Q A Crim Socio Dr. Palmones

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY
1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run after
an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone. PO3
Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block away from them
and besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent
matter. The officer’s refusal to help the old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. misfeasance
D. misconduct
Note: malfeasance – deliberately and with forethought committing an illegal act

Nonfeasance –taking no action
Misfeasance –taking devious/questionable actions/
2. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before the
court, he is
A. convicted
B. suspended
C. acquitted
D. absuelto
3. Guilty by act means --

A. Actus Reus
B. Actus Numbus
C. Giltus reus
D. Rea mensa
4. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent

are obviously detected from a person, he is in the state of --
A. dependency or addiction
B. comatose
C. insanity
D. metamorphosis
5. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors, either

verbal or physical, directed at others?
A. Abnormality
B. Dependency
C. Aggression
D. Violence
6. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct

command, verbal abuse-name calling, verbal abuse-threat, and physical abuse?
A. Interactive
B. Isolated
C. Covert
D. Overt
7. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional destruction

of property, and self destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated
B. Covert
C. Interactive
D. Overt
8. What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive components

of aggression such as anger and hostility?
A. Covert
B. Dynamic
C. Interactive
D. Directive
9. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive act

irrespective of severity against another person, there is -
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. Chaos
D. Crisis
10. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking, punching,

deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal weapon against someone?
A. Mental
B. Physical
C. Sexual
D. Verbal
11. Allege means-

A. Assert or make an accusation
B. remove from its position
C. direct an act from doing
D. intentional mutilation
12. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with
a young person alleged to have committed an offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings
13. What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and
deficits of women victims and their inability to respond effectively to repeated
physical and psychological violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. Violence against women
D. M'Naghten Rule
14. What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with
aggression and violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory
B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
D. Dementia praecox
15. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have
received non-accidental, inexcusable violence or injury, ranging from minimal to
severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a position of trust, generally a
parent or guardian
A. Battered Child Syndrome
B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
D. None of these
16. When we say capital offense, it means:

A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
17. It refers to the appearance or observed features of something experienced

distinguished from reality, or the thing itself; any extremely unusual or extraordinary
thing or occurrence.
a. Crime c. Law
b. Theory d. Phenomenon
18. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker

under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or
welfare is known as
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Neglect
C. Child Dilemma
D. Child in conflict with the law
19. The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods without
any emotional involvement involving a person under the age of 18 years is
called --
A. Child prostitution
B. Child trafficking
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are wrong
20. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or underhanded is

called
A. Clandestine abuse
B. Clinical abuse
C. Overt abuse
D. Abuse of authority
21. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and
firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the contrary, and which is not related
to cultural or religious beliefs
A. False alarm
B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence
D. Delusion
22. He advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness” is inherited. It causes crime for
the reason that a feebleminded person is unable to appreciate the consequences of his
behavior, or could not appreciate the meaning of law.
a. Dugdale c. Enrico Ferri
b. Hirschi d. Goddard
23. In the geographical theory concerning crime causation, he said in his book (Spirit
of Laws, 1784) that criminality increases in proportion as one approach the equator
and drunkenness increase as one approaches the north and south pole.
a. Aichorn c. Montesquieu
b. Gall d. Burt
24. Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal penalty, is called

A. Infliction
B. Execution
C. Murder
D. Capital punishment
25. Mr. Perfecto is a religious man. However, due to unexpected event his house and
other important things were completely ruined by a tornado, thus he lost everything
other than his life. Thereafter, he planned to stay in a certain squatter area where most
high profile criminals live. Suddenly, he was persuaded by the people around him and he
became one among the most notorious criminal in that place. Based on the case
aforementioned, what causal theory of crime suits the situation?
a. Social Bond c. Differential opportunity
b. Differential Association d. Strain
26. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights, also a
form of child abuse in most states. Sporadic visits, a few phone calls, or birthday
cards are not sufficient to maintain parental rights.
A. Exploitation
B. Abuse
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
27.Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker

that encompasses a broad range of acts, and usually requires proof of intent.
A. Abuse
B. Exploitation
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
28. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal

court, except that juveniles have no right to a jury trial, a public trial, or bail.
A. Acquittal
B. Conviction
C. Adjudication
D. Entertainment
29. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or support

orders by an executive agency rather than by courts or judges.
A. Criminal procedure
B. Administrative procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Trial
30. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related, usually
terminating the rights of biological parents, and usually with a trial "live-in"
period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed and only the most compelling
interests will enable disclosure of documents.
A. Adoption
B. Foster parenting
C. Common law relationship
D. Brotherhood
31. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best

environment for raising child which is an alternative to the Parens Patriae
Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
32.What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for
conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea that first conviction was a
"civil" matter?
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
33.The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases decided by

judges, as opposed to common law which is developed from the history of
judicial decisions and social
customs.
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
34.The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its investigation has
turned up evidence of child abuse. This is a civil, rather than criminal, charge
designed to take preventive
action, like appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs.
A. Child prosecution
B. Child protection action
C. Parens Patriae
D. Preliminary investigation
35. The act of being responsible for enforcing child support obligations is known
as
A. Child’s care
B. Parental Guidance
C. Child at risk
D. Child support
36.A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from adults, for the
rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent.
A. Summon
B. Subpoena
C. Custodial confinement
D. Rehabilitation order
37.___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to be a

dependent when they reach the age of emancipation.
A. Delinquent
B. Dependent
C. Independent
D. Recognizance
38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of adult

trial. The judge must consider alternative, innovative, and individualized
sentences rather than imposing standard sentences.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Judgment
C. Disposition
D. Probationary period
39.The independence of a minor from his or her parents before reaching age of
majority is known as
A. Enlightenment
B. Recognizance
C. Emancipation
D. Freedom from parental obligation
40.A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people the same or
have good reason for treating them differently. Compelling reasons are
considered to exist for treating children differently.
A. Bill of Rights
B. Equal Protection
C. Parens Patriae
D. Diversion
41.What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children

from suing their parents?
A. Parens Patriae Doctrine
B. Equal Protection
C. Family Immunity Doctrine
D. Poisonous Tree
42.What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused by a
child's negligent driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine
D. None of the above
43.Guardian ad litem means:

A. “For the Proceeding"
B. “Protection of child by the law”
C. “Guardians of the little children”
D. “Legal authority”
44.A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority over a child.
A guardian of the person is usually an individual and the child is called a ward. A
guardian of the estate is usually an organization, like a bank, which manages
the property and assets of a child's inheritance. Guardians are usually
compensated for their services.
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as having some

temporary parental rights & obligations are considered
A. Guardianship
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
46.What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state over welfare of
its citizens, especially its children?
A. Guardianship
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
47.The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency, police agency,

or hospital for reasons of imminent danger to the child is called
A. Preventive detention
B. Diversion
C. Witness protection program
D. Protective custody
48.What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the child feels
the greatest emotional attachment to?
A. Psychological Parent
B. Maternity
C. Paternity
D. Parental Selection
49. A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim. The law

prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation. Poor families cannot be
deprived of probation simply because they are too poor to afford it.
A. Bond
B. Surety
C. Restitution
D. Protection money
50. If criminal behavior is perceived only as the result of a factor which is either social,
biological or mental the explanation is said to be:
a. Multiple Factor Theory c. Single or Unitary Theory
b. Electric Theory d. Dual Factor Theory
51. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties to the child
other than those which have been voluntarily accepted.
A. Maternity
B. Paternity
C. Stepparent
D. Foster parent
52. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of giving the
child up for adoption to specific parties.
A. None of these
B. Stepparent
C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
53. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit", very young
children should be placed in custody with their mother following a divorce?
A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
54.What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental rights

in the best interest of the child usually for reasons of abandonment, abuse, or
neglect, but also including
mental illness, addiction, or criminal record?
A. Unfit Parent
B. Psychological Incapacitation
C. Mental Disturbance
D. Child at risk
55.It refers to the security given for the release of the person in custody of the
law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman, to guarantee his/her appearance
before any court.
A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions
D. None of these
56.It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most congenial to
the survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most
encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and emotional development.
A. Best interest of the child
B. Rights
C. Obligations
D. Child’s role
57. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal
offenses because of personal, family and social circumstances are considered
A. Abused Children
B. Neglected Children
C. Children in conflict with the law
D. Children at risk
58. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an
offense under Philippine laws is considered
A. Child at risk
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender
59.The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by
law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as:
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
60. The series of activities designed to address issues that caused the child to
commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program,
which may include counseling, skills training, education, and other activities
that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being is
called
A. reformation guide
B. intervention
C. diversion
D. welfare procedures
61. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian who shall

be responsible for the appearance in court of the child in conflict with the law,
when required is known as
A. Status offense
B. None of these
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
62.What is the type of offense committed where there is no private offended

party involved?
A. Status offense
B. Victimless crime
C. Minor crime
D. None of these
63.What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the
maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and the community?
A. Proactive justice
B. Restorative justice
C. Reactive justice
D. All of the above
64. Positivist viewpoint are as follows except:

a. Man is restrained occasionally by strange and morbid phenomenon which
constrains him/her to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his
volition.
b. Penalty must be swift and certain.
c. Crime is essentially a social and natural phenomenon.
d. Criminals must be treated or examined by competent body of psychiatrists and
social scientist not imprisonment.
65. Centuries ago, criminal behavior was believed to be the result of evil spirits
and demons. Guilt and innocence were established by a variety of procedures
that presumably called forth the supernatural allies of the accused. The accused
were innocent if they could survive an ordeal, they were guilty if they died at
the stake or if omens were associated with them. In the 18th century, this
spiritual determination began to give way to:
A. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits
B. The belief that humans are rational creatures with free will,
who seek happiness and pleasure and avoid pain
C. The belief that man is a demon and devil
D. The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape.
66. Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not correct:

A. The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by Bentham and
Beccaria.
B. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of punishment as
a deterrent to crime.
C. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals
were primitive creatures, Incapable of living normally
in society.
D. The Classical School of Criminology also argued that nature has
placed mankind under the governance of two sovereign masters,
“pain” and “pleasure’.
67.What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition that man

has absolute free will to choose between good and evil and states that it is not
absolute as presumed to be because free will can be diminished by pathology,
mental disorders and other conditions that may instigate personal
responsibility?
A. Neo-classical School of Criminology
B. Positivism
C. Hedonistic Calculus
D. Radical Criminology
68.The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the principle of

free will. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is focused on the principle of:
A. Darwinism
B. Determinism
C. Cognitive Functioning
D. Conceptual Thinking
69.The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social

learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this
theory is:
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. Learned and not inherited
D. An excess of wisdom
70.What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental

action and examines the underlying conditions within the environment that may
encourage criminal behavior?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
B. Psychological Criminology
C. Sociological Criminology
D. Criminal Anthropology
71.In the past, psychologist assumed that they could best understand human
behavior by searching for a stable, consistent personality dispositions or traits
that exert orderly generalized effects on behavior. Which among the following
theory on Criminal Behavior is not consistent with the previous statement?
A. Psychoanalytical Theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Behavioral descriptions
D. Psychological Determination
72.Based on the Lombroso’s works, he classified criminals as: the born criminal,
the habitual, the passionate and the criminaloid.
Which of the following statements describe a criminaloid?
A. the morally insane and hysteric criminal
B. the impulsive and cruel criminal
C. the “weak natures” susceptible to bad examples
D. the primitive and atavist
73.Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with

personality. Among these theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. He
classified body physique into three categories as the endomorphic, the
mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. Of the following statements, which
appropriately describes the mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
74.According to Hans Eyesenck, in his study about the behavioral character and
incidence to crime, the typical extravert is one who is:
A. sociable, impulsive, optimistic and has high needs
for excitement
B. reserved, quiet and cautious
C. undersized, short and untidy
D. over sized, heavy and firm
75.To explain human behavior, social learning theorists place great emphasis on
cognitive variables. Social learning reflects the theory’s strong assumption that
we learn primarily by observing and listening to people around us-
A. the social environment
B. the stimulus that elicit response
C. the mental state and brain-mediation processes.
D. the reinforcements for behavior
76.In the study of juvenile delinquency, which of the following projects paved
the way for a reassessment of existing treatment and prevention programs for
delinquents?
A. Chicago Area Project of 1930
B. Illinois Legislature
C. Boston Child Guidance Clinic
D. President’s Commission on Law Enforcement in the U.S.
77. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home.

The term broken home is ambiguous but can be characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure
B. Anti-social type of family structure
C. Discordant or disturbed family structure
D. Disrupted or incomplete family structure
78. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh discipline in the

home may result in more delinquencies than consistent and reasoning forms of
discipline. Aside from this, screaming at the child, calling the child insulting
names, excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also contributory to
delinquency. These actions simply refers to:
A. Physical Abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Unfair parent
D. Parental neglect
79.When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying, emotional

flatness, the voice is monotonous, the face immobile and expressionless and
manifest highly bizarre and add behavior then appropriately he is:
A. suffering from neurotic behavior
B. suffering from psychopathic behavior
C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior
D. suffering from sexual dysfunctions
80.It is a popular notion that the brutal, violent and apparently senseless crime is
usually committed by someone who is mentally ill or sick. Or if not sick, then the
person is an animal. The kind of alternate explanation is an influence of the:
A. Positivist theory of Criminology
B. Classical theory of Criminology
C. Neoclassical theory of Criminology
D. Differential Association theory of Criminology
81.Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior?

A. Failure to conform to social norms.
B. Consistent irresponsibility, as reflected in a poor work
history
C. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings.
D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking
82.A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime

Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the Tories and their leader,
Robert Peel, however turned out to be another person. The court believed he
was so mentally deranged that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was
clear he was not in control of his faculties. This case became known as:
A. the M’naghten Rule
B. the Durham Rule
C. the Brawner Rule
D. the Irrational Mind Rule
83. One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day, warm and
sociable. This condition may fall into the disorder known as:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Psychopathic behavior
D. Amnesia
84.A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank, flees with hostages,
and kills a number of people while in flight driving a chase would be an example
of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
85.Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture, using psychological torment

combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual arousal is suffering from:
A. Sexual Pyromania
B. Sexual Sadism
C. Sexual Torture
D. Masochism
86.There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family

circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. Which of the
following developmental pathways to delinquency begins with stubborn
behavior, then defiant behavior, and developing later into avoidance of
authority figures like truancy, running away, staying out late, etc.?
A. Authority conflict pathways
B. Covert pathway
C. Overt pathway
D. None of these
87.Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax?

A. Children aging from 7 to 12 years
B. Children above 9 that below 15 years old
C. Children at puberty age
D. Children in conflict with the law
88.Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away of classifying
juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and non-serious acts and
between serious and non-serious offenders. Among the following, which is not
considered a serious juvenile act?
A. Forcible sexual intercourse
B. Larceny
C. Homicide
D. Vagrancy
89.The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is

A. harass the people
B. perform his job well
C. dress well
D. always present in the office
90.Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino nation that
implements the policies of the national and local government?
A. family
B. society
C. community
D. barangay
91.In crisis management, the teams under the support unit are under the control
of the ground commander. Which is responsible for the collection and
processing of all information needed by the on – scene commander?
A. Security element
B. Support unit
C. Negotiation unit
D. Intelligence team
92.What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where
target are often police, military officials or political features?
A. Hijacking
B. Assassination
C. Ambush
D. Kidnap for Ransom
93.The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his
courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in
progress is the
A. Chief Negotiator
B. Tactical Commander
C. Fire fighting team
D. Support Unit Commander
94.A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific action to

be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called
A. Floor plan
B. Bomb threat plan
C. Drill
D. Contingency plan
95.What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his
captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage taker?
A. Holmshock syndrome
B. Traumatic syndrome
C. Withdrawal syndrome
D. none of these
96.Among the following, which is most contagious on human emotion?

A. Fear
B. Panic
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox
97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the causes why a hostage becomes

cooperative with the hostage taker is due to
A. selfishness
B. personal grudge
C. personal affection
D. personal interest
98.The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control

in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is called
A. Proactive Crisis Management
B. Reactive Crisis Management
C. Performance Stage
D. Reaction Phase
99.What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan when a crisis
situation occurs?
A. Pro-active Phase
B. Reactive Phase
C. Prediction
D. None of these
100.What model of insurgency does the New People’s Army in the Philippines
is employing?
A. Communist Model
B. Socialist Model
C. Democratic Model
D. None of these
101. Known as the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for public officials and
employees.
A. R.A. No. 9344
B. R.A. No. 6713
C. R.A. No. 9262
D. P.D. No. 603
102. It is the transfer of title or disposal of interest in property by

voluntarily, completely, and actually depriving or dispossessing oneself of his
right or title to it in favor of a person or persons other than his spouse and
relatives.
A. Procurement
B. Divestment
C. Enticement
D. Attainment
103. A Fundamental truth or proposition that serves as the foundation for a

system of belief or behavior or for a chain of reasoning.
A. Principle
B. Ideas
C. Customs
D. Morals
104. A branch of Philosophy dealing with what are good and bad with moral
duty and obligation.
A. Logic
B. Epistemology
C. Aesthetics
D. Ethics
105. Are Rules by which we make decisions about right and wrong, should
and shouldn't, good and bad.
A. Morals
B. Ethics
C. Values
D. Customs
106. This factor considers inclinations or inherited propensities which cannot be
considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a crime will be
committed.
a. precipitating c. predisposing
b. predisposal d. precapitation
107. It means long established practices common to a particular community,

class, or race.
A. Practice
B. Values
C. Customs
D. Ethics
108. It implies the repetition of the same action as to develop a natural,

spontaneous or rooted tendency or inclination to perform it.
A. Traditions
B. Practices
C. Values
D. Habits
109. It means a regularly followed procedure or pattern in conducting activities.

A. Traditions
B. Practice
C. Values
D. Habits
110. It means observance of social norms as required by good breeding.

A. Etiquette
B. Ethics
C. Values
D. Practice
111. It is refers to the agencies of the government charge with the enforcing,
prosecuting, convicting or acquitting, correcting and providing assistance in returning to
the community.
A. criminal justice system
B. juvenile justice system
C. anti-crime machinery of the government
D. police, prosecution, court, correction & community
112. It is an order issued by Datu Kalantiyaw on 1433 A.D. for the guidance of his
people.
A. Code of Hamurabi B. Code of Kalantiyaw
C. Mosaic Code D. Maragtas Code
113. It is an informal part of the criminal justice system, and its plays very important
and crucial roles in combating the reducing crimes.
A. correction B. prosecution
C. community D. police
114. It appears to be the obvious goal of the criminal justice system, but such
broadly phrased statement does not say to much about it can be achieved.
A. deterring the commission of crimes
B. negating the offenders
C. elimination of actual opportunity
D. prevention and control of crimes
115. In criminal justice system, it means two thing, i.e., special and general.
A. repression B. deterrence
C. controlling D. prevention
116. In the entry stage into the criminal justice system, three kinds of decisions are
made, EXCEPT:
A. legal criteria B. decisions by victims
C. penal & special laws D. decisions by police
117. These are the phases of the criminal justice system, as follows, i.e., first-entry
into the system, second-prosecuting and pre-trial, third-adjudication, fourth-sentencing,
and the fifth is what?
A. treatment B. rehabilitation
C. corrections D. all of these
118. There are two important characteristics of the criminal justice system, the first is
the system effect of all elements and procedure, and the second is:
A. element of discretion B. element of jurisdiction
C. element of legality D. element of due process
119. These are the most important models of the criminal justice system, EXCEPT:
A. crime control & justice models
B. due process & rehabilitative models
C. accusatorial and inquisitorial models
D. non-intervention & restorative model
120. In a democratic society, it is considered as the anti-crime machinery for

preventing and controlling criminality.
A. criminal justice system
B. juvenile justice system
B. anti-crime machinery of the government
D. police, prosecution, court, correction & community
121. It controls the actions of the agencies of criminal justice system, and defines
the rights of defendants.
A. bill of rights B. criminal laws
C. constitution D. procedural laws
122. It is having a greater responsibility for maintaining the peace than for law
enforcement, and it is also considered as the gatekeepers of the criminal justice system.
A. military B. security
C. police D. law enforcement
123. It is defined as the management of conflict situations to bring about consensual

resolutions.
A. order maintenance B. law enforcement
C. none of these D. crime investigation
124. It is considered as the prominent role of the police.

C. crime investigation D. all of these
125. Collectively, it is the largest and most v isible of all criminal justice agencies,
and probably the most complex and certainly, the most controversial of all in the
criminal process.
A. court pillar B. correction pillar
C. prosecution pillar D. police pillar
126. Is one that provides temporary protection and care to children requiring
emergency reception as a result of fortuitous events, abandonment by parents,
dangerous conditions of neglect or cruelty on the home, being without adult care
because of crisis in the family or court order holding them as material witnesses.
a. detention home c. shelter care institution
b. child caring institution d. receiving home
127. In the frontline decisions of the police, both the society and the democratic
principles are all at stake, the following activities are involved, EXCEPT:
A. investigating crimes B. in-custody investigation
C. arrest of suspect D. release from custody
128. Anti-VAWC Act is

a. RA 9261
b. RA 9622
c. RA 9262
d. RA 9263
129. In the criminal justice system, it is often considered as thankless tasks.

A. policing B. prosecuting
C. correcting D. sentencing
130. Who among the following has no personality to file for protection
order?
a. Parents of the offended party
b. Kagawad
c. Relative of the victim within 2 nd degree of consanguinity
d. A resident of the community
131. The police occupy one of the most important positions in the society, due
this __________ is entrusted to them.
A. maintenance of peace and order
B. enforcement of laws
C. all of these
D. right to protect the citizenry
132. They are the gatekeepers of the criminal justice system, and they initiate
contact with law violators.
A. community B. law enforcement pillar
C. police pillar D. none of these
133. As working institution, the prosecution pillar has its own share of flaws and
problems, some of the predicaments had been pointed to wit, EXCEPT:
A. absence of prescribe guidelines
B. incompetence of the procedures
C. undue delay due to prosecutorial lapses
D. lack of human and material resources
134. The term fiscal was derived from the Spanish word __________, which means
treasury.
A. procurador B. fisco
C. fiscus D. none of these
135. It operates under the supervision and control of the Department of Justice
(DOJ).
A. prosecution pillar of the CJS B. National Prosecution Service
C. City and Provincial Fiscal D. Public Attorney’s Office
136. It is not among the reliefs given under the VAWC law-
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary restraining order
c. Battered Women Syndrome
d. Permanent Protection Order
137. It is viewed as the machinery that sets in notion the institution of action to
establish the guilt of criminal offenders and law violators.
A. prosecution pillar B. city fiscal
C. state prosecutors D. provincial fiscal
138. The principal mandate of the National Prosecution Serv ice (NPS) is, first--is to
conduct speedy and efficient investigation and second is __________.
A. conduct preliminary investigation
B. representative of the state
C. prosecution of criminal cases
D. defenders of the general public
139. It is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before a court of
justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
A. trial of the case B. prosecution
C. cross-examination D. investigation
140. The competent prosecutor should task himself the following questions before
filing the corresponding information, EXCEPT:
A. is there sufficient probable cause or a prima facie case of the guilt to
warrant the prosecution of the suspect
B. if there is probable cause or prima facie, is there any reason that the
filing of the corresponding information
C. will the filing of information or non-filing of the same be in the best
interests of the administration of justice
D. is the filing of information warranted, and there is a need to
conduct research on the facts of the case
141. It is an act which prov ides a uniform system of preliminary investigation.

A. RA 5189 B. PD 77
C. Act 2942 D. PD 911
142. The prosecutors have __________ in determining which charges to bring or

whether to present the case to the courts.
A. none of these B. legal authority
C. wide discretion D. legal responsibility
a. Barangay Protection Order
b. Temporary restraining order
c. Battered Women Syndrome
d. Permanent Protection Order
144. During Spanish regime, the justice system operated through the superior courts
consisting of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Audiencia Territorial de Manila
B. Audencia de lo Criminal de Cebu
C. Audiencia de lo Criminal de Cigan
D. Audiencia de las Españas
145. He is considered as the most prominent jurist at the time of his appointment
to the first Supreme Court organized under the American model.
A. Gregorio Araullo B. Cayetano Arellano
C. Victorino Mapa D. Florentino Torres
146. Administration of justice—concretely, and in the sense the term is used in the
definition—involves two things, i.e., the ascertainment or determination of the relevant
facts of a controversy, and __________.
A. the application of the law to those facts in order to resolve the
controversy.
B. to settle actual controversies involving rights which are legally
demandable and enforceable
C. to determine whether or not there has been a grave abuse of discretion
D. the administration of justice or dispensation of justice
147. An order directing the perpetrator to desist from committing physical harm
or threatening woman or her child within a period of fifteen days
a. Order of injunction
b. Temporary protection order
c. Barangay protection order
d. Permanent protection order
148. The lessening or limitation of the adverse impacts of hazards and

related disasters.
a. Disaster Preparedness c. Disaster Prevention
b. Disaster Mitigation d. Disaster Response
149. Adjudication of actions and special proceedings is not; however, the sole function
of the courts, it has also other equally important functions, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. disciplinary powers B. quasi-legislative power
C. rules making power D. judiciary branch power
150. They are judicial tribunals exercising limited jurisdictions over particular or
specialized categories of action.
A. special courts B. regular courts
C. constitutional courts D. quasi-judicial bodies
151. It is defined as power to try and decide from the parties—-including their
arguments—-according to fixed rules, and determine cause.
A. venue B. place
C. jurisdiction D. authority
152. In the local setting, the regular courts engaged in the administration of justice
are organized into four level, and the highest is:
A. city/municipal courts B. regional trial court
C. supreme court D. court of appeals
153. Are those which are independent, capable of existing alone, needing and
depending if not other remedy to subsist.
A. provisional remedies B. principal remedies
C. all of the above D. none of the above
154. It is an ordinary suit in a court of justice whereby one party prosecutes for the
enforcement or protection of a right or the prevention or redress of a wrong.
A. action B. civ il action
C. criminal action D. special proceedings
155. The basic law on the Philippine Prison System is found in Revised
Administrative Code, otherwise known as:
A. Royal Decree B. Correction Law
C. Bilibid Prison Law D. Prisons Law
156. The corrections in the local scenario have two-systems based approaches, one is
the institution-based and two is:
A. community-based corrections
B. jail confinement & treatment
C. probation and parole system
D. privatized corrections
157. Several functions of corrections have been identified, as follows, EXCEPT:

A. retribution & deterrence
B. incapacitation & rehabilitation
C. reintegration & control
D. treatment & rehabilitation
158. It is a relatively new concept based on the correctional goal of inmate re-
integration into the community.
A. justice model B. reform modelr
C. community model D. medical model
159. Underly ing the field of corrections are three basis ideologies regarding the social
responses to illegal behavior and the offenders. These ideologies are as follows,
EXCEPT:
A. punishment ideology B. re-integration ideology
C. prevention ideology D. treatment ideology
160. This is the only penal institution for women in the country.
A. CIW B. NBP
C. NMH D. none of these
161. Is the temporary and conditional suspension of the prosecution of a case prior to
its adjudication, usually as the results of an arrangement between the prosecutor and
judge.
A. diversion B. probation
C. plea-bargaining D. parole
162. The number of correctional alternatives is growing, however, and attempts to

evaluate the effectiveness of the following programs are under way, EXCEPT:
A. work-release program B. graduated release.
C. furlough & half-way D. parole & probation
163. The offices that are tasked to carry out the goals and functions of the corrections
rest with the following, EXCEPT:
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Board of Parole and Pardons
C. Parole and Probations Administration
D. Bureau of Jail Management &Penology
164. Under the Department of the Interior and Local Government (DILG) is the BJMP
which take charge of the following jails, EXCEPT:
A. district jails B. city jails

C. municipal jails D. provincial jails
165. It operates rehabilitation centers intended for youthful offenders.
A. DSWD B. BJMP
C. BuCor D. provincial government
166. The NDRRMC is headed by the Secretary of the Department of National

Defense (DND) as Chairperson while the vice Chairperson is
a. Secretary DSWD c. Secretary DILG
b. Executive Secretary d. Secretary DOST
167. The word community comes from the Latin word __________, meaning
"common” and shared by all or many.
A. communis B. comminitatus.
C. gemeinschaft D. gesselchaft
168. It is most effective at the individual level.

