to bethere.
a. insanity c. multiple personality
b. somnambulism d.fugue
82. Themost tolerated way of handling frustration. It is a man’s last result when aperson attempts to
overcome fear from an anticipated situation or event.
a. coping mechanism c. aggression
b. defense mechanism d.fight-flight
83.This is a sudden and irresistible force compelling a person to the consciousperformance of some
action without motive or forethought.
a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
84. Thisis impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an inability toachieve it.
a. masturbation c.prostitution
b. exhibitionism d.frigidity
85.This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and compellingneed for sexual
gratification by any technique, other than willing coitusbetween man and woman and involving actions
that are directly results ingenital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
86.Animals are used for the achievement of sexual excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
87. Theachievement of sexual pleasure though clandestine peeping.

a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
88.Nick, a chemist, after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is saidto be:
a. olfactory c. auditory
b. cutaneous d. gustatory
89.Bong, who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification with another manmanifests what deviant
sexual behavior?
a. lesbianism c. homosexuality
b. pedophilia d. incest
90. Mr.La Paz, a person working in a funeral parlor, dreams of having sexualintercourse with a corpse.
What type of sexual deviation did he commit?
a. necrophilia c.bestiality
b. pedophilia d. none
91. Itis crime inspired by another crime that has been publicized in the news mediaor fictionally or
artistically represented in which the offender incorporatesaspects of the original offense.
a. crime of imitation c.publicized crime
b. inspirational crime d.copycat crime
92. Apersonality disorder characterized by suspiciousness, hypersensitivity,rigidity, envy, excessive self-
importance, and argumentativeness plus atendency to blame others for one's own mistakes and failures
and to ascribeevil motives to others.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
93. Apersonality disorder which is characterized by a lifelong history of inabilityto conform to social
norms.
a. anti-social personality
b. narcissistic personality
c. paranoid personality
d. schizotypal personality
94. Thefirst step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control c.negotiation
b. assault d. traffic control
95.Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particulardefense mechanism?
a. repression c.sublimation
b. displacement d.projection
96. Agroup of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with theirhostages; their
demand is geared towards:
a. revenge c.economic gain
b. escape d. vindication
97. Themost important person in a hostage situation:
a. negotiator c. hostage taker
b. commander d. hostage
98. Youare the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is found at the scene ofthe crime with
several onlookers. As a rule, you are not allowed to expressopinion. Why?
a. no useful purpose will beserved
b. you do not know the cause ofdeath
c. the killer may be around
d. your opinion may influence thenegotiator
99. Adissociative disorder in which the individual shifts abruptly and repeatedlyfrom one personality to
another as if more than one person were inhabiting thesame body. This is commonly known as "split
personality disorder.“
a. amnesia
b. multiple personality disorder
c. Psychogenic Fugue State
d. Depersonalization
100.Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people
101.The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should notnegotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
102.These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
103. Ahostage taker is characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
a. mentally deranged
b. suffers servere depression andmental aberration
c. sociopath personality
d.mentally balanced
104.These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation:
a. guns and ammunition c. drinks
b. foods d. all of these
105.The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault andpunishment
b. criminals are usually rationalthinkers
c. they are familiar with policeoperations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is tosurrender
106.Last option in hostage crisis:
a. a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. traffic control d. assault
107. Itis any incident in which people are being held by another person or personsagainst their will,
usually by force or coercion, and demands are being made bythe perpetrator.
a. kidnapping c. crisis management
b. hostage incident d. abduction
108.“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b.by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political andideological belief
109.This is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault operation whenevernegotiation fails.
a. medical team c. negotiation team
b.tactical team d.snipers
110. Inpsychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is called;
A. eros C. animus
B.thanatos D. lupus
CS 3 – Human Behavior and Crisis Management

FINAL EXAMINATION
(CS 3 – Human Behavior and Crisis Management)
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. In terms in handling during hostage situation, usually the easiest to deal with considered
relatively rational thinker after assessing the situation and weighting the odds, in most cases comes to terms which the police,
refrain from unnecessary violence or useless killings.
A. Psychotic individual C. Unprofessional Criminal
B. Professional Criminal D. Neurotic criminal
2. This must be used to asses potentially dangerous situation and bring the parties together in good time to discuss how to
resolve
the problems before they become critical.
A. Police management techniques C. Crisis management techniques
B. Personal management techniques D. Tactical Management Technique
3. The process of dealing with pressurized situation in a way, which plans, organizes, directs, and controls a number of
unrelated
operations and deciding the decision making process of those in charge to a rapid but unhurried resolution of the
acute problem
faced by the organization.
A. Stress management C. Police management
B. Crisis Management D. Personnel Management
4. It can be used deliberately by people attempting to enforce their point of view or accidentally by Some colossal
misjudgment or
long history of compound errors.
A. Conflict C. Crisis
B. Negotiation D. Critics
5. It is very important in dealing with hostage situation by police negotiator.
A. Physical training
B. Knowledge in sociology
C. Knowledge in different dialects from the major dialects in our country.
D. A and C only
6. It is one of the negotiators action.
A. Establish contact with hostage taker
B. Know the identity of the hostage taker
C. time lengthening
D. A and C only
7. It is a rule in crisis management
A. Commander shall always be the negotiator
B. Commander does not negotiate
C. Negotiator does not command
D. B and C only
8. Controlling the area with persons directly involved also means
A. Time lengthening action of the negotiator
B. Containment
C. B and C only
D. Involvement
9. If the hostage taker refused to talk, the following should be done by the negotiator.
A. Recommend attack
B. Decide to introduce the negotiators real name and rank position
C. Continue to talk and negotiate
D. Proceed to another plan
10. It must be done whenever a demand from the hostage taker is given.
A. Don’t get concession at once, subject interpretation that every demand could be achieved easily
B. Give it immediately to the hostage taker
C. Delay the giving of the demand to impress the hostage taker that even simple demand are hard to get.
D. A and C only
11. It must be done during face to face negotiation.
A. Maintaining distance with the object is not necessary, what is important is that the negotiator
Had a face to face meeting with the object.
B. Be very more anxious
C. Enter the premises without gun pointed at you.
D. B and C only
12. A positive effect of time.
A. Hostage taker rationally increases.
B. The relationship of the subject and negotiator improves.
C. Emotional and psychological problems of of the subject further increases.
D. A and B only
13. It must be taken into consideration in conducting assault.
A. Hostage state of mind C. Negotiators appearance
B. Negotiators State of mind D. Hostage taker state of mind
14. During the surrender approach, the following must be done

A. Start with Positive approach
B. Its better to the negotiator to talk and talk.
C. Gradually ask the subject to surrender
D. A and C
15. It is an advantage of communication between the hostage taker and negotiator E
A. It lessens tension of the hostage taker
B. Gives more time for authorities to plan and coordinate course of action
C. It is impersonal
D. A and B only
16. They are viewed as psychopaths with a cause, under a leader or group. When caught they
Rationalize by claiming to be revolutionaries.
A. Professional criminals C. Terrorist
B. Psychotic individual D. Neurotic
17. It is a kind of sociopath personality which is unable to deny gratification, so if hostage is a human rape is probability.
A. Sociable personality C. Paranoid
B. Impulsive personality D. Temperament attitude
18. A person who believes threatened, persecuted with deeply ingrained suspicion of people.
A. Paranoid C. Professional criminal
B. Sociopath D. Neurotic
19. During hostage situation this person presents different and somewhat complex problem. He harbors great inner conflicts
and
frustrations. He may even feel a degree of pleasure from his precarious predicament, as he finds himself important
being at the
center of attraction a position in his unique life.
A. Professional individual C. Psychotic individual
B. Terrorist D. Neurotic
20. A type of hostage taker whose want is vindication or relief.
A. Psycho case ( deviant ) C. Prisoners
B. Professional Criminal D. Terrorist
21. A type of hostage taker whose want is vindication or relief.
A. Terrorist C. Mentally drained
B. Professional criminal D. Neurotic Criminal
22. A type of hostage taker whose wants is political, economic leverage.
A. Prisoners C. Terrorist
B. Psycho case ( Deviant) D. Neurotic
23. A type of hostage taker whose want is to escape, better treatment.
A. Professional criminal C. Prisoners
B. Psycho case ( deviant ) D. Neurotic
24. A type of hostage taker who suffers from delusion, Hallucination, or sets out his own mission, which he himself does not
know.
A. Terrorist C. Professional criminal
B. Mentally deranged D. Neurotic
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 25 TO 29
A. Negotiator
B. Personality disorder
C. Severe depression
D. Mentally deranged
E. Sociopath personality
25. Person charged with establishing communication with hostage A

26. Reacts on overwhelming stress to take action to relieve stress. He is exempted from criminal liability. D
27. Suffers from mental aberration. He takes hostage to enforce irrational desires C
( with no acceptable meaning )
28. Anti-Social. Deeply imagined maladaptive patterns of behavior ( products of child abuse )
Unsocialized , incapable of loyalty to individuals and group.B
29. Traits of character bereft of conscience. E
30. A type of sociopath personality who is easy going and spend thrift.
A. Impulsive C. Sociable
B. Paranoid D. Mentally Deranged
31. Priorities in this situation are the preservation of life and apprehension of the subject to recover
And protect property.
A. Principle to police management
B. Principle of hostage negotiation and recovery
C. Principle of patrol supervision
D. Principle of personnel management
32. The person who holds other people as a hostage.
A. Professional criminal C. Hostage negotiator
B. Hostage taker D. Lunatic person
33. To arrange or settle by conferring discussions.
A. Conference C. Negotiate
B. Hostage taker D. Discussion
34. Persons hold as security during a hostage taking situation.
A. Abduction C. Hostage Taker
B. Hostage D. Negotiator
35. It is one of the detailed plans to be prepared during a hostage taking situation.
A. Time scales C. Scope for cooling period.
B.. Discipline yourself to listen D. A and C only
From the following blacken A if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and second is incorrect; C
if both statement is incorrect; D If the first statement is incorrect and second is correct
36. The phase crisis management was coined by Robert McNamara at the time of the Panamian D
Missile crisis. Crisis management is a phrased used commonly in diplomatic circles but it is
Something that happens in any organization where the pressure of events, external forces
Management into making urgent decision.
37. Crisis is caused not by actions of human beings nor by natural disorders, fire, flood, earthquake D
And etc. Crisis is not a sudden unforeseen events which perhaps could have not been
Anticipated.
38. The most important thing to do in a crisis is to keep cool. Draw up the preliminary plan of action A
Set it out step by step and prepare other contingency plans to deal with eventualities.
39. A detailed plan in crisis management include s contingency plans to deal with new development B
Or emergencies. A good crisis manager is very indecisive.
40. Crisis management is no more than good management under pressure and they are the good crisis managers.A
41. In a hostage situation in any case it become violent, the authorities must always come out as
A. Aggressor C. Negotiator
B. Victor D. None of the above
42. Priorities in hostage situation are the preservation of life and _____________.
A. Apprehension of the hostage taker
B. Preservation of crime scene
C. Recover and protect property
D. A and C only
43. It is an attitude of the negotiator which is a must for him to process.
A. Hospitable attitude C. Calm attitude
B. Violent attitude D. Passive attitude
44. In a hostage situation, where the hostage taker is suffering from severe depression,
Personality disorder, paranoid and sociopath personality, the commander in order to build
Rapport should ____________________-.
A. Get negotiator of the same race
B. Get a negotiator residing on the same locality
C. Get negotiator of the same nationality religion or education
D. A & C only
45. It is a critical rule in hostage taking situation.
A. Commander does not negotiate, negotiator does not command
B. Hostage takers demand should always be adhered to
C. Hostage Life is the only concern of the police
D. Hostage taker should be assaulted
46. Controlling situation and area of people involved.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Establish contact D. Time Lengthening
47. Start with position approach act as if the hostage taker will surrender. Do not talk too much.
Gradually ask hostage taker to surrender.
A. Time lengthening C. Surrender approach
B. Establish contact D. Containment
48. Give more time for police to organize and coordinate the plan of action.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Time Lengthening D. Establish contact
49. Immediately, after positioning at advantage position communicate with the hostage taker
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Establish contact D. Surrender approach
50. Be the caller, planed and be prepared be ready with graceful exit and discipline yourself to listen.
A. Surrender approach C. Establish Contact
B. Containment D. Telephone Negotiator Technique
51. During face to face negotiation, the personal distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker
Should be
A. 1- 5 feet C. 1-10 feet
B. 1-3 feet D. 1 foot
52. The intimate distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker should be
A. About 12 inches C. About 6 inches
B. About 24 inches D. About 1 foot
53. It is a positive effect of time
A. Hostage takers nationality
B. Hostage Taker- negotiator relationship improves
C. hostage taker will wear down emotionally, psychologically
D. Hostage taker will have more time to think
E. All of the above
54. It’s a negative effect of time

A. Hostage takers demand maybe reduced
B. Hostage will have more demand for food and water
C. Anxiety reduced, hostage taker given the chance to organize his true self
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
55. During face to face negotiation, the negotiator should ________________.
A. Introduced him self as a commander
B. Maintain distance
C. Wear body armor
D. B and C only
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 56 – 60

A. Field commander D. Patrol personnel
B. Operation aide E. Assault team
C. Administrative aide
56. Maintains record operation and units at scene C

57. Establish contact with hostage taker A
58. Coordinate assignments of off- duty personnel arriving at scene. Relay orders/information B
To personnel involved.
59. Sharpshooters ( with high powered arms, on flak vest) E
60. Contain hostage takers and help evacuate civilians out of the scene D
61. The implementation of methods to deal with hostage situation is composed of how many phases
A. Two C Five
B. Three D. Six
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 62 – 70

A. Phase I ( Scene of incident)
B. Phase II ( transit Route)
C. Phase III at destination
D. Disadvantage of telephone conversation
62. Begins Upon establishment of position at the scene, done before arrival of convoy C
63 After establishing situation, contain hostage takers and civilians evacuated out of the area of A
Incident.
64. Contain the convoy on the way to destination under negotiator, giving instructions through B
Walkie-talkie.
65. Do not ask demands , hostage takers may not have demand. A
66. Helicopter to serve surveillance. B
67. Set up communication with hostage taker. A
68. Brief assault team and rush them to destination to secure place. B
69. Give room to negotiate- do not cramp-, avoid disturbance. A
70. Conserve concessions, hold giving in to demand; if given in at once; demand may come more A
More delay works in favor of authorities.
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS 71 - 80

A. Telephone negotiator technique
B. Advanced telephone conversation
C. Disadvantage of telephone conversation
D. Advantage of communication ( between hostage taker and negotiator)
71. Gives more time for authorities to plan and coordinate course of action D
72. Cannot see the hostage reaction C
73. Conversation is quicker B
74. It is impersonal C
75 Be the caller ( Talk with the leader only ) A
76. Plan and prepare A
77. If hostage taker wont talk, continue negotiating don’t loose hope A
78. Caller has the advantage B
79. Lessens tension of hostage taker D
80. Easier to say no. B
From the following questions blacken A, if both sentences are correct; B if both sentences is incorrect; C if the first
sentence is correct and second is incorrect; D if first sentence is incorrect and second is correct.
81. Physical training- physical conditioning includes weapon disarming method and unarmed A
Self defense. Rescue efforts should run from top.
82. If negotiation fails, final move must be made swiftly with no looking back. In life and C
Death negotiation show of force is unnecessary if there are several hostage takers.
83. Keep in mind that one hostage taker, shoe off force may be necessary. Patrol units, D
assault units should know exactly whose command they are under.
84. Containment is one way to ensure hostage negotiation unit is capable of establishing control B
Over situation. During face to face negotiation, it is not necessary for the negotiator to
Wear armor body.
85. It is a disadvantage of telephone conversation because it is easier to conclude the conversation. D
Important items are more easily committed and this is an advantage of telephone conversation.
86. It is a rule in hostage negotiation to get something in return for every concession granted like A
Aged, sick or youngest hostages. Don’t get concession at once, its subject to interpretation that
You could get easily.
87. During face to face negotiation, have weapon and tactical back up ( snipers). You can enter as C
Negotiator even if gun of the hostage taker is pointed at you.
88. It is one of the qualities of crisis manager.
A. They are good leaders providing inspiration to their team
B. They keep cool
C. Good manager under pressure
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
89. It is more important during hostages situation.
A. Improved communication
B. Efficiency of the police personnel in unarmed combat
C. Efficiency of the police responding to call emergency
D. A and C only
90. It is a negative effect of time during hostage negotiation.
A. Exhilarations and boredom may have creeping effects or both hostages takers and authorities
B. Hostage takers demand may be reduced
C. Anxiety reduced, hostage taker given chance to0 organize his true self
D. All of the above
91. It is one way to ensure hostage negotiation is capable of establishing control over situation.
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Dry run D. Establishing contact
92. The commander is given the opportunity to choose the members who will constitute the team.
A. Screening C. Establishing contact
B. Dry run D. Time Lengthening
93. In Life and death negotiation, the negotiator should not be friendly; it may be interpreted as ___.
A. Over confidence C. Over zealousness
B. Weakness D. Surrender
94. In conducting assault, the team leader must take into consideration the ____________.
A. Number of the hostage takers their mentality
B. The serviceability of their weapons
C. Hostage state of mind
D. A and C only
95. In Life and death negotiation, It is necessary if there are several hostage takers
A. Presence of plenty media personnel
B. Show of force
C. Presence of relatives of the hostage taker to help police negotiate]
D. Display of sophisticated weapons
96. The hostage taker should not be driven to _________ instead he should be given hope,
Security and etc.
A. Desperation C. Suicidal attempts
B. Hopelessness D. All of the above
97. If negotiation fails, ( situation permits) any assaults must proceed with _____________.
A. Skills C. Accuracy
B. Professionalism D. All of the above
98. During the surrender approach, the negotiator should_________________.
A. Know whose command the men and under
B. Not impose never go to the hostage taker at once
C. Not talk too much and make sure that hostage taker understand
D. B and C only
99. During the hostage negotiation, It is one thing which may be considered negotiable.
A. Media coverage C. Transportations
B. Weapons D. A and C
100. In hostage situation, the function of the patrol personnel is _______________.
A. To establish contact with hostage taker
B. Contain hostage taker
C. Help evacuate civilians out the scene
D. B and C only
LEA – 1/Police Organization & Administration with Planning

FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA – 1/Police Organization & Administration with Planning)
1. The regular daily formation of policemen assigned in patrol and traffic operations where the shift or
watch supervisor conducts inspection, checks attendance, and gives briefing, instructions and
assignment, is known in the police service as ____.
A. Roll-call training C. Drill formation
B. Attendance Seminar D. Morning inspection
2. A management principle holding that a subordinate should report to only one supervisor.
A. Supervision C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Direction
3. It refers to the capability of a police commander to establish strategic and tactical alliances with
the different sectors of the community including churches, schools, local government units and civic
organizations in pursuit of peace and order.
A. Community relation C. Resourcefulness
B. Inter-operability D. Liaisoning
4. Also known as the Jail Bureau.
A. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology
B. Bureau of Prisons D. PNP Jails
5. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Police Commission?
A. President C. Secretary, DILG
B. Vice President D. Chief, PNP
6. One of the powers vested upon the mayors by RA 6975 is to choose the chief of police from five (5)
eligibles recommended by the ____.
A. Regional Director C. Provincial Director
B. Chief, PNP D. NAPOLCOM
7. It is the primary job of this government agency to promptly respond and suppress “Conflagration”.
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology C. Local Government
B. Bureau of Fire Protection D. Volunteer Fire Brigade
8. The Local Government Executive authorized by law to take responsibility over the anti-illegal
gambling operations in their respective jurisdiction.
A. Mayor C. Governor
B. Congressman D. Barangay
Captain
9. The highest rank in the hierarchy of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is:
A. Fire Director C. BJMP Chief
B. Fire Director General D. Fire Chief
Superintendent
10. The head or highest official in a City/Municipal Fire Station is known as ____.
A. Fire Marshall C. Fire Chief
B. Fire Warden D. Fire Commander
11. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
12. He is the chairperson of the Board of Trustees of the Philippine Public Safety College.
A. SILG C. BJMP Chief
B. PNP Chief D. BFP Chief
13. Which is NOT a training institute under the Philippine Public Safety College?
A. Philippine National Police Academy C. PhilippineMilitary Academy
B. National Police College D. National Forensic Science Training Institute
14. He leads a manageable number of police personnel who are assigned to perform a specific job like
patrol, traffic, investigation, and other functions, and tasked to take responsibility of seeing that they
perform their respective duties.
A. Police Subordinate C. Police Superior
B. Rank and File D. Police
Supervisor
15. This is a requirement for every line officer where he can write down all important data pertaining
to arrest made by him and other information that may help him in making report and in testifying in
court. This is regularly inspected by his police supervisor.
A. Police Diary C. Logbook
B. Blotter D. Official Notebook
16. It is said that police personnel work twenty-four hours a day which means that even if they are on
off-duty they can be summoned when there are emergencies. In a police department where members
regularly work for eight-hour duty, how many shifts or watches are in effect?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Four
17. The highest position title in the Bureau of Fire Protection is what?
A. Fire Chief C. Fire Director
B. Fire Marshall D. Fire Warden
18. Which among the following is NOT under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A. District Jail C. City Jail
B. Provincial Jail D. Municipal Jail
19. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and
officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police
organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
20. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for plans
B. PNP directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
21. All police stations in the National Capital Region are headed by a Chief of Police who in accordance
with the law should hold the rank of ____.
A. Chief Superintendent C.
Superintendent
B. Senior Superintendent D. Chief Inspector
22. Plans can be changed to meet future requirements which were not considered during the planning
stages. This indicates _____ in planning.
A. Responsiveness C. Flexibility
B. Efficiency D. Effectiveness
23. In the planning process, the skill involved in knowing what should be done first refers to:
A. Forecasting C. Documenting
B. Monitoring D. Prioritizing
24. Which among the following is INCORRECT?
A. The highest rank in the PNP is Director General
B. There are three deputy chief, PNP who hold the rank of Police Deputy Director General
C. The Command Group is composed of the four top officials of the PNP
D. The PNP is a directorial type of organization
25. It is referred to as turning point of event which needs to be addressed promptly.
A. Unusual occurrence C. Emergency
B. Crisis D. Contingency
26. It is likewise known as plan “B”, Back-up plan or Worst-case-scenario plan.
A. Tactical plan C. Urgent plan
B. Contingency plan D. Operation plan
27. Refers to plans whose timelines are usually between one (1) to three (3) years.
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Management plan
28. Which among the following is considered to be the employer of the members of the PNP?
A. Local government C. National government
B. DILG D. NAPOLCOM
29. This plan answers the question, “How do we get there?”
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Procedural plan
30. The operations plan and budget is an example of what PNP plans?
A. Strategic C. Tactical
B. Medium-term D. Procedural
31. What is that category of tactical plans which is developed as a result of crisis?
A. Reactive plan C.
Miscellaneous plan
B. Proactive plan D. Administrative plan
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are _____ personnel.
A. Staff C. Supervision
B. Management D. Line
33. Often called the primary management function.
A. Planning C. Organizing
B. Budgeting D. Delegating
34. ____ Plans are developed in anticipation of problems.
A. Proactive C. Intelligence
B. Reactive D. Long-term
35. The government agency tasked by law to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
B. Civil Service Commission D. Local government units
36. A type of plans used to guide line officers in routine and field operations, and in some special
operations.
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Functional D. Reactive
37. The military rank of Major General is the equivalent of what PNP rank?
A. Police Director General C. Police Director
B. Police Deputy Director General D. Police Chief
Superintendent
38. In police operations, when a specific situation goes wrong, what kind of plan should be executed?
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Tactical D. Operational
39. The founder of professional policing.
A. Robert Peel C. O.W. Wilson
B. J. Edgar Hoover D. Henry Fielding
40. The only government agency in the Philippines which is authorized to issue firearm licenses,
licenses for security guards as well as permit to operate security agencies.
A. Armed Forces of the Philippines C. National Bureau of
Investigation
B. Philippine National Police D. National Police
Commission
41. Supplies procurement plan and personnel recruitment plan are example of:
A. Operational plan C. Administrative plan
B. Intelligence plan D. Forecast plan
42. As an external disciplinary authority in the PNP the peoples Law Enforcement Boards are
empowered to investigate and decide citizen’s complaints against PNP members. These boards are
created by ____.
A. National Police Commission C. City/municipal mayors
B. Sangguniang Panglungsod/Bayan D. PNP
43. In criminal investigation before taking the sworn statement of a suspect, the investigator should
inform the former of:
A. The name of complainant and witnesses
B. His constitutional rights
C. The evidence collected against him
D. His identity as officer on case
44. A plan of every local government (Provinces and towns) to address any crisis that may occur in
their respective jurisdiction is known as:
A. Fire plan C. Defense plan
B. Multi-purpose plan D. Integrated Area/Community Public Safety
Plan
45. The number of persons one individual can effectively supervise best describes the organizational
principle of ____.
A. supervision C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Leadership
46. Includes motivating subordinates, guiding others, selecting the most efficient communication
channels, and resolving conflicts best described ____ as a management function.
A. Controlling C. Directing
B. Leading D. Delegating
47. A plan of coping upon an attack against buildings equipped with alarm system is an example of:
A. Extra-departmental plan C. Management plan
B. Procedural plan D. Tactical plan
48. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and
officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police
organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
49. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called:
A. Annual plan C. Strategic plan
B. Long-term plan D. Mid-term plan
50. The National Police Commission is attached to the Department of the Interior and Local
Government for ____.
A. Administrative control C. Operational supervision
B. Administration and control D. Policy and program
coordination
51. The ex-officio member of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Secretary, DILG C. NBI Director
B. Chief, PNP D. AFP Chief
52. _____ plan relates to the problems of equipping, staffing and preparing the police station to do the
job rather than the actual operation of the organization.
A. Management plan C. Tactical plan
B. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
53. All are summary dismissal authority over administrative cases against uniformed PNP personnel
EXCEPT:
A. PLEB C. Chief, PNP
B. PNP Regional director D. IAS
54. It includes every procedure that has been outlined and officially adopted as the standard method of
action to be followed by members of the police organization.
A. Progress plan C. Procedural plan
B. Operational plan D. tactical plan
55. The PNP Directorate tasked to address the peculiar problems affecting the peace and security of
adjacent areas or regions with common culture and situation specifically on insurgency and terrorism.
A. Directorate for Operations
B. Directorate for Integrated Police Operations
C. Directorate for Intelligence
D. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management
56. What operational support unit of the PNP determines if a person is qualified to possess firearm,
processes applications for firearms and issues licenses to qualified individuals?
A. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group C. Intelligence Group
B. Logistics Service D. Civil Security Group
57. He exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief, PNP C. Secretary, DILG
B. Undersecretary for Peace and Order D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
58. What operational support unit of the PNP conducts identification and evaluation of physical
evidence related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Health service C. Crime
laboratory
B. PNP General hospital D. CIDG
59. The early English police system which adopted the so-called “Tithings”.
A. Frankpledge system C. Metropolitan Constabulary
of London
B. Parish constable system D. Bow street runners
60. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
61. The Provincial Governor shall choose the Provincial Director from a list of ____ eligibles
recommended by the Regional Director.
A. Six (6) C. Five (5)
B. Three (3) D. Four (4)
62. Which one of the following is least often considered a staff function?
A. Recruitment C. Training
B. Juvenile division D. Planning
63. The ex-officio chairman of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Chief, PNP C. NAPOLCOM
Executive Officer
B. DILG Secretary D. Vice Chairman
64. The law that established the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the
Interior and Local Government.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 6795 D. RA 8515
65. There are how many Police Districts in the National Capital Regional Police Office?
A. Three C. Five
B. Four D. Six
66. Under Republic Act 8551, it is provided that the PNP should be strengthened and evolved into a
highly efficient and competent police force that is ____ and fully accountable in the performance of
its functions.
A. Business-oriented C. Military-oriented
B. Mission-oriented D. Community and
service-oriented
67. The law that established the Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police as the National
Police of the Philippines. It was issued by President Ferdinand Marcos in 1975 during the Martial Law
regime.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. PD 765 D. Act 175
68. The Chief, PNP, his two deputies and the Chief, Directorial Staff composed the so-called:
A. Internal Affairs Service C. Lateral Entry Board
B. Command Group D. Promotion Board
69. The PNP Internal Affairs Service which is tasked to ensure the operational readiness of the different
PNP units and personnel through the conduct of scheduled and unannounced inspections and audit, and
to investigate infractions of rules and regulations, is headed by ____.
A. Director General C. Director
B. Inspector General D. Auditor General
70. The rank-and-file of the PNP is composed mainly of low-ranked personnel. What is the lowest
commissioned rank in the PNP organization?
A. Police Officer 1 C. Senior Police Officer
1
B. Police Inspector D. Police Chief
Superintendent
71. He coined the most familiar acronym “POSDCORB” which explains the functions of management.
A. Richard Sylvester C. Joan Urwich
B. Luther Gulick D. Douglas McGregor
72. Police personnel performing field duties like patrol, traffic, investigation, intelligence, etc. belong
to what unit of the police agency?
A. Staff units C. Line units
B. Auxiliary units D. Administrative units
73. A member of the Police Force who works at an organizational level where personal oversight of
tasks assigned to small group is assumed in order to assure satisfactory performance.
A. Police supervisor C. Police manager
B. Police investigator D. Police leader
74. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
75. The management of people and things is being done primarily to:
A. Make them organized and nice to see
B. Attain the organizational objectives
C. Effect change for the better
D. Implement policies and regulations
76. Rural police established in 1836 through a Royal decree from Spain
A. Guardrilleros C. Guardia civil
B. Local police D. Carabineros de seguridad
publica
77. The term “Police” originated from the Greek word:
A. Politeia C. Polizia
B. Polis D. Policia
78. The President of the Philippine when the PNP was established.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
79. The early version of mounted riflemen in the history of Philippine policing.
A. Guardia civil C. Guardrilleros
B. Local police D. Carabineros de Seguridad
Publica
80. The Insular Constabulary was organized in 1901 during the American Occupation by virtue of:
A. Act No. 255 C. Act No. 157
B. RA 4864 D. Act No. 175
81. Director General in the PNP is a ____ rank.
A. 5-star C. 4-star
B. 3-star D. 2-star
82. General policing in the Philippines is the primary task of what agency?
A. National Bureau of Investigation C. Philippine National Police
B. National Police Commission D. Armed Forces of
the Philippines
83. The highest non-commissioned rank in the PNP.
A. Police Officer 3 C. Senior Police Officer 4
B. Senior Police Officer 3 D. Police Officer 4
84. How many rank of Director General is authorized in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
85. The police system established by the English parliament thru the initiative of Robert Peel.
A. Bow street runners C. Metropolitan Constabulary for London
B. Frankpledge system D. Parish constable system
86. Republic Act 6975 is known as:
A. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998
B. The Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. The Police Act of 1966
D. The Merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police
87. The Philippine National Police as described by the 1986 Philippine Constitution should be ____.
A. Directorial type C. Operationally under the DILG
B. Line and Staff Organization D. National in Scope and Civilian in
Character
88. The highest official or head of a highly urbanized city police station like Olongapo,
Angeles, Cebu and Bacolod, is called a ____.
A. Chief of Police C. City Director
B. City Commander D. CityMarshall
89. The equivalent PNP rank of a Second Lieutenant in the Armed Forces of the Philippines.
A. Police Inspector C. Senior Police Officer
4
B. Police Senior Inspector D. Police Officer 3
90. The right vested upon a superior officer to give orders and the power to exact obedience from
subordinate officers.
A. Command C. Authority
B. Supremacy D. Police power
91. He chooses the PNP Provincial Director in a province from a list of three (3) eligibles recommended
by the Regional Director.
A. Governor C. Congressman
B. DILG Regional Director D. NAPOLCOM Regional
Director
92. The PNP National Support Unit that is primarily responsible in enforcing the Anti-Carnapping Law of
the country.
A. Highway Patrol Group C. Special Action Force
B. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group D. Intelligence Group
93. ____ is the primary operating arms of the police station responsible for the general maintenance of
peace and order.
A. SWAT C. Police Precincts
B. Intelligence units D. Traffic units
94. The American police system rooted from ____.
A. France C. Egypt
B. England D. Philippines
95. The personal staff of the Chief, PNP responsible for the annual audit and inspection of the
different field units and personnel. It has also the power to investigate police anomalies.
A. Chief of Staff C. Legal Officer
B. Command Executive Senior Police Officer D. Inspector General
96. In policing or patrolling, the elimination of the opportunity of future offenders to commit crimes is
the definition of:
A. Criminal etiology C. Crime Suppression
B. Patrol Deployment D. Crime Prevention
97. The merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police or PC/INP became
effective pursuant to:
A. PD 421 C. PD 531
B. PD 641 D. PD 765
98. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called _____.
A. Administration C. Management
B. Supervision D. Organization
99. When a group of people interact to achieve stated purposes, this is most nearly ____.
A. Management C. Control
B. Delegation D. Organization
100. The President of the Philippines when the Philippine Constabulary and the INP were merged to
serve as the national police of the country.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
LEA 2B – INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT

FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA 2B – INDUSTRIAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT)
1. Ethical Standard: Constantly endeavour to raise quality __________ of private
security services ; a.Authority b.Services c.Function d.Standard
2. Endeavour to fulfill their ____________ duties in accordance with the highest moral
principles ; a.Private b.Public c.Professional d.Standard
3. Contribute to the ______________ welfare by securing and preserving industrial
facilities of the country ; a.Private b.Public c.Nationald.Filipino
4. Constantly work with and assist the law enforcement agencies in the ___________ of
peace and order in the country; a.Reservation b.Communication
c.Preservation d.Cooperation
5. With faith and diligence , perform their __________ obligations for the protection of
life, limb and property; a.Civil b.Private c.Publicd.Contractual
6. Code of Conduct: They shall all times adhere to professional ________ and refrain
from practices that negate the best interest; a.Authority
b.Services c.Ethics d.Standard
7. They shall not indulge in _____________ competition by undercutting the existing
contract rates.; a.Asset b.Financial c.Cut throat d.Private
8. They shall not _________ means or misrepresentations in all their business
transactions; a.Quarrel b.Deceitful c.Clandestine d.Practical
9. They shall ___________ an adequate library of books, magazines and other
publications on security subject. ; a.Control b.Serve c.Structured.Establish
10. They shall at all times exercise ___________ and be prepared to prevent the use of
their guards or the agency; a.Diligence b.Vigilance c.Respect d.Integrity
11. They shall always be truthful and ____________ in reports;
a.Standardb.Accurate c.Narrative d.Direct
12. To _____ all calls from post more distant from the security house where I am
stationed; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
13. To _____ all violations of order I am instructed to enforce; a.Quitb.Report c.Repeat
d.sound
14. To _____ my post only when properly relieved; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
15. To _____ or call the alarm in case of fire or disorder; a.Quit b.Report
c.Repeat d.Sound
16. To _____ to no one except in the line of duty; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
17. To _____ , obey and pass on to the relieving guard all order form company officers;
a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
18. To _____ in an alert manner during my tour of duty and observing everything that
takes place within sight or hearing; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
19. To _____ all company officials superiors in the agency, ranking public officials, and
commission officer of the AFP; a.Walk b.Talk c.Received.Salute
20. To _____ charge of the post and all companies properties in view and protect the
same with utmost diligence; a.Walk b.Take c.Receive d.Salute
21. A special key capable of opening a series of locks; a.Master key b.Sub master key
c.Original key d.Grand master key
22. A key to a single lock within a master keyed system; a.Master key b.Sub master
key c.Change key d.Grand master key
23. It is the devices holding a door closed by magnetism; a.Code lock b.Combination Lock
c.Lever lock d.Electromagnetic lock.
24. This not the purpose of security survey; a.determine existing state of
security b.locate criminals c.Produce recommendations establishing a total security
program d.determine the conclusion and probabilities
25. Planning the security survey except for one; a.Obtain organizational support b.Verify
the need c.Develop alternatives d.Implement the managers policy
26. All of this is types of security inspection except for one; a.Formal b.Structured c.
Continuous d. Valuable
27. Results of a long and firmly entrenched inspection program understood by all and
accepted; a.Formal b.Structured c. Continuous d. Informal
28. One security inspections that moves systemically.; a.Formalb.Structured c.
Continuous d. Informal
29. It is the work of a manager performs to assess and regulate work in progress and to
assess the results; a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controllingd. Leading
30. It is the work of a manager performs to effect active participation from his
subordinates ; a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
31. A system use in big installation whereby keys can open groups of locks; a.Key
master b.Master Keying System c.Master Lock d.Key System
32. Example of terrorism; a.Riot b.Unfair competition c.Tornadod.Assassination
33. Physical Environment Probability Factors; a.Age Groups b.Compositionc.Planning
d.Social History
34. Specifications regarding the use of Chain Link fences; a.Be constructed of 6 foot b.
Be constructed of 7 foot c. Be constructed of 8 foot d. Be constructed of 9 foot
35. Types of perimeter barrier which is not belong; a.Wire Fences b.Vaultc.Bodies of
water d.Buliding walls
36. Inter relationship of Security personnel to PNP; a.Security personnel always
subordinate to the members of PNP b.All evidence gathered in the said investigation
should be turnover to the PNP unit concerned c.All violations in the said company
enforcing by the security personnel should be reported to the PNP d.Harmonious
relationship for curtailing law less elements.
37. Storms is a sample of _______ hazards; a.Natural b.Man made c.Mechanical
d.Physical
38. This probabilty ratings has Insufficient data are available for an evaluation ;
a.Virtually Certain b.Highly Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Probability Unknown
39. Grounds for cancellation of Security Agency License; which one is not belong; a.When
the agency submits a falsified license to prospective client for bidding b.When the
agency practice “KABIT SYSTEM” c.When the agency fail to employ a minimum of 200
gainfully employed security guards d.When the agency coordinate with the law
enforcement agency.
40. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Private
Benjamin b.Intelligence officer c.Private Detective d.Private Intel
41. Stated in the Security Guard Creed which is not belong; a.Maka Dios b.Maka Bayan
c.Makata d.Makatao
42. Hardware is what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
43. Geese are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
44. Roadblocks are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural
c.Human d.Animal
45. Electronic device are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energyb.Structural c.Human
d.Animal
46. Canyons are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
47. Walls are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
48. Barbed Tape is composed of 3 things except for one ; a.Barbed tape b.Barbed
Dispenser c.Barbed Concertina d.Barbed wire
49. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Intelligence
Officer b.Detective Officer c.Secret Agent d.Private Detective
50. A key that will open all the lock within a particular area or grouping in a given
facility; a.Master key b.Sub master key c.Original key d.Grand master key
51. It is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures; a.Security Survey b.Security
Inspection c. Security education d. Security Protection
52. It is given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means pertaining to
measures and safeguards to be taken to protect ; a.Security information b.Security
awareness c. Security education d. Security Preparation
53. Security Guards Creed – As a security guard my __________ duty; a.Basic
b.Honorable c.Fundamental d. Sacred Protection
54. Security guard duty is to serve the interest and mission of his ________; a.Manager
b.Client c.Consultant d.Agency Protection
55. Shall carry with him at all times during his tour of duty his license ID ; a.Ethical
Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
56. Security Consultant qualifications; choose which one is not belong;a.Filipino and
Alien Citizen b.Physically Fit c.Holder of a Master’s Degree, MNSA or Industrial
Security Management d.At least 10 years experience in the field of security.
57. Shall not read newspaper, magazines, books while actually performing his duties;
a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
58. Shall not compromise with criminals and other lawless elements to the prejudice of
the customers; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators
Creed
59. Security force maintained and operates by any private company utilizing any of its
employees to watch, secure or guard; a.Security guard b.Company guard
force c.Government guard unit d.Private guard
60. Shall talk to no one except in the line of duty; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of
Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
61. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which
safeguards cash and assets which in storage, in transit and during
transaction.; a.Bank Security b.Hotel Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication
Security
62. It is resulting from the protection of processes, formulas, patents and industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage ; a.Document Security b.Operational
Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
63. It is resulting from the protection of application of various measures which prevent or
delay the enemy or unauthorized person in gaining information; a.Document Security
b.Operational Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
64. It is resulting from the protection classified papers and vital records from loss, access
to unauthorized persons, damage , theft and etc, ;a.Document Security
b.Operational Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
65. The providing of sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness to insure
visibility and to act as a deterrent to the intruders; a.Security Alarm system
b.Security Lighting c.Security Surveillance d.Security Flash light
66. It is resulting from the protection top ranking officials of the government or visiting
persons of illustrious standing; a.Document Security b.Operational Security
c.Corporate Security d.VIP Security
67. It is the sum total of all physical safeguards employed or installed to secure the
assets; a.Physical Security b.Document Security c.Personnel Security d.Internal
Security
68. What line of defense is grills? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
of defense d.Barrier Line
69. What line of defense is cabinets? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
line of defense d.Barrier Line
70. What line of defense is guard? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
71. What line of defense is doors? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
72. What line of defense is gate? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
73. What line of defense is vaults? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
74. Any structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal
access; a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrierd.Protective Barrier
75. Any medium or structure which define the physical limits of an installation or area to
restrict or impede access thereto; a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrier
d.Protective Barrier
76. Private Security Agency Law; a.R.A.5487 b.R.A.5847 c.R.A.6975 d.R.A.8551
77. Sometimes called private security guard or watchman shall include any person who
offers or renders personal service to watch; a.Security Officer b.Security
Guard c.Detachment commander d.Security manager
78. A corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the
security and the means and methods to reach these objectives; a.Security
Management b.Security Planning c.Security Survey d.Security Audit
79. The process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough
inspection of all operation system and procedures of a facility;a.Security Survey
b.Security Audit c.Security Inspection d.Security Surveillance
80. The Three Aspects of Security except in one; a.Personnel
b.Documentc.Physiological d.Information
81. The sum total of protection scheme encompassing the entire security spectrum,
designed to eliminate, reduce or control threats, hazards, risk or dangers to company
assets; a.Holistic protection b.Asset Protectionc.Life protection d.Security Protection
82. SG duties during strikes and lockouts; a.Carry only heavy firearmsb.Indirect
confrontation c.Avoid direct contact d.Stay in their perimeters
83. This probabilty ratings has the likelihood of occurrence; a.Virtually Certain b.Highly
Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Improbable
84. In Natural Authority “The highest is the law of self ___________”; a.Protection
b.Defense c.Preservation d.Control
85. Security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military
or police for the purpose of securing the office of such government entity;
a.Presidential Security Guard b.Private Guardc.Government guard unit d.Security
guard
86. A written order /schedule issued by a superior officer usually the private security
agency assigning the performance of private security agency; a.Court Order b.Duty
detail order c.Mission order d.Post order
87. Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life,
loss or destruction of property or disruption of the objectives; a.Security
Risk b.Security Hazard c.Security Threat d.Security Vulnerability
88. Added protection of important vital papers, plans, data, special correspondence,
cash and other essentials documents; a.Security barrier b.Security Vault c.Security
Box d.Security cabinet
89. Example of Conflict of interest; a.Sabotage b.Insurecction c.Bribery d.Flood
90. License certificate document issued by the chief, PNP or his duly authorized
representative to operate Security Agency; a.Driver’s License b.PNP License c.License
to Operate d.Operation License
91. This probabilty ratings has more likely to occur that not to occur ; a.Virtually Certain
b.Highly Probable c.Moderately Probabled.Improbable
92. __________ is protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by
various method and advise; a.Guard b.Security c.Authority d.Asset protection
93. Shall include not only natural but also juridical persons ; a.Employer
b.Military c.Person d.Police
94. Shall cover those in the legitimate business of providing private security and
detective services ; a.Agency b.Public Enforcers c.Private Security Industry d.VIP Body
guard
95. Sometimes called watchman; a.Witness b.Security Guard c.Supervisor d.Manager
96. Shall be natural persons which private security guards, private detectives, security
consultants, security officers and others that may be classified; a.Security Personnel
b.Watch Man c.Juridical persons d. Asset Protector
97. _____________ is charged with directing the work and observing the behavioural
performance of the guard under his unit; a.Owner b.Operation Manager c.Security
manager d.Security supervisor
98. Social Environment Probability Factors; a.Climate b.Income levels c.Composition
d.Latitude
99. A security guard always protect the interest of _________; a.Agency b.Country c.Law
d.Client
100. The Security Guard uniform symbolism of ___________ and confidence; a.Public
Office b.Respect c.Public Trust d.Standard
CLJ 3 – CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
FINAL EXAMINATION
(CLJ 3 – CRIMINAL PROCEDURE)
1. It is a provisional remedy issued upon an order of the court where an action is pending to be levied
upon the
property of the defendant, the same can be held thereafter by the sheriff as security for the satisfaction
of whatever
judgment might be secured in said action by the attaching creditor against the defendant.
A. Preliminary Injunction C. Preliminary Attachment
B. Motion for Prohibition D. Judgment
2. The provision remedies, in so far as there are applicable, may be availed of in connection with the civil
action
deemed instituted in _________________ .
A. Civil Case C. Administrative Action
B. Criminal Action D. Remedial Action
3. When the civil action is properly instituted in the criminal action, the offended party may have the
property of the
accused attached as security for the satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from the
accused in the
following cases:
A. When the accused is about to leave from the Philippines
B. When the accused has concealed, removed or disposed of his property or is about to do so.
C. When the accused is out on bail.
D. When the criminal action is based on a claim for money or property embezzled or
fraudulently misapplied
or converted to the use of the accused who is a public officer, officer of a corporation,
attorney de facto,
broker or agent or clerk in the course of his employment as such.
4. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained there at but also
facts discovered
by reason of unlawful search.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt. C. Fruits of the poisonous tree.
B. Burden of proof D. Border Search
5. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Consented warrantless Search C. Exclusionary Rule
B. Stop and frisk on Terry search. D. Inspection Search
6. The filing of the petition for __________is considered a waiver of the accused’s right to appeal, makes
his
conviction final the moment he files said application.
A. New Trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Probation D. Appeal
7. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Error of Law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during
the trial.
C. Failure to conduct preliminary Investigation
D. Newly discovered evidence has been discovered which accused could not with reasonable
diligent have
discovered and produced at the trial and submitted would probably changed the judgment.
8. It is a motion which can interrupt the running of the fifteen (15) day period to perfect an appeal.
A. Motion for new trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Motion in Quash D. Motion for probation
9. How long is given to the accused to make his appeal before the judgment will become final and
executor?
A. 30 days C. 15 days
B. 45 days D. 20 days
10. Who may appeal?
A. Only the accused C. Any party
B. Only the complainant D. The prosecutor
11. In cases divided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, where should the appeal be filed?
A. To the court of Appeals C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Regional Trial Court D. To the Municipal Trial Court
12. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Errors of law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during
the trial.
C. New and material evidence has been discovered which the accused could not with
reasonable diligence
have discovered and produced at the trial and which if introduced and admitted would probably
change the
judgment
D. minority of the accused
13. It may be granted by the court where the incompetency of the counsel for the defense is so great that
the defendant was
prejudicial and prevented from fairly presenting his defense.
A. New Trial C. Dismissal of the case
B. Reconsideration D. Judgment
14. Requisites of newly discovered evidence to be a valid ground for new trial, except:
A. The evidence was discovered after the trial
B. Such evidence could not have been discovered and produced at the trial even with
existence of reasonable diligence.
C. The evidence violates the Principle of Double Jeopardy.
D. The evidence must go to the merits and not rest on merely a technical defense.
15. It is a motion which may be filed after judgment but within period for perfecting an appeal.
A. Motion for reconsideration C. Motion for new trial
B. Motion to Quash D. Motion to file an appeal
16. It is a motion which may be presented only after either or both parties have formally offered and
closed their evidence, but
before judgment.
A. Motion to re-open trial C. Motion for reconsideration
B. Motion to file an appeal D. Motion to Quash
17. In all cases, when the court grants new trial, what happens to the original judgment?
A. The judgment is set aside or vacated C. The judgment become final and executory
B. The judgment is retained D. The judgment may be appealed
18. When a new trial is granted on the ground of newly discovered evidence, what happen to the original
evidence already
presented?
A. The evidence already presented remains C. The evidence already presented will
be set aside
B. The evidence already presented will be discard D. The evidence already presented will
not be given weight.
19. When criminal actions are brought to the Court of Appeals or to the supreme court, who must
represent the people of the
Philippines.
A. Public of the Philippines
B. The private prosecutor with the conformity of the Assistant Provincial Prosecutor
C. The judge
D. The Solicitor General
20. In cases decided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Where should the appeal be filed?
A. Regional Trial Court C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Court of Appeals D. to the Municipal Circuit Court
21. In cases decided by the court of Appeal where should the appeal be filed.
A. To the Supreme Court C. To the Solicitor General
B. To the Sandigan Bayan D. To the Court of Appeals itself
22. If the criminal case is dismissed by the court, or there is acquittal, can the complainant or the
offended party make an appeal.
A. No, because it is only the accused who can appeal in case of conviction.
B. No, the offended party or complainant cannot appeal the criminal aspect of the case.
C. Yes,the complainant or offended party may appeal the civil aspect of the case only.
D. Yes, the complainant and the accused are both given by law the right to appeal either the
criminal aspect or civil
aspect of the case.
23. What is the remedy of the accused in case a final judgment of conviction was rendered by the court?
A. File an appeal C. File a motion to Quash the information
B. File a motion to set aside judgment D. File a motion for new trial
24. Who may appeal from a judgment or final order of the court?
A. Prosecution only C. Any Party
B. Defense only D. The judge
25. For purposes of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases is the __________of the penalty
is taken account
A. Minimum of the penalty C. Maximum of the penalty
B. Medium of the penalty D. None of the above
26. When can a final judgment becomes final?
A. Upon the expiration of the period to appeal therefrom if no appeal has been duly perfected.
B. Upon the expiration of the period of 30 days
C. Upon the expiration of the period of 10 days
D. Upon the expiration of the period of 20 days
27. Pedro was sentence to suffer five years imprisonment by final judgment. Before the period of appeal
lapsed, Pedro escaped.
Can he appeal his case?
A. Yes, because his right to appeal is provided in our constitution
B. Yes, because he opted to file an appeal because the period of appeal had not yet lapses
C. No, because he escaped; hence, he waived his right to appeal
D. Yes, his right to appeal is mandatory right.
28. The appeal to the Court of Appeal in cases decided by the Regional Trial Court in the exercise of its
appellate jurisdiction shall
be by ____________
A. Petition by Motion for Reconsideration C. Petition to re-open the trial

