Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINALISTICS SET ONE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
13. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround
the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
C
14. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and
ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
C
15. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not
clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
D
16. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
D
17. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
B
18. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between
two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
D
19. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals
around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
A
20. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of
the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
C
21. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given
scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
B
22. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection
of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
D
23. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
A
24. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
C
25. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens
for a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitised material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
C
26. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
D
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
C
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.
A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Baterry Primer
D. Boxer Primer
D
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the
bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
D
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
B
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A. Calibre
B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge
D. Rifling
A
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
D
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
D
85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of
oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
B
86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and
massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
C
87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in
the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and
starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
A
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger
one’s life.
A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
D. superficial wound
A
89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.
A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
C
90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external
wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
D
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINALISTICS SET TWO
MULTIPLE CHOICE
33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge ready
for firing is called
A. Gas tube
B. Chamber
C. Double-action
D. Trigger
B
34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate the
powder.
A. Spring
B. Trigger guard
C. Hammer
D. Revolver
C
35. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for
loading into the chamber. Also referred to as a "clip".
A. Clipper
B. Holder
C. Pin or pinhead
D. None of these
D
36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the sound of
a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
A. Buffer
B. Silencer
C. Magazine
D. Hanger
B
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American occupation in
the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint file has been
established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, the first
Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
A
38. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on
the science of fingerprinting was the case of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
A
39. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They
contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the type
of hair.
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
B
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said that an
intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of all forgeries
by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and
measuring tools?
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
C
41. In police photography studies, what are called the thin, gelatinous,
light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture the
color and shadings of a scene?
A. Films
B. Emulsions
C. Chemical Coatings
D. None of these
B
42. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to pass
though, they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of it is
called
A. Opaque object
B. Convection
C. Visible light
D. Prisms
A
43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions unrelated to
the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less
serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
C
44. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of
the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by the
investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like the
print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
A
45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of any
appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
B
46. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or more
rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
B
47. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint
which maybe compared with the low area in a tire tread.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
C
48. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the quality of
paper that does not allow light to pass through or which prevents dark
objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
A
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
B
50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application of
chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
B
51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and
identification of rocks, rock forming minerals and soil. Also
includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and other such
materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
A
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. All of these
D
53. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon
called
A. attraction
B. diffraction
C. light curve
D. light fingerprint
B
54. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends upon the
angle of the light striking the material, which is referred to as the
A. angle of incidence
B. angle of biometry
C. angle of light
D. none of these
A
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure generated within the chamber
erroneously called breeched pressure?
A. Chamber Pressure
B. Barrel Pressure
C. Gunpowder
D. None of these
A
56. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the
projectile is called
A. Power to speed ratio
B. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio
C. Firing pin stroke ratio
D. All of these
B
63. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to erase
his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time went by the
ridges were again restored to their “natural” feature.
A. John Feilding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
C
64. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
B
65. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a “Y” shape
formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
B
66. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at least
one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
A
67. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
D. Dr. John Larson
A
68. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?
A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. Blood
C
69. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are
contested either in whole or part with respect to its authen-
ticity, identity, or origin.
A. Questioned document
B. Illegal document
C. Falsified document
D. Disputed facts
A
70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which, if
adequate and proper, should contain a cross section of the
material from a known source for questioned document examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
B
71. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize
known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
B
72. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or
competent public official with solemnities required by law, it is
called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
B
73. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to make
the original invisible to as an addition?
A. Obliteration
B. Obscuration
C. Forged
D. None of these
A
74. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion. In
Court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the reasons for
arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
C
75. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with the
source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the
paper. Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations and some
other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
D
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just
below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). These
visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
B
77. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as
whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort. Some defined
it as “visible speech.”
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
C
78. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the whole
of writing or line of individual letters in words to the baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
B
79. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document examination
commonly called to as the identifying details si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
B
80. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their
identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but also the
mental act in which the element of one item are related to the
counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
D. Recording
C
81. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is
called
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
C. Sidestroke
D. None of these
A
82. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under
particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements,
and with a particular reason and purpose for recording his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
B. Freehand forged signature
C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
D
83. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and
banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or imitate; to make
a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the intent to
deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
A
84. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
B
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented the
first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
A
86. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of
rifling firearms?
A. Pinometer
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper
B
87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the firearms
examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity between two
fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously observing their
magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device
B. Compound microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
D. Photographic microscope
C
88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 “x”12”x 96, with a hinged to cover and with
one end open. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton and
separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in ballistics.
A. Firing point box
B. Bullet recovery box
C. Slug collection box
D. All of these
B
89. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and types.
What are the films that are sensitive to radiation?
A. Chrome Films
B. X-Ray Films
C. B&W Films
D. Colored Films
B
90. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of black and
white photography because it produces the most natural recording of
colors?
A. Panchromatic film
B. Chrome Films
C. X-Ray Films
D. Color Films
A
91. One film maybe rated ISO – 100, and another film ISO- 200. This means
that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitive to light)
than the ISO-100 film. This statement is
A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. partly false
A
92. Among the following speed of film, which has the fastest speed?
A. ISO – 25
B. ISO – 100 to ISO – 200
C. ISO – 400
D. ISO – 1000 and up
D
93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to
focus after passing through a lens, focusing of light of different
colors at different points resulting in a blurred image.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
C
94. What is the defect in which the light coming from an off-axis object
point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the object
is a vertical line, the cross section of the refracted beam at
successively greater distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads out again, and later
becomes a vertical line
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
A
95. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused
subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic
image.
A. Focus
B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick
D. Aperture
B
96. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object can be
stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced without blurring,
or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus
B. Shutter speed
C. Aperture
D. Lens
B
97. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet would not stay pointed
forward in flight, but would tumble over and over. The spinning motion
increases the accuracy of a bullet.
A. Bore
B. Gunpowder
C. Rifling
D. Shell
C
98. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in the
breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
A
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening
ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core
and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
A
100.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood is
the
A. Plasma count
B. Serum test
C. Benzidine test
D. Barberio’s test
C
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET ONE
26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume the
suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain
B
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;
A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition
B
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes
foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the
inmates. It maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and
submits a daily report to the Warden.
A. General Services Branch
B. Mittimus Computing Branch
C. Budget and Finance
D. Mess services Branch
D
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines
Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice
B. Judiciary
C. Chief Executive
D. Legislative
C
30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty
A
31. Parole is a matter of ___.
A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Grace
D. Requirement
A
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as
the super security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside
the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners
A
33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
A. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Director of Prison
D. Court
B
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed
upon him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
D
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less
serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. none of these
B
36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a
matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. none of these
B
37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the
individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his anti-social
behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
C. change
D. aggravate his behavior
C
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.
A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health
B
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3)
years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner
D
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest
objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offenders
A
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are confined
at the
A. NBP Main Prison
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Sampaguita
D. Medium Security Prison
C
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary
cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board
D
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has
served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
C
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of the
Custodial Division?
A. Supervision of prisoners
B. Escort of inmates or prisoners
C. Keeping of records
D. None of the above
B
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the
latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention
A
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the
Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Davao
D. Occidental Mindoro
D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest code
prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly 100 years
older.
A. Hammurabic Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Justinian Code
D. Code of Draco
B
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance with law.
B
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Censor offender’s items
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
D
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just
been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall
immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or the director
A
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall
immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escapees
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning shots
A
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants
probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six
(6) years?
A. PD 603
B. RA 698
C. PD 968
D. PD 869
C
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and served as
training schools for delinquent youths, provided housing and support
for older and poorer persons, and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections
B. Workhouses
C. Common jails
D. Penal colonies
B
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of
all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better system
of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Department of Justice
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation Administration
A
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration
C
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody
and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those sentenced to
serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration
B
77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women (CIW),
Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are
all under this agency.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Department of Justice
B
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less
costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to
respond to individualized community based treatment programs.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration
D
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
D
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
A
81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the termpenitentiaries)
through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
A
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside
the institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses
B
83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person served
a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large,
subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
C
84. An alternative to incarceration that allows convicted persons to remain
at large and under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and
certain conditions imposed by the granting court.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses
A
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET TWO
12. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in the
primitive society). The concept follows that the victim’s family or
tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence “blood feuds”
was accepted in the early primitive societies. Retaliation means:
A. Personal Vengeance
B. Tooth for a tooth
C. Eye for an Eye
D. All of these
A
13. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the
Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training
school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the Manila
City Jail, famous as the :
A. “ May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail
A
14. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and fortune
to prison reform. After his findings on English Prisons, he
recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation of
women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities, and
abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from
prisoners.
A. John Howard
B. Robert Peel
C. William Penn
D. Manuel Montesimos
A
15. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days from the
promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his place of
confinement. He maybe
A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. All of these
A
16. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving
her sentence she committed again the same crime. Ms Ines Bantog maybe
considered as a
A. recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinguent
D. mentally retarded person
A
17. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto for some legal ground but he
failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the prescribed
period of filing. What crime did Ramon committed?
A. arbitrary detention
B. illegal Detention
C. illegal arrest
D. no crime committed
B
18. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Medium Security Prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
C
19. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built under the
main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Wulnut Street Jail
C. Burgundian House
D. none of these
D
20. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is
violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of
imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced.
Offenders should be punished because they deserve it. This is one
justification of punishment called:
A. Atonement
B. Incapacitation
C. Deterrence
D. Retribution
D
21. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:
A. do away with the miscarriage of justice
B. break the rigidity of the law
C. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
D. all of the above
D
22. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves the
frisking of the prisoner.
A. Identification
B. Searching
C. Briefing/Orientation
D. minimum security prisoners
B
23. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he
ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the __________
officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
B. Assistant
C. Most senior
D. Custodian
C
24. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the court
shall resolve the application for probation not later than-
A. 60 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 45 days
B
25. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
A. Jose Lacson
B. Juan Ponce Enrile
C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these
D
26. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the criminal
justice under it’s common law, originated probation.
A. England
B. United States
C. Greece
D. France
A
27. Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to
which the emergence of probation is attributed?
A. Recognizance
B. Reprieve
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance
D
28. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, sanctuary, and abjuration offered
offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of
A. harsh sentences
B. soft sentences
C. criminal liabilities
D. code of Hammurabi
A
43. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C. Custodial officer
D. Security officer
B
44. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable and
dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside prisons.
A. Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners
B
45. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in reformation
n which includes all the life experiences which shape a persons
attitudes and behaviors
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program
C
46. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly
movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital and
churches in accordance with the daily schedules
A. Control
B. Custody
C. Discipline
D. Inspection
A
47. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners will
be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound
C. Maximum Security Compound
D. Minimum Security Compound
A
48. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized
disciplinary measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty
D
49. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine is
common among ancient laws, specifically the
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon
B
50. “Lex Tallionis” means
A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
D. Suffering
B
51. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to confine
criminals during the early period of treating criminal offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys
A
52. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also considered as
the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France
A
53. The first house of correction in London England was the
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon
A
54. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay
A. Walnut prison
B. Alcatraz prison
C. New York prison
D. Red Rock penitentiary
B
55. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations are
considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds
D. Personal belongings
B
63. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of
criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Stocks
B
64. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of
psychological hedonism” or __________. That the individual calculates
pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his conduct by
the result of his calculations.
A. denied individual responsibility
B. free will
C. pleasures and avoiding pain
D. natural phenomenon
C
65. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the world,
which have been extended to and adopted by all countries aside from
those that produced them. Among the three, it was the __________ that
has the most lasting and most pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law
B. Anglo-American Law
C. Roman Law
D. Hammurabic Code
C
66. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for
A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Slavery
C
67. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal
Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is considered
as the best reform institution for young offenders today.
A. Evelyn Brise
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Walter Crofton
C
68. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology because it
has all the elements in a modern system.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys
B
81. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it as a
privilege to a qualified prisoner. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
C
82. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with
accordingly. In extreme cases, where the violation necessitate
immediate action, the warden or the Officer of the Day may administer
the necessary restraints and reports the action taken to the
Disciplinary Board. The statement is:
A. an SOP
B. an emergency plan
C. a general rule
D. not applicable to prisoners
A
83. Which of the following is a maximum security prison inOssining, New
York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km) north of New
York City on the banks of the Hudson River which the Auburn Prison
system was applied.
A. Alcatraz prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Silver Mine Farm
B
84. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate
unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general
population, also sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit
B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit
D. Cell 45
A
85. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where
criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Execution room
B. Death row
C. Garotine
D. Galley room
B
86. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in which
persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in solitary
confinement at night, with enforced silence at all times.
The Auburn system is also known as
A. Albany system
B. Irish system
C. New York System
D. None of these
C
87. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is aprison in Bedford
Hills, Westchester County, New York,USA. It is the largest women's
prison in New York Stateand has hosted many infamous prisoners. It is
the only women's maximum security prison in New York State. This
statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
A
88. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English
philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design was
derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”. “Opticon’ means:
A. to allow an observer to observe
B. with out the prisoner
C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner
A
89. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a maximum
security prison located in New York in theUSA. The prison is located
in Chemung County, New Yorkin the City of Elmira.
A. “the school”
B. “the hill”
C. “the rock”
D. “the dungeon”
B
90. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison Reform”
in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Alexander Mocanochie
A
91. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely determined
by its contribution to overallutility, that is, its contribution to
happiness or pleasure as summed among all persons. It is thus a form
of consequentialism, meaning that the moral worth of anaction is
determined by its outcome—the ends justify the means.
A. Hedonism
B. Positivism
C. Determinism
D. Penology
A
92. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which means
___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. out of prison
C
93. In the history of capital punishment, what do they call this frame,
typically wooden, used for execution byhanging?
A. Galley
B. Gallows
C. Hulk
D. Double blade
B
94. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with a
fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the death of
the subject. The main application for this procedure is capital
punishment. Which of the following drug is injected to stops the heart
thus causing death by cardiac arrest?
A. Sodium thiopental
B. Pancuronium
C. Potassium chloride
D. Bicarbonate
C
95. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an
execution method originating in the United States in which the person
being put to death is strapped to a specially built wooden chair
andelectrocuted through electrodes placed on the body. In
the Philippines, its first use was in :
A. 1924
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918
A
96. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer, and founder of
the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Mocanochie
C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. Sir John Watson
C
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the
same on all three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary to make
available maximum manpower at the time the police service is of
greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process
C
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy
and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
C
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the
rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
B
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in
Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several
types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
C
49. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them
believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
C
50. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park
areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
B
51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short
B
52. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around
needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
C
53. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
B
54. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
A
55. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
E. all of the above
C
56. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word
credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
E. all of these
C
57. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension
BONUS
58. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
B
59. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of
surprise is lost which is one of the ______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. importance
E. errors
C
68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large
buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
D
69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under
the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
D
82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
E. on the way
D
83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing
his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules
and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
E. incarceration
C
84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National
Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent
appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
E
85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General
of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
A
86. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource
development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP
and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
D
87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
C
95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the
transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town
residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
D
96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. Judge
B. Chief of police
C. Mayor
D. Governor
C
97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws and
maintenance of peace and order.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
A
98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A. Employment
B. Deployment
C. Assignment
D. Designation
B
99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP
units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombudsman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
D
100.The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend
for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
B
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know
yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong
C
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information
concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to
foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation
C
3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning
organized crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation
C
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of
establishing terror or corruption in the city/community or section of,
either a monopoly, of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field
that provides a continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia
B
45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the
basic qualification for promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary
C
46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to
the rank of Police Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course
D
47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine
duty is called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty
D
48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines
C
49. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B
50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as
designated desk or office or spot is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector
A
51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and
administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College
D
52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct
C
53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership
B
54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
A
55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing
System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster
B
56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the
Philippines were known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri
B
57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before
he can apply for optional retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years
B
58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM C
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that
receives most of the call of the public which are directly related to
police function are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only
A
60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime,
types of crime an d places of crimes in each beat is very important in
the implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service
B
61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards
in each respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
B. called for service
C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above
A
62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all
criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime
A
63. Patrol hazard would include the following except
A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances
D
64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that
utilized dog patrol was the so called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians
A
65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow
Street Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
D. none of the above
B
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on
suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was
the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing - B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live
together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had
sexual relationship with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane
loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie, if
any?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape - B
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the
two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face. What
was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion - B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million
pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What
was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery - D
9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first
instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction - C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain,
by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief - B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the
physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or herself to
lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants - D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises
designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal - B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to
change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault - C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the
offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories - A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the
final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty - D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is
suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve - D
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the
commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy - C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act - C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing
the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation - B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public
policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. complex crimes - C
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning - C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case
work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to
court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial - B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by
him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as
required under the conditions specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant - C
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused i9s guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment - D
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence - C
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a
fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence - D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above - D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their
perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers - B
50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the
law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to
which it attaches a lighter penalty.
A.reiteracion
B.recidivism
C.quasi-recidivism
D.habitual delinquency - A
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner
or author.
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability - D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it
comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of
humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny - C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed
by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer
charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ - C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is
intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human
agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination - B
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any
of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence,
though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating - A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the
law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating - C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers
slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the
consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism - B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in
the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism - A
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render
judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law - D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or
last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty
of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal - C
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons
alleged to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of
conviction.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence - C
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which
casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor - B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction - B
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without
authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name - C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been
convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before
beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari - A
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem - D
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution
and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished - C
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable - B
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who
live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive - A
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft - C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old
girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime
committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these - C
MULTIPLE CHOICE
30. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the
felony is said to be
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
A
31. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered
relevant to the issue?
A. when it is not excluded by the rules
B. when it has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue
C. when it is not repugnant in taste
D. when it is not immoral
B
32. Infractions to the law punishable by Aresto Menor or a fine not
exceeding 200 pesos or both.
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
B
33. What circumstance can be considered aggravating with the slaying of an
80 year old woman?
A. abuse of confidence
B. disregard of age and sex
C. neglect of elders
D. disrespect of rank
B
34. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so
that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is
free from both criminal and civil liability.
A. Justifying circumstances
B. Mitigating Circumstance
C. Exempting circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
A
35. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where the
penalty prescribed by the law for the offense charged does not exceed
A. 3 years
B. six years
C. 6 months imprisonment
D. 4 years and 2 months
C
36. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available
witness, can a priest testify as to the alleged defamatory words given
to him by the accused during confession?
A. privilege given by a patient to a doctor
B. privilege given to a husband to a wife
C. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
D. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest
D
37. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as
dwelling, night time or recidivism.
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
A
38. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission of
the crime, without having principally participated therein, takes part
subsequent to the commission, either in profiting by the effects of
the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the crime?
A. Witnesses
B. Accessories
C. Principals
D. Accomplices
B
39. They are aggravating circumstance which change the nature of the crime,
e.i. homicide to murder in case of treachery
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
C
40. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by
mitigating circumstances?
A. Treachery
B. Night time
C. Ignominy
D. Taking advantage of superior strength
A
41. What are the infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society?
A. Mala prohibita
B. Felonies
C. Violation of ordinance
D. Mala in se
B
42. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by police officers in an illegal
search and seizure to be used against the accused?
A. Silver platter
B. Exclusionary doctrine
C. Fruit of the poisonous tree
D. Miranda ruling
A
43. Mr. Santos went to the United States. While he was there, he courted
Ms. Jane an American. They eventually got married. When Mr. Santos
returned to thePhilippines his wife, Alona filed an action against him
for violating their marriage. What is the liability of Mr. Santos, if
any?
A. None of these
B. Adultery
C. Concubinage
D. Bigamy
D
44. What is the liability of the jail guard if the evasion of a prisoner
should take place through his negligence?
A. delivering prisoners from jails
B. evasion through negligence
C. reckless imprudence
D. conniving with or consenting to evasion
B
45. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took
possession of the warrant, wrote the name of A, endorsed it at the
back and was able to encash it. B is liable for
A. Estafa
B. all of these
C. falsification
D. forgery
B
46. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release
or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same
offense particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and
robbery is considered as a:
A. recidivist
B. habitual Delinquent
C. delinquent
D. quasi-recidvist
B
47. What is the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial
proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact?
A. Evidence
B. Procedure
C. Investigation
D. Trial
A
48. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in
the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been committed by:
A. Group
B. Band
C. Brigands
D. Team
B
49. What is that statement made by a wounded person shortly after he
received several bolo stabs narrating therein the whole incident to
another which is admissible in evidence as part of
A. res nullus
B. res ipsa loquitur
C. res judicata
D. res gestae
D
50. A, B, C are boardmates of D. A, B and C conspire to kill X, a witch,
because he is perceived to cause misery among many in the barangay. D
knew about it all along. After the conspiracy but made no move to
report to the authorities. In this case, D
A. is liable for murder
B. is an accessory to the crime
C. is a conspirator
D. incurs no criminal liability
C
51. “Aberratio ictus” in which the perpetrator is criminally liable means
A. mistaken identity
B. mistake in the blow
C. results are less than intended
D. result is greater than intended
A
52. What acts punishable by law are either intended to directly impute to
an innocent person the commission of crime or which are calculated to
blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue?
A. oral defamation
B. blackmail
C. slander
D. incriminatory machinations
D
53. A, with intent to kill, fired a revolver at B. He inflicted a fatal
wound. A brought B to a hospital, and due to timely medical
assistance, B survived. What crime did A commit?
A. physical injuries
B. attempted felony
C. frustrated felony
D. no criminal liability
C
54. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes
allegiance to it.
A. Treason
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Espionage
D. Levying war
A
55. What is the order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer
commanding him to search for personal property described therein and
bring it before the court?
A. warrant of arrest
B. Search warrant
C. Subpoena
D. Summons
B
56. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual
assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design
by force
A. Aid or comfort
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Levying war
D. All of the foregoing
C
57. Under the new Constitution, who is empowered to order or change the
venue or place of trial in order to avoid miscarriage of justice?
A. executive judge
B. supreme court
C. regional trial courts
D. regional state prosecutor
B
58. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a
writing, the contents of which is the subject matter of inquiry
A. secondary evidence
B. parole evidence
C. corollary evidence
D. best evidence
A
59. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted
person, subject to the three limitations to be executed by the
President?
A. Pardon
B. Amnesty
C. Reprieve
D. penalty
A
60. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to
disclose such information to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty
of what crime?
A. Treason
B. Conspiracy to commit treason
C. Espionage
D. Misprision of Treason
D
61. What crime is committed when the offender, acting under a single
criminal resolution, commits a series of acts in the same place at
about the same penal provision?
A. Composite
B. Compound
C. Continuing
D. complex
C
62. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate
strength in evidential value?
A. when it changes the burden of proof
B. when evidence for the prosecution is strong
C. where no positive and proper identification has been
satisfactorily made
D. when questions on whether or not accused committed the
offense is clear
B
63. It is a forcible depredation on the high seas without lawful authority
and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and intention of
universal hostility
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
D. Sedition
B
64. What is that rule where an offended party may intervene in the
proceeding personally or through a counsel?
A. Miranda Rule
B. rule of facilitation
C. rule of intervention
D. rule of reservation
A
65. Refers to resistance to a superior officer, or the raising of
commotions and disturbance on board a ship against authority of the
commander
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
D. Sedition
A
72. What should be done in cases of offenses against property where the
name of the offended party is unknown?
A. court must cause the true name to be inserted
B. what is pivotal is the name and description of the offender
C. the police must label the property in a way that will
distinguish it from others
D. describe the property subject matter with such particularity
as to properly identify, the particular offense charged
D
73. How should the plea to a complaint or information be made by the
accused?
A. personally, in open court and of the record
B. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the
accused
C. through counsel in open court and on the record
D. personally by written motion
B
Situation 1 – A and B are neighbors. During a drinking spree, A
punched B without any provocation. B’s injury required medical
attendance for a period of seven (7) days. Immediately thereafter SP01
T. Anga whose help was sought by B, took the statement of B and did
not know what to do.
77. Assuming that A was drunk at the time that he committed the offense,
his drunkenness would be considered as:
A. mitigating circumstance
B. aggravating circumstance
C. exempting circumstance
D. alternative circumstance
D
Situation 2 – A and B who are brother-in-laws, are also mortal
enemies. One time, A threatened to kill B. A has a common reputation
of being a killer. One night in a lighted place, A suddenly stabbed B
from behind. Before A could escape, B was able to identify him. As B
lay wounded, SP01 Mahabagin responded and to whom B pointed to A as
the one who attacked him. SP01 arrested B on the basis of such
declaration.
85. Assuming that A’s appeal was filed 30 days after his counsel de oficio
learned of the judgment, the appeal should
A. Not be given due course, because the judgment which were rendered after
trial was obviously correct anyway
B. be given due course because it was filed within the reglamentary period
C. not be given due course because the confession was really inadmissible
against A and the judgment of conviction must be reversed
D. None of these
A
86. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 (BP Blg 129) took effect on
A. January 17, 1983
B. August 1, 1983
C. January 1, 1983
D. December 1, 1980
D
87. Criminal jurisdiction over the subject matter shall be determined by
the
A. law enforced at the time of the commission of the offense
B. law enforced at the time of trial
C. law enforced at the time of the institution/filing of the offense
D. law enforced at the time of the discovery of the offense
A
88. Criminal procedure is a
A. substantive law
B. constitutional law
C. administrative law
D. procedural or remedial law
D
89. The stage of a judicial proceeding whereby the accused shall be
informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him, in
compliance of the mandate of the consultation and the rules and in
order to fix the identity of the accused is
A. criminal investigation
B. pre-trial conference
C. preliminary investigation
D. arraignment and plea
D
90. Defined as the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an offense
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Detention or imprisonment
D. Investigation
A
91. Under the law, the warrant of arrest shall remain valid unless
A. after the lapse of ten days from its issuance
B. it is served or lifted
C. after the lapse of the period for the police to execute the same
D. after the lapse of the period for the police to make his report
A
92. The procedure which allows the affidavit or counter-affidavit of the
parties or their witnesses to constitute as their direct oral
testimony in the case, subject however to cross examination
A. Revised Rule on Summary Procedure
B. Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure
C. Revised Rules on Evidence
D. Revised Penal Code
A
93. The right of an accused to bail is a matter of right in those cases -
A. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC before or after conviction,
except capital offenses
B. falling within the jurisdiction of the MTC before or after conviction
C. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC where the penalty for the
offense does not exceed twenty years imprisonment
D. all of these
A
94. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the
penalty provided by law for the offense charged is
A. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of fine
B. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
C. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment irrespective of
the amount of fine
D. not exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
C
95. Violation of City or municipal ordinance are within the
A. concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC and MTC
B. exclusive original jurisdiction of the RTC
C. exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court
D. exclusive original jurisdiction of the MTC
D
INSTRUCTION:Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
onlyoneanswer for each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter ofyour choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Preliminary Conduct
A. Attitude &Demeanor of Interrogator b. The Interrogation Room c. Techniques of
Interrogation
d.Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge B
2. Privacy
A. Attitude &Demeanor of Interrogator b. The Interrogation Room c. Techniques of
Interrogation
d.Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge B
3. Emotional State.
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Setting of interview C. Requisites of Interview
D. Attitude and Demeanor of Interrogator A
4. Language
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Setting of interview C. Requisites of Interview
D. Attitude and Demeanor of
Interrogator C
5. Forcefulness of Personality
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Setting of interview C. Requisites of Interview
D. Attitude and Demeanor ofInterrogator D
6. Warm-Up
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Techniques in ControllingDigression C. Typical Classes
ofInterviewees
D. Personalities of Interviewees A
7. Precise Questioning
A. Usual Stages of Interview B. Techniques in Controlling Digression C. Typical Classes of
Interviewees
D. Personalities of
IntervieweesB
8. Middle age Person
A. Usual Stages of Interview B.Techniques in Controlling Digression C. Typical Classes
ofInterviewees
D. Personalities of Interviewees C
9. Sound & motion Picture
A. Method of Recording Interview B. Goals of Criminal Investigation C. Successful
Investigator
D. Responsibility of CriminalInvestigator
10. Addressing Problem A
A. Method of Recording Interview B. Goals ofCriminal Investigation C.Successful
Investigator
D. Responsibility of
CriminalInvestigator B
20. Consideration must also be given to the fact that chanceoften plays an important part in the
solution of crimes.
a. possibility of chance b. exploiting intuition c. representative approach d. art of interview D
2 1. A self – incriminatory statement by the subject fallingshort of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession b. coercion c. witnesses d. admission D
22. Is the testimony of a witness reduced to writing underoath or affirmation.
a. Statement b. deposition c. recalcitrant d. affirmative A
23. The foremost requirement upon which later admissibilityof an admission or confession depends.
a. Voluntariness b. fourfold warning c. record d. waiver D
24. To forego these rights, an affirmative statement ofrejection is required.
a. Fourfold warning b. proof of waiver c.proof of voluntariness d. record ofconduct B
25. Encompasses all interrogation practices which are likelyto exert such pressure on an individual
as to disable him from making a freeand rational choice.
a. Coercion b. proof of voluntariness c. record conduct d. awareness ofthe accusation B
26. It should reflect the continuous availability ofprotective devices for the suspects rights.
a. Intent b. record conduct c. duress d.psychological constraint C
27. It connotes theidea of physical force, it is the directapplication of illegal physical methods.
a. Employment of trickery b. coercion c. duress d.psychological constraint B
28. It is taken in the legal sense to mean the imposition ofrestriction on physical behavior.
a. Confession against another b. duress c. awareness of the accusation d. employment of
promises D
29. The free action of the will may be unlawfully restrainedby threats or another other method of
instilling fear.
a. Existence of forces b. psychologicalconstraints c. lighter sentence d. pardon A
30. The person under investigation must be mentally orvisually aware of an accusation.
a. Confession against another b. awareness of the accusation c. confession of several crimes
B
d. identity of the offender
31. It is the place where the essential ingredients of thecriminal act took place.
a. Investigation scene b. victims scene c. crime scene d.interrogation scene C
32. The first step in the crime scene search.
a. Collecting evidence b. photograph the crime scene c. preservation of its original
condition
d. markings of evidence B
33. It means protecting all the physical evidence and cluematerials.
a. Complete crime scene b. avoid contamination of crime scene c. protecting the crime
scene
d. controlling the crime scene C
34. Upon arrival at the crime scene the ------------should immediately ascertain the identity of
personswho may be valuable to the investigation.
a. Investigator b. witness c. first responder d. suspect
35. The ----------- should collects, preserves, and tagsarticles of evidence and maintains custody of
evidence.
a. Team leader b. photographer c. evidence man d. master note taker C
36. Implements the directions of the officer – in – charge .
a. Master note taker b. evidence man c. assistant officer –in- charge d. photographer e. sketcher
C
37. At this stage of the investigation, prohibition andnegative advice are most useful.
a. Preliminary survey b. preliminary action c.preliminary crime scene survey
d. preliminary investigation survey D
38. it can be prepared in a variety of ways a hand writtennotes, audio tape recording
and videotaping.
a. narrative search b. narrative interview c. narrative description d.narrative
investigation D
39. The Presence of__________ may deter a hesitant subject.
a. stenographer b. witness c. victim d. investigatorD
40. The crime scene provides a major opportunityto locate ------------------.
a. perpetrator b. evidence c. physicalevidence d. none of the above C
41. qualification and traits of the interrogator
a. written notes b. general knowledge and interest c. privacy d. subject B
42. Attitude anddemeanor of interrogator.
a. perseverance b. distracting mannerism c.privacy d. know nothing type A
43. Responsibilities of Criminal investigators.
a. Eyewitness b.Motive c. Locate & apprehend the perpetrator d.Intent C
44. Phases of Criminal Investigation.
a. opportunity.b. eyewitness testimony c.confession d. traced and located A
45. Clue materials, personal property or the characteristicspattern of procedure.
a. providing evidence of guilt b. locating the criminal offenders c. intent d. associativeevidence C
46. The available information is arrange and correlated.
a. role of reason b. elements of the offense c. possibility of chance d.representative approach e.
form B
47. The elements of the offense
a. corpus delicti b. art of interview c. type of interview d. elements of the offense A
48. Both inductive and deductive reasoning .
a. intent b.form c. corroborating d.exploiting intuition C
49. Asking question to a person who is believed to possessknowledge & cooperative in the conduct
of investigation.
a. witness b. information c. personality d. interview D
50. Qualities of a salesman, an actor, and psychologist.
a. requisites of interview b. background interview c. setting interview d. qualifications of
interviewerD
51. The relationship between the interviewer and the subjectdetermines the success of the
investigation.
a. setting of interview b. formal interview c. on the scene interview d. establish rapport D
52. Normal, group and pretext interview.
a. on the scene interview b. formal interview c. background d.approach B
53. It may be conducted by any law enforcement officer whofirst appears on the scene.
a. formal interview b. back ground interview c. routine d. on the sceneinterview D
54. Usual stage of interview
a. preparation b. appropriate time c. inaccuracies d. positive attitude A
55. A multiplicity of the questions tends to confuse theperson being interviewed.
a. One question at a time b. inaccuracies c.guiding conversation d. saving face A
56. Long, complicated, and legalistic questions only serveto confuse and irritate.
a. simplicity of question b. saving face c. yes or no question d. precise questioning D
57. This technique consist in asking a question whichrelates to the digression from original line of
questioning.
a. shunting b. precise questioning c. guessing d. C
58. Personalities of interviewees.
a. know nothing type b.breadth of interest c. art of interview d. intent A
59. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be
obtained.
a. alertness b. integrity c. perseverance d. logic mind C
60. The ________ of the interrogator should adapt to thesubjects cultural level.
a. dress b. attitude c, language d, privacy C
61. ______ should be designed for simplicity with the viewof enhancing the concentration of both the
interrogator and the subject.
a. extenuation b. mutt and jeff c. the interrogation room d. line up C
62. It is desirable to have facilities for others to observeand hear the suspect during the
interrogation.
a. interrogation log b. seating arrangement c. technical Aids d.extenuation C
63. In addition to his regular facilities for taking notesit is well for the investigator to have an available
_________.
a. technical aid b, seating arrangement c. interrogation Log d.control the interview C
64. The investigator must create a mood that is conducive toa confession..
a. kindness b. sympathetic approach c. friendliness d. emotional appeal D
65. the investigator does not take too serious a view of thesubject’s indiscretion,
a. mutt and jeff b. shifting the balance c. knowledge bluff d. extenuation D
66. The device is especially useful when dealing with aperson usually calm or nervous.
a. indifference b. stern approach c.indifference d. jolting A
67. The subject conviction is treated as a fait accomplice.
a. jolting b. stern approach c. bluff d.indifference C
68. In the beginning of the typical interrogation, theinvestigator has little need for control, the subject
should be permitted totell his story in his own way without interruption.
a. questioning b. emotional control c. strategic interruption d. initial phase D
69. Branch of forensic science concerned with the recording,scientific examination, and
interpretation of the minute details.
a. fingerprint b. ballistic c. questioneddocument d. polygraphy C
70. _______ is more likely to inspire confidence andfriendship in a criminal than a uniform.
a. barong c. gown c. formal dress d. civilian dress A
71. Must be able to convince the subject that it is futileto resist since the interrogator obviously has
sources of knowledge.
a. Knowledge bluff b.line up c. reverse line up d.initial phase A
72. The procedure is business like, but the interrogatorpauses meaningfully as if to give the suspect
one more chance to tell thetruth.
a. questioning as a formality b.indifference c. stern approach d.helpful adviser A
73. ________ uses instrumentation and sophisticatedlaboratory techniques to detect the presence of
substances in the victim.
a. forensic science b. role of crime lab c. facts of the case d. forensic medicine A
74. A criminalist ultimate task is the presentation oflaboratory findings to the court.
a. expert testimony b. clue material c. witness d. facts of the case A
75. Reconstruct how the crime was committed.
a. Role of the crime laboratory b.time element c. element of crime d.facts of the case A
76. The subject and the investigator should be seated withno large furniture between them.
a. seating arrangement b.technical aids c. interrogation log d.simplicity A
77. It is desirable for several reasons, to restrict thenumber of persons present at an interrogation.
a. presence of other people b. attitude of other people c. presenceof investigator d. control
theinterview A
78. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be
obtained.
a. perseverance b. integrity c. alertness d. logical mind A
79. Patience andflattery are necessary in dealing with the vain or self centered person.
a. boasting witness b. timid witness c. deceitful witness d. honest A
80. the suspect is instate of emotional confusion, he is unable to think logically and clearly.
a. anxiety b. helpful adviser c.extenuation d. helpful adviser A
Kindly choose and shade letter A if the answer is TRUE, B if FALSE, C if Partly True, D ifPartly
False
FINAL EXAMINATION
(LEA 1 – POLICE ORGANIZATION &ADMIN. WITH POLICE PLANNING)
SY2011-2012/2ndSemester
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answerfor each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each itemby shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answersheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Kind of Plan ordinarily include as part of a policedepartments written directives system;
a.Policy b.Operational c.Logistic d.Technical A
2. PNP Lateral Entry Sr. Inspector Rank qualifications;a.Dentist b.Chaplainc.Nurses
d.Engineers B
3. A section or territorial division of a large city eachcomprised of designated districts; a.District
b.Area c.Sector d.Regional B
4. Comprising behavioral regulations; a.Disciplines b.Doctrines c.Policiesd.Rules A
5. PNP Lateral Entry Inspector Rank qualifications; a.Chaplainb.Member of the bar c.Doctor of
Medicine d.PNPA Graduate D
6. Who is the Napolcom Present Executive Vice Chairman; a.JesseRobredo b.Avelino Razon
c.Alendro Urro d. Eduardo Escueta D
7. An Act establishing the PNP under a reorganized Department ofthe Interior and Local
Government; a.RA 6985 b.RA8551 c.RA 7610 d.RA 6975 D
8. Napolcom is under the department of; a.DOJ b.DILG c.PNPA d.Office ofthe President B
9. Functions that are designed to support the line functions andassist in the performance of the
line functions; a.Auxiliary b.Line c.Staff d.Primary C
10. Process of developingmethods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate ;
a.Managementb.Planning c.Unityof Command d.Command Responsibility B
11. PNP Senior Superintendent;a.3 sun b.2 sun c.1 star d.2 anahaw leaf A
12. PNP Chief shall beappointed by __________; a.DILGSec. b.Chief Justice c.Senate President
d.President A
13. Under PNP Chief is Deputyfor Administration and _____________; a.Logistics b.Operation
c.Management d.Finance D
14. The Chief of PNP mayextend his term thru this exception; a.Trust and Confidence by the
President b.Discretion of the Senatorsc.Supreme Court intervention d.National Emergency B
15. Next in lower rank ofPolice Superintendent; a.Inspector b. Chief Superintendent c.Chief
Inspectord.Senior Inspector C
16. PLEB Ratio to every cityor municipal police personnel; a.1:300 b.1:400 c.1:500 d.1:600 C
17. Structure according tofunctions and specialized units-depicts staff functions of the organization–
responsibilities are divided among authorities; a.Service b.Line c.Staff d.Functional D
18. Provides for theorganizational objectives also provides various actions, hence,
policies,procedures, rules and regulations of the organizations based on the statement;a.Principles
b.Implementations c.Doctrines d.Administrations D
19. Conferring of an amount ofauthority by a superior position to a lower level position; a.Span of
control b.Delegation of Authorityc.Hierarchy of Authority c.Unity of Command B
20. PNP Deputy DirectorGeneral is appointed by President and upon recommendation of; a.DILG
Secb.Napolcom Commissioners c.Chief of PNP d.Senate President D
21. PNP Director rank; a.2 star b.3 star c.4 stard.2 sun A
22. It includes the right tocommand and the power to require obedience; a.Supervision b.Hierarchy
c.Authority d.Directing C
23. RA 6975 ended theexistence of; a.AFP b.PNP c.PC d.PC / INP D
24. The making of detailedaccount of activities, work progress, investigations and unsual in order
tokeep everyone informed or what is going on; a.Investigation b.Log In Bookc.Daily sheet
d.ReportingD
25. The determination inadvance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained;
a.Purposeb.Goals c.Planningd.Objectives C
26. PNP Inspector Rank; a.One Anahaw b.Two Anahawc.3 Anahaw d.One sun A
27. PNP Superintendent rank;a.One Star b.One Sun c.2Sun d.2 Star C
28. An area containing two ormore beats, routes or posts; a.Beat b.Route c.Patrol d.Sector D
29. The hierarchy of authorityis the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of
theorganization; a.Command Responsibility b.Unity of Command c.Scalar chair d.Chain ofcommand
C
30. A fixed point or locationto which an officer is assigned for duty; a.Duty b.Post c.Allocation
d.Designation B
31. Disciplinary AppellateBoard consist of ___; a.1 b.2c.3 d.none of the above B
32. An area assigned forpatrol purposes, whether foot or motorized; a.Beat b.Route c.Holistic Patrol
d.Post A
33. A group of persons workingtogether for a common goal or objectives; a.Organization b.Planning
c.Managementd.Administration A
34. To compel obedience to alaw, regulation or command; a.Enforcementb.Policy c.Rules
d.Mandatory A
35. The process of directingand facilitating the work of people organized in formal groups in order
toachieve objectives; a.Authority b.Supervision c.Management d.Administration
36. Napolcom Staff Servicesconsist of ____; a.7 b.8 c.9 d.10 C
37. Involves the determinationand allocation of men and women as well as the resource of an
organizationachieve pre determined goals or objectives of the organization;
a.Subordinationb.Directing c.Organizing d.Management A
38. The forecasting in detailof the results of an officially recognized program of operations on the
highestreasonable expectations of operating efficiency; a.Budgeting b.Daily sheet c.Reporting
d.Detail ReportsC
39. Involves the overseeingand supervising of the human resources and the various activities in
anorganization to achieve through cooperative efforts of pre determined goals andobjectives of the
organization; a.Supervision b.Controlling c.Organizing d.Directing D
40. PNP Component Agenciescompose of ______ agencies; a.10 b.9 c.8 d.7 B
41. PNP Functions; a.Prevents and Investigatescrimes b.Conduct preliminary investigation
c.Discretion on Courtd.Determine Probable cause A
42. Napolcom Appellate Boardis composed of ___ divisions; a.3 b.4 c.5 d.6 B
43. DILG Secretary powers;a.Chief of PNP b.Appoint NBI agent c.Give Orders to PDEA Agent
d.Presiding Officer of Napolcom D
44. PNP Functions incounter-insurgency; a.Protect our territory b.Information gathering c.External
securityd.Monitor external threats B
45. Napolcom Commissioner iscomposed of ___ ; a.4 b.5 c.6d.7 C
46. The Vice Chairperson ofNapolcom is designated by ___________ ; a.DILG Sec. b.Chief of PNP
c.AFP Chiefof Staff d.PresidentD
47. RA 8551 approved on; a.Jan1998 b.Feb 1998c.March 1998 d.April 1998 B
48. An organizational processconcerned with the implementation of objectives and plans and
internaloperating efficiency; a.Administrationb.Management c.Organization d.Planning A
49. A group of trainedpersonnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in
theachievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace andorder,
protection of life and property, enforcement of the laws and theprevention of crimes;
a.PoliceOrganization b.Law Enforcement Organization c.Organization d.PoliceManagement A
50. The process involved inensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
statutes;a.Police Planning b.Police Management c.Police Administration d.Police Organization C
51. A fixed point or locationto which an officer is assigned for duty; a.Designation b.Post c.Duty
d.Allocation B
52. A length of streetsdesignated for patrol purposes also called Line beat; a.Foot Patrol
b.Beatc.Sector d.Route D
53. In England were militarycharge in areas, this areas were called _______; a.Shuri b.Shires
c.Shifers d.ShufB
54. Sheriff derived from theword _______ ________; a.Sher-iff b.Sheire-Rieve c.Sherei-Reih
d.Shrek-Reiif B
55. They called it as keeperof the house; a.Sheriff b.Praterion Guard c.Military d.Constabuli D
56. King Henry issued the lawscalled; a.Leges Hentai b.LegisAquila c.Leges Henrici d.Leges Henry
Sy B
57. Misdemeanors means;a.Crimes b.Violation c.Penalty d.Less Serious Crimes D
58. A body of men who inquirefacts of crime and eliminate the anglo saxon tribe ordeal system;
a.Jurorb.Jury c.Grand Juryd.Justices C
59. Magna Carta begins in_____; a.1212 b.1213 c.1214 d.1215D
60. In Magna Carta it embarksthe principle of ; a.Criminal Justice System b.Trial Jury System
c.Police Policing System d.Dueprocess System B
61. Body of Crime is; a.Corpus Delicti b.Sceneof Crime c.Delicti Corpus d.Corpse delicpee A
62. What period of policingoriginate the curfew laws?; a.Anglo Saxon b.Norman c.Westminster
d.England C
63. Replacement of Sheriff inWestminster period?; a.Peace Man b.Guard c.Police d.Justice of the
Peace D
64. Who is the person whowrote the book i London Bow Streets? ; a.Cesare Lombroso b.Henry
Fielding c.EdwinSutherland d.Robert Peel B
65. In what year _____ changewas made in policing in england; a.1829 b.1830 c.1831 d.1828 A
66. The supreme source ofgovernment for any particular organization; a.Hierarchy b.Police Power
c.Authority d.Taxation C
67. One Police Force means;a.Number b.Group as One c.Accountability d.Under One Leader D
68. PPSC is under _____?; a.DILG b.DOJ c.PNPA d.none of the above A
69. Robert peels Centralheadquarter is; a.Scottish Center Police b.Scotland Yard c.England HQ d.
England PeelCenter Scotland B
70. In England new police mencalled _____; a.Plebo b.Neophite c.Apprentice d.Bobbies D
71. Basic principle in England“The Best deterrent to crime is ; a.Patrol b.Curfew c.Police Visibilty
d.Apprehension of CriminalD
72. The term police derivedfrom the word; a.Politiae b.Politiac.Politics d.Polite B
73. A rural police inPhilippines established by the Royal decree of Jan.8, 1836; a.Guardia
Civilb.Carabineros c.Cuadrillerosd.Civil de Guardia C
74. Body of Filipino policemenorganized originally in each of the provincial capital and established
by theRoyal decree of Feb.12, 1852; a.Guardia Civil b.Carabineros c.Cuadrilleros d.Civil de
Guardia A
75. The assignment ofparticular personnel to particular tasks; a.Duty b.Mission Order
c.Specializationd.Obligation C
76. When is the R.A. 6975 enacted?;a. 1989 b.1990c.1991 d.1992 B
77. Profession means; a.powerto secure b.integrity and bravery c.announce a belief d.allof the
above C
78. An Act establishing thePNP under a reorganized Department of the Interior and Local
Government; a.RA6985 b.RA8551 c.RA 6975d.RA8555 C
79. In PNP mission it ensurespublic safety and _________ security; a.External b.Internal c.Extra
d.Domestic B
80. PNP LAW is created thruthe intention of ________; a.stability b.protection c.establishment
d.reorganized D
81. Who is the Ex OfficioChairman of Napolcom?; a.PNP Chief b.Napolcom Executive Head c.DILG
Sec d.DOJ Sec C
82. The Praetorian guard camefrom the city of _______; a.London b.Rome c.Italy d.Europe B
83. The process involved inensuring strict compliance, proper obedience of laws and related
statutes;a.Police Planning b.Police Management c.Police Administration d.Police Organization C
84. The forecasting in detailof the results of an officially recognized program of operations on the
highestreasonable expectations of operating efficiency; a.Budgeting b.Daily sheet c.Reporting
d.DetailReports A
85. Height Limit in PO1 PNPQualifications for male; a.1.60m b.1.61m c.1.62m d.1.63m C
86. Height Limit in PO1 PNPQualifications for female; a.1.57mb.1.58m c.1.59m d.1.60m A
87. In Anglo Saxon Period smalltribal areas is called as; a.Balangai b.Tuns c.Towns d.Crib B
88. PNP Age qualificationsapplications for PO1; a.22-30 b.23-31 c.22-29 d.21-30 D
89. In Britain the village lawis called as; a.Hue andCry b.Code of Arthur c.Codals d.Lex Talionis A
90. Napolcom is under thedepartment of; a.DOJ b.DILG c.PNPA d.Office of the President D
91. Main intention of RA 8551to RA 6975; a.Reform the old b.Modify c.Amend d.Reorganized C
92. The hierarchy of authorityis the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the
organization;a.Command Responsibility b.Unity of Command c.Scalar chair d.Chain of command C
93. Who is the king of Francewho conquered and invaded England?; a.Norman William b.William
Norman c.Norman Wills d.William NormsA
94. Necessary for anorganization to function effectively, however, the state of the
disciplinaryprocess depends upon the quality of its leaders; a.Limitation b.Discipline
c.Loyaltyd.Integrity B
95. Subordinate should receiveorders from one superior only; a.Command responsibility b.Unity of
Command c.Chain of Commandd.Scalar Chair B
96. In accordance of RA 8551PNP chief Maximum tenure is; a.3 years b.4 years c.5 years d.6 years
B
97. The largest organicfunctional unit within a large department; a.Division b.Unit c.Section
d.Bureau D
98. A primary subdivision of abureau; a.Unit b.Divisionc.Bureau d.Section B
99. Functional unit within adivision that is necessary for specialization; a.Section b.Unit c.Bureau
d.Division A
100. Functional group within a section or the smallest functionalgroup within an
organization; a.Section b.Division c.Unit d.Bureau C
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each ofthe following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by shading thespace corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED.
