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Questions & Answers on Atoms to Molecules to Material’s for Engineers
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Valence Bond Theory
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Valence
Bond Theory”.
1. Valence Bond Theory was developed in the year
a) 1916
b) 1927
c) 1930
d) 1932
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Valence Bond Theory was developed in 1927 by Heitler and London.
2. According to VBT, the formation of a stable bond requires
a) The electrons should have opposite spins
b) The two atoms should be close to each other
c) The greater overlapping of the electron clouds
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to VBT, when two atoms come closer to each other with opposite electron spins,
due to mutual rearrangements (or overlapping) of their electron clouds, energy changes are produced.
3. The s-orbital does not show preference to any direction because
a) It is the smallest orbital
b) It is present in every atom
c) It is spherically symmetric
d) It is the first orbital
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The s-orbital is spherically symmetric in shape so it does not show preference to any
direction. It is the same from all the directions.
4. The p-orbital is in the shape of a
a) Sphere
b) Dumbbell
c) Pear-shaped lobe
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The p-orbital is in the shape of a Dumbbell. It has 2 lobes which are pointing in opposite
directions.
5. The Valence Bond Theory does not explain the paramagnetic nature of oxygen molecule.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic in nature, although it does not contain unpaired
electrons which is not explained in VBT.
6. According to VBT, the direction of a bond which is formed due to overlapping will be
a) In the same direction in which orbitals are concentrated
b) In the opposite direction in which orbitals are concentrated
c) Perpendicular to the direction in which orbitals are concentrated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direction of the bond formed will be in that direction in which the orbitals are
concentrated. For Example: When two px orbitals overlap, the bond is formed along the x-axis.
7. Which orbital would form more stronger bond if both of them have identical stability?
a) The one which is less directionally concentrated
b) The one which is more directionally concentrated
c) Both will be equally strong
d) It differs from atom to atom
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the two orbitals have identical stability or energy, the one which is more
directionally concentrated would form a stronger bond.
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8. The formation of odd electron molecules such as H2+, NO, O3 is also explained in VBT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Valence Bond Theory does not explain the formation of odd electron molecules such as
H2+, NO, O3 etc, where no electron pairing takes place
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Hybridisation
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Hybridisation”.
1. Hybridisation of Acetylene is
a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3
d) dsp2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Acetylene molecule is C2H2. It is sp hybridised.
2. Shape of PCl5 molecule is
a) Tigonal Planar
b) Linear
c) Trigonal bipyramidal
d) Tetrahedral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal with its bond angle equal to 1200 and 900.
3. Predict the shape of the H2O compound based upon concepts of hybridisation.
a) Tetrahedral
b) Angular or bent structure
c) Trigonal Planar
d) Pyramidal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water molecule has angular or bent structure due to the presence of two lone pairs
which repels strongly.
4. Which of the following is an example of sp3d2 hybridised molecule?
a) HCHO
b) ClO4–
c) SF6
d) PF5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SF6 molecule is sp3d2 hybridised and the shape is regular octahedron.
5. Number of chlorine atoms which form equatorial bonds in PCl5 molecule are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In PCl5 molecule, three chlorine atoms which lie at an angle of 1200 in the same plane
forms equatorial bonds and the other two atoms forms axial bonds at an angle of 900.
6. Due to unsymmetrical structure, the molecules having sp3d hybridisation are
a) more stable and more reactive
b) less stable and more reactive
c) more stable and less reactive
d) less stable and less reactive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In sp3d hybridisation, due to its unsymmetrical structure the molecules are in the shape of
trigonal bipyramidal which is less stable and more reactive.
7. The bond angles in sp3d2 hybridisation is
a) 900
b) 1200
c) 109.50
d) 1800
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the bond angles are equal in sp3d2 hybridisation i.e., 900.
8. The percentage p-character in sp3 hybridisation is
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 66.67%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In sp3 hybridisation, s-character is 25% and p-character is 75%.
9. All the hybridised orbital are not equal in energy and shape.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All the hybridised orbital are equal in energy and shape. They are similar to each other and
possess equal energy levels.
10. The hybridisation of BeF3– is
a) sp3
b) sp
c) sp2
d) d2sp3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hybridisation of BeF3– is sp2 and it is trigonal planar
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Molecular Orbital Theory
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Molecular
Orbital Theory”.
1. If the sign of the wave function is unchanged when the orbital is reflected about its centre, the orbital
is
a) Gerade
b) Ungerade
c) Gerade as well as Ungerade
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the sign of the wave function is unchanged when the orbital is reflected about its center
(i.e., x, y and z are replaced by –x, -y and –z), the orbital is gerade.
2. The filling of molecular orbital takes place according to
a) The Aufbau Principle
b) Pauli Exclusion Principle
c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to these principles, molecular orbitals are filled in order of increasing energy.
Two electrons in the same orbital cannot have the same set of all four quantum numbers identical.
3. Bond Order of O2, F2, N2 respectively are
a) +1, +2, +3
b) +2, +3, +1
c) +2, +1, +3
d) +3, +2, +1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bond Order=[[No. Of electrons in bonding molecular orbital]-[No. Of electrons in

antibonding molecular orbital]]/2.
4. Arrange the following molecules in decreasing bond length.
a) O2 > O2– > O2+ > O22-
b) O22- > O2– > O2 > O2+
c) O22- > O2– > O2+ > O2
d) O2– > O2+ > O22- > O2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bond length is inversely proportional to the bond order. Therefore, the correct is:
O22- > O2– > O2 > O2+.
5. Arrange the following molecules in the order of increasing stability.
a) N2+ < N2 < N2– < N22-
b) N22- < N2– < N2 < N2+
c) N22- < N2– = N2+ < N2
d) N2 < N2+ = N2– < N22-
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The order of stability is directly proportional to the bond order. Therefore, the correct
order of stability is N22- < N2– = N2+ < N2.
6. On the basis of molecular orbital theory, select the most appropriate option.
a) The bond order of O2 is 2.5 and it is paramagnetic
b) The bond order of O2 is 1.5 and it is paramagnetic
c) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is diamagnetic
d) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is paramagnetic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Oxygen is paramagnetic in nature and its bond order is 2. It is an exceptional case.
7. Which of the following molecule does not exist due to its zero bond order?
a) H2+
b) He2+
c) He2
d) H2–
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Molecular orbital electronic configuration of He2 molecule = (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2. Bond order =
0, so He2 molecule does not exist.
8. The relative energies of molecular orbitals in increasing order have been found to be as follows:
(σ1s) < (σ*1s) < (σ2s) < (σ*2s) <[(π2py)(π2pz)] < (σ 2px) < [(π*2py)(π*2pz)] < (σ*2px)
a) For O2 to Ne2
b) For H2 to N2
c) For H2 to Ne2
d) For N2 to Ne2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relative energies of molecular orbitals in increasing order have been found to be (σ1s)
< (σ*1s) < (σ2s) < (σ*2s) <[(π2py)(π2pz)] < (σ2px) < [(π*2py)(π*2pz)] < (σ*2px) for H2 to N2 only.
9. According to Molecular Orbital Theory, the shape and size of a molecular orbital depends upon
a) Shape and size of the combining atomic orbitals
b) Numbers of the combining atomic orbitals
c) Orientation of the combining atomic orbitals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shape and size of a molecular orbital depend upon the shape, size, number and
orientation of the combining atomic orbitals.
10. Choose the incorrect statement from the following options.
a) In bonding molecular orbital, electron density is low in the region between the nuclei of bonded
atoms
b) The energy of antibonding molecular orbital is higher than that of atomic orbitals from which it is
formed
c) Every electron in bonding molecular orbital contributes toward stability of the molecule
d) Antibonding takes place when lobes of atomic orbitals have different signs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In bonding molecular orbital, the electron density is high in the region between the nuclei
of bonded atoms. All the other options are correct. The energy of antibonding molecular orbital is higher
than that of atomic orbitals from which it is formed. Every electron in bonding molecular orbital
contributes to the stability of the molecule. Antibonding takes place when lobes of atomic orbitals have
different signs
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Homonuclear and Heteronuclear Molecules
“Homonuclear and Heteronuclear Molecules”.
1. Which of the following molecule is not homonuclear?

a) H2
b) N2
c) NO
d) O2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NO is Heteronuclear diatomic molecule in which atomic number of nitrogen is 7 and that of
oxygen is 8 i.e., total number of electrons = 15.
2. Bond order of NO+ molecule is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond order = (10-4)/ 2 = 3.
3. Which of the following molecule is least stable?
a) NO+
b) N2
c) NO
d) O2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In NO molecule there is a significant difference of about 250 kJ/mol in the energy of atomic
orbitals involved.
4. The molecular orbital electronic configuration of HF molecule is
a) 1s2 2s2 σspx2 [2py2 2pz2] σspx*
b) 1s2 2s2 σspx2 [2px2 2py2] σspx*
c) 1s2 2s2 σspx2 [2px2 2pz2] σspx*
d) 1s2 2s2 σspx2 [2px4] σspx*
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HF molecule has 10 electrons and its electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 σspx2 [2py2 2pz2]
σspx*.
5. From the following options, choose the heteronuclear diatomic molecules which are paramagnetic in
nature?
a) HF and NO
b) HF and O2
c) NO and O2
d) Only NO
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HF is diamagnetic in nature and O2 is homonuclear molecule. So, only NO is a

heteronuclear diatomic molecule which is paramagnetic in nature.
6. Calculate the number of σ and π bonds in cyclohexadiene. (C6H8)
a) σ bond = 2 π bond = 14
b) σ bond = 14 π bond = 2
c) σ bond = 12 π bond = 2
d) σ bond = 12 π bond = 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclohexadiene molecule has two double bonds( hence two π-bonds) and one ring.
7. The combination of H (1s1) and F (2px1) gives
a) Bonding orbital
b) Antibonding orbital
c) Both bonding and antibonding orbital
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The combination of H (1s1) and F (2px1) gives both bonding (σspx) and antibonding (σspx*)
orbitals.
8. Choose the incorrect option from the following.
a) Valence bond theory does not explain the paramagnetic nature of O2
b) Molecular orbital theory explains the extra stability of O2+ cation over O2
c) Valence bond theory explains the ionization or gain of electrons, giving O2+ and O2– ions, if O2 has
the stable octet
d) Resonance has no role in Molecular orbital theory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Valence bond theory does not explain the ionization or gain of electrons, giving O2+ and
O2– ions, if O2 has the stable octet.
9. Which of the following molecules have bond order equal to 1?
a) NO, HF, HCl, Li2, CO
b) H2, Li2, B2, HF, HCl
c) Li2, B2, CO, NO,He2+
d) B2, CO, He2+, NO, HF
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: He2+ = 0.5, H2, Li2, B2, HF, HCl = 1, NO = 2.5, CO = 3.
10. The interaction between a pair of orbitals of the same type is
a) Attractive
b) Repulsive
c) There is no interaction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The interaction between pair of orbitals of the same type is repulsive like between σ2s and
σ2p orbitals
Questions on Structure and Stereostructure of Molecules
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – E and Z Nomenclature of Geometric Isomers
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “E and Z
Nomenclature of Geometric Isomers”.
1. What are Stereoisomers?
a) Isomers having a same molecular formula and same configuration
b) Isomers having a same molecular formula but different configuration
c) Isomers having a different molecular formula but the same configuration
d) Isomers having a different molecular formula and different configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stereoisomerism is exhibited by isomers having the same molecular formula but different
configuration.
2. What are diastereomers?
a) Molecules with non-superimposable mirror images
b) Molecules with superimposable mirror images
c) Molecules which do not have non-superimposable mirror images
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diastereomers are those stereomers which do not have non-superimposable mirror
images.
3. Which type of compounds cannot exhibit geometrical isomerism?
a) Singly Bonded
b) Doubly Bonded
c) Triply Bonded
d) Cyclic Compounds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Triply bonded compounds cannot exhibit geometrical isomerism as the -C=C- bond in these
molecules is linear.
4. Choose the correct option from the following.
a) A group gets priority if its atomic number is high
b) When atoms attached to a double bond have same atomic number, the first atoms are considered
c) A group gets priority if its atomic number is low
d) Lone pair gets more priority and is ranked above hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A group gets priority if its atomic number is high and When atoms attached to a double
bond have same atomic number, the second atoms are considered.
5. In which type of projection we can get staggered and eclipsed conformations?
a) Newman Projection
b) Sawhorse Projection
c) Fischer Projection
d) Wedge Projection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A sawhorse projection can reveal staggered and eclipsed conformations.
6. Assign E or Z configuration to the given compound.
EZ-nomenclature
a) E-configuration
b) Z-configuration
c) S-configuration
d) R-configuration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-2-butene has two geometric isomers and this is E-configuration.
7. Which of the following compounds have Z-configuration?
a) CH3CH3CH2>C=C<HCH3
b) HPh>C=C<COOHPh
c) H2NCl>C=C<COOHBr
d) CH3Ph>C=C<CH2CH3Br
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All the other options are in E-configuration. Only the second option shows the Z-
configuration.
8. Select the incorrect option from the following.
a) Fischer projections are two dimensional representations of three dimensional molecules
b) A molecule is achiral if it cannot be superimposed on its mirror reflection
c) E and Z notations are based on Cahn, Ingold and Prelog priority system
d) Chiral molecules which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other are enantiomers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A molecule is achiral if it is superimposable on its mirror reflection. All the other options are
correct.
9. The cis-trans nomenclature is not applicable when
a) The different groups attached to the carbon atom of double bond are same
b) Atleast one of the group attached to each carbon atom is same
c) The different groups attached to the carbon atom of double bond are not same
d) The cis-trans nomenclature is applicable for all compounds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cis-trans nomenclature is applicable when the different groups attached to the carbon
atom of double bond are same or atleast one of the group attached to each carbon atom is same.
10. In glyceraldehydes, the complete sequence of priority is
a) –OH > -CH2OH > -CHO > -H
b) –H > -CH2OH > -CHO > -OH
c) –H > –OH > -CH2OH > -CHO
d) –OH > CHO > -CH2OH > -H
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In glyceraldehydes, the complete sequence of priority is –OH > CHO > -CH2OH > -H.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – R, S- Configuration and Water Softening
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “R, S-
Configuration and Water Softening”.
1. Which of the following is not a priority rule for R, S-Configuration?
a) If the four atoms attached to the chiral centre are all different, priority depends on atomic
number, with the atom of lower atomic numbers getting lower priority
b) If the two atoms attached to chiral centre are same, the atoms attached to each of these first
atoms are compared
c) When there is a double bond or triple bond, both atoms are considered to be duplicated or
triplicated
d) If the four atoms attached to the chiral centre are all different, priority depends on atomic
number, with the atom of higher atomic numbers getting lower priority
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the four atoms attached to the chiral centre are all different, priority depends on atomic
number, with the atom of lower atomic numbers getting lower priority.
2. If our eyes travel in counter clockwise direction from the ligand of highest priority to the ligand
of lowest priority, the configuration is
a) R-Configuration
b) S-Configuration
c) E-Configuration
d) C-Configuration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In S-Configuration, our eyes travel in counter clockwise direction from the ligand of highest
priority to the ligand of lowest priority.
3. According to the selection rules, the decreasing order of preference is
a) –NH2 > -C6H5 > -CH(CH3)2 > -H
b) –CH(CH3)2 > -C6H5 > -H> -NH2
c) –NH2 > -CH(CH3)2 > -C6H5 > -H
d) -C6H5 > -CH(CH3)2 >–NH2 > -H
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The atom of higher atomic numbers gets higher priority. So, –NH2 group has the highest
priority of all.
4. The process of removal of hardness of water, irrespective of whether it is temporary or

permanent is termed as
a) Cleansing action of water
b) Hardness of water
c) Softening of water
d) Purity of water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of removal of hardness of water, irrespective of whether it is temporary or

permanent is termed as softening of water. This process includes both temporary as well as permanent
hardness.
5. The external treatment of water does not include
a) Lime-soda process
b) Sequestration
c) Zeolites
d) Ion-exchange process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The external treatments of water include lime-soda, zeolites and ion-exchange processes. It
does not include sequestration.
6. Which of the following conditioning method is not used in internal treatment?
a) Colloidal
b) Calgon
c) Carbonate
d) Bicarbonate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Colloidal, calgon, phosphate and carbonate conditioning method are used in internal
treatment. Bicarbonate is not used for this purpose.
7. Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) Internal treatment is carried out outside the boiler before water enters into the boiler
b) Internal treatment methods are followed by blow-down operations
c) Internal treatment is required in low pressure boilers
d) Internal treatment is a corrective method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal treatment is carried out inside the boiler. All the other options are correct.
8. External treatment is a preventive method and it is required in high pressure boilers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: External treatment is a preventive method and it is required in high pressure boilers.
External treatment is carried out outside the boilers.
9. Potable water treatment does not involve
a) Disinfection
b) Demineralisation
c) Coagulation
d) Sedimentation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potable water treatment does not involve demineralisation. It involves disinfection,
coagulation and sedimentation processes.
10. The exhausted anion exchangers can be regenerated by working with
a) Acid solution.
b) Alcohol solution
c) Alkali solution
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The exhausted anion exchangers can be regenerated by working with alkali solution
because alkali solution or basic solution does not contains reactive ions
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Chirality
This set of Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Chirality”.
1. Chiral molecules are those which are
a) Shows geometrical isomerism
b) Superimposable on their mirror images
c) Not superimposable on their mirror images
d) Unstable molecules
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chiral molecules are those which are not superimposable on their mirror images. The
presence of an asymmetric carbon atom is one of several structural features that induce chirality in
organic and inorganic molecules.
2. Which of the following is not an example of chiral object?
a) Cylindrical helix
b) Square box
c) Sandal or shoe
d) Glove
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A square box is not chiral as it gives super-imposable mirror image. All the other mentioned
options does not give the super-imposable mirror images.
3. For any given substance, the amount of rotation does not depends upon
a) Wavelength of light used
b) Nature of the solvent
c) Temperature
d) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For any given substance, the amount of rotation depends upon the concentration, nature
of solvent, temperature, length of layer traversed and the wavelength of light used. It does not depend
upon the pressure conditions.
4. If the rotation of the plane is clockwise, the substance is dextrorotatary.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the rotation of the plane is clockwise, the substance is dextro rotatary. And if the rotation
of the plane is anti-clockwise, the substance is leavo rotatary.
5. The specific rotation is inversely proportional to
a) Observed rotation
b) Temperature
c) Concentration of solution
d) D-line of sodium vapour light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific rotation is inversely proportional to the concentration of solution and length of
sample tube.
6. 0.5 g of an optically active compound was dissolved in 2mL of solvent at 250C. The solution was
kept in a cell of length 10 cm and observed rotation was +100. What is the specific rotation of its
enantiomer?
a) -400
b) +400
c) -100
d) +100
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: [α]= α/lC = +100/ (1*0.5/2) = +400.
7. To avoid excessive high value of molecular rotation, concentration is taken as
a) 1 centi-mole/mL
b) 1 milli-mole/mL
c) 1 mole/mL
d) 1 kilo-mole/mL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid excessive high value of molecular rotation, concentration is taken as 1 centi-
mole/mL.
8. Chiral molecules which are non-super-imposable mirror images of each other are called
a) Diastereomers
b) Meso compounds
c) Racemic mixture
d) Enantiomers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chiral molecules which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other are called
enantiomers. Enantiomer members often have different chemical reactions with other enantiomer
substances.
9. Select the correct statement from the following option.
a) Enantiomer rotate plane of polarised light in opposite direction and to different extent
b) Enantiomer rotate plane of polarised light in same direction but to different extent
c) Enantiomer rotate plane of polarised light in same direction and to same extent
d) Enantiomer rotate plane of polarised light in opposite direction but to same extent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Enantiomer rotate plane of polarised light in opposite direction but to same extent.
Enantiomer members often have different chemical reactions with other enantiomer substances.
10. Enantiomerism is the phenomenon of existence of enantiomers in a single structural formula, in
_________ configuration.
a) Same
b) Opposite
c) Same as well as opposite
d) Initially opposite and then same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Enantiomerism is the phenomenon of existence of enantiomers in a single structural