B. Petition for new trial D. Petition for review
29. How should be the service of the notice of appeal be secured if it cannot be made upon the adverse
party or his counsel.
A. By e-mail service C. By registered mail service
B. By telephone service D. By telegraph service
30. When is an appeal be taken?
A. Within fifteen (15) days from promulgation of the judgment
B. Within five (5) days from promulgation of the judgment
C. Within Thirty (30) days from promulgation of the judgment
D. Within twenty (20) days from promulgation of the judgment
31. Pedro is the complainant against Berto in a criminal case. Berto was convicted and the judgment was
promulgated. Before the
judgment became final the complainant filed an appeal. Does Pedro have the right to appeal in a
criminal case.
A. No, only the accused/convicted accused can appeal
B. Yes, the complainant can appeal on the civil aspect only of the case.
C. No, because he is the complainant, not the accused.
D. No, because such appeal made by the complainant will place the accused in double
jeopardy.
32. Mario was convicted on the complaint of Noel for homicide. Mario was sentenced to four years and
six months and one day.
Noel the complainant appealed on the ground that the penalty imposed was not proper. And Noel
prayed that it be
increased.Was the appeal of Mario Proper?
A. Yes, because he has also the right to appeal even if he is the complainant.
B. Yes, because the penalty imposed is really not proper.
C. No, the appeal of Noel would constitute a violation on the right of the accused for it will fall
under Double jeopardy.
D. Yes, because under the law, Rule 122, Sec.1, provides that any party may appeal from a
judgment or final order.
33. John was convicted by final judgment for the crime of murder. He was sentenced with an
imprisonment of Reclusion
Perpetua. He did not appeal. The judgment became final and executor. The Supreme Court by its
own power (motu propio)
reviewed the judgment. Is the Supreme Court correct?
A. No, because John did not appeal his judgment
B. No, because the proper person in interest (John) no longer wants to appeal his case.
C. Yes, the Supreme Court has the power to review judgment with maximum penalty of
Reclusion Perpetua,
automatically.
D. No, it is only the accused who can appeal his case.
34. When may the period for perfecting an appeal shall be suspended?
A. From the time a motion to re-open the trial is filed
B. From the time a motion for reconsideration is filed
C. From a time a motion to Quash the information is filed.
D. From the time a motion to dismiss is filed.
35. The world “Promulgation” refers to ___________.
A. Case Record C. Order
B. Judgment D. Trial
36. The word “ Notice” refers to ___________.
A. Judgment C. Trial
B. Case Record D. Order
37. Within how many days should the clerk of court with whom the notice of appeal was filed
must transmit to the clerk of court
of the appellate court the complete record of the case together with the said notice.
A. Ten days C. Five days
B. Fifteen days D. Twelve days
38. In all cases where the death penalty is imposed by the Trial Court, the records shall be forwarded to
the court of appeals for
automatic review within how many days from the promulgation of the judgment.
A. Within fifteen days but not earlier than ten days from the promulgation of the judgment or
notice of denial of a motion
for new trial or reconsideration.
B. Within twenty days but not earlier than fifteen days from the promulgation of the judgment or
notice of denial of a
motion for new trial or reconsideration.
C. Within ten days but not earlier than seven days from the promulgation of the judgment or
motion for new trial or reconsideration
D. Within seven days but not earlier than five days from the promulgation of the judgment or
motion for new trial or reconsideration
39. Juanito was convicted by the trial court. A Counsel de Oficio was appointed to him by the court for his
appeal since he is
confined in prison. To cut short the proceedings of appeal,the counsel de oficio of Juanito withdraw
the appeal. Is the action
of the consel de oficio proper?
A. Yes, because the counsel de oficio wishes to cut short the proceedings of the appeal since
he is not being paid by
Juanito.
B. Yes, because it is his right (counsel de oficio) to terminate the appeal at any time even
without the consent of Juanito.
C. No, he (counsel de oficio) cannot withdraw the appeal without the consent of Juanito.
D. Yes, considering that it was not Juanito who choose him (counsel de oficio) to be his lawyer
for his (Juanitos’) appeal.
40. There is a uniform procedure in the Municipal Trial Courts except:
A. In the municipal circuit trial court’s C. Municipal trial courts in cities
B. Metropolitan Trial Courts D. In criminal cases governed by the revised
Rules on summary procedures.
41. In all criminal cases appealed to the Court of Appeals the property appealing the case shall be called
the _______________
A. Complainant C. Appellee
B. Appellant D. Respondent
42. The adverse party of the aprty appealing the case is called the ______________
A. Appellant C. Plaintiff
B. Accused D. Appellee
43. The court of appeals may dismiss the appeal on the following ground except:
A. If appellant escapes from prison C. If appellant jumps bail
B. If appellant escapes from confinement D. If appellant files a motion for reconsideration
44. It is one of the scope of judgment of the Court of Appeals except:
A. Reverse the judgment imposed by the trial court.
B. Affirm the judgment imposed by the trial court.
C. Increase or reduce the penalty imposed by the trial court.
D. Forward the case to the Supreme Court.
45. Trials and hearings in the court of appeals must be continuous and must be completed within such
period, unless extended by
the chief justice.
A. Within six (6) months C. Within three (3) months
B. Within ten (10) months D. Within twelve (12) months
46. Arturo was sentenced by the trial court with death penalty when death penalty is still on effect. There
was an automatic
review by the Supreme Court. While the case is still in the Supreme Court, the death penalty was
out lowed. The supreme
Court affirm the decision of the trial court. What should be the proper penalty to be imposed upon
the accused by the
supreme court.
A. Death Penalty C. Reclusion Perpetua
B. Reclusion Temporal D. Prison Correctional
47. A motion for reconsideration shall be filed within such period from notice of the decision or final order
of the court of Appeals,
with copies thereof served upon the adverse party, setting forth the grounds in support thereof.
A. Within fifteen (15) days C. Within twenty (20) days
B. Within ten (10) days D. Within thirty (30) days
48. Unless otherwise provided by the constitution or by law the procedure in the ____________in original
and in appealed cases
shall be the same as in the Court of Appeals.
A. Regional Trial Court C. Municipal Trial Court
B. Supreme Court D. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
49. The procedure for the review by the supreme court of decisions in criminal cases rendered by the
court of appeals shall be the
same in _____________________
A. Civil Cases C. Corporate cases
B. Administrative cases D. Quash criminal cases
50. When the Supreme Court en banc is equally divided in opinion or the necessary majority cannot be
had on whether to acquit
the appellant, the case shall again be deliberated upon and if no decision is reached after re-
deliberation the judgment of
conviction of the lower court shall be ___________.
51. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by a judge and
directed to a peace officer,
commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Information
B. Complaint D. Search Warrant
52. It refers to person and places particularly described thoroughly investigated or searched.
A. Seizure C. Confiscation
B. Search D. Take into custody
53. It refers to things particularly described to be taken away or confiscated or to be seized.
A. Search C. Looking for something
B. Seizure D. Thorough investigation
54. If the criminal action has already been filed where should the application for search warrant be filed?
A. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction of a crime was committed.
B. Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed.
C. Any court within the judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced
D. In the court where the criminal action is pending
55. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure for this kind of property.
A. Real Property C. Personal property
B. Paraphernal Property D. Capital property
56. A _________A_________ shall not issue except upon (57)________B__ in connection with one
specific offense to be determined
personally by the (58) ______C______after examination under(59)_____D_________ or affirmation
of the
(60)_________E________ and the witnesses he may produce, and particularly describing the place
to be searched and the things
to be seized.
A. Search
warrant C. Judge E. Complainant
B. Probable cause D. Oath
61. During the arraignment, the accused must be ______________.
A. Represented by a proxy C. Out of the country
B. Present personally D. Represented by the prosecutor
62. What plea is recorded or entered for the accused if he refuses to plead?
A. Plea of guilty C. No plea is entered
B. Plea of not guilty D. Improvident plea of guilty
63. The reading of the complainant or information during the arraignment shall be done in what dialect or
language?
A. In English only C. In Spanish
B. In Tagalog only D. In the dialect or language known by the
accused
64. Total criminal liability is extinguished except by:
A. By service of sentence C. By prescription of crime
B. By absolute Pardon D. By conditional pardon
65. It is the Loss or waiver of the State of its right to prosecute an act prohibited and punished by law.
A. Prescription of jurisdiction C. Prescription of crime
B. Prescription of venue D. Prescription of penalty
66. It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the prosecutor or fiscal
and filled with the court.
A. Arrest C. Complainant
B. Information D. Warrant of Arrest
67. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party,
any peace officer or other
public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Information C. Complaint
B. Search Warrant D. Warrant of Arrest
68. He shall have the direction and control in the prosecution of all criminal actions either commenced by
complaint or by
Information.
A. Public Prosecutor or fiscal C. Judge
B. Clerk of Court D. Investigator on case
69. It has the power to order a change of venue or place of trial to avoid a miscarriage of justice.
A. Congress C. Supreme Court
B. Court of Appeals D. Senate
70. The proper officer who issues a warrant of arrest.
A. Public Prosecutor C. Judge
B. Chief of Police D. Clerk of Court
71. It is defined as such facts and circumstances which would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the objects sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. Personal Knowledge C. Probable Cause
B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Principle of innocence
72. Requisites of a valid search warrant except:
A. It must be upon probable cause
B. The search warrant must particularly describe the place to be search and the things to be
seized
C. The search warrant must be issued in connection with the specific offense
D. The search warrant must involved real properties
73. It is a warrant which fails to sufficiently specify the place or person to be searched or things to be
seized.
A. Search Warrant C. Provisionary Search Warrant
B. General Search Warrant D. Probationary Search Warrant
74. The officer, enforcing the search warrant if refused admittance to the place of directed search after
giving notice of his
purpose and authority, what may be his legal; move?
A. May break open any outer or inner door of a house
B. May break open any outer or inner window of a house
C. May liberate himself when unlawfully detained.
D. All of the above
75. How should a search of a house, room, or any other premises be made?
A. Presence of the lawful occupant C. Two witnesses of
sufficient age and discretion
B. Presence of any member of the occupant’s family D. All of the above
76. PO1 Reyes was enforcing a search warrant, he introduced himself to the occupant of the house and
mentioned his purpose,
however he was refuse admittance. What should be the legal move of PO1 Reyes?
A. May break open the door C. May break any part of the house to make an
entry
B. May break open the window D. All of the above
77. The validity of the search warrant.
A. Ten (10) days from its date C. Seven (7) days from its date
B. Fifteen (15) days from its date D. Five (5) days from its date
78. To whom the officer who served the search warrant return the property seized?
A. To the prosecutor C. To the complainant
B. To the judge who issued the warrant D. To the clerk of court
79. Berto was seen and observed by PO2 Peralta in the act of picking the wallet of Carlos. Berto
successfully took possession of
the wallet of Carlos. At this instance PO2 Peralta arrested Berto and when PO2 Peralta search Berto
a bladed weapon was
found in his possession. Berto was charged with theft and illegal possession of deadly weapon. He
countered that the search
made by PO2 Peralta on his person is illegal. Is Berto correct?
A. Yes, because PO2 Peralta have no search warrant when he searched Berto.
B. Yes, the deadly weapon cannot be used as evidence against Berto because it was illegally
searched.
C. No, because the search made by PO2 Peralta is incidental to a lawful arrest.
D. Yes, because PO2 Peralta abused his authority when he searched Berto without a warrant.
80. The rule that searches and seizures must be.supported by a valid search is not absolute. The
exception is:
A. Search incidental to a lawful arrest C. Stop and Frisk
B. Plain view seizure D. all of the above E. None of the
above
81. A valid search warrant was issued against Roberto. When the warrant was served on the house of
Roberto, an unlicensed
firearm was found in his room which is not included in the search warrant. He was charged for
illegal possession of
unlicensed firearm. Will the case against Roberto prosper?
A. Yes, because he was in possession of an unlicensed firearm
B. Yes, because seizure of the unlicensed firearm is incidental to a lawful search.
C. No, because the firearm is not one of those personal properties ordered to be seized by the
court, and therefore
illegally obtained evidence.
D. Yes, although it is not included in the search warrant, the firearm which is unlicensed is
illegal and therefore can be
confiscated and seized
82. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained during the search
but also facts discouraged
by reason of said unlawful search
A. Principle of double jeopardy C. Proof of beyond reasonable doubt principle
B. Principle of a fruit a Poisonous tree D. Search incidental to a lawful arrest principle
83. It is defined as the vernacular designation of the right of a police officer to stop a citizen on the street,
interrogate him and put
him for weapons,
A. Stop & Frisk C. Waiver
B. Plain view seizure D. Consented warrantless search
84. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Exclusionary rule C. Plain view doctrine
B. Fruit of a poisonous tree doctrine D. Stop & Frisk Principle
85. In this principle, the law requires that there be fist a lawful arrest before a search can be made.
A. Plain view doctrine C. Search incidental to lawful arrest
B. Stop & Frisk Doctrine D. Inspection search
86. The purpose of search incidental to A lawful arrest, except:
A. Protect the arresting officer against physical harm from the person being arrested
B. The person being arrested might be concealing weapons to be used against the officer
C. To protect the person arrested from destroying evidence within his reach.
D. To know the identity of the arrested person.
87. The search warrant was issued on February 01, 2012, up to what date will it be valid?
A. Feb 09, 2012 C. Feb 12, 2012
B. February 11,2012 D. February 10,2012
88. The officer after the conduct of search and seizure must do the following except:
A. Give a detailed receipt of the property seized to the lawful occupant.
B. Leave a detailed receipt of the property in the place in which he found the seized property in
the presence of at least
two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality.
C. Deliver immediately the property seized to the issuing judge together with the true and duly
verified under oath
inventory thereof
D. Deliver immediately the property seized in a bonded warehouse for safekeeping even
without the approval of the
court.
89. The extent of warrantless search may be made on the person of the suspect and immediate vicinity
or surrounding area of the
place of arrest, except:
A. In his room
B. Confined place within the accused’s immediate control
C. In his house situated 150 kmtrs away from the place of arrest
D. Premises of surroundings under his immediate control.
90 Routine inspection are not regarded as violative of an individual’s right against unreasonable search,
except:
A. Where the occupants are subjected to a physical or body search
B. Where the officers flashes a light therein without opening the car’s door
C. Where the inspection of the vehicle is limited to a visual search or visual inspection
D. Where the routine check is conducted in a fixed area
QUESTION 91 TO 100
Blacken A, if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and the second is incorrect; C
if the first statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are incorrect:
91. The frisk and search of a person is a permissible precautionary measure to protect the officer from
such person who might be armed with dangerous weapon. Warrantless search or incoming and outgoing
passengers at the arrival and departure areas of an international airport is universally allowed. A
92. Stop and frisk is limited protective search of outer clothing for weapons. A waiver of an illegal
warrantless also mean a waiver of the inadmissibility of evidence seized during an illegal warrantless
arrest.B
93. Warrantless search incidental to s lawful arrest may be made on the person only of the suspect and
not in the immediate vicinity or surrounding area of the place of arrest. Warrantless search incidental to a
lawful arrest may be made on the premises or surroundings under the persons immediate control.C
94. Where the search is made pursuant to a lawful arrest, there is always need to obtain a search
warrant. When the accused was caught inflagrante (in the act) there must be a search warrant to search
him and a warrant of arrest for his arrest.D
95. The search warrant is valid for ten days from its date. The warrant must direct that it be served in the
day time unless the affidavit asserts that the property is on the person or in the place ordered to be
searched, in which case a direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of the day or night.A
96. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property. An application for
search warrant may be filed in any court within which whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was
committed.A
97. Search refers to persons and places particularly described to be searched. A warrant of arrest is an
order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge and directed to a
place of officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the
court.B
98. A motion to re-open trial maybe filed after judgment but within the period for reconsideration can
interrupt the running of the 15 day period to perfect an appeal.C
99. Decisions of cases in the court of appeals is appealable to the Regional Trial Courts. Cases decided
by the regional trial courts are appealable to the Metropolitan Trial Courts.D
100. For the purpose of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases, the maximum of the penalty
and not the minimum is taken into account. The period within which to perfect an appeal is fifteen (15)
days.A
LEA – Philippine Criminal Justice System

FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA – Philippine Criminal Justice System)
1. What do you call the branch of Criminology deals with the management and administration of
inmates?
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
2. Which of the following person convicted by final judgment?
a. Prisoner b. Detainee c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
3. The suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law is known as _______;
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
4. What branch of administration of criminal justice charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision and rehabilitation of convicted offenders?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
5. Which of the following is not a prison facility?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Manila City Jail
6. Which of the following is not a type of jail?
a. Lock-up b. Ordinary Jail c. New Bilibid Prison d. Work
House
7. What do you call to a disposition under which a defendant after sentenced and conviction is
released subject to the conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of probation officer?
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Parole d. Amnesty
8. Which of the following refers to the programs, services and institutions responsible for those
individuals who are accused and or convicted of criminal offenses?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
9. Refers to the suffering that is inflicted by the State for the violation of the law:
a. Punishment b. Sanction c Consequence d. Penalty
10.The basic law of the Philippine Prison System is found in the_____;
a. Revised Administrative Code c. Revised Penal Code
b. Revised Rules of Court d. Local Government Code
11.A theory justifying penalty which states that the criminal is punished to served as an example to
discourage others from committing crimes:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
12.A theory justifying penalty which states that criminals are punished to prevent or suppress the
danger to the State and to the public arising from the criminal acts of the offender:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
13.A juridical condition of penalty that states that the penalty must be imposed only to the person
who actually committed the crime:
a. commensurate b. definite c. personal d. equal
14.A juridical condition of penalty that states that penalty must be imposed by virtue of a judgment
by competent authority and as prescribed by law:
a. judicial and legal b. definite c.
equal d. personal
15.The national prisons are administered by the national government under what particular office?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology c. Department of Interior and Local
Government
b. Bureau of Corrections d. Office of the Governor
16.What penal institution established pursuant to Act No. 3579?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d.New Bilibid Prison
17.What law classifies prisoners?
a. Republic Act 29 b. Batas Pambansa 29 c. Presidential Decree 29 d.
Executive Order 29
18.Refers to the combination of public and private services with legal authority to provide for the
care, custody and control of those convicted of a criminal offense;
a. Conviction b. Corrections c. Courts d.
Penalty
19.What do you call the postponement of the execution of a death sentence?
a. Amnesty b. Probation c. Commutation of Sentence d.
Reprieve
20. What do you call a method by which a prisoner who has served a portion of his sentence is
conditionally released but remains in legal custody, the condition being that in case of misbehavior, he
shall be imprisoned?
a. Amnesty b. Parole c. Probation d. Pardon
21.What do you call the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence of an inmate because of good
behavior?
a. Commutation of sentence b. Judicial Reprieve c. Imposition of
Penalty d. Good Conduct time allowance
22.Who is the father of modern probation ?
a. John Howard b. John Augustus c. William Penn d.
Sir Walter Crofton
23.Probation is derived from the Latin word “probare” which means ______?
a. to prove b. to permit c. to release d. to serve
24.What is Presidential Decree 968?
a. Probation and Parole Law of 1967 c. Adult and Juvenile Probation Act of 1976
b. Probation Law of 1976 d. Pardon and Parole Law of 1967
25.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion is known as?
a. Reprieve b. Parole c. Executive Clemency d. Amnesty
26.Which of the following refers to an executive clemency changing a heavier sentence to a less serious
one, or a longer prison term to a shorter one?
a. Reprieve b. Commutation of Sentence c. Deduction of Sentence d. Good Conduct
time allowance
27. The following are the effects of pardon, EXCEPT one;
a. It removes penalties and disabilities and restores full civil and political rights.
b. It does not discharge the civil liability of the convict to the individual he has wronged.
c. It does not restore offices, property or rights vested in others in consequence of the conviction.
d. It extinguishes the civil and criminal liability of the convicted offender.
28.Refers to the confinement and treatment of adult offenders and juvenile delinquents;
a. Penalty b. Conviction c. Corrections d. Prison
29.What purpose of correction in which the State wants to protect the society by reducing crime and
isolating and segregating criminals through imprisonment?
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Isolation d.
Rehabilitation
30.What purpose/ objective of correction that involves the use of punitive and disciplinary measures
such as solitary confinement, to modify or reform criminal behavior whose conduct and deportment is
not totally responding to rehabilitation programs?
a. Retribution b. Isolation c. Rehabilitation d.
Reformation
31.Which of the following theoretical foundations in dealing with criminals believed in the concept or
principle of “Let the punishment fits the crime.”
a. Classical School b. Neo Classical School c. Positivist School d. Demonological School
32.When an individuals commits a crime they let the person drink a pungent poison to drive away the
evil spirit inside his body which leads him in the commission of crime. What do you call of this early
form of correction?
a. Trephination Method b. GrotesqueMask c. Pungent Poison d.
Banishment
33.The cutting of some parts of the offenders’ body is known as ______?
a. Flogging b. Mutilation c. Exile d. Branding
34.What is the manifestation of punishment during the dominance of Roman Empire?
a. Flogging b. Transfortation c. Banishment d. Slavery
35.In 1166 A.D. Assize of Clarendon (Constitution of Clarendon) constructed the first facility designed
solely for public incarceration. This facility was known as ________?
a. Prison b. Goal c. Workhouses d.
Detention Cell
36.What is the name of the famous gaol in Europe?
a. Assize of Clarendon b. New Gate c. Workhouses d.
Gaol
37. Who is the former prisoner and was released through parole became the first English prison
reformer as he was then appointed sheriff of Bedford Shire a local gaol in England?
a. John Howard b. Alexander Maonochie c.. Sir Walter Crofton d.
Rutherford Hayes
38.Refers to a concept that rejects hard labor as a form of punishment is known as _________?
a. Prison b. Detention c. Penitentiary d. Hospice
39.Who is the governor of the state of Pennsylvania initiated reforms in their prison system?
a. John Howard b. Walter Crofton c. Rutherford Hayes d. William
Penn
40.The fifth pillar of criminal justice system is _______?
a. Police b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Community
41.This is known as the basic unit of soiety;
a. Family b. School c. Church d. Media
42.He is an Englishman was then in-charge of the Birth of the British Penal Colony in Norfolk Island and
gained the title of “Father of Parole.”
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William Penn
43.Prisoners were encouraged for good behavior for them to gain incentives that would lead to their
early release. This concept was called the __________ which became the forerunner of Parole.
a. Pennsylvania System b. Mark System c. Reformatory
System d. Ticket Leave System
44.The first prison to abandon the Pennsylvania system and introduced the congregate prison in silent
system is known as _____?
a. Pennsylvania System b. Reformatory System c. Ticket Leave
System d. Auburn System
45.Who established the Irish concept of ticket-of- leave system?
a. Sir Walter Crofton b. Alexander Maconochie c. John Howard d. William Penn
46.The following are the early forms of punishment, EXCEPT one;
a. Branding b. Mutilation c. Public
Humiliation d. Trephination Method
47.Refers to conditional release that could be revoked any time before the original sentence expired;
a. Ticket of leave b. Mark system c. Workhouses d. Parole
48.The first President of the National Prison Association that encourage the separation of offenders by
age and practice of indeterminate sentence, academic and vocational training for inmates;
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William Penn
49.It is the machinery of the state uses in the prevention of crime.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
50.They serve as lawyer of the government in all criminal cases.
a. Prosecutor b. Defense Lawyer c. Judges d. Litigants
51.They initiate the process to make the criminal justice system works.
a. Defense Lawyer b. Courts c. Police d. Judges
52.An inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made especially
those arrests made without warrant.
a. Preliminary Investigation b. Court Trial c. Preliminary Hearing d. Inquest Procedure
53.The knowledge of facts, actual or apparent, strong enough to justify a reasonable man in the belief
that the lawful grounds for arresting the accused;
a. Proof b. Evidence c. Probable Cause d. Subpoena
54.An act or omission punishable by law;
a. Crime b. Arrest c. Culpa d. Deceit
55.It is a principle that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty or property without reasonable
and lawful procedures;
a. Equal protection b. Right against self-incrimination c. Bill of Rights d. Due
Process
56.Consists of district and circuit court in Muslims areas for the administration of the provisions of
Muslims Personal Law;
a. Sandiganbayan b. Shari’a court c. Supreme Court d. Court of
Appeals
57.The law that created the Katarungang Pambarangay;
a. Republic Act No. 7160 b. Republic Act No. 7106 c. Republic Act No. 6170 d. Republic
Act No. 1760
58.The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense.
a. Detection b. Apprehension c. Adjudication d. Arrest
59.They are considered as the prime mover of the system.
a. Law Enforcement b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Correction
60.When was the first Philippine probation law enacted?
a. August 5, 1953 b. August 5, 1935 c. August 7, 1953 d. August 7, 1935
61. It is the first probation law of the Philippines;
a. Act No 4221 b. Act No 4122 c. Act No 1242 d. Act No
2241
62.Who is the father of Philippine probation?
a. Teodoro Natividad b. Teodolo Natividad c. Teofilo Natividad d. Theodore
Natividad
63.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion;
a. Amnesty b. Repreive c. Probation d. Parole
64.Refers to the extinction of the criminal liability of an individual, within certain limits or conditions,
from the punishment which the law inflicts for the offense he has committed;
a. Parole b. Amnesty c. Absolute Pardon d. Conditional
Pardon
65.The pardoning power is exercised by the _______?
a. President b. Commissioner c. Secretary of DOJ d. Speaker of the House
66.A collective term for absolute pardon, conditional pardon and commutation of sentence ;
a. Probation b. Amnesty c. Executive Clemency d. Pardon
67.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to six months;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
68.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of six months and one day to three years;
69.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to three years;
70.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of three years and one day to death;
71.Those held for security reasons; held for investigation; those awaiting final judgment; those
awaiting trial are referred as _____?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Detention Prisoners c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
72.Those convicted by final judgment referred as ______?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. Sentenced
Prisoner
73.Security facility for the temporary detention of persons held for investigation or waiting preliminary
hearing; usually the period of detention does not exceed forty eight (48) hours is called _____?
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
74.Refers to an institutions for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to imprisonment of three
(3) years or less and offenders awaiting and/or undergoing trial;
75.Refers to farms or camps;
76. City and municipal jails are administered and supervised by the ________?
a. BJMP b. BUCOR c. NBI d.
PNP
77.Provincial jails are administered and supervised by their respective ______?
a. local government b. city government c. provincial government d. National
Government
78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_______”, “_______.”
a. jaulo and caula b. deceit and dolo c. fault and culpa d. poena and gaol
79. The prison that established on 16 January 1973;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
80.The following are sub-colony of Sablayan Colony and Penal Farm, Except one;
a. Central b. Pasugul c. Yapang d. Panabo
81.How many hectares does the Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm measures?
a. 16,000 hectares b. 124 hectares c. 18 hectares d. 1,500 hectares
82.What prison established in 1870 by Capt. Ramon Blanco, of the Spanish Royal Army, and was named
after Capt. Blanco’s father’s patron saint?
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
83.It operates Tanglaw settlement for released prisoners as homesteaders;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. Davao Penal Colony c. National Bilibid Prison d. Leyte
Regional Prison
84.What prison established on 16 November 1904 pursuant to Reorganization Act 1407?
a. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
85.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials were provide by private business its
manufacturing process was supervised inside the prison?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d.
Contract system
86.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials and the products and produced by the prisons
and brought by the private business?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d.
Contract system
87.Refers to treatment program in which the offender and the therapist develop a face-to-face
relationship;
a. Individual Treatment b. Group Therapy c. Behavior therapy d.
Group Guided Interactions
88.Responsible for evaluating the evidence the law enforcement has gathered and deciding whether it
is sufficient to warrant the filing of charges against the alleged violator;
a. Judge b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecutor d. Courts
89.They are responsible in reforming the convicted person;
a. Correction b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecution d.
Courts
90. In most cases, the only paperwork necessary to initiate prosecution of an accused is. . .
a. Complaint or Information b. Affidavit c. Commitment Order d. Release Order
91.The criminal justice process begins with the _________.
a. Commission of a crime b. Apprehension of criminal c.. detection of crime d.
adjudication of the case
92.Comprises all means used to enforce the standards of conduct, which are deemed necessary to
protect individuals;
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
93.A court that covers two or more municipalities;
a. Regional Trial Court b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court c. Supreme Court d. Court
of Appeals
94. He is the warden of Sing Sing prison in New York who visited and studied the Prison System in
England and was impress the Irish system.
a. Alexander Maconochie b. William Pen c. Gaylord B. Hubbell d. Ippo
Maqonoche
95. This type of treatment program was used on highly aggressive inmates to control their
destructive behavior;
a. individual treatment b.group therapy c. chemotherapy d. behavior therapy
96. What type of treatment program that is sought to calm disruptive offender to associate pain and
displeasure with a certain stimuli;
a. neurosurgery b. serisory deprivation c. GGI d. Individual treatment
97. The main purpose of this program is to increase the client knowledge on career choices or job
qualification and training needed for successful employment
a. Vocational Counseling b. Behavioral Modification c. crisis intervention d. social
group work
98. A prison located at Muntinlupa, Metro Manila;
a. Ihawig Penal Colony b. National Bilibid Prison c. San Ramon Penal Farm d. Davao Penal
Colony
99. In the preceding number it has a measurement of 55 hectares ( choices refer to # 98) B
100. Where does the Philippine Prison System patterned?
a. English Prison System b. Irish Prison System c. US Federal Prison System d. Alcatraz Prison
Sytem
Law 2 – Criminal Law 2 (Book 2