A. community control B. social control
C. self-control D. group control
169. It is the fifth component of criminal justice system, and includes but is not
limited to indiv iduals, private groups and public entities
A. social group B. neighborhood people
C. private citizen D. community
170. The community pillar of the criminal justice system includes the following
components, EXCEPT:
A. home, church & school B. government & mass media
C. barangay officials D. political personalities
171. Crisis came from the Greek word “Krisis”, which means to
a. integrate c. divide
b. initiate problems d. separate
172. The community pillar involvement in the criminal justice system process is
institutionalized down to the __________, as the smallest political unit of the
country.
A. municipality B. barrio
C. barangay D. neighborhood
173. Current crime prevention programs and strategies of the government have
realigned and geared towards, i.e., improving the level of coordination among the
components system, and __________.
A. increasing community participation in the prevention of
crimes
B. balanced allocation of peacekeeping duties between the system and
the citizenry
C. positive action the community pillar’s concern for crime prevention.
D. all of these
174. All terrorist-based crisis/emergencies which are basically police matters

shall be handled as much as possible, at this ______ level and resolved at the
earliest possible time.
a. National c. Equal
b. Lowest d. Highest
175. By creating fear and mistrust, crime weakens community pillar’s solidarity and
diminishes __________.
A. formal social control B. informal social control
C. government control D. legal control
176. It is characterized by more intimate relationships and more social integration that
complex communities.
A. simple communities B. complex communities
C. urban communities D. rural communities
177. They play an increasingly important role towards the effectiveness of the criminal
justice system.
A. community B. community-members
C. society D. community pillar
178. The criminal justice system is not only an anti-crime machinery of the
government, but also essentially.
A. an instrument of social control
B. informal components of crime control
C. formal components of order maintenance
D. a different agencies of the government
179. It is refers to a loose confederation of independently funded, managed, and

operated police, prosecution, court, correctional agencies, and the community -at-large.
A. government agencies B. juvenile justice system
C. community-members D. criminal justice system
180. There are number of important sub-goals of the criminal justice system, such as
follows, EXCEPT:
A. prevention of crime, suppression of criminal conduct by apprehending
offenders
B. review of the legality of measures, and judicial determination of guilt or
innocence
C. correction by socially approved means of the behavior of those who
violate the criminal law
D. authority to act as the means by which existing order is
maintained
181. In a free society, the primary goal of a criminal justice system is:
A. maintenance of peace and order
B. to protect the members of that society
C. ensuring public safety and security
D. all of the above
182. The CJS is wielded in an arena whose boundaries and “rules of warfare” are
delineated and prescribed by __________ parameters, it is equally imperative for use
to explore and familiarize ourselves with them.
A. legal parameters B. constitutional laws
C. judicial basis D. criminal procedure
183. The criminal justice process may be also viewed as a __________ through which
cases are screened; some are advanced to the next level, and others are either rejected.
A. funnel of sleeve B. wedding cake
C. filtering process D. none of these
184. All terrorist-based crisis/emergencies which are basically police matters

shall be handled as much as possible, at this ______ level and resolved at the
earliest possible time.
185. The criminal justice system means an interactive, interrelated, interdependent
group of elements performing related functions that make up a __________.
A. system’s machinery B. collegial body
C. complex organization D. complex whole
186. It is permitted, and it must be exercised as an inevitable feature of the criminal

justice system.
A. discreet solution B. legal authority
C. wide discretion D. conflict resolution
187. Throughout the flow of the criminal justice system process, the number of
persons within the system steadily decreases, this phenomenon is called, as:
A. attrition rate B. mortality rate
C. all of these D. none of these
188. It is otherwise known as the Barangay Justice System, as amended.

A. PD 1508 B. RA 7160
C. PD 7160 D. RA 1508
189. It is otherwise known as the Local Government Code of 1991, and which
repealed P.D 1508,
A. PD 1508 B. RA 7160
C. PD 7160 D. RA 1508
190. It is composed of the punong barangay, as chairman and ten (10) to

twenty (20) members, and shall be constituted every three (3) years in the manner
provided herein.
A. pangkat ng barangay B. baragnay justice
C. lupong tagapagkasundo D. lupong tagapamayapa
191. The following are the functions of lupon, EXCEPT:

A. exercise administrative supervision over the conciliation panels provided
herein;
B. elect from among themselves the chairman and the barangay
secretary
C. meet regularly once a month to provide a forum for exchange of ideas
among its members
D. Exercise such other powers and perform such other duties and functions
as may be prescribed by law
192. It shall be constituted for each dispute brought before the lupon, consisting of
three (3) members who shall be chosen by the parties to the dispute.
A. pangkat ng barangay B. barangay justice
C. pangkat tagapagkasundo D. lupong tagapamayapa
193. They shall render legal advice on matters involv ing questions of law to the
punong barangay or any lupon or pangkat member whenever necessary in the exercise
of his functions in the administration of the katarungang pambarangay, EXCEPT:
A. provincial legal officers
B. city/municipal legal officers
C. city/provincial prosecutors
D. city/municipal/regional trial judges
194. The lupon members, while in the performance of their official duties or on the
occasion thereof, shall be deemed as __________, as defined in the Revised Penal
Code.
A. persons in authority B. aqents in authority
C. agents of justice D. any of these
195. Objections to venue shall be raised in the __________ before the punong
barangay; otherwise, the same shall be deemed waived.
A. mediation proceedings B. preliminary meeting
C. prior settlement D. filing of complaint
196. All the proceedings for settlement in the barangay justice system shall be:
A. made in open court B. private and formal
C. public and informal D. close door & discreet
197. The amicable settlement or arbitration award may be enforced by execution by

the lupon within how many months from the date of the settlement.
A. six (6) months B. three (3) months
C. eight (8) months D. four (4) months
198. Who has the power to administer oaths in connection with any matter relating
to all proceedings in the implementation of the katarungang pambarangay.
A. punong barangay B. barangay secretary
C. baragnay treasurer D. barangay concilor
199. It is srefers to the system used by the government to maintain social control,
prevent crimes, enforce laws, and administer justice.
A. juvenile justice system
B. criminal justice system
C. barangay justice system
D. adult criminal justice system
200. The pursuit of criminal justice is, like all forms of "justice", "fairness" or
"process", essentially to the pursuit of an ideal __________.
A. adversarial system B. accusatorial system
C. inquisitorial system D. mixed systems
201. The criminal justice system primarily serves the interest of the following in
particular, EXCEPT.
A. the weak B. the people
C. the state D. the society
202. It serves as the monitoring and administrative arm of the various peace and
order councils.
A. National Peace and Order Coordinating Center
B. Peace and Order Coordinating Offices
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
203. It serves as the coordinating machinery of the criminal justice system.

A. Peace and Order Councils
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government Units
204. More specifically, the functions of the Peace and Order Council are the following:
A. to coordinate and monitor peace and order plans, projects and all
related activ ities;
B. to develop, design, and establish and information system for
administration of justice
C. to organize and manage a unit to undertake criminological research
D. to assemble peace summit meetings to be participated in by
public and private sectors
205. It implies dedication to maintaining public and order and to countering the threat
of active criminals.
A. crime suppression B. crime prevention
C. crime control D. crime negation
206. The caveat for the criminal justice system is, “democracy cannot be saved by
destroying it,” this means that the __________ and respect for the basic freedom and
human rights of the citizenry shall always be upheld and safeguarded, no matter why,
what or when.
A. rules of law B. legal parameters
C. legal basis D. criminal law
207. Which of these best describe the word “Crisis”?

a. A crucial event or situation that requires a response by the police only.
b. A threat that involves massive casualties and mobilization of resources.
c. A crucial event or situation requiring a special response to
assure an acceptable solution.
d. A crucial event or situation that involves a death of a person.
e. A crucial event or situation that requires planning upon occurrence of
an incident
208. The criminal justice system is unique in this society, and resting on the form of
government organization, seeking to serve many ends consistent with its __________.
A. political ideology B. economic conditions
C. state of security D. none of these
209. It serves to either limit or widen the range of actions, ways and means that
could be wielded by the criminal justice system in the anti-crime campaign.
A. bill of rights B. rules of law
C. criminal procedure D. legal parameters
210. It is the basic element and the fifth component of the entire criminal justice system
since without their support, the system itself cannot succeed.
A. society B. community
C. public D. populace
211. This is the study of crimes and criminals, and a particular field that attempt
to build theories that explain why crimes occur and test those theories by observing
behavior.
A. Psychology B. Sociology
C. Biology D. Criminology
212. The discipline of criminology has evolved in five phases, the first two phases
were the early origins and the dark ages, the third phase is the era of classical
criminology, the fourth is positiv ist criminology, and the fifth is known as.
A. biological criminology B. radical criminology
C. independent criminology D. sociological criminology
213. It is the earliest surviving legal codes and which was developed in about 2000
B.C., and its content is known today as famous set of written laws.
A. Kalantiaw Code B. Code of Hamurabi
C. Mosaic Code D. Twelve Tables
214. Lex talionis, means.

A. physical retaliation B. an eye for an eye
215. This is an ancient legal code that is still surv iv ing, and this is not only the
foundations of Judeo-Christian moral teachings, but it is also a basis for the U.S. legal
system.
216. It still surv iving in the Roman Law, and these were formulated by a special
commission of ten men in response to pressure from the lower classes—-the plebeians.
C. Mosaic Code of Israel D. Twelve Tables of Rome
217. These are some of the forms of punishment during the dark ages of criminology,
EXCEPT:
A. penitence B. burning
C. branding D. beheading
218. It is a branch of psychiatry based on the theories of Sigmund Freud that employs
a particular personality theory and a particular method of treatment, usually indiv idual
case study.
A. Psychoanalysis B. Psychiatry
C. all of these D. Psychology
219. This refers to the breakdown of social orders as results of a loss of standards and
values that replaced social cohesion.
A. anomie theory B. strain theory
C. radical theory D. conflict theory
220. It flourished during the nineteenth century, and they also believe in free will
of committing crimes, but they are arguing the need for individualized reaction to
offenders.
A. classical criminology B. neo-classical criminology
C. positiv ist criminology D. none of these
221. It is based on the assumptions that criminal choose to commit crime after
weighing the consequences of their actions.
A. classical criminology B. neo-classical criminology
C. positiv ist criminology D. all of these
222. He is considered as the “father of modern criminology.”

A. Cesare Beccaria B. Jeremy Benthan
C. Rafael Garogalo D. Emile Durkheim
223. He was concern with the achieving “the greatest happiness of the greatest
number,” and his work was governed by “utilitarian principles.”
A. Cesare Beccaria B. Jeremy Bentham
224. He postulates the theory of “born criminal,” which states that criminals are a
lower of life, nearer to the apelike ancestors than non-criminals in traits and disposition.
A. Cesare Lombroso B. Jeremy Bentham
225. He advocates conventional punishments and even the death penalty for
indiv iduals assumed would never fit to live the society.
A. Enrico Ferri B. Gabriel Targe
C. Edwin Sutherland D. Charles Darwin
226. He rejects the doctrine of “free will” and supported the position that the only way
to understand crime was to study it by scientific methods.
A. Rafael Garofalo B. Gabriel Targe
C. Edwin Sutherland D. Charles Darwin
227. Tracing the roots of criminal behavior not to physical features but to their
psychological equivalents, are called by Garofalo, as what?
A. moral reasoning
B. natural crimes
C. moral anomalies
D. anomie theories
228. His arguments is that criminals were normal people who learned crime just as
others learned legitimate trades, and he formulated this theory in terms of laws of
imitation.
A. Gabriel Tarde B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Rafael Garofalo D. Jeremy Bentham
229. To estimate the nature of crime, the criminologists in the local setting primarily
rely on this, which measures crimes through reports made by the police and other law
enforcement agencies.
A. National Crime Reporting System
B. Nationwide Criminological Researches
C. Quantitative Crime Statistics
D. Reports of the Police & Law Enforcement Agencies
230. They want to know why and how things go wrong; they want to apply the
scientific methods of research to the study of social problem and their solution.
A. criminologists B. sociologists
C. biologists D. psychologists
231. He is a British criminologists who records the facial and other measurements of
several thousands criminals and non-criminals, and concluded that Lombroso’s findings
on biological criminal type had no adequate scientific support.
A. Lawrence Kohlberg B. Jean Piaget
C. Charles Goring D. Sigmund Freud
232. It emphasizes that traits are transmitted from parents to offspring.

A. genetic factors B. neurological abnormalities
C. biological theories D. synapses theory
233. It may identify specific gene patterns that are associated with pre-dispositions
toward criminal behavior.
A. deoxyribonucleic acid test
B. biological tests
C. genetic test
D. chromosome test
234. It emphasizes the role of neurological factors, and focus on the functioning of
the brain that reduces inhibitions toward aggression.
A. genetic factors B. neurological abnormalities
C. biological theories D. synapses theory
235. It first became popular during the middle parts of the nineteenth century with the
introduction of positiv ist theory.
A. biological theories B. psychological theories
C. sociological theories D. alternative theories
236. Some criminologist believes that criminal were __________, and committed
crimes as a means of allev iating the pathological urges they inherited from mentally
defective ancestors.
A. morally immature B. morally defective
C. morally insane D. morally abnormal
237. It follows that it should also be responsible for determining whether a person
chooses law-violating or conventional behavior and it suggest that biological make-up
controls human behavior.
A. trait theory B. hereditary theory
C. environmental theory D. learned theory
238. It is describes as a sequence of developmental stages that people pass through,

and even acquiring the capacity to make moral judgments.
A. moral development theory
B. social learning theory
C. personality theory
D. psychoanalytic theory
239. It emphasizes the process of learning and internaliz ing moral codes.
240. This theory assumes a set of enduring perceptions and pre-dispositions—

tendencies that each indiv idual develop through early socialization.
241. He is the founder of sociology who described the emotional development as the
process of achieving a balance between conflicting desires.
A. Lawrence Kohlberg B. Jean Piaget
C. Sigmund Freud D. Henry Maudsley
242. It is the part of the personality that contains the powerful urges and drives for
gratification and satisfaction.
A. id B. ego
C. superego D. conscience
243. This acts as a moderator between the superego and the id.
A. ethics B. ego
C. morality D. conscience
244. This means conscience.

A. id B. ego
C. superego D. conscience
245. This theory also suggests another explanation for behavior as an insatiable need
for immediate reward or gratification.
A. moral development theory B. social learning theory
C. personality theory D. psychoanalytic theory
246. It is defines as the reasonably stable patterns of behavior, including thoughts

and emotions that distinguish one person from another.
A. personality B. intelligence
C. morality D. behavior
247. It is usually refers to as the general mental capability to reason, solve problems,
think abstractly, learn and understand new material, and profit from past experience.
248. They are having a low internal arousal level, and seek stimulation as artificial
label of anti-social personality.
A. psychopaths B. sociopaths
C. morally insane D. anti-social personality
249. These are the three broad categories of psychological theories of crimes,
EXCEPT:
A. psychodynamic B. behavioral learning
C. cognitive learning D. psychoanalytic
250. It is originated with the notion of uncovering hidden unconscious force within a
person’s psyche.
A. biological theories B. psychological theories
C. sociological theories D. contemporary theories
251. It assumes that the offender’s personality and action are molded by contact with
the social environment and such factor as age, gender, social class, and ethnic origins.
A. sociological theories B. biological theories
C. psychological theories D. alternative theories
252. This theory assumes that certain groups have values quite distinct from those of
the rest of society.
A. cultural deviance theory B. social-structure theory
C. social control theory D. sub-cultural theory
253. This theory emphasizes the effects of an indiv idual's position in society and the
constraints that the person’s status puts on his or her perceptions and behavior.
A. cultural deviance theory
B. social-structure theory
C. social control theory
D. sub-cultural theory
254. He is the founder of sociology who argued that industrialized society had become
separated into residence and employment has subverted the moral authority of united
society.
A. Robert Merton B. August Comte
C. Gabriel Tarde D. Travis Hirschi
255. Contemporary criminologists tend to divide the sociological theories of crimes

into the following categories, EXCEPT:
A. strain theory B. cultural deviance theory
C. social control theory D. anomie theory
256. This theory argues that all people in society share one set of cultural values, and
since lower class persons often do not have legitimate means to attain society’s goals,
they may turn to illegitimate means instead.
A. labeling theory B. strain theory
C. radical theory D. anomie theory
257. This theory focuses on the species of how the conduct norms of some groups
may clash with those of the dominant culture.
A. cultural conflict theory
B. differential association
C. social-structure theory
D. social disintegration theory
258. This theory focuses on explaining the breakdown of social institution as a

precondition for the establishment of criminal norms.
B. differential association theory
259. This theory concentrates on the processes by which criminal behavior is taught
and learned.
A. differential association theory
B. cultural conflict theory
260. They recognized that crimes is socially constructed entity, but at the sam e time
acknowledge that it poses a real threat to the continuance of that society and thus
needs to be controlled.
A. sociological positivists
B. biological positiv ists
C. ecological positivists
D. psychological positivists
261. This theory attributes criminal behavior to the

shortcoming of the citizens to conform in the conventional
values of the middle class, primarily financial success.
C. culture conflict theory D. social control
theory
262. This theory attributes crimes to a set of values peculiar to the lower class.
A. social-disintegration theory
C. latent and lifer course theory
D. cultural deviance theory
263. This theory views crime-ridden neighborhoods as those in which residents are
trying to leave at the earliest opportunity.
A. environmental factors theory
B. social disorganization theory
C. ecological problem theory
D. natural selection theory
264. This theory states that crime is learned through social interaction, or in other
words, to a very large extent of the social influences that people encounter determine
their behavior.
A. culture conflict theory
B. attitude deviance theory
C. strain and anomie theories
D. differential association theory
265. This theory focuses on the source of the criminal norms and attitudes.
A. socialization theory
B. culture conflict theory
C. learning theory
D. differential theory
266. This is a sub-culture whose values are in opposition to those of the dominant
culture—emerged to the slum areas in larger cities.
A. delinquent sub-culture B. juvenile delinquents
C. deviant sub-culture D. negative behavior
267. This theory states that people in all strata of society share the same success
goals but those in the lower class have limited means of achieving them.
B. culture difference theory
C. differential opportunity theory
D. association-socialization theory
268. This theory suggests that forces operating in the lower-class areas of the
environment push many of their residents into criminal behavior patterns.
A. social structure theory B. environmental theory
C. culture structure theory D. eco-structure theory
269. This theory emphasizes criminality as a learned or culturally transmitted

process.
A. social process theory B. social learning theory
C. delinquent theory D. process and learning
270. This theory finds that crimes are a product of learning the norms, values, and
behaviors associated with criminal activ ity.
A. social control theory B. social structure theory
C. social learning theory D. social process theory
271. This theory focuses on techniques and strategies that regulate human behavior
and lead to conformity, or obedience to society’s rules.
A. socialization theory B. social control theory
272. This theory assumes that for every indiv idual there exists a containing external and
protective internal structure, both of which prov ide protection, or insulation against
delinquency.
A. control theory B. isolation theory
C. restriction theory D. containment theory
273. This theory focuses on the characteristics of the crime rather than on those of
the offender.
A. crime control theory
B. rational choice theory
C. law enforcement theory
D. routine-activities theory
274. This theory takes into account the entire criminal event, which includes the
criminal motivation, and the situation.
A. rational choice theory B. free-will theory
C. behavioral theory D. routine-activities theory
275. This theory separates the good from the bad, the conventional from the deviant.
A. none of these B. labeling theory
C. marking theory D. tagging theory
276. This theory originated from the perceptions of other criminologists that the world is
filled with conflict.
A. opposition theory B. aggression theory
C. inimical theory D. conflict theory
277. In this theory, the term “class” does not refer to an attribute or characteristics of
a person or a group of person, and rather it denotes position in relation to others.
A. Lenim theory B. Communist theory
C. Marxist theory D. radical theory
278. Concern over critical issues has prompted the development of some
contemporary vis ions of criminality referred to as what particular theory.
A. developmental theory B. integrated theory
C. behavioral change theory D. upbringing theory
279. This theory suggests that traits affect the behavioral choices of all people equally,
regardless of their gender and personal characteristics.
A. inherited trait theory B. genetic traits theory
C. latent traits theory D. hormones traits theory
280. According to this theory, people begin relationship and behavior that will
determine their adult life.
A. latent traits theory B. journey of life theory
C. master traits theory D. life course theory
281. A more general restriction might result from the fact that some crimes may be
possible only if the opportunity results from the fact that some crime may be possible
only if the opportunity arises, and that is:
A. absence of guardian B. facilitating criminality
C. unexpected opportunity D. existence of victims
282. In modern control theories, man is not naturally either evil or moral, but needs a
reason for __________.
A. choosing criminality B. selecting criminality
C. adopting criminality D. none of these
283. It denotes how well the juvenile manages to resist using socially unacceptable
methods to reach goals.
A. personal control B. state control
C. indiv idual control D. social control
284. The focus is on __________ formed by early childhood socialization, particularly

in the family, and provides a wide theory of criminality, not dependent on the legally
adopted definitions.
A. crime control B. community control
285. A number of early crime control theories tended to concentrate on psychological

controls, giv ing particular importance to interpersonal relationships, especially those of
the following, EXCEPT:
A. family B. close friends
C. peer groups D. society
286. It is a composite of a number of the main institutions of means of social control.

A. barangay justice B. criminal justice system
C. all of these D. juvenile justice
287. They are one of the last and most drastic elements of social control.
A. police B. court
C. law enforcement D. correction
288. It is one of the quickest-spreading control factors, and is now an enormous

industry and it occurs at all levels of the Criminal Justice System (CJS).
A. penalization B. prosecution
C. indictment D. diversion
289. It is not learned, and no clear or ethnic group intentionally teaches it, and this
leads an indiv idual to criminality.
A. low level confidence B. low self-esteem
C. low self control D. inferiority conflex
290. Law abiding citizens are seen to have four elements, i.e., attachment,
commitment, involvement, and the other one is:
A. individual’s belief B. indiv idual’s tradition
C. indiv idual’s perception D. indiv idual’s culture
291. This formula gives the impression that the law is based on the “free will,” the
idea that people are accountable only if they freely choose to do a thing, and then they
have consciously do it.
A. criminal act requirement B. legality requirement
C. criminal law requirement D. punishable requirement
292. Law scholars have long agreed that one fundamental ingredient of every crime is
the so called actus reus--which means.
A. guilty mind B. criminal act
C. overt act D. human act
293. This holds that a crime is not complete unless the actor’s conduct necessarily
caused the harm without interference by some body else, and that is the proximate
cause of the act.
A. legal requirement B. reason requirement
C. causation requirement D. defense excuses
294. Every crime has been created to prevent something bad, and these detrimental
consequences that are trying to avoid is called __________.
A. harm requirement
B. dolo and culpa requirement
C. criminal act requirement
D. unlawful act requirement
295. Every crime according to tradition requires mens rea—which means.

A. unconscious act B. guilty mind
C. criminal mind D. guilty act
296. This states that the criminal act must be accompanied by an equally criminal
mind.
A. conformity requirement B. affirmative requirement
C. concurrence requirement D. voluntary act requirement
297. The last ingredient needed to constitute a crime, and an illegal act coupled with an
evil mind still does not constitute a crime unless it is subjected to this.
A. penalty requirement B. sanction requirement
C. imprisonment requirement D. punishment requirement
298. In order that an act or omission may be considered as having been performed or
incurred with deliberate intent, the following requisites must concur, EXCEPT:
A. he must have freedom while doing an act or omission
B. he must have intelligence while doing the act or omitting to the act.
C. he must have intent while doing the act or omitting to the act
D. he must act or omit to act something which is punishable by law
299. There are three reasons why the act or omissions in felonies must be voluntary,
and they are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. the penal code basis of criminal liability is human free will
B. acts or omissions punished by law are always deemed voluntary
C. the act is performed with deliberate intent and imprudence
D. a voluntary act is a freedom, intelligent, and intentional act
300. These are some forms of defense justifications, EXCEPT:

A. duress B. necessity
C. threats D. public duty
301. This theory also assumes that there is an inner force which desires aggression
and violence, but the inner force is acquired through experience, and it is not innate.
A. desire theory B. drive theory
C. free-will theory D. motive theory
302. This theory assumes that there is an inner force which desires aggression and
violence.
A. impulse theory B. voluntary theory
C. instinct theory D. all of these
303. This refers to the indiv iduals that the whole personality, including the super-ego,
is criminal.
A. abnormal criminal B. insane criminal
C. normal criminal D. sane criminal
304. It is the study of individual characteristics or qualities such as personality,

reasoning, thought, intelligence, learning, perception, imagination, memory and
creativity.
A. psychology B. psychiatry
C. neuro-evaluation D. biology
305. It is the branch of psychology which investigates the crime with particular
reference to the personality factors of the criminal.
A. criminal psychiatry B. criminal psychology
C. criminal psychoanalysis D. criminal anthropology
306. This refers to a complex set of behaviors characterized by three central features,
i.e., excessive motor activity, impulsiv ity, and inattention.
A. attention deficit B. hyperactivity disorder
307. This refers to the variety of symptoms found among delinquent youth, and these
are usually co-occurring psychopathologies that exist between one or more of these
symptoms and ADHD symptoms.
A. conduct problem B. behavior problem
C. mannerism problem D. attitude problem
308. This refers to a lower cognitive ability and slow language development that, at
times, is called by other names, such as neuropsychological dysfunction or impairment
of functioning.
A. average intelligence B. above average intelligence
C. none of these D. below average intelligence
309. It is almost always going to be in trouble with the law, and this adult disorder is
likely to have begun with a childhood pattern of disregard for the rights of others.
A. paranoid-schizoprenic personality
B. anti-social personality
C. inadequate personality
D. manic-depressive personality
310. It is a severe personality disorder, and is often considered to be potentially
extremely dangerous.
A. psychopathy B. manic-depressive
C. neurosis D. mentally deranged
311. It characterized many criminals, especially habitual offenders, and this

causes humans to become criminals.
A. emotional conflict B. personality deviations
312. It is the basis for behavior modification, and it is one of the approaches
used in institutionalized and non-institutionalized setting for changing behavior.
A. learning theory B. behavior theory
C. cognitive development D. personality theory
313. It is another psychological theory that has been used to explain human
behavior, and refers to organization of thoughts.
314. It is one who behaves according to the norms and standards of society.
A. normal persons B. abnormal persons
C. insane person D. none of these
315. This is a type of person who fails to meet the characteristics of a normal
person.
A. normal persons B. abnormal persons
C. insane person D. all of these
316. These are the several types of mental disorders experienced by individual
persons, EXCEPT:
A. psychomatic illness B. paranoia
C. psychoneurosis D. psychoses
317. It is false interpretation of an external stimulus experienced by some

individuals.
A. illusion B. delusion
C. hallucination D. memory disorders
318. It is a sudden and irresistible force compelling a person to the conscious

performance of some action without motive of foresight.
A. impulsion B. compulsion
C. coercion D. intimidation
319. These are the objectives of crisis management, EXCEPT:

A. accomplish tasks within current community standards
B. safety of participants and arrest of perpetrators
C. resolve without further incidents
D. evaluate, contain and negotiate with the suspects
320. It is an act wherein a person is forced to perform some actions against his
free will.
A. impulsion B. compulsion
C. coercion D. intimidation
321. The following are the theories of crisis management, EXCEPT:
A. contain and negotiate B. elimination of danger
C. protect the innocent D. allow passage of time
322. These are the difference between hostage-taking and kidnapping,

EXCEPT:
A. the police can employ crisis management techniques
B. the police are not aware of the captive’s location
C. the police are not in close contact with perpetrators
D. the police cannot exert pressure on the suspects
323. These are people who take hostages during a period of prolonged
frustrations, despair, and problems.
A. persons in crisis B. psychotics
C. prisoners D. political terrorist
324. Are people who take hostages for personal gain, other that ideological
reasons, and they are usually motivated by theft, escape and money.
C. prisoners D. common criminals
325. Are people who take hostage because of dissatisfaction and discontent
regarding their living conditions in prisons.
326. There are individuals or groups of people who take hostages because of
political and ideological beliefs.
327. These are some of the considerations for learned behavior, EXCEPT:
A. cognitive adaptation B. environment
C. training D. efforts of the will
328. These are thoughts and impulses which continually occur in the person’s
mind despite attempts to keep them out.
A. obsession B. melancholia
C. dementia D. amnesia
329. It is a form of mental disorder resulting from the degeneration or disorder

of the brain, characterized by mental weakness, forgetfulness, and loss of
coherence.
330. It is the loss of memory of past events and observed in traumas of head.
A. anterograde amnesia B. retrograde amnesia
331. It is an intense of feeling of depression and misery which is unwarranted

by the physical condition and external environment.
332. Hostage taking guarantee __________, and after repeated incidents, it is

the hope of the terrorist that the government might overreach and become
excessively restrictive to people.
A. reciprocal good faith B. media coverage
C. bargaining power D. considerable advantage
333. The criminals’ demands for taking hostages are invariably because of the
following reasons, EXCEPT:
A. safe passage B. means of escape
C. demand ransom D. spontaneous events
334. The motive of mentally disturbed person in taking hostage is __________.

A. to right what he believes to be wrong
B. just because of inner conflict and frustrations
C. vicarious pleasure as the focus of attention
D. just because of period of psychiatric disturbance
335. __________ sometimes involves hostages and certain guidelines of

behavior must be laid down if the police are to effectively deal with the hostage
situation.
A. hold-ups B. warring nations
C. custody battles D. demand for change
336. It is the voluntary or involuntary attitude of a person in order to fit the

society’s idea of right or wrong, partly determined by heredity, environment and
modified by learning.
A. human behavior B. inherited behavior
C. learned behavior D. all of these
337. It is the expert handling of crisis or emergency or the likes, so as to

reduce or eliminate dangers, or the likes, especially on the part of the
government.
A. crisis management B. police operation
C. crisis intervention D. emergency response
338. It is refers to any behavioral response or reflex exhibited by the people

due to their genetic endowment or the process of natural selection.
339. It involves cognitive adaptation that enhances the human being’s ability to
cope with the changes in the environment, and to manipulate the environment to
improve chances for survival.
340. It is a mental disease characterized by autistic behavior, hallucinations,

and gradual deterioration of the personality.
A. inadequate personality B. anti-social personality
C. manic-depressive D. paranoid schizophrenic
341. A person having or characterized by alternating account of mania and
depression.
342. This is mentally disturbed person who opposed to the principles upon
which society are based.
343. It is a person who is not much needed for a particular purpose.