1. The instruments especially designed to permit the firearm examiner todetermine the similarity and
dissimilarity between two fired bullets or twofired shell.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope b. Bullet Microscope
c. BuletComparison Microscope d. Bulet Microscope A
2. Itis generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and firedshells to determine the
relative distribution of the class characteristics.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope b. SterioscopicMicroscope
c. Stereouscopic Microscope d. Stereuoscopic Microscope A
3. A battery operated instrumentsgenerally used for the examination of the internal surface of the
gun barrel todetermine the irregularities that caused microscopic markings on the peripheralsurface
of the fired bullets.
a. Onoscope b.Onosecope
c. Onscope d. OnoescopeA
4. This contains a series ofmicroscopic lenses of different magnifications that can be used in
examiningfired bullets and fired shells to determine its class characteristics.
a. Shadowgraph b. Shadawgraph
c. Shadowgrap d. Shadawgrap A
5. An instruments designed tomeasure velocity of the bullets
a. Cronograph b. Cronograp
c. Chronograph d. Chronograp C
6. Type of a weapon fired from theshoulder.
a. Pistol b. Revolver
c. Machine gun d. Rifle D
7. Instrument used in test firingsuspected firearm or firearms to obtain test bullets for comparative
purposes
a. Bullet Recovery Bax b. Bullet Recavery Box
c. Bullet Recovery Box d.Bullet Recoviry Box
8. The depressed portion of therifling as you looked inside a barrel of a gun C
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch A
9. The elevated rifling of thebarrel of the gun.
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch B
10.Caliber .38 fired bullet found at the crime scene having 5 lands 5 grooves andright hand twist
indicate that it was fired from.
a. Colt b.Browning
c.Remington d. Smith and Wesson D
11. Colt firearms has
a. 5 lands 5 grooves,left hand twist b. 5 lands 5 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, left handtwist d. 6 lands 6 grooves, right hand twist C
12. Isthe study of the firearms identification by means of the ammunition firedthrough them or fired
through submitted suspected firearm.
a. Ballistics b. Forensic Ballistics
c. Terminal Ballistics d. Internal Ballistics B
13. Instruments used for makingmeasurement such as bullet diameter, bore diameter and barrel
length.
a. Caleper b. Caliper
c. Calleper d. Calliper B
14. Firearms which propelsprojectiles of less than one inch in diameter are generally classified as;
a. Artillery b. Small arms
c. Cannon d. Rifle B
15. The still block which closesthe rear of the bore against the forced of the charge is;
a. Breech face b. Breech block
c.Chamber d. Bore B
16. Characteristic which are determinableonly after the manufacture of the firearm. They are
characteristics whoseexistence is beyond the control of man and which have random
distribution.Their existence in a firearm is brought about through wear and tear, abuse,mutilation,
corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes;
a. Forensic Ballistics b. Rifling
c. Class Characteristics d. Individual Characteristics D
17. When the bulletenters the rifle bore from the stationery position and is forced abruptly intothe
rifling its natural tendency is to go straight forward before encounteringthe regular rifling twist, is
called;
a. Shavingmarks b. Skid marks
c. Individual Characteristics d. Slippage marks D
18. The practice of pulling the trigger to snap and unloadfirearm.
a.Firing gun b. Dry firing
c. Aiming gun d. Pointing gun B
19. Characteristicsof 9mm. Browning pistol.
a. 5 lands 5 grooves,right hand twist b. 3 lands 4 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, righthand twist d. 7 lands 7 grooves, right hand twist C
20. When a cartridgefails to explode on time or there is a delayed in combustion due to
faultyfunctioning of the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is;
a.Misfired b.Recoil
c. Hang fire d. Velocity C
21. A ring or serrated groovesaround the body of the bullet which contain substance in order to
minimizefriction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore.
a.Lead bullet b. Wad cutter bullet
c. Bullet cannelure d. Plated bullet C
22. A firearm having six land six grooves withright hand twist
a. Smith andweson b. Browning type
c. Colt type d. Webby type B
23. Instrument used for the propulsion of the projectiles by the expansiveforce of gases coming
from the burning powder.
a. Micrometer b. Firearms
c. Stereoscopic Microscope d. Comparison B
24. The part of the mechanism in a firearm whichcauses empty shells or cartridge cases to be
thrown from the gun is called;
a. Extractor b. Ejector
c. Hammer d. TriggerB
25. Thepart of cartridge that ignites the main powder charge when struck by the firingpin.
a. Shell b. Base
c. Primer d. Bulle Ct
26.Weapon in which pressure uponthe trigger both cocks and released the hammer.
a. Single action b. Trigger
c. Hammer d. Double action D
27. Weapon in which pressure upon thetrigger released the hammer that must bemanually cocked
is called.
a. Automatic b. Repeating Arm
c. Single action d. Ejector C
28. A policeman arriving at the crime scene, found a revolver.In reference to this, he should be most
careful
a. T see that it is not loaded b. To put the safety lock
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily d. To mark it readily to the barrel A
29. Lesser caliberfirearm but considered as powerful.
a. 9mm b. .38
c. .357 d. .45 C
30. The part of .45 caliber semi automatic pistol found at thecrime scene , normally marked for
identification in the;
a. Trigger b. Ejector
c. Slide d. Barrel D
31. It is the part of mechanism in a firearm that withdraws theshell or cartridge from the chamber
a.Ejector b. Primer
c. Striker d. Extractor D
32. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol orrifle barrels is called;
a. Land b. Grooves
c. Extractor marks d. One complete rotation of thebullet inside the
bore D
33.The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that;
a.The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer
c. The revolver can fire with or withoutautomatic shell ejection
d. The shell of the fired shot is ejected andfresh cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the same
time B
34. The secret of a good shooting form is;
a. Proper sighting of the target b. Relaxed and natural position
c. Firing slowly d. Keeping the thumb alongthe hammer B
35. Of the following the best method to use infiring a revolver is to keep
a. Both eyes closed b. Onlythe right eye is open
c. Both eye is open d. Only left eye is open C
36. A policeman should fire his pistol.
a. At no time at all b. Primarily to stop at quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen d. Only at the last resort D
37.The science dealing with the motion of the projectiles from the time the firersqueezes the trigger
up to the time it riches the muzzle of the barrel, iscalled.
a. Posterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics A
38. The science that deals with the effect of theimpact of the projectiles on target is called;
a. Exterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Anterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics D
39. The science which deals with themotion of the projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle up
to the time itshit the target, is known as;
a. Terminalballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exteriorballistics d. Forensic ballistics C
40. ClassCharacteristics are determinable even blank the manufacture of the firearm
a.During b. After
c. Before d. Never C
41. Rifling locatedinside the barrel of a gun is a combination
a. Pitch b.Twist
c. Lands and Grooves d. Cannelure C
42. A completed unfiredunit ammunition is inserted into the chamber of a firearm for firing isreferred
to as;
a.Bullet b.Shell
c. Primer d. Cartridge D
43. A copper jacketedfired bullet is usually fired from;
a. Revolver b. Pistol
c. Rifle d. Pistol and Revolver B
44. If a bullet isfired through a weapon in which the lands have been worn down or through a
borewhich is slightly oversized. The marks, is called;
a. Skid marks b. Slippage marks
c. Rifling marks d. Shearing marksA
45. A magnified photograph of a small object produce byconnecting a camera with the ocular of a
compound microscope
a. Photo Microphotograph b. Microfilm
c. Photomicrograph d. Photograph C
46. Commonly, these marks are found on bullets fired from arevolver due to poor alignment of the
cylinder of a bore
a. Shaving marks b. Skid marks
c. Pivot marks d. Landmarks A
47. To impart a motion or rotation of a bullet during itspassage inside the barrel , to insure
gyroscopic stability in its flight iscalled;
a. Range b. Gauge
c. Rifling d. Center fire C
48. A metallic cup charged with priming composition ,usually made up of potassium chlorate,
antimony sulfide and fulminate ofmercury.
a. Primer b.Gunpowder
c. Cartridge d.Primer cup A
49. A type of firearmwhich the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer.
a. Automatic b. Single action
c. Double action d. Slideaction type C
50. Part of Exterior ballistics which refers to the soundcreated at the muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy b. Muzzle blust
c. Muzzle noise d. Range B
51. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin onthe bullet that pass through it.
a. Land Rifling b. Rifling
c. Grooves d.All of these C
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
1. When the light hits a transparent glass which would allow the light to pass through
its medium. This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or
passing through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is
the type of light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of
the human eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
A. AssociationStandards American
B. American Standards Association
C. America StandardsAssociation
D. AmericanStandard Associations B
7. ISOis also known as
A. InternationalStandards Organization
B. International Standard Organization
C. InternationalStandard Organizations
D. InternationalStandards Organizations B
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp
or clear image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens
exposing the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
11. Whichof the following film is considered to be the fastest in terms of theirexposure?
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
13. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the
administration of justice refers to
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Photograph
D. Photography C
15. Whichof the following lens defects will produce a sharp center object but with ablurred sides?
A. Lateral aberration
B. Chromatic aberration
C. Spherical aberration
D. Distortion C
FINAL EXAMINATION
(CS 2 - JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND CRIME PREVENTION
SY2011-2012/2nd Semester
INSTRUCTION: Select thecorrect answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answerfor each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choiceon the answer
sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. It is an act committed by a minor who violates thepenal code of the government refers to:
a. delinquency b. juvenile c. delinquent d. juvenile delinquency D
2. An anti-social or act which does not conform with thestandards of society.
a. delinquency b. juvenile c. delinquent d. juvenile delinquency D
3. One whose behavior has brought him into repeatedconflict with the law, regardless of whether
he has been taken before a courtor not refers to:
a. child b. delinquent c. anti-social behavior d. recidivist B
4. The doctrine that does not consider delinquent acts ascriminal violation, thus making
delinquents non-criminal persons
a. parenspatriae b. parentspatriae c. RA 9344 d. doctrine on
juveniledelinquency A
5. Truancy, running away from home and violating curfeware examples of offenses who
committed by:
a. statusoffenders b. juveniledelinquents c. recidivist d. delinquency A
6. One who has internalized his conflicts and ispreoccupied with his own feelings
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental A
7. One whose delinquent acts have a cold, brutal andvicious quality for which the youth feels no
remorse
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental C
8. A delinquent youth who lacks moral conscience
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental C
9. One who is essentially sociable and law-abiding buthappens to be at the wrong time and place
and becomes involved in delinquentacts.
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental D
10. An aggressive youth who resents authority of anyone whomakes an effort to control his behavior
a. neurotic b. social c. asocial d. accidental B
11. An approach that advocates that youth misconduct is adirect result of faulty biology
a. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic B
12. Views youthful misdeed as a result of a learningprocess through interactions with other
members of society
a. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic C
13. Views youthful misdeed as a result of a learningprocess through interactions with other
members of society
b. psychogenic b. biogenic c. sociogenic d. phylogenic A
14. ____________ theory believe that delinquent behavior isthe result of youth’s biological make up
and life experiences, feel treatmentshould include altering one or more factors that contribute to
unlawfulbehavior.
a. trait theory b.biological theory c. positivist theory d. psychological theory
C
15. ___________ was the first formal explanation of crimeand delinquency held that human
behavior was a matter of choice.
a. trait theory b.choice theory c. biological theory d.
psychological theory C
16. According to this theory people weigh the benefit andconsequence of their future actions before
deciding on a course of behavior.
a. trait theory b.biological theory c. classicalcal theory d. psychological theory.
D
17. The popularity of the ___________ approach was in part responsible for thedevelopment of
the prison as an alternative to physical punishment .
a. trait approach b.psychological approach c.biological d. classical approach
18. ___________ theory was derived from positivist theory.
a. classical theory b.biological theory c.psychological theory d. trait theory. D
19. ___________ theory was derived from classical theory.
a. choicetheory b. biologicaltheory c. psychological theory d. trait theory. A
20. View delinquency as essentially psychological.
a. choice theory b.biological theory c. psychological theory d. trait theory. C
21. The first and most basic institution of societyresponsible for developing a child’s potential in all
aspects like physical,emotional, spiritual, moral, intellectual and social refers to________________?
a. family b. school c.environment d. home A
22. Considered the second home of a child, with teachers asthe second parents.
a. family b. school c.environment d. home B
23. Institution that responsible for the training of youngpersons intellectual, as well as social skills
which they need for them to growup as productive, law- abiding and responsible citizens.
a. family b. school c.environment d. home B
24. The culture, norms and behavior of the child’ssurroundings may very well influence the
upbringing of the child especiallyduring their formative years refers to ______________.
a. family b. school c. environment d. home C
25. Children raised in homes with one or both parentsabsent may be prone to anti-social behavior.
This contributory factor injuvenile delinquency refers to:
a. familybreak-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence A
26. Nuclear families that are the product ofdivorce/separation and remarriage, blending one parent
from each of twofamilies and their combined children into one family unit, refers to:
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. blended family D
27. Children raised by parents who lack proper parentingskills are more at risk than those whose
parents are supportive and effectivelycontrol their children in a non-coercive fashion, refers to:
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence D
28. Parents of delinquent youth have been found to sufferneurological conditions linked to antisocial
behaviors, and these conditionsmay be inherited genetically. This study refers to?
a. family break-up b. family deviance c. family conflict d. family competence
B
29. ___________________ means placing a child in the temporary care of a family other than
itsown as a result of state intervention into problems that are taking placewithin the birth family; can
be used as a temporary shelter while a permanent sadoption effort being completed.
a. abandonment b. neglect c. foster care d. abuseC
30. ________________ refers to parents physically leavetheir children with intention of completely
severing the parent-childrelationship.
a. fostercare b. neglect c. abandonment d. abuse C
31. ____________ refers to passive neglect by a parent orguardian depriving children of food,
shelter, health care and love.
a. fostercare b. neglect c. abandonment d. abuse
B
32. ____________ anyphysical, emotional or sexual trauma to a child, including neglecting to
giveproper care and attention, for which no reasonable explanation can be found.
a. child abuse b. physical
abuse c. physicalneglect d. emotional abuse A
33. Leaving the school before completing the requiredprogram of education refers to?
a. dropping out b. underachievers c. truancy d. absence A
34. Those who fail to meet expected levels of schoolachievement refers to?
a. dropping out b. underachievers c. truancy d. absence B
35. ______________isa direct cause of delinquent behavior. Children who fail at school soon
feelfrustrated & rejected.
a. truancy b. underachievers c.school failure d.dropping out C
36. Smallgroups of friends who share intimate knowledge and confidences
a. crowds b. cliques c.controversial youth d. gang B
37. Loosely organized groups who share interests andactivities.
a. crowds b.cliques c. controversialyouth d. gang A
38. Anaggressive kids who either liked or intensely disliked by their peers and whoare the ones
most likely to become
engaged in anti-social behavior.
a. crowds b.cliques c. controversial youth d. gang C
39. Groupscontaining law-violating juveniles and adults that are completely organizedwith
established leadership &
membership rules refers to?
a. crowds b.cliques c.controversial youth d. gang D
40. Inscriptionsor drawings made on a wall or structure & used by delinquents for gangmessages
and turf definition.
a. graffiti b.posting c. representing d. trade
mark A
41. Asystem of positions, facial expressions & body language used by gangmembers to convey a
message.
a. graffiti b.
posting c. representing d. trademark B
42. Tossing or flashing gang signs in the presence ofrivals, often escalating into a verbal or physical
confrontation refersto? a. graffiti b.
posting c. representing d. trademark C
43. Youths inhale vapors from lighter fluid, paint thinner,to reach a drowsy dizzy state sometimes
accompanied by hallucination, this isan example of what kind of drugs?
a. inhalants b. sedatives c.tranquilizers d.stimulants A
44. Drugs used by athletes and bodybuilders to gain musclebulk and strength.
a. anabolic steroids b.designer drug c.tranquilizers d. alcoholA
45. Thedried leaves of the cannabis plant. It is the drug most commonly used byteenagers.
a. marijuana b. cocaine c. hashish d.heroin A
46. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Code, refers to?
a. PD 605 b. PD 608 c. PD 603 d.PD 606 C
47. Under this Presidential Decree, it shall apply topersons below ________ years old except those
emancipated in accordance withlaw. Juvenile Justice and Welfare Code, refers to?
a.14 b. 17 c. 15 d. 21 D
48. Former ________________ signed this Presidential Decreeon 1974?
a.Pres. Ramos b. Pres. Marcos c. Pres. Quirino d.Pres.
Quezon B
49. "Special Protection of Children Against ChildAbuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.", refers
to?
a.RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d. RA 9775 C
50. The “VAWC law” of 2004, refers to?
a.RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d.RA 9775 B
51. The “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006” , refersto?
a. RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d.RA 9775 A
52. What Republic Act is the Anti-Child Pornography Law of2009?
a. RA 9344 b. RA 9262 c. RA 7610 d. RA 9775 D
53. Any citizen whohas personal knowledge of the crime can file a criminal complaint, thisstatement
pertains to?
a. private crime b. public crime c. specialcrime d. personal crime B
54. Refers to any acts that include bodily orphysical harm, refers to what violence/abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological A
55. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make awoman financially dependent, pertains to what
form of abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychologicalB
56. Refers to an act which is sexual in nature,committed against woman or her child?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological C
57. Refers to an act or omissions causing orlikely to cause mental or emotional suffering of the
victim, pertains to whatform of violence/abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological D
58. Rape, acts of lasciviousness, makingdemeaning and sexually suggestive remarks are
examples of _________ abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological C
59. Intimidation, stalking, causing or allowing the victim to witnessabusive injury to pets are
examples of _________ abuse?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d. psychological D
60. Withdrawal of financial support or preventing thevictim from engaging in any legitimate
profession occupation, business oreconomic activity, refers to ______________ violence?
a. physical b. economic c. sexual d.psychological B
61. Refers to a situation wherein the parties live ashusband and wife without the benefit of marriage
or/are romantically involvedover time and on a continuing basis during the course of relationship,
what kind of relationship is this?
a. sexual b. dating c. marital d.one night stand B
62. Refers to asingle sexual act which may or may not result in the bearing of a common child,what
kind of relationship is this? a. sexual b. dating c. marital d.one night
stand A
63. BarangayProtection Order is effective within ______ days? A
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d.60 A
64. TPO iseffective within ______ days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d.60 A
65. PPO iseffective within ______ days?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. none of the above D
66. TPO stands for__________ Protection Order?
a. transition b. transitory c. temporary d. temporal C
67. PPO stands for__________ Protection Order?
a. parents b. permanent c. parental d. none of the above B
68. The Inter-Agency Council of ViolenceAgainst Women and Their Children?
a. PNP b. DSWD c. DOJ d. all of the above D
69. Refers torefers to scientifically defined pattern of psychological and behavioralsymptoms that
have resulted from cumulative abuse found in woman living inbattering relationship.
a. battery b. physical injury c. battering d. battered woman syndromeD
70. Refers to anact of inflicting physical harm upon the Woman or her child resulting tophysical and
psychological oremotional distress?
a. battery b. physical injury c. battering d. battered woman syndrome
A
71. Refers to anyrepresentation, whether visual, audio, or written combination thereof, byelectronic,
mechanical, digital, optical, magnetic or any other means, of childengaged or involved in real or
simulated explicit sexual activities?
a. pornography b. child production c. production d. child pornography D
72. Refers to a website,bulletin board service, internet chat room or news group, or any other
internetor shared network protocol address?
a. internet café/kiosk b. internet address c. internet content host d.Internet
Service Provider (ISP) B
73. Refers to an establishment that offers or proposes to offerservices to the public for the use of its
computer/s or computer system for thepurpose of accessing the internet, computer games or related
services.
a. internet café/kiosk b. internet address c. internet contenthost d.
Internet ServiceProvider (ISP) A
74. Refers to a person who hosts or who proposes to host internetcontent in the Philippines.
a. internet café/kiosk b. internetaddress c. internetcontent host d.Internet
Service Provider (ISP) C
75. Refers to a person or entity that supplies or proposes to supply,an internet carriage service to
the public.
a. internetcafé/kiosk b. internet address c. internet contenthost d. Internet
Service Provider (ISP) D
76. Refers to the act of preparing a child or someone who the offenderbelieves to be a child for
sexual activity or sexual
relationship bycommunicating any form of child pornography. It includes online enticement
orenticement through any
other means. a.
grooming b. luring c. pandering d.cleaning A
77. Refers to the act of communicating, by means of a computer system,with a child or someone
who the offender believes be a child for the purpose offacilitating the commission of sexual activity or
production of any form ofchild
pornography. a.grooming b. luring c. pandering
d.cleaning B
78. Refers to the act of offering, advertising, promoting, representingor distributing through any
means any material or purported material that isintended to cause another to believe that the
material or purported materialcontains any form of child pornography, regardless of the actual
content of thematerial or purported material.
a. grooming b. luring c. pandering d.
cleaning
INSTRUCTION: Select thecorrect answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
foreach item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice onthe answer sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURE
1. The traffic law enforcement is performed bythe court through Prosecution, Adjudication and
Penalization of cases.
a. Court TrafficLaw Enforcement b. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Enforcement System d. Road Users System A
2. Theenforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violators, special assistance toprosecutors and
courts and incidental service to highway users.
a. Court Traffic Law Enforcement b.Road User System
c. E.O. 266 Enforcement System d. Police Traffic Law Enforcement D
3. The Systemspecifies correct and incorrect road user behavior.
a. Road Users System b. Road System
c. EnforcementSystem d. Court System C
4. If the plate number of a motor vehicle isAVC 536, what week of the month should it be
registered?
a. 1st b. 2nd
rd
c. 3 d. 4th A
5. If a driver is involved in a trafficaccident, he must report to the nearest police station.
a. within 48 hours b.within 72 hours
c. at once d. after 3 hours C
6. What is the most common traffic violationcommitted by road users?
a. overloading b. expired license
c. illegal parking d. intoxicated driver C
7. This element includes pedestrians, pedalcyclist, drivers, passengers and others
a. Enforcement System b. Road users Systems
c. Road System d. Court System B
8. On a highway, a traffic sigh reads 80 kph asthe maximum speed. While the area isvery foggy, a
man
Drivers on 80 Kph. If you are a trafficpatrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the
driver
For:
a. Overspeeding b. underspeeding
c. reckless driving d. failure to slow down C
9. As a general rule, you should overtake on theleft side, except when:
a. the coming traffic is free from anyobstruction
b. the opposite traffic is free fromoncoming
motor vehicles
17.The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is-
a. amber b. red
c. brown d. green A
18.From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the traffic light?
a. red, yellow, green b. green, red, yellow
c. green, yellow, red d. red, green, yellowC
19.The double solid white line-
a. doesn’t allow lane changing b. allows lane changing
c. allows overtaking d. allows parking A
20. What Memorandum Circular, Clarificatory guidelines for theregistration/operation of new private
vehicles particularly in the use ofconduction sticker?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. MemorandumCircular 94-002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-209 D
21.When the vehicle in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasizethe-
a. the direction of the motor vehicles b.the general view of the road or intersection
c. close-up view of the damage d. none of the above C
22.This area is composed of the entire road and vehicles complex, as well as alltraffic rules and
regulations
a. Road System b.Enforcement System
c. Court System d. Road User System A
23. What Memorandum Circular, Sanctions on operators arising from theviolations of their drivers.?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-209
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002 D
24.Means of transportation balanced on one shoulder is a popular carrying device.
a. manpower b. carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers B
25.How should a driver approach an intersection?
a. be at the right of way b. give a signal
c. be at full stop d. overtake other vehiclesB
26.Means of transportation the load is held on the back by a strap passing overthe chest.
a. manpower b.carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers C
27. What Memorandum Circular, Enjoining all public utility operators to usegarage instead of public
places or side streets in parking their vehicles?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-209
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002 A
28. What Memorandum Circular, Directing all public land transportationservice operators and
drivers to display in any conspicuous place of theirvehicles the authorized fare matrix for the specific
route granted them toavoid conflict?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-209
c. MemorandumCircular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002 C
29.What is that movement of persons, goods and vehicles either powered by animalor are animal-
drawn vehicles on by combustion system from one place to another?
a. engineering b. Traffic management
c. traffic d. construction C
30.What traffic formation facilities safe movement of vehicles and pedestrian intraffic?
a. Traffic Control b. Management
c. supervision d. enforcement d. construction A
31. What Memorandum Circular, Issuance of driver’s license to disabledpersons?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-188 D
32.What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land transportationOffice (LTO) to operate
a
Vehicles on public highways?
a. driver’s ID b. franchise
c. driver’s license d. operator’s license C
33.What is the traffic engineering system that employs prescribed traffic rulesand regulations and
devices
Such as signals, and markings, to relievevehicular congestion and to promote safety and
pedestrian
Mobility?
a. traffic direction b.traffic engineering
c. traffic control d. traffic rules and regulations C
34. What P.D. Declaring thesyndicated printing, manufacture, distribution, possession or use of
fakeofficial Bureau of Land Transportation form, documents, plates and stickers asoffenses involving
economics sabotage
a. P.D. No. 1730 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
35. What P.D. Requiring compulsory insurance for all typesof Motor Vehicles against third party
liability as an additional prerequisitefor registration by the LTO
a. P.D. No. 612 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
36 What P.D. Imposing a tax on every motor vehicleequipped with air conditioner
a. P.D. No. 1686 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
37.What is that point or place where two or more, either single or double ormulti-lanes certainly meet
at a
Point?
a. parallel b. corner
c. intersection d. crossfire C
38. What P.D. Providing for the abatement of air pollutionfrom motor vehicles and for other
purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1181 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
39. What P.D. Granting theMetropolitan Manila Commission certain powers related to traffic
Management andcontrol in Metropolitan Manila providing penalties, and for other purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
40. What P.D. Regulating the issuance of licenseplates of all motor vehicles?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 C
41.What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
a. ‘keep to the left b. “keep to the right“
c. none of these d. “watch out” B
42. What Executive OrderCreating the Land Transportation Franchising and Regulatory Board (
LTFRB)?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 A
43. What Executive Order Reorganizing the DOTC,defining its powers and functions and for other
purposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 D
44.The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another isreferred to as-
a. transportations b. traffic
c. traffic management d. a and b arecorrect A
45. What Letter of Instruction, Prohibiting freight and cargo trucksfrom using roads, highways and
bridges whose load capacities are in excess ofspecific allowable limits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter ofInstruction No. 716 A
46.The application of the processes of planning, organizing, directing andcontrolling to traffic affairs
is
Referred to as-
a. traffic administration b. traffic management
c. traffic operation d. traffic supervision B
47.What is the slang term used in referring a narrow portion of the roadway due totraffic congestion
or
Where “to build Up” usually occurs?
a. gridlock b.congestion
c. traffic jam d. bottleneck D
48.R.A. 8750 is otherwise known as-
a. clean air act b. Philippine Land TransportationCode
c. seatbelt law d.anti-car napping act C
49. . What Letter ofInstruction, Directing the law enforcement agencies to implement the
PollutionControl Program?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b.Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 B
50.If the plate number of the motor vehicle is top 688, what month should it beregistered?
a. January b. March
c. August d.September C
51.It refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicle either powered byanimals by animals or
Animal-drawn vehicles or by combustionsystem from one place to another for purpose of save
travel?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. trafficenforcement B
52.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to theprocess of giving training
and
Travel and practice in the actual application of trafficsafety knowledge.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economicsB
53. What is Letter ofInstruction No.______ Prohibiting freight and cargo trucks from using
roads,highways and bridges whose load capacities are in excess of specific allowablelimits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No.551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No.716 A
54.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to thescience of measuring traffic
and
Travel?
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economics C
55. This is belong to the 5’E Pillars of Traffic Management, it is the study dealing with
potentiallydisastrous
disastrous population explosions. Changesin urban environment due to scale.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic education
c. ecology or environment d. traffic economics C
56. What LTC MemorandumCircular No. ______,dated 12 September 1972. Providing guidelines in
the apprehension ofillegally parked motor vehicles?
a. LTC M.C. No. 33, b. LTC M.C. No. 15,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d.LTC M.C. 94-199 A
57. What LTC MemorandumCircular No.______,dated 19 January 1972. Regulating and laying
instructions in the use ofSpecial Commemorative Motor Vehicle Plates?
a. LTC M.C. No. 15 b. LTC M.C. No. 18,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d. LTC M.C. 94-199 A
58. This study is centered inthe urban environment which was change because the scale and
density of the
New urban concentrations and the natureof the new activities carried out there.
a. DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and environment d.Public works / engineering offices C
59. It is device mounted oron a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words
or
Symbols officially erected or installedfor the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.
a. DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and environment d. traffic signs D
60. It define as a signaloperated manually, electrically by which traffic is alternatively commanded
tostop
And permitted to proceed.
a.DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals d. traffic signs C
61. This were the areaswithin the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels
through
Which vehicular traffic guided.
a. DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island D
62. What is Letter ofInstruction, Requiring all motor vehicles owners,users, or drivers to have in their
possession at all times while driving atleast one (1) pair of every warning device ( EWD ) for use
when the vehicle isdisabled on roads, streets and highways or other emergencies compelling
thevehicle to be on stop position?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 C
63. It is represented by 3 color, red, yellow, green.
a. saturation flow b. traffic signal
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island B
64 What is Letter of Instruction,Every motor vehicle to equip at least a pair of early warning device?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d.Letter of Instruction No. 716 D
65. It belong to the trafficsignal that permit the driver to proceed into the intersection, but requiresthat
the intersection furthest crosswalk be cleared before the red lightappears
a. saturation flow b red
c. yellow or amber d. green C
66.What Executive Order Providing for two service units in the Office of the Asst.Sec. for Land
Transportation in the DOTC( Law Enforcement Services and TrafficAdjudication Services), defining
the powers and functions thereof and for otherpurposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125 C
67. It coordinated with thered signal and the green signal. A flashing pedestrian signal indicates
theyellow (amber) as warning period.
a. green b red
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal D
68. What Presidential DegreeRegulating the use of sirens, bells, hors, etc.,, by prohibiting the
attachmentof any siren, horn bell, etc. on motor vehicles which produce unusual orstarting sounds
as well as brinkers and other similar devices unless thevehicle belongs to the AFP, NBI, LTO, PNP,
BJMP, Hospitals and Fire Departmentand are specifically intended for use in emergencies.
a. P.D. No. 96. b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
69. It is created when anytwo or more signals or any traffic routes or roadway are coordinated with
afixed time relationships among the several intervals.
a. signal system b timing
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal A
70. It is complete electricaltiming mechanism mounted on a cabinet with control operation.
a. signal system bTraffic signal control
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal B
71. What R.A. thebasic law regulating land transportation in the Philippines?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 A
72.What R.A. which is knownas the “ Anti Carnapping Act of 1972” The act preventing and
penalizingcarnapping?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 C
73. What R.A. imposing a tax on privately owned passengerautomobiles, motorcycles and
scooters?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d.R.A 8749 B
74. What R.A. Also known asthe “ Clean air Act which regulates emission of toxic gases of both
gasolineand diesel engines?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749 D
75. What R.A. It provides forthe attachment of seat belts for all types of motor vehicles and
imposespenalty for the non-compliance thereof?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 8750 D
76. What R.A. The Actcreating the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority, defining its powers
and functions, providingfunds therefore and for other purposes?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 7924 D
77. A condition on thetraffic way characterized by slow movement of roadway users due to
theovercrowding of motor vehicles, pedestrians and other road users.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic congestion
c. traffic engineering d.traffic economics B
78. It refers to reduced riskof accident or injury on the roads, achieved through
multidisciplinaryapproaches involving road engineering, and traffic management , education
andtraining of road users, and vehicle design.
a. traffic enforcement b. roadsafety
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economics B
79. This is means of havingtraffic violators appears in court with out physical arrest.
a. Traffic Citation b.Traffic Warning
c. Reprimand d. Traffic Arrest A
80. The court after dueprocess imposes the penalty upon the accused if found guilty
a. Penalization b Detection
c. Prosecution d.Apprehension A
81. An elevated orunderground structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing
busyhighways?
a. median barriers b Pedestrian over/underpass
c. offset d.guardrail B
82. What P.D. Expediting the methods of prescribing,redefining or modifying the lines and modes of
operations of public utilitymotor vehicles in the Philippines?
a. P.D. No. 101 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
83. What P.D. Declaring as part of the laws of the Philippines theviennaConvention on Road Traffic
Signs and Signals?
a. P.D. No. 207 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729 A
84. It is used to increasevisibility of traffic way at night?
a. median barriers b street light
c. Fence d. drainage B
85. It is an enforcementaction which consists of taking a person into custody for the purpose
ofholding or detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
a. Traffic Arrest b Traffic Citation
c. Traffic Warning d.Reprimand A
86. It is highlyunsystematic, this is usually carried out in the home through parentaleducation and in
kindergarten and day nurseries.
a. noise barriers b traffic safety for children
c. Fence d.drainage B
87. It is safety educationfor elder pedestrians and drivers is relatively easier compared to
theeducation designed for younger children?
a. traffic safety for adults b traffic safety forchildren
c. Fence d.drainage A
88. In general driverinstruction aims primarily to teach the rudiments of driving.
a. traffic safety for adults btraffic safety for children
c. driver’s education dLTO C
89. Who administrate theissuance of driver’s license?
a. traffic safety for adults b LTO
c. driver’s education d traffic safety for children B
90. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license affords the holder thereof
theprivilege to make driving a means of livelihood?
a. Professional Driver’s License bLTO
c. driver’s education d traffic safety forchildren A
91. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license only entitles the holder to drive
hisown vehicles and not to earn a livelihood.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. Non-Professional Driver’s License dtraffic safety for children C
92. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the Phil. Motor’s Assn., the basis of which is
thelocal license.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children C
93. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the PNP / AFP to police or military personnel
andauthorized the holder to thereof, to drive only police or military vehicles?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children A
94. This license issued to aperson who is 16 years old of age and valid for one year?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b Student’s Driver’s Permit
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safetyfor children B
95. What is Letter ofInstruction NO.______ Owners and/oroperators of motor vehicles are
authorized to pay the annual premiums for theinsurance of their motor annual premiums for the
insurance of their motorvehicles on quarterly
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b.Letter of Instruction No. 1071
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 B
96. It refers to executivefunctions such as planning, organizing, directing, supervising,
coordinating,operating, recording, and budgeting traffic affairs?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. traffic enforcement A
97. What is Letter of Instruction NO._______ Providing for the removal of all impedimentson roads,
streets and highways such as constructions, stalled or parkedvehicles and other movables property
that obstruct free passage?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b.Letter of Instruction No. 43
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716 B
98. The step that determinesthe guilt or innocent of the accused.
a. Prosecution b. Adjudication
c. Detection d. Apprehension B
99. It is also a whole police function which involves the actualtaking of enforcement actions.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication B
100. A whole policeresponsibility that entails looking for defects in the behavior of
motorist,pedestrians, vehicle, equipment and roadway condition.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication A
SET B
FINAL EXAM
CRIM 2 (PolicePhotography)
2ndSemester SY 2011-2012
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer
by shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO
ERASURE..
============================================================================
====
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Isthat surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the lightsensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material?
A. Base
B. Emulsion
C. Anti halationbacking
D. Silver halide B
2. Whatis that range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object thatis sharp when the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance B
3. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from
ultraviolet color to all colors of white light?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Blue sensitive film
D. X-ray film B
4. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge
the size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
5. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of
a given lens is called
A. Scale bed
B. Focal length
C. View finder
D. Depth of field C
A. Scale bed
B. Ground glass
C. Split image focus
D. Focusing D
A. Identificationpurposes
B. Record purposes
C. Investigationpurposes
D. Sketching purposes
8. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to
any type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
9. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in
an infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
C. Hyperfocaldistance
D. Depthof field B
10. Whatpart of the sensitized material is responsible for absorbing excess light doespreventing light
reflects?
A. Base
B. Anti halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
11. Thetaking of a magnified photograph of small object through attaching a camera tothe ocular of a
compound microscope so as to show minute details of thephysical evidence refers to
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA
A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
D. 188,00miles/sec. C
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
14. Whichof the following makes up the emulsion layer of the colored film?
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
15. Acamera and a human eye have a lot in common. What is that part of the humaneye, which is
almost, corresponds to the shutter of a camera?
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
16. Whatunit of film sensitivity is expressed in both arithmetic and logarithmic form?
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
17. Whichof the following film speed indicator is expressed in arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
18. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is1/125, f-11, what will
be the normal exposure of the same film under hazysunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
19. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable
focal length?
20. Thetype of lens defects in which light of various wavelength are focus inirregular proportion, thus
producing color blurredness. This refers to
A. chromatic aberration
B. Lateralaberration
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
21. Whichof the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through in itsmedium?
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
22. Whichof the following prefix or suffix would indicate that a film is a black andwhite?
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
23. Afocusing method, which is done by actual measurement or estimation of the lensof camera to
subject distance refers to
A. Scale Bed
B. Co- Incident Image
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
24. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of
the human eye. This refers to
A.
B. Sunlight
C. Visible light
D. Invisiblelight
E. Artificiallight D
25. Aphotographic filter is used to _____ light or color during the picture taking.
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for
ordinary photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
2. Artificial light B
27. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather
affects the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Curvatureof field C
28. Whatis the basic exposure of a film ASA 200 at bright sunlight 1/125?
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
29. Thedistance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane refersto
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
2. Hyperfocal Distance C
1. What type of lens is that whose center is thinner and the sides are thicker?
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the
negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far
from the object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the
type of camera, which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens
exposing the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens
in proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
4. Electronics Flash B
1. What kind of diaphragm opening must one used to get the wider depth of field?
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp
or clear image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective
is to freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or
contracted. This refers to
1. Diaphragm opening
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length
4. Hyper focal distance B
1. To get the maximum depth of field of the lens, we look for the:
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to:
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming
from the object being photograph?
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended
inward or outward thus producing deformed image refers to
1. Spherical aberration
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
4. Lateral aberration C
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical
axis on the same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines
or vice versa is called
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Astigmatism
4. Curvature of field C
1. Why must the taking of photograph from unusual camera position be avoided?
1. It distorts focus
2. It distorts magnification
3. It distorts perspective
4. It distorts the texture C
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared�
CRIM 2 (PolicePhotography)
SET A
FINAL EXAM
CRIM 2 (PolicePhotography)
2ndSemester SY 2011-2012
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE..
================================================================
================
I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Once the light hits a mirror and itbounce back. This called
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
4. Isthat surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the lightsensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material?
