Foundation of Nursing

PNLE: FON Practice Exam for History, Concepts and Theories
1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by
A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King
3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and
action related to care of the ill person
A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger
4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or
partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give
care.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman
5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s
response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse
6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of
those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary
strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as
rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau
7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from
other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and
MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual
being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and
coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps
the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?
A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special
knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards
12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent
13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is
A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy
14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and
actions
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy
and vision of the institution
17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care
18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with
pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?
A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator
19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple
health professionals.
A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent
20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty
nurses?
A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management
21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts,
days or visits.
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale
25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando
26. She described the four conservation principle.

A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse
27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Parse
D. Neuman
28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL
A. Orem
B. Johnson
C. Henderson
D. Parse
29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL
A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad
30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel
31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer
32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau
33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST

A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES

A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through
A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression
36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral
child strives to be kind and just
A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler
37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and
development based on his experience.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that
gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was
it’s first superintendent.
A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
C. Philippine General Hospital School of nursing
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing
40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in
this hospital.
A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital
41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate,
builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.
A. Elizabeth
B. Catherine
C. Nightingale
D. Sairey Gamp
42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a
mosquitoes.
A. Clara louise Maas
B. Pearl Tucker
C. Isabel Hampton Robb
D. Caroline Hampton Robb
43. He was called the father of sanitation.
A. Abraham
B. Hippocrates
C. Moses
D. Willam Halstead
44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

A. China
B. Egypt
C. India
D. Babylonia
45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away
A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. Indian
D. Babylonian
46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?
A. Dark period
B. Intuitive period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of
Deaconesses
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
D. Educative period
48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick
B. Dark period
D. Educative period
49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi
A. St. Catherine
B. St. Anne
C. St. Clare
D. St. Elizabeth
50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.
B. Dark period
D. Educative period
51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a
SOCIAL being is
A. Like all other men
B. Like some other men
C. Like no other men
D. Like men
52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction
with a changing environment.
A. Roy
B. Levin
C. Neuman
D. Newman
53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

A. Affected by matter
B. A sole island in vast ocean
C. Allows input
D. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information
54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues,
organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?
A. Certain needs are common to all people
B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy
C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
D. Needs are stimulated by external factors
57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

A. May not be deferred
B. Are not interrelated
C. Met in exact and rigid way
D. Priorities are alterable
58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self-actualized person?
A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.
B. Desires privacy, autonomous
C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth
D. Problem centered
59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self-actualized person?
A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Do not predict events
C. Self-centered
D. Maximum degree of self-conflict
60. This is the essence of mental health

A. Self-awareness
B. Self-actualization
C. Self-esteem
D. Self-worth
61. Florence nightingale is born in

A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy
62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

A. Born May 12, 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years old
C. Notes in nursing
D. Notes in hospital
63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

A. Belgium
B. US
C. Germany
D. England
64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL
WELLNESS?
A. Erikson
B. Madaw
C. Peplau
D. Dunn
65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of
A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad
66. Founder of the PNA
A. Julita Sotejo
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
C. Eufemia Octaviano
D. Anesia Dionisio
67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse
organization?
A. R.A 877
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNA
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON
D. RA 7164
68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing
diagnosis?
A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill
69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

A. RA 7164
B. RA 9173
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice
70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal
and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:
A. Primary care nurse
B. Independent nurse practitioner
C. Nurse-Midwife
D. Nurse specialist
71. When was the PNA founded?

A. September 22, 1922
B. September 02, 1920
C. October 21, 1922
D. September 02, 1922
72. Who was the first president of the PNA?

A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montenegro
D. Ricarda Mendoza
73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is
the failure to maintain internal environment.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy
74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole
person.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Roy
75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanisms
76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life
cycle.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
78. She defined health as the soundness and wholeness of developed human structure and bodily
mental functioning.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Clark
79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are
in harmony with the whole system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and
integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
81. According to them, Well-being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and

VITALITY
A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper
82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with

well-being and illness.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Clark
83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential
within the limitation of the environment.
A. Well being
B. Health
C. Low level Wellness
D. High level Wellness
84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?

A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark
87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly
UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?
A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness
C. Perceived threat of an illness
D. Perceived curability of an illness
88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle
B. Economic factors
C. Accessibility of health care facilities
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies
89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential.

Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development
actualization.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according
to the health belief model?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health
and illness except
A. Reservoir
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Host
96. Is a multi-dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as
they interact within the environment to pursue health.
A. Ecologic Model
B. Health Belief Model
C. Health Promotion Model
D. Health Prevention Model
97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well-being and
self-actualization.
A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self-actualization
98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening
of life span.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy

A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client
towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
Answers and Rationales: History, Concepts and Theories
1. D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health. This is an actual board exam question and is a
common board question. Theorist always describes the nursing profession by first defining
what is NURSING, followed by the PERSON, ENVIRONMENT and HEALTH
CONCEPT. The most popular theory was perhaps Nightingale’s. She defined nursing as the
utilization of the person’s environment to assist him towards recovery. She defined the
person as somebody who has a reparative capabilities mediated and enhanced by factors in
his environment. She describes the environment as something that would facilitate the
person’s reparative process and identified different factors like sanitation, noise, etc. that
affects a person’s reparative state.
2. A. Nightingale. Florence nightingale do not believe in the germ theory, and perhaps this
was her biggest mistake. Yet, her theory was the first in nursing. She believed that
manipulation of environment that includes appropriate noise, nutrition, hygiene, light,
comfort, sanitation etc. could provide the client’s body the nurturance it needs for repair and
recovery.
3. C. Roy. Remember the word “THEORYTICAL “For Callista Roy, Nursing is a theoretical
body of knowledge that prescribes analysis and action to care for an ill person. She
introduced the ADAPTATION MODEL and viewed person as a BIOSPSYCHOSOCIAL
BEING. She believed that by adaptation, Man can maintain homeostasis.
4. B. Orem. In self care deficit theory, Nursing is defined as A helping or assistive profession
to person who are wholly or partly dependent or when people who are to give care to them
are no longer available. Self care, are the activities that a person do for himself to maintain
health, life and well being.
5. A. Neuman. Neuman divided stressors as either intra, inter and extra personal in nature. She
said that NURSING is concerned with eliminating these stressors to obtain a maximum
level of wellness. The nurse helps the client through PRIMARY, SECONDARY AND
TERTIARY prevention modes. Please do not confuse this with LEAVELL and CLARK’S
level of prevention.
6. A. Henderson. This was an actual board question. Remember this definition and associate it
with Virginia Henderson. Henderson also describes the NATURE OF NURSING theory.
She identified 14 basic needs of the client. She describes nursing roles as SUBSTITUTIVE :
Doing everything for the client, SUPPLEMENTARY : Helping the client and
COMPLEMENTARY : Working with the client. Breathing normally, Eliminating waste,
Eating and drinking adquately, Worship and Play are some of the basic needs according to
her.
7. C. Leininger. There are many theorist that describes nursing as CARE. The most popular
was JEAN WATSON’S Human Caring Model. But this question pertains to Leininger’s
definition of caring. CUD I LIE IN GER? [ Could I Lie In There ] Is the Mnemonics I am
using not to get confused. C stands for CENTRAL , U stands for UNIFYING, D stands for
DOMINANT DOMAIN. I emphasize on this matter due to feedback on the last June 2006
batch about a question about CARING.
8. D. Swanson . Caring according to Swanson involves 5 processes. Knowing means
understanding the client. Being with emphasizes the Physical presence of the nurse for the
patient. Doing for means doing things for the patient when he is incapable of doing it for
himself. Enabling means helping client transcend maturational and developmental stressors
in life while Maintaining belief is the ability of the Nurse to inculcate meaning to these
events.
9. B. Watson. The deepest and spiritual definition of Caring came from Jean watson. For her,
Caring expands the limits of openess and allows access to higher human spirit.
10. A. Benner. I think of CARE BEAR to facilitate retainment of BENNER. As in, Care
Benner. For her, Caring means being CONNECTED or making things matter to people.
Caring according to Benner give meaning to illness and re establish connection.
11. B. It serves specific interest of a group.Believe it or not, you should know the definition of
profession according to Jahoda because it is asked in the Local boards. A profession should
serve the WHOLE COMMUNITY and not just a specific intrest of a group. Everything else,
are correct.
12. A. Concerned with quantity. A professional is concerned with QUALITY and not
QUANTITY. In nursing, We have methods of quality assurance and control to evaluate the
effectiveness of nursing care. Nurses, are never concerned with QUANTITY of care
provided.
13. C. Caring. Caring and caring alone, is the most unique quality of the Nursing Profession. It
is the one the delineate Nursing from other professions.
14. B. Personality. Personality are qualities that make us different from each other. These are
impressions that we made, or the footprints that we leave behind. This is the result of the
integration of one’s talents, behavior, appearance, mood, character, morals and impulses
into one harmonious whole. Philosophy is the basic truth that fuel our soul and give our life
a purpose, it shapes the facets of a person’s character. Charm is to attract other people to be
a change agent. Character is our moral values and belief that guides our actions in life.
15. D. Character.Rationale: Refer to number 14
16. D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy
and vision of the institution . A refers to being a change agent. B is a role of a patient
advocate. C is a case manager while D basically summarized functions of a nurse manager.
If you haven’t read Lydia Venzon’s Book : NURSING MANAGEMENT TOWARDS
QUALITY CARE, I suggest reading it in advance for your management subjects in the
graduate school. Formulating philosophy and vision is in PLANNING. Nursing Audit is in
CONTROLLING, In service education programs are included in DIRECTING. These are
the processes of Nursing Management, I just forgot to add ORGANIZING which includes
formulating an organizational structure and plans, Staffing and developing qualifications
and job descriptions.
17. A. Determine client’s need.You can never provide nursing care if you don’t know what are
the needs of the client. How can you provide an effective postural drainage if you do not
know where is the bulk of the client’s secretion. Therefore, the best description of a care
provider is the accurate and prompt determination of the client’s need to be able to render an
appropriate nursing care.
18. B. Client advocate. As a client’s advocate, Nurses are to protect the client’s right and
promotes what is best for the client. Knowing that Morphine causes spasm of the sphincter
of Oddi and will lead to further increase in the client’s pain, The nurse knew that the best
treatment option for the client was not provided and intervene to provide the best possible
care.
19. C. Interdependent. Interdependent functions are those that needs expertise and skills of
multiple health professionals. Example is when A child was diagnosed with nephrotic
syndrome and the doctor ordered a high protein diet, Budek then work together with the
dietician about the age appropriate high protein foods that can be given to the child,
Including the preparation to entice the child into eating the food. NOTE : It is still debated if
the diet in NS is low, moderate or high protein, In the U.S, Protein is never restricted and
can be taken in moderate amount. As far as the local examination is concerned, answer
LOW PROTEIN HIGH CALORIC DIET.
20. A. Total patient care. This is also known as case nursing. It is a method of nursing care
wherein, one nurse is assigned to one patient for the delivery of total care. These are the
method use by Nursing students, Private duty nurses and those in critical or isolation units.
21. D. Total patient care .Total patient care works best if there are many nurses but few patients.
22. A. Functional nursing. Functional nursing is task oriented, One nurse is assigned on a
particular task leading to task expertise and efficiency. The nurse will work fast because the
procedures are repetitive leading to task mastery. This care is not recommended as this leads
fragmented nursing care.
23. C. Primary nursing. Your keyword in Primary nursing is the 24 hours. This does not
necessarily means the nurse is awake for 24 hours, She can have a SECONDARY NURSES
that will take care of the patient in shifts where she is not arround.
24. D. Nightingale . Refer to question # 2. Hammurabi is the king of babylon that introduces
the LEX TALIONES law, If you kill me, you should be killed… If you rob me, You should
be robbed, An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth. Alexander the great was the son of
King Philip II and is from macedonia but he ruled Greece including Persia and Egypt. He is
known to use a hammer to pierce a dying soldier’s medulla towards speedy death when he
thinks that the soldier will die anyway, just to relieve their suffering. Fabiola was a beautiful
roman matron who converted her house into a hospital.
25. A. Henderson. Refer to question # 6.
26. A. Levin. Myra Levin described the 4 Conservation principles which are concerned with the
Unity and Integrity of an individual. These are ENERGY : Our output to facilitate meeting
of our needs. STRUCTURAL INTEGRITY : We mus maintain the integrity of our organs,
tissues and systems to be able to function and prevent harmful agents entering our body.
PERSONAL INTEGRITY : These refers to our self esteem, self worth, self concept,
identify and personality. SOCIAL INTEGRITY : Reflects our societal roles to our society,
community, family, friends and fellow individuals.
27. D. Neuman . Betty Neuman asserted that nursing is a unique profession and is concerned
with all the variables affecting the individual’s response to stressors. These are INTRA or
within ourselves, EXTRA or outside the individual, INTER means between two or more
people. She proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL which states that by
PRIMARY, SECONDARY and TERTIARY prevention, The nurse can help the client
maintain stability against these stressors.
28. B. Johnson. According to Dorothy Johnson, Each person is a behavioral system that is
composed of 7 subsystems. Man adjust or adapt to stressors by a using a LEARNED
PATTERN OF RESPONSE. Man uses his behavior to meet the demands of the
environment, and is able to modified his behavior to support these demands.
29. C. Weidenbach.Just remember ERNESTINE WEIDENBACHLINICAL.
30. A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
31. D. Boykin,Schoenhofer . This theory was called GRAND THEORY because boykin and
schoenofer thinks that ALL MAN ARE CARING, And that nursing is a response to this
unique call. According to them, CARING IS A MORAL IMPERATIVE, meaning, ALL
PEOPLE will tend to help a man who fell down the stairs even if he is not trained to do so.
32. A. Travelbee. Travelbee’s theory was referred to as INTERPERSONAL theory because she
postulated that NURSING is to assist the individual and all people that affects this
individual to cope with illness, recover and FIND MEANING to this experience. For her,
Nursing is a HUMAN TO HUMAN relationship that is formed during illness. To her, an
individual is a UNIQUE and irreplaceable being in continuous process of becoming,
evolving and changing. PLEASE do remember, that it is PARSE who postulated the theory
of HUMAN BECOMING and not TRAVELBEE, for I read books that say it was
TRAVELBEE and not PARSE.
33. C. Kohlberg. Kohlber states that relationships are based on mutual trust. He postulated the
levels of morality development. At the first stage called the PREMORAL or
preconventional, A child do things and label them as BAD or GOOD depending on the
PUNISHMENT or REWARD they get. They have no concept of justice, fairness and
equity, for them, If I punch this kid and mom gets mad, thats WRONG. But if I dance and
sing, mama smiles and give me a new toy, then I am doing something good. In the
Conventional level, The individual actuates his act based on the response of the people
around him. He will follow the rules, regulations, laws and morality the society upholds. If
the law states that I should not resuscitate this man with a DNR order, then I would not.
However, in the Post conventional level or the AUTONOMOUS level, the individual still
follows the rules but can make a rule or bend part of these rules according to his own
MORALITY. He can change the rules if he thinks that it is needed to be changed. Example
is that, A nurse still continue resuscitating the client even if the client has a DNR order
because he believes that the client can still recover and his mission is to save lives, not
watch patients die.
34. D. Peters . Remember PETERS for PRINCIPLES. P is to P. He believes that morality has 3
components : EMOTION or how one feels, JUDGEMENT or how one reason and
BEHAVIOR or how one actuates his EMOTION and JUDGEMENT. He believes that
MORALITY evolves with the development of PRINCPLES or the person’s vitrue and traits.
He also believes in AUTOMATICITY of virtues or he calls HABIT, like kindness, charity,
honesty, sincerity and thirft which are innate to a person and therfore, will be performed
automatically.
35. C. Identification. A child, according to Freud adopts parental standards, traits, habits and
norms through identication. A good example is the corned beef commercial ” WALK LIKE
A MAN, TALK LIKE A MAN ” Where the child identifies with his father by wearing the
same clothes and doing the same thing.
36. D. Schulman and Mekler . According to Schulman and Mekler, there are 2 components that
makes an action MORAL : The intention should be good and the Act must be just. A good
example is ROBIN HOOD, His intention is GOOD but the act is UNJUST, which makes his
action IMMORAL.
37. B. Westerhoff. There are only 2 theorist of FAITH that might be asked in the board
examinations. Fowler and Westerhoff. What differs them is that, FAITH of fowler is
defined abstractly, Fowler defines faith as a FORCE that gives a meaning to a person’s life
while Westerhoff defines faith as a behavior that continuously develops through time.
38. C. Fowler. Rationale: Refer to # 37
39. B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
40. C. Philippine General Hospital
41. A. Elizabeth.Saint Elizabeth of Hungary was a daughter of a King and is the patron saint of
nurses. She build hospitals and feed hungry people everyday using the kingdom’s money.
She is a princess, but devoted her life in feeding the hungry and serving the sick.
42. A. Clara louise Maas. Clara Louise Maas sacrificed her life in research of YELLOW
FEVER. People during her time do not believe that yellow fever was brought by
mosquitoes. To prove that they are wrong, She allowed herself to be bitten by the vector and
after days, She died.
43. C. Moses
44. C. India
45. A. Chinese. Chinese believes that male newborns are demon magnets. To fool those
demons, they put female clothes to their male newborn.
46. B. Intuitive period.Egyptians believe that a sick person is someone with an evil force or
demon that is inside their heads. To release these evil spirits, They would tend to drill holes
on the patient’s skull and it is called TREPHINING.
47. A. Apprentice period.What dilineates apprentice period among others is that, it ENDED
when formal schools were established. During the apprentice period, There is no formal
educational institution for nurses. Most of them receive training inside the convent or
church. Some of them are trained just for the purpose of nursing the wounded soldiers. But
almost all of them are influenced by the christian faith to serve and nurse the sick. When
Fliedner build the first formal school for nurses, It marked the end of the
APPRENTICESHIP period.
48. A. Apprentice period. Apprentice period is marked by the emergence of religious orders the
are devoted to religious life and the practice of nursing.
49. C. St. Clare. The poor clares, is the second order of St. Francis of assisi. The first order was
founded by St. Francis himself. St. Catherine of Siena was the first lady with the lamp. St.
Anne is the mother of mama mary. St. Elizabeth is the patron saint of Nursing.
50. B. Dark period. Protestantism emerged with Martin Luther questions the Pope and
Christianity. This started the Dark period of nursing when the christian faith was smeared by
controversies. These leads to closure of some hospital and schools run by the church.
Nursing became the work of prostitutes, slaves, mother and least desirable of women.
51. B. Like some other men.According to ROY, Man as a social being is like some other man.
As a spiritual being and Biologic being, Man are all alike. As a psychologic being, No man
thinks alike. This basically summarized her BIOPSYHOSOCIAL theory which is included
in our licensure exam coverage.
52. A. Roy. OPEN system theory is ROY. As an open system, man continuously allows input
from the environment. Example is when you tell me Im good looking, I will be happy the
entire day, Because I am an open system and continuously interact and transact with my
environment. A close system is best exemplified by a CANDLE. When you cover the
candle with a glass, it will die because it will eventually use all the oxygen it needs inside
the glass for combustion. A closed system do not allow inputs and output in its environment.
53. B. A sole island in vast ocean
54. B. Rogers. The wholistic theory by Martha Rogers states that MAN is greater than the sum
of all its parts and that his dignity and worth will not be lessen even if one of this part is
missing. A good example is ANNE BOLEYN, The mother of Queen Elizabeth and the wife
of King Henry VIII. She was beheaded because Henry wants to mary another wife and that
his divorce was not approved by the pope. Outraged, He insisted on the separation of the
Church and State and divorce Anne himself by making everyone believe that Anne is
having an affair to another man. Anne was beheaded while her lips is still saying a prayer.
Even without her head, People still gave respect to her diseased body and a separate head.
She was still remembered as Anne boleyn, Mother of Elizabeth who lead england to their
GOLDEN AGE.
55. B. Rogers. According to Martha Rogers, Man is composed of 2 systems : SUB which
includes cells, tissues, organs and system and SUPRA which includes our famly,
community and society. She stated that when any of these systems are affected, it will affect
the entire individual.
56. B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy.Needs can be
deferred. I can urinate later as not to miss the part of the movie’s climax. I can save my
money that are supposedly for my lunch to watch my idols in concert. The physiologic
needs can be meet later for some other needs and need not be strictly followed according to
their hierarchy.
57. D. Priorities are alterable. Refer to question # 56.
58. C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth. A,B and D are all qualities
of a self actualized person. A self actualized person do not follow the decision of majority
but is self directed and can make decisions contrary to a popular opinion.
59. A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion. Refer to question # 58.
60. B. Self actualization. The peak of maslow’s hierarchy is the essence of mental health.
61. D. Italy. Florence Nightingale was born in Florence, Italy, May 12, 1820. Studied in
Germany and Practiced in England.
62. A. Born May 12, 1840
63. C. Germany
64. D. Dunn. According to Dunn, High level wellness is the ability of an individual to maximize
his full potential with the limitations imposed by his environment. According to him, An
individual can be healthy or ill in both favorable and unfavorable environment.
65. A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
66. B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
67. C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON. This is an old board resolution.
The new Board resolution is No. 220 series of 2004 also known as the Nursing Code Of
ethics which states that [ SECTION 17, A ] A nurse should be a member of an accredited
professional organization which is the PNA.
68. C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
69. A. RA 7164. 7164 is an old law. This is the 1991 Nursing Law which was repealed by the
newer 9173.
70. B. Independent nurse practitioner
71. D. September 02, 1922. According to the official PNA website, they are founded
September 02, 1922.
72. C. Rosario Montenegro. Anastacia Giron Tupas founded the FNA, the former name of the
PNA but the first President was Rosario Montenegro.
73. B. Bernard. According to Bernard, Health is the ability to maintain and Internal Milieu and
Illness is the failure to maintain the internal environment.
74. D. Roy. According to ROY, Health is a state and process of becoming a WHOLE AND
INTEGRATED Person.
75. B. Negative feedback. The theory of Health as the ability to maintain homeostasis was
postulated by Walter Cannon. According to him, There are certain FEEDBACK Mechanism
that regulates our Homeostasis. A good example is that when we overuse our arm, it will
produce pain. PAIN is a negative feedback that signals us that our arm needs a rest.
76. C. Rogers. Martha Rogers states that HEALTH is synonymous with WELLNESS and that
HEALTH and WELLNESS is subjective depending on the definition of one’s culture.
77. D. King .Emogene King states that health is a state in the life cycle and Illness is any
interference on this cycle. I enjoyed the Movie LION KING and like what Mufasa said that
they are all part of the CIRCLE OF LIFE, or the Life cycle.
78. A. Orem. Orem defined health as the SOUNDNESS and WHOLENESS of developed
human structure and of bodily and mental functioning.
79. C. Neuman. Neuman believe that man is composed of subparts and when this subparts are in
harmony with the whole system, Wellness results. Please do not confuse this with the SUB
and SUPRA systems of martha rogers.
80. D. Johnson . Once you see the phrase BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM, answer Dorothy Johnson.
81. D. Leddy and Pepper .According to Leddy and Pepper, Wellness is subjective and depends
on an individuals perception of balance, harmony and vitality. Leavell and Clark postulared
the ecologic model of health and illness or the AGENT-HOST-ENVIRONMENT model.
Peterson and Zderad developed the HUMANISTIC NURSING PRACTICE theory while
Benner and Wruber postulate the PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL.
82. C. Dunn
83. D. High level Wellness
84. C. Behavioral. Behavioral precursors includes smoking, alcoholism, high fat intake and
other lifestyle choices. Environmental factors involved poor sanitation and over crowding.
Heridity includes congenital and diseases acquired through the genes. There are no social
precursors according to DUNN.
85. D. Environmental
86. A. Becker. According to Becker, The belief of an individual greatly affects his behavior. If a
man believes that he is susceptible to an illness, He will alter his behavior in order to
prevent its occurence. For example, If a man thinks that diabetes is acquired through high
intake of sugar and simple carbohydrates, then he will limit the intake of foods rich in these
components.
87. D. Perceived curability of an illness . If a man think he is susceptibe to a certain disease,
thinks that the disease is serious and it is a threat to his life and functions, he will use
preventive behaviors to avoid the occurence of this threat.
88. A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle and B. Economic factors. Perceived barriers are those
factors that affects the individual’s health preventive actions. Both A and B can affect the
individual’s ability to prevent the occurence of diseases. C and D are called Preventive
Health Behaviors which enhances the individual’s preventive capabilities.
89. D. Eudaemonistic Model . Smith formulated 5 models of health. Clinical model simply
states that when people experience sign and symptoms, they would think that they are
unhealthy therefore, Health is the absence of clinical sign and symptoms of a disease. Role
performance model states that when a person does his role and activities without deficits, he
is healthy and the inability to perform usual roles means that the person is ill. Adaptive
Model states that if a person adapts well with his environment, he is healthy and
maladaptation equates illness. Eudaemonistic Model of health according to smith is the
actualization of a person’s fullest potential. If a person functions optimally and develop self
actualization, then, no doubt that person is healthy.
90. A. Clinical Model. Rationale: Refer to question # 89.
91. C. Structural. Modifying variables in Becker’s health belief model includes
DEMOGRAPHIC : Age, sex, race etc. SOCIOPSYCHOLOGIC : Social and Peer influence.
STRUCTURAL : Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it and CUES TO
ACTION : Which are the sign and symptoms of the disease or advice from friends, mass
media and others that forces or makes the individual seek help.
92. D. Cues to action . Refer to question # 91.
93. B. Sociopsychologic. Refer to question # 91.
94. A. Demographic. Refer to question # 91.
95. A. Reservoir. According to L&C’s Ecologic model, there are 3 factors that affect health and
illness. These are the AGENT or the factor the leads to illness, either a bacteria or an event
in life. HOST are persons that may or may not be affected by these agents.
ENVIRONMENT are factors external to the host that may or may not predispose him to the
AGENT.
96. C. Health Promotion Model. Pender developed the concept of HEALTH PROMOTION
MODEL which postulated that an individual engages in health promotion activities to
increase well-being and attain self-actualization. These includes exercise, immunization,
healthy lifestyle, good food, self-responsibility and all other factors that minimize if not
totally eradicate risks and threats of health.
97. B. Health promotion. Refer to question # 96.
98. B. Disease. Disease are alteration in body functions resulting in reduction of capabilities or
shortening of life span.
99. A. Illness. Illness is something PERSONAL. Unlike disease, Illness are personal state in
which person feels unhealthy. An old person might think he is ILL but in fact, he is not due,
to diminishing functions and capabilities, people might think they are ILL. Disease
however, is something with tangible basis like lab results, X ray films or clinical sign and
symptoms.
100. B. Watson. This is Jean Watson’s definition of Nursing as caring. This was asked word
per word last June 06′ NLE. Benner defines caring as something that matters to people. She
postulated the responsibility created by Caring in nursing. She was also responsible for the
PRIMACY OF CARING MODEL. Leininger defind the 4 conservation principle while
Swanson introduced the 5 processes of caring.
PNLE: FON Practice Exam for Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in.
Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes
epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the
FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual
functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong.
Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person
also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be
validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the
best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology is best described as:
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenerative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub-acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub-acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical
changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the
relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man,
for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response
to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client
in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s
susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3
consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
26. Self-monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an
absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk
factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his
body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not
the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and
symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another
child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he
still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process
does this man belongs?
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to
prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of
Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the
following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually
projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked
you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid
immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She
suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you,
what immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing.

