1. A single resistor and a single capacitor can be connected to 6.

Which types of LC oscillator uses a tickler coil in the feedback

form a filter with a roll-off rate of path?
a. -20dB/decade a. Colpitts
b. -40dB/decade b. Hartley
c. -6dB/octave c. Armstrong
d. Answer A and C d. Clapp
2. Identify the given figure 7. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because
a. It has more gain
b. It requires no input signal
c. It requires no dc supply
d. It always has the same output
8. Wien-bridge oscillator are based on
a. Even functions
a. Positive feedback
b. Odd functions
b. Negative feedback
c. Half-wave
c. The piezoelectric effect
d. Even Quarter-Wave
d. High gain
3. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K.
9. One condition for oscillation is
What is the noise figure?
a. A phase shift around the feedback loop 180⁰
a. 1.86
b. A gain around the feedback loop of one third
b. 0.1086
c. A phase shift around the feedback loop is 0⁰
c. 1.086
d. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
d. 10.86
10. The frequency at which a crystal oscillator functions is
4. The number of poles in a filter affect the
determined mainly by
a. Voltage gain
a. The values of the inductor and capacitor.
b. Bandwidth
b. The thickness of the crystal
c. Center frequency
c. The amount of capacitance across the crystal
d. Roll-off rate
d. The power-supply voltage
5. A tapped coil is used in a(n):
11. A high-pass filter has R = 47Ω and C = 0.002µF, the cut-off
a. Hartley oscillator
frequency is
b. Colpitts oscillator
a. 1.694 KHz
c. Armstrong oscillator
b. 10.6 KHz
d. Clapp oscillator
 c. 3.39 Hz 17. A bypass capacitor Cb across Rb provides low-pass filtering
d. None of these because:
12. An oscillator might fail to start for any of the reasons except: a. Current in the Cb branch is maximum for low frequencies
a. Low-power supply voltage b. Voltage across Cb is minimum for high frequencies
b. Low stage gain c. Voltage across Cb is minimum for low frequencies
c. In-phase feedback d. Voltage across Rb is minimum for low frequencies
d. Very low output impedance 18. For a series or parallel LC circuit, resonance occurs when
13. A series LC circuit has a Q of 100 at resonance. When 5mW is a. XL is 10 times XC or more
applied at the resonant frequency, the voltage across C equals b. XC is 10 times XL or more
a. 50µW c. XL=XC
b. 20mW d. The phase angle of the circuit is 90⁰
c. 100mV 19. A high-pass filter has R = 47Ω and C=0.002µF, the cut-off
d. 500mW frequency is:
a. 1.694KHz
14. The bipolar transistors or JFETs in a multivibrator are usually b. 10.6 KHz
connected in: c. 3.39 KHz
a. Class B d. None of these
b. A common-emitter or common-source arrangement 20. Identify the circuit
c. Class C
d. A common-collector or common-drain arrangement
15. A phase-shift oscillator has
a. Three RC circuits
b. Three LC circuits
c. A T-type circuit
d. A π-type circuit
16. The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based on
a. Charging and discharging of a capacitor
b. A highly selective resonant circuit
a. Colpitts
c. A very stable supply voltage
b. Hartley
d. Low power consumption
c. Armstrong
d. Clapp
21. At resonance, the phase angle is equals Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data
a. 0⁰ interleaving process represented in the graphic?
b. 90⁰ a. Piping
c. 180⁰ b. PDU
d. 270⁰ c. Streaming
22. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 d. Multiplexing
ohms has an equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms. What is e. Encapsulation
the receiver’s noise temperature? 27. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device
a. 754 K type that is included in the area B?
b. 464 K
c. 174 K
d. 293K
23. Skip
24. The maximally flat frequency response is known as
a. Chebychev
b. Butterworth
c. Bessel
d. Colpitts
25. A high-pass 2-pole filter has a cut-off frequency of 1.23 KHz.
The BW of the filter is? a. Source
a. 2.46 KHz b. End
b. 1.23 KHz c. Transfer
c. 644 KHz d. Intermediary
d. None of the choices 28.
26.
 Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown? 31. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what
a. WAN would be the default gateway address for host A in the
b. MAN 192.133.219.0 network?
c. LAN
d. WLAN
29. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Transport
30. .
a. 192.135.250.1
b. 192.31.7.1
c. 192.133.219.0
d. 192.133.219.1
32. What type of routing uses information what is manually
entered into the routing table?
a. Dynamic
b. Interior
c. Static
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end d. Standard
devices? 33. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet
a. A, C, D network address based upon a given IP address and subnet
b. B, E, G, H mask?
c. C, D,G, H, I, J a. Binary adding
d. E, F, H, I, J b. Hexadecimal anding
c. Binary multiplication
d. Binary anding
34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it 36. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable
cannot get access to any resources on the internet. The specification and physical aspects of network communication?
configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could a. Presentation
be the cause of the problem? b. Transport
c. Data link
d. Physical
37. A network administrator is required to use media in the
network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without
using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and
easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing
building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would
best meet these requirements?
a. STP
b. UTP
c. Coaxial
d. Single-mode fiber
38. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a
console port?
a. Cross-over
b. Straight-through
a. The host subnet mask is incorrect. c. Rollover
b. The default gateway is a network address. d. Patch cable
c. The default gateway is a broadcast address. 39. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place
d. The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
35. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted- a. 192.168.1.1
pair networking cable? b. 192.168.2.1
a. BNC c. 192.168.2.2
b. RJ-11 d. 192.168.3.1
c. RJ-45 e. 192.168.3.54
d. Type F
40. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be a. PPM
used for initial configuration of a Cisco router? b. PWM
a. AUX interface c. PAM
b. Ethernet interface d. CODEC
c. Serial interface 46.
d. Console interface
41. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. Bridge
d. Router
42. It occurs when telephones, broadcasts, and computer Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have
communications all use the same rules, devices, and media to factory default settings. How many collision domains are
transport their messages. represented in the topology that is shown?
a. Divergence a. 3
b. Convergence b. 4
c. Protocol c. 9
d. Network d. 10
43. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 47. It means that the internet will continue to function normally
200.10.5.68/28? even when some of the components of the network fail.
a. 200.10.5.56 a. Fault tolerance
b. 200.10.5.32 b. Scalability
c. 200.10.5.64 c. Protocol
d. 200.10.5.0 d. Quality of service(QoS)
44. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? e. Security
a. WDM 48. The most common method used for sampling voice signals in
b. TDM PCM systems is
c. SDM a. Ideal sampling
d. FDM b. Natural sampling
45. It is used as an intermediate form of modulation with FSK, c. Flat-top sampling
QAM, and PCM, although it is seldom used by itself d. Sampling and holding
49. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? a. Increases
a. FDM b. Stay constant
b. TDM c. Decreases
c. WDM d. Insufficient data can’t be solved
d. SDM 55. In AM Rx, Which of the following is true about the
50. It is the process of converting an infinite number of frequency of the local oscillator?
possibilities to a finite number of conditions. a. It is above the RF frequency
a. Sample and Hold b. It is below the RF frequency
b. Quantization c. It can be either above or below the RF frequency
c. Encoding d. It is fixed, typically at 455 KHz
d. Analog to digital conversion 56. What part of the AM receiver of which the primary
51. Which of the following is not used as another name for functions are amplification and selectivity?
defining modulation index? a. RF stage
a. Modulation Reliability b. Mixer stage
b. Modulation Factor c. IF stage
c. Degree of Modulation d. AM detector
d. Modulation coefficient 57. Suppose an AM receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.