A. Base
B. Emulsion
C. Anti halationbacking
D. Silver halide B
5. Whatis that range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object thatis sharp when the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance
6. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from ultraviolet
color to all colors of white light?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Blue sensitive film
D. X-ray film B
7. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge the
size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
8. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the
administration of justice refers to
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
A. Policephotography
B. Policeinvestigation
C. Photograph C
D. Photography
10. Whichof the following lens defects will produce a sharp center object but with ablurred sides?
A. Lateralaberration
B. Chromaticaberration
C. Sphericalaberration
D. DistortionC
11. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of a
given lens is called
A. Scalebed
B. Focallength
C. View finder
D. Depthof field C
12. Thecharacteristics of a lens which controls the degree of sharpness of a givenobject refers to
A. Scalebed
B. Groundglass
C. Split image focus
D. Focusing D
A. Identificationpurposes
B. Record purposes
C. Investigationpurposes
D. Sketchingpurposes B
14. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to any
type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
15. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in an
infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
C. Hyperfocaldistance
D. Depthof field B
16. Whatpart of the sensitized material is responsible for absorbing excess light doespreventing light
reflects?
A. Base
B. Anti halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
17. Thetaking of a magnified photograph of small object through attaching a camera tothe ocular of a
compound microscope so as to show minute details of thephysical evidence refers to
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA
A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
D. 188,00miles/sec. C
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
20. Whichof the following makes up the emulsion layer of the colored film?
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
21. Acamera and a human eye have a lot in common. What is that part of the humaneye, which is
almost, corresponds to the shutter of a camera?
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
22. Whatunit of film sensitivity is expressed in both arithmetic and logarithmic form?
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
23. Whichof the following film speed indicator is expressed in arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
24. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is1/125, f-11, what will be
the normal exposure of the same film under hazysunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
25. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable focal
length?
26. Thetype of lens defects in which light of various wavelength are focus inirregular proportion, thus
producing color blurredness. This refers to
A. chromatic aberration
B. Lateralaberration
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
27. Whichof the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through in itsmedium?
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
28. Whichof the following prefix or suffix would indicate that a film is a black andwhite?
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
29. Afocusing method, which is done by actual measurement or estimation of the lensof camera to
subject distance refers to
A. Scale Bed
B. Co- Incident Image
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
30. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of the
human eye. This refers to
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
C. Invisible light
D. Artificial light D
31. Aphotographic filter is used to _____ light or color during the picture taking.
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for ordinary
photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
2. Artificial light B
33. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather affects
the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Curvatureof field C
34. Whatis the basic exposure of a film ASA 200 at bright sunlight 1/125?
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
35. Thedistance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane refersto
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
2. Hyperfocal Distance C
1. What type of lens is that whose center is thinner and the sides are thicker?
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for recording. What is
that part of the camera that provides means of determining better perspective?
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far from the
object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the type of camera,
which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens in
proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
4. Electronics Flash B
1. What kind of diaphragm opening must one used to get the wider depth of field?
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective is to
freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or contracted. This
refers to
1. Diaphragm opening
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length
4. Hyper focal distance B
1. To get the maximum depth of field of the lens, we look for the:
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming from the
object being photograph?
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting condition of the
object being photograph?
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended inward or
outward thus producing deformed image refers to
1. Spherical aberration
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
4. Lateral aberration C
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical axis on the
same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines or vice versa is called
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Astigmatism
4. Curvature of field C
1. Why must the taking of photograph from unusual camera position be avoided?
1. It distorts focus
2. It distorts magnification
3. It distorts perspective
4. It distorts the texture C
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared
4. Pan-X Plus A
1. Panchromatic
2. Infrared film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Blue sensitive film C
1. Invisible
2. Sunlight
3. Visible light
4. Artificial light B
1. That part of the film that is capable of retaining the latent image is called
1. Transparent shadow
2. Double shadow
3. No shadow
4. Deep and prominent shadow A
1. Film and photographic paper is considered as
1. Transparent material
2. Sensitized material
3. Translucent material
4. Opaque material B
1. Ortho
2. Pan
3. Chrome
4. Color D
1. Emulsion content
2. Spectral sensitivity
3. Emulsion speed
4. Reversal negative C
1. Light
2. Developing
3. Sensitized material
4. F numbers D
1. Base
2. Anti-halation backing
3. Emulsion
4. thin coat of animal gelatin A
1. Which of the following film has the longest spectral sensitivity?
1. Translucent material
2. Photographic paper
3. Film
4. Silver chloride B
1. Which of the following is considered as the two main layers of the film?
1. The surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material is called
1. Base
2. Anti-halation backing
3. Emulsion
4. Coat of animal gelatin C
1. The photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to 1000 millimicrons refers
to
1. X-ray
2. Infrared rays
3. Ultraviolet ray
4. Visible light B
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange A
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange B
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Red D
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. Green D
1. Convergent
2. Concave
3. Positive
4. Convex B
1. A lens with focal length of less than the diagonal length of its negative material is called
1. Wide Angle
2. Telephoto
3. Normal
4. Zoom A
1. The art and science of reproducing image by means of light through some sensitized material
with the aid of a camera, Lens and its accessories and the chemical process refers to
1. Photograph
2. Photography
3. Police Photography
4. Forensic Photography B
1. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work is called
1. Police Photography
2. Forensic Photography
3. Photography
4. Crime Scene Photography A
1. Picture
2. Image
3. Photograph
4. Photo A
1. Personal Identification
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Crime Prevention A
1. The first police who utilized photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his
Anthropometry system was
1. Alphonse Bertillion
2. Henry Fox Talbot
3. William Herschel
4. Mande Gaguerre A
1. One of the most universal methods of communication considering that no other language can be
known universally than ____________.
1. Photograph
2. Letter
3. Verbal
4. Radio A
1. The utmost used of photography in police work is for
1. Crime Prevention
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Personal Identification B
1. The view in taking photograph shows direction and location of the crime scene is called
1. The taking of the photograph of the scene of the crime by dividing it into section. This view will
best view the nature of the crime. This refers to
1. General View
2. Medium View
3. Close-up view
4. Extreme close-up view B
1. The taking of individual photograph of the evidence at the scene of the crime. It is design to
show the details of the crime. This refers to
1. General view
2. Medium view
3. Close-up View
4. Extreme Close-up View C
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
93. When the light hits a transparent glass whichwould allow the light to pass through its
medium. This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or passing
through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is the type of
light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
A. AssociationStandards American
B. American Standards Association
C. America StandardsAssociation
D. AmericanStandard Associations B
A. InternationalStandards Organization
B. International Standard Organization
C. InternationalStandard Organizations
D. InternationalStandards Organizations B
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder B
SET B
FINAL EXAM
CRIM 2 (PolicePhotography)
2ndSemester SY 2011-2012
INSTRUCTION:Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the bestanswer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the providedanswer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE..
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I.MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. Isthat surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the lightsensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material?
A. Base
B. Emulsion
C. Anti halationbacking
D. Silver halide B
2. Whatis that range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object thatis sharp when the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focallength
B. Depth of field
C. Focaldistance
D. Hyper-focaldistance B
3. Filmshave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film issensitive from ultraviolet
color to all colors of white light?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Blue sensitive film
D. X-ray film B
4. Whattype of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has theability to enlarge the
size of the object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only D
5. Thepart of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the areacoverage of a
given lens is called
A. Scalebed
B. Focallength
C. View finder
D. Depthof field C
A. Scalebed
B. Groundglass
C. Split image focus
D. Focusing D
A. Identificationpurposes
B. Record purposes
C. Investigationpurposes
D. Sketchingpurposes
8. Whattype of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibilityfor adoption to any
type of photographing due to its replaceable lens?
9. Thedistance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once thecamera is focus in an
infinite position is refers to
A. Focaldistance
B. Focal length
C. Hyperfocaldistance
D. Depthof field B
10. Whatpart of the sensitized material is responsible for absorbing excess light doespreventing light
reflects?
A. Base
B. Anti halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatincoating B
11. Thetaking of a magnified photograph of small object through attaching a camera tothe ocular of a
compound microscope so as to show minute details of thephysical evidence refers to
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. MacrophotgraphyA
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three B
14. Whichof the following makes up the emulsion layer of the colored film?
A. Blue- green-red
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-redA
15. Acamera and a human eye have a lot in common. What is that part of the humaneye, which is
almost, corresponds to the shutter of a camera?
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. EyelashesB
16. Whatunit of film sensitivity is expressed in both arithmetic and logarithmic form?
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASOC
17. Whichof the following film speed indicator is expressed in arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GROC
18. Ifthe normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is 1/125,f-11, what will be
the normal exposure of the same film under hazy sunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8 D
19. Lenshas been classified according to their focal length, which of the followinglens has a variable focal
length?
20. Thetype of lens defects in which light of various wavelength are focus inirregular proportion, thus
producing color blurredness. This refers to
A. chromatic aberration
B. Lateralaberration
C. Astigmatism
D. FlareA
21. Whichof the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through in itsmedium?
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4 D
22. Whichof the following prefix or suffix would indicate that a film is a black andwhite?
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only D
23. Afocusing method, which is done by actual measurement or estimation of the lensof camera to
subject distance refers to
A. Scale Bed
B. Co- Incident Image
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass A
24. Theseare lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excitethe retina of the
human eye. This refers to
A.
B. Sunlight
C. Visible light
D. Invisiblelight
E. Artificiallight D
25. Aphotographic filter is used to _____ light or color during the picture taking.
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. MultiplyC
1. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for ordinary
photographing purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
1. Invisible light
2. Artificial light B
27. Whichof the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the objectrather affects
the shape of the object due to the bending of the light passingthe side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Curvatureof field C
28. Whatis the basic exposure of a film ASA 200 at bright sunlight 1/125?
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F8
D. F16 C
29. Thedistance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane refersto
A. FocalDistance
B. Depthof Field
1. Focal Length
2. Hyperfocal Distance C
1. What type of lens is that whose center is thinner and the sides are thicker?
1. Concave
2. Diverging
3. Micro lens
4. Positive lens B
1. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the negative?
1. Telephoto
2. Wide angle lens
3. Zoom
4. Normal D
1. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for recording. What is
that part of the camera that provides means of determining better perspective?
1. Focusing
2. Light meter
3. View finder
4. Lens C
1. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far from the
object being photograph to avoid being detected is called
1. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the type of camera,
which has the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens in
proportion to its focal length?
1. Flash meters
2. F numbers
3. Exposure
4. Electronics Flash B
1. What kind of diaphragm opening must one used to get the wider depth of field?
1. Smaller
2. Wider
3. Longer
4. Shorter A
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective is to
freeze the action of moving objects?
1. Medium
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Normal B
1. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or contracted. This
refers to
1. Diaphragm opening
2. Lens aperture
3. Lens opening
4. All of these D
1. Focal distance
2. Focusing
3. Focal length
4. Hyper focal distance B
1. To get the maximum depth of field of the lens, we look for the:
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Distortion
4. Astigmatism A
1. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming from the
object being photograph?
1. Guide number
2. Light meter
3. Wattage
4. Luminescence B
1. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting condition of the
object being photograph?
1. Light meter
2. Flash units
3. Extension tube
4. Cable release B
1. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended inward or
outward thus producing deformed image refers to
1. Spherical aberration
2. Astigmatism
3. Distortion
4. Lateral aberration C
1. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical axis on the
same place, thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines or vice versa is called
1. Coma
2. Chromatic aberration
3. Astigmatism
4. Curvature of field C
1. Why must the taking of photograph from unusual camera position be avoided?
1. It distorts focus
2. It distorts magnification
3. It distorts perspective
4. It distorts the texture C
1. Kodalith film is also known as
1. Orthochromatic
2. Panchromatic
3. Infrared
4. Pan-X Plus A
1. Panchromatic
2. Infrared film
3. Orthochromatic
4. Blue sensitive film C
1. Invisible
2. Sunlight
3. Visible light
4. Artificial light B
1. That part of the film that is capable of retaining the latent image is called
1. Transparent shadow
2. Double shadow
3. No shadow
4. Deep and prominent shadow A
1. Transparent material
2. Sensitized material
3. Translucent material
4. Opaque material B
1. Ortho
2. Pan
3. Chrome
4. Color B
1. Emulsion content
2. Spectral sensitivity
3. Emulsion speed
4. Reversal negative C
1. Light
2. Developing
3. Sensitized material
4. F numbers A
1. Base
2. Anti-halation backing
3. Emulsion
4. thin coat of animal gelatin B
1. Which of the following is considered as the two main layers of the film?
1. The surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and
which appears glossy in a developed material is called
1. Base
2. Anti-halation backing
3. Emulsion
4. Coat of animal gelatin C
1. The photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to 1000 millimicrons refers
to
1. X-ray
2. Infrared rays
3. Ultraviolet ray
4. Visible light B
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange A
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange C
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Orange B
1. Cyan
2. Magenta
3. Yellow
4. Red D
1. Red
2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. Green D
1. Convergent
2. Concave
3. Positive
4. Convex B
1. A lens with focal length of less than the diagonal length of its negative material is called
1. Wide Angle
2. Telephoto
3. Normal
4. Zoom A
1. The art and science of reproducing image by means of light through some sensitized material
with the aid of a camera, Lens and its accessories and the chemical process refers to
1. Photograph
2. Photography
3. Police Photography
4. Forensic Photography B
1. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work is called
1. Police Photography
2. Forensic Photography
3. Photography
4. Crime Scene Photography A
1. Picture
2. Image
3. Photograph
4. Photo A
1. Personal Identification
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Crime Prevention A
1. The first police who utilized photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his
Anthropometry system was
1. Alphonse Bertillion
2. Henry Fox Talbot
3. William Herschel
4. Mande Gaguerre A
1. One of the most universal methods of communication considering that no other language can be
known universally than ____________.
1. Photograph
2. Letter
3. Verbal
4. Radio A
1. Crime Prevention
2. Record Purposes
3. Police Training
4. Personal Identification A
1. The view in taking photograph shows direction and location of the crime scene is called
1. The taking of the photograph of the scene of the crime by dividing it into section. This view will
best view the nature of the crime. This refers to
1. General View
2. Medium View
3. Close-up view
4. Extreme close-up view B
1. The taking of individual photograph of the evidence at the scene of the crime. It is design to
show the details of the crime. This refers to
1. General view
2. Medium view
3. Close-up View
4. Extreme Close-up View C
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
1. Refracted
2. Diffracted
3. Reflected
4. Transmitted C
1. When the light hits a transparent glass which would allow the light to pass through its medium.
This refers to
1. Transmitted
2. Refracted
3. Reflected
4. Diffracted A
1. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or passing
through. This refers to
1. Absorbed
2. Reflected
3. Transmitted
4. Refracted A
1. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is the type of
light, which is capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
1. Invisible Light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light B
1. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye i.e. X-ray, Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
1. Invisible light
2. Visible light
3. Infra-red light
4. White light A
A. AssociationStandards American
B. American Standards Association
C. America StandardsAssociation
D. AmericanStandard Associations B
A. InternationalStandards Organization
B. International Standard Organization
C. InternationalStandard Organizations
D. InternationalStandards Organizations B
1. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear
image refers to
1. Focusing
2. Exposure
3. Viewing
4. Parallax error A
1. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized material?
1. Range finder
2. Exposure
3. Shutter
4. View finder C
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed A
96. Whichof the following film is considered to be the fastest in terms of theirexposure?
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400 D
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm D
98. Theapplication of the principles of photography in relation to the police work andin the administration
of justice refers to
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Forensic
D. Photography A
A. Policephotography
B. Policeinvestigati
1. Oneof the coverage on the Rules of Anti-Drug Operations is Buy-bust operations.Buy-bust operation
is a form:
a. Entrapment operation
b. Surveillance operation
c. Casing operations
d. Search and Seizure operation A
2. Itis a general rule in Anti-Drug Operations that all drug law-enforcement andprevention operation
prior to actual conduct should be covered with:
a. Warrant
b. Pre-operation report
c. Post-operation report
d. None of these B
3. WhatNational Anti-Drug Campaign strategy is carried out by preventive education andinformation
drive?
a. Supply Reduction Strategy
b. Demand Reduction Strategy
c. International Coordination
d. All of these B
4. Whatanti-drug operation is used to build-up relevant and competent evidence, whichare vital in the
development of a drug case?
a. Buy-bust operation
b. Mobile Checkpoints
c. Controlled delivery
d. None of these D
5. Inthe conduct of dangerous drug death investigation where the cause of deathnoted is petechial
hemorrhage, the drug possibly taken is:
a. Cocaine
b. Amphetamine drug
c. Barbiturate drug
d. Hallucinogen drug A
6. Manydrug seizures are made as a result of a raid. Raid involving dangerous drugseizures are usually
covered by:
a. Search Warrant
b. Warrant of Arrest
c. Memorandum Order
d. Documentary Evidence C
7. Whena drug evidence is transferred from one investigator to another, the process ofevidence
transfer is called:
a. Evidence Gathering
b. Evidence Protection
c. Chain of Custody
d. Chain of Evidence Transfer B
8. Whatis the technique in anti-drug operation that is carried out by allowing suspectconsignment of
illegal drugs, psychotropic substances substituted for them topass out into one or more country with
knowledge of their competent authoritieswith a view to identify persons involved in the commission of
drug relatedoffenses?
a. Buy-bust operations
b. Controlled delivery
c. Undercover operations
d. Airport/Seaport Interdictions C
9. Ifthe increasing local supply of shabu is the major concern of the lawenforcement pillar in the drug
control effort, what about the court pillar?
a. Lack of community support
b. Unabated marijuana cultivation
c. Undue delay in the disposition ofdrug cases
d. Lack of integrity of the policeand prosecution in the presentation of evidence B
10. In drug control and preventionefforts, the mission of the law enforcement pillar is to:
a. Reduce the incidence of dangerousdrug cases through proper administration of justice
b. Enforce the drug laws inaccordance with existing national legislation
c. Provide a highly specialized andproperly motivated prosecution service
d. Provide comprehensive and moreeffective programs and services of treatment and rehabilitation
process C
11. When the anti-drug investigatortakes a sample of the seized drug, the desired sample should be
place in asuitable container. It should then be sealed in such a way as to preventtampering preferably
with the signature of the suspect and the officerappearing on the seal. Such process is called:
a. Transfer of evidence
b. Evidence gathering
c. Evidence marking
d. Evidence protection D
12. To conduct a sustainable,comprehensive and integrated drug prevention education program in
thePhilippines, the community pillar should target groups such as the:
a. Family
b. Youth
c. Community leaders
d. All of these D
13. The unabated marijuanacultivation and or production in some parts of the country is caused by:
a. Cultivation is clandestine
b. Danger of operation due topresence of hostile forces
c. Costly eradication due todifficulty of accessibility
d. All of the above A
14. Is a person suffering from anysigns and symptoms of drug abuse? This question guides the
investigator todetermine whether the person
a. is an addict or not
b. has just used any drug or not
c. is intoxicated of alcohol or not
d. is under the influence of drug ornot B
15. Which among the pillars of theCriminal Justice System is considered the weakest pillar with respect
toanti-drug operation?
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Correction
d. Court B
16. In the conduct of custodialinvestigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the protection
againstself-incrimination and rights is found on the grounds of:
a. Public policy and morality
b. Humanity and conscience
c. Public policy and humanity
d. All of the above D
17. When does the court acquirejurisdiction over a case filed by the anti-drug operatives?
a. The moment the case is filed with theprosecutor office
b. The moment that it is filed withthe court
c. The moment that the trial or thecase begins
d. The moment that the partiespresents their evidence A
18. What should be conducted in orderto determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the
Regional TrialCourt?
a. Inquest Proceeding
b. Preliminary Investigation
c. Search and Seizure
d. Preliminary Conference B
19. The presence of drugparaphernalia at the drug scene in the form of syringe and needle,
tourniquet,spoon or bottle top “cookies” and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug beingadministered are:
a. liquid drugs
b. tablet drugs
c. capsule drugs
d. leaves for smoking C
20. The body sign in dangerous drugdeath investigation of bluish discoloration of the face and or
fingernails dueto insufficient oxygenation of the blood caused by increase in carbon dioxidein the body is
called?
a. Asphyxia
b. Cyanosis
c. Hematoma
d. Petechial hemorrhage B
21. The burning of a small quantityof the suspected substance and determining the odor or smell having
similar toburnt banana leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal thedrug as:
a. Opium
b. Coca leaves
c. Marijuana
d. Peyote Cactus A
22. To beef up intelligencecapability to interdict extensive manufacture of shabu, the law
enforcementpillar should:
a. Conduct extensive intelligenceoperations
b. Motivate public to be vigilantand assistive
c. Provide attractive reward system
d. All of the above D
23. The physical desire to repeat theuse of drugs intermittently or continuously is commonly known as:
a. Addiction
b. Habituation
c. Potency
d. Toleration C
24. The drug addict or user generallyacquires the drug habit because of being:
a. Powerlessand less self-control
b. Emotionallyunstable
c. Socially maladjusted
d. Allof these C
25. It refers to the state of mind inwhich a person has lost the power of self-control in respect of a drug.
a. Drug addiction
b. Drug toleration
c. Drug habituation
d. Drug experimentation A
26. One who uses drug to keepwakefulness or additional energy in performing an important work is a:
a. Habitual drug user
b. Situational drug abuser
c. Spree user
d. None of these C
27. On the part of the drug user, thelost of interest to study, failure in school works, shifting from one
course toanother, transfer of school of lower standards and eventually dropped is anindication of:
a. Changes in physical appearance
b. Changes of mood
c. Changes of interest
d. Changes in behavior A
28. In acute cases withdrawal ofdrugs causes serious physical illness also called abstinence syndrome. It
isalso otherwise known as:
a. Psychological dependence
b. Physical dependence
c. Addiction
d. Withdrawal syndrome C
29. What kind of drug examination ismade during the initial investigation conducted by the first
respondingofficers?
a. Filed Testing
b. Color Reaction Testing
c. Laboratory Analysis
d. All of these B
30. In detecting drug abusers, oneshould consider appearance and associations of the suspected person.
Thepresence of linear scars in the arms, forearms or abdomen is a good indicationthat the:
a. Subject is a marijuana user
b. Subject is a syrup user
c. Subject is a cocaine user
d. Subject is liquid drug user B
31. What drug is known as the “kingof all drugs” for being the most abused drug in the world?
a. Hallucinogen
b. Solvent
c. Amphetamine
d. Alcohol D
32. Among the group of hallucinogendrugs, which of them is considered the most powerful?
a. Demerol
b. DMT
c. LSD
d. STP B
33. The reaction produced by a drugin addition to the desired effects is called:
a. Overdose
b. Side effects
c. Tolerance
d. Idiosyncrasy C
34. Traditionally, the term drugabuse referred to the use of any drug that is:
a. Prohibited by law
b. Natural in origin
c. Chemically synthesized
d. Prescribed by a physician D
35. What color reaction test is usedto identify a substance as cocaine?
a. Cobalt Thiocyanate
b. Marquis Test
c. Nitric Acid Test
d. PABA D
36. What drug was considered to bethe first local anesthetic to be discovered?
a. Cocaine
b. Opium
c. Morphine
d. Heroin D
37. The chemical name of the drugheroin is:
a. Diacetylmorphine
b. Dimorphine hydrochloride
c. Both A and B
d. None of these C
38. According to effects, thedangerous drugs are classified into:
a. Stimulant-depressant-narcotics
b. Depressant-narcotics-hallucinogen
c. Hallucinogen-depressant-stimulant
d. None of these D
39. For the tentative identificationof the barbiturates, the ______ test is used:
a. Marquis test
b. Zwikker Test
c. KN Test
d. Nitric Acid Test D
40. What is the chemical name of thedrug shabu?
a. Amphetamine Hydrochloride
b. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
c. Methamphetamine Hydrosulfate
d. None of these A
41. What group of drugs is alsocalled the Deliriant?
a. Inhalant
b. Solvent
c. Volatile Substance
d. All of these D
42. What is the active ingredient oralkaloid of the marijuana plant?
a. Hul Gil
b. THC Canabinnol
c. Hashis
d. None of these B
43. One of the following slang termsrefers to the drug cocaine.
a. Beer
b. Extra
c. Ice
d. Strong C
44. Duquenois-Levine test is formarijuana; Symone’s test is for:
a. Cocaine
b. Barbiturates
c. Opium derivatives
d. Shabu C
II. MATCHING TYPE: Match Column A to Column B.Choose the best answer from the
givenoptions.
Column A Column B
51. Philippine Drug EnforcementAgency B a. Narcotics Law of 1953
52. Dangerous Drugs Board C b. policy-making andstrategy-formulating
body
53. Republic Act 9165 D c. Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972
54. Republic Act 6425 E d.Implementing arms of DDB
55. Republic Act 953 A e. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of
2002
Column A ColumnB
56. Section 1, Art I, RA 9165 B a. possession of dangerous drugs
57. Section 4, Art II, RA 9165 A b. comprehensive dangerous drugs act of 2002
58. Section 11, Art II, RA 9165 D c. use of dangerous drugs
59. Section 15, Art II, RA 9165 E
60. Section 21, Art II, RA 9165 C d. Custody and Disposition of
Confiscated, Seized,and/or Surrendered Dangerous Drugs, Plant Sources of Dangerous Drugs,Controlled
Precursors and Essential Chemicals, Instruments/Paraphernalia and/orLaboratory Equipment
e.importation of dangerous drugs/Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals
Column A ColumnB
61. Employees and Visitors of a Den,Dive, Resort D a. Section 5, Article II, RA 9165
62. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus A
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs. b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
63. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus E
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
During Parties, Social Gatherings or Meetings.
64. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous Drugs. C d.Section 14, Article II, RA 9165
65. Sale, Trading, Administration, Dispensation, B
Delivery, Distribution and Transportation of e. Section 18, Article II, RA 9165
Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors
and Essential Chemicals.
Column A Column B
66. A rapid test performed to establish potential/ B a. dispense
presumptive positive result
67. Any act of giving away, sellingor distributing C
medicine and/or dangerous drugswith or without b. screening test
the use of prescription.
68. Any act of knowingly planting,growing, raising, D
or permitting the planting,growing, or raising of c. clandestine laboratory
any plant which is the source ofa dangerous drug.
69. An analytical test using adevice, tool or equipment E
with a different chemical orphysical principle that d. cultivation and culture
is more specific which willvalidate and confirm
the result of the screening test.
70. Any facility used for the illegalmanufacture of A e.confirmatory test
any dangerous drug and/orcontrolled precursor and
essential chemical.
ColumnA Column B
71. Minimum of six (6) months rehabilitation A a. Section 5(Selling), Article II, RA 9165
in agovernment center for the first offense
72. Life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging B b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
From P 500,000.00 to P10,000,000.00
73. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years of imprisonment A c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
and a fine ranging fromP100,000.00 to P500,000.00
74. Imprisonment ranging from 6 months and 1 day to A
4 years and a fineranging from P10,000.00 to d. Section 15, Article II, RA 9165
P50,000.00
75. Imprisonment ranging from 12 years and 1 day to A
20 years and a fine ranging from P100,000.00 to e.Section 5 (Protector/Coddler),
P500,000.00 ArticleII, RA 9165
ColumnA ColumnB
76. Qualifying Aggravating Circumstances in A a.Section 24, Article II, RA 9165
the Commission of a Crime by an Offender
under the Influence of Dangerous Drugs. b. Section 25, Article II,RA 9165
77. Criminal Liability for ‘Planting’ of Evidence. C
78. Responsibility and Liability of Law c. Section 29,Article II, RA 9165
Enforcement Agencies and other Government
Officials and Employees in Testifying as d. Section 91, Article X, RA 9165
Prosecution Witnesses in Dangerous Drugs Cases. B
79. Delay and Bungling in the Prosecution of DrugCases. A
80. Non-Applicability of the Probation Law for A e. Section 92,Article X, RA 9165
Drug Traffickers and Pushers
III. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE. Blackenthe circle of the letter that best corresponds
to your answer. The conditionsare given below:
IV. LABELLING: Label the following blank space bychoosing the best answer below.
DISPOSITIONFLOWCHART
(SECTION21 OF RA 9165)
Seizure/Confiscation
<img> 96.__________C________
91. C
<img> 97.______E____________
<img>92. D
Within24n hours
<img>
<img>within 24 hours
<img>Court (thru PDEA) shall cause destruction/burning
<img>94. B
<img>95. A
A 100.______________________________
Destruction Burning of Representative Sample
Choices:
A
Resolution of case/court decision
Within 24 hours from receipt of evidence
B
DDB issues sworn certification ofdestruction/burning & representative
Sample forwarded to Courtfor Evidence.
If not manageable
C
Inventory and Photograph
Immediate
D
PDEA Forensic Laboratory
(Conduct of Qualitativeand Quantitative Exams)
72 hours after filing ofcase in court
E
Complete LaboratoryResults issued under oath
Within 24 hours
FINALEXAMINATION
(CLJ-3Criminal Procedure)
SY2011-2012/2ndSemester
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each ofthe following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shadingthe space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer
sheetprovided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
I. 1-20 Multiple choice. Cite if the following acts would result in:
1. During preliminary investigation for an allegedforgery, the respondent Pedro was required
by the prosecutor to give samples ofhis handwriting for comparison with the documents allegedly
forged. To require Pedro to give his handwritingsample constitutes what violation? A
2. In a trial for murder, the accused oncross-examination was asked by the judge to give a
re-enactment of theincident. The re-enactment wouldconstitute what violation of the rights given to the
accused? A
3. Mario is charged with rebellion before the RTC ofMakati City. While the case is
stillpending, Mario filed his candidacy for Senator. The COMELEC rejected his candidacy by reason of his
pending case. The rejection of Mario’s candidacyconstitutes what violation? B
4. The accused, during the trial was required topresent evidence ahead of the prosecution, in
order for him to prove hisinnocence. There are no grounds thatwould justify a modification of the order
of trial. What right of the accused was violated?B
5. In a trial for adultery, the woman was required tosubmit herself to a pregnancy test to
determine if she is indeed pregnant. To require her to undergo pregnancy testconstitutes _____.E
6. The prosecutor must prove the guilt of the accusedbeyond reasonable doubt. The
convictionof the accused must rely on the strength of the prosecution evidence and not onthe weakness
of the defense. To rule otherwise would result in _______.B
7. The accused in a rape case was required by thejudge to give his semen sample for DNA
testing. The accused objected. To requirethe accused to give the sample constitutes _____.A
8. When the Carlo was arrested at the NAIA forcarrying shabu in his luggage, he was asked
to affix his signature on thepackages of shabu taken from his luggage. This constitutes _______. A
9. During the trial for murder where footprints werefound in the crime scene, the judge
required the accused to remove his shoe andto place his foot on the footprint to determine if they
match. The act of the judge constitutes _____.E
10. During the investigation in a rape case where thevictim became infected with gonorrhoea,
the suspect was asked by the policemanto allow them to extract fluids coming out of his penis to
determine thepresence of gonorrhoea. The act of thepolice constitutes _____.E
11. A suspect in a drug case was required to undergodrug test using the suspect’s
urine. Thedrug test, if done without the suspect’s consent results in _____.E
12. At the crime scene a trouser (pants) werefound. The trousers were believed to beleft
behind by the fleeing suspect. During the trial the accused was required to put on the pants todetermine
if they fit. This results in____.E
13. In a homicide case, the accused was required togive his blood sample. This
constitutes_____.E
14. Duringarraignment the accused, who does not speak or understand English or Tagalog(as
he spoke only Cebuano) was nevertheless arraigned in English. He pleaded “guilty,” not knowing what
he wasbeing asked. The arraignment resulted in____.D
15. During the trial for rape, the private complainantasked for five (5) consecutive
postponements citing therein flimsy excuses suchas traffic congestion and other personal reasons. What
right of the accused is violated?C
16. During the trial for rape, the accused was requiredto present his diary to show that entries
therein tend to show that hedeveloped an obsession towards the victim. To require the acused to do so
results in _____.A
17. The complainant alleged that his attacker had aneagle tattoo o his chest. During the trial,
the accused was required by thecourt to remove his shirt to show if he had a tattoo. If the accused is
compelled to do so, this wouldconstitute ______.E
18. Mark was charged with homicide. During the trial evidence proved that whatwas actually
committed was murder. Markwas convicted of murder. The convictionresults in _____.D
19. The accused, after posting bail asked permissionfrom the court to travel to the U.S.to
undergo medical treatment for her neck injuries. Absent any showing that the accused is aflight risk, the
denial of the travel would result in _____.B
20. The witness for the prosecution (the arrestingpolice officer) failed to show up at the trial
three times, to testify despitebeing subpoenaed. This results in ______C
II. MultipleChoice. Choose the best answer fromamong the options given.
21. Is the danger of being tried, convicted andpunished of a crime for which a person has been
previously tried, and the saidprevious case either resulted in conviction, acquittal or dismissal without
hisexpress consent.
a. Jeopardy c.Incrimination
b. DoubleJeopardy d.All of the Above B
22. It is the security given for the release of a personin custody of the law, furnished by him or
a bondsman, to guarantee hisappearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafterspecified.
a. Surety Bond c.Cash Deposit
b. Bail d.All of the above B
23. Is an offensewhich, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of
theapplication for admission to bail, may be punished with death.
a. HeinousCrime c.Non-bailable offense
b. Capital offense d. None of theabove B
24. Is an obligation of record, entered into before some courtor magistrate duly authorized to
take it, with the condition to do someparticular act, the most usual condition in criminal cases being the
appearanceof the accused for trial.
a. CorporateSurety c.Recognizance
b. Property Bond d.Cash Deposit A
26. It is thru this document that the accused is informedof the nature and cause of the
accusation against him.
a. Information c.Bail
b. Resolution d.None of the above A
27. Pedro suspects Petraof adultery. Pedro claims that Petrais pregnant by another man. Can
thecourt compel Petrato subject herself to a pregnancy test?
a. Yes. Because this is not a violation of her rightagainst self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Petra willbe assisted by her lawyer
c. No. This would violate Petra’s right against self-incrimination.
d. No. Because the pregnancy test is irrelevant to thecharge of adultery.
A
28. Max is the president of Superman, Inc. a privatecorporation which is charged with violating
the Internal Revenue Code (taxevasion). Can the court compel him tosubmit the private records of the
corporation such as financial statements?
a. Yes. Becausethis is not a violation of the right against self-incrimination.
b. Yes. But onlyif Max will be assisted by counsel.
c. No. This wouldviolate Max’s right against self-incrimination.
d. No. Because the financial statement is irrelevant intax evasion.
C
29. Atty. Bolalacao represented Chloe in a criminalcase. The case was mishandled because
itturned out that Atty. Bolalacao is not a member of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines andonly reached
2nd year of law school . Can Iris be given a new trial because he wasnot represented by a real lawyer?
76. Theaccused may, at any stage of the proceeding, request the court for the issuanceof
compulsory process to secure the attendance of witnesses and production ofother evidence in his behalf.
A True
77. Theaccused is not entitled to a speedy, impartial and public trial. B False
78. Theaccused may appeal in all cases even whenever it is allowed by law.A True
79. Thepresence of the accused during trial is required during arraignment.A True
81. A searchwarrant is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines,signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search forpersonal
property described therein and bring it before the court. A True
82. Anapplication for search warrant shall be filed with any court within whoseterritorial
jurisdiction a crime was committed. A True
83. Forcompelling reasons, an application for search warrant may be filed in any courtwithin
the judicial region where the crime was committed if the place of thecommission of the crime is known,
or any court within the judicial region wherethe warrant shall be enforced.ATrue
84. If thecriminal action has already been filed, the application shall only be made inthe court
where the criminal action is pending. A True
85. A searchwarrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property, which
isclassified as “Subject of the offense.”A True
86. Theaccused has the right to be presumed innocent until the contrary is provedbeyond
reasonable doubt. A True
87. Theaccused must be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him.A
True
88. Theaccused has the right to be present and defend in person and by counsel atevery
stage of the proceedings, from arraignment to promulgation of thejudgment. A True
89. Theaccused may, however, waive his presence at the trial pursuant to the stipulationsset
forth in his bail, unless his presence is specifically ordered by the courtfor purposes of identification. A
True
90. Theaccused has the right to testify as a witness in his own behalf.A True
91. Theaccused may testify in his own behalf without cross-examination by the
opposingparty.B
92. Theaccused himself who chooses to testify may be cross-examined on matters coveredby
direct examination only. ATrue
94. Theaccused is exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself. A True
95. Theaccused can cross-examine the witnesses against him at the trial. A True
96. A searchwarrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property, which
isclassified as “Stolen or embezzled” and “other proceeds, or fruits of theoffense.” A True
97. A searchwarrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property, which
isclassified as “Used or intended to be used as the means of committing anoffense.”B False
98. A search warrantshall not issue except upon probable cause in connection with one
specificoffense.A True
99. A searchwarrant shall not issue except upon personal determination of probable cause
bythe judge.A True
100. Thedetermination of probable cause by the judge is made after examination underoath
or affirmation of the complainant and the witness he may produce.A True
It includes the organizational structure and organization of the Philippine National Police, on the national
and local levels.
Emphasis is given on direction, supervision, coordination and control of all local police forces as a
homogeneous body under a single command.
It also includes the basic management functions in so far as these are applied to the police organization.
Police planning is integrated into this course, and it is designed to equip the students with knowledge on
the development of effective plans, particularly on strategies and tactics for effective operations.
The emphasis is on the special techniques and procedure applicable to unusual needs like unusual
criminal activities, civil disturbances, special community events, disaster plans, and civil defense.
Introduction: The organization with management and administration is directed towards the achievement
of goals and objectives.
Goals are broad statements of general and long term organizational purposes often used to define the
role of the police, for instance, to prevent crime, maintain order or help solve community problems.
Objectives are specific short term statements consistent with an organizations goal.
The organization guides members in its operation of the assigned duties. It enhances better
administration of the department. Good organization and administration would eventually mean effective
and efficient police work. Organization can also distinguished by their degree of formality and structure:
1. Formal Organization-is defined as those organizations that are formally established for explicit
purpose of achieving certain goals. (Stable social institutions.)
2. Informal Organization- are those sharing the basic characteristic of all organizations arise through
the social interactions of individuals or through family grouping.
What is Organization?
It is a form of human association for the attainment of goal or objective.
It is the process of identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating
responsibility and authority establishing relationships for the propose of enabling people work effectively.
What is Police Organization?
Police organization is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged
in the achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of crimes.
What is Police?
Police is a branch of the criminal justice system that has the specific responsibility of maintaining law
and order and combating crime within the society.
The term police are derived from the word POLITIA, meaning condition of a state,government and
administration, POLITIA organization is from the Greek word POLITEIA which means government,
citizenship, or the entire activity of a POLIS, a city.
POLICE (broadest sense) means the internal organization or regulation of a state, the control and
regulation of a community or state through the exercise of the constitutions power of the government.
POLICE (less broadest sense)it denotes the power of the government which concerns the tranquility,
public order, peace,security of persons and property and the protection of the public health and moral.
In the very restricted sense, the word police refer exclusively to that body of armed men which as an
institution is capable of exercising its duties by armed physical forces in the preservation and detection of
crime and the execution of laws.
Police Activities:
1. The prevention of Criminality.
2. Repression of Crime.
3. Apprehending of offenders.
4. Recovery of Property.
5. Regulation of Non-Criminal Conduct.
6. Performance of Related Miscellaneous Service.
The organization of the police force commonly requires the following organizational units:
Functional Units:
1. Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of
divisions:
4. Unit -functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
Territorial Units:
1. Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk or
office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty.It is a spot location for general guard duty.
2. Route -a length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT.
5. District-a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
6. Area- a section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
1. Sworn Officers-all personnel of the police department who have oath and who posses the power to
arrest.
2. Superior Officer- one having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over
officers of lower rank.
4. Ranking Officer- the officer who has the senior rank in a team or group.
5. Length of Service- the period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.Previous active services may be included or added.
6. On Duty - the period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
7. Off Duty - the nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
8. Special Duty -the police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the
performance of his active regular duty.
9. Leave of Absence- period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid\acceptable
reason, approved by higher authority.
10. Sick leave -period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
11. Suspension - a consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
12. Department Rules- rules established by department directors\superiors to control the conduct of
the members of the police force.
13. Duty Manual -describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified post
or position.
15. Report - usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal reports;
verbalreports should be confirmed by written communication.
At the bottom level of the organization, one finds the patrolman or line officer.
The lowest level worker found in many, if not most, complex organizations who usually performs the
routine, repetitive kind of work necessary to keep the organization functioning.
The police department by its very nature places the line officer in a position where he is a decision maker
and manager of his area o responsibility from the first time he is given a beat to patrol.
There are indeed few agencies in which the efficiency and parameter of the law enforcement functions
are vested in those individuals quite likely have the least amount of experience and expertise in the
organization.
Line Organization
The straight line organization, often called the individual,military or departmental types of organization, is
the simplest and perhaps the oldest types; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of authority and
responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures, authority is definite and
absolute.
While the line type of organization has many advantages, it also has some inherent weaknesses which,for
many organizations, make its use impractical.
Perhaps its greatest advantages it that, it is utterlysimple. It involves a division of the work into units of
eight people with aperson in charge who has complete control and who can be hold directlyresponsible or
accountable for result, or lack of them.
Quick decisions can be made in the line organization because of the direct lines authority.
Because of these direct lines, each member in the chain of command knows to whom he is clearly fixed.
Coordination of effort is relatively easy to achieve because functional overlapping in between units, a
prime cause of friction in any organization can be minimized.
Functional Organization
The functional organization in its pure form is rarely found in present day organizations,except at or
near the top of the very large organizations.
Unlike the type of structure, those establishment organized on a functional basis violate the prime rule
that men perform best when they have but one superior.
The functional responsibility of each functional manager is limited to the particular activity over which he
has control, regardless of who performs the function.
Coordination of effort in this type of organization becomes difficult since the employees responsible for
results may be subject to functional direction of several persons.
There may be considerable conflict among the functional administrators, resulting in much conclusion
among line personnel.
Line of authority and responsibility are fragmented into many functional channels, making each superior
responsible to several superiors depending upon the function he happens to be performing.
The functional organization in its purest form is rarely found in present-day organization except at or near
the top level.
Advantages
2. Functional responsibility is limited to the particular activity over which he has control regardless of who
performs the functions.
Disadvantages
The line and staff organization is a combination of the line and functional types.
It combines staff specialist such as the criminalists, the training officers, the research and development
specialists, etc. channels of responsibility is to think and provide expertise for the line units.
The line supervisor must remember that he obtains advice from the staff specialist.
In normal operations, the staff supervisor has line commands but with recognized limitations such as
coordination between line and staff personnel can be achieved without undue friction.
Failure to recognize these line and staff relationship is the greatest and most frequent source of friction
and a barrier to effective coordination.
The advantage of this kind would be- it combines staff specialistor units with line organization so that
service of knowledge can be providedline personnel by specialist.
POLICE SERVICE
1. The Continental Theory - police are servant of higher authorities and the people have little or no
share at all in their duties, nor any direct connection with them.
2. The Home Rule Theory - policemen are considered as servants of the community who defend for
the effectiveness of their function upon the express wishes of the people.
1. Old Concepts -this old philosophy means throwing more people in jail rather than keepingthese out
jail. Punishment is the sole instrument of crime control. Theyardstick of efficiency of the police is more on
arrests.
2. Modern Concept -police service today has broadened its activities to include certain aspect ofsocial
service for the welfare of the people. Their yardstick of efficiency is the absence of crime.
All police function and activities can be categorized as their line or non-line. Line functions are those tasks
that directly facilitate the accomplishment of organizational goals, whereas non-line functions are those
tasks that supplement the line its task performance.
Line activities are further broken into the sub-categories: primary line and secondary line functions, both
of which are field service.
1. Line Function
The primary line function is police patrol; that is the patrol activities of a police organization are
considered basic and the first priority.
The patrol division has the initial responsibility for crime prevention and dictation of the apprehension of
offenders.
It also assists in the preparation in the facts for presentation in a court of law.
Theoretically,if the patrol force were 100 percent effective in the execution of its assigned tasks, the need
for specialized units (traffic and detective) would be eliminated.
The patrol function is accurately called the backbone of the police service.
1.2. SecondaryFunction
Historically, police department were established only as police patrols, however as municipalities
increased in population, area, and technology (for example, the invention of the automobile), the burden
of this patrols was greatly increased.
The department, were unable to provide additional personnel because of budgetary limitations, were
unable to increase the number of the officers on the patrol beat in proportion to the rising population and
rate of crime and was force to enlarge each officers beat.