A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer
time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for
sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly
answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree
Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are
required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he
stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?

A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and
every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it
is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the
cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where
supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are
reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in
the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse,
what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it
rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the
bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and
gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non-dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, it’s up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the
operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical
procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?

A. The glove of the non-dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse
hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the
sterile field using the non-sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of
the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s
secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to
prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non-specific response of
the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

A. Stage of Alarm
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless
extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the
hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He
is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his
house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
Answers and Rationales: Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
1. C. Lungs will bronchodilate. To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous
system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is
called AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your
heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict,
because you need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic
Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we
tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and
RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting
person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to
bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher demand of the body.
Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge
attacks and leap through obstacles during running. The client’s gastric motility will
DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor running.
2. C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation. If vasodilation will occur, The BP
will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS
Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or
FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by
vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase
glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy.
Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is
controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.
3. A. Illness. Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis
and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on
subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.
4. A. Symptom Experience. A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person
starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an
illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick
role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client
only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing
is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks
professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the
symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving
care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where
the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.
5. D. Dependent patient role. In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for
help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional’s decisions but patients
are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.
6. B. Assumption of sick role. Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role
phase of illness.
7. C. Medical care contact. At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom
experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants
someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the
probable outcome of this experience.
8. A. One should be held responsible for his condition. The nurse should not judge the patient
and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is
excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek
competent help.
9. C. Risk factor
10. A. Susceptibility. Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that
person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance.
Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel
infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone
who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is
someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person
is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy,
HIV, Burns, etc.
11. A. Syndrome. Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In
Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the
patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of
these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia,
echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE
SYNDROME.
12. D. Iatrogenic. Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain
disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness
and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by
proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like
Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital.
Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.
13. B. 2 and 3. Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC
because the cause is UNKNOWN.
14. C. Exacerbation
15. A. Chronic. A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of
remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases
occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that
is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.
16. D. Organic. As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in
the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with
FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical
change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes,
which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC
BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON
PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and
it’s supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological,
physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of
psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC
PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare
pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.
17. B. Ecology. Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on
living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment.
Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for
the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous
boards.
18. A. Epidemiology. Refer to number 17.
19. C. Inorganic. Refer to number 16.
20. C. Tertiary. Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary
refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle,
good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals
with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam,
Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc.
Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the
impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are
prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among
diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc. The confusing part is between the treatment in
secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA
that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY
PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS
STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no
longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done
in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a
another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side
effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.
21. D. None of the above. The nurse never increases the person’s susceptibility to illness but
rather, LESSEN the person’s susceptibility to illness.
22. B. Secondary. Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE
Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment
in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are
required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations,
Diagnostics etc.
23. A. Primary. PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a
hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a
PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.
24. A. Primary
25. B. Secondary
26. C. Tertiary
27. D. Radio and Television. An actual board question, The best way to disseminate
information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH
establish its IEC Programs other than publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging
new way to disseminate is through the internet.
28. B. Neuman. The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and
subparts are Betty Neuman’s. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and
subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined
health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just
used that to help you remember her theory of health.
29. D. 1,2,3,4. All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the
definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon’s homeostasis theory. Third one
is from Claude Bernard’s concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman’s
Theory.
30. C. Cannon. Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain
dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard
defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as
Wellness that is influenced by individual’s culture.
31. D. Lifestyle
32. B. Age
33. A. Surgical Asepsis. Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while
Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.
34. D. Carrier
35. B. Contact
36. B. Disinfectant. Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended
for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of
microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under
pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their
spores.
37. C. Disinfection. Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of
Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer
of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of
removing pathogens but not their spores.
38. C. Illness period. In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no
sign and symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may
still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the
appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms
starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and
symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of
illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the
disease process or it’s gradual disappearance.
39. B. Prodromal period. To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific
signs of Fever, Koplik’s Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general
signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear,
therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during
the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik’s spot
heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes
take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.
40. A. Incubation period. Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an
average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the
mailman is in the incubation period.
41. D. Mode of transmission. Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection.
It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting
transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.
42. C. 4,5,3,6,2,1. Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will
first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to
TRANSMIT itself using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple
way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting
to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT.
She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first
eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain
the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE
OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF
ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant’s life cycle, we can
easily arrange the chain of infection.
43. D. Vector borne transmission. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is
transmitted by a TICK BITE.
44. D. Non Specificity. To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET
ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection.
Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to
humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient,
could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.
45. C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver. The hands of the caregiver like
nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why
HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross
contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the
most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli
seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread
of microogranisms from patient o patient.
46. A. Droplet transmission
47. A. Skin. Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against
infection.
48. A. Creed. Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person’s susceptibility to illness.
Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person’s immune system that will lead to
increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person’s susceptibility to certain skin
diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person.
Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.
49. C. Artificial active immunity. TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to
TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive
TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its
WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of
actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and
not a ready made immunoglobulin.
50. D. Artificial passive immunity. In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has
injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take
time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made
anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not
produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready
made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.
51. D. Handwashing. When you see the word HANDWASHING as one of the options, 90%
Chance it is the correct answer in the local board. Or should I say, 100% because I have yet
to see question from 1988 to 2005 board questions that has option HANDWASHING on it
but is not the correct answer.
52. B. Friction. The most important aspect of handwashing is FRICTION. The rest, will just
enhance friction. The use of soap lowers the surface tension thereby increasing the
effectiveness of friction. Water helps remove transient bacteria by working with soap to
create the lather that reduces surface tension. Time is of essence but friction is the most
essential aspect of handwashing.
53. D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms. Hands are held BELOW the
elbow in medical asepsis in contrast with surgical asepsis, wherein, nurses are required to
keep the hands above the waist. The rationale is because in medical asepsis, Hands are
considered dirtier than the elbow and therefore, to limit contamination of the lower arm, The
hands should always be below the elbow.
54. C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand. Each hands requires atleast 15 to 30 seconds of handwashing
to effectively remove transient microorganisms.
55. B. 10 seconds. According to Kozier, The minimum time required for watching each hands is
10 seconds and should not be lower than that. The recommended time, again, is 15 to 30
seconds.
56. C. 2-4 ml. If a liquid soap is to be used, 1 tsp [ 5ml ] of liquid soap is recommended for
handwashing procedure.
57. A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean. Equipments with LARGE LUMEN are
easier to clean than those with small lumen. B C and D are all correct.
58. C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required. Boiling is the most
common and least expensive method of sterilization used in home. For it to be effective, you
should boil articles for atleast 15 minutes.
59. D. Radiation. Imagine foods and drugs that are being sterilized by a boiling water, ethylene
oxide gas and autoclave or steam under pressure, They will be inactivated by these methods.
Ethylene oxide gas used in gas sterlization is TOXIC to humans. Boiling the food will alter
its consistency and nutrients. Autoclaving the food is never performed. Radiation using
microwave oven or Ionizing radiation penetrates to foods and drugs thus, sterilizing them.
60. B. Terminal disinfection. Terminal disinfection refers to practices to remove pathogens that
stayed in the belongings or immediate environemnt of an infected client who has been
discharged. An example would be Killing airborne TB Bacilli using UV Light. Concurrent
disinfection refers to ongoing efforts implented during the client’s stay to remove or limit
pathogens in his supplies, belongings, immediate environment in order to control the spread
of the disease. An example is cleaning the bedside commode of a client with radium implant
on her cervix with a bleach disinfectant after each voiding.
61. C. Shake the linens to remove dust. NEVER shake the linens. Once soiled, fold it inwards
clean surface out. Shaking the linen will further spread pathogens that has been harbored by
the fabric.
62. C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave. Only
C is correct. Metals with locks, like clamps and scissors should be UNLOCKED in order to
minimize stiffening caused by autoclave to the hinges of these metals. NOT ALL
microorganism are destroyed by autoclaving. There are recently discovered microorganism
that is invulnarable to extreme heat. Autoclaved instruments are to be used within 2 weeks.
Only the same type of metals should be autoclaved as this will alteration in plating of these
metals.
63. D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter. Mask
should cover both nose and mouth. Masks will not function optimally when wet. Masks
should be worn not greater than 4 hours, as it will lose effectiveness after 4 hours. N95 mask
or particulate mask can filter organism as small as 1 micromillimeter.
64. D. Yellow trashcan. Infectious waste like blood and blood products, wet diapers and
dressings are thrown in yellow trashcans.
65. A. Puncture proof container. Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a
puncture proof container.
66. C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container. A dislodged radioactive
cervical implant in brachytherapy are to be picked by a LONG FORCEP and stored in a
LEAD CONTAINER in order to prevent damage on the client’s normal tissue. Calling the
physician is the second most appropriate action among the choices. A nurse should never
attempt to put it back nor, touch it with her bare hands.
67. A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers. Leeches, in leech therapy or LEECH
PHLEBOTOMY are to be disposed on a BIO HAZARD container. They are never re used
as this could cause transfer of infection. These leeches are hospital grown and not the usual
leeches found in swamps.
68. A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries. Never recap needles. They are
directly disposed in a puncture proof container after used. Recapping the needles could
cause injury to the nurse and spread of infection. B C and D are all appropriate. Standard
precaution is sufficient for an HIV patient. A client with neutropenia are not given fresh and
uncooked fruits and vegetables for even the non infective organisms found in these foods
could cause severe infection on an immunocompromised patients.
69. D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour. TB patients
should have a private room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 to 12 air exhanges per
hour. Negative pressure room will prevent air inside the room from escaping. Air exchanges
are necessary since the client’s room do not allow air to get out of the room.
70. C. Droplet precaution. Droplet precaution is sufficient on client’s with RUBELLA or
german measles.
71. B. Airborne precaution. Measles is highly communicable and more contagious than Rubella,
It requires airborne precaution as it is spread by small particle droplets that remains
suspended in air and disperesed by air movements.
72. D. Contact precaution. Impetigo causes blisters or sores in the skin. It is generally caused by
GABS or Staph Aureaus. It is spread by skin to skin contact or by scratching the lesions and
touching another person’s skin.
73. A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube. The digestive tract is not sterile,
and therefore, simple errors like this would not cause harm to the patient. NGT tube need
not be sterile, and so is colostomy and rectal tubes. Clean technique is sufficient during
NGT and colostomy care.
74. C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile. Human skin is impossible to be
sterilized. It contains normal flora of microorganism. A B and D are all correct.
75. C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique. Sterile conscience,
or the moral imperative of a nurse to be honest in practicing sterile technique, is the best
method to enhance sterile technique. Autoclaved linens are considered sterile only within 2
weeks even if the bagging is intact. Surgical technique is a team effort of each nurse. If a
scrubbed person leave the sterile field and area, he must do the process all over again.
76. B. The non dominant hand. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first and then, the
dominant hand. The rationale is simply because humans tend to use the dominant hand first
before the non dominant hand. Out of 10 humans that will put on their sterile gloves, 8 of
them will put the gloves on their non dominant hands first.
77. C. Before surgical hand scrub. The nurse should put his goggles, cap and mask prior to
washing the hands. If he wash his hands prior to putting all these equipments, he must wash
his hands again as these equipments are said to be UNSTERILE.
78. D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on. The nurse should only
adjust fitting of the gloves when they are both on the hands. Not doing so will break the
sterile technique. Only 4 gingers are slipped when picking up the second gloves. You cannot
slip all of your fingers as the cuff is limited and the thumb would not be able to enter the
cuff. The first glove is grasp by simply picking it up with the first 2 fingers and a thumb in a
pinching motion. Gloves are put on the non dominant hands first.
79. A. The glove of the non dominant hand. Gloves are worn in the non dominant hand first,
and is removed also from the non dominant hand first. Rationale is simply because in 10
people removing gloves, 8 of them will use the dominant hand first and remove the gloves
of the non dominant hand.
80. D. 2,3,1,4,5. The nurse should use CaMEy Hand and Body Lotion in moisturizing his hand
before surgical procedure and after handwashing. Ca stands for CAP, Mstands for
MASK, Ey stands for eye goggles. The nurse will do handwashing and then [HAND], Don
the gloves first and wear the Gown [BODY]. I created this mnemonic and I advise you use
it because you can never forget Camey hand and body lotion. [ Yes, I know it is spelled as
CAMAY ]]
81. A. 4,3,5,1,2. When the nurse is about to remove his protective devices, The nurse will
remove the GLOVES first followed by the MASK and GOWN then, other devices like cap,
shoe cover, etc. This is to prevent contamination of hair, neck and face area.
82. C. 6 inches. Even if you do not know the answer to this question, you can answer it
correctly by imagining. If you pour the NSS into a receptacle 1 to 3 inch above it, Chances
are, The mouth of the NSS bottle would dip into the receptacle as you fill it, making it
contaminated. If you pour the NSS bottle into a receptacle 10 inches above it, that is too
high, chances are, as you pour the NSS, most will spill out because the force will be too
much for the buoyant force to handle. It will also be difficult to pour something precisely
into a receptacle as the height increases between the receptacle and the bottle. 6 inches is the
correct answer. It is not to low nor too high.
83. A. The tip should always be lower than the handle. A sterile forcep is usually dipped into a
disinfectant or germicidal solution. Imagine, if the tip is HIGHER than the handle, the
solution will go into the handle and into your hands and as you use the forcep, you will
eventually lower its tip making the solution in your hand go BACK into the tip thus
contaminating the sterile area of the forcep. To prevent this, the tip should always be lower
than the handle. In situation questions like this, IMAGINATION is very important.
84. C. 1,2,3,4. All soiled equipments use in an infectious client are disposed INSIDE the client’s
room to prevent contamination outside the client’s room. The nurse is correct in using Mask
the covers both nose and mouth. Hands are washed before and after removing the gloves
and before and after you enter the client’s room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are
thrown in trashcan found in the clients room.
85. C. 1,2,3. Cap, mask and shoe cover are worn BEFORE scrubbing.
86. D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves. Gloves are the dirtiest protective item
nurses are wearing and therefore, the first to be removed to prevent spread of
microorganism as you remove the mask and gown.
87. C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response. All stressors evoke common adaptive
response. A psychologic fear like nightmare and a real fear or real perceive threat evokes
common manifestation like tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, increase muscle tension etc.
ALL diseases and illness causes stress. Stress can be both REAL or IMAGINARY.
Hemostasis refers to the ARREST of blood flowing abnormally through a damage vessel.
Homeostasis is the one that refers to dynamic state of equilibrium according to Walter
Cannon.
88. A. Hans Selye. Hans Selye is the only theorist who proposed an intriguing theory about
stress that has been widely used and accepted by professionals today. He conceptualized two
types of human response to stress, The GAS or general adaptation syndrome which is
characterized by stages of ALARM, RESISTANCE and EXHAUSTION. The Local
adaptation syndrome controls stress through a particular body part. Example is when you
have been wounded in your finger, it will produce PAIN to let you know that you should
protect that particular damaged area, it will also produce inflammation to limit and control
the spread of injury and facilitate healing process. Another example is when you are
frequently lifting heavy objects, eventually, you arm, back and leg muscles hypertorphies to
adapt to the stress of heavy lifting.
89. B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it. Man, do not always adapt to
stress. Sometimes, stress can lead to exhaustion and eventually, death. A,C and D are all
correct.
90. A. Stress is essential. Stress is ESSENTIAL. No man can live normally without stress. It is
essential because it is evoked by the body’s normal pattern of response and leads to a
favorable adaptive mechanism that are utilized in the future when more stressors are
encountered by the body. Man can encounter stress even while asleep, example is
nightmare. Disease are multifactorial, No diseases are caused by a single stressors. Stress
are sometimes favorable and are not always a cause for distress. An example of favorable
stress is when a carpenter meets the demand and stress of everyday work. He then develops
calluses on the hand to lessen the pressure of the hammer against the tissues of his hand. He
also develop larger muscle and more dense bones in the arm, thus, a stress will lead to
adaptations to decrease that particular stress.
91. D. Death can ensue. Death can ensue as early as the stage of alarm. Exhaustion results to a
prolonged exposure to stress. Resistance is when the levels of resistance increases and
characterized by being able to adapt.
92. A. Stage of Alarm. Adaptation mechanisms begin in the stage of alarm. This is when the
adaptive mechanism are mobilized. When someone shouts SUNOG!!! your heart will begin
to beat faster, you vessels constricted and bp increased.
93. B. Stage of Resistance
94. A. Stage of Alarm. Resistance are decreased in the stage of alarm. Resistance is absent in
the stage of exhaustion. Resistance is increased in the stage of resistance.
95. B. Stage of Resistance
96. D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time. Aside from having
limits that leads to exhaustion. Adaptive response requires time for it to act. It requires
energy, physical and psychological taxes that needs time for our body to mobilize and
utilize.
98. D. Technological adaptive mode
99. C. Sociocultural adaptive mode. Sociocultural adaptive modes include language,
communication, dressing, acting and socializing in line with the social and cultural standard
of the people around the adapting individual.
100. B. Psychologic adaptive mode
PNLE: FON Practice Exam for Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication,
Recording, Learning and Documentation
1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic
stimulation by
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decreases force of contractility
D. Decreases cardiac output
2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?
A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level
B. There will be a halt in release of sex hormones
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase
3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing pain
D. Prepare for tissue repair
4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
D. Transient Vasodilation
5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