344. It is the hearing or seeing things that are not really there.
A. mania B. depression
C. delusions D. hallucinations
345. A false system of beliefs that persists despite evidence to the contrary.
346. It is a kind of insanity characterized by great excitement.

347. A mental disorder that is characterized by prolonged feeling of despair

and rejection, often accompanied by fatigue, headaches, and other physical
symptoms.
348. It is characterized by anti-social behavior, indifference to morality, and

having abnormal changes in mood and activity.
A. sociopath B. psychopath
C. manipulator D. con-artist
349. It is a set of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a

person captive, with the use of force, or threat of violence, and the victim and
the suspect are in close confrontation with the police.
A. hostage situation B. kidnapping
C. barricaded person D. illegal detention
350. In responding to a call involving an individual who appears to be mentally

or emotionally disturbed, be extremely careful to handle the person, the
following must be observed, EXCEPT:
A. understanding B. tact
C. diplomacy D. arrogance
351. This is a type of hostage taker who will generally concede to the police
negotiations, if there is no way out, and they are classed as rational thinker, and
able to reason out.
A. psycho B. common criminal
C. fanatics D. none of these
352. This is a type of hostage taker who is unpredictable, and may resort to
violence depending upon his mood, and this is a type of person that can be
describe as full of inner conflict.
353. This is a category of hostage taker who falls on the extreme side of the
violence, and he is the most dangerous as the law in his mind has no basis at all.
354. Common criminals have three (3) common demands, why they take
hostages, EXCEPT:
A. escape B. transportation
C. money D. media coverage
355. It is the reasons why the prisoners take hostages.

A. bargaining power B. media coverage
356. These are the factors that affect human behavior, EXCEPT:
A. conflicts B. hereditary
C. environment D. learning
357. It is the dimension that dictates conditionability, and is therefore the

principal factor in anti-social behavior of individual persons.
A. neuroticism B. psychoticism
C. extraversion D. none of these
358. It is characterized by cold cruelty, social insensibility, disregards for

danger, troublesome behavior, dislike of other, and an attraction toward the
unusual.
C. extraversion D. all of these
359. It reflects an innate biological predisposition to react physiologically to

stressful or upsetting events.
C. extraversion D. introverts
360. This acknowledges that individuals have physiological mechanisms that

permit them to behave aggressively.
361. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein the first responder’s notify
the dispatcher by giving all pertinent information.
A. confrontation B. notifications
C. containment D. preparation
362. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein the first responder’s

immediately begin to contain the incident by positioning themselves in the most
advantageous position.
363. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein the supervisor immediately

begins to prepare the incident site for the arrival of the Conflict Management
Team (CMT).
364. It is an event in the matrix, wherein the supervisor must control the
deployed police officers.
A. isolation B. evaluation
C. evacuation D. segregation
365. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein things should have started
to settle down.
366. It as the event in the barricade matrix, wherein the patrol officers should
have been assembling witnesses and any other persons with pertinent
information.
367. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein after a terrorist takeover

there will be a lull in activity.
A. pre-CMT actions B. implementation of CMT
C. pre-negotiations D. negotiations begin
368. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein the CMT receives initial
briefing, and each component Team Leader issues a warning order to his
personnel.
A. actions of the CMT B. implementation of CMT
369. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein the coordinator of the

negotiation team assigns personnel to specific tasks.
C. pre-negotiations action D. negotiations begin
370. It is an event in the barricade matrix wherein a series of moves versus

counter-moves will take place over the next few minutes of few days.
371. Terrorists are usually __________ who have been politically and/or
ideologically indoctrinated towards their cause.
A. specially trained combatants
B. highly trained combatants
C. international combatants
D. locally trained combatants
372. It is capable of producing acute conflicts of principle that are not easy to
resolve.
A. terrorist hostage taking drama
B. hostage taking situations
C. terrorists incidents
D. barricaded incidents
373. Only a society that holds human life to be of not account can maintain at
all costs, a truly flexible hard line __________.
A. no ransom money B. no compromise
C. preserve integrity D. policy of no negotiation
374. The objectives of crisis management are as follows, EXCEPT:

A. resolve without further incidents
B. safety of all the participants
C. apprehension of all the perpetrators
D. neutralization of the suspects
375. It is roadmap used to maintain the operations sense of direction.

A. informational briefing B. operational order
C. briefing handout D. operational plan
376. This is used as a last recourse in negotiating with the terrorists and
mentioned solely as reminder of something to consider if all else fails.
A. telephone B. face-to-face
C. written notes D. voice amplification
377. It is the most common and the most effective means of negotiating with
terrorist.
A. telephones B. face-to-face
C. written notes D. voice amplification
378. A negotiator must possess _________ which will allow him to accept
abuse and insulting statements without responding emotionally.
A. skills B. techniques
C. emotional maturity D. tactics
379. Information relative to hostage situation must come from all sources of
the three major categories, EXCEPT:
A. law enforcer B. terrorist
C. hostage D. target location
380. The basis of selecting a negotiator is that he should be a __________ of

law enforcement agency, and who is excellent in mental and physical condition.
A. high ranking officer B. mid-level officer
C. line supervisor D. intelligence officer
381. The following are the considerations in selecting negotiators, EXCEPT:

A. speaks foreign language
B. member of ethnic group
C. knowledgeable in religions
D. capable in hand signals
382. It is the designation of responsible police officers, knowing various
influential news media, and developing a plan of action to handle the media.
A. during terrorist incident
B. advance media operations
C. good working relationship
D. trust & confidence
383. It is the establishing of media center, determining the basic facts,

establishing a system of regular updates, and giving of regular briefings.
A. during terrorist incident
B. advance media operations
C. good working relationship
D. trust & confidence
384. The news media helps form __________ of the law enforcement your
agency and government, and always have the last word.
A. public perception B. public trust
C. public opinion D. all of these
385. The majority of crisis incidents where the number of media personnel
tends to turn the coverage into confusion are the consequence of a lack of
__________ on the part of law enforcement authorities.
A. systematic plan B. extra attention
C. extra information D. extra intelligence
386. Usually congenital and due to the defective development of the mental
faculties. Mentality never exceeds that of a normal child over two (2) years old.
The I.Q. is from 0 to 20.
A. imbecile B. feeble-minded
C. idiot D. morally defective
387. Although the mental defect is not as severe as that of idiots, he cannot
manages his own affairs. The mental age may be compared to a normal child
from three (3) to seven (7) years old. The I.Q. is 21 to 40.
388. A person whose mental defect, although not amounting to imbecility is so

pronounced such that he receives care, supervision, and control for his
protection and for the protection of others. He has mentality similar to that of a
normal child between 8 and 12 years old. The I.Q. is 41 to 70.
389. In addition to the mental defect, there are strong vicious and criminal
propensities, so that the person requires care, supervision and control for the
protection of other.
390. It is a state of confusion of the mind, and it is characterized by incoherent

speech, hallucinations, illusions, delusions, restlessness, and apparently
purposeless motions.
A. delirium B. somnambulism
C. mesmerism D. semi-somnolence
391. It represents a condition wherein a redirection of feelings between the

terrorist and the negotiator occurs so that the relationship of confidence can be
developed.
A. dependency B. trust
C. problem solving D. none of these
392. It represents a condition whereby attainment of acceptable goal is

encouraged.
A. dependency B. trust
C. problem solving D. none of the these
393. It is a complicated crisis intervention process that is comprised of a

system of inter-related conditions, activities and behaviors needed to resolve
highly volatile terrorist incidents.
A. crisis management B. crisis intervention
C. terrorist negotiation D. negotiations
394. It is a demonstration of the negotiators attention, interest and concern to

the terrorist by listening in conjunction with verbal or non-verbal communication.
A. paraphrasing B. attending
C. reflection of feeling D. probing
395. This is a statement that mirrors the terrorist statement in exact or similar
wording.
396. These are statements by the negotiator that expressed the essence of the
terrorists feeling either expressed or implied.
397. The negotiators response that directs the terrorist attention inward in
order to examine the situation or a specific issued in greater depth.
398. It is a brief review by the negotiator of the main points discussed about
issue, demand, threat or ultimatum.
A. interpreting B. association
C. confrontation D. summarizing
399. An expression of the negotiators feelings, opinions, attitudes and

experiences for the benefits of the terrorists.
400. A presentation to the terrorist of a different or alternative way of looking

at the situation or a specific issue.
401. A negotiators statement of question which points out contradictions on
the part of the terrorist or which induces the terrorist to face an issue he is
avoiding.
402. It is a device used to implement a plan of action.

A. operational order B. operational plan
C. plan of action D. implementing plan
403. The following are the theories of crisis management, EXCEPT:

A. contain & negotiate B. protect the innocent
C. allow passage of time D. physical assault
404. These are the possible responses during crisis management, EXCEPT:
A. chemical agent B. selective firepower
C. silent entry D. tactical entry
405. It is designed around the first thirty minutes of a terrorists attack to

enable police agencies responsible for the planning to have a clear starting point.
A. plan of action B. operational order
C. barricade matrix D. briefing handout
406. This is the moment that the incident is occurring.

A. zero hour B. zero minute
C. elapsed time D. activity
407. It is the event wherein the law enforcement authorities first become
aware of the incident.
A. notification B. police response
C. zero hour D. location
408. It is the event wherein the police officers are dispatched to the incident
site to investigate.
409. It is one of the most dangerous events during terrorist incidents, and it
usually involved the arrival of the first responding officer on the scene.
410. During this event in the barricade matrix, it is very important that the
individual police officers practice utmost firearms discipline.
411. This is otherwise known as the “Child and Youth Welfare Code,” and it
shall apply to persons below twenty-one years of age except those emancipated
in accordance with law.
A. R.A. No. 9344 B. P.D. No. 608
C. R.A. No. 7610 D. P.D. No. 603
412. In all cases of adoption, the adopter must be at least fifteen years older
than the person to be adopted. The following persons may not be adopted,
EXCEPT:
A. a married persons without the written consent of the spouse
B. any persons who have been convicted of a crime involving
moral turpitude
C. an alien whose government has broken diplomatic relations with
the Republic of the Philippines
D. a person who has already been adopted unless the previous
adoption has been revoked or rescinded
413. The written consent of the following to the adoption shall be necessary,
EXCEPT:
A. persons or adopted, if fourteen years of age or over
B. natural parents of the child or his legal guardian
C. guardian with respect to the ward prior final adoption
D. natural children, fourteen years and above
414. The adopter may petition the court for the revocation of the adoption in
any of these cases, EXCEPT:
A. the adopted has reached the age of majority
B. the adopted has definitely repudiated the adoption
C. the adopted minor has abandoned the home of adopter
D. the adopted has attempted against the life of adopter
415. They are responsible for the damage caused by the child under their
parental authority in accordance with the Civil Code.
A. parents and guardians B. government agencies
C. government officials D. community residents
416. It shall mean, the local government, together with the society of
individuals or institutions, both public and private, in which the child lives.
A. barangays B. neighborhood
C. community D. society
417. It shall refers to any club, organization or association of individuals below

twenty-one years of age which is directly or indirectly involved in carrying out
child or youth welfare programs and activities.
A. youth organization B. youth association
C. youth corporation D. youth club
418. It shall refer to aggregate of persons working in commercial, industrial,

and agricultural establishments or enterprises whether belonging to labor or
management.
A. association B. kapatiran
C. organization D. samahan
419. They may be employed to perform light work which is not harmful to their
safety, health or normal development and which is not prejudicial to their
studies.
A. children above sixteen years of age
B. children sixteen years of age
C. children below sixteen years of age
D. children of minority ages
420. It is one that provides twenty-four hour resident group care service for
the physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being of nine or more mentally
gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected, handicapped or disturbed children or
youthful offenders.
A. detention home B. child-caring institution
C. rehabilitation center D. shelter-care institution
421. The members of this classification are severely or profoundly retarded,

hence, the least capable group, and this include those with I.Qs. of 0 to 25.
A. custodial group B. trainable group
C. borderline group D. educable group
422. The Court shall order the discharge of any child judicially committed to an
institution for disabled children if it is certified by the Department of Social
Welfare Development (DSWD) that the child has meet the following
requirements as provided by the law, EXCEPT:
A. no longer a hazard to himself or to the community
B. sufficiently rehabilitated from physical handicapped
C. relieved of his emotional problems and complexes
D. the child is not suffering from cerebral palsy
423. Are those children, who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental
defect, are unable to maintain normal social relations with others and the
community in general due to psychological problems or complexes.
A. emotionally disturbed B. mentally ill
C. physically handicapped D. all of these
424. It is one who is without a parents, guardians or custodian or one wherein

the parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved of
his care and custody, and is expecting upon the public for the support.
A. neglected child B. abandoned child
C. all of these D. dependent child
425. It is one who is over nine years of age but is under twenty-one years of
age at the time of the commission of the offense.
A. youth offender B. youthful offender
C. delinquents D. juveniles
426. This law shall be known as the “Special Protection of Children Against
Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.”
A. R.A. No. 6710 B. R.A. No. 7601
C. R.A. No. 7610 D. R.A. No. 6701
427. This refers to persons below eighteen (18) years of age or those over, but
is unable to fully take care or protect themselves from abuse, neglect, cruelty,
exploitation or discrimination because of their physical or mental disability or
conditions.
A. children B. child
C. minor D. youth
428. It shall refer to maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of the child, which
includes psychological and physical abuse, unreasonable deprivation of basic
needs for survival, and use of deed or word which debases dignity.
A. child neglect B. child abuse
C. child exploitation D. child discrimination
429. Children, whether male or female, who for money, profit, or any other
consideration or due to the coercion or influence of any adult, syndicate or
group, indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct are deemed to be:
A. children exploited in prostitution
B. children exploited in sexual abuse
C. all of these
D. none of these
430. It is the trading and dealing of children including but not limited to, the
act of buying and selling of a child for money, or for any other consideration, or
barter.
A. persons trafficking B. human trafficking
C. all of these D. child trafficking
431. Children below fifteen years of age may be employed, EXCEPT:

A. when child works under the responsibility of parents
B. when a child’s employments concluded by the parents
C. all of these
D. none of these
432. Children are hereby declared as __________, and it shall be the

responsibility of the state and all other sectors concerned to resolve armed
conflicts affecting their morale and welfare.
A. zones of charity B. zones of prosperity
C. zones of peace D. zones of innocence
433. Children of __________ shall not be subjected to any and all forms of
discrimination.
A. exploited children B. disadvantaged children
C. poor family D. indigenous communities
434. No person shall employ a child as a models in all commercials or

advertisements in radio, televisions, news papers, and any other forms of mass
media, promoting the following, EXCEPT:
A. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
B. tobacco and its by-products
C. violence
D. public information is essential
435. Children who are below sixteen (16) years of age may not be employed to
perform work in the following conditions or situations, EXCEPT:
A. not harmful to their safety
B. not harmful to health or normal development
C. not prejudicial to their studies.
D. with consent given by parents
436. This law shall be known as the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.”
A. R.A. No. 9344 B. R.A. No. 9443
C. R.A. No. 4933 D. R.A. No. 4399
437. Refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and
most encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and emotional
development.
A. best interest of youth B. best interest of children
C. best interest of minor D. best interest of child
438. Refers to a child who is vulnerable to, and at the risk of committing
criminal offenses because of personal, family and social circumstances.
A. child at risk B. children at risk
C. minor at risk D. youth at risk
439. This refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
committed an offense under the Philippine laws.
A. children in conflict with the law
B. youth in conflict with the law
C. child in conflict with the law
D. minor in conflict with the law
440. Refers to an alternative child-appropriate process of determining the

responsibility and treatment of child in conflict with the law on the basis of social,
cultural, economic, psychological, or educational background without resorting to
formal court proceedings.
A. integration B. proceeding
C. diversion D. adjudication
441. It is the apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the
law by law enforcement officers or private citizens.
A. initial contact with the child
B. arrest of the child offender
C. placing child into custody
D. detention of child in centers
442. This refers to the program provided in a community setting developed for
purposes of intervention and diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the children in
conflict with the law, for reintegration into their family and community.
A. residential treatment B. community-based programs
C. community-treatment D. residential program
443. Refers to the principle which requires a process of resolving conflict with
the maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and the community.
A. restorative justice B. criminal justice
C. adjudicatory justice D. juvenile justice
444. Refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult
does not suffer any penalty for committing similar act, i.e., curfew, truancy,
parental disobedience, etc.
A. criminal offenses B. deviant behavior
C. juvenile delinquencies D. status offenses
445. A child fifteen (15) years of age or under at the time of the commission of
the offense shall be exempted from _________; however, the child shall be
subjected to intervention program.
A. both civil and criminal B. criminal liability
C. administrative liability D. civil liability
446. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict
with the law, which provides child-appropriate proceedings.
A. Adult Justice and Welfare System
B. Criminal Justice System Program
C. Social Welfare and Development Progam
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare System
447. A child above fifteen (15) years but below eighteen (18) years of age shall
likewise be exempt from criminal liability and be subjected to an intervention
program, unless he/she has acted with __________.
A. discernment B. none of these
C. discretion D. decision
448. As provided by RA No. 9344, the prosecutor shall conduct a preliminary

investigation of the child in conflict with the law in the following instances,
EXCEPT:
A. when the child in conflict with the law does not qualify for diversion
B. when the child parents or guardian does not agree to diversion
C. when recommendation of the social worker, the prosecutor
determines that diversion is not appropriate to the child
D. when the child is subjected to an intervention program
449. Once the child who is under eighteen (18) years of age is found guilty,
instead of pronouncing the judgment of conviction, the court may place the child
under __________.
A. suspended sentence B. staggered sentence
C. maximum sentence D. intermediate sentence
450. Where a child is detained, the court shall order the release on
recognizance of the said child in the following manner, EXCEPT:
A. the release of the minor for further conduct of social-case
study
B. the release of the minor on recognizance
C. the release of the child on bail
D. the transfer of the youth to rehabilitation center
451. It denotes various offenses committed by children or youth, and such acts
are sometimes referred to as juvenile delinquency, and the specific requirem ents
vary from country to country.
A. delinquency B. juvenile offenses
C. juvenile delinquency D. juvenile crime
452. It typically includes acts considered crimes if committed by adults, and

status offenses, which are less serious misbehavior, such as truancy and parental
disobedience.
A. youth’s offenses B. children’s offenses
C. youth’s crime D. children’s crime
453. This was the first institution expressly for juveniles, and it was founded in
New York City in 1825 so that institutionalized delinquents could be kept part
from adult criminal.
A. Summer Camp B. Boystown
C. House of Refuge D. Youth Institution
454. It is a criminal or anti-social behavior of children and youth; and they are
considered in need of treatment, rehabilitation, or discipline.
A. juvenile delinquent B. youthful offenders
C. deviant D. juveniles
455. It is referred to any person under the legal age of majority; hence, the
term encompasses a broader range than adolescence, which is considered to
begin with the onset of puberty.
A. juvenile B. delinquent
C. youthful offender D. incorrigibles
456. It is the oldest and most familiar description of criminal misconduct by a

juvenile in the legal definition, based upon formally codified law, which specify
offenses, sanctions, and age parameters.
A. delinquency B. deviant behavior
C. anti-social behavior D. juveniles
457. They are a social product that reflects the dominant attitudes, values and
beliefs of society’s culture.
A. adolescence B. youths
C. all of these D. children
458. It is a newly emerging juvenile justice system philosophy, wherein minors

who engaged in illegal behavior were viewed as victims of improper care,
custody, and treatment at home.
A. locu parentis B. parens patriae
459. It is defines as an individual who falls under the statutory age limit, most
commonly under 18 years of age, and because of their minority status, they are
kept separate from adults and receive different consideration and treatment
under the law.
A. youth B. adolescent
C. minor child D. none of these
460. It is sanctioned less heavily than criminality because the law considers
juveniles as being less responsible for their behavior than adults.
A. youthful crime B. anti-social behavior
C. deviant behavior D. delinquent behavior
461. Essentially, there kinds of children come into contact with the juveniles
court system, and the children in two of these categories commit no offense, and
only one category involves an offense, EXCEPT:
A. dependent B. neglected
C. delinquent juvenile D. youthful offenders
462. Are those juveniles who commit offenses that if, committed by adults,
would not be considered crimes; and these offenses are considered illegal per
from among the children.
A. delinquent B. juveniles
C. status offenders D. criminal over acts
463. It can be defines as the reasonably stable patterns of behavior, including
thoughts and emotions that distinguish one person from another.
C. character D. behavior
464. Early criminologists believe that it was the major factor of delinquency;
and they thought that if they could be determined, it might be possible to
identify potential delinquents before they committed socially harmful acts.
A. lack of intelligence B. low intelligence
C. low achievement D. poor intelligence
465. They begin the delinquent careers at young age; they have serious and
persistent bruises with the law, and they may be excessively violent and
destructive.
A. youthful offender B. serious offenders
C. juvenile delinquents D. chronic offenders
466. It has set into motion the process conducive to modern juvenile
delinquency; it has caused cities to burst at the seams; and there has been a
huge increase in the amount of movable good produced.
A. industrialization B. migration
C. economic recession D. immigration
467. Children who are found to be corruptive and anti-social as early at this
age are the most likely to exhibit stable, long term patterns of disruptive
behavior through adolescence.
A. 6 or 5 B. 5 or 6
468. They believed that delinquency was the result of free will, and
consequently that advocated harsh and immediate punishments so that
offenders would be unwilling to commit future crimes.
A. positivist theorists B. criminologists
C. neo-classical theorist D. classical theorists
469. They believed that delinquent behavior is the results of youth’s biological
make-up and life experiences, feel treatment should include altering one or more
factors that contribute to unlawful behavior.
A. classical theorists B. neo-classical theorists
C. positivist theorists D. none of these
470. This is the first formal explanation of crime and delinquency; and it
assumed that people had free will to choose their behavior, and those who
violated the law were motivated by personal needs, such as greed, revenge,
survival, and hedonism.
A. all of these B. choice theory
C. latent theory D. trait theory
471. This theory argues, that youth who choose to engage in repeated
aggressive, anti-social, or conflict-oriented behavior manifest abnormalities that
influence their behavior choices.
A. latent theory B. sociological theory
C. trait theory D. biological theory
472. This theory believes that it is the interaction between predisposition and
environment that produces delinquency, e.g., children born into a disadvantaged
environment with lack of family support.
A. biosocial theory B. sociological theory
C. biological theory D. psychological theory
473. This theory points out that many delinquent youths have poor home life,
destructive relationships with neighbors, and teachers, and conflicts with the
authority figures in general.
A. strain theory B. anomie theory
C. sub-culture theory D. psychological theory
474. Accordingly, it is marked by apathy, cynicism, helplessness, and mistrust

of institutions such as police and government; and the results is a permanent
underclass whose members have little chance of upward mobility.
A. culture of poverty B. slums and squatters
C. inflation and recession D. economic deprivation
475. This theory argues that the root causes of delinquency may be traced by
learning delinquent attitudes from peers, becoming detached from school, or
experiencing conflict in the home.
A. sociological theory B. social structure theory
C. social event theory D. social process theory
476. It is the process of guiding people into acceptable behavior patterns

through information, approval, reward, and punishment; and it involves learning
the techniques needed to function in a society.
A. urbanization B. upbringing
C. socialization D. industrialization
477. This is the third type of sociological theories of delinquency, and

accordingly, the way society reacts to individuals and the way individuals react to
society determine behavior.
A. social reaction theory B. social conflict theory
C. social control theory D. none of these
478. According to this view, the youth may violate the law for a variety of
reasons, including poor family relationships, peer pressure, psychological
abnormality, and pre-delinquent learning experiences.
A. sub-culture theory B. labeling theory
C. strain theory D. anomie theory
479. They finds that society is a constant state of internal conflict, and different
groups strive to impose their will on others; and according to this view, those in
power use the justice system to maintain their status while keeping others
subservient.
A. social control theory B. social reaction theory
C. social conflict theory D. all of these
480. It suggest that involvement in pro-social or anti-social behavior

determines the quality of attachments; and holds that commitment and
attachment to conventional institutions, activities, and belief insulate youth from
criminogenic influence of their environment.
A. social development model B. moral development model
C. sociological model D. environmental model
481. This proclaims the adoption and implementation of the Philippine Plan of
Action for Children towards year 2000 and beyond as part of the government’s
commitment to the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
A. Proclamation No. 588 B. Proclamation No. 885
C. Proclamation No. 855 D. Proclamation No. 858
482. The United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Administration of
Juvenile Justice, is otherwise known as:
A. Beijing Rules B. China Rules
C. U.N. Rules D. Hong Kong Rules
483. These are persons below eighteen (18) years of age, or child youth,
juvenile or minor may be used interchangeably.
A. child B. children
C. kids D. minor
484. This is a child without proper parental care for a period of at least six (6)
consecutive months, and this include a foundling.
A. abused child B. exploited child
C. neglected child D. abandoned child
485. This is one who is unreasonably deprived of basic needs to survival, such
as food, clothing, shelter or education and other needs.
A. delinquent child B. neglected child
C. forbidden child D. wayward child
486. This is child who is engaged in any economic activity who suffers serious
threats to his or her protection, health, safety and moral well-being.
A. forced labor child B. working child
C. child employee D. exploited child
487. This is a child who has been induced or forced by parents or guardians or
other persons or circumstances to indulge in activities which endanger his moral,
emotional and social development.
A. exploited child B. abused child
C. neglected child D. abandoned child
488. It emphasizes the policy of the state to promote the well- being and total
development of the Filipino youth and children, protecting them from
exploitation, abuse, and improper influences.
A. Proclamation No. 02 B. Proclamation No. 30
C. Proclamation No. 20 D. Proclamation No. 10
489. It takes place in a group home where the juvenile is provided will
psychological and vocational counseling, and it includes rural programs, such as
forestry camps and work farms.
A. community residence B. residential treatment
C. community program D. residential program
490. This advocates “treatment, not punishment” for youths who are anti-
social, and they tend to favor community corrections.
A. conservative philosophy B. all of these
C. none of these D. liberal philosophy
491. This requires facilities, such as correctional centers operated by national

and local governments to restrict the movements of residents’ thorough staff
monitoring, locked exits, and interior fence control.
A. correctional treatment B. secured treatment
C. institutional program D. institutional treatment
492. Are secure residential correctional facilities managed as either a public or

private institution, and they have commonplace juvenile institutions, designed in
much the same manner as adult jails and prisons.
A. training schools B. boy’s town
C. training centers D. institutions
493. In the juvenile justice system, it is the equivalent of parole in the adult
criminal justice system, and it is an extremely important stage in the juvenile
process because few juvenile age out of custody.
A. before-care B. aftercare
C. immediate-care D. all of these
494. It involve outdoor activities as a mechanism to improve self-concept, and

self control, and typically maintain exposure to a wholesome environment, where
the concept of education and the work ethics are embodied in adult role models.
A. wilderness training B. wilderness schools
C. wilderness program D. wilderness centers
495. It inevitably affects young residents emotionally, psychologically, or

socially, and not necessarily in a positive or rehabilitative manner.
A. confinement in correctional institutions
B. confinement in institutional facilities
C. confinement in secured facilities
D. confinement in non-correctional institutions
496. This refers to providing programs for juveniles in a community based-

setting rather than an institution, and it premised on the theory that labeling a
youth as delinquent could become self-fulfilling.
A. diversion B. deinstitutionalization
C. due process D. decriminalization
497. “Patria potestas” means:

A. parent of the state B. in place of parent
C. for the country D. parental power
498. This means, in place of the parent deemed incapable or unworthy over
children in trouble or in danger or becoming wayward.
A. locu parentis B. parent patriae
C. patria potestas D. none of these
499. This means parents of the country.