formula but in opposite configuration.
a) The physical properties of enatiomers are identical
b) In symmetrical environment, the chemical properties of enantiomers are identical
c) The enantiomers react at same rate and form products in same amounts in assymetrical
environment
d) Enantiomers have different solubilities in same chiral solvent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The enantiomers react at different rate and form products in different amounts in
assymetrical environment. All the other options are correct.
12. Optical activity can also result from the lack of molecular symmetry in molecules.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical activity can also result from the lack of molecular symmetry in molecules which do
not have chiral carbon.
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13. The plane which divides the molecule into two equal parts so that each half is the mirror image
of other half is called
a) Centre of symmetry
b) Plane of symmetry
c) Axis of symmetry
d) Angle of symmetry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The plane which divides the molecule into two equal parts so that each half is the mirror
image of other half is called plane of symmetry. Centre of symmetry is the central point about which the
molecule is symmetrical.
14. When a molecule has a plane of symmetry, it will be ______________
a) Optically inactive
b) Optically active
c) Both optically active & inactive
d) Enantiomer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a molecule has a plane of symmetry, it will be optically inactive, even though it might
contain chiral carbon.
15. A centre of symmetry is equivalent to _________ fold alternating axis of symmetry.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A centre of symmetry is equivalent to two-fold alternating axis of symmetry.
16. Diastereomers are
a) Geometrical isomers
b) Mirror images
c) Non-mirror images
d) Unstable molecules
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diastereomers are not mirror images of each other. Diastereomerism occurs when two or
more stereo isomers of a compound have different configurations at one or more of the equivalent
stereo centers and are not mirror images of each other.
17. A plane of symmetry is equivalent to _________ fold alternating axis of symmetry.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A centre of symmetry is equivalent to one-fold alternating axis of symmetry.
18. As the optical activity changes with the wavelength of light, it is necessary not to use monochromatic
light to measure optical activity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the optical activity changes with the wavelength of light, it is necessary to use
monochromatic light to measure optical activity
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Optical Isomerism
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Optical
Isomerism”.
1. Optical activity is the property in which a substance is unable to rotate the plane of polarisation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical activity is the property in which a substance is able to rotate the plane of
polarisation of plane polarised light.
a) Racemic modification is an equimolar mixture of dextrorotatory and levorotatory isomers
b) Meso compounds contain more than one chiral carbon centre
c) Meso compounds are externally compensated
d) Racemic mixture is designated as dl-pair
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Meso compounds are internally compensated form whereas racemic mixtures are
externally compensated modification. All the other options are correct.
a) Meso compound possess both plane of symmetry and centre of symmetry
b) Meso compound possess either plane or centre of symmetry
c) Meso compound does not possess either plane or centre of symmetry
d) Meso compounds are externally compensated form
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Meso compound possess either plane or centre of symmetry. They do not possess both
plane of symmetry and centre of symmetry and also they are internally compensated form.
4. How many optical isomers are possible in a compound with one chiral carbon?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A compound with one chiral carbon has three optical isomers (+), (-) and (±).
5. Which of the following compound would show optical isomerism?
a) CH3 – CH(OH) COOH
b) H2N CH(CH3)2
c) (CH3)2 CHCHO
d) H2N CH2 COOH
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CH3 – CH(OH) COOH will show optical isomerism as it possess chiral carbon.
6. The number of configurational isomers of molecules having (n) different chiral carbons is
a) 2n
b) 2n
c) 2n-1
d) 2n+1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of configurational isomers of molecules having (n) different chiral carbons is
2n. It is calculated mathematically.
7. The number of racemic forms of molecules having (n) different chiral carbons is
a) 2n
b) 2n
c) 2n-1
d) 2n+1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of racemic forms of molecules having (n) different chiral carbons is 2n-1
whereas the number of configurational isomers of molecules having (n) different chiral carbons is 2n.
8. For a molecule with two like chiral carbon atoms, the number of optically inactive form is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a molecule with two like chiral carbon atoms, the number of optically inactive form is
one. This is always used for the calculation of optically inactive forms.
9. For a molecule with two like chiral carbon atoms, the number of optically active form is
a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For a molecule with two like chiral carbon atoms, the number of optically active form is
two. This is always used for the calculation of optically active forms.
10. Find the number of stereoisomers for CH3 – CHOH – CH = CH – CH3.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The number of stereoisomers for CH3 – CHOH – CH = CH – CH3 is four. This is calculated by
the formula 2n+1.
11. The necessary condition for showing optical activity is the chirality of a molecule as a whole.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The necessary condition for showing optical activity is the chirality of a molecule as a
whole. It is the most important condition for showing optical activity.
12. The sufficient condition for showing optical activity is
a) Molecule should have measurable amount of optical activity only
b) Polarimeter should have capacity of recording low-degree optical activity only
c) Chirality of molecule as a whole only
d) Both, the molecule should have measurable amount of optical activity and polarimeter should
have capacity of recording low-degree optical activity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The molecule should have measurable amount of optical activity and polarimeter should
have capacity of recording low-degree optical activity.
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13. Which of the following is an example of optically active compounds without chirality?
a) Tartaric acid
b) Sulfhonium salt
c) Diphenic acid
d) Glyceraldehyde
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphhonium salt is an example of optically active compounds without chirality. It is a
special case. There are various such molecules which are optically active compounds without chirality.
14. Spiranes exhibit optical isomerism because of restricted rotation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spiranes exhibit optical isomerism because of restricted rotation. They cannot rotate about
any axis.
15. Which of the following is not optically active compound?
a) 1,7- Dicarboxylic spirocycloheptane
b) 1,3- Diphenyl propadiene
c) Meso-tartaric acid
d) Glyceraldehyde
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Meso-tartaric acid is an optically inactive molecule with a chiral carbon atom. It is a special
case of optical activity
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Stereoselectivity and Stereospecificity
“Stereoselectivity and Stereospecificity”.
1. The reaction which gives exclusively one of several possible isomeric products is called
a) Dynamicselective
b) Stereoselective
c) Regioselective
d) Stereospecific
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction which gives exclusively one of several possible isomeric products is called
regioselective reaction. Regioselectivity is the preference of one direction of chemical bond making or
breaking over all other possible directions.
2. The reaction that yields predominantly one enantiomer of a possible pair is called
a) Dynamicselective
b) Stereoselective
c) Regioselective
d) Stereospecific
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reaction that yields predominantly one enantiomer of a possible pair is called
stereoselective reaction. Stereoselectivity is the property of a chemical reaction in which a single
reactant forms an unequal mixture of stereo isomers during the non-stereo specific creation of a new
stereo center or during the non-stereo specific transformation of a pre-existing one.
3. Stereoselectivity can be exhibited in various degrees.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stereoselectivity can be exhibited in various degrees like completely stereoselective, highly
stereoselective, moderately stereoselective and so on.
4. The reaction in which stereochemically different molecules react differently is called
a) Dynamicselective
b) Stereoselective
c) Regioselective
d) Stereospecific
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The reaction in which stereochemically different molecules react differently is called
stereospecific reaction. Stereospecificity is the property of a reaction mechanism that leads to different
stereo isomeric reaction products from different stereo isomeric reactants, or which operates on only
one of the stereo isomers.
5. Which of the following is an example of regioselective reaction?
a) Debromination of 2,3- dibromobutane
b) 2-bromo octane with sodium hydroxide
c) Addition of HI to propylene
d) Debromination of meso dibromobutane
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Addition of HI to propylene is an example of regioselective reaction. Regioselectivity is the
preference of one direction of chemical bond making or breaking over all other possible directions.
6. Reaction of (±) 2,3- dibromobutane is slower than meso in which the two methyl groups are
a) Skew
b) Anti
c) Gauche
d) Partially eclipsed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reaction of (±) 2,3- dibromobutane is slower than meso due to higher transition state in
which the two methyl groups are partially eclipsed.
7. Dynamic stereochemistry helps in correlating conformation and reactivity and in stereoselective

synthesis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic stereochemistry helps in correlating conformation and reactivity and in

stereoselective synthesis. Stereoselectivity is the property of a chemical reaction in which a single
reactant forms an unequal mixture of stereo isomers during the non-stereo specific creation of a new
stereo center
8. R – C = C – R reacts in the presence of lindlar catalyst to give syn product. This is an example of
a) Dynamicselective
b) Stereoselective
c) Regioselective
d) Stereospecific
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above mentioned reaction is an example of stereoselective reaction. Stereoselectivity

is the property of a chemical reaction in which a single reactant forms an unequal mixture of stereo
isomers during the non-stereo specific creation of a new stereo center
9. Under SN2 conditions, on reaction with NaOH, (R)-2-bromo octane gives
a) (S)-2-octanol
b) (R)-2-octanol
c) Trans-2-butene
d) Cis-2-butene
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Under SN2 conditions, on reaction with NaOH, (R)-2-bromo octane gives (S)-2- octanol. In
SN2 mechanism, one bond is broken and one bond is formed synchronously.
10. Under SN2 conditions, on reaction with NaOH, (S)-2-bromo octane gives (R)-2-octanol. This is an
example of
a) Dynamicselective
b) Stereoselective
c) Regioselective
d) Stereospecific
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Under SN2 conditions, on reaction with NaOH, (S)-2-bromo octane gives (R)-2-octanol. This
is an example of stereospecific reaction. In SN2 mechanism, one bond is broken and one bond is formed
synchronously.
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11. Optical purity is defined as the
a) Ratio of rotation of pure enantiomer to rotation of mixture
b) Ratio of rotation of mixture to rotation of pure enantiomer
c) Product of rotation of mixture and rotation of pure enantiomer
d) Sum of rotation of mixture and rotation of pure enantiomer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical purity is defined as the ratio of rotation of mixture to rotation of pure enantiomer.
It is expressed as a percentage. If the sample only rotates plane-polarized light half as much as expected,
the optical purity is 50%.
12. The formula of enantiomeric excess is
a) [(d+l)/(d-l)]*100
b) [(d)/(d+l)]*100
c) [(d-l)/(d)]*100
d) [(d-l)/(d+l)]*100
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The formula of enantiomeric excess is [(d-l)/(d+l)]*100. It gives the percentage of excess of
an enantiomer
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Conformations
“Conformations”.
1. Conformations are different arrangements of atoms that can be converted into one another by
rotation about
a) Covalent bond
b) Double bond
c) Single bond
d) Triple bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conformational isomerism is a form of stereoisomerism in which the isomers can be

interconverted exclusively by rotations about formally single bonds. Such isomers are generally referred
to as conformational isomers or conformers and, specifically, as rotamers.
2. The energy required to rotate n-butane molecule about the carbon-carbon bond is called
a) Rotational energy
b) Torsional energy
c) Enantiomeric energy
d) Potential energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy required to rotate n-butane molecule about the carbon-carbon bond is called
torsional energy. Torsion energy can be used to solve problems of general relativity especially the
singularity problem.
3. The rotation about the (C2 – C3) carbon-carbon bond of n-butane requires the energy of about
a) 100 kJ/mol
b) 50 kJ/mol
c) 10 kJ/mol
d) 3 kJ/mol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The rotation about the (C2 – C3) carbon-carbon bond of n-butane requires the very less
energy of about 3kJ/mol. It requires very less amount of energy.
4. The infinity of intermediate conformations are called
a) Skew conformations
b) Staggered conformations
c) Eclipsed conformations
d) Gauche
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The infinity of intermediate conformations are called skew conformations. Three
conformations of cyclohexane, designated as chair, boat, and skew (or twist), are essentially free of
angle strain.
5. The potential energy of n-butane is minimum for
d) Gauche
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The potential energy of n-butane is minimum for staggered conformations. It is because of
no steric hindrance.
6. The potential energy of n-butane is maximum for
d) Gauche
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The potential energy of n-butane is maximum for eclipsed conformations. It is because of
overlapping of functional groups.
7. The relative instability of any of the intermediate skew conformations is due to
a) Lateral strain
b) Shear strain
c) Longitudinal strain
d) Torsional strain
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The relative instability of any of the intermediate skew conformations is due to torsional
strain. Torsion energy can be used to solve problems of general relativity especially the singularity
problem.
8. In gauche conformations, the methyl groups are
a) 600 apart
b) 900 apart
c) 1800 apart
d) 3600 apart
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In gauche conformations, the methyl groups are 600 apart. In general a gauche rotamer is
less stable than an anti-rotamer.
9. Both anti and gauche conformations are free of torsional strain.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Both anti and gauche conformations are free of torsional strain. In general a gauche
rotamer is less stable than an anti-rotamer.
10. Gauche conformation is less stable due to
a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Covalent bonding
c) Vander Waal’s repulsion
d) Torsional strain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gauche conformation is less stable due to Vander Waal’s repulsion. Vander Waal’s are
weak forces of attraction which results in lesser stability of gauche conformer.
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11. Which of the following is least stable?
a) Anti conformation
b) Gauche conformation
c) Staggered conformation
d) Eclipsed conformation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Eclipsed conformation is the least stable due to its high torsional energy. The potential
energy of n-butane is maximum for eclipsed conformations.
12. Potential energy remains same during the rotation about the carbon-carbon of n-butane.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy changes during the rotation about the carbon-carbon of n-butane. The
potential energy of n-butane is maximum for eclipsed conformations and minimum for staggered
conformations.
Questions & Answers on Materials and their Properties
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Engineering Materials
“Engineering Materials”.
1. Based on the important category, concrete and fibre glass are the examples of
a) Ceramics
b) Polymers
c) Composites
d) Semi-conductors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Example of ceramic are Al2O3 and ZrO2, Polymers are Thermoplastic and Thermosets,
Composites are Fibre glass and Concrete and Semi-conductors are Silicon and Germanium.
2. Which of the following is not an inorganic functional material?
a) Ferroelectric
b) Reverse micelles
c) Magnetic field sensor
d) Light detectors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse micelles is an organic functional material.
3. Which of the following is not an aerospace material?
a) Plastics
b) Silica
c) Aluminium alloys
d) Polymers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Polymers are not categorized under aerospace materials.
a) Metals are extremely good conductors of heat and electricity
b) The properties of metal degrade rapidly with temperature
c) Metals have poor corrosion resistant
d) A polished metal surface has a dull appearance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A polished metal surface has a lustrous appearance. All the other options are correct.
Metals are extremely good conductors of heat and electricity, its properties degrade rapidly with
temperature and have poor corrosion resistance.
5. Which one of the following is the best heat and corrosion resistant material?
a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Polymers
d) Semi-conductors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ceramics materials generally consist of oxides, nitrides, carbides, silicates or borides of
various metals. Their heat and corrosion resistance is best compared to metals and polymers.
6. Polymers are used in the chemical industry because of their
a) Inert nature
b) Light weight
c) Low cost
d) Easiness in fabricability
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymers are used in the chemical industry because of their inert nature.
a) Composites are optically opaque materials
b) Carbon fiber reinforced composite materials are not used in space vehicles
c) Re-cyclability of composite material is poor
d) Processing of composite material is difficult
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbon fiber reinforced composite materials are used in space vehicles. All the other
options are correct. Composites are optically opaque materials, re-cyclability of a composite material is
poor and its processing is difficult.
8. Which type of material expands and contract in response to an applied electric field?
a) Advanced material
b) Smart material
c) Biomaterial
d) Nanomaterial
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Smart materials(Piezoelectric) expand and contract in response to an applied electric

field(or voltage).
9. Which one of the following is non-linear material?
a) Zirconium oxide
b) Magnetite
c) Maghemite
d) Lithium niobate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lithium niobate is a non-linear material used for telecommunication.
10. Which of the following is not an application of nanomaterials?
a) TV and computer monitors
b) Cardiology
c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
d) Sunscreens and fuel cells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cardiology is not an application of nanomaterials. TV and computer monitors, Magnetic

Resonance Imaging (MRI) and sunscreens and fuel cells are some of the applications of nanomaterials
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Construction Material Cement
This set of Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on
“Construction Material Cement”.
1. Which type of cement possesses hydraulic qualities?
a) Natural
b) Puzzolona
c) Slag
d) Portland
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural cement possesses hydraulic qualities. The fast-setting Rosendale natural cement
mortars proved to be more efficient than the mortars based on lime and sand.
2. Select the incorrect statement from the following options.
a) Puzzolona is the oldest cement invented by Romans
b) Natural puzzolona is deposit of volcanic ash
c) Puzzolona was used in making concrete for construction of walls and domes
d) Puzzolona is quite setting cement and posses relatively low strength
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural cement is quite setting cement and posses relatively low strength. All the other
options are correct. Puzzolona is the oldest cement invented by Romans, used in making concrete for
construction of walls and domes.
3. Blast furnace slag is the mixture of
a) Slaked lime and calcium silicate
b) Aluminium silicate and hydrated lime
c) Calcium silicate and aluminium silicate
d) Silica, alumina and calcium oxide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Blast furnace slag is the mixture of Calcium silicate and aluminium silicate. Ground-
granulated blast-furnace slag is obtained by quenching molten iron slag (a by-product of iron and steel-
making) from a blast furnace in water or steam, to produce a glassy, granular product that is then dried
and ground into a fine powder.
4. Portland cement is made by calcining at temperature equals to
a) 30000C
b) 15000C
c) 18000C
d) 20000C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Portland cement is made by calcining at temperature equals to 15000C. It is manufactured

from chalk and clay which hardens under water and when hard resembles Portland stone in color.
5. Why Gypsum is added after calcination in the manufacture of Portland cement?
a) To prevent flash setting
b) To improve the quality of cement
c) To increase the lime saturation factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gypsum is added after calcination to prevent flash setting and it acts as a retarder.
6. Who is recognized as the “Father of the modern Portland cement industry”?
a) Emil Abderhalden
b) Richard Abegg
c) Peter Agre
d) William Aspdin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: William Aspdin is recognized as the “Father of the modern Portland cement industry”.
Portland cement is the most common type of cement in general use around the world, used as a basic
ingredient of concrete, mortar, stucco, and most non-speciality grout.
7. All portland cements are hydraulic cement because of they
a) Set and harden in the absence of water
b) Set and harden in the presence of water
c) Do not harden after mixing water
d) None of the mentioned option
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All portland cements are hydraulic cements because they set and harden under water. This
cement not only hardens by reacting with water but also forms a water-resistant product. Portland
cement is the most common type of cement in general use around the world, used as a basic ingredient
of concrete, mortar, stucco, and most non-speciality grout.
8. The percentage composition of alumina in Portland cement is
a) 60-69
b) 17-25
c) 3-8
d) 2-4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The percentage composition of alumina in portland cement is 3-8 %. Portland cement
clinker is a hydraulic material which shall consist of at least two-thirds by mass of calcium silicates, the
remainder consisting of aluminium- and iron-containing clinker phases and other compounds.
9. Which compound causes the cement efflorescent, if present in excess?
a) Iron oxide
b) Alkali oxide
c) Sulphur trioxide
d) Lime
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Alkali oxides causes cement efflorescent if present in excess. The alkali metals react with
oxygen to form several different compounds: suboxides, oxides, peroxides, superoxides, and ozonides.
10. Which compound imparts grey color, strength and hardness to the portland cement?
a) Iron oxide
b) Alumina
c) Magnesium oxide
d) Silica
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Iron oxide imparts grey color, strength and hardness to the portland cement
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Functional Materials
“Functional Materials”.
a) Nitinol is a non-magnetic material
b) It has a shape memory strain of about 8.5%
c) It has lower ductility than other shape memory alloys like Au-Cd
d) It possess excellent corrosion resistant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nitinol has a higher ductility than other shape memory alloys like Au-Cd and can freely
revert back to its original shape. All the other options are correct. It is a non-magnetic material and
possess excellent corrosion resistant.
2. The materials which offer no resistance to the passage of electricity are
a) Superconductors
b) Semiconductors
c) Optical fibre
d) Smart material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Superconductors offer no resistance to the passage of electricity. Semi-conductor is a
substance, usually a solid chemical element or compound, that can conduct electricity under some
conditions but not others, making it a good medium for the control of electrical current.
3. The critical temperature for the cuprate La2CuO4 is
a) 40 K
b) 90 K
c) 125 K
d) 35 K
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The critical temperature for the cuprate La2CuO4 is 35 K. Cuprate loosely refers to a
material that can be viewed as containing copper anions.
4. Identify the class of the superconductor to which TiO and NbO belong.
a) Simple compounds
b) Nonstoichiometric crystals having defects
c) Charge-transfer compounds
d) Molecular crystals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TiO and NbO are the examples of non-stoichiometric crystals having defects class of
superconductors.
5. The dielectric material that shows spontaneous and reversible dielectric polarisation are
a) Piezoelectrics
b) Pyroelectrics
c) Ferroelectrics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezoelctrics are those dielectric materials in which pressure can produce an electrical
response and electrical forces produce a mechanical response. Pyroelectrics are those dielectric in which
polarisation changes with temperature. Ferroelectrics are those dielectric materials that show
spontaneous and reversible dielectric polarisation.
6. What is the principle on which an optical fibre works?
a) Total internal reflection
b) Farraday’s law of induction

c) Doppler Effect
d) Hooke’s law
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to total internal reflection, light can be transmitted over many kilometers without any
appreciable decrease in the intensity by optical fibres.
7. Optical fibre can be safely used for signal transmission near the nuclear installation because
a) There is no leakage of signals
b) Plastic cladded silica fibres are resistant to nuclear radiations
c) Plastic cladded silica fibres are not resistant to nuclear radiations
d) There is no electromagnetic interference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Optical fibre can be safely used for signal transmission near the nuclear installation because
the plastic cladded silica fibres are resistant to nuclear radiations. Due to total internal reflection, light
can be transmitted over many kilometers without any appreciable decrease in the intensity by optical
fibres.
8. The correct sequence for the procedure adopted for making a pure elemental semiconductor consist
of
a) Preparation of ultrapure Si or Ge>> Doping>> Preparation of single crystals of Si or Ge
b) Doping>> Preparation of ultrapure Si or Ge>> Preparation of single crystals of Si or Ge
c) Preparation of ultrapure Si or Ge>> Preparation of single crystals of Si or Ge>> Doping
d) Preparation of single crystals of Si or Ge>> Preparation of ultrapure Si or Ge>> Doping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct sequence for the procedure adopted for making a pure elemental
semiconductor consist of: Preparation of ultrapure Si or Ge>> Preparation of single crystals of Si or Ge>>
Doping
9. Which of the following is not an application of a transistor?
a) Tunnel diodes
b) Thermistors
c) Amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are the applications of a transistor. A transistor is a
semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power. It is used for
tunnel diodes, thermistors and amplifiers.
10. The amplification factor for transistor when used as an amplifier will be
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amplification factor for transistor when used as an amplifier will be 50. Modern
transistor audio amplifiers of up to a few hundred watts are common and relatively inexpensive
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Intermolecular Forces
This set of Basic Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers focuses on “Intermolecular Forces”.
1. Which of the following is a microscopic property?
a) Reactivity
b) Inter-molecular force
c) Boiling point
d) Kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inter-molecular force is a microscopic property and all others are the macroscopic
property. A macroscopic property describes the characteristics or behaviour of a sample which is large
enough to see, handle, manipulate, weigh, etc. A microscopic property describes the behaviour of a
much smaller sample of matter, an atom or molecule for instance.
2. Which of the following has the highest bond dissociation energy?
a) Covalent bond
b) Vander Waals forces
c) Dipole-dipole
d) Hydrogen bond
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Covalent Bond has the highest dissociation energy (400 kJ/mol) among the following
options. Vander Waal’s forces are the weakest among the following.
3. The strength of Vander Waals forces depends upon
a) Size of the molecule
b) Molecular structure
c) Number of electrons present in the molecule
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The strength of Vander Waals forces depends upon the size of the molecule, molecular
structure and the number of electrons present in the molecule.
4. Arrange the following molecules in the order of increasing boiling point.
a) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
b) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
c) F2 < Br2 < Cl2 < I2
d) Cl2 < F2 < I2 < Br2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct order of boiling point is F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2.
It is due to the highest electronegativity of fluorine atom.
5. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in
a) Diethyl ether
b) Ethyl chloride
c) Ethanol
d) Triethylamine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is maximum in Ethanol. It is a volatile, flammable, colorless liquid with a
slight chemical odor. It is used as an antiseptic, a solvent, a fuel, and due to its low freezing point, the
active fluid in many alcohol thermometers.
6. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for the formation of intra-molecular hydrogen
bonding?
a) A 5 or 6-membered ring should be formed
b) The ring should be planar

c) There should be minimum strain during the ring closure
d) There should be maximum strain during the ring closure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The necessary conditions for the formation of intra-molecular hydrogen bonding are: 5 or
6-membered ring should be formed, the ring should be planar and there should be minimum strain
during the ring closure.
7. Which of the following is the consequence of hydrogen bonding?
a) Abnormal boiling point
b) Solubility and Viscosity
c) Azeotropic behavior
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The consequences of hydrogen bonding are: Abnormal boiling point, solubility, viscosity
and azeotropic behavior.
8. O-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol due to
a) Inductive effect
b) Electromeric effect
c) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in O-nitrophenol
d) Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding in O-nitrophenol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: O-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol due to Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding
in O-nitrophenol. Intra-molecular hydrogen bonding occurs within different parts of a single molecule.
9. Which of the following possess lowest energy?
a) NO
b) O2
c) N2
d) CO
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: N2 possesses the lowest bond energy among the following options.
10. At what temperature does the water molecules contract?
a) At 00C
b) Below 00C
c) At 40C
d) Between 00C and 40C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water contracts when heated between 00C and 40C. In this range of temperature, all the
water molecules breaks down to change its state
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Molecular Aggregation
Aggregation”.
1. The main cause of molecular aggregation is
a) Conduction
b) Induction
c) Inter-molecular interactions
d) Resonance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main cause of molecular aggregation is inter-molecular interactions. Inter-molecular

interactions stem from the electric properties of atoms. Being the cause of molecular aggregation, inter-
molecular forces are at the roots of chemistry and are the fabric of the world.
2. From where does the inter-molecular interaction originate?
a) From the electric properties of atoms
b) From the cohesive properties of atoms
c) From the magnetic properties of atoms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inter-molecular interactions originate from the electric properties of atoms. Inter-
molecular interactions stem from the electric properties of atoms. Being the cause of molecular
aggregation, inter-molecular forces are at the roots of chemistry and are the fabric of the world.
3. Which of the following is not a state of aggregation of matter?