2. Non-Line Function
Simply put, non-line functions are those services that support the line.
Whereas the line provides services directly to the citizens, non-line activities help the line to accomplish
its primary task.
Traditionally non-line or support activities consist of two major categories: staff and auxiliary services.
These activities that have the responsibility and personal development and department management are
staff services.
Budget, planning and research, inspection, and similar activities fall under the heading of managerial
activities.
All non-line not regarded as staff service are classified as auxiliary services.
Typically, they provide support service of both a technical and non-technical nature to both line and non-
line activities.
Polygraph examiner, photographer, fingerprint and crime scene technicians, and the police laboratory are
technical auxiliary services that support the line activities.
The jail and the communication system and non-line (staff) activities.
Some activities are extremely difficult to classify as either the staff or auxiliary.
In many instances they perform a dual service. Police communityrelation units, although performing
secondary line service, may be designatedas an auxiliary or even a staff function.
LINE FUNCTION
PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIZATION
To understand the organization and operation of public departments certain general basic principles of
organization must be understood.
These principles of organization were generated by the experience of industry, business, and the military
services.
They have no absolute values,but they do provide a check list against which an organization can be
structurally and functionally evaluated.
Division of Labor
For a police organization to be effective, work assignments must be designed so that similar tasks,
functions, and activities are given to an individual or group for accomplishment.
Police functions are sub-divided into units that are described as follows:
Unity of Command
Unity of command requires that an individual be directly accountable to only one superior. No person
can effectively serve twosuperiors at a given time.
Chain of Command
Primarily this principle provides for the vertical movement of authority up and down established channels
in the organizational hierarchy.
To illustrate this concept, consider a directives originating in the office of the patrol chief intended for the
patrol force (downward movement).
Two levels of authority fall between the patrol chief and the patrol officer inspector.
Because both levels are held responsible for various aspects of patrol supervision,both must be aware of
such directives.
If either supervisor is by-passed, that one can not beheld accountable for the lack of knowledge.
Further, performance of supervisory duties is greatly hindered, and potentially serious problem is
created.
There must be a clear line of normal authority running from the top to bottom of every organization.
Ultimate authority and responsibility for a police organization lies at the top of the chain of command-
with the chief.
However, if a subordinate is to be held responsible for the accomplishment of a given task, he or she
must be given the authority to carryout those responsibilities.
If the patrol officers are given the responsibility for evaluating police response time on a given day or in
a specific situation, the officer must be given the authority to procure the communication logs from the
communication center.
Without this authority, the entire task cannot be accomplished.
If responsibility and authority are not clearly defined, conflicts, duplication and overlaps of function lead
to confusion and inefficiency.
Each officer and each organization segment of authority delegated to accomplish the job.
Span of Control
The number of officers or units reporting directly to the supervisor should not exceed the number that
can be feasibly and effectively coordinate and directed.
There are an innumerable factor that limits the span control including distance, time, knowledge,
personality, and the complexity of the work to be performed.
It is not unusual to fine fifty or sixty workers to perform identification function reporting to one
supervisor.
On the other hand,as we ascend the chain of command and the diversity of functions increases, the
number of individuals that a police executive supervises decreases rapidly.
Objective
All organizational elements must contribute, directly or indirectly, to the accomplishment of the objectives
of the enterprise.
Each organizational element should be formed for a definite purpose, and this purposes must be
accomplish the major objective.
Any police function and organizational elements that is not required in the accomplishment of the overall
objectives should be eliminated.
Coordination
The organizational structure must facilitate the development of close, friendly, and co-operative relations,
especially between line and staff activities.
Effective coordination is dependent almost entirely upon adequate communication among all element of a
police organization.
Time
The police service is among the few public services that maintain a twenty-four hour schedule.
It is necessary to the department to assigned officers in sufficient number to meet the demands at any
given time.
Watch or Shift
Territory
Territorial distribution is necessary to ensure theavailability and general suitability of the patrol service
throughout ajurisdiction. Geographical or territorial divisions of the department can beerdescribed as
follows:
1. Post - a fixedor stationary point location (e.g., a specified street intersection,surveillance site, or an
assigned desk or office).
2. Route or Lined Beat- a length of street normally assigned to the traffic and patrol officerswhether
foot or mobile. The rout has the characteristics of being continuous,in a straight line, or the line sight.
3. Beat - ageographical area, once again assigned to either foot or mobile patrol andtraffic officer.
The distribution of patrol services with respect to thecharacteristics of the population served must be
recognized and dealt with incontemporary law enforcement. The development of specialized functional
unitsexpresses the principle of the organization by clientele.
A police man must have a mind of a lawyer the soul of aclergyman, the heart of the social worker,
discipline of an army sergeant, theintegrity of a saint. He must believe in a community of law, while
seeinglittle but lawlessness; believe in the goodness of man, while seeing the manmost often at his
worst, depend on his faithfulness, know his jurisdictionslike a sociologist, and he must understand people
like a psychologist. He musttake long view of life like a philosopher and yet never losing his
commontouch.
POLICE OPERATIONS
Police Operation
Another word in the large collection of police serviceterminology is operations. For the most part,
operation is synonymous with line function. In accordance with previousdefinitions, operations are
inclusive of both primary and secondary line functions.
Area.
1. District - is asubdivision of a province and shall consist of a metropolitan city or ametropolitan city
and adjacent municipalities\ small cities, or several adjacentmunicipalities and small cities.
2. Station -is asubdivision of a district and shall consist of a large municipality or a smallcity or
municipalities\small city and some adjacent smaller municipalities or severaladjacent municipalities.
3. Sub-station -is a subdivision of a station and shall consist of a large municipality or smallcity or a
municipality itself.
4. JuvenileDivision\Section - shall be primarily concerned with children and youth, thecorrection and
rehabilitation of youth offenders.
5. IntelligenceDivision\Section - shall work for the detection of syndicated crimes andsubtle criminal
activities, including subversion and threats to the security ofthe state.
8. Municipal PoliceSub-station - shall be concerned with the general maintenance of peace,order and
public safety within their respective jurisdictions. The MunicipalPolice Sub-station shall consist of two
principal sections with correspondingfunctions as indicated below:
a. Patrol Section
3. Crime prevention
4. Inspection activities
b. Investigation section
1. Crime investigation
2. vice control
4. Custody of prisoners
Peace officers of small Police stations are considered asgeneralist. Most small police station within the
limits of their capabilities,are responsible for all activities in the fields of law enforcement and
publicsafety. They provide routine patrol, conduct premise inspection, make criminaland traffic
investigations, make arrest, and in other ways, provide for thecommunity security. In such stations, its
members and officers are by and largegeneralist.
Primitive Policing Law enforcement can be traced back to thecave dwellers, who were expected to follow
certain rules or face banishment ordeath. The customs depicted in early cave dwelling may represent the
beginningof law and law enforcement. The prehistoric social order consisted of smallfamily groups living
together as tribes or clans. Group living gave rise tocustoms everyone was expected to observe. The
tribe’s chief had executive,legislative and judicial powers and often appointed tribe members to
performspecial task to include guarding the community against depredation of lawless elements.
The Sumerians
The earliest record of ancient peoples need to standardizerules and methods of enforcement to control
human behavior dates toapproximately 2300 B.C., when the Sumerian rulers Lipithstar and Eshumma
setstandards on what constituted an offense against society.
The Babylonians
The Code of King Hammurabi (2100 B.C.) –during the time ofBabylonian King Hammurabi, he established
rules for his kingdom that designatednot only offenses but punishment as well. The principle of the code
was thatthe strong shall not injure the week. Hammurabi originated the legal principleof LEX Talionis- the
eye for an eye, tooth for a tooth doctrine.
Ancient Egypt
The early Egyptians established laws and court and arudimentary rule of law. The first account of a
developing court system originatedin Egypt in approximately 1500 B.C. the court system was presided by
judges whowere appointed by the pharaoh. They later organized marine patrols andcustomhouses to
protect commerce.
Ancient Greece
The Greeks had an impressive of law enforcement called theEphori. Each year at Sparta, a body of
Ephors was elected and given almostunlimited powers as investigator, judge, jury and executioner. These
five menalso presided over the senate and assembly, assuring that their rules anddecrees were followed.
From the Greek philosopher PLATO, who lived from 427 to347 B.C., was the idea that punishment should
serve the purpose rather thansimple retaliation.
Ancient Rome
The Romans had a high development system of administering justice.The 12Tabulae (12 tables) were the
first written laws of the Roman Empire. Itdeals with legal procedures, property ownership, building codes,
marriagecustoms and punishment for crimes. At the reign of Emperor Augustus, he created
the Praetorian Guard, which consisted of about 7000 men\soldiers toprotect the palace and the City of
Rome, together with the Urban Cohorts to patrol the city. He created the so called Vigiles who were
assigned asfirefighters and eventually given law enforcement responsibilities. As the firstcivilian police
force the Vigiles sometimes kept the peace very ruthlessly,hence the word vigilantes. Anotherimportant
event was the time of JustinianI, ruler of the Eastern Roman Empire (527 to 265 A.D.) who collected
allRoman laws and put it into his Justinian Code-they became known the Corpus Juris Civilis which
means Body of Law.
The Anglo-Saxons were influential in developing the earlypolice forces. The following are the features of
this period:
1. Tun Policing System- Tun is the forerunner of the word town. Under this system all maleresidents
are required to guard the town and to preserve the peace and control,to protect life and property from
harm or disturbance.
2. Hue and Cry - asystem of apprehending a criminal whereby a complaint goes to the middle of
thestreet and shouts to call all males to assemble. The victim reports his complaintto the assembly and
gives the whereabouts of the perpetrator. All male residentswould then proceed to locate and apprehend
the culprit. When apprehended, trialis conducted giving the culprit a chance to depend himself.
3. The Royal Jude -a person who conducts criminal investigation and gives punishment.
Punishmentusually fits the crime committed.
4. Trial by Ordeal- a system of determining guilt and innocence in the ancient times which wasbased on
painful test of skills. It is usually accompanied by harsh punishment.For instance, suspects were required
to place their hands in boiling oil orwater. When not hurt, it indicated guilt and the suspect placed under
punishment.
1. Shire-Rieve System- England at the time of William Norman,divided England into 55military
districts known as the Shire-Rieve. Shire was the district, Rieve was the ruler who makes laws,pass
judgment and impose punishment. He was assisted by a constable (forerunnerof the word constabulary).
2. The Traveling Judge- one responsible in passing judgment which was taken from the Shire-Rieve
inview of some abuses by the Rieves.
4. The Magna-Carta- laws were enacted upon the demand of the Knights of the Round Table andforced
the king to sign the same. Examples of the principles of law include thefollowing:
a. no free men shall be taken or imprisoned, disposed oroutlawed except by legal judgment of his peers
b. no person should be tried from murder unless there isproof the body of the victim
c. Beginning of the national and local government as well as legislation.
1. The Statute of 1295- this law prescribed the closing of the gates of London at sundown. Start
ofcurfew systems.
2. Justice of thePeace - this was position which gives a person the power to arrest, pursueand impose
imprisonment.
3. The Star Chambercourt - a special court which try offenses against the state.
This period came to the limelight when a bill creating the Scotland Yard was passed by theparliament
of England. It was sponsored and expanded by Sir Robert Pell who was made to be the first head of
the policeorganization. He was referred as the Fatherof Modern Policing system due to his
contributions in the modernization ofthe police force. The following are the principles were considered
inorganizing and administering the Scotland Yard known as the Peels Principles:
Philippine NationalPolice
The Philippine National Police or PNP is the national policeforce of the Republic of the Philippines with a
manpower strength of 113,928 asof end-July 2007. It provides law enforcement services through its
regional,provincial, municipal, district and local police units all over the islands.Created by virtue of
Republic Act 6975, otherwise known as the “Department ofthe Interior and Local Government Act of
1990", the PNP came into being onJanuary 29, 1991, at Camp Crame, Quezon City, when the Philippine
Constabularyand the Integrated National Police were retired as mandated by law.
Organized policing started in 1500s when nightmen or bantayans patrolled the streets of Manila. The
nightmenwere under the direction of the alguacilmayor who provided them with muskets as weapons
and alarm bells as theirmeans of communication. In 1836, the Spanish colonial authorities formed
the Cuadrillo, a rural police force, toenforce peace in the countryside. Six years later, its general
function wasassumed by the Cuerpo de Carabineros deSeguridad Publica.
The Carabineros deSeguridad Publica was organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying outlawsof
the
Spanish government. Native Filipinos served up to the rank of sergeantunder the command of Spanish
officers. It was the earlier version of mounted riflemenin the history of the Philippine police system.
In 1852, the notoriously dreaded Guardia Civil took over peacekeeping duties in the islands under
aRoyal Decree. Guardia Civil in the provinces was composed mainly of Filipinoswho worked under the
jurisdiction of the alcaldes or mayors. They followed amilitary structure and received semi-military
training yet lacked otherdimensions of today’s police service.
The capture of General Emilio Aguinaldo, president of theFirst Philippine Republic, signaled the start of
the American occupation of thePhilippines. Maintaining peace and order, particularly in the
countryside,remained the biggest problem of the Americans.
The Americans failed to subdue the followers of Aguinaldolike Gen. Macario Sakay. Hostilities continued in
Batangas, Mindoro, Cebu, Boholand Samar. A military solution to the peace and order problem was ruled,
hence,the birth of the Philippine Constabulary.
Pacification Campaigns
To fight rampant lawlessness, the Philippine Constabularydivided the entire country into constabulary
districts. Banditry was rampant inSouthern Luzon. Records referred to the bandits as tulisanes. The style
offighting of the early American Constables and the bandits was “man-to-man, onfoot, and generally by
arms and bolos.”
The American foot soldiers had a hard time repelling the tulisanesin their fight in the mountains as their
enemies were familiar with theterrain. Malaria and cholera were the diseases that the afflicted the
Americantroops whenever they conducted foot patrol in the hinterlands.
The Americans are credited for creating the Philippine Constabulary, the principalinstrument of the
civil authorities for the maintenance of peace and order. ThePC began as a small unit—the InsularForce
in 1901.
It was set up by virtue of Organic Act No. 175, enacted by the Second Philippine Commission on
July 18, 1901.The Constabulary thenwas composed of six thousand men led by American officers and
former members ofthe Spanish Guardia Civil. Under close American direction and control, itfunctioned as
a military organization.
Since its formation, the Constabulary had been primarilydischarging police law enforcement and public
safety functions. Its officersand men had served with distinction both in the field of law enforcement and
incombating violence and lawlessness, and in various aspects of public service.
There was even a time in history when they performed theduties of teachers, sanitary inspectors,
midwives, doctors and foresters.
The Philippine Constabulary was mandated as a civilianorganization on March 15, 1945 whenit was
placed under the general supervision of the Interior then latertransferred to the Secretary of
NationalDefense on March 30, 1950.
The Secretary ofInterior had supervision over the Constabulary as early as January 13, 1939 until
the outbreak ofWorld War II.As an insular police force, the officers of the Constabularycarried the civilian
title of “inspector.” Its peacekeeping duty was limited toareas where military rule had been lifted.
The participation of the Constabulary in the dark years ofthe Second World War began upon President
Roosevelt’s declaration of a state ofemergency in the United States. Manila prepared for war.
The word had been sent: Japan, the Axis power’s ally in Asia,would soon attack the Far East. Filipinos
woke up on the morning of December 8, 1941 to the news that theJapanese had attacked Pearl
Harbor.
The first war casualties of the Constabulary came from thebombing of Pan-American Airways installation
at San Pedro, Makati in theafternoon of December 8. Six Constables from the Headquarters Company
werewounded.
The next days and months saw relentless Japanese bombings on thecountry’s landmarks, airfields and
naval bases.
The Japanese had taken Manila but were surprised that nodefense forces were waiting to be captured.
The Japanese forces then began thesiege of Bataan, ordering four infantry regiments with artillery and
tanksupport to crush the American and Filipino soldiers.
The Japanese then prepared to transfer the prisoners andsurrendered troops to Camp o’ Donnel
inCapas, Tarlac in what has been known as the “Death March.” Because oftorture and
starvation, 4,326 prisonersof war died in the infamous march.
The county was left in shambles after the Second World War.Manila was in ruins. Loose firearms and
dead bodies littered the streets. Thiswas also the period when communist ideology had been propagated
in thecountryside and hard-line supporters had been won.
The Hukbong Mapagpalaya ng Bayan or Hukbalahap became a forceto reckon with in Central Luzon.
The Hukbalahapwas born in Pampanga and was spawned by a feudal land system in theprovince
dominated bylandlords. Pampanga was an “ideal ground” for the agrarianunrest. It achieved legal status
during the Japanese occupation when it mergedwith the guerilla forces in fighting the Japanese.
The communist movement, meanwhile, capitalized on theagrarian problems of the country to cement its
presence. Agrarian unrest wasprevalent in agricultural lands in Luzon as well as the sprawling haciendas
in thesouth.
Luis Taruc became a leader of the HMBs and foundedhis own government in Central Luzon. It was
during this turbulent period thatthe Philippine Constabulary was reactivated into the Military Police
Command.
Faced with peace and order problems, the Military Police Commandwas suffering from its own internal
crises.
The last war had killed manyConstables. There was a dearth for trained personnel who would be utilized
toaddress the problems.
Constabulary records showed that there were about 20,000Hukbalahaps in Luzon in 1946. The Military
Police Command, on the other hand,had 23,000 informal enlistees.
Reorganization
On January 1, 1944, the Military Police Command was dissolvedby virtue of Executive Order No.
94 issuedby President Manuel A. Roxas. TheCommand’s 12,000 officers and men were absorbed by
the newly reorganizedPhilippine Constabulary. The revitalized PC was in charge of the country’speace and
order “except those which were purely military in nature.”
Brig. Gen. Mariano Castañeda became chief of the PC and institutedreforms. On June 21, 1948,
PresidentElpidio Quirino offered general amnesty to the Huks. Taruc, who had beenelected a
member of Congress representing Pampanga, returned to Manila. ButTaruc had no plans to surrender.
He only went to Manila to collect his backsalaries and used the money for his comrades’ operations in
Central Luzon.
President Ramon Magsaysay was credited for crippling the Huk movementby mobilizing the Philippine
Constabulary. Magsaysay used the “friendly touch”for winning over the Huks, building roads for them and
giving them lands.
The Philippine Constabulary’s attempt to maintain peace andorder did not end with the decimation of the
Huks.
On December 26, 1968, Jose Maria Sison, a Political Science student atthe University of the
Philippines, founded the Communist Party of thePhilippines.
The communist ideology spread through a small discussiongroup called Kabataan Makabayan organized
by Sison and his colleagues in themiddle sixties. Sison then rose to become the leader of the CPP and
organized themilitary wing of the CPP, the New People’s Army.
But the communists suffered a crushing blow on January 9,1969 in the hands of the Constabulary who
killed the most number of communistleaders in one encounter in Orani, Bataan.
The PC MetropolitanCommand
The upsurge of mass demonstrations and violence during thelatter part of the 60s and the expansion
efforts of the communist movementtriggered the creation of the PC Metropolitan Command.
To quell the unrest, President Ferdinand Marcos issued Executive Order Number 76 on July 14,
1967establishing the PC Metrocom whichbecame the PC’s striking force as it was authorized to conduct
24/7 patrol inthe entire Metro Manila and was tasked to “supplement or complement localpolice action in
the repression and prevention of crimes…”
The Philippine Constabulary took on a pivotal role whenPresident Marcos declared Martial Law
on September21, 1972.
Marcos mobilized the Constabulary and other major services ofthe military to dismantle the
“unconstitutional opposition” and to preventwidespread hooliganism and gangsterism. Convinced that
there was a need torestructure the social base that bred lawlessness, Marcos reorganized thegovernment
machinery to effect his desired changes in the social, economic andpolitical structures.
On March 21, 1974,President Ferdinand E. Marcos signed PresidentialDecree 421 unifying all the
police, fire and jail services in Metro Manila.The move was significant as it created an elite force,
the Metropolitan Police Force that was placed under the aegis of the PCMetrocom. The decree was
also the first step in fulfilling the constitutionalmandate for an integrated national police force.
The Metropolitan Police Force was tasked to carry out theintegration of all police units
nationwide. Brigadier General Prospero A. Olivas, commanding general of theMetrocom, was
assigned the task of launching the pilot project under thesupervision of Fidel V. Ramos
and BrigadierGeneral Cicero C. Campos, deputy Chief for police matters.
General Olivas would have the power and direction over the Metrocom,including tactical, strategic
movements, deployments, placements and utilization of the entire force and the training thereof.
On August 8, 1975,Marcos issued Presidential Decree No.765 establishing the Integrated National
Police with the Philippine Constabulary as the nucleus and all police officers as components.
They wereall placed under the supervision of the Ministry of National Defense.
The People’s Revolution of 1986 saw the birth of the 1987 Constitution that included a provision on the
PNP which was to be “national in scope and civilian in character.”
In 1991, the Philippine National Police was created with the passage of Republic Act No. 6975, otherwise
known as the“Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990.”
The principal authors of the Republic Act 6975 were Senators Ernesto N. Maceda and Aquilino
Pimentel, Congressmen Jose S. Cojuangco Jr. and Rodrigo Gutang.
Upon its signing into law on December 13, 1990, the PNP underwent a transitory period;and on 31
March 1991, President Corazon Aquino named General Cesar Nazareno as the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police.
On January 29, 1991,at Camp Crame, Quezon City, thePhilippine Constabulary and the
Integrated National Police were retired officially and the Philippine NationalPolice was born.
Like any new evolving organization, the PNP suffered from birth pains. To address these
concerns, RepublicAct 8551 or the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998 was enacted
on February 17, 1998 to amend certainprovisions of Republic Act No. 6975.
This move was in response to the growing clamor to transform the PNP “into a more responsive, effective
and relevant police organization.”
Under this Act, the PNP shall be strengthened and evolved into a highly efficient police force that is
community and service-oriented and fully accountable in the performance of its action.
Officer
Training Officers for the Philippine National Police are sourced from the Philippine National Academy as
well as through lateral entry,for specialized disciplines and requirements such as doctors, engineers and
other technical positions.
The Philippine National Police Academy is located in Silang, Cavite and is the primary training school for
the PNP.
The entry level for non-commissioned officers is the rank of Police Officer 1 or PO1, with a starting salary
of P14, 265.00 inclusive of allowances.
The new recruits undergo Police Basic Recruit Course for six months and a Field Training Program for
another six months prior to deployment to various units.
-An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the Interior and
Local Government, and for other purposes. PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE (PNP) The Philippine National
Police (PNP) has been established initially consisting of the following:
a. Members of the police force who were integrated into theIntegrated National Police (INP)pursuant
to PD 765;
Ethics
PART 1- CONTENT UPDATES
I. DEFINITIONS
Ethics- A normative scienceof the conduct of human being living in a society. They are rules of conduct.
Police Ethics- A practicalscience that treats the principles ofhuman morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement.
Virtue- A habit thatinclines person to act in a way that harmonizes with his nature.
Moral Virtue- It concerns thoseactions pertaining to one’s duties towards his neighbors and himself.
Conscience- It is a voice ofreason bending oneself to something right or avoids something wrong.
Command- It is an authority aperson lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of his rank or
assignmentor position.
Responsibility- The obligation toperform duties and functions and to the consequences of activities
under one’scommand.
Command Responsibility- Thedoctrine the impose commensurate accountability to the one who is
vested withauthority to exercise management leadership functions.
Maximum Tolerance- Aconceptual policy laid down for observance of all law enforcement personnel
toexercise utmost restraint and self-control in the performance of their officialfunctions.
A. Prudence- An ability to govern and discipline oneself bemeans of reason and sound judgment. It is
a virtue that attracts the intellectto choose the most effective means of accomplishing what is morally
good andfor avoiding what is evil.
C. Fortitude- Firmnessof mind. It is the courage to endure without yielding. A virtue that
incitescourage. It is exercise by means of:
D. Justice- Thevirtue that inclines the will to give to each one of his rights. There arethree (3) division
of justice, to wit:
1) Commutative- virtuethat regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between
oneanother;
2) Distributive- itregulates those actions that involve the rights that an individual may claimform
society; and
3) Legal- virtuethat regulates those actions which society may justly require to the individualfor the
common good.
1. Policies and Principles the Guide the PNP Towards Professionalized and Dedicated
Law Enforcers (Section 2, Chapter 1-Declaration of Policy)
1. Basic Police Values (Sec. 1, Chap. II- Police Officers Creed and Stand on Basic Issues)
1. Love of God
2. Respect to authority
3. Selfless love and service for people
4. Respect for women and sanctity for marriage
5. Responsible dominion and stewardship overmaterial things
6. Truthfulness
1. I believe in God, The Supreme Being, A GreatProvider, and the Creator of all men and
everything dear to me.
Inreturn, I can do less than love Him above all by obeying His word, seek Hisguidance in the
performance of my sworn duties and honor Him at all times.
a) I respect and uphold the Constitution, thelaws of the land and the applicable rules and regulations.
b) I recognize the legitimacy and authority ofthe leadership; and obey legal orders of my superior
officers.
Towardsthis end, I commit myself to the service of my fellowmen over and above mypersonal
interest.
Ishall set the example of decency and morality and shall have high regard forfamily life and
value of marital fidelity.
1. PNP Image
AllPNP members should conduct themselves in a manner the would not place the PNPin the bad light.
Instead they must live in accordance with the PNP core valuesand possess the following virtues:
a) Honor;
b) Integrity;
c) Valor;
d) Justice;
e) Honesty;
f) Humility;
g) Charity; and
h) Loyalty to the service
2. Career Management
ThePNP shall formulate and implement policies and human resources developmentsystem for all
personnel, from recruitment to retirement.
5. Delicadeza
PNPmembers must have moral courage to sacrifice self-interest.
6. Police Lifestyle
PoliceOfficer must be free from greed, corruption and exploitation. The publicexpects a police officer to
live a simple, credible and dignified life.
7. Political Patronage
AllPNP members must inhibit himself solicitingpolitical patronage on matters pertaining to assignment,
awards, trainings andpromotion.
8. Human Rights
AllPNP members must respect and protect human dignity and man’s inalienable rightsto life, liberty and
property.
9. Setting Example
AllPNP members shall set good example to their subordinates and follow goodexample from their
superiors.
Standard of Police Professionalism- All PNPmembers shall perform their duties with excellence,
competence, integrity,intelligence and expertise in the application of specialized skill andtechnical
knowledge.
Police Professional Conduct
1. Commitment to Democracy
PNPpersonnel must commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values;maintain the principles
of public accountability, uphold the Constitution atall times and be loyal to the country, people and the
organization.
3. Non- Partisanship
PNPmembers shall provide services to everyone without discrimination.
5. Secrecy Discipline
PNPmembers shall guard the confidentiality of classified information againstunauthorized disclosure.
6. Social Awareness
AllPNP personnel and their immediate family members shall be encouraged toactively get involved in the
religious, social and civic activities to enhancethe image of the organization but without affecting their
official duties.
7. Non-Solicitation of Patronage
PNPmembers shall seek self-improvement through career development and shall notdirectly or indirectly
solicit influence or recommendation from politician,government officials, prominent citizens, person
affiliated with civic orreligious organization with regards to promotion, assignments, transfer etc.
12. Discipline
PNPmembers shall conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with therules and regulations of
the organization.
13. Loyalty
Above all, PNPmembers must be loyal to the Constitution and the police service as manifestedby their
loyalty to their superiors, peers and subordinates.
Ethical Standards
Referto established and generally accepted moral values and ethical acts
1. Morality
PNPmembers must adhere to high standard of morality and decency and shall set goodexamples for
others. During their term of office they should not be involved asowners, operators or investors of any
house of ill refute or activities thatpromote vices. They should be likewise faithful to their lawfully
weddedspouses.
3. Integrity
PNPmembers shall not allow themselves to be victims of corruption and dishonestpractices.
4. Justice
PNPmembers shall strive constantly to respect rights of others.
5. Humility
PNPmembers must perform their duties without arrogance. They should recognizetheir own inadequacies,
inabilities and limitations as individuals and performtheir duties without attracting attention or expecting
the applause of others.
6. Orderliness
AllPNP members shall follow logical procedures in accomplishing task assigned tothem to minimize waste
in the use of time money and effort.
7. Perseverance
Oncea decision is made, all PNP members shall take legitimate means to achieve thegoal even in the face
of internal and external difficulties and despiteanything, which might weaken their resolve in the course
of time.
Definitions
1. Customs-established usage or social practices carried on by tradition that haveobtained the force of
law.
2. Traditions- bodies ofbelief , stories , and customs usages banded prom the generation to
generationwith the effect of unwritten law.
5. SocialDecorum-a set of norms or standard practiced by members during social and otherfunctions.
1. Salute- the usualgreeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing
personentitled to salute.
2. Salute tothe National Color and Standard- members stand at attention and salutethe national
color and standard as it pass by them or lowered duringceremonies.
3. Address/Title-juniorin rank address senior members who are entitled to salute with word “Sir”
2. ChristmasCall- PNPmembers pay a Christmas call on their local executive in their respective areaof
responsibility.
3. New Year’sCall-PNP members pay a new year’s call on their superiors or key officials on
theirrespective area of responsibility.
4. PromotionCall –newly appointed PNP members call on their unit heads. On this occasion, theyare
usually given due recognition and congratulations by their peers for suchdeserved accomplishment.
5. Exit Call – PNP members pay anexit call in their superior in their command when relieved or
reassigned out ofthe said unit or command.
6. Courtesyof the Post – the host unit extends hospitality to visiting personnelwho pays respect to
the command or unit.
1. FlagRaising Ceremony – The PNP members honor the flag by raising itand singing the National
Anthem before the start of official day’s work.
2. FlagRetreat Ceremony – At the end of the official day’s work, thePNP members pause for the
moment to salute the lowering of the flag.
6. Honor ofCeremony – Arrival and Departure honor ceremonies are tendered tovisiting dignitaries.
VIP’s, PNP officer with the grade of Chief Superintendentand above and AFP officers with the equivalent
grade , unless waived.
1. ProperAttire – PNPmembers always wear appropriate and proper attire in conformity with
theoccasion.
3. SocialGraces – PNPmembers should conduct themselves properly in dealing with people during
socialfunctions.
4. Uniform/Appearance–the public looks upon the PNP members as distinctively a man among men.
It is awelcome sight when the PNP members wear their uniform wherever they may be,since disciplined
PNP members are the best exemplified by those who are in neatappearance and wearing the prescribed
uniform, they must therefore observe thefollowing, to wit;
5. Manner ofWalking – EveryPNP member is expected to walk with pride and dignity.
1. Visitingthe Sick –PNP members who are sick in the hospital, their residence or any place
ofconfinement are visited by their immediate commanders or other availableofficers of the unit in order
that their needs are attended to.
2. SurvivorAssistance to Heirs of Deceased Members – When PNP members die,a survivor officer
is designated to render maximum assistance to theirlegitimate bereaved family until all benefits due shall
have been received.
3. Visitingthe Religious Leader – PNP officers visits religious leaders intheir area of assignment to
establish or maintain rapport or cooperationbetween the different religious leaders and the PNP.
4. Athletics–All PNP members indulge in physical fitness activities to insure that theirproper physical
appearance and bearing are maintained with waistlinemeasurement always smaller that the size of his
chest and in conformity in thestandard set forth by the organization.
5. HappyHours –Usually on Friday or any other day suitable for the occasion, PNP membersgathered
together at their PNP club for light hearted jesting or airing ofminor gripes.
1. Police Traditions
1. SpiritualBeliefs – ThePNP members are traditionally religious and God-loving person. They
attendreligious services together with the members of their family.
2. Valor – Historyattest that the Filipino law enforcers have exemplified the traditions of valorin
defending the country from aggression and oppression. They sacrificed theirlimbs and lives for the sake
of their countrymen whom they have pledged toserve.
3. Patriotism–The PNP members are traditionally patriotic by nature. They manifest their loveof
country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend theconstitution.
4. Discipline–the discipline of the PNP members are manifested by instinctive obedience tolawful
orders and through spontaneous action towards attainment oforganizational objectives guided by moral,
ethical, and legal norms.
6. Word ofHonor –the PNP members’ word is their bonds. They stand by and commit to uphold it.
7. Duty – the PNPmembers have historically exemplified themselves as dedicated public servantswho
perform their tasks with deep sense of responsibility and self-sacrifice.
8. Loyalty – thepolicemen are traditionally loyal to the organization, country, or people, asborne by
history and practice.
9. Camaraderie–the binding spirit that enhances the teamwork and cooperation in the
policeorganization, extending to the people they serve, is manifested by the PNPmembers’ deep
commitment and concern to one another.
Iwill keep my private life unsullied as an example to all, maintain courageous calm in the face
ofdanger, scorn or ridicule, develop self-restraint and be constantly mindful ofthe welfare of others.
Honest in thought and in deed in my both personal andofficial life, I will be the exemplary in obeying the
laws of the land andregulations of my organization. Whatever I see or hear of a confidential natureor that
is confided to me in my official capacity will be kept ever secretunless revelation is necessary in the
performance of my duty.
Irecognize the badge of my office as a symbol of public faith and I accept itas public trust to be
held so long as Iam true to the ethics of the police service. I will never engage in the acts ofcorruption,
or bribery, nor will I condone such acts by other police officers.I will cooperate with all legally authorized
agencies and their representativesin the pursuit of justice.
Iknow that I alone, am responsible for my own standard of professionalperformance and will
take every reasonable opportunity to enhance and improvemy level of knowledge and competence. I will
constantly strive to achieve theseobjectives and ideals, dedicating myself before God to my
chosenprofession……law enforcement.
Sec. 2.DECLARATION OF POLICY – it is hereby declared to be the policy of the State topromote peace
and order, ensure public safety and further strengthen local government capability aimedtowards the
effective delivery of the basic services to the citizenry throughthe establishment of a highly efficient and
competent police force that isnational in scope and civilian in character. Towards this end, the state
shallbolster a system of coordination and cooperation among the citizenry, localexecutives
and the integrated law enforcement and public safety agencies createdunder this act.
Sec 2.DECLARATION OF POLICY AND PRINCIPLES – it is hereby declared the policy of thestate to
establish a highly efficient and competent police force which isnational in scope and civilian in character
administered and controlled by aNational Police Commission.
1. PNP VISION
Themen and women of the PNP is committed to a vision of a professional, dynamicand highly motivated
Philippine National Police working in partnership with a responsive community towards
theattainment of a safe place to live, work, invest and do business with.
1. PNP MISSION
Toenforce the law, to prevent and control crimes, to maintain peace and order,and to ensure public
safety and internal security with the active support of the community.
1. DEFINITIONS
Ø POLICE
- A group of persons established, maintainedand organized for keeping order, safety, protection of
lives and property, andfor the prevention and detection of crimes.
Ø COMMUNITY
- Refers to the civilian populace or the publicin general, and shall be used interchangeably with the
terms, public,citizenry, society and private sectors.
- A body of people organized into political,municipal or social unity or a body of persons living in the
same locality.
- Derived from the Latin word “communis” which means “common” and “tatis” which means
“fellowship”.
Ø POLICE-COMMUNITY RELATIONS
- The sum total of the dealings between thepolice and the people it serves, and whose goodwill and
cooperation it craves,for the greatest possible efficiency in the service.
- Refers to the reciprocal attitudes of thepolice and the community
Ø PUBLIC RELATIONS
- The act of bringing about betterunderstanding, confidence and acceptance for an individual or an
organization.
Ø HUMAN RELATIONS
- Consists of the fundamental rules both moraland legal, which govern the relationship of men in all
aspects of life.
Ø MEDIA/MASS MEDIA
- The channels through which information isdisseminated to the public.
- May be in form of television, movies, radioor newspaper, and the like.
Ø PROPAGANDA
- The planned use of mass communication forpublic purposes.
1. Community Service
- Activities that provide service to thecommunity may be in form of medical-dental mission, sports
clinic, feedingprograms, seminars, etc.
2. Community Participation
- Involvement of the community in the varioussocial projects, particularly, in the area of crime
prevention
- Awareness of the community of their role incrime prevention.
3. Public Relations
- Activities directed at creating andmaintaining favorable impressions to the public.
- Projection of the police public image to thepeople to gain their support and cooperation
1. To maintain and develop the goodwill andconfidence of the community for the police;
2. To obtain cooperation and assistance;
3. To develop public understanding and support,and appreciation for the service of the police;
4. To create broader understanding and sympathywith the problems and needs of the police;
5. To facilitate law enforcement and compliance;
6. To build public opinion in favor of thepolice; and
7. To achieve the police purposes of preservingthe peace, protection of life and property, and the
prevention of crime.
1. Externally-OrientedApproach
- Directed towards the general public orvarious enclaves within the society.
2. Youth-OrientedApproach
- Directed the majority of police effortstowards the youth of the community
3. Service-OrientedApproach
- Emphasis is given to the alleviation ofsocial problems as the basic objective of the program.
4. Internally-OrientedApproach
- Essential characteristics is the realizationthat the officer on beat creates community relations
because “Every officer ofthe organization, is a police-community relations officer”
4. Psychological Program
- Designed to condition both friendly andhostile public, ensuring the facilitation of the attainment of
policeobjectives.
1. He shallissue press releases from time to time regarding police activities which arepublic concern;
2. He shallbuild good image through actual commendable performance, without inefficiencyand
corruption; and
3. He shallevaluate public opinion and attitude with respect to policies, methods, andpersonnel of the
police stations.
1. Increasedpolice visibility through the dispersal of personnel from the headquarters tothe field
offices;
2. Efficientand optimized delivery of police services to the communities;
3. Constantdialogues and meetings with the barangay officials in their respectiveterritorial jurisdictions;
4. Communityservice-oriented policing by conducting seminars for the traffic aides, policeaides, and
the barangay tanod; and
5. Coordinationwith the media for image-enhancing projects.
1. Domestic Relations- Police Officer’s dealing with his family,parents and immediate relatives.
2. Neighborhood Relations- PoliceOfficer’s dealing with his neighbors.
3. Community Relations- PoliceOfficers’ dealing with citizens of the community, city or town where
he lives,and his membership or contribution to the civic organization or communityassociations in the
locality.
4. Church Relations- Police Officer’s dealings with the religiouscongregation or faith where he
belongs.
5. Government Relations- PoliceOfficer’s dealings with the government and its instrumentalities.
1. Intra-Departmental Relations – PoliceOfficers relations with men and women in his own
department, superiors, thestation commanders as well as the city or municipality mayors where he
isassigned.
2. Inter-Departmental Relations – PoliceOfficers relations with other police agencies.
3. Citizens’ Relations –includes all dealings or contacts with the citizens in relation to
theenforcement of the law and maintenance of peace and order, together with thegiving of information
to the public of criminal and non-criminal activities.
4. Complainants’ Relation – includes apolice officer’s dealings with complaints, the techniques of
interviews, mannerof approach, and treatment of witnesses, as well as informers or assets.
5. Relation with Accused Persons – consistsof proper treatment of suspects, the recognition of
their constitutional rightsduring custodial investigation and the handling of accused persons
duringconfinement.
6. Relations with the State Prosecutors orFiscals –includes a peace officer’s duty to cooperate
during preliminary investigationsand gatherings of further evidence when so recovered by the fiscal.
7. Judicial Relations – consistsof peace officer’s duties towards the courts when appearing as
witnesses andthe honesty in testimony.
8. Governmental Relations – includeshis dealings with other non police agencies of the government
both national andlocal; in connection with official duties such as request for verification,coordination, or
whatever help are needed.
In orderto involve civil officials and the citizenry in the preservation of peace andorder and the promotion
of public safety, there shall be created an advisorycouncil in every level of the command of the PNP./
1. LocalCivil Officials
2. Representativesof the Judiciary
3. Representativesof the Industrial Sector
4. Representativesof the Commercial Sector
5. Representativesof the Agricultural Sector
6. Representativesof the Religious Sector
7. Representativesof the Youth Sector
8. Representativesof the Educational Sector
9. OtherCivic organizations
1. To advisethe commander on matters pertaining to peace and order and public safety.
2. Torecommend necessary measures to improve the law enforcement system and publicsafety
conditions
3. To assistthe PNP in community relations, and public information, and in enhancing orpromoting
citizen’s involvement in the preservation of peace and order, andpublic safety.
I. LEGALBASIS AND CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGISTS
Republic Act 6506 – An ActCreating the Board of Examiners for Criminologists in the Philippines andfor
Other Purposes.
SECTION 1.Creation and composition of the Board. – There shall becreated a Board of Examiners
for Criminologists in the Philippines to becomposed of a Chairman and two members possessing
thequalifications prescribed in Section 3 of this Act, who shall be appointed bythe President of the
Philippines upon the recommendation of the Commissioner ofthe Civil Service from among the registered
criminologists, if any, or fromknown criminologists of recognized standing in the profession, with the
consentof the Commission on Appointments: Provided, That the first Board of Examinersfor
Criminologists to be created pursuant to this Act shall be issued acertificate of registration as
Criminologists without prior examination inaccordance with the provisions of this Act.
SECTION 2.Powers vested in the Board – The Boardof Examiners for Criminologists is vested with
authority, conformably with theprovisions of this Act, to administer the provisions thereof, to issue,
suspendor revoke certificate of registration for the practice of criminology and toadminister oaths.
SECTION 3. Qualifications of Board Members – The Members of theBoard shall at the time of their
appointment be:
SECTION 4.Term of Office – Themembers of the Board shall hold office for a term of three
years after their appointments unless sooner removed for anyof the causes enumerated in section six of
this Act. In which case theirsuccessors shall be appointed immediately and duly qualified, who shall
servethe unexpired term only. Each member of the Board shall qualify by taking theproper oath of office
to entering upon the performance of his duties.
SECTION 5.Executive Officer and Secretary of theBoard – The Commissioner of Civil Service shall
be executiveofficer of the Board and shall conduct the examination given by the Board. TheSecretary of
all the Boards of Examiners for Criminologists. All records andminutes, of the deliberations of the Board,
including examination papers, shallbe kept by the Civil Service Commission under the direct custody of
theSecretary.
SECTION 6.Removal of Board Members – ThePresident of the Philippinesmay remove any member
of the Board for neglect of duty or incompetency or forunprofessional or dishonorable conduct, after
having given the member concernedan opportunity to defend himself, in the proper administrative
investigation.
SECTION 7.Compensation of Board Members – Themembers of the Board shall each receive
compensation of not exceeding ten pesosfor each applicant examined. All fees shall be received by the
officerdesignated by competent authority as collecting officer for the Civil ServiceCommission, and such
officer shall pay all authorized expenses of the Board,including the compensation provided for by this Act
for the members of theBoard.
SECTION 8.Annual Report – The Boardshall submit an annual report to the President of the
Philippinesafter the close of each fiscal year, giving detailed account of itsproceedings, during the year
and making such recommendation, as it may deemnecessary and proper.
SECTION 9.Inhibition Against the Practice ofCriminology – No person shall practice or offer to
practiceas a criminologist in the Philippineswithout having previously obtained a certificate of registration
from theBoard.
A. Criminologists from other countries called infor constitutions or for a special project related to
Criminology not requiringmore than five months residence in the Philippines in any twelve months
period;Provided, however, That suchcriminologists are legally qualified to practice as such in their own
State orcountry.
SECTION11. Examination required – Except asotherwise specifically allowed under this Act, all
applicants for registrationas criminologists shall be required to undergo an examination as provided inthis
Act.
SECTION12. Qualifications for examination – Any personapplying for examination and for a
certificate, shall, prior to admission toexamination, establish to the satisfaction of the Board that:
SECTION13. Holding of examination – The Boardis hereby authorized to conduct examination in the
Cities of Manila, Baguio,Legaspi, Cebu and Davao whenever practicable at least once a year and on
suchworking days and place as the Board may fix with the approval of theCommissioner of Civil Service.
Written or printed notice of examination shall bepublished in newspapers and copies mailed to each
candidate who has filed hisname and address with the Secretary of the Board, at least thirty days prior
tothe date of examinations.
SECTION14. Scope of examination – Theexamination shall be in writing and shall cover the following
subjects withtheir respective relative weights:
Subjects: RelativeWeights
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedures 20%
Law Enforcement Administration 20%
Correctional Administration 15%
Criminalistics 20%
Criminal Sociology 15%
Ethics and Human Relations 10%
However, the Board may change or revise anyof the above subjects in the event the Department of
Education shallcorrespondingly change the curriculum prescribed for the Degree of Bachelor ofScience of
Criminology.