52. What type of modulation is used to produce FM by using Assuming High-side injection, what would be the image
PM techniques? frequency if the receiver was tuned in ….. MHz? kulang ng
a. Indirect FM given bsta gagamiting formula fimg=f+2fLO
b. Direct FM a. 40 MHz
c. Low level PM b. 45 MHz
d. High level PM c. 55 MHz
53. In AM, as the modulation index increases, what happen to d. 60 MHz
the carrier power? 58. If an AM receiver has an RF bandwidth of 20MHz and an IF
a. It increases bandwidth of 200 KHz, what is the value of NFimprovement?
b. It remains the same a. -20 dB
c. It decreases b. -40 dB
d. It varies randomly c. 20 dB BI=BRF/BIF, NFimprove=10logBI
54. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases the modulation d. 40 dB
index
59. An AM signal in which the carrier is 70% modulated 63. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2KHz/V,
contains 1500W at the carrier frequency. What is the power what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt, 1KHz
content in each sideband when the percent modulation audio signal?
drops to 50%? a. 0.5
a. 183.75 W b. 1
b. 153.75 W c. 1.5
c. 123.75 W d. 2 mf=delta/fm
d. 93.75 W PUSB=PLSB=(m2Pc)/4 64. The FM receiver is tuned to92.3 MHz. What is the local
60. The antenna current of an AM broadcast transmitter, oscillator frequency?
modulated to a depth of 40% by an audio sine wave, is 11 a. 81.6 MHz
Amp. It increases to 12 Amp as a result of simultaneous b. 70.9MHz
modulation by another signal. What is the modulation index c. 103MHz FLO=FIF+FI , FIF=10.7MHz
due to this second signal? d. 113.7MHz
a. 0.458 65. The FM receiver is tuned to 92.3 MHz, what is the possible
b. 0.526 image frequency?
c. 0.643 IT=IC(1+(m2/2))1/2 a. 81.6 MHz
d. 0.718 b. 70.9MHz
61. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or c. 163.2MHz
recognize an input signal variations is known as the (d ko d. 141.8MHz
sure yung sagot sa dalawa) 66. If an AM transmitter puts out 100watts with no modulation,
a. Circuit Bandwidth it will pull out ____watts with 100% modulation.
b. Capture range a. 50
c. Acceptance bandwidth b. 75
d. Lock range c. 150 PT=Pc(1+m2/2)
62. If a 2-KHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 KHz d. none of the choices
in 89.1 MHz carrier, determine the FM bandwidth using 67. In AM, if the carrier power is 1000watts, what is the power
Carson’s rule. in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
a. 6 KHz a. 707 watts
b. 8 KHz b. 250 watts PT=Pc(1+m2/2), PSB=PT–PC
c. 12 KHz c. 353.5 watts
d. 16 KHz d. none of the choices
68. It is the amount of the power that flows through each 73. In wave propagation it is more …………. when the obstacle
square meter of a surface perpendicular to the direction to has sharp edges and when the surface dimensions are small
travel. in comparison to the wavelength
a. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power a. Diffraction
b. Power Density b. Reflection
c. Power Intercepted c. Refraction
d. Isotropic Received Level d. Attenuation
69. The two important characteristics of antenna are Gain an 74. What is the velocity of radio a signal in a medium with a
a. Frequency dielectric constant of 2.1?
b. Power input a. 142.66 x 106 m/s
c. Effective Area b. 182.65x 106 m/s
d. Power output c. 207.02x 106 m/s
70. If the operating frequency of a transmitter increases then its d. 215.68x 106 m/s
antenna gain will _____. 75. What is the power density at a distance of 5 km, if the
a. decreases transmitter effective isotropic radiated power is 1000
b. remain the same Watts?
c. increase a. 8.31 mW/m2
d. randomly change b. 1.83 µW/m2
71. In wave propagation, it is the ratio of the received power to c. 5.38 nW/m2
the transmitted power d. 3.18 µW/m2
a. Power Density 76. In telephone system the noise interference is comprised of
b. Free Space Attenuation the degree of annoyance to the listener and the effect on
c. Power Gain intelligibility of speech which are both functions of
d. Received Signal Level a. Amplitude
72. It governs the behavior of electromagnetic waves being b. Frequency
refracted. c. Phase
a. Inverse Square Law d. None of the choices
b. Snell’s Law 77. Which of the following cable gauge will provide a greater
c. Right Hand Rule loop length based on a certain loop loss limit?
d. Fresnel’s Law a. 26
b. 24
 c. 22 c. Dialing circuit
d. 19 d. Protection circuit
78. It is the ……. ……. For measuring the quality of a speech ….. 83. It is the proportion of total calls, usually during the busy
a. Quality of Service hour that cannot be completed immediately or serve within
b. Loudness ……. a prescribed time.