a) Solid
b) Liquid and Gas
c) Plasma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid, liquid, gas and plasma are the four states of aggregation of matter.
4. The process by which individual molecules form the defined aggregate is called
a) Self-aggregation
b) Self-assembly
c) Aggregation
d) Assembly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process by which individual molecules form the defined aggregate is called self-
assembly. Molecular self-assembly is the process by which molecules adopt a defined arrangement
without guidance or management from an outside source.
5. In water, non-polar molecules tend to aggregate because they are forced to come into close proximity
with each other due to
a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Hydrophilic interactions
c) Vander Waals interactions
d) Electrovalent interactions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In water, non-polar molecules tend to aggregate because they are forced to come into
close proximity with each other due to hydrophobic interactions.
6. Which type of molecules forms aggregate through a self-assembly process that is driven by the
hydrophobic effect?
a) Electrophilic
b) Nucleophilic
c) Ambiphilic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ambiphilic molecules form aggregate through a self-assembly process that is driven by the
hydrophobic effect. Molecular self-assembly is the process by which molecules adopt a defined
arrangement without guidance or management from an outside source.
7. Why metallic bonds are non-directional?
a) Because there is a uniform distribution of mobile valence electrons around the kernels
b) Because there is a non-uniform distribution of mobile valence electrons around the kernels
c) There is no change in inter-kernel distance
d) There is a change in inter-kernel distance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Metallic bonds are non-directional because there is a uniform distribution of mobile
valence electrons around the kernels, provided there is no change in inter-kernel distance.
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8. The number of molecules in a conduction band
a) Increases with fall in temperature
b) Decreases with a rise in temperature
c) Increases with a rise in temperature
d) Does not depend upon the temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of molecules in the conduction band increases with the rise in temperature. At
high temperatures, randomness increases and more molecules move towards the conduction band
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Micelles
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Micelles”.
1. What is the molecular formula of stearate ion?
a) C17H35COO–
b) C35H17COO+
c) C35H17COO–
d) C17H35COO+
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium stearate ionises to form stearate anion(C17H35COO–) and sodium cation(Na+).
2. Which part of the stearate ion is hydrophilic in nature?
a) Tail
b) Hydrocarbon chain
c) Head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The end of the hydrocarbon chain is having a polar group (head) which is hydrophilic in
nature and represented by a hollow circle.
3. Which of the following is water insoluble?
a) COO–
b) Na+
c) C17H35
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: C17H35 is hydrophobic in nature and hence it is water insoluble.
4. The number of stearate ions required to form a micelle of colloidal size is
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: About 70 stearate ions aggregate to form a micelle of colloidal size.
a) In the micelle formation, the water soluble heads are directed towards the centre
b) In the micelle formation, the water soluble heads are on the surface in contact with the water
c) In the micelle formation, the water insoluble tails are directed towards the centre

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the micelle formation, the water insoluble tails are directed towards the centre, and the
water soluble heads are on the surface in contact with water. All the other options are correct.
6. Select the correct statement from the following options.
a) The soap micelle is unstable due to positive charge on its head
b) The soap micelle is stable due to positive charge on its head
c) The soap micelle is unstable due to negative charge on its head
d) The soap micelle is stable due to negative charge on its head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The soap micelle is stable due to the negative charge on its polar head. In the micelle
formation, the water insoluble tails are directed towards the centre, and the water soluble heads are on
the surface in contact with water.
7. The transition of ions to micelle is
a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transition of ions to micelle is a reversible process. In the micelle formation, the water
insoluble tails are directed towards the centre, and the water soluble heads are on the surface in
contact with water.
8. What is Critical Micelle Concentration?
a) The maximum amount of concentration that is required for the formation of micelle
b) The minimum amount of concentration that is required for the formation of micelle
c) The maximum amount of concentration that is not required for the formation of micelle
d) The minimum amount of concentration that is not required for the formation of micelle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum amount of concentration that is required for the formation of micelle is
termed as Critical Micelle Concentration (CMC). It is defined as the concentration of surfactants above
which micelles form and all additional surfactants added to the system go to micelles.
9. Micelles behave as colloids only when
a) Concentration is less than CMC
b) Concentration is equal to CMC
c) Concentration is greater than CMC
d) They always behave as colloids
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Micelles behave as colloids only when its concentration is greater than CMC. The CMC is an
important characteristic of a surfactant. Before reaching the CMC, the surface tension changes strongly
with the concentration of the surfactant. After reaching the CMC, the surface tension remains relatively
constant or changes with a lower slope.
10. The conductivity of micelles is
a) Higher than a colloidal solution
b) Lower than a colloidal solution
c) Equals to colloidal solution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The conductivity of micelles is higher than the colloidal solution. And hence they can
conduct more electric charges through them
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Nanotechnology
“Nanotechnology”.
1. Which of the following is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of nanomaterials?
a) Gas phase agglomeration
b) Molecular self-assembly
c) Mechanical grinding
d) Molecular beam epitaxy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical grinding is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of

nanomaterials. All the other options are the example of bottom-up approach.
2. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the preparation of nanomaterials?
a) Etching
b) Dip pen nano-lithography
c) Lithography
d) Erosion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dip pen nanolithography is an example of bottom-down approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials. All the other options are the example of top-down approach.
3. The properties like melting point, solubility, color, etc changes on varying the
a) Size
b) Composition
c) Surface properties
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The properties like melting point, solubility, color, etc changes on varying the size of the
particles. These all are the physical properties and depends upon the physical characteristics of the
particle.
4. The properties like dispersibility, conductivity, etc changes on varying the
a) Size
b) Composition
c) Surface properties
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The properties like dispersibility, conductivity, etc changes on varying the surface
properties of the nanoparticle. These all are the chemical properties and depends upon the surface
characteristics of the particle.
5. Quantum confinement results in
a) Energy gap in semiconductor is proportional to the inverse of the square root of size
b) Energy gap in semiconductor is proportional to the inverse of the size
c) Energy gap in semiconductor is proportional to the square of size
d) Energy gap in semiconductor is proportional to the inverse of the square of size
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy gap in a semiconductor is proportional to the inverse of the square of size. This
effect is a result of quantum confinement.
6. Which of the following is the principal factor which causes the properties of nanomaterials to differ
significantly from other materials?
a) Size distribution
b) Specific surface feature
c) Quantum size effects
d) All the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Size distribution, specific surface feature and quantum size effects are the principal factor
which causes the properties of nanomaterials to differ significantly from other materials.
a) Self-assembly is a top-down manufacturing technique
b) In self-assembly, weak interactions play very important role
c) Self-assembling molecules adopt an organised structure which is thermodynamically more stable than
the single, unassembled components
d) Compared to the isolated components, the self-assembled structure has a higher order
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Self-assembly is a bottom-down manufacturing technique. All the other options are correct.
In self-assembly, weak interactions play very important role, self-assembling molecules adopt a
organised structure which is thermodynamically more stable than the single, unassembled components.
8. Which of the following is the application of nanotechnology to food science and technology?
a) Agriculture
b) Food safety and biosecurity
c) Product development
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application of nanotechnology to food science and technology are agriculture, food
safety and biosecurity, product development, food processing and ingredient technologies.
9. What are the advantages of nano-composite packages?

a) Lighter and biodegradable
b) Enhanced thermal stability, conductivity and mechanical strength
c) Gas barrier properties
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The advantages of nano-composite packages are-Lighter and biodegradable, enhanced

thermal stability, conductivity, mechanical strength and gas barrier properties.
10. The efficiency of today’s best solar cell is about
a) 15-20%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 75%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of today’s best solar cells is about 40%. A solar cell, or photovoltaic cell is an
electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the photovoltaic effect.
Questions on Methods Of Purification
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Crystallisation
“Crystallisation”.
1. Which of the following is not a common method used for purification?
a) Sublimation
b) Crystallisation
c) Electrolysis
d) Chromatography
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sublimation, crystallisation, distillation, differential extraction and chromatography are

some of the common methods used for purification. Electrolysis process is not used for this purpose.
2. Crystallisation is based on the
a) Difference in melting point
b) Difference in boiling point

c) Difference in pressure
d) Difference in solubility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Crystallisation is based on the difference in the solubility of the compound and the
impurities in a suitable solvent.
3. Which of the following is the example of crystallisation process?
a) Purification of alum
b) Purification of sea water
c) Separation of gases from air
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An impure sample of alum or copper sulphate is purified by crystallisation process.

Purification of sea water is example of distillation process.
4. At room temperature, the impure compound in crystallisation is
a) Soluble
b) Sparingly soluble
c) Insoluble
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The impure compound is sparingly soluble in a solvent at room temperature but
appreciably soluble at higher temperatures.
5. Which of the following is known as mother liquor?
a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Solution
d) Filtrate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The filtrate is also known as mother liquor. A mother liquor is the part of a solution that is
left over after crystallization. It is encountered in chemical processes including sugar refining.
6. The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get
a) Unsaturated solution
b) Undersaturaed solution
c) Saturated solution
d) Oversaturated solution
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get a saturated solution.
The solution is filtered to remove insoluble impurities.
7. Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by
a) Drying
b) Filtration
c) Heating
d) Cooling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by filtration. The
solution is filtered to remove insoluble impurities.
8. The solution which is obtained after filtration is
a) Suspended solution
b) Clear solution
c) Colloidal solution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The solution which is obtained after filtration is a clear solution. The solution is filtered to
remove insoluble impurities.
9. Crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Size
d) Viscosity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying factors such as temperature.
10. The nature of the crystallization process is governed by
a) Thermodynamics
b) Kinetic factors
c) Thermodynamics and Kinetic factors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The nature of the crystallization process is governed by both thermodynamic and kinetic
factors.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Surface Tension
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Surface
Tension”.
1. The unit of surface tension in the CGS system is
a) N/m
b) Kg/cm
c) Dynes/cm
d) Dynes/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of surface tension in CGS system is dynes/cm. It is N/m in S.I. system. Surface
tension is the elastic tendency of a fluid surface which makes it acquire the least surface area possible.
2. The apparatus used for the determination of surface tension of a liquid is
a) Oedometer
b) Stalagmometer
c) Consolidometer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The apparatus used for the determination of surface tension of a liquid is called
stalagmometer. It is equivalent to force per unit length.
3. Stalagmometer is cleaned to remove grease with the help of
a) Chromic acid
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Distilled water
d) Tartaric acid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stalagmometer is cleaned to remove grease with the help of chromic acid. It is used for the
determination of surface tension.
4. The surface tension of water at 250C is
a) 90.0 dynes/cm
b) 45.63 dynes/cm
c) 82.5 dynes/cm
d) 72.14 dynes/cm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The surface tension of water at 250C is 72.14 dynes/cm. It is a standard value.
5. On increasing the temperature, the kinetic energy of the liquid molecules
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: On increasing the temperature, the kinetic energy of the liquid molecules also increases. At
high temperature, randomness increases.
6. In case of water and glass, we get a concave meniscus because the adhesive force between water and
glass are _______________ than the cohesive forces between water molecules.
a) Weaker
b) Stronger
c) Same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of water and glass, we get a concave meniscus because the adhesive force between
water and glass are stronger than the cohesive forces between water molecules.
7. Shapes of drops of liquid are spherical because of
a) Viscosity
b) Conductivity
c) Absorption
d) Surface tension
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shapes of drops of liquid are spherical because of surface tension as it reduces the surface
area to a minimum.
a) In case of mercury and glass, we observe a convex meniscus
b) Surface tension is responsible for the rise and fall of the capillary tubes
c) If two drops encounter each other, they tend to repel each other
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If two drops encounter each other, they tend to coalesce into a large drop. All the other
options are correct. In the case of mercury and glass, we observe a convex meniscus and Surface tension
is responsible for the rise and fall of the capillary tubes.
9. On increasing the temperature, the surface tension of the liquid
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On increasing the temperature, the surface tension of the liquid decreases. It is inversely
proportional to the temperature.
10. Which of the following is an application of surface tension?
a) Use of soaps and detergents as cleansing agents

b) Molecular structure can be elucidated by surface tension measurements through parachor values
c) Surfactants are incorporated in preparations like toothpaste
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use of soaps and detergents as cleansing agents, molecular structure can be elucidated by
surface tension measurements through parachor values and surfactants are incorporated in
preparations like toothpaste are the applications of surface tension
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Distillation
“Distillation”.
1. The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapours and then cooling the vapours to get
pure component is called
a) Crystallisation
b) Distillation
c) Chromatography
d) Sublimation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapours and then cooling the vapours to get
pure component is called distillation. Distillation is a process of separating the component substances
from a liquid mixture by selective evaporation and condensation.
2. Porcelain pieces are put into the distillation flask to avoid
a) Overheating
b) Uniform boiling
c) Bumping of the solution
d) None of the mentioned options
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Porcelain pieces are put into the distillation flask to avoid bumping of the solution due to
uneven heating.
3. The boiling point of chloroform is
a) 334 K
b) 286 K
c) 350 K
d) 298 K
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The boiling point of chloroform is 334 K. Chloroform is an organic compound with formula
CHCl3. It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a precursor to
PTFE and refrigerants.
4. The boiling point of aniline is
a) 438 K
b) 370 K
c) 338 K
d) 457 K
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The boiling point of aniline is 457 K. Aniline is a toxic organic compound with the formula
C6H5NH2.
5. How aniline and chloroform can be separated?
a) Sublimation
b) Condensation
c) Distillation
d) Evaporation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aniline and chloroform can be separated through distillation process. Aniline is a toxic
organic compound with the formula C6H5NH2. Chloroform is an organic compound with formula CHCl3.
It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a precursor to PTFE and
refrigerants.
6. Which of the following is not separated through distillation process?
a) Acetone and water
b) Aniline and chloroform
c) Impurities in Sea water
d) Milk and water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Milk and water is not separated through distillation process. All the other options can be
separated through distillation process.
7. Which of the following will vaporize faster ?
a) Aniline
b) Chloroform
c) Water
d) Kerosene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chloroform will vaporize faster than aniline and water. Chloroform is an organic compound
with formula CHCl3. It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a
precursor to PTFE and refrigerants.
8. The distilled water is collected in
a) Receiver
b) Adapter
c) Condenser
d) Round bottom flask
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The distilled water is collected in receiver. An installation for distillation, especially of
alcohol, is a distillery. The distillation equipment is a still.
9. The process of distillation is used for the liquids having
a) Sufficient difference in their boiling point
b) Sufficient difference in their melting point
c) Sufficient difference in their solubility
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of distillation is used for the liquids having sufficient difference in their boiling
point. Distillation also permits separation of air into its components.
10. The residue in the round bottom flask is
a) Volatile
b) Non volatile
c) None of the mentioned
d) Both of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The residue salt int he round bottom flask is non volatile in nature. The process of
distillation is used for the liquids having sufficient difference in their boiling point. Distillation also
permits separation of air into its components
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Fractional Distillation
This set of Engineering Chemistry Question Bank focuses on “Fractional Distillation”
1. Fractional distillation is a process of separation of
a) 2 miscible liquids
b) 2 immiscible liquids
c) 1 miscible and 1 immiscible liquid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fractional distillation is a process of separation of 2 immiscible liquids. Fractional

distillation is the separation of a mixture into its component parts, or fractions, separating chemical
compounds by their boiling point by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of
the compound will vaporize.
2. The difference in boiling point of 2 liquid in fractional distillation is
a) Greater than 25 K
b) Less than 25 K
c) Equal to 25 K
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Difference in boiling point of 2 liquid in fractional distillation is is less than 25 K. Fractional
distillation is the separation of a mixture into its component parts, or fractions, separating chemical
compounds by their boiling point by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of
the compound will vaporize.
3. A simple fractional tube is packed with
a) Wooden beads
b) Plastic beads
c) Metal beads
d) Glass beads
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A simple fractional tube is packed with glass beads. The fractional distillation column is set
up with the heat source at the bottom on the still pot.
4. Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of
a) Fractionating column
b) Condenser
c) Distillation flask
d) Conical flask
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of fractionating
column. A laboratory fractionating column is a piece of glassware used to separate vaporized mixtures
of liquid compounds with close volatility.
5. The beads are provided in fractional column for
a) Vapours to generate
b) Vapours to condense
c) Vapours to evaporate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The beads are provided in fractional column for vapours to condense. The fractional
distillation column is set up with the heat source at the bottom on the still pot.
a) Fractionating columns are available in various design and size
b) Fractionating columns are available according to one fixed standard
c) A simple fractionating column is a tube packed with glass beads
d) Fractional distillation is the process of separation of different gases from air
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fractionating columns are available in various design and size and not according to one
fixed standard.
7. Which of the following gases cannot be separated from air using fractional distillation?
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Helium gas cannot be separated from air using fractional distillation. Fractional distillation
is used in air separation, producing liquid oxygen, liquid nitrogen, and highly concentrated argon.
8. Initially, the temperature at the top of the column is _______________ than at its bottom.
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at the top of the column is lesser than at its bottom. The two major types
of distillation columns used are tray and packing columns.
9. Which of the following is more suitable for fractional distillation process?
a) Oil bath
b) Water bath
c) Glycerine bath
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oil bath is the most suitable option for the fractional distillation process. Vacuum
distillation systems operate at reduced pressure, thereby lowering the boiling points of the materials.
Anti-bumping granules, however, become ineffective at reduced pressures.
10. Number of steps required for the separation of two liquids in fractional distillation is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Number of steps required for the separation of two liquids in fractional distillation is 2.
Vacuum distillation systems operate at reduced pressure, thereby lowering the boiling points of the
materials. Anti-bumping granules, however, become ineffective at reduced pressures
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Steam Distillation
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Steam
Distillation”.
1. In steam distillation, the liquid boils when the sum of vapour pressure due to organic liquid and due to
water becomes
a) Greater than atmospheric pressure
b) Lesser than atmospheric pressure
c) Equals to atmospheric pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In steam distillation, the liquid boils when the sum of vapour pressure due to organic liquid
and due to water becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure. It is a type of distillation of a liquid in a
current of steam, used especially to purify liquids that are not very volatile and are immiscible with
water.
2. The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at
a) Lower temperature than its boiling point
b) Higher temperature than its boiling point
c) At its boiling point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at lower temperature than its boiling
point.
3. Steam distillation process is used to separate substances which are
a) Steam volatile
b) Steam volatile and immiscible with water
c) Steam volatile and miscible with water

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam distillation process is used to separate substances which are steam volatile and
immiscible with water. It is a type of distillation of a liquid in a current of steam, used especially to purify
liquids that are not very volatile and are immiscible with water.
4. What type of mixture is collected in round bottom flask after passing through a steam generator?
a) Mixture of volatile organic compound and water
b) Mixture of nonvolatile organic compound and water
c) Mixture of nonvolatile inorganic compound and steam
d) Mixture of volatile organic compound and steam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mixture of volatile organic compound and steam is collected in round bottom flask after
passing through steam generator.
5. Which of the following property is not possessed by the organic solvent required to separate organic
compound with water?
a) It is immiscible with water
b) It is less volatile than water
c) It is easily vaporisable
d) Organic compound is more soluble in it
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Organic solvent required to separate organic compound with water is more volatile liquid
than water. All the other mentioned properties are possessed by the organic solvent required to
separate organic compound with water.
6. Which of the following is the upper layer in differential extraction?
a) Solvent layer
b) Solute layer
c) Aqueous layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solvent layer is the upper layer in differential extraction. Differential extraction refers to
the process by which the DNA from two different types of cells can be extracted without mixing their
contents.
7. When does the organic compound is present in the upper solvent layer in differential extraction?
a) Before the extraction
b) During the extraction
c) After the extraction
d) It is always present in the upper layer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The organic compound is present in the solvent layer after the extraction. Differential
extraction refers to the process by which the DNA from two different types of cells can be extracted
without mixing their contents
8. The organic compound in differential extraction is recovered from the organic solvent by
a) Distillation
b) Fractional crystallisation
c) Steam crystallisation
d) Sublimation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The organic compound in differential extraction is recovered from the organic solvent by
distillation by evaporation.
9. The pure solvent after the differential extraction cannot be used again for the extraction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pure solvent after the differential extraction can be used again for the extraction
because it remains unaltered.
10. Aniline is separated from aniline-water mixture using
a) Fractional distillation
b) Fractional crystallisation
c) Steam distillation