In the conduct of the examination, the Board,in its discretion, may give practical, and field examinations
in each subject,as it may deem fit.
NOTES:
Under Resolution NO. 01, Series of 2010, EntitledPROMULGATION OF REVISED SYLLABI AND
TABLES OF SPECIFICATIONS FOR THE SUBJECTSIN THE BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATIONS
FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS, the scope of theexaminations for criminologists was revised as
follows:
Subjects Weight
CriminalJurisprudence, Procedure and Evidence 20%
LawEnforcement Administration 20%
CrimeDetection and Investigation 15%
Criminalistics 20%
Sociologyof Crimes and Ethics 15%
CorrectionalAdministration 10%
SECTION15. Rating in the examination – In orderto pass the examination, a candidate must obtain
a general average of at least seventy five percent withno rating below fifty percent in anyof the
subjects.
SECTION16. Report of ratings – The Boardshall within ninety days after the date of the completion of
the examination,report the ratings obtained by each candidate to the Commissioner of CivilService.
SECTION17. Oath taking – Allsuccessful candidates shall be required to take a professional oath
before theBoard or before any person authorized to administer oaths prior to enteringupon the practice
of criminology in the Philippines.
SECTION18. Issuance of certificate – Uponpayment of the registration fee as provided in this Act,
the Board shall issuea certificate of registration as criminologists to any applicant who, in theopinion of
the Board has satisfactorily met all the requirements specified inthis Act.
Allcertificates of registration issued under this Act shall show the full name ofthe registrant; shall have
serial numbers, shall be signed by all the membersof the Board, shall be attested by the Secretary of the
Board; Provided, That upon application fieldwithin six months after the approval of this Act, the Board
shall issue acertificate of registration without examination to persons who have beengraduated with the
Degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology (B.S. Crim.)and who have been in the practice of
criminology for at least ten years priorto the enacted of this Act.
SECTION19. Fee for examination and registration– Allapplicants for examination shall pay an
application fee of fifty pesos andevery applicant for registration shall pay a registration fee of thirty
pesos.
SECTION20. Revocation of Certificate ofRegistration – The Board may, after giving due notice
andhearing to the party concerned, revoke or suspend his certificate ofregistration if found guilty of
malpractice, incompetency, unprofessionalconduct, serious ignorance or gross negligence in the practice
of criminology.He shall be required to surrender his certificate of registration to the Board.The decision of
the Board, however, may be appealed within thirty days to thePresident of the Philippineswhose decision
shall be final.
A new certificate of registration to replacea certificate lost, destroyed or mutilated may be issued, subject
to the rulesof the Board and upon payment of a fee of thirty pesos.
SECTION22. Criminologists defined – Acriminologists is any person who is a graduate of the Degree
of Criminology,who has passed the examination for criminologists and is registered such by theBoard.
5. As counselor, expert, adviser, researcher inany government or private agency on any aspects of
criminal research or projectinvolving the causes of crime, juvenile delinquency, treatment of
offenders,police operations, law enforcement administration, scientific criminalinvestigation or public
welfare administration.
SECTION25. Penal provisions – Any personwho shall hold himself out as a criminologist without being
duly registered andcertified in accordance with the provisions of this Act, or who shall give anyfalse or
fraudulent evidence of any kind to the Board in connection with anyexamination, or who shall violate any
of the rules and regulations promulgatedby the Board in connection with the practice of Criminology in
the Philippinesshall upon conviction be sentenced to a fine of not less than two thousandpesos nor more
than ten thousand pesos or to suffer imprisonment for a periodof not less than one year but not
exceeding three years or both, at thediscretion of the court.
2
CANON OF ETHICS FORREGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST
b. As a Registered Criminologist, they shallstrive to improve their effectiveness by diligent study and
sincere attentionto improvement and welcome the opportunity to disseminate practical and
usefulinformation relating to matters accruing to the benefit of public safety andwelfare.
a. The first duty of a criminologist as upholderof the law is to know its bonds upon him, be aware of
limitations andprescriptions and recognize the system of government that gives to no man,group or
institution absolute power, He must ensure that he is a prime defenderof that system and as such must
never pervert its character.
b. They shall in the performance of their dutybe just, impartial and reasonable, never according anyone
more preferentialtreatment than another. They shall recognize the limitation of their authorityand at no
time use the power of their profession for personal advantage.
ARTICLE 3-Private Conduct
a. The Registered Criminologist must be mindfulof his special identification by the public as an upholder
of the law. He mustnever be lax in conduct or manner in private life, express disrespect for thelaw, nor
weak to gain special privilege that would be reflective upon theprofession. He must so conduct his private
life that the public will regard himas an example.
b. He must be strive to elevate the standing ofthe profession in the public mind, strengthen public
confidence in lawenforcement, develop and maintain complete support and cooperation of thepublic and
insure the effectiveness by encouraging complete cooperation ofmembers of their mutual benefit.
ARTICLE 4-Conduct Towards the Public
a. The Criminologists reminded at all times thatdignity, fairness and genuine willingness to help are
essential to their publicimage and their ability to do a good job.
b. The Criminologists, mindful of theirresponsibility to the whole community, deal with individuals of the
communityin a manner calculated to instill respect for its laws and her profession.
c. They shall be habitually courteous and accepttheir responsibility by being punctual and expeditions in
their engagements andduties. They shall regard their profession as a public trust and in thedischarge of
their duties, bear constantly in mind their obligation to servethe public efficiently and effectively.
a. The Criminologists shall strive to make thebest application of science to the solution of crime, by
diligent study andsincere attention to self-improvement, and in the fields of humanrelationships, strive for
effective leadership and public influence in mattersaffecting public safety.
b. He shall appreciate the importance andresponsibility of his profession as an honorable one rendering
valuable serviceto his community and country. They shall strive to attain certain technical andprofessional
conclusions capable of the most withering cross-examinationparticularly from fellow criminologist and
associate.
c. He shall avoid outside influence from overzealousand overanxious clients and his findings shall be
based solely and entirely onlogical and scientific deduction derived from a fair and impartial
examinationpersonally performed by him.
d. He must never lose sight of the importantfact that he should not only work for the identification,
apprehension andconviction of criminals, but must strive with greater if not equal vigor to theclear
innocent.
a. The Criminologists shall strive constantly toimprove professional standing of Criminology through
association with others inthe profession and keeping abreast with the fast moving world of science
andtechnology through constant research and development.
c. He shall cooperate with fellow criminologistsand public officials to the end that safety and general
welfare of the publicwill be assured, never permitting jealousies or personal differences toinfluence their
professional duties and obligations.
The universallyaccepted Code of Ethics for Law Enforcement shall be temporarily adoptedpending
formulation of a more specific code that embraces all aspects ofCriminology.
I will keep my private life insullied as anexample to all; maintain courageous calm in the face of danger,
scorn orridicule; develop self-restraint; and be constantly mindful of the welfare ofothers. Honest in
thought and deed in both my personal and official life, Iwill be exemplary in obeying the laws of the land
and the regulation of mydepartment. Whatever I see or hear of a confidential nature or that it isconfided
to me in me in my official capacity will be kept ever secret unlessrevelation is necessary in the
performance of my duty.
I will never act officiously or permitpersonal feelings, prejudices, animosities or friendships to influence
mydecisions. With no compromise for crime and with relentless prosecution ofcriminals, I will enforce the
law courteously and appropriately without fear orfavor, malice or ill will, never employing unnecessary
force or violence andnever accepting gratuities in return.
I recognize the badge of my office as asymbol of public faith, and I accept it as a public trust to be held
so longthat I am true to the police service. I will constantly strive to achieve theseobjectives, and ideals,
dedicating myself before God to my chosen profession….law enforcement.
ARTICLE 8-Affectivity
This Code of Ethicsfor Registered Criminologists shall be effective upon approval hereof by
theCommission and after fifteen (15) days following its publication in theOfficial Gazette (Published
October 12,1987).
1. Derived from the Greek word “ethos” which means characteristic way of acting.
a. Ethics c.Code of Ethics
b. Professional Ethics d. Ethical behavior
A
1. Set of moral code that every profession subscribes to promote a high standard of ethics in public
service, because practice of profession cannot be regulated entirely by legislation.
a. Police Ethics c.Professional Ethics
b. Ethical Standards d. All of the above
C
1. Practical science that treats the principles of human morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement.
a. Ethics c.Code of Ethics
b. Police Ethics d.Professional Standards
B
1. The basic mission for which the police exist is to________.
a. Prevent crime and disorder c. Arrest the criminal
b. Investigate crime d. All of the above
A
1. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon______________.
a. Willing cooperation of the public
b. People’s voluntary observance of the law
c. Public approval of police actions
d. Relationship with the public
C
1. The test of police efficiency is_________________________, not the visible evidence of police
action in dealing with it.
a. Arrest of a criminal c. Repression of criminal conduct
b. Prevention of crime d. Absence of crime and disorder
D
1. Ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
a. Prudence c.Fortitude
b. Temperance d.Justice
A
1. Courage to endure without yielding, except one.
a. Endurance c.Physical courage
b. Perseverance d.Perseverance
C
1. Mandated to establish a Code of conduct for the PNP members to foster their individual
efficiency, behavioral discipline and organizational effectiveness.
a. PNP Directorate for Plans
b. PNP Directorate for Human Resource andDoctrine Development
c. National Police Commission
d. Internal Affairs Service
C
1. The Code of Conduct for PNP members is necessary to________________.
a. Set the moral tone and norms of professionalconduct in the police service
b. Ensure that PNP members adhere to thefundamental tenets of police service
c. Punish erring police officers
d. Make sure that all police officers liveaccording to the PNP’s Code of Ethics
A
1. When does the PNP’s Ethics Day is celebrated?
a. July 23 c.March 12
b. January 7 d.May 19
B
1. It was culled from the PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards which
is anchored on the divine and moral precepts, the constitution, RPC, Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices
Law, Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees and other special laws.
a. PNP Ethical Doctrine c. PNP Code of Ethics
b. PNP Ethical Standards d. PNP Professional Ethics
A
1. The Oath of commitment to the PNP Ethical Doctrine is done by the PNP Members on the
following occasion, except one-
a. Upon entry to the police service c. Upon promotion to the next higher rank
b. Upon transfer from one office to another d. Upon assumption of office/position
B
1. PNP COPCES is subject to review for possible revision every______.
a. 3 years c.5 years
b. 10 years d.4 years
C
1. PNP members are duty bound to uphold the ethical doctrine and live upon the customs and
traditions of the organization. In case of conflict in the practice of the customs and traditions and the
performance of duties, which shall prevail?
a. Performance of duties c. Obedience to superior order
b. Practice of customs and traditions d. Law
A
1. Violation of the PNP Ethical Doctrine shall be penalized under, except.
a. RPC, RA 6713 and other Special Laws
b. Rules and Regulations promulgated by theNAPOLCOM
c. Articles of War
d. CSC Rules and Regulations
C
1. PNP Core Values, except.
a. Love of God, respect for authority andselfless love and service for people
b. Sanctity of marriage and family life
c. Obedience to superior officer and supremacyof the law
d. Responsible dominion and stewardship overmaterial things and truthfulness
C
1. An embodiment of the core values and principles which a police officer is sworn to uphold to win
the hearts and minds of the people, which is the ultimate objective of police community relations.
a. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and EthicalStandards
b. PNP Police Ethics Manual
c. Code of Conduct for Government Officials andEmployees
d. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
A
1. The police should realize that the test of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and
disorder, not the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with them. One of the following
supports the preceding statement.
a. The police must concentrate more on crimeprevention effort
b. The police must work further to improve itscrime solution efficiency
c. The police must always observe maximumtolerance in dealing with civil disturbance
d. The police must at all times respect humanrights
A
1. The reputation of any organization affects the esprit de’ corps, morale and welfare of the
members and sense of pride to the organization. Thus, all PNP members should act in a manner that
would give best impression to the organization by living to its core values to enhance its-
a. Integrity c.Efficiency
b. Credibility d.Image
D
1. In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity in the service, PNP members must
have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle
of_______________.
a. Honesty c.Delicadeza
b. Moral courage d. Palabra de honor
C
1. The PNP promotes to maintain modest and yet dignified life for its members. They are required
to be free from greed, corruption and exploitation.
a. PoliceLifestyle c.Police Integrity
b. PoliceLife d.Police Fairness
A
1. PNP members are restraint to seek political influence on matters pertaining to assignment,
award, training and promotion.
a. Influence peddling c. Political patronage
b. Political corruption d. Politicking
C
1. Police_________________ is the performance of duties with integrity, intelligence and
competence in the application of specialized skills and technical knowledge with excellence and
expertise.
a. Professionalism c. Efficiency
b. Competence d.Effectiveness
A
1. PNP members’ commitment to democratic way of life, valuing and maintaining the principle of
accountability, upholding the Constitution and loyalty to the country.
a. Love of Country c. Commitment to Democracy
b. Loyalty to the Flag d. Commitment to the Constitution
C
1. Police Officers should use government properties and resources effectively, honestly and
efficiently.
a. Commitment to the government c. Commitment to publicinterest
b. Commitment to ethical standards d. Commitment to public duty
C
1. PSI Jocelyn Cruz was assigned as head of the Violence Against Women and Children Division of
the Manila Police District. The Mayor of Manila facilitated her designation in that office. One day a
Barangay Chairman known to be a critic of the city mayor went to her office to seek police assistance
which she immediately attended to. What police professional conduct did Cruz exercised?
a. Political neutrality c. Non-partisanship
b. Respect for human rights d. Non-politicalpatronage
C
1. SPOIV Antonio Torres was elected twice as president of homeowners association in the barangay
where he resides. As homeowners association president, he is credited for maintaining order in the
community. His involvement in this civic organization has never prejudice his official duties as member
of the PNP. Torres exercise-
a. Social awareness c. Civic duties
b. Social responsibility d. Police communityrelations
C
1. Ethical Doctrine requires PNP members to perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness,
efficiency, enthusiasm, determination and manifest concern for public welfare. They are refrain to
engage in any activity, which would be in conflict with their duties as public servants.
a. Dedication to the police service c. Work ethics
b. Devotion to duty d. Hard work
B
1. Former PNP Chief DG Nicanor Bartolome required all PNP personnel to plant trees to help in the
development and conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and posterity. This is in
compliance with the PNP Professional Conduct of-
a. Conservation of environment
b. Conservation of natural resources
c. Environmental protection
d. Maintenance of ecological balance
B
1. A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty and responsibility that unites a disciplined group of
people.
a. Unity c.Solidarity
b. Camaraderie d.Esprit de’ corps
D
1. Logical procedures in accomplishing tasks to avoid wastage of time money and effort.
a. Orderliness c.Effectiveness
b. Efficiency d.Discipline
A
1. Taking of legitimate means to achieve the goal despite of internal and external difficulties that
may be faced which might weaken the resolve in the course of time.
a. Prudence c.Patience
b. Diligence d.Perseverance
D
1. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees.
a. RA 6713 c.PD 46
b. RA 7080 d.RA 3019
A
1. Higher level of professional police service is on demand in view of___________.
a. Higher pay rate due to salary standardization
b. Changing economic environment
c. Increasing number of police applicants
d. Changing role of the police
D
1. The police must generate citizens’ support and involvement in the maintenance of peace and
order because the police does not operate in a__________.
a. Isolation c.selected location
b. Vacuum d.alone
B
1. When a police officer is taught how to deal with people in a warm and friendly manner, he is
trained in________________.
a. Media relations c. Public relations
b. Community relation d. Human relations
D
1. Ideas, actions, habits or experiences that contribute to the promotion of human life.
a. Moral virtues c.Values
b. Virtues d.Moral values
C
1. Person’s choice of values.
a. Personality c.Reputation
b. Character d.Behavior
B
1. Formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special
occasions.
a. Ceremony c.Customs
b. Traditions d.Social Decorum
A
1. A symbol of public faith and public trust.
a. Police uniform c. Police logo
b. Philippine flag d. Police badge
D
1. Love of country is manifested with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
Constitution.
a. Nationalism c.Patriotism
b. Duty d.Loyalty
C
1. Manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders, thorough spontaneous actions towards
attainment of organizational objectives guided by moral, ethical and legal norms.
a. Respect for authority c. Gentlemanliness
b. Discipline d.Camaraderie
B
1. A set of norms and standards practiced by the PNP members during social activities and other
functions.
a. Social Decorum c. Discipline
b. Customs d.Social Etiquette
A
1. The reciprocal attitudes between the police and the community.
c. Police public relations c. Police communityrelations
d. Human relations d. Community relations
C
1. Aspects of police community relations except-
a. Community involvement c. Community service
b. Community participation d. Public relations
B
1. Not among the activities of police community relations
a. Police Media Relations
b. Public relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
c. Civic Assistance and Development
d. Community Organization and Mobilization
A
1. PCRG is the office in the PNP which tasks to win the trust, confidence and support of the people
in the framework of____________________________.
a. Do good and tell the people about it
b. Be good and the people will like it
c. Tell the people of the good intention of thepolice
d. Involve the people in police work
A
1. What is the chief cornerstone of an effective police community relation program?
a. The individual police officer c.Law violators
b. The people in the community d. Complainants
A
1. Police community relations is designed to____________________.
a. Bring citizens’ support to criminal justicecomponents, remove apathy, and cause total community
involvement
b. Encourage police officers to project betterimage
c. Promote a set of examples to citizens
d. Win the cooperation of the people
A
MULTIPLECHOICE
Direction:Choosethe letter of the best answer.
1. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values and
maintain the principle of_______.
a. Equality of the service c. Policelifestyle
b. Public accountability d. Socialawareness
1. It greatly enhance personnel professionalism process with regards to procurement, training,
promotion, assignment, placement, awards and retirement.
a. Basic Management c.Management leadership
b. Career Pattern d.Career management
1. Member of the PNP shall serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty, and
efficiency with due respect to human rights and dignity as hallmark of a __________.
a. Peace loving society c.Liberated society
b. Democratic society d. Friendly society
1. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on one hand and in the performance
of duties on the other, one that shall prevail is ________.
a. Customs c.Traditions
b. Performance of Duties d. Writtenorders
1. All PNP members in the performance of their duties shall abide by this _________.
a. Code of Conduct c.Ethical Doctrine
b. Behavioral Conduct d.Gentlemanliness
1. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of _______.
a. Police visibility c.Personal moral
b. Crime and disorder d. Adherence to the law
1. The use if which diminishes proportionality in achieving law enforcement objectives.
a. Dialogue c.Debate
b. Agreement d.Physical Compulsion
1. Application of which in the police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and maintain
respect of the profession.
a. Applied principles c. Fundamental principles
b. Basic Principles d. Approved principles
1. Any other day suitable for the occasion, where PNP members gather together at their PNP club
for a light hearted jesting or airing minor gripes.
a. Happy Hours c.Lunch of time hours
b. Off hours b.After wok hours
1. It is taboo in the uniform service.
a. Flat stomach c.Bulging stomach
b. Thin Stomach d.Regular stomach
1. Usual greeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing person entitled to
_______.
a. Salute c.Verbal Greeting
b. Shaking Hands d.Bowling of heads
1. Established usage of social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the force of the
law.
a. Authority c.Behavior
b. Customs d.Traits
1. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages headed down from generation to generation.
a. Habits c.Tradition
b. Manners d.Character
1. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect.
a. Politeness c.Loyalty
b. Honesty d.Courtesy
1. A set of norms and Standards and practice by members during social and other functions.
a. Social Decorum c.Character traits
b. Personality development d. Human Behavior
1. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. Love of women c.Love of God
b. Selfless love of people d. Love of power
1. Which of the following is prohibited from engaging in strikes, rallies, demonstrations and other
similar concerted activities?
a. Member of the first family
b. Family member of the officers of the PNP
c. Thirddegree of consanguinity relatives of the officers of the PNP
d. Membersand officers of the PNP
1. The new PNP ethical doctrine is substantially based on ________.
a. PNP code of ethics
b. PNP Fundamental Doctrine and Code of ProfessionalConduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP code of conduct
d. R.A. 6713
1. Which of the following is the main purpose of the PNP ethical Doctrine?
a. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNPmembers
b. Established uniform behavior among PNPpersonal
c. Prescribe conduct that PNP organic andnon-organic member be observed
d. Provide proper and standard behavior for PNPmembers and sanction on case of violation.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine applies to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the PNP.
a. True c.Either true or false
b. False d.Partially false
1. Which of the following occasions should the PP recited.
a. Flag Raising and Flag Retreat ceremonies,jointly with the Panunumpa sa Watawat.
b. PNP training/course opening and closingceremonies.
c. Seminar on moral values ceremonies and otherceremonies.
d. All of the above.
1. Rigid application of fundamental principles in police work is necessary to avoid human rights
violation and maintain respect of the profession.
a. True c. Partially true
b. False d. partially false
1. Which of the following is not false as far as fundamental principles of police work are concern?
a. Fulfillment of police functions is notdepended upon community approval because the latter is just a
passivebeneficiary of police service.
b. Cooperation and assistance of communitydiminishes proportionately the need of the use of physical
force and compulsionin achieving law enforcement.
c. Police officers are members of a regimentedorganization who are paid to render public services due
upon every citizen.
d. The test of police efficiency is the visibleevidence of law enforcement action in dealing crime and
disorder.
1. The PNP ethical doctrine recognized that “The people are the peace maker, the police are the
peace keeper, and the local government is the peace observer.” If he goes beyond and above of his
role, he must observe the three (3) C’s in internal and external relations, except one. Which one?
a. Consult c. Contribute
b. Coordinate d. Cooperate
1. The oath of commitment to the ethical doctrine by all members of the PNP upon ________.
a. Entry into the PNP c. Assumption ofoffice/position
b. Promotion to the net higher rank d. All of the above
1. How does the PNP members, uniformed or non-uniformed adhere to PNP ethical doctrine?
a. By Police Officers Pledge c. By Pledge of Covenant
b. By Police officers Creed d. all of theabove
1. Recognized as ever “Magnificent Principle” of police service.
a. Love of God c.Respect the people
b. Honor the Government d. All of the Above
1. Assume that you are a criminologist member of the PNP. How can you sick and preserve public
favor?
a. By soliciting public opinion
b. By effective public relation program
c. By constant demonstration of impartiality byreading offering of individual service and congeniality.
d. All of the above
1. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge f allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
constitution.
a. Patriotism c. loyalty
b. Nationalism d. Valor
1. Jhon Dean Ramos, a newly appointed police Inspector constantly speak and act with
professionalism, gaining him the admiration of his subordinates, he likewise follow geed deeds and
work ethics of his superior Sr/Insp. Eugene Velarde. Both officers stand on what basic issues?
a. PNP image c. Setting example
b. Delicadeza d. Police lifestyle
1. Known as an Act Creating the Board Examiners for Criminologists.
1. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6506
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 4864
2. What law that regulated the Criminology profession in the Philippines?
1. R.A. 4864 c. R.A. 8551
2. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 6506
3. What is the term of office of the Members of the Board of Criminology?
1. 3 years c, 6 years
2. 4 years d. 2 years
4. In order to pass the Licensure Examinations for Criminologists one must--
1. Obtain a general weighted average of 75%
2. Obtain a general weighted average of 80%
3. Obtain a general weighted average of 70%
4. Obtain a general average of 75% with no rating below 50% in any subject
5. A Criminologist is any person who?
1. Is a graduate of the degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for
Criminologist
2. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the Board Examination for
Criminologists and is registered by the Board
3. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the board and finished his Master of
Science in Criminology
4. All of the above
6. Which of the following is not a practice of Criminology?
1. As a teacher/professor of Criminology
2. As a technician in the Crime Laboratory
3. As a law enforcement officer
4. As a business adviser
7. When does R.A. 6506 was approved?
1. July 1, 1972 c. October 12, 1987
2. October 15, 1998 d. None of the above
8. How can a Criminologist improve his effectiveness in the exercise of his profession?
1. By faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
2. By diligent study and disseminating knowledge that will accrue to the benefit of the
public
3. By accepting as sacred obligation to support the Constitution
4. None of the above
9. Known as Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologists
1. Code of Ethics for Registered Criminologist
2. Ethics for Criminology Professional
3. Law Enforcement Ethics
4. P.N.P. Code of Ethics
10. What is the primary responsibility of Registered Criminologist?
1. Bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his profession
2. Support the Constitution of the Philippines
3. Defend the principles of liberty
4. All of the above
11. Professional capacities in which Criminologist are governed by the Canon of Ethics
1. Private and Public Conduct
2. Conduct toward the Profession
3. Conduct towards fellow criminologist
4. All of the above
12. SPOI Jalandoni is known to have two families- one is in the Regional Police Office where he is
assigned as a CIDG operative and the other is in Manila where is maintaining a permanent abode.
Which of the following statement applies to him in regard to COPCES for police officer?
1. SPO1 Jalandoni is immoral
2. SPO1 Jalandoni does not practice the value of respect to woman and sanctity of marriage
3. SPO1 Jalandoni violated the police ethics
4. SPO1 Jalandoni does not follow the police professional conduct
13. PSI Mercado’s word is his bond, he stand by it and committed himself to uphold it. What
police tradition does inspector Mercado upholds?
1. Delicadeza c. Word of Honor
2. Camaraderie d. Honor Code
14. January is declared to be Police Community Relations Month under Proclamation Number-
1. 783 c. 738
2. 387 d. 873
15. A police officer who sacrificed his life and limb for the sake of his countrymen whom he pledged
to serve lives the tradition of________ among Filipino Law enforcers.
1. Physical courage c. Valor
2. Bravery d. Courage
16. Manifested by the PNP members’ deep commitment and concern to one another. This police
tradition binds spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the organization which is extended
to the people the police serves.
1. Loyalty c. Esprit de corps
2. Camaraderie d. Tradition
17. One of which is not a police social decorum. Which one?
1. Proper attire and table manners c. Marching
2. Social graces and appearance d. Manner of Walking
18. PSSupt Pinaglabanan is due to relinquish his position as Provincial Director of Laguna in favor of
PSupt Castor. What police customs on ceremony shall be observed?
1. Honor ceremony c. Transfer of position ceremony
2. Turn-over ceremony d. Farewell to the troops ceremony
19. What rank in the PNP is entitled to have an honor ceremony during arrival or departure from
visits from any police office?
1. P/SSupt c. Brigadier General
2. P/CSupt d. NCR Director
20. PCSupt Pedro Ruiz is an incumbent Regional Director of Region IV-A covering CALABARZON. His
Police Regional Office is visited by another Regional Director and the members of his group. What
customs on courtesy should Ruiz be observed?
1. Courtesy calls c. RHIP
2. Courtesy of the post d. entrance call
21. SPOIII Debayan refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill-refute and faithful to his legal
spouse. Debayan satisfies the ethical standard of-
1. Integrity c. Humility
2. Loyalty d. Morality
22. POIII Lihis visibly tucked his PNP issued and personal firearms in his waist and act like a cowboy
in the 19th Century Texas. By his words, he assumes that he is a master of the people; performs his
duties with arrogance, feeling that he invincible and always desires applause and publicity of his
accomplishments. Lihis does not practice-
1. Perseverance c. Integrity
2. Humility d. Humbleness
23. A moral courage to sacrifice self-interest.
1. Esprit de corps c. Valor
2. Camaraderie d. Delicadeza
24. Improving police community relations is a matter of concern to-
1. PCO c. All members of the police force
2. PNCO d. community leaders
25. Requirements for a good community relations, except-
1. Full knowledge of the job
2. Sound police ethics
3. Kindness, generosity and willingness to follow the will and whims of the people
4. Deep conviction in the nobility of work.
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
HUMANDEVELOPMENT
A. Definition
Development–a progressive series of changes that occur as a result of maturation andexperience
B. TheDevelopmental Changes
Thegoal of developmental changes is to enable people to adapt to the environmentin which they live;
achieve through self realization or as it sometimes calledself actualization. Because selfrealization plays
an important role in mental health, people who make goodpersonal and social adjustments must have
opportunities to express theirinterests and desires in ways that give them satisfaction but at the same
time,conform to the accepted standards. Lack of these opportunities will result infrustrations and
generally negative attitudes toward people and toward life ingeneral.
E. TheDevelopmental Tasks
Purposes
1. Servesas guidelines that enable individuals to know what society expects of them atgiven ages.
2. Itmotivates individuals to do what the social group expects them to do at certainages during their
lives
3. Itshow individuals what lies ahead and what they will be expected to do when theyreach their next
stage development.
Aidsto Mastery
1. Anormal or accelerated developmental level
2. Opportunitiesto learn the developmental tasks and guidance in mastering them
3. Motivation
4. Goodhealth and the absence
5. Ahigh level of intelligence
6. creativity
HUMAN BEHAVIOR
A. Definition
HumanBehavior- voluntary or involuntary attitude of a person adopts tofit society’s
idea of rightand wrong.
1. Physical Causes
Refers to natural causes, like typhoon, earthquake, fire, flood, storm, etc
2. Social Conflicts
Restrictions of rules in the home, school and community
3. Economic Conflict
Result from one’s inability to acquire material things because of poverty, or other financial obligation
1. Extraversion Frequently seek stimulation, excitement Get them in trouble greatest role
Andthrills incrime and delinquency
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2. Neuroticism Intensely react to stress, generallymoody, Enhance habits and influence the
touchy, sensitive toslights and anxious or individual tobehave anti-socially
nervous.
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ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR
A. Definitions
Abnormal Behavior is abehavior that fails to meet the characteristics of a normal person such as:
freeexpression of personality; adequate security feeling; efficient contact withreality; adaptability to
group norms; emotional maturity; adequate selfknowledge; and Integrated and consistent personality.
1. PERSONALITYDISORDER
It originates duringearly development process leading to maladaptive behavior.
Classification of Personality Disorder
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<img>Classification Characteristics
1. Passive-Aggressive Passive dependent aggressivedue to overindulgence.
2. Hysterical personality disorder Easilyexcitable emotional instability, dramatically
attention getting, immature, with tendencyto sexualize
<img> contacts with opposite sex.
3. Compulsive Personality Disorder Excessive concern forconformity, rigid, maybe intelligent
<img> but trait of characterexplains his undoing.
4. Paranoid Personality Hypersensitive unwarrantedsuspicion, jealousy, envy,
feelings of excessive importance
2. NEUROSES
Neurosesor psychoneuroses are behavioral disorder brought about by emotional
tensionresulting from frustration, conflicts, repression or insecurity. Theycompromise with reality by
developing imaginary ailments, phobias, obsessions, compulsion, anxiety ordepression.
1. Anxiety Reactions
Principallymanifested in diffused and consciously experience feelings of anxiety
andapprehension for which there seem to be no specific basis in reality.
2. Hysteria
Manifested byexperiencing disabilities which include paralysis of the limbs, intenseaches and
pains, deafness, blindness, loss of voice, continuous vomiting, heador hand tremors without any
pathological basis.
Forms of Hysteria
2.1 Amnesia- adisorder in which the individual cannot recall his or her name and remembers little or
nothing about the past.
Typesof Amnesia
a) Anterograde-the inability to retain information which has just been seen or read.
b) Retrograde-the inability to recall any event which took place during certain period oftime.
c) Localized-the inability to recall events which are related to a particular situation.
2.2 Fugue- an amnesia statewhere one wonders away from his or her home or usual surroundings and
whenawareness set in, there is no recollection as to how he or she came to bethere.
2.3 Multiple Personality- adramatic form of Hysteria where the patient develops two or more
separated andvery different personalities.
2.4 Somnambulism- adreamlike state where the person walks about and carries on certain
activitieswhich are not remembered later.
3. Psychastenia
A psychoneurotic conditionaccompanied by a vast range of mental and emotional symptoms
which cannot becontrolled. The person is fear-ridden by unreasonable dreads or phobias,
obsessionsand compulsion. Other symptoms of Psychastenia are unreasonable elation,constant
depression or over inhibition.
Formsof Psychastenia
Characteristics of Phobia
a) Reasons for the fear do not make sense.
b) The fear paralyzes instead of enhances theability to deal with the problem.
c) The fear seems to be caused by the threat ofa discharge of self destructive aggressions.
SomeExamples of Phobias
a) Achluphobia or nyctophobia- fear of dark
b) Acrophobia- fear of high places
c) Aerophobia- fear of flying
d) Agoraphobia- fear of open spaces
e) Ailurophobia- fear of cats
f) Anglophobia- fear of pain
g) Amaxophobia- fear of vehicles and driving
h) Anthophobia- fear of flowers
i) Antrophobia- fear of people
j) Aquaphobia- fear of water
k) Arachnophobia- fear of spiders
l) Astraphobia- fear of thunder, lightning orstorms
m) Cheimophobia- fear of cold
n) Claustrophobia- fear of closed places
o) Gynophobia- fear of dogs
p) Dipsophobia- fear of drinking
q) Ecophobia or Oikophobia - fear of home
r) Electrophobia- fear of electricity
s) Erythrophobia- fear of blushing
t) Gamophobia-fear of marriage
u) Hematophobia- fear of blood
v) Hydrophobia- fear of water
w) Ideaphobia- fear of thoughts
x) Ochlophobia- fear of crowds
y) Ophidiophobia- fear of snakes
z) Ornithophobia- fear of birds
aa) Pathophobia- fear of disease
bb) Phobophobia- fear of developing a phobia
cc) Rypophobia- fear of dirt
dd) Sitophobia- fear of eating
ee) Taphophobia- fear of being buried alive
ff) Thermophobia- fear of heat
gg) Xenophobia- fear of strangers
3.2 Obsession- anidea or series of ideas which recur so frequently that it interferes withnormal
thinking.
3.3 Compulsion- anirresistible tendency to perform an act or ritual which the individual feels
tocompelled to carry out even though it it recognized as irrational- he or she mustdo so in order to
reduce the tension.
Examples of Compulsion
1. Arithmomania- the impulse to count everything.
2. Dipsomania-the impulse to drink liquor
3. Homicidalmania- the impulse to kill
4. Kleptomania-the impulse to steal
5. Megalomania-the impulse for fame or power
6. Pyromania-the impulse to set things on fire
7. Suicidalmania- the impulse to take one’s life
4. Traumatic Neuroses
Itis manifested in a situation where the individual fears for his or her safety.
5. Operational Fatigue
Otherwise known as war neuroses, itis manifested in response to a battle environment.
3.PSYCHOSES
Seriousmental illness where behavior is unpredictable. Psychotic persons have a whollyunrealistic
interpretation of the self and the life around them. Their ego haslost control over the personality.
Theyhave great mood swings- extreme depression to extreme exaltation. They are quitand docile at one
moment and hyperactive, even violent, the next. They aresocially inept.
Classification of Psychoses
1. Organic/Somatogenic
Stemfrom a wide variety of causes, but damage or injury to the brain or other partsof the central
nervous system is always involved.
2. FunctionalPsychosis
Aserious mental disorder involving the total personality with no observable tissue damage.
Having no organic basis, theseailments are believed to result from years of living under emotional stress.
4.ANTI-SOCIAL PERSONALITY
Thisis a mentally- disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon
whichsociety is based.
Characteristics of Anti-Personality
a) A classic manipulator or con artist.
b) One of the most significant characteristicsof this personality is the absence of conscience or any
guilt feeling.
c) The person has not incorporate the moralvalues of society into his life.
d) He is often a glib and convincing speaker andpresents himself extremely well.
e) The anti-social personality is selfish andstrives for physical pleasure.
f) Most of his pursuits revolves aroundmanipulating people to acquire personal gains.
g) He is often impulsive and demands immediatelysatisfaction.
h) He is unable to learn from past experiences.
He is also a chronic liar
Characteristics of Anti-Personality
4.ANTI-SOCIALPERSONALITY
Thisis a mentally- disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon
whichsociety is based.
Characteristics of Anti-Personality
a) A classic manipulator or con artist.
b) One of the most significant characteristicsof this personality is the absence of conscience or any
guilt feeling.
c) The person has not incorporate the moralvalues of society into his life.
d) He is often a glib and convincing speaker andpresents himself extremely well.
e) The anti-social personality is selfish andstrives for physical pleasure.
f) Most of his pursuits revolves aroundmanipulating people to acquire personal gains.
g) He is often impulsive and demands immediatelysatisfaction.
h) He is unable to learn from past experiences.
i) He is also a chronic liar
SEXUAL DEVIANCY
A. Definitions
Sexuality- behaviorassociated with relation between sexes and reproductive organ.
Normal Sexuality- sexualcompletion that leads to mature and adjusted individual capable of
enteringrelationships with a member of the opposite sex which are physically andmentally stable and
satisfying heterosexual.
Abnormal Sexuality/ Sexual Deviancy- sexual behavior which seek stimulation
and gratificationby means other than heterosexual.
B. Classification of SexualAbnormalities
Types Characteristics
1. Satyriasis Excessive sexualdesire of men to intercourse
2. Nymphomania Strongsexual feeling of a woman
3. Sexual Anesthesia Absence of sexual desire orarousal during
sexual act in women
4. Dyspareunia Painful sexual actin women
5. Vaginisimus Painfulspasm of the vagina during sexual act
6. Old Age Weakening ofsexual feeling in the elderly
Types Characteristics
1. Oralism( Irrumation) The use of mouth as a way of
sexualgratification such as Fellatio, Cunnilingus,Anilingus
2. Sado- Masochism Pain o cruel acts as afactor for gratification
(Algolagnia) suchas: sadism and masochism
3. Fetishism A form of sexual perversion where in the
realor fantasized presence ofan object or
bodily part is necessary for sexual stimulation
or gratification.
Ex. Anatomic, Clothing, Necrophilia, Odor,etc.
Types Characteristics
1. Sodomy Sexualact through the anus of another
human being
2. Uranism Sexualgratification is attached by
fingering, fondling the breast,licking parts of the body, etc.
3. Frottage Afrom of sexual gratification characterized by
the compulsivedesire of a person to rub his
sexual organ against some parts of the body of another
4. Pantialism Aform of sexual deviation wherein a person
has special affinity tocertain parts of the female body
5. As to Visual Stimulus
Types Characteristics
1.Voyeurism A form of sexualperversion characterized by
a compulsionto peep to see a person
undress or performother activities
2. Mixoscopia Sexualperversion wherein sexual pleasure is
(Scoptophilia ) attached by watching a couple undress or during
Theirsex intimacies
6.As to Number
Types Characteristics
1.Froilism Aform of sexual perversion in which
three (3)persons are participating in the
sexual orgies
(Suixante-neve)
2.Pluralism Aform of sexual deviation in which a group
of personparticipate in the sexual orgies
(sexual festival)
Types Characteristics
1. Corpolalia A formof sexual deviation characterized by
the needto use obscene language to obtain
orgies
2. Don Juanism Itdescribes a form of sexual
deviation characterizedby
promiscuity and making seductionof
many women as part of his career
3. Indecent Exposure The willful exposure in public places ofone’s
(Exhibitionism) genitalorgan in the presence of other person’s
Usuallyof the opposite sex
1. Anxiety Reassurance
2. Depressed Putself on the shoes of the sufferer; place in the hospital;
Word of caution; alert of possiblesuicide
3. Obsessive-Compulsive Understand that sufferer isdisturbed and not crazy;
refer to appropriate facility
4. Phobia Supportive intervention
5. Psychoses Displayof guns, force and restraints should be avoided
Unlessthere is a manifestation of danger tolife and
send thepsychotic to the hospital. If he desists, be firm.
I. INTRODUCTION
A. Definitions
1. Crisis- Came from the GREEK word CRISIS, which means to SEPARATE. Itis a turning point in
the progress of an affair or a series of events.
2. Emergency- Came from the LATIN word EMERGENTIA, which meansDIPPING; PLUNGING. It
is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling forimmediate action.
3. Crisis Management- An expert handling of a crisis or emergencyto reduce or eliminate danger or
damage, or the like, especially on the part ofthe government.
B. Emergency, Crisis and Disaster Distinguished
If the situationis still controlled and the response given is for the purpose of containing
thesituation from getting out of control then it is just an EMERGENCY. If the situationis already beyond
normal control what is happening is already a CRISIS. If the effects ofthe crises can no longer be
controlled even by its author, it is now a DISASTER.
1. Incident Management- Refers to anact containing the situation within certain level mostly by law
enforcementinterventions.
2. Consequence Management- An act focused on mitigation of adverse effects that may be
brought aboutby the incident by utilizing non-law enforcement elements such as medical andfire services.
D. Purpose of CrisisManagement
E. Objectives of CrisesManagement
1. Resolved without further incident
2. Safety of all participants
3. Apprehension of all participants
4. Accomplish the task within the framework of currentcommunity standards.
F. Theory of CrisesManagement
1. Contain and Negotiate
2. Protect the innocent from harm
3. Allow passage of time so that the perpetrators canbe reasoned with through negotiation
4. Allow the passage of time so that the response forcecan evaluate the situation gather
information, explore alternatives andformulate a plan of action
G. Musts in CrisesManagement
1. Rely on continuous flow of information from allsources
2. Press perpetrators to abandon their position
3. Receive, analyze and disseminate all information
4. Prepare for a rapidly escalating series of events
a. Man-Made Crises/Emergencies
1. Civil Disturbance
1.1 Labor strikes /demonstration
1.2 Riots
1.3 Anarchy
1.4 Welga ng Bayan
2 Revolt
2.1 Mutiny
2.2 Insurrection
2.3 Coup d' etat
3 Revolution
4 Border Incident
5 War
5.1 Conventional
5.2 Nuclear
6 Kidnapping
7 Hijacking
7.1 Air
7.2 Sea
7.3 Land
8 Hostage-taking
9 Terrorists Activities
10 Attacks /Raids on government installations/facilities & vitalfacilities
b. Natural Crises/Emergencies
1. Fire
2. Marine/Air Disaster
3. Structural Collapse
4. Hazardous Spills
5. Utilities Failure (Power, Water, telephone)
6. Nuclear Accidents
7. Food Scarcity/ Famine
8. Fuel Shortage
9. Pestilence/Epidemic
10. Floods
11. Volcanic Eruption
12. Earthquake
13. Tidal Wave
14. Typhoons
15. Drought
a. Proactive Phase
1. Prediction
2. Prevention
3. Preparation
b. Reactive Phase
4. Performance (implementation and Contingency Plan)
a. Initial Action
b. Action (Negotiation or Tactical Action Intervention)
c. Post Action
1. Section 6, ArticleXV, 1987 Constitution- The State shall establish andmaintain one police
force, which shall be national in scope and civilian incharacter, to be administered and controlled by a
National Police Commission.The authority of local executives over the police units in their jurisdictionshall
be provided by law.
2. Section 444 and 445,R.A. 7160 (Local Government Code)
The mayor shall act as the deputized representativeof the National Police Commission, formulate the
peace and order plan of theCity or Municipality, and upon its approval, implement the same; and as
such,exercise general and operational control and supervision over the local policeforcers in the city or
municipality.
4. Executive Order No.309 s. 1987 and Executive No. 366 s. 1996 - CreatingNational Peace
and order Council, Local Peace and order Council and BarangayPeace and Order Committees respectively.
5. Memorandum Order No.21 - The government shall exhaust all peaceful meansin seeking a
resolution to a crisis to minimize, if not, prevent the loss oflife and destruction of property. If all peaceful
means are exhausted, thegovernment shall act promptly, decisively, and effectively, choosing from
thewhole range of police and military actions appropriate to the circumstance, orotherwise known as the
'final option".
6. PNP Manual on Crisismanagement s. 1996
II. HOSTAGE SITUATION
A. Hostage SituationDefined
A hostage situation is aset of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a
personcaptive with the use of force and threat of violence while the law enforcementofficers are in close
contact with the suspect and his captive.
B. Motives in HostageTaking
1. In political terrorism, reasons include showing thepublic that the government is unable to protect
its own citizens.
2. Hostage taking guarantees immediate media coverage,and after repeated hostage incidents, it is
the hope of the hostage takers thatthe government might overreact and become excessively restrictive
with its owncitizen, thus causing civil discontent and a grassroots movement to overthrowthe
government.
3. Warring nations seek peace after exchange ofhostages a guarantee of reciprocity
4. In urban guerrilla warfare, hostages are taken withlittle regard for law and order.
5. Law enforcement officers will most likely encounterhostage incidents that u\involve either criminal
or the mentally-disturbed.