A. patria potestas B. parens patriae
C. locu parentis D. all of these
500. The roots of the juvenile justice system are two thousand years old, and
these can be traced to classical Roman law, i.e., one is clearly punitive and the
other is:
A. treatment B. rehabilitative
C. supportive and caring D. correctional
501. This are focused on teenagers considered to be at higher risk for

engaging in petty delinquent acts, such as using drugs or alcohol, or associating
with peers of anti-social behavior.
A. early intervention B. juvenile prevention
C. graduated sanctions D. institutional programs
502. It entails not only extending professional services in the home and
community, but also continuation of vocational training, school guidance and
counseling.
A. referral of juvenile B. handling of juvenile
C. addressing juvenile D. supervision of juvenile
503. This places juveniles in a centers, juvenile jails or government agencies

subsequently screened by juvenile probation officers under the administration of
the probation office.
A. intake B. police action
C. detention D. adjudication
504. These are children who fall under the jurisdictional age limit, and who
commits an act in violation of the Revised Penal Code and Violations of Special
Laws.
A. juvenile delinquent B. delinquent children
C. juvenile D. youthful offender
505. Are commonly characterized in the statutes as persons or children who

are in need of supervision; it is one of the categories of delinquent offenders.
A. youthful offender B. delinquent offenders
C. youthful criminal D. status offenders
506. This marks the next phase of the juvenile justice process, wherein a judge
decides whether the facts of the case merit a formal court hearing.
A. adjudication inquiry B. detention inquiry
C. disposition inquiry D. intake proceedings
507. Its purpose is to resolve a juvenile case by relying on the discretion of

juvenile court, and the judge has numerous alternatives at his or her disposal.
A. adjudication hearing B. disposition hearing
C. none of these D. detention hearing
508. It is the authority charged with the disposition of legal actions involving
children; and it also hears status offenses that involve non-criminal misbehavior
by children.
A. juvenile court B. juvenile system
C. juvenile trial D. juvenile justice
509. This police action will result in juvenile being taken to a juvenile detention
facility for further processing and investigation, or to a government agency, such
as the DSWD.
A. prevention B. mitigation
C. negation D. intervention
510. The jurisdiction of juvenile justice refers to the types of cases the system
is empowered to hear. Juvenile justice jurisdictions extends into three
classifications of children, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. those who are status offenders or delinquents
B. those who are neglected, dependent or abused
C. those who are incorrigible, wayward or truant
D. those who violate laws, ordinances and penal codes
511. It is defined as a careful, systematic study of knowledge in the field of

criminology or criminal justice, undertaken to discover or establish facts of the
crimes or causations of crime.
A. social science research B. criminal justice research
C. descriptive research D. criminological research
512. This finds answer to the questions who, what, when, where and how; this
type of research describes a situation or a given state of affairs in terms of
special aspects or factors.
A. descriptive research B. historical research
C. experimental research D. all of these
513. It goes beyond description of the problem or situation; and it attempts to

explain the possible factors related to a problem which has been observed in a
descriptive study.
A. explanatory research B. applied research
C. correlation research D. pure-basic research
514. It evaluates the effect or outcome of a particular intervention; and it

studies the “cause and effect” of the relationship between certain factors on
certain phenomenon under controlled conditions.
A. empirical research B. intervention research
C. descriptive research D. experimental research
515. It is concerned with the acquisition of new knowledge for the sake of
science or the development of the field.
A. pure basic research B. applied research
C. empirical research D. action research
516. It is a practical research concerned with solving immediate policy

problems.
A. action research B. pure research
C. applied research D. basic research
517. In this classification of research; concepts are assigned numerical value;

and research methods in the social sciences, of which criminal justice is heir, had
followed these basic philosophical traditions.
A. all of these B. quantitative research
C. none of these D. qualitative research
518. In this classification of research; concepts are viewed as sensitizing ideas

or terms that enhance understanding.
A. social science research B. quantitative research
C. criminological research D. qualitative research
519. It is a loosely structured but valuable methodological strategy.

A. descriptive research B. explanatory research
C. empirical research D. exploratory research
520. When scientist are interested in some phenomenon, but feel they need to
know a great deal more about it before they can put together a well-organized
and thorough study on it, they often engage in
A. criminological research B. exploratory research
C. explanatory research D. criminal justice research
521. These are abstract tags that are put on reality and are the beginning point
in all scientific endeavors.
A. theories B. concepts
C. theses D. variables
522. It defines concepts by describing how they will be measured. Working

definitions or operational definition are other terms used to refer to this process.
A. variables B. conceptualization
C. hypotheses D. operationaliation
523. These are concepts that have been operationalized or “concepts that can
vary” or take on different values of a quantitative nature; and they are the
mortar and brick of scientific investigation.
A. variables B. dependent variables
C. independent variables D. all of these
524. It is the variable that researcher is attempting to predict and by

convention is denoted by the letter Y.
A. dependent variables B. independent variables
525. It is designated by letter X; and it is the behavior or attitude that is the

subject of one’s study.
A. dependent variables B. independent variables
526. These were described previously as attempts to develop plausible

explanations of reality.
A. variables B. concepts
C. theories D. hypotheses
527. Are usually general or broad statements regarding the relationship between,
usually two, variables and are derived from more general theories.
A. theories B. concepts
C. variables D. hypotheses
528. In selecting a _________, one should look for gaps in theory or the current
state of the art, feasibility of doing the research, ambiguous and conflicting
findings in the current literature, as well as potential timeliness of policy
implications.
A. research title B. research question
C. research agenda D. research problem
529. Unlike priest, doctors, or other client-oriented practitioners, the independent
criminal justice researcher has no legally recognized privilege of __________.
A. communication B. confidentiality
C. all of these D. secrecy
530. It is more of a problem, indicating that they had experienced pressure to

engage in undesired research.
A. none of these B. ethical issues
C. professional issues D. morality issues
531. It is a plan, structure and strategy of investigation so conceived as to obtain

answers to research questions or problems.
A. research design B. research method
C. all of these D. research procedures
532. It is a process of selecting the area of topic to write the history about,
collecting data about events that occurred in the area or about the topic.
A. historical research B. social science research
C. empirical research D. criminological research
533. The focus is on prevailing conditions, or how a person, group, or thing

behaves or functions in the present; and it is also known as statistical research.
A. quantitative research B. correlation research
C. descriptive research D. intervention research
534. It is defined as the systematic study of designing, developing, evaluating,

processes, and products that must meet criteria of internal consistency and
effectiveness.
A. applied research B. developmental research
C. action research D. sociological research
535. It is based on an in-depth investigation of a single individual, group, or

event to explore causation in order to find underlying principles.
A. case study B. field study
536. It is a scientific study in which researcher investigates associations between

variables; and are frequently used in psychology research to look for
relationships between variables.
A. research studies B. correlational studies
C. thesis D. inferential studies
537. It attempts to identify a causative relationship between an independent

variable and a dependent variable.
A. comparative design B. correlational studies
C. descriptive design D. causal-comparative design
538. It is defined as a method or procedure involving the control or

manipulation of conditions for the purpose of studying the relative effects of
various treatments applied to members of a sample.
A. true-empirical design B. true-historical design
C. true-exploratory design D. true-experimental design
539. Are design that attempt to approximate the true experimental design but
lack random assignment to experimental and control group.
A. semi-historical design B. semi-experimental design
C. quasi-empirical design D. quasi-experimental design
540. It is used to make inferences about an unknown variable based on known

descriptions. This is also intended to generalize findings from a study group to a
larger population.
A. inferential study B. correlations study
C. all of these D. descriptive study
541. It is a reflective process of progressive problem solving led by individuals

working with others in teams or as part of a "community of practice" to improve
the way they address issues and solve problems.
A. applied research B. pure-basic research
C. action research D. descriptive research
542. This design is being suited to studies aimed at finding out the prevalence
of a phenomena, situation, problem, attitude or issue, by taking a cross-section
of the population.
A. sectional research B. multi-sectional research
C. inferential research D. cross-sectional research
543. It is the most appropriate design for measuring the impact or

effectiveness of a program; and it can measure change in a situation,
phenomenon, issue, problem or attitude.
A. before-and-after study B. longitudinal study
C. inferential study D. correlational study
544. These are also useful when there is a need to collect factual information on
a continuing basis; and it is used to determine the pattern of change in relation
to time.
A. descriptive study B. retrospective study
C. longitudinal study D. inferential study
545. This study investigates a phenomenon, situation, problem or issue that

has happened in the past; and they are usually conducted either on the basis of
the data available for that period or on the basis of respondents recall of the
situation.
A. retrospective B. prospective
C. longitudinal D. inferential
546. This refers to the likely prevalence of a phenomenon, situation, problem,

attitude or outcome in the future; such studies attempt to establish the outcome
of an event or what is likely to happen.
A. empirical B. prospective
C. experimental D. before-and-after
547. This focused on past trends in a phenomenon and studies it into the
future; and a study is classified under this category when researcher measures
the impact of an intervention without control group.
A. experimental-empirical B. correlational-inferential
C. sociological-criminal D. retrospective-prospective
548. This refers to any kind of information researchers obtain on the subjects,
respondents or participants of a study.
A. data B. datum
C. information D. responses
549. It is one way to gather primary data. It is a purposeful, systematic and

selective way of watching and listening to an interaction or phenomenon as it
takes place.
A. field inquiry B. interview
C. observation D. normative survey
550. It is conducted when a researcher participates in the activities of the

groups being observed in the same manner as its members, with or without their
knowing that they are being observed.
A. non-observation B. observation
C. participant observation D. interview
551. It is conducted when the researcher does not get involved in the activities
of the group but remains a passive observer, watching and listening to its
activities and drawing conclusions from this.
A. interview & observation B. participant observation
C. normative survey D. non-participant observation
552. It is commonly used method of data gathering from people; and it is any
person-to-person interaction between two or more individuals with a specific
purpose in mind.
A. interview B. observation
C. inquiry D. survey
553. It is sometimes called closed interview, usually consist of check-off

responses to questions that are either factual or to which most responses easily
fit an expectable pattern of data gathering.
A. interview B. unstructured interview
C. structured interview D. field interview
554. It is a type of interviews with many variations depending on the purpose.

Sometimes referred to as focused, clinical, or non directive interviews, they
provide for open-ended responses to questions.
A. structured interview B. unstructured interview
C. field interview D. respondent’s interview
555. It is a more intensive and detailed interview, usually of fewer subjects

than is the case in a standard survey, and is particularly useful to life histories or
case studies of target respondents.
A. plain interview B. simple interview
C. one-on-one-interview D. in-depth interview
556. It involves in-depth analysis of one or a few case; and these data-gathering
strategies also represent a commitment to a qualitative or sensitizing strategy
when approaching subject matter.
A. case analysis B. field inquiries
C. field studies D. case studies
557. This refers to clandestine or non-reactive methods of data gathering; and
it provide an attractive and often inexpensive alternative to many of the other
strategies.
A. clandestine method B. unobtrusive method
C. secret methods D. undercover method
558. It is the study of deposits, accretion of matter, and other indirect

substances produced by previous human interaction.
A. sociological analysis B. physical trace analysis
C. criminological analysis D. mental trace analysis
559. Are memoirs, diaries, and historical documents contains much of the
information that can provide a historical overview of criminological issues.
A. archives B. personal records
C. archival records D. personal effects
560. It involves strategies in which the researcher’s participation with the

subjects is kept at a minimum and the investigator carefully records the activities
of the subjects.
A. simple observation B. one-on-one observation
C. observation D. plain observation
561. The researcher covertly studies groups or individuals by temporarily

misrepresenting his or her role.
A. disguised observation B. unobtrusive observation
C. concealed observation D. secret observation
562. It entails a variety of gaming strategies that attempt to imitate a more

complex social reality.
A. elaboration B. stimulation
C. simulation D. duplication
563. It is a written list of questions, the answer to which is recorded by

respondents; in this, the respondents read the questions, interpret what is
expected and then write down the answers.
A. all of these B. questionnaire
C. checklist D. instrument
564. It may be defined as an instrument designed to describe a sample of certain

aspects of human behavior; and it yields adjective and standardized descriptions
of behavior, quantified by numerical scores.
A. all of these B. psychiatric test
C. psychological test D. sociological test
565. It is the gathering of data is another way which the researcher can
employ in order to realize the objectives of his research study.
A. research methods B. library technique
C. library research D. research techniques
566. These are means of data gathering which involve asking a segment of
population their attitudes or reported behavior of the target population.
A. economic surveys B. research surveys
C. security surveys D. social surveys
567. These are the means by which information regarding variables is
collected.
A. data conversion B. data collection
C. data collation D. data gathering procedures
568. It is the process by which information is gathered.

A. data gathering B. data collection
C. data consolidation D. data collation
569. It is that activity by which the variables are measured.

A. checklist B. used of instrument
C. instrumentation D. data gathering tools
570. It has been defined as a list of planned written questions related to a

particular topic, with space provided for indicating the response to each
question.
A. questionnaire B. checklist
C. instrument D. all of these
571. This requires the respondents to choose an answer from a printed list of
choices. Such questionnaires may include a simple “yes or no” or “true or false”
response, a multiple-choice list, or a series of degrees of agreement or
disagreement in relation to a variety of assertions.
A. open-ended questionnaire
B. fixed-alternative questionnaire
C. all of these
D. none of these
572. It allows respondents to answer in the own words; this can mean greater
detail and a broader range of responses; however, it can also mean lower
response rates because the respondent must think and write more than would
be a fixed alternative instrument.
A. open-ended questionnaire
B. fixed-alternative questionnaire
C. all of these
D. none of these
573. It is defined as purposeful face-to-face relationship between two persons,

one of whom called the interviewer or researcher who asks questions to gather
information, and the other called the interviewee or respondent who supplies the
information asked for.
A. interrogation B. interview
C. all of these D. investigation
574. Three broad conditions are necessary for a successful conduct of interview
from among the target population, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. accessibility B. understanding
C. motivation D. appreciation
575. It is a means of gathering information for research, may be defined as

perceiving data through the senses, i.e., sight, hearing, taste, touch and smell.
A. interview B. survey
C. inquiry D. observation
576. It is the simplest of the devices, is a prepared list of behaviors or items. The
presence or absence of the behavior may be indicated by checking yes or no; the
type of number of items may be made each time a behavior is observed in the
space for that behavior.
A. instrument B. questionnaire
C. checklists D. all of these
577. It involves qualitative description of a limited numbers of aspects of a thing

or traits of a person.
A. checklist B. rating scales
C. scaled specimen D. scorecards
578. It is similar in some respects to both the checklist and the rating scale,
usually provides for the appraisal of a relatively large number of aspects.
A. instrument B. checklist
C. scorecards D. scales
579. Although not frequently encountered in observational research, it provides

a method for evaluating certain observed levels of performance or measures or a
quality in question.
A. questionnaire B. scorecards
C. instrument D. scaled specimen
580. These are frequently required to elicit responses to open-ended questions.

A. probes B. data
C. validation D. responses
581. It may be defined as measuring a small portion of something and then

making a general statement about the whole thing.
A. samples B. population
C. sampling D. respondents
582. It can be defined as including all people or items with the characteristic one
wish to understand.
A. respondents B. population
C. all of these D. samples
583. It is a subset of a population, and it represents a subset of manageable

size. It is collected and statistics are calculated from the samples so that one can
make inferences or extrapolations from the sample to the population.
A. population B. sampling
C. respondents D. sample
584. It is the number of observations that constitute it, and it is typically

denoted n, a natural number; and this can be seen in statistical rules as the law
of large numbers and the central limit theorem.
A. sampling frame B. sampling unit
C. sampling design D. sample size
585. In the theory of finite population sampling, it specifies for every possible
sample its probability of being drawn.
A. sampling ratio B. sampling design
C. sampling unit D. sampling size
586. It is the material source for the mathematical abstraction of a "random
variable". This is that element or set of elements considered for selection in
some stage of sampling, it is the same as the elements, in a simple single-stage
sample.
A. sampling unit B. sampling frame
C. sampling design D. sampling size
587. It is synonyms to "survey frame,” is the actual set of units from which a
sample has been drawn; as in the case of a simple random sample.
A. survey questionnaire B. survey population
C. sample frame D. survey period
588. It is the basis of estimating the prevalence of a characteristic in the study

population or a part of a population which is actually observed.
A. sample statistics B. sample population
C. sample responses D. simple statistics
589. A quantity or statistical measure that, for a given population, is fixed and
that is used as the value of a variable in some general distribution or frequency
function to make it descriptive of that population.
A. population statistics B. population parameter
C. target respondents D. population sample
590. This refers to sample that permit estimation of the likelihood of each
element of the population being selected in the sample.
A. sampling design B. non-probability sampling
C. probability sampling D. simple random sampling
591. These are samples in which each elements of the population or universe
has an equal probability of being selected as a target respondents.
A. stratified random sample B. non-stratified sample
C. cluster samples D. simple random samples
592. This relies on the knowledge of the distribution or proportion of population

characteristics to choose a sample that assures representativeness.
A. cluster samples B. non-stratified samples
C. snowball samples D. stratified samples
593. It is generally used in surveys that involve field interviews and is most
useful in studies that involve widely dispersed subjects; and the population to be
surveyed is divided into census, blocks and sections, and then a probability
samples is selected for the study.
A. snowball samples B. stratified samples
C. cluster samples D. simple random samples
594. It involves combinations of stratified and/or cluster and/or simple random

samples or other sampling procedures. For example, a national survey of
neighborhood crime might stratify first on the basis of region.
A. multi-stage samples B. single-stage samples
C. simple random sample D. double-stage samples
595. In this type of samples every nth item in a list is included in the sample.
A. parametric samples B. systematic samples
C. non-parametric samples D. non-systematic samples
596. Any sampling procedures that violate the Equal Probability of Selection
Method (EPSEM) are viewed as a non-probability sample.
A. probability samples B. simple random samples
C. non-probability samples D. stratified random samples
597. This is a non-probability stratified samples. The researcher attempts to

ensure that the sample proportions, for example: age, sex, and ethnic origin,
resemble those of the population, but does not fill these proportion or quotas on
the basis of EPSEM.
A. random samples B. quota samples
C. cluster samples D. snowball samples
598. Are the favorite “person on the street” interviews where the “researcher”
makes little attempt to ensure the representativeness of the sample.
A. accidental samples B. intentional samples
C. selected samples D. random samples
599. This is judgmental samples on the other hand, represent the selection of an
appropriate sample bases on the researcher’s skill, judgment, and needs.
A. random sample B. total enumeration
C. simple random sample D. purposive samples
600. It is a type of strategy employed particularly in exploratory studies of little

known or hard-to-obtain subjects.
A. samples B. cluster samples
C. population D. snowball samples
601. This refers to the degree to which a study supports the intended
conclusion drawn from the results.
A. reliability B. scaling
C. validity D. all of these
602. It is the consistency of a set of measurements or measuring instrument,

often used to describe a test.
A. validity B. scaling
C. none of these D. reliability
603. It is simply a statement which the respondent is asked to evaluate

according to any kind of subjective or objective criteria; generally the level of
agreement or disagreement is measured.
A. distribution B. scales
C. percentage D. ratio
604. It is a process of inspecting, cleaning, transforming, and modeling data with

the goal of highlighting useful information, suggesting conclusions, and
supporting decision making.
A. data analysis B. data collection
C. data management D. data presentation
605. It involves summarizing and using univariate statistics.

A. data analysis B. data interpretation
C. data collection D. data presentation
606. This refers to the process of introducing or controlling for third variable(s)—
control or test factors, by sub-classifying original tables.
A. elaboration B. deduction
C. explanation D. induction
607. The science of statistics has to do with the methods used in the collection,
organization, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data.
A. arithmetic B. mathematics
C. statistics D. basis statistics
608. It uses patterns in the sample data to draw inferences about the
population represented, accounting for randomness.
A. inferential statistics B. descriptive statistics
C. analysis of co-variance D. analysis of variance
609. It summarizes the population data by describing what was observed in the
sample numerically or graphically.
A. applied statistics B. descriptive statistics
C. statistics D. basic statistics
610. These are three most commonly used measures of central tendency, as
follows, EXCEPT:
A. mean B. median
C. mode D. bi-modal
611. Are those ideas and concepts within each of us that we deem, and they help us
decide right from wrong, and help define who we are and what we stand for?
A. morale B. ethics
C. conduct D. values
612. It is defined as the way people live their life as an influence of one’s culture, and
are what make up the nation both in growth and unity.
A. cultural values B. Filipino values
C. police values D. personal values
613. This refers to the conditions or characteristics that members of the society
consider important; that is, valuable. The values of a society can often be identified by
noting which people receive honor or respect.
A. self-values B. traditional values
C. cultural values D. beliefs
614. This values help the organization surv ive, and if people do not believe in their
values system, the organization would not function properly.
A. organizational values B. association values
C. group values D. personal values
615. These values can be considered as an integral part of every culture. With
worldview and personality, they generate behavior.
A. personal values B. indiv idual values
C. indiv idual beliefs D. personal beliefs
616. These are fundamental assumptions that guide the organization and the
indiv idual police officer in the exercise of discretion.
A. military values B. police values
C. all of these D. enforcement values
617. There are three principles of values which humans can have, and each plays an
important role upon their lives, but they don't all play equal roles in the formation of
moral standards and moral norms, EXCEPT:
A. preference value B. instrumental value
C. intrinsic value D. individual value
618. In the study of values, programming periods can be divided into three periods ,
EXCEPT:
A. association B. socialization
C. modeling D. imprinting
619. This denotes desired or actual movement toward an identified end, and a
person’s value system lead him or her to choose one path as compared to any others.
A. intent B. motives
C. desire D. all of these
620. It must be related to standards of performance and to methods for program and
indiv idual evaluation.
A. none of these B. report
C. feedback D. mechanism
621. This is the questions of how much effort should be given to the job of law
enforcement compared with being a private indiv idual, or how much emphasis should be
placed on organizational output component with indiv idual police officer job satisfaction.
A. efficiency B. effectiveness
C. competency D. performance
622. This component subsumes the role concept and various tasks, and in this where
values can operate in a dual sense.
A. responsibility B. duties
C. functions D. obligations
623. This serves best as starting point. Once a person is inserted into a position of
police officer, it takes on values.
A. position B. title
C. designation D. occupation
624. This operate in degrees and shades of good or bad, right or wrong, normal or
abnormal, or acceptance or rejection.
A. selection B. screening
C. filter D. streamlining
625. This shapes a person’s inherited temperament, but it does not transform that
person into a complete opposite of his or her own basic nature.
A. community B. country
C. neighborhood D. society
626. It is any accepted system of rules and regulations pertaining to a given subject.
A. law B. code
C. act D. conduct
627. It is the study of standards of custody and moral judgment; oftentimes it is

referred to as the moral philosophy, and it is a science that deals with the philosophical
study of morality.
A. ethics B. behavior
C. image D. conduct
628. This refers or deals on personal dignity, and it pertains to manners relates to,
deals with or capable of making the distinction between right and wrong conduct.
A. moral B. morale
C. mores D. morality
629. It comes from the Latin word "mores" which signifies conduct and refers to
behavior of people, and which is valuable and which enhance dignity of the individual.
A. mores B. morale
C. morality D. all of these
630. This refers to personal behavior, and in ethics, it is the voluntary control and
direction of one's activities toward moral and spiritual development
A. behavior B. action
C. action D. conduct
631. This is very essential because it makes a man more governable and ethics,
knowing what is right or wrong, and it gives him hope for the future-salvation.
A. love of god B. love of country
C. love of allah D. love of religion
632. This core values states that everyone must obey the state authorities because no
authority exists without God’s permission, and the existing authorities have been put
there by God.
A. respect to others B. respect for authority
C. respect to government D. respect for one self
633. As truly professionalized and dedicated law enforcers, officers and members of
the PNP are expected of the following, EXCEPT:
A. promote peace and order, ensure public safety, and enhance community
participation, guided by the principle that a public office is a public trust,
and that all public servants must at all time be accountable to the people
B. serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty and efficiency
with due respect from human rights and dignity as a hallmark of a
democratic society
C. bear faithful allegiance to the legitimate government, support and uphold
the Constitution, respect the duly constituted authority and be loyal to
the police service
D. voluntary control and direction of one's activities toward moral
and spiritual development
634. It is the state of being truthful wherein a person is sincere, genuine, and honest
in agreement; and with a standard, rule, etc., and conforms to fact or reality.
A. honesty B. loyalty
C. dedication D. truthfulness
635. This affects the esprit de corps, morale and welfare of members, and sense of
pride to the organization, and in v iew thereof, all officers and members of the Philippine
National Police (PNP) should conduct themselves in manner that would not place the
PNP in an ad light.
A. image of the police
B. image of the organization
C. image of officers and members
D. image of the PNP
636. This refers to the commitment, dignity, and attitude of an individual towards
work and his integrity and practice of the core moral value principles.
A. professionalism B. discipline
C. integrity D. dedication
637. This is the key to professionalism, and its improper implementation will greatly
prejudice the personnel professionalization process as regard to procurement,
promotion, assignment, placement, and training, awards and retirement.
A. career orientation B. career development
C. police career system D. career management
638. This is the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the integrity of a person; and
this is in consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity in the PNP.
A. word of honor B. delicadeza
C. honesty D. truthfulness
639. The PNP shall endeavor to promote a __________ for every member of the
organization that is acceptable and respectable in the eyes of the public.
A. lifestyle B. personal life
C. none of these D. official life
640. It is the soliciting influence or recommendations directly or indirectly from

politicians or other persons of the same person
A. political influence B. political interference
C. political patronage D. political backing
641. Uniformed officers and members of the PNP commit themselves to democratic
way of life and values and maintain the principle of public accountability, in police
professional conduct, it is?
A. commitment to republic
B. commitment to democracy
C. commitment to service
D. commitment to organization
642. This professional conduct requires that all PNP members shall always uphold
public interest over and above personal interest. All government properties, resources,
and powers of their respective offices must be employed and used effectively, honestly,
and efficiently, particularly to avoid wastage of public funds, revenues and resources.
A. commitment to family
B. commitment to official interest
C. commitment to personal interest
D. commitment to public interest
643. All PNP members shall prov ide services to everyone without discrimination
regardless of party affiliation in accordance of existing laws and regulations, and this is:
A. avoid politics B. apolitical
C. non-partisanship D. neutrality
644. All PNP members shall strive to be physically and mentally fit, and in good health
at all times; and towards this end, they shall undergo __________.
A. regular physical exercises
B. annual medical examination
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
645. This professional conduct requires that all PNP members shall guard the
confidentiality of classified information against unauthorized disclosure, including
confidential aspects of official business, special orders, communications, and other
documents,
A. intelligence concern B. secrecy discipline
C. avoid loose talking D. security oriented
646. All the officers and members of the PNP and their immediate family members
shall be encouraged to actively get involved in the religion, social and civ ic activities to
enhance the image of the organization but without affecting their official duties .
A. official awareness B. personal awareness
C. community awareness D. social awareness
647. All PNP members shall seek self improvement through career development and
shall not directly or indirectly __________ from politicians, high ranking government
officials, prominent citizens with regard to their assignment, promotions, transfer
A. solicit influence B. recommendations
C. all of the above D. none of the above
648. All PNP members in the performance of duty shall respect and protect human
dignity and uphold the human rights of persons, and it is a must to always bear in their
mind.
A. respect for human rights
B. respect for one self
C. respect for others
D. respect for human beings
649. In accordance with this, immediate commanders shall be responsible for the
effective supervision and direction of their personnel and see to it that all the
government resources shall be managed, expended or utilized in accordance with laws
and regulations and safeguarded against losses thru illegal or improper disposition.
A. Doctrine of Command Responsibility
B. Doctrine of Call Out Authority
C. Doctrine of Leaderships Ethics
D. Doctrine of Chain of Command
650. This professional conduct requires that all PNP members shall conduct
themselves at all times in keeping with the rules and regulations of the organization.
A. humility B. integrity
C. loyalty D. discipline
651. This shall refer to established and generally accepted values, and which needs to
be observed by officers and members of the PNP
A. professional conduct B. ethics
C. ethical standards D. morality
652. All PNP members shall adhere to __________ and shall set good examples for
others to follow.
A. high standard of professionalism
B. high standard of morality and decency
C. high standard of ethics
D. high standard of conduct
653. This is otherwise known as, “The Anti Graft Practices Act.”.
A. R.A. No. 3019 B. R.A. No. 1930
C. R.A. No. 3091 D. R.A. No. 1903
654. All PNP members shall exercise __________ in the performance of their duty.
A. proper and legitimate use of power
B. proper and legitimate use of law
C. proper and legitimate use of authority
D. proper and legitimate use of force
655. All PNP members shall recognize the fact that they are public servants and not
the masters of the people and toward this end; they should recognize their own
inadequacies, and limitations as indiv iduals and perform their duties without attracting
attention or expecting the applause of others, and this is:
A. integrity B. humility
C. judiciousness D. honesty
656. In ethical standards, all officers and members of the PNP shall follow logical
procedure in accomplishing task assigned to them to minimize waste in the use of time,
money and effort.
A. equality B. judiciousness
C. fairness D. orderliness
657. It is established usage or social practices carried on by traditions that have

obtained the force of the law; and are accepted practices realized through continued
usage that takes the force and effects of the Common Law.
A. customs B. belief
C. traditions D. superstitions
658. These are bodies or beliefs, stories, customs effect of an unwritten law; inherited
principles, standards and groups; and are accumulated experiences and deeds passed
on from generation to generation both in memory and reality.
A. all of these B. customs
C. traditions D. beliefs
659. This refers to the manifestation or expression of consideration and respect for
others.
A. respect B. none of these
C. obedience D. courtesy
660. This is a formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special

occasions.
A. occasion B. ceremony
C. celebration D. affair
661. This is a set of norms and standards practiced by members during socials and
other functions.
A. social decorum B. social etiquette
C. social activ ities D. social graces
662. It is the usual greetings rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and
recognizing persons entitled to it.
A. greetings B. hand-shake
C. salute D. all of these
663. History attests that the Filipino law enforcers have exemplified the _________ in
defending the country from aggression and oppression.
A. tradition of heroism B. tradition of valor
C. tradition of courage D. tradition of bravery
664. The PNP members are __________ nature, and they manifest their love of
country with a pledge of allegiance for the flag and a vow to defend the Constitution.
A. traditionally patriotic
B. traditionally nationalistic
C. traditionally regionalistic
D. traditionally country-lov ing persons
665. It is manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders and through