A. There will be sudden redness of the affected part
B. Heat will increase on the affected part
C. The affected part will loss its normal function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site
6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of

microorganism infection?
A. Serous
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent
D. Sanguinous
7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

A. Redness on the affected area
B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation
8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular
cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in
chronic tissue injury?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocytes
10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she
twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is
responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response
after injury, You tell her:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Emigration
C. Pavementation
D. Chemotaxis
12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured
tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?
A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions
B. It is Diapedesis
C. We call that Emigration
D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss
and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know
that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will
be prescribed to Miss Imelda is
A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is
A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to
remove dead tissues
B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic
tissues
C. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent
contamination
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet
dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium
18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

A. Release of pain mediators
B. Injury to the nerve endings
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
D. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient
19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for
removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-
medullary response by the client?
1. Constipation
2. Urinary frequency
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Increased blood pressure
A. 3,4
B. 1,3,4
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,4
20. The client is on NPO post-midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is
sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?
A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M
B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M
C. Brush his teeth the morning before operation
D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is
activated and which of the following below is an expected response?
A. Low BP
B. Decrease Urine output
C. Warm, flushed, dry skin
D. Low serum sodium levels
22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust
C. Goals are set by the solely nurse
D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help
23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation,

Identification, Exploitation and Resolution
A. Roy
B. Peplau
C. Rogers
D. Travelbee
24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records
thereby learning as much as possible about the client?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the
frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking
baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse
Aida and Roger belong?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts
and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger,
Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a
human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self-awareness
28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida
should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self-awareness
29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

A. It is a nervous energy
B. It is an essential aspect of existence
C. It has been always a part of human experience
D. It is something each person has to cope
30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the
Wimbledon event. She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what
kind of situation?
A. Martina is just stressed out
B. Martina is Anxious
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis
31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?
A. It has physiologic component
B. It has psychologic component
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is
starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of
anxiety does this features belongs?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Panic
33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely,
has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions
characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Panic
34. You noticed the patient chart: ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?
A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased
B. Dilated pupils
C. Unable to communicate
D. Palliative Coping Mechanism
35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

A. When anxiety is +1
B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
C. When problem solving is not possible
D. When the client is immobile and disorganized
36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

A. Frequent hand movement
B. Somatization
C. The client asks a question
D. The client is acting out
37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?
A. Offer choices
B. Provide a quiet and calm environment
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments
D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level
38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?
A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”
B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?
A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing
them
B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or
sound after each exhalation
C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change
D. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity
40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate,
temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?
A. Biofeedback
B. Massage
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

A. Biofeedback
B. Meditation
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

A. Valium
B. Ativan
C. Milltown
D. Luvox
43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s
expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive.
What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?
1. Spiritual Pain
2. Spiritual Anxiety
3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4
44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask
forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace
experiencing?
A. Spiritual Pan
B. Spiritual Alienation
C. Spiritual Guilt
D. Spiritual Despair
45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of
her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?
A. Spiritual Anger
B. Spiritual Loss
C. Spiritual Despair
D. Spiritual Anxiety
46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing
back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What
therapeutic technique did Budek used?
A. Offering general leads
B. Seeking clarification
C. Making observation
D. Encouraging description of perception
47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?”
This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your
crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really
think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty
sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty
sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded
“Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?
A. Disproving
B. Disagreeing
C. Voicing Doubt
D. Presenting Reality
52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow

before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”
A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am
Glen, Your nurse.”
B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”
C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”
D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”
53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too
painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC
A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”
B. “ You sound afraid”
C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”
D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”
54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of
his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What
defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?
A. Restitution
B. Projection
C. Displacement
D. Undoing
55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande
unconsciously doing?
A. Restitution
B. Conversion
C. Redoing
D. Reaction formation
56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the
following is NOT TRUE in crisis?
A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stress
B. Inability to function in the usual organized manner
C. Lasts for 4 months
D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?
A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time
B. There is a triggering event
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
D. Person totality is not involved
58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due
to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin
experiencing?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office
before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives.
The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again.
What type of crisis is this?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?
A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state
B. Make sure that the client becomes better
C. Achieve independence
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism
62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the
first phase of the crisis?
A. Behavior therapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Milieu Therapy
63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows
1. Based on friendship and mutual interest
2. It is a professional relationship
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals
4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional helpA. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the
following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?
A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details
B. She focused on selected aspect of her illness
C. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelings
D. She experiences random motor activities
65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing
with a client with aggressive behavior?
A. Approach him in a calm manner
B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
C. Maintain eye contact with the client
D. Isolate the client from others
66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don’t
make me close one more door, I don’t wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most
appropriate response by Budek?
A. Why are you singing?
B. What makes you say that?
C. Ofcourse you are everything!
D. What is that you said?
67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer.
Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are in
B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
C. Reassure the client everything will be alright
D. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers
68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings
A. Verbal communication
B. Non verbal communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication
69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.
A. Overt communication
B. Covert communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Non verbal communication
70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?

A. Focused on the patient
B. Based on mutual trust
C. Conveys acceptance
D. Discourages emotional bond
71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A
nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is
arranged according to information source.
A. POMR
B. POR
C. Traditional
D. Resource oriented
72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the
health team.
A. POMR
B. Traditional
C. Resource oriented
D. Source oriented
73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the
progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.
A. Progress notes
B. Kardex
C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet
74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of
flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.
A. Kardex
B. Progress Notes
C. SOAPIE
D. Change of shift report
75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing
instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?
A. Mongol #2
B. Permanent Ink
C. A felt or fountain pen
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker
76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in
the client’s chart?
A. In the first page of the client’s chart
B. At the last page of the client’s chart
C. At the front metal plate of the chart
D. In the Kardex
77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex

A. It provides readily available information
B. It is a tool of end of shift reports
C. The primary basis of endorsement
D. Where Allergies information are written
78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good
recording?
A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and
Respiratory rate of 22
B. Ate 50% of food served
C. Refused administration of betaxolol
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago
79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?

A. Left eye
B. Right eye
C. Both eye
D. Once a day
82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc
means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?
A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag
HL tayo program
B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it
to her
C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planning
D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism
85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if
a new situation closely resembles an old one.
A. Bloom
B. Lewin
C. Thorndike
D. Skinner
86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?

A. Start from complex to simple
B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goals
C. Visual learning is the best for every individual
D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible
for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the
different kinds of family planning methods?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?
A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the
nurse
B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed
atmosphere
C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at
identifying patient needs and developing mutual goals
D. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component of the nursing process
90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient
relationship?
A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals
can be established
B. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behavior
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illness
D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established
91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert
communication?
A. Validation
B. Listening
C. Evaluation
D. Clarification
92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?