6. A husband or wife may take a child hostage incustody battles.
7. A mentally disturbed person may take hostage inorder to right what he believed to be wrong.
8. Whatever the initial reason for hostage taking it isclear that the motive for holding hostages may
changes.
C. Categories ofHostage-Taker
1. Persons in Crisis - People who take hostages during a period of prolonged frustration,despair and
problems.
2. Psychotics - Mentally-ill people who take hostage during a period of psychiatricdisturbance.
3. Common Criminals - People who take hostages for personal, rather than ideological reason.
4. Prisoner - People who take hostages because of dissatisfaction and discontentregarding their living
condition in prison.
5. Political Terrorist - Ideologically-inspired individuals or groups of people who takehostages
because of political and ideological beliefs.
D. Priorities in HostageSituation
1. Preservation of Life
2. Apprehend hostage taker
3. To successfully negotiate; there must be need to live on the part of thehostage taker and a threat
of force by the authorities.
2. Communication
2.1 By the use of telephone
2.2 By written notes
2.3 By the use of loudspeaker
2.4 By the use of bullhorn
2.5 By the use of megaphone
4. Assault Alternative
4.1 When the victims are in imminent danger of injury
4.2 When the victims are in imminent danger of death
4.3 When the hostage takes gained the control of crime or potential victims
4.4 If hostages have already been killed
K. Time-Events BarricadeMatrix
Time
Incident Matrix
-o-
Incident occurs
0+1
Notification
0+2
Police Response
0+5
Location (Most dangerous time
0+6
Confrontation 9firearms, discipline)
0+7
Notification (of the dispatcher & CMT)
0+8
Containment
0+9
Preparation (for the arrival of CMT)
0+10
Isolation
0+15
Evaluation
0+16
Evacuation
0+17
Segregation
0+19
Pre-Conflict Management team Actions
0+25
Actions of the Crisis Management Team
0+26
Pre-Negotiations Actions
0+30
Negotiations Begins
Note:
Commander should Not Serve as Negotiator because:
1. HTwill have a sense of importance;
2. Hemay make impossible demand, knowing that he is dealing with Commander;
3. Conflictof Commander as negotiator and Commander; and
4. Asa cardinal rule, Commander don’t negotiate, negotiator don't command.
Types
Intent
Wants
1. Professional Criminal
Crime
Escape
2. Psycho Case
Attention
Varies - vindication, relief
3. Prisoners
Attention
Escape, better treatment
4. Terrorist
Attention
Political, economic leverage
6. Surrender Approach- starts with a positive approach; act as ifhostage taker will surrender. Do not
talk too much. Gradually ask him tosurrender. Reassurance is the wisest thing to do. Talk details of
surrenderprocess. And explain why not is better than later.
A . Definitions
Thecalculated use of violence or the threat of violence to attain goals, oftenpolitical or ideological in
nature. Through fear, intimidation or coercion. Itusually involves a criminal act often symbolic in nature
and intended toinfluence an audience beyond the immediate victim.
Aviolent criminal behavior designed to generate fear in the community or asubstantial segment of it, for
political purposes.
5. Neo-Fascist and Extreme Right Wings Groups- Those who appear tocounter the activities of
the left and may pose a more serious threat tosecurity forces than the more traditional terrorist groups.
6. Ideological Mercenaries- It is new for ofterrorism from man and women, who for the sake of
shared ideology and commonfaith in worldwide revolution, rather than money, are ready to cross-
frontiersto pursue their causes.
1. Pre-incident Phase- The planning of the event, normally based onthe intentions short-rang
objectives and long-term strategy and on informationand experience. This is by for the most important
for it involveintelligence-gathering activities through surveillance, target penetration andeven the use of
informants, logistics preparations, including he acquisitionand transportation of radios, arms, ammunition
and explosives, and rehearsals.During this phases secrecy and operations security are of outmost
important forsuccess.
2. Initiation Phase- This is the point of no return. It is the event thatmarked the beginning of the
operation. It is marked by movement of theobjective, followed by the detonation of a bomb, or an
ambush. The physicaltaking of hostages. It is the most unnerving for the terrorist since they haveno
absolute control over the consequences.
3. Climax Phase- It may follow the initiation phases as in a single bombincident, or may host for
days or weeks as in a live hostage situation. Theclimax marks the end of the incident.
4. Post-Incident Phase- it us the time when the terrorist regroupand engage in self-criticism. The
criticism will provide valuable input for thepre-incident phases of subsequent operations.
1. Bombing
2. Hoaxes
3. Arson
4. Hijacking
5. Ambush
6. Kidnapping
7. Hostage-taking
Direction: Choose the letter ofthe best answer. There is only one correct answer.
1.In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped expand a greatdeal of emotional,
physicaland psychic energy, hence,
a. Swift and precise attack will be oneadvantage for the authorities
b. Shortening the time will pressed him tosurrender
c. Prolonging the passage of time shall wearthem down
d. Aggravating their stress will lead them tosurrender
2.The following are manifestations of a calm attitude of a negotiator which areadvisable in dealing with a
hostage situation except:
a. Avoid words/ actions that could have theappearance of ego threat
b. Be firm and avoid indecision orambivalence
c. Build a rapport with the hostage taker
d. Giving the hostage taker of their demandswhich are negotiable
3.When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they
were left with three options, a) Choose martyrdome,kill hostages and commit suicide, b) lessen demands
to more realisticproportions; and c) surrender. If they choose martyrdome and kill hostages, theuseful
action is---
a. Attack themswiftly with precision
b. Withhold the media from terrorist
c. Give all of their demands
d. Let the hostages killed
4.A strong attachment of the hostage victim to their captors after a long periodof captivity, by which they
become a sympathizer of the hostage takers
a. Hostage Victim Syndrome c. StockhlomSyndrome
b. Hostage Trauma Syndrome d. Attachment Syndrome
5.In a hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness andwillingness to listen can
be shown by
a. A posture of a folded arms in a dominantposition
b. Calmly repeating words of comfort orassurance
c. By not attempting to trick or lie
d. Keeping arms open and with other gesturethat indicates that you are willing to negotiate
6.The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is
a. To accept their beliefs as being true
b. To try to commence them that their beliefsare wrong
c. To show them that they are just crazy
d. To try to bluff or trick them
7.The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate except:
a. Fears of police assault and punishment
b. Criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. They are familiar with police operationsand tactics
d. Their ultimate desire is to surrender andtheir possible punishment could be mitigated
8.Which of the following is not the reason why dealing with the terrorist hostagetakers is difficult?
a.Terrorists are usually highly-trained combatants who have been politically
andideologically indoctrinated
b. Terrorists acts as part of a group, andtheir behavior will be pressured by group dynamics.
c. The terroristhostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts of principles that arenot easy to
resolve
d. Most of theterrorist groups receive training in the techniques that will be used againstthem in
the country chosen for theattack.
9.To control the hostage-taking situation it means the following conditions arepresent, except
a. Absolutecontainment of the perpetuator
b. By placing a set-up for a bargainingposition
c. Evaluation and isolation of the targetarea
d. Effective command and control activitiesfor coordination and proper decision- making
10.The negotiators in hostage-taking incident should strive to
a. Be mediators not arbitrators
b. Refute all views of the terrorists
c. Promise that all their demands be met
d. Set the pace, mood and topic ofconversation be themselves
11.A negotiation team should always have an
a. Officer in charge c.Sharpshooter
b. Media men d.Photographer
12.One of the following is not a terrorist tactics
a. Bombing c.Assassination
b. Hostage-taking d. Media exposure
13.Which of the following is not a terrorist goal?
a. Worldwide/ local recognition
b. Disruption of community and mobility
c. Harassment, embarrassment weakening ofgovernment
d. Understanding of social environment
14.There are three categories of terrorists which of the following does not belongto the classification of
terrorist
a. Crusaders c.Criminals
b. Crazies d.Preachers
15.It is an effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniquesfor dealing with sudden
violent acts of terrorists
a. Crisis Management c. StressManagement
b. Hostage negotiation d.Police Analysis
16.Kidnappers may ________their kidnap victims, due to attritional factors, use ofnegotiations, and use
of force by law enforcement authority
a. Kill c.Ransom
b. Keep d.Release
17.In hostage negotiations, one good communication techniques is thru the use of -
____________opening statements
a. Specific c.Trembling
b. Aggressive d.Broad
18.The negotiators in any hostage situation must be credible,________, collectedand trained
a. Opportunist c.Aggressive
b. Cool d. Coward
19.In urban are alike Metro Manila, the communist terrorist commonly used _______in their assassination
activities
a. Bladed weapons c. Handguns
b. Grenades d.Machine Guns
20.The NPA sparrows capitalize on these activities of their targets in order toassassinate them
a. Extra- curricular activities c. Patternedmovements
b. Limited movements d. Leisure activities
21.Collection of money or goods, from the people by the insurgents is known as:
a. Pledge c. Forced taxation
b. Support d.Contribution
22.Which of the following is not one of the tactical procedures in hostage- takingsituation
a. Containment of the hostage position
b. Communication and surveillance
c. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
d. Assault alternative
23. Itis characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
a. Psychoses c.Neuroses
b. Abnormality d.Psychopathy
24. Adistortion or reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.
a. Psychoses c.Neuroses
b. Abnormality d. Psychopathy
25. Studythat deals with criminal behavior.
a. CriminalSociology c.Criminal Psychology
b. Criminology d. Criminal Psychiatry
26. Personalitydisorder is defined as the aberration in the development process leading tomaladaptive
behavior. Maladaptive behavior means:
a. Falsesensory perception
b. Theperson has a false belief
c. Deviation from morality or acceptable normality
d. Delusionalthinking
27. Hallucinationis experience by having
a. Falsebelief c. maybe awarebut could not
b. False sensory perception d. deviation
frommorality or acceptable normality
28.Delusion ismanifested by a person who
a. Deviatesfrom morality or acceptable normality
b. Has false belief
c. Hasfalse sensory perception
d. Psychophysiologicaldisorder
29. Whena woman does not want to have a heterosexual relationship but seek to have abasic
attention or love, and when she gets it, she is fainted. That woman isclassified as suffering—
a. Passive-aggressivedisorder c.
Compulsivepersonality
b. Hysterical personality disorder d. Depressive
neuroses
30. Itis characterized by the general loss of interest to environment, which includehis home, family,
work or schooling and a tendency to be more critical withoutjustification or apparent reason.
a. Generalanxiety c. DepressiveNeuroses
b. Anxietyneuroses d. psychoses
31. Whena person is experiencing a delusion of persecution or grandeur or auditoryhallucination, he is
suffering—
a. Simpleschizophrenia c.Dissociative Neuroses
b. Paranoidschizophrenia d. Hebeborenic schizophrenia
32. Aperson who has unimpaired intellect but lost a power of self-control. Itincludes unprincipled
businessman, crooked lawyers, high pressured salesman
a. Psychopathic behavior c.Psychotic behavior
b. NeuroticBehavior d. Paranoid behavior
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
33. Itsmain cause is the parent rejection, absence or parental discipline which ifpresent, is inconsistent
and lenient in form during the early childhooddevelopment.
a. Paranoidbehavior c. Psychoticbehavior
b. Neuroticbehavior d.psychopathic
behavior
34. Itis characterized by high level of anxiety, suspiciousness, distrust are coreelements; seclusive, don't
confide to others, if he does, expect betrayal, ifthere is a laughter suspect that it is directed to him
a. Paranoid behavior c.Neurotic behavior
b. Psychoticbehavior d. Psychopathic
behavior
35. Partof the natural development of an adolescent are grown,
_________ andmaturation.
a. Playing c. Working
b. Learning d.Singing
36. Abranch of psychiatry that deals with the evaluation,
prevention and cure ofcriminal behavior.
a. Criminology c.Psychology
b. Criminal Psychiatry d.Psycho
37. Behaviorseen most members of the same community
a. DeviantBehavior c.Average behavior
b. Abnormal d. Unusual
38. Anabnormal mental condition whereby a person perform an
act while sleeping
a. Delirium c. Somnambulism
b. Severeabnormality d.Somnolencia
39. Astate of confusion of the mind characterized by incoherent speech,hallucinations, delusions,
restlessness, and apparently purposeless motions.
a. Delirium c.Somnambulism
b. Severeabnormality d. Somnolencia
40. Astate whereby a person is half asleep or in condition
between sleep and beingawake
a. Delirium c. Somnambulism
b. Severe abnormality d. Somnolencia
41. Asopposed to introvert, a person highly adaptive to living and derivingsatisfaction from external
world; he is interested in people and things thanideas, values and theories.
a. Selfcentered individual c.Conceited
b. Extrovert d.Exhibitionist
42. Atransmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease,etc. form parents
offspring.
a. Heredity c.Environment
b. Inheritance d. Introvert
43. Anuncontrollable morbid propensity to steal, or pathological
stealing.
a. Kleptomania c.Legal insanity
b. Phobia d. Introvert
44. Amorbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of
religious feeling.
a. Mania c. Mania Fanatica
b. Delusion d. Legal insanity
45. Morbidcraving, usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies.
a. Sexmaniac c. Masochism
b. Necrophilism d. Bestialism
46. Aterm applied to a specialist in the study of mental disorders; sometimesinterchangely used
with psychiatrist.
a. Anthropology c. Psychology Expert
b. Alienist d.Behaviorist
47. Asexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from
being demented orcruelly treated.
a. Maturation c. Bestialism
b. Masochism d.Megalomania
48. PSSupt.Jessie Villanueva is the highest ranking PNP Officer who first to arrive in ahostage taking
incident. As a rule he servers now as a ground commander on thesaid crisis. Having decided to conduct
hostage rescue operations, the objectsare as follows, except one--
a. Ensurethat the hostages are safe or unharmed, and
set free
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to thedemands of the hostage takers
c. Hostage-takersdesist from his threats
d. Hostage-takerscome to the fold of the law by
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
49. Ina hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a
“Cardinal Rule”_____
a. Tobear a weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
face-to-face.
b. Seekbetter alternative than a negotiated agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Neversay "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
50. Hostagesituations happen everywhere and almost every time but whatever or whoever
thehostage maybe, when there is a threat to life, then it is a crisis situationand it must be managed for
the purpose of no other but "SALVARIVITAS", which means
a. To save lives c.to kill the hostage-taker
b. Toneutralize the hostage taker d.to free the
hostage
51. Consideredas a "Mortal Sin" in hostage negotiation.
a. Givingall the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Actingthat would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. Deceivingand bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
52. ThePNP Operational Procedures Manual follows the 3S Principle in dealing withhostage-taking
situations. These 3S are composed of the following, except one
a. SingleCommand
b. Single Commander and Negotiator
c. SingleNegotiating Party
d. SingleAccess to Communication
53.This part of man’s personality is present at birth representing unconsciousbiological drives for sex,
food and other life-sustaining necessities andfollows the “pleasure principle” which requires instant
gratification and hasno concern for the rights of others.
a.Id c. Superego
b. Ego d. Alter ego
54. Astage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex c. doing gender
b. Electra complex d. chivalryhypothsis
55. Aserious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawalfrom reality.
a. Psychosomatic illness c. Psychoticism
b. Psychoneurosis d. Psychosis
56. Mentally disturbed person who opposed the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social c. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath
57.Defense mechanism that enables individuals to justify their behavior tothemselves and others by
making excuses or formulating fictitious, sociallyapproved arguments to convince themselves and others
that their behavior islogical and acceptable.
a. sublimation c. projection
b. fantasy d. rationalization
58. Itoccurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration c.conflict
b. anxiety d. apathy
59.This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or stateof affairs at the same time
repulsion towards something associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. avoidance-approach
60.Process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or feeling that causepain, shame or guilt.
a. identification c. regression
b. suppression d. fixation
61.This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traitsby emphasizing a
desirable type of behavior.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
62. An aggregate observable responses of anorganism to internal and external stimuli.
a. human behavior c.behavior
b. personality d. attribute
63.Process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
a. actualization c. learning
b. thinking d. feeling
64. Afield of medicine that specializes in the understanding, diagnosis, treatment,and prevention of
mental problems.
a. psychology c. psychiatry
b. philosophy d. sociology
65.Type of conflict that occurs when there are two desirable but mutuallyexclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
66.Conflict transpired when there are two courses of action, each of which hasboth pleasant and
unpleasant consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. approach-approach
d. multiple
67.Process of excluding into the consciousness a thought or feeling that causespain, shame, or guilt.
a. identification c. repression
b. suppression d. fixation
68. Anattempt to disguise or cover up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits byemphasizing a desirable
type.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
69.Interpreting of behavior in way that is more acceptable to the self by usingreasoning and alibis to
substitute causes.
a. rationalization c. sublimation
b. compensation d. projection
70.Region of the mind which the perceptionof an individual whether within or outside is brought into
awareness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
71.Materials of which one is not aware of but with the effort maybe brought to theconsciousness.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
72.Region of the mind which an individual is not aware of.
a. semi-conscious c. unconscious
b. subconscious d. conscious
73.This part of the psychic structure is the source of instinct, instinctiveenergy, occupies the unconscious
region, reservoir of percept, libido, habittendencies, pleasure principle region, immoral, illogical, no unity
of purposeand the repressed materials join or pleasure it.
a. id c.superego
b. ego d. alter ego
74.Part of the psychic structures merges with the id. It is mostly conscious andpartly unconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
75.Outgrowth modification of the ego. It is generally unconscious and partlyconscious.
a. id c. superego
b. ego d. alter ego
76.False interpretation of an external stimulus.
a. hallucination c.delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
77. itresults from the degeneration or disorder of the brain characterized by generalmental weakness,
forgetfulness, and loss of coherence and total inability toreason.
a. melancholia c. amnesia
b. dementia d. apathy
78. Afalse or erroneous belief in something, which is not a fact.
a. hallucination c.delusion
b. compulsion d. illusion
79. Anexcessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situationor object.
a. melancholia c. phobia
b. exaltation d. mania
80. Asexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from being demented orcruelly treated.
a. sadism c. bestiality
b. masochism d.megalomania
81. Anamnesia state where one wonders away from home or usual surroundings and whenawareness set
in, there is no recollection as to how he or she came to bethere.
a. insanity c. multiple personality
b. somnambulism d.fugue
82. Themost tolerated way of handling frustration. It is a man’s last result when aperson attempts to
overcome fear from an anticipated situation or event.
a. coping mechanism c. aggression
b. defense mechanism d.fight-flight
83.This is a sudden and irresistible force compelling a person to the consciousperformance of some
action without motive or forethought.
a. compulsion c. impulsion
b. obsession d. delusion
84. Thisis impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an inability toachieve it.
a. masturbation c.prostitution
b. exhibitionism d.frigidity
85.This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and compellingneed for sexual
gratification by any technique, other than willing coitusbetween man and woman and involving actions
that are directly results ingenital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
86.Animals are used for the achievement of sexual excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism c. fetishism
b. pedophilia d. bestiality
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. In terms in handling during hostage situation, usually the easiest to deal with considered
relatively rational thinker after assessing the situation and weighting the odds, in most cases comes to terms which the police,
refrain from unnecessary violence or useless killings.
A. Psychotic individual C. Unprofessional Criminal
B. Professional Criminal D. Neurotic criminal
2. This must be used to asses potentially dangerous situation and bring the parties together in good time to discuss how to
resolve
the problems before they become critical.
A. Police management techniques C. Crisis management techniques
B. Personal management techniques D. Tactical Management Technique
3. The process of dealing with pressurized situation in a way, which plans, organizes, directs, and controls a number of
unrelated
operations and deciding the decision making process of those in charge to a rapid but unhurried resolution of the
acute problem
faced by the organization.
A. Stress management C. Police management
B. Crisis Management D. Personnel Management
4. It can be used deliberately by people attempting to enforce their point of view or accidentally by Some colossal
misjudgment or
long history of compound errors.
A. Conflict C. Crisis
B. Negotiation D. Critics
5. It is very important in dealing with hostage situation by police negotiator.
A. Physical training
B. Knowledge in sociology
C. Knowledge in different dialects from the major dialects in our country.
D. A and C only
6. It is one of the negotiators action.
A. Establish contact with hostage taker
B. Know the identity of the hostage taker
C. time lengthening
D. A and C only
7. It is a rule in crisis management
A. Commander shall always be the negotiator
B. Commander does not negotiate
C. Negotiator does not command
D. B and C only
8. Controlling the area with persons directly involved also means
A. Time lengthening action of the negotiator
B. Containment
C. B and C only
D. Involvement
9. If the hostage taker refused to talk, the following should be done by the negotiator.
A. Recommend attack
B. Decide to introduce the negotiators real name and rank position
C. Continue to talk and negotiate
D. Proceed to another plan
10. It must be done whenever a demand from the hostage taker is given.
A. Don’t get concession at once, subject interpretation that every demand could be achieved easily
B. Give it immediately to the hostage taker
C. Delay the giving of the demand to impress the hostage taker that even simple demand are hard to get.
D. A and C only
11. It must be done during face to face negotiation.
A. Maintaining distance with the object is not necessary, what is important is that the negotiator
Had a face to face meeting with the object.
B. Be very more anxious
C. Enter the premises without gun pointed at you.
D. B and C only
12. A positive effect of time.
A. Hostage taker rationally increases.
B. The relationship of the subject and negotiator improves.
C. Emotional and psychological problems of of the subject further increases.
D. A and B only
13. It must be taken into consideration in conducting assault.
A. Hostage state of mind C. Negotiators appearance
B. Negotiators State of mind D. Hostage taker state of mind
A. Negotiator
B. Personality disorder
C. Severe depression
D. Mentally deranged
E. Sociopath personality
From the following blacken A if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and second is incorrect; C
if both statement is incorrect; D If the first statement is incorrect and second is correct
36. The phase crisis management was coined by Robert McNamara at the time of the Panamian D
Missile crisis. Crisis management is a phrased used commonly in diplomatic circles but it is
Something that happens in any organization where the pressure of events, external forces
Management into making urgent decision.
37. Crisis is caused not by actions of human beings nor by natural disorders, fire, flood, earthquake D
And etc. Crisis is not a sudden unforeseen events which perhaps could have not been
Anticipated.
38. The most important thing to do in a crisis is to keep cool. Draw up the preliminary plan of action A
Set it out step by step and prepare other contingency plans to deal with eventualities.
39. A detailed plan in crisis management include s contingency plans to deal with new development B
Or emergencies. A good crisis manager is very indecisive.
40. Crisis management is no more than good management under pressure and they are the good crisis managers.A
41. In a hostage situation in any case it become violent, the authorities must always come out as
A. Aggressor C. Negotiator
B. Victor D. None of the above
42. Priorities in hostage situation are the preservation of life and _____________.
A. Apprehension of the hostage taker
B. Preservation of crime scene
C. Recover and protect property
D. A and C only
43. It is an attitude of the negotiator which is a must for him to process.
A. Hospitable attitude C. Calm attitude
B. Violent attitude D. Passive attitude
44. In a hostage situation, where the hostage taker is suffering from severe depression,
Personality disorder, paranoid and sociopath personality, the commander in order to build
Rapport should ____________________-.
A. Get negotiator of the same race
B. Get a negotiator residing on the same locality
C. Get negotiator of the same nationality religion or education
D. A & C only
45. It is a critical rule in hostage taking situation.
A. Commander does not negotiate, negotiator does not command
B. Hostage takers demand should always be adhered to
C. Hostage Life is the only concern of the police
D. Hostage taker should be assaulted
46. Controlling situation and area of people involved.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Establish contact D. Time Lengthening
47. Start with position approach act as if the hostage taker will surrender. Do not talk too much.
Gradually ask hostage taker to surrender.
A. Time lengthening C. Surrender approach
B. Establish contact D. Containment
48. Give more time for police to organize and coordinate the plan of action.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Time Lengthening D. Establish contact
49. Immediately, after positioning at advantage position communicate with the hostage taker
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Establish contact D. Surrender approach
50. Be the caller, planed and be prepared be ready with graceful exit and discipline yourself to listen.
A. Surrender approach C. Establish Contact
B. Containment D. Telephone Negotiator Technique
51. During face to face negotiation, the personal distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker
Should be
A. 1- 5 feet C. 1-10 feet
B. 1-3 feet D. 1 foot
52. The intimate distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker should be
A. About 12 inches C. About 6 inches
B. About 24 inches D. About 1 foot
53. It is a positive effect of time
A. Hostage takers nationality
B. Hostage Taker- negotiator relationship improves
C. hostage taker will wear down emotionally, psychologically
D. Hostage taker will have more time to think
E. All of the above
62. Begins Upon establishment of position at the scene, done before arrival of convoy C
63 After establishing situation, contain hostage takers and civilians evacuated out of the area of A
Incident.
64. Contain the convoy on the way to destination under negotiator, giving instructions through B
Walkie-talkie.
65. Do not ask demands , hostage takers may not have demand. A
66. Helicopter to serve surveillance. B
67. Set up communication with hostage taker. A
68. Brief assault team and rush them to destination to secure place. B
69. Give room to negotiate- do not cramp-, avoid disturbance. A
70. Conserve concessions, hold giving in to demand; if given in at once; demand may come more A
More delay works in favor of authorities.
71. Gives more time for authorities to plan and coordinate course of action D
72. Cannot see the hostage reaction C
73. Conversation is quicker B
74. It is impersonal C
75 Be the caller ( Talk with the leader only ) A
76. Plan and prepare A
77. If hostage taker wont talk, continue negotiating don’t loose hope A
78. Caller has the advantage B
79. Lessens tension of hostage taker D
80. Easier to say no. B
From the following questions blacken A, if both sentences are correct; B if both sentences is incorrect; C if the first
sentence is correct and second is incorrect; D if first sentence is incorrect and second is correct.
81. Physical training- physical conditioning includes weapon disarming method and unarmed A
Self defense. Rescue efforts should run from top.
82. If negotiation fails, final move must be made swiftly with no looking back. In life and C
Death negotiation show of force is unnecessary if there are several hostage takers.
83. Keep in mind that one hostage taker, shoe off force may be necessary. Patrol units, D
assault units should know exactly whose command they are under.
84. Containment is one way to ensure hostage negotiation unit is capable of establishing control B
Over situation. During face to face negotiation, it is not necessary for the negotiator to
Wear armor body.
85. It is a disadvantage of telephone conversation because it is easier to conclude the conversation. D
Important items are more easily committed and this is an advantage of telephone conversation.
86. It is a rule in hostage negotiation to get something in return for every concession granted like A
Aged, sick or youngest hostages. Don’t get concession at once, its subject to interpretation that
You could get easily.
87. During face to face negotiation, have weapon and tactical back up ( snipers). You can enter as C
Negotiator even if gun of the hostage taker is pointed at you.
88. It is one of the qualities of crisis manager.
A. They are good leaders providing inspiration to their team
B. They keep cool
C. Good manager under pressure
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
89. It is more important during hostages situation.
A. Improved communication
B. Efficiency of the police personnel in unarmed combat
C. Efficiency of the police responding to call emergency
D. A and C only
90. It is a negative effect of time during hostage negotiation.
A. Exhilarations and boredom may have creeping effects or both hostages takers and authorities
B. Hostage takers demand may be reduced
C. Anxiety reduced, hostage taker given chance to0 organize his true self
D. All of the above
91. It is one way to ensure hostage negotiation is capable of establishing control over situation.
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Dry run D. Establishing contact
92. The commander is given the opportunity to choose the members who will constitute the team.
A. Screening C. Establishing contact
B. Dry run D. Time Lengthening
93. In Life and death negotiation, the negotiator should not be friendly; it may be interpreted as ___.
A. Over confidence C. Over zealousness
B. Weakness D. Surrender
94. In conducting assault, the team leader must take into consideration the ____________.
A. Number of the hostage takers their mentality
B. The serviceability of their weapons
C. Hostage state of mind
D. A and C only
95. In Life and death negotiation, It is necessary if there are several hostage takers
A. Presence of plenty media personnel
B. Show of force
C. Presence of relatives of the hostage taker to help police negotiate]
D. Display of sophisticated weapons
96. The hostage taker should not be driven to _________ instead he should be given hope,
Security and etc.
A. Desperation C. Suicidal attempts
B. Hopelessness D. All of the above
97. If negotiation fails, ( situation permits) any assaults must proceed with _____________.
A. Skills C. Accuracy
B. Professionalism D. All of the above
98. During the surrender approach, the negotiator should_________________.
A. Know whose command the men and under
B. Not impose never go to the hostage taker at once
C. Not talk too much and make sure that hostage taker understand
D. B and C only
99. During the hostage negotiation, It is one thing which may be considered negotiable.
A. Media coverage C. Transportations
B. Weapons D. A and C
100. In hostage situation, the function of the patrol personnel is _______________.
A. To establish contact with hostage taker
B. Contain hostage taker
C. Help evacuate civilians out the scene
D. B and C only
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. The regular daily formation of policemen assigned in patrol and traffic operations where the shift or
watch supervisor conducts inspection, checks attendance, and gives briefing, instructions and
assignment, is known in the police service as ____.
A. Roll-call training C. Drill formation
B. Attendance Seminar D. Morning inspection
2. A management principle holding that a subordinate should report to only one supervisor.
A. Supervision C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Direction
3. It refers to the capability of a police commander to establish strategic and tactical alliances with
the different sectors of the community including churches, schools, local government units and civic
organizations in pursuit of peace and order.
A. Community relation C. Resourcefulness
B. Inter-operability D. Liaisoning
4. Also known as the Jail Bureau.
A. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology
B. Bureau of Prisons D. PNP Jails
5. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Police Commission?
A. President C. Secretary, DILG
B. Vice President D. Chief, PNP
6. One of the powers vested upon the mayors by RA 6975 is to choose the chief of police from five (5)
eligibles recommended by the ____.
A. Regional Director C. Provincial Director
B. Chief, PNP D. NAPOLCOM
7. It is the primary job of this government agency to promptly respond and suppress “Conflagration”.
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology C. Local Government
B. Bureau of Fire Protection D. Volunteer Fire Brigade
8. The Local Government Executive authorized by law to take responsibility over the anti-illegal
gambling operations in their respective jurisdiction.
A. Mayor C. Governor
B. Congressman D. Barangay
Captain
9. The highest rank in the hierarchy of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is:
A. Fire Director C. BJMP Chief
B. Fire Director General D. Fire Chief
Superintendent
10. The head or highest official in a City/Municipal Fire Station is known as ____.
A. Fire Marshall C. Fire Chief
B. Fire Warden D. Fire Commander
11. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
12. He is the chairperson of the Board of Trustees of the Philippine Public Safety College.
A. SILG C. BJMP Chief
B. PNP Chief D. BFP Chief
13. Which is NOT a training institute under the Philippine Public Safety College?
A. Philippine National Police Academy C. PhilippineMilitary Academy
B. National Police College D. National Forensic Science Training Institute
14. He leads a manageable number of police personnel who are assigned to perform a specific job like
patrol, traffic, investigation, and other functions, and tasked to take responsibility of seeing that they
perform their respective duties.
A. Police Subordinate C. Police Superior
B. Rank and File D. Police
Supervisor
15. This is a requirement for every line officer where he can write down all important data pertaining
to arrest made by him and other information that may help him in making report and in testifying in
court. This is regularly inspected by his police supervisor.
A. Police Diary C. Logbook
B. Blotter D. Official Notebook
16. It is said that police personnel work twenty-four hours a day which means that even if they are on
off-duty they can be summoned when there are emergencies. In a police department where members
regularly work for eight-hour duty, how many shifts or watches are in effect?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Four
17. The highest position title in the Bureau of Fire Protection is what?
A. Fire Chief C. Fire Director
B. Fire Marshall D. Fire Warden
18. Which among the following is NOT under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A. District Jail C. City Jail
B. Provincial Jail D. Municipal Jail
19. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and
officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police
organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
20. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for plans
B. PNP directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
21. All police stations in the National Capital Region are headed by a Chief of Police who in accordance
with the law should hold the rank of ____.
A. Chief Superintendent C.
Superintendent
B. Senior Superintendent D. Chief Inspector
22. Plans can be changed to meet future requirements which were not considered during the planning
stages. This indicates _____ in planning.
A. Responsiveness C. Flexibility
B. Efficiency D. Effectiveness
23. In the planning process, the skill involved in knowing what should be done first refers to:
A. Forecasting C. Documenting
B. Monitoring D. Prioritizing
24. Which among the following is INCORRECT?
A. The highest rank in the PNP is Director General
B. There are three deputy chief, PNP who hold the rank of Police Deputy Director General
C. The Command Group is composed of the four top officials of the PNP
D. The PNP is a directorial type of organization
25. It is referred to as turning point of event which needs to be addressed promptly.
A. Unusual occurrence C. Emergency
B. Crisis D. Contingency
26. It is likewise known as plan “B”, Back-up plan or Worst-case-scenario plan.
A. Tactical plan C. Urgent plan
B. Contingency plan D. Operation plan
27. Refers to plans whose timelines are usually between one (1) to three (3) years.
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Management plan
28. Which among the following is considered to be the employer of the members of the PNP?
A. Local government C. National government
B. DILG D. NAPOLCOM
29. This plan answers the question, “How do we get there?”
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Procedural plan
30. The operations plan and budget is an example of what PNP plans?
A. Strategic C. Tactical
B. Medium-term D. Procedural
31. What is that category of tactical plans which is developed as a result of crisis?
A. Reactive plan C.
Miscellaneous plan
B. Proactive plan D. Administrative plan
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are _____ personnel.
A. Staff C. Supervision
B. Management D. Line
33. Often called the primary management function.
A. Planning C. Organizing
B. Budgeting D. Delegating
34. ____ Plans are developed in anticipation of problems.
A. Proactive C. Intelligence
B. Reactive D. Long-term
35. The government agency tasked by law to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
B. Civil Service Commission D. Local government units
36. A type of plans used to guide line officers in routine and field operations, and in some special
operations.
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Functional D. Reactive
37. The military rank of Major General is the equivalent of what PNP rank?
A. Police Director General C. Police Director
B. Police Deputy Director General D. Police Chief
Superintendent
38. In police operations, when a specific situation goes wrong, what kind of plan should be executed?
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Tactical D. Operational
39. The founder of professional policing.
A. Robert Peel C. O.W. Wilson
B. J. Edgar Hoover D. Henry Fielding
40. The only government agency in the Philippines which is authorized to issue firearm licenses,
licenses for security guards as well as permit to operate security agencies.
A. Armed Forces of the Philippines C. National Bureau of
Investigation
B. Philippine National Police D. National Police
Commission
41. Supplies procurement plan and personnel recruitment plan are example of:
A. Operational plan C. Administrative plan
B. Intelligence plan D. Forecast plan
42. As an external disciplinary authority in the PNP the peoples Law Enforcement Boards are
empowered to investigate and decide citizen’s complaints against PNP members. These boards are
created by ____.
A. National Police Commission C. City/municipal mayors
B. Sangguniang Panglungsod/Bayan D. PNP
43. In criminal investigation before taking the sworn statement of a suspect, the investigator should
inform the former of:
A. The name of complainant and witnesses
B. His constitutional rights
C. The evidence collected against him
D. His identity as officer on case
44. A plan of every local government (Provinces and towns) to address any crisis that may occur in
their respective jurisdiction is known as:
A. Fire plan C. Defense plan
B. Multi-purpose plan D. Integrated Area/Community Public Safety
Plan
45. The number of persons one individual can effectively supervise best describes the organizational
principle of ____.
A. supervision C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Leadership
46. Includes motivating subordinates, guiding others, selecting the most efficient communication
channels, and resolving conflicts best described ____ as a management function.
A. Controlling C. Directing
B. Leading D. Delegating
47. A plan of coping upon an attack against buildings equipped with alarm system is an example of:
A. Extra-departmental plan C. Management plan
B. Procedural plan D. Tactical plan
48. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and
officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police
organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
49. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called:
A. Annual plan C. Strategic plan
B. Long-term plan D. Mid-term plan
50. The National Police Commission is attached to the Department of the Interior and Local
Government for ____.
A. Administrative control C. Operational supervision
B. Administration and control D. Policy and program
coordination
51. The ex-officio member of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Secretary, DILG C. NBI Director
B. Chief, PNP D. AFP Chief
52. _____ plan relates to the problems of equipping, staffing and preparing the police station to do the
job rather than the actual operation of the organization.
A. Management plan C. Tactical plan
B. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
53. All are summary dismissal authority over administrative cases against uniformed PNP personnel
EXCEPT:
A. PLEB C. Chief, PNP
B. PNP Regional director D. IAS
54. It includes every procedure that has been outlined and officially adopted as the standard method of
action to be followed by members of the police organization.
A. Progress plan C. Procedural plan
B. Operational plan D. tactical plan
55. The PNP Directorate tasked to address the peculiar problems affecting the peace and security of
adjacent areas or regions with common culture and situation specifically on insurgency and terrorism.
A. Directorate for Operations
B. Directorate for Integrated Police Operations
C. Directorate for Intelligence
D. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management
56. What operational support unit of the PNP determines if a person is qualified to possess firearm,
processes applications for firearms and issues licenses to qualified individuals?
A. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group C. Intelligence Group
B. Logistics Service D. Civil Security Group
57. He exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief, PNP C. Secretary, DILG
B. Undersecretary for Peace and Order D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
58. What operational support unit of the PNP conducts identification and evaluation of physical
evidence related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Health service C. Crime
laboratory
B. PNP General hospital D. CIDG
59. The early English police system which adopted the so-called “Tithings”.
A. Frankpledge system C. Metropolitan Constabulary
of London
B. Parish constable system D. Bow street runners
60. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
61. The Provincial Governor shall choose the Provincial Director from a list of ____ eligibles
recommended by the Regional Director.
A. Six (6) C. Five (5)
B. Three (3) D. Four (4)
62. Which one of the following is least often considered a staff function?
A. Recruitment C. Training
B. Juvenile division D. Planning
63. The ex-officio chairman of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Chief, PNP C. NAPOLCOM
Executive Officer
B. DILG Secretary D. Vice Chairman
64. The law that established the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the
Interior and Local Government.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 6795 D. RA 8515
65. There are how many Police Districts in the National Capital Regional Police Office?
A. Three C. Five
B. Four D. Six
66. Under Republic Act 8551, it is provided that the PNP should be strengthened and evolved into a
highly efficient and competent police force that is ____ and fully accountable in the performance of
its functions.
A. Business-oriented C. Military-oriented
B. Mission-oriented D. Community and
service-oriented
67. The law that established the Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police as the National
Police of the Philippines. It was issued by President Ferdinand Marcos in 1975 during the Martial Law
regime.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. PD 765 D. Act 175
68. The Chief, PNP, his two deputies and the Chief, Directorial Staff composed the so-called:
A. Internal Affairs Service C. Lateral Entry Board
B. Command Group D. Promotion Board
69. The PNP Internal Affairs Service which is tasked to ensure the operational readiness of the different
PNP units and personnel through the conduct of scheduled and unannounced inspections and audit, and
to investigate infractions of rules and regulations, is headed by ____.
A. Director General C. Director
B. Inspector General D. Auditor General
70. The rank-and-file of the PNP is composed mainly of low-ranked personnel. What is the lowest
commissioned rank in the PNP organization?
A. Police Officer 1 C. Senior Police Officer
1
B. Police Inspector D. Police Chief
Superintendent
71. He coined the most familiar acronym “POSDCORB” which explains the functions of management.
A. Richard Sylvester C. Joan Urwich
B. Luther Gulick D. Douglas McGregor
72. Police personnel performing field duties like patrol, traffic, investigation, intelligence, etc. belong
to what unit of the police agency?
A. Staff units C. Line units
B. Auxiliary units D. Administrative units
73. A member of the Police Force who works at an organizational level where personal oversight of
tasks assigned to small group is assumed in order to assure satisfactory performance.
A. Police supervisor C. Police manager
B. Police investigator D. Police leader
74. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
75. The management of people and things is being done primarily to:
A. Make them organized and nice to see
B. Attain the organizational objectives
C. Effect change for the better
D. Implement policies and regulations
76. Rural police established in 1836 through a Royal decree from Spain
A. Guardrilleros C. Guardia civil
B. Local police D. Carabineros de seguridad
publica
77. The term “Police” originated from the Greek word:
A. Politeia C. Polizia
B. Polis D. Policia
78. The President of the Philippine when the PNP was established.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
79. The early version of mounted riflemen in the history of Philippine policing.
A. Guardia civil C. Guardrilleros
B. Local police D. Carabineros de Seguridad
Publica
80. The Insular Constabulary was organized in 1901 during the American Occupation by virtue of:
A. Act No. 255 C. Act No. 157
B. RA 4864 D. Act No. 175
81. Director General in the PNP is a ____ rank.
A. 5-star C. 4-star
B. 3-star D. 2-star
82. General policing in the Philippines is the primary task of what agency?
A. National Bureau of Investigation C. Philippine National Police
B. National Police Commission D. Armed Forces of
the Philippines
83. The highest non-commissioned rank in the PNP.
A. Police Officer 3 C. Senior Police Officer 4
B. Senior Police Officer 3 D. Police Officer 4
84. How many rank of Director General is authorized in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
85. The police system established by the English parliament thru the initiative of Robert Peel.
A. Bow street runners C. Metropolitan Constabulary for London
B. Frankpledge system D. Parish constable system
86. Republic Act 6975 is known as:
A. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998
B. The Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. The Police Act of 1966
D. The Merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police
87. The Philippine National Police as described by the 1986 Philippine Constitution should be ____.
A. Directorial type C. Operationally under the DILG
B. Line and Staff Organization D. National in Scope and Civilian in
Character
88. The highest official or head of a highly urbanized city police station like Olongapo,
Angeles, Cebu and Bacolod, is called a ____.
A. Chief of Police C. City Director
B. City Commander D. CityMarshall
89. The equivalent PNP rank of a Second Lieutenant in the Armed Forces of the Philippines.
A. Police Inspector C. Senior Police Officer
4
B. Police Senior Inspector D. Police Officer 3
90. The right vested upon a superior officer to give orders and the power to exact obedience from
subordinate officers.
A. Command C. Authority
B. Supremacy D. Police power
91. He chooses the PNP Provincial Director in a province from a list of three (3) eligibles recommended
by the Regional Director.
A. Governor C. Congressman
B. DILG Regional Director D. NAPOLCOM Regional
Director
92. The PNP National Support Unit that is primarily responsible in enforcing the Anti-Carnapping Law of
the country.
A. Highway Patrol Group C. Special Action Force
B. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group D. Intelligence Group
93. ____ is the primary operating arms of the police station responsible for the general maintenance of
peace and order.
A. SWAT C. Police Precincts
B. Intelligence units D. Traffic units
94. The American police system rooted from ____.
A. France C. Egypt
B. England D. Philippines
95. The personal staff of the Chief, PNP responsible for the annual audit and inspection of the
different field units and personnel. It has also the power to investigate police anomalies.
A. Chief of Staff C. Legal Officer
B. Command Executive Senior Police Officer D. Inspector General
96. In policing or patrolling, the elimination of the opportunity of future offenders to commit crimes is
the definition of:
A. Criminal etiology C. Crime Suppression
B. Patrol Deployment D. Crime Prevention
97. The merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police or PC/INP became
effective pursuant to:
A. PD 421 C. PD 531
B. PD 641 D. PD 765
98. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called _____.