spontaneous actions towards attainment of organizational objectives by moral, ethical
and legal forms.
A. professional B. courteous
C. discipline D. ethical
666. This is binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police
organization, extending to the people they serve is manifested by the PNP member’s
deep commitment and concern to one another.
A. unity B. sprit d’ corps
C. high morale D. camaraderie
667. It is a promise or agreement wherein one binds himself or herself to the

performance of some engagement or obligation.
A. pledge B. arrangement
C. binding words D. contract
668. The policemen are traditionally observes this to the organizations, country and
people as borne by history and practice.
A. courtesy B. loyalty
C. trustworthy D. honesty
669. The PNP members’ word is their bond; and they stand by and commit to uphold it.
A. delicadeza B. palabra de honor
C. word of honor D. all of these
670. This is usually observed during Friday or any other day Suitable for the occasion,
PNP members gather together at their PNP club for a light hearted jesting or airing of
minor grief’s.
A. happy hours B. merriment
C. occasion D. celebration
671. It is a mental picture of something of a conception, idea, or an impression

towards the police organization, it may be positive or negative, depending on the
perceptions made by the public.
A. police image B. public image
C. official image D. image
672. The police image is a __________ resulting from the interaction of a wide range
of local and global factors, i.e., some incidents which occur receive national attention,
and this shapes public opinion about the police in general.
A. all of these B. complex phenomenon
C. none of these D. natural phenomenon
673. In the factors that shapes image, certainly, an equally important dynamic is the
character of the officer’s behavior, and there is no doubt that the officer’s body
language, attitude, comments, and appearance will influence the police image.
A. officers behavior B. human behavior
C. police behavior D. behavior
674. The second broad area that helps form the police image can be envisioned as
__________, and this encompasses a variety of factors that build on each other, each
reinforcing the other.
A. person’s development B. perceptual development
C. public’s development D. conceptual development
675. An indiv idual’s opinion of the police is based on many factors, and among the
factors that contributes to the police image are as follows EXCEPT:
A. television, newspaper and radio broadcast stories
B. citizen-interaction with police
C. opinions of family, relatives and friends
D. leaders and members relationships
676. This Act shall be known as the "Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public
Officials and Employees."
A. R.A. No. 6713 B. R.A. No. 6731
C. R.A. No. 1376 D. R.A. No. 1367
677. Refers to a thing or a right disposed of gratuitously, or any act or liberality, in favor
of another who accepts it, and shall include a simulated sale or an ostensibly onerous
disposition thereof. It shall not include an unsolicited g ift of nominal or insignificant
value not given in anticipation of, or in exchange for, a favor from a public official or
employee.
A. favor B. gratuities
C. gifts D. bribe
678. This arises when a public official or employee is a member of a board, an officer,
or a substantial stockholder of a private corporation or owner or has a substantial
interest in a business, and the interest of such corporation or business, or his rights or
duties therein, may be opposed to or affected by the faithful performance of official
duty.
A. indiv idual conflict B. personal conflict
C. official conflict D. conflict of interest
679. This includes the act of accepting directly or indirectly, a gift from a person other
than a member of his family or relative as defined in this Act, even on the occasion of a
family celebration or national festiv ity like Christmas, if the value of the gift is neither
nominal nor insignificant, or the gift is given in anticipation of, or in exchange for, a
favor.
A. receiv ing reward B. receiving any gift
C. receiv ing bribe D. receiv ing any favor
680. This includes elective and appointive officials and employees, permanent or
temporary, whether in the career or non-career service, including military and police
personnel, whether or not they receive compensation, regardless of amount.
A. government official B. government official
C. public officials D. appointed officials
681. Is the transfer of title or disposal of interest in property by voluntarily,

completely and actually depriv ing or dispossessing oneself of his right or title to it in
favor of a person or persons other than his spouse and relatives as defined.
A. divestment B. investment
C. relinquishment D. diversion
682. Public officials and employees shall always uphold the ___________ over and
above personal interest; therefore all government resources and powers of their
respective offices must be employed and used efficiently, effectively, honestly and
economically, particularly to avoid wastage in public funds and revenues.
A. personal interest B. official interest
C. public interest D. government interest
683. Public officials and employees shall perform and discharge their duties with the
highest degree of excellence, __________, intelligence and skill. They shall enter public
service with utmost devotion and dedication to duty.
A. effectiveness B. efficiency
C. competency D. professionalism
684. Public officials and employees shall remain true to the people at all times, and
they must act with __________ and shall not discriminate against anyone, especially the
poor and the underpriv ileged.
A. dedication & fairness B. justness & sincerity
C. loyalty & honesty D. humility & service
685. Public officials and employees shall provide service to everyone without unfair
discrimination and regardless of party affiliation or preference, and that is:
A. political neutrality B. neutrality in politics
C. non-partisanship D. apolitical
686. Public officials and employees and their families shall lead modest lives
appropriate to their positions and income; they shall not indulge in extravagant or
ostentatious display of wealth in any form, and that is:
A. moral liv ing B. decent living
C. ethical liv ing D. simple living
687. Public officials and employees shall not, directly or indirectly, have any
__________ in any transaction requiring the approval of their office.
A. financial interest B. material interest
688. Public officials and employees shall not __________, directly or indirectly, any
gift, gratuity, favor, entertainment, loan or anything of monetary value from any person
in the course of their official duties
A. solicit B. accept
689. All public officials and employees, except those who serve in an honorary
capacity, laborers and casual or temporary workers, shall file their _______ under oath,
as required by R.A. no. 3019.
A. statement of assets, liabilities and net worth
B. disclosure of business interests and financial connections
C. all of these
D. none of these
690. As provided by R.A. No,. 6713, it shall be unlawful for any person to obtain or
use any statement filed under the said law on the following grounds.
A. any purpose contrary to morals or public policy
B. any commercial purpose other than by news and communications media
for dissemination to the general public
C. all of these
D. none of these
691. Any public official or employee, regardless of whether or not he holds office or
employment in a casual, temporary, holdover, permanent or regular capacity,
committing any violation of this R.A. No. 6713 shall be punished with the following,
EXCEPT:
A. six (6) months' salary or suspension not exceeding one (1) year,
B. removal depending on the gravity of the offense after due notice and
hearing
C. if the violation is punishable by a heavier penalty under another law, he
shall be prosecuted under the latter statute
D. perpetual disqualification from holding public office
692. This acts as a set of standards and thus guides our conduct. It causes us to take
a position or to abandon one previously adopted, predisposes us to accept or reject
certain ideas or activities, and gives us a sense of being right or wrong.
A. value system B. ethics system
C. standard system C. conduct system
693. It presupposes conviction in court of any crime of offense penalized under the
Revised Penal Code or any special law or ordinance.
A. felonies B. violation of law
C. crime D. all of these
694. This generally means wrongful, improper or unlawful conduct, motivated by

premeditated, obstinate or intentional purpose.
A. misconduct B. abuse of authority
C. oppression D. conduct unbecoming
695. This is an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, dominion, or excessive use
of authority, and the exercise of the unlawful powers or other means, in depriving an
indiv idual of his liberty or property against his or her will.
A. oppression B. misconduct
C. citizens complaint D. minor offenses
696. It is the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose
goodwill and cooperation it craves for to ensure the greatest possible efficiency in public
service.
A. police-community relations
B. community-relations
C. public relations
D. official relations
697. It is the basic foundation of good community relations is true in any organization
most particularly in the police service whose client is the general public.
A. efficient service B. competent service
C. all of these D. effective service
698. It consists of face to face communication, which includes meetings, rallies, and
speeches and house to house visits.
A. official media B. public media
C. personal media D. government media
699. This implies the use of the audio-v isual communications in transmitting
information to the public.
A. public media B. mass-media
C. private media D. tri-media
700. They shall involve and conduct a Public Relation Program at promoting better
and closer relation between the police and public.
A. public relation employee
B. public relation officers
C. public relation personnel
D. public relation persons
701. It is one which makes policemen a friend, and partner of the people for progress
as well as their defender.
A. religious program B. socio-civ ic program
C. community program D. civic action program
702. It is like a three-legged stool, each leg of equal importance of holding the stool
upright, i.e., one leg is public relations, in its traditional sense, another leg is community
service, and the third leg is community participation.
A. police-relations B. public-relations
C. community-relations D. government-relations
703. This consists of a person’s dealings with his family, parents and immediate
relatives, with whom he has to have good relationships in order to develop a respectable
family prestige as well as cordial community relations.
A. domestic’s relations B. neighborhood relations
C. society’s relations D. community relations
704. This consists of a person’s dealings with neighbors who constitute a vital link to
good reputation in the community.
A. society’s relations B. neighborhood relations
C. personal relations D. official relations
705. This consists of a person’s dealings with religious congregations of the faith to
which he belongs. Religious affiliation is necessary for the stability of moral principles.
A. church relation B. religion relation
C. worship relation D. sect relations
706. This is made up of the peace officer’s relations with the officers and men of his
own department, his superiors, the station commander, as well as the city/municipal
mayor where he is assigned.
A. inter-departmental relations
B. intra-departmental relations
C. all of these
D. none of these
707. This is refers to the relations with other police agencies are evident in his
cooperation and dealings with the Philippine National Police and other law enforcement
agencies of the government.
A. relationship from within and without
B. intra-departmental relations
C. inter-departmental relations
D. none of these
708. This includes all dealings or contacts with the citizens in relation to the
enforcement of the law and the maintenance of peace and order, together with the
giv ing of information to the public.
A. community-relations B. citizens-relations
C. all of these D. public-relations
709. It consists of abandonment or renunciation of one’s loyalty to the Government of

the Philippines, or advocating the overthrow of the duly constituted government.
A. dishonesty B. oppression
C. disloyalty D. neglect of duty
710. Is the omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty,
which it was the peace officer’s legal obligation to perform; it implies a duty as well as
its breach and the fact can never be found in the absence of a duty.
A. misfeasance of office B. malfeasance of office
C. nonfeasance of office D. neglect of duty
711. Is the temporary and conditional suspension of the prosecution of a case prior to
its adjudication, usually as the results of an arrangement between the prosecutor and
judges?
A. diversion B. probation
C. plea-bargaining D. parole
712. It is most effective at the individual level.

A. community control B. social control
713. Current crime prevention programs and strategies of the government have
realigned and geared towards, i.e., improving the level of coordination among the
components system, and:
A. increasing community participation in the prevention of crimes
B. balanced allocation of peacekeeping duties between the system and
the citizenry
C. positive action the community pillar’s concern for crime
prevention
D. all of these
714. It is permitted, and it must be exercised as an inevitable feature of the criminal

justice system.
A. discreet solution B. legal authority
C. wide discretion D. conflict resolution
715. The lupon members, while in the performance of their official duties or on the
occasion thereof, shall be deemed as __________, as defined in the Revised Penal Code
and other related laws.
A. persons in authority B. aqents in authority
C. agents of justice D. any of these
716. He has the power to administer oaths in connection with any matter relating to
all proceedings in the implementation of the katarungang pambarangay.
A. punong barangay B. barangay secretary
C. barangay treasurer D. barangay councilor
717. The pursuit of criminal justice is, like all forms of "justice", "fairness" or
"process", essentially to the pursuit of an ideal __________.
A. adversarial system B. accusatorial system
C. inquisitorial system D. mixed systems
718. The criminal justice system is not only an anti-crime machinery of the
government, but also essentially.
A. an instrument of social control
B. informal components of crime control
C. formal components of order maintenance
D. a different agencies of the government
719. The principal mandate of the National Prosecution Serv ice (NPS) is, first is to
conduct speedy and efficient investigation and second is __________.
A. conduct preliminary investigation
B. representative of the state
C. prosecution of criminal cases
D. defenders of the general public
720. The competent criminal prosecutor should asked himself the following questions
before filing the corresponding information, EXCEPT:
A. is there sufficient probable cause or a prima facie case of the guilt to
warrant the prosecution of the suspect
B. if there is probable cause or prima facie, is there any reason that the
filing of the corresponding information
C. will the filing of information or non-filing of the same be in the best
interests of the administration of justice
D. is the filing of information warranted, and there is a need to
conduct research on the facts of the case
721. During Spanish regime, the criminal justice system in the country is operated
through the superior courts consisting of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Audiencia Territorial de Manila
B. Audencia de lo Criminal de Cebu
C. Audiencia de lo Criminal de Vigan
D. Audiencia de las Españas
722. Administration of justice—concretely, and in the sense the term is used in the
definition—involves two things, i.e., the ascertainment or determination of the relevant
facts of a controversy, and __________.
A. the application of the law to those facts in order to resolve the
controversy.
B. to settle actual controversies involving rights which are legally
demandable and enforceable
C. to determine whether or not there has been a grave abuse of discretion
D. the administration of justice or dispensation of justice
723. It is defined as power to try and decide from the parties—-including their
arguments—-according to fixed rules, and determine cause.
A. venue B. place
C. jurisdiction D. authority
724. Underly ing the field of corrections are three basic ideologies regarding the social
responses to illegal behavior and the offenders. These ideologies are as follows,
EXCEPT:
A. punishment ideology
B. re-integration ideology
C. prevention ideology
D. treatment ideology
725. It appears to be the obvious goal of the criminal justice system, but such broadly
phrased statement does not say too much about it can be achieved.
726. It controls the actions of the agencies of criminal justice system, and defines the
rights of defendants.
A. bill of rights B. criminal laws
C. constitution D. procedural laws
727. It is having a greater responsibility for maintaining the peace than law
enforcement, and it is also considered as the gatekeepers of the criminal justice system.
A. military B. security
C. police D. law enforcement
728. It is defined as the management of conflict situations to bring about consensual

resolutions.
C. none of these D. crime investigation
729. It appears to be the obvious goal of the criminal justice system, but such broadly
phrased statement does not say too much about it can be achieved.
730. The discipline of criminology has evolved in five phases, the first two phases
were the early origins and the dark ages, the third phase is the era of classical
criminology, the fourth is positiv ist criminology, and the fifth is known as.
A. biological criminology
B. radical criminology
C. independent criminology
D. sociological criminology
731. This is an ancient legal code that is still surviv ing, and this is not only the
foundations of Judeo-Christian moral teachings, but it is also a basis for the U.S. legal
system.
732. This refers to the breakdown of social orders as results of a loss of standards and
values that replaced social cohesion in a given community.
C. radical theory D. conflict theory
733. He was concern with the achieving “the greatest happiness of the greatest
number,” and his work was governed by “utilitarian principles.”
A. CesareBeccaria B. Jeremy Benthan
C. Rafael Garofalo D. Emile Durkheim
734. He postulates the theory of “born criminal,” which states that criminals are a
lower of life, nearer to the apelike ancestors than non-criminals in traits and disposition.
A. Cesare Lombroso B. Jeremy Benthan
C. Rafael Garofalo D. Emile Durkheim
735. Some criminologist believes that criminal were __________, and committed
crimes as a means of allev iating the pathological urges they inherited from mentally
defective ancestors.
A. morally immature B. morally defective
C. morally insane D. morally abnormal
736. It follows that it should also be responsible for determining whether a person
chooses law-violating or conventional behavior and it suggest that biological make-up
controls human behavior.
A. trait theory B. hereditary theory
C. environmental theory D. learned theory
737. It is describes as a sequence of developmental stages that people pass through,

and even acquiring the capacity to make moral judgments.
738. It emphasizes the process of learning and internalizing moral codes.

739. This theory assumes a set of enduring perceptions and pre-dispositions—

tendencies that each indiv idual develop through early socialization.
740. This theory also suggests another explanation for behavior as an insatiable need
for immediate reward or gratif ication.
A. moral development theory B. social learning theory
C. personality theory D. psychoanalytic theory
741. It is defines as the reasonably stable patterns of behavior, including thoughts
and emotions that distinguish one person from another.
742. It is usually refers to as the general mental capability to reason, solve problems,
think abstractly, learn and understand new material, and profit from past experience.
743. This theory assumes that certain groups have values quite distinct from those of
the rest of society.
A. cultural deviance theory
B. social-structure theory
C. social control theory
D. sub-cultural theory
744. This theory argues that all people in society share one set of cultural values, and
since lower class persons often do not have legitimate means to attain society’s goals,
they may turn to illegitimate means instead.
A. labeling theory B. strain theory
C. radical theory D. anomie theory
745. This theory focuses on the species of how the conduct norms of some groups
may clash with those of the dominant culture.
B. differential association
746. This theory focuses on explaining the breakdown of social institution as a

precondition for the establishment of criminal norms.
747. This theory concentrates on the processes by which criminal behavior is taught
and learned.
A. differential association theory
B. cultural conflict theory
748. This is a sub-culture whose values are in opposition to those of the dominant
culture—emerged to the slum areas in larger cities.
A. delinquent sub-culture B. juvenile delinquents
C. deviant sub-culture D. negative behavior
749. This theory states that people in all strata of society share the same success
goals but those in the lower class have limited means of achieving them.
B. culture difference theory
C. differential opportunity theory
D. association-socialization theory
750. Thus, the value system is in effect, the indiv idual, and it is considered by an
authority or by general consent as a basis of comparison, an approved model or an
object that is regarded as the usual or most common size or form of its kind.
A. none of these
B. professional conduct
C. code of conduct
D. code of ethics
751. It is difficult and demands dedication far beyond most other professions, and
without the right attitude and proper values to guide them in the ir day-to-day encounter
with stakeholders may turn to be unpleasant and dangerous.
A. police professions B. police service
C. law enforcement D. public service
752. This denotes something's degree of importance, with the aim of determining
what action or life is best to do, or at least attempt to describe the value of different
actions.
A. professional values B. morality
C. ethical values D. ethical standards
753. It is manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders, and through

spontaneous actions toward attainment of police objectives guided by moral, ethical and
legal norms.
A. loyalty B. integrity
C. camaraderie D. discipline
754. It is the binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police
organization, and extending to the people they serve is manifested by the PNP
members’ deep commitment and concern for one another.
A. unity B. sprit the corps
C. camaraderie D. teamwork
755. This Act shall be known as the "Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public
Officials and Employees."
A. R.A. No. 6975 B. R.A. No. 6713
C. R.A. No. 9708 D. R.A. No. 3019
756. This arises when a public official or employee is a member of a board, an officer,
or a substantial stockholder of a private corporation or owner or has a substantial
interest in a business, or his rights or duties therein.
A. conflict of interest B. conflict of position
C. conflict of time D. conflict of business
757. All public officials and employees, except those who serve in an honorary
capacity, laborers and casual or temporary workers, shall file under oath their
__________.
A. statement of assets and liabilities and net-worth
B. statement of financial obligations and credits
C. statement of back deposits and accounts
D. statement of income tax return of compensation
758. Is the transfer of title or disposal of interest in property by voluntarily,

completely and actually depriv ing or dispossessing oneself of his right or title to it in
favor of a person or persons other than his spouse and relatives.
A. divestment B. divergence
C. investment D. digression
759. It is the study of standards of custody and moral judgment. Oftentimes it is

referred to as the moral philosophy, and it is a science that deals with the philosophical
study of morality.
A. law enforcement code B. law enforcement ethics
C. police ethics D. public code of conduct
760. It is the key to professionalism. Its improper implementation will greatly
prejudice the personnel professionalization process.
A. career management B. promotion system
C. personnel management D. professional advancement
761. It is soliciting influence or recommendations directly or indirectly from politicians

or other prominent personalities, and in common police practice is the request for a
special favor from political and known personalities.
A. political affiliation B. political patronage
C. political backing D. political influence
762. These are statements that represent the objectives toward which every police
officer shall strive to achieve their fulfillment. These constitute theories and principles
that can be relied upon for guidance of police officers.
A. ethical standards B. ethical behavior
C. ethical conduct D. ethical character
763. In ethics, it is the voluntary control and direction of the police officer’s activities,
indiv idually or collectively, towards their moral and spiritual development as required by
their policing profession.
A. character B. attitude
C. conduct D. behavior
764. Public officials and employees shall commit to the democratic way of life,
maintain the __________, as manifested by deeds the supremacy of civilian authority
over the police and military authorities.
A. principle of public accountability
B. principle of government service
C. principle of public interest
D. principle of public is a public trust
765. It is violence for effect, not primarily, and sometimes not at all for the physical
effect of the actual target, but rather for its dramatic impact on an audience.
A. terrorism B. violence
C. terror D. crime
766. It is the smallest and most radical of the Islamic separatist groups operating in
the southern Philippines. Some of their members have studied or worked in the Middle
East and developed ties to mujahedeen while fighting and training in Afghanistan.
A. Abu Sayaff Group B. New Peoples’ Army
C. Local Dissidents D. Secessionists Group
767. In modern police operational terminology, it is the directing and controlling of

human and material resources by the police authorities, including all the participants in
crisis management.
A. managing barricaded person’s incident
B. managing terrorist incidents
C. managing kidnapping
D. managing hostage situation
768. It is the exact location of the event or place where the barricaded person or
hostage situation is occurring, and it may be a structure, a vehicle or no structure or
vehicle involved.
A. place of engagement B. physical objective
C. none of these D. crime scene
769. They are usually above-average in intelligence and because of this, the
negotiator should be careful about attempting to trick or lie to them, and the best
approach to this kind of hostage taker is to accept their beliefs as being true for them.
A. manic-depressive B. paranoid schizophrenic
C. inadequate personality D. anti-social personality
770. When a crisis results from aircraft hijacking, disturbances in civ il aviation or
terrorism that has national significance, it shall principally deal with the crisis situation.
A. National Actions Committee on Anti-Hijacking and Anti-
Terrorism (NACAHT)
B. Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP)
C. Philippine National Polices (PNP)
D. National Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
771. They refers to the member of the police service, usually the patrol officers
expected to be the first persons to go to a very serious accident or to an extremely
dangerous and unexpected situation that must be dealt with quickly.
A. patrol officers B. patrol supervisors
C. first responders D. intelligence officers
772. From sociological viewpoint, these are the persistent inability to adapt oneself to
the ordinary environment. It is the indiv idual’s loss of power to regulate his actions and
conduct according to the rules of the society.
A. emotional disorders B. physical disorders
C. psychological disorders D. mental disorders
773. Is a state of excitement accompanied by exaltation or a feeling of well-being

which is out of harmony surrounding the patient’s circumstances, and the mind is
hyperactive, with flights of fancy which may amount to incoherence.
A. mania B. phobia
C. somnambulism D. mesmerism
774. A state of arrested or incomplete development of mind which includes

abnormality of intelligence and is of such a nature of degree that the patient is incapable
of liv ing an independent life or of guarding himself against serious exploitation, or will
be incapable when of age to do so.
A. sub-normality
B. severe abnormality
C. all of these
D. none of these
775. It is characterized by cold cruelty, social insensitiv ity, disregard for danger,
troublesome behavior, dislike of others, and an attraction toward the unusual.
A. sociolocism B. neuroticism
C. mentalism D. psychoticism
776. It is a behavior which does not adhere to widely-accepted social or cultural

norms or a form of extreme deviant behavior which violates the cultural norm which
states that it is unacceptable to kill another human being, and it is also the realm of
undesirable behavior or characteristics.
A. abnormal behavior B. deviant behavior
C. criminal behavior D. delinquent behavior
777. It is defined as conditions that involve disruptions or breakdowns of memory,

awareness, identity or perception, and are thought to be primarily caused
by psychological trauma.
A. environmental disorder B. mental disorders
C. dissociative disorders D. physical disorders
778. It is that branch of psychology that studies unusual patterns
of behavior, emotion and thoughts which may or may not be understood as precipitating
a mental disorder.
A. abnormal psychology B. criminal psychology
C. abnormal psychiatry D. criminal psychiatry
779. In some of the viewpoints in the study of human behavior, this emphasizes
human actions in relation to events taking place inside the body, especially the brain and
the central nervous system.
A. biological B. neurological
C. cognitive D. psychoanalytical
780. In all cases of adoption, the adopter must be at least fifteen years older than the
person to be adopted. The following persons may not be adopted, EXCEPT:
A. a married persons without the written consent of the spouse
B. any persons who have been convicted of a crime involving moral
turpitude
C. an alien whose government has broken diplomatic relations with the
Republic of the Philippines
D. a person who has already been adopted unless the previous adoption has
been revoked or rescinded
781. Are those children, who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental defect, are
unable to maintain normal social relations with others and the community in general due
to psychological problems or complexes.
A. emotionally disturbed B. mentally ill
C. physically handicapped D. all of these
782. It shall refer to maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of the child, which
includes psychological and physical abuse, unreasonable deprivation of basic needs for
survival, and use of deed or word which debases dignity.
A. child neglect B. child abuse
C. child exploitation D. child discrimination
783. It is the trading and dealing of children including but not limited to, the act of
buying and selling of a child for money, or for any other consideration, or barter.
A. persons trafficking B. human trafficking
C. all of these D. child trafficking
784. Refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most
encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and emotional development.
A. best interest of youth
B. best interest of children
C. best interest of minor
D. best interest of child
785. Refers to a child who is vulnerable to, and at the risk of committing criminal
offenses because of personal, family and social circumstances.
A. child at risk B. children at risk
C. minor at risk D. youth at risk
786. This refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
committed an offense under the Philippine laws.
A. children in conflict with the law
B. youth in conflict with the law
C. child in conflict with the law
D. minor in conflict with the law
787. Refers to the principle which requires a process of resolving conflict with the
maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and the community.
A. restorative justice B. criminal justice
C. adjudicatory justice D. juvenile justice
788. Refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does
not suffer any penalty for committing similar act, i.e., curfew, truancy, parental
disobedience, etc.
A. criminal offenses B. deviant behavior
C. juvenile delinquencies D. status offenses
789. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the
law, which prov ides child-appropriate proceedings.
A. Adult Justice and Welfare System
B. Criminal Justice System Program
C. Social Welfare and Development Program
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare System
790. Once the child who is under eighteen (18) years of age is found guilty, instead of
pronouncing the judgment of conviction, the court may place the child under
__________.
A. suspended sentence
B. staggered sentence
C. maximum sentence
D. intermediate sentence
791. It is defines as an individual who falls under the statutory age limit, most
commonly under 18 years of age, and because of their minority status, they are kept
separate from adults and receive different consideration and treatment under the law.
A. youth B. adolescent
C. minor child D. none of these
792. It is sanctioned less heavily than criminality because the law considers juveniles
as being less responsible for their behavior than adults.
A. youthful crime B. anti-social behavior
C. deviant behavior D. delinquent behavior
793. This denotes various offenses committed by children or youth, and such acts are
sometimes referred to as juvenile delinquency, and the specific requirements vary from
country to country.
A. delinquency B. juvenile offenses
C. juvenile delinquency D. juvenile crime
794. It is one that provides twenty-four hour resident group care service for the
physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being of mentally gifted, dependent,
abandoned, neglected, handicapped or disturbed children or youthful offenders.
A. detention home B. child-caring institution
C. rehabilitation center D. shelter-care institution
795. It is the apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by
law enforcement officers or private citizens.
A. initial contact with the child
B. arrest of the child offender
C. placing child into custody
D. detention of child in centers
796. They are a social product that reflects the dominant attitudes, values and beliefs
of society’s culture.
A. adolescence B. youths
C. all of these D. children
797. It is a newly emerging juvenile justice system philosophy, wherein minors who
engaged in illegal behavior were viewed as victims of improper care, custody, and
treatment at home.
A. locu parentis B. parens patriae
798. Early criminologists believe that it was the major factor of delinquency; and they
thought that if they could be determined, it might be possible to identify potential
delinquents before they committed socially harmful acts.
A. lack of intelligence B. low intelligence
C. low achievement D. poor intelligence
799. It has set into motion the process conducive to modern juvenile delinquency; it
has caused cities to burst at the seams; and there has been a huge increase in the
amount of movable good produced.
A. industrialization B. migration
C. economic recession D. immigration
800. This refers to sample that permit estimation of the likelihood of each element of
the population being selected in the sample.
A. sampling design B. non-probability sampling
C. probability sampling D. simple random sampling
801. It is simply a statement which the respondent is asked to evaluate according to

any kind of subjective or objective criteria and the level of agreement or disagreement is
measured.
A. distribution B. scales
C. percentage D. ratio
802. It summarizes the population data by describing what was observed in the sample
numerically or graphically.
803. It is that activity in criminological research by which the variables are measured.
A. checklist B. used of instrument
C. instrumentation D. data gathering tools
804. It involves qualitative description of a limited numbers of aspects of a thing or traits

of a person.
A. checklist B. rating scales
C. scaled specimen D. scorecards
805. It is sometimes called closed interview, usually consist of check-off responses to

questions that are either factual or to which most responses easily fit an expectable
pattern of data gathering.
A. interview
B. unstructured interv iew
C. structured interview
D. field interv iew
806. It involves in-depth analysis of one or a few case; and these data-gathering
strategies also represent a commitment to a qualitative or sensitizing strategy when
approaching subject matter.
A. case analysis B. field inquiries
C. field studies D. case studies
807. This finds answer to the questions who, what, when, where and how; this type
of criminological research describes a situation or a given state of affairs in terms of
special aspects or factors.
A. descriptive research B. historical research
C. experimental research D. all of these
808. In this classification of research; concepts are assigned numerical value; and
research methods in the social sciences, of which criminal justice is heir, had followed
these basic philosophical traditions.
A. all of these B. quantitative research
C. none of these D. qualitative research
809. These are concepts that have been operationalized or “concepts that can vary” or
take on different values of a quantitative nature; and they are the mortar and brick of
scientific investigation.
A. variables B. dependent variables
C. independent variables D. all of these
810. It is defined as a careful, systematic study of knowledge in the field of

criminology or criminal justice, undertaken to discover or establish facts of the
crimes or causations of crime.
A. social science research B. criminal justice research
C. descriptive research D. criminological research
811. The focus is on prevailing conditions, or how a person, group, or thing

behaves or functions in the present; and it is also known as statistical research.
A. quantitative research B. correlation research
C. descriptive research D. intervention research
812. It is conducted when a researcher participates in the activities of the

groups being observed in the same manner as its members, with or without their
knowing that they are being observed.
A. non-observation B. observation
C. participant observation D. interview
813. It is sometimes called closed interview, usually consist of check-off

responses to questions that are either factual or to which most responses easily
fit an expectable pattern of data gathering.
A. interview B. unstructured interview
C. structured interview D. field interview
814. It has been defined as a list of planned written instruments and which is
related to a particular topic, with space provided for indicating the responses to
each of the items.
A. questionnaire B. checklist
C. instrument D. all of these
815. It is defined as purposeful face-to-face relationship between two persons,

one of whom called the interviewer or researcher who asks questions to gather
information, and the other called the interviewee or respondent who supplies the
information asked for.
A. interrogation B. interview
C. all of these D. investigation
816. It is a subset of a population, and it represents a subset of manageable
size. It is collected and statistics are calculated from the samples so that one can
make inferences or extrapolations from the population.
A. population B. sampling
C. respondents D. sample
817. It is the science that has to do with the methods used in the collection,
organization, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data.
A. arithmetic B. mathematics
C. statistics D. basis statistics
818. This process summarizes the population data by describing what was
observed in the sample numerically or graphically.
819. It is a process of inspecting, cleaning, transforming, and

modeling data with the goal of highlighting useful information, suggesting
conclusions, and supporting decision making.
A. data analysis B. data collection
C. data management D. data presentation
820. It is the voluntary or involuntary attitude of a person in order to fit the

society’s idea of right or wrong, partly determined by heredity, environment and
modified by learning.
821. It is the expert handling of crisis or emergency or the likes, so as to

reduce or eliminate dangers, or the likes, especially on the part of the
government.
A. crisis management B. police operation
C. crisis intervention D. emergency response
822. It is a mental disease characterized by autistic behavior, hallucinations,

and gradual deterioration of the personality.
823. It is a set of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a

person captive, with the use of force, or threat of violence, and the victim and
the suspect are in close confrontation with the police.
A. hostage situation B. kidnapping
C. barricaded person D. illegal detention
824. It is the dimension that dictates conditionability, and is therefore the

principal factor in anti-social behavior of individual persons.
C. extraversion D. none of these
825. Although the mental defect is not as severe as that of idiots, he cannot
manage his own affairs. The mental age may be compared to a normal child
from three (3) to seven (7) years old. The I.Q. is 21 to 40.
826. It is a complicated crisis intervention process that is comprised of a

system of inter-related conditions, activities and behaviors needed to resolve
highly volatile terrorist incidents.
A. crisis management B. crisis intervention
C. terrorist negotiation D. negotiations
827. It is designed around the first thirty minutes of a terrorists attack to

enable police agencies responsible for the planning to have a clear starting point.
A. plan of action B. operational order
C. barricade matrix D. briefing handout
828. It is roadmap used to maintain the operations sense of direction.