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aniline is separated from aniline-water mixture using steam distillation. Steam distillation is
a special type of distillation (a separation process) for temperature sensitive materials like natural
aromatic compounds.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Chromatography
“Chromatography”.
1. Chromatography is the process for identification, purification and separation of components of a

mixture on the basis of
a) Difference in their boiling point
b) Difference in their melting point
c) Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phase
d) Difference in their solubility
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromatography is the process for identification, purification and separation of

components of a mixture on the basis of difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phases.
The mixture is dissolved in a fluid called the mobile phase, which carries it through a structure holding
another material called the stationary phase.
2. Chromatography involves two mutually
a) Immiscible phases
b) Miscible phases
c) Soluble phases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chromatography involves two mutually immiscible phases (stationary and mobile phases).
The mixture is dissolved in a fluid called the mobile phase, which carries it through a structure holding
another material called the stationary phase.
3. There is no need of support if packed into a column when the stationary phase is
a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the stationary phase is solid, there is no need of support if packed into a column. In solid
phase, all the molecules are already in a closed packing.
4. Which of the following is not stationary phase?
a) Liquid-liquid chromatography
b) Gas-liquid chromatography
c) Gas-solid chromatography
d) Solid-solid chromatography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid-solid chromatography is not stationary phase because solid-solid phase cannot
provide any fluidity.
5. Liquid chromatography is a technique for separating
a) Ions that are not dissolved in a solvent
b) Ions that are dissolved in a solvent
c) Ions that are dissolved in a solute
View Answer
6. In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on
a) Molecular geometry and size
b) Molecular composition
c) Molecular phase
d) Molecular formula
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on molecular

geometry and size. These two physical characteristics have a significance role in exclusion
chromatography.
7. The gas-solid chromatography is ______________ chromatography as per basic principle

involved.
a) Exclusion
b) Ion-exchange
c) Adsorption
d) Absorption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The gas-solid chromatography is adsorption chromatography as per basic principle involved
as the gas molecules are adsorbed on the solid surface.
8. A proper solvent that is passed through the column for elution so that separated components
can be collected is called
a) Adsorbent
b) Buffer solution
c) Mobile phase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A proper solvent that is passed through the column for elution so that separated
components can be collected is called buffer solution.The eluate is the mobile phase leaving the column.
The eluent is the solvent that carries the analyte.
9. The relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the
a) Rate of movement of solvent
b) Rate of disappearance of solvent
c) Rate of movement of solute
d) Rate of disappearance of solute
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the rate of movement of
solute as solute is added to the solution.
10. If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute is determined by its
a) Boiling point
b) Melting point
c) Solubility
d) Volatility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute is determined by its volatility because gas is
always measure as volatility not as solubility or melting point or boiling point.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Column Chromatography
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Column
Chromatography”.
1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of
a) Ion-exchange
b) Exclusion principle
c) Differential adsorption
d) Absorption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Column chromatography is based on the principle of differential adsorption. It means

different compounds have different tendencies to get adsorb on a particular surface.
2. Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing adsorption tendencies.
a) Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> alumina
b) Cellulose >> starch >> alumina >> charcoal
c) Charcoal >> cellulose >> alumina >> starch
d) Calcium carbonate >>; alumina >> starch >> cellulose
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> charcoal >> alumina is the correct order of
increasing adsorption tendencies.
3. What is the factor responsible for the separation in column chromatography?
a) Polarity differences between the solvent
b) Polarity differences between the solute
c) Polarity indifference between the solvent
d) Polarity indifference between the solute
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Polarity differences between the solute molecules are responsible for the separation in
column chromatography.
a) The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
b) The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
c) The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
d) All of the mentioned option
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
5. The correct order of increasing strength of adsorption is
a) Alkanes >> Esters >> Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones
b) Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes
c) Aldehydes >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes >> Phenols
d) Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >> Aldehydes >> Phenols
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: the correct order increasing strength of adsorption is: Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >>
Aldehydes >> Phenols.
6. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of
a) Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
b) Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
c) Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
d) Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of
increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.
7. The elution power of a solvent is determined by
a) Its overall polarity
b) The polarity of the stationary phase
c) The nature of the sample components
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The elution power of a solvent is determined by its overall polarity, the polarity of the
stationary phase and the nature of the sample components.
8. Which of the following is separated through column chromatography?
a) Chlorophyll and carotenoids
b) Inorganic cations or complexes
c) Sugar derivatives
d) Amino acids formed by hydrolysis of a protein molecule
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main application of column chromatography is to separate plant pigment (Chlorophyll
and carotenoids).
9. The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in the elution ratio of
a) 1:2
b) 1:5
c) 1:9
d) 1 : 12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in the elution ratio of 1:9 (V/V).
10. Chloroform fraction is eluted from the column by passing chloroform through the column which
acts as
a) Eluter
b) Eluant
c) Elution
d) None of the mentioned option
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chloroform fraction is eluted from the column by passing chloroform through the column
which acts as eluant. The eluate is the mobile phase leaving the column. The eluent is the solvent that
carries the analyte.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Thin Layer Chromatography
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Thin Layer
Chromatography”.
1. The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the
a) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees
b) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
c) Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
d) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thin layer chromatography is based on the fact that different compounds are adsorbed on
an adsorbent to different degrees. It is a chromatography technique used to separate non-volatile
mixtures.
2. The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about
a) 0.1 mm
b) 0.2 mm
c) 0.3 mm
d) 0.4 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about 0.2 mm. TLC plates are usually commercially
available, with standard particle size ranges to improve reproducibility.
3. The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of
a) Glass
b) Wood
c) Fibre
d) Metal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of glass. TLC plates are
usually commercially available, with standard particle size ranges to improve reproducibility. They are
prepared by mixing the adsorbent, such as silica gel, with a small amount of inert binder like calcium
sulfate (gypsum) and water.
4. The eluant filled in the closed jar is
a) Mixture of gases
b) Mixture of a liquid and a gas

c) Mixture of solids
d) Mixture of liquids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The eluant filled in the closed jar is liquid or mixture of liquids.
a) The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes
b) These spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light
c) These spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are correct. The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the
eyes, can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light and can be detected by placing the
plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
6. The relative adsorption of each components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its
a) Acceleration factor
b) Retardation factor
c) Both acceleration and retardation factor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relative adsorption of each components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its
retardation factor (Rf).
7. Select the correct statement from the following.
a) Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography
b) A special quality paper is used in paper chromatography
c) Chromatography paper contains water trapped in it, which acts as stationary phase
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography. A special quality paper is

used in paper chromatography which contains water trapped in it, which acts as stationary phase.
8. Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin solution is an example of
a) Column chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Paper chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin solution is an example of paper
chromatography. Paper chromatography is an analytical method that is used to separate colored
chemicals or substances.
9. Paper chromatography is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture

between stationary and mobile phases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Paper chromatography is based on a continuous differential partitioning of components of

a mixture between stationary and mobile phases. It is an analytical method that is used to separate
colored chemicals or substances.
10. Retardation factor is the ratio of
a) Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
b) Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
c) Distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
d) Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Retardation factor is the ratio of distance moved by substance from base line to distance
moved by the solvent from base line.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Chromatography Applications
“Chromatography Applications”.
1. What are the uses of partition chromatography?
a) Separation of amino acids
b) Analysis of closely related aliphatic alcohols

c) Separation of sugar derivatives
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The uses of partition chromatography are separation of amino acids, analysis of closely
related aliphatic alcohols and separation of sugar derivatives.
2. Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis?
a) Column chromatography
b) Paper chromatography
c) Partition chromatography
d) Affinity chromatography
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paper chromatography is used for the structural analysis. Paper chromatography is an
analytical method that is used to separate colored chemicals or substances.
3. Which of the following is not done using column chromatography?
a) The identification of unknown compounds
b) The determination of homogeneity of chemical substances
c) Separation of inorganic cations or complexes
d) Separation of geometric isomers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Separation of inorganic cations or complexes is done using paper chromatography. Column
chromatography is a method used to purify individual chemical compounds from mixtures of
compounds.
4. Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of
a) Insoluble starch substances
b) Enzyme tyrosinase
c) Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of insoluble starch
substances, enzyme tyrosinase and antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose
column.
5. Purification of enzymes and proteins is done using
a) Affinity chromatography
b) Liquid chromatography
c) Column chromatography
d) Thin layer chromatography
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the purification of enzymes and proteins. Affinity
chromatography is also used for the analysis and isolation of insoluble starch substances, enzyme
tyrosinase and antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column.
6. Which of the following is not an application of high performance liquid chromatography?
a) Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
b) Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
c) Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
d) Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Elimination of undesirable substances from blood is done using affinity chromatography. All
the other options are the application of high performance liquid chromatography.
7. The checking of purity of samples is the application of thin layer chromatography.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The checking of purity of samples is the application of thin layer chromatography. It is a
chromatography technique used to separate non-volatile mixtures.
8. The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using
a) Thin layer chromatography
b) Gas chromatography
c) Ion exchange chromatography
d) Partition chromatography
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is
done using gas chromatography. It is a common type of chromatography used in analytical chemistry for
separating and analyzing compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition.
9. Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography?
a) The softening of hard water
b) The demineralisation of water
c) The separation and determination of anions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application of ion exchange chromatography are: softening of hard water,
demineralisation of water and the separation and determination of anions.
10. The quantitative analysis is done using
a) Ion exchange chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Gas chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gas chromatography is used for the quantitative analysis. It is a common type of
chromatography used in analytical chemistry for separating and analyzing compounds that can be
vaporized without decomposition.
Questions & Answers on Criteria of Purity and Characterisation of Materials
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Melting Point
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Melting
Point”.
1. The purity of the compound is confirmed by
a) Its melting point and boiling point
b) Chromatographic technique
c) Spectroscopy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The purity of the compound is confirmed by its melting point and boiling point,
chromatographic technique and spectroscopy.
a) The transformation of solid to liquid is called melting and the reverse process is called freezing
b) The transformation of solid to liquid is called freezing and the reverse process is called melting
c) The transformation of liquid to solid is called melting and the reverse process is called freezing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transformation of solid to liquid is called melting and the reverse process is called
freezing.
3. The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called
a) Melting point of liquid
b) Freezing point of liquid
c) Freezing point of solid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called melting point of
solid or freezing point of liquid.
a) Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point
b) Impure sample of substance has different melting point
c) Two different pure substances have same melting points
d) Melting point serves as the criteria of purity of a solid substance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two different pure substances have different melting points. All the other options are
correct. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point and impure
sample of substance has different melting point. Melting point serves as the criteria of purity of a solid
substance.
5. When the solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium, the temperature
a) Increases gradually
b) Decreases gradually
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium, the temperature remains constant. The
heat is absorbed in changing from one state to another, so no temperature change occurs.
6. The melting point of ice is
a) 00C
b) 1000C
c) 40C
d) -40C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The melting point of ice at 1 atmosphere of pressure is very close to 0 °C (32 °F, 273.15 K);
this is also known as the ice point. In the presence of nucleating substances the freezing point of water is
the same as the melting point, but in the absence of nucleators water can supercool to −42 °C (−43.6 °F,
231 K) before freezing.
7. Molar heat of fusion is defined as
a) Energy required to melt one gram of solid
b) Energy required to melt one mole of solid
c) Energy required to melt one kilogram of solid
d) Energy required to melt ten moles of solid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Molar heat of fusion is defined as energy required to melt one mole of solid at a given
temperature. The molar heat of fusion refers to the enthalpy change per amount of substance in moles.
8. The temperature remains constant during phase change because the increased kinetic energy is used
to overcome the cohesive forces in the liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature remains constant during phase change because the increased kinetic
energy is used to overcome the cohesive forces in the liquid. The heat is absorbed in changing from one
state to another, so no temperature change occurs.
9. The molar heat of fusion (kJ/mol) of water is
a) 1.3
b) 0.84
c) 7.61
d) 6.01
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The molar heat of fusion of water is 6.01 kJ/mol. The molar heat of fusion refers to the
enthalpy change per amount of substance in moles.
10. The melting point of mercury is
a) 3570C
b) -390C
c) 00C
d) 1000C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The melting point and freezing point of mercury is 234.32 kelvins (−38.83 °C or −37.89 °F).
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Boiling Point
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Boiling
Point”.
1. On increasing the temperature of a liquid, its vapour pressure
a) Decreases
b) Remain constant
c) Increases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The vapour pressure of a liquid increases with increase in temperature. Vapour pressure or
equilibrium vapor pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by a vapor in thermodynamic equilibrium
with its condensed phases at a given temperature in a closed system.
2. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapour pressure
a) Is equal to the internal pressure
b) Is equal to the external pressure
c) Is greater than an internal pressure
d) Is lesser than an internal pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapour pressure is equal to
external pressure. The boiling point of a liquid varies depending upon the surrounding environmental
pressure.
3. The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which it boils when the external pressure is
a) 1 atm
b) 2 atm
c) 3 atm
d) 5 atm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which it boils when the external
pressure is 1 atm. The boiling point of a liquid varies depending upon the surrounding environmental
pressure.
4. If the non-volatile impurities contaminate the liquid, its boiling point gets
a) Depressed
b) Elevated
c) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the non-volatile impurities contaminate the liquid, its boiling point gets elevated. This is
one of the most important colligative property. Example: salt water boils at a higher temperature than
pure water.
5. The energy required to vaporize 1 mole of a liquid is known as
a) Molar heat of fusion

b) Molar heat of freezing
c) Molar heat of boiling
d) Molar heat of vaporisation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy required to vaporize 1 mole of a liquid is known as molar heat of vaporisation.
It is the amount of heat necessary to boil (or condense) one mole of a substance at its boiling point.
6. At 1 atm pressure, the boiling point of water is
a) 0 0C
b) 1000C
c) -1000C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The boiling point of water at 1 atm pressure is 1000C. The boiling point of a liquid varies
depending upon the surrounding environmental pressure. A liquid in a partial vacuum has a lower
boiling point than when that liquid is at atmospheric pressure.
7. The boiling point and molar heat of vaporisation is dependent on
a) Strength of the inter-molecular forces
b) Composition of the liquid compound
c) Size of the molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The boiling point and molar heat of vaporisation is dependent on the strength of the inter-
molecular forces. The boiling point of a liquid varies depending upon the surrounding environmental
pressure.
a) Methane and argon have weak dispersion forces so their boiling point is low
b) Diethyl ether has a dipole moment, and the dipole-dipole forces accounts for its moderately high
boiling point
c) Water and ethanol have strong hydrogen bonding and hence they possess high boiling point
d) Mercury has weak metallic bonding which is responsible for its low boiling point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mercury has strong metallic bonding which is responsible for its high boiling point. All the
other options are correct. Methane and argon have weak dispersion forces so their boiling point is low.
Diethyl ether has a dipole moment, and the dipole-dipole forces accounts for its moderately high boiling
point. Water and ethanol have strong hydrogen bonding and hence they possess high boiling point.
9. For a given substance, choose the correct statement.
a) ΔHfus is greater than ΔHvap
b) ΔHfus is equal to ΔHvap
c) ΔHfus is smaller than ΔHvap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a given substance, ΔHfus is smaller than ΔHvap.
10. The molar heat of vaporisation (ΔHvap) for water is
a) 40.79 kJ/mol
b) 31.0 kJ/mol
c) 59.0 kJ/mol
d) 9.2 kJ/mol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molar heat of vaporisation (ΔHvap) for water is 40.79 kJ/mol. Vapor pressures and
boiling points of substances can be affected by the presence of dissolved impurities (solutes) or other
miscible compounds, the degree of effect depending on the concentration of the impurities or other
compounds.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Particle Size Measurement
This set of Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Particle Size
Measurement”.
1. Which of the following is a method of particle size measurement?
a) Sieve analysis
b) Microscopic examination
c) Sedimentation analysis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sieve analysis, microscopic examination and sedimentation analysis are the three methods
of particle size measurement.
2. The minimum size of particle which can be separated through sieve analysis is
a) 75 microns
b) 100 microns
c) 44 microns
d) 20 microns
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum size of particle which can be separated through sieve analysis is 44 microns.
The results of sieve analysis are used to describe the properties of the aggregate and to see if it is
appropriate for various civil engineering purposes such as selecting the appropriate aggregate for
concrete mixes and asphalt mixes as well as sizing of water production well screens.
3. The instrument used for the examination of particle size ≥ 0.5 micron is
a) Microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) Telescope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The instrument used for the examination of particle size ≥ 0.5 micron is a microscope.
Microscope is an optical instrument used for viewing very small objects.
4. Sedimentation techniques are particularly useful for the particle size ranging from
a) 50-10 µm
b) 40-2 µm
c) 100-50 µm
d) 80-40µm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sedimentation techniques are particularly useful for the particle size ranging from 40-2 µm.
5. Sedimentation analysis is generally applicable to liquid dispersions containing _______________ %

solids.
a) 5-10
b) 1-3
c) 2-5
d) 4-8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sedimentation analysis is generally applicable to liquid dispersions containing 2-5% solids. It
is particularly useful for the particle size ranging from 40-2 µm.
a) In the Coulter counter, a narrow orifice is immersed in an electrolyte
b) The resistance across the orifice is continuously noted on an oscilloscope
c) The pulses occurring on the oscilloscope are counted electronically
d) The magnitude of the pulse is inversely proportional to the volume of the electrolyte displaced
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The magnitude of the pulse is directly proportional to the volume of the electrolyte
displaced and therefore to the volume of the particle. All the other options are correct.
7. The current generated in photoelectric cell represents the measure of the
a) Turbidity
b) Adhesivity
c) Cohesivity
d) Viscosity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The current generated in photoelectric cell represents the measure of the turbidity of the
suspension. Turbidity is the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large numbers of individual
particles that are generally invisible to the naked eye. It is the capacity of water to disperse the light.
8. Adsorption method for measurement of total surface area involves the evaluation of quantity of
a) Helium gas
b) Oxygen gas
c) Nitrogen gas
d) Argon gas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Adsorption method for measurement of total surface area involves the evaluation of
quantity of nitrogen gas.
9. In photo-extinction method, a source of light is directed through a suspension of
a) Kerosene in cement
b) Cement in kerosene
c) Cement in water
d) Water in cement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In photo-extinction method, a source of light is directed through a suspension of cement in

kerosene on to a photoelectric cell.
10. Fibrous fillers have a high capacity for absorbing energy because of their
a) Shape
b) Size
c) Composition
d) Surface area
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fibrous fillers have a high capacity for absorbing energy because of their shape. As a result,
they impart excellent impart strength to the material.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – B. E. T. Adsorption Isotherm
This set of Engineering Chemistry Problems focuses on ” B. E. T. Adsorption Isotherm”.
1. The B.E.T. theory was proposed in the year
a) 1940
b) 1935
c) 1938
d) 1945
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brunauer, Emmett and Teller proposed a theory in 1938 which is known as B.E.T. theory.
2. The B.E.T. theory was based on the
a) Single layer adsorption

b) Multilayer adsorption
c) Double layer adsorption
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The B.E.T. theory was based on the multilayer adsorption. It aims to explain the physical
adsorption of gas molecules on a solid surface and serves as the basis for an important analysis
technique for the measurement of the specific surface area of a material.
3. Which of the following is an assumption for B.E.T theory?
a) The solid surface possess uniform, localised sites
b) The adsorption at one site does not affect adsorption at neighbouring site
c) Physical adsorption of adsorbate occurs resulting in the formation of multilayers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The assumptions for B.E.T theory are – the solid surface possess uniform, localised sites,
the adsorption at one site does not affect adsorption at neighbouring site and physical adsorption of
adsorbate occurs resulting in formation of multilayers, etc.
4. The energy of adsorption in the first layer is
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy of adsorption in the first layer is constant. It aims to explain the physical
adsorption of gas molecules on a solid surface and serves as the basis for an important analysis
technique for the measurement of the specific surface area of a material.
5. The surface area available for the nth layer is equal to the coverage of
a) (n-1)th layer
b) (n+1)th layer
c) nth layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The surface area available for the nth layer is equal to the coverage of (n-1)th layer. By
application of the BET theory, it is possible to determine the inner surface of hardened cement paste.
6. In the B.E.T. equation, what does p0 denotes?
a) Pressure of the gas molecules
b) Unsaturated vapor pressure of the gas molecules
c) Saturated vapor pressure of the gas molecules
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the B.E.T. equation, p0 denotes the saturated vapour pressure of the gas molecules at
the same temperature.
7. According to B.E.T. equation, the plot of P/V(P0-P) versus P/P0 will yield a
a) Straight line
b) Parabola
c) Hyperbola
d) Eclipse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to B.E.T. equation, the plot of P/V(P0-P) versus P/P0 will yield a straight line. By
8. The B.E.T. theory is used in calculating the
a) Surface area of adsorbate
b) Surface area of adsorbent only
c) Surface area of adsorbents and catalyst
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The B.E.T. theory is used in calculating the surface area of adsorbents and catalyst. By
9. The surface area occupied by a single gas molecule is inversely proportional to the
a) Molar mass of the gas adsorbed
b) Density of the liquefied gas