FINAL EXAMINATION
(Law 2 – Criminal Law 2 (Book 2)
1. What crime is committed when a person, through force, inserts his penis into another person’s mouth or anal orifice?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Acts of Lasciviousness
2. If a person wounds, assaults or beats another person causing deformity on the latter, the crime committed is:
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
3. What crime is committed when a person, without intent to kill, inflicts upon another any serious physical injury, by
knowingly administering to him any injurious substances or beverages?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Mutilation
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Administering injurious substances or beverages
4. MAGDA, a prostitute, agreed to have sex with a customer for the amount of P1,000.00. While in the motel, the
customer started kissing MAGDA. MAGDA noticed that the customer has bad breath. Eventually, she pulled away
from the customer and refused to have sex with him. Angered by the refusal, the customer forced himself on MAGDA
who was able to accomplish his carnal desires on the latter. What crime, if any, did the customer commit?
A. Rape C. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Seduction D. No crime was committed
5. Republic act no. 8353 is also known as:

A. Comprehensive dangerous drugs act of 2002 C. Anti-rape law of 1997
B. Anti-torture law D. None of these
6. NENE, a 10-year old girl, consented to have sex with her 20-year old neighbor HOMER who looks like John Lloyd
Cruz. What crime, if any, did HOMER commit?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Violation of child abuse law D. Qualified Seduction
7. What crime is committed when a police officer takes advantage of his position to rape another person?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. None of these
8. Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the latter’s will commits the crime of:
A. Qualified trespass to dwelling C. Trespass to property
B. Simple trespass to dwelling D. Violation of domicile
9. Due to the passage of the Anti-rape law of 1997, Rape is now classified as:
A. Crime against chastity C. Crime against liberty
B. Crime against persons D. None of these
10. If the person kidnapped or detained shall be a female, the crime is:
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Slavery
B. Slight illegal detention D. Arbitrary detention
11. It is a crime committed by anyone who, under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by an ascendant,
guardian or person entrusted with the custody of a minor, shall, against the latter’s will, retain him in his service.
A. Slavery C. Exploitation of minors
B. Abandoning a minor D. Exploitation of child labor
12. It is committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor
force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Estafa D. Piracy
13. It is a felony committed by any person who shall threaten another with the infliction upon the person, honor,
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime
A. Grave coercion C. Grave threats
B. Light coercion D. Light threats
14. Any person who shall deliberately cause to the property of another any damage that does not constitute arson shall
be guilty for what crime?
A. Unjust vexation D. Damage to property
B. Malicious mischief D. None of these
15.A criminal complaint for adultery can be filed only by whom?

A. Offended spouse C. Both A and B
B. Guilty spouse D. The State
16.Any person who, having found lost property, shall fail to deliver the same to the local authorities or to its owner shall
be liable for what crime?
A. Theft C. Robbery
B. Estafa D. No crime was committed
17. LOLO ROMEO fondled the breast of her 15 year-old granddaughter WENDY. WENDY did not resist the advances of
her LOLO and in fact, she stated to him to continue what he is doing. What crime, if any, did LOLO ROMEO commit?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness C. Seduction
B. Acts of Lasciviousness with the consent D. Attempted Rape
Of the offended party
18. Acts of lasciviousness (Art.336) can be committed against:

A. female only C. Either male or female
B. male only D. None of these
19. A person who engages in the business of prostitution is liable for what felony?
A. Prostitution C. White slave trade
B. Slavery D. Vagrancy
20. While walking within the premises of a coconut plantation owned by JOEY, ROLAND saw a piece of coconut on the
ground. ROLAND decided to get the coconut and bring it home as a “pasalubong” to his son. What crime, if any, did
ROLAND commit?
A. Simple theft C. Robbery
B. Qualified theft D. Estafa
21. It is the seduction of a woman who is single and of good reputation, over twelve but under eighteen years of age,
and committed by means of deceit
A. Simple seduction C. Forcible abduction
B. Qualified seduction D. Acts of Lasciviousness
22. KURT has a longstanding grudge against his neighbor JIMI. One day, while JIMI was away, KURT surreptitiously
poisoned the cow of JIMI resulting in the death of the cow. What crime, if any, did KURT commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Violation of PD 533 (Anti-cattle rustling law) D. Physical injuries
23. MICHELLE MASIPAG worked as a housemaid and yaya of the one-week old son of the spouses PETER and PAULA.
When MICHELLE learned that her 70 year-old mother was seriously ill, she asked PETER for a cash advance of
P1,000.00, but PETER refused. One morning, MICHELLE gagged the mouth of PETER’s son with stockings; placed the
child in a box; sealed it with masking tape and placed the box in the attic. Later in the afternoon, she
demanded P5,000.00 as ransom for the release of his son. PETER did not pay the ransom. Subsequently, MICHELLE
disappeared.
After a couple of days, PETER discovered the box in the attic with his child already dead. According to the
autopsy report, the child died of asphyxiation barely three minutes after the box was sealed. What crime/s did
MICHELLE commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping with homicide
B. Slight illegal detention with homicide D. Kidnapping and homicide
24. Unjust vexation is a:

A. Crime against security C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against property D. None of these
25. Malicious mischief is a:

A. Crime against property C. Crime against persons
B. Crime against liberty D. None of these
26. SARAH and NONITO are sweethearts. As a birthday gift, NONITO gave SARAH a BlackBerry cell phone. Two days
later, SARAH broke up with NONITO because she caught the latter cheating on her. SARAH decided to burn the cell
phone that NONITO gave her. What crime, if any, did SARAH commit?
A. Arson C. Damage to property
B. Malicious mischief D. No crime was committed
27. In an interview aired on television, DINA uttered defamatory statements against CARMEN, a successful and
reputable businesswoman. What crime, if any, did DINA commit?
A. Slander C. Incriminating innocent persons
B. Libel D. No crime was committed
28. It consists in voluntarily, but without malice, doing or failing to do an act from which material damage results by
reason of inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of the person performing or failing to perform such act.
A. Reckless imprudence C. Offense
B. Simple imprudence D. None of these
29. It is the abduction of any woman against her will and with lewd designs
A. Consented abduction C. Kidnapping
B. Forcible abduction D. None of these
30. SIMON entered the house of another without employing force or violence upon things. He was seen by a maid
who wanted to scream but was prevented from doing so because SIMON threatened her with a gun. SIMON then
took money and other valuables and left. What crime, if any, did SIMON commit?
A. Theft C. Trespass to dwelling

B. Qualified theft D. Robbery
31. Seduction is a:
A. Crime against honor C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against persons D. Crime against liberty
32. Libel is a:
A. Crime against persons C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against property D. Crime against honor
33. A fire broke out in a department store. SID, taking advantage of the confusion, entered the store and carried
away goods, which he later sold. What crime, if any, did SID commit?
A. Robbery C. Qualified theft
B. Theft D. Estafa
34. Any person who shall defraud another with unfaithfulness or abuse of confidence shall be liable for what crime?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Robbery D. Estafa
35. DANTE and DIEGO ate at a restaurant near Our Lady of Fatima University in Valenzuela City. Because it is lunch
time, the restaurant was crowded. Realizing that they can leave the restaurant unnoticed without having their bill for
the food they ate, paid, the two clandestinely left the place. After two days, the police apprehended the two. What
crime, if any, did DANTE and DIEGO commit?
A. Theft C. Estafa
B. Qualfied theft D. No crime was committed
36. Kidnapping may be committed by:

A. Private persons C. Either A or B
B. Public officers/employees D. None of these
37. It is a crime committed by any person who, in any case other than those authorized by law, or without
reasonable ground therefore, shall arrest or detains another for the purpose of delivering him to the proper
authorities.
A. Arbitrary detention C. Illegal detention
B. Unlawful arrest D. Kidnapping
38. It is committed by any person who, without authority of law, shall by means of violence, threats or intimidation,
prevent another from doing something not prohibited by law, or compel him to do something against his will,
whether it be right or wrong.
a. Grave coercions c. Light coercions
b. Grave threats d. Light threats
39. Any person who shall orally threaten to do another any harm not constituting a felony is liable for what crime, if
any?
A. Coercion C. Unjust vexation
B. Other light threats D. No crime was committed
40. A private individual who, in order to discover the secrets of another, shall seize his papers or letters and reveal
the contents thereof is liable for what felony?
A. Infidelity in the custody of documents C. Theft
B. Discovering secrets through seizure of D. Estafa
Correspondence
41. Vex means

A. Annoyance C. Deceit
B. Asportation D. Fraud
42. To constitute a band under Art. 296 of the Revised Penal Code, there must be how many armed persons taking
part in a robbery?
A. More than three C. Three or more
B. Three D. Less than three
43. A person who possesses a picklock without lawful cause is liable for what crime, if any?
A. Theft C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. No crime was committed
44. A person who uses a picklock or other similar tools in the commission of robbery shall be guilty of what crime?
A. Robbery C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. Robbery and possession of picklocks
45. CAROL and CINDY are sisters. Both are college students in the College of Criminology of Our Lady of Fatima
University in Valenzuela City. They both live with their parents. CAROL has a cute shih tzu dog; one day while CAROL
was away on a date, CINDY took the dog without the consent of CAROL and sold it to her classmate. What crime did
CINDY commit?
A. Robbery C. Malicious mischief
B. Estafa D. Theft
46. In question no. 45, is CINDY criminally liable?

A. Yes, because she committed theft
B. Yes, because she sold the dog without the permission of her sister
C. No, because she is exempted under Art. 332 of the Revised Penal Code
D. No. Although a crime was committed, she is exempted under Art. 332 of the Revised Penal Code
47. When more than three armed persons form a band of robbers for the purpose of committing robbery in the
highway, the felony committed is:
A. Brigandage C. Piracy
B. Robbery D. None of these
48. To be liable for violation of the Anti-Fencing law of 1979 (PD No. 1612), a person who, with intent to gain for
himself or another, shall buy, receive, possess, keep, acquire, conceal, sell, or dispose of, or shall buy and sell, any
item, article, object which he knows, or should be known to him, to have been derived from the proceeds of the
crime of:
A. Robbery or Theft C. Theft only
B. Robbery only D. Robbery, Theft, or Estafa
49. A person who shall contract a second or subsequent marriage before the former marriage has been legally
dissolved is liable for what crime?
A. Adultery C. Bigamy
B. Concubinage D. None of these
50. HERCULES kidnapped ACHILLES and subsequently detained him in a rented property somewhere in Valenzuela
City. After detaining ACHILLES for 10 hours, HERCULES called ACHILLES’ wife to ask for the payment of P2 million in
exchange for the liberty of her husband. ACHILLES’ wife immediately agreed and deposited the P2 million in
HERCULES’ bank account. Five hours have passed before HERCULES was able to receive the money. Thereafter, he
quickly released ACHILLES. What crime is committed?
A. Slight illegal detention C. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention
B. Grave coercion D. Forcible abduction
51. It is the taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another without the latter’s consent, or by
means of violence against or intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things
A. Robbery C. Carnapping
B. Qualified theft D. Brigandage
52. IVAN entered the house of DIEGO through the chimney, just like what Santa Claus does. While inside, he took a
laptop computer on the table and immediately left the house without anyone seeing him. What crime, if any, did
IVAN commit?
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Trespass to dwelling D. Malicious mischief
53. It is a crime committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not her husband
and by the man who has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married.
A. Concubinage C. Seduction
B. Bigamy D. Adultery
54. DENNIS and CARMEN were legally separated. Their child FRANCIS, a minor was placed in the custody of
CARMEN, subject to monthly visitations by DENNIS. On one occasion, when DENNIS had FRANCIS in his company,
DENNIS decided not to return FRANCIS to his mother. Instead, DENNIS took FRANCIS with him to Spain where he
intended for them to reside permanently. What crime, if any, did DENNIS commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping and failure to return a minor
B. Kidnapping and slight illegal detention D. Corruption of minors
55. A public officer or employee acting in his private capacity is considered a:

A. Public officer C. Either A or B
B. Private individual D. Person in authority
56. Which of the following is no longer a crime/s, according to the decision of the Supreme Court in Valenzuela vs
People (GR No. 160188, June 21, 2007):
A. Frustrated theft c. Both a and b
B. Frustrated robbery d. None of these
57. If someone was killed in the course of the commission of robbery, the crime committed is:
A. Robbery and homicide C. Homicide
B. Robbery D. Robbery with homicide
58. A person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the
same to the payment of the debt is liable for what felony?
A. light threats C. Light coercions
B. Fraudulent insolvency D. None of these
59. By using a slingshot, RONNIE deliberately hit the favorite duck of his LOLA TASYA. As a consequence, the duck
died. RONNIE was charged with malicious mischief. RONNIE contended that he is exempt from criminal liability
pursuant to Art.332 of the Revised Penal Code. Is RONNIE correct?
A.Yes, because RONNIE is a descendant of his LOLA, thus exempt under Art. 332 of the Penal Code
B. Yes, because RONNIE is a minor
C. No, because RONNIE committed a crime
D. No, because RONNIE intended to kill the duck of his LOLA
60. It is an essential element of estafa:

A. Destruction C. Negligence
B. Damage D. None of these
61. DANNY burned to death his enemy FLORANTE. What crime is committed?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide
B. Murder D. Murder and arson
62. JOAN and JANE are college classmates. They are both of legal age. JOAN burned the pen of JANE worth P10.00
because JANE did not allow JOAN to copy her assignment in school. What crime, if any, did JOAN commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Arson D. No crime was committed
63. Which of the following is not a crime:

A. Attempted rape C. Attempted robbery
B. Frustrated rape D. Frustrated robbery
64. Which of the following is a private crime:

A. Rape C. Bigamy
B. Malicious mischief D. Adultery
65. Which of the following is a crime against security:

A. Libel C. Unjust vexation
B. Malicious mischief D. Theft
66. DONDON, a tricycle driver, plied his usual route using a Suzuki motorcycle with a sidecar. One evening, JOJO
rode on the sidecar, poked a knife at DONDON and instructed him to go near the bridge. Upon reaching the bridge,
JOJO alighted from the motorcycle and suddenly stabbed DONDON several times until he was dead. JOJO fled from
the scene taking the motorcycle with him. What crime/s did JOJO commit?
A. Homicide C. Carnapping with homicide
B. Carnapping and murder D. Carnapping and homicide
67. At about 11:00 in the evening, LANDO forced his way inside the house of ROGER. TIBURCIO, ROGER’s son, saw
LANDO and accosted him. LANDO pulled a knife and stabbed TIBURCIO on his abdomen. ROGER heard the
commotion and went out of his room. LANDO, who is about to escape, assaulted ROGER. TIBURCIO suffered
injuries, which were not for the timely medical attendance, would have caused his death. ROGER sustained injuries
that incapacitated him for 25 days. How many crime/s did LANDO commit?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
68. In question no. 67, what kind of physical injuries did ROGER sustain?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
69. In the crime of qualified seduction, the offended party should be a virgin. What kind of virginity does the law
contemplate?
A. Physical virginity C. Both a and b
B. Moral virginity D. None of these
70. Lewd designs mean:

A. Deceit C. Lustful
B. Prejudice D. Intent
71. NOAH proposed to his friend MARLON to kidnap ALLIE so that they can rape her. MARLON agreed. On the date
of their plan, the two had a change of heart and did not push through with the scheme. What crime, if any, did
NOAH and MARLON commit?
A. Attempted kidnapping C. Attempted rape
B. Attempted forcible abduction D. No crime was committed
72. It is the essence of adultery:

A. Sexual intercourse C. Violence
B. Relationship D. Intimidation
73. After raping the complainant in her house, the accused struck a match to smoke a cigarette before departing
from the scene. The brief light from the match allowed him to notice a watch in her wrist. He demanded that she
hand over the watch. When she refused, he forcibly grabbed it from her. What crime/s did the accused commit?
A. Robbery with rape C. Rape and theft
B. Rape and robbery D. Qualified rape
74. An accused charged with violation of PD No. 1612 (Anti-fencing law of 1979) would have been an____________ in
theft or robbery had not the charge filed against him been fencing.
A. Principal C. Accessory
B. Accomplice D. None of these
75. It is a common element in the crime of robbery or theft:

A. Intent to gain C. Violence
B. Force D. Deceit
76. Which of the following is not a crime:

A. Frustrated arson C. Frustrated parricide
B. Frustrated robbery D. Frustrated infanticide
77. RA No. 6539, otherwise known as the Anti-carnapping law is:
A. Part of the Revised Penal Code C. Either A or B
B. A special penal law D. None of these
78. PD No. 533, otherwise known as the Anti-cattle rustling law of 1974 is:
A. Part of the Revised Penal Code C. Either a or b
B. A special penal law D. None of these
79. It is the taking of personal property out of the possession of the owner
A. Robbery C. Asportation
B. Seizure D. None of these
80. If a person enters the dwelling or property of another without the consent of the owner, but the purpose of such
entry is to render some aid to humanity or justice, what crime, if any, did the person who entered commit?
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Violation of domicile
B. Trespass to property D. No crime was committed
81. TT kidnapped KK in a dimly lit street. XX, a passerby saw what happened. TT noticed that XX witnessed his act. As a
consequence, TT killed XX. What is the crime committed?
A. Kidnapping with homicide C. Kidnapping and murder
B. Kidnapping and homicide D. None of these
82. A 7-year old child was raped by the friend of her father. What crime is committed?
A. Qualified rape C. Simple rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Seduction
83. By using a picklock, ABET ALINLANGAN successfully entered the house of POPOY. As ABET was about to get the ipad
and iphone on top of the table, he noticed POPOY descending from the stairs. Alarmed, he went to POPOY and killed
him. What is the crime committed?
A. Attempted robbery with homicide c. Attempted theft with homicide
B. Attempted robbery and homicide d. Attempted theft and homicide
84. What is the effect if the offender marries the offended party in rape, granting all the requisites for a valid marriage are
present?
A. The crime is extinguished C. both A and B
B. The criminal liability is extinguished D. No effect
85. DOY, a gigolo from Manila raped SISA, a barrio lass in Nueva Ecija. At the time of the commission of the rape, DOY
had no knowledge that SISA was a mental retardate. What is the crime committed?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. Seduaction
86. AUBREY, a gorgeous ‘colegiala’ but a shoplifter went to SM Valenzuela and proceeded to the women’s wear section.
The saleslady was of the impression that she brought to the fitting room three (3) pieces of swimsuits of different
colors. When she came out of the fitting room, she returned only two (2) pieces to the clothes rack. The saleslady
became suspicious and alerted the store security. AUBREY was stopped by the security before she could leave the
store and brought to the office of the store manager. The security and the manager searched her and found her
wearing the third swimsuit under her blouse and pants. What is the crime committed?
A. Attempted theft C. Consummated theft
B. Frustrated theft D. Robbery
87. The main difference between kidnapping and forcible abduction is the presence or absence of:
A. Taking of a person C. detention
B. Lewd design D. None of these
88. Batas Pambansa bilang 22 (BP 22) is also known as:

A. Bouncing checks law C. Anti-terrorism act
B. Anti-voyeurism act D. None of these
89. It is one of the essential elements of libel:

A. Damages C. Malice
B. Deceit D. intent to gain
90. It is not an element of acts of lasciviousness:

A. Sexual intercourse C. Intimidation
B. Force D. None of these
91. Act No. 3815 is otherwise known as:

A. The revised penal code C. The new arson law
B. Criminal law D. None of these
92. SIMPLICIO is married to the sister of DOLLY, and the three (3) live together in a house located in Malabon City. On
several occasions, DOLLY’s dog would bark at SIMPLICIO every time he arrives at past midnight. One time, after
arriving in the house at around 2 o’ clock in the morning, DOLLY’s dog barked continuously at SIMPLICIO. In a fit of
anger, SIMPLICIO entered the house, took a bolo and killed the dog. What is the crime committed?
A. Malicious mischief C. Mutilation
B. Unjust vexation D. None of these
93. In question no. 92, is SIMPLICIO criminally liable?

A. Yes, because he committed malicious mischief
B. Yes, because he committed unjust vexation
C. No, because he is exempt under the law
D. No, because killing of a dog is not a crime
94. In question no. 92, is SIMPLICIO civilly liable?

A. Yes, since he is also criminally liable
B. Yes, the law states that even though he is not criminally liable, he is civilly liable
C. No, because he is not criminally liable
D. No, because he is exempt under the law
95. JERRY set the house of RAMONA on fire by way of revenge against the latter. JERRY did not know that RAMONA was
inside. RAMONA died because of the fire. What crime or crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide
B. Homicide D. Arson and homicide
96. In question no. 95, suppose JERRY knew that RAMONA was inside, what crime/crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Homicide C. Arson and murder
B. Murder D. Arson and homicide
97. In question no. 95, suppose before setting it on fire, JERRY entered the house and killed RAMONA. Then JERRY set
the house on fire to hide the body of RAMONA. What crime/crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Murder C. Arson with homicide
B. Arson D. Murder and arson
98. Which of the following is an example of a complex crime?

A. Robbery with homicide C. Kidnapping with homicide
B. Forcible abduction with rape D. All of these
99. Which of the following is an example of a special complex crime or composite crime?
A. Robbery with homicide C. Estafa through falsification of a public document
B. Direct assault with murder D. All of these
100. It is a law that defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
A. Criminal law C. Special penal law
B. Criminal jurisprudence D. Civil law
LEA 6 (Special Crime Investigation
FINAL EXAM – SET A

LEA 6 (Special Crime Investigation)
2nd Semester SY 2011-12
INSTRUCTION: Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the best answer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the provided answer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE.
================================================================================
============
I. MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and examination of a dead
body to determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the detection and investigation
of crimes is called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
3. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:
A. Identify the perpetrator

B. Convict the perpetrator
C. Locate the perpetrator
D. Provide evidence
4. Modus Operandi means?
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
5. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
6. A person arrested for a crime is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
7. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
8. A person who is convicted by final judgment is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
9. A circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually exists or existed refers to
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
10. The means by which facts are proved is called
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
11. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers to
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
12. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
13. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully understand their broad
significance refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
14. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from various sources is
called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
15. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed by investigators is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
16. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an offense or a person
who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his possessions, which is pertinent to
the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
17. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834
18. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and investigation of crime is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
19. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense is called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
20. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace officer to arrest
the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
21. The warrant of arrest is to be served within a statutory period of
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
22. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:
A. Recalled by the issuing court

B. The respondent has been arrested
C. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
D. All of these
23. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two walls. Works well for
indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
24. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas. This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
25. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to locate. This
is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
26. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
27. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence within this outline
refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
28. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for
which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
29. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the
offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not directly constituting an acknowledgment
of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
30. Latin for the “body of the crime” is also called as
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
31. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
32. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party; to locate the
guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
33. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and
responsibilities refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
34. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
35. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been arrested or deprived of his
freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is being investigated in connection with an
offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
36. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts concerning the matter or
matters involved is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
37. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information/facts/circumstances in order
to establish the truth is called
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
38. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police interrogation is
called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
39. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself and other sources
refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
40. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the physical sciences
in detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
41. The skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
42. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
43. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang with a
revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
44. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall guilty of what
crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
45. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
46. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that some other person
is responsible is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
47. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
48. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
49. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving physical evidence is
refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
50. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
51. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon things
52. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning and
organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle is called
A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
C. Professional Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber
53. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery offenses,
often recklessly. They are called
A. Amateur Intermittent Offender

B. Specific-Objective Offender
D. Opportunist Robber
54. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous weapons.
A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery
55. The following are types of robbery except:
A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery
56. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the house of the latter
and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?
A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
57. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area and took the car
stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
58. The Anti-Rape Law of 1997 is also known as
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
59. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence is sometimes
refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
60. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by exercising power
and control over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
61. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further political or social
objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists
62. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or at the same time
as him or herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
63. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by fire or
explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
64. The Fire Code of the Philippines is also known as:
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
65. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
II. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE
 If both statements are TRUE shade A

 If the first statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE shade B
 If the first statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE shade C
 If both statements are FALSE shade D
66. B If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather information from the victim himself
regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-mortem statement is also called dying declaration.
67. B Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual circumstance justifies its
immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination without dissection on the body of the victim.
68. A The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to his arrival at the crime
scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature of the scene and the crime or offense
involved.
69. B The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item for proper identification.
Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.
70. B The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire area. The Team Leader
prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
71. A The police officer of the station who first received the report of the incident shall record the time of
report/complaint was made. Interview the person who first notifies the police.
72. C Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything at the scene as
evidence.
73. A The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team in incident involving
deaths.
74. D Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with markings. Chalk line is placed
around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at the crime scene.
75. D Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training.
Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
76. A Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed. Modus Operandi is
the Modes of Operation.
77. D The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch, move, or alter any
evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and photographed is the Cardinal Rule in
Criminal Investigation.
78. A The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal investigation. One of good
qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
79. A The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at least knowledgeable on
crimes defines in the revised penal code.
80. B Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a criminal investigator. The
recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel identification of the perpetrator.
81. B One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After identification the
investigator shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
82. A The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. The processing of the
area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this is determined by the type of crime
committed and the place where the act occurred.
83. D Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing to provide
information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are reluctant to provide
information.
84. D Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of inquiry. It is a science
because it does not follow rigid rules.
85. A Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of identifying, locating and
providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic plan facilitates a logical flow of
investigation.
86. A At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the victim. While the other
members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the area by putting a police line or any
material (like rope, straw and etc).
87. A Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired in a particular incident.
Criminal Investigation is an art and science.
88. A Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law. Crime is punishable by
public law.
89. A The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the first responder. He should
follow correct procedures not to make errors.
III. Matching Type

Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) consists of a combination of letters and numbers. Match the meaning
of each number and letters combination of VIN in Column A with Column B by shading the corresponding
letter in your answer sheet.
Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521
Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of the V.I.N.
combination of V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Type of Restraint System
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Nation of Origin
D. Specific Name of the Vehicle
91. J A. Nation of Origin
C. Type of Restraint System
D. Specific Name of the Vehicle
92. 3 A. Car Line Series and Body Type
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Type of Restraint System
93. J A. Type of Restraint System
B. Engine Description
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
94. 4 A. Engine Description
B. Check Digit
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Name of Manufacturer
95. 5 A. Car Line Series and Body Type
B. Engine Description
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
96. A A. Model Year
B. Car Line Description
C. Assembly Plant Location
D. Check Digit
97. 0 A. Sequential Production Number
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
98. C A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Engine Description
99. R A. Model Year
B. Check Digit
C. Assembly Plant Location
100. 335521 A. Check Digits
B. Sequential Production Numbers
C. Number Series
D. Production Number Series
===================================================================
CRIMINAL LAW (BK I)
FINAL EXAMINATION
IN CRIMINAL LAW (BK I)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In case of the conviction of the accused, who will pay the cost of the proceedings.
A. Relatives of the accused C. The winning party
B. The accused D. The State
2. If the property of the accused is not sufficient for the payment of all the pecuniary liabilities, which will
be given the
first priority to be paid?
A. The cost of the proceedings C. The indemnification of the consequential
damages
B. the fine D. The reparation of the damaged cause
3. What is the equivalent rate of the subsidiary personal liability if the accused has no property with which
to pay the
fine in the decision of the court.
A. One day of each Ten Pesos C. One day for each Fifteen Pesos
B. One day for each Eight Pesos D. One day for each twenty Pesos
4. If the accused was prosecuted for grave or less grave felony and the principal penalty imposed is only
a fine, how
long shall be the subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Three (3) months C. Four (4) months
B. Six (6) months D. Five (5) months
5. If the accused was prosecuted for light felonies only, and the principal penalty is only fine, how long
shall be the
subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Ten (10) days C. Six (6) days
B. Twelve (12) days D. Fifteen (15) days
6. It is a subsidiary personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property with which to meet
the fine.
A. Pecuniary penalty C. Subsidiary penalty
B. Administrative penalty D. Correctional penalty
7. What is the accessory penalty of reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal.
A. Civil interdiction for life C. Suspension of the right of suffrage
B. Suspension of the right to hold office. D. No accessory penalty
8. What is the accessory penalty of Destierro.
A. Civil interdiction for life
B. Suspension from public office, profession or calling
C. Suspension of the right to suffrage
D. No accessory penalty
9. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the ___________ of the
proceeds of the
crime and the instruments or tools with which it was committed.
A. Destruction C. Auction
B. Forfeiture D. Removal
10. The proceeds and instruments or tools of the crime shall be taken in favor of the __________.
A. Victim C. Third party
B. Accused D. Government
11. When can confiscation of the proceeds or property or instruments of the crimes be ordered by the
court.
A. When it submitted in evidence
B. When it is not placed at the disposal of the court
C. When it is owned by the victim
D. When it is owned by the accused
12. Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in
case
of an __________
A. Revival of the case C. Appeal
B. Acquittal D. Refilling of the case
13. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in
the
commission of the felony.
A. Accessories C. Principals
B. Accomplices D. Co- accused
14. It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of age.
A. Reclusion Perpetua C. Death penalty
B. Prison correctional D. Arresto Mayor
15. A single out act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies is a ____________ crime.
A. Grave offense C. Less grave offense
B. Complex crime D. Continuing crime
16. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity
within the
fourth civil degree, such as _____________.
A. Brothers and sisters C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece D. Second cousin
17. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A. Self defense C. Defense of stranger
B. Defense of relative D. Fulfillment of duty
18. A person considered as _________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A. Insane C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile D. Epileptic
19. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A. Emotions C. Intelligence
B. Anxiety D. Depression
20. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A. Prosecution C. Court
B. Defense D. Prosecutor
21. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts but all arising from one criminal resolution.
A. Plural crime C. Habitual crime
B. Continuing crime D. Revolving crime
22. A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his release
or last
conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is
found guilty of
any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist C. Ex – convict
B. Habitual delinquent D. Pardonee
23. In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the
amount in each
case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more
particularly
to the ________ of the defendant.
A. Education C. Health
B. Wealth and means D. Age
24. Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to
the Board
of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the
release
of such prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
A. Medium C. Minimum
B. Maximum D. One half
25. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole C. Probation
B. Recognition D. Pardon
26. A person placed on probation.
A. Parolee C. Pardonee
B. Probationer D. Ex- convict
27. One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
A. Parole officer C. Probation officer
B. Police officer D. Administrative officer
28. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A. In terim C. De Jure
B. Final D. Temporary
29. When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution
of said
sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
A. Continued C. Extinct
B. Suspended D. Enforced
30. If the convict becomes insane or imbecile after the final sentence, the payment of his ________ shall
not be
suspended.
A. Criminal liability C. Civil or pecuniary liabilities
B. Administrative liability D. Personal liability
31. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or
less grave
felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead
of
pronouncing judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit
such minor
to the custody and care of a public or private charitable institution.
A. Proceed C. Set aside
B. Suspend D. Prolong
32. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his
confinement,
in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order
that the same
may order his final release.
A. DSWD C. Court
B. Parents D. Relatives / guardians
33. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which
he was
committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the
same may
_________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A. Render the judgment C. Order extension of his commitment
B. Order his release D. Order his rehabilitation
34. The expenses for the maintenance of the minor delinquent confined in the institution to which he has
been
committed, shall be borne totally or partially by _________ or those persons liable to support him,
if they are
able to do so in the discretion of the court.
A. DSWD C. Institution
B. Parents or relatives D. State
35. Under the new law, the age of majority is ___________.
A. 21 years old C. 18 years old
B. 15 years old D. 16 years old
36. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated
in the
sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Destierro
B. Aresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
37. The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
A. Not less than 25kms. But not more than 200 kms.
B. Not less than 20 kms. But not more than 225 kms.
C. Not less than 5 kms. But not more than 125 kms.
D. Not less than 25 kms. But not more than 250 kms.
38. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant
under the
surveillance of an officer of the law.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Prision correccional
B. Arresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
39. As the personal penalties, criminal liability of the accused is totally extinguished upon his _________.
A. Incarceration C. Death
B. Conviction D. Confinement
40. The pecuniary liabilities of the convict is extinguished only when the death of the offender occurs
_______.
A. After the final judgment C. During the pendency of the case
B. Before the final judgment D. During the hearing of the case
41. It is not one of the grounds of extinction of criminal liability of the accused.
A. By voluntary surrender
B. By service of sentence
C. By absolute pardon
D. By prescription of the crime
42. Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to
the
Case filed against him.
A. The case will continue to be heared.
B. The case will be suspended.
C. The case will set aside.
D. The case will be dismissed.
43. Berto was sentenced in the regional trial court. He appealed the case to the court of appeals. During
the
pendency of his appeal, Berto died. What will happen to his civil and criminal liability?
A. The civil and criminal liability is not extinguished?
B. The civil and environmental liability is extinguished?
C. The civil and criminal liability will be suspended.
D. The civil and criminal liability is set a side.
44. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which the
individual
On whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed.
A. Parole C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of crime
45. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain
time.
A. prescription of crime C. Parole
B. Prescription of penalty D. Probation
46. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of
a certain
Time.
A. Amnesty C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of criminal
47. Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
A. 10yrs C. 20yrs.
B. 12yrs D. 15yrs.
48. Crimes punishable by other affective penalties shall prescribe in _____