1. Brevity
2. Completeness and chronology
3. Appropriateness
4. Accuracy
A. 1,2
B. 3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4
93. All of the following chart entries are correct except

A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80
B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance
94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about
self-injection of insulin?
A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing
95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?
A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond
96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post
spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?
A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good
breathing, circulation and prevent complication
B. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to prevent
Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasis
C. Medicate client for pain
D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery
97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this
information?
A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex
B. Notify the attending physician
C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications
98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to
assess the client’s pain?
A. Perform physical assessment
B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scale
C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. Observe the client’s behavior
99. Therapeutic communication begins with?

A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
C. Showing empathy
D. Encoding
100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse,
when using materials like this, what is your responsibility?
A. Read it for the patient
B. Give it for the patient to read himself
C. Let the family member read the material for the patient
D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material
Answers: Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication, Recording, Learning and
Documentation
1. B. Vasodilatation
2. D. Blood pressure will increase
3. A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
4. C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
5. C. The affected part will loss its normal function
6. C. Purulent
7. A. Redness on the affected area
8. D. Monocytes
9. C. Eosinophil
10. A. Neutrophils
11. C. Pavementation
12. D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
13. C. Third intention
14. A. First intention
15. B. Second intention
16. B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
17. A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry
to remove dead tissues
18. C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
19. B. 1,3,4
20. D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
21. B. Decrease Urine output
22. A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
23. B. Peplau
24. A. Pre Orientation
25. B. Orientation
26. C. Working
27. B. Positive regard
28. B. Positive regard
29. A. It is a nervous energy
30. D. Martina is in Crisis
31. D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
32. D. Panic
33. B. Moderate
34. B. Dilated pupils
35. B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
36. C. The client asks a question
37. A. Offer choices
38. D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
39. B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word
or sound after each exhalation
40. A. Biofeedback
41. C. Autogenic training
42. D. Luvox
43. B. 2,3
44. B. Spiritual Alienation
45. B. Spiritual Loss
46. C. Making observation
47. B. Restating
48. A. Reflecting
49. B. Restating
50. B. Restating
51. C. Voicing Doubt
52. C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient
here”
53. D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”
54. C. Displacement
55. A. Restitution
56. C. Lasts for 4 months
57. B. There is a triggering event
58. B. Maturational
59. A. Situational
60. C. Social
61. D. Provide alternate coping mechanism
62. D. Milieu Therapy
63. C. 2,3,4
64. A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details
65. B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
66. D. What is that you said?
67. B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
68. B. Non verbal communication
69. B. Covert communication
70. D. Discourages emotional bond
71. D. Resource oriented
72. A. POMR
73. D. Flow sheet
74. A. Kardex
75. A. Mongol #2
76. C. At the front metal plate of the chart
77. C. The primary basis of endorsement
78. A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and
Respiratory rate of 22
79. B. Before meals
80. C. After meals
81. D. Once a day
82. B. with
83. C. one half
84. A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag
HL tayo program
85. C. Thorndike
86. D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
87. C. Psychomotor
88. A. Cognitive
89. C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at
identifying patient needs and developing mutual goals
90. D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established
91. A. Validation
92. D. 1,2,3,4
93. C. Seems agitated
94. B. Demonstration
95. A. It is growth facilitating
96. A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good
breathing, circulation and prevent complication
97. B. Notify the attending physician
98. C. Active listening on what the patient says
99. B. Knowing yourself
100. D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material
PNLE FON Practice Exam for Nursing Process, Physical and Health Assessment and
Routine Procedures
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing
process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall
2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today,
how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment,
planning, implementation and evaluation.
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human

resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must
receive?
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and
progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the
following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The
client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis
of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF
ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet
seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is
experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY
ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her
diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of
Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an
incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on.
She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
D. Self-esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic
14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?

A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW
WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is: After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills
for insulin injection.
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?

A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails
18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B
19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body
and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment
framework is used in this situation?
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?

A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation
25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?

A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased
thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
A. 40 degree Celsius
B. 39 degree Celsius
C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER
due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you
conclude that this temperature is
A. High
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range
D. At the high end of the normal range
28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5
degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of
36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a
temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the
following best describe the fever john is having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
A. Tricyclic
B. Bicyclic
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40
degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
A. Hot, flushed skin
B. Increase thirst
C. Convulsion
D. Pale,cold skin
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
A. Delirium
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
D. Sweating
35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?

A. Quadriplegic
B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
D. Nausea and Vomitting
38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?

A. Unconscious
B. Neutropenic
C. NPO
D. Very young children
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
A. 1 to 2 inches
B. 5 to 1.5 inches
C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches
40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical
Asepsis is :
A. From bulb to stem
B. From stem to bulb
C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb
41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?

A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
A. Put the palms downward
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
A. Apical rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure
45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?

A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?

A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
C. I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2
47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
50. The primary respiratory center

B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid
bodies?
A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis
52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the
following is incorrect?
A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR
53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes
54. Which of the following is more life threatening?

A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50
55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest

A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload
D. Pulse pressure
56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
D. Epinephrine decreases BP
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old
diabetic?
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.
58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities,
smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?
A. True high reading
B. True low reading
C. False high reading
D. False low reading
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
C. The right arm
D. The left arm
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?

A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of
parallax
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF sound
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is
normal.
62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high reading
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 30
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?
A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL
65. In assessing the abdomen, which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical
assessment?
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:

A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?

A. Ask the client to void first
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated
68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the
following, if done by a nurse, is a correct preparation before the procedure?
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfort
D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal
and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?
A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner
70. In palpating the client’s breast, which of the following position is necessary for the patient to
assume before the start of the procedure?
A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Sitting
D. Lithotomy
71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?
A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
C. Midnight
D. Before breakfast
72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and
sensitivity?
A. Use a clean container
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol
73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a
Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?
A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24
hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collection
D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen
74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the
urine
A. Midstream clean catch urine
B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection
D. Second voided urine
75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?
A. During meals
B. In between meals
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals
76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, which of the following statement indicates
an accurate performance of the procedure?
A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager
ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse
to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.
A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
D. Litmus paper test
78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which
of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?
A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy
79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s
Solution?
A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tube
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminated
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If
committed by a nurse indicates error?
A. Specimen is collected after meals
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive
82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a
Guaiac Test?
A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results
83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse,
indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?
A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container
84. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before
sputum collection?
A. Secure a clean container
B. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum
analysis
85. Who collects Blood specimen?

A. The nurse
B. Medical technologist
C. Physician
D. Physical therapist
86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following
health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?
A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedure
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedure
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the
A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
C. Muscle activity
D. Stress
88. The heat regulating center is found in the

B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation
90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?
A. Obesity
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Gender
91. The following are social data about the client except
A. Patient’s lifestyle
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation
D. Usual health status
92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine
94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, which of the following is the best position for the client to
assume?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a
client with an Indwelling catheter?
A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port
97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen
for urine analysis?
A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position
himself?
A. At the client’s back
B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be
examined by the nurse?
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone
100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its
movements?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine
Answers: Nursing Process, Physical and Health Assessment and Routine Procedures
1. D. Hall
2. C. ADOPIE – 6
3. A. 1,2
4. C. Efficient
5. B. Humanistic
6. D. Effective
7. B. 2,3
8. A. Actual
9. D. Risk
10. C. Possible
11. D. Risk
12. B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
13. D. Client is cyanotic
14. D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
15. B. They are general and broadly stated
16. D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
17. D. Blue nails
18. B. Secondary
19. D. Intrapersonal
20. A. It is nursing centered
21. A. Functional health framework
22. C. Body system framework
23. B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
24. A. Convection
25. A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
26. D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
27. D. At the high end of the normal range
28. C. Remittent
29. A. Relapsing
30. B. Intermittent
31. C. Biphasic
32. D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
33. D. Pale, cold skin
34. D. Sweating
35. A. Oral
36. D. Axillary
37. A. Quadriplegic
38. B. Neutropenic
39. B. .5 to 1.5 inches
40. B. From stem to bulb
41. C. 7 minutes
42. A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
43. B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
44. D. Pulse pressure
45. B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
46. D. I:E 1:2
47. B. Pons
48. B. Pons
49. B. Pons
50. A. Medulla oblongata
51. B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
52. C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
53. B. Diastole
54. B. BP = 160/120
55. A. Diastole
56. D. Epinephrine decreases BP
57. A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
58. D. 30
59. C. False high reading
60. D. The left arm
61. A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of
parallax
62. B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
63. A. 1
64. B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
65. A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
66. D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
67. B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
68. D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
69. D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner
70. A. Supine
71. A. Early morning
72. B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
73. A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the
24 hour urine specimen
74. D. Second voided urine
75. C. Before meals
76. B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
77. C. Benedict’s test
78. B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
79. D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
80. D. Orange
81. A. Specimen is collected after meals
82. A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
83. C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
84. C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
85. B. Medical technologist
86. B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
87. A. Metabolism
88. C. Hypothalamus
89. B. Conduction
90. C. Stress
91. A. Patient’s lifestyle
92. D. Lithotomy
93. A. Dorsal recumbent
94. A. Dorsal recumbent
95. B. Sims position
96. C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
97. C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
98. A. At the client’s back
99. A. Standing
100. A. Sitting
PNLE: FON Practice Exam for Oxygenation and Nutrition
1. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?
A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing
B. Transport gases to the lower airways
C. Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
D. Protect the lower airway from foreign mater
2. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects
A. Cilia
B. Nares
C. Carina
D. Vibrissae
3. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the
skull
A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
4. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

A. Ehtmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Frontal
5. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The
court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally
aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?
A. Right main stem bronchus
B. Left main stem bronchus
C. Be dislodged in between the carina
D. Be blocked by the closed epiglottis
6. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory
tract?
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells
7. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
8. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?
A. Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter
B. Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter
C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
D. Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter
9. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?

A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Goblet cells
D. Adipose cells
10. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:3
11. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume
A. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume
12. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration
A. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Residual volume
13. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in
my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?
A. We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra
B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
C. Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543
D. Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating
14. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

A. Lungs
B. Intercostal Muscles
C. Diaphragm
D. Pectoralis major
15. Cassandra asked you: How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human
requires? Which of the following is the best response:
A. God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
B. Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air
C. Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air
D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
16. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

A. A passive process
B. The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration
C. Stridor is commonly heard during expiration
D. Requires energy to be carried out
17. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
B. Should last only for 60 minutes
C. Done best P.C
D. An independent nursing action
18. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

A. Mucolytic
B. Warm and humidify air
C. Administer medications
D. Promote bronchoconstriction
19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

A. It is a dependent nursing action
B. Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose
C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes
D. Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation
20. When should a nurse suction a client?

A. As desired
B. As needed
C. Every 1 hour
D. Every 4 hours
21. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near
New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious.
You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr.
Hamilton?
A. High fowlers
B. Semi fowlers
C. Prone
D. Side lying
22. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall
unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr.
Hamilton?
A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 200-350 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 10-15 mmHg
23. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment
available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus
membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?
A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg
D. 15-25 mmHg
24. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr.
Hamilton?
A. Fr. 18
B. Fr. 12
C. Fr. 10
D. Fr, 5
25. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an
unconscious client?
A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the
nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
B. Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion
C. The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds
D. Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning
26. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?
1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia
3. Cyanosis
4. Pallor
5. Irritability
6. Flaring of NaresA. 1,2
B. 2,5
C. 2,6
D. 3,4
27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask
28. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non Rebreather mask
D. Partial Rebreather mask
29. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

A. Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.
B. Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane
C. Oxygen supports combustion
D. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
30. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient
with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:
A. Uses venture mask in oxygen administration
B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
C. Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen
D. Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration
31. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?
A. Client is tired and dyspneic
B. The client is coughing out blood
C. The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM
D. Client is frequently turning from side to side
32. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1,
Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?
A. Pancytopenia
B. Anemia
C. Fingers are Club-like
D. Hematocrit of client is decreased
33. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:
A. Cannula
B. Simple Face mask
C. Non rebreather mask
D. Venturi mask
34. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in
breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands
for?
A. Chest tube thoracotomy
B. Chest tube thoracostomy
C. Closed tube thoracotomy
D. Closed tube thoracostmy
35. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s
pleura?
A. 2nd ICS
B. 4th ICS
C. 5th ICS
D. 8th ICS
36. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And
oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Consider this as normal findings
B. Notify the physician
C. Check for tube leak
D. Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing
37. Which of the following is true about nutrition?