c) Volume of the gas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The surface area occupied by a single gas molecule is inversely proportional to the density
of the liquefied gas. Porous inorganic materials such as mesoporous silica and layered clay minerals have
high surface areas of several hundred m2g−1 calculated by the BET method.
10. The total surface area covered by all the molecules of the adsorbed gas is given by
a) S = nβ/NA
b) S = βNA/n
c) S = nβNA
d) S = NA/nβ
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total surface area covered by all the molecules of the adsorbed gas is given by S =
nβNA. The surface area occupied by a single gas molecule is inversely proportional to the density of the
liquefied gas.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Conductivity
“Conductivity”.
1. Conductivity is defined as the ability to carry
a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Current
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conductivity is defined as the ability to carry current. It is measured by the flow of
electrons and charges through a conductor.
2. The reciprocal of conductivity is
a) Viscosity
b) Resistivity
c) Turbidity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reciprocal of conductivity is resistivity. It is the measure of resistance provided in the
path of electrons.
3. Which of the following is specific conductivity reagent?
a) KCl
b) HCl
c) NaCl
d) MgCl2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: KCl is a specific conductivity reagent. Specific conductance is a measure of the electric
current in the water sampled carried by the ionized substances.
4. The internationally recommended unit for conductance is
a) Poise
b) Dyne
c) Ohm
d) Siemens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The internationally recommended unit for conductance is Siemens (S). 1 siemen = 1 ohm-1
5. The cell constant is defined as the ratio of
a) Area of either electrodes to the length between the electrodes
b) Length between the electrodes to the area of either electrodes
c) Length between the electrodes to the volume of either electrode
d) Resistivity to conductivity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cell constant is defined as the ratio of length between the electrodes to the area of
either electrodes. It only depends upon the physical dimension of the cell.
6. Choose the correct order of molar ionic conductivities of the following ions.
a) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
b) Li+ < K+ < Rb+ < Na+
c) Li+ < Na+ < Rb+ < K+
d) Li+ < Rb+ < Na+ < K+
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: the correct order of molar ionic conductivity is- Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+.
7. On which factor does the conductance of electrolytic solution depends?
a) Temperature and pressure
b) Number of charge carriers
c) Dielectric constant of the solvent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The factors on which conductance of electrolytic solution depends are- Temperature,
pressure, number of charge carriers and dielectric constant of the solvent.
8. On dilution, the specific conductance
a) Increases
b) Remains same
c) Decreases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On dilution, the specific conductance decreases because dilution decreases the
concentration of the solution.
9. The equivalent conductance of 0.1 H2SO4offering a resistance of 50ohms when placed in a

conductivity cell whose electrodes are 1cm apart with a cross-sectional area of 2cm2 at 250C is
a) 100 S cm2 eq-1
b) 1000 S cm2 eq-1
c) 10 S cm2 eq-1
d) 1 S cm2 eq-1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equivalent molar conductance is 100 S cm2 eq-1.
Conductivity = Conductance * cell constant
Cell constant = Length / Area
10. Dilution means an increase in the amount of
a) Solute
b) Solvent
c) Electrolyte
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dilution means an increase in the amount of solvent and hence it decreases the
concentration of solute particles.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Viscosity
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Viscosity”.
1. According to Newton’s law of viscosity, the maximum velocity of flow is at
a) Top of the tube
b) Bottom of the tube
c) Middle of the tube
d) It is same at all the places
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Newton’s law of viscosity, the maximum velocity of flow is at the middle of
the tube. It states that for a given shear stress acting on a fluid element, the rate at which the fluid
deforms is inversely proportional to the viscosity.
2. The factor on which viscosity depends is
a) Area of contact of two adjacent layers
b) Velocity difference between two adjacent layers
c) The distance between two adjacent layers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The factors on which viscosity depends are- Area of contact of two adjacent layers, velocity
difference between two adjacent layers and the distance between two adjacent layers.
3. The viscosity of a fluid is inversely proportional to the
a) Area of contact of two adjacent layers
b) Distance between two adjacent layers
c) Velocity difference between two adjacent layers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The viscosity of a fluid is inversely proportional to the distance between two adjacent
layers.
4. The Newton’s law of viscosity is not applicable to
a) Turbulent flow
b) Laminar flow
c) Streamline flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Newton’s law of viscosity is not applicable to turbulent flow. According to Newton’s
law of viscosity, for a given shear stress acting on a fluid element, the rate at which the fluid deforms is
inversely proportional to the viscosity.
5. What is the dimension of viscosity?
a) MLT2
b) M1L-1T
c) ML-1T-1
d) ML-2T1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The dimension of viscosity is ML-1T-1. It’s unit is m2/s or stokes.
6. The absolute kinematic viscosity is the ratio of
a) Density to absolute viscosity
b) Absolute viscosity to density
c) Kinetic energy to absolute viscosity
d) Absolute viscosity to kinetic energy

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The absolute kinematic viscosity is the ratio of absolute viscosity to density for any fluid.
7. On increasing the temperature, the viscosity of the fluid
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: On increasing the temperature, the viscosity of the fluid decreases. This is because of the
decrease in inter-molecular forces.
8. How does viscosity gets affected on increasing the pressure?
a) Viscosity increases
b) Viscosity decreases
c) Viscosity does not get affected by the pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At high pressures, the viscosity increases considerably. Zero viscosity is observed only at
very low temperatures in superfluids.
a) Viscosity helps in the selection of good lubricating oil
b) Light oils have low densities and easy flowability
c) Heavy oils are used on parts moving with high speed
d) Light oils do not impose much drag on high-speed parts
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy oils are used on parts moving with slow speed under heavy loads. All the other
options are correct. Viscosity helps in the selection of good lubricating oil, light oils have low densities
and easy flowability and do not impose much drag on high-speed parts.
10. 1 poise =
a) 10 N sm-2
b) 100 N sm-2
c) 1/100 N sm-2
d) 1/10 N sm-2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 poise = 1 dyne s cm-2 = 1/10 N s m-2
Questions on Absorption Spectroscopy
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Origin of spectrum
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Origin of
Spectrum”.
1. The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is

called
a) Kaleidoscopy
b) Astronomy
c) Spectroscopy
d) Anatomy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is
called spectroscopy. Astronomy, is the study of celestial objects and processes the physics, chemistry,
and evolution of such objects and processes. A kaleidoscope is an optical instrument, typically a cylinder
with mirrors containing loose, colored objects such as beads or pebbles and bits of glass. Anatomy is the
branch of biology concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts.
2. The energy level with lower energy is called
a) Ground state energy level
b) Initial state energy level
c) Excited state energy level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lower energy level is called ground state and the higher energy level is called excited
state. The excited state of a system (such as an atom, molecule or nucleus) is any quantum state of the
system that has a higher energy than the ground state.
3. Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from

a) Higher energy level to a lower one
b) Lower energy level to a higher one
c) Intermediate levels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from
lower energy level to a higher one.
4. The energy of a photon is given by
a) h/ν
b) ν/h
c) 1/hν
d) hν
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy of a photon is given by hν where ν is the frequency and h is plank constant.
a) Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from excited
state to the ground state
b) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy hν
c) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the absorption of a photon of energy hν
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy
hν. All the other options are correct. Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes
a transition from excited state to the ground state.
6. The spectra can be broadly classified into two categories. They are
a) Atomic and molecular spectra
b) Atomic and electronic spectra
c) Molecular and electronic spectra
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The spectra can be broadly classified into two categories: atomic and molecular spectra.
Atomic spectra is the spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed during
transitions of electrons between energy levels within an atom. Molecular spectra arises from the
transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels.
7. In atomic spectroscopy, only electronic transitions are involved.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In atomic spectroscopy, only electronic transitions are involved. It is the spectrum of
frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed during transitions of electrons between
energy levels within an atom.
a) Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels
b) In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs
c) Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy
levels. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs and molecular
spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra.
9. The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that
a) hν should be greater than the energy difference
b) hν should be smaller than the energy difference
c) hν should be equal to the energy difference
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that hν should be equal to the energy
difference(ΔE = Ee – Eg).
10. Spectroscopy deals with the transition that a molecule undergoes on the absorption of suitable
radiations determined by quantum mechanical selection rules.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spectroscopy deals with the transition that a molecule undergoes on the absorption of
suitable radiations determined by quantum mechanical selection rules. The spectra can be broadly
classified into two categories: atomic and molecular spectra.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Molecular Spectroscopy
Spectroscopy”.
1. The different types of energies associated with a molecule are
a) Electronic energy
b) Vibrational energy
c) Rotational energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The different types of energies associated with a molecule are electronic energy,
vibrational energy, rotational energy and translational energy.
2. During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule possess
a) Electronic energy
b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy
d) Vibrational energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule possess
translational energy. Translational refers to the movement in horizontal or vertical direction.
3. The correct order of different types of energies is
a) Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr
b) Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> E tr
c) Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> E rot
d) Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> E el
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct order is: Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr. Electronic enrgy is the highest whereas
translational energy is the lowest.
4. The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is
a) Microwave
b) Radio frequency
c) Infrared
d) UV-rays
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is radio frequency.
5. Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?
a) Structural investigation
b) Basis of understanding of colors
c) Study of energetically excited reaction products
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The various applications of molecular spectroscopy are- Structural investigation, basis of
understanding of colors and study of energetically excited reaction products.
a) Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods
b) Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods
c) Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
d) Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
(1 mg).
7. The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are less reliable, less reproducible and incorrect than
classical methods.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are reliable, reproducible and correct than
classical methods.
8. The transition zone for Raman spectra is
a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
b) Between electronic levels
c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transition zone for Raman spectra is between vibrational and rotational levels. Raman
spectroscopy is a spectroscopic technique used to observe vibrational, rotational, and other low-
frequency modes in a system.
9. The criteria for electronic spin resonance is
a) Periodic change in polarisability
b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
d) Presence of chromophore in a molecule
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The criterion for electronic spin resonance is presence of unpaired electron in a molecule.
This spectroscopy is a method for studying materials with unpaired electrons.
10. Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic analysis because sample is not chemically affected.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic analysis because sample is not chemically
affected.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Electronic Spectroscopy
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Electronic
Spectroscopy”.
1. The electronic spectra in the visible range span
a) 25000-72000 cm-1
b) 25000-50000 cm-1
c) 12500-25000 cm-1
d) 15000-30000 cm-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The electronic spectra in the visible range span 12500-25000 cm-1 and in the UV region
span 25000-72000 cm-1.
2. Which of the following transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible region?
a) n→n*
b) σ→σ*
c) π→π*
d) n→σ*
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: n→n* transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible region.
3. Arrange the various electronic transitions in the order of increasing energy.
a) n→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < σ→σ*
b) n→π* < π→π* < n→σ* < σ→σ*
c) n→σ* < n→π* < π→π* < σ→σ*
d) σ→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < n→σ*
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The correct order is- n→π* < π→π* < n→σ* < σ→σ*.
4. What is the position of the band of alkanes?
a) 190 nm
b) 185 nm
c) 217 nm
d) 150 nm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The position of the band of alkanes is ≈150 nm. Alkanes refer to any of the series of
saturated hydrocarbons including methane, ethane, propane, and higher members.
5. Which of the following organic compound shows transition due to conjugation?
a) Alkenes
b) Saturated aliphatic ketones
c) Conjugated dienes
d) Alkanes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conjugated dienes shows the transitions of low energy and is due to conjugation.
6. Which of the following is not an auxochrome group?
a) –OH
b) –SH
c) –OR
d) –O2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Auxochrome is the color enhancing group. –O2 is not an example of auxochrome. -OH, -SH
and -OR are the examples of auxochrome.
7. Which of the following shift leads to the decreased intensity of absorption?
a) Hypochromic
b) Hyperchromic
c) Hypsochromic
d) Bathochromic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hypochromic shift leads to the decreased intensity of absorption. Hypochromicity describes
a material’s decreasing ability to absorb light. Hyperchromicity is the material’s increasing ability to
absorb light.
8. Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?
a) Detection of impurities
b) Control of purification
c) Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Detection of impurities, control of purification, study of the kinetics of the chemical
reaction, determination of molecular weight and determination of unknown concentration are the
applications of electronic spectroscopy.
9. What will be the absorbance if %T= 80?
a) 0.5
b) 0.05
c) 0.097
d) 0.97
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorbance (A) = log(1/T) = log(100/80) = 0.097
10. Which of the following is a limitation of the Lambert-Beer’s law?
a) Scattering of light due to particles
b) Fluorescence of sample
c) Non-monochromatic radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scattering of light due to particles, fluorescence of the sample and non-monochromatic
radiation are some of the limitations of Lambert-Beer’s law. It relates the attenuation of light to the
properties of the material through which the light is traveling.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Vibrational Spectroscopy
This set of Engineering Chemistry Online test focuses on “Vibrational Spectroscopy”.
1. Vibrational spectroscopy involves the transitions falling in the spectral range of
a) 100-1000 cm-1
b) 300-3000 cm-1
c) 400-4000 cm-1
d) 500-5000 cm-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vibrational spectroscopy involves the transitions falling in the spectral range of 400-4000
cm-1 (infrared region).
2. Which of the region of IR spectra appears between (1400-600) cm-1?
a) Functional group region
b) Fingerprint region
c) Low-frequency region
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fingerprint region of IR spectra appears between (1400-600) cm-1.
a) Infrared spectra can identify the unknown materials
b) It can determine the amount of components in a mixture
c) It can also determine the quality of a sample
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Infrared spectra can identify the unknown materials. It can determine the amount of
components in a mixture and can also determine the quality of a sample.
4. Which of the following molecule have infrared active vibrations?
a) NO
b) CH4
c) H2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NO molecule have infrared active vibrations. Infrared spectra can identify the unknown
materials. It can determine the amount of components in a mixture and can also determine the quality
of a sample.
5. Which of the following cannot show a vibrational absorption spectrum?
a) OCS
b) H2O
c) CO 2
d) C H2 = C H2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C H2 = C H2 cannot show vibrational absorption spectrum. OCS, H2O and CO 2 can show a
vibrational absorption spectrum.
6. Which of the following is not a type of bending molecular vibration?
a) Twisting
b) Stretching
c) Wagging
d) Rocking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stretching is not a type of bending molecular vibration. Twisting, wagging and rocking are
types of bending molecular vibration.
7. What is the absorption frequency(cm-1) of –C=N functional group?
a) 3610-3640
b) 1690-1760
c) 1180-1360
d) 2850-2960
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The absorption frequency for –C=N group is 1180-1360 cm-1. Absorption spectroscopy
refers to spectroscopic techniques that measure the absorption of radiation, as a function of frequency
or wavelength, due to its interaction with a sample.
8. Presence of a functional group in a compound can be established by using
a) Chromatography
b) IR spectroscopy
c) Mass spectroscopy
d) X-ray diffraction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Presence of a functional group in a compound can be established by using IR spectroscopy.
It is the spectroscopy that deals with the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum, that is light
with a longer wavelength and lower frequency than visible light.
9. Select the incorrect option from the following option.
a) IR spectroscopy helps in determination of purity
b) IR spectroscopy helps in determination of force constant from vibrational spectrum
c) IR spectroscopy helps in identifying an unknown compound
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are correct. IR spectroscopy helps in determination of purity, force constant
from the vibrational spectrum and identifying an unknown compound.
10. IR spectroscopy helps in detecting the presence of hydrogen bonding.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IR spectroscopy helps in detecting the presence of hydrogen bonding. It is the spectroscopy
that deals with the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum, that is light with a longer
wavelength and lower frequency than visible light.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Nuclear
Magnetic Resonance”.
1. The nuclei with a spin quantum number greater than _______ can exhibit the NMR
phenomenon.
a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) -5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclei with a spin quantum number greater than zero can exhibit the NMR
phenomenon. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, NMR spectroscopy, is a research technique
that exploits the magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei.
2. The number of different orientations which a magnetic nucleus can take is
a) 2I
b) 2I-1
c) 2I+1
d) 4I
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of different orientations which a magnetic nucleus can take is 2I+1.
3. Number of NMR signals obtained in CH3COCH3 will be
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of NMR signals obtained in CH3COCH3 will be 1. Nuclear magnetic resonance
spectroscopy, is a research technique that exploits the magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei.
4. Propene as well as 2-Butene(cis) will show equal number of signals in their NMR spectra.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Propene as well as 2-Butene(cis) will not show equal number of signals in their NMR
spectra.
a) TMS stands for tetra methyl silane
b) All the hydrogen in TMS have the same chemical shift
c) TMS has a high boiling point, so it is not easily lost when holding the NMR sample
d) TMS is relatively unreactive with most functional groups
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TMS has a low boiling point so it can be easily removed from a recoverable sample of an
organic compound. All the other options are correct. TMS is relatively unreactive with most functional
groups.
6. The NMR spectra of the functional isomers of the molecular formula C2H6O show _________
and _________ signals respectively.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 4
d) 1, 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The NMR spectra of the functional isomers of the molecular formula C2H6O show one and
three signals respectively.
7. The number of signals in 1-propanol are _________ while those in 2-propanol are ______
a) 4, 3
b) 4, 2
c) 2, 4
d) 3, 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of signals in 1-propanol are 4 while those in 2-propanol are 3.
8. For NMR spectrum, carbon tetrachloride and water can be successfully used as a solvent.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the NMR spectrum, carbon tetra-chloride and water can be successfully used as
solvent. NMR is routinely used in advanced medical imaging techniques, such as in magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI).
9. In how many ways –CH3 protons can couple with the protons on adjacent carbon atom relative
to the external field.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In four ways –CH3 protons can couple with the protons on adjacent carbon atom relative to
the external field.
10. Which of the following is inversely proportional to the chemical shifts positions (δ)?
a) Frequency of unknown group of protons
b) Frequency of TMS
c) Operating frequency of the instrument
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Operating frequency of the instrument is inversely proportional to the chemical shifts
positions (δ).
Questions & Answers on Reactivity of Molecules Reaction Mechanism
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Inductive Effect
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Inductive
Effect”.
1. Electronegativity is defined as the power of an atom in a molecule to
a) Repel electrons towards itself
b) Attract electrons towards itself
c) Expand itself
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electronegativity is defined as the power of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons

towards itself. Fluorine is the most electronegative element.
2. The factors on which electronegativity depends upon
a) Valence state of atom
b) Hybridisation
c) Both valence state and hybridisation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The factors on which electronegativity depends upon is valence state of atom and
hybridisation.
3. How does the electronegativiy gets affected with the negative oxidation state?
a) It decreases
b) It increases
c) It remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronegativity decreases with the negative oxidation state since the tendency to attract
an electron will decrease with the negative charge of the anion.
4. The electronegativity of sp2 hybridised atom will be
a) 3.29
b) 2.48
c) 3.69
d) 2.75
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The electronegativity of sp2 hybridised atom will be 2.75. Fluorine is the most
electronegative element.
5. Which of the following is a permanent electron displacement effect?
a) Inductomeric
b) Electromeric
c) Inductive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Inductive effect is the permanent electron displacement effect and inductomeric and
electromeric are temporary electron displacement effect.
6. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing (+I) effect.
a) C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > CHR2 > H
b) C6H5O– > H > CR3 > CHR2 > COO–
c) CR3 > C6H5O– > H > COO– > CHR2