c. …… a. Grade of service
d. Test level point (TLP) b. Quality of service
79. In the telephone industry, A/D conversion is referred to as: c. Blockage
a. Voice recovery d. Calls per busy hour
b. Voice sampling 84. A 0.02 Erlang per line rating would mean
c. Voice digitization a. 2 calls lost per 100 attempts
d. Voice quantization b. 2 calls connected per 100 attempts
80. In today’s Central Office, which of the following is not c. 20 calls lost per 100 attempts
implemented using digital technology? d. 20 calls connected per 100 attempts
a. Line interface 85. If the grade of service of a telephone system is ………… …
b. Signaling circuit 0.05, it means that
c. Switching circuit a. Completed calls of 5%
d. Call processor b. Lost call of 95%
81. It is consists of a ring relay, an overvoltage protection c. Lost call of 5%
circuit, a subscriber loop interface circuit, an d. Blocked calls of 95%
encoder/decoder, and a time-slot assignment circuit. 86. What are the seven functions (BORSCHT functions)
a. Central Office performed by the analog line interface?
b. Line interface a. Battery, overcurrent protection, ringing, signaling, A/D
c. Switching circuit conversion, hybrid and testing
d. Call processor b. Battery, overvoltage protection, ringing, supervision,
82. It is a part of telephone set that is consists mainly of coding, hybrid and testing
amplifiers that route the voice signal to be transmitted from c. Battery, overvoltage protection, ringing, supervision,
the handset microphone to the telephone line, and line 2W/4W conversion, hybrid and testing
received voice signal from the telephone line to the handset d. Battery, overvoltage protection, ringing, signaling,
earpiece. coding, hybrid, time division multiplexing
a. Speech circuit 87. It was found that 1KHz signal in telephone system will
b. Switchhook produce zero or negligible interference at a level of
 a. -85 dBm a. 5000 n=(w/b)(M/frf)
b. -90 dBm b. 1000
c. -85 dB c. 200
d. -90 dB d. 10000
88. Noise is a problem in telephone system and one of the 93. Cellular base stations are normally using what type of
solution to minimize it is to antenna?
a. Increase the bandwidth a. Omni-directional
b. Use amplifier b. Bi-directional
c. Increase the S/N c. Sectored-directional
d. Use filter d. Hexa-directional
89. It is a power measurement unit adjusted to 0 dBm that 94. A telephone system has a 7-digit telephone directory
indicates what the power would be if the signal were numbering plan, what is the capacity of the system?
measured at a 0 TLP. a. 1,000,000 lines
a. dBmC b. 100,000 lines
b. dBmCO c. 10,000 lines
c. dBmO d. 7000 lines
d. dBa 95. A local loop has a resistance of 1KΩ, and the telephone
90. at the telephone set A which is -30 dBm TLP, the signal was connected to it has and off-hook resistance of 200Ω.
measured as -35 dBm and the noise was measured as 18 Calculate the loop current when the phone is off-hook.
dBm. What is the noise level in dBm? a. 36mA
a. -72 b. 40mA
b. -108 c. 48mA
c. -98 d. 44mA
d. -82 96. Skip
91. It is the act of changing from one channel to another. 97. Which of the following is not branded as 3G?
a. Roaming a. UMTS
b. Handover b. WCDMA
c. Paging c. GSM-EDGE
d. Switching d. HSPA
92. What is the system capacity for a 20 cells with frequency 98. Which of the following is branded as 4G?
reuse factor of 4 if the available spectrum is from 800-830 a. Zigbee
MHz and the required voice bandwidth is 30KHz? b. WI-FI
 c. WI-MAX
d. HSPA
99. 2.5G is a stepping stone between 2G and 3G cellular
wireless technology. Which of the following is 2.5G?
a. EDGE
b. GPRS
c. GSM-EDGE
d. E-GPRS
100. Which of the following is a 2.75G system?
a. EDGE
b. IMT2000
c. CDMA2000
d. UMTS