A. briefing B. operational order
C. briefing handout D. operational plan
829. It is a device used to implement a plan of action.

A. operational order B. operational plan
C. plan of action D. implementing plan
830. It characterized many criminals, especially habitual offenders, and this

causes humans to become criminals.
A. emotional conflict B. personality deviations
831. Hostage taking guarantee __________, and after repeated incidents, it is

the hope of the terrorist that the government might overreact and become
excessively restrictive to people.
A. reciprocal good faith B. media coverage
C. bargaining power D. considerable advantage
832. This is a type of hostage taker who is unpredictable, and may resort to
violence depending upon his mood, and this is a type of person that can be
describe as full of inner conflict.
833. This emphasizes human actions in relation to events taking place inside
the body, especially the brains and the nervous system.
A. neurological B. behavioral
C. cognitive D. humanistic
834. The following are the four (4) different major activities of managing
hostage situation, i.e., planning, organizing, leading and __________.
A. controlling B. budgeting
C. staffing D. coordinating
835. It is based on the proposition that the exterior of skull corresponds to the
interior of the brain’s conformation, and by measuring the shape of skull,
behavior can be measured.
A. sociology B. biology
C. anatomy D. phrenology
836. Once the child who is under eighteen (18) years of age is found guilty,
instead of pronouncing the judgment of conviction, the competent court may
place the child under __________.
A. suspended sentence B. staggered sentence
C. maximum sentence D. intermediate sentence
837. This was the first institution expressly for juveniles, and it was founded in
New York City in 1825 so that institutionalized delinquents could be kept part
from adult criminal.
A. Summer Camp B. Boystown
C. House of Refuge D. Youth Institution
838. Are those juveniles who commit offenses that if, committed by adults,
would not be considered crimes; and these offenses are considered illegal per se
from among the children.
A. delinquent B. juveniles
C. status offenders D. criminal over acts
839. It is otherwise known as the Barangay Justice System, as amended.

A. PD 1508 B. RA 7160
C. PD 7160 D. RA 1508
840. It is the act of committing the crime.

A. Mens Rea B. Actus Reus
C. Abberatio Ictus D. Pro Reo
841. It is the mental knowledge of committing the crime.

A. Mens Rea B. Actus Reus
C. Abberatio Ictus D. Pro Reo
842. In Latin, it literally means "Stand by things decided".

A. Abberatio Ictus B. Pro Reo
C. Stare Decisis D. Actus Reus
843. It involves community supervision in lieu of prison.

A. Parole B. Probation
C. Community Service D. Incarceration
844. It entails the supervised release of offenders after they have served a
portion of their sentence.
A. Parole B. Probation
C. Community service D. Incarceration
845. The 3 Components of the American Criminal Justice system.

A. Police, Prosecution, Community B. Police, Courts, Community
C. Police, Prosecution, courts D. Police, Courts, Corrections
846. One of the following is a status offense.

A. Prostitution B. Truancy
C. Theft D. Robbery
847. A Statutory crime that reflects public opinion at a moment in time.

A. Sanctions B. Mala Prohibita
C. Mala In Se D. Offense
848. A Behavior categorized as morally wrong or evil in itself.

A. Sanctions B. Mala Prohibita
C. Mala In Se D. Offense
849. Bases its decisions on precedence.

A. Common Law B. Statutory Law
C. Procedural Law D. Political Law
850. The person bringing the case.

A. Plaintiff B. Defendant
C. Judge D. Prosecutor
851. A Minor offense and its maximum sentence usually do not exceed one
year.
A. Vagrancy
B. Felonies
C. Infractions
D. Misdemeanor
852. Crimes punishable usually by fines which can be paid without even going to
court.
A. Vagrancy B. Felonies
C. Infractions D. Misdemeanor
853. He developed in 1934 the differential association theory.

A. Lloyd Ohlin B. Edwin Sutherland
C. Robert Merton D. Richard Cloward
854. This theory contends that kids in stable lower-class neighborhoods are more
likely to find criminal role models who help them achieve some level of criminal
success by apprenticing the kids into a variety of criminal enterprises.
A. Neutralization Theory B. Differential Association Theory
C. Differential Opportunity Theory D. Strain Theory
855. This Theory states that crime isn't just a function of lower classes and that
both the rich and the poor can become criminals depending on whom they hang
out with and what values and beliefs they learn.
A. Neutralization Theory B. Differential Association
856. This Theory points out that people who commit crime actually fluctuate
back and forth between criminal conduct and law abiding conduct.
857. This Theory contends that most people in society share the same goals of
achieving wealth and success. But some people in lower classes don’t have the
same opportunities that their wealthier counterparts do and as a result, they
get angry when they can't achieve their goals. This frustration leads to crime.
858. This Theory states that criminals think about their actions, weighing the
pros and cons including the risk of punishment and making decisions based on
their calculations.
A. Lower Class Reaction Theory B. Rational Choice Theory
C. Strain Theory D. Social Disorganization Theory
859. He was a Scottish magistrate and founder of the first regular preventive
police force in England, the Thames River police.
A. Patrick Colquhoun B. John Fielding
C. Henry Fielding D. Samuel Romilly
860. He established the basis for the first police criminal records department in
England.
861. He founded London's first police force.

862. London's first professional police force.

A. Bow Street Runner B. Thames River Police
C. Scotland Yard D. Metropolitan Police Force
863. The Bow Street Runners was founded on what year ?

A. 1749 B. 1748
C. 1747 D. 1746
864. A Magistrate appointed to hear minor cases, perform marriages, grant

licenses in a town, country, or other local district.
A. Constable B. Solicitor
C. Barrister D. Justice of the Peace
865. A Member of a body of people employed to keep watch in a town at night.

A. Constable B. Watchman
C. Solicitor D. Justice of the Peace
866. A Peace officer with limited policing authority, typically in a small town.
A. Constable B. Watchman
C. Solicitor D. Justice of the Peace
867. The Metropolitan Police of London was created on

A. 1829 B. 1828
C. 1827 D. 1826
868. The Pursuit of a felon announced with loud shouts to alert others who
were then legally obliged to give chase.
A. Infangthief B. Outfangthief
C. Hue and Cry D. Arrest
869. It regulates the conduct of individuals, defines crimes, and provides
punishment for criminal acts.
A. Procedural Law B. Political Law
C. Civil Law D. Criminal Law
870. In England, The Right to bring a thief caught in one's land to the lord's
court is known as
C. Thief-takers D. Bow street runners
871. In England, The Right to bring a thief caught beyond one's land to the
lord's court is known as
C. Thief-takers D. Bow street runners
872. A Branch of law dealing with disputes between individuals and /or
organizations, in which compensation may be awarded to the victim
A. Procedural Law B. Political Law
C. Civil Law D. Criminal Law
873. In England, they are specialists and present cases in court.

A. Attorney B. Solicitor
C. Barrister D. Bench
874. In England, they are the office lawyers and the legal advisor to the public.
A. Attorney B. Solicitor
C. Barrister D. Bench
875. It is the UK's domestic counter-intelligence and security agency.

A. MI5 B. MI6
C. Mossad D. CIA
876. In England, Men who would solve petty crime for a fee are called.
C. Thief-takers D. Constables
877. The Marine Police Force that was formed on 1798 in England to tackle
theft and looting from ships anchored in the pool of London and the lower
reaches of the river.
A. Thames River Police B. Eden River Police
C. Trent River Police D. Avon River Police
878. The First Marine Police in England was founded by magistrate.

A. John Fielding B. Henry Fielding
C. Patrick Colquhoun D. Robert Merton
879. It means incapable of criminal intention or malice.

A. Doli Incapax B. Corpus Delicti
C. Corpus Juris D. Corpus Juris Civilis
880. It means body of civil law.

881. It means body of law.
882. It means body of the crime.

883. He was a British legal reformer whose chief efforts were devoted to
lessening the severity of English criminal law.
A. Jeremy Bentham B. Cesare Beccaria
C. Samuel Romilly D. John Howard
884. It is the power of the judiciary to determine whether or not another

branch or instrumentality of the government has committed grave abuse of
discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction.
a. Judicial Power c. Judicial Discretion
b. Judicial Encroachment d. Judicial Review
885. It is an act which an officer or tribunal performs in a given state of facts, in

a prescribed manner in obedience to the mandate of legal authority, without
regard to the exercise of his own judgment upon the propriety or impropriety of
the act done.
a. ministerial act c. discretionary act
b. perception d. none of the above
886. Can a ministerial officer refuse to perform his duty?

a. Yes, as long as it is against his will
b. No, because it might seriously hinder the transaction of his
office with the public.
c. Yes, if he question the constitutionality of a statute imposing duties
upon him.
d. No, because he is a public servant
887 . Police Community Relations is the counterpart of the AFPs Civil Military
Operations (CMO). It basically revolves around trying to win the trust, confidence
and support of the people and focuses on the concept of _____________.
a. “Doing good and telling people about it”
b. “Making good and expect people to appreciate it”
c. “Telling people of the good intention of the police”
d. “Involving people to do police work”
888. One of the following is not the PNP police community relation’s major
objectives.
a. Police-Media Relations
b. Public Relation and Inter-agency coordination
c. Civil Assistance and Development
d. Community Organization and mobilization
889. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial

authorities…x x x upon the public officer or employee who shall detain any
person for some legal grounds and shall fail to deliver such person to the proper
judicial authorities within the period of
a. 12, 18, 24 hours for light, less serious, serious offense
b. 12, 16, 18 hours for light, less serious, serious offense
c. 12, 18, 36 hours for light, less serious, serious offense
d. 9, 12, 18 hours for light, less serious, serious offense (Art 125, RPC)
890. A witness who has a special knowledge, skills and training in which his
opinion maybe received as evidence.
a. state witness c. expert witness
b. ordinary witness d. skilled witness
891. The security given for the release of person in custody of the law,
furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee before any courts as required.
a. bail c. deposit
b. cash guarantee d. bond
892. The respondent in a case appealed to a higher court.

a. plaintiff c. appellee
b. appellant d. complainant
893. When the offender commences an act directly by overt act but does not
perform all the act of execution, the crime is in . . .
a. frustrated stage c. attempted stage
b. consummated stage d. preparatory stage
894. Crimes which are not inherently evil but becomes evil because they are
prohibited by law are --
a. complex crimes c. crime mala prohibita
b. crime mala in se d. special complex crimes
895. What is the underlying view of the principle “every man criminally liable is
also civilly liable”?
a. because an offender deserves to be punished.
b. because this will provide strength on the law
c. because on the standpoint of its effect, a crime has a dual
character.
d. because this will deter other people from violating laws
e. none of the above
896. Why is the effectiveness of the Criminal Justice System as an anti-crime

machinery for crime prevention and control in the society greatly dependent on
the legal parameters?
a. because they collectively define and delineate the boundaries
between what is legal and illegal.
b. because they define the punishment imposed for every wrong action.
c. because they individually define what could be done and could not be
done.
d. they integrate the pillars into a system
897 . Destiero is a ________________.

a. correctional penalty c. grave penalty
b. felony d. light penalty
898. Crime, they often say, has been part of the human society since time
immemorial. Various actions of men have been categorized as crimes. Which of
the following is the reason best applicable for the imposition of laws?
a. society is dynamic, hence, government needs to be responsive to its
people.
b. laws and legislations are proof of government’s sincerity to serve.
c. people’s free will tend to go beyond limit, hence, containment is
necessary.
d. laws and legislations are weapons of human society against
the evil named, crime, that threatens its existence.
899. Insanity is often used as a defense by people to “escape” prison. RA 9344

also exempts children fifteen (15) years old or younger from criminal liability.
The rationale behind these circumstances can be traced back during the 18 th
century. Which school of thought conceptualized this?
a. Classical c. Positivist
b. Neo-classical d. Contemporary
900. Factors or circumstances sufficient to convince a person of normal or

average intelligence that a suspect was probably involved in a specific crime.
a. proximate cause
b. probable cause
c. prima facie evidence
d. circumstantial evidence
901. This entity has the authority, under its police power, to define and punish
crimes and to lay down the rules of criminal procedure.
a. House of Senate c. Government
b. State d. Court
902. Which of the following is not a characteristics of an ex post facto law?

a. it makes criminal an act done before the passage of the law and which
was innocent when done, and punishes such an act.
b. it aggravates a crime, or makes it lesser than it was, when
committed.
c. changes the punishment and inflicts a greater punishment than the law
annexed to the crime when it was committed.
d. it deprives a person accused of a crime some lawful protection to
which he has become entitled, such as the protection of a former
conviction or acquittal, or a proclamation of amnesty.
e. alter the legal rules of evidence, and authorizes conviction upon less or
different testimony than the law required at the time of the commission of
the offense.
903. It pertains to a legislative act which inflicts punishment without a trial.

a. ex post facto law c. bill of particular
b. bill of lading d. bill of attainder
904. Which of the following rights of the accused maybe waived by him?
a. right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against
him.
b. right to speedy disposition of his case before all judicial, quasi-judicial
or administrative bodies.
c. right of presumption of innocence
d. right to confrontation and cross examination
e. right to speedy and public trial
905. In order that the act or omission in felonies committed by means of fault or
culpa may be considered voluntary, the following requisites must concur, except
---
a. Freedom c. Imprudence
b. Intelligence d. Intent
906. Which of the following is not a correctional penalty?

a. prision correccional
b. arresto menor
c. destierro
d. special perpetual disqualification
907. It is a penal law which punishes acts not defined and penalized by the
Penal Code.
a. statute b. special law c. bill d. resolution
908. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as its author
or owner. It implies that the act committed has been freely and consciously done
and may be put down to the doer as his very own.
a. imputability c. responsibility
b. obligatory d. circumstance
909. Anyone who acts in defense of his person or rights does not incur criminal
liability provided that the following circumstances concur, except ----
a. lawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending it
d. none of these
910. It is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission
and at the time of the application for bail maybe punished by death.
a. capital punishment c. capital felony
b. capital offense d. grave offense
911. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute the offender
after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of the crime c. prescription of the penalty
b. service of sentence d. lapse of penalty and sentence
912. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the
final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of the crime c. prescription of the penalty
b. service of sentence d. lapse of penalty and sentence
913. It consists in the suspension of the sentence of a convict after serving the
minimum of the sentence imposed without granting a pardon, prescribing the
terms upon which the sentence shall be suspended.
a. probation c. conditional pardon
b. parole d. commutation of sentence
914. An explanation of the workings of the criminal justice system that shows
how cases get filtered according to the seriousness of the offense.
a. System filtered model c. Wedding cake model
b. Gravity of crimes model d. Crime Control model
915. Special time allowance for loyalty is the deduction of one-fifth of the period
of the sentence of a prisoner, if hem, having evaded the service of his sentence
because of calamity, gives himself up to the authorities within ______ hours
following the issuance of a proclamation regarding the passing away of the
calamity.
a. 36 b. 48 c. 72 d. 100
916. Who exercises authority in the grant of conditional pardon?

a. Board of Parole and Pardon c. Chief Executive
b. Supreme Court d. Bureau of Corrections
917. Under Art. 100 of the Civil Code, all persons criminally liable are also ____
a. administratively liable c. solidarily liable
b. civilly liable d. partially liable
918. It is considered as the court of last resort –

a. Court of Appeals c. Presidency
b. Supreme Court d. Sandiganbayan
919. The propagation, development and adherence of the ethical doctrine is a command
policy and its implementation thereof is a ________of all PNP Commanders/Directors at
all levels.
a. Command duty c. Command authority
b. Command responsibility d. Command obligation
920. _________________________ serves as the central source of information for

release by the PNP and responds to requests for information by the news media and the
community.
a. The Chief, PNP
b. The Director for Police Community Relations
c. The Director of Police Community Relations Group
d. The Public Information Officer
e. The Deputy Chief PNP for Operations
921. Among the PNP QUAD Concept variables, what is considered to be the foundation
of effective policing?
a. Police Intelligence
b. Police Operations
c. Police Community Relations
d. Police Investigation
e. Police Operational Procedures
922. One of the pressing problems in the realization of effective community policing
based on the PNP QUAD Concept is:
a. Interoperability
b. Lack of Funds & Logistics
c. Goal Dysfunctions
d. Lack of Manpower Resources
e. Lack of Knowledge & Skills
923. Four cardinal rules in the formulation of a policeman’s standard behavior

a. Prudence, temperance, fortitude, justice
b. Discipline, conduct, electioneering, perseverance
c. Right, moral virtue, responsibility, maximum tolerance
d. Command, human rights, courtesy, actions
924. Operations, intelligence, investigation and community relations, are;
a. Quad Concept of Police Operations
b. Doctrine of reciprocal Responsibility
c. Principles of PCR
d. Doctrine of Operations
925. His key ideas are concentrated on the principle of “Surv ival of the Fittest” as a
behavioral science. He advocated the “Somatotyping Theory”.
A. W Sheldon
B. R Merton
C. E Sutherland
D. Ivan Nye
926. What does “R” mean in the criminal formula of Abrahamsen?

A. Total Situation
B. Criminal Tendency
C. Temperament
D. none of these
927. The term use to refer to the adverse psychological impacts of rape on rape victims
who continue to suffer long after the incident.
A. Sexual Anxiety
B. Rape Trauma Syndrome
C. Fear
D. Neurotic Behavior
928. The term white- collar crime was coined by

A. E. Sutherland
B. R. Quinney
C. E. Durkheim
D. C. Darwin
929. The field of criminology is a multi-disciplinary science. One of its aspects is the
study of crime focused on the group of people and society which is known today as:
A. Criminal Psychology
B. Criminal Sociology
C. Criminal Psychiatry
D. Criminal Etiology
930. The Latin term POENA means:

A. Penalty
B. Pain
C. Punishment
D. Police
931. Former warship used to house to house prisoners in the 18th and 19th C were
called:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Lavons
932. What is the literal meaning of the term Cosa Nostra?

A. One thing
B. Omerta
C. Two Things
D. 5th estate
933. The strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of the Mafia members is called
___.
A. Omerta
B. Triad
C. Silencer
D. Mafioso
934. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the general
effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
935. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
936. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a

A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
937. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a household remedy
for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
938. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the body can produce
mental alertness and wakefulness .
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
939. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by Mexican
Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
940. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?

A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
941. What is the most important constituent of opium?

A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
942. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
943. Which of the following is a drug known in the street as “angel dust”
A. Mescaline
B. Diethyltryptamine
C. Phencyclidine
D. Psilocybin
944. In acute cases withdrawal of drugs causes serious physical illness also called
abstinence syndrome. It is also otherwise known as:
A. Psychological dependence
B. Physical dependence
C. Drug Addiction
D. “Cold Turkey”
945. It is defined as a crime where a person of respectability and high social status in
the course of his or her occupation commits the criminal act.
A. Labor Crimes
B. Organized Crimes
C. High Collar crimes
D. White collar crime
946. The groups of crimes categorized as violent crimes (Index crimes) and property
crimes (Non Index crimes) are called ___.
A. Conventional crimes
B. Non-conventional Crimes
C. Felony
D. Offense
947. The theory in which reformation is based upon, on the ground that the criminal is a
sick person.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Classical Theory
C. Neo Classical School
D. Sociological Theory
948. It is the Latin term referring to "caught in the act" of performing a crime.
A. Nullum Crimen
B. Dura lex sed lex
C. Ignorancia lex excusat
D. none of these
949. A system of coordinated activ ities, group of people, authority and leadership and
cooperation towards a goal is called
A. Formal Organizations
B. Informal Organizations
C. Police Administration
D. All of the above
950. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is called:

A. Unity of Direction
B. Centralization
C. Scalar of Chain
D. Unity of Command
951. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go
upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy is
A. Chain of Command
B. Unity of Command
C. Span of Control
D. Delegation of Authority
952. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service knowledge is
known as
A. Line and Staff Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Organization
D. Structural Organization
953. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of
direct line authority and discipline is easily administered is called:
A. Line and Staff Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Organization
D. Functional and Staff Organization
954. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit
them is referred to as:
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Planning
955. From among the following, which is correct?

A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took
effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on July 4, 2002
956. What is the term used to describe the intox icating effect of a drug in the lingo of
the drug users?
A. Stoned
B. Rush
C. High
D. Trip
957. The drug heroin was a chemically synthesized of

A. Morphine
B. Opium Juice
C. Codeine
D. Coca paste
958. What group of countries where the first important drug traffic route was organized
from drug discovery up to marketing?
A. Peru-Uruguay-Panama-Columbia
B. The Golden Triangle
C. Middle East- Europe-U.S
D. The Golden Crescent
959. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine?
A. South East Asia
B. South America
C. Middle East
D. South West Asia
960. The Golden Triangle is for the Chinese Triad, Columbia and Peru is for:
A. La Cosa Nostra
B. Cammora
C. Medellin Cartel
D. YAKUZA
961. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor to floor, as well
as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system
962. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance rating of not
less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if
construction on either side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. fire wall
C. post wall
D. fire trap
963. “Bennies” and “dexies” are for amphetamines; “red devils” and “double trouble are
for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
964. Duquenois-Levine test is for marijuana; Symone’s test is for:

A. Shabu
B. Cocaine
C. Opium derivatives
D. Amphetamine
965.What kind of alcohol is used in alcoholic drinks?

A. Methyl Alcohol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
C. Brewery
D. Ethylene
966. Intoxication when considered under the law is considered

A. Alternative Circumstance
B. Maladaptive Behavior
C. Delinquent act
D. Anti social Behavior
967. In substance abuse, what is the scientific name of the tobacco

plant?
A. Nicotino Tabakumo
B. Nicotiana Tabacum
C. Nikotiano Tabaku
D. Tabaku Nicotino
968. Hypothetical means

A. Temporary
B. Exaggerated
C. Provable
D. Assumed
969. A public officer or employee when NOT being authorized by judicial order, shall
enter a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is committing:
A. Legal entry
B. Violation of domicile
C. Illegal entry
D. Abatement
970. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard

A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
971. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is
known as:
A. original jurisdiction
B. appellate jurisdiction
C. general jurisdiction
D. delegated jurisdiction
972. The primary purpose of bail is

A. to protect the accused rights
B. to keep the accused in jail until trial
C. to punish the accused for the crime
D. to release the accused
973. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols
974. The place of trial for a criminal action is cited

A. territory
B. action
C. jurisdiction
D. venue
975. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contract is

known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage
976. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been
committed in order to determine such he must have knowledge of the so called cardinal
question of investigation and there are ____ cardinals of investigation.
A. six
B. three
C. vocabulary
D. diction
977. Bilious means

A. wealthy
B. puffed out
C. bad tempered
D. irritable
978. The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination
is;
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
C. RA 4864
D. RA 6141
979. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the
PNP is;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
980. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional
Director is ;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 9 years
981. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
982. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the
NAPOLCOM is
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 9 years
983. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners

and one
A. Ex-officio Chairman
B. Secretary
C. Ex-officio Commissioner
D. Ex-officio Chairperson
984. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous
service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained within:
A. 20 yrs
B. 10 yrs
C. 18 months
D. none of these
985. They are necessary in the sentence, since they show whether the sentence is clear
or has a doubtful meaning.
A. subject
B. punctuations
C. verbs
D. paragraphs
986. Supply the correct form of verb; “I am not as good today, as I _____yesterday.”
A. am
B. was
C. were
D. did
987. In police technical writing, avoid repetitions of nouns by using

A. a verb
B. a pronoun
C. a common noun
D. a proper noun
987. SPO1 Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer, on the
strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months
passed and he was still receiv ing the same salary. What form of communication is
missing?
A. Memorandum
B. Special order
C. Approval by his CO
D. Written confirmation
988. All statements are incorrect, except

A. the relevance of the police report depends on how it relays the exclusive
objective
B. verbs are modifiers
C. keeping an open mind in reporting, makes the report fair
D. sometimes report writers should result to one’s opinion.
989. These words are _____ e.g.; brake – break, bail – bale, buy – by, die – dye, and
dear- deer. They are similar in sound but different in meaning and spelling.
A. vocabularies
B. antonyms
C. homonyms
D. phrases
990. These statements are correct, except

A. Police reports can serve as raw materials from which record systems can be
adopted.
B. Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for good police performance.
C. Police reports make police investigators efficient in their jobs.
D. Police reports can be used for future reference.
901. “Ballista” is a gigantic bow or catapult which was used to hurl large objects such as
stones at a particular distance to deter animals or enemy forces.
A. Catapult
B. Balle
C. Ballein
D. Ballista
992. The British engineer Benjamin Robins conducted many experiments in interior
ballistics. His findings justly entitle him to be called the
A. father of modern gunnery
B. father of modern ballistics
C. father of interior ballistics
D. father of forensic ballistics
993. What is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to
the target?
A. Yaw
B. Accuracy
C. Trajectory
D. Velocity
994. The means that the bullet may lose its speed very rapidly during its flight the air.
This is a number that relates to the effect of air drag on the bullet's flight and which
can be used to later predict a bullet's trajectory under different circumstances through
what are called "drag tables."
A. Bullet trajectory
B. Critical zone
C. Ballistics Coefficient
D. Down Range
995.– the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of
not spinning on its axis.
A. Key-hole shot
B. Back shot
C. Mid range trajectory
D. Point Blank
996. Shotgun pellets made from lead especially hardened by the addition of a slight
amount of antimony. This refers to
A. Shot Gun
B. Chilled Shot
C. Shot ballistics
D. All of these
997. Historians considered that the age of gunpowder began with its first use as a
propellant for a projectile on
A. 1313
B. 1413
C. 1280
D. 1350
998. What part of the film consists of silver compounds which are light sensitive and
halogens?
A. Top layer
B. Emulsion layer
C. Film base
D. Film surface
999. Who studied fear and its influence on the hearth and his observations subsequently
formed the basis for the technique in the development of the sphygmamomanometer
and the scientific cradle, which he used in studying fear on the heart?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
1000. “Hindu book of health and science” which is considered as the earliest known
reference of the methods for detecting deception.
A. Hindu Yoga
B. Ayur-Veda
C. Arya abram
D. Midos Yagu
266. The science and art of improving human breeds by so applying the ascertained
principles of genetics and inheritance as to secure a desirable combination of physical
characteristics and mental traits in the offspring of suitably mated parents?
A. Genetics
B. Eugenics
C. Metabolism
D. Psycho Synthesis
267. In polygraph examination, the whole chart when finished is called

A. result
B. polygram
C. analysis
D. diagnostic
268. The major component of the polygraph machine are, except

A. PNEUMOGRAPH
B. CARDIO-SPHYMOGRAPH
C. GALVANOGRAPH
D. KYMOGRAPH
E. PEN AND INKING SYSTEM
269. “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of __ in polygraph examination.