d) C6H5O– > COO– > CHR2 > CR3 > H
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct order is- C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > CHR2 > H.
7. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing (-I) effect.
a) CN > F > Br > Cl > COOH > I > H
b) COOH > CN > F > Br > Cl > I > H
c) H > COOH > CN > I > Cl > F > Cl
d) CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br > I > H
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct order is- CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br > I > H.
8. Which of the following is an application of inductive effect?
a) Bond length
b) Dipole moment
c) Strength of carboxylic acids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bond length, dipole moment and strength of carboxylic acids are some of the applications
of inductive effect.
9. Relative basic strength of amines does not depend upon
a) Inductive effect
b) Mesomeric effect
c) Steric effect
d) Stabilisation of cation by hydration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Relative basic strength of amines does not depend upon mesomeric effect. This effect is
used in a qualitative way and describes the electron withdrawing or releasing properties of substituents
based on relevant resonance structures.
10. Due to presence of C – X polar bond in alkyl halide, alkyl halides are
a) More reactive than corresponding alkane
b) Less reactive than corresponding alkane
c) Equally reactive as corresponding alkane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to presence of C – X polar bond in alkyl halide, alkyl halides are more reactive than
corresponding alkane.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Electromeric Effect
“Electromeric Effect”.
1. Which of the following is a temporary effect brought into play at the requirement of attacking
reagent?
a) Inductive effect
b) Mesomeric effect
c) Electromeric effect
d) Inductomeric effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electromeric effect is a temporary effect brought into play at the requirement of attacking
reagent. Electromeric effect refers to a molecular polarizability effect occurring by an intra-molecular
electron displacement.
2. Select the correct statement from the following option
a) When multiple bonds are present between two different atoms, electromeric shift towards the
more electronegative atom takes place
b) When multiple bonds are present between two similar atoms, the first possibility is symmetric
alkenes or alkynes
c) When multiple bonds are present between two similar atoms, the second possibility is
asymmetric alkenes or alkynes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When multiple bonds are present between two different atoms, electromeric shift towards
the more electronegative atom takes place. When multiple bonds are present between two similar
atoms, the first possibility is symmetric alkenes or alkyne and the second possibility is asymmetric
alkenes or alkynes.
a) Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect
b) Conjugate effect is weaker than (-I) effect
c) Conjugate effect is same as (-I) effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect. Conjugate effect (or delocalization) is an effect
in which molecular orbitals (MOs) are conjugated to new molecular orbitals that are more delocalized
and therefore generally lower in energy.
4. When the complete transfer of π-electrons take place away from the atom at the requirement
of attacking agent, it is called
a) (-E) effect
b) (+E) effect
c) (-I) effect
d) (+I) effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the complete transfer of π-electrons take place away from the atom at the
requirement of attacking agent, it is called (+E) effect.
5. The positively charged and electron deficient compounds which have a tendency to form a bond
by accepting the electron pair are known as
a) Electrophiles
b) Nucleophiles
c) Homophiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The positively charged and electron deficient compounds which have a tendency to form a
bond by accepting the electron pair are known as electrophiles.
6. Which of the following is an example of lewis base?
a) ZnCl2
b) BF3
c) NH3
d) FeCl2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NH3 is an example of lewis base and ZnCl2, BF3 and FeCl2 are the examples of lewis acid.
7. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the nucleophiles?
a) They are electron rich
b) They possess an empty orbital to receive the electron pair
c) They attack electron deficient centres
d) Examples are: OH–, NH3, H2O etc
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nucleophiles possess an unshared electron pair which is not firmly held to the nucleus. All
the other options are correct. They are electron rich and attack on electron deficient centres. Examples
are: OH–, NH3, H2O etc.
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8. Lewis acids are the examples of nucleophilic reagents.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lewis acids are the examples of electrophilic reagents and Lewis bases are the examples of
nucleophilic reagents.
9. Those groups which are electron repelling and have lesser electron attracting power than
hydrogen show
a) (+E) effect
b) (-E) effect
c) (-I) effect
d) (+I) effect
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Those groups which are electron repelling and have lesser electron attracting power than
hydrogen show (+I) effect.
10. Which of the following molecule will show highest dipole moment?
a) CH3Cl
b) CH3Br
c) CH3F
d) CH3I
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CH3F will show the highest dipole moment because it is the most electronegative
compound.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Mesomeric Effect
This set of Engineering Chemistry online quiz focuses on “Mesomeric Effect”.
1. In mesomeric effect, the electrons are transferred from
a) A multiple bonds to an atom
b) A multiple bonds to a single covalent bond
c) An atom with a lone pair to the adjacent single covalent bond
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In mesomeric effect, the electrons are transferred from a multiple bonds to an atom, a
multiple bond to a single covalent bond and an atom with the lone pair to the adjacent single covalent
bond.
2. Which of the following is a resonance effect?
a) Inductive effect
c) Mesomeric effect
d) Inductomeric effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mesomeric effect is also known as resonance effect. The mesomeric effect is a permanent
effect and operates in compounds containing at least one double bond.
3. The phenomenon in which 2 or more structures, involving identical position of atoms can be
written for a particular molecule, is called
a) Conjugation
b) Resonance
c) Hyper conjugation
d) Vibration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The phenomenon in which 2 or more structures, involving identical position of atoms can
be written for a particular molecule, is called resonance. The mesomeric effect is a permanent effect
and operates in compounds containing at least one double bond.
4. Select the incorrect option from the following option.
a) Resonating structures have a real existence
b) The actual structure lies between various possible resonating structures
c) Resonating structures are useful as they allow us to describe molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resonating structures have no real existence. All the other options are correct. The actual
structure lies between various possible resonating structures, resonating structures are useful as they
allow us to describe molecules.
5. The resonance energy is defined as a difference in energy between
a) Two consecutive resonating structures
b) Resonance hybrid and most unstable resonating structure
c) Resonance hybrid and most stable resonating structure
d) First and last resonating structures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The resonance energy is defined as a difference in energy between resonance hybrid and
most stable resonating structure. The resonance energy of a compound is a measure of the extra
stability of the conjugated system compared to the corresponding number of isolated double bonds.
6. Which of the following is an application of mesomeric effect?
a) Dipole moment
b) Strength of acids and bases
c) Bond length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dipole moment, strength of acids and bases and bond length are some of the applications
of mesomeric effect.
7. Dipole moment of CH3-CH2-Cl > CH2=CH-Cl.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dipole moment of CH3-CH2-Cl > CH2=CH-Cl. This is due to resonance in vinyl chloride.
a) Benzene ring has two different types of bond length for single and double bonds
b) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to hyperconjugation
c) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to resonance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to resonance. All the bond lengths are
equal in benzene ring i.e. double bond as well as single bond due to resonance.
9. Greater the number of resonating structures for a given intermediate,
a) Less will be its stability
b) More will be its stability
c) It will not affect its stability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Greater the number of resonating structures for a given intermediate, more will be its
stability. More resonating structure increases the stability.
10. Phenyl group show
a) (+M) effect
b) (+E) effect
c) (+I) effect
d) (-M) effect
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Phenyl group show (-M) effect. The phenyl group or phenyl ring is a cyclic group of atoms
with the formula C6H5.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Hyperconjugation
“Hyperconjugation”.
1. Which of the following is known as Baker-Nathan effect?
a) Mesomeric effect
b) Inductive effect
c) Hyperconjugation
d) Electromeric effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hyperconjugation is also known as Baker-Nathan effect. Hyperconjugation is the stabilising

interaction that results from the interaction of the electrons in a σ-bond (usually C-H or C-C) with an
adjacent empty or partially filled p-orbital or a π-orbital to give an extended molecular orbital that
increases the stability of the system.
2. Hyperconjugation involves the delocalisation of
a) σ bond orbital
b) π bond orbital
c) Both σ and π bond orbital
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hyperconjugation involves the delocalisation of σ bond orbital. It is the stabilising

interaction that results from the interaction of the electrons in a σ-bond (usually C-H or C-C) with an
adjacent empty or partially filled p-orbital or a π-orbital to give an extended molecular orbital that
increases the stability of the system.
3. Number of hyperconjugation structures in isopropyl radical is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Number of hyperconjugation structures in isopropyl radical is 6. Isopropyl is C3H7.
4. The resonance energy (kCal/mol) of tertiary butyl is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The resonance energy of tertiary butyl is 12 kCal/mol. It is also called tert-butanol, is the
simplest tertiary alcohol, with a formula of (CH3)3COH It is one of the four isomers of butanol.
5. Larger the number of hyperconjugation structures, the stability of free radicals will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Larger the number of hyperconjugation structures, greater will be the stability of free
radicals.
6. Which of the following is a consequence of Baker-Nathan effect?
a) It is helpful in explaining the directive influence of alkyl groups in aromatic alkyl benzene
b) It is helpful in explaining the relative stability of alkenes
c) It is helpful in explaining the relative stabilities of alkyl carbocations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Baker-Nathan effect is helpful in explaining the directive influence of alkyl groups in
aromatic alkyl benzene. It is helpful in explaining the relative stability of alkenes and relative stabilities
of alkyl carbocations.
7. On increasing the number of α-hydrogens, the number of hyperconjugation structures will
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On increasing the number of α-hydrogens, the number of hyperconjugation structures will
increase. Hyperconjugation is directly proportional to the number of α-hydrogens. α-hydrogen is the
hydrogen atom attached to the carbon which is attached to a functional group.
8. When the contributing structure contains the same number of two-electron bonds as the
normal lewis formula, it will be
a) Heterovalent hyperconjugation
b) Sacrificial hyperconjugation
c) Isovalent hyperconjugation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the contributing structure contains the same number of two-electron bonds as the
normal lewis formula, it will be isovalent hyperconjugation.
9. The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is
a) Benzene
b) Toluene
c) Nitrobenzene
d) Chlorobenzene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is toluene. Toulene contains a methyl
group with benzene ring and is a colorless, water-insoluble liquid with the smell associated with paint
thinners.
10. Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so hyperconjugation is not possible.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so hyperconjugation is not possible because the
presence of alpha hydrogen is the necessary condition for hyperconjugation.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Fission of covalent bond
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Fission of covalent
bond”.
1. A covalent bond between two atoms may be broken in different ways depending upon
a) Nature of given organic compound
b) Nature of attacking reagent
c) Reaction conditions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A covalent bond between two atoms may be broken in different ways depending upon
nature of given organic compound, nature of attacking reagent and reaction conditions.
a) Fission of covalent bond leads to the generation of intermediate organic species
b) They are stable and long-lived
c) The presence of reactive intermediates is confirmed by their detection by spectroscopic

methods
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intermediate species are unstable and short-lived. All the other options are correct.
Fission of covalent bond leads to the generation of intermediate organic species. The presence of
reactive intermediates is confirmed by their detection by spectroscopic methods.
3. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that each atom separates with one electron of
the shared pair is called
a) Homolytic fission
b) Heterolytic fission
c) Monolytic fission
d) Morpholytic fission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that each atom separates with one electron
of the shared pair is called homolytic fission. Homo refers to same and in this fission every atom has
same number of electrons.
4. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that both the electrons of shared pair are carried
away by one of atom is called
a) Morpholytic fission
b) Monolytic fission
c) Heterolytic fission
d) Homolytic fission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that both the electrons of shared pair are
carried away by one of atom is called heterolytic fission. Hetero refers to different and in this fission
every atom has different number of electrons.
5. Heterolytic fission takes place between two atoms of widely different
a) Conductivity
b) Viscosity
c) Electronegtivity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heterolytic fission takes place between two atoms of widely different electronegativity.
The more electronegative atom will not attract the electron as compared to less electronegative atom.
a) Heterolytic fission takes place generally in a polar solvent
b) Heterolytic fission takes place usually at higher temperatures
c) Cations and anions formed are generally carbon-based
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heterolytic fission takes place usually at lower temperatures. All the other options are
correct. Heterolytic fission takes place generally in a polar solvent and cations and anions formed are
generally carbon-based.
7. Which of the following is intermediate organic species based on carbon formed by homolytic
fission?
a) Carbenes
b) Carbo-cations
c) Carbanions
d) Free radicals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Free radicals are intermediate organic species based on carbon formed by homolytic
fission. Free radicals are different from cations and anions. They do not carry any charge with them.
8. Which of the following is intermediate organic species based on carbon formed by photolysis?
a) Carbenes
b) Carbo-cations
c) Carbanions
d) Free radicals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Carbenes are intermediate organic species based on carbon formed by photolysis. A
carbene is a molecule containing a neutral carbon atom with a valence of two and two unshared valence
electrons.
9. Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet carbene.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet carbene. A carbene is a molecule containing a
neutral carbon atom with a valence of two and two unshared valence electrons.
10. The shape of carbanion is
a) Linear
b) Trigonal planar
c) Pyramidal
d) Bent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of carbanion is pyramidal. A carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an
unshared pair of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with three substituents for a total of
eight valence electrons.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Carbocations
“Carbocations”.
1. Stability of free radicals can be explained on the basis of
a) Inductive effect
c) Hyperconjugation
d) Mesomeric effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stability of free radicals can be explained on the basis of hyperconjugation effect and ease
of formation.
2. The hybridisation of carbocation is
a) Sp
b) Sp2
c) Sp3
d) Sp3d
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The hybridisation of carbocation is sp2. A carbocation is molecule in which a carbon atom
bears three bonds and a positive charge.
3. Arrange the following carbocations in the order of increasing stability.
a) Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10
b) Benzyl > 10 > 20 > 30
c) 30 > 20 > 10 > Benzyl
d) 10 > 20 > 30 > Benzyl
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct stability order of carbocation is- Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10. Benzyl carbocation is the
most stable and 10 carbocation is least stable.
4. The shape of carbocation is
a) Pyramidal
b) Bent
c) Linear
d) Trigonal planar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shape of carbocation is trigonal planar. It is sp2 hybridised. A carbocation is molecule in
which a carbon atom bears three bonds and a positive charge.
5. Carbonium ions are the intermediates in which the positive charge is carried by the carbon atom
with ___________ electrons in the valence shell.
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Carbonium ions are the intermediates in which the positive charge is carried by the carbon
atom with six electrons in the valence shell. It is an organic cation in which the positive charge is located
on a carbon atom.
6. Positive charge of carbocations can be dispersed by
a) (+I) effect of alkyl group
b) Resonance in allyl or benzyl carbocation
c) Hyperconjugation in 10, 20 and 30 carbocations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive charge of carbocations can be dispersed by (+I) effect of alkyl group or by
resonance in allyl or benzyl carbocation or by hyperconjugation in 10, 20 and 30 carbocations.
7. Alkyl substitution at the carbon bearing positive charge stabilizes carbocations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkyl substitution at the carbon bearing positive charge stabilizes carbocations. Carbocation
is a molecule in which a carbon atom bears three bonds and a positive charge.
8. The formal charge at the carbocation is equal to
a) -1
b) 0
c) +1
d) +2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The formal charge at the carbocation is equal to +1. A carbocation is molecule in which a
carbon atom bears three bonds and a positive charge.
9. The homolytic bond dissociation energy is inversely proportional to the
a) Bond length
b) Ease of formation
c) Dipole moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The homolytic bond dissociation energy is inversely proportional to the ease of formation
of free radicals. Free radicals do not carry any charge.
10. Which of the following free radical has the maximum ease of formation?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) CH3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 30 free radical has the maximum ease of formation. Free radicals do not carry any charge.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Carbanions
“Carbanions”.
a) Carbanion is the intermediate compound
b) In carbanion, central carbon atom carries negative charge
c) It possess an unshared pair of electron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Carbanion is the intermediate compound in which central carbon atom carries a negative
charge and it possess the unshared pair of electron. It is an anion in which carbon has an unshared pair
of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with three substituents for a total of eight valence
electrons.
2. The hybridisation of carbanion is
a) Sp
b) Sp2
c) Sp3
d) Sp3d
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hybridisation of carbanion is sp3. A carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an
3. The formal charge at the carbanion is
a) +1
b) -1
c) 0
d) +2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formal charge at the carbanion is -1. A carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an
4. The geometry of carbanion is
a) Pyramidal
b) Linear
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal planar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The geometry of carbanion is pyramidal. A carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an
5. The structure of carbanion is pyramidal but it undergoes rapid inversion similar to those of amines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure of carbanion is pyramidal but it undergoes rapid inversion similar to those of
amines. The carbanion exists in a trigonal pyramidal geometry. Formally, a carbanion is the conjugate
base of a carbon acid.
6. Negative charge of carbanion can be dispersed by
a) (+I) effect and resonance
b) (-I) effect and resonance
c) Hyperconjugation
d) (+M) effect and resonance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Negative charge of carbanion can be dispersed by (+I) effect and resonance. A carbanion is
a nucleophile. The stability and reactivity of a carbanion is determined by several factors.
7. Which of the following carbanion is least stable?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) CH3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 30 carbanion is the least stable carbanion. The same factors that determine the stability of
the carbanion also determine the order in pKa in carbon acids.
8. Which of the following carbanion is most stable?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) CH3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CH3 carbanion is the most stable carbanion. The same factors that determine the stability
of the carbanion also determine the order in pKa in carbon acids.
9. On increasing the number of alkyl groups, the stability of carbanions
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On increasing the number of alkyl groups, the stability of carbanions decreases. The alkyl
groups have (-I) effect.
10. Due to (+I) effect, the methyl groups are electron accepting in nature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to (+I) effect, the methyl groups are electron releasing in nature. The same factors that
determine the stability of the carbanion also determine the order in pKa in carbon acids.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Nucleophillic Substitution Reaction
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Nucleophilic
Substitution Reaction”.
1. The atom which defines the structure of a family of organic compounds and their properties is
called
a) Resonating structure
b) Homologous structure
c) Functional group
d) Nucleophile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The atom which defines the structure of a family of organic compounds and their
properties is called a functional group. Functional groups are specific groups of atoms or bonds within
molecules that are responsible for the characteristic chemical reactions of those molecules.
2. The functional group in alkyl halide is
a) Hydroxyl group
b) Halogen atom
c) Inert gas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The functional group in alkyl halide is a halogen atom. Halide refers to halogen. Halogens
are a group in the periodic table consisting of five chemically related elements: fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl),
bromine (Br), iodine (I), and astatine (At).
3. The halide ion is an extremely
a) Weak base
b) Weak acid
c) Strong base
d) Strong acid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The halide ion is an extremely weak base because hydrogen halide are acidic as they
release a proton.
4. When the nucleophile :OR attacks the RX, the resultant product will be
a) R – OH
b) ROR
c) R:CN
d) RNHR
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the nucleophile :OR attacks the RX, the resultant product will be ROR. X will be
separated.
a) SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics
b) No intermediate is involved in SN2 mechanism
c) SN2 reactions are one-step reaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics and no intermediate is involved in it. So, SN2
reactions are one-step reaction.
6. The reactivity order of alkyl halides in SN2 is
a) CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30
b) CH3 X > 20 > 10 > 30
c) CH3 X > 30 > 10 > 20
d) CH3 X > 30 > 20 > 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct order of reactivity in alkyl halide is- CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30. CH3 X is most reactive
whereas 30 is least reactive.
7. SN1 reaction involves heterolysis to form the carbocation as an intermediate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SN1 reaction involves heterolysis to form the carbocation as an intermediate.
8. Which step in SN1 reaction is a slow rate determining step?
a) Attack of nucleophile
b) Formation of a racemic mixture
c) Formation of a transition state
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first step of formation of the transition state is a slow rate determining step in SN1
reaction.
9. A low concentration of nucleophile favours the
a) SN2 reaction
b) SN1 reaction
c) Both SN1 and SN1 reaction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A low concentration of nucleophile favours the SN1 reaction but high concentration of
nucleophile favours the SN2 reaction.
10. Which of the following reactions are favoured by polar aprotic solvent?
a) SN1 reactions
b) SN2 reactions
c) Both SN1 and SN1 reactions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SN1 reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents whereas SN2 reactions are favoured by
polar aprotic solvent.
11. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of leaving group in nucleophilic substitution
reaction.
a) H– > Cl– > HO– > Br– > CH3COO–
b) Cl– > Br– > HO– > H– > CH3COO–
c) Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > HO– > H–
d) HO– > CH3COO – > H– > Br– > Cl–
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct order is- Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > HO– > H–.
12. Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 is
a) SN1
b) SN2
c) SNAr
d) SNi
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 proceeds with retention of configuration via substitution
nucleophilic internal (SNi) mechanism.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Electrophillic Substitution Reaction – I
“Electrophillic Substitution Reaction – I”.
1. Which of the following is rate determining step in electrophilic substitution reaction?
a) Generation of electrophile
b) Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene ring
c) Formation of product
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene ring is a rate determining step in

electrophilic substitution reaction. It is also the slowest step of the reaction.
2. Which of the following act as a catalysis in the nitration of benzene?
a) Conc. HCl
b) Dil. HCl
c) Conc. H2SO4
d) Dil. H2SO4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conc. H2SO4 act as a catalysis in the nitration of benzene. Benzene is treated with a
mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid at a temperature not exceeding
50°C.
3. Fuming sulphuric acid is the solution of _________% SO3 in conc. H2SO4.
a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fuming sulphuric acid is the solution of 7% SO3 in conc. H2SO4. It is also called Oleum
which is produced in the contact process, where sulphur is oxidized to sulphur trioxide which is
subsequently dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid.
4. Which of the following is the necessary condition for desulphonation?
a) Remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation
b) Low concentration of water
c) High concentration of sulphonating agent
d) A large excess of fuming sulphuric acid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The necessary condition for desulphonation is- Use dilute acid, high concentration of water
and remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation.
5. Which of the following act as electrophile in halogenation?
a) Nitronium ion
b) Sulphonium ion
c) Halonium ion
d) Acylium ion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Halonium ion act as electrophile in halogenation. Nitronium ion is used in nitration.
Sulphonium ion is used in sulphonation. Acylium ion is used in acylation.
6. Aromatic bromination catalyzed by the Lewis acid thalium acetate gives
a) Para isomer
b) Ortho isomer
c) Meta isomer
d) Para and ortho isomer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aromatic bromination catalyzed by the Lewis acid thalium acetate gives only para isomer. It
is not Ortho and meta directing.
7. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in presence of a lewis acid as a catalyst to
produce alkylbenzene is known as
a) Nitration
b) Halogenation
c) Friedel-Crafts Acylation
d) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in presence of a lewis acid as a
catalyst to produce alkylbenzene is known as Friedel-Crafts Alkylation. With anhydrous ferric chloride as
a catalyst, the alkyl group attaches at the former site of the chloride ion.
8. Which of the following is not a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3?
a) Toulene
b) Isopropyl benzene
c) O-xylene
d) P-xylene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: p-xylene is not a product of reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3. Toulene, isopropyl
benzene and O-xylene are the products of such reaction.
9. The product of Friedel-Crafts Acylation reactions are
a) Alkylbenzene
b) Alkylamine
c) Arylketone
d) Halobenzene
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The product of Friedel-Crafts Acylation reactions are Arylketone. The acylated products
may easily be converted to the corresponding alkanes via Clemmensen Reduction or Wolff-Kishner
Reduction.
10. How will you convert benzene into n-propyl benzene?
a) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation
b) Friedel-Crafts Acylation
c) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation followed by clemmensen reduction
d) Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by clemmensen reduction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by clemmensen reduction of ketone will give n-propyl
benzene. Clemmensen reduction is a chemical reaction described as a reduction of ketones (or
aldehydes) to alkanes using zinc amalgam and hydrochloric acid.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Electrophillic Substitution Reaction – II
This set of Engineering Chemistry Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Electrophillic Substitution Reaction – II”.
1. An activating substituent group activates
a) Ortho position
b) Para position
c) Both ortho and para positions
d) Meta position
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An activating substituent group activates the ortho and para positions. It does not activate
the meta position.
2. A deactivating substituent group directs
a) Ortho position
b) Para position
c) Both ortho and para positions
d) Meta position
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A deactivating substituent group directs only meta position. It does not activates ortho or
para positions.
3. Which of the following is ortho-para directing group?
a) –NHCOCH3
b) –NO2
c) –CN
d) –CHO
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NHCOCH3 is ortho-para directing group. NO, CN and CHO are meta-directing groups.
4. Which of the following is meta directing group?
a) –NHCOCH3
b) –COOH
c) –OH
d) –OCH3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: -COOH is meta directing group. All the other options are ortho-para directing groups.
5. The most stable carbonium ion is
a) Methyl carbonium ion
b) 20 carbonium ion
c) 10 carbonium ion
d) 30 carbonium ion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The most stable crbonium ion is 30 carbonium ion. The least stable is primary or 10
carbonium ion.
6. Which of the following has the highest activation of benzene ring?
a) – NHCOCH3
b) –OH
c) –NH2
d) –C6H5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: –NH2 among the following has the highest activation of benzene ring. In cases where the
substituents is esters or amides, they are less activating because they form resonance structure that pull
the electron density away from the ring.
7. HBr reacts fastest with
a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
b) Propan-1-ol
c) Propan-2-ol
d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HBr reacts fastest with 2-methylpropan-2-ol. Hydrogen bromide is the diatomic molecule
and a colorless compound.
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8. The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is
a) Benzene
b) Nitrobenzene
c) Toluene
d) Chlorobenzene
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is toluene. Toulene contains CH3
group.
9. In Cannizaro reaction, two molecules of aldehydes are reacted to produce
a) Alcohol only
b) Carboxylic acid only
c) Alcohol and carboxylic acid
d) Alcohol, carboxylic acid and ketone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Cannizaro reaction, two molecules of aldehydes are reacted to produce alcohol and
carboxylic acid using a hydroxide base.
Questions on Reaction Dynamics
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Order of a Reaction
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Order of a
Reaction”.
1. Reaction kinetics deals with the study of
a) Rate of reaction
b) Mechanism of reaction
c) Factors which affects the rate of reaction