A. It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and
development
B. It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are
transported into the circulation
C. It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use,
growth and tissue repair
D. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body
38. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

A. Mouth
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
39. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except
A. It is where the digestion process starts
B. Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication
C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
D. Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva
40. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?
A. Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice
B. Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers
C. Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman
D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg
41. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
42. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach
43. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach
A. Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour
B. Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours
C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
D. HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion
44. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?
A. Sucrase
B. Enterokinase
C. Amylase
D. Enterokinase
45. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic
juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach
A. Enterogastrone
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Pancreozymin
D. Enterokinase
46. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are
formed?
A. Galactose + Galactose
B. Glucose + Fructose
C. Glucose + Galactose
D. Fructose + Fructose
47. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion
A. Trypsin
B. Enterokinase
C. Enterogastrone
D. Amylase
48. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call
A. Nucleotides
B. Fatty acids
C. Glucose
D. Amino Acids
49. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract
the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats
and its digestion.
A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Pancreozymin
50. Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?
A. It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid
B. The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed
C. It is a sterile body cavity
D. It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine
51. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius
A. Calorie
B. Joules
C. Metabolism
D. Basal metabolic rate
52. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in
that cup of rice?
A. 150 calories
B. 200 calories
C. 250 calories
D. 400 calories
53. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

A. 1,000 calories
B. 1,500 calories
C. 2,000 calories
D. 2,500 calories
54. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

A. All individual have the same caloric needs
B. Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories
C. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
D. Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day
55. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?
A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis
B. An individual in a long state of glycogenolysis
C. A pregnant individual
D. An adolescent with a BMI of 25
56. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and
Diarrhea?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
57. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of
Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
58. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
59. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this
vitamin
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
60. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin C
61. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?

A. Green leafy vegetables
B. Vegetable oil
C. Fortified Milk
D. Fish liver oil
62. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic
client?
A. Pork liver and organ meats, Pork
B. Red meat, Eggs and Dairy products
C. Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy products
D. Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts
63. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to
prevent neural tube defects?
A. Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes
B. Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk
C. Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts
D. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs
64. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following
food should you instruct the client to avoid?
A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver
B. Salmon, Sardines, Tuna
C. Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals
D. Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken
65. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the
latest research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of
acquiring prostate cancer
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Selenium
D. Vanadium
66. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in
tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
67. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the
following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT
A. Phosphorous
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
68. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
69. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their
meat?
A. Cantaloupe
B. Avocado
C. Raisin
D. Banana
70. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given
to the client?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium EDTA
D. Activated charcoal
71. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?
A. Pork meat
B. Lean read meat
C. Pork liver
D. Green mongo
72. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?
A. Height
B. Weight
C. Arm muscle circumference
D. BMI
73. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weighs 179 lbs. As a nurse, you
know that Jose Miguel is:
A. Overweight
B. Underweight
C. Normal
D. Obese
74. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, which could help relieve
JM’s nausea?
A. Coke
B. Sprite
C. Mirinda
D. Orange Juice or Lemon Juice
75. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

A. Tachycardia
B. Restlessness
C. Thirst
D. Poor skin turgor
76. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?
A. 1.007
B. 1.020
C. 1.039
D. 1.029
77. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?
A. 67%
B. 50%
C. 36%
D. 45%
78. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial
onset of hypokalemia?
A. My arm feels so weak
B. I felt my heart beat just right now
C. My face muscle is twitching
D. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping
79. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?

A. Marinol
B. Dramamine
C. Benadryl
D. Alevaire
80. Which is not a clear liquid diet?

A. Hard candy
B. Gelatin
C. Coffee with Coffee mate
D. Bouillon
81. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

A. Popsicles
B. Pureed vegetable meat
C. Pineapple juice with pulps
D. Mashed potato
82. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?

A. Steamed broccoli
B. Creamed potato
C. Spinach in garlic
D. Sweet potato
83. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?
A. Use an oil based lubricant
B. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the
xiphoid process
C. Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion
D. Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for
bubbling sound
84. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the
NGT?
A. X-Ray
B. Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced
C. Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic
D. Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area
85. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you
position the patient?
A. Semi fowlers in bed
B. Bring the client into a chair
C. Slightly elevated right side lying position
D. Supine in bed
86. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that
he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added
the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen
and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?
A. 250 cc
B. 290 cc
C. 350 cc
D. 310 cc
87. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT
feeding?
A. Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or
equal to 50 ml
B. Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow
introduction of feeding
C. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping
syndrome
D. Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach
88. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?

A. Diarrhea
B. Infection
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Vomiting
89. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?

A. Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowly
B. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administration
C. Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stoma
D. A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well
90. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The
client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to
replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the
probable complication being experienced by the client?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Infection
D. Fluid overload
91. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best
used?
A. Food likes and dislikes
B. Regularity of meal times
C. 3 day diet recall
D. Eating style and habits
92. The vomiting center is found in the

A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Pons
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
93. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

A. Aspiration
B. Dehydration
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D. Malnutrition
94. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

A. Ampalaya
B. Broccoli
C. Mongo
D. Malunggay leaves
95. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

A. Egg yolk
B. Liver
C. Fish
D. Peanuts
96. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is

A. Check V/S
B. Assess for patency of the tube
C. Measure residual feeding
D. Check the placement of the tube
97. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is
A. Ensures adequate nutrition
B. It prevents aspiration
C. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrity
D. Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance
98. What is the BMI of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.
A. 20
B. 19
C. 15
D. 25
99. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

A. Strawberry tongue
B. Currant Jelly stool
C. Beefy red tongue
D. Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC
100. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which
of the following is a normal serum lipase value?
A. 10 U/L
B. 100 U/L
C. 200 U/L
D. 350 U/L
Answers: Oxygenation and Nutrition
1. A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing
2. D. Vibrissae
3. A. Ehtmoid
4. D. Frontal
5. A. Right main stem bronchus
6. C. Goblet cells
7. C. Three
8. C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
9. B. Type II pneumocytes
10. B. 2:1
11. A. Inspiratory reserve volume
12. D. Residual volume
13. B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
14. C. Diaphragm
15. D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
16. A. A passive process
17. A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
18. D. Promote bronchoconstriction
19. C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes
20. B. As needed
21. D. Side lying
22. C. 100-120 mmHg
23. C. 10-15 mmHg
24. A. Fr. 18
25. A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the
nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
26. B. 2,5
27. A. Nasal Cannula
28. C. Non Rebreather mask
29. D. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
30. B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
31. D. Client is frequently turning from side to side
32. C. Fingers are Club-like
33. A. Cannula
34. C. Closed tube thoracotomy
35. D. 8th ICS
36. A. Consider this as normal findings
37. D. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body
38. B. Small intestine
39. C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
40. D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg
41. A. Mouth
42. D. Stomach
43. C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
44. C. Amylase
45. C. Pancreozymin
46. B. Glucose + Fructose
47. A. Trypsin
48. D. Amino Acids
49. C. Cholecystokinin
50. C. It is a sterile body cavity
51. A. Calorie
52. B. 200 calories
53. C. 2,000 calories
54. C. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
55. A. An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis
56. C. Vitamin B3
57. D. Vitamin B6
58. D. Vitamin B6
59. B. Vitamin B2
60. A. Vitamin B1
61. B. Vegetable oil
62. A. Pork liver and organ meats, Pork
63. D. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs
64. A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver
65. C. Selenium
66. D. Vitamin D
67. B. Iron
68. C. Calcium
69. A. Cantaloupe
70. B. Deferoxamine
71. C. Pork liver
72. B. Weight
73. C. Normal
74. A. Coke
75. C. Thirst
76. C. 1.039
77. A. 67%
78. D. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping
79. D. Alevaire
80. C. Coffee with Coffee mate
81. A. Popsicles
82. B. Creamed potato
83. B. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to
the xiphoid process
84. A. X-Ray
85. B. Bring the client into a chair
86. D. 310 cc
87. C. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent
dumping syndrome
88. A. Diarrhea
89. B. Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administration
90. B. Hypoglycemia
91. C. 3 day diet recall
92. A. Medulla Oblongata
93. A. Aspiration
94. C. Mongo
95. B. Liver
96. B. Assess for patency of the tube
97. C. Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrity
98. B. 19
99. C. Beefy red tongue
100. C. 200 U/L
PNLE: Fundamentals in Nursing Exam 1
1. Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses his respiratory rate to be 30
breaths per minute and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse understands that tachypnea
means:
A. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 140/90
C. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute
D. Frequent bowel sounds
2. The nurse listens to Mrs. Sullen’s lungs and notes a hissing sound or musical sound. The nurse
documents this as:
A. Wheezes
B. Rhonchi
C. Gurgles
D. Vesicular
3. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature at 101 degrees F. What is the equivalent
centigrade temperature?
A. 36.3 degrees C
B. 37.95 degrees C
C. 40.03 degrees C
D. 38.01 degrees C
4. Which approach to problem solving tests any number of solutions until one is found that
works for that particular problem?
A. Intuition
B. Routine
C. Scientific method
D. Trial and error
5. What is the order of the nursing process?

A. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, evaluating, planning
B. Diagnosing, assessing, planning, implementing, evaluating
C. Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating
D. Planning, evaluating, diagnosing, assessing, implementing
6. During the planning phase of the nursing process, which of the following is the outcome?
A. Nursing history
B. Nursing notes
C. Nursing care plan
D. Nursing diagnosis
7. What is an example of a subjective data?
A. Heart rate of 68 beats per minute
B. Yellowish sputum
C. Client verbalized, “I feel pain when urinating.”
D. Noisy breathing
8. Which expected outcome is correctly written?
A. “The patient will feel less nauseated in 24 hours.”
B. “The patient will eat the right amount of food daily.”
C. “The patient will identify all the high-salt food from a prepared list by discharge.”
D. “The patient will have enough sleep.”
9. Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane Robles demonstrates that she understands
well the elements of effective charting?
A. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil.
B. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon.
C. She signs on the medication sheet after administering the medication.
D. She signs her charting as follow: J.R
10. What is the disadvantage of computerized documentation of the nursing process?

A. Accuracy
B. Legibility
C. Concern for privacy
D. Rapid communication
11. The theorist who believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are related to foster
change is:
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Sister Callista Roy
C. Imogene King
D. Virginia Henderson
12. Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function of:

A. Patient and relatives
B. Nurse and patient
C. Doctor and family
D. Nurse and doctor
13. Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed to have hypertension since 10 years ago. Since then, she
had maintained low sodium, low fat diet, to control her blood pressure. This practice is viewed
as:
A. Cultural belief
B. Personal belief
C. Health belief
D. Superstitious belief
14. Becky is on NPO since midnight as preparation for blood test. Adreno-cortical response is
activated. Which of the following is an expected response?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Warm, dry skin
C. Decreased serum sodium levels
D. Decreased urine output
15. What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an
indwelling catheter to prevent infection?
A. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine.
B. Open the drainage bag and pour out the urine.
C. Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and get urine.
D. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe.
16. A client is receiving 115 ml/hr of continuous IVF. The nurse notices that the venipuncture
site is red and swollen. Which of the following interventions would the nurse perform first?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Call the attending physician
C. Slow that infusion to 20 ml/hr
D. Place a clod towel on the site
17. The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed medication but the patient is inside the
bathroom. What should the nurse do?
A. Leave the medication at the bedside and leave the room.
B. After few minutes, return to that patient’s room and do not leave until the patient takes the
medication.
C. Instruct the patient to take the medication and leave it at the bedside.
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed and just leave the medication at the bedside.
18. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when administering NGT feeding?
A. Place the feeding 20 inches above the pint if insertion of NGT.
B. Introduce the feeding slowly.
C. Instill 60ml of water into the NGT after feeding.
D. Assist the patient in fowler’s position.
19. A female patient is being discharged after thyroidectomy. After providing the medication
teaching. The nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which
professional role?
A. Manager
B. Caregiver
C. Patient advocate
D. Educator
20. Which data would be of greatest concern to the nurse when completing the nursing
assessment of a 68-year-old woman hospitalized due to Pneumonia?
A. Oriented to date, time and place
B. Clear breath sounds
C. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds and buccal cyanosis
D. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dl
21. During a change-of-shift report, it would be important for the nurse relinquishing
responsibility for care of the patient to communicate. Which of the following facts to the nurse
assuming responsibility for care of the patient?
A. That the patient verbalized, “My headache is gone.”
B. That the patient’s barium enema performed 3 days ago was negative
C. Patient’s NGT was removed 2 hours ago
D. Patient’s family came for a visit this morning.
22. Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a nursing diagnosis of diarrhea?
A. “The patient will experience decreased frequency of bowel elimination.”
B. “The patient will take anti-diarrheal medication.”
C. “The patient will give a stool specimen for laboratory examinations.”
D. “The patient will save urine for inspection by the nurse.
23. Which of the following is the most important purpose of planning care with this patient?
A. Development of a standardized NCP.
B. Expansion of the current taxonomy of nursing diagnosis
C. Making of individualized patient care
D. Incorporation of both nursing and medical diagnoses in patient care
24. Using Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs, which of the following nursing diagnoses
has the highest priority?
A. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pain, as evidenced by shortness of breath.
B. Anxiety related to impending surgery, as evidenced by insomnia.
C. Risk of injury related to autoimmune dysfunction
D. Impaired verbal communication related to tracheostomy, as evidenced by inability to speak.
25. When performing an abdominal examination, the patient should be in a supine position with
the head of the bed at what position?
A. 30 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 0 degree
Answers and Rationales: Fundamentals in Nursing Exam 1
1. 1. (C) Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of greater than
20 breaths per minute is tachypnea. A blood pressure of 140/90 is considered hypertension.
Pulse greater than 100 beats per minute is tachycardia. Frequent bowel sounds refer to
hyper-active bowel sounds.
2. (A) Wheezes. Wheezes are indicated by continuous, lengthy, musical; heard during
inspiration or expiration. Rhonchi are usually coarse breath sounds. Gurgles are loud
gurgling, bubbling sound. Vesicular breath sounds are low pitch, soft intensity on
expiration.
3. (B) 37.95 degrees C. To convert °F to °C use this formula, (°F –32) (0.55). While when
converting °C to °F use this formula, (°C x 1.8) + 32. Note that 0.55 is 5/9 and 1.8 is 9/5.
4. (D) Trial and error. The trial and error method of problem solving isn’t systematic (as in the
scientific method of problem solving) routine, or based on inner prompting (as in the
intuitive method of problem solving).
5. (C) Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating. The correct order of the
nursing process is assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, evaluating.
6. (C) Nursing care plan. The outcome, or the product of the planning phase of the nursing
process is a Nursing care plan.
7. (C) Client verbalized, “I feel pain when urinating.”. Subjective data are those that can be
described only by the person experiencing it. Therefore, only the patient can describe or
verify whether he is experiencing pain or not.
8. (C) “The patient will identify all the high-salt food from a prepared list by
discharge.”. Expected outcomes are specific, measurable, realistic statements of goal
attainment. The phrases “right amount”, “less nauseated” and “enough sleep” are vague and
not measurable.
9. (C) She signs on the medication sheet after administering the medication.A nurse should
record a nursing intervention (ex. Giving medications) after performing the nursing
intervention (not before). Recording should also be done using a pen, be complete, and
signed with the nurse’s full name and title.
10. (C) Concern for privacy. A patient’s privacy may be violated if security measures aren’t
used properly or if policies and procedures aren’t in place that determines what type of
information can be retrieved, by whom, and for what purpose.
11. (B) Sister Callista Roy. Sister Roy’s theory is called the adaptation theory and she viewed
each person as a unified biophysical system in constant interaction with a changing
environment. Orem’s theory is called self-care deficit theory and is based on the belief that
individual has a need for self-care actions. King’s theory is the Goal attainment theory and
described nursing as a helping profession that assists individuals and groups in society to
attain, maintain, and restore health. Henderson introduced the nature of nursing model and
identified the 14 basic needs.
12. (B) Nurse and patient. Although diagnosing is basically the nurse’s responsibility, input
from the patient is essential to formulate the correct nursing diagnosis.
13. (C) Health belief. Health belief of an individual influences his/her preventive health
behavior.
14. (D) Decreased urine output. Adreno-cortical response involves release of aldosterone that
leads to retention of sodium and water. This results to decreased urine output.
15. (D) Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe. The nurse should aspirate the
urine from the port using a sterile syringe to obtain a urine specimen. Opening a closed
drainage system increase the risk of urinary tract infection.
16. (A) Stop the infusion. The sign and symptoms indicate extravasation so the IVF should be
stopped immediately and put warm not cold towel on the affected site.
17. (B) After few minutes, return to that patient’s room and do not leave until the patient takes
the medication. This is to verify or to make sure that the medication was taken by the patient
as directed.
18. (A) Place the feeding 20 inches above the pint if insertion of NGT. The height of the feeding
is above 12 inches above the point of insertion, bot 20 inches. If the height of feeding is too
high, this results to very rapid introduction of feeding. This may trigger nausea and
vomiting.
19. (D) Educator. When teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is
acting as an educator. A caregiver provides direct care to the patient. The nurse acts as s
patient advocate when making the patient’s wishes known to the doctor.
20. (C) Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds and buccal cyanosis. Capillary refill greater than 3
seconds and buccal cyanosis indicate decreased oxygen to the tissues which requires
immediate attention/intervention. Oriented to date, time and place, hemoglobin of 13 g/dl
are normal data.
21. (C) Patient’s NGT was removed 2 hours ago. The change-of-shift report should indicate
significant recent changes in the patient’s condition that the nurse assuming responsibility
for care of the patient will need to monitor. The other options are not critical enough to
include in the report.
22. (A) “The patient will experience decreased frequency of bowel elimination.” The goal is the
opposite, healthy response of the problem statement of the nursing diagnosis. In this
situation, the problem statement is diarrhea.
23. (C) Making of individualized patient care. To be effective, the nursing care plan developed
in the planning phase of the nursing process must reflect the individualized needs of the
patient.
24. (A) Ineffective breathing pattern related to pain, as evidenced by shortness of
breath.. Physiologic needs (ex. Oxygen, fluids, nutrition) must be met before lower needs
(such as safety and security, love and belongingness, self-esteem and self-actualization) can
be met. Therefore, physiologic needs have the highest priority.
25. (D) 0 degree. The patient should be positioned with the head of the bed completely flattened
to perform an abdominal examination. If the head of the bed is elevated, the abdominal
muscles and organs can be bunched up, altering the findings
1. A patient is wearing a soft wrist-safety device. Which of the following nursing assessment is
considered abnormal?
A. Palpable radial pulse
B. Palpable ulnar pulse
C. Capillary refill within 3 seconds
D. Bluish fingernails, cool and pale fingers
2. Pia’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. Which of the following food items does the nurse
instruct Pia to avoid?
A. broccoli
B. sardines
C. cabbage
D. tomatoes
3. Jason, 3 years old vomited. His mom stated, “He vomited 6 ounces of his formula this
morning.” This statement is an example of:
A. objective data from a secondary source
B. objective data from a primary source
C. subjective data from a primary source
D. subjective data from a secondary source
4. Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis?

A. Hypethermia
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Angina
D. Chronic Renal Failure
5. What is the characteristic of the nursing process?

A. stagnant
B. inflexible
C. asystematic
D. goal-oriented
6. A skin lesion which is fluid-filled, less than 1 cm in size is called:

A. papule
B. vesicle
C. bulla
D. macule
7. During application of medication into the ear, which of the following is inappropriate nursing
action?
A. In an adult, pull the pinna upward.
B. Instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane.
C. Warm the medication at room or body temperature.
D. Press the tragus of the ear a few times to assist flow of medication into the ear canal.
8. Which of the following is appropriate nursing intervention for a client who is grieving over the
death of her child?
A. Tell her not to cry and it will be better.
B. Provide opportunity to the client to tell their story.
C. Encourage her to accept or to replace the lost person.
D. Discourage the client in expressing her emotions.
9. It is the gradual decrease of the body’s temperature after death.

A. livor mortis
B. rigor mortis
C. algor mortis
D. none of the above
10. When performing an admission assessment on a newly admitted patient, the nurse percusses
resonance. The nurse knows that resonance heard on percussion is most commonly heard over
which organ?
A. thigh
B. liver
C. intestine
D. lung
11. The nurse is aware that Bell’s palsy affects which cranial nerve?
A. 2nd CN (Optic)
B. 3rd CN (Occulomotor)
C. 4th CN (Trochlear)
D. 7th CN (Facial)
12. Prolonged deficiency of Vitamin B9 leads to:

A. scurvy
B. pellagra
C. megaloblastic anemia
D. pernicious anemia
13. Nurse Cherry is teaching a 72 year old patient about a newly prescribed medication. What
could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about the newly prescribed
medication?
A. Absence of family support
B. Decreased sensory functions
C. Patient has no interest on learning
D. Decreased plasma drug levels
14. When assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, which type of nursing intervention is the
nurse performing?
A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Collaborative
D. Professional
15. Claire is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic shoulder pain. By definition, the nurse
understands that the patient has had pain for more than:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 1 year
16. Which of the following statements regarding the nursing process is true?
A. It is useful on outpatient settings.
B. It progresses in separate, unrelated steps.
C. It focuses on the patient, not the nurse.
D. It provides the solution to all patient health problems.
17. Which of the following is considered significant enough to require immediate

communication to another member of the health care team?
A. Weight loss of 3 lbs in a 120 lb female patient.
B. Diminished breath sounds in patient with previously normal breath sounds
C. Patient stated, “I feel less nauseated.”
D. Change of heart rate from 70 to 83 beats per minute.
18. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best
used?
A. food preferences
B. regularity of meal times
C. 3-day diet recall
D. eating style and habits
19. Van Fajardo is a 55 year old who was admitted to the hospital with newly diagnosed
hepatitis. The nurse is doing a patient teaching with Mr. Fajardo. What kind of role does the
nurse assume?
A. talker
B. teacher
C. thinker
D. doer
20. When providing a continuous enteral feeding, which of the following action is essential for
the nurse to do?
A. Place the client on the left side of the bed.
B. Attach the feeding bag to the current tubing.
C. Elevate the head of the bed.
D. Cold the formula before administering it.
21. Kussmaul’s breathing is;
A. Shallow breaths interrupted by apnea.
B. Prolonged gasping inspiration followed by a very short, usually inefficient expiration.
C. Marked rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow
breathing and temporary apnea.
D. Increased rate and depth of respiration.
22. Presty has terminal cancer and she refuses to believe that loss is happening ans she assumes
artificial cheerfulness. What stage of grieving is she in?
A. depression
B. bargaining
C. denial
D. acceptance
23. Immunization for healthy babies and preschool children is an example of what level of
preventive health care?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Curative
24. Which is an example of a subjective data?

A. Temperature of 38 0C
B. Vomiting for 3 days
C. Productive cough
D. Patient stated, “My arms still hurt.”
25. The nurse is assessing the endocrine system. Which organ is part of the endocrine system?
A. Heart
B. Sinus
C. Thyroid
D. Thymus
1. (D) Bluish fingernails, cool and pale fingers. A safety device on the wrist may impair blood
circulation. Therefore, the nurse should assess the patient for signs of impaired circulation
such as bluish fingernails, cool and pale fingers. Palpable radial and ulnar pulses, capillary
refill within 3 seconds are all normal findings.
2. (B) Sardines. The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L, the client is having
hypernatremia. Pia should avoid food high in sodium like processed food. Broccoli, cabbage
and tomatoes are good source of Vitamin C.
3. (A) Objective data from a secondary source. Jason is the primary source; his mother is a
secondary source. The data is objective because it can be perceived by the senses, verified
by another person observing the same patient, and tested against accepted standards or
norms.
4. (A) Hypethermia. Hyperthermia is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis. Diabetes
Mellitus, Angina and Chronic Renal Failure are medical diagnoses.
5. (D) goal-oriented. The nursing process is goal-oriented. It is also systematic, patient-
centered, and dynamic.
6. (B) Vesicle. Vesicle is a circumscribed circulation containing serous fluid or blood and less
than 1 cm (ex. Blister, chicken pox).
7. (B) Instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane. During the application of
medication it is inappropriate to instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane.
The right thing to do is instill the medication along the lateral wall of the auditory canal.
8. (B) Provide opportunity to the client to tell their story. Providing a grieving person an
opportunity to tell their story allows the person to express feelings. This is therapeutic in
assisting the client resolve grief.
9. (C) algor mortis. Algor mortis is the decrease of the body’s temperature after death. Livor
mortis is the discoloration of the skin after death. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body
that occurs about 2-4 hours after death.
10. (D) Lung. Resonance is loud, low-pitched and long duration that’s heard most commonly
over an air-filled tissue such as a normal lung.
11. (D) 7th CN (Facial). Bells’ palsy is the paralysis of the motor component of the 7th caranial
nerve, resulting in facial sag, inability to close the eyelid or the mouth, drooling, flat
nasolabial fold and loss of taste on the affected side of the face.
12. (C) megaloblastic anemia. Prolonged Vitamin B9 deficiency will lead to megaloblastic
anemia while pernicious anemia results in deficiency in Vitamin B12. Prolonged deficiency
of Vitamin C leads to scurvy and Pellagra results in deficiency in Vitamin B3.
13. (B) Decreased sensory functions. Decreased in sensory functions could cause a geriatric
patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about the newly prescribed medications.
Absence of family support and no interest on learning may affect compliance, not
knowledge retention. Decreased plasma levels do not alter patient’s knowledge about the
drug.
14. (A) Independent. Independent nursing interventions involve actions that nurses initiate
based on their own knowledge and skills without the direction or supervision of another
member of the health care team.
15. (B) 6 months. Chronic pain s usually defined as pain lasting longer than 6 months.
16. (C) It focuses on the patient, not the nurse. The nursing process is patient-centered, not
nurse-centered. It can be use in any setting, and the steps are related. The nursing process
can’t solve all patient health problems.
17. (B) Diminished breath sounds in patient with previously normal breath sounds. Diminished
breath sound is a life threatening problem therefore it is highly priority because they pose
the greatest threat to the patient’s well-being.
18. (C) 3-day diet recall. 3-day diet recall is an example of dietary history. This is used to
indicate the adequacy of food intake of the client.
19. (B) teacher. The nurse will assume the role of a teacher in this therapeutic relationship. The
other roles are inappropriate in this situation.
20. (C) Elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed during an enteral feeding
prevents aspiration. The patient may be placed on the right side to prevent aspiration.
Enteral feedings are given at room temperature to lessen GI distress. The enteral tubing
should be changed every 24 hours to limit microbial growth.
21. (D) Increased rate and depth of respiration. Kussmaul breathing is also called as
hyperventilation. Seen in metabolic acidosis and renal failure. Option A refers to Biot’s
breathing. Option B is apneustic breathing and option C is the Cheyne-stokes breathing.
22. (C) denial. The client is in denial stage because she is unready to face the reality that loss is
happening and she assumes artificial cheerfulness.
23. (A) Primary. The primary level focuses on health promotion. Secondary level focuses on
health maintenance. Tertiary focuses on rehabilitation. There is n Curative level of
preventive health care problems.
24. (D) Patient stated, “My arms still hurt.” Subjective data are apparent only to the person
affected and can or verified only by that person.
25. (C) Thyroid. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system. Heart, sinus and thymus are not.
1. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed drug. What could cause a geriatric
patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed medications?
A. Decreased plasma drug levels
B. Sensory deficits
C. Lack of family support
D. History of Tourette syndrome
2. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the nurse in charge should assess:
A. Any quadrant first
B. The symptomatic quadrant first
C. The symptomatic quadrant last
D. The symptomatic quadrant either second or third
3. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following should the nurse
document as subjective data?
A. Vital signs
B. Laboratory test result
C. Patient’s description of pain
D. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms
4. A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which assessment finding should the nurse
consider abnormal?
A. A palpable radial pulse
B. A palpable ulnar pulse
C. Cool, pale fingers
D. Pink nail beds
5. Which of the following planes divides the body longitudinally into anterior and posterior
regions?
A. Frontal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Midsagittal plane
D. Transverse plane
6. A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. Indicators of denial include:

A. Shock dismay
B. Numbness
C. Stoicism
D. Preparatory grief
7. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action does the
nurse take during this patient transfer?
A. Position the head of the bed flat
B. Helps the patient dangle the legs
C. Stands behind the patient
D. Places the chair facing away from the bed
8. A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during
discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care
instruction?
A. Asking frequently if the patient understands the instruction
B. Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the patient.
C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient
D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration
9. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening
shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient’s medication drawer. What should the nurse
in charge do?
A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error
B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy
C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared
to give
D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe
10. When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric patient, the nurse must stay especially
alert for adverse effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients to adverse drug effects?
A. Faster drug clearance
B. Aging-related physiological changes
C. Increased amount of neurons
D. Enhanced blood flow to the GI tract
11. A female patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. After providing medication
teaching, the nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which
professional role?
A. Manager
B. Educator
C. Caregiver
D. Patient advocate
12. A female patient exhibits signs of heightened anxiety. Which response by the nurse is most
likely to reduce the patient’s anxiety?
A. “Everything will be fine. Don’t worry.”
B. “Read this manual and then ask me any questions you may have.”
C. “Why don’t you listen to the radio?”
D. “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.”
13. A scrub nurse in the operating room has which responsibility?

A. Positioning the patient
B. Assisting with gowning and gloving
C. Handling surgical instruments to the surgeon
D. Applying surgical drapes
14. A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed medication. What
should the nurse in charge do?
A. Leave the medication at the patient’s bedside
B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And then leave it at the bedside
C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the patient takes the medication
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the bedside
15. The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be administered subcutaneously every 6 hours.
The vial reads 10,000 units per millilitre. The nurse should anticipate giving how much heparin
for each dose?
A. ¼ ml
B. ½ ml
C. ¾ ml
D. 1 ¼ ml
16. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature at 102 degrees F. what is the equivalent
Centigrade temperature?
A. 39 degrees C
B. 47 degrees C
C. 38.9 degrees C
D. 40.1 degrees C
17. To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which laboratory test?
A. Red blood cell count
B. Sputum culture
C. Total hemoglobin
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
18. The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patient’s chest. Which statement about a
stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true?
A. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best
B. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best
C. The bell detects thrills best
D. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds best
19. A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription for an analgesic that is a controlled
substance. During discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that the patient must fill this
prescription how soon after the date on which it was written?
A. Within 1 month
B. Within 3 months
C. Within 6 months
D. Within 12 months
20. Which human element considered by the nurse in charge during assessment can affect drug
administration?
A. The patient’s ability to recover
B. The patient’s occupational hazards
C. The patient’s socioeconomic status
D. The patient’s cognitive abilities
21. When explaining the initiation of I.V. therapy to a 2-year-old child, the nurse should:
A. Ask the child, “Do you want me to start the I.V. now?”
B. Give simple directions shortly before the I.V. therapy is to start
C. Tell the child, “This treatment is for your own good”
D. Inform the child that the needle will be in place for 10 days
22. All of the following parts of the syringe are sterile except the:
A. Barrel
B. Inside of the plunger
C. Needle tip
D. Barrel tip
23. The best way to instill eye drops is to:

A. Instruct the patient to lock upward, and drop the medication into the center of the lower lid
B. Instruct the patient to look ahead, and drop the medication into the center of the lower lid
C. Drop the medication into the inner canthus regardless of eye position
D. Drop the medication into the center of the canthus regardless of eye position
24. The difference between an 18G needle and a 25G needle is the needle’s:
A. Length
B. Bevel angle
C. Thickness
D. Sharpness
25. A patient receiving an anticoagulant should be assessed for signs of:

A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. An elevated hemoglobin count
D. An increased number of erythrocytes
1. (B) Sensory deficits. Sensory deficits could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty
retaining knowledge about prescribed medications. Decreased plasma drug levels do not
alter the patient’s knowledge about the drug. A lack of family support may affect
compliance, not knowledge retention. Toilette syndrome is unrelated to knowledge
retention.
2. (C) The symptomatic quadrant last. The nurse should systematically assess all areas of the
abdomen, if time and the patient’s condition permit, concluding with the symptomatic area.
Otherwise, the nurse may elicit pain in the symptomatic area, causing the muscles in other
areas to tighten. This would interfere with further assessment.
3. (C) Patient’s description of pain. Subjective data come directly from the patient and usually
are recorded as direct quotations that reflect the patient’s opinions or feelings about a
situation. Vital signs, laboratory test result, and ECG waveforms are examples of objective
data.
4. (C) Cool, pale fingers. A safety device on the wrist may impair circulation and restrict blood
supply to body tissues. Therefore, the nurse should assess the patient for signs of impaired
circulation, such as cool, pale fingers. A palpable radial or lunar pulse and pink nail beds are
normal findings.
5. (A) Frontal plane. Frontal or coronal plane runs longitudinally at a right angle to a sagittal
plane dividing the body in anterior and posterior regions. A sagittal plane runs
longitudinally dividing the body into right and left regions; if exactly midline, it is called a
midsagittal plane. A transverse plane runs horizontally at a right angle to the vertical axis,
dividing the structure into superior and inferior regions.
6. (A) Shock dismay. Shock and dismay are early signs of denial-the first stage of grief. The
other options are associated with depression—a later stage of grief.
7. (B) Helps the patient dangle the legs. After placing the patient in high Fowler’s position and
moving the patient to the side of the bed, the nurse helps the patient sit on the edge of the
bed and dangle the legs; the nurse then faces the patient and places the chair next to and
facing the head of the bed.
8. (D) Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the
demonstration. Demonstrating by the nurse with a return demonstration by the patient
ensures that the patient can perform wound care correctly. Patients may claim to understand
discharge instruction when they do not. An interpreter of family member may communicate
verbal or written instructions inaccurately.
9. (A) Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error. As a safety precaution, the nurse should
discard an unlabeled syringe that contains medication. The other options are considered
unsafe because they promote error.
10. (B) Aging-related physiological changes. Aging-related physiological changes account for
the increased frequency of adverse drug reactions in geriatric patients. Renal and hepatic
changes cause drugs to clear more slowly in these patients. With increasing age, neurons are
lost and blood flow to the GI tract decreases.
11. (B) Educator. When teaching a patient about medications before discharge, the nurse is
acting as an educator. The nurse acts as a manager when performing such activities as
scheduling and making patient care assignments. The nurse performs the care giving role
when providing direct care, including bathing patients and administering medications and
prescribed treatments. The nurse acts as a patient advocate when making the patient’s
wishes known to the doctor.
12. (D) “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.” Anxiety may result from feeling of
helplessness, isolation, or insecurity. This response helps reduce anxiety by encouraging the
patient to express feelings. The nurse should be supportive and develop goals together with
the patient to give the patient some control over an anxiety-inducing situation. Because the
other options ignore the patient’s feeling and block communication, they would not reduce
anxiety.
13. (C) Handling surgical instruments to the surgeon. The scrub nurse assist the surgeon by
providing appropriate surgical instruments and supplies, maintaining strict surgical asepsis
and, with the circulating nurse, accounting for all gauze, sponges, needles, and instruments.
The circulating nurse assists the surgeon and scrub nurse, positions the patient, applies
appropriate equipment and surgical drapes, assists with gowning and gloving, and provides
the surgeon and scrub nurse with supplies.
14. (C) Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the patient takes the
medication. The nurse should return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the
patient takes the medication to verify that it was taken as directed. The nurse should never
leave medication at the patient’s bedside unless specifically requested to do so.
15. (C) ¾ ml. The nurse solves the problem as follows: 10,000 units/7,500 units = 1 ml/X
10,000 X = 7,500 X= 7,500/10,000 or ¾ ml
16. (C) 38.9 degrees C. To convert Fahrenheit degrees to centigrade, use this formula: C
degrees = (F degrees – 32) x 5/9 C degrees = (102 – 32) 5/9 + 70 x 5/9 38.9 degrees C
17. (D) Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. All of these test help evaluate a patient with
respiratory problems. However, ABG analysis is the only test evaluates gas exchange in the
lungs, providing information about patient’s oxygenation status.
18. (B) The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best. The diaphragm of a stethoscope
detects high-pitched sound best; the bell detects low pitched sounds best. Palpation detects
thrills best.
19. (C) Within 6 months. In most cases, an outpatient must fill a prescription for a controlled
substance within 6 months of the date on which the prescription was written.
20. (D) The patient’s cognitive abilities. The nurse must consider the patient’s cognitive
abilities to understand drug instructions. If not, the nurse must find a family member or
significant other to take on the responsibility of administering medications in the home
setting. The patient’s ability to recover, occupational hazards, and socioeconomic status do
not affect drug administration.
21. (B) Give simple directions shortly before the I.V. therapy is to start. Because a 2-year-old
child has limited understanding, the nurse should give simple directions and explanations of
what will occur shortly before the procedure. She should try to avoid frightening the child
with the explanation and allow the child to make simple choices, such as choosing the I.V.
insertion site, if possible. However, she shouldn’t ask the child if he wants the therapy,
because the answer may be “No!” Telling the child that the treatment is for his own good is
ineffective because a 2-year-old perceives pain as a negative sensation and cannot
understand that a painful procedure can have position results. Telling the child how long the
therapy will last is ineffective because the 2-year-old doesn’t have a good understanding of
time.
22. (A) Barrel. All syringes have three parts: a tip, which connects the needle to the syringe; a
barrel, the outer part on which the measurement scales are printed; and a plunger, which fits
inside the barrel to expel the medication. The external part of the barrel and the plunger and
(flange) must be handled during the preparation and administration of the injection.
However, the inside and trip of the barrel, the inside (shaft) of the plunger, and the needle
tip must remain sterile until after the injection.
23. (A) Instruct the patient to lock upward, and drop the medication into the center of the lower
lid. Having the patient look upward reduces blinking and protects the cornea. Instilling
drops in the center of the lower lid promotes absorption because the drops are less likely to
run into the nasolacrimal duct or out of the eye.
24. (C) Thickness. Gauge is a measure of the needle’s thickness: The higher the number the
thinner the shaft. Therefore, an 18G needle is considerably thicker than a 25G needle.
25. (A) Hypotension. A major side effect of anticoagulant therapy is bleeding, which can be
identified by hypotension (a systolic blood pressure under 100 mm Hg). Anticoagulants do
not result in the other three conditions.

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PNLE: FON Practice Exam for History, Concepts and Theories

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the

12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?

17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?

24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?

25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.

26. She described the four conservation principle.

30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory

31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING

32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING

33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST

34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES

44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated

53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?

57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?

60. This is the essence of mental health

61. Florence nightingale is born in

62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?

63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?

69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?

71. When was the PNA founded?

72. Who was the first president of the PNA?

75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?

81. According to them, Well-being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and

82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with

84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?

85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?

86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?

88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?

89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential.

99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy

9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing.

53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….

56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?

63. Which of the following is true about masks?

64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?

74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except

75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?

79. Which gloves should you remove first?

92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins

93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation

97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response

3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

4. The initial response of tissue after injury is

5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of

7. The first manifestation of inflammation is

9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation,

29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?