A. Control question
B. Relevant question
C. Irrelevant question
D. Evidence connecting question
270. Which of the following questions made in a polygraph examination maybe

considered an irrelevant question?
A. Have you ever been called by the name Allan?
B. Is today Monday?
C. Are you over 20 years of age?
D. All of the above
271. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are similar
in degree and in consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine
whether the subject is telling the truth or not.
A. Silent answer test
B. Peak of tension test
C. Guilt complex test
D. General question test
272. To facilitate evaluation and interpretation of test charts, markings are made with
the use of signs and symbols. Which of the following examples of chart markings
should be the first marking of the examiner in the chart?
A. X / 60 / 1.5 A
B. XX / 60 / 1.5 A
C. X
D. XX
273. A principle involved in fingerprinting which states that there are no two fingerprints
that are exactly alike unless taken from the same finger.
A. Permanency
B. Individuality
C. Infallability
D. Generality
274. The biggest percentage of fingerprint pattern is
A. Arches
B. Loops
C. Whorls
D. Accidentals
275. It symbolized by letter X in the fingerprint classification.

A. Ulnar Loop
B. Plain arch
C. Accidental whorl
D. Tented arch
276. The reason why fountain pen ink, colored ink and stamp pad are objectionable are,
except
A. They are too thin
B. They dry too quickly
C. The stamp pad smears easily
D. Satisfactory for comparison purposes
277. These are fingerprints which are imprinted by mere chance or without any intention
to produce the print.
A. Chance print
B. Chance impression
C. Visible print
D. Latent print
278. If a finger appears to be amputated (cut off) just place the symbol or simple
abbreviation as __ and the date of amputation on the box of the finger actually
amputated.
A. AMP
B. AMPT
C. APT
D. AMPUT
279. Which has been known as the circulating tissue of the body?
A. brain
B. skin
C. Mucus membrane
D. None of these
280. The yellowish fluid of blood in which numerous blood corpuscles is called
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Red cells
D. Cloth
281. What test is used to determine whether blood is a human or non-human origin?
A. Marquis test
B. Precipitin test
C. Baberios test
D. Levine test
282. ____ is a specialized epithelial outgrowth of the skin which occur everywhere on
the human body except on the palm of the hands and the sole of the feet.
A. nails
B. skin
C. hair
D. pores
283. What kind of fluid is used to restore tampered serial numbers?

A. Etching fluid
B. STP fluid
C. Motolite fluid
D. Gun serial fluid
284. As regards the relation of the site of the application of force and location of injury,
the injury found at site of the application of force is called
A. Coup injury
B. Contre injury
C. Coup contre coup injury
D. Locus minoris resistancia
285. Wound characterized by products of forcible contact are called

A. Abrasion
B. Multiple wound
C. Mutilation
D. Punctured
286. All forms of violent death which results primarily from the interference with the
process of respiration or to condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or
tissue or both has been reduced below normal level are called
A. Death by asphyxia
B. Death by mutilation
C. Death by injection
D. Death by violence
287. It is defined as a remedy or process by which a child born out of lawful wedlock
and are therefore considered illegitimate are by fiction of law considered by subsequent
valid marriage of the parents.
A. Adoption
B. Legitimation
C. Foster parenting
D. Naturalization
288. The introduction of seminal fluid with spermatozoa in the generative of a woman
by any means of springe, pipette, irrigator, etc is called
A. penetration
B. insertion
C. insemination
D. fingering
289. The physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate sexual
gratification.
A. Sterility
B. Impotency
C. Frigidity
D. Erectile Failure
290. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal who
became London’s most effective criminal investigator. He was the most famous THIEF-
CATCHER in 1720s.
A. Alexander Mocanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
291. He was known to be the creator of the “bow street runners”, a group of police
officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not in uniform, performing criminal
investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
292. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police – the Scotland
Yard, which became famous police organization in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
293. America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
294. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.

A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
295. A French Police Clerk who introduced and established the first systematic
identification system based on anthropometrical Signalment and became the founder of
criminal identification.
A. Fox Talbot
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
296. An Englishman who published his study on classifying fingerprints. While other
scientists were studying fingerprints in significance in criminal identification.
A. Arthur Conan Lyle
B. Thomas Byrnes
D. Francis Galton
297. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates in Munich,

Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
D. Francis Galton
298. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state criminal
prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett
299. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime scene until the
evidence has been processed through notes, sketches and photographs, with proper
measurements. This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
300. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and having

responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences from the time it was found
until brought to court for presentation is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
301. The causal theory which explains that a person commits crime because of
economic goal blockage.
a. Strain Theory
b. Cartographical Theory
c. Neo-Classical Theory
d. Control Theory
302. This theory of punishment rest on the belief that a wrong done must be atoned for
by a punishment which compensates for the crime.
a. Retribution d. Hammurabi Code
b. Just Dessert e. Code of Draco
c. Retaliation
303. It refers to the appearance or observed features of something experienced

distinguished from reality, or the thing itself; any extremely unusual or extraordinary
thing or occurrence.
a. Crime d. Law
b. Theory e. Phenomenon
c. Principle
304. He advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness” is inherited. It causes crime for
the reason that a feebleminded person is unable to appreciate the consequences of his
behavior, or could not appreciate the meaning of law.
a. Richard Dug dale d. Enrico Ferri
b. Travis Hirschi e. Rafael Goddard
c. Psychoanalytical Theory
305. He wrote a book entitled “Essay on Crimes and Punishment” as well as advocated
and applied doctrine of penology that is to make punishment less arbitrary and severe:
that all persons who violated a specific law should receive identical punishment
regardless of age, sanity, wealth, position or circumstances.
a. Cesare Beccaria d. Jeremy
Bentham
b. Edwin Sutherland e. Ernest Kretschmer
c. Cesare Lombroso
306. Mr. General was positively identified as the responsible killer of Ninoy Aquino. Thus,
many Filipino people condemned Mr. General to life imprisonment and even death
penalty as a reward to his mischievous act. Some great Filipino psychologist and
criminologist responded to the issue and publicly said: “Mr. General must not be
imprisoned nor executed to death but should be treated by a psychologist or he must
undergo treatment to a hospital because he is sick”. In the field of criminology, what
theory of human law or causal theory of crime best represents the above cited issue?
a. Constitutionalism d. Classical Theory
b. Eugenics e. Italian Theory
c. Social Structure Theory
307. An approach in the explanation of crime which considers climate as one of the
factors that lead indiv iduals to do a criminal act.
a. Criminal Ecology d. Criminal
Epidemiology
b. Criminal Geography e. Criminal Biology
c. Single or Unitary Approach
308. It is a theory which is concerned with how the self-identity and behavior of an
indiv idual is influenced (or created) by how that individual is categorized and described
by others in their society.
a. Radical Theory d. Conflict Theory
b. Labeling theory e. Learning Theory
c. Psychological Theory
309. He was considered as the founder of modern criminology.

a. Cesare Beccaria d. Emile Durkheim
b. Cesare Lombroso e. Albert Cohen
c. Edwin Sutherland
310. He established a theory which tried not to explain why a person commits crime but
rather determine why people do not become criminal.
a. Richard Cloward d. Lloyd Ohlin
b. Travis Hirschi e. Albert Cohen
c. Robert Agnew
311. What theory does question number 10 tries point out?

a. Trait Theory d. Symbolic Interaction
Theory
b. Control Theory e. Drift Theory
c. Subculture Theory
312. A certain society who do not have or lacks regulation will result to chaos or
breakdown of norms. The aforesaid statement is best referring to what theory?
a. Routine Activity Theory d. Somatotype Theory
b. Rational Choice Theory e. Anomie Theory
c. Astrology Theory
313. Atheory based upon the idea that the assessment of the person's outer
appearance, primarily the face, may give insights into one's character or personality.
a. Physiognomy d. Phrenology
b. Biological Theory e. Ecology Theory
c. Osteopathy Theory
314. In the geographical theory concerning crime causation, he said in his book (Spirit
of Laws, 1784) that criminality increases in proportion as one approach the equator and
drunkenness increase as one approaches the north and south pole.
a. David Matza d. Cyrill Burt
b. Franz Joseph Gall e. Montesquieu
c. Aichorn
315. Which of the following do not belong to the group?

a. Differential Association Theory d. Differential Identification
Theory
b. Routine Activity Theory e. Imitation-Suggestion Theory
c. Containment Theory
316. He claimed that crime is the result of emotional immaturity.
a. Bomberg d. Healy
b. Sigmund Freud e. William Kretschmer
c. William Sheldon
317. It refers to the study of the size, weight and shape of the skull.
a. Phrenology d. Craniometry
b. Physiognomy e. Anatomy of Skull
c. None of the above
318. The relation of criminality to the physical constitution of man is best known
as___________.
a. Criminal Physical Anthropology d. Criminal Demography
b. Criminal Sociology e. Victimology
c. Criminal Psychology
319. This theory suggests that when people find they cannot achieve valued goals
through legitimate means they experience stress and frustrations, which in turn may
lead to rule-violating behavior.
a. Strain Theory d. Sociological Theory
b. Psychogenic Approach e. Indiv idual Theory
c. Eclectic Theory
320. Andrew saw Edgar killing his own father with the used of cal. 45 firearm. The other
day, because of poverty Peter stole a pack of sky flakes (biscuit) inside the store of
Petra. Judge Ador convicted the killer for a crime of parricide. What theory is applicable
to the act of Peter?
a. Social Disorganization Theory d. Social Ecology Theory
b. Genetic Theory e. Left Realism
c. American dream Theory
321. Refer to no. 320. If Andrew murdered also his father based on what he perceived
as what Edgar has done to his father what theory will apply if any?
a. Sutherland Theory d. Differential Association
Theory
b. Imitation Theory e. Differential Identification Theory
c. Daniel Classer Theory
322. The _________theory of criminality attributes delinquent and criminal behavior to

a conscience that is either too overbearing that it arouses feeling of guilt or so weak
that is cannot control the indiv idual’s impulse and the need for immediate gratification.
a. Psychoanalytic d. Biological
b. Psychological e. Psychopathic
c. Classical
323. Mr. Perfecto is a religious man. However, due to unexpected event his house and
other important things were completely ruined by a tornado, thus he lost everything
other than his life. Thereafter, he planned to stay in a certain squatter area where most
high profile criminals live. Suddenly, he was persuaded by the people around him and he
became one among the most notorious criminal in that place. Based on the case
aforementioned, what causal theory of crime suits the situation?
a. Social Bond d. Labeling
b. Differential Association e. Biochemistry
c. Learning Theory
324. Who proposed the related theory based on no. 23?

a. Henry Mckay d. Clifford Shaw
b. Steve Messner e. Richard Rosenfeld
c. Edwin Sutherland
325. Ectomorphic based on the somatotype theory of crime by William Sheldon

possessed long arms and legs and has a higher proportion of nervous tissue which is
similar to the concept of William Kretschmer known as _____.
a. Pyknic Type d. Asthenic Type
b. Dyplastic Type e. Athletic Type
c. Mixed Type
326. Physiognomy is the making of judgments about people's character from the
appearance of their faces or countenance. The founder of this causal theory of crime
was:
a. J. Baptiste della Porte d. Johan Gaspar
lavater
b. John Gaspar Spurzheim e. Francois Magendie
c. Alphonse Bertillon
327. This approach to the study of criminality links criminal behavior to mental states,
especially mental disease, mental disorders, pathologies and emotional problems.
a. Psychiatry d. Psychology
b. Psychosomatic e. Psychogenic
c. Criminal Anthropometry
328. Mesomorphic body type according to William Sheldon has a temperament known as
a. Cerebrotonic d. Dionysian
b. Viscerotonic e. Aggressive
c. Titanic
329. According to the somatotype theory of William Kretschmer pyknic type commonly
commits ____.
a. Petty Thieves d. Murder
b. Crimes against Decency e. Deception
c. Crimes against Morality
330. It is defined as an advance, theoretical field of study concerning etiology of crimes,

meaning of crime in terms of law, and community reaction to crime.
a. Applied Criminology d. Criminology
b. Theory e. Criminalist
c. Criminologist
331. When efforts to figure out the implications of a theory and determine what other
variables might be added in the formulation of such theory is known as __.
a. Theoretical Elaboration d. Theoretical
Integration
b. Theory Construction e. Criminological Theory
c. Theoretical Specification
332. The person who once said that criminology is not a science but it has hope of
becoming a science.
a. George Wilker d. Edwin Sutherland
b. Cesare Lombroso e. Dr. Charles Goring
c. Willem A. Bonger
333. White-collar crime is defined as a crime committed by a person of respectability

and high social status in the course of his occupation. This definition was given by:
a. Edwin Sutherland d. Emile Durkheim
b. Rawson W. Rawson e. Robert Ezra Park and Ernest
Burgess
c. Henry Mayhew
334. PO1 America suddenly fired his pistol against Mr. California because of simple
misunderstanding but the wound was not fatal allowing the victim to spare a new life.
Thus, if Abraham, upon looking the incident, immediately concluded that David
committed a crime of killing Goliath without verdict from the court of law the idea of
Abraham refers to ______.
a. Legal sense d. Criminology
concept
b. Statutory Law e. Conclusion
c. Crime is destructive
335. A police said, “He is a criminal because he has big ears but very small nose and a
flat shape skull”. The theory of the police is similar to:
a. Physiognomy d. Atavism by Lombroso
b. Phrenology e. Criminological Theory
c. Anthropometry
336. If criminal behavior is perceived only as the result of a factor which is either social,
biological or mental the explanation is said to be:
a. Multiple Factor Theory d. Single or Unitary Theory
b. Electric Theory e. Dual Factor Theory
c. Biological Approach
337. According to classical point of view, criminals must be punished for what they have
done so that others will be deterred from committing crime and because of human free
will the criminal thought of the pain and pleasure he will gain in case he/she will or will
not perform his/her criminal intention. The means that:
a. Man was born to seek his/her own pleasure without considering
others.
b. Man is a rational calculator.
c. Man is hedonistic
d. Man is subdued by morbid phenomenon
e. Deterrence not the only way of avoiding the commission of crime.
338. The question of the judge is: “Isn’t it that criminology is not a science?” As a
criminology student, the answer to the question is:
a. Yes, science is a scientific body of knowledge.
b. No, the question is not right.
c. Yes, it is not a social science
d. No, it is an applied science
e. Yes, its not.
339. Criminologist is a term which is applicable to any person who is a graduate with the
Degree of Criminology, who passes the examination for criminology and is registered
through Board of Examiners of Philippine Regulation commission while a person who is
engage in the practice of criminology and holds himself out to public is known as:
a. Criminalist d. Law Enforcer
b. Criminology Instructor/Professor e. None of the above
c. Law Enforcement Administrator
340. In the technological div ision of criminalistic, which of the following belongs to the
group?
1. Photography 4. Firearm Identification
2. Question Document Examination 5. Polygraphy
3. Fingerprint Identification
a. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1, 3, and 5
b. 3, 4, and 5 e. 1, 3, and 4
c. 2, 3, and 4
341. The positiv ist theory of Lombroso identified three types of criminal except:
a. Criminaloid d. Atavism
b. Kleptomaniac e. None of the above
c. Insane Criminal
342. He was regarded as the founder of Italian School of Positiv ist criminology.
a. Charles Darwin d. Raffael Garofalo
b. Enrico Ferri e. Lombroso, Ferri, and Garofalo
c. Cesare Lombroso
343. Positiv ist viewpoint are as follows except:

a. Man is restrained occasionally by strange and morbid phenomenon which constrains
him/her to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his volition.
b. Penalty must be swift and certain.
c. Crime is essentially a social and natural phenomenon.
d. Criminals must be treated or examined by competent body of psychiatrists and social
scientist not imprisonment.
e. None of the above
344. A theory which presumes that criminal behavior is caused by internal and external
factors outside of indiv idual’s control. Thus, scientific method was introduced and
applied to the study of human behavior.
a. Scientific Theory d. Body Type Theory
b. Positivist Theory e. None of the above
c. Classical School
345. P03 Neng fails to inform the right of the accused he arrested during the conduct of
custodial investigation. In short, P03 Neng being the representative of the state broke
their own criminal law in which they are supposed to implement. What type of crime
was committed by P03 Neng according to criminology concept?
a. Blue-collar Crime d. Political Crime
b. Corporate Crime e. State Crime
c. Public Order Crime
346. 14 years old Pulido was newly involved in vices particularly gambling and drug
using. Before he was completely addicted to it he was apprehended by the police
officers and surrendered him to the DSWD for rehabilitation. T he act of Pulido is known
as ___?
a. Victimless Crime d. Culpable Crime
b. Crime e. None of the above
c. Intentional Crime
347. It refers to the behavior that is illegal but does not violate or threatens the rights
of anyone and may be associated with the implication that the behavior should therefore
not be considered as illegal.
a. Immorality d. Victimless Crime
b. Sin e. All of the above
c. Crime
348. Crime exists when it is reported. This is true in what point of view?
a. Legal Point of View d. Criminal Law Point of
View
b. Scientific Point of View e. Point of the View
c. Criminology Point of View
349. Philippines have numerous regulations in which people are confused what to
follow. Our situation concerning the introduction of too many laws is best known as
____.
a. Over Criminalization d. Criminalization
b. Under Criminalization e. State of Criminality
c. Legislation of Criminal Law
350. This theory is oversimplified as peer group theory.

a. Control Theory d. Learning Theory
b. Conflict Theory e. Feminist Theory
c. Radical Theory
01. This approach in delinquency views the law breaker as a person whose
misconduct is the result of faulty biology.
a. biogenic b. psychogenic c. sociogenic
02. It tells us that the offender behaves as she or he does in response to

psychological pathology of some kind
03. It attributes the variations in delinquency pattern to influence social

structures. They account for individual offender by reference to learning process
which goes on in youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies
and other variables of that time.
04. This factor considers inclinations or inherited propensities which cannot be

considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a crime will be
committed.
05. Elements which provoke crimes or factors that are signified to the everyday
adjustments of an individual, like personal problems, necessities, limitations,
curiosity and ignorance, and diseases.
07. It is a twenty-four hour child caring institution providing short term resident
care for youthful offenders who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or
transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
08. Is one that provides temporary protection and care to children requiring
emergency reception as a result of fortuitous events, abandonment by parents,
dangerous conditions of neglect or cruelty on the home, being without adult care
because of crisis in the family or court order holding them as material witnesses.
09. It provides twenty four hour resident group care service for the physic al,
mental , social and spiritual well being of mentally gifted, dependent,
abandoned, neglected , abused, handicapped, disturbed or youthful offenders.
10. These are family type homes which provide temporary shelter from ten to
twenty days for children who shall during this period be under observation and
study for eventual placement by the DSWD.
11. Is one who is without a parent, guardian or other custodian for good cause
desire to be relieved of his care and custody and is dependent upon the public
for support.
a. abandoned child c. dependent child
b. neglected child d. abused child
12. Is one who had no proper parents care or guardianship or whose parents or
guardians have deserted him for period of at least six continuous months.
13. Is one whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended or inadequately
attended.
14. A child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses
because of personal, family and social circumstances.
a. child at risk c. child abuse
b. child in conflict with the law d. abandoned child
15. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as having committed an
offense under Philippine laws.
16. It refers to the maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of the child which
includes Psychological and physical abuse, neglect, cruelty, sexual abuse and
emotional maltreatment or any act by deeds or words which debases, degrades
or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of a child as a human being.
17. It is an alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the

responsibility, and treatment of a CICL on the basis of her/his social, cultural,
economic, psychological or educational background without resisting to court
formal proceedings.
a. diversion b. restorative justice c.
intervention
18. These are series of activities which are designed to address issues that
caused the child to commit an offense.
intervention
19. The appropriate way of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of
the victim, offender and the community with the end goal of healing and
reconciliation and reintegration of the offender into the society.
intervention
20. Anti-VAWC Act is

e. RA 9260
f. RA 7690
g. RA 9262
h. RA 9320
21. Who among the following has no personality to file for protection order?
e. Parents of the offended party
f. Kagawad
g. Relative of the victim within 2 nd degree of consanguinity
h. A resident of the community
22. It is an order issued for the purpose of preventing further acts of violence
against a woman or her child and granting other necessary relief.
a. Injunction Order
b. Protection Order
c. Temporary Restraining Order
d. Writ of Habeas Corpus
23. The act of threatening to deprive or actually depriving the woman or her
child of custody or access to her/his family is a form of-
a. Economic abuse
b. Child abuse
c. Psychological abuse
d. Physical abuse
e. Barangay Protection Order
f. Temporary restraining order
g. Battered Women Syndrome
h. Permanent Protection Order
25. A form of psychological violence –

a. Preventing her from engaging in a legitimate profession, business or
activity
b. Destroying household property
c. Rape
d. Stalking
26. An order directing the perpetrator to desist from committing physical harm or
threatening woman or her child within a period of fifteen days
e. Order of injunction
f. Temporary protection order
g. Barangay protection order
h. Permanent protection order
27. A person who responds or intervenes without using violence or restraint

greater than necessary to ensure safety f the victim is called-
a. Service provider
b. Agent of a person in authority
c. A person in authority
d. bystander
28. Remedy of a mate, spouse/partner who complains about abuses committed

by his wife/partner?
a. File a complaint for VAWC
b. File a case under the Revised Penal Code
c. Ask for Protection Order
d. File a petition for Injunction
29. It is a psychological and behavioral symptoms found in women living in

battering relationships as a result of abuse for long period-
a. Insanity
b. Psychological abuse
c. Battered wife syndrome
d. Schizophrenia
30. 5 years of being legally separated as husband and wife, Pedro and Maria
again met in a party. Under the influence of liquor, Pedro forced Maria into
having sexual intercourse with him. After consummating his act, Pedro killed
Maria. What was the crime committed?
a. Rape with Homicide
b. Violation of the Anti-VAWC Law
c. Parricide
d. Rape in relation to the Ant-VAWC Law
31. 1. Republic Act 10121 is known as the Philippine Risk Reduction and
Management
Act of 2010.
2. Republic Act 10121 is known as the National Disaster Risk Reduction and
Management Act of 2010.
3. Republic Act 10121 is known as the Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and
Management Act of 2010.
a. Statement #1 is True.
b. Statement #2 is True.
c. Statement #3 is True.
d. None of the three statements is True.
32. 1. The NDRRMC is headed by the Secretary of the Department of National

Defense
(DND) as Chairperson.
2. The RDRRMC is chaired by the Regional Director of the PNP.
a. Only statement #1 is True. c. Both statements are

True.
c. Only statement #2 is True. d. Both statements are
False.
33. 1. The Local Chief Executive is responsible in recommending to the

President of
the Philippines the declaration of a cluster of barangays, municipalities,
cities,
provinces, and regions under a state of calamity, and the lifting thereof.
2. The Local Peace and Order Council is responsible in recommending to
the President of the Philippines the declaration of a cluster of barangays,
municipalities, cities, provinces, and regions under a state of calamity, and
the lifting thereof.
3. The National Council is responsible in recommending to the President of
the Philippines the declaration of a cluster of barangays, municipalities,
cities, provinces, and regions under a state of calamity, and the lifting
thereof.
d. None of the three statements is True.
34. 1. The PNP ICS was developed to serve as guide during critical man-
made
incidents as defined in the National Core Manual on Crisis Management
crafted by the National Security Council in coordination with concerned
agencies.
2. The handbook on ICS determines the responsible units, and is
intended to
guide our first responders and incident commanders in critical incident
management.
a. Only statement #1 is True. c. Both statements are True.

c. Only statement #2 is True. d. Both statements are False.
35. 1. The Incident Command System (ICS) provides a way for agencies to
work
smoothly together to deal with an emergency.
2. The Incident Command System (ICS) adopts an organizational
structure that could fit to any situation regardless of jurisdictional
boundaries.
3. The flexible characteristic allows it to expand or shrink to meet the
changing needs of an incident.
d. All three statements are True.
36. The PNP ICS was developed to serve as guide to responders and supervisors
during _____
a. All types of incidents c. Natural disasters
b. Critical man-made incidents d. High profile cases only
37. Which one is not a component of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
a. Policies c. Procedures
b. Facilities d. Training and
Workshops
38. The following are advantages of ICS over the other systems. Which is NOT
one of them?
a. Organizational structure can grow rapidly in response to emergency;
b. Provides Chairman with control needed to direct operations;
c. Assigns staff to critical functions without loss of time;
d. Provides a system for coordination of information to internal/external
audiences.
39. Which of the following is NOT a General Staff under the PNP Incident
Command System (ICS)?
a. Intelligence and Investigation Staff c. Operations/Plans Staff
b. Legal Staff d. Budget and Logistics
Staff
40. The Incident Commander (IC) is assisted by his Command Staff EXCEPT:
a. Public Information Officer c. Liaison Officer
b. Security Officer d. Legal Officer
41. Republic Act 10121 is known as the

a. Philippine Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010
b. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010
c. Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of
2010
d. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
42. Which of the following is not a policy of the State with regard to disaster
management?
a. Uphold the people’s constitutional rights to life and property by
addressing the root causes of vulnerabilities to disasters, strengthening
the country’s institutional capacity for disaster risk reduction and
management and building the resilience of local communities to disasters
including climate change impacts;
b. Adhere to and adopt the universal norms, principles, and
standards of
humanitarian assistance and the global effort on risk reduction
as concrete expression of the country’s commitment to overcome
human sufferings due to terrorism;
c. Incorporate internationally accepted principles of disaster risk

management in the creation and implementation of national, regional and
local sustainable development and poverty reduction strategies, policies,
plans and budgets;
d. Adopt a disaster risk reduction and management approach that is
holistic, comprehensive, integrated, and proactive in lessening the socio-
economic and environmental impacts of disasters including climate
change, and promotes the
43. It is a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society

involving widespread human, material, economic or environmental losses and
impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or society to cope
using its own resources.
a. Complex Emergency c. Disaster
b. Calamity d. State of Emergency
44. The lessening or limitation of the adverse impacts of hazards and related
disasters.
a. Disaster Preparedness c. Disaster Prevention
b. Disaster Mitigation d. Disaster Response
45. The sudden occurrence, especially danger, demanding immediate action.
a. Calamity c. Emergency
b. Disaster d. Complex Emergency
46. A condition involving mass casualty and/or major damages to property,

disruption of means of livelihoods, roads and normal way of life of people in the
affected areas as a result of the occurrence of natural or human-induced hazard.
a. Risk Condition c. National Emergency
b. State of Calamity d. Widespread destruction
47. The NDRRMC is headed by the Secretary of the Department of National

Defense (DND) as Chairperson while the vice Chairperson is
a. Secretary DSWD c. Secretary DILG
b. Executive Secretary d. Secretary DOST
48. The Chairperson of the NDRRMC as an attribute of his power may call them
persons for assistance in terms of the use of their facilities and resources for the
protection and preservation of life and properties in the whole range of disaster
risk reduction and management.
a. other instrumentalities
b. other entities of the government
b. non-government and civic organizations
d. all of the above
49. The current Regional Disaster Coordinating Councils shall henceforth be

known as the Regional Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Councils
(RDRRMCs) which shall coordinate, integrate, supervise, and evaluate the
activities of the LDRRMCs. The RDRRMC shall be responsible in ensuring disaster
sensitive regional development plans, and in case of emergencies shall convene
the different regional line agencies and concerned institutions and authorities. He
serves as chairperson of the RDRRMC.
a. Regional Director of the DSWD c. Regional Director of DILG,
DOST
b. Regional Director of NEDA d. Regional Director of
the OCD
50. The Barangay Disaster Coordinating Councils shall cease to exist and its
powers and functions shall henceforth be assumed by the _________which shall
serve as the LDRRMCs in every barangay.
a. Barangay Planning Office
b. Barangay Development Councils
c. Barangay Public Safety Office
d. Barangay Council
51. Which is INCORRECT in the following? The LDRRMCs shall take the lead in
preparing for, responding to, and recovering from the effects of any disaster
based on the following criteria:
a. The City/Municipal DRRMCs, if two (2) or more municipalities
are affected;
b. The Provincial DRRMC, if two (2) or more cities/municipalities are
affected;
c. The Regional DRRMC, if two or more provinces are affected; and
d. The NDRRMC, if two or more regions are affected.
52. Who is responsible in recommending to the President of the Philippines the
declaration of a cluster of barangays, municipalities, cities, provinces, and
regions under a state of calamity, and the lifting thereof?
a. Provincial Governor c. National Council
b. Local Peace and Order Council d. Local Chief Executive
53. Which of the following is not prohibited under the Risk Reduction Law?
a. Preventing the entry and distribution of relief goods in disaster-
stricken
areas, including appropriate technology, tools, equipment, accessories,
disaster
teams/experts;
b. Buying, for consumption or resale, from legitimate business
establishment any relief goods, equipment or other aid
commodities;
c. Selling of relief goods, equipment or other aid commodities which are
intended for distribution to disaster victim;
d. Substituting or replacing relief goods, equipment or other aid
commodities with the same items or inferior/cheaper quality;
54. It is the systematic evaluation by the Congressional Oversight Committee of

the accomplishments and impact of this R.A. 10121, as well as the performance
and organizational structure of its implementing agencies, for purposes of
determining remedial legislation.
a. Oversight Review c. Sunset Review
b. Trial Assessment d. Executive Review
55. Crisis came from the Greek word “Krisis”, which means to
a. integrate c. divide
b. initiate problems d. separate
56. It is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling for immediate action.

a. greenhouse effect c. emergency
b. climate change d. global warming
57. It is any emergency event, whether man-made or natural, that requires the
implementation of special tasks by one or more of the urgent services of the
government and will generally include the involvement, either directly or
indirectly, of the Philippine National Police.
a. crisis c. critical incident
b. emergency d. disaster incident
58. Crisis or emergency have 2 broad categories:

a. natural or special c. man-made or natural
b. critical or unusual d. typhoon and drought
59. When a crisis arises out of man-made emergencies, it is activated at the

appropriate level to be the organizational body that shall coordinate all actions to
address the crisis situation.
a. Peace and Order Council c. Crisis Management Committee
b. Emergency Action Center d. Relief Center
60. The two phases envisioned to address crisis situation
a. Command and Control c. Analysis and Action
b. Supervision and Control d. Proactive and Reactive Phase
61. A newly-created Cabinet Cluster to address man-made crisis/emergency that

will serve as the policy and decision-making for crisis prevention and
management at the National Government Level.
a. National Peace and Order Council
b. Security Cluster E
c. NDRRMC
d. SCNCM
62. All terrorist-based crisis/emergencies which are basically police matters shall
be handled as much as possible, at this ______ level and resolved at the earliest
possible time.
63. The ____ are primarily concerned with the formulation of crisis management
procedures, integration and orchestration of government, military/police and
public efforts towards the prevention and control of crisis incidents.
a. Local Government Units
b. Peace and Order Council
c. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
d. Crisis Managemet Committee
64. What is the first step in resolving a critical incident?

a. Analyze c. Isolate
b. Negotiate d. Contain
65. The Chairman of the Regional Peace and Order Council (RPOC) is any person
appointed by the Secretary, DILG while the Chairman of the Regional Disaster
Risk Reduction and Management Council (RDRRMC) is always the Regional
Director of this government agency.
a. AFP c. OCD
b. DILG d. PNP
66. This refers to measures to identify, acquire, and plan the use of resources
needed to anticipate, prevent, and/or resolve a crisis, disaster, threat to public
safety or acts of terrorism.
a. Incident Command System
b. Critical Incident Actions
c. Crisis Management
d. Actions during crisis
67. Crisis came from the Greek word “Krises”, which means to
a. integrate d. separate
b. divide c. initiate problems
68. It is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling for immediate action.

a. greenhouse effect c emergency
b. catastrophic d. climate change
69. Crisis or emergency are either
a. natural and special c. man-made and
natural
b. calamity and disaster d. accidents and fire
70. When a crisis arises out of man-made emergencies as described above, it is

immediately activated at the appropriate level to be the organizational body that
shall primarily act on the crisis situation.
a. Peace and Order Council c. Command Post
b. Relief Center d. Emergency Center
71 The two phases envisioned to address crisis situation

a. Command and Control c. Analysis and Action
b. Supervision and Control d. Proactive and Reactive
72. Which one is not a component of the 4P Crisis Management Model:

a. Prevent c. Plan
b. Perform d. Predict
73. This stage involves foretelling of the likelihood of crisis through the
continuous assessment of all the possible threats and the threat groups, as well
as the continuous monitoring and analysis of the confluence of related events.
a. Prevent c. Plan
74. This stage involves the institution of passive and active security measures,
as well as the remedy or solution of destabilizing factors and/or security flaws
leading to such crisis/emergencies.
a. Prevent c. Plan
75. The actual execution or implementation of any contingency plan when a

crisis situation occurs despite the proactive measures is
a. Prevent c. Plan
76. The organization, training and stockpiling of equipment and supplies needed
for such crisis/emergencies.
a. Prevent c. Plan
b. Perform d. Prepare
77. As a matter of policy, natural calamities and disasters will be responsibilities

of
a. PSBC c. NDRRMC
b. POC d. OCD
78. Terrorist-based crisis/emergencies on the other hand will be the

responsibility of
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. NDRRMC
c. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime
d. Peace and Order Council
e. Office of the Civil Defense
79. Armed actions shall be employed in this manner only after exhausting all
peaceful means, using appropriate and necessary means commensurate to the
situation.
a. Justified c. Swift
b. Commensurate d. Graduated
80. All terrorist-based crisis/emergencies which are basically police matters, shall
be handled as much as possible, at this ______ level and resolved at the earliest
possible time.
a. Ground c. Equal
81. The ____ are primarily concerned with the formulation of crisis management
procedures, integration and orchestration of government, military/police and
public efforts towards the prevention and control of crisis incidents.
a. Local Government Units
b. Peace and Order Council
c. Barangay Intelligence Networks
d. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
e. Crisis Managemet Committee
82. Any natural or manmade event, civil disturbance, or other occurrence of an

unusual or severe nature that threatens to cause or causes the loss of life or
injury to citizens and or severe damage to property.
a. Accident c. Chemical Incident
b. Terrorism d. Critical Incident
83. Which of these best describe the word “Crisis”?

f. A crucial event or situation that requires a response by the police only.
g. A threat that involves massive casualties and mobilization of resources.
h. A crucial event or situation requiring a special response to
assure an acceptable solution.
i. A crucial event or situation that involves a death of a person.
j. A crucial event or situation that requires planning upon occurrence of
an incident
84. What is the first step in resolving a critical incident?

a. Analyze c. Isolate
b. Negotiate d. Contain
85. What is the last step in resolving a critical incident?

a. Contain c. Rehabilitate
b. Negotiate d. Investigate
86. The Chairman of the Regional Peace and Order Council (RPOC) can be any
of the elected governor of the provinces or the mayor of highly urbanized city in
the region, while the chairman of the Regional Disaster Risk Reduction and
Management Council (RDRRMC) is always the Regional Director of what
government agency?
a. NAPOLCOM c. OCD
b. DILG d. PNP
87. It is the subjective imposition of penalties or downright sabotage of the

investigation process in exchange for money or other things for personal gain.
a. case fixing c. recycling
b. bribery d. internal pay offs
88. It is the receipt of cash or a gift in exchange for past of future assistance in
avoidance of prosecution.
a. bribery c. extortion
b. recycling d. protection
89. It is the common practice of holding "street court" where incidents such as
minor traffic tickets can be avoided with a cash payment to the officer and no
receipt given.
b. recycling d. protection
90. It is the sale of work assignments, day offs, holidays, vacation period and
even promotion.
b. recycling d. internal pay offs
01. In a research, this is the fact presented to be true but not actually verified and it
does not need testing.
a. Hypothesis c. Assumption
b. Null hypothesis d. Alternative hypothesis
02. Research surveys often result in the revision of curricula and instructional
innovations. This proves that research --
a. satisfies research’s curiosity
b. improves educational practices in order to raise the quality of
school products
c. finds answer to queries by means of scientific methods.
d. helps solve problems
03. This is supposed to be written in the last paragraph of the introduction of the thesis.
a. A paragraph that describes the highlights of the study
b. A paragraph that tries to convince the readers that the study is very
necessary
c. A paragraph that includes the theories and concepts needed in the study
d. A paragraph that provides the background of the study
e. None of the above
04. One of the preliminaries of a thesis which includes the different chapters, sub-topics
and the pages where the other elements of the research are found.
a. Abstract
b. Table of contents
c. Title page
d. Endorsement sheet
05. This is considered as a tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised

at the beginning of the research process or investigation.
a. Assumption
b. Conceptual framework
c. Hypothesis
d. Paradigm
05. This is required to be part of the review of related literature.
a. Statement of relationships or significance of previous study findings
with the present study
b. Name of researcher and the data when the research is conducted
c. Self-accident truth about the research
d. Justification why a particular study is conceptualized
e. All of the above
06. A part of research methodology that validates the questionnaire by having it be

administered to a group of similar respondents.
a. Data gathering procedure
b. Instrumentation
c. Sampling procedure
d. Research design
07. When words are defined on how they are used in the study, this means that ---
a. Terms are defined conceptually
b. Terms are defined based on what is written in the review of related
literature
c. Terms are defined based on the research problem
d. None of the above
08. The proper way of writing the terms that are included in the definition of terms.
a. According to its importance
b. Alphabetical order
c. According to the choice of the researcher
d. From micro to macro perspective
e. All of the above
09. The technique used in gathering data when source of data are records/documents
on file.
a. Descriptive survey questionnaire
b. Documentary analysis
c. Observation
d. Focus group discussion
10. A part of the research proposal that provides the history behind the research topic
or situation under which the problems exists.
a. Statement of the problem
b. Introduction
c. Conceptual framework
d. Conceptual paradigm
11. A subsection of chapter 1 of a research proposal that clears up difficulty in

understanding the research study.
a. Limitations of the study
b. Definition of terms
c. Background of the study
d. Significance of the study
12. This is the chapter 2 title of a research proposal.

a. Review of Related Literature and studies
b. Research Methodology
c. Conceptual framework
d. The problem and the background
13. To find out what setting is life expectancy higher, in the city or in the barrio? This
shows that research _______________________.
a. Discovers pathways of action of known substances and elements.
b. Finds answer to queries by means of scientific methods
c. Expand or verify existing knowledge
d. Compare status of phenomenon.
14. The invention of incubator in order to find out how hen hatches its eggs and made a
research on it, this proves that research ______________.
a. Helps acquire a better and deeper understanding about one phenomenon
that can be known and understood better.
b. Helps satisfy the researcher ‘s curiosity
c. Expands or verify existing knowledge
d. Discover new knowledge
15. It occupies the first page of the research study, which includes the exact title of the
study, the name of the university, the name of the researcher, the date of completion
(month and year). It Is also includes whether the study is a thesis or dissertation and as
required for what degree.
a. Table of contents
b. Approval sheet
c. Title page
d. Disclaimer
16. This area of research explains what the research is trying to bring out. It serves as
the basis of the research problem. Likewise, explains/discusses what can be done and
presents the variables related to the problem.
a. Background of the study
c. Assumption
d. Introduction
17. A subsection of chapter 1 of a thesis which indicates the subjects of the study
(who), place (where), time (when) and coverage of the research to include the
boundaries of the study.
c. Scope and limitation of the study
d. Sources of data
18. It states the researchers’ expectations concerning the relationships of variables in a

research problem.
a. Assumption
b. Hypothesis
c. Paradigm
d. Framework
19. This best described paradigm in research.

a. Problem
b. Framework of reference
c. Input
d. Theoretical framework
20. A research used to solve an immediate problem, focused on the solution of day-to-
day problems.
a. Basic
b. Qualitative
c. Applied
d. Pure
21. A research method used to describe what occurred in the past and then makes a
critical inquiry into the truth of what occurred.
a. Descriptive
b. Experimental
c. Historical
d. Qualitative
22. It describes phenomenon in words instead of numbers in their natural setting.

a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Historical
d. Evaluative
23. Technique used in descriptive research when documentary materials are already
existing and available.
a. Content analysis
b. Case study
c. Survey
d. Comparative
24. The chapter of a research proposal that requires the researcher to determine the
problem and to start formulating the hypothesis.
a. Chapter III methods of research and procedures
b. Chapter II - Review of Related Literature and Studies
c. Chapter I – The problem and its setting
d. Chapter V. Summary of findings, conclusions and recommendations
25. The style used in writing the title as shown below:

a. inverted pyramid
b. upright pyramid
c. one- line
d. parallel line
POLICE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT PARTNERSHIP

FOR ACHIEVING PEACE AND
ORDER IN CAMARINES SUR
26. The style used in writing the title as shown below:

a. upright pyramid
b. inverted pyramid
c. parallel
d. one-line
PREVENTING CRIMES
THROUGH THE COMMUNITY
ORIENTED POLICING SYSTEM
IN THE PROVINCE OF NUEVA ECIJA
27. A brief and concise description of the problems investigated, the methodology used
and the significant findings, conclusions and recommendations.
a. preliminaries
b. disclaimer
c. abstract
d. gantt chart
28. Proper placement of exact caption of title

a. below the table
b. on top of the table
29. Proper placement for the number and exact caption or title of a figure.
a. Below the figure
b. On top of the figure
30. Testable statement of a potential relationship between two or more variables.

a. Statement, of null hypothesis
b. Statement of hypothesis
c. Statement alternative hypothesis
d. Prediction
31. The statement that best described a problem.

a. Anything that a person finds unsatisfactory or unsetting.
b. Something that can contribute to the improvement of quality of life.
c. It is a means for achieving self-enlightment.
d. The quest for answers to quench thirst for knowledge.
32. A research used to find the current status or present condition of a topic or a
phenomenon.
a. Qualitative research
b. Quantitative research
c. Descriptive research
d. Qualitative evaluative research
33. It determines information about variables rather than indiv iduals

a. Content analysis
b. Survey
c. Documentary analysis
d. Cross - sectional study
34. The first major step in conducting research

a. Reviewing information
b. Collecting data
c. Identifying the problem
d. Analyzing data
35. The last step of research as a cyclic process.

a. Facts are collected and organized.
b. Posits tentative solutions to the problem.
c. Interprets the meaning of facts which leads to a resolution of the
problem.
d. Formulate a clear statement of the problem.
36. A specific plan or procedure in research.

b. Scientific method
c. Research methodology
d. Empirical method
37. This causes the researcher to always begin in the mind the conduct of any researc h.
a. Intellectual curiosity and inquisitive attitude.
b. Goal or purpose for investigating.
c. Critical investigation of hypothetical prepositions.
d. Discovering of new facts and their correct interpretation.
38. This decides research as empirical.

a. All the findings and conclusions are logically based on empirical data and no
effort is made to alter the results of the research.
b. All the procedures employed and the data gathered are perceived in
the same manner by all observers.
c. All variables except those that are tested or being experimented upon are kept
constant.
d. There is a critical analysis of all the data used so that there is no error in their
interpretation.
39. The value derived from research writing when we start to understand other people
better and we are place in a better position to make adjustment in life.
a. Educational benefits.
b. Moral-spiritual fulfilment
c. Economical
d. Sociological
40. The action taken by the researcher before the actual administration of the
instrument.
a. Statistical treatment
b. Validation of instrument
c. Determine the sample size
d. Conduct of interview
41. The requirement immediately below the table presentation.

a. Numerical and adjective rating.
b. Scale limits
c. Legend and scale used.
d. Weighted mean result
42. Except in chapter one, this is a requirement.

a. parallel construction of paragraph
b. provision of umbrella paragraph or introductory paragraph
c. Summary of results
d. Narrative presentation of results
43. In a research proposal, the required tense of the verb to be used.

a. past tense
b. future tense
c. passive voice
d. active voice
44. Proper placement of profile of respondents which is not included in the statement of
the problem (SOP).
a. Chapter 4
b. Chapter 1
c. Chapter 3
d. Chapter 2
45. This statement is true in relation to thesis writing.

a. Pagination is required for chapter page
b. Pagination is not required for chapter page
c. Capitalized all letters of the sub titles.
d. Table number and exact caption of title should be written below the table.
46. The map of structure for the conduct of investigation

a. Research methodology
b. Methodology
c. Research design
d. Research locale
47. The situation wherein the null hypothesis is rejected.

a. The computed value of f-ratio is lower than the critical value of f-ratio.
b. The computed value of f-ratio is greater than the critical value of f-
ratio
c. The degree of freedom is equal to zero
d. The computed value of f-ratio is lower than 0.05 level of significance.
48. Proper placement of letters to the respondents.

a. Abstract
b. Table of contents
c. Appendix
d. Instrument
49. Subsection of chapter one that establishes the boundaries of the study to include the
place or aspect of the investigation which may affect the results adversely but over
which the researchers has no control.
a. Instrumentation
b. Scope and limitation of the study
c. Research design
d. Significance of the study
`
50. A section of the thesis manuscript which states the method that would best permit
the attainment of the objectives of the study.
a. Significance c. Definition of terms
b. Scope and delimitations d. Research design
51. A component of a thesis manuscript that reflects the key ideas to be investigated.
a. Title c. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework d. Hypothesis
52. A consideration in choosing a research problem that refers to the possible change
of practice as an outcome of the contemplated study.
a. Workability c. Practical value
b. Critical mass d. Theoretical value
53. A descriptive research method used to follow up the development of participants

after a specified treatment, intervention or condition.
a. Survey c. Assessment
b. Case study d. Trace
54. To get reliable information about a group of people over a long period of time - is
the main purpose of the descriptive research method on:
a. Developmental study c. Correlational study
b. Comparative study d. Ex-post facto study
55. A section of the thesis manuscript which prov ides understanding and
measurement of concepts.
56. A component of a thesis manuscript that contains the set of theories or concepts
as backbone for the conduct of the study.
57. A consideration in choosing a research problem that refers to its importance in

filling a gap in the literature.
58. A descriptive research method used to determine the efficiency or effectiveness of

practices, policies, instruments, and other variables.
b. Case study d. Tracer
59. To compare the characteristics of groups according to some selected variables,

without the purpose of determining the cause of such difference - is the main
objective of the descriptive research method on:
60. A consideration in choosing a research problem that refers to the magnitude and
scope of the problem.
61. A section of the thesis manuscript which states the research coverage, locale, time
frame and respondents.
62. A consideration in choosing a research problem that refers to the limits of

resource and time of the contemplated study.
63. A descriptive research method used in the detailed analysis of the subject matter
of a person, event, institution or community over a period of time.
64. To determine which different variables are related to each other in the population
of interest - is the main purpose of the descriptive research method on:
65. A component of a thesis manuscript that shows the paradigm of the study, or a
new conceptual scheme or pattern.
66. A section of the thesis manuscript which describes the explicit benefit that will
accrue from the study.
67. A component of a thesis manuscript that presents a testable statement of a

potential relationship between two or more variables.
68. A descriptive research method used to gather a relatively limited data from a large
number of subjects to measure existing phenomenon without inquiring why it exists.
69. To determine the reason for existing differences in the behavior or status of
groups or indiv iduals - is the main purpose of the descriptive research method on:
70. It is a research type done for the sake of knowing.

a. applied b. theoretical c. correlational
71. It is perceived difficulty and a discrepancy between the “what is “ and “what should
be”.
a. Theory b. research c. problem
72. This research describes data about the characteristics of the population or
phenomenon being studied.
a. correlational b. descriptive c. experimental
73. This research investigates relationship between factors or variables.

a. descriptive b. experimental c. experimental
74. Keywords in this research type are effects, impacts and results.
a. Descriptive b. experimental c .correlational
75. This research type uses the knowledge obtained to correct and improve existing
problems.
a. practical b. theoretical c. experimental
76. Which problem cited below is a descriptive research.

a. Time Management of PSLSC Scholars
b. Time Management of PSSLC Scholars and Its Relations to Their Examination
Results
c. The Impact of the PSSLC Schooling to the Lives and Families of the Scholars
77. It is an effect that is desired or expected to be achieved by the activity or project.

a. hypothesis b. objective c. problem
78. It is a hypothesis stated in the negative or denies the relationship

a. alternative b. null c. conceptual
79. It s a statement about expected relationship between 2 or more variables which

permits empirical testing.
a. objective b. hypothesis c. assumptions
80. It is an affirmative statement when hypothesizing.

a. null b. alternative c. assumptions
81. It is a constraint beyond the control of the researcher in the course of the study.
a. scope b. limitation c. framework
82. This framework uses theories in explaining phenomenon and why it exists.
a. theoretical b. conceptual c. descriptive
83. It is a condition presumed to be true and does not require further investigation.
a. scope b. assumption c. variable
84. It is one lengthy or a kilometric sentence describing the objectives of the study.
a. general objective
b. specific objective
c. conceptual objective
85. Time Management of School Administrators in District X, Bacolod City.

a. Descriptive b. Correlational c.
Experimental
86. Impact of Tsunami Alert Rumors in the Lives of Coastal Families

a. Descriptive b. Correlational c. Experimental
87. Relationship of Calisthenics and Weight Loss of PNP Chiefs.
88. Effects of Coffee Drinking in the Sleeping Habits of Diabetic Patients.

89. Medical Regimen of Post Operative Patients at Riverside Medical Center, Bacolod City
Experimental
90. Higher Thinking Skills of Grade Seven Pupils at Jose Rizal School.
Experimental
91. Passing Percentage of Nursing Students in the Nursing Licensure Examinations.

Experimental
92. Effects of Prolonged Drinking of MX3 Among Diabetic Patients

95. No significant difference exists between the male and female smoking habits.
a. Null b. Alternative
96. No significant relationship exists between the time management and examination
results of college students.
97. A significant relationship exists between the written and oral skills in English of
Korean students.
98. There is a significant relationship that exists between intensive reviewing and
passing in the Licensure Examination for Teachers
99. There is a significant difference that exists between the teaching styles of educators
and practicumers
100. Process which involve taking a part of the population, making observations on
this representative sample, and then generalizing the findings to the bigger
population:
a. Population c. Non-random sample
b. Random sample d. Sampling
101. It refers to members who are picked on the basis of some preference for
particular members of the population :
102.It refers to members who are chosen without a particular preference for any
member of the population:
103. It refers to all the indiv iduals in a class or group or universe:

104. A sampling design in which the names of the entire population are written on
paper, and a given number of samples are drawn at random:
a. Simple random sampling c. Stratified random sampling
b. Systematic sampling d. Cluster sampling
105. A sampling design that entails subdiv iding the population according to certain
characteristics, then the samples are selected from every subgroups:
106. A sampling design that entails random selection of groups in a population who
could serve as the respondents of the study, with only the randomly selected groups
are considered and the bases for drawing the respondents:
107. Level of measurement that provides categories under which the elements being
observed will be classified.
a. Nominal level c. Interval level
b. Ordinal level d. Ratio level
108. Level of measurement that is ranked but does not provide actual score of value
to the magnitude of the attributes being measured.
a. Nominal level c. Interval level
b. Ordinal level d. Ratio level
109. Selected from populations in such a way that the researcher maximizes the
likelihood that it resemble the population as closely as possible:
a. Population c. Non-probability sampling
b. Sample d. Probability sampling
110. The resultant or criterion variable.

a. Independent variable c. Moderator variable
b. Dependent variable d. Intervening variable
111. The stimulus or cause variable.

112. Situational factors not included in the conceptualization but affect the conduct of
the study
113. Applying the Slov in formula in a sample size of 265 with 0.05 margin of error, the
corresponding population size is:
a. 784 c. 786
b. 785 d. 787
114. Sum of the product of the frequency and the weight of a set of variables div ided
by the total number of frequencies:
a. Percentage c. Arithmetic mean
b. Weighted mean d. Median
115. A descriptive statistic that determines the ratio of the frequency of responses to
the total number of respondents:
a. Percentage c. Arithmetic mean
b. Weighted mean d. Median
116. An inferential statistic that is applied to test the significant difference among
several groups or to compare the means of 2 or more groups of independent samples:
a. Analysis of Variance c. Pearson Product Moment
Correlation
b. z-test d. Multiple regression
117. An inferential statistic that is specifically applied to determine if there is a

significant difference between the two populations by only comparing the sample
mean of the population:
a. Analysis of Variance c. Pearson Product Moment Correlation
b. z-test d. Multiple regression
118. A general classification of statistics that organizes and summarizes a body of raw
data so that the data can be more easily understood:
a. Descriptive statistics c. Pearson Product Moment
Correlation
b. Inferential statistics d. Multiple regression
119. A general classification of statistics that draw conclusions about the population
from the collected and organized data:
a. Descriptive statistics c. Pearson Product Moment Correlation
b. Inferential statistics d. Multiple regression
120. Which of the following is the definition of the MODE?

a. The MODE is the value that has the highest frequency*
b. The MODE is the average calculated by adding up all the values and dividing
by the number of entries
c. The MODE is the largest value
121. Which of the following is the definition of MEAN?

a. The MEAN is the largest value
b. The MEAN is the average calculated by adding up all the values and
dividing by the number of entries*
c. The MEAN is the value that has the highest frequency
122. Which of the following is the definition of the MEDIAN?

a. The MEDIAN is the value that half of the entries below and half of
the entries above*
b. The MEDIAN is the value that has the highest frequency
c. The MEDIAN is the largest value
123. Which of the following is true for research?

a. It refers to the manipulation of things and concepts for the purpose of
generalizing,
extending and verifying knowledge.
b. It is the careful investigation of problem based on demonstrable facts.
c. It is a scientific process of gathering and analysing data for prediction and
discovery
of truth.
d. All of the above
124. The statement that “The sequence of research starts with the review of the
formal knowledge about a problem” is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
125. The following are the criteria for a scientific research, except
a. An orderly investigation is conducted.
b. Adequate and representative evidence is gathered.
c. Logical and unbiased reasoning is used.
d. The researchers involved are one and the same for the same
problem.
126. Research is important for the following reasons , except

a. It is used to solve problems.
b. It is used to train people to value their thoughts.
c. it is used to gain new perspectives.
d. it is used to search for more explanations.
127. Measurement of answers to questions can be in the following scales, except

a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Cardinal
128. Which of the following is a research problem energizer?

a. When a difficulty exists
b. When a reader is stimulated by what he reads
c. When one has the urge to contribute something new to society
d. All of the above
129. The following are the characteristics of a good research problem, except
a. It tells what a researcher is looking for.
b. It has recognizable limits.
c. It includes limited aspects to tackle.
d. It shows the goals of the study.
130. The sub-problems of a research are the bases of the statistical tools to be used.
The foregoing statement is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
131. The statement that “ the usefulness of findings of the research is dependent on
the professional integrity and intellectual honesty of the researcher” is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
132. The statement that “ international and local studies are of greater value to a
research than the local an international literatures” is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
133. The methodology of research includes the following parts, except

a. Population and sample
b. Research method used
c. Description of respondents and instruments
d. Description of researchers of the study
134. The statement that “All researches are generally of the historical method” is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
135. Researcher- made instruments include the following, except

a. Personal identification blanks
b. Checklists
c. Maturity scales
d. Interviews
136. The type of validity which refers to the extent to which the test agrees with a
criterion set up as an acceptable measure.
a. Content validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Face validity
137. The type of validity which refers to the extent to which two raters agree.
a. Equivalency reliability
b. Stability reliability
c. Inter- rater reliability
d. All of the above
138. The statement that “ every inferential statistics requires the use of descriptive
statistics” is
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Somehow true
d. Somehow false
139. This type of research is performed by analyzing studies conducted by other

researchers or by looking at historical patient records.
a. Archival research . Correlational research
b. Historical research d. Quantitative research
140. It is generally associated with the positiv ist/postpositivist paradigm

a. Archival research c. Correlational research
b. Historical research d. Quantitative research

Q A Crim Socio Dr. Palmones

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CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY

Note: malfeasance – deliberately and with forethought committing an illegal act

3. Guilty by act means --

4. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent

5. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors, either

6. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct

7. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional destruction

8. What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive components

9. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive act

10. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking, punching,

11. Allege means-

16. When we say capital offense, it means:

17. It refers to the appearance or observed features of something experienced

18. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker

20. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or underhanded is

24. Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal penalty, is called

27.Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker

28. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal

29. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or support

31. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best

33.The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases decided by

37.___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to be a

38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of adult

41.What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children

43.Guardian ad litem means:

45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as having some

47.The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency, police agency,

49. A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim. The law

54.What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental rights

61. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian who shall

62.What is the type of offense committed where there is no private offended

64. Positivist viewpoint are as follows except:

66. Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not correct:

67.What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition that man

68.The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the principle of

69.The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social

70.What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental

73.Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with

77. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home.

78. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh discipline in the

79.When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying, emotional

81.Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior?

82.A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime

85.Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture, using psychological torment

86.There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family

87.Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax?

89.The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is

94.A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific action to

96.Among the following, which is most contagious on human emotion?

97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the causes why a hostage becomes

98.The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control

102. It is the transfer of title or disposal of interest in property by

103. A Fundamental truth or proposition that serves as the foundation for a

107. It means long established practices common to a particular community,

108. It implies the repetition of the same action as to develop a natural,

109. It means a regularly followed procedure or pattern in conducting activities.

110. It means observance of social norms as required by good breeding.

120. In a democratic society, it is considered as the anti-crime machinery for

123. It is defined as the management of conflict situations to bring about consensual

124. It is considered as the prominent role of the police.

128. Anti-VAWC Act is

129. In the criminal justice system, it is often considered as thankless tasks.