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reaction kinetics deals with the study of rate of reaction, their mechanism and the factors
which affects the rate of reaction. It specifies all the general characteristics of a chemical reaction.
2. The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which the concentration of the reactants __________
with time or the concentration of products ___________ with time.
a) Increase, increase
b) Decrease, decrease
c) Decrease, increase
d) Increase, decrease
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which the concentration of the reactants
decreases with time or the concentration of products increases with time.
3. The unit of rate of reaction is
a) Mol L-1 s-1
b) Mol L s-1
c) Mol L-1 s
d) Mol L s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of rate of reaction is Mol L-1 s-1. The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which
the concentration of the reactants decreases with time or the concentration of products increases with
time.
4. The order of the reaction can be zero, fractional or integer and it is always experimentally
determined.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The order of the reaction can be zero, fractional or integer and it is always experimentally
determined. The order of reaction with respect to a given substance is defined as the index, or
exponent, to which its concentration term in the rate equation is raised.
5. The reaction rate constant may be defined as the rate of the reaction when the concentration of
each reactants is
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Doubled the initial concentration
d) Infinite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reaction rate constant may be defined as the rate of the reaction when the
concentration of each reactants is unity. A reaction rate constant or reaction rate coefficient, k,
quantifies the rate of a chemical reaction.
6. The unit s-1 is the unit of rate constant for the reaction of the order
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The unit s-1 is the unit of rate constant for the reaction of the order zero. It quantifies the
rate of a chemical reaction.
7. The unit of rate constant for the second order reaction will be
a) s-1
b) L mol-1 s-1
c) Mol0.5 L-0.5 s-1
d) Mol L-1 s-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of rate constant for the second order reaction will be mol0.5 L-0.5 s-1.
8. What will be the order of reaction if the rate law is given by:
Rate = k [SO2]1 [SO3]-0.5
a) 1
b) 0.5
c) 2
d) -0.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The order of the reaction will be 0.5. It is given by :
Order = 1-0.5 = 0.5.
9. Order of a reaction does not give any information about the reaction mechanism.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Order of a reaction does not give any information about the reaction mechanism. It only
gives the idea of the reactant species taking part in a reaction.
10. The unit L mol-1 s-1 is the unit of rate constant for the reaction of the order
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit L mol-1 s-1 is the unit of rate constant for the reaction of the order 0.5. This is a
half-order reaction.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Molecularity of a Reaction
“Molecularity of a Reaction”.
1. Molecularity of a reaction is equal to the total number of
a) Products formed in the elementary step
b) Reactants taking part in elementary step
c) Reactants and products in the elementary step
d) Reactants and products in the final step
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Molecularity of a reaction is equal to the total number of reactants taking part in
elementary step. It is defined as the number of molecules or ions that participate in the rate
determining step.
2. The molecularity of a multi-step reaction does not make any sense.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molecularity of a multi-step reaction does not make any sense. The molecularity of
each step is different. And molecularity of one step can only be determined at a time.
3. The elementary processes with molecularity greater than ________ are not known.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The elementary processes with molecularity greater than three are not known. There is no
such reaction which has the molecularity greater than three.
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the molecularity of a reaction?
a) It is a theoretical concept
b) Each step of a multi-step reaction has a unique molecularity
c) It is equal to the total number of reactants taking part in elementary step
d) It can be zero, fractional or integer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Molecularity is always a whole number. It can be neither zero nor fractional. All the other
options are correct.
5. Which of the following factor does not effect the rate of reaction?
a) Concentration of the reactant
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Effect of catalyst
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction rate does not depend upon the pressure. It only depends upon the
concentration of the reactant, temperature and effect of catalyst.
6. The effective collisions between the reactant molecules at higher temperatures
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) First increase then decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effective collisions between the reactant molecules at higher temperatures increase.
At higher temperature randomness increases and molecules moves with faster velocity which results in
more collision between the reactants.
7. Concentration of the reactants is __________ proportional to the number of collisions and

_________ proportional to the reaction rate.
a) Directly, inversely
b) Directly, directly
c) Inversely, directly
d) Inversely, inversely
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concentration of the reactants is directly proportional to the number of collisions and also
directly proportional to the reaction rate. The more the collision, more will be the reaction rate and
hence more will be the concentration of reactants.
8. The reaction rate is greatly influenced by
a) Nature of bond in the reactant molecules
b) Strength of bond in the reactant molecules
c) Both nature and strength of the reactant molecules
d) It does not depend on either nature or strength of the reactant molecules
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction rate is greatly influenced by both nature and strength of the reactant
molecules. Reactants are the major factor that affects the rate of the reaction.
9. The reactions register an increase in rates in the presence of radiations of specific wavelengths.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reactions register an increase in rates in the presence of radiations of specific
wavelengths.
10. Select the correct option from the following option.
a) Catalyst is used to increase the rate of reaction by altering chemically during the course of
reaction
b) Catalyst is used to decrease the rate of reaction by altering chemically during the course of
reaction
c) Catalyst is used to increase the rate of reaction and remains unaltered chemically during the
course of reaction
d) Catalyst is used to decrease the rate of reaction and remains altered chemically during the
course of reaction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Catalyst is used to increase the rate of reaction and remains unaltered chemically during
the course of reaction. With a catalyst, reactions occur faster and require less activation energy. Because
catalysts are not consumed in the catalyzed reaction, they can continue to catalyze the reaction of
further quantities of reactant.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Integrated Rate Equation and Half Lives
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Integrated
Rate Equation and Half Lives”.
1. For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of
a) Temperature
b) Nature of reactants
c) Concentration of reactants
d) Effect of catalyst
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of
reactants. The rate law for a zero order reaction is R = K.
2. The half-life period of zero order reaction is directly proportional to the
a) Rate constant
b) Initial concentration of reactants
c) Final concentration of reactants
d) Concentration of products
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The half-life period of zero order reaction is directly proportional to the initial
concentration of reactants. It is given by:
t1/2 = [A0] / 2K .
3. Which of the following is not an example of zero order reaction?
a) Photochemical combination of hydrogen and chlorine
b) Decomposition of ammonia over molybdenum surface
c) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface
d) Inversion of cane sugar in the presence of mineral acids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Inversion of cane sugar in the presence of mineral acids is not an example of zero order
reaction. All the other options are the example of zero order reaction.
4. For a first order reaction, the half life period is independent of the
a) Initial concentration of the reactants
b) Final concentration of the reactants
c) Rate constant
d) Concentration of products
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a first order reaction, the half life period is independent of the initial concentration of
the reactants. t1/2 = ln2 / K .
5. The thermal decomposition of nitrogen pentaoxide in the gaseous phase is the example of
a) Zero order reaction
b) Half order reaction
c) First order reaction
d) Second order reaction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The thermal decomposition of nitrogen pentaoxide in the gaseous phase is the example of
first order reaction. A first order reaction depends on the concentration of only one reactant (a
unimolecular reaction).
6. A compound decomposes according to the first order rate law with a half life period of 30 min.
What will be the fraction of remaining compound after 120 min?
a) 0.625
b) 0.0625
c) 0.25
d) 0.025
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: k=0.693/t1/2
K= (2.303/t) log ([R0]/[Rt]).
7. In a first order reaction, the time required for the completion of 99% is _______ for its 90%
completion.
a) Same
b) Negligible
c) Thrice
d) Twice
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a first order reaction, the time required for the completion of 99% is twice for its 90%
completion. ln [A] = -kt + ln [A0].
8. In a first order reaction, the time required for the completion of 99% is _______ times the time
required for the completion of half of the reaction.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 20
d) 50
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a first order reaction, the time required for the completion of 99% is ten times the time
required for the completion of half of the reaction. ln [A] = -kt + ln [A0].
9. The half life period of first order reaction is 15 min. Its rate constant will be equal to
a) 0.0462 min-1
b) 0.462 min-1
c) 0.00462 min-1
d) 0.562 min-1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: k = 0.693/t1/2
10. For a second order reaction, the rate is proportional to the square root of the concentration of the
same reactant.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a second order reaction, the rate is proportional to the square of the concentration of
the same reactant.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Pseudo Order Reaction
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Pseudo
Order Reaction”.
1. Reactions which are bimolecular yet following ___________ order kinetics are called pseudo
unimolecular reaction.
a) Zero
b) First
c) Second
d) Third
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reactions which are bimolecular yet following first order kinetics are called pseudo
unimolecular reaction. Pseudo means pretentious. Inversion of cane sugar is an example of pseudo first
order reaction.
2. Which of the following is an example of pseudo first order reaction?
a) Saponification of ester
b) Oxidation of hydrogen bromide
c) Gaseous decomposition of hydrogen iodide

d) Inversion of cane sugar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Inversion of cane sugar is an example of pseudo first order reaction. All the other options
are not the example of pseudo first order reaction.
3. Which concentration plot is linear for a first order reaction? ( A is one of the reactant)
a) [A] versus time
b) [A]2 versus time
c) Ln[A] versus time
d) √[A] versus time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ln[A] versus time plot is linear and other graphs are curved for a first order reaction .
For a zero order reaction, [A] versus time concentration plot is linear. For a second order reaction, 1/[A]
versus time concentration plot is linear.
4. Based on the collision model, the atoms at the top of the potential energy hill are called
a) Transition state
b) Energetic atom
c) Steric factor
d) Activation energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the collision model, the atoms at the top of the potential energy hill are called
transition state. The transition state is the state corresponding to the highest energy along the reaction
coordinate. It has more free energy in comparison to the substrate or product; thus, it is the least stable
state
5. What does termolecular refer to?
a) 2 molecules colliding
b) 3 molecules colliding
c) 4 molecules colliding
d) 5 molecules colliding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Termolecular means collision of three molecules. Ter refers to three.
6. For a certain reaction, the rate = k[NO]2[O2], when the initial concentration of NO is tripled, the
initial rate
a) Increases by a factor of nine
b) Increases by a factor of three
c) Increases by a factor of six
d) Decreases by a factor of nine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a certain reaction, the rate = k[NO]2[O2], when the initial concentration of NO is
tripled, the initial rate increases by a factor of nine. Here, the reaction is of the order 3.
7. In a series of reactions, the rate determining step is
a) Simplest
b) Fast and complex
c) Fastest
d) Slowest
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a series of reactions, the rate determining step is the slowest step. The rate determining
step is the slowest step of a chemical reaction that determines the speed (rate) at which the overall
reaction proceeds.
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8. Threshold energy is the sum of
a) Internal energy and external energy of reactants
b) Activation energy and external energy of reactants
c) Activation energy and internal energy of reactants
d) Activation energy and thermal energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Threshold energy is the sum of activation energy and internal energy of reactants. The
threshold energy for production of a particle is the minimum kinetic energy a pair of traveling particles
must have when they collide.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Effect of Temperature on reaction rate

This set of Engineering Chemistry MCQs focuses on “Effect of Temperature on reaction rate”.
1. Temperature dependence of reaction rates can be studied by plotting a graph between
a) Concentration of reactants and temperature
b) Concentration of products and temperature
c) Rate constant and temperature
d) Rate of catalysis and temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Temperature dependence of reaction rates can be studied by plotting a graph between
rate constant and temperature for different reactions.
2. The ratio of the rate constant of a reaction at two temperatures differing by __________0C is
called temperature coefficient of reaction.
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 50
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the rate constant of a reaction at two temperatures differing by 100C is called
temperature coefficient of reaction.
3. According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant(k) is proportional to
a) Activation Energy (E)
b) eE
c) e1/E
d) e-E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae-Ea/RT. So, rate constant(k) is proportional to e-E.
4. How does half life period of a first order reaction vary with temperature?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same

d) Both increases as well as decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Half-life period of a first order reaction is directly proportional to the rate constant. So, it
increases with increase in temperature.
5. How many times the rate of reaction increases at 200C for a reaction having the activation
energies in the presence and absence of catalyst as 50 kJ/mol and 75 kJ/mol?
a) 1000
b) 10000
c) 30000
d) 50000
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of reaction will increase 28,592 times, i.e. 30,000 times.
6. Which of the following method is used to determine the order of the reaction in which two or
more reactants take part?
a) Integration method
b) Half life period method
c) Graphical method
d) Ostwald’s isolation method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ostwald’s isolation method is used to determine the order of the reaction in which two or
more reactants take part. Kinetic isolation conditions were identified that enabled determination of the
reaction order for interfacial charge recombination.
7. Which of the following method is satisfactory only for simple homogeneous reaction?
a) Integration method
b) Half life period method
c) Graphical method
d) Ostwald’s isolation method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Integration method is satisfactory only for simple homogeneous reaction and lead to wrong
conclusion for complex reactions.
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8. A zero order reaction is one
a) In which rate is independent of reactants concentration
b) In which one of the reactant is in large excess
c) Whose rate is not affected by time
d) Whose rate increases with time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A zero order reaction is one in which rate is independent of reactants concentration. It only
depends upon the rate constant.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Catalysis
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Catalysis”.
1. Which of the following is not a category of catalysis?
a) Homogeneous
b) Heterogeneous
c) Artificial
d) Enzymatic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The four categories of catalysis are: homogeneous, heterogeneous, auto and enzymatic.
Artificial is not a category of catalysis.
2. Which of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?
a) Enzyme catalysis
b) Hardening of animal and vegetable oils
c) Haber’s process
d) Cracking of heavy oils for a synthesis of gasoline
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enzyme catalysis is an example of homogeneous catalysis. All the other options are not
examples of homogeneous catalysis.
3. Which of the following act as catalysis for Williamson’s etherification process?

a) HCl
b) NaCl
c) KMnO4
d) H2SO4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: H2SO4 act as catalysis for Williamson’s etherification process. The Williamson ether
synthesis is an organic reaction, forming an ether from an organohalide and a deprotonated alcohol.
a) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of promoters
b) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the function of a catalyst in

homogeneous reactions
c) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the action of catalytic poisons
d) Intermediate compound formation theory fails to explain the function of catalyst in

heterogeneous reactions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intermediate compound formation theory explains the function of a catalyst in

homogeneous reactions. All the other options are correct. But it fails to explain the action of promoters,
action of catalytic poisons and function of catalyst in heterogeneous reactions.
5. Select the incorrect statement about the adsorption theory from the following option.
a) The surface of the solid catalyst possess some isolated active centres having residual affinity
b) Due to these centres, the molecules of the gaseous reactants get adsorbed in unimolecular thick
layer
c) The adsorbed reactants get activated and then react
d) The energy required for activation is more than that required for uncatalysed reaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy required for activation is less than that required for uncatalysed reaction, and
hence the reaction goes faster. All the other options are correct.
6. No definite intermediate compound formation takes place in contact theory.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: No definite intermediate compound formation takes place in contact theory. The contact
hypothesis has been described as one of the best ways to improve relations among groups that are
experiencing conflict.
7. Which of the following step is the rate determining step of contact theory?
a) Diffusion of reactants to surface
b) Adsorption of reactants at the surface
c) Chemical reaction at the surface
d) Desorption of products from the surface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical reaction at the surface is the slowest and rate determining step of contact theory.
The contact hypothesis has been described as one of the best ways to improve relations among groups
that are experiencing conflict.
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the adsorption theory?
a) The catalyst is more efficient in finely divided state
b) Action of promoters is not explained
c) Enhanced activity of a rough surfaced catalyst is explained
d) Specific action of catalyst is explained
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Action of promoters and catalytic poisons is also explained. All the other options are
correct. The catalyst is more efficient in the finely divided state.
9. The factor which determines the activity of a heterogeneous catalyst is
a) Total surface area only
b) The number of active sites per unit amount of catalyst only
c) Method of preparation, prior treatment only
d) Total surface area, number of active sites and method of preparation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The factors which determine the activity of a heterogeneous catalyst are – Total surface
area, the number of active sites per unit amount of catalyst and method of preparation, prior treatment.
10. What is the optimum temperature for Haber’s process?
a) 4500C
b) 450C
c) 1500C
d) 3000C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The optimum temperature for Haber’s process is 4500C. Haber’s process is an industrial
process for producing ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen, using an iron catalyst at high temperature
and pressure.
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11. Which of the following process is used for the manufacturing of acetic acid?
a) Bosch’s process
b) Deacon’s process
c) Vinegar process
d) Chamber process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vinegar process is used for the manufacturing of acetic acid. The term “vinegar” actually
refers to the two-step process of fermentation from a carbohydrate to an alcohol to an acetic acid.
12. Which of the following process is used for the preparation of sulphuric acid?
a) Ostwald’s process
b) Bergius process
c) Deacon’s process
d) Chamber process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chamber process is used for the preparation of sulphuric acid. Chamber process, also called
Lead-chamber Process, method of producing sulfuric acid by oxidizing sulfur dioxide with moist air, using
gaseous nitrogen.
Questions & Answers on Water and Its Treatment
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Alkalinity of water and its estimation
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Alkalinity of
water and its estimation”.
1. Which source of water is free from hardness and surface impurities?
a) Surface water
b) Underground water
c) Rain water
d) Sea water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rain water is free from hardness and surface impurities. Surface water and sea water is
very impure and saline.
2. Water from reservoirs comes under the category of
a) Surface water
b) Rain water
c) Underground water
d) Sea water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water from reservoirs comes under the category of surface water. Reservoirs are the large
storage tanks which are used for storing and distributing water to the channels.
3. Which of the following indicator is pink in basic medium?
a) Methyl orange
b) Phenolphthalein
c) Starch
d) Litmus paper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Phenolphthalein indicator is pink in basic medium, methyl orange is orange, starch is
colorless and litmus paper shows different colors in different mediums.
4. The temporary hardness in water is due to
a) OH–
b) CO32-
c) H+
d) HCO3–
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The temporary hardness in water is due to HCO3–. It can easily be removed by mere action
of boiling.
5. With respect to the constituents causing alkalinity in water, which of the following situation
never arises?
a) CO32- and HCO3– together
b) HCO3– and OH– together
c) OH– only
d) OH– and CO32- together
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HCO3– and OH– together combines to form CO32- ions. Therefore, this situation never
arises.
6. What are the disadvantage of using high alkaline water?
a) It may lead to infections
b) It may lead to electrolysis
c) It may lead to caustic embrittlement
d) It may lead to indigestion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: High alkaline water leads to caustic embrittlement and deposition of precipitates and
sludges in boiler tubes and pipes.
7. The alkalinity due to hydroxide ion when P > M/2 will be
a) M-2P
b) 2(M-P)
c) Nil
d) 2P-M
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The alkalinity due to hydroxide ion when P > M/2 will be (2P-M).
8. The alkalinity due to bicarbonate ion when P < M/2 will be
a) M-2P
b) 2(M-P)
c) Nil
d) 2P-M
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The alkalinity due to bicarbonate ion when P < M/2 will be (M-2P).
9. The alkalinity due to carbonate ion is 2P when
a) P=M
b) P > M/2
c) P = M/2
d) P < M/2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The alkalinity due to carbonate ion is 2P when P = M/2.
10. Alkalinity is a measure of the ability of water to neutralize the acids.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkalinity is a measure of the ability of water to neutralize the acids. Measuring alkalinity is
important in determining a stream’s ability to neutralize acidic pollution from rainfall or waste water.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Hardness of Water
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Hardness of
Water”.
1. Hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of
a) Potassium
b) Chlorine
c) Magnesium
d) Boron
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of calcium and magnesium. Hard drinking
water may have moderate health benefits, but can pose serious problems in industrial settings, where
water hardness is monitored to avoid costly breakdowns in boilers, cooling towers, and other
equipment that handles water.
a) Water which does not form lather with soap and forms white scum is called hard water
b) Hard water contains dissolved calcium and magnesium salts in it
c) In hard water, cleansing quality of soap is depressed
d) Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-producing salts, the boiling point of water is
depressed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-producing salts, the boiling point of water is
elevated. Elevation in boiling point is one of the most important colligative property. All the other
options are correct.
a) Permanent hardness is due to dissolved chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium
b) It can be removed by mere boiling of water
c) It is also known as non-alkaline hardness
d) The difference between the total hardness and the alkaline hardness gives the non-alkaline
hardness
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike temporary hardness, permanent hardness is not destroyed on boiling. Varoius
methods are adopted for the removal of permanent hardness like zeolites, lime-soda process etc. All the
other options are correct.
4. Alkaline hardness is due to the presence of bicarbonate, carbonate and hydroxides of the hardness-
producing metal ions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkaline hardness is due to the presence of bicarbonate, carbonate and hydroxides of the
hardness-producing metal ions. This is also called carbonate hardness. It is temporary and can be
removed easily by boiling.

a) The taste of hard water is better than soft water
b) The dissolved calcium in hard water can help to produce strong teeth
c) Hard water coats the lead piping with a layer of insoluble calcium carbonate which prevents
poisonous lead dissolving in water
d) Boiler feed water should also be hard in nature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Boiler feed water should be free from hardness otherwise explosion may occur. All the
other options are correct. The taste of hard water is better than soft water and dissolved calcium in hard
water can help to produce strong teeth. Hard water coats the lead piping with a layer of insoluble
calcium carbonate which prevents poisonous lead dissolving in water.
6. Hardness of water is conventionally expressed in terms of equivalent amount of
a) H2CO3
b) MgCO3
c) CaCO3
d) Na2 CO3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hardness of water is conventionally expressed in terms of equivalent amount of CaCO3.