A. Administration C. Management
B. Supervision D. Organization
99. When a group of people interact to achieve stated purposes, this is most nearly ____.
A. Management C. Control
B. Delegation D. Organization
100. The President of the Philippines when the Philippine Constabulary and the INP were merged to
serve as the national police of the country.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Ethical Standard: Constantly endeavour to raise quality __________ of private
security services ; a.Authority b.Services c.Function d.Standard
2. Endeavour to fulfill their ____________ duties in accordance with the highest moral
principles ; a.Private b.Public c.Professional d.Standard
3. Contribute to the ______________ welfare by securing and preserving industrial
facilities of the country ; a.Private b.Public c.Nationald.Filipino
4. Constantly work with and assist the law enforcement agencies in the ___________ of
peace and order in the country; a.Reservation b.Communication
c.Preservation d.Cooperation
5. With faith and diligence , perform their __________ obligations for the protection of
life, limb and property; a.Civil b.Private c.Publicd.Contractual
6. Code of Conduct: They shall all times adhere to professional ________ and refrain
from practices that negate the best interest; a.Authority
b.Services c.Ethics d.Standard
7. They shall not indulge in _____________ competition by undercutting the existing
contract rates.; a.Asset b.Financial c.Cut throat d.Private
8. They shall not _________ means or misrepresentations in all their business
transactions; a.Quarrel b.Deceitful c.Clandestine d.Practical
9. They shall ___________ an adequate library of books, magazines and other
publications on security subject. ; a.Control b.Serve c.Structured.Establish
10. They shall at all times exercise ___________ and be prepared to prevent the use of
their guards or the agency; a.Diligence b.Vigilance c.Respect d.Integrity
11. They shall always be truthful and ____________ in reports;
a.Standardb.Accurate c.Narrative d.Direct
12. To _____ all calls from post more distant from the security house where I am
stationed; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
13. To _____ all violations of order I am instructed to enforce; a.Quitb.Report c.Repeat
d.sound
14. To _____ my post only when properly relieved; a.Quit b.Report c.Repeat d.sound
15. To _____ or call the alarm in case of fire or disorder; a.Quit b.Report
c.Repeat d.Sound
16. To _____ to no one except in the line of duty; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
17. To _____ , obey and pass on to the relieving guard all order form company officers;
a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
18. To _____ in an alert manner during my tour of duty and observing everything that
takes place within sight or hearing; a.Walk b.Talk c.Receive d.Salute
19. To _____ all company officials superiors in the agency, ranking public officials, and
commission officer of the AFP; a.Walk b.Talk c.Received.Salute
20. To _____ charge of the post and all companies properties in view and protect the
same with utmost diligence; a.Walk b.Take c.Receive d.Salute
21. A special key capable of opening a series of locks; a.Master key b.Sub master key
c.Original key d.Grand master key
22. A key to a single lock within a master keyed system; a.Master key b.Sub master
key c.Change key d.Grand master key
23. It is the devices holding a door closed by magnetism; a.Code lock b.Combination Lock
c.Lever lock d.Electromagnetic lock.
24. This not the purpose of security survey; a.determine existing state of
security b.locate criminals c.Produce recommendations establishing a total security
program d.determine the conclusion and probabilities
25. Planning the security survey except for one; a.Obtain organizational support b.Verify
the need c.Develop alternatives d.Implement the managers policy
26. All of this is types of security inspection except for one; a.Formal b.Structured c.
Continuous d. Valuable
27. Results of a long and firmly entrenched inspection program understood by all and
accepted; a.Formal b.Structured c. Continuous d. Informal
28. One security inspections that moves systemically.; a.Formalb.Structured c.
Continuous d. Informal
29. It is the work of a manager performs to assess and regulate work in progress and to
assess the results; a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controllingd. Leading
30. It is the work of a manager performs to effect active participation from his
subordinates ; a.Planning b.Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
31. A system use in big installation whereby keys can open groups of locks; a.Key
master b.Master Keying System c.Master Lock d.Key System
32. Example of terrorism; a.Riot b.Unfair competition c.Tornadod.Assassination
33. Physical Environment Probability Factors; a.Age Groups b.Compositionc.Planning
d.Social History
34. Specifications regarding the use of Chain Link fences; a.Be constructed of 6 foot b.
Be constructed of 7 foot c. Be constructed of 8 foot d. Be constructed of 9 foot
35. Types of perimeter barrier which is not belong; a.Wire Fences b.Vaultc.Bodies of
water d.Buliding walls
36. Inter relationship of Security personnel to PNP; a.Security personnel always
subordinate to the members of PNP b.All evidence gathered in the said investigation
should be turnover to the PNP unit concerned c.All violations in the said company
enforcing by the security personnel should be reported to the PNP d.Harmonious
relationship for curtailing law less elements.
37. Storms is a sample of _______ hazards; a.Natural b.Man made c.Mechanical
d.Physical
38. This probabilty ratings has Insufficient data are available for an evaluation ;
a.Virtually Certain b.Highly Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Probability Unknown
39. Grounds for cancellation of Security Agency License; which one is not belong; a.When
the agency submits a falsified license to prospective client for bidding b.When the
agency practice “KABIT SYSTEM” c.When the agency fail to employ a minimum of 200
gainfully employed security guards d.When the agency coordinate with the law
enforcement agency.
40. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Private
Benjamin b.Intelligence officer c.Private Detective d.Private Intel
41. Stated in the Security Guard Creed which is not belong; a.Maka Dios b.Maka Bayan
c.Makata d.Makatao
42. Hardware is what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
43. Geese are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
44. Roadblocks are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energy b.Structural
c.Human d.Animal
45. Electronic device are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Energyb.Structural c.Human
d.Animal
46. Canyons are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
47. Walls are what type of physical barrier? ; a.Natural b.Structural c.Human d.Animal
48. Barbed Tape is composed of 3 things except for one ; a.Barbed tape b.Barbed
Dispenser c.Barbed Concertina d.Barbed wire
49. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission; a.Intelligence
Officer b.Detective Officer c.Secret Agent d.Private Detective
50. A key that will open all the lock within a particular area or grouping in a given
facility; a.Master key b.Sub master key c.Original key d.Grand master key
51. It is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures; a.Security Survey b.Security
Inspection c. Security education d. Security Protection
52. It is given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means pertaining to
measures and safeguards to be taken to protect ; a.Security information b.Security
awareness c. Security education d. Security Preparation
53. Security Guards Creed – As a security guard my __________ duty; a.Basic
b.Honorable c.Fundamental d. Sacred Protection
54. Security guard duty is to serve the interest and mission of his ________; a.Manager
b.Client c.Consultant d.Agency Protection
55. Shall carry with him at all times during his tour of duty his license ID ; a.Ethical
Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
56. Security Consultant qualifications; choose which one is not belong;a.Filipino and
Alien Citizen b.Physically Fit c.Holder of a Master’s Degree, MNSA or Industrial
Security Management d.At least 10 years experience in the field of security.
57. Shall not read newspaper, magazines, books while actually performing his duties;
a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
58. Shall not compromise with criminals and other lawless elements to the prejudice of
the customers; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of Conduct c.General order d.Operators
Creed
59. Security force maintained and operates by any private company utilizing any of its
employees to watch, secure or guard; a.Security guard b.Company guard
force c.Government guard unit d.Private guard
60. Shall talk to no one except in the line of duty; a.Ethical Standard b.Code of
Conduct c.General order d.Operators Creed
61. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which
safeguards cash and assets which in storage, in transit and during
transaction.; a.Bank Security b.Hotel Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication
Security
62. It is resulting from the protection of processes, formulas, patents and industrial and
manufacturing activities from espionage ; a.Document Security b.Operational
Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
63. It is resulting from the protection of application of various measures which prevent or
delay the enemy or unauthorized person in gaining information; a.Document Security
b.Operational Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
64. It is resulting from the protection classified papers and vital records from loss, access
to unauthorized persons, damage , theft and etc, ;a.Document Security
b.Operational Security c.Corporate Security d.Communication Security
65. The providing of sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness to insure
visibility and to act as a deterrent to the intruders; a.Security Alarm system
b.Security Lighting c.Security Surveillance d.Security Flash light
66. It is resulting from the protection top ranking officials of the government or visiting
persons of illustrious standing; a.Document Security b.Operational Security
c.Corporate Security d.VIP Security
67. It is the sum total of all physical safeguards employed or installed to secure the
assets; a.Physical Security b.Document Security c.Personnel Security d.Internal
Security
68. What line of defense is grills? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
of defense d.Barrier Line
69. What line of defense is cabinets? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
line of defense d.Barrier Line
70. What line of defense is guard? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
line of defense d.Barrier Line
71. What line of defense is doors? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
of defense d.Barrier Line
72. What line of defense is gate? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line
of defense d.Barrier Line
73. What line of defense is vaults? ; a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd
line of defense d.Barrier Line
74. Any structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal
access; a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrierd.Protective Barrier
75. Any medium or structure which define the physical limits of an installation or area to
restrict or impede access thereto; a.Physcial Barrier b.Perimeter barrier c.Barrier
d.Protective Barrier
76. Private Security Agency Law; a.R.A.5487 b.R.A.5847 c.R.A.6975 d.R.A.8551
77. Sometimes called private security guard or watchman shall include any person who
offers or renders personal service to watch; a.Security Officer b.Security
Guard c.Detachment commander d.Security manager
78. A corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the
security and the means and methods to reach these objectives; a.Security
Management b.Security Planning c.Security Survey d.Security Audit
79. The process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough
inspection of all operation system and procedures of a facility;a.Security Survey
b.Security Audit c.Security Inspection d.Security Surveillance
80. The Three Aspects of Security except in one; a.Personnel
b.Documentc.Physiological d.Information
81. The sum total of protection scheme encompassing the entire security spectrum,
designed to eliminate, reduce or control threats, hazards, risk or dangers to company
assets; a.Holistic protection b.Asset Protectionc.Life protection d.Security Protection
82. SG duties during strikes and lockouts; a.Carry only heavy firearmsb.Indirect
confrontation c.Avoid direct contact d.Stay in their perimeters
83. This probabilty ratings has the likelihood of occurrence; a.Virtually Certain b.Highly
Probable c.Moderately Probable d.Improbable
84. In Natural Authority “The highest is the law of self ___________”; a.Protection
b.Defense c.Preservation d.Control
85. Security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military
or police for the purpose of securing the office of such government entity;
a.Presidential Security Guard b.Private Guardc.Government guard unit d.Security
guard
86. A written order /schedule issued by a superior officer usually the private security
agency assigning the performance of private security agency; a.Court Order b.Duty
detail order c.Mission order d.Post order
87. Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life,
loss or destruction of property or disruption of the objectives; a.Security
Risk b.Security Hazard c.Security Threat d.Security Vulnerability
88. Added protection of important vital papers, plans, data, special correspondence,
cash and other essentials documents; a.Security barrier b.Security Vault c.Security
Box d.Security cabinet
89. Example of Conflict of interest; a.Sabotage b.Insurecction c.Bribery d.Flood
90. License certificate document issued by the chief, PNP or his duly authorized
representative to operate Security Agency; a.Driver’s License b.PNP License c.License
to Operate d.Operation License
91. This probabilty ratings has more likely to occur that not to occur ; a.Virtually Certain
b.Highly Probable c.Moderately Probabled.Improbable
92. __________ is protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by
various method and advise; a.Guard b.Security c.Authority d.Asset protection
93. Shall include not only natural but also juridical persons ; a.Employer
b.Military c.Person d.Police
94. Shall cover those in the legitimate business of providing private security and
detective services ; a.Agency b.Public Enforcers c.Private Security Industry d.VIP Body
guard
95. Sometimes called watchman; a.Witness b.Security Guard c.Supervisor d.Manager
96. Shall be natural persons which private security guards, private detectives, security
consultants, security officers and others that may be classified; a.Security Personnel
b.Watch Man c.Juridical persons d. Asset Protector
97. _____________ is charged with directing the work and observing the behavioural
performance of the guard under his unit; a.Owner b.Operation Manager c.Security
manager d.Security supervisor
98. Social Environment Probability Factors; a.Climate b.Income levels c.Composition
d.Latitude
99. A security guard always protect the interest of _________; a.Agency b.Country c.Law
d.Client
100. The Security Guard uniform symbolism of ___________ and confidence; a.Public
Office b.Respect c.Public Trust d.Standard
FINAL EXAMINATION
(CLJ 3 – CRIMINAL PROCEDURE)
SY2011-2012/2nd Semester
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. It is a provisional remedy issued upon an order of the court where an action is pending to be levied
upon the
property of the defendant, the same can be held thereafter by the sheriff as security for the satisfaction
of whatever
judgment might be secured in said action by the attaching creditor against the defendant.
A. Preliminary Injunction C. Preliminary Attachment
B. Motion for Prohibition D. Judgment
2. The provision remedies, in so far as there are applicable, may be availed of in connection with the civil
action
deemed instituted in _________________ .
A. Civil Case C. Administrative Action
B. Criminal Action D. Remedial Action
3. When the civil action is properly instituted in the criminal action, the offended party may have the
property of the
accused attached as security for the satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from the
accused in the
following cases:
A. When the accused is about to leave from the Philippines
B. When the accused has concealed, removed or disposed of his property or is about to do so.
C. When the accused is out on bail.
D. When the criminal action is based on a claim for money or property embezzled or
fraudulently misapplied
or converted to the use of the accused who is a public officer, officer of a corporation,
attorney de facto,
broker or agent or clerk in the course of his employment as such.
4. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained there at but also
facts discovered
by reason of unlawful search.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt. C. Fruits of the poisonous tree.
B. Burden of proof D. Border Search
5. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Consented warrantless Search C. Exclusionary Rule
B. Stop and frisk on Terry search. D. Inspection Search
6. The filing of the petition for __________is considered a waiver of the accused’s right to appeal, makes
his
conviction final the moment he files said application.
A. New Trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Probation D. Appeal
7. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Error of Law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during
the trial.
C. Failure to conduct preliminary Investigation
D. Newly discovered evidence has been discovered which accused could not with reasonable
diligent have
discovered and produced at the trial and submitted would probably changed the judgment.
8. It is a motion which can interrupt the running of the fifteen (15) day period to perfect an appeal.
A. Motion for new trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Motion in Quash D. Motion for probation
9. How long is given to the accused to make his appeal before the judgment will become final and
executor?
A. 30 days C. 15 days
B. 45 days D. 20 days
10. Who may appeal?
A. Only the accused C. Any party
B. Only the complainant D. The prosecutor
11. In cases divided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, where should the appeal be filed?
A. To the court of Appeals C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Regional Trial Court D. To the Municipal Trial Court
12. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Errors of law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during
the trial.
C. New and material evidence has been discovered which the accused could not with
reasonable diligence
have discovered and produced at the trial and which if introduced and admitted would probably
change the
judgment
D. minority of the accused
13. It may be granted by the court where the incompetency of the counsel for the defense is so great that
the defendant was
prejudicial and prevented from fairly presenting his defense.
A. New Trial C. Dismissal of the case
B. Reconsideration D. Judgment
14. Requisites of newly discovered evidence to be a valid ground for new trial, except:
A. The evidence was discovered after the trial
B. Such evidence could not have been discovered and produced at the trial even with
existence of reasonable diligence.
C. The evidence violates the Principle of Double Jeopardy.
D. The evidence must go to the merits and not rest on merely a technical defense.
15. It is a motion which may be filed after judgment but within period for perfecting an appeal.
A. Motion for reconsideration C. Motion for new trial
B. Motion to Quash D. Motion to file an appeal
16. It is a motion which may be presented only after either or both parties have formally offered and
closed their evidence, but
before judgment.
A. Motion to re-open trial C. Motion for reconsideration
B. Motion to file an appeal D. Motion to Quash
17. In all cases, when the court grants new trial, what happens to the original judgment?
A. The judgment is set aside or vacated C. The judgment become final and executory
B. The judgment is retained D. The judgment may be appealed
18. When a new trial is granted on the ground of newly discovered evidence, what happen to the original
evidence already
presented?
A. The evidence already presented remains C. The evidence already presented will
be set aside
B. The evidence already presented will be discard D. The evidence already presented will
not be given weight.
19. When criminal actions are brought to the Court of Appeals or to the supreme court, who must
represent the people of the
Philippines.
A. Public of the Philippines
B. The private prosecutor with the conformity of the Assistant Provincial Prosecutor
C. The judge
D. The Solicitor General
20. In cases decided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Where should the appeal be filed?
A. Regional Trial Court C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Court of Appeals D. to the Municipal Circuit Court
21. In cases decided by the court of Appeal where should the appeal be filed.
A. To the Supreme Court C. To the Solicitor General
B. To the Sandigan Bayan D. To the Court of Appeals itself
22. If the criminal case is dismissed by the court, or there is acquittal, can the complainant or the
offended party make an appeal.
A. No, because it is only the accused who can appeal in case of conviction.
B. No, the offended party or complainant cannot appeal the criminal aspect of the case.
C. Yes,the complainant or offended party may appeal the civil aspect of the case only.
D. Yes, the complainant and the accused are both given by law the right to appeal either the
criminal aspect or civil
aspect of the case.
23. What is the remedy of the accused in case a final judgment of conviction was rendered by the court?
A. File an appeal C. File a motion to Quash the information
B. File a motion to set aside judgment D. File a motion for new trial
24. Who may appeal from a judgment or final order of the court?
A. Prosecution only C. Any Party
B. Defense only D. The judge
25. For purposes of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases is the __________of the penalty
is taken account
A. Minimum of the penalty C. Maximum of the penalty
B. Medium of the penalty D. None of the above
26. When can a final judgment becomes final?
A. Upon the expiration of the period to appeal therefrom if no appeal has been duly perfected.
B. Upon the expiration of the period of 30 days
C. Upon the expiration of the period of 10 days
D. Upon the expiration of the period of 20 days
27. Pedro was sentence to suffer five years imprisonment by final judgment. Before the period of appeal
lapsed, Pedro escaped.
Can he appeal his case?
A. Yes, because his right to appeal is provided in our constitution
B. Yes, because he opted to file an appeal because the period of appeal had not yet lapses
C. No, because he escaped; hence, he waived his right to appeal
D. Yes, his right to appeal is mandatory right.
28. The appeal to the Court of Appeal in cases decided by the Regional Trial Court in the exercise of its
appellate jurisdiction shall
be by ____________
80. The rule that searches and seizures must be.supported by a valid search is not absolute. The
exception is:
A. Search incidental to a lawful arrest C. Stop and Frisk
B. Plain view seizure D. all of the above E. None of the
above
81. A valid search warrant was issued against Roberto. When the warrant was served on the house of
Roberto, an unlicensed
firearm was found in his room which is not included in the search warrant. He was charged for
illegal possession of
unlicensed firearm. Will the case against Roberto prosper?
A. Yes, because he was in possession of an unlicensed firearm
B. Yes, because seizure of the unlicensed firearm is incidental to a lawful search.
C. No, because the firearm is not one of those personal properties ordered to be seized by the
court, and therefore
illegally obtained evidence.
D. Yes, although it is not included in the search warrant, the firearm which is unlicensed is
illegal and therefore can be
confiscated and seized
82. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained during the search
but also facts discouraged
by reason of said unlawful search
A. Principle of double jeopardy C. Proof of beyond reasonable doubt principle
B. Principle of a fruit a Poisonous tree D. Search incidental to a lawful arrest principle
83. It is defined as the vernacular designation of the right of a police officer to stop a citizen on the street,
interrogate him and put
him for weapons,
A. Stop & Frisk C. Waiver
B. Plain view seizure D. Consented warrantless search
84. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Exclusionary rule C. Plain view doctrine
B. Fruit of a poisonous tree doctrine D. Stop & Frisk Principle
85. In this principle, the law requires that there be fist a lawful arrest before a search can be made.
A. Plain view doctrine C. Search incidental to lawful arrest
B. Stop & Frisk Doctrine D. Inspection search
86. The purpose of search incidental to A lawful arrest, except:
A. Protect the arresting officer against physical harm from the person being arrested
B. The person being arrested might be concealing weapons to be used against the officer
C. To protect the person arrested from destroying evidence within his reach.
D. To know the identity of the arrested person.
87. The search warrant was issued on February 01, 2012, up to what date will it be valid?
A. Feb 09, 2012 C. Feb 12, 2012
B. February 11,2012 D. February 10,2012
88. The officer after the conduct of search and seizure must do the following except:
A. Give a detailed receipt of the property seized to the lawful occupant.
B. Leave a detailed receipt of the property in the place in which he found the seized property in
the presence of at least
two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality.
C. Deliver immediately the property seized to the issuing judge together with the true and duly
verified under oath
inventory thereof
D. Deliver immediately the property seized in a bonded warehouse for safekeeping even
without the approval of the
court.
89. The extent of warrantless search may be made on the person of the suspect and immediate vicinity
or surrounding area of the
place of arrest, except:
A. In his room
B. Confined place within the accused’s immediate control
C. In his house situated 150 kmtrs away from the place of arrest
D. Premises of surroundings under his immediate control.
90 Routine inspection are not regarded as violative of an individual’s right against unreasonable search,
except:
A. Where the occupants are subjected to a physical or body search
B. Where the officers flashes a light therein without opening the car’s door
C. Where the inspection of the vehicle is limited to a visual search or visual inspection
D. Where the routine check is conducted in a fixed area
QUESTION 91 TO 100
Blacken A, if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and the second is incorrect; C
if the first statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are incorrect:
91. The frisk and search of a person is a permissible precautionary measure to protect the officer from
such person who might be armed with dangerous weapon. Warrantless search or incoming and outgoing
passengers at the arrival and departure areas of an international airport is universally allowed. A
92. Stop and frisk is limited protective search of outer clothing for weapons. A waiver of an illegal
warrantless also mean a waiver of the inadmissibility of evidence seized during an illegal warrantless
arrest.B
93. Warrantless search incidental to s lawful arrest may be made on the person only of the suspect and
not in the immediate vicinity or surrounding area of the place of arrest. Warrantless search incidental to a
lawful arrest may be made on the premises or surroundings under the persons immediate control.C
94. Where the search is made pursuant to a lawful arrest, there is always need to obtain a search
warrant. When the accused was caught inflagrante (in the act) there must be a search warrant to search
him and a warrant of arrest for his arrest.D
95. The search warrant is valid for ten days from its date. The warrant must direct that it be served in the
day time unless the affidavit asserts that the property is on the person or in the place ordered to be
searched, in which case a direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of the day or night.A
96. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property. An application for
search warrant may be filed in any court within which whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was
committed.A
97. Search refers to persons and places particularly described to be searched. A warrant of arrest is an
order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge and directed to a
place of officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the
court.B
98. A motion to re-open trial maybe filed after judgment but within the period for reconsideration can
interrupt the running of the 15 day period to perfect an appeal.C
99. Decisions of cases in the court of appeals is appealable to the Regional Trial Courts. Cases decided
by the regional trial courts are appealable to the Metropolitan Trial Courts.D
100. For the purpose of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases, the maximum of the penalty
and not the minimum is taken into account. The period within which to perfect an appeal is fifteen (15)
days.A
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. What do you call the branch of Criminology deals with the management and administration of
inmates?
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
2. Which of the following person convicted by final judgment?
a. Prisoner b. Detainee c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
3. The suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law is known as _______;
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
4. What branch of administration of criminal justice charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision and rehabilitation of convicted offenders?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
5. Which of the following is not a prison facility?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Manila City Jail
6. Which of the following is not a type of jail?
a. Lock-up b. Ordinary Jail c. New Bilibid Prison d. Work
House
7. What do you call to a disposition under which a defendant after sentenced and conviction is
released subject to the conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of probation officer?
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Parole d. Amnesty
8. Which of the following refers to the programs, services and institutions responsible for those
individuals who are accused and or convicted of criminal offenses?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
9. Refers to the suffering that is inflicted by the State for the violation of the law:
a. Punishment b. Sanction c Consequence d. Penalty
10.The basic law of the Philippine Prison System is found in the_____;
a. Revised Administrative Code c. Revised Penal Code
b. Revised Rules of Court d. Local Government Code
11.A theory justifying penalty which states that the criminal is punished to served as an example to
discourage others from committing crimes:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
12.A theory justifying penalty which states that criminals are punished to prevent or suppress the
danger to the State and to the public arising from the criminal acts of the offender:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d.
exemplarity
13.A juridical condition of penalty that states that the penalty must be imposed only to the person
who actually committed the crime:
a. commensurate b. definite c. personal d. equal
14.A juridical condition of penalty that states that penalty must be imposed by virtue of a judgment
by competent authority and as prescribed by law:
a. judicial and legal b. definite c.
equal d. personal
15.The national prisons are administered by the national government under what particular office?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology c. Department of Interior and Local
Government
b. Bureau of Corrections d. Office of the Governor
16.What penal institution established pursuant to Act No. 3579?
a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d.New Bilibid Prison
17.What law classifies prisoners?
a. Republic Act 29 b. Batas Pambansa 29 c. Presidential Decree 29 d.
Executive Order 29
18.Refers to the combination of public and private services with legal authority to provide for the
care, custody and control of those convicted of a criminal offense;
a. Conviction b. Corrections c. Courts d.
Penalty
19.What do you call the postponement of the execution of a death sentence?
a. Amnesty b. Probation c. Commutation of Sentence d.
Reprieve
20. What do you call a method by which a prisoner who has served a portion of his sentence is
conditionally released but remains in legal custody, the condition being that in case of misbehavior, he
shall be imprisoned?
a. Amnesty b. Parole c. Probation d. Pardon
21.What do you call the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence of an inmate because of good
behavior?
a. Commutation of sentence b. Judicial Reprieve c. Imposition of
Penalty d. Good Conduct time allowance
22.Who is the father of modern probation ?
a. John Howard b. John Augustus c. William Penn d.
Sir Walter Crofton
23.Probation is derived from the Latin word “probare” which means ______?
a. to prove b. to permit c. to release d. to serve
24.What is Presidential Decree 968?
a. Probation and Parole Law of 1967 c. Adult and Juvenile Probation Act of 1976
b. Probation Law of 1976 d. Pardon and Parole Law of 1967
25.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion is known as?
a. Reprieve b. Parole c. Executive Clemency d. Amnesty
26.Which of the following refers to an executive clemency changing a heavier sentence to a less serious
one, or a longer prison term to a shorter one?
a. Reprieve b. Commutation of Sentence c. Deduction of Sentence d. Good Conduct
time allowance
27. The following are the effects of pardon, EXCEPT one;
a. It removes penalties and disabilities and restores full civil and political rights.
b. It does not discharge the civil liability of the convict to the individual he has wronged.
c. It does not restore offices, property or rights vested in others in consequence of the conviction.
d. It extinguishes the civil and criminal liability of the convicted offender.
28.Refers to the confinement and treatment of adult offenders and juvenile delinquents;
a. Penalty b. Conviction c. Corrections d. Prison
29.What purpose of correction in which the State wants to protect the society by reducing crime and
isolating and segregating criminals through imprisonment?
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Isolation d.
Rehabilitation
30.What purpose/ objective of correction that involves the use of punitive and disciplinary measures
such as solitary confinement, to modify or reform criminal behavior whose conduct and deportment is
not totally responding to rehabilitation programs?
a. Retribution b. Isolation c. Rehabilitation d.
Reformation
31.Which of the following theoretical foundations in dealing with criminals believed in the concept or
principle of “Let the punishment fits the crime.”
a. Classical School b. Neo Classical School c. Positivist School d. Demonological School
32.When an individuals commits a crime they let the person drink a pungent poison to drive away the
evil spirit inside his body which leads him in the commission of crime. What do you call of this early
form of correction?
a. Trephination Method b. GrotesqueMask c. Pungent Poison d.
Banishment
33.The cutting of some parts of the offenders’ body is known as ______?
a. Flogging b. Mutilation c. Exile d. Branding
34.What is the manifestation of punishment during the dominance of Roman Empire?
a. Flogging b. Transfortation c. Banishment d. Slavery
35.In 1166 A.D. Assize of Clarendon (Constitution of Clarendon) constructed the first facility designed
solely for public incarceration. This facility was known as ________?
a. Prison b. Goal c. Workhouses d.
Detention Cell
36.What is the name of the famous gaol in Europe?
a. Assize of Clarendon b. New Gate c. Workhouses d.
Gaol
37. Who is the former prisoner and was released through parole became the first English prison
reformer as he was then appointed sheriff of Bedford Shire a local gaol in England?
a. John Howard b. Alexander Maonochie c.. Sir Walter Crofton d.
Rutherford Hayes
38.Refers to a concept that rejects hard labor as a form of punishment is known as _________?
a. Prison b. Detention c. Penitentiary d. Hospice
39.Who is the governor of the state of Pennsylvania initiated reforms in their prison system?
a. John Howard b. Walter Crofton c. Rutherford Hayes d. William
Penn
40.The fifth pillar of criminal justice system is _______?
a. Police b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Community
41.This is known as the basic unit of soiety;
a. Family b. School c. Church d. Media
42.He is an Englishman was then in-charge of the Birth of the British Penal Colony in Norfolk Island and
gained the title of “Father of Parole.”
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William Penn
43.Prisoners were encouraged for good behavior for them to gain incentives that would lead to their
early release. This concept was called the __________ which became the forerunner of Parole.
a. Pennsylvania System b. Mark System c. Reformatory
System d. Ticket Leave System
44.The first prison to abandon the Pennsylvania system and introduced the congregate prison in silent
system is known as _____?
a. Pennsylvania System b. Reformatory System c. Ticket Leave
System d. Auburn System
45.Who established the Irish concept of ticket-of- leave system?
a. Sir Walter Crofton b. Alexander Maconochie c. John Howard d. William Penn
46.The following are the early forms of punishment, EXCEPT one;
a. Branding b. Mutilation c. Public
Humiliation d. Trephination Method
47.Refers to conditional release that could be revoked any time before the original sentence expired;
a. Ticket of leave b. Mark system c. Workhouses d. Parole
48.The first President of the National Prison Association that encourage the separation of offenders by
age and practice of indeterminate sentence, academic and vocational training for inmates;
a. Alexander Maconochie b. Rutherford Hayes c. John Howard d. William Penn
49.It is the machinery of the state uses in the prevention of crime.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
50.They serve as lawyer of the government in all criminal cases.
a. Prosecutor b. Defense Lawyer c. Judges d. Litigants
51.They initiate the process to make the criminal justice system works.
a. Defense Lawyer b. Courts c. Police d. Judges
52.An inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made especially
those arrests made without warrant.
a. Preliminary Investigation b. Court Trial c. Preliminary Hearing d. Inquest Procedure
53.The knowledge of facts, actual or apparent, strong enough to justify a reasonable man in the belief
that the lawful grounds for arresting the accused;
a. Proof b. Evidence c. Probable Cause d. Subpoena
54.An act or omission punishable by law;
a. Crime b. Arrest c. Culpa d. Deceit
55.It is a principle that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty or property without reasonable
and lawful procedures;
a. Equal protection b. Right against self-incrimination c. Bill of Rights d. Due
Process
56.Consists of district and circuit court in Muslims areas for the administration of the provisions of
Muslims Personal Law;
a. Sandiganbayan b. Shari’a court c. Supreme Court d. Court of
Appeals
57.The law that created the Katarungang Pambarangay;
a. Republic Act No. 7160 b. Republic Act No. 7106 c. Republic Act No. 6170 d. Republic
Act No. 1760
58.The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense.
a. Detection b. Apprehension c. Adjudication d. Arrest
59.They are considered as the prime mover of the system.
a. Law Enforcement b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Correction
60.When was the first Philippine probation law enacted?
a. August 5, 1953 b. August 5, 1935 c. August 7, 1953 d. August 7, 1935
61. It is the first probation law of the Philippines;
a. Act No 4221 b. Act No 4122 c. Act No 1242 d. Act No
2241
62.Who is the father of Philippine probation?
a. Teodoro Natividad b. Teodolo Natividad c. Teofilo Natividad d. Theodore
Natividad
63.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense
usually granted in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political
character, such as treason, sedition or rebellion;
a. Amnesty b. Repreive c. Probation d. Parole
64.Refers to the extinction of the criminal liability of an individual, within certain limits or conditions,
from the punishment which the law inflicts for the offense he has committed;
a. Parole b. Amnesty c. Absolute Pardon d. Conditional
Pardon
65.The pardoning power is exercised by the _______?
a. President b. Commissioner c. Secretary of DOJ d. Speaker of the House
66.A collective term for absolute pardon, conditional pardon and commutation of sentence ;
a. Probation b. Amnesty c. Executive Clemency d. Pardon
67.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to six months;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
68.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of six months and one day to three years;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
69.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to three years;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
70.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of three years and one day to death;
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
71.Those held for security reasons; held for investigation; those awaiting final judgment; those
awaiting trial are referred as _____?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Detention Prisoners c. Municipal Prisoner d. City Prisoner
72.Those convicted by final judgment referred as ______?
a. Insular Prisoner b. Provincial Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner d. Sentenced
Prisoner
73.Security facility for the temporary detention of persons held for investigation or waiting preliminary
hearing; usually the period of detention does not exceed forty eight (48) hours is called _____?
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
74.Refers to an institutions for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to imprisonment of three
(3) years or less and offenders awaiting and/or undergoing trial;
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
75.Refers to farms or camps;
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse
Jail d. Detention Cell
76. City and municipal jails are administered and supervised by the ________?
a. BJMP b. BUCOR c. NBI d.
PNP
77.Provincial jails are administered and supervised by their respective ______?
a. local government b. city government c. provincial government d. National
Government
78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_______”, “_______.”
a. jaulo and caula b. deceit and dolo c. fault and culpa d. poena and gaol
79. The prison that established on 16 January 1973;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
80.The following are sub-colony of Sablayan Colony and Penal Farm, Except one;
a. Central b. Pasugul c. Yapang d. Panabo
81.How many hectares does the Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm measures?
a. 16,000 hectares b. 124 hectares c. 18 hectares d. 1,500 hectares
82.What prison established in 1870 by Capt. Ramon Blanco, of the Spanish Royal Army, and was named
after Capt. Blanco’s father’s patron saint?
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
83.It operates Tanglaw settlement for released prisoners as homesteaders;
a. Sablayan Penal Colony b. Davao Penal Colony c. National Bilibid Prison d. Leyte
Regional Prison
84.What prison established on 16 November 1904 pursuant to Reorganization Act 1407?
a. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm b. San Ramon Penal Colony c. National Bilibid
Prison d. Leyte Regional Prison
85.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials were provide by private business its
manufacturing process was supervised inside the prison?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d.
Contract system
86.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials and the products and produced by the prisons
and brought by the private business?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d.
Contract system
87.Refers to treatment program in which the offender and the therapist develop a face-to-face
relationship;
a. Individual Treatment b. Group Therapy c. Behavior therapy d.
Group Guided Interactions
88.Responsible for evaluating the evidence the law enforcement has gathered and deciding whether it
is sufficient to warrant the filing of charges against the alleged violator;
a. Judge b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecutor d. Courts
89.They are responsible in reforming the convicted person;
a. Correction b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecution d.
Courts
90. In most cases, the only paperwork necessary to initiate prosecution of an accused is. . .
a. Complaint or Information b. Affidavit c. Commitment Order d. Release Order
91.The criminal justice process begins with the _________.
a. Commission of a crime b. Apprehension of criminal c.. detection of crime d.
adjudication of the case
92.Comprises all means used to enforce the standards of conduct, which are deemed necessary to
protect individuals;
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Procedure c. Criminal Procedure d.
Criminal Justice System
93.A court that covers two or more municipalities;
a. Regional Trial Court b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court c. Supreme Court d. Court
of Appeals
94. He is the warden of Sing Sing prison in New York who visited and studied the Prison System in
England and was impress the Irish system.
a. Alexander Maconochie b. William Pen c. Gaylord B. Hubbell d. Ippo
Maqonoche
95. This type of treatment program was used on highly aggressive inmates to control their
destructive behavior;
a. individual treatment b.group therapy c. chemotherapy d. behavior therapy
96. What type of treatment program that is sought to calm disruptive offender to associate pain and
displeasure with a certain stimuli;
a. neurosurgery b. serisory deprivation c. GGI d. Individual treatment
97. The main purpose of this program is to increase the client knowledge on career choices or job
qualification and training needed for successful employment
a. Vocational Counseling b. Behavioral Modification c. crisis intervention d. social
group work
98. A prison located at Muntinlupa, Metro Manila;
a. Ihawig Penal Colony b. National Bilibid Prison c. San Ramon Penal Farm d. Davao Penal
Colony
99. In the preceding number it has a measurement of 55 hectares ( choices refer to # 98) B
100. Where does the Philippine Prison System patterned?
a. English Prison System b. Irish Prison System c. US Federal Prison System d. Alcatraz Prison
Sytem
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. What crime is committed when a person, through force, inserts his penis into another person’s mouth or anal orifice?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Acts of Lasciviousness
2. If a person wounds, assaults or beats another person causing deformity on the latter, the crime committed is:
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
3. What crime is committed when a person, without intent to kill, inflicts upon another any serious physical injury, by
knowingly administering to him any injurious substances or beverages?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Mutilation
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Administering injurious substances or beverages
4. MAGDA, a prostitute, agreed to have sex with a customer for the amount of P1,000.00. While in the motel, the
customer started kissing MAGDA. MAGDA noticed that the customer has bad breath. Eventually, she pulled away
from the customer and refused to have sex with him. Angered by the refusal, the customer forced himself on MAGDA
who was able to accomplish his carnal desires on the latter. What crime, if any, did the customer commit?
A. Rape C. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Seduction D. No crime was committed
6. NENE, a 10-year old girl, consented to have sex with her 20-year old neighbor HOMER who looks like John Lloyd
Cruz. What crime, if any, did HOMER commit?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Violation of child abuse law D. Qualified Seduction
7. What crime is committed when a police officer takes advantage of his position to rape another person?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. None of these
8. Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the latter’s will commits the crime of:
A. Qualified trespass to dwelling C. Trespass to property
B. Simple trespass to dwelling D. Violation of domicile
9. Due to the passage of the Anti-rape law of 1997, Rape is now classified as:
A. Crime against chastity C. Crime against liberty
B. Crime against persons D. None of these
10. If the person kidnapped or detained shall be a female, the crime is:
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Slavery
B. Slight illegal detention D. Arbitrary detention
11. It is a crime committed by anyone who, under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by an ascendant,
guardian or person entrusted with the custody of a minor, shall, against the latter’s will, retain him in his service.
A. Slavery C. Exploitation of minors
B. Abandoning a minor D. Exploitation of child labor
12. It is committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor
force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Estafa D. Piracy
13. It is a felony committed by any person who shall threaten another with the infliction upon the person, honor,
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime
A. Grave coercion C. Grave threats
B. Light coercion D. Light threats
14. Any person who shall deliberately cause to the property of another any damage that does not constitute arson shall
be guilty for what crime?
A. Unjust vexation D. Damage to property
B. Malicious mischief D. None of these
17. LOLO ROMEO fondled the breast of her 15 year-old granddaughter WENDY. WENDY did not resist the advances of
her LOLO and in fact, she stated to him to continue what he is doing. What crime, if any, did LOLO ROMEO commit?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness C. Seduction
B. Acts of Lasciviousness with the consent D. Attempted Rape
Of the offended party
19. A person who engages in the business of prostitution is liable for what felony?
A. Prostitution C. White slave trade
B. Slavery D. Vagrancy
20. While walking within the premises of a coconut plantation owned by JOEY, ROLAND saw a piece of coconut on the
ground. ROLAND decided to get the coconut and bring it home as a “pasalubong” to his son. What crime, if any, did
ROLAND commit?
A. Simple theft C. Robbery
B. Qualified theft D. Estafa
21. It is the seduction of a woman who is single and of good reputation, over twelve but under eighteen years of age,
and committed by means of deceit
A. Simple seduction C. Forcible abduction
B. Qualified seduction D. Acts of Lasciviousness
22. KURT has a longstanding grudge against his neighbor JIMI. One day, while JIMI was away, KURT surreptitiously
poisoned the cow of JIMI resulting in the death of the cow. What crime, if any, did KURT commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Violation of PD 533 (Anti-cattle rustling law) D. Physical injuries
23. MICHELLE MASIPAG worked as a housemaid and yaya of the one-week old son of the spouses PETER and PAULA.
When MICHELLE learned that her 70 year-old mother was seriously ill, she asked PETER for a cash advance of
P1,000.00, but PETER refused. One morning, MICHELLE gagged the mouth of PETER’s son with stockings; placed the
child in a box; sealed it with masking tape and placed the box in the attic. Later in the afternoon, she
demanded P5,000.00 as ransom for the release of his son. PETER did not pay the ransom. Subsequently, MICHELLE
disappeared.
After a couple of days, PETER discovered the box in the attic with his child already dead. According to the
autopsy report, the child died of asphyxiation barely three minutes after the box was sealed. What crime/s did
MICHELLE commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping with homicide
B. Slight illegal detention with homicide D. Kidnapping and homicide
26. SARAH and NONITO are sweethearts. As a birthday gift, NONITO gave SARAH a BlackBerry cell phone. Two days
later, SARAH broke up with NONITO because she caught the latter cheating on her. SARAH decided to burn the cell
phone that NONITO gave her. What crime, if any, did SARAH commit?
A. Arson C. Damage to property
B. Malicious mischief D. No crime was committed
27. In an interview aired on television, DINA uttered defamatory statements against CARMEN, a successful and
reputable businesswoman. What crime, if any, did DINA commit?
A. Slander C. Incriminating innocent persons
B. Libel D. No crime was committed
28. It consists in voluntarily, but without malice, doing or failing to do an act from which material damage results by
reason of inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of the person performing or failing to perform such act.
A. Reckless imprudence C. Offense
B. Simple imprudence D. None of these
29. It is the abduction of any woman against her will and with lewd designs
A. Consented abduction C. Kidnapping
B. Forcible abduction D. None of these
30. SIMON entered the house of another without employing force or violence upon things. He was seen by a maid
who wanted to scream but was prevented from doing so because SIMON threatened her with a gun. SIMON then
took money and other valuables and left. What crime, if any, did SIMON commit?
31. Seduction is a:
A. Crime against honor C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against persons D. Crime against liberty
32. Libel is a:
A. Crime against persons C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against property D. Crime against honor
33. A fire broke out in a department store. SID, taking advantage of the confusion, entered the store and carried
away goods, which he later sold. What crime, if any, did SID commit?
A. Robbery C. Qualified theft
B. Theft D. Estafa
34. Any person who shall defraud another with unfaithfulness or abuse of confidence shall be liable for what crime?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Robbery D. Estafa
35. DANTE and DIEGO ate at a restaurant near Our Lady of Fatima University in Valenzuela City. Because it is lunch
time, the restaurant was crowded. Realizing that they can leave the restaurant unnoticed without having their bill for
the food they ate, paid, the two clandestinely left the place. After two days, the police apprehended the two. What
crime, if any, did DANTE and DIEGO commit?
A. Theft C. Estafa
B. Qualfied theft D. No crime was committed
37. It is a crime committed by any person who, in any case other than those authorized by law, or without
reasonable ground therefore, shall arrest or detains another for the purpose of delivering him to the proper
authorities.
A. Arbitrary detention C. Illegal detention
B. Unlawful arrest D. Kidnapping
38. It is committed by any person who, without authority of law, shall by means of violence, threats or intimidation,
prevent another from doing something not prohibited by law, or compel him to do something against his will,
whether it be right or wrong.
a. Grave coercions c. Light coercions
b. Grave threats d. Light threats
39. Any person who shall orally threaten to do another any harm not constituting a felony is liable for what crime, if
any?
A. Coercion C. Unjust vexation
B. Other light threats D. No crime was committed
40. A private individual who, in order to discover the secrets of another, shall seize his papers or letters and reveal
the contents thereof is liable for what felony?
A. Infidelity in the custody of documents C. Theft
B. Discovering secrets through seizure of D. Estafa
Correspondence
42. To constitute a band under Art. 296 of the Revised Penal Code, there must be how many armed persons taking
part in a robbery?
A. More than three C. Three or more
B. Three D. Less than three
43. A person who possesses a picklock without lawful cause is liable for what crime, if any?
A. Theft C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. No crime was committed
44. A person who uses a picklock or other similar tools in the commission of robbery shall be guilty of what crime?
A. Robbery C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. Robbery and possession of picklocks
45. CAROL and CINDY are sisters. Both are college students in the College of Criminology of Our Lady of Fatima
University in Valenzuela City. They both live with their parents. CAROL has a cute shih tzu dog; one day while CAROL
was away on a date, CINDY took the dog without the consent of CAROL and sold it to her classmate. What crime did
CINDY commit?
A. Robbery C. Malicious mischief
B. Estafa D. Theft
47. When more than three armed persons form a band of robbers for the purpose of committing robbery in the
highway, the felony committed is:
A. Brigandage C. Piracy
B. Robbery D. None of these
48. To be liable for violation of the Anti-Fencing law of 1979 (PD No. 1612), a person who, with intent to gain for
himself or another, shall buy, receive, possess, keep, acquire, conceal, sell, or dispose of, or shall buy and sell, any
item, article, object which he knows, or should be known to him, to have been derived from the proceeds of the
crime of:
A. Robbery or Theft C. Theft only
B. Robbery only D. Robbery, Theft, or Estafa
49. A person who shall contract a second or subsequent marriage before the former marriage has been legally
dissolved is liable for what crime?