A. 15 years C. 5 years
B. 10 years D. 20 years.
49. Crimes punishable b correctional penalty shall prescribed in _____
A. 5 years C. 15 years
B. 10years D. 6 years
50. The crime of libel on other similar offenses shall prescribed in _____
A. Two years C. One year
B. Five years D. Ten years
51. The 0ffense of oral deformation and slander by deed shall prescribed in _____.
A. Six month C. One year
B. One month D. Five years
52. In computing the period of ______ the first day is to be excluded and the last day included.
A. Judgment C. Conviction
B. Prescription D. Confinement
53. The prescriptive period of offenses punishable under special laws and municipal and ordinances,
such as
offenses punished only by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than one month, or both prescribed
after ______.
A. Four years B. One years
C. Five years D. Eight years
54. The term of prescription shall not run when the offender is _____.
A. Absent from the Phil. Archipelago. B. Under rehabilitation
C. Confined D. Arrested
55. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the offender should
_____ the
service of this sentence.
A. Start serving C. Commence
B. Evade D. Interrupt
56. It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of the
penalty
inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
A. Reprieve C. Suspension of sentence
B. Commutation of sentence D. Enforcement of sentence
57. It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that the
sovereign power
will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
A. Amnesty C. Conditional Pardon
B. Probation D. Reprieve
58. Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incurr the obligation of _____ otherwise,
his non
compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
A. Strictly complying the condition B. Ignoring the condition
C. Evading the condition D. Questioning the condition
59. It is the prerogative of the Executive to extend this to the offender at any time after the imposition of
the final
judgment.
B. Amnesty D. Conditional Pardon
60. It is an Executive clemency given to the convicted offender after the offender has served the minimum
penalty
through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A. Parole C. Amnesty
B. Pardon D. Probation
61. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also _____ liable.
A. Administratively C. Personally
B. Civily D. Socially
62. It is one of the extinguishment o9f civil liability.
A. Serving of sentence C. Amnesty
B. By compensation D. Parole
63. It is included in civil liability.
A. Restitution C. Indemnification for damages consequential
B. Reparation of the damage caused D. All of the above
64. The civil liability for acts committed by a youthful offender shall be paid by the offenders _____.
A. Parents C. Relative
B. Guardians D. All of the above
65. A prisoner who showed good conduct inside the penal institution shall be allowed a deduction of his
penalty for a
period of _____ for each month of good behavior during the first two years of his imprisonment.
A. Five days C. Eight days
B. Ten days D. Fifteen days
66. During the 3rd to 5th year of his imprisonment the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of _____ for
each month
of good behavior.
A. Fifteen days C. Five days

B. Eight days D. Ten days
67. During the 6th year until the tenth year, of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction
of _____for
each month of good behavior.
A. Eight days C. Ten days
B. Five days D. Fifteen days
68. During the eleventh and successive years of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a
deduction of _____ for each month of good behavior.
A. Five days C. Ten days
B. Eight days D. Fifteen days
69. Ana was charged with the crime of adultery together with his boyfriend. Ana, the married woman after
conviction, her husband pardoned her alone is the pardon effective?
A. Yes because she was pardoned by her husband
B. No, the pardon should include the man to be effective.
C. Yes, because it is voluntary given by the husband,
D. No, because pardon can only be given by the Chief Executive
70. When a single act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when an offense is
necessary means for committing the other, the penalty for _____ shall be imposed in its maximum.
A. The less serious crime C. The most serious crime
B. The light offense D. The most common crime
Questions 71 to 85
Write A if both statements are correct; B if first statement is correct and the second is
incorrect.
C if the first statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are
incorrect.
___A_ 71. Subsidiary imprisonment is not an accessory penalty. It is a penalty for it is imposed upon the
accused
and served by him in lieu of the fine which he fails to pay on account of insolvency.
__B__72. One of the pecuniary penalties of the offender is reparation of the damaged caused. The
pecuniary
Liabilities applies only in case the property of the offender is sufficient for the payment of all
his pecuniary
liabilities.
___C__ 73. The subsidiary personal, liability of the offender is at the rate of one day for each ten
pesos. The convict
who served subsidiary penalty may still be required to pay the fine.
___D_ 74. When the court merely imposes a fine, the subsidiary liability shall not exceed one year. The
proceeds of
the crime as well as the tools and instruments shall be forfeited and confiscated in favor
of the victim.
__A_ 75. The confiscation of the proceeds or tools or instruments of the crime can be ordered only if they
are
submitted in evidence or placed at the disposal of the court. Articles which are forfeited,
when the
order of forfeiture is already final, cannot be returned even in case of acquittal.
___B__ 76. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the
principals in the
commission of such felony. According to Art. 47 of the RPC death penalty may be
imposed when
the guilty person be more than 70 years of age.
___C__ 77. A complex crime is not considered as one crime. One of the kinds of complex crime is when
an offense is
A necessary means for committing another crime.
__D___ 78. A continuing crime is not a single crime consisting of series of acts but all is not arising from
one criminal
resolution. In continuing offense, although there is a series of acts, there are several crimes
committed.
__A___ 79. Indeterminate Sentence Law is an act which provide for an indeterminate sentence and
parole for all
persons convicted of certain crimes by the courts of the Philippine Island. The act shall not
apply to
persons convicted of offenses punished with death penalty of life imprisonment.
___A__ 80. The court must, instead of single fixed penalty, determine two penalties, referred to in the
Indeterminate
Sentence Act as the Maximum and Minimum terms. Indeterminate Sentence Law does not
apply
to those who are habitual delinquents.
___A_ 81. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine
only. The
probation law does not apply to offenders sentenced to serve a maximum of more than six
years.
___A__ 82. If the convict is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one year, the period of
probation
shall not exceed two years. In all other cases, if he is sentenced to more than one year, said
probation
period shall not exceed six years
__B___ 83. Minor delinquents are not confined in a penitentiary to prevent their association with matured
and
hardened criminals. Their confinement in a charitable institution is considered a penalty.
___C__ 84. Art. 80 of the RPC (Suspension of sentence of minors) is applicable only to light felonies. If
a light
felony is committed by a minor, he is not subject to imprisonment, because he is entitled to a
penalty of
one degree lower at least
___B__ 85. The criminal liability is totally extinguished by service of sentence. It is also extinguished by
means of
parole.
86. It is an exception to the General Characteristic of Criminal Laws.

A. Consul C. Chief of State
B. Commercial representative D. Senators and Congressmen
87. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
A. Bill of Lading C. Special Law
B. Bill of attainder D. Criminal Law
88. It is a branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for their
punishment.
A. Remedial Law C. Political Law
B. Civil Law D. Criminal Law
89. It is not one of the sources of our Criminal Law.
A. Revised Penal Code C. Courts
B. Special Laws D. Executive Department
90. A body of principles, usages and rule of action, which do not rest for their authority upon any express
and positive
declaration of the will of the legislature.
A. Legislative Law C. Remedial Law
B. Common Law D. Political Law
91. It means that as a rule, penal laws are enforceable only within the territory of thePhilippines,
A. Territoriality principle C. Retroactivity Principle
B. Generality Principle D. Prospectively Principle
92. According to the classical theory, it states that the purpose of the penalty is ___________
A. Revenge C. Remuneration
B. Retribution D. Pardon
93. In self defense, the burden of proof rest upon the ____________
A. Relative C. Victim
B. Accused D. State
94. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by
consanguinity within the
fourth civil degree such as _________________
A. Brothers and sisters C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece D. Second cousin
95. Relationship by blood refers to relatives by _____________
A. Affinity C. Legislation
B. Consanguinity D. Naturalization
96. A person considered as ___________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability
A. Insane C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile D. Epileptic
97. As a rule, ______________ is mitigating in the crimes against property.
A. Intoxication C. Relationship
B. Education D. Sex
98. It is a circumstances present in a crime where it may increase or decrease the criminal liability.
A. Exempting circumstances C. Alternative circumstances
B. Justifying circumstances D. Mitigating circumstances
99. It is a kind of aggravating circumstance that changes the nature of the crime. Example treachery
qualifies the
killing of a person to murder.
A. Qualifying aggravating C. Specific aggravating
B. Generic aggravating D. Inherent aggravating
100. They are persons criminally liable due to their direct participation in the commission of the crime.
A. accessories C. Principals
B. Accomplices D. Co-accomplices
COR 2 – Non-Institutional Corrections
FINAL EXAMINATION
(COR 2 – Non-Institutional Corrections)
1. Probation is granted to _______ who are sentenced to a prison term of not more than six (6)
years.
A. recidivist C. fist time offenders
B. second time offenders D. senior citizens
2. The child and youth welfare code of 1974 was promulgated on December 10, 1974 by virtue
of what Presidential decree?
A. P.D. 613 C. P.D. 916
B. P.D. 603 D. R.A. 9344
3. What are emphasized under the custodial model of correctional institutions?
A. reintegration into society
B. security, discipline and order
C. rehabilitation and correction
D. physical and mental upliftment
4. What is the security classification of inmates who have two (2) or more escape records but
have served 8 years since recommitment?
A. minimum security C. optimum security
B. maximum security D. medium security
5. What is the security classification of an inmate who is criminally insane or with severe
personality or emotional disorder and is dangerous to others?
A. minimum security C. maximum security
B. optimum security D. medium security
6. ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good productions tasks.
A. agricultural C. operational
B. industrial D. administrative
7. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. a parolee may be authorized by the parole and probation officer to travel outside his operational
jurisdiction for a period of not more than thirty (30) days.
B. Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a period of one (1)
year shall be considered transfer of residence
C. It is not mandatory for the parolee to comply with the terms and conditions appearing in the
release document
D. A parolee cannot transfer to a residence other than that indicated in the release document
without prior written approval of the board of pardon and parole
8. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?
A. befriending a prison guard
B. selling illegal commodities
C. doing assigned prison assignment
D. reporting illegal activities
9. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under the adult probation system?
A. no, because he is entitled for parole
B. no, because his crime is theft
C. no, because he is only 17 years old
D. no, because he is convicted of a crime
10. It is a correctional model wherein criminals are punished because they have infringed the
rights of others and the security of the sanction should fit the seriousness of the crime.
A. benefit of the clergy C. rehabilitation model
B. custodial model D. just desert model
11. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Eduardo who is 30 years old
B. Peter who is 10 years old
C. Ronald who is 25 years old
D. Jack who is 20 years old
12. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has
expired?
A. certificate of final discharge
B. certificate of prison term completion
C. certificate of final release
D. certificate of final release and discharge
13. It was an age of response to the industrialization, urbanization, technological change and
advancement of science that had revolutionalized the landscape.
A. age of reform C. age of correction
B. age of reason D. age of enlightenment
14. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or
psychological conditions that require treatment?
A. reform model C. community model
B. rehabilitation model D. medical model
15. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official records?
A. exoneration C. expungement
B. restriction D. mitigation
16. The judge will base the grant of probation on the report of the _____.
A. social worker C. prosecutor
B. probation officer D. police officer
17. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
A. first time offender
B. first time offender and less than 21 years old
C. second time offender and less than 21 years old
D. second time offender
18. Which of the following is considered in the grant of conditional pardon?
A. good conduct shown
B. discipline of the prisoner
C. old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at the time of his commitment to prison
D. length of time spend in prison
19. What do you call the pathway between a two towers?
A. catwalk C. pathway
B. hall way D. none of these
20. To what penal farm were political prisoners in the 1870’s confined?
A. sablayan penal colony
B. san ramon prison penal farm
C. iwahig penal colony
D. davao penal colony
21. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they are granted time for their marital sexual
obligations. This privilege is called?
A. conjugal partnership C. conjugal incentive
B. conjugal vacation D. conjugal visit
22. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of touch with God thus,
they were given bibles and placed in isolation?
A. reformatory movement C. quaker reform movement
B. church reform movement D. crime prevention movement
23. Where shall Laureta be confined if his sentence is six (6) months or less?
A. provincial jail C. city jail
B. municipal jail D. new bilibid prison
24. It is a judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community
subject to conditions imposed by court order.
A. commutation C. reprieve
B. probation D. parole
25. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners fitness and qualifications for the grant of
parole and pardon?
A. National police commission
B. Board of pardon and parole
C. Department of social welfare and development
D. National bureau of investigation
26. Which of the following institutions is included under the corrections sub- system?
A. drug rehabilitation center
B. police
C. jails
D. drug enforcement units
27. The theory which affords the society or the individual who was wronged the opportunity to
impose upon the offender such suitable punishment as may be enforced?
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. reformation D. expiation
28. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Pablo who is 25 years old
B. Juan who is 10 years old
C. Martin who is 20 years old
D. Pedro who is 19 years old
29. Sonny is convicted for a crime that carries a prison sentence of more than eight (8) years
and one (1) day. Can Sonny avail of probation?
A. No
B. He will be pardoned
C. He will served 1/ 2 of the sentence in jail
D. Yes
30. The target of behavior change effort for inmate is not criminality per se but the variety of
problem behavior surrounding criminal lifestyles. Which of the following is NOT a problem
behavior?
A. ability to relate with others
B. ability to control anger and frustration
C. ability to logically and rationally think
D. deficiency in social skills
31. Which among the following are the major goals of corrections?
A. punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
B. retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
D. deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
32. Which of the following should NOT a probationer do?
A. make periodic office report
B. go and play in a gambling den
C. work regularly to support his family
D. stay away from bad associates
33. Force is used only by correctional institutions to:
A. exact respect
B. enforce discipline
C. show physical strength and power
D. perform assignments
34. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of:
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. life imprisonment
C. death
D. 6 years, one month and 1 day
35. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the __________ system.
A. civilian police C. juvenile justice
B. family welfare D. adult probation
36. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A. rehabilitation center C. jail
B. halfway house D. prison
37. The following are identified as correctional dilemmas EXCEPT
A. ambivalent correctional strategies and technique
B. unclear statement of correctional mission
C. government support for funding requirement
D. inadequacy of correctional personnel
38. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. psychological theory C. sociological theory
B. biological theory D. political theory
39. This was the period when concepts of liberalism, nationality, equality and individualism
dominated social and political thinking in the 18th century in England.
A. age of reform C. age of discernment
B. age of rehabilitation D. age of reason
40. What does the classical theory provide?
A. criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be controlled by regulating the production of
families
B. criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in a process of communication
C. crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and penalty disorders
D. the basis for criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
41. What correctional goal is referred to when the offender is rendered physically unable to
commit a crime in the future?
A. deterrence C. rehabilitation
B. incapacitation D. retribution
42. Under the UN standard minimum rules for the treatment of prisoners, which of the following
are the two (2) basic principles under the rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be not discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or
other opinion, national or social origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious beliefs and moral precepts of the group to which a
prisoners belongs
3. The treatment of prisoners should emphasize not their exclusion from the community, but
their continuing part in it.
4. Unconvicted prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as such
A. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 D. 4 and 1
43. When does punishment have a deterrent effect?
A. punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
B. punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
C. punishment disgraces the offender before the public
D. punishment serves as an example to the public thus, discouraging the commission of offense
44. Who espoused the idea that criminality increases in proportion as one approaches the
equator?
A. Lombroso C. Ferri
B. Garofalo D. Montesquieu
45. This is an investigation of behavior based on subject’s responses to questions concerning
activities in which they have engaged.
A. victimization study C. social study
B. self- report study D. criminological research
46. Antonio Lava was sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than
six (6) years. He applied for probation but his application will not be considered if:
1. he was convicted of subversion of any crime against national security or public interest
2. he was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment of not less
than one (1) month and one (1) day and / or a fine of not less than Php 200.00
3. he was previously granted probation
4. he was previously granted parole
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. any of those listed D. 3, 4, and 1
47. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and “prison
without walls”?
A. Sablayan penal colony
B. Iwahig penal colony
C. San Ramon prison and penal farm
D. Davao penal farm
48. Among the following factors, which would best determine the extent to which prison
functions are subdivided?
A. operating programs
B. adequacy of resources
C. inmate population and size of the prison/ jail
D. number of prison staff
49. What law is very supportive for the convicted prisoner after he completely served the
minimum sentenced of his indeterminate prison term of his incarceration can be eligibility for his
early release;
a. Executive Clemency b. PD 968 c. RA 4103 d. RA 4130
50. Aside from the name, offense committed and the court imposing the sentence, what
information about an alien offender should be reported to the Commissioner of Immigration?
A. his educational background and profession
B. name of his wife and children
C. his age, weight and height
D. his nationality and number of his alien certificate of registration
51. What theory provides that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the
process of communications?
A. strain theory
B. psychoanalytical theory
C. social disorganization theory
D. differential association theory
52. How are habitual offenders who have been involved in prostitution, drugs, numbers and
shoplifting called?
A. “Punk” C. “Cool”
B. “The life” D. “Square”
53. Who said that punishment should not be more secure than necessary to deter crime
because excessive punishment is unjustified?
A. Charles Goring C. Raffaeli Garofalo
B. Robert Peel D. Jeremy Bentham
54. What idea was advocated by John Howard?
A. Corporal punishment is more effective than other punishment
B. Prisons should be under the control of the police
C. Public labor by offenders should be abolished
D. Reformation will not occur inside penitentiary
55. When can some prisoners have disciplinary authority over their co- inmates?
A. When they show “macho” image
B. When they are of senior age over those to be supervised
C. When they are of good behavior, more technically skilled and properly trained
D. When they have grease money
56. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his/ her probation conditions?
A. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
B. Court directs probationer to re- apply for probation
C. Court releases the probationer to the community
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
57. You are a legislator who would like to help in the resolution of the labeling problem of ex-
convicts. Which of the following is the best legislative proposal to prepare?
A. A bill that would expunge all criminal records pertaining to all released prisoners
B. A bill that would penalize business establishment or offices which will not accept released
prisoners as long as they qualify to the vacant position
C. A bill that would grant automatic absolute pardon to those who have served atleast 90% of their
sentence
D. A bill that would grant automatic parole to those who have served atleast 80% of their sentence
58. There are four (4) concepts of lifestyle in prison. What concept is referred to when inmates
aspire for leadership within the prison subculture and such positions and power in the prison
society?
A. disorganized criminals C. doing time
B. jailing D. gleaning
59. How do inmates know that they have letters?
A. An inmate trustee delivers the letters to addresses
B. A list with mails for inmates is posted
C. Inmates with letters are called to the Jail Warden’s office
D. A jail officer delivers the letters personally
60. The RA 4103 known as;
a. Probation law b. Executive Clemency
c. Parole d. Indeterminate Sentence Law
61. The correctional principle that “the basis of all social action must be the utilitarian
conception of the greatest happiness for the greatest number” was se forth by:
A. Montesquieu C. Becarria
B. Locke D. Voltaire
62. Female prison reform during the 19th century had the following principles EXCEPT
A. separation of women prisoners from male
B. suspension of sentence
C. control of women’s prison by female management and staff
D. provision for differential feminine care
63. How are inmates called when they are of low intelligence or afflicted with psychological or
physical disabilities and who have difficulty in functioning within the prison society?
A. psychotic criminals C. adult criminals
B. disorganized criminals D. juvenile offenders
64. A convict is in a __________ if he is placed inside one (1) cell alone and without anybody to
talk to or be seen with.
A. individual confinement C. corporal punishment
B. capital punishment D. solitary confinement
65. After release from the jail or prison, when does the parolee present himself to the parole
and probation officer?
A. atleast one (1) month from release
B. within three (3) months from release
C. atleast three (3) weeks from release
D. within the period prescribed in the release document
66. One of the purposes of Adult Probation Law is to:
A. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with personalized, community based program
B. Place the offender outside the police power of the state
C. Coordinate the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice system
D. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the probation order
. Is Mario qualified for probation if his prison term is arresto mayor?
A. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
B. No, his sentence is 12 years
C. No, his sentence is 8 years
D. Yes, his sentence is 6 months
68. Under this correctional goal, the criminal is rendered physically unable to commit crime in
the future.
A. retribution C. incapacitation
B. deterrence D. rehabilitation
69. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. a prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) years up
C. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D. a prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day and up
70. What theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behaviors.
The stress is more in the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
A. classical theory C. biological theory
B. positivist theory D. physiological theory
71. Which two (2) of the following unusual offenders should be under the close supervision of
the Jail Physicians?
1. mentally- ill
2. sex deviates
3. infirm or sick
4. escape prone prisoners
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
72. Who said that “criminal acts are signals of distress, signals of failures, the spasms of
struggles and convulsions of a sub marginal human being trying to make it in our complex
society with inadequate equipment and preparation”?
A. John Howard C. James Wilson
B. Karl Menninger D. Jeremy Bentham
73. The parole and probation administration administers a _________ correctional program.
A. institutional C. integrated
B. community based D. traditional
74. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as _________.
A. retribution C. restitution
B. reformation D. rehabilitation
75. Hubert Webb was sentenced to imprisonment on September 30, 2002. OnOctober 5,
2002 the judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the
service of Alfonso’s sentence?
A. He will have to serve his sentence
B. His sentence will be suspended
C. His sentence will nit be binding anymore
D. His sentence will be reduced
76. Placido was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
A. no, his sentence is three (3) years and 1 day
B. no, his sentence is six (6) years and 1 day
C. yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and 1 day
D. no, his sentence is more than six (6) years and 1 day
77. What was the system of money compensation in which harm could be atoned for by a
money payment to the injured party?
A. lex taliones C. wergild
B. wite D. fine
78. It is an arrangement where a prisoner goes out of the institution to attend educational
classes.
A. Vocational program C. Work Furlough
B. Guidance counseling D. study release
79. What the right to be tried in an ecclesiastical court during the middle ages?
A. inquisition C. social contract
B. benefit of the clergy D. secular prosecution
80. Prison work assignments are given to prisons usually _________.
A. at early morning hours
B. after recreational hours
C. before sleeping hours
D. during middle hours of the day
81. Which among the following strategies should be developed in order to enhance corrections
in the country?
A. Development of clear vision, mission, objective
B. Management of correction efficiency
C. Integration of correction services
D. Encouragement of private sector to assist correction
82. Which among the following factors are considered in petition for executive clemency?
1. age of the petitioner
2. gravity of the offense
3. manner in which offense was committed
4. petitioner’s institutional conduct or behavior
5. previous criminal record, if any
A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. all these listed