The total water hardness is the sum of the molar concentrations of Ca2+ and Mg2+, in mol/L or mmol/L
units.
7. The chemical equivalent of MgSO4 salt is
a) 60
b) 47.5
c) 82
d) 68
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molar mass of MgSO4 is 120 and its n-factor is 2. So, chemical equivalent = Molar
mass/ n-factor = 60.
8. Which of the following is not a unit of hardness?
a) Parts per million
b) Degree centigrade
c) Degree clarke
d) Degree French
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree centigrade is not a unit of hardness. Degree centigrade is the unit of temperature.
The unit for hardness is ppm (parts per million), degree clarke and degree french. All these three units
are inter-related.
9. 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per _____________ parts of water.
a) 10,000
b) 30,000
c) 50,000
d) 70,000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per 70,000 parts of water. It is calculated
mathematically.
10. 1 ppm =
a) 0.07 0Fr
b) 0.70Fr
c) 0.10Fr
d) 0.010Fr
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 ppm = 0.10Fr.It is calculated mathematically.
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11. How many grams of MgCO3 dissolved per litre gives 84 ppm hardness?
a) 70.56 mg/L
b) 48.23 mg/L
c) 81.49mg/L
d) 66.12 mg/L
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 70.56 mg/L of MgCO3 dissolved per litre gives 84 ppm hardness.
12. EDTA method for hardness determination is less accurate and inconvenient procedure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EDTA method for hardness determination is more accurate, convenient and rapid
procedure. Ethylene diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), is an amino poly-carboxylic acid and a colorless,
water-soluble solid.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Boiler Feed Water
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Boiler Feed
Water”.
1. Water is mainly used in boilers for the generation of
a) Power
b) Electricity
c) Steam
d) Current
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Water is mainly used in boilers for the generation of steam. This steam is further used in
the power plants for the generation of electricity.
2. Which of the following should not be a composition of boiler-feed water?
a) Hardness should be below 0.2ppm
b) Its caustic alkalinity should lie between 0.15 to 0.45 ppm
c) Its soda alkalinity should be 0.45-1 ppm
d) Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Its caustic alkalinity should be 0.15-0.45 ppm. All the other options are correct. Hardness
should be below 0.2ppm, caustic alkalinity should lie between 0.15 to 0.45 ppm and soda alkalinity
should be 0.45-1 ppm.
3. Which of the following is not a result of excess of impurity in boiler-feed?
a) Scale and sludge formation
b) Decomposition
c) Corrosion, priming and foaming
d) Caustic embrittlement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess of impurities in boiler-feed results in sacle and sludge formation, corrosion,
priming,foaming and caustic embrittlement. It does not contribute to decomposition process.
4. If the precipitate formed is soft, loose and slimy, these are __________ and if the precipitate is
hard and adhering on the inner wall, it is called _____________
a) Sludges, scale
b) Scale, sludges
c) Sludges, rodent
d) Scale, rodent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the precipitate formed is soft, loose and slimy, these are sludges and if the precipitate is
hard and adhering on the inner wall, it is called scale. A rodent is a small furry mammal whose teeth
never stop growing.
5. Which of the following option is incorrect about the sludges?
a) Sludges are soft, loose and slimy precipitate
b) They are non-adherent deposits and can be easily removed
c) Formed generally at heated portions of the boiler
d) Can be removed by blow down operation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sludges are formed generally at colder portions of the boiler. All the other options are
correct. Sludges are soft, loose and slimy precipitate, non-adherent deposits and can be easily removed
by blow down operation.
6. The scales decrease the efficiency of boiler and chances of explosions are also there.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The scales decrease the efficiency of boiler and chances of explosions are also there. Scale
is the precipitate which is hard and adhering on the inner wall.
7. The propulsion of water into steam drum by extremely rapid, almost explosive boiling of water
at the heating surface is called
a) Foaming
b) Priming
c) Corrosion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The propulsion of water into steam drum by extremely rapid, almost explosive boiling of
water at the heating surface is called priming. Priming is necessary as it removes all the air voids from
the passage of water.
8. The phenomenon during which the boiler material becomes brittle due to accumulation of
caustic substances is known as
a) Foaming
b) Priming
c) Corrosion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The phenomenon during which the boiler material becomes brittle due to accumulation of
caustic substances is known as caustic embrittlement. This can be prevented by using sodium phosphate
instead of sodium carbonate as softening reagents.
9. Foaming is caused by the formation of
a) Acids
b) Alcohols
c) Oils and alkalis
d) Ketones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Foaming is caused by the formation of oils and alkalis. Oils and Alkalis becomes sticky and
greasy on the surface and hence results in foaming.
10. Corrosion is the decay or disintegration of boiler body material either due to chemical or
electrochemical reaction with environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Corrosion is the decay or disintegration of boiler body material either due to chemical or
electrochemical reaction with environment. It converts a refined metal to a more stable form, such as its
oxide, hydroxide, or sulphide.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Lime Soda Process
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Lime Soda
Process”.
1. What is the molecular formula of lime?
a) CaCO3
b) Al(OH)3
c) Ca(OH)2
d) Mg(OH)2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The molecular formula of lime is Ca(OH) 2. It is a white caustic alkaline substance consisting
of calcium oxide, which is obtained by heating limestone and which combines with water with the
production of much heat.
2. What is the molecular formula of soda?
a) Na2CO3
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) Mg(OH) 2
d) Ca(OH) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molecular formula of soda is Na2CO3. It is also called washing soda or soda ash.
3. Which of the following is not a precipitate in lime-soda process?
a) CaCO3
b) Fe(OH) 3
c) Al(OH) 3
d) Al2(SO4)3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Al2(SO4)3 is not a precipitate in lime-soda process. All the other options are the precipitate
in lime-soda process.
4. Which of the following is not used as a coagulant in lime-soda process?
a) Alum
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Aluminium sulphate
d) Sodium aluminate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calcium bicarbonate is not used as a coagulant in lime-soda process. Alum, aluminium
sulphate and sodium aluminate are used as coagulants in lime-soda process.
5. What is the function of coagulant?
a) It helps in the formation of fine precipitate
b) It helps in the formation of coarse precipitate
c) It helps in increasing the solubility
d) It helps in increasing the boiling point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coagulants helps in formation of coarse precipitate. C?oagulation is a process of addition of

coagulant to destabilize a stabilized charged particle.
6. For the softening of one mole of magnesium bicarbonate, the number of mole of lime required
is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the softening of one mole of magnesium bicarbonate, the number of mole of lime
required is two. The ratio of bicarbonate to lime in lime-soda process is 1:2.
7. The residual hardness in lime-soda process is
a) 0-2 ppm
b) 5-15 ppm
c) 15-50 ppm
d) 50-70 ppm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The residual hardness in lime-soda process is 15-50 ppm. Lime soda softening cannot
produce a water at completely free of hardness because of the low solubility of CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2.
8. In lime soda process, capital cost is ___________ whereas operational expenses are __________
a) High, low
b) High, high
c) Low, low
d) Low, high
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In lime soda process, capital cost is low whereas operational expenses are high. It is
because the chemicals and reagents used are costly.
9. In lime-soda process, no exchange of ions occurs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In lime-soda process, no exchange of ions occurs. Recarbonation is used to stabilize the
water. The excess lime and magnesium hydroxide are stabilized by adding carbon dioxide, which also
reduces pH from 10.8 to 9.5.
10. Which of the following is the second step for calculating the amount of lime and soda?
a) Identification of lime and soda for different salts
b) Calculation of CaCO3 equivalents
c) Calculation of lime requirements
d) Calculation of soda requirements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calculation of CaCO3 equivalents is the second step for calculating the amount of lime and
soda. First step is to identify the lime and soda for different salts. and the last two steps are calculation
of lime and soda requirements.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Zeolites
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Zeolites”.
1. The chemical formula of zeolite is
a) FeSO4.7H2O
b) Al2(SO4)3.18 H2O
c) Na2O.Al2O3.xSiO2.yH2O
d) Na2Al2O
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The chemical formula of zeolite is Na2O.Al2O3.xSiO2.yH2O. Zeolites are micro-porous,

alumino-silicate minerals commonly used as commercial adsorbents and catalysts.
2. Which of the following is not naturally occurring zeolite?
a) Na+
b) Al+3
c) Si+4
d) Ca+2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ca+2 is not naturally occurring zeolite. Na+, Al+3 and Si+4 are some of the naturally
occurring zeolites.
3. Natural zeolites are
a) Porous
b) Amorphous
c) Non-durable
d) Possess gel structure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Natural zeolites are non-porous, amorphous and durable. Natural zeolites form where
volcanic rocks and ash layers react with alkaline groundwater.
4. Synthetic zeolites possess higher exchange capacity per unit weight compared to natural zeolites.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Synthetic zeolites possess higher exchange capacity per unit weight compared to natural
zeolites. Synthetic zeolites are formed by a process of slow crystallization of a silica-alumina gel in the
presence of alkalis and organic templates.
5. The exhausted zeolite is reclaimed by treating the bed with a
a) Conc. NaCl
b) Conc. HCl
c) Conc. H2SO4
d) Dil. HCl
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The exhausted zeolite is reclaimed by treating the bed with conc. NaCl (brine) solution.
Zeolites have the potential of providing precise and specific separation of gases including the removal of
H2O, CO2 and SO2 from low-grade natural gas streams.
a) The capital cost for zeolite process is high
b) The residual hardness in zeolite process is 0-15 ppm
c) The raw water used should be turbid and acidic
d) Automation is possible in zeolite process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The raw water used should be non-turbid and non-acidic. All the other options are correct.
The capital cost for zeolite process is high and the residual hardness in the zeolite process is 0-15 ppm.
Automation is also possible in zeolite process.
7. In zeolite process, the exchange of ___________ takes place.
a) Anions
b) Cations
c) Both cations and anions
d) No ions exchange
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the zeolite process, the exchange of only cations takes place. The specific activation
modality of most zeolitic catalysts used in petrochemical applications involves quantum-chemical Lewis
acid site reactions.
8. The hardness of 1000 litres of a water sample was removed by passing it through a zeolite
softener which required 30litres of NaCl solution containing 1.5 gm/L NaCl for regeneration. The
hardness of the water sample will be
a) 54.2 ppm
b) 12.9 ppm
c) 45 ppm
d) 38.46 ppm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hardness of the water sample will be 38.46 ppm.
9. Which of the following cannot be used in place of NaCl?
a) NaNO3
b) KCl
c) HCl
d) KNO3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NaNO3, KCl and KNO3 can also be used instead of NaCl. But HCl cannot be used in place of
NaCl.
10. Natrolite is an example of
a) Synthetic zeolite
b) Natural zeolite
c) Calgon
d) Colloid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Natrolite is an example of natural zeolite. Natural zeolites are non-porous, amorphous and
durable. Natural zeolites form where volcanic rocks and ash layers react with alkaline groundwater.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Calgon Conditioning
This set of Engineering Chemistry Quiz focuses on “Calgon Conditioning”.

1. What is calgon?
a) Potassium hexa meta sulphate
b) Magnesium hexa meta phosphate
c) Sodium hexa meta phosphate
d) Calcium hexa meta sulphate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Calgon is sodium hexa meta phosphate. Calgon prevents limescale build-up in washing
machines all over the world to protect the heating element, pipes and drum of the machines.
2. Calgon is added to boiler water to prevent
a) Foaming
b) Sludge and scale formation
c) Priming
d) Corrosion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calgon is added to boiler water to prevent sludge and scale formation. Calgon prevents
limescale build-up in washing machines all over the world to protect the heating element, pipes and
drum of the machines.
3. Calgon converts the scale forming impurity like CaSO4 into
a) Soluble complex compound
b) Insoluble complex compound
c) Soluble acids
d) Insoluble acids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calgon converts the scale forming impurity like CaSO4 into soluble complex compound
which are harmless to boiler.
4. The quantity of calgon to be added to prevent scale and sludge formation is
a) 10-20 ppm
b) 30-50 ppm
c) 0.005-0.1 ppm
d) 0.5-5 ppm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The quantity of calgon to be added to prevent scale and sludge formation is 0.5-5 ppm. It is
used in small quantity.
5. At high temperature and pressure, calgon is converted into sodium ortho-phosphate which
reacts with ____________ salts.
a) Magnesium
b) Calcium
c) Sodium
d) Potassium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: At high temperature and pressure, calgon is converted into sodium orthophosphate which
reacts with calcium salts to form calcium ortho-phosphate.
6. Calcium ortho-phosphate appears as loose sludge and thus can be removed by blow-down operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calcium orthophosphate appears as loose sludge and thus can be removed by blow-down
operation. It is formed by the reaction of sodium ortho-phosphate with calcium salts.
7. Calgon conditioning is not applicable for the prevention of
a) Iron oxide only
b) Copper depositions only
c) Sulphurdioxide only
d) Iron oxide and copper depositions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Calgon conditioning is not applicable for the prevention of iron oxide and copper
depositions. Calgon prevents limescale build-up in washing machines all over the world to protect the
heating element, pipes and drum of the machines.
8. Iron oxide and copper depositions can be prevented by adding ___________ to the boiler water.
a) Calgon
b) Carbonate
c) EDTA
d) EBT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Iron oxide and copper depositions can be prevented by adding EDTA to the boiler water.
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), is an amino poly-carboxylic acid and a colorless and a water-
soluble solid.
9. Carbonate conditioning is not done in high pressure boilers because it may lead to caustic
embrittlement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Carbonate conditioning is not done in high pressure boilers because it may lead to caustic
embrittlement. Caustic embrittlement is the phenomenon in which the material of a boiler becomes
brittle due to the accumulation of caustic substances.
10. Which of the following is not used in colloidal conditioning?
a) Kerosene
b) Tannin
c) Agar-agar
d) Vinegar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kerosene, tannin and agar-agar is used in colloidal conditioning. Vinegar is not used for this
purpose.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Desalination of Brackish Water
“Desalination of Brackish Water”.
1. The example of brackish water is
a) Ground water
b) Rain water
c) Sea water
d) Underground water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The example of brackish water is sea water. Ground water, underground water and rain
water are not brackish water. Sea water is also saline in nature and not fit for domestic purpose.
2. Which of the following technique is not used for the desalination of brackish water?
a) Electrolysis
b) Electrodialysis
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Distillation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrolysis technique is not used for the desalination of brackish water. Electrodialysis,
reverse osmosis and distillation are the few techniques used for desalination of brackish water.
3. Salt cannot be separated from brackish water by freezing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Salt can be separated from brackish water by freezing.
4. Electrodialysis is based on the fact that the ions present in saline water migrate towards their
respective electrodes under the influence of applied
a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) EMF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrodialysis is based on the fact that the ions present in saline water migrate towards
their respective electrodes under the influence of applied emf. The potential difference generated
between the elctrodes is the main cause of flow of electrons.
5. The cation selective membrane is embedded with functional groups of
a) Positive charge
b) Negative charge
c) Both positive as well as negative charge

d) Neutral
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cation selective membrane is embedded with functional groups of negative charge as it
attracts only positive charges towards them.
6. In electrodialysis cell, the pressure is about
a) 2 kg/m2
b) 3 kg/m2
c) 5-6 kg/m2
d) 10 kg/m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrodialysis is an electrically driven separation conducted at very low pressure-driven of

about 5-6 kg/m2.
7. Electrodialysis is an electrically driven separation conducted at very low pressure-driven, size-

exclusion filtering process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrodialysis is an electrically driven separation conducted at very low pressure-driven,

size-exclusion filtering process. Electrodialysis is used to transport salt ions from one solution through
ion-exchange membranes to another solution under the influence of an applied electric potential
difference.
8. The ion-exchange membrane are electrically conductive and are not permeable to ___________
flow, even under pressure.
a) Electron
b) Oil
c) Fluorine
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ion-exchange membrane are electrically conductive and impermeable to water flow,
even under pressure. Electrons can easily flow through these membranes.
a) Electrodialysis reversal (EDR) was introduced in the commercial sector to improve electrodialysis
process
b) The EDR process and conventional ED unit operates on the same principle, except at intervals of
several times an hour
c) The reversal feature is useful in breaking up films, scales and other deposits
d) Electrodialysis process is not economical as per capital cost
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrodialysis process is economical as per capital cost and operational expenses are
concerned. All the other options are correct.
10. Which one of the following is not a cation exchanger?
a) Amberlite
b) Triolite
c) Dowex
d) Duolite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Triolite is not a cation exchanger. Amberlite, dowex and duolite are some of the examples
of cation exchanger.
Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Reverse Osmosis
This set of Engineering Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Reverse
Osmosis”.
1. The basis of reverse osmosis is
a) Osmotic pressure is greater than the hydrostatic pressure
b) Osmotic pressure is equal to the hydrostatic pressure
c) Hydrostatic pressure is greater than the osmotic pressure
d) Osmotic pressure does not exist
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The basis of reverse osmosis is that the hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic
pressure. It is a process by which a solvent passes through a porous membrane in the direction opposite
to that for natural osmosis when subjected to a hydrostatic pressure greater than the osmotic pressure.

a) Osmosis is the phenomenon by virtue of which flow of solvent takes placefrom low
concentration to high concentration through a semi-permeable membrane
b) The flow continues till the concentration is equal on both the sides
c) The driving force of osmosis is osmotic pressure
d) Osmosis is used for the treatment of waste water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse osmosis is used for the treatment of waste water. All the other options are correct.
Osmosis is the phenomenon by virtue of which flow of solvent takes placefrom low concentration to
high concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
3. Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit the passage of
dissolved ________ particles.
a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Anhydrous
d) Saturated
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Semi-permeable membrane is selective membrane which does not permit the passage of
dissolved solute particles. It is a type of biological or synthetic, polymeric membrane that will allow
certain molecules or ions to pass through it by diffusion
4. Which of the following is not used for semi-permeable membrane?
a) Polymethyl sulphate
b) Cellulose acetate
c) Polyamide polymer
d) Polymethyl acrylate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymethyl sulphate is not used for semi-permeable membrane. Cellulose acetate,
polyamide polymer and polymethyl acrylate are used as semi-permeable membranes.
5. The pressure which is applied to separate the water from its contaminants is of the order
a) 5-10 kg/cm2
b) 15-40 kg/cm2
c) 50-100 kg/cm2
d) 100-150 kg/cm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure which is applied to separate the water from its contaminants is of the order
15-40 kg/cm2. It does not require very high pressure.
6. The process of reverse osmosis is also known as
a) Hyper-filtration
b) Double-filtration
c) Double-osmosis
d) Hyper-osmosis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of reverse osmosis is also known as super- or hyper-filtration. It is a process by
which a solvent passes through a porous membrane in the direction opposite to that for natural osmosis
when subjected to a hydrostatic pressure greater than the osmotic pressure.
7. Which of the following is not an application of reverse osmosis?
a) Desalination
b) Reclamation of minerals
c) For dialysis in hospitals
d) For industrial use
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse osmosis is not used for industrial purpose. All the other options are correct. It is
used for desalination, reclamation of minerals and for dialysis in hospitals.
8. Select the incorrect statement about reverse osmosis from the following option.
a) It is simple and reliable process
b) It is relatively energy efficient
c) It operates at a comparatively high temperature
d) The life of an SPM is about 2 years and it can be easily replaced within a few minutes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reverse osmosis operates at a comparatively low temperature. All the other options are
correct. It is simple and reliable process, relatively energy efficient. The life of a SPM is about 2 years and
it can be easily replaced within a few minutes.
9. The pH for the potable water should be in the range of
a) 5-6
b) 7-8.5
c) 9-10
d) 12-13
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pH for the potable water should be in the range of 7-8.5. It should not be acidic and
also should not have a high value of basicity. Hence, it’s value should be in the neutral range.
10. The total hardness of the potable water should be less than
a) 500 ppm
b) 700 ppm
c) 900 ppm
d) 1000 ppm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total hardness of the potable water should be less than 500 ppm. Water having
hardness more than 500 ppm is not safe for consumption.

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Questions & Answers on Atoms to Molecules to Material’s for Engineers

Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Valence Bond Theory

1. Valence Bond Theory was developed in the year

2. According to VBT, the formation of a stable bond requires

a) The electrons should have opposite spins

b) The two atoms should be close to each other

c) The greater overlapping of the electron clouds

d) All of the mentioned

3. The s-orbital does not show preference to any direction because

a) It is the smallest orbital

b) It is present in every atom

d) It is the first orbital

4. The p-orbital is in the shape of a

d) None of the mentioned

a) In the same direction in which orbitals are concentrated

b) In the opposite direction in which orbitals are concentrated

c) Perpendicular to the direction in which orbitals are concentrated

d) None of the mentioned

a) The one which is less directionally concentrated

b) The one which is more directionally concentrated

c) Both will be equally strong

d) It differs from atom to atom

Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Hybridisation

Explanation: The Acetylene molecule is C2H2. It is sp hybridised.

2. Shape of PCl5 molecule is

b) Angular or bent structure

4. Which of the following is an example of sp3d2 hybridised molecule?

6. Due to unsymmetrical structure, the molecules having sp3d hybridisation are

a) more stable and more reactive

b) less stable and more reactive

c) more stable and less reactive

d) less stable and less reactive

7. The bond angles in sp3d2 hybridisation is

8. The percentage p-character in sp3 hybridisation is

Explanation: In sp3 hybridisation, s-character is 25% and p-character is 75%.

10. The hybridisation of BeF3– is

Explanation: The hybridisation of BeF3– is sp2 and it is trigonal planar

Engineering Chemistry Questions and Answers – Molecular Orbital Theory

c) Gerade as well as Ungerade

d) None of the mentioned

2. The filling of molecular orbital takes place according to

a) The Aufbau Principle

b) Pauli Exclusion Principle

c) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

d) All of the mentioned

3. Bond Order of O2, F2, N2 respectively are

Explanation: Bond Order=[[No. Of electrons in bonding molecular orbital]-[No. Of electrons in

4. Arrange the following molecules in decreasing bond length.

a) O2 > O2– > O2+ > O22-

b) O22- > O2– > O2 > O2+

c) O22- > O2– > O2+ > O2

d) O2– > O2+ > O22- > O2

O22- > O2– > O2 > O2+.

5. Arrange the following molecules in the order of increasing stability.

a) N2+ < N2 < N2– < N22-

b) N22- < N2– < N2 < N2+

c) N22- < N2– = N2+ < N2

d) N2 < N2+ = N2– < N22-

a) The bond order of O2 is 2.5 and it is paramagnetic

b) The bond order of O2 is 1.5 and it is paramagnetic

c) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is diamagnetic

d) The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is paramagnetic

a) Shape and size of the combining atomic orbitals

b) Numbers of the combining atomic orbitals