A. Adultery C. Bigamy
B. Concubinage D. None of these
50. HERCULES kidnapped ACHILLES and subsequently detained him in a rented property somewhere in Valenzuela
City. After detaining ACHILLES for 10 hours, HERCULES called ACHILLES’ wife to ask for the payment of P2 million in
exchange for the liberty of her husband. ACHILLES’ wife immediately agreed and deposited the P2 million in
HERCULES’ bank account. Five hours have passed before HERCULES was able to receive the money. Thereafter, he
quickly released ACHILLES. What crime is committed?
A. Slight illegal detention C. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention
B. Grave coercion D. Forcible abduction
51. It is the taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another without the latter’s consent, or by
means of violence against or intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things
A. Robbery C. Carnapping
B. Qualified theft D. Brigandage
52. IVAN entered the house of DIEGO through the chimney, just like what Santa Claus does. While inside, he took a
laptop computer on the table and immediately left the house without anyone seeing him. What crime, if any, did
IVAN commit?
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Trespass to dwelling D. Malicious mischief
53. It is a crime committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not her husband
and by the man who has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married.
A. Concubinage C. Seduction
B. Bigamy D. Adultery
54. DENNIS and CARMEN were legally separated. Their child FRANCIS, a minor was placed in the custody of
CARMEN, subject to monthly visitations by DENNIS. On one occasion, when DENNIS had FRANCIS in his company,
DENNIS decided not to return FRANCIS to his mother. Instead, DENNIS took FRANCIS with him to Spain where he
intended for them to reside permanently. What crime, if any, did DENNIS commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping and failure to return a minor
B. Kidnapping and slight illegal detention D. Corruption of minors
56. Which of the following is no longer a crime/s, according to the decision of the Supreme Court in Valenzuela vs
People (GR No. 160188, June 21, 2007):
A. Frustrated theft c. Both a and b
B. Frustrated robbery d. None of these
57. If someone was killed in the course of the commission of robbery, the crime committed is:
A. Robbery and homicide C. Homicide
B. Robbery D. Robbery with homicide
58. A person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the
same to the payment of the debt is liable for what felony?
A. light threats C. Light coercions
B. Fraudulent insolvency D. None of these
59. By using a slingshot, RONNIE deliberately hit the favorite duck of his LOLA TASYA. As a consequence, the duck
died. RONNIE was charged with malicious mischief. RONNIE contended that he is exempt from criminal liability
pursuant to Art.332 of the Revised Penal Code. Is RONNIE correct?
A.Yes, because RONNIE is a descendant of his LOLA, thus exempt under Art. 332 of the Penal Code
B. Yes, because RONNIE is a minor
C. No, because RONNIE committed a crime
D. No, because RONNIE intended to kill the duck of his LOLA
62. JOAN and JANE are college classmates. They are both of legal age. JOAN burned the pen of JANE worth P10.00
because JANE did not allow JOAN to copy her assignment in school. What crime, if any, did JOAN commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Arson D. No crime was committed
67. At about 11:00 in the evening, LANDO forced his way inside the house of ROGER. TIBURCIO, ROGER’s son, saw
LANDO and accosted him. LANDO pulled a knife and stabbed TIBURCIO on his abdomen. ROGER heard the
commotion and went out of his room. LANDO, who is about to escape, assaulted ROGER. TIBURCIO suffered
injuries, which were not for the timely medical attendance, would have caused his death. ROGER sustained injuries
that incapacitated him for 25 days. How many crime/s did LANDO commit?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
68. In question no. 67, what kind of physical injuries did ROGER sustain?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
69. In the crime of qualified seduction, the offended party should be a virgin. What kind of virginity does the law
contemplate?
A. Physical virginity C. Both a and b
B. Moral virginity D. None of these
71. NOAH proposed to his friend MARLON to kidnap ALLIE so that they can rape her. MARLON agreed. On the date
of their plan, the two had a change of heart and did not push through with the scheme. What crime, if any, did
NOAH and MARLON commit?
A. Attempted kidnapping C. Attempted rape
B. Attempted forcible abduction D. No crime was committed
73. After raping the complainant in her house, the accused struck a match to smoke a cigarette before departing
from the scene. The brief light from the match allowed him to notice a watch in her wrist. He demanded that she
hand over the watch. When she refused, he forcibly grabbed it from her. What crime/s did the accused commit?
A. Robbery with rape C. Rape and theft
B. Rape and robbery D. Qualified rape
74. An accused charged with violation of PD No. 1612 (Anti-fencing law of 1979) would have been an____________ in
theft or robbery had not the charge filed against him been fencing.
A. Principal C. Accessory
B. Accomplice D. None of these
78. PD No. 533, otherwise known as the Anti-cattle rustling law of 1974 is:
A. Part of the Revised Penal Code C. Either a or b
B. A special penal law D. None of these
79. It is the taking of personal property out of the possession of the owner
A. Robbery C. Asportation
B. Seizure D. None of these
80. If a person enters the dwelling or property of another without the consent of the owner, but the purpose of such
entry is to render some aid to humanity or justice, what crime, if any, did the person who entered commit?
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Violation of domicile
B. Trespass to property D. No crime was committed
81. TT kidnapped KK in a dimly lit street. XX, a passerby saw what happened. TT noticed that XX witnessed his act. As a
consequence, TT killed XX. What is the crime committed?
A. Kidnapping with homicide C. Kidnapping and murder
B. Kidnapping and homicide D. None of these
82. A 7-year old child was raped by the friend of her father. What crime is committed?
A. Qualified rape C. Simple rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Seduction
83. By using a picklock, ABET ALINLANGAN successfully entered the house of POPOY. As ABET was about to get the ipad
and iphone on top of the table, he noticed POPOY descending from the stairs. Alarmed, he went to POPOY and killed
him. What is the crime committed?
A. Attempted robbery with homicide c. Attempted theft with homicide
B. Attempted robbery and homicide d. Attempted theft and homicide
84. What is the effect if the offender marries the offended party in rape, granting all the requisites for a valid marriage are
present?
A. The crime is extinguished C. both A and B
B. The criminal liability is extinguished D. No effect
85. DOY, a gigolo from Manila raped SISA, a barrio lass in Nueva Ecija. At the time of the commission of the rape, DOY
had no knowledge that SISA was a mental retardate. What is the crime committed?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. Seduaction
86. AUBREY, a gorgeous ‘colegiala’ but a shoplifter went to SM Valenzuela and proceeded to the women’s wear section.
The saleslady was of the impression that she brought to the fitting room three (3) pieces of swimsuits of different
colors. When she came out of the fitting room, she returned only two (2) pieces to the clothes rack. The saleslady
became suspicious and alerted the store security. AUBREY was stopped by the security before she could leave the
store and brought to the office of the store manager. The security and the manager searched her and found her
wearing the third swimsuit under her blouse and pants. What is the crime committed?
A. Attempted theft C. Consummated theft
B. Frustrated theft D. Robbery
87. The main difference between kidnapping and forcible abduction is the presence or absence of:
A. Taking of a person C. detention
B. Lewd design D. None of these
92. SIMPLICIO is married to the sister of DOLLY, and the three (3) live together in a house located in Malabon City. On
several occasions, DOLLY’s dog would bark at SIMPLICIO every time he arrives at past midnight. One time, after
arriving in the house at around 2 o’ clock in the morning, DOLLY’s dog barked continuously at SIMPLICIO. In a fit of
anger, SIMPLICIO entered the house, took a bolo and killed the dog. What is the crime committed?
A. Malicious mischief C. Mutilation
B. Unjust vexation D. None of these
95. JERRY set the house of RAMONA on fire by way of revenge against the latter. JERRY did not know that RAMONA was
inside. RAMONA died because of the fire. What crime or crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide
B. Homicide D. Arson and homicide
96. In question no. 95, suppose JERRY knew that RAMONA was inside, what crime/crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Homicide C. Arson and murder
B. Murder D. Arson and homicide
97. In question no. 95, suppose before setting it on fire, JERRY entered the house and killed RAMONA. Then JERRY set
the house on fire to hide the body of RAMONA. What crime/crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Murder C. Arson with homicide
B. Arson D. Murder and arson
99. Which of the following is an example of a special complex crime or composite crime?
A. Robbery with homicide C. Estafa through falsification of a public document
B. Direct assault with murder D. All of these
100. It is a law that defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
A. Criminal law C. Special penal law
B. Criminal jurisprudence D. Civil law
LEA 6 (Special Crime Investigation
INSTRUCTION: Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the best answer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the provided answer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE.
================================================================================
============
I. MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and examination of a dead
body to determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the detection and investigation
of crimes is called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
3. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
5. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
7. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
11. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers to
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
12. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
13. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully understand their broad
significance refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
14. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from various sources is
called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
15. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed by investigators is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
16. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an offense or a person
who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his possessions, which is pertinent to
the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
17. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834
18. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and investigation of crime is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
19. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense is called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
20. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace officer to arrest
the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
23. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two walls. Works well for
indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
24. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas. This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
25. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to locate. This
is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
26. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
27. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence within this outline
refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
28. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for
which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
29. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the
offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not directly constituting an acknowledgment
of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
31. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
32. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party; to locate the
guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
33. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and
responsibilities refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
34. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
35. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been arrested or deprived of his
freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is being investigated in connection with an
offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
36. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts concerning the matter or
matters involved is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
37. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information/facts/circumstances in order
to establish the truth is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
38. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police interrogation is
called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
39. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself and other sources
refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
40. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the physical sciences
in detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
42. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
43. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang with a
revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
44. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall guilty of what
crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
45. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
46. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that some other person
is responsible is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
47. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
48. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
49. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving physical evidence is
refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
50. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
51. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon things
52. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning and
organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle is called
A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
C. Professional Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber
53. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery offenses,
often recklessly. They are called
54. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous weapons.
A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery
A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery
56. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the house of the latter
and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?
A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
57. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area and took the car
stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
59. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence is sometimes
refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
60. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by exercising power
and control over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
61. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further political or social
objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists
62. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or at the same time
as him or herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
63. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by fire or
explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
65. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
D. Socialist terrorists
66. B If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather information from the victim himself
regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-mortem statement is also called dying declaration.
67. B Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual circumstance justifies its
immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination without dissection on the body of the victim.
68. A The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to his arrival at the crime
scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature of the scene and the crime or offense
involved.
69. B The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item for proper identification.
Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.
70. B The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire area. The Team Leader
prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
71. A The police officer of the station who first received the report of the incident shall record the time of
report/complaint was made. Interview the person who first notifies the police.
72. C Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything at the scene as
evidence.
73. A The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team in incident involving
deaths.
74. D Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with markings. Chalk line is placed
around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at the crime scene.
75. D Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training.
Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
76. A Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed. Modus Operandi is
the Modes of Operation.
77. D The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch, move, or alter any
evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and photographed is the Cardinal Rule in
Criminal Investigation.
78. A The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal investigation. One of good
qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
79. A The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at least knowledgeable on
crimes defines in the revised penal code.
80. B Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a criminal investigator. The
recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel identification of the perpetrator.
81. B One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After identification the
investigator shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
82. A The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. The processing of the
area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this is determined by the type of crime
committed and the place where the act occurred.
83. D Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing to provide
information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are reluctant to provide
information.
84. D Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of inquiry. It is a science
because it does not follow rigid rules.
85. A Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of identifying, locating and
providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic plan facilitates a logical flow of
investigation.
86. A At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the victim. While the other
members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the area by putting a police line or any
material (like rope, straw and etc).
87. A Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired in a particular incident.
Criminal Investigation is an art and science.
88. A Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law. Crime is punishable by
public law.
89. A The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the first responder. He should
follow correct procedures not to make errors.
Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521
Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of the V.I.N.
combination of V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Type of Restraint System
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Nation of Origin
D. Specific Name of the Vehicle
91. J A. Nation of Origin
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Type of Restraint System
D. Specific Name of the Vehicle
92. 3 A. Car Line Series and Body Type
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Type of Restraint System
93. J A. Type of Restraint System
B. Engine Description
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
94. 4 A. Engine Description
B. Check Digit
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Name of Manufacturer
95. 5 A. Car Line Series and Body Type
B. Engine Description
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
96. A A. Model Year
B. Car Line Description
C. Assembly Plant Location
D. Check Digit
97. 0 A. Sequential Production Number
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
98. C A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Engine Description
99. R A. Model Year
B. Check Digit
C. Assembly Plant Location
D. Engine Description
100. 335521 A. Check Digits
B. Sequential Production Numbers
C. Number Series
D. Production Number Series
===================================================================
FINAL EXAMINATION
IN CRIMINAL LAW (BK I)
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In case of the conviction of the accused, who will pay the cost of the proceedings.
A. Relatives of the accused C. The winning party
B. The accused D. The State
2. If the property of the accused is not sufficient for the payment of all the pecuniary liabilities, which will
be given the
first priority to be paid?
A. The cost of the proceedings C. The indemnification of the consequential
damages
B. the fine D. The reparation of the damaged cause
3. What is the equivalent rate of the subsidiary personal liability if the accused has no property with which
to pay the
fine in the decision of the court.
A. One day of each Ten Pesos C. One day for each Fifteen Pesos
B. One day for each Eight Pesos D. One day for each twenty Pesos
4. If the accused was prosecuted for grave or less grave felony and the principal penalty imposed is only
a fine, how
long shall be the subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Three (3) months C. Four (4) months
B. Six (6) months D. Five (5) months
5. If the accused was prosecuted for light felonies only, and the principal penalty is only fine, how long
shall be the
subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Ten (10) days C. Six (6) days
B. Twelve (12) days D. Fifteen (15) days
6. It is a subsidiary personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property with which to meet
the fine.
A. Pecuniary penalty C. Subsidiary penalty
B. Administrative penalty D. Correctional penalty
7. What is the accessory penalty of reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal.
A. Civil interdiction for life C. Suspension of the right of suffrage
B. Suspension of the right to hold office. D. No accessory penalty
8. What is the accessory penalty of Destierro.
A. Civil interdiction for life
B. Suspension from public office, profession or calling
C. Suspension of the right to suffrage
D. No accessory penalty
9. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the ___________ of the
proceeds of the
crime and the instruments or tools with which it was committed.
A. Destruction C. Auction
B. Forfeiture D. Removal
10. The proceeds and instruments or tools of the crime shall be taken in favor of the __________.
A. Victim C. Third party
B. Accused D. Government
11. When can confiscation of the proceeds or property or instruments of the crimes be ordered by the
court.
A. When it submitted in evidence
B. When it is not placed at the disposal of the court
C. When it is owned by the victim
D. When it is owned by the accused
12. Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in
case
of an __________
A. Revival of the case C. Appeal
B. Acquittal D. Refilling of the case
13. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in
the
commission of the felony.
A. Accessories C. Principals
B. Accomplices D. Co- accused
14. It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of age.
A. Reclusion Perpetua C. Death penalty
B. Prison correctional D. Arresto Mayor
15. A single out act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies is a ____________ crime.
A. Grave offense C. Less grave offense
B. Complex crime D. Continuing crime
16. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity
within the
fourth civil degree, such as _____________.
A. Brothers and sisters C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece D. Second cousin
17. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A. Self defense C. Defense of stranger
B. Defense of relative D. Fulfillment of duty
18. A person considered as _________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A. Insane C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile D. Epileptic
19. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A. Emotions C. Intelligence
B. Anxiety D. Depression
20. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A. Prosecution C. Court
B. Defense D. Prosecutor
21. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts but all arising from one criminal resolution.
A. Plural crime C. Habitual crime
B. Continuing crime D. Revolving crime
22. A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his release
or last
conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is
found guilty of
any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist C. Ex – convict
B. Habitual delinquent D. Pardonee
23. In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the
amount in each
case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more
particularly
to the ________ of the defendant.
A. Education C. Health
B. Wealth and means D. Age
24. Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to
the Board
of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the
release
of such prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
A. Medium C. Minimum
B. Maximum D. One half
25. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole C. Probation
B. Recognition D. Pardon
26. A person placed on probation.
A. Parolee C. Pardonee
B. Probationer D. Ex- convict
27. One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
A. Parole officer C. Probation officer
B. Police officer D. Administrative officer
28. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A. In terim C. De Jure
B. Final D. Temporary
29. When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution
of said
sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
A. Continued C. Extinct
B. Suspended D. Enforced
30. If the convict becomes insane or imbecile after the final sentence, the payment of his ________ shall
not be
suspended.
A. Criminal liability C. Civil or pecuniary liabilities
B. Administrative liability D. Personal liability
31. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or
less grave
felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead
of
pronouncing judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit
such minor
to the custody and care of a public or private charitable institution.
A. Proceed C. Set aside
B. Suspend D. Prolong
32. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his
confinement,
in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order
that the same
may order his final release.
A. DSWD C. Court
B. Parents D. Relatives / guardians
33. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which
he was
committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the
same may
_________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A. Render the judgment C. Order extension of his commitment
B. Order his release D. Order his rehabilitation
34. The expenses for the maintenance of the minor delinquent confined in the institution to which he has
been
committed, shall be borne totally or partially by _________ or those persons liable to support him,
if they are
able to do so in the discretion of the court.
A. DSWD C. Institution
B. Parents or relatives D. State
35. Under the new law, the age of majority is ___________.
A. 21 years old C. 18 years old
B. 15 years old D. 16 years old
36. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated
in the
sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Destierro
B. Aresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
37. The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
A. Not less than 25kms. But not more than 200 kms.
B. Not less than 20 kms. But not more than 225 kms.
C. Not less than 5 kms. But not more than 125 kms.
D. Not less than 25 kms. But not more than 250 kms.
38. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant
under the
surveillance of an officer of the law.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Prision correccional
B. Arresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
39. As the personal penalties, criminal liability of the accused is totally extinguished upon his _________.
A. Incarceration C. Death
B. Conviction D. Confinement
40. The pecuniary liabilities of the convict is extinguished only when the death of the offender occurs
_______.
A. After the final judgment C. During the pendency of the case
B. Before the final judgment D. During the hearing of the case
41. It is not one of the grounds of extinction of criminal liability of the accused.
A. By voluntary surrender
B. By service of sentence
C. By absolute pardon
D. By prescription of the crime
42. Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to
the
Case filed against him.
A. The case will continue to be heared.
B. The case will be suspended.
C. The case will set aside.
D. The case will be dismissed.
43. Berto was sentenced in the regional trial court. He appealed the case to the court of appeals. During
the
pendency of his appeal, Berto died. What will happen to his civil and criminal liability?
A. The civil and criminal liability is not extinguished?
B. The civil and environmental liability is extinguished?
C. The civil and criminal liability will be suspended.
D. The civil and criminal liability is set a side.
44. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which the
individual
On whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed.
A. Parole C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of crime
45. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain
time.
A. prescription of crime C. Parole
B. Prescription of penalty D. Probation
46. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of
a certain
Time.
A. Amnesty C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of criminal
47. Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
A. 10yrs C. 20yrs.
B. 12yrs D. 15yrs.
Questions 71 to 85
Write A if both statements are correct; B if first statement is correct and the second is
incorrect.
C if the first statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are
incorrect.
___A_ 71. Subsidiary imprisonment is not an accessory penalty. It is a penalty for it is imposed upon the
accused
and served by him in lieu of the fine which he fails to pay on account of insolvency.
__B__72. One of the pecuniary penalties of the offender is reparation of the damaged caused. The
pecuniary
Liabilities applies only in case the property of the offender is sufficient for the payment of all
his pecuniary
liabilities.
___C__ 73. The subsidiary personal, liability of the offender is at the rate of one day for each ten
pesos. The convict
who served subsidiary penalty may still be required to pay the fine.
___D_ 74. When the court merely imposes a fine, the subsidiary liability shall not exceed one year. The
proceeds of
the crime as well as the tools and instruments shall be forfeited and confiscated in favor
of the victim.
__A_ 75. The confiscation of the proceeds or tools or instruments of the crime can be ordered only if they
are
submitted in evidence or placed at the disposal of the court. Articles which are forfeited,
when the
order of forfeiture is already final, cannot be returned even in case of acquittal.
___B__ 76. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the
principals in the
commission of such felony. According to Art. 47 of the RPC death penalty may be
imposed when
the guilty person be more than 70 years of age.
___C__ 77. A complex crime is not considered as one crime. One of the kinds of complex crime is when
an offense is
A necessary means for committing another crime.
__D___ 78. A continuing crime is not a single crime consisting of series of acts but all is not arising from
one criminal
resolution. In continuing offense, although there is a series of acts, there are several crimes
committed.
__A___ 79. Indeterminate Sentence Law is an act which provide for an indeterminate sentence and
parole for all
persons convicted of certain crimes by the courts of the Philippine Island. The act shall not
apply to
persons convicted of offenses punished with death penalty of life imprisonment.
___A__ 80. The court must, instead of single fixed penalty, determine two penalties, referred to in the
Indeterminate
Sentence Act as the Maximum and Minimum terms. Indeterminate Sentence Law does not
apply
to those who are habitual delinquents.
___A_ 81. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine
only. The
probation law does not apply to offenders sentenced to serve a maximum of more than six
years.
___A__ 82. If the convict is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one year, the period of
probation
shall not exceed two years. In all other cases, if he is sentenced to more than one year, said
probation
period shall not exceed six years
__B___ 83. Minor delinquents are not confined in a penitentiary to prevent their association with matured
and
hardened criminals. Their confinement in a charitable institution is considered a penalty.
___C__ 84. Art. 80 of the RPC (Suspension of sentence of minors) is applicable only to light felonies. If
a light
felony is committed by a minor, he is not subject to imprisonment, because he is entitled to a
penalty of
one degree lower at least
___B__ 85. The criminal liability is totally extinguished by service of sentence. It is also extinguished by
means of
parole.
FINAL EXAMINATION
(COR 2 – Non-Institutional Corrections)
SY2011-2012/2nd Semester
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. Probation is granted to _______ who are sentenced to a prison term of not more than six (6)
years.
A. recidivist C. fist time offenders
B. second time offenders D. senior citizens
2. The child and youth welfare code of 1974 was promulgated on December 10, 1974 by virtue
of what Presidential decree?
A. P.D. 613 C. P.D. 916
B. P.D. 603 D. R.A. 9344
3. What are emphasized under the custodial model of correctional institutions?
A. reintegration into society
B. security, discipline and order
C. rehabilitation and correction
D. physical and mental upliftment
4. What is the security classification of inmates who have two (2) or more escape records but
have served 8 years since recommitment?
A. minimum security C. optimum security
B. maximum security D. medium security
5. What is the security classification of an inmate who is criminally insane or with severe
personality or emotional disorder and is dangerous to others?
A. minimum security C. maximum security
B. optimum security D. medium security
6. ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good productions tasks.
A. agricultural C. operational
B. industrial D. administrative
7. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. a parolee may be authorized by the parole and probation officer to travel outside his operational
jurisdiction for a period of not more than thirty (30) days.
B. Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a period of one (1)
year shall be considered transfer of residence
C. It is not mandatory for the parolee to comply with the terms and conditions appearing in the
release document
D. A parolee cannot transfer to a residence other than that indicated in the release document
without prior written approval of the board of pardon and parole
8. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?
A. befriending a prison guard
B. selling illegal commodities
C. doing assigned prison assignment
D. reporting illegal activities
9. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under the adult probation system?
A. no, because he is entitled for parole
B. no, because his crime is theft
C. no, because he is only 17 years old
D. no, because he is convicted of a crime
10. It is a correctional model wherein criminals are punished because they have infringed the
rights of others and the security of the sanction should fit the seriousness of the crime.
A. benefit of the clergy C. rehabilitation model
B. custodial model D. just desert model
11. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Eduardo who is 30 years old
B. Peter who is 10 years old
C. Ronald who is 25 years old
D. Jack who is 20 years old
12. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has
expired?
A. certificate of final discharge
B. certificate of prison term completion
C. certificate of final release
D. certificate of final release and discharge
13. It was an age of response to the industrialization, urbanization, technological change and
advancement of science that had revolutionalized the landscape.
A. age of reform C. age of correction
B. age of reason D. age of enlightenment
14. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or
psychological conditions that require treatment?
A. reform model C. community model
B. rehabilitation model D. medical model
15. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official records?
A. exoneration C. expungement
B. restriction D. mitigation
16. The judge will base the grant of probation on the report of the _____.
A. social worker C. prosecutor
B. probation officer D. police officer
17. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
A. first time offender
B. first time offender and less than 21 years old
C. second time offender and less than 21 years old
D. second time offender
18. Which of the following is considered in the grant of conditional pardon?
A. good conduct shown
B. discipline of the prisoner
C. old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at the time of his commitment to prison
D. length of time spend in prison
19. What do you call the pathway between a two towers?
A. catwalk C. pathway
B. hall way D. none of these
20. To what penal farm were political prisoners in the 1870’s confined?
A. sablayan penal colony
B. san ramon prison penal farm
C. iwahig penal colony
D. davao penal colony
21. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they are granted time for their marital sexual
obligations. This privilege is called?
A. conjugal partnership C. conjugal incentive
B. conjugal vacation D. conjugal visit
22. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of touch with God thus,
they were given bibles and placed in isolation?
A. reformatory movement C. quaker reform movement
B. church reform movement D. crime prevention movement
23. Where shall Laureta be confined if his sentence is six (6) months or less?
A. provincial jail C. city jail
B. municipal jail D. new bilibid prison
24. It is a judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community
subject to conditions imposed by court order.
A. commutation C. reprieve
B. probation D. parole
25. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners fitness and qualifications for the grant of
parole and pardon?
A. National police commission
B. Board of pardon and parole
C. Department of social welfare and development
D. National bureau of investigation
26. Which of the following institutions is included under the corrections sub- system?
A. drug rehabilitation center
B. police
C. jails
D. drug enforcement units
27. The theory which affords the society or the individual who was wronged the opportunity to
impose upon the offender such suitable punishment as may be enforced?
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. reformation D. expiation
28. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Pablo who is 25 years old
B. Juan who is 10 years old
C. Martin who is 20 years old
D. Pedro who is 19 years old
29. Sonny is convicted for a crime that carries a prison sentence of more than eight (8) years
and one (1) day. Can Sonny avail of probation?
A. No
B. He will be pardoned
C. He will served 1/ 2 of the sentence in jail
D. Yes
30. The target of behavior change effort for inmate is not criminality per se but the variety of
problem behavior surrounding criminal lifestyles. Which of the following is NOT a problem
behavior?
A. ability to relate with others
B. ability to control anger and frustration
C. ability to logically and rationally think
D. deficiency in social skills
31. Which among the following are the major goals of corrections?
A. punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
B. retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
D. deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
32. Which of the following should NOT a probationer do?
A. make periodic office report
B. go and play in a gambling den
C. work regularly to support his family
D. stay away from bad associates
33. Force is used only by correctional institutions to:
A. exact respect
B. enforce discipline
C. show physical strength and power
D. perform assignments
34. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of:
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. life imprisonment
C. death
D. 6 years, one month and 1 day
35. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the __________ system.
A. civilian police C. juvenile justice
B. family welfare D. adult probation
36. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A. rehabilitation center C. jail
B. half- way house D. prison
37. The following are identified as correctional dilemmas EXCEPT
A. ambivalent correctional strategies and technique
B. unclear statement of correctional mission
C. government support for funding requirement
D. inadequacy of correctional personnel
38. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. psychological theory C. sociological theory
B. biological theory D. political theory
39. This was the period when concepts of liberalism, nationality, equality and individualism
dominated social and political thinking in the 18th century in England.
A. age of reform C. age of discernment
B. age of rehabilitation D. age of reason
40. What does the classical theory provide?
A. criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be controlled by regulating the production of
families
B. criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in a process of communication
C. crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and penalty disorders
D. the basis for criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
41. What correctional goal is referred to when the offender is rendered physically unable to
commit a crime in the future?
A. deterrence C. rehabilitation
B. incapacitation D. retribution
42. Under the UN standard minimum rules for the treatment of prisoners, which of the following
are the two (2) basic principles under the rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be not discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or
other opinion, national or social origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious beliefs and moral precepts of the group to which a
prisoners belongs
3. The treatment of prisoners should emphasize not their exclusion from the community, but
their continuing part in it.
4. Unconvicted prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as such
A. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 D. 4 and 1
43. When does punishment have a deterrent effect?
A. punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
B. punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
C. punishment disgraces the offender before the public
D. punishment serves as an example to the public thus, discouraging the commission of offense
44. Who espoused the idea that criminality increases in proportion as one approaches the
equator?
A. Lombroso C. Ferri
B. Garofalo D. Montesquieu
45. This is an investigation of behavior based on subject’s responses to questions concerning
activities in which they have engaged.
A. victimization study C. social study
B. self- report study D. criminological research
46. Antonio Lava was sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than
six (6) years. He applied for probation but his application will not be considered if:
1. he was convicted of subversion of any crime against national security or public interest
2. he was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment of not less
than one (1) month and one (1) day and / or a fine of not less than Php 200.00
3. he was previously granted probation
4. he was previously granted parole
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. any of those listed D. 3, 4, and 1
47. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and “prison
without walls”?
A. Sablayan penal colony
B. Iwahig penal colony
C. San Ramon prison and penal farm
D. Davao penal farm
48. Among the following factors, which would best determine the extent to which prison
functions are subdivided?
A. operating programs
B. adequacy of resources
C. inmate population and size of the prison/ jail
D. number of prison staff
49. What law is very supportive for the convicted prisoner after he completely served the
minimum sentenced of his indeterminate prison term of his incarceration can be eligibility for his
early release;
a. Executive Clemency b. PD 968 c. RA 4103 d. RA 4130
50. Aside from the name, offense committed and the court imposing the sentence, what
information about an alien offender should be reported to the Commissioner of Immigration?
A. his educational background and profession
B. name of his wife and children
C. his age, weight and height
D. his nationality and number of his alien certificate of registration
51. What theory provides that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the
process of communications?
A. strain theory
B. psychoanalytical theory
C. social disorganization theory
D. differential association theory
52. How are habitual offenders who have been involved in prostitution, drugs, numbers and
shoplifting called?
A. “Punk” C. “Cool”
B. “The life” D. “Square”
53. Who said that punishment should not be more secure than necessary to deter crime
because excessive punishment is unjustified?
A. Charles Goring C. Raffaeli Garofalo
B. Robert Peel D. Jeremy Bentham
54. What idea was advocated by John Howard?
A. Corporal punishment is more effective than other punishment
B. Prisons should be under the control of the police
C. Public labor by offenders should be abolished
D. Reformation will not occur inside penitentiary
55. When can some prisoners have disciplinary authority over their co- inmates?
A. When they show “macho” image
B. When they are of senior age over those to be supervised
C. When they are of good behavior, more technically skilled and properly trained
D. When they have grease money
56. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his/ her probation conditions?
A. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
B. Court directs probationer to re- apply for probation
C. Court releases the probationer to the community
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
57. You are a legislator who would like to help in the resolution of the labeling problem of ex-
convicts. Which of the following is the best legislative proposal to prepare?
A. A bill that would expunge all criminal records pertaining to all released prisoners
B. A bill that would penalize business establishment or offices which will not accept released
prisoners as long as they qualify to the vacant position
C. A bill that would grant automatic absolute pardon to those who have served atleast 90% of their
sentence
D. A bill that would grant automatic parole to those who have served atleast 80% of their sentence
58. There are four (4) concepts of lifestyle in prison. What concept is referred to when inmates
aspire for leadership within the prison subculture and such positions and power in the prison
society?
A. disorganized criminals C. doing time
B. jailing D. gleaning
59. How do inmates know that they have letters?
A. An inmate trustee delivers the letters to addresses
B. A list with mails for inmates is posted
C. Inmates with letters are called to the Jail Warden’s office
D. A jail officer delivers the letters personally
60. The RA 4103 known as;
a. Probation law b. Executive Clemency
c. Parole d. Indeterminate Sentence Law
61. The correctional principle that “the basis of all social action must be the utilitarian
conception of the greatest happiness for the greatest number” was se forth by:
A. Montesquieu C. Becarria
B. Locke D. Voltaire
62. Female prison reform during the 19th century had the following principles EXCEPT
A. separation of women prisoners from male
B. suspension of sentence
C. control of women’s prison by female management and staff
D. provision for differential feminine care
63. How are inmates called when they are of low intelligence or afflicted with psychological or
physical disabilities and who have difficulty in functioning within the prison society?
A. psychotic criminals C. adult criminals
B. disorganized criminals D. juvenile offenders
64. A convict is in a __________ if he is placed inside one (1) cell alone and without anybody to
talk to or be seen with.
A. individual confinement C. corporal punishment
B. capital punishment D. solitary confinement
65. After release from the jail or prison, when does the parolee present himself to the parole
and probation officer?
A. atleast one (1) month from release
B. within three (3) months from release
C. atleast three (3) weeks from release
D. within the period prescribed in the release document
66. One of the purposes of Adult Probation Law is to:
A. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with personalized, community based program
B. Place the offender outside the police power of the state
C. Coordinate the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice system
D. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the probation order
. Is Mario qualified for probation if his prison term is arresto mayor?
A. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
B. No, his sentence is 12 years
C. No, his sentence is 8 years
D. Yes, his sentence is 6 months
68. Under this correctional goal, the criminal is rendered physically unable to commit crime in
the future.
A. retribution C. incapacitation
B. deterrence D. rehabilitation
69. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. a prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) years up
C. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D. a prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day and up
70. What theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behaviors.
The stress is more in the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
A. classical theory C. biological theory
B. positivist theory D. physiological theory
71. Which two (2) of the following unusual offenders should be under the close supervision of
the Jail Physicians?
1. mentally- ill
2. sex deviates
3. infirm or sick
4. escape prone prisoners
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
72. Who said that “criminal acts are signals of distress, signals of failures, the spasms of
struggles and convulsions of a sub marginal human being trying to make it in our complex
society with inadequate equipment and preparation”?
A. John Howard C. James Wilson
B. Karl Menninger D. Jeremy Bentham
73. The parole and probation administration administers a _________ correctional program.
A. institutional C. integrated
B. community based D. traditional
74. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as _________.
A. retribution C. restitution
B. reformation D. rehabilitation
75. Hubert Webb was sentenced to imprisonment on September 30, 2002. OnOctober 5,
2002 the judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the
service of Alfonso’s sentence?
A. He will have to serve his sentence
B. His sentence will be suspended
C. His sentence will nit be binding anymore
D. His sentence will be reduced
76. Placido was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
A. no, his sentence is three (3) years and 1 day
B. no, his sentence is six (6) years and 1 day
C. yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and 1 day
D. no, his sentence is more than six (6) years and 1 day
77. What was the system of money compensation in which harm could be atoned for by a
money payment to the injured party?
A. lex taliones C. wergild
B. wite D. fine
78. It is an arrangement where a prisoner goes out of the institution to attend educational
classes.
A. Vocational program C. Work Furlough
B. Guidance counseling D. study release
79. What the right to be tried in an ecclesiastical court during the middle ages?
A. inquisition C. social contract
B. benefit of the clergy D. secular prosecution
80. Prison work assignments are given to prisons usually _________.
A. at early morning hours
B. after recreational hours
C. before sleeping hours
D. during middle hours of the day
81. Which among the following strategies should be developed in order to enhance corrections
in the country?
A. Development of clear vision, mission, objective
B. Management of correction efficiency
C. Integration of correction services
D. Encouragement of private sector to assist correction
82. Which among the following factors are considered in petition for executive clemency?
1. age of the petitioner
2. gravity of the offense
3. manner in which offense was committed
4. petitioner’s institutional conduct or behavior
5. previous criminal record, if any
83. Joan Pamintuan was convicted of the crime of theft at age 10. What law provides that she
should be released to her family?
A. Presidential Decree No. 1184
B. Presidential Decree No. 968
C. Presidential Decree No. 603
D. Republic Act no. 9344
84. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
1. One who is sentenced to a maximum term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years or to a
fine of more than Php 5,000.00
2. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of customs law or other laws within
the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Customs
3. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of Immigration laws and Election
laws
4. One sentenced to serve two (2) or more prison sentences in the aggregate exceeding the period
of three (3) years
A. 3, 4 and 1 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. all those listed D. 1, 2 and 3
85. One of the following criminologists espoused the idea that the certainty of punishment
outweighs its severity as a deterrent against crime?
A. Cesare Becarria C. Charles Goring
B. Jeremy Bentham D. William Sheldon
86. Who was the sheriff of Bedfordshire, England whose writings served to bring about changes
that resulted in the development of the penitentiary?
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Becarria D. John Howard
87. Which of the following is encouraged to give the inmate a respite from the strain of prison
life?
A. Report unruly behavior of fellow inmates
B. Maintain wholesome contact with friends and relatives through correspondents
C. Perform prison assignments/ works diligently
D. Write his autobiography for others to read
88. Which of the following is exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of
Congress?
A. probation C. pardon
B. amnesty D. parole
89. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for
another previous offense.
A. recidivism C. delinquency
B. quasi- recidivism D. concurso de delito
90. It is responsible for carrying out the treatment programs of the prisoners in jails.
A. Warden C. Chaplain
B. Classification board D. disciplinary board
91. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. murder C. brigandage
B. rape D. impeachment
92. He introduced the “Progressive or Mark” system of penal management, which granted
privileges and good conduct time gradually culminating to the offenders release and an
improvement of the ticket of leave. Who was he?
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B. Alexander Machonochie
C. Sir Walter Crafton
D. Zebulon Brockway
93. The features of this prison system were confinement of the prisoners in their cells day and night.
A. Auburn C. Pennsylvania system
B. pre- classical D. Judea Christian theory
94. A model of correctional history that had been successful for young boys and girls in the
earlier house or refuge and training that was adopted for older offenders.
A. family model C. reform model
B. penitence model D. rehabilitation model
95. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than three (3) years or to
pay a fine of not more than Php 1,000.00 or both fine and imprisonment.
A. city prisoner C. insular prisoner
B. national prisoner D. municipal prisoner
96. This prison system was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that
prisoners could finish more articles when they work in groups than working alone in their
individual cells.
A. Maison de force C. Auburn system
B. none of these D. Pennsylvania system
97. What law was passed by the U.S. Congress which ended the industrial prison movement?
A. a law which prohibited the increase of delinquency in prisons
B. none of these
C. a law which encouraged the prisoners to be more industrious in the works
D. a law which prohibited the sale of prison made articles to the public and limited their use to
government owned or controlled institutions
98. Which of the following types of jail is under the supervision of Bureau of Jail Management
and Penology (BMJP)?
A. Provincial jail
B. City and municipal jail
C. District jail
D. Insular jail
99. What is called as the mechanical device, contrivance or tools used to hold back, keep in
check or under control a prisoner?
A. instrument of restraint
B. iron leg lock
C. handcuffs
D. metallic chains
100. Under the prison service manual, what is the prescribed color of prison uniform for
maximum-security prison?
A. blue C. yellow
B. white D. orange
101. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it means:
A. process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
B. examination of an inmate for contraband
C. delivery of commitment paper to records section
D. all of these
102. In New Bilibid prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at __________.
A. NBP main prison camp C. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Camp Sampaguita D. all of these
103. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major
offenders.
A. Charles Montesquieu C. Jeremy Bentham
B. William Penn D. Cesare Becarria
104. In case of mass jail break, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
firearms and assigned to critical post to:
A. protect the other inmates
B. shoot the escaping inmates
C. plug off the escape routes
D. give warning shots
105. Upon receipt of the probation officer’s investigation report, the court shall resolve the
application for probation not later than _________.
A. Fifteen (15) days from receipt
B. Sixty (60) days from receipt
C. Forty five (45) days from receipt
D. Thirty (30) days from receipt
106. The entrusting for confinement of an offender to a jail by competent court or authority for
investigation, trial and/ or service of sentence is known as:
A. commitment order C. imprisonment
B. mittimus D. recognizance
107. The most common problem of the national prison is:
A. excessive number of escapes
B. disagreement about mess
C. overcrowding
D. lack of adequate funding
INSTRUCTION: Read and analyze carefully the following questions below and chose the best answer by
shading the letter corresponding to your answer on the provided answer card. STRICTLY NO ERASURE.
================================================================================
============
I. MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or at the same time
as him or herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the detection and investigation
of crimes is called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
3. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
8. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
9. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully understand their broad
significance refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
10. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from various sources is
called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
11. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed by investigators is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
12. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an offense or a person
who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his possessions, which is pertinent to
the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
13. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834
14. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and investigation of crime is
called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
15. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense is called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
16. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace officer to arrest
the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
18. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:
19. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two walls. Works well for
indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
20. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas. This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
21. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to locate. This
is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
22. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
23. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence within this outline
refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
24. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for
which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
25. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the
offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not directly constituting an acknowledgment
of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
27. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
28. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the guilty party; to locate the
guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
29. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and
responsibilities refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
30. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
31. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been arrested or deprived of his
freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is being investigated in connection with an
offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
32. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts concerning the matter or
matters involved is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
33. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information/facts/circumstances in order
to establish the truth is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
34. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police interrogation is
called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
35. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself and other sources
refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
36. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the physical sciences
in detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
38. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
39. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang with a
revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
40. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall guilty of what
crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
41. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
42. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that some other person
is responsible is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
43. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
44. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
45. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving physical evidence is
refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
46. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
47. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon things
48. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning and
organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle is called
A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
C. Professional Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber
49. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent robbery offenses,
often recklessly. They are called
50. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous weapons.
A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery
A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery
52. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the house of the latter
and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?
A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
53. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area and took the car
stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
55. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence is sometimes
refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
56. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt by exercising power
and control over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
57. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further political or social
objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists
58. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by fire or
explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
60. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
D. Socialist terrorists
61. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and examination of a dead
body to determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
62. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
64. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
66. B The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire area. The Team Leader
prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
67. A The police officer of the station who first received the report of the incident shall record the time of
report/complaint was made. Interview the person who first notifies the police.
68. C Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything at the scene as
evidence.
69. A The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team in incident involving
deaths.
70. D Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with markings. Chalk line is placed
around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at the crime scene.
71. D Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training.
Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
72. A Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed. Modus Operandi is the
Modes of Operation.
73. D The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch, move, or alter any
evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and photographed is the Cardinal Rule in
Criminal Investigation.
74. A The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal investigation. One of good
qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
75. A The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at least knowledgeable on
crimes defines in the revised penal code.
76. B Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a criminal investigator. The
recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel identification of the perpetrator.
77. B One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After identification the investigator
shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
78. A The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred. The processing of the
area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this is determined by the type of crime
committed and the place where the act occurred.
79. D Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing to provide
information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are reluctant to provide
information.
80. D Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of inquiry. It is a science
because it does not follow rigid rules.
81. A Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of identifying, locating and
providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic plan facilitates a logical flow of
investigation.
82. A At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the victim. While the other
members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the area by putting a police line or any
material (like rope, straw and etc).
83. A Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired in a particular incident.
Criminal Investigation is an art and science.
84. C Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law. Crime is punishable by
public law.
85. A The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the first responder. He should
follow correct procedures not to make errors.
86. B If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather information from the victim himself
regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-mortem statement is also called dying declaration.
87. B Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual circumstance justifies its
immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination without dissection on the body of the victim.
88. A The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to his arrival at the crime
scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature of the scene and the crime or offense
involved.
89. B The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item for proper identification.
Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.
Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521
Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of the V.I.N.
combination of V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Nation of Origin
91. J A. Name of Manufacturer
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Nation of Origin
92. 3 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Type of Restraint System
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
93. J A. Engine Description
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Type of Restraint System
94. 4 A. Check Digit
B. Car Line Series and Body Type
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Engine Description
95. 5 A. Engine Description
B. Model Year
C. Sequential Production Number
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
96. A A. Car Line Description
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
97. 0 A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
98. C A. Check Digit
B. Model Year
C. Engine Description
D. Assembly Plant Location
99. R A. Check Digit
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Engine Description
D. Model Year
100. 335521 A. Sequential Production Numbers
B. Number Series
C. Production Number Series
D. Check Digits
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