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 3, 4, 5 and 1
83. Joan Pamintuan was convicted of the crime of theft at age 10. What law provides that she
should be released to her family?
A. Presidential Decree No. 1184
B. Presidential Decree No. 968
C. Presidential Decree No. 603
D. Republic Act no. 9344
84. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
1. One who is sentenced to a maximum term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years or to a
fine of more than Php 5,000.00
2. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of customs law or other laws within
the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Customs
3. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of Immigration laws and Election
laws
4. One sentenced to serve two (2) or more prison sentences in the aggregate exceeding the period
of three (3) years
A. 3, 4 and 1 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. all those listed D. 1, 2 and 3
85. One of the following criminologists espoused the idea that the certainty of punishment
outweighs its severity as a deterrent against crime?
A. Cesare Becarria C. Charles Goring
B. Jeremy Bentham D. William Sheldon
86. Who was the sheriff of Bedfordshire, England whose writings served to bring about changes
that resulted in the development of the penitentiary?
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Becarria D. John Howard
87. Which of the following is encouraged to give the inmate a respite from the strain of prison
life?
A. Report unruly behavior of fellow inmates
B. Maintain wholesome contact with friends and relatives through correspondents
C. Perform prison assignments/ works diligently
D. Write his autobiography for others to read
88. Which of the following is exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of
Congress?
A. probation C. pardon
B. amnesty D. parole
89. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for
another previous offense.
A. recidivism C. delinquency
B. quasi- recidivism D. concurso de delito
90. It is responsible for carrying out the treatment programs of the prisoners in jails.
A. Warden C. Chaplain
B. Classification board D. disciplinary board
91. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. murder C. brigandage
B. rape D. impeachment
92. He introduced the “Progressive or Mark” system of penal management, which granted
privileges and good conduct time gradually culminating to the offenders release and an
improvement of the ticket of leave. Who was he?
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B. Alexander Machonochie
C. Sir Walter Crafton
D. Zebulon Brockway
93. The features of this prison system were confinement of the prisoners in their cells day and night.
A. Auburn C. Pennsylvania system
B. pre- classical D. Judea Christian theory
94. A model of correctional history that had been successful for young boys and girls in the
earlier house or refuge and training that was adopted for older offenders.
A. family model C. reform model
B. penitence model D. rehabilitation model
95. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than three (3) years or to
pay a fine of not more than Php 1,000.00 or both fine and imprisonment.
A. city prisoner C. insular prisoner
B. national prisoner D. municipal prisoner
96. This prison system was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that
prisoners could finish more articles when they work in groups than working alone in their
individual cells.
A. Maison de force C. Auburn system
B. none of these D. Pennsylvania system
97. What law was passed by the U.S. Congress which ended the industrial prison movement?
A. a law which prohibited the increase of delinquency in prisons
B. none of these
C. a law which encouraged the prisoners to be more industrious in the works
D. a law which prohibited the sale of prison made articles to the public and limited their use to
government owned or controlled institutions
98. Which of the following types of jail is under the supervision of Bureau of Jail Management
and Penology (BMJP)?
A. Provincial jail
B. City and municipal jail
C. District jail
D. Insular jail
99. What is called as the mechanical device, contrivance or tools used to hold back, keep in
check or under control a prisoner?
A. instrument of restraint
B. iron leg lock
C. handcuffs
D. metallic chains
100. Under the prison service manual, what is the prescribed color of prison uniform for
maximum-security prison?
A. blue C. yellow
B. white D. orange
101. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it means:
A. process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
B. examination of an inmate for contraband
C. delivery of commitment paper to records section
D. all of these
102. In New Bilibid prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at __________.
A. NBP main prison camp C. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Camp Sampaguita D. all of these
103. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major
offenders.
A. Charles Montesquieu C. Jeremy Bentham
B. William Penn D. Cesare Becarria
104. In case of mass jail break, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
firearms and assigned to critical post to:
A. protect the other inmates
B. shoot the escaping inmates
C. plug off the escape routes
D. give warning shots
105. Upon receipt of the probation officer’s investigation report, the court shall resolve the
application for probation not later than _________.
A. Fifteen (15) days from receipt
B. Sixty (60) days from receipt
C. Forty five (45) days from receipt
D. Thirty (30) days from receipt
106. The entrusting for confinement of an offender to a jail by competent court or authority for
investigation, trial and/ or service of sentence is known as:
A. commitment order C. imprisonment
B. mittimus D. recognizance
107. The most common problem of the national prison is:
A. excessive number of escapes
B. disagreement about mess
C. overcrowding
D. lack of adequate funding
108. Who is the father of Philippine Probation Law?

A. Jose Lacson C. Juan Ponce Enrile
B. Teodulo Natividad D. Antonio Torres
109. What privilege can be availed of only once, by first offenders for penalties of imprisonment
not exceeding six (6) years?
B. Psychological services D. Home life services
110. Rehabilitation of convicted offenders who are incarcerated inside jails is called:
A. institutional treatment
B. parole
C. community based treatment
D. probation
111. What was the first prison constructed in the year 1847?
A. National Bilibid Prison
B. Correctional Institution for Women
C. New Bilibid Prison
D. San Ramon Penal Colony
112. A youth offender held for physical and mental examination, trial or pending an appeal,
infusible to furnish bail shall from the time of arrest be committed to the care of _____________.
A. Child and Youth Welfare
B. Bantay Bata Center
C. DSWD
D. City Jail
113. Under Section 4 of Presidential Decree 968 that no application for probation shall be
granted if the defendant has perfected and __________ from the judgment of conviction.
A. trial C. waived
B. pre- trial D. appeal
114. The Bureau of Correction is under what Department?
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Office of the Provincial Governor
115. In the early history of imprisonment, there were two (2) rival prisons system;
theAuburn prison system known as the “congregated system” and the other system is known for
its “separate system” called the ______.
A. Elmira reformatory C. Alcatraz prison
B. Pennsylvania system D. Walnut street jail
116. What is the type of prison conceived by Jeremy Bentham which would consist of a large
circular building of cast iron and glass containing multi tiered cells around the periphery?
A. Walnut street jail C. Alcatraz prison
B. Panoptican prison D. Auburn prison system
117. The following are the justifications of punishment EXCEPT
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. atonement D. happiness
118. The presidential Decree that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages range
from nine years old to under eighteen years and places them in rehabilitation center.
A. PD 968 C. PD 603
B. PD 1203 D. PD 29
119. Republic Act 7659 is known as what?
A. Anti- Rape law
B. Anti- violence against women and children
C. Death Penalty law
D. Lethal injection
120. What law can be considered the second Probation Law in the Philippines which is intended
only for minors?
A. RA 7610 C. RA 4221
B. PD 968 D. PD 603
121. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security
prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
A. super security prisoners
B. medium security prisoners
C. maximum security prisoners

122. Which of the following factors is used mostly for the diversification of correctional
institution?
A. age C. sex
B. degree of custody D. mental condition
123. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than six months.
A. insular prisoner C. city prisoner
B. provincial prisoner D. municipal prisoner
124. Who is the shoemaker in Boston, USA where the first probation originated?
A. Alexander Machonochie C. John Howard
B. John Augustus D. Walter Crofton
125. What year the Bilibid Prison was constructed?
A. 1932 C. 1869
B. 1905 D. 1847
126. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a:
A. municipal prisoner C. national prisoner
B. detention prisoner D. city prisoner
127. One who undergoes preventive imprisonment is known as _________.
A. Parole C. Detention prisoner
B. Probationer D. Any of these
128. Where is the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC) located?
A. Bukang Liwayway camp C. Sablayan Penal Colony
B. Camp Sampaguita D. Maximum Security compound
129. What is the ultimate goal of imprisonment?
A. punishment C. redress
B. isolation D. rehabilitation
130. The duration of arresto menor as a penalty is from ______ imprisonment.
A. one to thirty days
B. six to twelve years
C. six years and one day
D. one year
LEA 6 (Special Crime Investigation
FINAL EXAM SET B

LEA 6 (Special Crime Investigation)
2nd Semester SY 2011-12
INSTRUCTION: Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the best answer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the provided answer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE.
================================================================================
============
I. MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or at the same time
as him or herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the detection and investigation
of crimes is called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
3. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
4. A person who is convicted by final judgment is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
5. A circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually exists or existed refers to
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
6. The means by which facts are proved is called
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
7. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers to
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
8. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
9. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully understand their broad
significance refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
10. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from various sources is
called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
11. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed by investigators is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
12. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an offense or a person
who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his possessions, which is pertinent to
the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
13. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834
14. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and investigation of crime is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
15. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense is called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
16. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace officer to arrest
the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
17. The warrant of arrest is to be served within a statutory period of
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
18. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:
A. Recalled by the issuing court

B. The respondent has been arrested
C. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
D. All of these
19. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two walls. Works well for
indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
20. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas. This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
21. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to locate. This
is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
22. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
23. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence within this outline
refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
24. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for
which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
25. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the
offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not directly constituting an acknowledgment
of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
26. Latin for the “body of the crime” is also called as
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
27. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
28. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party; to locate the
guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
29. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and
responsibilities refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
30. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
31. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been arrested or deprived of his
freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is being investigated in connection with an
offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
32. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts concerning the matter or
matters involved is called
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
33. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information/facts/circumstances in order
to establish the truth is called
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
34. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police interrogation is
called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
35. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself and other sources
refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
36. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the physical sciences
in detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
37. The skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
38. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
39. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang with a
revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
40. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall guilty of what
crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
41. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
42. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that some other person
is responsible is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
43. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
44. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
45. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving physical evidence is
refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
46. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
47. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon things
48. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning and
organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle is called
A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber
49. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery offenses,
often recklessly. They are called
A. Amateur Intermittent Offender

B. Specific-Objective Offender
D. Opportunist Robber
50. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous weapons.
A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery
51. The following are types of robbery except:
A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery
52. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the house of the latter
and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?
A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
53. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area and took the car
stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
54. The Anti-Rape Law of 1997 is also known as
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
55. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence is sometimes
refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
56. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by exercising power
and control over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
57. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further political or social
objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
58. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by fire or
explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
59. The Fire Code of the Philippines is also known as:
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
60. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
61. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and examination of a dead
body to determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
62. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:
A. Identify the perpetrator

B. Convict the perpetrator
C. Locate the perpetrator
D. Provide evidence
63. Modus Operandi means?
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
64. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
65. A person arrested for a crime is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
II. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE

 If both statements are TRUE shade A
 If the first statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE shade B
 If the first statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE shade C
 If both statements are FALSE shade D
66. B The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire area. The Team Leader
prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
67. A The police officer of the station who first received the report of the incident shall record the time of
report/complaint was made. Interview the person who first notifies the police.
68. C Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything at the scene as
evidence.
69. A The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team in incident involving
deaths.
70. D Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with markings. Chalk line is placed
around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at the crime scene.
71. D Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training.
Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
72. A Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed. Modus Operandi is the
Modes of Operation.
73. D The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch, move, or alter any
evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and photographed is the Cardinal Rule in
Criminal Investigation.
74. A The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal investigation. One of good
qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
75. A The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at least knowledgeable on
crimes defines in the revised penal code.
76. B Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a criminal investigator. The
recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel identification of the perpetrator.
77. B One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After identification the investigator
shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
78. A The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. The processing of the
area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this is determined by the type of crime
committed and the place where the act occurred.
79. D Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing to provide
information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are reluctant to provide
information.
80. D Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of inquiry. It is a science
because it does not follow rigid rules.
81. A Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of identifying, locating and
providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic plan facilitates a logical flow of
investigation.
82. A At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the victim. While the other
members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the area by putting a police line or any
material (like rope, straw and etc).
83. A Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired in a particular incident.
Criminal Investigation is an art and science.
84. C Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law. Crime is punishable by
public law.
85. A The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the first responder. He should
follow correct procedures not to make errors.
86. B If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather information from the victim himself
regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-mortem statement is also called dying declaration.
87. B Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual circumstance justifies its
immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination without dissection on the body of the victim.
88. A The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to his arrival at the crime
scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature of the scene and the crime or offense
involved.
89. B The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item for proper identification.
Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.
III. Matching Type

Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) consists of a combination of letters and numbers. Match the meaning
of each number and letters combination of VIN in Column A with Column B by shading the corresponding
letter in your answer sheet.
Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521
Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of the V.I.N.
combination of V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Type of Restraint System
D. Nation of Origin
91. J A. Name of Manufacturer
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Nation of Origin
92. 3 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Type of Restraint System
93. J A. Engine Description
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Type of Restraint System
94. 4 A. Check Digit
B. Car Line Series and Body Type
95. 5 A. Engine Description
B. Model Year
C. Sequential Production Number
96. A A. Car Line Description
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
97. 0 A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
98. C A. Check Digit
B. Model Year
C. Engine Description
D. Assembly Plant Location
99. R A. Check Digit
C. Engine Description
D. Model Year
100. 335521 A. Sequential Production Numbers
B. Number Series
C. Production Number Series
D. Check Digits
================================================================================
============

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CRIMINALISTICS SET ONE

CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful

6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.

27. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a detection

48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

55. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or

70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the examination

91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the

CRIMINALISTICS SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. The following are types of medical evidence, except:

6. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the

12. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in

26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is

57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to cause

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippinesto suspend the

6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting,

12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System

19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer

85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons

99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as

6. The process of determining the needs and requirements of

29. In the United States, particularly in Massachusetts, different

56. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the

69. Capital punishment refers to:

97. Besides religious laws such as the Torah, important codifications of

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis,

11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its

17. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police

31. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and

37. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT

43. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic

70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?

88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes

11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or

16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,

23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:

30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are

66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community

73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter

79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history

85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and

92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within

99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for

CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his

6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule