Yub 7

Electric Circuits and Ohm's Law
1.Resistivity of a wire depends on

(A) length
(B) material
(C) cross section area
(D) none of the above.
2. When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant resistance is x. When these n
resistances are connected in series, total resistance is
(A) nx
(B) rnx
(C) x / n
(D) n2 x
3. Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length, then its resistance in ohms is
(A) r / 2
(B) 4 r
(C) 2 r
(D) r / 4.
4. Kirchhoff's second law is based on law of conservation of
(A) charge
(B) energy
(C) momentum
(D) mass.
5. The diameter of the nucleus of an atom is of the order of
(A) 10 -31 m
(B) 10 -25 m
(C) 10 -21 m
(D) 10 -14 m
6. The mass of proton is roughly how many times the mass of an electron?
(A) 184,000
(B) 184,00
(C) 1840
(D)184.
7. The charge on an electron is known to be 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb. In a circuit, the current flowing is 1 A. How many
electrons will be flowing through the circuit in a second?
(A) 1.6 x 1019
(B) 1.6 x 10-19
(C) 0.625 x 1019
(D) 0.625 x 1012
8. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series to 250 volts supply. Power
consumed in circuit is
(A) 33 watts
(B) 67 watts
(C) 100 watts
(D) 300 watts.
9. Ampere second could be the unit of
(A) Power
(B) Conductance
(C) Energy
(D) Charge.
10. Which of the following is not the same as watt?
(A) joule/sec
(B) amperes/volt
(C) Amperes x volts
(D) (Amperes )2 x ohm.
11. One kilowatt hour of electrical energy is the same as
(A) 36 x 105 watts
(B) 36 x 10s ergs
(C) 36 x 105 joules
(D) 36 x 105 B.T.U.
12. An electric current of 5 A is same as
(A) 5 J / C
(B) 5 V / C
(C) 5 C / sec
(D) 5 w / sec.
13. An electron of mass m kg and having a charge of e coulombs travels from rest through a potential difference of V
volts. Its kinetic energy will be
(A) eV Joules
(B) meV Joules
(C)me / V Joules
(D)V / me Joules.
14. The value of the following is given by 100 (kilo ampere) x (micro ampere ) 100 milli ampere * 10 ampere
(A) 0.001 A
(B) 0.1 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 10A.
15. A circuit contains two un-equal resistances in parallel
(A) current is same in both
(B) large current flows in larger resistor
(C) potential difference across each is same
(D) smaller resistance has smaller conductance.
16.Conductance is expressed in terms of
(A) ohm / m
(B) m / ohm
(C) mho / m
(D) mho.
17. Which of the following could be the value of resistivity of copper?
(A) 1.7 x 10-8 ohm-cm
(B). 1.7 x 10-6 ohm-cm
(C). 1.6 x 10-5 ohm-cm
(D). 1.7 x 10-4 ohm-cm
18. A copper wire of length l and diameter d has potential difference V applied at its two ends. The drift velocity is vd.
If the diameter of wire is made d/3, then drift velocity becomes
(A) 9 vd
(B) vd / 9
(C)vd /3
(D)vd.
19.Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The
resistances are
(A)3 ohms and 6 ohms
(B)3 ohms and 9 ohms
(C)1.5 ohms and 3 ohms
(D)1.5 ohms and 0.5 ohms.
20. We have three resistances of values 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω. Which of the following combination will give an effective
resistance of 4 Ω?
(A) All the three resistances in parallel
(B) 2 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω resistance
(C) 3 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 Ω and 6 Ω resistance
(D) 6 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 Ω and 3 Ω resistance.
21. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of emf together dissipate 10 watts of power. What would
be the power dissipated in the same resistors when they are connected in parallel across the same source of emf?
(A) 10 watts
(B) 30 watts
(C) 90 watts
(D) 270 watts.
22.Current I in the figure is

(A)1.5A
(B)0.5A
(C)3.5A
(D)2.5A
23.Four identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance of the first
combination to the second will be
(A) 1 / 16 times
(B) 1 / 4 times
(C) 4 times
(D) 16 times.
24.Twelve wires of same length and same cross-section are connected in the form of a cube as shown in figure below.
If the resistance of each wire is R, then the effective resistance between P and Q will be
(A)R
(B) 5 / 6 R
(C) 3 / 4 R
(D) 4 / 3 R.
25. When P = Power, V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance and G = Conductance, which of the following relation is
incorrect?
(A) V = √ (PR)
(B). P= V2G
(C) G= P / I2
(D) I =√ (P / R)
26.The unit of electrical conductivity is
(A) mho / metre
(B) mho / sq. m
(C) ohm / metre
(D) ohm / sq. m.
27.Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?
(A) 220 V, 60 W
(B) 220 V, 100 W
(C) 115 V, 60 W
(D) 115 V, 100 W.
28.The ratio of the resistance of a 100 W, 220 V lamp to that of a 100 W, 110 V lamp will be nearly
(A) 4
(B)2
(C) 1 / 2
(D) 1 / 4
29.The resistance of a 100 W, 200 V lamp is
(A) 100 ohms
(B) 200 ohms
(C) 400 ohms
(D) 1600 ohm.
30.Two 1 kilo ohm, 1/2 W resistors are connected in series. Their combined resistance value and wattage will be
(A) 2 kΩ, 1/2 W
(B) 2 kΩ, 1 W
(C) 2 kΩ, 2 W
(D) l kΩ, 1/2 W.
31.Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances?
(A)Ohm's law method
(B)Wheatstone bridge method
(C)Releigh method
(D) Lortentz method.
32.Three 3-ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two of the corners?
(A) 3 / 4 ohms
(B) 3 ohms
(C) 2 ohms
(D) 4/3 ohm.
33.Five resistances are connected as shown in figure above. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B will
be
(A) 35 ohms
(B) 25 ohms
(C) 15 ohms
(D) 5 ohms.
34.How many different combinations may be obtained with three resistors, each having the resistance R?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6.
35.A wire of 0.14 mm diameter and specific resistance 9.6 micro ohm-cm is 440 cm long. The resistance of the wire
will be
(A) 9.6 ohm
(B) 11.3 ohm
(C) 13.7 ohm
(D) 27.4 ohm.
36.Ohm's law is not applicable to
(A) DC circuits
(B) high currents
(C) small resistors
(D) semi-conductors.
37.A metal resistor has resistance of 10 ohm at 0°C and 11 ohms at 160°C, the temperature coefficient is
(A) 0.00625 / °C
(B) 0.0625 /°C
(C) 0.000625 /°C
(D) 0.625 /°C.
Questions 38 to 40 refer to Figure given below.
Five resistances are connected as shown and the combination is connected to a 40 V supply.
38. Voltage between point P and Q will be
(A) 40 V
(B) 22.5 V
(C) 20 V
(D) 17.5 V.
39.The current in 4 ohm resistor will be
(A) 2.1 A
(B) 2.7 A
(C) 3.0 A
(D) 3.5 A.
40.Least current will flow through
(A) 25 ohm resistor
(B) 18 ohm resistor
(C) 10 ohm resistor
(D) 5 ohm resistor.
41.Total power loss in the circuit is
(A)10W
(B) 50.2 W
(C) 205 W
(D) 410 W.
42.A resistance of 5 ohms is further drawn so that its length becomes double. Its resistance will now be
(A) 5 ohms
(B) 7.5 ohms
(C) 10 ohms
(D) 20 ohms.
43.Specific resistance of a substance is measured in
(A) ohms
(B) mhos
(C) ohm-cm
(D) cm/ohm.
44.A wire of resistance R has it length and cross-section both doubled. Its resistance will become
(A) 4 R
(B)2 R
(C) R
(D) R / 4.
Get Answer
45.Ohm's law is not applicable in all the following cases Except
(A) Electrolytes
(B) Arc lamps
(E) Insulators
(A) Vacuum ratio values.
46.The element of electric heater is made of
(A) copper
(B) steel
(C) carbon
(D) nichrome.
47. 5xl016 electrons pass across the section of a conductor in 1 minute 20 sec. The current flowing is
(A) 1mA
(B) 0.1 mA
(C) 0.01mA
(D) 10 mA.
48.Which of the following figures represents the effect of temperature on resistance for copper?
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) figure D.
49.Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined conductance will be
(A) 1/ (1/G1 + 1/G2 + 1/G3)
(B) (G1G2 + G2G3 + G3G1)/ (G1 + G2 + G3)
(C) 1/ (G1 + G2+ G3)
(D) G1 + G2 +G3
Questions 50 to 53 refer to Figure given below:
50.The variation of resistance of iron and some alloys with temperature is shown in figure. The variation of carbon
will be represented by
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D
51.Curves A and B represent the properties for materials which have
(A) low resistance
(B) low conductance
(C) negative resistance
(D) negative temperature coefficient.
52.Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient?
(A) Brass
(B) Mercury
(C) Electrolytes
(D) Silver.
53.All of the following have negative temperature coefficient EXCEPT
(A) Paper
(B) Gold
(C) Rubber.
54.For the circuit shown above the current I flowing through the circuit will be
(A)1 / 2 A
(B) 1 A
(C) 2 A
(D) 4 A.
55.A cube of material of side 1 cm has a resistance of 0.002 ohm between its opposite faces. If the same volume of
then material has a length of 8 cm and a uniform cross-section, the resistance of this length will be
(A) 0.032 ohm
(B) 0.064 ohm
(C) 0.096 ohm
(D) 0.128 ohm.
56.A standard 60 W bulb is in series with a room heater and connected across the mains. If the 60 W bulb is replaced
by 100 W bulb
(A) the heater output will increase
(B) the heater output will reduce
(C) the heater output will remain unaltered.
57. Two aluminium conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the
other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 100 ohms the resistance of other
conductor will be
(A) 400 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 50 ohms
(D) 25 ohms.
58.A nichrome wire used as heater coil has the resistance of 1 ohm/m. For a heater of 1000 W at 200 V, the length of
wire required will be
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 80 m.
59.The hot resistance of a tungsten lamp is about 10 times the cold resistance. Accordingly, cold resistance of a 100
W, 200 V lamp will be (A) 4000 ohm
(B)400 ohm
(C)40 ohm
(D)4 ohm.
60. Variable resistors are
(A)Wire wound resistors
(B)Thin film resistors
(C)Thick film resistors
(D)All of the above.
61.Low resistance can be accurately measured by
(A) Kelvin bridge
(B) Wheat stone bridge
(C) Wein's bridge
(D) None of the above.
62.A heating element of a hot plate on an electric cooking range draws 12 amperes from 240 V mains. How many kWh
of energy will be consumed in one hour and 15 minutes
(A) 1.2
(B) 3.2
(C) 6.0
(D) 7.2.
63. Temperature coefficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(A) ohms / ohms oC
(B) mhos / ohm oC
(C) mhos / oC
(D) ohms / oC.
64. If R1 is the resistance of a coil of copper at t oC and RT is the resistance at T oC and also the resistance
temperature coefficient of copper per degree centigrade at 0oC is 1/234.45, then Rt/RT
(A) (1+t) / (1+T)
(B) (1+ 234.45t) / (1+234.45 T)
(C) (234.45 + t) / (234.45 + T)
(D) (234.45 + t2) / (234.45 + T2)
65. Resistivity is usually expressed in terms of
(A) mho
(B) ohm / oC
(C) ohms/cm-square
(D) ohms/cm-cube.
66. Which material is expected to have least resistivity?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc.
67. The shunt winding of a motor has a resistance of 85 ohm at 22oC. When the motor runs at full load, its resistance
increases to 100 ohms. The resistance temperature coefficient of winding per 0oC is 0.004. The rise in temperature of
the winding will be nearly
(A) 20oC
(B) 50oC
(C)70oC
(D) 100oC
68. The resistance temperature coefficient is defined as
(A) increase in resistance per degree centigrade
(B) decrease in resistance per degree centigrade
(C) the ratio of increase in resistance per degree centigrade to the resistance at 0oC
(D) the ratio of increases in resistance per degree centigrade to the rate of rise of resistance at 0oC.
69.Two coils connected in series have resistance of 600 ohm and 300 ohm and temperature coefficients of 0.1% and
0.4% respectively. The resistance of the combination at 50oC will be
(A) 1050 ohm
(B)1001 ohm
(C)1600 ohm
(D) 990 ohms.
70. A 100 W, 200 V filament lamp has operating temperature of 2000oC. The filament material has resistance
temperature coefficient of 0.005 at 0oC per oC. The current taken by the lamp at the instant of switching with 200 V
supply with filament temperature of 20oC will be
(A) 1 A
(B) 3 A
(C) 5 A
(D)10A.
71. A fuse is always installed in a circuit is
(A) Series
(B) Parallel.
72. The rating of fuse wire is expressed in terms of
(A) Ohms
(B) Mhos
(C) Amperes
(D) Watts.
73. Which of the following material is not used as fuse material?
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Carbon.
Questions 74 to 78 refer to Figure below.
74. The voltage drop across the resistor 9 ohm will be

(A)18 V
(B) 12 V
(C) 9 V
(D) 6 V.
75. The voltage drop will be least in which resistor?
(A) 2 ohm
(B) 3 ohm
(C) 6 ohm
(D) 3 ohm and 6 ohm.
76. The current through 6-ohm resistor will be

(A) 1 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 3 A
(D) 4 A.
77. The ratio of power dissipated in circuit ADB to that in circuit ABC will be
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C)0.67
(D) 2.
78. Total power dissipated in the circuit is
(A) 80 W
(B)100 W
(C)120 W
(D) 150 W.
79. The current carrying capacity of the fuse material depends on
(A) cross-sectional area
(B) length
(C) material
(D) all of the above.
80. According to the fuse law, the current carrying capacity varies as
(A) diameter
(B) (diameter)3/2
(C) 1 / diameter
(D)1 / (diameter)2
81. For the circuit shown in Figure above, the value of current I will be
(A) 10A
(B) 15A
(C) 20A
(D) 25A.
82. The combined resistance of the circuit is
(A) 10 ohms
(B) 5 ohms
(C) 4 ohms
(D) 2 ohms.
83. Total power dissipated in the circuit is
(A) 2.5 kW
(B) 5.0 kW
(C) 7.5 kW
(D)10 kW.
84. A 100 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater of 750 W. What will happen if the bulb is replaced by a
60W bulb?
(A) Heater output will increase
(B) Heater output will decrease
(C) Heater output will remain unchanged
(D) Bulb will not glow.
85. An immersion rod heats a bucket of water in 15 minutes. In order that the water should boil in 10 minutes
(A) length of heating element of the rod should be increased
(B) length of heating element of the rod should be reduced
(C) supply voltage should be reduced
(D) heating element of larger diameter should be used.
86. A lamp of 100 W at 200 V is supplied current at 100 volts. It will be equivalent to the lamp of
(A) 50 W
(B) 40 W
(C) 25 W
(D) 10 W.
87. Two electric bulbs of 100 W, 200 V are put in series and the combination is supplied 100 V. The power
consumption of each bulb will be
(A) 100 / 2 W
(B) 100 / 4 W
(C) 100 / 8 W
(D) 100 / 16 W.
88. Three lamps are in circuit as shown in Figure given above. The lamp of 100 W will have maximum brightness when
(A) key k1 is closed, k2 is open and k3 is closed
(B) k1 is open, k2 is closed and k3 is open
(C) k1 is open, k2 is closed and k3 is also closed
(D) k1 is closed, k2 is open and k3 is also open.
89. When switches k1 and k2 are open and k3 is closed
(A) 100 W lamp will glow brighter than 40 W lamp
(B) 40 W lamp will glow brighter than 100 W lamp
(C) Both will glow at their full brightness
(D) Both will glow at less than their full brightness.
90. Which of the following statements is necessarily correct ?
(A) 40 W bulbs will always glow at full brightness
(B) 100 W bulb will always glow at full brightness
(C) Whatever be the position of keys, at least one 40 W bulb will always glow
(D) Whenever current flows through the circuit, 100 W bulb will always glow.
93. Which of the following lamps will have least resistance at room temperature ?
(A) 200 W, 220 V
(B) 100 W, 220 V
(C) 60 W, 220 V
(D) 25 W, 220 V.
94. Filaments of electric bulbs are usually made of
(A) Nichrome
(B) Tungsten
(C) Copper
(D) Carbon.
95. The value of supply voltage for 500 W ,5-ohm load is
(A) 500 V
(B) 100V
(C) 50 V
(D) 10V.
96. Which resistor will be physically larger in size?
(A)10 ohm, 50 W
(B) 100 ohm, 10 W
(C) 1 kohm, 1 W
(D) 10 Mohm, 1/ 2 W.
97. Four resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The resistances are such that R1 > R2
> R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
(A) resistor R1
(B) resistor R2
(C) resistor R3
(D) resistor R4
98. 100 resistors of 100 ohms each arc connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistances will be
(A) 10,000 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 1 ohm
(D) 1/ 10000 ohm.
99. For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will decrease when
(A) cross-sectional area of the conductor is increased
(B) length of the conductor is increased
(C) length of the conductor is reduced
(D) cross-sectional area is increased and length is decreased.
100.When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(A) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(B) current through supply line flows at slower speed.
(C) supply wires arc made of superior material
(D) resistance of heater coil is more than that supply wires.
101. The resistance of 1-meter length of 18-gauge copper wire is k ohm. The resistance of one metre length of 24
gauges copper wire will be
(A) k / 2 ohm
(B) 18 / 24 kohm
(C) k ohm
(D) more than k ohm.
102. In the circuit shown below, the resistance R has a value that depends on the current Specially, R is 20 ohms when
the current I is zero, and the amount of increase in resistance is numerically equal to one-half the current. What is the
value of the current in the circuit?
(A) 8.33 A
(B) 10.0 A
(C) 12.5 A
(D) 50 A.
103. If the length and diameter of a conductor is tripped, the resistance will increase approximately by
(A) 66 2/3 %
(B) 33 1/3 %
(C)-66 2/3 %
(D) -33 1/3 %
104. If the resistance of an incandescent light bulb changes as the voltage across the bulb is changed, which of the
following is true?
(A) The internal inductance of the bulb causes this change
(B) The bulb is said to have a low ionization potential
(C) The bulb has constant resistance of the current through the bulb is changed
(D) The bulb is a type of non-linear resistance.
105. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistance?
(A) Ohm's law method
(B) Wheatstone bridge method
(C) Raleigh method
(D) Lortentz method.
106. Two 1 kilo ohm, 1/2 W resistors are connected in series. Their combined resistance value and wattage will be
(A) 2 kohm, 1 / 2 W
(B) 2 kohm, 1 W
(C) 2kohm, 2 W
(D) 1 kohm, 1 / 2 W.
107. The resistance of 100 W, 200 V tamp is
(A) 100 ohm
(B) 200 ohm
(C) 400 ohm
(D) 1600 ohm.
108. A cylindrical wire is compressed in length by 10%. The percentage decrease in the resistance will be
(A) 16%
(B) 19%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%.
109. Three resistance of 6 ohm each are connected as shown in Figure given below. The equivalent resistance
between X1 and X2 is
(A) 2 ohm
(B) 4 ohm
(C) 8 ohm
(D) 12 ohm.
110. The unit of conductance is
(A) per ohm
(B) ohm/m
(C) mho/m
(D) mho.
111. Ohm's law is not applicable in all the following cases except
(A) Electrolysis
(B) Arc lamps
(C) Insulators
(D) Vacuum radio valves.
112. In which of the following circuits will the voltage source produce the most current?
(A) 10 V across a 10 ohm resistance
(B) 10 V across two 10 ohm resistance in series
(C) 10 V across two 10 ohm resistances in parallel
(D) 1000 V across Mohm resistance.
113. A piece of sliver wire has a resistance of 1 ohm. A manganin wire has specific resistance 30 times that of silver.
The resistance of a manganin wire of one fourth length and one third diameter will be
(A) 6 / 5 ohm
(B) 1 ohm
(C) 67.5 ohm
(D) 86.75 ohm.
114. A cube of material of side 1 cm has a resistance of 0.002 ohm between its opposite faces. If the same volume of
the material has a length of 8 cm and a uniform cross-section, the resistance of this length will be
(A) 0.032 ohm
(B) 0.064 ohm
(C) 0.096 ohm
(D) 0.128 ohm.
115. The unit of conductivity is
(A) mho / m
(B) mho / sq. m
(C) ohm / m
(D) ohm / sq. m.
116. For the circuit shown in the figure given below, the meter will read
(A) 1 A
(B) 5 A
(C) 10 A
(D) 25 A.
117. For the circuit shown in figure given below, the reading in the ammeter A will be
(A) 2 A
(B) 0.5 A
(C) 0.4 A
(D) 0.2 A.
118. According to Joule law heat produced by a current I while in flowing through a material of resistance R for a
length of time T, is proportional to
(A) T only
(B) (RT)
(C) (IRT)
(D) (I2RT)
119. In the color code for resistances black color represents the number
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
120. In the color code white color represents the number
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 5
121. In the color code number 3 is represented by
(A) blue
(B) orange
(C) grey
(D) violet
122. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is
(A) Temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
(B) Current should be proportional to the size of resistance
(C) Resistance must be wire wound type
(D) Resistance must be uniform.
123. In which figure the relationship between voltage V and current I is in accordance with Ohm's law?
(A) Figure A
(B) Figure B
(C) Figure C
(D) Figure D.
124. Production of heat due to current is related by which law
(A) Ohm's law
(B) Joule's law
(C) Kelvin's law
(D) Maxwell's law.
125. A fixed resistance R is connected across a DC voltage source. If the voltage is gradually and uniformly increased,
the relationship between voltage and resistance is correctly represented in which group?
(A) Group A
(B) Group B
(C) Group C
(D) Group D.
126. The maximum power that can be distributed in the load in the circuit shown in
(A) 3 watts
(B) 6 warts
(C) 6.75 watts
(D) 13.5 watts.
127. A variable resistance R is connected across a source of voltage V. If the value of the resistance R is gradually
varied, the relationship between I and R will be represented by which curve?
(A) Figure A
(B) Figure B
(C) Figure C
(D) Figure D.
128. A 1 k, 1 W resistor can safely pass a current of
(A) 30mA
(B) 100mA
(C) 150 mA
(D) 500 mA.
129. The resistance to the flow of current through a copper wire
(A) increases as the length of wire decrease
(B) decreases as the diameter of wire decreases
(C) increases as the length of wire increases
(D) decreases as the length of wire increases.
130. For the same voltage, the ratio Resistance of 100 W lamp Resistance of 25 W lamp is:
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C)16
(D)1 / 4.
131. The voltage drop across a resistor of 100 ohm is 10 volts. The wattage of the resistor must be
(A) 1 / 2 W
(B) 1 W
(C) 2 W
(D) 4 W.
132. A 100 volt bulb has a resistance of 500 ohms. The number of hours it can work for every kWh of energy
consumed
will be
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60.
133. A semi-conductor is
(A) one which conducts only half of applied voltage
(B) a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and an insulator
(C) a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
(D) a material which has conductivity a having average value of conductivity of metal and insulator.
134. Two resistors R1 = 47 kohm, 1 W and R2 = 0 ohm, 1 W are connected in parallel. The combined value will be
(A) 47 kohm, 1 W
(B) 47 kohm, 2W
(C) 47 kohm, 1 / 2 W
(D) 0 kohm, 1W.
135. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that
(A) rheostat has large number of turns
(B) rheostat offers larger number of tappings
(C) rheostat has lower wattage rating
(D) rheostat has higher wattage ratings.
136. The equivalent resistance at the points X1 and X2 in the circuit shown below
(A) 60 ohm
(B) 40ohm
(C) 80 ohm
(D) 20ohm.
137. For the same electrical resistance, the weight of aluminium conductor as compared to copper conductor of
identical cross-section is
(A) 85%
(B) 50%
(C) 20%
(D) 120%.
138. A drawn wire of resistance 25 ohm is further drawn so that its diameter becomes one fifth. Its resistance will
now be
(A) 625 ohm
(B) 125 ohm
(C) 25 ohm
(D) 1 ohm.
139. Which of the following has negative coefficient of resistance?
(A) Wire wound resistor
(B) Metals
(C) Non-metals
(D) Thermistor.
140. The current at a given point in a certain circuit may be written as a function of time t, as i (t) = -3 + t. The total
charge passing a point between t = 99 and t = 102 sec will be
(A) 112 coulombs
(B) 242.5 coulombs
(C) 292.5 coulombs
(D) 345.6 coulombs.
Questions 141 and 142 refer to the data given below:
A certain passive circuit element has the characteristic that the instantaneous voltage across it is always exactly three
times the cube of the instantaneous current through it
141. The power being dissipated when i = 0.1 A will be
(A) 3 W
(B) 0.3 W
(C) 3 x 10-3 W
(D) 3 x 10 -4 W
142. The power being dissipated when i = 10 A will be
(A) 3 W
(B) 30 W
(C) 3 kW
(D) 30 kW.
143. A resistor has the value of 30 kohm and the current in it is measured to be 0.5 mA. The conductance is
(A) 15
(B) 30000
(C) 3.33 x 10-5
(D) 3.33 x 10-3
144. In the above problem, the terminal voltage must be
(A) 15 mV
(B) 1.5 V
(C) 15 V
(D) 150 V.
145. The charge of an electron is known to be 1.6 x 10-19C. How many electron does not 1 make it C of charge?
(A) one
(B) one million
(C) 6.2 x 1018
(D) 1.6 x 10-19
146. The current entering the terminal of an element is given by the equation i (t) = 106t2- 107t A. The total charge
flowing, into the element between t = 1 s and t = 2 s will be nearly
(A) 2.2 x 10-6C
(B) 1.6 x 10 -6C
(C) 0.6 x 10-8C
(D) 0.6 x 10 -10C.
147. An electron in a vacuum tube is observed to lose 1.6 x 10-20 J of energy in moving from point A to point B. The
voltage of point B with respect of point A is
(A) - 1 V
(B) + 1 V
(C)- 0.1V
(D) + 0.1 V.
148. In electronic micro-circuits, a resistor may be fabricated from a constant-thickness layer of semi-conductor
material with conductor connections at the edges as shown in Figure given below. If the resistor shown has resistance
R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter by 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of
(A) 4 R
(B) 2 R
(C) R
(D) R / 2
149. Certain substances lose their electrical resistance completely at finite low temperatures. Such substances are
called
(A) dielectrics
(B) super-conductors
(C) semi conductors
(D) perfect conductors.
150. We have three resistances each of 1 ohm. How many different values of resistance can be obtained by different
series-parallel combinations if all the three resistances are to remain in the circuit?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six.
151. A resistor has the value of 3 kohm and the current through it is measured to be 0.3 mA. The conductance is
(A) 30000 mho
(B) 30 mho
(C) 0.33 milli mho
(D) 30 micro mho.
152. Resistance between X1 and X2 is
(A) 10 ohm
(B) greater than 10 ohm
(C) 0
(D) less than 10 ohm.
153. When checked with an ohm meter an open resistor reads
(A) zero
(B) high but within tolerance
(C) low but not zero
(D) infinite.
154. A current of 1 mA flows through a 1 Mohm, 2 W carbon resistor. The power dissipated as heat in the resistor will
be
(A) 2 W
(B) 1 W
(C) 0.5W
(D) 0.1W.
155. Which of the following carbon coded resistor has value of 10 kohm with 20% tolerance?
(A) Red, red, green and silver stripes
(B) Yellow, violet, yellow and silver stripes
(C) Orange, orange, black and gold stripes
(D) Brown, black, orange and no tolerance band.
156. A carbon resistor has to meet the following requirements IR drop: 5 V, Current: 100 mA, Safety factor for power
dissipation: 2. Which of the following resistors will be suitable?
(A) 5 ohms, 10 W
(B) 0.5 ohm, 100 W
(C) 5 ohm, 10 W
(D) 50 ohm, 1 W.
157. A 10 ohm resistor with a 10 W power rating is expected to be a
(A) carbon resistor
(B) wire wound resistor
(C) either carbon or wire wound resistor
(D) neither carbon nor wire wound resistor.
158. Two 10 kohm, 5 W resistors in parallel have equivalent resistances of 5 kohm and power rating of
(A) 2.5 W
(B) 5 W
(C) 10 W
(D) 25 W.
159. Which of the following is typical resistance and power dissipation value for a wire wound resistor?
(A) 1Mohm, 1 / 3 W
(B) 50kohm, 1 / 2 W
(C) 500 ohm, 1 W
(D) 10 ohm, 50 W.
160. A 100 kohm resistor with a 1 W power rating is likely to be a
(A) carbon resistor
(B) wire wound resistor
(C) either carbon or wire wound resistor
(D) neither carbon nor wire wound resistor.
161. Two 5 kohm, 5 W resistors in series have equivalent resistance of 10 kohm with power rating of
(A) 2.5 W
(B) 5 W
(C)10W
(D) 25 W.
162. Which of the following are typical resistance and power-dissipation values for a carbon- composition resistor?
(A) 10,000 ohm, 10 W
(B) 1000,000 ohm, 1 W
(C) 5000 ohm, 100 W
(D) 10 ohm, 50 W.
163. A resistor is to be connected across a 45 V battery to provide 1 mA of current. The required resistance with a
suitable wattage rating is
(A) 45 ohm, 10 W
(B) 4.5 ohm, 2 W
(C) 450 kohm, 2 W
(D) 45 kohm, 1/4 W.
164. In the circuit shown below, heat produced in 5 ohm resistance is 10 cal/sec. Heat developed in 4ohm is
(A) 1 cal/sec
(B) 2 cal/sec
(C) 3 cal/sec
(D) 4 cal/sec.
165. For a carbon-composition resistor color-coded with yellow, violet, orange and silver stripes from left to right, the
value of resistance and tolerance are
(A) 470 ohm ± 10%
(B) 47ohm ± 10%
(C) 740 ohm ± 50%
(D) 74 ohm ± 5%.
166. For a carbon-composition resistor color coded with green, black, gold and silver stripes from left to right, the
resistance and tolerance are (A) 50 ohm ± 10%
(B) 5 ohm ± 5%
(C) 5 ohm ± 10%
(D) 0.5 ohm ± 5%.
167. A resistor with the color coded value of 1000 ohms and ± 10% tolerance can have an actual resistance between
(A) 990 ohm and 1010 ohm
(B)900 ohm and 1100 ohm
(C)1000 ohm and 1100 ohm
(D)900 ohm and 1000 ohm.
168. For carbon resistors what is the color for 5?
(A) Green
(B) Black
(C) Orange
(D) Gray.
169. For carbon resistors, darker colour generally have values close to
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9.
170. In a carbon resistor in case fourth stripe is not present, it can be concluded that
(A) the resistor is highly accurate
(B) the resistor is defective
(C) the resistor does not contain carbon
(D) the tolerance limit is ± 20 %.
171. The four stripes of a resistor are yellow-violet-orange-gold. The value of resistor should be
(A) 470 ohms ± 5 %
(B) 47 kilo ohm ± 5%
(C) 47 mega ohms ± 5%
(D) 4700 ohms ± 10%.
172. The tolerance for silver stripe is
(A)+5%
(B)+ 10%
(C)± 5%
(D)± 10%.
173. Which of the following can have positive or negative charge?
(A) Electron
(B) iron
(C) Hole
(D) Neutron.
174. Which of the following parallel resistances will have the highest value of equivalent resistance?
(A) 10 kohm and 25 kohm
(B) 1 kohm, 2 kohm and 3 kohm
(C) Two 500 kohm resistors
(D) Four 40 kohm and two 10 kohm resistors.
175. In series as well as parallel circuits the equivalent (total) value of certain parameter is given by X = X1 + X2 + X3 +
X4 + ... The parameter X could be
(A) resistance
(B) current
(C) voltage
(D) power.
176. The resistance of a 150-scale voltmeter is 12000 ohms. The power consumed by the voltmeter when it is
connected across a 125 volt circuit, will be nearly
(A) 0.0013 W
(B) 0.013 W
(C) 0.13 W
(D) 1.3 W.
177. Materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much greater than that of typical
insulators, are known as
(A) thermistors
(B) varistors
(C) semi-conductors
(D) variable resistors.
178. Match the following:
Column 1 Column 2
Copper Resistors
Salt Solution Electrolytic Conductor
Germanium Good Conductor
Ferronickel alloys Semi-Conductors
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d(iv)
(B) a-(ii), b(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(C) a-(iiii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(i)
(D) a-(iii), b-(ii) c-(iv), d-(i).
179. In the circuit shown below, the current I is
(A)1 / 45 A
(B)1 / 15 A
(C)1 / 10 A
(D)1 / 5 A.
180. In a nickel-cadmium-alkali cell the electrolyte is
(A) sulphur acid
(B) potassium hydroxide
(C) zinc chloride
(D) ammonium chloride.
181. Which value of resistance P shown in the circuit will allow 1080 Watts to be dissipated
(A) 19.5 ohms

(B) 14.5 ohms
(C) 9.75 ohms
(D) 5.55 ohms.
182. There are 8.5 x 1028 free electrons in one cubic metre of copper. When the copper conductor is worked at 155
A/cm2
the velocity of the axial drift will be
(A) 1.14 x 10-6 m/s
(B) 1.14 x 10-5 m/s
(C) 1.14 x 10-4 m/s
(D) 1.14 x 10-3 m/s.
183. Two batteries have an open-circuit voltage of 12.8 volts each and an internal resistance of 0.08 ohms. The short
circuit current of two batteries connected in parallel will be
(A) 80 A
(B) 120 A
(C) 160 A
(D) 320 A.
Questions 184 and 185 refer to data given below:
A radiator element supplied at 240 V dissipates 2.4 MJ in 20 minutes.
184.The power dissipated in the elements is
(A) 2000 W
(B) 1000 W
(C) 500 W
(D) 200 W.
185.The resistance of the element is
(A) 68 ohms
(B) 28.8 ohms
(C) 14.4 ohms
(D) 7.2 ohms.
Questions 186 to 188 refer to data given below:
Two loads X and Y, are connected in parallel to a 115 V supply. Load X takes 35 watts and the total current is 2.6 A.
186.The resistance of X is
(A) 379 ohms
(B) 291 ohms
(C) 233 ohms
(D) 190 ohms.
187.The resistance of Y is
(A) 200 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 50 ohms
(D) 20 ohms.
188.The power absorbed by Y is
(A) 528 W
(B) 264 W
(C) 132 W
(D) 66 W.
A source whose no-load voltage is 220 V delivers 20 watts to a load when the current is 0.4 A. 189. The internal
resistance of the source is
(A) 10 ohms
(B) 20 ohms
(C) 50 ohms
(D) 100 ohms.
190.The maximum power that can be delivered by the source is
(A) 51 W
(B) 102 W
(C) 152 W
(D) 242 W.
191. All good conductors have high
(A) resistance
(B) electrical conductivity
(C) electrical and thermal conductivity
(D) conductance.
192. A light dependent resistor is basically a
(A) power resistor
(B) non-metallic resistor
(C) carbon resistor
(D) variable resistor.
193. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(A) graphite
(B) charcoal
(C) silicon carbide
(D) nichrome.
194. The power rating of a 470 ohm resistor carrying a current of 40 mA should be
(A)1 / 4 W
(B)1 / 2 W
(C) 1 W
(D) 2 W.
195. Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown below is
(A) R
(B) 3 R
(C) 4 R
(D) 5 R.
196. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(A) as current stabilizers
(B) as heating elements
(C) for inductive circuits
(D) to suppress surges.
197. Metals approach super-conductivity conditions
(A) near absolute zero temperature
(B) near critical temperature
(C) at triple point
(D) under the conditions of high temperature and pressure.
198. In which of the following the resistance decreases with rise in temperature?
(A) LDR
(B) NTC thermistors
(C) Nichrome conductors
(D) ACSR conductors.
199. The equivalent resistance of 2N branches in parallel, each having resistance N/2 ohms will be
(A) 4 ohms
(B) 2 ohms
(C) 1 ohm
(D) 1 / 4 ohm.
200. Equivalent Resistance between X and Y is
(A)50 ohm
(B) 75 ohm
(C)275 ohm
(D)none of the above.
AC FUNDAMENTALS
1. The form factor in reference to alternating current wave form represents the ratio of
(A) The average value to the R.M.S value
(B) The peak value to the R.M.S value
(C) The R.M.S value to the average value
(D) The R.M.S value to the peak value
2. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 90 °, the power is
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) 1.1 V.I
3. Two sinusoidal quantities are said to be phase quadrature, when their phase difference is
(A) 0 °
(B) 30 °
(C) 45 °
(D) 90 °
4. The negative maximum of cosine waveform occurs at
(A) 270 °
(B) 180 °
(C) 90 °
(D) 0 °
5. The positive maximum of a sine wave occurs at
(A) 0 °
(B) 45 °
(C) 90 °
(D) 180 °
6. For the same peak value of voltage, which waveform will have the least rms value?
(A) Sine wave
(B) Square wave
(C) Triangular wave
(D) Full wave rectified sine wave
7. For the same peak value of voltage, which wave will have the highest rms value?
(A) Sine wave
(B) Half-wave rectified sine wave
(C) Square wave
(D) Triangular wave
8. Which wave has the highest value of form factor?
(A) Sine wave
(B) Triangular wave
(C) Square wave
(D) Half wave rectified sine wave
9. Which wave has the least value of form factor?
(A) Square wave
(B) Rectangular wave
(C) Triangular wave
(D) Sine wave
10. Which of the following waves has form factor of 1.0?
(A) Sine wave
(B) Triangular wave
(C) Square wave
(D) None of the above
11. If one cycle of ac waveform occurs every milli-second, the frequency will be
(A) 1/1000 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 100 𝐻𝑧
(D) 1000 Hz
12. Which of the following frequencies has longest period?
(A) 1 Hz
(B) 10 Hz
(C) 1 KHz
(D) 10 KHz
13. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of
(A) Sine wave
(B) Half wave rectified sine wave
(C) Square wave
(D) Triangular wave
14. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to produce heat, the selection of conductor is based on
(A) Peak value of current
(B) Average value of current
(C) RMS value of current
(D) Any of the above
15. The form factor of dc supply voltage is always
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C) Unity
(D) Infinite
16. Two sinusoidal quantities are said to be in phase quadrature, when their phase difference is
(A) 0 °
(B) 30 °
(C) 45 °
(D) 90 °
17. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
(A) Real power/apparent power
(B) KW/KVA
(C) Resistance/impedance
(D) Conductance/susceptance
18. The capacitors for power factor correction are rated in terms of
(A) Voltage
(B) VA
(C) KW
(D) KVAR
19. Poor power factor result in all of the following Except:
(A) Overloading of transformers
(B) Overloading of alternators
(C) Reduction in power losses
(D) Reduction in load handling capacity of electrical system
20. Power factor of an inductive circuit can be improved by connecting capacitor to it in
(A) Series
(B) Parallel
(C) Either series or parallel
(D) Depends on the value of the capacitor
21. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced it will
(A) Draw more current
(B) Less current
(C) Same current but less power
(D) Less current but more power
22. The effect due to electric current are
I. Magnetic effect
II. Heating effect
III. Luminous effect
Appliance working on which effect can be used on ac as well as dc supply?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
23. The effect due to electric current are
I. Thermal effect
II. Luminous effect
III. Chemical effect
IV. Magnetic effect
Which two effect are significant when current flows through transmission lines
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) III and IV only
(D) I and IV only
24. When a.c flows through a resistance, then
(A) Current leads emf
(B) Current lags emf
(C) Current and emf are in phase
25. The power factor of incandescent bulb is
(A) 0.8 lagging
(B) 0.8 leading
(C) Unity
(D) Zero
26. A incandescent bulb can work on
(A) Ac only
(B) Dc only
(C) Both ac as well as dc
(D) Depend on the shape of the coil.
27. In an a.c circuit the current
(A) Is always in phase with the emf
(B) Always leads the emf
(C) Always lags the emf
(D) Any of the above, depending upon the elements (L, C or R) of the circuit
28. Power factor of the magnetizing component of a transformer is
(A) Unity
(B) 0.8 lagging
(C) Always leading
(D) Zero
29. Which of the following statements is not necessarily valid for ac currents?
Alternating current
(A) Interferes with communication lines
(B) Is suitable for charging batteries
(C) Develops eddy current losses
(D) Provides better safety as compared to direct current
30. In a.c circuits, the a.c meters’ measure
(A) Rms values
(B) Peak values
(C) Mean value
(D) Mean square values
31. Radio frequency choke air cored to
(A) Keep frequency low
(B) Keep frequency high
(C) Keep inductive reactance low
(D) Keep inductive reactance high
32. Hot wire ammeters are used for measuring
(A) Both a.c and d.c
(B) Only a.c
(C) Only d.c
(D) Neither a.c nor d.c
33. A choke coil is used for controlling current in an
(A) A.c circuit only
(B) D.c circuit only
(C) Both a.c and d.c circuits
(D) Integrated circuit
34. Ohm’s law (E=IR)
(A) Can never be applied to a.c
(B) Can be applied to a.c in the same manner as to d.c
(C) Can be applied to a.c. but after replacing R by Z (impedance)
RLC CIRCUITS
1. A capacitor
(A) Offer easy path to ac but block dc
(B) Offer easy path to dc but block ac
(C) Offer easy path to both ac and dc
(D) Block ac
2. The unit of inductive susceptance is
(A) Henry
(B) Milli -henry
(C) Siemens
(D) Ohms
3. In a.c circuit, the power is consumed only in
(A) Inductance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Resistance
(D) All of the given above
4. An electric blub rated 220 V is connected 220 V, 5 Hz source, then the bulb
(A) Does not glow
(B) Glows intermittently
(C) Glows continuously
(D) Fuses
5. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit?
(A) The equivalent resistance to greater than any one of the resistors
(B) The current through any one element is less than the source current
(C) The current through each element is the same
(D) The voltage across element is in proportion to its resistance value
6. Capacitive susceptance is measure of
(A) A purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
(B) A purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current
(C) Reactive power in a circuit
(D) The extent of neutralization of reactive power in a circuit
7. Capacitive susceptance is expressed in terms of
(A) Farads
(B) Micro-farads
(C) Siemens
(D) Ohms
8. Admittance is the reciprocal of
(A) Capacitive reactance
(B) Inductive reactance
(C) Reactive power
(D) Impedance
9. Which of the following case represents the largest mmf?
(A) A 20-turns coil wound around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 3 A
(B) A 60-turn coil wound around a 10 cm iron core and passing a current of 1 A
(C) A 100-turn coil wound around a 30 cm cardboard core and passing a current of 0.75A
10. Increase in the number of primary turns will result in
(A) Reduction in emf producing the flux
(B) Less flux will be produced
(C) Reduction in secondary flux linkages
(D) Larger emf in secondary
11. An increase in the number of secondary turns will result in
(A) Larger secondary emf
(B) Reduction in the number of flux linkages
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
12. By reversing the battery terminal
(A) Induced emf will increase
(B) Induced emf will decrease
(C) Polarity of induced emf will reverse
(D) None of the above will happen
13. Wattless current is possible, only in
(A) Resistive circuit
(B) Non-resistive circuit
(C) LR-circuit
(D) LCR-circuit
14. In a series RLC circuit as frequency increases
(A) Current increases
(B) Current decreases
(C) Remain unaltered
15. The minimum and maximum values of power factor in an a.c circuit are
(A) 0 and 1
(B) 1 and infinity
(C) 0 and infinity
(D) 0.1 and 1
16. When a.c, flow through an inductance (no resistance), then the current
(A) Leads emf λ/2
(B) Lags emf by λ /2
(C) Is in phase with emf
17. An inductor
(A) Allows a.c to pass but blocks d.c
(B) Allows d.c to pass but a.c
(C) Allows both a.c and d.c to pass
(D) Blocks d.c
NETWORK THEORY
1. A non-linear network does not satisfy
(A) Homogeneity condition
(B) Super-position condition
(C) Both homogeneity as well as super position condition
(D) Homogeneity, super-position and associative condition
2. An ideal current source has zero
(A) Internal conductance
(B) Internal resistance
(C) Voltage on no load
(D) Ripple
3. A terminal where three or more branches meet is known as
(A) Combination
(B) Terminus
(C) Anode
(D) Node
4. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as
(A) Circuit
(B) Branch
(C) Junction
(D) Loop
5. Which of the following has non-linear V-I characteristics?
(A) Vacuum diode
(B) Transistor
(C) Filament bulb
(D) All of the above
6. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to
(A) AC circuits only
(B) DC circuits only
(C) AC as well as DC circuits
(D) Passive
7. An ideal voltage source
(A) Has terminal voltage in proportion to current
(B) Has terminal voltage in proportion to load
(C) Has zero internal resistance
(D) Has open circuit voltage nearly equal to the voltage on full load
8. Which of the following is bilateral element?
(A) Constant voltage source
(B) Constant current source
(C) Capacitance
9. The relationship between voltage and current in same for two opposite directions of current in
case of
(A) Active network
(B) Passive network
(C) Unilateral network
(D) Bilateral network
10. A network which contain one or more than one source of emf is known as
(A) Active network
(B) Passive network
(C) Electric network
(D) Non-linear network
11. The inductance of a coil can be increased by
(A) Increasing core length
(B) Using core material of high relative permeability
(C) Reducing number of turns
12. An air gap provided in the iron core of an inductor prevents
(A) Flux leakage
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Core saturation
(D) Heat generation
13. An inductor stores energy in
(A) Electrostatic field
(B) Electromagnetic field
(C) Core
(D) Magnetic field
14. The current through an inductance follows
(A) A linear growth
(B) A linear decay
(C) An exponential decay
(D) An exponential growth
15. The condition AD-BC=1 for a 2-port network implies that the network is
(A) Lossless
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Lumped element network
(D) Unilateral element network
16. At t=0 with zero initial condition, which of the following acts an open circuit?
(A) Inductor
(B) Capacitor
(C) Resistor
17. With zero initial condition an inductor at t= ∞ will act as
(A) Open circuit
(B) Short circuit
(C) A source of voltage
(D) A source of current
18. Power factor for a pure inductor is
(A) Unity
(B) Zero
(C) Infinite
(D) O.707
19. Which statement about the inductance is in-correct
(A) The inductance of a coil can be increased by adding few more turns to coil
(B) The inductive reactance varies directly as the frequency of the applied voltage
(C) Inductive reactance can be measured by an ohmmeter
(D) An inductance does not oppose direct currents
20. At t=0 with zero initial condition which of the following will act as short circuit?
(A) Inductor
(B) Capacitor
(C) Resistor
21. With some initial change at t=o, a capacitor will act as
(A) A voltage sources
(B) A current source
(C) Short circuit
(D) Open circuit
22. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff’s voltage law imposes
(A) Linear constrains
(B) Non- linear constraints
(C) No constraints
23. The characteristics of the open circuit on current (I)-voltage (V) plot is
(A) A horizontal line above the origin
(B) A horizontal line through origin
(C) A vertical line through origin
(D) A vertical line away from origin
24. A linear resistor having 0<R< ∞ is a
(A) Voltage controlled resistor
(B) Current controlled resistor
(C) Both voltage controlled and current controlled
(D) Neither voltage controlled nor voltage controlled
25. An ideal diode is
(A) Current controlled resistor
(B) Voltage controlled resistor
(C) Neither current controlled nor voltage controlled resistor
(D) Non-linear -time varying resistor
26. The super position theorem is applicable to
(A) Linear responses only
(B) Linear and non-linear responses only
(C) Linear, non-linear and time variant responses
(D) None
27. The super position theorem is applicable to
(A) Current only
(B) Voltage only
(C) Both current and voltage
(D) Current, voltage and power
28. For three phase star connected circuit
(A) Line voltage=phase voltage
(B) Line current = phase current
(C) Line current =√3 phase current
29. Which of the following is true for a three phase delta connected circuit
(A) Line voltage = phase voltage
(B) Line current = phase current
(C) Line voltage = 1/√3 phase voltage
(D) Line current = √3 phase current
30. In order to find z in thevenin’s theorem
(A) All independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(B) All independent voltage are sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are
open circuited
(C) All independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are open
circuited
(D) All independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are
short circuited
31. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yield
(A) Equivalent current source
(B) Equivalent impendence
(C) Equivalent current source and impedance in series
(D) Equivalent current source and impedance
32. Millman’s theorem yield
(A) Equivalent voltage source
(B) Equivalent voltage or current source
(C) Equivalent resistance
(D) Equivalent impedance
33. The super-position theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
(A) Sources
(B) Nodes
(C) Sources + nodes
(D) Sources + nodes + meshes
34. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to
(A) The number of branches
(B) The number of chords
(C) Sum of the number of branches and chords
(D) Sum of the number of branches chords
35. S is the Laplace transform of
(A) S (I)
(B) Unit step function
(C) Unit doublet
(D) Unit impulse function
36. A unit ramp function when integrated yields
(A) Unit parabolic function
(B) Unit ramp function
(C) Unit doublet
(D) Unit impulse function
37. The Laplace transform of e-at is
(A) 1/s
(B) 1/s+a
(C) 1/s-a
(D) s/a
38. the Laplace transform of te-at is
(A) 1/s-a
(B) 1/(s-a)2
(C) 1/(s+a)2
(D) S(s-a)2
39. A planar graph has 6 branches and 3 meshes. The total number of nodes is
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
40. The Laplace transform of unit impulse function is
(A) 1
(B) S
(C) 1/s
(D) 1/s2
ELECTROSTATICS
1. Permittivity is expressed in terms of
(A) N/m
(B) Webers/m
(C) Farad/m
(D) Farad/sq.m
2. Relative permittivity of vacuum is
(A) 8.854
(B) 8.854 x 13 -12
(C) Unity
(D) Zero
3. Forced between two charged particles is proportional to
(A) Inverse of distance
(B) Inverse square of distance
(C) Inverse cube of distance
4. Which of the following is a vector quantity
(A) Electrical potential
(B) Electric field intensity
(C) Electric charge
5. Unit of electrostatic flux density is
(A) Coulomb
(B) Farad/meter
(C) Coulomb/ sq. meter
(D) Weber/sq. Meter
6. By increasing the area of overlap between the plates of a capacitor when keeping voltage across plates constant,
energy
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
7. A point charge in space is attracted towards a dielectric material because of the
(A) Phenomenon of dielectric polarization
(B) Maximization of electrostatic flux
(C) Dielectric hysteresis
8. Which medium has least dielectric strength
(A) Air
(B) Quartz
(C) Glass
(D) Paraffin wax
9. The unit of field intensity is
(A) Coulomb
(B) Coulomb/m2
(C) Webber
(D) Newton/coulomb
10. Coulomb law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles with
(A) Newton’s law of motion
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Gauss’s theorem
(D) Newton’s law of gravitation
11. A region around a stationary electric charge has
(A) Magnetic field
(B) Electric field
(C) Both magnetic and electric field
(D) Neither magnetic nor electric field
12. Inside a hollow spherical conductor
(A) Electric field is zero
(B) Electric field is constant
(C) Electric field changes with the magnitude of the charge given to conductor
(D) Electric field changes with distance from the center of the sphere
13. 1-volt meter -1
is the same as
(A) 1 newton meter
(B) 1 newton meter -1
(C) 1 joule coulomb -1
(D) 1-meter coulomb -1
14. When the potential difference across the electric field intensity between the parallel plate air capacitor is
doubled,
plates
(A) Is not change
(B) Is halved
(C) Is double
(D) Is independent of the potential difference
15. If small charged drops are combined to give a bigger drop, the rise in potential will be
(A) Directly proportional to the radius of the bigger drop
(B) Directly proportional to the square of the radius of the bigger drop
(C) Inversely proportional to square of the radius of the bigger drop
(D) Inversely proportional to the radius of the bigger drop
16. Midway between two equal and similar charges, a third equal and similar charge is placed, then this third charge
will
(A) Remain in stable equilibrium
(B) Be in unstable equilibrium
(C) Not be in equilibrium
(D) Will move out of the field of influence of the two charges
17. One volt is the same as
(A) One joule
(B) One joule
(C) One joule /coulomb
(D) One coulomb/joule
18. One farad is same as
(A) One coulomb/volt
(B) One joule/volt
(C) One joule/coulomb
(D) One coulomb/
19. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Reduced to zero
20. The unit if electric energy is
(A) Volt ampere
(B) KW
(C) KWh
(D) Joule
21. The potential inside a charged hollow sphere is
(A) Zero
(B) Same as that on the surface
(C) Less than that on the surface
22. Electric current density J is defined as
(A) Current/length
(B) Current/area
(C) Current/volume
23. For dielectrics flux is proportional to
(A) Potential difference between electrodes
(B) Resistivity of medium
(C) Rate of change of potential difference
(D) Rate of change of current
24. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(A) Larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
(B) Shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(C) Shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(D) Larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher applied voltage
25. The current in a single element circuit leads the voltage 65* at all times. The circuit element is
(A) A resistor
(B) An inductor
(C) A capacitance
26. In case of lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(A) Negligible
(B) Very small
(C) Small
(D) Large
27. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R, the time constant of the charging circuit is given by
(A) R/C
(B) 1/RC
(C) RC
(D) C/R
28. The capacity of capacitor used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(A) KVA
(B) KW
(C) Volts
(D) KVAR
29. A capacitor is charged and source is then disconnected. What the plate are now separated
(A) Charge changes
(B) Potential difference changes
(C) Charge and potential difference remain constant
(D) Charge and potential difference remain constant
30. The dielectric of a charged capacitor experiences
(A) Compressive force
(B) Tensile force
(C) Lateral force
(D) No force
31. A circuit compound that opposes the change in the circuit voltage is
(A) Resistance
(B) Inductance
(C) Capacitance
(D) No of the above
32. The dissipating factor of capacitor can be measured by using a
(A) Potentiometer
(B) Campbell bridge
(C) Schering bridge
(D) Galvanometer
33. The power dissipating in a pure capacitor is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Depends on the size and voltage
34. The capacitance of a pair of parallel wires
(A) Increases with separation and radius
(B) Increases with separation and decreases with radius
(C) Increases with radius and decreases with separation
35. Two infinitely extended metal plates are both charged with equal surface density of the same polarity. The electric
field
in the gap between them is
(A) The same as produced by one plate
(B) Twice the field produced by the plate
(C) Zero
36. The electric flux inside conducting sphere is
(A) Zero
(B) Uniform
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
37. In a parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric slab is introduced, the potential difference between plates will
(A) Become zero
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) Remain unaltered
38. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(A) Dielectric
(B) Metal plate
(C) Dielectric as well as metal plates
(D) Neither dielectric nor metal plates
39. A mica capacitor and ceramic capacitor have the same physical dimensions. Which has higher value of
capacitance?
(A) Mica capacitor
(B) Ceramic capacitor
(C) Both have identical value of capacitance
(D) Nothing can be concluded on the basis of the information given
40. For the same rating which capacitor is physically smaller?
(A) Paper capacitor
(C) Both have identical dimensions
(D) Nothing can be concluded about size on the basis of rating
41. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor
(A) Satisfactory
(B) Lossy
(C) Short circuited
(D) Charged
42. If a capacitor shows charging but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal the capacitor is
(A) Satisfactory
(B) Leaky
(C) Of high capacitance value
(D) Of low capacitance value
43. The ohmmeter reading for a shorted capacitor is
(A) Zero
(B) Few kilo ohms
(C) Few mega ohms
(D) Infinity
44. Capacitance increases with
(A) Larger plate area and greater distance between plates
(B) Smaller plate area and less distance between plates
(C) Larger plate area and less distance between plates
(D) High values of applied voltage
45. The electric field on equipotential surface is
(A) Zero
(B) ∞
(C) Perpendicular to surface
(D) Parallel to surface
46. Surface integral of electric field intensity is
(A) Electric charge
(B) Differential of volume flux
(C) Net flux emanating from surface
(D) None of these
47. A capacitor has two
(A) Conductors separated by an insulator
(B) Insulators separated by a conductor
(C) Two insulators separated by air medium only
(D) Two conductors only
48. An electric field can deflect
(A) Gamma-rays
(B) Alpha particles
(C) X-rays
(D) Neutrons
49. During the dielectric breakdown of a capacitor
(A) Electrons cease to move from one plate to another
(B) Permanent conduction path is established between plates
(C) Dielectric stores energy rendering plates chargeless
(D) Electrons get scattered
50. In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotential
(A) Are parallel to one another
(B) Intersect at 30°
(C) Intersect at 45°
(D) Are orthogonal
51. At the surface of two conducting surfaces
(A) Tangential components of both electric intensity and current density are continuous
(B) Tangential components of both electric intensity and normal component of current density are continuous
(C) Normal component of both electric intensity and current density are continuous
52. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by a conducting material
(A) The capacitor can store infinite charge
(B) The capacitor will get heated up due to eddy currents
(C) The capacitance value of the capacitor will shoot upto very high values
(D) The plates will get short-circuited
53. In a dielectric the electrons get detached from the atoms under
(A) High voltage
(B) High current
(C) Breakdown
(D) Variable current
54. The air-dielectric interface
(A) Normal component of displacement vector and tangential component of electric field are continuous
(B) Normal component of electric field and tangential component of displacement vector are continuous
(C) Circulation of field is constant
(D) None of above
55. The presence of an uncharged conductor near charged one increase the
(A) Capacity of the charged conductor
(B) Potential of the charged conductor
(C) Charge of the charged conductor
56. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(A) It remains as such
(B) The uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(C) The unchanged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging body
(D) The uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
MAGNETOSTATICS
1. The unit of relative permeability is
(A) Henry
(B) Henry /m
(C) Henry/sq.m
(D) It is dimensionless
2. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Magnetic field intensity
(B) Magnetic potential
(C) Flux density
(D) Relative permeability
3. The ratio of intensity of magnetization to the magnetizing force is known as
(A) Relative permeability
(B) Susceptibility
(C) Flux density
4. The unit of susceptibility is
(A) Henry
(B) Joule
(C) Henry/meter
(D) Joule/metre
6. If a bar magnet is bent as its centre to form the shape of L, the magnetic moment of the bent magnet will be
(A) Same as that of unbent magnet
(B) Half the original value
(C) √2 times its value
(D) 1/√2 times its original value
7. Two straight parallel conductors carry equal currents in opposite directions. The force between them is
(A) Repulsive
(B) Attractive
(C) Zero
8. A property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(A) Magnetomotive force
(B) Reluctance
(C) Permeance
(D) Reluctivity
9. The unit of reluctance is
(A) Henry
(B) (henry-1 )
(C) Henry /metre
(D) Metre/henry
10. Reciprocal of reluctance is
(A) Susceptibility
(B) Permeability
(C) Permeance
(D) Reluctivity
11. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf in induced in that conductor. Above statement is due to
(A) Faraday’s law
(B) Joule’s law
(C) Weber and Ewing’s theory
(D) Coulomb law
12. The unit of retentivity is
(A) Ampere turn
(B) Ampere turn/metre
(C) Weber
(D) Weber/sq.m
13. The left hand rule correlates
(A) Magnetic field, electric field and direction of the force on a conductor
(B) Self-induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor
(C) Current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor
(D) Current, induced emf and direction of force on a conductor
14. In the left hand rule, thumb always represents
(A) Current
(B) Voltage
(C) Magnetic field
(D) Direction of force on a conductor
15. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) Mutual inductance between the two coils only
(B) Self-inductance of the two coils only
(C) Mutual inductance and self-inductance of two coils
16. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of
electrical circuit?
(A) Current
(B) Current density
(C) Conductivity
(D) Emf
17. While comparing magnetic and electric circuit, the point of dissimilarity exists while considering
(A) Mmf and emf
(B) Reluctance and resistance
(C) Flux and current flow
(D) Permeance and conductance
18. Material subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have
(A) High permeability and low hysteresis loss
(B) High coereivity and high retentivity
(C) High coercivity and low density
(D) Large area of BH Loop
19. Biot-Savarat’s law states the relation between magnetic intensity and
(A) Filament current only
(B) Surface current only
(C) volume current only
(D) (A), (B), (C) are correct
20. The magnetic vector potential due to a single conductor carrying current is
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Finite
21. Substances having permeability less than the permeability of free space, are knowns as
(A) diamagnetic
(B) bipolar
(C) paramagnetic
(D) ferromagnetic
22. Main constituent of permalloy is
(A) Nickel
(B) Cobalt
(C) Tungsten
(D) Chromium
23. Ferrites are a sub-group of
(A) Paramagnetic materials
(B) Ferro-magnetic materials
(C) Ferri-magnetic materials
(D) None-magnetic materials
24. Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability
(A) Equal to unity
(B) Less than unity
(C) Slightly more than unity
(D) Equal to that ferromagnetic materials
25. The unit of magnetic permeability is
(A) Weber
(B) Weber/sq.metre
(C) Henry/metre
(D) Henry per metre
26. The unit of magnetic charge is
(A) Amperes
(B) Coulombs
(C) Ampere-meter
(D) Ampere-meter square
27. A degaussing is the process of
(A) Removing gases from materials
(B) Removal of magnetic inpurites
(C) Demagnetizing metallic parts
(D) Remagnetising metallic parts
28. In order to minimize the loss due to hysteresis, the magnetic material should have
(A) Low hysteresis coefficient
(B) High retentivity
(C) High resistivity
(D) Large BlH Loop
29. Gilbert is the unit od
(A) Conductance
(B) Permittivity
(C) Electromotive force
(D) Magnetomotive force
30. Reciprocal of permeability is
(A) Susceptibility
(B) Reluctivity
(C) Permittivity
(D) Conductance
31. One watt is not the same as
(A) 1 joule per second
(B) 1 newton meter second
(C) 107 erg per second
(D) 980 dynes
32. A Ferro-magnetic core subjected to cycles of magnetization will exhibit hysteresis when the cycle is
(A) Alternating
(B) Rotating
(C) Pulsating
33. The electromagnetic force or torque developed in any physical system tends to
(A) Decrease the reluctance
(B) Decrease the inductance
(C) Increase the magnetic stored energy at constant flux
(D) Decrease the magnetic stored energy at constant current
34. The magnetomotive force of the magnetic circuit is analogous to which quantity of the electric circult
(A) Emf
(B) Current
(C) Volt amperes
(D) Power
35. The relative permeability is less than unity in case of
(A) Non-ferrous materials
(B) Ferrites
(C) Diamagnetic materials
(D) Ferro-magnetic materials
36. The core of a transformer for microwave frequency should be made of
(A) Ferrites
(B) Iron
(C) Silicon
(D) Silicon carbide
37. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(A) Magnetic field intensity
(B) Frequency
(C) Ambient temperature
(D) Volume of materials
38. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density?
(A) Tesla
(B) Lumens
(C) Daraf
(D) Weber
39. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductance will result in
(A) Increased inductance
(B) Reduced inductance
(C) Zero inductance
(D) Unchanged inductance
40. The law that the induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them,is due to
(A) Lenz
(B) Newton
(C) Coulomb
(D) Faraday
41. Which of the following is unit of inductance?
(A) Ampere turns
(B) Ohm
(C) Weber/m
(D) Milli-henry
42. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(A) Ferrites are magnetic
(B) Ferrites have low permeability
(C) Ferrites have high hysteresis
(D) Ferrites have high resistance
43. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as
(A) Permeability
(B) Permeance
(C) Reluctance
(D) Susceptance
44. Reluctivity is analogous to
(A) Permeability
(B) Conductivity
(C) Resistivity
45. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance?
(A) Volt second per ampere
(B) Henry
(C) Coulomb/volt-ampere
46. For dc voltage an inductor is virtually a
(A) Short circuit
(B) Open circuit
(C) Depends on polarity
(D) Depends on magnitude of voltage
47. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in the circuit current?
(A) Resistance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Inductance
48. Which of the following is not a unit of flux?
(A) Weber
(B) Tesla
(C) Maxwell
49. 1 Maxwell is the same as
(A) 104 webers
(B) 104 webers
(C) 10-4 webers
(D) 10-4 webers
50. For an inductance, current is proportional to
(A) Magnetic field
(B) Voltage across the inductance
(C) Both magnetic field and voltage across the inductance
(D) Neither magnetic field nor voltage across the inductance
51. The area of hysteresis loop is a measure of
(A) Permeance
(B) Magnetic flux
(C) Energy loss per cycle
(D) Permittivity
52. The unit of flux density is
(A) Webers/m2
(B) Henry/m2
(C) Newton/m2
(D) Ampere/m2
53. Which of the following is true for a purely inductive circuit?
(A) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(B) Relative power is zero
(C) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charge
(D) Apparatus power is zero
54. Which of the following magnetic paths will require the largest mmf?
(A) Core
(B) Inductance
(C) Coil
(D) Air gap
55. Permeance is to reluctance as conductance is to
(A) Inductance
(B) Resistance
(C) Capacitance
(D) Ampere turns
56. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the inductance emf does not depend upon
(A) Pole strength of the magnet
(B) Motion of the magnet
(C) Resistance of the coil
(D) Number of the turns of coil
57. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(A) Energy
(B) Charge
(C) Induced emf
(D) Induced current
58. On tripling the number if turns of a coil the inductance
(A) Remains the same
(B) Become 3 times as large
(C) Become 9 times as large
(D) Become one-third times as large
59. 1 tesla=
(A) 1 Wb/mm2
(B) 1 m Wb/m2
(C) 1 m Wb/cm2
(D) 1 Wb/m2
60. Supermagnetic materials are composed of an assemblage of
(A) Ferromagnetic particles in a non-ferromagnetic matrix
(B) Non-ferromagnetic particles in paramagnetic matrix
(C) Ferrimagnetic particles in ferromagnetic matrix
61. Susceptibility is positive for
(A) Paramagnetic substances
(B) Ferromagnetic substances
(C) Non-magnetic substances
62. A copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle, the magnetic needle stars rotating
with velocity
(A) Equal to that of disc and in the same direction
(B) Equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
(C) Less than that of disc and in the same direction
(D) Less than that of disc and in opposite direction
63. Ferromagnetic substances have
(A) Very high permeability and susceptibility
(B) Low permeability and susceptibility
(C) Low permeability but high susceptibility
(D) High permeability but low susceptibility
64. Earth’s magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at
(A) The equator
(B) The geographical poles
(C) The magnetic poles
(D) There are no exceptions
65. The permanent magnets are made from which of the following materials?
(A) Soft iron
(B) Ferromagnetic
(C) Paramagnetic
(D) Diamagnetic
66. A permanent magnet
(A) Attract all paramagnetic substances and repel each others
(B) Attracts only ferromagnetic substances
(C) Attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
(D) Attracts some substances and repels others
67. Magnetic moment is
(A) Scalar quantity
(B) Vector quantity
(C) Universal constant
(D) Pole strength
68. The property retentivity of material is useful on the construction of
(A) Transformers
(B) Electromagnets
(C) Permanent magnets
(D) Non-magnetic substances
69. A wire carrying current is bent in the form of a circular loop. Then the magnetic field around each portion of the
wire will be
(A) Parallel to the plane of the wire
(B) Perpendicular to the circumference of the wire
(C) Parallel to half portion and perpendicular for the other half
(D) none of the above
70. The quickest and the most effective way of making a magnet from soft iron is by
(A) Induction
(B) The use of permanent magnet
(C) Rubbing with another magnet
(D) Placing it inside a coil carrying current
71. Hard magnetic materials are used
(A) In electric machines
(B) For relays
(C) In circuit breakers
(D) For making permanent magnets
72. A material commonly used for shielding or screening magnetism is
(A) Brass
(B) Copper
(C) Soft iron
(D) Aluminium
73. A keeper is used to
(A) Amplify flux
(B) Restore lost flux
(C) Provide a close path for flux
(D) Change the direction of magnetic lines
74. In electrical circuits, resistance is to current is the same as in magnetic circuits reluctance is to
(A) Remanence
(B) Coercivity
(C) Coercivity
(D) Ampere turns
75. The lagging of flux density behind the applied magnetizing force is known as
(A) Remanence
(B) Flux
(C) Hysteresis
(D) Flux
76. Reluctance: inductance:
(A) Weber: Farad
(B) Ampere turn: ampere
(C) Mho: ohm
(D) AT/Weber: henry
77. which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?
(A) nickel
(B) copper
(C) aluminium
(D) tungsten
SEMICONDUCTORS
1. Which of the following constitutes an active component.
(A) Semiconductor device
(B) Resistors
(C) Capacitors
(D) inductors
2. Which of the following is an active device?
(A) Transformer
(B) Silicon controlled rectifier
(C) Electric bulb
(D) Loud speaker
3. The process by which impurities are added to a pure semi-conductor is:
(A) Diffusing
(B) Drift
(C) Doping
(D) Mixing
4. Which of the following is a passive component?
(A) Semi-conductor device
(B) Vacuum tube device
(C) Capacitor
5. Which or the following is used as a passive component in electronic circuits?
(A) Tunnel diode
(B) Capacitor
(C) Transistor
(D) Vacuum diode
6. A Germanium atom contains
(A) Two electron orbits
(B) Three valence electrons
(C) Four protons
(D) Four valance electrons
7. If the conductivity of pure germanium is 1.54 siemens/meter, its resistivity in ohm-meter will be nearly
(A) 65
(C) 6.5
(B) 0.65
(D) 0.06
8. The type or atomic bonding most common in semi-conductor is
(A) Metallic
(B) Ionic
(C) Covalent
(D) Chemical
9. When an atom either gains or loses an electron, it is said to be
(A) Ionized
(B) Bonded
(C) Excited
(D) Stabilized
(E) An acceptor
10. The diameter of an atom is
(A) 10-6 meter
(B) 10-10 meter
(C) 10-15 meter.
(D) 10-21 meter
11. The atomic weight of an atom is determined by
(A) The number of protons
(B) The number of neutrons
(C) The number of protons and neutrons
(D) The number of electrons and protons
12. The number of in an atom is its
(A) Isotope number
(B) Atomic number
(C) Atomic weight
13. The maximum number of electrons in third orbit can be
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 18
14. Valence electrons are the
(A) loosely packed electrons
(B) mobile electrons
(C) electrons present in the outermost orbit
(D) electrons that do not carry any charge
15. Which of the following element has lowest atomic number?
(A) B
(B) Al
(C) Ga
(D) In
-------------------------------------------
16. Which of the following element does not occur in third group of the periodic table?
(A) lndium
(B) Helium
(C) Aluminum
(D) Boron
17. The atomic number of silicon is 14. It can be therefore concluded that
(A) a silicon atom contains 14 protons
(B) a silicon atom contains 14 neutrons
(C) a silicon atom contains 14 electrons
18. If the atomic number of germanium is 32, the number of electrons in the outermost shell will be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
19. Which of the following element does not have three valance electrons?
(A) Boron
(B) Aluminum
(C) Gallium
(D) Phosphorous
20. Which of the following element does not have five valance electrons?
(A) Phosphorous
(B) Arsenic
(C) Antimony
(D) Indium
21. Which of the following element has four valance electrons?
(A) Silicon
(B) Germanium-
22. The total energy of an electron in an atom will be maximum when it is
(A) closest to the nucleus
(B) In the even numbered orbit
(C) odd numbered orbit
(D) in an orbit farthest from the nucleus
23. If an electron moves through a potential difference of 500V, the energy possessed by it will be
(A) 500 ergs
(B) 500 joules
(C) 500 eV
(D) 500mV
24. One electron volt is equivalent to
(A) 1.6 x 10-10 joule
(B) 1.6 x 10-13 joule
(C) 1.6 X I0-16 joule
(D) 1.6 x 10-19 joule
25. The forbidden energy gap for silicon is
(A) 0.12 eV
(B) 1. l2eV
(C) 0.72 eV
(D) 7.2 eV
26. The forbidden energy gap for germanium is
(A) 0.12 eV
(B) 0.32 eV
(C) 0.72 eV
(D) 0.92 eV
27. Free electrons exist in
(A) First Band
(B) Second Band
(C) Third Band
(D) Conduction Band
28. The forbidden energy gap between the valance band and conduction band will be least in case of
(A) Metals
(B) Semi-conductors
(C) Insulators
29. The forbidden energy gap between the valance band and conduction band will be wide in case of
(A) Semi-conductors
(B) Metals
(C) Good conductors of electricity
(D) Insulators
30. A semiconductor in purest form is called
(A) Intrinsic semi-conductor
(B) Extrinsic semiconductor
(C) P-type semi-conductor
(D) N-type semi-conductor
31. At absolute zero temperature a semiconductor behaves like
(A) An insulator
(B) A super-conductor
(C) A good conductor
(D) A variable resistor
32. When atoms are held together by the sharing of valence electrons
(A) Each atom becomes free to move
(B) Neutrons start shifting
(C) They form a covalent bond
(D) Some of the electrons are lost
33. An electron in the conduction band
(A) Has higher energy than the electron in the valence band
(B) Has lower energy than the electron in the valence band
(C) Loses its charge easily
(D) Jumps to the top of the crystal
34. When an electron breaks a covalent bond and moves away
(A) A hole is created
(B) A proton is also lost
(C) Becomes an ion
(D) Rest of the electrons move at a faster rate
35. The resistivity of a semi-conductor
(A) Increases as the temperature increases
(B) Decreases as the temperature increases
(C) Remains constant even when temperature varies
36. Semi-conductors have
(A) Zero temperature coefficient of resistance
(B) Positive temperature coefficient of resistance
(C) Negative temperature coefficient of resistance
37. A doped semiconductor is called
(A) Impure semiconductor
(B) Dipole semiconductor
(C) Bipolar semiconductor
(D) Extrinsic semiconductor
38. Which of the following is donor impurity element?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Phosphorous
(D) Indium
39. Which of the following is an acceptor impurity element?
(A) Antimony
(B) Gallium
(C) Arsenic
(D) Phosphorous
40. All of the following elements have five valance electrons EXCEPT
(A) Antimony
(B) Arsenic
(C) Gallium
(D) Phosphorous
41. Which of the following results in the movement of a hole?
(A) Movement of neutrons
(B) Movement of protons
(C) A vacancy is filled by a valence electron from the neighboring atom
42. Addition of a small amount of antimony to germanium will result in
(A) Formation of P-Type semiconductor
(B) More free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(C) Antimony concentrating on the edges of the crystal
(D) Increased resistance
43. A donor type impurity must have
(A) No charge
(B) Negative or positive charge
(C) Only three valence electrons
(D) Only five valence electrons
44· A room temperature when a voltage is applied to an intrinsic semi-conductor
(A) Most of the electrons and holes move towards negative terminal
(B) Most of the electrons and holes move towards positive terminal
(C) Electrons move towards positive terminal and holes towards negative terminal
(D) Electrons move towards negative terminal and holes towards positive terminal
45. The energy of the atoms of a semi-conductor material is increased when
(A) Another semi-conductor material is brought closer to it
(B) An insulating material is brought close to it
(C) Temperature is lowered
(D) Temperature is increased
46. The Conduction band is
(A) Same as forbidden energy gap
(B) Generally located on the top of the crystal
(C) Generally located on the bottom of the crystal
(D) A range of energies corresponding to the energies of the free electrons
47. The forbidden energy gap in semi-conductors
(A) Is always zero
(B) Lies just below the valance band
(C) Lies between the valance band and the conduction band
(D) Lies just above the conduction band
48. Which of the following semiconductor is electrically positive?
(A) Intrinsic semi-conductor
(B) Extrinsic semi-conductor
(C) P-type semi-conductor
49. In N-type semi-conductor the concentration of minority carriers mainly depends on
(A) The number of acceptor atoms
(B) The number of donor atoms
(C) The extent of doping
(D) The temperature of the material
50. When a semi-conductor is doped, Its electrical conductivity
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases in the direct ratio of the doped material
(C) Decreases in the inverse ratio of the doped material
(D) Remains unaltered
51. When a normal atom loses an electron
(A) The atom loses one proton simultaneously
(B) Rest of the electrons move faster
(C) The atom becomes a positive ion
(D) The atom becomes a negative ion
52. · Resistivity is a property of a semi-conductor that depends on
(A) The atomic weight of the semi-conductor
(B) The atomic number of the semi-conductor
(C) The atomic nature of the semi-conductor
(D) The shape of the semi-conductor
53. An electrically neutral semi-conductor has
(A) No free charges
(B) No majority carriers
(C) No minority carriers
(D) Equal number of positive and negative charges
54. The electrons in the outermost orbit are called __________ electrons
(A) Valence
(B) Covalent
(C) Acceptor
(D) Donor
55. The semi-conductors have __________ temperature coefficient of resistance
(A) Zero
(B) Negative
(C) Positive
(D) Variable
56. The larger the orbit, the __________ is the energy of the electron
(A) Negligible
(B) Lower
(C) Greater
(D) Infinitely larger
57. In N-type semi-conductor free electrons are the _________ carriers
(A) Minority
(B) Majority
(C) Magnetic
(D) Neutral
58. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called
(A) Recombination
(B) Neutralization
(C) Restriking
(D) Zeroing
59. Excess minority carriers are the carriers that are
(A) In excess of the equilibrium number
(B) In excess of the number of majority carriers
(C) Availab1e in impurities only
(D) Thermally generated
60. A PN-junction offers
(A) High resistance in forward as well as reverse direction
(B) Low resistance in forward as well as reverse direction
(C) Conducts in forward direction only
(D) Conducts in reverse direction only
61. When a PN junction is unbiased, the junction current at equilibrium is
(A) Zero as no charges cross the junction
(B) Zero as equal number of carriers cross the barrier
(C) Mainly due to diffusion of majority carriers
(D) Mainly due to diffusion of minority carriers
62. At a PN-junction, the potential barrier is due to the charges on either side of the junction, which consists of
(A) Fixed donor and acceptor ions
(B) Majority carriers only
(C) Minority carriers only
(D) Both majority and minority carriers
63. In PN junction, the region containing the uncompensated acceptor and donor ions is called
(A) Transition zone
(B) Depletion region
(C) Neutral region
(D) Active region
64. A PN junction is said to be forward biased when
(A) Positive terminal of the battery is connected to P-side and the negative side to the N-side
(B) Positive terminal of the battery is connected to N-side and the negative side to the P-side
(C) N-side is connected directly to the P-side
(D) Junction is earthed
65. When PN-junction is in forward bias, by increasing the battery voltage
(A) Current through PN-junction reduces
(B) Current through PN-junction increases
(C) Circuit resistance increases
(D) None of the above happens
66. In a reverse biased P-N junction, the current through the junction increases abruptly at
(A) Zero voltage
(B) 1.2 v
(C) 0.72 v
(D) Breakdown voltage
67. The holes diffuse from P region to the N region in a PN-junction diode because
(A) There is greater concentration of holes in the P region as compared to N region
(B) There is greater concentration of holes in the N region as compared to P region
(C) The free electrons in the N region attract them
(D) Potential difference facilitates such transfer
68. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier offers opposition to
(A) Holes in P region only
(B) Free electrons in N-region only
(C) Majority carriers in both regions
(D) Majority as well as minority carriers in both regions
69. For a PN diode the number of minority carriers crossing the junction mainly depends on
(A) Forward bias voltage
(B) Potential barrier
(C) Rate of thermal generation of electron hole pairs
70. If too large current passes through the diode
(A) All electrons will leave
(B) All holes will freeze
(C) Excessive heat may damage the diode
(D) Diode will emit light
71. When reverse bias is applied to a Junction diode
(A) Minority carrier current is increased
(B) Majority Carrier current is increased
(C) Potential barrier is lowed
(D) Potential barrier is raised
72. For a PN-junction diode the current in reverse bias may be
(A) Few amperes
(B) Between 0.5 A and 1 A
(C) Few milli amperes
(D) Few micro or nano amperes
73. What happens when forward bias is applied to a junction diode?
(A) Majority carrier current is reduced to zero
(B) Minority carrier current is reduced to zero
(C) Potential barrier is increased
(D) Potential barrier is decreased
74. Under which of the following conditions avalanche breakdown in a semi-conductor diode occurs?
(A) When potential barrier is reduced to zero
(B) When reverse bias exceeds a certain value
(C) When forward bias exceeds a certain value
(D) When forward current exceeds a certain value
75. Which of the following rectifier needs four diodes?
(A) Half wave rectifier
(B) Center-tap full wave rectifier
(C) Bridge rectifier
76. The ripple factor for a half-wave rectifier is
(A) 2
(B) 1.21
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.45
77. The ripple factor for a full-wave rectifier is
(A) 1
(B) 0.96
(C) 0.64
(D) 0.482
78. Maximum rectification efficiency for a half-wave rectifier is
(A) 100%
(B) 88%
(C) 50%
(D) 40.6%
79. Maximum rectification efficiency for a full-wave rectifier is
(A) 100%
(B) 81.2%
(C) 66.6%
(D) 40.6%
80. A full wave bridge rectifier is supplied voltage at 50 Hz. The lowest ripple frequency will be
(A) 400 Hz
(B) 200 Hz
(C) 100 Hz
(D) 50 Hz
81. For signal diodes the PIV rating is usually in the range
(A) 1 V to 10 V
(B) 10 V to 30 V
(C) 30 V to 150 V
(D) 150 V to 400 V
82. The maximum forward current in case of signal diode is in the range of
(A) 1 A to 10 A
(B) 0.1 A to 1 A
(C) Few milli amperes
(D) Few nano amperes
83. Which of the following diode is designed to operate in the breakdown region?
(A) Signal diode
(B) Power diode
(C) Zener diode
84. Power diodes are generally
(A) Silicon diodes
(B) Germanium diodes
(C) Either of the above
85. Wiedemann-Franz law correlates
(A) Electrical and thermal conductivities
(B) Electron arrangement in shells
(C) Temperature and photo electric emission
86. In a half-wave rectifier, the load current flows
(A) Only for the positive half cycle of the input signal
(B) Only for the negative half cycle of the input signal
(C) For full cycle
(D) For less than fourth cycle
87. If 10 V is the peak voltage across the secondary of the transformer in a half wave rectifier (without any filter
circuit), then the maximum voltage on the reverse biased diode will be
(A) 20 V
(B) 14.14 V
(C) 10 V
(D) 7.8 V
88. In a Zener diode
(A) Forward voltage rating is high
(B) Negative resistance characteristics exist
(C) Sharp breakdown occurs at low reverse voltage
89. The DC output voltage from a power supply
(A) Increases with higher values of filter capacitance and decreases with more load current
(B) Decreases with higher values of filter capacitance and Increases with more load current
(C) Decreases with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current
(D) Increases with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current
90. With an AC input from 50 Hz power line, the ripple frequency is
(A) 50 Hz in the DC output of half wave as well as full wave rectifier
(B) 100 Hz in the DC output of half wave as well as full wave rectifier
(C) 50 Hz in the DC output of half wave and 100 Hz in the DC output of full wave rectifier
(D) 100 Hz in the DC output of half wave and 50 Hz in the DC output of full wave rectifier
91. Any semi-conductor material has a valance of electrons
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 3 or 5
92. In N-type semi-conductor
(A) Electrons are majority carriers while holes are minority carriers
(B) Electrons are minority carriers while holes are majority carriers
(C) Both electrons as well as holes are majority carriers
(D) Both electrons as well as holes are minority carriers
93. When holes leave the p-material to fill electrons in the n-material, the process is called
(A) Mixing
(B) Depletion
(C) Diffusion
(D) Doping
94. In case of Selenium; under the influence of varying light intensity
(A) emf is generated due to chemical reaction
(B) emf is generated due to physical reaction
(C) electrical conductivity· changes
(D) the number of electrons liberated varies
95. Diffusion current in a diode is caused by
(A) Chemical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Voltage
(D) Crystal formation
96. Depletion region in a PN diode is due to
(A) Reverse biasing
(B) Forward biasing
(C) An area created by crystal doping
(D) An area void of current carriers
97. Depletion region in a PN junction diode consists of
(A) Mobile donor ions
(B) Mobile acceptor ions
(C) Mobile donor and acceptor ions
(D) Majority carriers
98. The photoelectric current in amperes per watt of incident light depends on
(A) Frequency of incident light
(B) Intensity of incident light
(C) Frequency and intensity of incident light
(D) Frequency, wavelength and intensity of incident light
99. When a diode is forward biased
(A) Barrier potential increases
(B) Barrier potential decreases
(C) Majority current reduces
(D) Minority current reduces
100. As the temperature of a semi-conductor is reduced to absolute zero
(A) All electrons become free
(B) All electrons cease to move
(C) All valance electrons tend to remain in the valance band
(D) All valance electrons shift to forbidden gap
101. Which of the following elements belongs to the same group of periodic table as that of Germanium and Silicon?
(A) Carbon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Copper
(D) Gold
102. The crystal structure of silicon is
(A) Simple cubic
(B) Body central cubic
(C) Face centered cubic
(D) Diamond
103. Forbidden energy gap is highest for
(A) Germanium
(B) Silicon
(C) Gallium arsenide
(D) Same for all
104. Which of the following semi-conductor has the highest melting point?
(A) Germanium
(B) silicon
(C) Gallium arsenide
(D) Silicon carbide
105. The minimum charge carried by an ion is
(A) Zero
(B) Equal to the charge of an electron
(C) Equal to the charge of a pair of electrons
(D) Equal to the charge of electrons left in the atom
106. The electrons in an atom move in
(A) Straight line
(B) Circular orbits
(C) Elliptical orbits
107. The impurity added to extrinsic semi-conductor is of the order of
(A) 1 in 100
(B) 1 in 1000
(C) 1 in 100,0000
(D) 1 in 100,000,000
108. The mean lifetime of the minority carriers is in the range of a few
(A) Seconds
(B) Milliseconds
(C) Micro seconds
(D) Nano seconds
109. For insulators the energy gap is of the order of
(A) 0.1 eV
(B) 0.7 eV
(C) 1.1 to 1.2 eV
(D) 5 to 15 eV
110. Thermionic emission of electrons is due to
(A) Electromagnetic field
(B) Electrostatic field
(C) High temperature
(D) Photoelectric effect
111. The difference between a hole and electron is that a hole
(A) Always remains in the valance band
(B) Has no momentum
(C) Has no mass
(D) Has no inertia
TRANSISTORS
1. The advantage of transistor over vacuum tube is
(A) No heat is required
(B) Small size and light in weight
(C) Very low powet consumption
2. Aging effect exists in
(A) Vacuum tubes only
(B) Transistors only
(C) Both vacuum tubes as well as transistors
3. A collector collects
(A) Electrons from the base in case of PNP transistor
(B) Electrons from the emitter in case of PNP transistor
(C) Holes from the base in case of NPN transistor
(D) Holes from the base in case of PNP transistor
4. ln a PNP transistor, with normal bias
(A) The collector junction has negligible resistance
(B) Only holes cross the collector junction
(C) The collector-base junction is reverse biased and the emitter base junction is forward biased
(D) Only majority carriers cross the collector junction
5. A PNP transistor is made of
(A) Silicon
(B) Germanium
(C) Either silicon or germanium
6. In most transistors, the collector region is made physically larger than the emitter region
(A) For dissipating heat
(B) To distinguish it from other regions
(C) As it is sensitive to ultra-violet rays
(D) To reduce resistance in the path of flow of electrons
7. In a transistor which of the following region is very lightly doped and is very thin?
(A) Emitter
(B) Base
(C) Collector
8. In a NPN transistor the function of the emitter is
(A) To emit or inject holes into the collector
(B) To emit or inject electrons into the collector
(C) To emit or inject holes into the base
(D) To emit or inject electrons to the base
9. In a PNP. transistor with normal bias the emitter Junction
(A) Is always reverse biased
(B) Offers very high resistance
(C) Offers a low resistance ·
(D) Remains open
10. In a NPN transistor when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased, the transistor
will operate in
(A) Active region
(B) Saturation region
(C) Cut off region
(D) Inverted region
11. A transistor will operate in inverted region when
(A) Emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased
(B) Emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is forward biased
(C) Emitter junction as well as collector junction is forward biased
(D) Emitter junction as well as collector junction is reverse biased
12. In a PNP transistor, electrons flow
(A) Into the transistor at the collector only
(B) Into the transistor at the base and the collector leads
(C) Out of the transistor at base and collector leads
(D) Out of the transistor at base, collector as well as emitter leads
13. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) FET and junction transistor both are unipolar
(B) FET and junction transistor both are bipolar
(C) The FET is bipolar while junction transistors are unipolar
(D) The FET is unipolar while junction transistors are bipolar
14. Most small signal transistors are
(A) NPN, silicon, in a plastic package
(B) PNP, silicon, in a plastic package
(C) NPN, germanium in a metallic case
(D) PNP, germanium in a metallic case
15. A transistor may fail due to
(A) Open weld at the wire leads to the semi-conductor
(B) Short circuit caused by momentary over-loads
(C) Overheating due to circuit failures
16. The transistor is usually encapsulated in
(A) Graphite powder
(B) Enamel paint
(C) Epoxy resin
17. Arrow head on a transistor symbol indicates
(A) Direction of electron current in emitter
(B) Direction of hole current in emitter
(C) Diffusion current in emitter
(D) Drift current in emitter
18. Power transistors arc invariably provided with
(A) Soldered connections
(B) Heat sink
(C) Metallic casing
19. The heat sink disposes off heat mainly by
(A) Radiation
(B) Natural convection
(C) Forced convection
(D) Conduction
20. Largest current flow of a bipolar transistor occurs
(A) In emitter
(B) In base
(C) In collector
(D) Through emitter-collector
21. Conventional biasing of a bipolar transistor has'
(A) EB forward biased and CB forward biased.
(B) EB reverse biased and CB forward biased
(C) EB forward biased and CB reverse biased
(D) EB reverse biased and CB reverse biased
22. In a NPN transistor if the emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is also reverse biased the
transistor will operate in
(A) Active region
(B) Saturation region
(C) Cut-off region
(D) Inverted region
23. In a normally biased NPN transistor the main current crossing the collector junction is
(A) A drift current
(B) A hole current
(C) A diffusion current
(D) Same as the base current
24. A Diac is a semi-conductor device which acts as a
(A) 2 terminal unidirectional switch
(B) 2 terminal bidirectional switch
(C) 3 terminal bidirectional switch
(D) 4 terminal multidirectional switch
25. Which of the following is necessary for transistor action?
(A) The base region must be very wide
(B) The base region must be very narrow
(C) The base region must be made of some insulating material
(D) The collector region must be heavily doped
26. In a transistor current ICBO flows when
(A) Some DC voltage is applied in the reverse direction to the emitter junction with the collector open circuited
(B) Some DC voltage is applied in the forward direction to the collector junction with the emitter open circuited
(C) Some DC voltage is applied in the reverse direction to the collector junction with the - emitter open circuited
(D) Some DC voltage is applied in the forward direction to the emitter junction with the collector open circuited
27. A Triac is a semi-conductor device which acts as a
(A) 2 terminal unidirectional switch
(B) 2 terminal bidirectional switch
(C) 3 terminal bidirectional switch
(D) 4 terminal multidirectional switch
28. Which of the amplifier circuits using junction transistors has the best gain?
(A) Common emitter
(B) Common base
(C) Common collector
(D) All above has the same gain
29. Which circuit has its output signal from the emitter?
(A) Common base
(B) Common emitter
(C) Emitter follower
30. In a transistor with normal bias
(A) The emitter junction has a low resistance
(B) The emitter junction has a very high resistance
(C) The emitter junction supplies majority carriers into the base region
31. The current ICBO
(A) Increases with increase in temperature
(B) Is normally greater for silicon transistors than germanium transistors
(C) Mainly depends on the emitter base junction bias
(D) Depends largely on the emitter doping
32. The current ICBO flows in
(A) Base and emitter leads
(B) Base and collector leads
(C) Collector and emitter leads
(D) Collector, emitter and base lead
33. In a PNP junction transistor as compared to region the emitter region is more heavily doped so that
(A) Leakage current is minimized
(B) Recombination will be increased in the base region
(C) The flow across the base region is only because of electrons
(D) The flow across the base region is mainly because of holes
34. In a transistor leakage current mainly depends on
(A) Doping of base
(B) Size of emitter
(C) Rating of transistor
(D) Temperature
35. Thermal run away of a transistor occurs when
(A) Heat dissipation from transistor is excessive
(B) Transistor joints melt due to high temperature
(C) There is excessive leakage current due to temperature rise
36. The leakage current in CB configuration may be around
(A) Few micro amperes
(B) Few hundred micro amperes
(C) Few milliamperes
(D) Few hundred milliamperes
37. The input and output signals for CE amplifier are always
(A) Equal
(B) In phase
(C) Out of phase
(D) Complementary to each other
38. As compared to a CB amplifier a CE amplifier has
(A) Lower current amplification
(B) Higher current amplification
(C) Lower input resistance
(D) Higher input resistance
39. In a resistance loaded, RC coupled amplifier the DC component is blocked by
(A) Transistors
(B) CC
(C) RB
(D) RC
40. Which junction transistor is preferred for high input and low output impedance?
(A) Common Emitter
(B) Common Base
(C) Common Collector
41. Common base configuration is little used because
(A) It has low input impedance
(B) It has high input impedance
(C) It does not heat up
(D) It has very high gain
42. Common emitter transistor has
(A) High current and voltage gain
(B) Low current gain and low voltage gain
(C) High current gain and low voltage gain
(D) Low current and voltage gain;
43. Which of the following circuit would be preferred for a 455 kHz IF amplifier?
(A) Resistance loaded
(B) Double tuned transformer
(C) Video amplifier
(D) Class C
44. A FET has a gate source bias of -2V. The AC input signal is ± 1.2V. The class of operation will be
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) AB
45·For a transistor the normal collector voltage is 12 V. If actually it is found to be 28V, the trouble could be
(A) R L is open
(B) RE is open
(C) CE is shorted
(D) CE is open
46. The emitter bias largely depends on
(A) Gain
(B) Signal input
(C) IE
47. Emitter region in NPN transistor is more heavily doped than base region so that
(A) Flow across the base region will be mainly of holes
(B) Flow across the base region will be mainly of electrons
(C) Base current is low
(D) Base current is high
48. The leakage current in CE configuration may be around
(A) Few nano amperes
(B) Few microamperes
(C) Few hundred microamperes
(D) Few milliamperes
49. Which class of amplifiers operates with least distortion?
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
50. In an RC-coupled amplifier for improving the low frequency response
(A) Lower RL is provided
(B) More bias is used
(C) Low gain is provided
(D) Higher CC is used
51. Which of the following plot can be directly used to determine β?
(A) VCE versus IC for constant IB
(B) VBE versus IB for constant VCE
(C) VCB versus IC for constant IE
52. When a transistor is connected in common emitter mode, it will have
(A) Negligible input resistance and high output resistance
(B) High input resistance and low output resistance
(C) Medium input resistance and high output resistance
(D) Low input resistance as well as output resistance
(A) The emitter injects holes into the base region of the PNP transistor and electrons into the base region of the NPN
transistor
(B) The emitter injects electrons into the base region of the PNP transistor and holes into the base region of the NPN
transistor
(C) The emitter junction is reverse biased in the PNP transistor and forward biased in NPN transistor
54. A FET has
(A) Very high input resistance
(B) Very low input resistance
(C) Zero input resistance
(D) Forward biased PN junction
55. A quiescent state of a transistor implies
(A) Zero bias
(B) No output
(C) No distortion
(D) No input signals
56. A reverse bias saturation current for a particular PN junction is 1µA at 300K. Its DC slope resistance at l50mV
forward bias will be closer to
(A) 36 Ω
(B) 78 Ω
(C) 1240 Ω
(D) 106 Ω
57. Which of the following is not Provided in a PNP transistor?
(A) Base
(B) Collector
(C) Emitter
(D) Heater
58. Which of the following amplifier circuit using junction transistor has the best gain?
(A) Common base
(B) Common emitter
(C) Common collector
(D) All have the same gain
59. Each of two cascaded stages has a voltage gain of 30. The overall gain is
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 30
(D) 900
60. The Darlington pair consists of the following two stages
(A) CE and CC
(B) Both CE
(C) Both CC
(D) CE and CB
61. In amplifiers, the parasitic oscillations occur due to
(A) Transistor inter-junction capacitance
(B) Push pull operator
(C) Negative feedback
(D) Poor inter-stage coupling
62. Which of the following combinations has no phase inversion of the signal?
(A) Two CE stages
(B) CE and CC stages
(C) Three CE stages
(D) CE stage and emitter follower
63. The circuit consisting of two transistors connected in series with the DC supply voltage is called
(A) Push pull
(B) Differential pair
(C) Stacked V+
(D) Complementary symmetry
64. In oscillators class-C operation is preferred because it
(A) Is most efficient
(B) Has frequency stability
(C) Gives larger output
(D) It produces nearly square waves
65. Three cascaded stages have gains of 10, 20 and 25. The overall gain will be
(A) 10
(B) 55
(C) 500
(D) 5000
66. How many cascaded stages of CE amplifiers will result in polarity inversion of the input signal?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) None
67. Which coupling produces the minimum interference with frequency response?
(A) RC coupling
(B) Transformer coupling
(C) Direct coupling
(D) Impedance coupling
68. Complementary symmetry uses two transistors that are
(A) Both NPN
(B) Both PNP
(C) PNP and NPN
(D) Both FET
69. A bipolar transistor is a ___________ controlled deice wheras a EET is a _________ controlled device
(A) Current-voltage
(B) Current-current
(C) Voltage-current
(D) Voltage-voltage
70. Which of the following device acts as an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base . and emitter to
collector?
(A) UJT
(B) SCR
(C) Diac
(D) Triac
71. Which of the following is the fastest switching device?
(A) JFET
(B) BJT
(C) MOSFET
(D) Triode
72. Which of the following statement is false?
(A) The Zener diode is used as a constant voltage source
(B) The SCR is a silicon rectifier with a gate electrode to control when current flows from cathode to anode
(C) The gate electrode in the FET corresponds to the collector in a bipolar transistor
73. Which of the following is the point of reference in JFET?
(A) Drain
(B) Gate
(C) Source
74. A Junction Field Effect Transistor can operate in
(A) Depletion mode only
(B) Enhancement mode only
(C) Depletion and enhancement modes
(D) Neither depletion nor enhancement mode
75. The properties of JFET resemble those of
(A) Thermionic valves
(B) NPN transistor
(C) PNP transistor
(D) Unijunction transistor
76. The input gate current of FET is closer to
(A) Few amperes
(B) Few milliamperes
(C) few microamperes
(D) Negligibly smaller value
77. Which one of the following is a unipolar device?

(A) FET
(B) PN diode
(C) Zener diode
78. Which of the following statement is not true in case of FET?
(A) It has high input impedance
(B) It is less noisy than bipolar transistor
(C) It has large gain and bandwidth
79. When N-channel depletion type MOSFET is used in enhanced mode
(A) The gate will be positive
(B) The gate will be negative
(C) The gate will be at ground level
(D) The drain will be at ground level
80. In an amplifier the degree by which the output signal wave shape differs from the input signal wave shape is
known as
(A) Efficiency
(B) Distortion
(C) Output ratio
(D) Gain
81. ICBO current
(A) Is mall in silicon than in Ge transistors
(B) Increases with temperature
(C) Depends on base doping
(D) Depends on EB junction bias
82. The cascaded amplifier which is often used in ICs is
(A) Inductively coupled
(B) Capacitively coupled
(C) Direct coupled
(D) Transformer coupled
83. Which one of the following is expected to have the highest input impedance?
(A) MOSFET
(B) JFET amplifier
(C) CE bipolar transistor
(D) Common collector bipolar transistor
84. Highest operating frequency can be expected in case of
(A) Bipolar transistor
(B) JFET
(C) MOSFET
(D) All have nearly same frequency
Diodes
1. Which of the following device has characteristic close to that of an ideal voltage source?
(A) Zener diode
(B) Vacuum diode
(C) Crystal diode
2. Which of the following device has characteristics close to that of an ideal current source?
(A) Gas diode
(B) Crystal diode
(C) Transistor in CB mode
3. Which of the following material finds application in Light Emitting Diodes?
(A) Silicon
(B) Phosphorous
(C) Sulphur
(D) Gallium phosphide
4. Which of the following material is used for infrared LEDs?
(A) Gallium arsenide
(B) Gallium phosphide
(C) Silicon
5. A Zener diode
(A) Has a high forward-voltage rating
(B) Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse voltage
(C) Is useful as an amplifier
(D) Has a negative resistance
6. LEDs normally work on a voltage of
(A) 1 to2 V
(B) 10 to 20 V
(C) 50 to 60 V
(D) 100 to 250 V
7. The power consumption of LEDs may be of the order of
(A) S to 10 nano amperes
(B) 5 to 10 micro amperes
(C) 5 to 10 milli amperes
(D) 5 to 10 amperes
8. LEDs do not require
(A) Heating
(B) Warm up time
(C) both (A) and (B)
9. The conduction in a SCR is controlled by
(A) Gate
(B) Anode
(C) Cathode
10. When a SCR is conducting it has
(A) Infinitely large resistance
(B) Resistance of few megaohms
(C) Low resistance
(D) Zero resistance
11. The characteristics of a thyristor closely resemble to the characteristics of
(A) PN-junction
(B) Constant voltage Source
(C) Constant current source
(D) Thyratron gas tube
12. Which of the following is not a four-layer diode?
(A) SCR
(C) Thyristor
(B) Triac
(D) Diac
13. A triads like a
(A) Unidirectional SCR
(B) Bidirectional SCR
(C) NPN transistor
(D) PNP transistor
14. Which of the following device is bidirectional but without a gate?
(A) SCR
(B) Triac
(C) Diac
15. Which of the following device has an emitter and two connections to the base without a collector terminal?
(A) UJT
(B) Diac
(C) Triac
(D) SCR
16. A UJT is not used as
(A) Transistor amplifier
(B) Switching device
(C) Timing device
17. Which of the following device has negative resistance?
(A) Gas diode
(B) Vacuum diode
(C) Tunnel diode
18. A Tunnel diode is used for
(A) Very low frequencies
(B) 50 Hz
(C) HF
(D) Microwave frequencies
19. Which of the following uses two junctions of opposite polarities?
(A) Tunnel diode
(B) Zener diode
(C) Varistor
20. In a photo conductive diode
(A) Resistance decreases as light increases
(B) Resistance increases as light increases
(C) Resistance remains constant even when light varies
(D) Conductance decreases as light increases
21. In which of the following reverse voltage is used?
(A) Zener diode
(B) Varactor
(C) LED
22. The light Emitting Diode (LED)
(A) Is usually made from silicon
(B) Uses a reverse biased PN-junction
(C) Gives a light output which increase with increase in temperature
(D) Depends on the recombination of holes and electrons
23. ln a power supply, a shorted input capacitor is likely to result in
(A) Excessive hum
(B) Reduced voltage output
(C) No voltage output
24. The capacitance of a reverse biased PN-junction
(A) Increases as the reverse bias is decreased
(B) Increases as the reverse bias is increased
(C) Depends mainly on the reverse saturation current
(D) Makes the PN-junction more effective at high frequencies
25. A power supply with a DC output of 140 V has a 60Hz and ripple of 1.4 V. What is the percentage ripple?
(A) 0.1%
(B) 0.14%
(C) 1%
(D) 2.4%
26. PN-junction is heavily doped in case of
(A) PIN diodes
(B) Tunnel diode
(C) Gun diodes
27. The internal voltage drop in case of vacuum tube diode is of the order of
(A) 1 to 2 volts
(B) 2 to 5 volts
(C) 5 to 10 volts
(D) 10 to 20 volts
28. The internal voltage drop in case of Silicon diode is around
(A) 1 to 2 volts
(B) 2 to 5 volts
(C) 5 to 10 volts
(D) 10 to 20 volts
29. A semi-conductor diode when tested with ohmmeter gives low value of R in both directions, therefore it can be
concluded that
(A) The diode is shorted
(B) The diode is open
(C) The diode is satisfactory
(D) Nothing can be concluded on the basis of information provided
30. The depletion or space-charge region in a junction diode contains charges that are
(A) Mostly majority carriers
(B) Mostly minority carriers
(C) Mobile donor and acceptor ions
(D) Fixed donor and acceptor ions
31. As Compared to mercury arc rectifiers, metal rectifiers
(A) Can operate at high loads
(B) Can operate at high voltages
(C) Operate at low temperatures
(D) Give poor regulation
32. If the effective value of half-wave sine wave is 20. The average value of the wave will be
(A) 27.7
(B) 23.3
(C) 18.8
(D) 12.7
33. A 25 ohm resistor has an average power of 100 watts. The maximum value of current function if it is sinusoidal
will be
(A) 2.83 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 1.68 A
(D) 1.41 A
34. A Zener diode is used as a
(A) Shunt regulator
(B) Series regulator
(C) Either of (A) or (B)
(D) None or the above.
35. The DC output voltage drops from 48Vwith no load to 46V at full load. The percentage load regulation is
(A) 1.05%
(B) 2.1%
(C) 4.2%
(D) 8.4%
36. Excessive hum in a power supply could be due to
(A) Open filter choke
(B) Capacitor
(C) Defective rectifier
37. The RMS ripple voltage is 20mV for a 15V DC output. The percentage ripple factor will be
(A) 0.013%
(B) 0.066%
(C) 0.13%
(D) 1.3%~.
38. The DC output voltage is 40V at full load and 41V without any load current. The load regulation is
(A) 0.24%
(B) 0.48%
(C) 0.96%
(D) 2.4%
39. The gate is -5V and the anode voltage is 500V. It can be concluded that SCR is
(A) ON at full load
(B) ON at part load
(C) On at no load
(D) Off
40. For a SCR typical gate trigger voltage is
(A) 0.2 V
(B) 6 V
(C) 60 V
(D) 600 V
41. The voltage drop across a SCR in conduction state is about
(A) 100 V
(B) 1 V
(C) 30 v
(D) 1 µV
42. The breakdown voltage for a Diac is of the order of
(A) 0.3 V
(B) 3 V
(C) 30 V
(D) 300 V
43. Applying reverse bias to a P-N junction diode
(A) Lowers the Potential barrier
(B) Raises the potential barrier
(C) Greatly increases the minority carrier current
(D) Greatly increases the majority carrier current
OSCILLAORS
1. which of the following is the most stable oscillator?
(A) Weig bridge oscillator
(B) Hartley oscillator
(C) Colpits oscillator
(D) Crystal controlled oscillator
2. A Hartley oscillator circuit uses
(A) capacitive feedback
(B) a tapped inductor
(C) a tapped capacitor
(D) a tapped inductor for inductive feedback
3. An RC phase -shift oscillator will not produce
any oscillation until and unless the voltage
gain of its internal amplifier is
(A) unity
(B) less than unity
(C) around 3
(D) more than 29
4 for good stability, the timed circuit should
HAVE
(A) high Q
(B) low R
(C) low L
(D) low C
5. the varactor in a voltage controlled oscillator needs
(A) audio signal below 1000Hz
(B) reverse dc control voltage
(C) forward bias
(D) parallel capacitance more than 5 μF
6. the phase comparator in PLL circuit is used to provide
(A) one-half the crystal oscillator frequency
(B) RF output with audio modulation
(C) Dc control voltage
(D) Double crystal oscillator signal
7. which of the following oscillator can be expected to give highest Q-factor?
(A) Crystal controlled oscillator
(B) Tuned oscillator
(C) Wein bridge oscillator
(D) Colpitt’s oscillator
8. A “Beat Frequency “oscillator consists of
(A) A high Q inductor
(B) A low Q inductor
(C) A tube and RC network
(D) Two oscillators, with slightly different oscillating frequencies.
9. blocking oscillators are used as
(A) Abrupt pulse generators
(B) Low impedance switches
(C) High impedance switches and frequency dividers
10. in a practical oscillator Aβ is
(A) Slightly less than 1
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) Slightly greater than 1.
11. oscillator circuit
(A) Cannot be operated in class A condition
(B) Can be operated in class A condition to give sinusoidal waveform
(C) Can be operated in class A condition to give distorted waveform
(D) Can be operated in class A condition for better wave shape.
12. a phase shift oscillator consists of number of
(A) RC circuits
(B) RL circuits
(C) LC circuits
(D) RLC circuits
13. the loop gain in a phase shift oscillator is
(A) 45°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
14. a mono-stable multi-vibrator can be used to generate
(A) Pulse
(B) Sweep
(C) Sinusoidal
(D) Any of above
15. which of the following circuit can be used for converting a sine wave to a square wave?
(A) A Schmitt trigger
(B) A bi-stable multi-vibrator
(C) A stable multi-vibrator
16. which of the following step will help in the frequency stabilization of an oscillator?
(A) Use of a automatic biasing
(B) Use of a tuned circuit
(C) Controlling the gain
17. which oscillator incorporates two inter-dependent circuits in such a way that the output of each controls the
input of the other?
(A) Relaxation oscillator
(B) Feedback oscillator
(C) Low impedance oscillator
(D) Sine wave oscillator
18. under which of the following condition an oscillator can stop oscillating?
(A) Increase in transistor gain
(B) Reduction in transistor gain
(C) Elimination of triggered pulses
19. a typical frequency for a RC feedback oscillator is
(A) 1 kHz
(B) 100 MHz
(C) 1000 MHz
(D) 1 GHz
20. when a 6 MHz crystal is followed by a frequency Tripler, the output will be
(A) 2 MHz
(B) 6 MHz
(C) 18 MHz
(D) 54 MHz
21. a typical resonant frequency for a crystal oscillator is
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 327.5 Hz
(C) 3.275 KHz
(D) 3.275 MHz
22. typical Q for a crystal is
(A) 25
(B) 250
(C) 2500
(D) 25000
23. an oscillator using a capacitive voltage divider to provide feedback is
(A) Hartley
(B) Colpitts
(C) Multivibrator
(D) Armstrong
24. RF feedback oscillators are usually tuned by varying the
(A) Bias
(B) Supply voltage
(C) L or C
(D) Load impedance
25. the oscillator shown
(A) voltage controlled oscillator
(B) colpitts oscillator
(C) phase locked loop oscillator
(D Crystal oscillator
26. the oscillator with the best frequency stability and accuracy is
(A) Hartley oscillator
(B) Colpitts oscillator
(C) Tickler feedback oscillator
(D) Crystal controlled oscillator
27. which component is varied to tune the oscillator
(A) L1
(B) L2
(C) CE
(D) RE
28. in a free running mutivibrator each stage is cut-off for 1 μs . what is the oscillator frequency?
(A) 10MHz
(B) 5MHz
(C) 1MHz
(D) 0.5 MHz
29. to generate a 1 kHz note, the most suitable circuit is
(A) Hartley oscillator
(B) Colpitts oscillator
(C) Tuned – collector oscillator
(D) Wein bridge oscillator
30. when L is double and C is halved, the frequency is
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) One quarter
(D) Unchanged
31. positive feedback is the same as
(A) Frequency synthesis
(B) Negative feedback
(C) Degeneration
(D) Regeneration
32. an oscillator that uses a tapped coil in the LC tuned circuit is the the
(A) Pierce oscillator
(B) Armstrong oscillator
(C) Hartley oscillator
(D) Colpitts oscillator
33. oscillator have
(A) No feedback
(B) Negative feedback
(C) Positive feedback
(D) Either positive or negative feedback
34. what will be the frequency of a tuned RF feedback oscillator with 240 μH for L and 180 pF force?
(A) 7.657kHz
(B) 76.57kHz
(C) 765.7 kHz
(D) 7657 kHz
35. what value of L is needed with a C of 20 pF for an oscillatory frequency of 110.7 MHz?
(A) 0.001 μH
(B) 0.01 μH
(C) 0.1 μH
(D) 1 μH
36. the crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to
(A) Rigidity of crystal
(B) Size of crystal
(C) Structure of crystal
(D) High Q of the crystal
37. parasitic oscillators
(A) Are free from distortion
(B) Are unwanted oscillations created due to stay capacitances and inductances?
(C) Are mechanical oscillations of the equipment resulting it. either increase or reduction of oscillation
produced in a oscillator
(D) Are harmonic oscillators
38. a crystal oscillator is used because
(A) It gives high output voltage
(B) It works at high effiency
(C) The frequency of oscillations remains substantially constant
(D) It requires very low dc supply voltage
39. surface acoustic wave oscillators are suitable for
(A) Low frequency oscillations
(B) Low power oscillations
(C) Non-sinusoidal waveforms
(D) I-C applications
40. the value of L needed with C of 20 pF for an oscillator frequency of 110.7 MHz is
(A) O.1 μH
(B) 0.5 μH
(C) 1 μH
(D) 5 μH
41. A wein bridge oscillator has R1=R2 =220 kohm and C1=C2 =250pF. the frequency of oscillations will be nearly
(A) 0.89 kHz
(B) 1.89 kHz
(C) 2.89 kHz
(D) 3,89 kHz
42. spot the odd one out
(A) Quartz
(B) Stellite
(C) Rocket salt
(D) None
43. which of the following oscillator will be suitable for generating a 1 kHz frequency?
(A) Wein bridge oscillator
(B) Tuned collector oscillator
(C) Harley oscillator
(D) Colpitts oscillator
44. LC oscillators can be used to produce frequencies as high as
(A) 1 MHz
(B) 5 MHz
(C) 50 MHz
(D) 500 MHz
45. an oscillator using LC tuned circuit has L= 58.6 uH and C =300 pF. the frequency of oscillations will be nearly
(A) 12 kHz
(B) 120 KHz
(C) 1200 KHz
(D) 12000 kHz
46. which of following oscillator will be preferred for generating 1 MHz?
(A) Colpitts oscillator
(B) Wein bridge oscillator
(C) Phase shift oscillator
47. oscillators are widely used in
(A) Radio broadcasting
(B) Television broadcasting
(C) Radio and television receivers
48. A multivibrator produces
(A) Pure sine waves
(B) Distorted sine waves
(C) Square waves
(D) Sawtooth voltages
49. when positive feedback amplifier is used as oscillators, the condition Aβ=1 is knowns as
(A) Barkhasen criterion of oscillation
(B) Parkinson criterion of oscillation
(C) Positive criterion of oscillation
50. the requirement of an oscillator using positive feedback amplifier as an oscillator is that
(A) There must be positive feedback
(B) Initially the value of loop gain Aβ must be greater than unity
(C) After the desired level is reached the loop gain Aβ must decrease to unity
51. the main advantage of using crystal oscillators is
(A) Constant frequency of oscillations
(B) Suitability for low voltages
(C) High efficiency
(D) High output voltage
52. for oscillation to start, the loop gain Aβ of the oscillator must be
(A) Infinitely high
(B) More than one
(C) Exactly one
(D) Less than one
53. A tuned circuit used in colpitts oscillator is shown below. the frequency of oscillators will be
(A) 1 KHz
(B) 1 MHz
(C) 10 MHz
(D) 100 MHz
54. which of the following sinusoidal oscillator is preferred for microwave frequencies?
(A) Resonant circuit oscillators
(B) RC phase shift oscillators
(C) Negative resistance oscillators
Power electronics
1. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a
(A) Unijunction device
(B) Device with three junctions
(C) Device with four junctions
2. A thyristor is basically
(A) PNPN device
(B) A combination of diac and triac
(C) A set of SCRs
(D) A set of SCRs, diac and a triac
3. A PNPN device having two gates is
(A) Diac
(B) Triac
(C) SUS
(D) BCS
4. Which of the following device incorporates a terminal for synchronizing purposes?
(A) Diac
(B) Triac
(C) SUS
5. The advantage of thyristor over SCS is
(A) Slow switching time and large VH
(B) Slow switching time and smaller VH
(C) Faster switching time and smaller VH
(D) Faster switching time and large VH
6. A thyristor equivalent of a Thyratron tube is a
(A) Diac
(B) Triac
(C) Silicon controlled rectified SCR
7. A triac is a
(A) 2 terminal switch
(B) 2 terminal bilateral switch
(C) 3 terminal unilateral switch
(D) 3 terminal bidirectional switch
8. The triple frequency of a six-phase half wave rectifier for 220 V, 60 Hz input will be
(A) 2160 Hz
(B) 720 Hz
(C) 360 Hz
(D) 60 Hz
9. The minimum duration of pulse in a pulse triggering system for thyristor should be at least
(A) 10 µs
(B) 10 ms
(C) 30 ms
(D) 1 sec
10. As compared to oscillators, an inverter provides
(A) Low voltage output
(B) Low frequency output
(C) Distortion less output
(D) Noiseless output
11. During induction heating, the skin depth of penetration is proportional (f= frequency) to
(A) f
(B) f2
(C) 1/f
(D) 1/f 1/2
12. A device that cannot be triggered with voltage of either polarity is
(A) Diac
(B) Triac
(C) SCS
13. In a three-phase half wave rectifier, each diode conducts for a duration of
(A) 180o
(B) 120o
(C) 90o
(D) 60o
14. Which of the following finds applications in speed control of a dc motor?
(A) FET
(B) NPN transistor
(C) SCR
15. The ward-leonard system is used for controlling the speed of
(A) Dc motor
(B) Single phase ac motors
(C) Three phase motors
(D) Universal motors
16. A device that does not exhibit negative resistance characteristics is
(A) FET
(B) UJT
(C) Tunnel diode
(D) SCR
17. A triac
(A) Conduct when not triggered
(B) Conducts when not triggered in both directions
(C) Conducts when triggered in one direction
18. RC snubber circuit is used to limit the ratio of
(A) Rise of current in SCR
(B) Rise of voltage across SCR
(C) Conduction period
19. A free wheeling diode is connected across an inductive load is
(A) To restore conduction angle on phase
(B) to avoid negative reversal voltage drop
(C) To reduce the PRV
20. Equalizing circuits are provided across each SCR in series operation to provide uniform
(A) Current distribution
(B) Voltage distribution
(C) Firing of SCRs
21. The thyristor is tunned-off when the anode current fails below….
(A) Forward current
(B) Latching current
(C) Holding current
(D) Break over current
22. In a thyristor circuit, the angle of conduction is changed by changing, …
(A) Anode voltage
(B) Gate current
(C) Forward current
(D) Anode current
23. In single phase full wave controlled bridge rectifier, minimum output voltage is obtained air conduction angle, and
maximum at conduction angle
(A) 0o, 180o
(B) 180o, 0o
(C) 0o, 0o
(D) 180o, 180o
24. In a thyristor
(A) The holding current is greater than latching current
(B) The two currents are equal
(C) The latching current is about 3 times the holding current
25. The VI characteristics of UJT is
(A) Similar to CE with a linear and saturation region
(B) Similar to FET with a linear and pitch off region
(C) Similar to tunned diode in same respects
(D) Similar to pn junction diode in some respects
26. Chopper control for DC motor provides variation in
(A) Input voltage
(B) Frequency
(C) None of the above
(D) Current
27. In a thyristor the ratio of latching current to holding current is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
28. In a thyristor, dv/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(A) L across thyristor
(B) R across thyristor
(C) RC across thyristor
(D) RL across thyristor
29. In a thyristor di/dt protection is achieved through the use of
(A) L in series with thyristor
(B) R in series with thyristor
(C) RC in series with thyristor
(D) RL in series with thyristor
30. UJT when used for triggering an SCR, has waveform
(A) Sine wave
(B) Square wave
(C) Saw tooth wave
(D) Trapezoidal
31. A resistor connected across the gate and cathode of a thyristor increase its
(A) Turn off time
(B) di/dt rating
(C) Noise immunity
(D) Holding current
(E) both C & D
32. Inverter convert
(A) dc into ac
(B) ac into ac
(C) dc into dc
(D) ac to dc
33. In series connected thyristors,
(A) L, is used for tuning out junction capacitance
(B) L & C is used for filtering out the ripple
(C) R, C is called a snubber Ckt
(D) L is intended to increase di/dt at switch on
34. When a thyristor and transistor as a switch are compared, true statement is
(A) Thyristor require turn off circuit while transistors do not
(B) The voltage drop of thyristor is less than transistor
(C) Thyristor requires a continuous gats current rent
(D) Transistor does not draw continuously base current
35. In a dc chopper, the waveform for input and output voltages are respectively
(A) Both discontinuously
(B) Both continuous
(C) Continuous, discontinuous
(D) Discontinuous, continuous
36. In a dc chopper, per unit apple is maximum when duty cycle 𝛼 is
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.7
37. In a single-phase semi converter, for continuous our conduction, free wheeling diode conducts for
(A) π
(B) α
(C) π+α
(D) π-α
38. if firing angle in a SCR rectifier is decreased output is
(A) increased
(B) maximum
(C) decreased
(D) unaffected
39. A SCR is a …... switch
(A) One directional
(B) Two directional
(C) Three directional
(D) Four directional
40. Comparing a triac and SCR
(A) Both are unidirectional devices
(B) Triac requires more current for turn on than SCR at a particular voltage
(C) A triac has less time for turn off than SCR
(D) Both are bidirectional devices
41. In a three phase halfwave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum ac voltage is
(A) 1
(B) 1.169
(C) 0.827
(D) 1.571
42. Each diode in 3 phase, half wave diode rectifier conducts for
(A) 30o
(B) 60o
(C) 90o
(D) 120o
43. In a 3-phase half wave rectifier circuit, each diode is subjected to a PIV of
(A) Vm
(B) √2 Vm
(C) √3 Vm
(D) 2 Vm
44. In a 3-phase semi converter, for firing angle less than or equal to 60o, wheeling diode conducts for
(A) Zero degree
(B) 30o
(C) 45o
(D) 75o
45. In a 3-phase full converter, 6 SCRs are fired at an interval of
(A) 0o
(B) 60o
(C) 120o
(D) 180o
46. In a single phase full converter, for load current I ripple free, average thyristor current is
(A) ¼ I
(B) ½ I
(C) ¾ I
(D) I
47. In single phase full converter, no of SCRs conducting during overlap
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
DC GENERATORS
1. In a lap winding the number of brushes is equal to
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) Number of poles
(D) 2 × number of poles
2. The rotor of dc machines in usually support in
(A) Bush bearing
(B) Ball or roller bearings
(C) Plumber blocks
(D) Magnetic bearings
3. Each commutator segment is connected to the armature conductor by means of
(A) Insulator
(B) Dielectric
(C) Copper lug
(D) Resistance wire
4. A two-layer lap wound 4 pole generators with 16 coils will have a pole pitch of
(A) 32
(B) 16
(C) 8
(D) 4
5. Dummy coil in generator are provided
(A) To reduce eddy current losses
(B) To enhance flux density
(C) To amplify voltage
(D) To mechanically balance the rotor
6. In a dc machine if P is the number of poles, N is the armature speed in r.m.s, then the frequency of magnetic
reversals will be
(A) PN/60
(B) PN/100
(C) PN/120
(D) PN/180
7. For parallel operation the generators normally preferred are
(A) Series generators
(B) Shunt generators
(C) Compound generators
(D) Series and shunt generators
8. The residual magnetism of a dc shunt generator can be regained by
(A) Connecting the shunt field to a battery
(B) Running a generator on no load for sometimes
(C) Earthing the shunt field
(D) Reversing the direction of the generator
9. Which winding on dc generators is preferred for generating large currents?
(A) Lap winding
(B) Progressive wave winding
(C) Reprogressive wave winding
10. Load saturation characteristics of a dc generator gives relation between
(A) E and If
(B) V and If
(C) V and Ia
(D) E and Ia
11. In an ideal dc generator, the regulation is
(A) High
(B) Low
(C) Zero
(D) Positive
12. The decrease in terminal voltage of a shunt generator is due to
(A) Armature resistance
(B) Armature reactance
(C) Armature leakage
13. In a dc generator, effect of armature reaction on the main pole flux is to
(A) Increase it
(B) Reverse it
(C) Decrease it
14. Maximum efficiency in machines occurs when
(A) Machine is running at no load
(B) Core gets fully saturated
(C) Constant losses= losses proportional to square of the current
(D) Constant losses = variable losses
15. Maximum power output is given by a machine at an efficiency of
(A) O%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
16. Equalizer rings are required in a lap winding dc machine
(A) A decrease armature reaction
(B) To improve commutation
(C) To filter out harmonics
(D) To prevent flow of circulating currents through the brushes
17. For a fixed number of poles and armature conductors, which winding give higher emf?
(A) Lap winding
(B) Wave winding
(C) Any of the above
18. For wave winding, the average pitch must be
(A) Odd
(B) Even
(C) Odd or even
19. If “a” is the degree of multiplicity and P is the number of poles, the number of parallel paths in a wave winding
will be
(A) 2
(B) 2 a
(C) a P
(D) 2 a P
20. Hysteresis loss in a dc machine depends on
(A) Volume and grade of iron
(B) Maximum value of flux density
(C) Frequency of magnitude reversals
(D) All the above
21. The effect of iron losses on dc machines is
(A) Loss of efficiency
(B) Excessive heating of core
(C) A and B above
22. Out of the following losses in dc machines, which one has the highest proportions?
(A) Armature copper loss
(B) Field copper loss
(C) Hysteresis loss
(D) Eddy current loss
24. Out of the following losses in dc machines which one has the least proportions?
(C) Magnetic losses
(D) Mechanical losses
25. Which loss in dc generator significantly varies with the load current?
(C) Windage loss
26. Out of the following losses in a dc generator, which one has the least proportion?
(A) Copper losses
(B) Hysteresis losses
(C) Eddy current losses
(D) Windage losses
27. A properly design dc generator can have an overall efficiency of
(A) 99%
(B) 95%
(C) 85%
(D) 65%
28. Which loss will increase rapidly as compared to others when the number of magnetic reversals is increased?
(A) Friction loss
(B) Copper loss
(C) Hysteresis loss
(D) eddy current loss
29. For a shunt generator, which loss is considered as constant?
(A) Copper loss
(B) Eddy current loss
(C) Hysteresis loss
30. For reducing the hysteresis loss in a dc generator
(A) Armature core should be laminated
(B) Stator should be laminated
(C) Armature core material should have low hysteresis coefficient
(D) Armature core material should have high hysteresis coefficient
31. When B is the maximum flux density, then eddy current loss varies as
(A) B
(B) B 1.6
(C) B 2
(D) B 3.2
32. The armature voltage control is considered as suitable, in case the dc machine is driven at
(A) Constant torque
(B) Constant speed
(C) Constant load
(D) Constant current
33. Two dc generators have similar characteristic. The essential condition for stable parallel operation of these two
generators is that they should have
(A) Same kilowatt output ratings
(B) Same percentage regulation
(C) Same speeds at no load as well as full loads
(D) Same drooping voltage characteristics
34. While pole flux remains constant, if the speed of a shunt wound dc generator is doubled, its generated emf
(A) Will be doubled
(B) Will be halved
(C) Will remain unaltered
(D) Will tends to decrease slightly
35. As a result of armature reaction, the total mutual air gap flux in a dc generator is approximately
(A) 5%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
36. Interpoles are usually wound with
(A) Very fine gauge copper wire
(B) Heavy gauge copper wire
(C) Insulation material
(D) Interpoles do not need winding
37. Which of the following is not the function of the interpoles in dc generators?
(A) Neutralization of reactance voltage
(B) Make commutation sparkless
(C) Cool armature by ventilating air
(D) Neutralize cross magnetizing effects of an armature reaction
38. In dc generators the change in voltage when the load is reduced from rated value to zero. Expressed as a
percentage of
the rated load voltage is known as
(A) Loss factor
(B) External efficiency
(C) Armature reactance
(D) Regulation
39. In a dc generator a interpole field coils is connected
(A) In series with armature winding
(B) In parallel with armature winding
(C) In series with load
(D) In parallel with load
40. In a dc generator the polarity of the interpole is
(A) Always N
(B) Always S
(C) Same as the polarity of the main pole that follows in the direction of rotation
(D) Same as the polarity of the main pole that proceeds in the direction of rotation
41. While a dc generator is operating at constant speed, variable load, which loss is likely to vary significantly
(A) Windage loss
(B) Bearing friction loss
(C) Eddy current loss
(D) Copper loss
42. In a duplex winding for a 4-pole machine, the number of parallel paths not will be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 15
43. In dc generator
(A) External characteristics = magnetization characteristic – armature reaction
(B) External characteristics = magnetization characteristics – armature reaction – ohmic drop
(C) External characteristics = magnetization characteristics – armature reaction
(D) External characteristics = magnetization characteristics – armature reaction + ohmic drop
44. Which generator cannot start it there is residual magnetism?
(A) Separately excited generator
(B) Series generator
(C) Shunt generator
45. The direction of rotation of a shunt generator can be reversed by interchanging
(A) The supply terminal
(B) The polarity of the field winding
(C) The polarity of armature and field winding
46. Equalizer rings in a lap wound dc generators are used to
(A) Provide mechanical balance
(B) Reduce load on bearings
(C) Avoid noise developed in the machine
(D) Avoid unequal distribution of current at the brushes thereby helping to get sparkles commutation
47. Hysteresis loss in a dc shunt generator
(A) Can be minimized by laminating the armature
(B) Varies as the inverse of flux density
(C) Varies as 1.6 power flux density
(D) Depends only on the lamination thickness
48. The critical resistance of the dc generator refers to the resistance of
(A) Armature
(B) Load
(C) Field
(D) Brushes
49. In a dc generator if field winding attains the critical resistance
(A) Machine will generate maximum voltage
(B) Machine will generate maximum power
(C) The voltage generated will be zero
(D) Field winding will burn
50. Overall efficiency of a well-designed generator may be expected to be around
(A) 90 to 95 percent
(B) 80 to 85 percent
(C) 70 to 75 percent
(D) 60 to 65 percent
51. The condition for maximum efficiency in case of dc generator is
(A) Variable loss = 1/constant loss
(B) Variable loss = constant loss
(C) Variable loss = 2 × constant loss
(D) Variable loss = ½ × constant loss
52. A dc generator running at fixed speed and with fixed shunt field resistance has
(A) Short circuit current is equal to the full load current
(B) Short circuit current is equal to the maximum load current that it can feed
(C) Short circuit current is less than the maximum load current that it can feed
(D) Short circuit current is more than the maximum load current that it can feed
53. In a dc machine, the angle between the stator and rotor field is
(A) 0
(B) 90
(C) 180
(D) Dependent upon the load
54. In a level compound generator, the terminal voltage at half full-load is
(A) Same as no load voltage
(B) More than no load voltage
(C) Less than no load voltage
(D) Same as full load voltage
55. In a generator, the windage loss is proportional to
(A) Supply voltage
(B) Square of the supply current
(C) Square of armature speed
(D) Flux density
56. When a field resistance of a dc shunt generator is increased beyond its critical value, the generator
(A) Winding may burn
(B) Power output may exceed the rated power
(C) Will not build up
(D) Will start hunting
57. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole dc generator provided with duplex lap winding will be
(A) 12
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 2
58. When two shunt generators are operating in parallel, the easiest way to shift load from one generator to other is
(A) To use equalizer connections
(B) To adjust speeds in proportion to loads
(C) To adjust their field rheostats
(D) To insert resistance in their armature circuits
59. The number of armature parallel paths in 12 pole dc generator provided with triplex lap winding will be
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36
60. In a dc generator the brushes are always placed along
(A) Geometrical neutral axis (GNA)
(B) Magnetic neutral axis (MNA)
(C) Bisector of GNA and MNA
(D) There is no hard and fast rule for this
61. If two generators are running in parallel and field of one of the generators is weakened too much, then
(A) It will run as a motor in the same direction
(B) It will run as a motor in the reverse direction
(C) It will take major share of the total load
(D) It will not take any load
62. In a dc generator, the brushes remain in contact with conductors which
(A) Lie under north pole
(B) Lie under south pole
(C) Lie in the interpole
(D) There is no hard and fast rule for this
63. Among the series and shunt generators which generator has the better regulation
(A) Series generator
(B) Shunt generator
(C) Both have identical regulation
64. The armature reaction of an unsaturated dc machine is
(A) Non-magnetizing
(B) Magnetizing
(C) Demagnetizing
(D) Cross- magnetizing
65. A generator is said to be flat compounded when
(A) The voltage remains, constant irrespective of load on the generator
(B) The voltage produced is in proportion to the load on the generator
(C) The generator is capable of producing higher voltage at light loads
(D) The generator is capable of producing voltage more than the rated voltage
66. Iron losses in a dc machine takes place in
(A) Yoke
(B) Commutator
(C) Main body
(D) Armature rotor
67. Eddy current loss in a dc shunt generator
(A) Varies inversely as the square of the lamination thickness
(B) Varies inversely as the square of the flux density
(C) Occurs in magnetic as well as non-magnetic conductor materials
(D) Is independent of the rotor speed
68. A dc shunt generator remained inoperative for long time as a result of which residual magnetism was lost. The
residual magnetism can be restored by
(A) Operating the generator on load for sometime
(B) By earthing the shunt field
(C) By connecting the shunt field of other generator
(D) By connecting the shunt field to a battery
69. The change in the speed of a dc generator due to increased load is corrected by
(A) Increasing armature resistance
(B) Increasing input power of the prime mover
(C) Increasing armature cooling
(D) Increasing terminal voltage
70. The polarity of a dc generator can be reversed by
(A) Increasing field current
(B) Reversing the field current
(C) Reversing the field current and also the direction of rotation
71. In a dc generator sparking between brushes and commutator surface ma be due to
(A) Over commutation
(B) Under commutation
(C) Too rapid reversal of current
72. In a dc generator rapid brushes wear may be due to
(A) Rough commutator surface
(B) Severe sparking
(C) Imperfect contact with commutator
73. Which of the following is closed to the armature circuit resistance of a dc generator?
(A) 1 ohm
(B) 200 ohms
(C) 1000 ohms
(D) 20000 ohms
74. The voltage at the terminal of a dc sense generator running at rated rpm and no load will be
(A) More than rated voltage
(B) Full rated voltage
(C) A very small voltage
(D) Zero
75. Dc machines are generally designed for maximum efficiency
(A) Around full load
(B) At 66 2/3 % load
(C) At 50% load
(D) At all load
76. A dc machine is fitted with both interpole winding and a compensating winding. These two windings with respect
to the armature circuit will be
(A) Series
(B) Parallel
(C) Series parallel
77. Over or under compounding of dc generator is obtained by
(A) Shunting more or less current from the series field
(B) Shunting more or less current from the shunt field
(C) Connecting it a long shunt
(D) Connecting it a short shunt
78. The magnetic field which initially induced armature current in a self-excited generator is caused by
(A) Permanent magnet
(B) Residual magnetism
(C) An external dc source
(D) Rotation of the armature
79. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two
(A) Bipole generators
(B) Shunt generators
(C) Series generators
(D) Compound
80. In order to ascertain whether a generator is lap or wave wound, on the basis of visual observation of the
armature, one should observe
(A) The connections to field winding
(B) The connections to commutator
(C) The connection to the brushes
(D) The direction of the end connections
81. When a shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the series field and the armature, such a
connection is knowns as
(A) Cumulative compounding
(B) Differential compounding
(C) Long shunt
(D) Short shut
82. A self-excited shunt generator fails to excite because the residual magnetism has destroyed, in order to revive
the machine one should
(A) Connect the armature to a ac source
(B) Connect the filed to a ac source
(C) Excite the field for a few minutes with a battery
(D) Excite the armature for a few minutes with a battery
83. Two generators having series excitation are connected in parallel. If equalizer bar is not used
(A) One of the generator may stop
(B) One of the generators may get reversed
(C) Both generators may start hunting
(D) Generator with lower shunt resistance will share more load
84. If two compound interpole dc generators are worked in parallel the equalizing bar must be connected to
(A) Series field only
(B) Interpole field only
(C) Function of series and interpole fields
85. A dc over-compound generator is supplying power to an infinite bus. If the prime mover is accidentally cut off, the
dc machine will
(A) Stop running
(B) Run as cumulatively compounded motor in reverse direction
(C) Rus as differentially compounded motor in reverse direction
(D) Rus as differentially compounded motor in same direction
86. The type of dc generator used for arc welding purposes is a
(B) Shunt generator
(C) Cumulatively compounded generator
(D) Differentially compounded generator
87. A generator may loose residual magnetism due to
(A) Varying loads
(B) Over-excitation
(C) Vibrations
(D) Heating
88. Which of the following is not a cross field machine?
(A) Level compound generator with inter-poles
(B) Amplidyne
(C) Rosenberg dynamo
(D) Metadyne
89. In case of cross-field machines the amplification ratio may be of the order
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 1000
(D) 10,000
90. The major application of cross field machines is in
(A) Battery charging
(B) Fluctuating loads
(C) Emergency peak loads
(D) Control systems
91. Compensating winding in amplidyne is provided to
(A) Regulate the load
(B) Minimize the sparking at commutator
(C) Reduce magnetizing effect of armature reaction on the control winding flux
(D) Reduce winding temperature
92. For a 6-pole wave wound dc generator the number of brushes will be
(A) 12
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
93. Dummy coil in a dc generator is provided to reduce
(A) Mechanical unbalance
(C) Armature reaction
(D) Tendency for reversal
94. Drop in speed of a dc due to increased in load can be compensated by
(A) Increasing input to the prime mover
(B) Reducing load voltage
(C) Cooling the armature
(D) Increasing armature resistance
95. When P is the number of poles in a lap wound dc generator, the number brushes will be
(A) 2P
(B) P
(C) (2P+2)
(D) P/2
96. In case of a 4-pole lap wound 32 coil dc generator the pole pitch will be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 32
97. Two dc shunt generators are operating in parallel. The easiest way to shift load from one generator to the other
axis
(A) by adjusting equalizer connection
(B) by adjusting speed governors
(C) By reducing armature resistance
(D) By adjusting field rheostats
98. For a generator if constant losses are equal to variable losses, the efficiency of the generator will be
(A) 100%
(B) 90%
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
99. Electromagnetic torque and speed are in opposite directions in case of
(A) Shunt generators
(B) Shunt motors
(C) Series motors
100. The generated emf and current are in the same direction in case of
(A) Series motors
(B) Shunt motors
(C) Dc generators
101. Hysteresis losses in a dc machine are given by B 1.6fV, where V stands for
(A) Voltage generated
(B) Peripheral velocity
(C) Linear velocity of conductors
(D) Volume of iron part
Dc motor
1. The fully load current of a 20HP. 500 V dc motor will be closer to
(A) 100 A
(B) 60 A
(C) 35 A
(D) 75 A
2. The speed of a dc motor may be varied by varying
(A) Field current
(B) Applied voltage
(C) Resistance in series with armature
3. In dc motors, the conditions for maximum power is
(A) Supply voltage= 1/2 x back emf
(B) Supply voltage=√2 x back emf
(C) Back emf = 2 x supply voltage
(D) Back emf = ½ x supply voltage
4. If conditions for maximum power for a dc motor are established, the efficiency of the motor will be
(A) 100%
(B) 90 to 95%
(C) 81%
(D) Less than 50%
5. The speed of a dc motor is
(A) Always constant
(B) Directly proportional to back emf
(C) Directly proportional to flux
(D) Inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux
6. The ratio of starting torque to fully load torque is least in case of
(A) Shunt motors
(B) Series motors
(C) Compound motors
(D) None of above
7. Which of the following is not necessarily the advantage of dc motors over ac motors?
(A) High starting torque
(B) Wide speed range
(C) Better speed control
(D) Low cost
8. Which motor will have least percentage increase of input current for the same percentage increase in torque?
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(C) Separately excited motor
(D) Cumulatively compound motors
9. The mechanical power developed by a dc motor is maximum when the ratio of back emf/applied voltage is
(A) 1.0
(B) 3.0
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.7
10. The speed of a series wound dc motor
(A) Can be controlled by shunt field regulator
(B) Cannot be controlled by diverter
(C) Increases as flux decreases
(D) Increase as armature circuit resistance increase
11. Following controls are considered for dc motors?
I control of flux
II armature resistance control
III supply voltage control
Which of the above controls play significant role in the speed control of dc motors?
(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
12. The speed regulation of a dc motor is
(A) Highest speed/lowest speed
(B) No load speed/ full load speed
(C) Full load speed /no load speed – full load speed
(D) No load speed – Full load speed / full load speed
13. A dc motor having full load speed of 800 and speed regulation of 8% will have no load speed of
(A) 864 rpm
(B) 832 rpm
(C) 768 rpm
(D) 736 rpm
14. In a dc series motor, shaft torque is less than the armature torque due to
(A) Stray losses
(B) Eddy current losses
(C) Hysteresis losses
15. Dc motor with self-loading properties is
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(C) Cumulatively compound motor
(D) Differential compound motor
16. The type of dc motor control preferred for applications where unusually wide and very sensitive speed control is
required will be
(A) Armature control
(B) Ward-Leonard control
(C) Voltage control
(D) Flux control
17. When two dc motors operate in series
(A) Torque is half produced by motors when in parallel
(B) Torque is double of that produced by motors when in parallel
(C) Torque is four time that produced by motors when in parallel
(D) Torque is eight times that produced by motors when In parallel
18. If the flux of dc motor approaches zero
(A) Its speed will approach zero
(B) Its speed will remain unchanged
(C) The motor will stop
(D) The motor will tend to run at infinite speed
19. If the applied voltage of a dc shunt motor is halved with the load torque doubled, the armature current will be
(A) Unaltered
(B) Zero
(C) Doubled
(D) Halved
20. Change in speed of motor, under ward Leonard control occurs due to change in
(A) Armature voltage of dc motor
(B) Armature current of dc motor
(C) Field excitation of dc motor
(D) Supply voltage
21. Speed control by ward Leonard method is available
(A) In one direction only
(B) In both directions
(C) Above rated speed
(D) Below rated speed
22. For which application a dc motor is preferred over an ac motor?
(A) Low speed operation
(B) High speed operation
(C) Variable speed operation
(D) Fixed speed operation
23. In a dc shunt motor if the supply voltage is reduce by 10%, which of the following will increase ?
(A) Starting torque
(B) Full load current
(C) Full load speed
24. The maximum speed ratio obtainable in a Ward Leonard control, the dc motor is
(A) 250:1
(B) 25:1
(C) 5:1
(D) 2:1
25. In Ward Leonard control, the dc motor is
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(C) Compound motor
(D) Separately excited motor
26. In Ward Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
(A) Residual magnetism of the generator
(B) Core losses of motor
(C) Mechanical losses of the motor and generator together
27. The starting resistance of a dc motor is usually
(A) Infinitely large
(B) Very large
(C) Around 100 ohms
(D) Low
28. A dc shunt motor is running at light load, what will happen if the field winding gets opened?
(A) Motor will stop
(B) Motor will burn
(C) Motor will make noise
(D) Motor will pick up high speed
29. In base of dc shunt motor as the load is increased the speed of the motor
(A) Increases lightly
(B) Remain unaltered
(C) Reduced slightly
(D) Increases in proportion to the increase a load
30. Regenerative braking on shunt motors is used when
(A) The load variable
(B) The load is constantly decreasing
(C) The load has overhauling characteristics
(D) The load also acts as a braking force
31. In rheostastic braking for dc series motors
(A) A motor is run at reduced speed
(B) Motor is reversed in direction
(C) Motor is run as a generator
(D) None
32. Hopkinson’s test for dc motors
(A) Both motors are run as generators
(B) Both machines are mechanically coupled
(C) Both motors run at their respective rated speed
(D) Speeds of the motors are separately controlled
33. A 230 v dc series motor is connected to 230 V ac supply, then
(A) It will run smoothly
(B) It will stop
(C) It will burn out
(D) It will run with less efficiency and high sparks
34. A dc series motor
(A) Should always be started on load
(B) Always runs at constant speed
(C) Is not suitable for high starting torque
(D) May ‘run away’ if the field gets opened
35. Which dc motor has approximately constant speed?

(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
36. Which motor will have highest percentage increase of the input current. For the same percentage increase in
torque?
(A) Series motor
(B) Shunt motor
(D) All will have same percentage increase
37. Which of the following methods is most effective in finding out the no load losses in large dc shunt motors?
(A) Block rotor test
(B) Swinburne’s test
(C) Hopkinson’s test
(D) Leonard test
38. The retardation test in case of shunt motors and generator is used to determine
(A) Friction losses
(B) Eddy current losses
(C) Copper losses
(D) Stray losses
39. The back emf of a dc motor depends on
(A) Field flux
(B) Shape of conductors
(C) Type of slip rings
(D) Brush material
40. A series motor is never started without some mechanical load on it because
(A) At no load a series motor develops infinite speed
(B) At no load, losses in a series motor are high
(C) Load on the motor acts as a brake
(D) At no load motor gives vicious sparking
41. The airgap between stator and armature of electric motor is kept small in order to
(A) Provide adequate air for cooling the rotor winding
(B) Facilitate high speed operation without vibrations
(C) Reduced noise
(D) Provide stronger magnetic field
42. Small dc motors upto 5 HP usually have
(A) 2 poles
(B) 4 poles
(C) 6 poles
(D) 8 poles
43. A dc generator can be termed as
(A) Power pump
(B) Prime mover
(C) Rotating amplifier
(D) Power line
44. A dc shunt motor has rated rpm of 480.certain industrial application requires this motor to run at 540 rpm for
sometime. which speed control will be desirable
(A) Ward Leonard control
(B) Armature current control
(C) Field resistance control
(D) It is not possible to run the motor at more than the rated rpm
45. The supply terminals for a dc shunt motor are reversed. What will be effect on the motor?
(A) It will run as a dc generator
(B) It will run in reverse direction
(C) It will stop
(D) It will burn
46. What will happen if the back emf of a dc motor suddenly vanishes
(A) The motor will run faster than the rated value
(B) The motor will star hunting
(C) The efficiency of motor will rise abruptly
(D) The motor will burn
47. Which test can be used to determine the no load losses of a shunt motor?
(A) Retardation test
(B) Hopkinson’s test
(C) Swinburne’s test
(D) Brake test
48. Which of the following test can be used to measure stray losses?
(A) Brake test
(B) Swinburne’s test
(C) Running down test
(D) Field’s test
49. Which of the following tests on dc machines need minimum of two machines?
(A) Retardation test
(B) Back to back test
(D) Brake test
50. A brake test is usually restricted to
(A) High speed motors
(B) Variable speed motors
(C) Open frame type motors
(D) Small horse power motors
51. In Swinburne’s test the no load power input to the armature supplies which of the following
(A) Iron losses in core
(B) Friction and windage losses
(C) Armature copper losses
52. Which of the following is an assumption in the Swinburne’s test?
(A) Mechanical losses vary directly as the rotor speed
(B) Decrease in flux due to increase in shunt resistance by heating is negligible
(C) Windage losses remain constant at a particular speed
53. Hopkinson’s test is conducted at
(A) Full load
(B) Part load
(C) Low load
(D) No load
54. Which of the following test can be conducted on all types of dc machines?
(A) Brake test
(B) Field’s test
(D) Running down test
55. Which of the following test can be conducted on other than shunt machines?
(A) Swinburne’s test
(B) Retardation test
(C) Field’s test
(D) Back to back test
56. In case of shunt motor if the supply voltage is increased by 20%, which of the following will decrease?
(A) Starting torque
(B) Full load speed
(C) Full load current
57. In a dc motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(A) Armature winding
(B) Field winding
(C) Commutator
(D) Slip rings
58. A dc shunt motor has external resistance R1 in the field circuit and R2 in the armature circuit. the starting
armature
current for the motor will be minimum when
(A) R1 is minimum and R2 is maximum
(B) R1 is maximum and R2 is minimum
(C) R1 and R2 both are minimum
(D) R1 and R2 both are maximum
59. In the dc motor, speed control by varying the armature circuit resistance provides a
(A) Constant power drive
(B) Constant torque drove
(C) Variable torque drive
(D) Variable power drive
60. In a dc shunt motor speed control by the variation of the field flux will give
(A) Constant torque drive
(B) Constant power drive
(C) Variable power drive
(D) Variable torque drive
61. Two dc series motors are coupled. One motor is run as generator and the other as motor, the friction losses of the
two
machines will be equal when
(A) Both operate at same voltage
(B) Both have same back emf
(C) Both have same speed
(D) Both have same excitation
62. Two series motors are mechanically coupled, one machine in run as motor and the other as generator. The iron
and
friction losses of the machines will be identical when
(A) Their speeds are identical
(B) Their speeds and excitations are identical
(C) Their speeds are equal and back emf are half the supply voltage
(D) Their ratings and armature sizes are identical
63. In series -parallel control of dc series motors the torque in series arrangement is
(A) Same as torque in parallel arrangement
(B) Half of torque in parallel arrangement
(C) One fourth of torque in parallel arrangement
(D) Four times the torque in parallel arrangement
64. Speed control of a cumulatively compounded dc motor can be effected through
(A) Change of armature resistance
(B) Change of armature voltage
(C) Change of field resistance
65. The starter for a dc motor also provides protection to the motor against damage
(A) Due to short circuits in the equipment
(B) From long-term over loads
(C) From excessive starting currents
66. The brush voltage drop in dc motors is usually of the order of
(A) 2 V
(B) 20 V
(C) 50 V
(D) 100 V
67. In case the starting resistance of a series motor is short-circuited, the motor will
(A) Burn out
(B) Not start
(C) Run at very high rpm
(D) Run will excessive noise
68. The speed of a dc shunt motor can be controlled by
(A) Changing the field resistance
(B) Changing the terminal voltage applied to the armature
(C) Inserting a resistor in series with the armature circuit
(D) Any of above
69. When the direction of power flow reverse a differentially compounded motor becomes
(A) A differentially compounded generator
(B) A cumulatively compounded generator
(C) Shunt motor
(D) A series motor
70. In a permanent magnet dc motor which method of speed control cannot be used ?
(A) Armature voltage variation
(B) Armature resistance control
(C) Varying the field current
71. When the direction of power flow reverses a cumulatively compounded motor become
(A) A differentially compounded generator
(B) A cumulatively compounded generator
(C) A shunt generator
(D) A series generator
72. Frog-leg winding is
(A) Same as simplex winding
(B) Same as duplex winding
(C) Combined lap and wave winding on a single rotor
(D) Duplex wave winding on a single rotor
73. The function of a field regulator for a compound motors is to
(A) Demagnetize the magnetic field partially
(B) Limit the armature current
(C) Control the flux
(D) Increase the armature resistance
74. The electromagnetic torque and speed are in same direction in case of
(A) Dc generators
(B) Dc motors
(C) Both dc generators as well as dc motors
75. The generated emf and the current are in the opposite direction in case of
(A) Dc motors
(B) Dc generators
(C) Both dc motors as well as dc generators
(D) Neither dc motors nor dc generators
76. Eddy current losses in a dc machine are given by B2f2I2V2 where V stands for
(A) Voltage generated
(B) Peripheral velocity
(C) Linear velocity of conductors
(D) Volume of iron part
76. The starting resistor is connected in
(A) Series with the field winding
(B) Parallel across the field winding
(C) Parallel across the armature
(D) Series with the armature
77. In case a compound motor is started with an open series field
(A) The fuse will blow off
(B) The motor will not start
(C) The motor will start with jerk
(D) The motor will run with vibrations and noise
78. Which test can be used for estimating no load losses in a large dc shunt motors?
(A) Hopkinson’s test
(B) Swinburn test
(C) Leonard test
(D) Block rotor test
79. Which losses can be determined by performing the retardation test?
(A) Copper losses
(B) Stray losses
(C) Friction losses
(D) Eddy current losses
80. The function of the starter for a dc motor is
(A) To limit the starting current
(B) To limit the starting voltage
(C) To increase field resistance
(D) To reduce armature resistance
81. If the speed of a shunt motor is to be controlled between zero and normal running speed N. the most practical
way to achieve this would be to insert a resistance of suitable value in
(A) Parallel with the field
(B) Series with the field
(C) Parallel with the armature
(D) Series with the armature
82. During the normal operation of a series motor, of the field circuit suddenly opens the motors
(A) Speed will increase
(B) Speed will drop
(C) Will stop
(D) Will continue to run
83. The direction of rotation of a compound dc motor can be effectively reversed by interchanging
(A) Shunt field connections
(B) Series field connections
(C) Armature connections
(D) Line leads
84. A dc motor can be easily identified by
(A) Yoke
(B) Size of conductor
(C) Commutator
(D) Windings
85. In a compound dc motor, the shunt field winding as compared to series field winding will have
(A) More turns and a smaller cross-section of wire
(B) Less turn and a large cross-section of wire
(C) More turns and large cross-section of wire
(D) Less turns and a smaller cross-section of wire
86. A large shunt motor should be started preferably using
(A) A compensator
(B) A strong field
(C) A weak field
87. The factor connected with a dc motor are
I. Armature current
II. Flux per pole
III. Speed
The torque developed by a dc motor is dependent upon
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
88. Which of the following loss of motor decreases with increase in load?
(A) Core loss
(B) Friction and windage loss
(C) Brush contact loss
89. The amount of flux leakage will depend on the
(A) Flux density employed in core and teeth
(B) Length of airgap
(C) Shape of magnet core
90. The direction of rotation of a cumulatively compound dc motor can be revered by reversing the connection to
the
(A) Shunt field
(B) Series field
(C) Armature
91. In which of the following test only one motor is required?
(A) Hopkinson’s test
(B) Field’s test
(C) Brake test
92. In field test for series motor one motor drives the other machine as
(B) Separately excited generator
(C) Differentially compound generator
(D) Cumulatively compound generator
93. In field test of two series motors are connected in series so as to
(A) Make iron losses of both machine equal
(B) Copper losses of both machines equal
(C) Total losses of both machines equal
(D) Mechanical losses of both machines equal
94. A dc series motor has magnetizing with negligible armature resistance, the motor speed will be
(A) Directly proportional to load torque T
(B) Inversely proportional to load torque T
(C) Directly proportional to square root of T
(D) Inversely proportional to square root of T
95. Compensating winding is provided in a dc motor
(A) To increase main filed ampere-turns
(B) To prevent large speed drop
(C) To prevent commutator flash -over upon sudden change in load
(D) To achieve good commutation
96. A dc series motor is not at no load because
(A) It will stall
(B) It will draw a large current
(C) It will draw a large current and run at excessive high speed
(D) It will run at dangerously high speed
97. In Hopkinson’s test on two same dc motors
(A) Iron losses are equal
(B) Iron losses m motoring machine is more than in the generating machine
(C) Iron losses in generating machine is more than in the motoring machine
(D) None of above
Synchronous Generator
1. In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in
(A) armature resistance only
(B) armature resistance and leakage reactance
(C) armature resistance, leakage reactance and armature reaction
(D) armature resistance, leakage reactance, armature reaction and earth connections.
2. The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator, depends on
(A) power factor of the load
(B) load current
(C) power factor x load current
(D) power factor x (load current)2
3. In an alternator, at lagging power factor, the generated voltage per phase, as compared to that at unity power
factor
(A) must be same as terminal voltage
(B) must be less than the terminal voltage
(C) must be more than the terminal voltage
(D) must be 1.41 time the terminal voltage.
4. The power factor of an alternator depends on
(A) Load
(B) Speed of rotor
(C) Core losses
(D) Armature losses.
5. Which kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators which arc designed to run at high speed?
(A) Salient pole type
(B) Non-salient pole type
6. Salient poles are generally used on
(A) high speed prime movers only
(B) medium speed prime movers only
(C) low speed prime movers only
(D) low and medium speed prime movers.
7. The frequency of voltage generated in an alternator depends on
(A) number of poles
(B) rotative speed
(C) number of poles and rotative speed
(D) number of poles, rotative speed and type of winding.
8. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating at 250 rpm is
(A) 60 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 25 Hz
(D) 16 2/3 Hz.
9. An alternator is generating power at 210 V per phase while running at 1500 rpm. If the need of the alternator drops
to 1000 rpm, the generated voltage per phase will be
(A) 180 V
(B) 150 V
(C) 140 V
(D) 105 V.
10. A 10 pole AC generator rotates at 1200 rpm. The frequency of AC voltage in cycles per second will be
(A)120
(B) 110
(C) 100
(D) 50.
11. The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six-pole synchronous
alternator is
(A)360
(B)720
(C) 1080
(D)2160
12. Fleming's left-hand rule may be applied to an electric generator to find out
(A) direction of rotor rotation
(B) polarity of induced emf
(C) direction of induced emf
(D) direction of magnetic field.
13. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed, then the
(A) reactive component of the output is changed
(B) active component of the output is changed
(C) power factor of the load remains constant
(D) power factor of the load reduces.
14. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
(A) unity power factor
(B) leading power factor
(C) lagging power factor
(D) lagging to leading power factor.
15. When an alternator is running on no load the power supplied by the prime mover is mainly consumed
(A) to meet iron losses
(B) to meet copper losses
(C) to meet all no-load losses
(D) to produce induced emf in armature winding.
16. As the speed of an alternator increases
(A) the frequency increases
(B) the frequency decreases
(C) the frequency remains constant but power factor decreases
17. For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity
(A) the armature flux will have square waveform
(B) the armature flux will be demagnetising
(C) the armature flux will be cross-magnetising
(D) the armature flux will reduce to zero.
18. The driving power from the prime mover driving the alternator is lost but the alternator remains connected to the
supply network and the field supply also remains on. The alternator will
(A) get burnt
(B) behave as an induction motor but will rotate in the opposite direction
(C) behave as a synchronous motor and will rotate in the same direction
(D) behave as a synchronous motor but will rotate in a reverse direction to that corresponding to
generator action.
19. If the input of the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed, then
(A) the active component of the output is changed
(B) the reactive component of the output is changed
(C) power factor of the load remains constant
(D) power factor of the load changes from lagging to leading.
20. For 50 Hz system the maximum speed of an alternator can be
(A) approximately 3600 rpm
(B) approximately 3000 rpm
(C) 3600 rpm
(D) 3000 rpm.
21. Voltage characteristic of an alternator is shown in figure. Which curve represents the characteristics for leading
power factor?
Synchronous Generator MCQ No 21

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D.
22. In the above figure, the characteristic for unity power factor is represented by the curve maked
(A) A
(B) B
(C)C
(D) D
Questions 23 to 26 refer to the following data:
In a 50 kVA, star connected 440 V, 4-phase 50 Hz alternator, the effective armature resistance is 0.25 ohm per phase.
The synchronous reactance is 3.2 ohm per phase and leakage reactance is 0.5 ohm per phase.
23. Full load output current at unity power factor will be
(A) 65.6 A
(B) 55.4 A
(C) 45.6 A
(D) 35.4 A.
24. Full load line voltage will be
(A) 500 V
(B) 471 V
(C) 450 V
(D) 435 V.
25. No load line voltage will be
(A) 600 V
(B) 599 V
(C)592V
(D) 580 V.
26. Percentage regulation of the alternator is approximately
(A) 55%
(B) 45%
(C) 35%
(D) 25%.
27. In order that two alternators be put in parallel, which of the following factors should be identical for both?
(A) Voltage
(B) Frequency
(C) Phase sequence
(D) All of the above.
28. When two alternators are running in parallel, their RKVA load share is changed by changing their ................ while
their kW load share is changed by changing their ..............
(A) excitation, driving torque
(B) driving torque, excitation
(C) excitation, excitation
(D) driving torque, driving torque.
29. Two-alternators are running in parallel. If the driving force of both the alternators is changed, this will result in
change is
(A) frequency
(B) back emf
(C) generated voltage
30. A three phase alternator has a phase sequence of RYB for its three output voltages. In case the field current is
reversed, the phase sequence will become
(A) RBY
(B) RYB
(C) YRB
31. The armature reaction of an alternator influences
(A) windage losses
(B) operating speed
(C) generated voltage per phase
(D) waveform of voltage generated.
32. For the same power rating, a lower voltage alternator will be
(A) more efficient
(B) larger in size
(C) operating at high rpm
(D) more costly
33. An alternator is supplying 10A to an inductive load at 220 V, while running at 1000 rpm. Now if the speed of the
alternator is reduced to 750 rpm but the field current remains unchanged, the load current will become
(A) 18 A
(B) 13.3 A
(C) 10 A
(D) 7.5 A.
34. Dampers in a large generator
(A) increase stability
(B) reduce voltage fluctuations
(C) reduce frequency fluctuations.
35. An alternator is rated for 75 kW at 0.8 power factor. It means that
(A) alternator has 4 poles
(B) alternator can supply 75 kW at 0.8 power factor
(C) alternator can supply power only to loads having power factor 0.8 only
(D) the peak efficiency of alternator occurs only at 75 kW load having 0.8 lagging power factor.
36. The regulation of an alternator is
(A) the reduction in terminal voltage when alternator is loaded
(B) the variation of terminal voltage under the conditions of maximum and minimum excitation
(C) the increase in terminal voltage when load is thrown off
(D) the change in terminal voltage from lagging power factor to leading power factor.
37. A magnetization curve represents the relationship between
(A) reactive and non-reactive components of voltage
(B) exciting currents and terminal voltage
(C) power factor and terminal voltage
(D) magnetic flux and armature current.
38. In an alternator if the armature reaction produces demagnetisation of the main field, the power factor should be
(A) Zero, lagging load
(B) Zero, leading load
(C) Unity.
39. In an alternator if the armature reaction produces magnetisation of the main field the power factor should be
(A) Zero, lagging load
(B) Zero, leading load
(C) Unity
40. When an alternator is supplying unity power factor load, the armature reaction will produce
(A) magnetisation of the main field
(B) demagnetisation of the main field
(C) distortion of the main field.
41. An alternator has full load regulation of 4% when the power factor of the load is 0.8 lagging while alternator runs
at 1500 rpm. The full load regulation of 1400 rpm for 0.8 pf lagging load will be
(A) 15/14 x 4 percent
(B) 14/15 x 4 percent
(C) 4 percent
(D) Depends on other factors also.
42. The Poitier’s triangle separates the
(A) iron losses and copper losses
(B) field mmf and armature mmf
(C) stator voltage and rotor voltage
(D) armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf.
43. In the Poitier’s triangle, the Potier reactance drop per phase is 22 volts per phase at 88 amperes per phase. The
Potier's reactance per phase is
(A) 0.22
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.30
(D) 0.44.
44. Two alternators are running in parallel. The excitation of one of the alternator is increased. The result will be
(A) machine with excess excitation will burn
(B) both machines will start vibrating
(C) power output will decrease
(D) wattless component will change.
45. The power output of an alternators is 100 kW. In order that the tangent of pf angle may be 0.8 lagging, the KVAR
rating must be
(A) 80 cosφ KVAR
(B) 80 sin φ KVAR
(C) 80 KVAR
(D) -80 KVAR
46. The power output of an alternator is 40 kW and KVAR component is - 25. What will be the value of tanφ (φ being
the power factor angle)?
(A) 0.625 lagging
(B) 0.625 leading
(C) 0.375 lagging
(D) 0.375 leading.
47. When short pitch coils of 160 are used in an alternator, which harmonic component will not be present in the
output emf?
(A) third
(B) fifth
(C) seventh
(D) ninth.
48. A 120 MW turbo alternator is supplying power to 80 MW load at p.f. lagging. Suddenly the steam supply to the
turbine is cut off and the alternator remains connected to the supply network and the field supply also remains on.
What will happen to the alternator?
(A) The stator winding of the alternator will get burnt
(B) The rotor winding of the alternator will get burnt
(C) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the same direction
(D) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the opposite direction.
49. The figure shows the characteristics of an alternator. Which curve represents synchronous impedance?
Synchronous Generator MCQ No 49
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
50. In the above figure (Figure of Question 49) which curve represents short circuit?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
51. In the above figure which curve represents open circuit voltage?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
52. For a peripheral speed of 314 m/s, a 2-pole cylindrical machine will have maximum diameter of
(A) 255 cm
(B) 235 cm
(C) 200 cm
(D) 170 cm.
53. The rotor of the salient pole alternator has 24 poles. The number of cycles of emf in one revolution would be
(A) 24
(B) 12
(C) 6
(D) 4.
54. Two alternators A and B are sharing an inductive load equally. If the excitation of alternator A is increased
(A) alternator B will deliver more current and alternator A will deliver less current
(B) alternator B will deliver less current and alternator A will deliver more current
(C) both will continue to share load equally
(D) both will deliver more current.
55. Desirable feature for the parallel operation of two alternators is
(A) both should have same resistance
(B) both should have same reactance
(C) both should have less of resistance as compared to synchronous reactance
(D) both should have more of resistance as compared to synchronous reactance.
56. Alternators used in aircraft systems usually have frequency of
(A) 25 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 100 Hz
(D) 400 Hz.
57. High frequency on aircraft alternators are selected in order to
(A) free the systems from external disturbance
(B) compensate for high speeds
(C) compensate for high altitudes
(D) reduce the bulk.
58. A 20 pole ac generator rotates at 600 rpm. The periodic time of current in seconds per cycle is
(A) 0.009
(B) 0.004
(C) 0.008
(D) 0.01.
59. What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators?
(A) salient pole type
(B) non-salient pole type
(C) both (A) and (B) above
60. The synchronizing power developed in one of the alternators, when two alternators are running in parallel, will
load the same alternator in which it is developed and reduce its speed
(A) True
(B) False
61. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then the
(A) reactive component of the output is changed
(B) active component of the output is changed
(C) power factor of load remains constant.
62. If two machines are running in synchronism and the voltage of one machine is suddenly increased
(A) the machines will burn
(B) both machines will stop
(C) synchronizing torque will be produced to restore further synchronism.
63. In an alternator, at 0.8 lagging power factor, the generated voltage per phase is 240 V to give a rated terminated
voltage ' V '. If the power factor of load increases to unity, the generated voltage per phase must be
(A) 260 V
(B) 250 V
(C) 240 V
(D) 225 V.
64. The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is
(A) reduce noise
(B) reduced windage loss
(C) adoptability to low and medium speed operation
(D) reduce bearing loads and noise.
65. Magnetisation curves for no load and full load unity power factor are shown in figure below. Which is the
magnetisation curve for full load 0.8 power factor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
66. At a particular instant a turbo alternator is generating 80 MW at 0.8 power factor lagging. Now if the steam supply
valve to the steam turbine is further opened and the excitation is not changed
(A) the speed of the alternator will increase but kW delivered will remain unchanged
(B) the speed of the alternator will increase and kW delivered will also increase
(C) the speed of the alternator will remain unchanged but it can meet more kW demand
(D) the speed of the alternator will remain unchanged but it will deliver more kVA.
67. Two alternators A and B are sharing a resistive load (p.f. = 1) equally. Now if the excitation of alternator A is
increased
(A) alternator A will become lagging and alternator B will become leading
(B) alternator A will become leading and alternator B will become lagging
(C) both alternators will continue to operate on unity power factor
(D) both alternators will operate on lagging power factor
(E) both alternators will operate on leading power factor.
68. The advantage of providing damper winding in alternators is
(A) elimination of harmonic effects
(B) provide a low resistance path for the currents due to unbalancing of voltage
(C) oscillations are provided when two alternators operate in parallel
69. When two alternators are running in exactly synchronism, the synchronizing power will be
(A) zero
(B) sum of the output of two
(C) unity
(D) 0.707.
Questions 70 to 72 refer to the figure given below:
70. Load characteristic curves for an alternator are shown. The curves are drawn for 0.8 pf lagging, 0.8 p.f. leading, 0.7
p.f. leading and 0.9 p.f. lagging. Which curve represents the characteristics for 0.8 p.f. leading?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
71. Which curve represents the data for 0.8 p.f. lagging?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
72. Which curve represents the data for 0.9 p.f. lagging?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
73. The balanced short circuit current of a three-phase alternator is 25 amperes at 1500 rpm. For the same field
current, the balanced short current at 1400 rpm will be
(A)18 A
(B) 27 A
(C) 20 A
(D) 20*(2)1/2A
74. A three phase alternator has a phase sequence of RYB for its three output voltages, for clockwise rotation. Now if
the alternator is rotated anticlockwise, the phase sequence will be
(A) RYB
(B) RBY
(C) BYR
75. In a synchronous machine, if the field flux axis is ahead of the armature field axis, in the direction of rotation, the
machine working as
(A) asynchronous motor
(B) asynchronous generator
(C) synchronous motor
(D) synchronous generator.
76. In synchronous alternator, which of the following coils will have emf closer to sine waveform?
(A) concentrated winding in full pitch coils
(B) concentrated winding in short pitch coils
(C) distributed winding in full pitch coils
(D) distributed winding in short pitch coils.
77. An alternator has rated field current of 4 A. The alternator develops 180 V while drawing a field current of 2 A at
750 rpm. If the field current is made 4 A at 750 rpm generated voltage could be
(A) 400 V
(B) 380 V
(C) 60V
(D) 330 V.
78. The armature reaction of an alternator will be completely magnetizing in case the load power factor is
(A) unity
(B) 0.707
(C) zero lagging
(D) zero loading.
79. Which of the following is not an integral part of synchronous generator system?
(A) prime mover
(B) distribution transformer
(C) excitation system
(D) protection system.
80. For turbo generators the range of excitation voltage is
(A) 10 to 20 V
(B) 30 to 100 V
(C) 100 to 800 V
(D) 1000 to 1800 V.
81. In case of low speed hydrogenators, the short circuit ratio is usually
(A) 0.1 to 0.5
(B) 0.5 to 0.6
(C) 0.6 to 1.0
(D) 1.0 to 1.5.
82. The permissible duration for which a generator of rated frequency 50 Hz can run at 46 Hz is
(A) zero
(B) one cycle
(C) one second
(D) one minute.
83. The permissible duration in supply. frequency is
(A) ± 2 %
(B) ± 5 %
(C) ± 10 %
(D) ± 25 %.
84. The regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative in case of
(A) high speed alternators
(B) slow speed alternators
(C) lagging power factor of the load
(D) leading power factor of the load.
Questions 85 to 88 refer to the data given below:
A phase, 50 Hz, 6600 V, alternator is rated at 6600 kW at 0.8 power factor and a full load efficiency of 90%. 85. kVA is
rating of the alternator is
(A) 750 kVA
(B) 7500 kVA
(C) 75000 kVA
(D) 750000 kVA.
86. The current rating of the alternator is
(A) 65.63 A
(B) 656.3 A
(C) 6563 A
(D) 65630 A.
87. The input to the alternator is
(A) 666.6 kW
(B) 6666 kW
(C) 66660 kW
(D) 666,600 kW.
88. If the input. to an alternator remains unaltered, but excitation is changed then which of the following will not
change?
(A) kVA output
(B) kW output
(C) power factor
89. Which of the following method is likely to give the voltage regulation more than the actual value?
(A) Synchronous reactance method
(B) MMF method
(C) Zero power factor method
90. The effect of cross magnetization in an alternator field is to make the output
(A) true sinusoidal
(B) non-sinusoidal
(C) harmonic free
91. In order to reduce the harmonics in the emf generated in an alternator
(A) slots are skewed
(B) salient pole tips are chamfered
(C) winding is well distributed
92. The maximum power in a synchronous machine is obtained when the load angle is
(A) 0°
(B) 85°
(C) 120°
(D) 135°
93. The emf generated due to nth harmonic component of flux in an alternator will be
(A) n times the fundamental emf
(B) same as fundamental emf
(C) less than the value of fundamental emf.
94. Synchronizing torque comes into operation under all of the following cases EXCEPT
(A) phase difference between two voltages
(B) frequency difference between two voltages
(C) voltage difference between two voltages
(D) reduction in exciting current in one of the alternators.
95. Unbalanced 3-phase stator currents cause
(A) double frequency currents in the rotor
(B) healing of rotor
(C) vibrations
96. In large generators protection provided against external faults is
(A) biased differential protection
(B) sensitive earth fault protection
(C) inter-turn fault protection
97. Pitch factor is the ratio of the emfs of
(A) short pitch coil to full pitch coil
(B) full pitch winding to concentrated winding
(C) full pitch winding to short pitch winding
(D) distributed winding to full pitch winding.
98. In an alternator if the winding is short pitched by 50 electrical degrees, its pitch factor will be
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.866
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.50.
99. The Potier's triangle separates
(A) stator losses and rotor losses
(B) fixed losses and variable losses
(C) armature voltage and field voltage
(D) armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf.
100. If a single-phase alternator has 8 slots per pole uniformly speed, but the winding is arranged with the middle two
left empty, the breadth coefficient will be
(A) 0.99
(B) 0.88
(C) 0.67
(D) 0.53.
101. Two alternators are running in parallel. If the field of one of the alternator is adjusted, it will
(A) reduce its speed
(B) change its load
(C) change its power factor
(D) change its frequency.
102. A generator is operating by itself supplying the system loads. The reactive power supplied by the generator will
(A) depend on prime mover rpm
(B) depend on type of insulation used
(C) depend on the amount demanded by the load
(D) depend on inter-coil inductance.
103. Which of the following part plays important role in over speed protection of a generator?
(A) Over current relay
(B) Alarm
(C) Differential protection
(D) Governor.
104. Which type of protection is provided on a generator to protect against stator insulation failure?
(A) Differential protection
(B) Thermocouple actuated alarm
(C) Over current relay
(D) Reverse power relay.
105. Which relays comes into operation in the event of the failure of prime mover connected to the generator?
(A) Reverse power relay
(B) Differential relay
(C) Buchholz relay
106. In alternators, the distribution factor is defined as the ratio of emfs of
(A) distributed winding to connected winding
(B) full pitch winding to distributed winding
(C) distributed winding to full pitch winding
(D) concentrated winding to distributed winding.
107. One of the advantages of distributing the winding in alternator is to
(A) reduce noise
(B) save on copper
(C) improve voltage waveform
(D) reduce harmonics.
108. In case of a uniformly distributed winding, the value of distribution factor is
(A) 0.995
(B) 0.80
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.50.
109. The advantage of a short pitch winding is
(A) low noise
(B) increased inductance
(C) suppression of harmonics
(D) reduced eddy currents.
110. Two alternators are connected in parallel. Their kVA and kW load share can be changed by changing respectively
their
(A) driving torque and excitation
(B) excitation and driving torque
(C) excitations only
(D) driving torques only.
111. In case of alternators, the dark and bright lamp method is used for
(A) phase sequence
(B) load balancing
(C) synchronizing
(D) load transfer.
112. The advantage of using short pitched windings in an alternator is that it
(A) suppresses the harmonics in generated emf
(B) reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
(C) saves copper used in windings
(D) improves cooling by better circulation of air.
113. For the same power rating, an alternator operating at lower voltage will be
(A) less noisy
(B) costlier
(C) larger in size
(D) more efficient.
114. Which of the following is the common synchronous speed in rpm between 60 Hz and 50 Hz alternators?
(A) 900
(B) 600
(C) 375
(D) 225.
115. All of the following losses for a synchronous machine are fixed EXCEPT
(A) Bearing friction loss
(B) Copper loss
(C) Windage loss
(D) Core loss.
116. Salient pole type rotors as compared to cylindrical pole type are
(A) smaller in diameter and larger in axial length
(B) larger in diameter and smaller in axial length
(C) larger in diameter as well as axial length
(D) small in diameter as well as axial length.
117. In a synchronous machine, the field flux axis is ahead of the armature field axis in the direction of rotation, the
machine is working as
(A) asynchronous alternator
(B) asynchronous motor
(D) synchronous alternator.
118. Which of the following is not a common synchronous speed in rpm between a 50 Hz and 25 Hz alternator?
(A) 750
(B) 375
(C) 250
(D) 200.
119. The effective voltage in one phase of an alternator having 240 turns per phase, frequency of 60 Hz and flux per pole
of 2.08 x 106
lines will be
(A) 332.5 V
(B) 665 V
(C) 1330 V
(D) 2660 V.
120. The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on
(A) speed of the exciter
(B) number of poles
(C) exciter current
(D) strength of the magnetic field.
121. The windings for an alternator are
I. 36 slots, four poles, span 1 to 8
II. 72 slots, six poles, span 1 to 10
III. 96 slots, six poles, span 1 to 12.
The windings having pitch factors of more than 0.9 are
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III.
A 500 kVA ,2300-volt three phase star connected alternator has a full load armature-resistance drop per phase of 50
volts and a combined armature reactance plus armature-reaction drop of 500 volts per phase
122. The percent regulation of the alternator at unity power factor is
(A) 1.05
(B) 10.5
(C) 21.5
(D) 27.5.
123. The percent regulation of the alternator at 0.866 power factor lagging is
(A) 26.3
(B) 20.1
(C) 16.6
(D) 10.5.
124. The percent regulation of the alternator at 0.8 power factor leading is
(A) 13.2
(B) 26.4
(C) - 26.4
(D) - 13.2.
125. The imaginary or fictitious part of synchronous reactance takes care of
(A) armature reaction
(B) voltage regulation
(C) inductive reactance
126. In an alternator, the use of short pitch coils of 160° will indicate the absence of
(A) third harmonic
(B) fifth harmonic
(C) seventh harmonic
(D) ninth harmonic.
127. When a generator designed for operation at 60 Hz is operated at 50 Hz
(A) operating voltage must be derated to (50/60) of its original value
(B) operating voltage must be derated to (50/60)2 of its original value
(C) kVA rating can be upgraded to (60/50) of the rated value
(D) the generator will not take any load.
128. Overheating of generator's winding
(A) reduces generated voltage
(B) reduces power factor
(C) reduces life of the machine
(D) does not have any significant effect.
129. Rotor shaft of 500 MW alternator is supported in
(A) ball bearings
(B) roller bearings
(C) needle bearings
(D) journal bearings.
130. The voltage of field system for an alternator is usually
(A) less than 200 V
(B) between 200 V and 440 V
(C) 400 V
(D) more than 1 kV.
131. Maximum electric power output of a synchronous generator is
(A) Xs / VtEf
(B) V2t/ Xs
(C) E2f/ Xs
(D) VtEf/ Xs
132. The electrical angle between the field axis and axis of armature reaction of a loaded synchronous generator with
armature current lagging behind the excitation emf by ψ is
(A) ψ - 90
(B) ψ + 90
(C) 90 - ψ
(D) ψ + 180.
133. Two synchronous generators G1and G2 are equally sharing the KVAR of the load while operating in parallel.
Keeping the terminal voltage fixed in order to shift part of the KVAR load from G2 to G1
(A) The field current of G1 is lowered
(B) The field current of G2 is raised
(C) The field current of G1 is raised and of G2 lowered
(D) The field current of G1 is lowered and of G2 is raised.
134. A synchronous generator is operating with excitation adjusted for unity power factor current at constant load.
When on increasing the excitation the power factor
(A) will lag
(B) will lead
(C) will become zero
135. On changing the speed of an alternator from 4000 rpm to 2000 rpm, the generated emf phase will become
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C)1/3
(D)1/5
136. Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to find its
(A) field resistance
(B) armature resistance
(B) armature resistance
(C) efficiency
(D) voltage regulation.
137. The power factor of an alternator is obtained from its
(A) excitation
(B) speed
(C) load
138. For parallel operation, alternators must have
(A) same speed
(B) same kVA rating
(C) same voltage rating
139. For alternation having fractional pitch of 5/6 the coil span is
(A)90°
(B)120°
(C)150°
(D)180°
140. Fractional pitch to eliminate 7th harmonic from alternator emf is
(A) 7/6
(B) 6/7
(C) 6/5
(D) 3/5.
141. Consider the following statements about a three-phase synchronous generator synchronized to an infinite bus
when its mechanical input is increased gradually with field current held constant:
1. The power factor of the current supplied becomes more lagging.
2. The power factor of the current supplied improves.
3. The power factor remains unity.
4. The load angle is increased.
Of these statements
(A) 1 alone is correct
(B) 2 alone is correct
(C) 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct.
142. A 3-phase synchronous generator, with its armature resistance and the leakage reactance being neglected, is
synchronized to an infinite bus and its field excitation is kept constant thereafter. Now the machine is loaded by
Supplying mechanical input to the shaft so that the load-angle δ reaches a value of 60° Under this condition, the
operating power-factor would be
(A) 0.866 leading
(B) 0.866 lagging
(C) 0.5 leading
(D) 0.5 lagging.
143. A round rotor synchronous generator has a leakage reactance of 10%, armature reaction reactance of 90% and
negligible armature resistance. With the machine initially running at rated speed and terminal voltage of 1.0 p.u., a 3-
phase short-circuit is applied. The sustained armature current will be
(A) 1.25 p.u.
(B) 1.11 p.u.
(C) 1.0 p.u.
(D) 0.9 p.u.
144. Following a sudden short-circuit at the terminals of a 3-phase unloaded synchronous generator, the initial effect of
the pole-face damper windings, is to
(A) establish the armature flux through the direct-axis magnetic circuit of the machine
(B) allow only partial linkage of the armature flux with the main field winding
(C) confine the armature flux to completely link the damper winding
(D) repel the armature flux and confine it to the leakage flux path in the air-gap.
145. In a synchronous generator operating at zero pf lagging, the effect of armature reaction is
(A) magnetizing
(B) demagnetizing
(C) cross-magnetizing
(D) both magnetizing and cross-magnetizing.
146. Which of the following limit the reactive power output of a synchronous generator?
1. Armature current
2. Field current
3. Load angle
4. Prime mover input.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes
(A) land 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) land 4.
147. The steady-state stability limit of a synchronous generator can be increased by
(A) an increase in its reactance
(B) an increase in the excitation of the machine
(C) a decrease in the moment of inertia of the machine
(D) an increase in the moment of intertia of the machine.
Synchronous motor
1. Synchronous motor can operate at
(A) Lagging power factor only
(B) Leading power factor only
(C) Unity power factor only
(D) Lagging, leading and unity power factor only.
2. An unexcited single phase synchronous motor is
(A) reluctance motor
(B) repulsion motor
(C) universal motor
(D) AC series motor.
3. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
(A) rotor excitation only
(B) maximum value of coupling angle
(C) supply voltage only
(D) rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle.
4. In case the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) leading
(B) lagging
(C) zero
(D) unity.
5. A synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field windings shorted on themselves. It will
(A) not start
(B) start and continue to run as an induction motor
(C) start as an induction motor and then run as synchronous motor
(D) bum immediately.
6. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets disconnected
(A) the motor will bum
(B) the motor will stop
(C) the motor will run as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(D) the motor will run as a reluctance motor at a lower speed.
7. The damping winding in a synchronous motor is generally used
(A) to provide starting torque only
(B) to reduce noise level
(C) to reduce eddy currents
(D) to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque.
8. The back emf set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on
(A) rotor speed only
(B) rotor excitation only
(C) rotor excitation and rotor speed
(D) coupling angle, rotor speed and excitation.
9. A synchronous motor is a useful industrial machine because which of the following reasons? I. It improves the
power factor of the complete installation
II. Its speed is constant at all loads, provided mains frequency remains constant
III. It can always be adjusted to operate at unity power factor for optimum efficiency and economy.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III.
10. Which of the following is an unexcited single phase synchronous motor?
(A) A.C. series motor
(B) Universal motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Repulsion motor.
11. An over excited synchronous motor draws current at
(A) lagging power factor
(B) leading power factor
(C) unity power factor
(D) depends on the nature of load.
12. With the increase in the excitation current of synchronous motor the power factor of the motor will
(A) improve
(B) decrease
(C) remain constant
(D) depend on other factors.
13. The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for
(A) low excitation only
(B) high excitation only
(C) both low and high excitation
(D) depends on other factors.
(A) not start
(B) start and continue to run as an induction motor
(C) start as induction motor and then run as a synchronous motor.
15. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(A) lagging
(B) leading
(C) unity.
16. When the excitation of an unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor suddenly gets disconnected
(A) the motor stops
(B) it runs as a reluctance motor at the some speed
(C) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed.
17. The armature current of the synchronous motor has large values for
(C) both high and low excitation.
18. What is the ratio of no load speed to full load speed of a 200 kVA, 12 poles, 2200 V, 3 phase, 60 Hz synchronous
motor?
(A) 1
(B) 1.1
(C) 1.21
(D) infinite.
19. If a synchronous motor drops too far behind, the power it takes from the supply also increases too much, and the
armature tries to get accelerated, until it is in correct position. Sometimes, some motor overshoots the marks and
then the process of acceleration-retardation continues. This phenomenon is known as
(A) synchronization
(B) hunting
(C) pulling out
(D) swinging.
20. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor, can develop without losing its
synchronism, is known as
(A) breaking torque
(B) synchronizing torque
(C) pull out torque
(D) slip torque.
21. In a synchronous motor if the back emf generated in the armature at no load is approximately equal
to the applied voltage, then
(A) the torque generated is maximum
(B) the excitation is said to be zero percent
(C) the excitation is said to be 100%
(D) the motor is said to be fully loaded.
22. A synchronous motor is connected to supply voltage V drawing current /. Resultant of v and back
emf Eb is represented by E in the figure. From this diagram, it can be concluded that
(A) power factor is lagging

(B) the resultant of V and Eb is consumed by synchronous impedance
(C) current I leads the applied voltage by I
(D) motor is running on full load.
23. A 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz salient pole synchronous motor is fed from an infinite bus and is running at no load. Now if
the field current of the motor is reduced to zero
(A) the motor will stop
(B) the motor will run
(C) the motor will run at synchronous speed
(D) the motor will run at less than synchronous speed.
24. The purpose of embedding the damper winding in the pole face is to
(A) eliminate hunting and provide adequate starting torque
(B) reduce windage losses
(C) eliminate losses because air friction
(D) reduce bearing friction.
(A) not start
(B) start but continue to run as an induction motor
(C) start as an induction motor and then run as a synchronous motor.
26. In case of a synchronous motor we have
I. Load
II. Speed
III. DC excitation.
The magnitude of stator back emf depends on
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III.
27. Which of the following motors is non-self-starling?
(A) squirrel cage induction motor
(B) wound rotor induction motor
(D) DC series motor.
28. The back emf in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on
(A) speed of rotor
(B) rotor excitation
(C) number of poles
(D) flux density.
29. Which motor can conveniently operate on lagging as well as leading power factor?
(A) squirrel cage induction motor
(B) wound rotor induction motor
(D) any of the above.
30. A synchronous motor working on leading power factor and not driving any mechanical, is known
(A) synchronous induction motor
(B) spinning motor
(C) synchronous condenser
31. The constant speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by
(A) changing the applied voltage
(B) interchanging any two phases
(C) changing the load
(D) changing the frequency of supply.
32. A 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is operating at zero power factor lagging with respect to the excitation
voltage. The armature reaction mmf. produced by the armature current will be
(A) demagnetizing
(B) magnetizing
(C) cross-magnetizing
33. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is
(A) the angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
(B) the angle between magnetizing current and back emf
(C) the angle between the supply voltage and the back emf
34. A 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole synchronous motor has a load angle of 10° electrical. The equivalent mechanical
degrees will be 35.
(A) 10°
(B)5√2 degrees
(C) 5 degrees
(D) 1 degree.
35. A 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor has fixed excitation. The load on the motor is doubled. The torque
angle, φi will become nearly
(A) φr /2
(B) φr
(C)2 φr
(D) √ 2 φr
36. The hunting in a synchronous motor takes place when
(A) friction in bearings is more
(B) air gap is less
(C) load is variable
(D) load is constant.
37. V curves for a synchronous motor represent relation between
(A) field current and speed
(B) field current and power factor
(C) power factor and speed
(D) armature current and field current.
38. The breakdown. torque of a synchronous motor varies as
(A)1 / (applied voltage)
(B) 1/ (applied voltage )2
(C) applied voltage
(D) (applied voltage)2
39. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to
(A) variable frequency
(B) variable load
(C) variable supply voltage
(D) windage friction.
40. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets disconnected
(A) the motor stops
(B) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(C) it runs at a reluctance motor at a lower speed.
41. Which synchronous motor will be smallest in size?
(A) 5 HP, 500 rpm
(B) 5 HP, 375 rpm
(C) 10 HP, 500 rpm
(D) 10 HP, 375 rpm.
42. A synchronous machine has its field winding on the stator and armature winding on the rotor. Under steady
running conditions, the air-gap field
(A) rotates at synchronous speed with respect to stator
(B) rotates at synchronous speed with direction of rotation of the rotor
(C) remains stationary with respect to stator
(D) remains stationary with respect to rotor.
43. If the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be
(A) unity
(B) lagging
(C) leading
(D) more than unity.
44. The name plate of an induction motor reads 3 phase. 400 V, 50 Hz. 0.8 of lagging, 1440 rpm. On similar lines the
name plate of a synchronous motor should read
(A) 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz, 0.8 pf lagging, 1500 rpm
(B) 3 phase, 400 V. 50 Hz, 0.8 pf leading, 1500 rpm
(C) 3 phase, 400 V, 50/60 Hz, 0.8 pf lagging, 1500 rpm
(D) 3 phase. 400 V, 50/60 Hz, 0.8 pf leading, 1500 rpm.
45. In which coil the emf generated will be more, for given flux distribution and number of turns
(A) Full pitch coil
(B) Short pitch coil
(C) Long pitch coil
(D) Equal emf will be generated in all cases.
46. In a synchronous motor which loss does not vary with load?
(A) Copper losses
(C) Windage losses
47. In a 3-phase. 400 V, 50 Hz salient pole synchronous motor, the maximum power is obtained when
the load angle is
(A) 45°
(B) less than 90°
(C) 90°
(D) more than 90°.
48. A high starting torque synchronous motor has
(A) simplex rotor
(B) phase wound damper
(C) five slip rings
49. In a three phase synchronous motor, the magnitude of field flux
(A) varies with speed
(B) varies with load
(C) remains constant at all loads
(D) varies with power factor.
50. The parameter connected with the operation of a synchronous motor are
I. Speed
II. Power factor
III. Armature current.
When the excitation of the motor is varied, which parameters vary along with it
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III.
51. A 3 phase, 400 V, 50 Hz salient pole synchronous motor is running on no load. If there is break in the excitation
winding of the motor
(A) the motor will stop
(B) the winding will get overheated
(C) the motor will run as reluctance motor at the rated rpm
(D) the motor will run as reluctance motor at lower rpm.
52. In the figure shown with curve represents the variation of synchronous reactance for a synchronous motor with
field current?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
53. A synchronous motor is said to be 'floating' when it operates
(A) on no load and without losses
(B) on constantly varying load
(C) on pulsating load
(D) on high load and variable supply voltage.
54. The negative phase sequences in a three phase synchronous motor exists when
(A) motor is overloaded
(B) motor is under loaded
(C) unbalanced voltage is supplied
(D) motor armature is hot.
55. The field winding of a synchronous motor is shorted. A variable voltage is now supplied to the stator. The result
will be (A) stator winding will bum
(B) motor will not run
(C) motor will rotate at synchronous speed on light load
(D) motor will rotate at a speed which is less than the synchronous speed.
56. In a three phase synchronous motor, the poles
(A) are along the resultant air-gap flux wave φ r
(B) arc opposite to φ r
(C) lag φ r
(D) lead φ r
57. A 3 phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. In case the direction of its field current is reversed
(A) the motor will continue to run in the same direction
(B) the motor will run in the reverse direction
(C) the motor will stop
(D) the winding of the motor will burn.
58. The speed regulation of a 3 phase synchronous motor is
(A) 5%
(B) 1%
(C) 0.4%
(D) zero.
59. When E is the supply voltage and R is the rotor resistance per phase, the mechanical power develop by a
synchronous motor per phase is given by
(A) V2R
(B) V2/2R
(C) V2/4R
(D) 2V/3R
60. In a synchronous motor, the synchronizing power comes into action when
(A) rotor speed is equal to synchronous speed
(B) rotor speed is less than synchronous speed
(C) rotor speed is more than synchronous speed
(D) rotor speed is either less or more than synchronous speed.
61. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in
(A) speed
(B) horse power rating
(C) flux density
62. The flux density used in synchronous motor is around
(A) 0.05 to 0.46 wb/m2
(B) 0.5 to 0.6 wb/m2
(C) 5 to 6 wb/m2
(D) 50 to 60 wb/m2.
63. In a synchronous motor if the saturation is neglected, then the short circuit ratio (SCR) will be related to the
synchronous reactance (xd) as
(A) SCR
(B) SCR = (xd)2
(C) SCR = 1/ (xd)2
(D) SCR = 1/ (xd)
64. In synchronous motor out of the following losses, which one will have the highest proportion?
(A) Stator copper losses
(B) Friction and windage losses
(C) Eddy current losses
(D) Iron losses.
65. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a synchronous motor?
(A) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(B) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(C) Iron losses in the stator
(D) Windage losses.
66. The speed of a synchronous motor
(A) reduces as load increases
(B) increases as load increases
(C) adjusts itself to new equilibrium speed whenever load changes
(D) always remains constant.
67. Which of the following devices can be used as a phase advancer?
(A) 3 phase induction motor squirrel cage type
(B) 3 phase induction motor-slip ring type
(C) Synchronous motor working at leading power factor
(D) Synchronous motor working at lagging power factor.
68. When a synchronous motor is connected to an infinite bus, while operating on leading power factor.
(A) the excitation voltage will be less than the supply voltage
(B) the excitation voltage will be more than the supply voltage
(C) the excitation voltage will be equal to the supply voltage
(D) the excitation voltage will be independent of the supply voltage.
69. In a synchronous motor
(A) total number of rotor slots = total number of stator slots
(B) total number of rotor slots is more than total number of stator slots
(C) total number of rotor slots is less than the total number of stator slots.
70. In a synchronous motor during hunting if the rotor speed becomes more than the synchronous speed
(A) negative phase sequence currents are generated
(B) harmonics are developed in the armature circuit
(C) damper bars develop induction generator torque
(D) field excitation increases.
71. If a synchronous motor fails to pull into synchronism after applying dc field current, the probable clause may be
(A) high core losses
(B) low field current
(C) high field current
(D) low short circuit ratio.
72. In case of a 3 phase synchronous motor, maximum speed variation is
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 3%
(D) zero.
73. The synchronous motors are not self-starting because
(A) stator is not used
(B) starting winding is not provided
(C) the direction of instantaneous torque on the rotor reverses after half cycle
(D) there is no slip.
Questions 74 to 75 refer to the Figure.
74. In the figure above, the curves for leading power factors are
(A) A and B
(B) C and D
(C) On left of line XY
(D) On right of line XY
75. In the curves represent characteristics for 0, 10, 20 and. 30 kW, not necessarily in that order, then curve for 0 kW
is expected to be
(A) A
(B)B
(C) C
(D) D.
76. The curve for 20 k W is expected to be
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D.
77. In a synchronous motor hunting can be minimized
(A) by using damper bars
(B) by using a flywheel
(C) by designing the motor for adequate synchronizing power
(D) by any of the above methods.
78. A three phase 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is working at 50 percent load. In case an increase in the field
current of the motor causes a reduction in the armature current, it can be concluded that
(A) the motor is delivering reactive power to the mains
(B) the motor is absorbing reactive power to the mains
(C) the motor is neither absorbing nor delivering reactive power.
79. Inverted V-curves for a synchronous motor show
(A) Variation of power factor with dc field current when load on the motor remains constant
(B) Variation of field current and supply voltage when excitation remains constant
(C) Variation of power factor and supply voltage when motor is hunting
80. The armature current of the synchronous motor has large values for
(C) both low and high excitation.
81. In which range the cost of a synchronous motor can be comparable to the cost of a induction motor ?
(A) Low HP high speed
(B) High HP low speed
(C) High HP high speed
(D) Low HP low speed.
82. Insulation resistance test on synchronous motor can be conducted to measure which of the following resistances?
(A) Stator winding to earthed frame
(B) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
(C) Phase to phase winding resistance
83. Which curve represents the open circuit characteristic of a synchronous motor
(A) Curve A
(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D.
84. During short circuit test which of the following is short circuited?
(A) Armature terminals
(B) One of the phase windings of stator
(C) AH phase windings of stator
(D) All phase windings of stator and armature.
85. The duration of sudden short circuit test on a synchronous motor is usually
(A) about one second
(B) about one minute
(C) about one hour
(D) 40 minutes.
86. The maximum torque which a synchronous will develop at rest for any angular positions of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage and frequency, is known as
(A) Reluctance torque
(B) Synchronous torque
(C) Locked-rotor torque
(D) Pull up torque.
87. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will pull into synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency is known as
(A) Synchronous torque
(B) Pull in torque
(C) Pull up torque
(D) Pull out torque.
88. The maximum sustained torque which a synchronous motor will develop at synchronous speed for 1 mm with
rated frequency and rated field current is known as
(A) Pull out torque
(B) Reluctance torque
(C) Synchronous torque
(D) Average torque.
89. The total steady state to drive synchronous motor and the load at synchronous speed is known as
(A) Synchronous torque
(B) Asynchronous torque
(C) Reluctance torque
(D) Pull-up torque.
90. The space angle between the axis of the stator revolving magnetic field and the rotor-pole axis, both looked and
running at synchronous speed, is known as
(A) angle of lead
(B) power angle
(C) power factor angle
(D) reactive power angle.
91. In a synchronous machine in case the axis of field flux is in line with the armature flux, then
(A) the machine is working as synchronous motor
(B) the machine is working as synchronous generator
(C) the machine is said to be floating
(D) the machine will vibrate violently.
92. If other factors remain constant, the speed of a synchronous motor in its operating (and load) range
is correctly described by which of the following?
(A) The speed varies directly only in proportion to the number of its poles
(B) The speed is independent of the frequency of the voltage supply
(C) The speed depends on the frequency of the voltage supply and the number of its poles
(D) The speed depends on the magnitude of the voltage supply and the number of its poles.
93. The induced emf in a synchronous motor working on leading pf will be
(A) equal to the supply voltage
(B) less than the supply voltage
(C) more than the supply voltage.
94. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has
(A) good speed regulation
(B) good voltage regulation
(C) higher stability limit
(D) lower stability limit.
95. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, very high emf is induced in the field. This induced
emf may damage the insulation of the field winding and of slip rings. The insulation
damage can φ be prevented by
(A) short-circuiting the field winding by field discharge resistance
(B) splitting the field winding into several sections
(C) either of (A) or (B) above
96. Synchronous motors, arc generally of
(A) induction type machines
(B) cylindrical pole type machines
(C) salient pole type machines
(D) hysteresis type machines.
97. In which of the following motor the stator and rotor magnetic fields rotate at the same speed
(A) Universal motor
(B) Reluctance motor
(C) Synchronous motor
(D) Induction motor.
98. Higher the applied voltage .................... will be the stator flux and ................... will be the pull intorque
(A) lower, greater
(B) greater, lower
(C) greater, greater
(D) lower, lower.
An industrial plant has a load of 1500 kVA at an average power factor of 0.6 lagging.
99. Neglecting all losses, the kVA input to a synchronous condenser for an overall power factor of unity will be
(A) 300 kVA
(B) 400 kVA
(C) 600 kVA
(D) 1200 kVA.
100. A 750 kVA synchronous condenser is used to correct the lagging power factor of the plant. The total kVA of the
plant is
(A) 503
(B) 10006
(C) 2012
(D) 4024.
101. The overall power factor is
(A) 0.895 lagging
(B) 0.75 lagging
(C) 0.75 leading
(D) unity.
102. As the load is applied on a synchronous motor, its speed does not fall. The load is now supplied by
(A) decrease in back emf
(B) change in supply voltage
(C) the stator magnetic field
(D) rotor taking new angular position slightly back of its no load position.
103. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Supply voltage
(B) Direction of rotation
(C) Rotor excitation
(D) Maximum value of coupling angle.
104. In a synchronous motor, on a fixed excitation when the load is doubled, the torque angle φr will
become
(A) 2 φr
(B) √2 φr
(C)φr/2
(D) φr/√2
105. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has the highest value when excitation is
(A) zero
(B) low
(C) high
(D) high and low.
106. For a synchronous motor, the ratio starting torque/running torque is
(A) infinite
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.
107. Synchronous motors for power factor correction operate at
(A) normal load with minimum excitation
(B) normal load with zero excitation
(C) no load and greatly over-excited fields
(D) no load and under-excited fields.
108. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles which of the following machines?
(A) Slip ring induction motor
(B) DC shunt generator
(C) Single phase reluctance motor
(D) DC compound motor.
109. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles which of the following machine?
(A) An induction motor
(B) A rotor converter
(C) An alternator
(D) A series motor
110. In a synchronous motor, "hunting" may be due to variation in any of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Load
(B) Supply voltage
(C) Frequency
(D) Winding friction.
111. A synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field winding short-circuited, the motor will
(A) not start
(B) bun out
(C) start and run as induction motor
(D) start as induction motor and run as synchronous motor.
112. In a synchronous motor, at no load, the armature current is
(A) in phase with the applied voltage
(B) leading the applied voltage by 90°
(C) lagging the applied voltage by 90°
(D) zero.
113. In a synchronous motor, during hunting when the rotor speed exceeds the synchronous speed
(A) field excitation increases
(B) harmonics are developed
(C) negative phase sequence currents come into action
(D) damper bars develop induction generator torque.
114. For a synchronous motor when V is the supply voltage, the breakdown torque will be proportional to
(A) V2
(B) V
(C) 1/ V
(D) 1/ V2
115. When the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open - circuited, the motor will
(A) burn with dense smoke
(B) stop
(C) run as induction motor
(D) function as static condenser
116. In case one of the three phases of a synchronous motor is short-circuited, the motor will
(A) not start
(B) get overheated
(C) bum out
D) run normally.
117. The fact that a synchronous motor with salient poles will operate, even if field current is reduced to zero, can be
explained by
(A) magnetization of rotor poles by stator magnetic field
(B) rotating magnetic field of the rotor
(C) rotating magnetic field of the stator
(D) interlocking action between stator and rotor fields.
118. The negative phase sequence in a three phase synchronous motor exists when the motor is
(A) under loaded
(B) overloaded
(C) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(D) hot.
119. The regulation of a synchronous motor is
(A) 0%
(B) 1%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%.
120. In a synchronous motor, the angle between the rotor poles and stator poles is known as
(A) synchronizing angle
(B) torque angle
(C) angle of retardation
(D) power factor angle.
121. In a synchronous motor, under running conditions, the angle between the induced voltage and supply voltage
will be
(A) zero
(B) between 0 and 90°
(C) between 90° and 180°
(D) more than 180°.
122. The rotor of a synchronous motor can only run at synchronous speed of the stator magnetic field due to
(A) Faraday's law of electro-magnetic induction
(B) Lenz's law
(C) Magnetization of rotor poles by stator magnetic field
(D) Interlocking action between stator and rotor fields.
123. An inverted V-curve of a synchronous motor is the variation of
(A) field current and power factor at constant load
(B) supply voltage and field current at constant excitation
(C) power factor and supply voltage during hunting
(D) supply voltage and excitation current at constant load.
124. Damper windings are provided on
(A) pole faces
(B) separate armature
(C) rotor shaft
(D) stator frame.
125. Hunting of a synchronous motor may be due to
(A) pulsations in power supply
(B) reciprocating type of load
(C) pulsating torque of driven equipment
126. The V-curves of a synchronous motor show relationship between
(A) armature current and supply voltage
(B) dc field current and ac armature current
(C) excitation current and back emf
127. In a synchronous motor with field under excited, the power factor will be
(A) leading
(B) lagging
(C) unity
128. In a synchronous motor, maximum value of torque angle is
(A) Below 45 degrees electrical
(B) 45 degrees electrical
(C) 90 degrees electrical
(D) Above 90 degrees electrical.
129. In a synchronous motor, net armature voltage is of Eb and V
(A) Vector sum
(B) Vector difference
(C) Arithmetic difference
(D) Arithmetic sum.
130. Increasing load on a normally-excited synchronous motor, the power factor
(A) remain unchanged
(B) becomes increasing lagging
(C) becomes increasing leading
131. Synchronous motor speed is controlled by varying
(A) supply voltage only
(B) supply frequency only
(C) supply voltage and frequency both
132. Maximum electrical power input of a synchronous motor is
(A) (Vt Ef) / Xs
(B) V2t / Xs
(C) E2f/ Xs
(D) Xs/ (Vt Ef )
where the symbols have their usual meanings.
133. In a synchronous motor armature reaction at rated voltage and zero power factor leading is
(A) Magnetizing
(B) Cross magnetizing
(C) Demagnetizing
134. A synchronous motor is operating with excitation adjusted for unity power factor current at
constant load. On increasing the excitation, the power factor
(A) will lag
(B) will lead
(C) will become zero
135. A synchronous motor is operated from a bus voltage of 1.0 pu at 1.0 pu pf leading current. The synchronous
reactance is 0.5 p.u. The excitation e.m.f of the motor is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 1.5
(D) 3.
136. A 3-phase synchronous motor connected to an infinite bus is operating at half full-load with normal excitation.
When the load on the synchronous motor is suddenly increased
(A) its speed will first decrease and then become synchronous
(B) its speed will first increase and then become synchronous
(C) its speed will fluctuate around synchronous speed and then become synchronous
(D) its speed will remain unchanged.
137. A synchronous motor operating at rated voltage draws 1.0 pu current at 1.0 power factor. The machine
parameters are: synchronous reactance 1.0 pu; armature resistance, negligible. Apart from supplying this rated
power, if the motor has to supply an addition! leading reactive power of 0.8 pu, then the field current has to be
increased by
(A) 42%
(B) 46%
(C) 52%
(D) 60%.
Single Phase Motors
1. A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor of
(A) unity
(B) 0.8 leading
(C) 0.6 leading
(D) 0.6 lagging.
2. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
(A) ac series motor
(B) dc series motor
(C) 2 phase induction motor
(D) 3 phase induction motor.
3. The starting torque of a capacitor start motor is
(A) zero
(B) low
(C) same as rated torque
(D) more than rated torque.
4. The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to
(A) Sine of angle between lm and ls
(B) Cosine of angle between lm and Is
(C) Main winding current, Im
(D) Auxiliary winding current,Is
5. A capacitor start single phase induction motor is switched on the supply with its capacitor replaced by an inductor
of equivalent reactance value. It will
(A) not start
(B) start and run
(C) start and then stall
6. The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is
(A) Electrolytic capacitor
(C) Paper capacitor
7. Which of the following is the most economical method of starting a single phase motor?
(A) Resistance start method
(B) Inductance start method
(C) Capacitance start method
(D) Split-phase method.
8. The number of turns in the starting winding of a capacitor start motor as compared to that for split phase motor is
(A) same
(B) more
(C) less
9. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to that for running winding is
(A) 2.0
(B) more than 1
(C) 1.0
(D) less than 1.
10. A single phase motor generally used for small air compressor is
(A) capacitor start capacitor run motor
(B) reluctance motor
(C) universal motor
(D) shaded pole motor.
11. Out of the following motors, which will give the highest starting torque?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start motor
(C) Shaded pole motor
(D) All have zero starting torque.
12. Which single phase ac motor will you select for record players and tape recorders?
(A) Hysteresis motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(D) Two value capacitor motor.
13. A universal motor is one
(A) which can run on any value of supply voltage
(B) which has infinitely varying speed
(C) which can operate on ac as well as dc voltage
(D) which can work as single phase or three phase motor
14. Under normal operating conditions which motor can run at 5000 rpm?
(A) Synchronous motor
(B) Induction motor
(C) Universal motor
(D) No motor can give 5000 rpm.
15. The motor used in household refrigerators is
(A) dc series motor
(B) dc shunt motor
(C) universal motor
(D) single phase induction motor.
16. Single phase motors are commercially manufactured up to
(A) 1H.P.
(B) 2 H.P.
(C) 5 H.P.
(D) 10 H.P.
17. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed by
(A) reversing the supply terminals
(B) switching over from ac to dc
(C) interchanging the brush leads
18. A universal motor operates on
(A) constant speed and varying load
(B) constant load and varying speed
(C) approximately constant speed and load
(D) synchronous speed with varying load.
19. Which of the following single phase motors will operate at high power factor?
(A) shaded pole motor
(B) capacitor run motor
(C) split phase motor
(D) capacitor start motor.
20. A motor suitable for signaling device is
(A) induction motor
(B) dc shunt motor
(C) dc series motor
(D) reluctance motors.
21. Which capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor
(A) Paper capacitor
(C) Mica capacitor
(D) Electrolytic capacitor.
22. The motor used for driving the record player deck is
(A) dc series motor
(B) synchronous motor
(C) hysteresis motor
(D) dc shunt motor.
23. When a motor speed of 5000 rpm is required, which motor will you select?
(A) Capacitor start motor
(C) Hysteresis motor
(D) Universal motor.
24. As compared to other single phase ac motors a universal motor has
(A) speed ratio of 2: 1 on ac/dc
(B) highest efficiency on 50 Hz supply
(C) high horse power/kg ratio
25. When a universal motor is operated on no load, its speed is limited by
(A) armature reaction
(B) armature weight
(C) windage and friction
(D) supply voltage frequency.
26. Which of the following applications make use of a universal motor?
(A) Floor polishing machine
(B) Oil expeller
(C) Portable tools
(D) Lathe machines.
27. In portable tools the speed of the driven shaft is reduced by
(A) Gearing
(B) Belt drive
(C) Chain drive
(D) Fluid coupling.
28. For ceiling fans generally the single phase motor used is
(A) split phase type
(B) capacitor start type
(C) capacitor start and run type
(D) permanent capacitor type.
29. In case of split phase motors the phase shift is usually limited to
(A) 3 degrees
(B) 60 degrees
(C) 90 degrees
(D) 150 degrees.
30. The capacitance of a small single phase motor will be of the order of
(A) Kilo farads
(B) Few hundred farads
(C) Farads
(D) Micro or Pico farads.
31. The type of starting relay used on single phase hermetic motor is
(A) hot wire relay
(B) timing relay
(C) current coil relay
(D) voltage coil relay
(E) any of the above.
32. Reluctance motors are
(A) doubly excited
(B) singly excited
(C) either doubly excited or singly excited
33. Electric motors are generally designed to have maximum efficiency at
(A) full load
(B) near full load
(C) half load
(D) near half load.
34. Which of the following is non-reversible motor?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start split phase motor
(C) Resistance start split phase motor
(D) Permanent split capacitor motor.
35. Which motor is generally used for electric shavers?
(A) Shaded pole motor
(B) Hysteresis motor
36. The motor useful for signaling and timing device is
(A) Reluctance motor
(D) Two value capacitor motor.
37. A motor generally used in toys is
(C) Two value capacitor motor
(D) Reluctance motor.
38. Single phase motors generally get over heated due to
(A) Overloading
(B) Short windings
(C) Bearing troubles
(D) Any of the above.
39. Which of the following is a reversible motor?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start split phase motor
40. The starting torque of a single phase induction motor is
(A) uniform
(B) high
(C) low
(D) zero.
41. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor?
(A) Universal motor
(C) Capacitor run motor
(D) Split phase motor.
42. Which of the following statements about reluctance motor is not true?
(A) It is self starting
(B) It runs at constant speed
(C) It needs no dc excitation for its rotor
(D) It can operate on ac as well as dc.
43. The rotor for a hysteresis motor
(A) is made of chrome steel
(B) has high retentivity
(C) has high hysteresis loss
(D) should have all above properties.
44. The speed of a universal motor can be controlled by
(A) introducing a variable resistance in series with the motor
(B) tapping the field at various points
(C) centrifugal mechanisms
45. What could be the smallest size of a universal motor?
(A)1/10 HP
(B)1/20 HP
(C)1/200 HP
(D)1/2000 HP.
46. The short coming of repulsion motor is
(A) variation of speed with load
(B) low power factor
(C) tendency to spark at brushes
47. The disadvantage of shaded pole motor is
(A) low starting torque'
(B) low efficiency
(C) very little over load capacity
48. The efficiency of shaded pole motor is in the range
(D) 5 to 35 percent.
49. For domestic sewing machine the size of the motor required will be
(A) 10-15 watts
(B) 15-25 watts
(C) 100-150 watts
(D) 250 to 750 watts.
50. A ceiling fan of 1400 mm sweep will have motor rating of
(A) 10 to 15 watts
(B) 50 to 70 watts
(C) 120 to 180 watts
(D) 250 to 500 watts.
51. Which of the following applications would need the smallest size of motor?
(A) Domestic motor
(B) Electric clock
(C) Table fan
(D) Sewing machine.
52. All single phase ac motors are designed to operate usually on
(A) 220 V only
(B)220V + 10V
(C) 220 ± 0 V
(D) 220 ± 10% volts.
53. All single phase ac motors are designed usually to operate on the frequency
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 50 ± 0.5 Hz
(C) 50 ±1 Hz
(D) 50. ± 5 Hz.
54. When a dc series motor is connected to ac supply, it will
(A) spark excessively
(B) give poor efficiency
(C) run on poor power factor
55. The torque-speed characteristic of a repulsion motor resembles that of which of the following dc motor?
(A) separately excited motor
(B) shunt motor
(C) series is motor
(D) compound motor.
56. In a single phase capacitor motor the direction of rotation will be in the opposite direction to the original when
(A) electrolytic capacitor is replaced by paper capacitor
(B) two capacitors of equal value are used
(C) capacitor is replaced by a resistance
(D) capacitor is replaced by an inductor.
57. In a hysteresis motor, the position of shaded pole with respect to main pole determines
(A) speed of motor
(B) direction of rotation
(C) hysteresis loss
(D) no load rpm.
58. In a shaded pole motor, the direction of rotation is from
(A) main pole to shaded pole
(B) shaded pole to main pole
(C) depends on supply line polarity.
59. Which motor is generally used in tape recorders ?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Reluctance motor
(C) Split phase motor
(D) Hysteresis motor.
60. In a shaded pole motor, shading coils are used to
(A) reduce windage losses
(B) reduce friction losses
(C) produce rotating magnetic field
(D) to protect against sparking.
61. In a shaded pole motor, the locked rotor current is
(A) 10 times the full load current
(B) 4 to 5 times the full load current
(C) slightly more than the full load current
(D) less than the full load current.
62. Shaded pole motors are not provided with
(A) capacitor
(B) centrifugal switch
(C) commutator
63. In a universal motor, normally the ratio of width of brush to the width of commutator segments is
(A) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(C) 2: 1
(D) 4:1
64. For a given output and speed, a universal motor as compared to 220 V, 50 Hz supply will require
(A) less voltage at low frequency
(B) less voltage at high frequency
(C) high voltage at high frequency
(D) high voltage at low frequency.
Questions 65 to 69 refer to the Figure given below. Single phase configurations are shown in the Figure.
65. Which figure represents a shaded pole motor?
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) figure D.
66. Which figure represents a capacitor start motor?
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) none of the figures.
67. Which figure represents a universal motor?
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
68. Figure A represents
(A) capacitor start capacitor run motor
(C) AC series motor
69. A hysteresis motor is represented by
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
70. A capacitor motor of 1/4 HP needs a condenser of 8 μ F. A similar motor of 3/4 HP will need a condenser of
(A) 20 μF
(B) 8 μF
(C) 2 μF.
71. The rotor of which motor does not have winding on it?
(A) Universal motor
72. Which motor has unsymmetrical rotor?
(A) Universal motor
(C) Split-phase motor
73. If a single phase motor runs slow, the probable case may be
(A) overload
(B) low frequency
(C) low voltage
74. A single phase capacitor start motor will take starting current nearly
(A) same as full load current
(B) twice the full load current
(C) three times the full load current
(D) four the six times the full load current.
75. Which motor will make least noise?
(A) Capacitor motor
(B) Universal motor
(D) Hysteresis motor.
76. If a single phase motor runs hot the probable cause cannot be
(A) high voltage
(B) shorted stator coils
(C) blown fuses
(D) low voltage.
77. A single phase capacitor run motor will have starting torque as
(A) 1/2 of full load torque
(B) same as full load torque
(C) 1 1/2 times full load torque
(D) 2 times full load torque.
78. Which of the following single phase motors will be cheapest?
(A) Capacitor start motor
(B) Capacitor run motor
(D) All have same cost.
79. Noise in an electric motor may be due to
(A) cooling air
(B) magnetic effects
(C) bearings
80. For a system involving sound recording and reproduction which motor would you select?
(B) Universal motor
81. Cranes and hoists offer which type of load?
(A) non-reversing, no load start
(B) reversing, no load start
(C) reversing, heavy start
(D) non-reversing, heavy start.
82. If a single phase motor runs hot, the probable cause may be
(A) overload
(B) low voltage
(C) high voltage
83. Which motor is relatively free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations?
(C) Universal motor
(D) Shaded pole motor.
84. The figure shows the torque speed characteristics of a universal motor. Which curve is likely to represent the
variation of power factor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
85. Which curve represents the variation of speed with torque for the motor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
86. Curve C is likely to represent
(A) armature current
(B) iron losses
(C) efficiency
(D) windage losses.
87. If curve C represents efficiency while the motor is operating on ac supply, curve B is likely to represent
(A) peak value of supply
(B) core losses
(C) line voltage
(D) efficiency on dc supply.
88. Reluctance motors are
(A) doubly excited
(B) singly excited
(C) multiply excited
(D) unexcited.
89. Which of the following motors does not have constant speed characteristics?
(C) Universal motor
90. For the same rating which motor has the highest starting torque?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Split phase motor
(C) Synchronous motor
(D) All have identical starting torque.
91. A capacitor selected for capacitor-run motor should be rated for
(A) peak voltage
(B) rms voltage
(C) average voltage.
92. If a single phase motor fails to start, the probable cause may be
(A) open in auxiliary winding
(B) open in main winding
(C) blown fuses
93. For torque-speed curves shown, which curve represents the characteristics of a repulsion start induction run
motor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
94. Which curve represents the characteristics of a single phase capacitor start motor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
95. The reluctance torque in a motor is present when the reluctance seen by
(A) rotor mmf varies
(B) rotor mmf remains constant
(C) stator mmf is constant.
96. Which time-phasor diagram is valid for split single phase motor?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None.
97. The phasor diagram [figure (B) of Question 96] is valid for
(C) Split phase motor
98. Which single phase motor has relatively high power factor?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Split phase motor
(C) Repulsion motor
(D) Synchronous motor.
99. Which motor would you select for vacuum cleaners?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Repulsion motor
100. If torque speed characteristics of a motor is represented by the figure below the motor is likely to be

(B) Repulsion motor
(C) AC/DC motor
(D) Capacitance start capacitance, run motor.
101. If the ceiling fan, when switched on, runs at slow speed in the reverse direction, it can be concluded that
(A) winding has burnt out
(B) bearings are worn out
(C) capacitor is ineffective
102. For how many poles is a split-phase motor wound if it operates at 1750 rpm at full load from a 60 Hz source?
(A) 2 poles
(B) 4 poles
(C) 6 poles
(D) 12 poles.
103. Which of the following capacitor-start split phase motor will have the largest value of capacitance?
(A)1/8 HP, 3450 rpm
(B) 1/4 HP, 1725 rpm
(C) 1/2 HP, 1140 rpm
(D) 3/4 HP, 1140 rpm.
104. The speed of a split phase induction motor can be reversed by reversing the leads of
(A) auxiliary winding
(B) main winding
(C) either of (A) and (B) above
(D) speed cannot be reversed.
105. A capacitor start type single phase induction motor has its capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent
reluctance value. If the motor is now switched on to the supply, it will
(A) run in the reverse direction
(B) not run
(C) run with more noise and low torque
(D) start but not take the load.
106. In ac series motor the purpose of providing compensating winding is to
(A) reduce sparking at brushes
(B) increase the torque
(C) reduce heating of armature
(D) minimize vibrations.
107. The approximate value of capacitance to be used on 50 Hz, capacitor start split phase 1725 rpm motor will be
(A) 10 micro F
(B) 100 micro F
(C) 350 micro F
(D) 700 micro F.
108. Which of the following is used on single phase hermetic motors?
(A) Voltage coil
(B) Hot wire
(C) Current coil
109. Normally, the auxiliary winding in a single phase induction motor is cut off when the motor reaches a certain
speed except in case of
(A) shaded pole motor
(B) capacitor start motor
(C) capacitor start, capacitor run motor
(D) split phase motor.
110. In case of a reluctance motor, when the. load is increased so that it cannot maintain synchronous speed the
motor will
(A) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(B) run as induction motor
(C) become unstable
(D) draw excessive armature current and may burn out.
111. Most important characteristics of a single phase motor is
(A) that it requires only one winding
(B) that it is not self-starting
(C) that it is self-starting
112. In a capacitor start induction motor, the stalling torque is directly related to angle a between the 2 winding
currents by
(A) tan α
(B) cot α
(C) sin α
(D) secα.
113. In a capacitor start motor, the capacitor is connected in series with
(A) starting winding
(B) running winding
(C) compensating winding
114. The capacitor used for running purpose in a two-capacitor motor is
(A) Air capacitor
(C) Paper spaced oil-filled type
115. In split phase motor,
(A) main winding has low resistance and high resistance
(B) main winding has high resistance and high reactance
(C) main winding has low resistance and low reactance
116. A single phase motor has
(A) Zero starling torque
(B) Low starting torque
(C) High starting torque
(D) None of above.
117. In a single phase motor, phase splitting can be done
(A) with an auxiliary winding of high resistance
(B) with an auxiliary winding of high reactance
(C) with an auxiliary winding in series with a capacitor
(D) by any of the above three methods.
118. A single phase self-starting motor has two stator windings
(A) which are placed at 900 and fed in phase
(B) which are placed at 900 and fed out of phase
(C) which are placed at 450 and fed out of phase
(D) none of above.
119. In a single phase hysteresis motor, starting torque is caused by
(A) Eddy current
(B) Hysteresis
(C) Both eddy current and hysteresis
120. A two value capacitor motor when compared to a capacitor start has
(A) Higher starting torque and higher running power factor
(B) Higher starting torque and lower running power factor
(C) Same starting torque and improved running power factor
121. Single phase induction motor can be made self starting by
(A) adding series combination of a capacitor and auxiliary winding in parallel with the main winding
(B) adding an auxiliary winding in parallel with the main winding
(C) adding an auxiliary winding in series with a capacitor and the main winding.
122. The following motor is popularly used in driving a refrigerator
(A) d.c shunt motor
(B) universal motor
(C) plain cage induction motor
(D) squirrel cage induction motor.
123. Motor used in driving a tape recorder is
(B) Synchronous motor
(C) Induction motor
124. Speed of a repulsion motor at no load is
(A) low
(B) very low
(C) high
(D) dangerously high.
125. Operation of a hysteresis motor can be explained on the basis of
(A) cross field theory
(B) continuously revolving magnetic flux
(C) pulsating magnetic flux
(D) intermittently revolving magnetic flux.
126. The main drawback of a shaded pole motor is
(A) Low efficiency
(B) Low starting torque
(C) Very little overload capacity
(D) All of these.
127. Consider the following single-phase motors:
I. Capacitor start motor
II. Capacitor start and run motor
III. Permanent split capacitor motor
IV. Shaded pole motor.
The correct sequence of the increasing order of their costs is
(A) IV, III, II, I
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) 111, IV, I, II.
128. A universal motor runs at
(A) higher speed with dc supply and with less sparking
(B) higher speed with ac supply and with less sparking
(C) same speed with both ac and dc supplies
(D) higher speed with ac supply but with increased sparking at the brushes.
129. The main reason of using a hysteresis motor, for high quality tape recorders and record players is that
(A) its speed is constant (synchronous)
(B) it develops extremely steady torque
(C) it requires no centrifugal switch
(D) its operation is not affected by mechanical vibrations.
130. A fluctuating voltage supply is detrimental to a refrigerator motor, but not to a ceiling fan motor, although both
are single-phase induction motors because, the refrigerator motor
(A) is made more robust than the fan motor
(B) is subjected to short duty cycle but the fan motor is subjected to continuous duty
(C) is enclosed in a sealed unit while the fan motor is open to the environment
(D) load is constant, but the fan motor load is voltage dependent.
Transformers
1. Which of the following is minimized by laminating the core of a transformer?
(A) Hysteresis loss
(C) Heat loss
2. The function of breather in a transformer is
(A) To provide oxygen to the cooling air
(B) To provide cooling air
(C) To arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
(D) To filter the transformer
3. Iron loss in a transformer occurs in
(A) Core
(B) Winding
(C) Insulating oil
(D) Main body
4. Under no load condition, which of the following loss is negligible?
(A) Hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss
(D) All losses have same magnitude
5. Open circuit test of a transformer gives
(A) Hysteresis loss
(C) Sum of hysteresis and eddy current loss
(D) Copper loss
6. Copper loss in a transformer occurs in
(A) Core
(B) Winding
(C) Main body
(D) Bushing
7. Which test on a transformer provides information about regulation,
efficiency and heading under load conditions?
(A) Open circuit test
(B) Back to back test
(C) Hopkinson test
(D) Short circuit test
8. For a transformer, the condition for maximum efficiency is
(A) Hysteresis loss= eddy current loss
(B) Core loss= hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss= iron loss
(D) Total loss =2/3 copper loss
9. Eddy current losses in a transformer core can be reduce by
(A) Reducing the thickness of lamination
(B) Increase the thickness of lamination
(C) Increase the air gap in the magnetic circuit
(D) Reducing the air gap in the magnetic circuit
10. In a transformer, the magnetic coupling between the primary and
secondary circuit can be increased by
(A) Increasing the number of turns
(B) Using soft material for windings
(C) Using the magnetic core of low reluctance
(D) Using transformer oil of better quality
11. If the flux density in the core of a transformer is increased
(A) Frequency on secondary winding will change
(B) Wave shape on secondary side will be distorted
(C) Size of the transformer can be reduced
(D) Eddy current losses will reduce.
12. Which loss in a transformer varies significantly with load?
(A) Hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss
(D) Core loss
13. Voltage remaining constant, if the frequency is increased then
(A) Eddy current losses will decrease
(B) Hysteresis loss will decrease
(C) Eddy current losses will remain unchanged
(D) Hysteresis loss will remain unchanged
14. The power factor in a transformer
(A) Is always unity
(B) Is always leading
(C) Is always lagging
(D) Depends on the power factor of the load.
15. At a load the current taken by a transformer
(A) Lag behind the applied voltage by 80
(B) Lags behind the applied voltage by 50
(C) Leads the applied voltage 50
(D) Lead the applied voltage by 80
16. The efficiency of a transformer does not depend upon
(A) Current
(B) Load
(C) Power factor
17. If the secondary of a 1: 10 step up transformer is connected to primary of a 1: 5 step up transformation ratio
will be
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 50
(D) 2500
18. Which of the transformer will be smallest in size?
(A) 10 kVA ,50 Hz
(B) 10 kVA, 60 Hz
(C) 10 kVA, 100 Hz
(D) 10 kVA, 200 Hz
19. A 1600 kVA, 200 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be restricted to
(A) 800 kVA
(B) 400 kVA
(C) 200 kVA
(D) 100 kVA
20. A short circuit test on a transformer gives
(A) Copper losses at full load
(B) Copper losses at half load
(C) Iron losses at any load
(D) Sum of iron losses and copper losses.
21. Leakage fluxes in a transformer may be minimized by
(A) Sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings
(B) Constantly cooling of core
(C) Under rating the transformer
(D) Reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum.
22. Essential condition for the parallel operation of transformer is
(A) They must have equal kVA ratings
(B) Their voltage rating must be in portion to the load shared.
(C) They must operate at the same frequency
(D) Their ration of transformation must be in proportion to the load shared.
23. A transformer having 100 turns of primary side is applied with 200 V ac. In order to get 400 V ac on secondary
side the number of turns on secondary side must be
(A) 200
(B) 800
(C) 50
(D) 100
24. Which of the following transformers will be largest in size?
(A) 1 kVA, 25 Hz
(B) 1 kVA, 50 Hz
(C) 1 kVA, 60 Hz
(D) 1 kVA, 100 Hz
25. A step up transformer increases
(A) Power
(B) Power factor
(C) Voltage
(D) Frequency
26. In a step-down transformer
(A) Secondary turns are less than primary turns
(B) Secondary power is less than primary power
(C) Phase shift is always 180
(D) Secondary circuit is always more than primary current.
27. A transformer has a full load iron loss of 900 W and copper loss of 1600 W. at what percent of the load, the
transformer will have maximum efficiency
(A) 100%
(B) 90%
(C) 75%
(D) 50%
28. Power transformers are usually designed to have maximum efficiency
(A) Near full load
(B) At 75% of full load
(C) At 50% of full load
(D) Between 50% and 75% of full load
29. Distribution transformers are usually designed to have maximum efficiency
(A) Near full load
(B) Near 75% of load
(C) Near 50% of load
(D) Near no load
30. Iron losses of a transformer can be approximately calculated if
(A) The gauge of sheet used in core is known
(B) The material of core and yoke is known
(C) The weight of core and yoke is knowns
(D) The shape of core and yoke is known
31. In high frequency transformers
(A) Carbon cores are used
(B) Wooden cores are used
(C) Ferrite core are used
(D) Aluminum cores are used
32. In a transformer it is difficult to measure the efficiency by output-input measurement methods because
(A) The output is sinusoidal and hence cannot be measured
(B) Losses are abnormally high
(C) Efficiency of transformer is usually high and hence extremely accurate measurements will be necessary
(D) Output in out of phase with respect input
33. What will be the efficiency when the transformer operates at unity power factor and 60% of load?
(A) 99%
(B) 96.5%
(C) 93.3%
(D) 91.8%
34. Open circuit test on a transformer yields
(A) Core losses
(B) Copper losses
(C) Sum of core and copper losses
(D) Leakage of reactance.
35. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon
(A) Load current
(B) Load current and voltage
(C) Load current, voltage and frequency
(D) Load current, voltage frequency and power factor.
36. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformer?
(A) Polarity test
(B) Radio interference test
(C) Core insulation voltage test
(D) Impedance test
37. A transformer will have highest efficiency near
(A) 25% of rated load
(B) 50% of rated load
(C) 75% of rated load
(D) 93% of rated load
38. A 1 KVA transformer, at full load, will have
(A) Copper losses greater than iron losses
(B) Iron losses greater than copper losses
(C) Windage losses more than iron losses
(D) Windage losses less than copper losses
39. The sum of all losses in a 1 KVA transformer, at full load, will be of order of
(A) 10 W
(B) 50 W
(C) 150 W
(D) 250 W
40. In a transformer if peak voltage is fed to primary
(A) The iron losses will be less
(B) The iron losses will be more
(C) The copper losses will be more
(D) The windage losses will be more
41. In a transformer the hysteresis losses are 100 k when the input voltage form factor is 2.11 if the output voltage
form factor is 1.40, the hysteresis loss will be
(A) 140 K
(B) 140/111 K
(C) 200 K
(D) 70 K
42. The phase difference between the primary and secondary voltage of a transformer is
(A) 0
(B) 90 degree
(C) 180 degree
(D) Between 30 and 60 degree
43. In a transformer, the copper loss at half load as compared to that at full load will be
(A) 4 times
(B) 2 times
(C) Half
(D) One fourth
44. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have
(A) Low reluctance
(B) Low resistance
(C) High reluctance
(D) High resistance
45. The desirable properties of transformer core material are
(A) Low permeability and low hysteresis loss
(B) High permeability and high hysteresis loss
(C) High permeability and low hysteresis loss
(D) Low permeability and high hysteresis loss
46. Core losses in a transformer
(A) Very from 1% to 3% between no load and full load
(B) Vary from 10% to 50% between no load and full load
(C) Decrease as the load on transformer increases
(D) Depend only on the supply voltage
47. The function of transformer oil in a transformer is
(A) To provide insulation and cooling
(B) To provide protection against lighting
(C) To provide protection against short circuiting
(D) To lubricate the moving parts
48. Full load copper loss in a transformer is 1600 watts, at half load loss will be
(A) 6400 W
(B) 1600 W
(C) 800 W
(D) 400 W
49. Iron loss for transformer is 400 watts, if the transformer is working at its maximum efficiency then copper loss
will be
(A) 1600 W
(B) 400 W
(C) 200 W
(D) 100 W
50. A transformer working under the conditions of maximum efficiency has total losses of 1600 W, while operating
at half load, the copper loss will be
(A) 800 W
(B) 400 W
(C) 200 W
(D) 100 W
51. A transformer has full load copper loss of 800 W and core loss 600 W. total losses at no load will be
approximately
(A) 1400 W
(B) 1100 W
(C) 1000 W
(D) 600 W
52. Buchholz relay is used on
(A) Air cooled transformers
(B) Oil cooled transformers
(C) Welding transformers
(D) Furnace transformers
53. Buchholz relay is generally not provided on transformer below
(A) 1 kVA
(B) 5 kVA
(C) 50 kVA
(D) 500 kVA
54. Operating time of buchholz relay is of the order of
(A) 0.1 micro second
(B) 0.1 milli second
(C) 0.1 second
(D) 1 second
55. In a distribution transformer, normally
(A) Core losses are equal to copper losses
(B) Core losses are more than copper losses
(C) Core losses are less than copper losses
(D) Core losses are half of copper losses
56. A buchholz relay will operate in a transformer whenever there is
(A) Large internal fault
(B) Saturation of magnetic circuit
(C) Over load
57. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformers?
(A) over current protection
(B) Buchholz relay
(C) Over fluxing protection
58. In a transformer
(A) Open circuit and short circuit test are conducted on low voltage side
(B) Open circuit and short circuit test are conducted on high voltage
(C) Open circuit test is conducted on high voltage side and short circuit test on low voltage side
(D) Open circuit test is conducted on low voltage side and short circuit test is conducted on high voltage side
59. For a transformer operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at
(A) Zero power factor
(B) Unity power factor
(C) 0.8 leading power factor
(D) 0.8 lagging power factor
60. The function of a breather in a transformer is
(A) To provide protection against over current
(B) To suppress harmonics
(C) To arrest flow of moisture in the tank
(D) To control the level of oil in the tank
61. The efficiency of a 430/200 V transformer at full load 0.8 pf. Lagging is 95%, the efficiency at full load 0.8 pf.
Leading, will be
(A) 99%
(B) 95.5%
(C) 95%
(D) 90%
62. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means
(A) Difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
(B) Difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
(C) Output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
(D) Output voltage fluctuation from no load to full is least
63. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at
(A) Zero power factor
(B) Lagging power factor
(C) Leading power factor
(D) Unity power factor
64. The leakage impedance of primary and secondary windings of a transformer are (3+j4) ohms and (1+j4) ohms
respectively. It can be concluded that the transformer has
(A) Low voltage primary
(B) Low voltage secondary
(C) High voltage secondary
(D) No conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the information given.
65. The color of dry silica get is
(A) Pale yellow
(B) Pale pink
(C) Pale green
(D) Blue
66. The color of moist silica get is
(A) Red
(B) Brown
(C) Blue
(D) Yellow
67. A transformer has copper loss of 1.5% and reactance 3.5% when tested on load.it will have better regulation at
(A) Unity power factor
(B) O.8 lagging power factor
(C) 0.8 leading power factor
68. In a 50 kVA transformer the number of turns in primary and the secondary windings are 834 and 58
respectively, if the primary is connected to 3300 V supply the secondary current will be
(A) 15 A
(B) 30 A
(C) 218 A
(D) 438 A
69. If full load copper loss of a transformer is 800 W, its copper loss at 75% load will be
(A) 800 W
(B) 450 W
(C) 400 W
(D) 200 W
70. The essential condition for parallel operating of two single phase transformer is that they should have same
(A) Efficiency
(B) Capacity
(C) Voltage ratio
(D) Polarity
71. In the transformer the resistance between the primary and secondary must be
(A) Zero
(B) 1 K ohm
(C) 100 K ohm
(D) Infinite
72. The secondary of current transformer is always short circuited under operating condition because
(A) It avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(B) It avoids high voltage surges
(C) It protects the primary circuit
(D) It is same for operation
73. The main advantage of an auto transformer over a two winding transformer is that
(A) No cooling is required
(B) Hysteresis losses are minimized
(C) Eddy current losses are minimized
(D) Only one winding is used as a result there is substantial saving in material
74. Auto transformer is used
(A) When operator is not available
(B) When copper losses are to be reduced
(C) When higher efficiency is desired
(D) When the transformer ratio is small
75. In the break occurs in a 200: 100-volt auto transformer in the winding which is common to high voltage as well
as low voltage side, then the output voltage on the low voltage side will be
(A) 200 V
(B) 100 2root V
(C) 100 V
(D) Zero
76. In the auto transformer, effective saving on copper and copper losses will occur, when the transformation ratio is
(A) More than 1
(B) Nearly equal to 1
(C) Less than 1
(D) 0.707
77. An auto transformer has
(A) Only one winding
(B) Two winding of the same gauge of wire
(C) Two windings of different windings
(D) More than two windings
78. Which of the following condition should be fulfilled for the parallel operation of two transformer?
(A) Percentage impedance should be the same
(B) Polarities of both secondary’s should be same
(C) Voltage rating should be the same
79. If the transformer core is made of copper
(A) Copper losses will be less
(B) Eddy current losses will be more
(C) Hysteresis losses will be more
80. If the ohmic resistance of windings of a transformer is zero, then
(A) There will be maximum magnetic leakage
(B) Copper losses will be zero
(C) Core losses will be more than copper losses
(D) Transformation ratio will be infinite
81. if the secondary of a 5: 1 step down transformer is connected to the primary of a 10 :1 step down transformer
the total step down ratio of transformation will be
(A) 5: 1
(B) 10: 1
(C) 50: 1
(D) 2500: 1
82. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by
(A) Back to back test
(B) Open circuit test
(C) Short circuit test
83. Three-to-three phase transformer connection possible for parallel operation is
(A) Δ-Y to Δ-Y
(B) Δ- Δ to Δ- Y
(C) Y- Y to Δ- Y
(D) Δ-Y to Y- Δ
84. Three-to-three phase transformer connection not feasible for parallel operation is
(A) Y-Y to Y-Y
(B) Y-Y to Δ-Δ
(C) Y-Δ to Δ-Δ
(D) Y-Δ to Δ-Y
85. When a transformer operates under no load condition, the current
(A) Will lag the applied voltage 90 degree
(B) Will lag the applied voltage by about 75 degree
(C) Will lead the applied voltage by about 75 degree
(D) Will be in the phase with the applied voltage
86. The useful flux of a transformer is 1.2 weber. When the transformer is loaded at 0.8 pf. Lagging the mutual flux
will be closer to
(A) 1.5 Weber’s
(B) 1.28 Weber’s
(C) 1.2 weber
(D) 1.1 weber
87. In auto transformer a break occurs at the point P. the value V2will be
(A) 200 V
(B) 100 V
(C) 50 V
(D) Zero
88. Which of the following condition should be fulfilled for the parallel operation of two transformers?
(A) Ratio of equivalent resistance and equivalent reactance should be the same
(B) Turn ratio should be the same
(C) Percentage impedance should be the same
89. If a transformer core is made of copper and coils are made up of steel wire, then
(A) Magnetizing current will reduced
(B) Copper losses in the winding will be more
(C) Eddy current losses will be less
90. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?
(A) Eddy current loss
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Core loss
(D) Friction loss
91. In transformer for the waveform on primary as shown, the corresponding wave for secondary side is
represented by the curve
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
92. In a step up transformer, the emf per turn on primary winding is
(A) Same as emf turn of the winding on the secondary
(B) More than the emf per turn of winding on the secondary
(C) Less than the emf per turn of the winding on the secondary side
(D) In the same ratio with emf on secondary winding as the voltage ratio
93. 1 tesla is the same as
(A) 1 weber
(B) 1 henry
(C) 1 weber/m2
(D) 100 weber/m2
94. As the general rule, the kVA rating ratio of transformers operating in parallel should be within
(A) 2: 1
(B) 3: 1
(C) 4:1
(D) 5:1
95. If two transformers not having the same percent ge impedances are connected in parallel for charging a
load, then
(A) One of the transformer will be always fully loaded
(B) One of the transformer is likely to get burnt
(C) Load sharing of the transformers will not be proportional to kVA ratings
(D) Power factor of both the transformers will be lagging.
96. Which value of flux is involved in the emf equation of the transformer?
(A) Maximum value
(B) Average value
(C) RMS value
(D) Critical value
97. A 11 KV transformer is subjected to 1 minute 50 Hz , lower frequency test voltage of
(A) 11 KV peak
(B) 12 KV rms
(C) 28 KV rms
(D) 110 KV rms
98. Harmonic currents in a transformer cause
(A) Increase I2R loss
(B) Increased core loss
(C) Magnetic interference with protective relays
99. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer?
(A) Over load
(B) Core saturation
(C) Poor insulation
(D) Loose connections
100. A 100 W 220 V incandescent bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220 V, 20 KVA transformer
is open circuited, the bulb will
(A) Not glow
(B) Glow with less than normal brightness
(C) Glow with normal brightness
(D) Glow with more than normal brightness.
101. In Scott connections the main transformer has center tap on
(A) Primary winding
(B) Secondary winding
(C) Both primary and secondary windings
(D) None
102. In Scott connections the leaser transformer operation on 0.866 of its
(A) Rated current
(B) Rated voltage
(C) Rated power
(D) Rated impedance
103. Two single phase 100 KVA transformers, each having different leakage, impendance are connected in
parallel. When a load of 150 KVA at 0.8 pf lagging is applied
(A) Both transformers will operate at power factor more than 0.8 lagging
(B) Both transformer operate at power factor less than 0.8 lagging
(C) One of the transformer operate at pf more than 0.8 lagging and the other will operate at p.f less than 0.8
lagging
(D) Both transformer will operate at identical power factor
104. Two transformer T1 and T2 have identical ratings. Transformer T1 is designed for flux density of
1.15 Wb/m2 and transformer T2 is designed for the flux density of 1.45 wb/m2 . from the above information it
can be concluded that
(A) Both transformer will operate at 0.8 pf lagging
(B) Both transformer will have identical losses at full load
(C) The weight of transformer T1 will be more than that of transformer T2
(D) The regulation of the transformer T1will be better than that of transformer T2
105. A tap changer is used on a transformer for
(A) Adjustments in primary voltage
(B) Adjustments in secondary voltage
(C) Adjustments in both primary and secondary voltage
(D) Adjustments in power factor
106. Over currents in a transformer affect
(A) Insulation life
(B) Temperature rise
(C) Mechanical stress
107. In a transformer, the tapings are usually provided on
(A) Primary side
(B) Secondary side
(C) Low voltage side
(D) High voltage side
108. A current transformer can be used with which of the following instrument
(A) Ammeter
(B) Wattmeter
(C) Watt hour meter
109. Voltage transformer of which class of accuracy can be used for precision testing a standard laborites?
(A) 0.1 class
(B) 10 class
(C) 5.00 class
(D) 1000 class
110. A transformer has primary to secondary turn ratio of 10, every single ohm of reactance on secondary
winding when referred to primary will be the same as
(A) 0.1 ohm
(B) 1 ohm
(C) 10 ohm
(D) 100 ohm
111. For the same rating which of the following sets will be costly?
(A) Three phase transformer
(B) Three transformers each of the single phase type
(C) Both will have identical cost
(D) None
112. Which of the following is not a fitting on the transformer?
(A) Breather
(B) Conservator
(C) Buchholz relay
(D) Commutator
113. The reactance of transformer depends on
(A) Size of the core
(B) Size of the tank
(C) Leakage flux
114. If the frequency of supply voltage is doubled, which loss will increase
(A) Eddy current loss
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss
115. No load current in a transformer as a percentage of full load current is approximately
(A) 25%
(B) 15% to 20%
(C) 5% to 10%
(D) 1% to 3%
116. In a transformer maximum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(A) Unity
(B) 0.5
(C) Lagging
(D) Loading
117. The regulation of a good transformer should be near
(A) 1%
(B) 10%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
118. In a transformer minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(A) Unity
(B) 0.707
(C) Lagging
(D) Leading
119. Scott connections are used for
(A) Single phase to three phase transformation
(B) Three phase to single phase transformation
(C) Three phase to three phase and three phase to two phase transformation
120. In Scott connections, the neutral point divides the leaser winding in the ratio
(A) 1:3
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:1
(D) 1:4
121. In a large capacity transformer 5% of the turns at the ends of high voltage winding are provided with
extra insulation
(A) Provide protection against lightning
(B) Provide protection against corona
(C) Provide protection due to surges occurring during switching operations
(D) For all above protections
122. The permittivity of the Bakelite is approximately
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.2
(C) 4.4
(D) 44
123. The permittivity of the transformer oil is about
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.2
(C) 22
(D) 44
124. Bachholz relay is used in
(A) Line protection
(B) Greater protection
(C) Transformer protection
(D) Motor protection
125. Maximum regulation of a transformer occurs at
(A) Rated kVA of transformer
(B) Unity power factor
(C) Lagging power factor
(D) Leading power factor
126. The power factor at which the regulation will be maximum is
(A) 0.385 leading
(B) 0.615 leading
(C) 0.385 lagging
(D) 0.615 lagging
127. The maximum regulation of this transformer will be
(A) 0.5%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 4.5%
(D) 6.5%
128. Impedance matching transformers are used for
(A) Measuring low voltages and low currents
(B) Measuring high voltages and high currents
(C) Stabilizing voltage fluctuation due to varying loads
(D) Minimizing the effects of harmonics
129. A transformer has input voltage of 100 V at 400 Hz. If the number of turns is 375, the peak value of flux
will be
(A) 1.5 μ Wb
(B) 15 μ Wb
(C) 150 μ Wb
(D) 1500 μ Wb
130. In a transformer on no load, the input voltage
(A) Leads the magnetizing current by 90
(B) Lags the magnetizing current by 90
(C) Is the phase with magnetizing current
(D) Is always at 45 to the magnetizing current
131. In a transformer the voltage induced in the secondary winding
(A) Leads the flux by 90
(B) Leads the flux by less than 45
(C) Lags the flux by 90
(D) Lags the flux by less than 45
132. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
(A) Voltage ratio
(B) Copper loss
(C) Temperature
(D) Dielectric strength of oil
133. Which of the following can be reduced when the flux density in the transformer core is increased?
(A) Size of transformer
(B) Output frequency
(C) Wave shape distortion
(D) Copper losses
134. In a three phase transformer, the phase difference between the primary and the induced secondary
winding is
(A) 90
(B) 120
(C) 180
(D) 360
135. When the transformer core is made of copper, which of the following loss will be more
(A) Copper loss
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Thermal loss
(D) Eddy current loss
136. Porcelain bushings on transformer are normally not used beyond
(A) 11 KV
(B) 66 KV
(C) 132 KV
(D) 220 KV
137. In Scott connection the neutral point divides the winding of the teaser transformer in the ratio of
(A) 1:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 1:3
(D) 1:4
138. The secondary of a current transformer under operating conditions is short-circuited to avoid
(A) Break in primary winding
(B) Insulation break-down
(C) Core saturation and high voltage induction
(D) High voltages surge
139. Which of the following test can be used to determine the efficiency of two identical transformers at full
load?
(A) Open-circuit test
(B) Short-circuit test
(C) Type tests
(D) Back to back test
140. The inductive reactance of a transformer depends on
(A) Electromotive force
(B) Magetomotive force
(C) Magnetic flux
(D) Leakage flux
141. Which of the following prevents the damage to a transformer due to lightning and switching?
(A) Buchhloz relay
(B) Conservator
(C) Breather
(D) Horn gap
142. The voltage regulation of a transformer can be zero, when the power factor is
(A) Unity
(B) 0.5
(C) Leading
(D) Lagging
143. The harmonics currents in transformer increase all the following except
(A) Copper loss
(B) Core loss
(C) Magnetic interference with protective relays
(D) Secondary voltage
144. The value of useful flux least depends on
(A) Magnetomotive force
(B) Voltage
(C) Load
145. The operation of an ideal voltage transformer is on which of the following assumption ?
(A) Negligible resistance
(B) No leakage flux
(C) Non-saturation of core
146. In which of the following transformer part of primary winding also serves as the secondary winding ?
(A) Step up transformer
(B) Current transformer
(C) Potential transformer
(D) Auto transformer
147. The characteristics of a voltage transformer are
(A) Current and voltage both vary with load
(B) Voltage remaining constant, current varies with load
(C) Current remaining constant, voltage varies with load
(D) Current and voltage remain constant, power factor varies with load
148. When a star-delta transformer bank of three single phase transformers is to be used for step down
transformation with line voltages of 23000 V and 2300 V, the ratio of transformation will be
(A) 17.2:1
(B) 12.1 :1
(C) 10: 1
(D) 5.8 :1
149. The magnetizing current of a transformer is usually small because it has
(A) Laminated silicon steel core
(B) Small airgap
(C) Fewer rotating parts
(D) Large leakage flux
150. In a dry type transformer, accumulation of dust on the windings and core is likely to cause
(A) Corrosion of core material
(B) Short circuiting of primary winding
(C) Short circuiting of secondary winding
(D) Reduction in heat dissipation
151. Which of the following connection of transformer will given the highest secondary voltage?
(A) Delta primary, delta secondary
(B) Delta primary, star secondary
(C) Star primary, star secondary
(D) Star primary, delta secondary
152. In a transformer, no load current
(A) Leads the applied voltage by 90
(B) Lags the applied voltage by 90
(C) Lags the applied voltage by somewhat less than 90
(D) Leads the applied voltage somewhat less than 90
153. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full load 0.85 pf lagging is 5%. Its voltage regulation at full
load 0.85 pf leading will be
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Same
(D) Reduce and may even became negative
154. In an ideal transformer shown below, the resistance seen from the HV side
(A) 50 ohm
(B) 100 ohm
(C) 200 ohm
(D) 800 ohm
155. The efficiency of a transformer at full load 0.85 pf lag is 90%. Its efficiency at full load 0.85 pf lead is
(A) Less than 90%
(B) 90%
(C) More than 90%
(D) None of above
156. Two transformers are connected in parallel and share loads in the ratio of their KVA ratings when their ohmic
impedance
(A) Purely reactive
(B) Equal
(C) In direct ratio of their ratings
(D) In inverse ratio of their ratings
157. Power input to a transformer at no load and rated voltage consists of
(A) Eddy current
(B) Hysteresis loss
(C) Copper loss
(D) Core loss
158. In an ideal transformer, impedance transforms from one side to other
(A) In direct ratio of turns
(B) In direct square ratio turns
(C) In inverse ratio of turns
(D) In inverse square ratio of turns
159. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
(A) Zero
(B) Leading
(C) Unity
(D) Lagging
160. The essential condition for parallel operation of two single phase transformers is that they should the same
(A) Voltage ratio
(B) KVA
(C) Polarity
(D) Percentage impedance
161. When the impedance triangle of two transformers operation in parallel are not identical in shape and size, the
two transformers will
(A) Get heated unequally
(B) Share the load unequally
(C) Run with different power factor
162. A Scott connected transformer cannot be paralleled with a
(A) V-V transformer
(B) Y-Δ transformer
(C) Δ-Δ transformer
(D) Y-Y transformer
163. In the parallel operation of transformers, which statement is false
(A) Transformer transformation ratios same
(B) Transformers voltage ratings same
(C) Transformer kVA ratings equal
164. A step up transformer increases
(A) Current
(B) Power
(C) Frequency
(D) Voltage
165. Open circuit test on a transformer is done to determine
(A) Efficiency
(B) Copper loss
(C) Core loss
166. When a 400 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its KVA rating is
(A) Reduced to ¼
(B) Reduced to 1/8
(C) Reduced to ½
(D) Reduced to 1/16
Electric Power Generation
1. Out of the following which one is not an unconventional source of energy?
(A) Tidal power
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Wind power.
2. Pulverized coal is
(A) coal free from ash
(B) non-smoking coal
(C) coal which bums for long time
(D) coal broken into fine particles.
3. Heating value of coal is approximately
(A) 1000-2000 kcal / kg
(B) 2000-4000 kcal / kg
(C) 5000-6500 kcal / kg
(D) 9000-10,500 kcal / kg.
4. Water gas is a mixture of
(A) CO2 and O2
(B) O2and H2
(C) H2, N2 and O2
(D) CO, N2 and H2
5. Coal used in power plant is also known as
(A) steam coal
(B) charcoal
(C) coke
(D) soft coal
6. Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal?
(A) Bituminous coal
(B) Peat
(C) Lignite
(D) Coke
7. In a power plant, coal is carried from storage place to boilers generally by means of
(A) bucket
(B) V-belts
(C) trolleys
(D) manually.
8. Live storage of coal in a power plant means
(A) coal ready for combustion
(B) preheated coal
(C) storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
(D) coal in transit.
9. Pressure of steam in condenser is
(A) atmospheric pressure
(B) more than pressure
(C) slightly less than pressure
(D) much less than pressure.
10. Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is known as
(A) Ball mill
(B) Hopper
(C) Burner
(D) Stoker.
11. Power plants using coal work closely on known which of the following cycle?
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Binary vapor cycle
(C) Brayton cycle
(D) Rankine cycle.
12. Critical pressure of water is
(A) 1 kg / cm2
(B) 100 kg / cm2
(C) 155 kg / cm2
(D) 213.8 kg / cm2
13. The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with
(A) increased quantity of coal burnt
(B) larger quantity of water used
(C) lower load in the plant
(D) use of high steam pressures.
14. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a thermal power plant?
(A) Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
(B) Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water
(C) Use of high pressures
15. Steam pressures usually used in thermal power plants are
(A) 5 kg/cm2 to 10 kg / cm2
(B) 50 kg/cm2 to 100 kg / cm2
(C) 110 kg/cm2 to 170 kg / cm2
(D) 200 kg/cm2 to 215 kg / cm2
16. When pulverized fuel is not used, the equipment used for supplying coal to the boiler is
(A) Heater
(B) Stoker
(C) Burner
(D) Skip hoist.
17. Burning of low grade fuel can be improved by
(A) Blending with better quality
(B) Oil assisted ignition
(C) Pulverizing
18. As steam expands in turbine
(A) its pressure increases
(B) its specific volume increases
(C) its boiling point increases
(D) its temperature increases.
19. Water is supplied to a boiler
(A) at atmospheric pressure
(B) at slightly more than atmospheric pressure
(C) at 100 cm/kg2
(D) at more than the steam pressure on the boiler.
20. Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler?
(A) Cold water
(B) Hot water
(C) Wet steam
(D) Super-heated steam.
21. Super heated steam is always
(A) at a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to a steam pressure
(B) at a pressure more than the boiler steam pressure
(C) separated from water particles before being supplied to turbine
(D) at a pressure less than the maximum cycle pressure.
22. The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is
(A) Induced draft fans
(B) De-super heaters
(C) Electrostatic precipitators
(D) Re-heaters.
23. Permissible pH value of water for boilers is
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) slightly more than 7
(D) 10.
24. A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam combing out of
(A) Boiler
(B) Super-heater
(C) Economizer
(D) Turbine.
25. Which of the following, is not a high pressure boiler?
(A) Loeffler boiler
(B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Velox boiler
(D) Lamont boiler.
26. What is the maximum size of steam turbine usually being installed, for thermal power plants?
(A) 120 MW
(B) 250 MW
(C) 500 MW
(D) 1000 MW.
27. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range
(A) 18-24%
(B) 30-40%
(C) 44-62%
(D) 68-79%.
28. Which of the following is not the voltage at which power is usually transmitted
(A)132 kV
(B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV
(D) 20 kV.
29. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at
(A) 3000 rpm
(B)1500 rpm
(C) 1000 rpm
(D) 750 rpm.
30. In regenerative cycle, bled steam is
(A) discharged to atmosphere
(B) condensed in steam condenser
(C) used to beat feed water for boiler
(D) is mixed with steam supplied to turbine.
31. Standard frequency usually for electric supply is
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 60 Hz
(C) 50 to 60 Hz
(D) 50 to 55 Hz.
32. In power station practice "spinning reserve" is
(A) reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service
(B) reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready to take the load
(C) reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
(D) capacity of the part of the plant that remains under maintenance.
33. Bagasse is
(A) low quality coal
(B) a fuel consisting of wood
(C) fibrous portion of sugarcane left after extracting the juice
(D) a kind of rice straw.
34. Low grade fuels have
(A) low moisture content
(B) low ash content
(C) low calorific value
(D) low carbon content.
35. Which variety of coal has lowest calorific value?
(A) Steam-coal
(B) Bituminous coal
(C) Lignite
(D) Anthracite.
36. In a steam locomotive the engine is
(A) Single cylinder
(B) Vertical
(C) Condensing
(D) Non-condensing.
37. The boilers using lignite as fuel do not use
(A) under feed stoker
(B) traveling grate stoker
(C) spreader stoker
38. In a steam turbine cycle, the lowest pressure occurs in
(A) turbine inlet
(B) boiler
(C) condenser
(D) super heater.
39. Steam pressure in modem thermal plants of 100 MW and above capacity may be exacted to be
(A) 10 kg/cm2
(B) 50 kg/cm2
(A) up to 100kg/cm2
(D) more than 100 kg/cm2
40. The overall efficiency of a boiler in a thermal power plant is of the order of
(A)10%
(B) 25 to 30%
(C) 40 to 50%
(D) 70 to 80%.
41. Chemical composition of coal is given by
(A) Proximate analysis
(B) Ultimate analysis
(C) Orast analysis
42. Which coal will have highest ash content?
(A) Bituminous coal
(B) Grade I steam coal
(C) Coking coal
(D) Lignite.
43. Ash content of most of the Indian coals is around
(A) 1%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 20%.
44. Ash content of coal can be reduced by
(A) slow burning
(B) washing
(C) pulverizing
(D) mixing with high grade coal.
45. A 100 MW thermal power-plant will consume nearly how many tonnes of coal in one hour?
(A) 50 tonnes
(B) 150 tonnes
(C) 1500 tonnes
(D) 15,000 tonnes.
46. The steam consumption per kWh of electricity generated in a modem power plant is of the order of
(A) 1-2 kgs
(B) 2-4 kgs
(C) 5-7 kgs
(D) 10-12 kgs.
47. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic turbine used is
(A) Kaplan turbine
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Pelton wheel
(D) Jonual turbine.
48. Soot is virtually nothing but
(A) ash
(B) cinder
(C) gas
(D) carbon
49. In pumped storage
(A) Power is produced by means of pumps
(B) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
(C) Downstream water is pumped up-stream during off load periods
(D) Water is re circulated through turbine.
50. If the air standard efficiency of. a thermodynamic cycle is given as
η= 1 - (k (r-1)) / ( rk-1 )
where r = compression ratio, k = Cp/ Cv
the cycle is
(A) Lenoir cycle
(B) Brayton cycle
(C) Atkinson cycle
51. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as
(A) Monograph
(B) Hectograph
(C) Topograph
(D) Hydrograph.
52. Cost of operation of which plant is least?
(A) Gas turbine plant
(B) Thermal power plant
(C) Nuclear power plant
(D) Hydroelectric plant.
53. In a hydro-electric plant a conduct system for taking water from the intake works to the turbine is known as
(A) Dam
(B) Reservoir
(C) Penstock
(D) Surge tank.
54. A Pelton wheel is
(A) inward flow impulse turbine
(B) Outward flow impulse turbine
(C) Inward flow reaction turbine
(D) Axial flow impulse turbine.
55. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel is
(A) Actual operating speed on no load
(B) Full load speed
(C) No load speed when governor mechanism fails
(D) 90% greater than the normal speed.
56. Spouting velocity is
(A) Ideal velocity of jet
(B) 50% of ideal velocity of jet
(C) Actual velocity of jet
(D) Velocity of jet under specified conditions.
57. Outward radial flow turbines
(A) are impulses turbines
(B) are reaction turbines
(C) are partly impulse partly reaction turbines
(D) may be impulse or reaction turbines.
58. A Francis turbine is
(A) Inward flow reaction turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow reaction turbine
(D) Outward flow impulse turbine.
59. A Kaplan turbine is
(A) a high head mixed flow turbine
(B) an impulse turbine, inward flow type
(C) a reaction turbine, outward flow type
(D) low head axial flow turbine.
60. In turbulent flow
(A) the fluid particles move in orderly manner
(B) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
(C) shear stresses are generally larger than in laminar flow
(D) cohesion is more effective than momentum transfer in causing shear stress.
61. An impulse turbine
(A) always operates submerged
(B) makes use of a draft tube
(C) is most suited for low head installations
(D) operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy.
62. In an impulse turbine
(A) water must be admitted over the whole circumference of the wheel
(B) it is not possible to regulate the flow without loss
(C) wheel must run full and be-kept entirely submerged in water below the tail race
(D) the pressure in the driving fluid as it moves over the vane, is atmospheric.
63. In binary vapor cycle
(A) steam at 2 different pressures is used
(B) steam is expanded in 2 turbines
(C) two fluids are used
(D) vapor and liquid are used as working substances.
64. Steam engine used in locomotive is
(A) single acting, condensing type
(B) single acting, non-condensing type
(C) double acting, non-condensing type
(D) double acting, condensing type.
65. In a thermal power plant cooling towers are used to
(A) condense low pressure steam
(B) cool condensed steam
(C) cool water used in condenser for condensing steam
(D) cool feed water of boiler.
66. Major constituent of methane gas is
(A) CO
(B) methane
(C) oxygen
(D) hydrogen.
67. Caking is
(A) making cakes of coal out of fine powders
(B) a variety of free burning coals
(C) coal produced from burning of wood in inert atmosphere
(D) in boiler furnace some coals become plastic and form lumps or masses of coal.
68. 1 atomic mass unit is equal to
(A) 1.66 x 10 -27 kg
(B) 1.66 x 10-25 kg
(C) 1.66 x 10 -17 kg
(D) 1.66 x 10-10 kg.
69. Particles having the same atomic number but different mass numbers arc called
(A) Positrons
(B) Beta particles
(C) Isotopes
(D) Decayed panicles.
70. Which of the following material can be used as a moderator?
(A) Graphite
(B) Heavy water
(C) Beryllium
71. In closed cooling system
(A) hot water is re circulated after cooling
(B) water does not flow
(C) air and water cooling is simultaneously used
(D) constant supply of fresh water for cooling is required.
72. A gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Brayton cycle
(C) Dual cycle
(D) Rankine cycle.
73. Maximum efficiency of an open cycle gas turbine is nearly
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%.
74. Compressor used in gas turbines is
(A) reciprocating compressor
(B) plunger type compressor
(C) screw compressor
(D) multistage axial flow compressor.
75. Which auxiliary of gas turbine consumes most of the power?
(A) Burner
(B) Combustion chamber
(C) Compressor
(D) Fuel pump.
76. Gas turbine is widely used in
(A) pumping stations
(B) aircraft
(C) locomotives
(D) automobiles.
77. In aircraft using gas turbine, the cycle used is
(A) Simple
(B) Regeneration
(C) Reheating
(D) Reheating with regeneration.
78. Overall efficiency of gas turbine is
(A) equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
(B) equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
(C) more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
(D) less than Diesel cycle efficiency.
79. In the figure, constant volume cycle is represented by
(A) 1245
(B)1235
(C) 12461
(D) 12345.
80. The cycle 1236 represents
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Dual cycle
(C) Constant pressure cycle
(D) Atkinson cycle.
81. Diesel cycle is represented by
(A) 1236
(B) 1246
(C) 1245
(D) 1285.
82. Which cycle cannot be represented in the given figure?
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Constant pressure cycle
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Brayton cycle.
83. The horse power of a Diesel locomotive is of the order of
(A) 100 to 200
(B) 500 to 1000
(C) 2000 to 2500
(D) 10.000 to 12,000.
84. A Diesel engine consumes Diesel oil nearly at the rate of
(A) 180 to 200 gm/BHP hr
(B) 400 to 450 gm/BHP hr
(C) 600 to 750 gm/BHP hr
(D) 1 kg/BHP hr.
85. The compression ratio in case of diesel engines is
(A) 5 to 7
(B) 7 to 10
(C) 14 to 22
(D) 25 to 36.
86. The firing order of a four cylinder engine is
(A)1-2-4-3
(B)1-4-2-3
(C) 1-2-3-4
(D)1-3-2-4.
87. The performance of engines of different HP, RPM and sizes can be compared on the basis of
(A) specific fuel consumption
(B) compression ratio
(C) clearance volume
(D) cylinder volume.
88. Advantage of hydro-electric power station is
(A) low operating cost
(B) free from pollution problems
(C) no fuel transportation problems
89. Which engine will have highest efficiency, between given temperature limits?
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Dual cycle.
90. Which if (he following is a non-petroleum fuel?
(A) Benzol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Ethyl alcohol
91. Heating value of diesel oil is the range
(A) 1000-1200 kcal/kg
(B) 2000-5000 kcal/kg
(C) 5000-9000 kcal/kg
(D) 9500-11000 kcal/kg.
92. Which of the following relation is correct?
(A) Weight of oxygen = 0.32 weight of air
(B) Weight of oxygen = 0.32 weight of air
(C) Weight of air = 0.23 weight of oxygen
(D) Weight of air =2.33 x weight of oxygen.
93. How many kg of air are required for the combustion of one kg of diesel fuel?
(A) 1 kg
(B) 1.3 kg
(C) 4 kg
(D) 15 kg.
94. Due to burning of 1 kg of pure carbon with a minimum quantity of air required, the percentage of carbon dioxide
in the exhaust gas would be
(A) 10%
(B) 19%
(C) 29%
(D) 39%.
95. Diesel engine fuels are rated by
(A) Octane number
(B) H.U.C.R.
(C) Cetane number
(D) CRF number.
96. The formula for cetane is
(A) C16 H34
(B) C12H32
(C) C10 H32
(D) C8H16
97. Cetane number of high speed diesel available in market is
(A) 100
(B) 80 to 90
(C) 60 to 75
(D) 45 to 55.
98. If an engine has spark plug, it can be safely concluded that the engine is
(A) not a diesel engine
(B) a two stroke petrol engine
(C) a four stroke petrol engine
(D) an air cooled petrol engine.
99. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
(A) compression ratio
(B) speed
(C) fuel
(D) torque.
100. A diesel engine of a bus is stared by
(A) Hand cranking
(B) Self-starter
(C) Compressed air
(D) Mini-petrol engine.
101. In a diesel engine fuel is injected at a pressure of
(A) 10 kg/cm2
(B) 20-30 kg/cm2
(C) 60 - 80 kg/cm2
(D) 90 - 130 kgcm2
102. Diesel engines. For power plants are usually
(A) horizontal
(B) slow speed
(C) supercharged
(D) air cooled.
103. A two stroke engine may be identified by
(A) piston size
(B) absence of valves
(C) cooling system
(D) lubrication system.
104. Piston rings for engines are made of
(A) east iron
(B) copper
(C) aluminium
(D) mild steel.
105. In a piston the maximum temperature occurs at
(A) ring section
(B) gudgeon pin
(C) top sides
(D) top center.
106. The temperature at which a lubricating oil will give off sufficient vapors to form combustible mixture with air, is
known as
(A) Flash point
(B) Fire point
(C) Pour point
(D) Combustion point.
107. Which temperature for a lubricating oil will be lowest?
(A) Flash point
(B) Fire point
(C) Pour point
(D) Boiling
108. Specific gravity of diesel oil is
(A) 0.84
(B) 1.14
(C) 2.7
(D) 3.8.
109. Rank of coal is based oil
(A) fixed carbon and healing value
(B) ash content
(C) size
(D) ash and moisture content.
110. The function of piston rings in an internal combustion engine is
(A) to prevent lubrication oil from entering the combustion space
(B) to prevent leakage of combustion chamber products past piston
(C) to transfer heat from piston to cylinder walls
111. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio?
(A) Petrol engine
(B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine
(D) Gas turbine.
112. Which of the following will not assist in getting high power output from a compression ignition engine?
(A) High compression ratio
(B) Fine atomization of fuel
(C) High charge density
(D) Large quantity of excess air.
113. The purpose of super-charging an engine is
(A) to increase the power output of the engine
(B) to reduce specific fuel consumption
(C) to reduce the noise of the engine
(D) to improve the cooling of cylinders.
114. Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
(A) cooling water
(B) exhaust gases
(C) lubricating oil
(D) radiation.
115. In case of diesel engines thermal efficiency is of the order of
(B) 15 of 25 percent
116. A mixture containing 60% cetane and 40% Iso-octane will have
(A) cetane number 60
(B) cetane number 40
(C) octane number 40
117. For supercharging of diesel engines, the air is supplied through
(A) reciprocating compressor
(B) centrifugal blower
(C) axial flow compressor
(D) injector.
118. The compression ratio in case of gas turbine is of the order of
(A) 5 to 7
(B)10 to 15
(C) 15 to 22
(D) 22 to 30.
119. A regenerator in a gas turbine
(A) reduces heat loss in exhaust
(B) permits use of higher compression ratio
(C) improves thermal efficiency
(D) permits use of fuels of inferior quality.
120. Out of the following diesel engines, the minimum air consumption per BHP will be in
(A) 4 stroke, mechanical injection
(B) 4 stroke, air injection
(C) 2 stroke, air injection
(D) 2 stroke, mech. injection, pump scavenging.
121. For the same maximum pressure and heat input the most efficiency cycle is
(A) Brayton cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Dual cycle.
122. For the same temperature limits and heat input, the most efficient cycle is
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Brayton cycle.
123. An air filter is used in
(A) nuclear power plants
(B) steam power plants
(C) diesel engine power plants
(D) hydro-power plants.
124. Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant?
(A) Cooling tower
(B) Penstock
(C) Oil pump
(D) Strainer.
125. Of the total heat supplied to a diesel engine plant, which one has the highest proportion?
(A) Useful output
(B) Heat lost to cooling water
(C) Heat lost in exhaust gases
(D) Heat loss in friction radiation, etc.
126. Supercharging of a diesel engine means
(A) overloading the engine for peak load
(B) operating the engine with age
(C) operating engine at higher altitudes
(D) supplying pressurized air during suction.
127. Which power plant cannot have single units of 100 MW capacity?
(A) Steam power plant
(B) Nuclear power plant
(C) Hydroelectric power plant
(D) Diesel engine power plant.
128. In a thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is recovered in
(A) chimney
(B) de-super heater
(C) economizer
(D) condenser.
129. Which of the following is not a fire tube boiler?
(A) Cochron boiler
(B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Locomotive boiler
(D) Babcock and Wilcox boiler.
130. In a super-heater
(A) pressure rises, temperature drops
(B) pressure rises, temperature remains constant
(C) pressure remains constant and temperature rises
(D) both pressure and temperature remains constant.
131. Bagasse is
(A) a variety of coal
(B) a fuel consisting of wood etc.
(C) fibrous portion of sugarcane left after extracting the juice
(D) a kind of rice straw.
132. Which of the following is not an accessory for a boiler?
(A) Feed water pump
(B) Condenser
(C) Economizer
(D) Air pre-heater.
133. A compound pressure gauge indicates
(A) fluctuating pressures
(B) pressures above atmospheric pressure
(C) pressures below atmospheric pressure
(D) pressures above and below atmospheric pressure.
134. For the same cylinder size and rpm which engine will produce more power?
(A) Gas engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Diesel engine
(D) Super-charged engine.
135. The internal combustion engines never work on
(A) Diesel cycle
(B) Rankine cycle
(C) Otto cycle
(D) Dual combustion cycle.
136. A Joule cycle consists of
(A) two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
(B) two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
(C) two isothermal and two constant volume processes
(D) two constant volume and two constant pressure processes.
137. In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is
(A) air
(B) diesel
(C) mixture of air and diesel
(D) any combustible gas.
138. The efficiency of an otto cycle will approach that of Carnot cycle when
(A) engine is operated at high rpm
(B) engine is run at high load
(C) constant volume processes are replaced by isothermal processes
(D) adiabatic processes are replaced by isothermal processes.
139. Which power plant normally operates at high speeds?
(A) Diesel engine plant
(B) Petrol engine plant
(C) Steam turbine plant
(D) Hydro-electric power plant.
140. Which instrument can be used to measure the flow of a liquid through a pipe?
(A) Pitot tube
(B) Venturimeter
(C) Pressure gauge
(D) Orifice.
141. A pitot tube is used to measure
(A) energy of liquid
(B) pressure of liquid
(C) energy and pressure of liquid
(D) energy, pressure and discharge of liquid.
142. A rotameter is used to measure
(A) velocity of fluids
(B) viscosity of fluids
(C) density of fluids
(D) discharge of fluids.
143. Vacuum can be measured by
(A) venturimeter
(B) pitot tube
(C) U tube manometer
(D) rotameter.
144. A binary vapor cycle
(A) uses a fluid at two pressures in the cycle
(B) uses fluid in liquid and vapor form
(C) uses two different vapors as working fluid
(D) uses same fluid twice.
145. In a steam power plant water is used for cooling purposes in
(A) boiler
(B) economizer
(C) condenser
(D) super-heaters.
146. Which steam will have least enthalpy
(A) wet steam at 10 kg/cm2
(B) dry and saturated steam at 10 kg/s cm2
(C) super-heated steam at 10 kg/cm2
147. In which part of the steam power plant the pressure of steam is less than the atmospheric pressure?
(A) Condenser
(B) Boiler
(C) Turbine
(D) Super beater.
148. In a thermal power plant a cooling tower cools
(A) steam from boiler
(B) steam from turbine
(C) water from economizer
(D) water from condenser.
149. Within the boiler, the temperature of steam is highest in
(A) water drum
(B) water tubes
(C) water walls
(D) super heater.
150. In a steam power plant which pipe line section is invariably lagged?
(A) pipes carrying steam from boiler to turbine
(B) pipes carrying water from condenser
(C) pipes carrying water from water treatment plant
(D) pipes carrying water from boiler feed pump to boiler.
151. Which of the following is generally not a constituent of coal?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Moisture
(C) Chromium
(D) Hydrogen.
152. Coil is generally considered to be of
(A) vegetable origin
(B) animal origin
(C) lava origin
153. When coal analysis gives fixed carbon, volatile combustible matter, ash and moisture the analysis is termed as
(A) ultimate analysis
(B) proximate analysis
(C) orsat analysis
(D) gross analysis.
154. API degree are used to measure
(A) specific gravity of oils
(B) viscosity of oils
(C) flash and fire points of fuels
(D) Sulphur content of fuels.
155. Sulphur content of liquid fuels assumes importance from the point of view of
(A) efficiency
(B) heating rate
(C) corrosion
(D) firing rate.
156. Fire and flash points of oils assume importance from the point of view of
(A) viscosity
(B) tendency to freeze during winter
(C) heating value
(D) ignition and storage hazards.
157. Coking is
(A) formation of lumps or masses of coke in boiler furnaces at high temperatures
(B) heating of coal in absence of air, driving out CO2 and leaving behind the residue and carbon
(C) burning of coal in furnace
(D) producing lumps of coal from fine powders with the help of a binder.
158. The air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
(A) compression ratio
(B) speed
(C) torque
159. The efficiency of steam generators is first a function of design. Beyond that, efficiency depends upon the loading
and manner of operation. Good operation consists in
(A) control and limiting of air
(B) minimizing combustibles in refuse and flue gas
(C) maintaining clean heat transfer surfaces
160. Generally the major constituent of exhaust gases from a thermal power plant is
(A) oxygen
(B) carbon monoxide
(C) nitrogen
(D) carbon dioxide.
161. The compression ratio for diesel engines is generally in the range
(A) 5 to 10
(B) 14 to 22
(C) 10 to 14
(D) 22 to 30.
162. Binary vapor cycles are not finding favor with designers because
(A) ideal vapors are not available
(B) initial cost of such plants is high
(C) higher pressures demand thicker sections of piping
(D) such plants are suitable for high load factors only.
163. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle improves as a result of all of the following EXCEPT
(A) heating of air before compression
(B) inter-cooling of air
(C) reheating of gas
(D) multistage expansion.
164. Even with best possible arrangements, the thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle is always below
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 40%.
165. The scavenging efficiency of a 4 stroke diesel engine is usually in the range
(A) 50% to 60%
(B) 60% to 75%
(C) 75% to 90%
(D) 95% to 100%.
166. Spot the odd one out
(A) Coke-oven as
(B) Water gas
(C) Freon gas
(D) Producer gas.
167. The cooking gas used in our homes is a by product of
(A) steel plants
(B) fertilizer plant
(C) petroleum refineries
(D) paper plants.
168. In power plants cooling towers are used to
(A) cool exhaust steam
(B) cool repeated steam
(C) cool feed water
(D) cool condenser outlet water.
169. Electrostatic precipitator is installed between
(A) coal bunker and boiler
(B) boiler furnace and chimney
(C) economizer and air heater
(D) condenser and economizer.
170. Which of the following equipment is installed to minimize pollution of surroundings?
(A) Water treatment plant
(B) De-super heaters
(C) Cooling towers
(D) Electrostatic precipitators.
171. Fly ash: Non-combustible particle: Cinders:
(A) charred coil
(B) moisture
(C) dust
(D) fog.
172. The path followed by the gases discharged from chimney called the 'plume', depends on
(A) thermal properties of gases
(B) dynamic properties of gases
(C) wind direction
173. In diesel engines, the injection pressure is of the order of
(A) 2 kg/cm2
(B) 20 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2
(D) 400 kg/cm2
174. In a turbine blades acts as
(A) moving blades in impulse turbine stages
(B) moving lades in reaction turbine stages
(C) reversing blades in velocity stages of impulse turbines
175. Topping turbines are
(A) high pressure non-condensing units installed in existing plants to exhaust into existing low pressure turbines
(B) those which divert major parts of the throttle steam at intermediate stages of the turbine of process unit
(C) introduce and remove steam into the turbine after the throttle
176. In case of non-condensing turbines the back pressure is
(A) atmospheric
(B) below atmospheric pressure
(C) above atmospheric pressure
(D) depends on the size of turbine.
177. In all of the following turbines the back pressure will be above the atmospheric pressure EXCEPT
(A) Topping turbine
(B) First turbine of repeat cycle
(C) Condensing turbine
(D) Non-condensing turbine.
178. In bleeder turbines, part of the steam is extracted for
(A) heating secondary air
(B) fed water heating
(C) reheating
(D) condensation.
179. As compared to steam at entry to the turbine, which of the following will be larger at exit?
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow rate
(C) Specific volume
(D) Specific enthalpy.
180. Pelton wheels are installed on
(A) run of river plants with pondage
(B) run of river plants without pondage
(C) base load plant
(D) high head plants.
181. Suspended solids can be removed from water by
(A) settling
(B) coagulation
(C) filtration
182. Dissolved solids in water can be removed/reduced by
(A) distillation
(B) demineralization
(C) softening
183. Small domestic electric power generators are usually of capacity around
(A) 10 kVA
(B) 5 kVA
(C) 1 kVA
(D) 100 VA.
184. Producer gas is a by product from
(A) fertilizer plants
(B) steel plants
(C) paper plants
(D) sugar mills.
185. Sour crude
(A) is corrosive when heated
(B) evolves significant amounts of hydrogen sulphide on distillation
(C) produces light fractions which require sweetening
186. Dam: Hydro plant:
(A) Chimney: Gases
(B) Coal: Steam plant
(C) Gas turbine: Steam turbine
(D) Reactor: Nuclear plant.
187. Bulb turbines are
(A) high speed turbines
(B) high pressure turbines
(C) low head turbines
(D) high head turbines.
188. A frauds turbine is
(A) Inward flow reaction turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow reaction turbine
(D) Outward flow impulse turbine.
189. In hydro power plants
(A) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low
(B) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high
(C) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high
(D) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low.
190. In which of the following power plant the availability of power is least reliable?
(A) Solar power plant
(B) Wind energy
(C) Tidal power plant
(D) Geothermal power plant.
191. Geothermal energy is
(A) a renewable energy resources
(B) alternative energy source
(C) inexhaustible energy source
192. The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
(A) lack of decidability
(B) availability in low energy densities
(C) intermittency
193. In the Geysers steam is continuously vented through fissures in the ground. These vents are called
(A) vent holes
(B) pot holes
(C) fumaroles
(D) sun spots.
194. Geologists believe that below the earth's crust, the molten mass exists in the form of
(A) magma
(B) vent
(C) hot cell
(D) liquation.
195. In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy
(A) hot water or steam is available
(B) hot gases are available
(C) molten lava is available
196. In axial flow turbines
(A) only part of the available head is converted into velocity before the water enters the wheel
(B) water is admitted over part of the circumference
(C) it is possible that the wheel may run full
(D) it is possible to regulate the flow.
197. In hydrothermal systems when steam, water and dissolved solids are available as source of energy, the entrained
solids are removed by
(A) filters
(B) centrifugal separators
(C) strainers
198. Presence of sand in geopressurized water is likely to cause problems of
(A) erosion
(B) heat exchange
(C) water circulation
199. Presence of non-condensable gases in geopressurized water causes
(A) corrosion of parts
(B) pollution
(C) flow problems
200. When geothermal energy is available in the form of saline water, power is developed using
(A) flashed-steam system
(B) binary-cycle system
(C) total flow system
201. Petrothermal systems are composed of hot dry rock with
(A) no underground water
(B) large underground water
(C) petrochemicals
(D) dense gases.
202. In petrothermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but no underground water. In such systems
energy is obtained by
(A) circulating compressed air
(B) pumping water
(C) creating water wells
203. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called
(A) diffusers
(B) ponds
(C) heliostats
(D) mantle.
204. Which of the following area is preferred for solar thermal electric plants?
(A) mountain tops
(B) hot arid zones
(C) coastal areas
(D) high rainfall zones.
205. In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
(A) water-steam
(B) liquid metals
(C) molten salts
206. Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
(A) fuel cell
(B) solar cell
(C) solar pond
207. Solar cells are made of
(A) silicon
(B) germanium
(C) silver
(D) aluminium.
208. The voltage of a single solar cell is
(A) 0.5 V
(B) 1 V
(C) 1.1 V
(D) 5 W.
209. The output of a solar cell is of the order of
(A) 0.1 W
(B) 0.5 W
(C) 1 W
(D) 5 W.
210. A module is a
(A) newly installed solar cell
(B) series parallel arrangement of solar cells
(C) a series of solar cells when not used for power generation
211. The major disadvantage, with solar cells for power generation is
(A) lack of availability
(B) large area requirement
(C) variable power
(D) high cost.
212. The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar sales could be around
(A) 99%
(B) 60%
(C) 48%
(D) 1%.
213. The source of energy for satellite is
(A) battery
(B) solar cell
(C) cryogenic storage
214. Winds caused by greater solar heating of the earth's surface near the equator than near the northern or southern
poles, are known as
(A) local winds
(B) equatorial winds
(C) planetary winds
(D) trade winds.
215. Local winds are caused by
(A) differential heating of land and water
(B) differential heating of plains and mountains
(C) any of the above
216. The total power of a wind stream is proportional to
(A) velocity of stream
(B) (velocity of stream )2
(C) (velocity of stream )3
(D) 1/ (velocity of stream)
217. Tidal energy mainly makes use of
(A) kinetic energy of water
(B) potential energy of water
(C) both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
218. Which of the following is a reaction turbine
(A) Banki turbine
(B) Jonval turbine
(C) Girard turbine
219. All of the following are electrical mechanical storage systems EXCEPT
(A) Pumped hydro-system
(B) Torsion bar system
(C) Super-conducting coils
(D) Kinetic flywheels.
220. Thermal storage of energy is possible in the form of
(A) sensible heat
(B) latent heat
(C) chemical reaction
221. Turn around efficiency of pump hydro-schemes seldom exceeds
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 25%
(D) 65%.
222. Batteries used for electrical energy storage are
(A) Laclanche cells
(B) Edison cells
(C) Lead acid cells
223. Turn around efficiency of battery energy storage system is around
(A) 75 percent
(B) 50 percent
(C) 25 percent
(D) 10 percent.
224. Sodium sulphur batteries use electrolyte consisting of
(A) solid aluminium oxide
(B) dilute sulphuric acid
(C) brine
(D) KOH.
225. Certain metals become super-conducting when cooled below
(A) melting point
(B) transition temperature
(C) 00 K
(D) 00 C
226. Which power plant is free from environmental pollution problems?
(A) Thermal power plant
(C) Hydro-power plant
(D) Geothermal energy power plant
227. Chemical representation for heavy water is
(A) H20
(B) H2O2
(C) H30
(D) D3O
228. The presence of CO2 and H2O in the atmosphere results in absorption of
(A) short wave ultra-violet radiations
(B) visible wavelengths of spectrum
(C) long wave infrared radiations
229. Return to earth of the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen occurs in the form of
(A) acid rain
(B) acid snow
(C) acid fog
230. The average pH of normal rainfall is usually
(A) neutral
(B) slightly acidic
(C) slightly alkaline.
231. Earth coal
(A) lignite
(B) coal dust
(C) black earth
(D) wet coal.
232. Ebb current is
(A) the same as eddy current
(B) the movement of the tidal current away from shore or down a tidal stream
(C) the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from broken are
233. Ekman spiral is an idealized mathematical description of
(A) ocean temperature gradient
(B) wind distribution in the planetary boundary layer
(C) carbon dioxide percentage variation with elevation
(D) radioactive decay of materials.
234. Which of the following converts electrical energy to radiant heat?
(A) Solar cell
(B) Storage battery
(C) Wankel engine
(D) Incandescent lamp.
235. Which of the following converts thermal energy to kinetic energy?
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Storage battery
(C) Fuel cell
(D) Rocket.
236. Beneficiation process is mainly used for
(A) coals
(B) oils
(C) nuclides
(D) minerals.
237. Betz law finds application in
(A) MHD systems
(B) Solar cells
(C) Geothermal power plants
(D) Wind mills.
238. Cleat is
(A) main joint in a coal seam along which it breaks most easily
(B) floor of a coal seam
(C) carton and sulphur compound
(D) crude oil containing low percentage of sulphur.
239. Coal broken into angular fragments is known as
(A) coal briquettes
(B) coal breccia
(C) coal bank
(D) coal auger.
240. Coal rank classifies coal according to its
(A) carbon percentage
(B) ash content
(C) degree of metamorphism
(D) density.
241. Baryon is one of the class of heavy elementary particles that includes
(A) hyperons
(B) neutrons
(C) protons
242. Isotopes of uranium
(A) U235
(B) U234
(C) U238
(D) all of the above
243. Baume scale measures
(A) purity of water
(B) radioactivity
(C) specific gravity of liquids
(D) specific gravity of gases.
244. Beaufort scale is used to measure
(A) beta and gamma radiations
(B) with speed
(C) isolation
(D) depth of sea.
245. Beaufort scale is graded from 0 to
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 22
(D) 100.
246. API gravity is expressed in terms of
(A) gm/cc
(B) dimensionless numbers
(C) degrees
247. Argillaceous rocks have
(A) high clay content
(B) high moisture content
(C) low moisture content
(D) low mineral content.
248. ASTM coal classification is based on
(A) proximate analysis
(B) ultimate analysis
(C) orsat analysis
249. Barn
(A) spent fuel from a nuclear reactor
(B) a unit of area
(C) an electronic instrument for rapid counting of radiation
(D) a coal that does not form coke.
250. One barrel is nearly
(A) 0.96 cubic meter
(B) 0.44 cubic meter
(C) 0.16 cubic meter
(D) 0.013 cubic meter.
251. Activated carbon is used for
(A) absorption, of gases
(B) paints and varnishes as coloring agent
(C) production of carbon steels
(D) purification of water.
252. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules to the surfaces of solids without chemical reaction is known
as
(A) dredging
(B) coking
(C) adsorption
(D) liquation.
253. Solid or liquid panicles of microscopic size which are suspended in air or another gas form what is known as
(A) aerosol
(B) hyperon
(C) geognosy
(D) eluvium.
254. Air curtains find applications in
(A) air conditioned spaces
(B) green houses
(C) nuclear power pants
(D) solar energy systems.
255. The percentage of carbon in anthracites is generally
(A) more than 90%
(B) around 75%
(C) between 50% and 70%
(D) below 50%.
256. In a 2 stroke engine there is one power stroke in
(A) 90° of crank rotation
(B) 180° of crank rotation
(C) 360° of crank rotation
(D) 720° of crank rotation.
257. A fast breeder reactor
(A) operates with fast neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes
(B) operates with fast neutrons and produces more fissionable material than it consumes
(C) operates with slow neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes
(D) operates with slow neutrons and produces more fissonable material than it consumes.
258. Fluidized bed combustion helps to reduce
(A) boiler size
(B) pollution
(C) both (A) and (B) above.
259. Fly ash generally results from
(A) gas turbines
(B) diesel engines
(C) pulverized coal boilers
(D) fluidized bed boilers.
260. In a boiler, the carry over of slugs of water into the piping due to dirty water is termed as
(A) beating
(B) foaming
(C) seal ping
(D) pitting.
261. If an engine has a spark plug, it is concluded that the engine is a
(A) petrol engine
(B) diesel engine
(C) carnot engine
(D) joute engine.
262. In geothermal power plants waste water is
(A) re circulated after cooling in cooling towers
(B) discharged into sea
(C) discharged back to earth
(D) evaporated in ponds.
263. Grade of the coal is the same as
(A) ultimate analysis
(B) proximate analysis
(C) orsat analysis
(D) rank.
264. API gravity of water is taken as
(A) zero
(B)1.0
(C) 10
(D) 100.
265. Liquids lighter than water (such as petroleum oils) have APT gravities numerically
(A) less than 1.0
(B) greater than 1.0
(C) greater than 10
(D) around 100.
266. All of the following arc hard coals Except
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous
(D) Semi bituminous.
267. All of the following are heavy metals except
(A) Mercury
(B) Sodium
(C) Chromium
(D) Cadmium.
268. Which of the following is heavy oil?
(A) Gasoline
(B) Kerosene oil
(C) Diesel oil
(D) Bunker oil.
269. Deuterium oxide is used in nuclear reactors as
(A) fuel
(B) moderator
(C) shield
(D) regulator.
270. Heliochemical process is the process by which
(A) solar energy is utilized through photosynthesis
(B) neutron energy is converted into thermal energy
(C) geothermal energy is converted Into electrical energy
(D) wind energy is converted into electrical energy.
271. Fixed carbon in case of bituminous coals is less than
(A) 70%
(B) 50%
(C) 35%
(D) 15%.
272. Humacite is the name associated with
(A) lignites
(B) radioactive minerals
(C) bitumens
(D) refrigerants.
273. In case of humic coals, hydrogen percentage varies from
(A) 4 to 6 percent
274. Hyperon has mass
(A) greater than that of a proton and less than that of a deutron
(B) less than that of a proton and more than that of a deutron
(C) more than that of a proton as well as deuteron
(D) less than that of a proton as well as a deuteron.
275. The charge of a two stroke diesel engine consists of
(A) air + diesel fuel + lubricating oil
(B) air + diesel fuel
(C) air + lubricating oil
(D) air only.
276. Integrated demand is
(A) the demand averaged over a specific period
(B) the joint demand of several consumers
(C) supplementary demand of various consumers
277. Which of the following is not needed in magneto hydrodynamic power plants?
(A) Chimney
(B) Combustor
(C) Steam-turbine
(D) Fuel.
278. Marsh gas
(A) a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons produced from coal or oil
(B) a by product of blast furnace
(C) low calorific value gas containing carbon monoxide and steam
(D) same as methane.
279. Nephtha is a volatile colourless product obtained from
(A) methyl alcohol
(B) vinyl acetate
(C) sugarcane
(D) petroleum.
280. Natural gas is obtained
(A) as by product from blast furnace
(B) as by product from petroleum refining
(C) from earth's surface, usually along with crude
(D) from ammonia.
281. Osmotic energy conversion involves energy production from
(A) low boiling point liquids
(B) low vapor pressure liquids
(C) miscible liquids
(D) salt water.
282. Parr's-classification of coal is based on
(A) proximate analysis
(B) ultimate analysis
(C) orsat analysis
283. Peat coal is
(A) anthracite coal, small in size
(B) same as peat
(C) low ash content lignite
284. Perlite is
(A) a low ash containing coal
(B) same as lignite
(C) an insulation material
285. PF number refers to
(A) acidic/alkaline water
(B) energy with which water is held in the soil
(C) decomposition of molecules caused by the absorption of light
(D) smog produced by the action of sunlight on the pollutants.
286. A photovoltaic cell converts
(A) heat energy into mechanical energy
(B) chemical energy into electrical energy
(C) solar energy into electrical energy
(D) electrical energy into chemical energy.
287. Producer gas mainly contains
(A) carbon dioxide and steam
(B) carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(C) methane, ethane and butane
(D) hydrocarbons.
288. Pyrheliometer measures
(A) intensity of direct solar radiation
(B) wind speed at an elevation
(C) fission caused by thermal neutrons
(D) total electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun.
289. Quad is a measure of
(A) photosynthesis
(B) wind power
(C) radioactive decay
(D) energy.
290. For the same heat input and the same maximum pressure, the most efficient cycle is
(A) Brayton cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Dual cycle.
291. Sweet gas is free of
(A) carbon dioxide
(B) carbon monoxide
(C) nitrogen
(D) hydrogen sulphide.
292. Therm is a unit of
(A) radioactivity
(B) heating value
(C) wind speed
(D) tidal wave.
293. Thermal neutrons are
(A) exceptionally fast neutrons
(B) fast neutrons
(C) moderately fast neutrons
(D) slow neutrons.
294. No moving parts are required in
(A) MHD generator
(B) Tidal power plant
(C) Thermionic conversion
(D) OTEC power plant.
295. TNT stands for
(A) thermonuclear thorium
(B) total neutron transition
(C) thermal neutron treatment
(D) trinitrotoluene.
296. A sodium graphite reactor uses
(A) sodium as moderator and graphite as coolant
(B) sodium as coolant and graphite as moderator
(C) a mixture of sodium and graphite as coolant
(D) a mixture of sodium and graphite as moderator.
297. Solvent refined coal has low percentage of
(A) ash
(B) sulphur
(C) impurities
Power Generation Economics
1. A load curve is a plot of
(A) Load versus generation capacity
(B) Load versus current
(C) Load versus time
(D) Load versus cost of power.
2. For economy in generation power
(A) diversity factor should be high
(B) plant utilization factor
(C) load factor should be high
(D) load factor and diversity factor should be low.
3. Which of the following category of consumers can provide highest load factor?
(A) A domestic consumer
(B) A continuous process plant
(C) A steel melting unit using arc furnace
(D) A cold storage plant.
4. The load of a consumer is generally measured in terms of
(A) Volts
(B) Amperes
(C) Ampere hour
(D) kW
5. The normal connected load of a domestic consumer is usually
(A) up to 10 kW
(B) 10 to 20 kW
(C) 25 to 50 kW
(D) 50 to 100 kW.
6. Load factor during a period is
(A) Average Load / Installed Capacity
(B) Average Load / Maximum Load
(C) Maximum Load / Average Load
(D) Maximum Load / Installed Capacity.
7. Which of the following installation provides peaked load?
(A) Arc furnace
(B) Air conditioner
(C) Air compressor running continuously
(D) Cold storage plant.
8. Demand factor is the
(A) Maximum Demand / Average Demand
(B) Maximum Demand / Connected Load
(C) Average Demand / Maximum Demand
(D) Connected Load / Maximum Demand.
9. During summer months the increased load is due to
(A) increased water supply
(B) vacations in institutions
(C) increased business activity
(D) increased use of fans and air conditioners.
10. In a system if the base load is the same as the maximum demand, the load factor will be
(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) Infinity
(D) 1 percent.
11. A system having connected load of 100 kW, peak load of 80 kW. base load of 20 kW and average load of 40 kW,
will have a load factor of
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%.
12. Load due to one tonne air conditioner is nearly
(A)100W
(B) 200 to 500 W
(C) 1 kW to 2 kW
(D) 5 kW to 10 kW.
13. Load due to a ceiling fans is nearly
(A) 10W
(B) 40 to 50 W
(C) 100 to 200 W
(D) 250 W to 2000 W.
14. Which domestic utility item has highest power rating?
(A) Refrigerator
(B) Ceiling fan
(C) Tube light
(D) Electric iron.
15. A stereo with two 10 watt loudspeakers will provide electrical load of
(A) more than 12 W
(B)12 W
(C) less than 6 W
(D) 6 W
16. The load of a system is shown in the figure above. The load factor of the system is
(A) 0.778
(B) 0.667
(C) 0.438
(D) 0.331.
17. Load factor for the 0-6 hour period alone is
(A) 0.438
(B) 0.876
(C) 0.999
(D) 1.0.
18. Load factor for the period 6-24 hours period is
(A) 0.438
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.876
(D) 1.0.
19. Which plant can never have 100% load factor?
(A) Nuclear power plant
(B) Hydro electric plant
(C) Peak load plant
(D) Base load plant.
20. Which meter is installed at the premises of a consumer for recovery of charges of electrical energy
(A) Voltmeter
(B) Ammeter
(C) kVA meter
(D) kWh meter
21. For certain industrial applications the energy requirement is 500 kWh. If the heat losses are 20 percent the total
energy to be made available will be
(A) 5000 kWh
(B) 4000 kWh
(C) 6000 kWh
(D) 6000 kWh
22. A consumer finds that after running 10 kVA equipment on full load for six hours his energy consumption was 48
kW. It can be concluded that
(A) the load factor of the consumer for the day was unity
(B) the maximum demand of the consumer was 10 kW
(C) the equipment was drawing reactive power only
(D) power factor of the equipment was 0.8.
23. Which equipment provides fluctuating load?
(A) Lathe machine
(B) Exhaust fan
(C) Welding transformer
24. A power plant supplying energy to a city will usually experience peak demand
(A) from midnight to early morning
(B) 8 AM to 12 noon
(C) 2 PM to 6 PM
(D) 6 PM to 12 PM.
25. The ratio, maximum demand of the installation / sum of individual maximum demands is known as
(A) Demand factor
(B) Plant use factor
(C) Diversity factor
(D) Plant capacity factor.
26. In a power plant a reserve generating capacity which is in operation but not in services known as
(A) Hot reserve
(B) Cold reserve
(C) Spinning reserve
(D) Firm power.
27. Five consumers having peak demands of A, B, C, D, and E have individual load factors of 0.5. It can be concluded
that
(A) their combined load factor will be 0.5
(B) their peak demand during the day will be (A + B + C + D + E)
(C) their combined power consumption in a day will be 12 (A + B + C + D + E)
(D) their average demands are equal.
28. In an interconnected system consisting of a nuclear power stations, steam station and diesel generating station,
which plant can be used as base load plant?
(A) Steam station
(B) Diesel generation plant
(C) Nuclear power station
29. Fuel transportation cost is least in
(A) Diesel generating plant
(B) Steam power stations
(C) Nuclear powers plants.
30. Capital cost per MWh is highest in case of
(A) steam power plants
(B) diesel engine power plants
(C) nuclear power plants
(D) hydroelectric power plants.
31. A steam power station will run with maximum efficiency when it is run
(A) at low steam pressures
(B) on pulverized coal
(C) at higher speeds
(D) near full load.
32. Which of the following is likely to result in lower efficiency of a power station?
(A) Varying loads
(B) Low voltage generation
(C) Low turbine speeds
(D) Non-automatic controls.
Questions 33 to 36 refer to the following information.
The following factors are associated with power plant operation
I. High efficiency
II. High availability
III. Quick starting
IV. Low capital cost.
33. Which factor is least important for base load plants?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV.
34. Which two factors are of significant requirement for base load plant?
(A) I and II only
(B) III and IV only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and IV only.
35. Which two factors are of importance for peak load plant?
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and IV only
(D) III and IV only.
36. Which factors are favorable to a diesel power plant as compared to a steam power plant?
(A) I and III only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) II, III and IV only
(D) I, II. Ill and IV.
37. In a 440 V system, in order to obtain the minimum cost and maximum benefits, the capacitor should be installed
(A) at the load
(B) near the transformer
(C) any where in the circuit
(D) near the earthling point.
38. In case of medium sized induction motor, the power factor will be maximum at
(A) No load
(B) 50% load
(C) Full load
(D) Power factor remains constant at all loads.
39. A coaxial line is filled with a dielectric of relative permittivity 9. If C denotes the velocity of propagation in free
space, the velocity of propagation in the line will be
(A) 3 C
(B) C
(C) C / 3
(D) C / 9.
40. A direct voltage is applied to a peak diode voltmeter in which scale is calibrated to read rms voltage of a sine
wave. If the meter reading is 36 V rms, the value of the applied direct voltage is
(A) 25 V
(B) 36 V
(C) 51 V
(D) 72 V.
41. A power station has annual load factor of 50% and capacity factor of 40%. If the maximum demand is 15 MW, the
reserve capacity of the plant is
(A) 1250 kw
(B) 2500 kw
(C) 3750 kw
(D) 4750 kw.
42. Which of the following will not contribute to low power-factor?
(A) Partially loaded induction motors
(B) Replacement of fluorescent lamps with incandescent lamps
(C) Use of rectifiers instead of synchronous motor-generator sets for dc power supply
(D) Increased installation of electronic equipment’s, air- conditioning units, etc.
43. Which of the following may not be the effect of low plant operating power factor?
(A) Over loaded transformers
(B) Reduced voltage level
(C) Improved illumination from lighting
(D) Over loaded cables.
44. Identify the incorrect relation
(A) power factor = KW / kVA
(B) kW = kVA x power factor
(C) kVA x kW = power factor
(D) kVA = kW / power factor.
45. The power factor of a system on a 460 V, 3 phase, 60 Hz, in which the ammeter indicates 100 amp and the watt
meter reads 62 kW will be
(A) 0.95
(B) 0.78
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.55.
46. The simple subtraction of kilowatts from total kVA equals the kVAR when the power factor is
(A) unity
(B) 0.707
(C) lagging
(D) zero.
The annual peak load on a 30 MW power station is 25 MW. The power station supplies loads having maximum
demands of 10 MW, 8.5 MW, 5 MW and 4.5 MW. The annual load factor is 45%.
47. The average load is
(A) 1025 kW
(B) 1125 kW
(C) 1425 kW
(D) 1625 kW.
48. Total energy supplied in a year is
(A) 9,875,000 kWh
(B) 8345,000 kWh
(C) 7450,000 kWh
(D) 6395,000 kWh.
49. Diversity factor is
(A) 3.80
(B)1.02
(C) 1.12
(D) 1.22.
50. Demand factor is
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.83
(C) 0.89
(D) 0.45.
51. In the figure shown below which curve represents the variation of cost of generation per kWh with the load
factor, for a thermal power plant?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
52. Connected load is
(A) The rating in kw of the installed electrical load of the consumer
(B) the maximum load that a consumer puts on at any time
(C) Part of the load which always remains on at the consumer ends
(D) Average load of the consumer during a specified period.
53. Which of the following appliance will offer the maximum load?
(A) Toaster
(B) Refrigerator
(C) Hot plate
(D) Electric iron.
54. Which of the following industry will consume maximum power per tonne of product?
(A) Zinc
(B) Aluminium
(C) Alloy steel
(D) Cement.
Four different loads connected to a power Plant are shown in the figure.
55. Which load has the least value of average load?
(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
56. Which load has the highest value of average load?
(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
57. Which load has the least load factor?
(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
58. Which load has the highest load factor?
(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
59. If all the loads are connected to single source of power, the maximum load on the station will be
(A) 9k / 4
(B) 2k
(C) 3k
(D) 7 / 4k
60. The maximum load on the station will occur at
(A) 0 hr
(B) 6 hr
(C) 9 hr
(D) 12 hr.
61. In the above case load factor of the station will be
(A) 0.29
(B) 0.31
(C) 0.44
(D) 0.56.
62. The highest point on a load curve represents
(A) Average demand
(B) Diversion field demand
(C) Peak demand
Get Answer
63. In the figure shown below which curve represents the variation of cost of power generation per kWh in a plant,
with load factor?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
64. For a thermal power plant, which is not the fixed cost?
(A) Interest on capital
(B) Depreciation
(C) Insurance charges
(D) Cost of fuel.
65. Depreciation cost of a plant is calculated by
(A) Straight line method
(B) Diminishing value method
(C) Sinking fund method
66. Which method of depreciation charge estimation gives the heaviest charges during early years of plant life?
(B) Diminishing value method
(C) Sinking fund method
(D) All give same charges.
67. Power generation equipment in a thermal power plant costs $15,75,000 and has a useful life of 25 years. If the
salvage value of the plant be $ 75,000 and the rate of annual compound interest be 5% the amount of annual
installment by straight line method will be
(A) $. 30,000
(B) $. 60,000
(C) $. 60,500
(D) $. 60,750.
68. In the above case, which of the following could be the amount to be saved annually for replacement of equipment
after the end of 25 years, by sinking fund method?
(A) $. 31,400
(B) $. 60,000
(C) $. 66,000
(D) $. 96,500.
69. Which of the following could be the installment for diminishing value method?
(A) $. 96,000
(B) $. 60,000
(C) $. 48,500
(D) $. 31400.
70. A diesel power plant is best suited as
(A) base load plant
(B) stand-by plant
(C) peak load plant
(D) general purpose plant.
71. A gas turbine power plant usually suits for
(A) peak load operation
(B) base load operation
(C) casual run
72. Which power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW?
(C) Hydro electric power plant
(D) Diesel power plant.
73. Diesel engine power plants usually run on
(A) High speed diesel oil
(B) Kerosene
(C) Light diesel oil
(D) Inept.
74. Which of the following can be used as fuel for closed cycle gas turbine plant?
(A) Wood
(B) Furnace oil
(C) Any gas
75. Capacity factor of a power station is
(A) Maximum demand / average demand
(B) Average demand on station / maximum demand on station
(C) maximum installed capacity of station / average demand of station
(D) average demand of station / maximum installed capacity of station.
76.Which of the following plant is expected to have the longest expected life ?
(A) Hydroelectric
(B) steam
(C) Diesel
(D) All have equal life.
77. The life of underground cables is taken as
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 40 years.
78. For a hydro-electric plant, the life of a RCC dam is taken as
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 40 years
(D) 100 years.
79. A 500 kW plant costs $ 1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges are estimated at 14% and operating cost is 13 cents
per kWh. The plant averages 200 kW for 5000 hours of the year, 450 kW for 1200 hrs and 80 kW for the remaining
period. The average cost of production of electricity per kWh will be close to
(A) 5 cent
(B) 12 cent
(C) 17 cent
(D) 37 cent
80. Two tariffs are offered
(P) $. 200 plus 5 cents per unit
(Q) A flat rate of 30 cents per unit
From the above it can be concluded that
(A) Tariff P will give lower charges up to 800 kWh
(B) Tariff P will give lower charges for consumption of more than 800 units
(C) Tariff Q will give lower charges for consumption of more than 800 kWh
(D) Both will give identical charges beyond 1500 kWh.
81. Two steam turbines each of 20,000 kW capacity drive a total load of 30,000 kW. The steam rates in kilogram per
hour are
TP1 = 2000 + 10 P1 - 0.0001 P12
TP2 = 2000 + 10 P2 - 0.0001 P12
The best division of the load will be
(A) TP1 =20,000 kW, TP3 = 10,000 kW
(B) TP1 =10,000 kW, TP3 = 20,000 kW
(C) TP1 =15,000 kW, TP3 = 15,000 kW
(D) TP1 =30,000 kW, TP3 = 0
82. Anything having some heat value can be used as fuel in case of
(A) diesel engines
(B) petrol engine
(C) closed cycle gas turbines
(D) open cycle gas turbines.
83. For a power plant the expenditure on which of the following item is expected to be negligible?
(A) Wages
(B) Taxes
(C) Insurance
(D) Publicity.
84. At break even point
(A) constant expanses - profits
(B) total sales - variable expenses
(C) variable expenses - profits - total sales
(D) total sales = total expenses.
85. If the average interest rate is 12% and depreciation is to be accounted for be straight line method at 10% which of
the following equipment will be most economical?
(A) Initial cost $. 7000 Annual disbursements $. 2500
(B) Initial cost $. 4000 Annual disbursement $. 6000
(C) Initial cost $. 6000 Annual disbursement $. 3880
(D) Initial cost $. 5000 Annual disbursement $. 3500.
86. A 120 MW generator is usually
(A) air cooled
(B) hydrogen cooled
(C) oxygen cooled
(D) nitrogen cooled.
87. Hydrogen is used for cooling of large size generators, because
(A) it has high thermal conductivity
(B) it is light
(C) it offers reduced fire risk
(D) of all above reasons.
88. Maximum span in case of wooden poles is usually restricted to
(A) 50 meters
(B) 175 meters
(C) 1000 meters
(D) 2000 meters.
89. The depreciation on the plant is charged by
(B) Sinking fund method
(C) Diminishing value method
(D) All of above.
90. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(A) base load plant
(B) peak load plant
(C) stand-by plant
(D) spinning reserve plant.
91. The frequency of the wave shown in the figure below is
(A) 100 kHz

(B) 50 kHz
(C) 10 kHz
(D) 5 kHz.
92. Air will not be the working substance in a
(A) Diesel engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Open cycle gas turbine
(D) Closed cycle gas turbine.
93. Major share of power produced is through
(A) thermal power plants
(B) hydro electric power plants
(D) diesel power plants.
94. Essential requirement of peak load plant
(A) it should be capable of standing quickly
(B) it should be run at high speed
(C) it should provide at high voltage
(D) it should be small in size.
95.Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant?
(A) Gas turbine plant
(B) Diesel engine plant
(C) Pumped storage plant
(D) Nuclear power plant.
96. A thermal power station was designed to bum coal containing 12% ash. When the plant actually started operating
coal having 22% ash was made available. Which unit of the plant will need major modifications?
(A) Water treatment plant
(B) Pulverizing unit
(C) Ash handling unit
(D) Cooling towers.
97. Efficiency is secondary consideration in case of
(A) peak load plants
(B) base load plants
(C) both peak load and base load plants.
98. Which of the following plants will take least time in starting from cold conditions to full load operation?
(A) Nuclear power plant
(B) Steam power plants
(C) Hydro-electric plant
(D) Gas turbine plant.
99. During load shedding
(A) system voltage is reduced
(B) system frequency is reduced
(C) some loads are switched off
(D) system power factor is changed.
100. For the same plant size, initial cost of which plant is the highest?
(B) Diesel engine plant
(D) Gas turbine plant.
101. A consumer takes a steady load of 200 kW at a power factor of 0.85 lagging for 8 hours per day and
315 days per annum. The annual payment under the tariff of $80 per annum per kA plus 10 cents per
kWh will be
(A) $ 5040
(B) $ 50,400
(C) $ 69,200
(D) $ 88,400.
The estimated total annual operating cost and capital charges for two proposed power stations are given by the
following expressions Annual cost of station A = $. (600,000 + 3.0 kW + 0.015 kW hr) Annual cost of station B = $.
(750,000 + 5.0 kW + 0.014 kW hr) Where kW represent the capacity of the station and kWh represents the total
annual output. Load duration curve of the plant is shown in the figure given below.
102. Which station may be selected for base load?
(A) station A
(B) station B
(C) Any of the above.
103. Base load plant should be operated annually for
(A) 500 hrs
(B)1000hrs
(C) 2000 hrs
(D) 5000 hrs
104. The capacity of the base load plant should not be less than
(A) 3860 kW
(B) 4180 kW
(C) 5000 kW
(D) 5500 kW.
105. Total kWh supplied by the plant is
(A) 10.l x 106
(B) 15 x 106
(C) 18 x 106
(D) 21.9 x 106
106. Total kWh to be supplied by base plant must be
(A) 19.76 x 106
(B) 15.34 x 106
(C) 14.1 x 106
(D) 10.3 x 106
Questions 107 to 110 refer to the figures given below:
The input-output curves for two units with supply in parallel a common load are shown in the figure.
107. When a load of 10 MW is equally shared by the two generators, the combined input must be
(A) 250 x 105kcal / hr
(B) 350 x 105kcal / hr
(C) 500 x 105kcal / hr
(D) 600 x 105kcal / hr
108. If the two generators have individual ratings of 10 MW each, a system load of 16 MW should be shared as
(A) 8 MW on each generator
(B) 10 MW on A and 6 MW on B
(C) 10 MW on B and 6 MW on A
(D) 9 MW on A and 7 MW on B.
109. Load shedding is done
(A) To reduce heat demand
(B) To improve power factor
(C) To run the equipment efficiency
(D) To repair the machine.
110. If both generators have 2 MW load each then which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Generator A runs at higher speed as compared to generator B
(B) Generator B runs more efficiently as compared to generator A
(C) Input to generator A is less than 75% of the input to generator B
(D) Input to generator B is less than the input to generator A by about 23%.
Questions 111 and 112 refer to the data given below:
A bulk supply was taken by a large industrial consumer at the rate of $ 80 |per kW plus 2.5 cents per kWh.
111. The average charge per kWh when the load factor is 20%. will be
(A) 3 cents
(B) 5 cents
(C) 7 cents
(D) cannot be determined on the basis of the information provided.
112. The average charges per kWh will be least when the plant load factor is
(A) 100%
(B) 75%
(C) 50%
(D) 20%.
113. Which statement about the daily load curve is valid?
(A) The area under the curve gives the average demand
(B) The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for
the day
(C) The peak of the curve gives the 'installed capacity of the plant
(D) The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor.
Questions 114 and 115 refer to the given figure given below:
114. In the figure shown which curve represents diminishing value method for depreciation
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D)curve D.
115. Sinking fund method is represented by
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
116. An equipment purchased for $ 10,000 two years ago has a market value of $ 12500 at present. It can be
concluded that
(A) the value has depreciated according to straight line method
(B) the value has depreciated according to diminishing value method
(C) the value has depreciated according to sinking fund method
(D) the value has appreciated with the time.
117. In a steam power plant which component needs maximum maintenance attention?
(A) Condenser
(B) Boiler
(C) Turbine
(D) Water treatment plant.
Four loads as shown in figure given below are connected to a power station. Abscisse is time from 0 to
24 hrs in all cases, Ordinate represents the load in kW.
118. Which load has the lowest average demand?

(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
119. Which loads offer the identical average load?
(A) A and B
(B) B and C
(C) C and D
(D)A, B and D
120. The peak load on the plant is
(A) 3000 kW
(B) 3500 kW
(C) 4000 kW
(D) 4250 kW.
121. The load factor of the plant supplying power to these loads will be nearly
(A) 11%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%.
122. The diversity factor of the plant supplying these loads will be
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 0.2.
The input-output curve of a 0.5 MW generating stations is defined by I = 30 + 0.8 L + 0.5 L2
Where I is in millions of Cal per hour and L is in megawatts.
123. The input when the plant was running on no load was
(A) 0.5 kcal
(B) 31.3 kcal
(C) 30 x 106kcal
(D) zero.
124. Total input when the plant was generating 35 MW was
(A) 181 x 106 kcal/hr
(B) 250 x 106 kcal/hr
(C) 362.5 x 106 kcal/hr
(D) 582xl26 kcal/hr.
125. When the load on the generator was 25 MW the heat rate in kcal / MW hr was nearly
(A) 16 x 106
(B) 20 x 106
(C) 30 x 106
(D) 31.3 x 106
Manufacturer A offers his equipment costing $. 150,000 + 45 x kW. The equipment is guaranteed to give the following
operating cost $. 18 + 0.007 kWh Manufacturer B offers his equipment costing $. 1,12000 + 50 x kW The operating
cost is guaranteed as $. 16.50 + 0.0072 kWhr kW indicates machine rating and kWhr indicates output.
126. Which machine is cheaper to own in 5000 kW range
(A) Machine supplied by manufacturer A
(B) Machine supplied by manufacturer B
(C) Both have identical initial cost
(D) Both have identical operating cost.
127. At what kW rating the initial cost of the two machines will be identical?
(A) 5500 kW
(B) 6000 kW
(C) 7600 kW
(D) 8500 kW.
128. At what rating in kWhr the two sets will be equally economical to operate?
(A) 5000 kWhr
(B) 7500 kWhr
(C) 75000 kWhr
(D) 50,000 kWhr.
129. Power factor is given by
(A) k w h / kw
(B) active power / reactive power
(C) reactive power / active power
(D) k w / k w h.
130. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which engine will produce least power?
(A) Petrol engine
(B) Diesel engine
(C) Super charged engine
(D) All will produce same power.
131. For under water movement Submarines are powered by ?
(A) diesel engines
(B) air motors
(C) batteries
(D) steam accumulators.
132. Ships are generally powered by
(A) diesel engines
(B) hydraulic turbines
(D) steam accumulators.
133. A turbojet aero plane has
(A) no blades
(B) two blades
(C) three blades
(D) four blades.
134. An interconnected system has the following plants
I. Run off the river plant
II. Nuclear power plant
III. Steam power plant
IV. Hydro-electric plant with storage
V. Diesel engine plant.
Which two plants can be exclusively used for base load?
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) II and IV
(D) II and V.
135. Which plant can be used exclusively for peak load?
(A) I
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) V.
136. Direct conversion of beat into electrical energy is possible through
(A) Magneto hydrodynamic generators
(B) Solar cells
(C) Fuel cells
(D) not possible.
137. In a fuel cell electricity is produced by
(A) combustion of fuel in absence of oxygen
(B) oxidation of fuel
(C) thermionic action
138. A certain plant has fixed cost of $. 40,000 and a salvage value of $. 4000 at the end of a useful life of 20 years The
depreciated value of the plant at the end of 10 years will be least (interest rate being 6% compounded annually) when
calculated by
(C) Diminishing value method.
139. In the above problem the value will be highest when calculated by
(C) Diminishing value method.
140. Low power factor is usually not due to
(A) incandescent lamp
(B) induction motors
(C) arc lamps
(D) fluorescent tubes.
141. Which type of plant has the least running cost per kWh of energy generated?
(A) Hydro-electric plant
(B) Thermal power plant
(D) Diesel power plant.
142. Base load plants have
(A) high capital cost, high operating cost and high load factor
(B) high capital cost, low operating cost and high load factor
(C) low capital cost, low operating cost and low load factor
(D) low capital cost, high operation cost and high load factor.
143. Which alternator will have more number of poles
(A) coupled to hydraulic turbine
(B) coupled to steam turbine
(C) coupled to gas turbine
(D) all will have same number of poles.
144. Which alternator usually runs at slow speed as compared to others
(A) coupled to gas turbine
(B) coupled to steam turbine
(C) coupled to hydraulic turbine
(D) coupled to diesel engine.
145. In a thermal power station of moderate size, the electrical power is generated at a voltage of
(A) 115 V
(B) 230 V
(C) 440 V
(D) 11 kV.
146. The resistance of the dry skin of human body, between the tip of the left hand finger and right
hand finger, is of the order of
(A) 100 ohms
(B) 1000 ohms
(C) 10,000 ohms
(D) 100,000 ohms.
147. If the resistance of dry skin of human body is 100,000 ohms, the resistance of the wet body will be
(A) 100,000 ohms
(B) 200,000 ohms
(C) 5000,000 ohms
(D) 5000 ohms.
148. The effect of electric shock on human, body depends on
(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Duration of contact
149. A current of 10 milliamperes through human body
(A) will cause mild sensation
(B) will affect muscle control
(C) will affect breathing
(D) will cause death.
150. Death is almost certain when the current through human body is
(A) 10 milliamperes
(B) 20 milliamperes
(C) 40 milliamperes
(D) 100milliamperes.
151. For extinguishing electrical fires
(A) Water should be used
(B) Carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be used
(C) Foam type fire extinguisher should be used
(D) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher should be used.
152. First aid for electric shock victim is
(A) bandage
(B) massage
(C) pouring water on body
(D) artificial respiration.
153. HRC fuses provide best protection against
(A) short circuits
(B) lightening
(C) sparking
(D) fire.
154. For the load curves shown in the following figure which load has the least value of load factor?
(A) Load A
(B) Load B
(C) Load C
(D) Load D.
155. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(A) inductance
(B) resistance
(C) capacitance
(D) magnetism.
156. Zero sequence component always flows through
(A) phase wires
(B) neutral wire
(C) earth wire
157. A mild steel bar over which a coil is wound and a high frequency current is passed, will get heated up due to
(A) electromagnetic heating
(B) electrostatic heating
(C) dielectric heating
(D) induction heating.
158. Domestic supply of 220 V 50 Hz signifies that peak value of voltage Waveform is
(A) 220 V
(B) 155 V
(C)185V
(D) 310 V.
159. If two numbers X and Y with respective errors of 4% and 5% are multiplied, the relative error in the result would
be
(A) 20%
(B) 9 %
(C) 3.5%
(D) 1%.
160. Which of the following is not a source of power?
(A) Solar cell
(B) Photovoltaic cell
(C) Photoelectric cell
(D) Thermocouple.
161. The safest value of current which the human body can sustain for more than 3 seconds is
(A) 1 A
(B) 0.5 A
(C) 100 mA
(D) 9mA.
162. If a consumer is charge at $. x / kVA of maximum demand and the expenditure incurred on power factor
correction equipment is $ y / kVAR per annum, than most economical power factor is given by cosφ
(A) 1 -y / x
(B) 1 - x / y
(C) √ (1-( y / x )2)
(D) √ (1-( x / y )2)
163. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?
(A) Direct stroke on tower top
(B) Direct stroke on ground wire
(C) Direct stroke on line conductor
(D) Indirect stroke on conductor.
164. Which of the following is the protective device against lightening over voltages?
(A) Rod gaps
(B) Surge absorbers
(C) Horn gaps
165. A disadvantage of synchronous condenser
(A) Continuous losses in Motor
(B) High maintenance cost
(C) Noisy
166. Gas turbine plants can have
I. Multistage compression
II. Heat exchangers
III. Reheating.
For maximum efficiency which features should be incorporated in a gas turbine power plant?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III.
167. A coaxial line is filled with a dielectric of relative permittivity. If C denotes the velocity of propagation in free
space, the velocity of propagation in the line will be
(A) 3 C
(B) C
(C) C / 3
(D) C / 9.
168. When a power plant is not able to meet the demand of consumers it will resort to
(A) penalizing high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
(B) power factor improvement at the generators
(C) efficient plant operation
(D) load shedding.
169. Load shedding is possible through
(A) voltage reduction
(B) frequency reduction
(C) switching off the loads
170. Which of the following power plants can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrollable times?
(A) Wind power plant
(B) Tidal power plant
(C) Solar power plant
171. Direct conversion of heat into electrical power is possible through
(A) thermionic converter
(B) fuel cell
(C) batteries
172. In a fuel cell positive electrode is of
(A) oxygen
(B) ammonia
(C) hydrogen
(D) carbon monoxide.
173. All of the following are sources of borrowing money EXCEPT
(A) Debentures
(B) Bonds
(C) Share
(D) Fixed deposits.
174. Ideally depreciated value of the plant plus the accumulation in the depreciation fund should be equal to
(A) salvage value
(B) obsolescence rate
(C) sinking fund
(D) original invested capital.
175. In power plants insurance cover is provided for
(A) equipment only
(B) skilled workers only
(C) unskilled workers only
176. Debenture: Interest:
(A) Capital: Depreciation
(B) Insurance: Mishap
(C) Sinking fund: Amortization
(D) Shares: Dividend.
177. Maximum demand tariff is generally not applied to domestic consumers because
(A) they can not afford today
(B) they consume less power
(C) their load factor is low
(D) their maximum demand is low.
178. How much must be deposited at the end of each year in a sinking fund for 15 years to accumulate $. 1000 if
interest is at 5 percent?
(A) $. 46.34
(B) $. 54.55
(C) $. 59.50
(D) $. 60.00.
179. If $. 50 were deposited at the end of each year for 12 years in a sinking fund earning 6%, the total accumulation
would be
(A) $. 1000
(B) $. 925.50
(C) $. 843.50
(D) $. 799.75.
180. An advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement is
(A) Low losses
(B) Little maintenance cost
(C) Case in installation
181. All of the following are repayable after some time EXCEPT
(A) Bonds
(B) Shares
(C) Cash certificates
(D) Fixed deposits
182. The usual value of
(A) diversity factor is less than one and demand factor is more than one
(B) diversity factor more than one and demand factor is less than is one
(C) diversity factor as well as demand factor is less than demand
(D) diversity factor as well as demand factor is more than one.
183. The amount repaid to a person at the end of 15 years, who invests $. 12,000 at 4 percent interest compounded
annually, will be
(A) $. 12,400
(B) $. 16,120
(C) $. 21,612
(D) $. 26,121.
184. What is the present worth of receiving $. 1000 twenty years from now if money can earn 5% interest
compounded annually?
(A) $. 376.93
(B) $. 445.50
(C) $. 500.00
(D) $. 617.27.
$. 10,000 are invested for 20 years at 6 percent.
185. The amount accumulated, when the interest is compounded annually will be
(A) $. 27,020
(B) $. 30,270
(C) $. 32,070
(D) $. 35,600.
186. The amount accumulated when the interest is compounded semi-annually will be
(A) $. 32,070
(B) $. 32,474
(C) $, 32,620
(D) $. 32,888.
187. The amount accumulated when the interest is compounded monthly will be
(A) $. 32,070
(B) $. 32,620
(C) $. 32,898
(D) $. 33,100.
188. As the load factor approaches unity, the shape of load duration curve will be nearly
(A) L shaped
(B) inverted T shaped
(C) triangular
(D) rectangular.
189. When maximum and average loads are equal, the load factor will be
(A) zero
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.5
(D) 1.0
190. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
(A) Capacity factor = Utilization factor x Load factor
(B) Load factor x Maximum load = Average load
(C) Demand factor x Connected load = Maximum demand
191. Capacity factor and load factor become identical when
(A) peak load is equal to the capacity of the plant
(B) Average load is half the capacity of the plant
(C) Average load is same as peak load
(D) Group diversity factor is equal to peak diversity factor.
192. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(A) plant is under maintenance
(B) plant is used for base load only
(C) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(D) plant is used for peak load as well as base load.
Power plants considered are
I. Diesel
II. Thermal
III. Hydro
IV. Nuclear.
193. Plants in ascending order of capital cost per MW are
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) IV. Ill, I, II.
194. Plants in descending order of their expected useful life are
(A) I, III, II, IV
(B) II, I, III, IV
(C) III, II, IV, I
(D) IV, I, II, III.
195. Plants in ascending order of their operating cost per MWH generated are
(A) IV, I, II, III
(B) III, II, IV, I
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) I, III, II, IV
196. Sinking fund is
(A) Initial value - Salvage value
(B) Capital cost - Operating cost
(C) Periodical maintenance - Breakdown maintenance
(D) Capital cost / Useful life.
197. Load curve helps in deciding
(A) sizes of the generation units
(B) total installed capacity of the plant
(C) operating schedule of generating units
Transmission and Distribution
1. Which of the following is not the transmission voltage in America?
(A) 66 kV
(B) l32kV
(C) 264 kV
(D) 400 kV
2. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage?
(A) 6.6 kV
(B) 9.9 kV
(C) 11kV
(D) 13.2 kV.
3. Boosters are basically
(A) inductors
(B) capacitors
(C) transformers
(D) synchronous motors.
4. Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used
(A) 3 phase-4 wire
(B) 3 phase-3 wire
(C) Single phase - 3 wire
(D) Single phase -4 wire.
5. Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from towers
(A) to reduce clearance from ground
(B) to increase clearance from ground
(C) to reduce wind and snow loads
(D) to take care of extension in length during summer.
6. Transmission efficiency increases as
(A) voltage and power factor both increase
(B) voltage and power factor both decrease
(C) voltage increases but power factor decreases
(D) voltage decreases but power factor increases.
7. With same maximum voltage to earth, which ac system (with p.f. 0.8) will require more copper as compared to dc 2
wire system
(A) single phase. 2 wire (midpoint earthed)
(B) single phase. 3 wire (neutral=1/2 outer)
(C) three phase three wire
(D) three phase-four wire (neutral = outer).
8. When alternating current passes through a conductor
(A) it remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
(B) portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core
(C) portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared to the core
(D) entire current passes through the core of the conductor.
9. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as
(A) skin effect
(B) corona
(C) permeability
(D) unsymmetrical fault.
10. The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ohmic resistance when
(A) current is in true sine wave form
(B) voltage is low
(C) power factor is unity
(D) Current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section.
11. Skin effect results in
(A) reduced effective resistance but increased effective internal reactance of the conductor
(B) increased effective resistance but reduced effective internal reactance of. the conductor
(C) reduced effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance
(D) increased effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance.
12. Skin effect depends on
(A) size of the conductor
(B) frequency of the current
(C) resistivity of the conductor material
13. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the
(A) diameter increases
(B) frequency increases
(C) permeability of conductor material increases
(D) resistivity of conductor material increases.
14. Skin effect is proportional to
(A) diameter of conductor
(B) (diameter of conductor)1/2
(C) (diameter of conductor )2
(D) (diameter of conductor )2
15. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of line is less than
(A) 200 km
(B) 160 km
(C) 100 km
(D) 80 km.
16. For constant voltage transmission the voltage drop is compensated by installing
(A) synchronous motors
(B) capacitors
(C) inductors
17. The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is
(A) short circuit current of the system is increased
(B) load power factor in heavy loads
(C) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(D) air of the above.
18. The surge impedance for overhead line is taken as
(A) 10-20 ohms
(B) 50-60 ohms
(C) 100-200 ohms
(D) 1000-2000 ohms.
19. Pin insulators are normally used up to voltage of about
(A)100kV
(B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV
(D) 25 kV.
20. Strain type insulator arc used where the conductors arc
(A) dead ended
(B) at intermediate anchor towers
(C) any of the above
21. For 66 kV lines the number of insulator discs used are
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12.
22. Ten discs usually suggest that the transmission line voltage is
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.
23. The effect of corona is
(A) increased energy loss
(B) increased reactance
(C) increased inductance
24. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor succeeds
(A) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
(B) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(C) 11 kV (rms value)/cm
(D) 6.6 kv (rms value)/cm.
25. Corona effect can be detected by
(A) hissing sound
(B) faint luminous flow of bluish color
(C) presence of ozone detected by odor
26. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
(A) sinusoidal
(B) square
(C) non-sinusoidal
27. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
(A) it gives bad odor
(B) it corrodes the material
(C) it transfers energy to the ground
(D) reduces power factor.
28. Between two supports, due to sag the conductor takes the form of
(A) catenary
(B) triangle
(C) ellipse
(D) semi-circle.
29. The inductance of a single phase two wire line is given by (D is the distance between conductors and
2v is the diameter of conductor)
(A) 0.4 loge (D/r) mH/km
(B) 0.55 loge (D/r) mH/km
(C) 0.4 loge (r/D) mH/km
(D) 0.55 loge (r/D) mH/km.
30. The effect of ice deposition on conductor is
(A) increased skin effect
(B) reduced corona losses
(C) increased weight
(D) reduced sag.
31. The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on
(A) transmission lines
(B) neutral wires
(C) insulator
(D) supporting towers.
(A) Wind pressure reduces corona effects
(B) Ice on conductors improves power factor
(C) Wind pressure is taken to act in a direction at right angles to that for ice
(D) Wind pressure and ice on conductors together improve regulation of power transmitted.
33. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) As the temperature rises the tension in the transmission line decreases
(B) As temperature rises the sag in transmission lines reduces
(C) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other.
34. Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
(A) 440 V
(B)11 kV
(C) 22 kV
(D) 66 kV.
35. If K is the volume of cable conductor material required to transmit power, then for the transmission of the same
power, the volume of cable conductor required for single phase 2 wise AC system is
(A) 2k
(B) k cosφ
(C) k/ cos2φ
(D) 2k/ cos2p
36. Maximum permissible span for wooden poles is
(A) 10 meter
(B) 20 meters
(C) 60 meters
(D) 200 meters.
37. When transformers or switchgears are to be installed in a transmission line, the poles used are
(A) I type
(B) J type
(C) H type
(D) L type.
38. For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of applying a layer of
(A) paint
(B) varnish
(C) tar coal
(D) zinc.
39. The disadvantage of transmission lines as compared to cables is
(A) exposure to lightening
(B) exposure to atmospheric hazards like smoke, ice, etc.
(C) inductive interference between power and communication circuits
40. ACSR conductor implies
(A) All conductors surface treated and realigned
(B) Aluminum conductor steel reinforced
(C) Anode current sinusoidally run
(D) Anodized Core Smooth Run.
41. The surge resistance of transmission lines is about
(A) 50 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 250 ohms
(D) 500 ohms.
42. During storm the live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth. The consequences
will be
(A) supply voltage will drop
(B) supply voltage will increase
(C) current will flow to earth
(D) no current will flow in the conductor.
43. In transmission system a feeder feeds power to
(A) service mains
(B) generating stations
(C) distributors
44. For transmission lines the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
(A) maximum voltage to minimum voltage
(B) maximum current to minimum voltage
(C) peak voltage to rms voltage
(D) maximum reactance to minimum reactance.
45. In a transmission line following arc the distributed constants
(A) resistance and inductance only
(B) resistance, inductance and capacitance
(C) resistance, inductance, capacitance and short conductance.
46. The bundling of conductors is done primarily to
(A) reduce reactance
(B) increase reactance
(C) increase ratio interference
(D) reduce radio interference.
47. Which of the following regulation is considered to be the best
(A) 2%
(B) 30%
(C)70%
(D) 98%.
48. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon
(A) shape of the conductor
(B) surface treatment of the conductors
(C) conductivity of the material
(D) geometrical configuration. of the conductors.
49. For a distortion-less transmission line (G = shunt conductance between two wires)
(A) R/L = G/C
(B) RL=GC
(C) RG=LC
(D)RLGC=0
50. Guard ring transmission line
(A) improves power factor
(B) reduces earth capacitance of the lowest unit
(C) reduces transmission losses
(D) improves regulation.
51. When the power is to be transmitted over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should be in the range
(A) 33 kV - 66 kV
(B) 66 kV - 100 kV
(C) 110 kV - 150 kV
(D) 150kV - 220kV.
52. A relay used on long transmission lines is
(A) mho's relay
(B) reactance relay
(C) impedance relay
(D) no relay is used.
53. Total load transmitted through a 3 phase transmission line is 10,000 kW at 0.8 power factor lagging. The I2R
losses are 900 kW. The efficiency of transmission line is
(A) 60%
(B) 90%
(C) 95%
(D) 99%.
54. Litz wires are used for intermediate frequencies.to overcome
(A) corona effect
(B) skin effect
(C) radio interference
55. In order to reduce skin effect at UHF
(A) conductors are painted
(B) conductors are anodized
(C) copper lubes with silver plating are used
(D) copper rods with silver plating are used.
56. Shunt capacitance is usually neglected in the analysis of
(A) Short transmission lines
(B) Medium transmission lines
(C) Long transmission lines
(D) Medium as well as long transmission lines.
57. The chances of corona are maximum during
(A) summer heat
(B) winter
(C) dry weather
(D) humid weather.
58. The power transmitted will be maximum when
(A) Sending end voltage is more
(B) Receiving end voltage is more
(C) Reactance is high
(D) Corona losses are least.
59. Neglecting losses in a transmission system, if the voltage is doubled, for the same power transmission, the weight
of conductor material required will be
(A) four times
(B) double
(C) half
(D) one fourth.
60. When two conductors each of radius r are at a distance D, the capacitance between the two is proportional to
(A) loge (D/r)
(B) loge (r/D)
(C) 1/loge (D/r)
(D) 1/loge (r/D)
61. In a transmission line having negligible resistance the surge impedance is
(A) (L+C)1/2
(B) (C/L)1/2
(C) (1/LC)1/2
(D) (L/C)1/2
62. A relay used on short transmission lines is
(A) Reactance relay
(B) Mho's relay
(C) Impedance relay
63. In case the characteristic impedance of the line is equal to the load impedance
(A) all the energy will pass to the earth
(B) all the energy will be lost in transmission losses
(C) the system will resonate badly
(D) all the energy sent will be absorbed by the load.
64. For a properly terminated line
(A) ZR=ZO
(B) Z/R > ZO
(C) ZR < ZO
(D) ZR =Z0 = 0.
65. The dielectric strength of air at 250C and 76 cm/Hg is
(A) 1 kV/cm
(B) 1 kV/mm
(C) 3 kV/cm
(D) 30 kV/cm.
66. The chances of corona are maximum in
(A) domestic wiring
(B) distribution lines
(C) transmission lines
67. Transmission lines link
(A) service points to consumer premises
(B) distribution transformer to consumer premises
(C) receiving end station to distribution transformer
(D) generating station to receiving end station.
68. In case of open circuit transmission lines the reflection coefficient is
(A) 1
(B) 0.5
(C) -1
(D) Zero.
69. Impedance relay is used on
(A) Short transmission lines
(B) Medium transmission lines
(C) Long transmission line
(D) All the transmission lines.
70. Which type of insulators are used on 132 kV transmission lines?
(A) Pin type
(B) Disc type
(C) Shackle type
(D) Pin and shackle type.
71. String efficiency can be improved by
(A) using Longer cross arm
(B) grading the insulator
(C) using a guard ring
72. Minimum horizontal clearance of a low voltage transmission line from residential buildings must be
(A) 11/2 feet
(B) 3 feet
(C) 4 feet
(D) 8 feet.
73. If a 66 kV lines passes over a residential building, the minimum vertical clearance from the roof of
the building must be
(A) 8 feet
(B) 12 feet
(C) 13 feet
(D) 16 feet.
74. Alternating current power is transmitted at high voltage
(A) to safeguard against pilferage
(B) to minimize transmission losses
(C) to reduce cost of generation
(D) to make the system reliable.
75. Stranded conductors arc used for transmitting, power at high voltages because of
(A) increased tensile strength
(B) better wind resistance
(C) ease-in handling
(D) low cost.
76. For the same resistance of line the ratio, weight of copper conductor/ weight of aluminium conductor, is
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.75
(C) 1.50
(D) 2.0.
77. The function of steel wire in a ACSR conductor is
(A) to take care of surges
(B) to prevent corona
(C) to reduce inductance and hence improve power factor
(D) to provide additional mechanical strength.
78. In high voltage transmission lines the top most conductor is
(A) R-phase conductor
(B) Y- phase conductor
(C) B-phase conductor
(D) Earth conductor.
79. For 11 kV line the inductance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 H
(B) 0.1 H
(C) 1 mH
(D) 0.1 mH.
80. For 11 kV. line the capacitance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 Farad
(B) 0.1 Farad
(C) 0.01 Farad
(D) 0.01 microF
81. If 3000 kW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission voltage will be
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.
82. The permissible voltage variation in transmission and distribution system is
(A) ± 0.1%
(B) ± 1%
(C)±10%
(D)± 25%.
83. The voltage of transmission can be regulated by
(A) use of tap changing transformers
(B) switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
(C) use of series capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
(D) any of the above methods.
84. The most economic voltage for transmitting given power over a known distance by overhead transmission line is
approximately
(A) 3.6 kV/km
(B) 1.6 kV/km
(C) 2.6 kV/km
(D) 3.6 kVkm
85. String efficiency is given by
(A) (voltage across the string) / ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor))
(B) ((voltage across the string) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor)
(C) ((voltage across disc nearest to the conductor) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage across the string)
(D) (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor))/ ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage across the string)
86. For a 66 kV line having span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag will be
(A) 0.02 m
(B) 0.2 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 20 m.
87. In the above case if the span is doubled, the sag will be
(A) 2 m
(B) 4m
(C) 8m
(D) 1 m.
88. The reflection coefficient for a short circuit line is
(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) 0.5
(D) - 1.
89. In case the height of transmission tower is increased
(A) the line capacitance and inductance will not change
(B) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease
(C) the line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
(D) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered.
90. In a transmission line if booster transformer are to be used, preferred location will be
(A) at the receiving end
(B) at the sending end
(C) at the intermediate point
(D) any where in the line.
91. A 70/6 ACSR conduction is an aluminium conductor steel reinforced, having
(A) cross sectional area of aluminium as 70 mm2 and the cross-sectional area of steel as 6 mm2
(B) cross-sectional area of steel as 70 mm2 and the cross-sections area of aluminium as 6 mm2
(C) 70 aluminium conductors and 6 steel conductors
(D) 80 steel conductors and 6 aluminium conductors.
92. In aluminium conductors steel reinforced, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(A) any insulator
(B) bitumen
(C) insulin
(D) no insulation is required.
93. Under no load conditions the current in a transmission line is due to
(A) corona effects
(B) capacitance of the line
(C) back flow from earth
(D) spinning reserve.
94. Which distribution system is more reliable?
(A) Ring main system
(B) Tree system
(C) Radial system
(D) All are equally reliable.
95. Out of the following systems of distribution, which system offers the best economy?
(A) Direct current system
(B) AC single phase system
(C) AC 3 phase 3 wire system
(D) AC 3 phase 4 wire system.
96. What are the advantages of dc transmission system over ac transmission system?
(A) DC system is economical
(B) There is no skin effect in dc system
(C) Corona limits are highest for dc circuits as compared to ac circuits
97. The main advantage of ac. transmission system over d.c. transmission system is
(A) Easy transformation
(B) Less losses in transmission over long distances
(C)) Less insulation problems
(D) Less problem of instability.
98. Which curve correctly represents the relation between capital cost and dc voltage of transmission?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
99. Step-up substations are associated with
(A) distributors
(B) consumer location
(C) concentrated load
(D) generating stations.
Questions 100 to 102 refer to figure given below:
100. A section of a single bus scheme is shown in the figure. In this figure B represents
(A) Isolator
(B) Circuit breaker
(C) Current transformer
(D) Inductance.
101. An isolator is represented by
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) A and D.
102. C represents
(A) circuit breaker
(B) Mho's relay
(C) Earth switch
103. When an alternator is connected to the infinite but bar and its excitation is gradually increased
(A) the terminal voltage will rise
(B) the terminal voltage will drop
(C) the terminal voltage will remain unaltered
(D) the terminal voltage will vary rapidly.
104. Consumers having low power factor equipment are advised to install
(A) tap changing transformer
(B) capacitor bank
(C) synchronous condensers
105. A bus bar is rated by
(A) current only
(B) current and voltage only
(C) current, voltage, frequency
(D) current, voltage, frequency and short time current.
106. Material generally used for bus bar is
(A) copper
(B) aluminium
(C) steel
(D) tungsten.
107. Which of following properties has got higher value for aluminium as compared to copper?
(A) Melting point
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Electrical resistivity
(D) Thermal conductivity.
108. For carrying a 100 A (rms) current the cross-sectional area of aluminium bus bar should be at least
(A) 1 mm2
(B) 10 mm2
(C) 25 mm2
(D) 50 mm2
109. Isolators are used to disconnect a circuit when
(A) line is on full load
(B) line is energized
(C) circuit breaker is not open
(D) there is no current in the line.
110. Tap changing transformers are used for
(A) stepping up the voltage
(B) stepping down the voltage
(C) both stepping up and stepping down the voltage
(D) supplying low voltage current for instruments.
111. Which device automatically interrupts the supply in the event of surges
(A) Earthing switch
(B) Series reactor
(C) Isolator
(D) Circuit breaker.
112. In a substation the equipment used to limit short circuit current level is
(A) Series reactor
(B) Coupling capacitor
(C) Lightening switch
(D) Isolator.
113. Which of the following equipment is not installed in a substation?
(A) Shunt reactors
(B) Exciters
(C) Voltage transformers
(D) Series capacitors.
114. Which bus bar scheme offers the lowest cost?
(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Breaker and a half scheme
(D) Main and transfer scheme.
115. Which is the most expensive bus bar scheme?
(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Double bus bar double breaker
(D) Main and transfer scheme.
116. Current rating is not necessary in case of
(A) Isolators
(B) Circuit breakers
(C) Load break switches
(D) Circuit breakers and load break switches.
117. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit breaker and earthing
switch while opening a circuit
(A) Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker open isolator
(B) Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
(C) Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch
(D) Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch.
118. Which of the following correctly presents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit breaker and earthing
switch while closing a circuit
(A) Ensure circuit breaker is closed - close isolator - open earthing switch
(B) Ensure circuit breaker is open - close isolator - open earthing switch if any close circuit breaker
(C) Ensure circuit breaker is open - open isolator - open earthing switch if any - close circuit breaker.
119. Which of the following type tests are conducted on isolators
(A) Temperature rise test
(B) Impulse stage with stand test
(C) Short time current test
120. In a balance 3 φ, 4 wire AC system, the phase sequence is RYB. If the voltage of R phase is. 230 < 0° V, then for Y
phase
(A) 230 < 0 V
(B) 230 < 60° V
(C) 230 < 90°V
(D) 230 < 120° V.
121. The relation between traveling voltage wave and current wave is
(A) e = i (L/C) 1/2
(B) e = i (C/L) 1/2
(C) e = i (iL/C) 1/2
(D) (L/iC) 1/2
122. Steepness of the traveling waves is attenuated by
(A) resistance of the line
(B) inductance of the line
(C) capacitance of the line
123. The protection against direct lightening strokes and high voltage steep waves is provided by
(A) earthing of neutral
(B) lightening arresters
(C) ground wires
(D) lightening arresters and ground wires.
124. Voltages under Extra High Voltage are
(A) 1 kV and above
(B) 11 kV and above
(C) 132 kV and above
(D) 330 kV and above.
125. In outdoor substation, the lightening arresters is placed nearer to
(A) the isolator
(B) the current transformer
(C) the power transformer
(D) the current breaker.
126. Stability of a system is not affected by
(A) Reactance of line
(B) Losses
(C) Reactance of generator
(D) Output torque.
127. A 10 MVA generator has power factor 0.866 lagging. The reactive power produced will be
(A) 10 MVA
(B) 8 MVA
(C) 5 MVA
(D) 1.34 MVA.
128. In order to increase the limit of distance of transmission line
(A) series resistances are used
(B) synchronous condensers are used
(C) shunt capacitors and series reactors are used
(D) series capacitors and shunt reactors are used.
129. A 30 km transmission line carrying power at 33 kV is known as
(A) short transmission line
(B) long transmission line
(C) high power line
(D) ultra high voltage line.
130. If K is the volume of conductor material required for 2 wire dc system with one conductor earthed, then the
volume of cable conductor material required for transmission of same power in single phase 3 wire system is (A) K/3
cos φ
(B) 5K cos2φ
(C) K/ 5 cos2φ
(D) 5K/ 8 cos2φ
131. The permissible voltage variable in voltage in distribution is
(A) 0.1%
(B) 1%
(C) 10%
(D) 50%.
132. Surge impedance of transmission line is given by
(A) (L/C)1/2
(B) (C/L)1/2
(C) (CL)1/2
(D) 1/(CL)1/2
133. 750 kV is termed as
(A) Medium high voltage
(B) High voltage
(C) Extra high voltage
(D) Ultra high voltage.
134. In case of transmission line conductors with the increase in atmospheric temperature
(A) length increase but stress decreases
(B) length increases and stress also increases
(C) length decreases but stress increases
(D) both length as well as stress decreases.
135. If the height of transmission towers is increased, which of the following parameters is likely to change?
(A) Resistance
(B) Inductance
(C) Capacitance
136. For increasing the capacity of a transmission line to transmit power which of the following must be decreased?
(A) Voltage
(B) Capacitance
(C) Line inductance
137. In terms of constants A, B, C and D for short transmission lines, which of the following relation is valid?
(A) A = B = 1
(B) B = D = 0
(C) A = C = 1
(D) C=0.
138.Which of the following is reduced due to the use of bundled conductors?
(A) Capacitance of the circuit
(B) lnductance of the circuit
(C) Power loss due to corona
139. The ratio of capacitance from line to line capacitance from line to neutral is nearly
(A)1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2.
140. Following effects are associated with transmission lines
I. Corona effect
II. Proximity effect
III. Skin effect.
The effect resistance of a conductor is increased by
(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I. II and III.
141. The sag of a transmission line is least affected by
(A) self weight of conductors
(B) temperature of surrounding air
(C) current through conductor
(D) ice deposited on conductor.
142. The sag of the conductors of a transmission line is 1.5 m when the span is 100 m. Now if the height of supporting
towers is increased by 20%, the sag will
(A) increase by 20%
(B) increase by 10%
(C) reduced by 20%
(D) remain unchanged.
143. ACSR conductor having 7 steel stands surrounded by 25 aluminum conductor will be specified as
(A) 7/25
(B) 7/32
(C) 25/7
(D) 25/32.
144. The networks associated with transmission lines are
I. T-network
II. π network
III. Tree net.
A two terminal pair of network of a transmission line can be represented by
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Either of I or II
(D) Either of I, II or III.
145. Which of the following relationships is not valid for short transmission lines?
(A) B = Z = C
(B) A = D = 1
(C) Is = Ir
146. In order to improve the steady state stability of an overhead transmission lines, which of the following methods
can be adopted
(A) Reducing impedance between the stations
(B) Adopting quick response excitation systems
(C) Using series capacitors to make X = (3 R)1/2
147. Transient disturbances arc due to
(A) Switching operations
(B) Load variations
(C) Faults
148. Which of the following short circuit is the most dangerous?
(A) Line to line short circuit
(B) Dead short circuit
(C) Line to ground short circuit
(D) Line to line and ground short circuit.
149. In case line to line fault occurs, the short circuit current of an alternator will. depend on its
(A) Synchronous reactance
(B) Transient reactance
(C) Short circuit resistance
150. Transient state stability is generally improved by,
(A) using high speed governors on machines by
(B) using low inertia machines
(C) dispensing with neutral grounding
151. Aluminium is being favored as bus-bar material mainly because of
(A) case of fabrication
(B) low density
(C) low cost
(D) non availability of copper.
152. Which section can lie used for bus bar?
(A) bars
(B) rods
(C) tubes
153. A string efficiency of 100% implies that
(A) shunt capacitance is 1 MF
(B) potential across each disc is same
(C) potential across each disc is zero
(D) one of the insulator disc is shorted.
154. Steel poles for transmission lines need protection against
(A) termites
(B) borer
(C) corrosion
155. Which type of copper wire will have highest tensile strength?
(A) Soft drawn
(B) Medium drawn
(C) Hard drawn.
156. Guy wire is used to
(A) Support the pole
(B) Provide protection against surges
(C) Provide emergency earth route
(D) Protect conductors against short circuiting.
157. Which of the following is a leading power system?
(A) Underground cables
(B) Reactors
(C) Mercury arc rectifiers
(D)Transformers.
158. Which of the following is a static exciter?
(A) dc separately excited generator
(B) amplidyne
(C) retool
(D) rectifier.
159. The service mains connect
(A) distributor and consumer terminals
(B) distributor and transformer
(C) distributor and relay system
(D) transformer and earth.
160. System grounding is song
(A) so that the floating potential on the lower voltage winding for a transformer is brought down to an insignificant value
(B) so that arcing faults to earth would not set up dangerously high voltage on healthy phases
(C) so that inductive interference between power and communication circuits can be controlled
(D) for all above reasons.
161. Hot template curves are plots of
(A) conductor sage and span lengths
(B) temperature and ground clearance curves
(C) temperature and humidity
(D) conductor weight and sag.
A 66 kV system has string insulator having five discs and the earth to disc capacitance ratio of 0.10.
162. The string efficiency will be
(A) 89%
(B) 75%
(C) 67%
(D) 55%.
163. The voltage shared by the individual discs will be
(A) 1.25 kV
(B) 2.50 kV
(C) 3.88 kV
(D) 5.28 kV.
164. The shape of heat rate (HR) versus power (P) curve for a power station will be as shown in
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) figure D
165. The reflection coefficient for the voltage wave in case of overhead lines is given by
(A) (RL - R0)/ (RL+ R0)
(B) (RL + R0)/ (RL- R0)
(C) (RL + R0)/ (RL+ R0)
(D) (RL R0)/ (RL- R0)
166. In a diesel engine the governor controls
(A) fuel pressure
(B) fuel flow rate
(C) fuel temperature
(D) fuel volume.
167. For overhead transmission line when the conductors are supported between two supports, the variation of
tension T will temperature is represented by
(A) Curve A
(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D.
168. If the voltage across the units in a two unit suspension insulator is 60% and 40% respectively of the line voltage,
the. ratio of capacitance of the insulator to that of its capacitance to earth will be
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.75.
169. In the analysis of short transmission lines which of the following is neglected?
(A) I2 R loss
(B) Shunt admittance
(C) Series impedance
170. In medium transmission lines the shunt capacitance is taken into account in
(A) Tee method
(B) Pie method
(C) Steinmetz method
A transmission line has a capacitance of 0.01 micro F/km and an inductance of 2 mH/km and is connected to a cable
having an inductance of 0.25 mH/km. When voltage surge having peak value of 100 kV travels along the cable
towards the line, the resulting peak voltage at the junction of the cable and the line is 180 kV.
171. The surge impedance of the cable is
(A) 14.1 ohms
(B) 42.5 ohms
(C) 87.75 ohms
(D) 141.2 ohms.
172. The capacitance of cable per km is
(A) 0.1 microF
(B) 0.7 microF
(C) 1.5 microF
(D) 10 microF.
Transmission lines and cables
1. Cables can be generally used upto
(A) 400 V
(B) 1000 V
(C) 11 KV
(D) 33 KV
2. Metallic shielding is provided on cables to
(A) Control the electrostatic voltage stress
(B) Reduce corona effect
(C) Decrease thermal resistance
3. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(A) 0.05 mm
(B) 03 to 0.5 mm
(C) 3 to 5 mm
(D) 30 to 50 mm
4. The voltage of low tension cables is
(A) Less than 220 V
(B) Less than 400 V
(C) Less than 600 V
(D) Less than 1000 V
5. In a three core cable the color of the neutral is
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Blue
(D) Yellow
6. Sheet are provided in cables for
(A) Providing strength to conductors
(B) Providing insulation
(C) Preventing moisture from entering the cable
(D) Reducing capacitance
7. In cables, the charging current
(A) Leads the voltage by 90o
(B) Leads the voltage by 120o
(C) Leads the voltage by any angle between 90o and 120o
(D) Leads the voltage by 180o
8. Breakdown in cables occurs due to
(A) Constant loss of insulation due to evaporation breakage etc.
(B) Heating of cables when on load and cooling when not on load results in formation of voids which ultimately result in
breakdown
(C) Due to the capacitive and inductive effects, some of the materials used for insulation losses its properties resulting it
over-stress
(D) Due to heating of cables, insulation and conductor become one material and electrostatic charge appears on the
surface of the cable causing sparking
9. A cable carrying alternating current has
(A) Hysteresis losses only
(B) Hysteresis and leakage losses only
(C) Hysteresis, leakage, copper losses only
(D) Hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
10. Inter-sheaths in cables are used
(A) So that inferior insulation could be used
(B) So that one provides protection against voltage surges
(C) So that proper stress distribution could be provided
(D) So that protection against voltage as well as current surges is available
11. The span of transmission line between tower takes the form of
(A) Hyperbola
(B) Parabola
(C) Catenary
(D) None of these
12. Dielectric hysteresis loss in a cable varies as
(A) Electrostatic stress
(B) (Electrostatic stress)2
(C) (Electrostatic stress)3/2
(D) (Electrostatic stress)3
13. In paper insulated cables the conductor cross-section is usually restricted to
(A) 1 sq-cm
(B) 2 sq-cm
(C) 6 sq-cm
(D) 16 sq-cm
14. Cables for 220 KV lines are invariably
(A) Paper insulated
(B) Rubber insulated
(C) Mica insulated
(D) Compresses oil or compressed gas insulated
15. When compressed oil or gas is used for cables the section of conductor is
(A) Solid circular
(B) Solid ellipse
(C) Solid square
(D) Hollow tubular or other sections
16. In compressed gas insulated cable SF6, the gas pressure is of the order of
(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 100 mm Hg
(C) 3 to 5 kg/cm2
(D) 30 to 50 kg/cm2
17. The advantage of cables overhead transmission lines is
(A) Low cost
(B) Easy maintence
(C) Can be used in high voltage circuits
(D) Can be used in congested areas
18. Which laying 11 KV cables, the minimum bending radius has to be ( D= diameter of cable )
(A) 2 D
(B) 4 D
(C) 6 D
(D) 12 D
19. Inductance is introduced in cables to reduced distortion because
(A) Resistance of cables in high
(B) Inductance of cables is too low
(C) Capacitance of cables is too low
(D) Capacitance of cables is high
20. The inductance is introduced in cables in the form of
(A) Wire wound on the length of the cable
(B) Armour with cable
(C) Lumped inductance introduced at regular intervals
(D) Inductance bridge at receiving end
21. Paper used as insulating material for cables is generally treated with only compounds,because
(A) It is otherwise good conductor
(B) It is hygroscopic
(C) It gets electrostatically charged at high voltage
(D) It has many pores
22. After impregnation with only compounds, paper attains breakdowns stress of about
(A) 100 Kv/cm
(B) 200 kv/cm
(C) 600 kv/cm
(D) 6000 kv/cm
23. Dielectric hysteresis loss in a cable varies as
(A) 1/impressed voltage
(B) 1/ (impressed voltage )2
(C) Impressed voltage
(D) (Impressed voltage)2
24. The charging current in cables
(A) Lags the voltage by 90o
(B) Leads the voltage by 90o
(C) Leads the voltage by 180o
(D) Lags the voltage by 180o
25. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
(A) To avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(B) To minimize temperature stresses
(C) To minimize effect of shocks and vibrations due to passing vehicles etc
(D) For all above reasons
26. The insulation resistance of a cable is specified by the manufacture at 250 M Ω per kilometer, the resistance of
200 meter length will be
(A) 1250 MΩ
(B) 250 MΩ
(C) 125 MΩ
(D) 50 MΩ
27. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(A) Core of the conductor
(B) Surface of the conductor
(C) Sheath
(D) Insulator
28. At bridge crossings and near the railway tracks ternary lead alloy cables are used because
(A) It has high tensile strength
(B) It has low specific gravity
(C) It has low coefficient of thermal expansion
(D) It can withstand shocked and vibrations
29. When the diameter of the core and cable is doubled, value of capacitance
(A) Will be reduced to one fourth
(B) Will be reduced to half
(C) Will be doubled
(D) Will become four times
30. Capacitance grading of cables implies
(A) Grading according to capacitance of cables per kilometer length
(B) Cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(C) Use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(D) Capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of inductance
31. The surge resistance of cables is close to
(A) 1 ohm
(B) 10 ohms
(C) 25 ohms
(D) 50 ohms
32. Single core cable are usually not provided with
(A) Sheath
(B) Steel armouring
(C) Rubber insulation
(D) Paper insulation
33. For locating the fault in a cable, the comparing of which parameter will be helpful
(A) Resistance
(B) Inductance
(C) Capacitance
34. In a 3 phase ,4 wire cable the cross-sectional area of neutral conductor is
(A) Double the area of phase conductor
(B) More than the area of phase conductor
(C) Equal to the area of phase conductor
(D) Less than the area of the phase conductor
35. In case of underground cables the stress is maximum at
(A) Surface of the cable
(B) Surface of the conductor
(C) Centre of the conductor
(D) The interface of sheath and the conductor
36. If a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 KV, which insulation would you prefer?
(A) Vulcanized rubber
(B) Compressed SF6 gas
(C) PVC
(D) Impregnated paper
37. Sheaths are used in the cables to
(A) Provide strength to the cable
(B) Provide proper insulation
(C) Prevents the moisture from entering the cable
(D) None of these
38. If power cable and communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance between the two, to avoid
interference should be
(A) 1 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 500 cm
39. When a cable is to cross a road, it should
(A) Run as overhead cable
(B) Be buried in trenches
(C) To surrounded by saw bust to absorb vibrations
(D) Be laid in pipes or conduits
40. Which of the following conductor has the least electrical conductivity?
(A) Lead
(B) Tin
(C) Zinc
(D) Aluminium
41. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(A) Hard drawn
(B) Annealed
(C) Hardened and tempered
(D) Alloy with chromium
42. The size of the conductor of power cables depends on
(A) Type of insulation
(B) Current
(C) Voltage
(D) Power of factor
43. Minimum bending radius for a 33 KV cables should be
(A) 0.25 meter
(B) 0.50 meter
(C) 30 times the diameter
(D) 100 times the diameter
44. The purpose of guard ring transmission lines is
(A) To reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
(B) To increase the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
(C) To reduce the transmission losses
(D) None of these
45. Cables with aluminium conductor can be joined by
(A) Soldering
(B) Gas welding
(C) Compression
46. Which of the following methods of joining cable is not common between copper conductor and aluminium
conductor cables?
(A) Compression
(B) Soldering
(C) Thermal welding
47. Electrical conductivity of aluminium is nearly what percent of that of copper?
(A) 80%
(B) 60%
(C) 45%
(D) 25%
48. Vulcanized rubber insulated cables are generally used for
(A) 1000 KV lines
(B) 400 KV lines
(C) 100 KV lines
(D) Wiring of buildings and factories
49. Cables used in automobiles are usually
(A) Vulcanized rubber insulated
(B) Paper insulated
(C) High pressure gas insulated
(D) Not insulated
50. Cables of arc welding sets are usually
(A) Vulcanized rubber insulated
(B) Paper insulated
(C) High pressure gas insulated
(D) Not provided with insulation as the operating voltage is less than 100 V.
51. Insulation resistance of cables is usually measured in term of
(A) Micro-ohms
(B) Ohms
(C) Kilo-ohms
(D) Mega-ohms
52. When the service voltage of a cable is 250 V, it should be checked after installation for about 15 minutes at a
voltage of not less than
(A) 100 V
(B) 250 V
(C) 500 V
(D) 1000 V
53. When the service of a cable is 11 KV, it should be tested for short duration at a voltage of
(A) 5.5 KV
(B) 10 KV
(C) 20 KV
(D) 110 KV
54. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends in
(A) Time of application of the voltage
(B) Working temperature
(C) Presence of moisture
55. Breakdown in a cable insulation may occur due to
(A) Puncture
(B) Thermal instability
(C) Tracking
56. The insulation material for cable should have
(A) High resistivity
(B) High dc electric strength
(C) Low permittivity
57. The insulating material for cables should have all of the following except
(A) High mechanical strength
(B) High water absorption
(C) Non-inflammability
(D) Low permittivity
58. Natural rubber is obtained from
(A) Milky sap of tropical trees
(B) Roots of tropical trees
(C) Fruits of bamboo
(D) Leaves of bamboo and some tropical trees
59. Relative permittivity of rubber is
(A) 1
(B) Between 2 and 3
(C) 10
(D) Infinite
60. The dielectric strength of rubber is
(A) 3 KV/mm
(B) 10 KV/mm
(C) 30 KV/mm
(D) 300 KV/mm
61. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(A) It has low insulation resistivity
(B) It has high capacitance
(C) It is hygroscopic
(D) It is organic material
62. The maximum safe temperature of paper insulated cable is around
(A) 30o C
(B) 50o C
(C) 90o C
(D) 150o C
63. Extra high tension cables are meant for operation upto
(A) 11 KV
(B) 33 KV
(C) 66 KV
(D) 132 KV
64. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(A) Smaller overall size
(B) No ionization, oxidation and formation of voids
(C) More perfect impregnation
Circuit breakers
1. A circuit breaker is
(A) power factor correcting device
(B) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
(C) a waveform correcting device
(D) a current interrupting device.
2. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is
(A) to each any stray voltages
(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value
(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker
(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.
3. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
(A) 220 V
(B) 400V
(C) 1000 V
(D) 10,000 V.
4. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually
(A) few minutes
(B) few seconds
(C) one second
(D) few cycles of supply voltage.
5. The medium employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker is
(A) SF6
(B) Oil
(C) Air
(D) Water.
6. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application
(A) Air blast circuit breakers
(B) Minimum oil circuit breakers
(C) Bulk oil circuit breakers
(D) SF6 oil circuit breakers.
7. For high voltage, ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
(A) 0.01 sec
(B) 0.1 sec
(C) 3 seconds
(D) 30 seconds.
8. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers?
(A) Electro-magnetic
(B) Electro-pneumatic
(C) Pneumatic
(D) Vacuum.
9. Interrupting medium in a contactor may be
(A) air
(B) oil
(C) SF6 gas
10. In air blast circuit breakers, the pressure of air is of the order of
(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 1 kg/cm2
(C) 20 to 30 kg/cm2
(D) 200 to 300 kg/cm2
11. SF6 gas is
(A) sulphur fluoride
(B) sulphur difluoride
(C) sulphur hexafluorine
(D) sulphur hexafluoride
12. SF6 gas
(A) is yellow in color
(B) has pungent odor
(C) is highly toxic
(D) is non-inflammable.
13. SF6 gas
(A) is lighter than hydrogen
(B) is lighter than air
(C) has density 2-times as compared to that of air
(D) has density 5 limes as compared to that of air.
14. The pressure of SF6 gas in circuit breakers is of the order of
(A) 100 mm Hg
(B) 1 kg/cm2
(C) 3 to 5 kg/cm2
(D) 30 to 50 kg/cm2
15. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is
(A) high dielectric strength
(B) non-inflammability
(C) non-toxicity
16. Out of the following circuit breakers, which one has the lowest voltage range ?
(A) Air-break circuit breaker
(B) Tank type oil circuit breaker
(C) Air-blast circuit breaker
(D) SF6 circuit breaker.
17. Which of the following circuit breaker can be installed on 400 kV line
(A) Tank type oil circuit breaker
(B) Miniature circuit breaker
(C) Vacuum circuit breaker
(D) Air blast circuit breaker.
18. In a vacuum circuit breaker, the vacuum is of the order of
(A) 10 mm Hg
(B)10-2mmHg
(C) l0-6 mmHg
(D)10-9 mmHg.
19. In modem EHV circuit breakers, the operating time between instant of receiving trip signal and final contact
separation is, of the order of
(A) 0.001 sec
(B) 0.015 sec
(C) 0.003 sec
(D) 0.03 sec.
20. In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as
(A) total operating time
(B) arcing time
(C) pre-arcing time
21. Fusing factor for a HRC fuse is
(A) Minimum fusing current / Current rating
(B) Minimum fusing current / Minimum rupturing time
(C) Maximum fusing current / Minimum fusing current
(D) Minimum fusing current / Prospective current of circuit.
22. Which of the following circuit breakers does not use pneumatic operating mechanism
(A) Air blast circuit breaker
(B) SF6 blast circuit breaker
(C) Air break circuit breaker
(D) Bulk-oil circuit breaker.
23. The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is. of the order of
(A) 20 micro ohms ± 10
(B) 20milli ohms ± 10
(C) 20 ohms ± 10
(D) 200 ohms ± 10.
24. The insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breaker is
(A) 1k Ohm
(B) 10 k Ohm
(C) 20 Mega ohms
(D) 2000 Mega ohm.
25. There is definite objection to use of which of the following medium for extinguishing the arc in case of a circuit
breaker?
(A) Air
(B) SF6 gas
(C) Vacuum
(D) Water.
26. In a circuit breaker if the insulation resistance between phase terminal and earthed frame is less than the
specified limit, the probable cause could be
(A) moisture
(B) dirty insulation surface
(C) carbon or copper particles sticking to the internal surface
27. If a circuit breaker does not operate on electrical compound, the probable reason could be
(A) spring defective
(B) trip circuit open
(C) trip latch defective
28. The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the breaker poles after final arc extinction has occurred, is
(A) recovery voltage
(B) re striking voltage
(C) supply voltage
(D) peak voltage.
29. The transient voltage that appears across the contacts at the instant of arc extinction is called
(A) recovery voltage
(B) re striking voltage
(C) supply voltage
(D) peak voltage.
30. In a circuit breaker the active recovery voltage depends upon
(A) power factor
(B) armature reaction
(C) circuit conditions
31. The following figure shows the voltage waveform across the pole of a circuit breaker; In this voltage R represents
(A) System voltage

(B) Re striking voltage
(C) Recovery voltage
(D) Extinction of arc.
32. In the above figure, D represents
(A) Recovery voltage
(B) Re striking voltage
(C) System voltage
(D) Extinction of arc.
33. Best protection is provided by HRC fuses in case of
(A) Open circuits
(B) Short circuits
(C) Overloads
34. For motor circuit breakers, the time of closing the cycle is
(A) 0.001 sec
(B) 0.01 sec
(C) 0.10 sec
(D) 0.003 sec.
35. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
(A) Impedance relay
(B) Electromagnetic attraction type
(C) Thermal relay
(D) Buchholz's relay.
36. Which curve in the figure represents inverse time characteristics?
(A) Curve A
(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D.
37. Fuse protection is used for current ratings up to
(A) 10 A
(B) 20 A
(C) 50 A
(D) 100 A.
38. The fuse current in amperes is related with fuse wire diameter D as
(A) I ∞ I/D
(B) I ∞ D
(C) I ∞ D3/2
(D) I ∞ D2
39. The acting contacts for a circuit breakers are made of
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Hard pressed carbon
(C) Porcelain
(D) Copper tungsten alloy.
40. Ionization in a circuit breaker is not facilitated by
(A) high temperature of surrounding medium
(B) material of contacts
(C) increase of field strength
(D) increase of mean free path.
41. Which circuit breaker is generally used in railway traction?
(A) SF6 gas circuit breaker
(B) Air break circuit breaker
(C) Vacuum circuit breaker
(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker.
42. A fuse wire should have
(A) Low specific resistance and high melting point
(B) Low specific resistance and low melting point
(C) High specific resistance and high melting point
(D) High specific resistance and low melting point.
43. Fuse wire, protection, system is usually not used beyond
(A) 10 A
(B) 25 A
(C) 50 A
(D)100A.
44. For extra high voltage lines which circuit breaker is preferred
(A) Bulk oil circuit breaker
(B) Vacuum circuit breaker
(C) SF6 gas circuit breaker
(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker.
45. The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can complete its operation is
(A) 3 to 8
(B) 10 to 18
(C) 20 to 30
(D) 40 to 50.
46. When D is the diameter of fuse wire, the fusing current will be proportional to
(A) 1/D
(B) 1/D2
(C) D3/2
(D) D1/2
47. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire is
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Lead
(D) Copper
48. In a circuit breaker the current which exists at the instant of contact separation is known as
(A) re striking current
(B) surge current
(C) breaking current
(D) recovery current.
49. A Merz-price protection is suitable for
(A) transformers
(B) alternators
(C) feeders
(D) transmission lines.
50. 'Kick fuse' has
(A) square law characteristics
(B) linear characteristics
(C) inverse characteristics.
51. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV. Power system are designed to operate in
(A) 50 micro seconds
(B) 50 milli seconds
(C) 500 milli seconds
(D) 50 seconds.
52. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of
(A) Amperes
(B) Volts
(C) MW
(D) MVA.
53. Sulphur hexafluoride is a
(A) Conductor of electricity
(B) Semi-conductor
(C) Inactive gas
(D) Dielectric.
54. The contact resistance is least affected by
(A) the mechanical force applied
(B) the shape of the contact faces
(C) the amount of surface contamination
(D) the ambient temperature.
55. The arc voltage produced in ac circuit breaker is
(A) leading the arc current by 90°
(B) lagging the arc current by 90°
(C) In phase with the arc current
(D) In phase opposition to the arc current.
Questions 56 to 59 refer to the following figure:
56. Various forms of contacts are shown in the figure above. Point contact is (are) represented by
(A) A only
(B) A and B only
(C) A, B and C only
(D) A, B, C and D.
57. Which contact surface provides line contact only?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D.
58. Which form of contact are widely used in switchgear particle?
(A) A and B only
(B) A and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) B, C and D only.
59. For the various types of contacts Shown, for the same force, F, the contact resistance will be least in
case of
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D.
60. As the force on contact is increased, the contact resistance will
(A) increase linearly
(B) increase exponentially
(C) remain unaltered
(D) decrease.
61. The heat produced at the contact point, due to passage of current, will least depend on
(A) contact resistance
(B) time during which the current flows
(C) current flowing
(D) temperature of the surrounding medium.
62. For the contact and their material, which of the following should have low value
(A) Contact resistance
(B) Thermal capacity
(C) Thermal conductivity
63. Minimum arcing voltage will be least in case of
(A) carbon
(B) graphite
(C) tungsten
(D) silver.
64. Minimum arcing voltage for platinum is 16 V. It can be therefore concluded that when the voltage is below 16 V
(A) it will not be possible to interrupt the circuit
(B) it will not be possible to pass the current
(C) it will be possible to interrupt any value of current without arcing
(D) it will be possible to interrupt any value of current without bringing contact closer to one another.
65. Oil immersion of contacts is the method of
(A) arc dispersion
(B) arc prevention
(C) de ionization
66. Which of the following is not the method of arc dispersion?
(A) Oil immersion of contacts
(B) Magnetic blow out of arc
(C) Use of rectifiers
(D) De ionization of arc path.
67. Which of the following contact point metals has the highest melting point?
(A) Silver
(B) Tungsten
(C) Gold
(D) Copper.
68. The arc voltage produced in the circuit breaker is always
(A) in phase with arc current
(B) leading the arc current by 90°
(C) lagging the arc current by 90°
69. Which of the following figure represents the voltage-current characteristics of arc in a circuit breaker?
(A) Figure A
(B) Figure B
(C) Figure C
(D) Figure D.
70. Ionization process during arc is generally accompanied by emission of
(A) light
(B) heat
(C) sound
71. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by
(A) inserting resistance in the line
(B) inserting a capacitor in series with the contacts
(C) inserting a capacitor in parallel with the contacts.
72. For magnetic blow out of arc the magnetic field is produced
(A) in the load circuit
(B) parallel to the axis of the arc
(C) at right angles to the axis of the arc.
73. Cool gases are solids brought into the arc stream assist in quenching the arc mainly by
(A) reducing current density
(B) providing arc shield
(C) De ionization
(D) providing parallel paths.
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has
(A) high inductance
(B) high capacitance
(C) high resistance.
75. HRC fuses are
(A) High resistance and Capacitance fuses
(B) Heat reflecting cool fuses
(C) Holding and Resisting current fuses
(D) High rupturing capacity fuses.
76. Which of the following metals does not amalgamate with mercury?
(A) Tungsten
(B) Molybdenum
(C) Nickel alloy
77. For the same current, which of the following fuse wires will have the least fusing time?
(A) 18 SWG TIN - 12.5 A
(B) 20 SWG TIN - 10 A
(C) 22 SWG TIN-7.5 A
(D) 24 SWG TIN-5 A.
78. An automatic device that operates at present values is known as
(A) mercury switch
(B) relay
(C) fuse
(D) contactor.
79. The basic function of a circuit breaker is to
(A) produce the arc
(B) ionize the surrounding air
(C) transmit voltage by arcing
(D) extinguish the arc.
80. In a circuit breaker the arc is indicated by the process of
I. Thermal emission
II. Ionization of oil
III. High temperature of air
IV. Field emission
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) II, III and IV only
(D) I and IV only.
81. The power factor of the arc in circuit breaker is
(A) always zero
(B) always unity
(C) always lagging
(D) always leading.
82. Air blast circuit breakers are usually used for
(A) instantaneous duty
(B) permanent break
(C) intermittent duty
(D) repeated duty.
83. Flame proof switch gears are usually preferred
(A) on transmission lines of low voltage
(B) substations
(C) in mines
(D) in high MVA capacity circuits.
84. Pressure of air in air blast circuit breakers is usually
(A) 1 - 5 kg/cm2
(B) 5 - 10 kg/cm2
(C) 10-30 kg/cm2
(D) 35-100 kg/cm2
85. Air used in air blast circuit breaker
(A) must have least carbon dioxide
(B) must be ionized
(C) must have oil mist
(D) must be free from moisture.
86. In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of fault to the instant of energizing of the trip coil is known
as
(A) lag time
(B) lead time
(C) protection time
(D) operation time.
87. In a circuit breaker the lime duration from the instant of the fault to the extinction of arc is known as
(A) operation time
(B) total clearing time
(C) lag time
(D) lead time.
88. In a circuit breaker the lime duration from the instant of fault to the instant of closing of contact is known as
(A) Recycle time
(B) Total time
(C) Gross time
(D) Re closing time.
89. For high speed circuit breakers the total lime is nearly
(A) Half cycle
(B) One cycle
(C) Few cycles
(D) Ten cycles.
90. For a high speed circuit breaker the total clearing time is nearly
(A) 1 to 2 cycles
(B) 5 to 10 cycles
(C) 10 to 15 cycles
(D) less than 50 cycles.
91. If the power factor is zero, the active recovery voltage will be
(A) minimum
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.707
(D) maximum.
92. Which of the following is not a part of the circuit breaker?
(A) Explosion pot
(B) Fixed and moving contacts
(C) Conservator
(D) Operating mechanism.
93. A circuit breaker will normally operate
(A) When the switch is put on
(B) When the line is to be checked
(C) When the power is to be supplied
(D) Whenever fault in the line occurs.
94. Which of the following circuit breaker will produce the least arc energy?
(A) Minimum oil circuit breaker
(B) Air blast circuit breaker
(C) Plain oil circuit breaker
(D) All will produce same energy.
95. For a circuit breaker 'break time' is
(A) same as opening time
(B) opening time + arc duration
(C) opening time + arc duration + resistor current duration.
96. The breaking capacity of a circuit breaker in MVA (3 phase) is given by
(A) rated service voltage x rated symmetrical current
(B) 1.1 x rated service voltage x rated symmetrical current
(C) √2 x rated service voltage x rated symmetrical current
(D) √3 x rated service voltage x rated symmetrical current.
97. Which relay is used for feeders?
(A) MHO relay
(B) Translay relay
(C) Merz price protection
(D) Buchholz relay.
98. Which of the following relays is used on transformers?
(A) Buchholz relay
(B) MHO relay
(C) Merz price relay
99. MHO relay is used for
(A) rectifiers
(B) circuit breakers
(C) transmission lines
(D) feeders.
100. Merz-price protection is used on
(A) substations
(B) capacitor bank
(C) induction motor
(D) generators.
Relay Operation
(a) Static relay (i) Responds to vector difference between two electrical quantities
(b) Over current relay (ii) Quick operation
(c) Differential relay (iii) Responds to increase in current
(d) Instantaneous (iv) No moving parts relay
(A) a - (i), b- (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(B) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d- (iv)
(C) a - (ii), b - (i) c- (iii), d - (iv)
(D) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv).
102. The values of fault current depend on
(A) voltage at the faulty point
(B) total impedance up to the fault
103. The advantage of neutral earthing is
(A) simplified design of earth fault protection
(B) over-voltages due to lightning can be discharged to the earth
(C) freedom from persistent arcing grounds
Material used in circuit breaker Application
(a) Poly tetra (i) Bearing surfaces fluoroethylene and sliding parts
(b) SF6 gas (ii) Insulating medium
(c) Electrolytic (iii) Main contacts copper
(d) Dielectric oil (iv) Quenching medium
(A) a- (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(B) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(C) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)
(D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i).
(A) a - (i), b -(ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(B) a - (ii). b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
(C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
(D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i).
106. The over-voltage surges in power systems may be caused by
(A) lightning
(B) switching
(C) resonance
107. The protection against over-voltage due to lightening is provided by
(A) use of surge diverters
(B) low tower footing resistance
(C) use of overhead ground wires
108. Which of the following is a conducting medium for electric current?
(A) Low temperature gas
(B) High temperature gas
(C) Dissociated gas
(D) Plasma.
109. In circuit-breakers the contact space is ionized by
(A) thermal ionization of gas
(B) thermal emission from surface of contacts
(C) field emission from the surface of contacts
110. Which of the following are air-break switching devices?
(A) Isolator
(B) Limit switch
(C) Earthing switch
111. Which of the following statement about SF6 gas is incorrect?
(A) It is non-toxic gas
(B) It is non-inflammable
(C) It has density 5 times that of air at 200C
(D) It has dark yellow color.
112. SF6 gas is transported in
(A) gas cylinders
(B) liquid form in cylinders
(C) solid form in boxes
(D) air cylinders.
113. During arc extinction SF6 gas
(A) decomposes into S and F ions
(B) decomposes into SF4and SF2
(C) gets oxidized
(D) reduces to SF3.
114. Dielectric strength of SF6 is
(A) less than that of air at atmospheric pressure
(B) less than that of oil used in OCB
(C) more than that of oil used in OCB
(D) more at lower pressure and low at higher pressures.
115. Which of the following is the demerit of SF6 circuit breakers?
(A) sealing problem of gas
(B) In flux of moisture in the gas system is dangerous
(C) Deterioration of quality of circuit breaker affects reliability of circuit breaker
116. Sphere gaps are used for
(A) measurement of high dc voltages
(B) measurement of high ac voltages
(C) measurement of impulse voltages
117. Flash point of dielectric is usually above
(A) 80°C
(B) 100°C
(C) 140°C
(D) 240°C.
118. A fuse is normally a
(A) current limiting device
(B) voltage limiting device
(C) power limiting device
(D) power factor correcting device.
119. Most of the fuses operate due to
(A) heating effect of current
(B) magnetic effect of current
(C) electrostatic effect of current
120. Normally the fuse elements are in parts which are connected in the middle by ten bridge. The melting point of tin
bridge is
(A) 35°C
(B) 88°C
(C) 230°C
(D) 540°C.
121. The material used for bus bars should have
(A) low resistivity
(B) higher softening temperature
(C) low cost
122. Insulation resistance of HV circuit breaker is more than
(A) 100 Ohms
(B) 1 M Ohms
(C) 500 kOhms
(D)100M Ohms
123. The isolator is interlocked with circuit breaker and earthing switch. While opening the circuit
................... opens first, then the ............ and only after this the......................... can close
(A) isolator circuit breaker................... earthing switch
(B) earthing switch ................ isolator................ circuit breaker
(C) circuit breaker.................. earthing switch ............ isolator
(D) circuit breaker ................. isolator .............. ... earthing switch.
124. The main factor in favour of the use of aluminium as bus bar material is
(A) its low melting point
(B) its high resistivity
(C) its low cost
(D) its low density.
125. Over-current protection for motor is provided by
(A) cartridge fuses
(B) high resistance fuses
(C) over-current relay
126. Fuse in motor circuit provides
(A) over current protection
(B) short-circuit protection
(C) open-circuit protection
127. In which method of starting a motor, the starting current is the maximum?
(A) Auto-transformer
(B) Star-delta starter
(C) Stator rotor starter
(D) Direct-on-line.
Transformers 250 kVA, 11/0.415 kV percentage impedance 4.75%.
128. The rated current for LV side fuse should be
(A) 100 A
(B) 174 A
(C) 200 A
(D) 348 A.
129. The rated current for HV side fuse should be
(A) 13.1 A
(B) 23.0 A
(C) 48 A
(D) 55.5 A.
130. Which of the following are the voltage waves of magnitude higher than the desirable value?
(A) Over-voltages
(B) Surges
(C) Transients
131. Over-voltage transients may occur due to
(A) lightning
(B) switching
(C) arcing grounds
132. Which of the following protective devices can be used against lightning surges?
(A) Horn gap
(B) Surge diverters
(C) Lightning arresters
133. Switching surges may be caused by
(A) closing of unchanged line
(B) load shedding at receiving end of line
(C) switching of magnetizing current
134. Surge impedance of over-head transmission lines is of the order of
(A) 20 to 30 ohms
(B) 300 to 500 ohms
(C) 3000 to 5000 ohms
(D) 30 k ohm to 60 k ohm.
135. The surge impedance of under-ground cables is of the order of
(A) 20 to 60 ohms
(B) 200 to 600 ohms
(C) 2 k ohm to 5 k ohm
(D) 20 k ohm to 60 k ohm.
136. Which statement is correct
(A) SF6 gas is nontoxic
(B) SF6 gas is lighter than air
(C) SF6 gas has pungent smell
(D) SF6 gas is yellow in color.
137. The surge impedance, of a transmission line is given by
(A) √𝐿𝐶
𝑐
(B) √𝐿
𝐿
(C) √
𝑐
(D) √𝐿 + 𝐶
138. Surge modifiers are used to
(A) reduce the current of wave-front
(B) reduce the voltage of wave-front
(C) reduce the steepness of wave-front
(D) modify the shape of wave-front.
139. The steepness of the wave-front can be reduced by
(A) connecting a capacitance between line and earth
(B) connecting an inductor in series with the line
(D) connecting an inductor between line and earth and connecting a capacitor in series with the line.
140. In the circuit breaker, the arcing contacts are made of
(A) electrolytic copper
(B) copper tungsten alloy
(C) aluminium alloy
(D) porcelain.
141. The disadvantage offered by ungrounded systems is
(A) frequent arcing grounds
(B) difficult earth fault relaying
(C) voltage oscillations
142. Solid grounding is used for voltages
(A) above 220 kV
(B) above 11 kV
(C) below 660 V
(D) below 115 V.
143. Resistance grounding is used for voltages
(A) below 220 V
(B) up to 660 V
(C) between 3.3 kV to 11 kV
(D) above 66 kV.
144. Switching over-voltages are more hazardous than lightning surges in case of
(A) Low voltage systems
(B) 11 kV systems
(C) Unbalanced systems
(D) EHV and UHV systems.
145. Current limiting reactors may be
(A) air cooled, air cored
(B) oil immersed magnetically shielded
(C) oil immersed non-magnetically shielded
146. Series reactors are installed at strategic locations of power systems to
(A) bring down the fault level within the capacity of switchgear
(B) directly pass the fault surges to ground
(C) pass neutralizing surges of opposite nature
(D) discharge the capacitors.
147. Fault diverters
(A) divert the current to earth in the event of short-circuits
(B) neutralize the surges by resistors
(C) modify the surge wave shapes
148. In star connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are
(A) same as peak value of phase current
(B) same as rms value of phase currents
(C) vector sum of phase currents
(D) zero.
149. In which portion of the transmission system faults occur most frequently?
(A) Transformers
(B) Overhead lines
(C) Alternators
(D) Underground cables.
150. Bulk-oil circuit breaker is suitable for voltages up to
(A)10kV
(B) 16 kV
(C) 26 kV
(D) 36 kV.
151. The ohmic value of impedance to be connected in the neutral to ground circuit of a 2000 kVA transformer with
earth fault relay set to 40%, with respect to 400 V side will be
(A) 0.2 ohm
(B) 2.0 ohms
(C) 20 ohms
(D) 200 ohms.
A 3-phase, 5000 kVA, 6.6 kV generator having 12% sub-transient reactance. A 3-phase short-circuit occurs at its
terminals.
152. Fault MVA is
(A) 21.5
(B) 41.66
(C) 53.33
(D) 75.75.
153. Fault current is
(A) 3640 A
(B) 2460 A
(C) frequency
(D) 880 A.
154. The actuating quantity for the relays can be
(A) magnitude
(B) phase angle
(C) frequency
155. Electro-magnetic relays may be operated by
(A) electro-magnetic attraction
(B) electro-magnetic induction
(C) thermal effect
156. Which of the following is not a relay using electromagnetic force
(A) Buchholz relay
(B) Induction cup relay
(C) Balanced beam relay
(D) Attracted armature type relay.
157. Buchholz relay is operated by
(A) Eddy currents
(B) Gas pressure
(C) Electro-magnetic induction
(D) Electro-static induction.
158. Thermal relays are often used in
(A) generator protection
(B) transformer protection
(C) motor starters
159. A bimetal strip consists of two metal strips have different
(A) thermal diffusivity
(B) thermal conductivity
(C) specific beat
(D) coefficient of expansion.
160. Differential protection principle is used in the protection of
(A) generators
(B) transformers
(C) feeders
High Voltage Engineering
1. Dielectric strength in case of mica can be expected to be more than
(A) 500 kV/mm
(B) 1500 kV/mm
(C) 2500 kV/mm
(D) 3500 kV/mm.
2. All of the following dielectric materials are preferred for high frequency applications EXCEPT
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Butyl rubber
(C) Teflon
(D) Polystyrene.
3. Polar dielectrics are normally used for
(A) high frequencies
(B) microwaves
(C) dc and power frequencies
4. Which of the following is a polar dielectric?
(A) Teflon
(B) Quartz
(C) Nylon
(D) Polyethylene.
5. Which of the following is a non-polar dielectric?
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Phenolic plastics
(C) Plasticized cellulose acetate
(D) Castor oil.
6. The impurity in liquid dielectric which has significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength, is
(A) dust
(B) dissolved gases
(C) moisture
(D) ionic impurities.
7. The relationship between the breakdown voltage V and gap d is normally given as
(A) d = kV2
(B) d=kV3
(C) V = kd
(D) v = kdn
8. A good dielectric should have all the following properties EXCEPT
(A) high mechanical strength
(B) high resistance to thermal deterioration
(C) high dielectric loss
(D) freedom from gaseous inclusions.
9. The variety of paper used for insulation purpose is
(A) blotting paper
(B) rice paper
(C) craft paper
(D) mill-board.
10. Which variety of mica is hard and brittle?
(A) Muscovite
(B) Phlogopite
(C) Fibiolite
(D) Lipidolite
11. Corona effect can be identified by
(A) bushy sparks
(B) faint violet glow
(C) red light
(D) arcing between conductors and earth.
12. The phenomenon of corona is generally accompanied by
(A) a bang
(B) a hissing sound
(C) magnetic hum
13. Van de Graaff generators are useful for
(A) Very high voltage and low current applications
(B) Very high voltage and high current applications
(C) Constant high voltage and current applications
(D) High voltage pulses only.
14. In Van de Graaff generators output voltage is controlled by
(A) controlling the corona source voltage
(B) controlling the belt speed
(C) controlling the lower spray point
15. A Tesla coil is a
(A) cascaded transformer
(B) coreless transformer
(C) high frequency resonant transformer
(D) low impedance transformer.
16. Switching surge is
(A) high voltage dc
(B) high voltage ac
(C) short duration transient voltage
(D) hyperbolically dying voltage.
17. Moles bridge is used to measure
(A) properties of dielectric at dc
(B) dispersion in insulation
(C) high frequency high voltages
(D) modulation ratio frequencies.
18. Insulators for high voltage applications are tested for
(A) power frequency tests
(B) impulse tests
19. Impulse testing of transformers is done to determine the ability of
(A) bushings to withstand vibrations
(B) insulation to withstand transient voltages
(C) windings to withstand voltage fluctuations
20. Transformers contribute to radio interference due to
(A) corona discharges in air
(B) internal or partial discharges in insulation
(C) sparking
21. As compared to air the relative dielectric strength of sulphur hexafluoride is nearly
(A) 1.5 times
(B) 2.5 times
(C) 4.0 times
(D) 5.0 times.
22. The electrical breakdown strength of insulating materials depends on
(A) nature of applied voltage
(B) imperfections in dielectric material
(C) pressure, temperature and humidity
23. Which of the following gas has been used as insulating medium in electrical appliances?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur hexafluoride
(D) Freon.
24. Vacuum insulation is used in all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Particle accelerators
(B) EHT of color TV
(C) Field emission tubes
(D) X-rays.
25. Liquids are generally used as insulating materials up to voltage stresses of about
(A) 100 MV/cm
(B) 50 MV/cm
(C) 50 kV/cm
(D) 500 V/cm.
26. Electro-mechanical breakdown of solid insulating materials occurs due to
(A) magnetic bum
(B) vibrations
(C) mechanical stresses produced by the electrical field
(D) electrical stresses produced by the voltage fluctuations.
(F is force exerted on a charge q in the electric field E and S is the closed surface containing charge q, D is the flux
density). Equation Nomenclature
(a) φs E dS = q / ε0 (i) Poisson's equation
(b) ▼ D = ρ (ii) Laplace's equation
(c) ▼2 φ = - ρ/ ε0 (iii) Guass theorem
(d) ▼2φ = 0 (iv) Charge density
(A) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(B) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (iii)
(C) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(D) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii).
28. Surge voltage originate in power systems due to
(A) lightning
(B) switching operations
(C) faults
29. All of the following are the preferred properties of a dielectric gas EXCEPT
(A) high dielectric strength
(B) physiological inertness
(C) low atomic number
(D) good heat transfer.
30. Corona results in
(A) improvement in power factor
(B) increased capacitive reactance of transmission lines
(C) radio interference
(D) better regulation.
31. Which of the following technique/method is-used for the measurements of ac high frequency voltages?
(A) Peak voltmeter
(B) Series resistance micro ammeter
(C) Resistance potential divider
32. Which of the following method or technique can be used for the measurement of high dc voltages?
(A) Generating voltmeter
(B) Electrostatic voltmeter
(C) Peak voltmeter
33. All of the following methods/techniques can be used for the measurement of high ac voltages EXCEPT
(A) Potential dividers
(B) Potential transformers
(C) Electrostatic voltmeters
(D) Half effect generators.
34. Surge diverters are
(A) non-linear resistors in series with spark gaps which act as fast switches
(B) arc quenching devices
(C) shunt reactors to limit the voltage rise due to Ferranti effect
(D) over-voltages of power frequency harmonics.
35. Impulse voltages are characterized by
(A) polarity
(B) peak value
(C) time of half the peak value
36. Paschen's law is associated with
(A) breakdown voltage
(B) ionization
(C) thermal radiations
37. The essential condition for the Paschen's law to be valid is that
(A) voltage must be dc
(B) voltage must be ac
(C) temperature must be constant
(D) humidity must be low.
38. The breakdown voltage in gases depends on
(A) distance between the electrodes
(B) relative air density
(C) humidity
39. At unvarying temperature breakdown voltage in a uniform field is a function of the product of gas pressure and
distance between the electrodes. The above statement is known as
(A) Electron avalanche
(B) Thermal stability principle
(C) Paschen's law
(D) Breakdown voltage law.
40. Large capacity generators are manufactured to generate power at
(A) 440 V
(B) 6.3 to 10.5 kV
(C) 132 kV to 220 kV
(D) 400 kV.
41. Which soil has the least specific resistance?
(A) Land
(B) Loamy soil
(C) Clay
(D) Peat.
42. Which soil has the maximum specific resistance?
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Sand
(C) Peat
(D) Loamy soil.
43. In sphere gaps, the sphere are made of
(A) aluminium
(B) brass
(C) bronze
44. In 'plasma' state a gas
(A) loses electrical conductivity
(B) conducts electricity
(C) becomes perfect insulator
(D) attracts moisture.
45. Which of the following statement about corona is incorrect?
(A) Corona gives rise to radio interference
(B) Corona results in loss of power in transmission
(C) Corona discharge can be observed as red luminescence
(D) Corona is always accompanied by a hissing noise.
Rectifiers and Converters
1. In mercury arc rectifiers the voltage drop in arc is nearly
(A) 0.1 volt per centimeter of arc length
(B) 1 volt per centimeter of arc length
(C) 10 volts per centimeter of arc length
(D) 12 to 15 volts per centimeter of arc length.
2. An ideal rectifier having a linear characteristic in forward direction and an infinite resistance in the reverse
direction, can be represented by
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) none of the figures shown.
3. Which of the following equipment needs direct current?
(A) Relays
(B) Telephones
(C) Time switches
4. Which of the following devices cannot convey from dc to ac?
(A) Motor generator
(B) Motor converter
(C) Mercury arc rectifier
5. In large motor generator sets ac motor is usually
(A) induction motor squirrel cage type
(B) synchronous motor
(C) induction motor wound rotor type
6. For single phase rotary converters, when the power factor is unity, the ac line to dc current ratio will be
(A) 1.4
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.5.
7. A 100 kW motor generator set has induction motor of six poles and dc generator of eight poles. If the
supply frequency is 50 Hz, the speed of the set will be
(A) 214.3 rpm
(B) 428.6 rpm
(C) 536.4 rpm
(D) 624.8 rpm.
8. The number of slip rings in a single phase synchronous converter will be
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None.
Questions 9 to 11 are based on the following data:
A 1 kW single phase rotary converter operates at full load from 230 volts’ ac source. Assume 100% efficiency and unity
power factor.
9. The voltage will be
(A) 230 V
(B) 250 V
(C)275 V
(D) 325 V.
10. The dc current will be approximately
(A) 2.5 A
(B) 3 A
(C) 3.25 A
(D) 3.75 A.
11. The ac input current at slip rings will be
(A) 6.3 A
(B) 5.8 A
(C)4.1A
(D) 3.8 A.
12. For 3 phase rotary converters, when power factor is unity. the ac line to dc current ratio is
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.1
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.942.
13. If a synchronous converter is supplied with 12 phase ac supply, the number of slip rings will be
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 24.
14. In a synchronous converter, the no-load ratio of the voltage Ea between successive slip-rings (i.e. the armature
phase voltage) to the commutator voltage Ed for 3 phase "supply on ac side is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.16.
15. In a synchronous converter, ac and dc armature powers will be equal when
(A) electrical losses are negligible
(B) mechanical losses are negligible
(C) electrical and mechanical losses are negligible
(D) electrical and mechanical losses are negligible and power factor is unity.
16. In a rotary converter
(A) armature currents are dc only
(B) armature currents are ac only
(C) partly ac and partly dc.
17. In a rotary converter l2R? losses as compared to a dc generator of the same size will be
(A) four times more
(B) double
(C) same
(D) less.
18. In a synchronous converter, the l2R losses are less as compared to dc generator of the same size because
(A) dc currents are negligible
(B) ac components neutralize the dc
(C) cyclic fluctuations have low frequency
(D) operating speed is low.
19. A rotary converter can be started
(A) from dc side as dc motor
(B) from ac side as induction motor
(C) by means of a small auxiliary motor
(D) any of the above methods.
20. When a rotor converter is started by means of a small auxiliary motor, the power of motor must be
(A) more than the dc output of converter
(B) more than ac input of converter
(C) half of dc output of converter
(D) slightly more than the value of friction and windage losses at rated speed.
21. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted towards
(A) mercury pool
(B) shell bottom
(C) cathode
(D) anode.
22. Maximum current rating of a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier is usually restricted to
(A) 50 A
(B) 100 A
(C) 500 A
(D) 1000 A.
23. Which of the following rectifiers can withstand maximum voltage on dc side
(A) Mercury arc rectifier
(B) Glass bulb rectifier
(C) Steel tank rectifier
24. In an arc rectifier the drop in voltage at the cathode is approximately
(A) 1 volt
(B) 6 to 7 volts
(C) 60 to 70 volts
(D) 1.2 V7 volts.
25. In arc rectifiers mercury is chosen as the liquid for rectifier because
(A) it has low specific heat
(B) it has low ionization potential
(C) it has high atomic weight
26. Ionization potential of mercury is approximately
(A) 1 V
(B) 2 V
(C) 10.4 V
(D) 104 V.
27. Least undulating current will be delivered by which mercury arc rectifier
(A) 1-phase
(B) 2 phase
(C) 3 phase
(D) 6 phase.
28. In a mercury arc rectifier the cathode voltage drop is due to
(A) surface resistance
(B) expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the mercury
(C) expenditure of energy in ionization
(D) expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field.
29. In mercury arc rectifier, voltage drop at anode is due to
(A) energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field
(B) high temperature inside the rectifier
(C) self-restoring property of mercury
(D) high ionization potential.
30. The average life of the glass bulb rectifier is
(A) 100 to 150 hours
(B) 1000 to 1500 hours
(C) 10,000 to 15,000 hours
(D) 100,000 to 150,000 hours.
31. The vacuum inside the glass bulb of a mercury arc rectifier is of the order of
(A) 5 x 10-3 cm of Hg
(B) 5 x 10-4 cm of Hg
(C) 5 x 10-5 cm of Hg
(D) 5 x 10-8 cm of Hg.
32. For mercury arc rectifiers, the anode is usually made of
(A) Aluminium
(B) Copper
(C) Tungsten
(D) Graphite.
33. Essential requirement of the anode material in mercury arc rectifier is that
(A) it should not be wetted by mercury
(B) it should be light
(C) it should be cheap
(D) it should be black in color.
34. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is
(A) it is noiseless in operation
(B) it responds quickly to varying load demands
(C) it has high efficiency
35. A 3 anode mercury arc rectifier has an anode current of overlap 300 . Neglecting arc drop, the regulation will be
approximately
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 7%
(D) 17%.
36. As compared to mercury arc rectifiers, metal rectifiers
(A) can operate on high loads
(B) can operate on high voltages
(C) operate on low temperatures
(D) give poor regulation.
37. The current carried by the cathode spot of the mercury arc rectifier is of the order of
(A) 40 A/sq-cm
(B) 400 A/sq-cm
(C) 4000 A/sq-cm
(D) 40,000 A/sq-cm.
38. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber?
(A) Voltage drop at the anode
(B) Voltage drop at the cathode
(C) Voltage drop in arc
39. The voltage drop at the cathode is of the order of
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 V
(B) I lo 1.5 V
(C) 7 to 9 V
(D) 70 to 90 V.
40. The voltage drop in arc primarily depends on
(A) arc length
(B) arc temperature
(C) purity of mercury
41. As the output voltage of a single anode mercury arc rectifier increases, the variation of internal efficiency is
represented by
(A) Curve A
(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D.
42. The voltage drop across the electrodes of a mercury pool rectifier
(A) varies exponentially with the load current
(B) is almost independent of load current
(C) is directly proportional to load
(D) is inversely proportional to load.
43. In a mercury arc rectifier
(A) ion stream moves from cathode to anode
(B) current flows from cathode to anode
(C) electron stream moves from anode to cathode
(D) ion stream moves from anode to cathode.
44. In a mercury arc rectifier if cathode and anode connections are interchanged
(A) internal losses will be reduced
(B) both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction
(C) the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
(D) the rectifier will not operate.
45. In mercury arc rectifier, mercury is used as
(A) conducting medium
(B) ionization medium
(C) electron accelerator
(D) a cathode.
46. In a mercury arc rectifier, mercury is used as cathode because
(A) mercury is liquid metal
(B) mercury readily vaporizes
(C) mercury vapor is easily ionized
(D) all of above.
47. In a mercury arc rectifier which of the following flows from anode to cathode?
(A) Electrons
(B) Ions
(C) Both electrons and ions
(D) Electrons, ions and current.
48. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is due to
(A) high temperature
(B) electron streams
(C) ionization
(D) color of mercury.
49. For producing cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier
(A) An auxiliary electrode is used
(B) Tube is evacuated
(C) Low mercury vapor pressures are used
(D) Anode is heated.
50. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on
(A) load current only
(B) voltage only
(C) current and voltage
(D) rms value of current.
A mercury arc rectifier has two anodes A and B as shown in figure. Anode A has potential difference of 500 V to earth
and anode B a potential difference of 490 V both positive to the cathode.
51. If anode A is conducting the arc voltage drop will be

(A) 500 V
(B) 480 V
(C) 280 V
(D) 20 V.
52. When anode A is conducting
(A) Anode B will conduct less efficiently
(B) Anode B will conduct more efficiently
(C) Conduction between anodes A and B will also start
(D) Anode B will not conduct.
53. If the voltage of anode B is raised to 510 V
(A) Anode B will conduct but anode A will not conduct
(B) Anode B will conduct but anode A will also continue to conduct
(C) Anode B will not conduct and anode A will continue to conduct
(D) Both anodes will not conduct.
54. Which of the following mercury arc rectifiers will have the highest supply line power factor?
(A) 3 anode rectifier
(B) 6 anode rectifier
(C) 100 Hz
(D) 200 Hz.
55. A set of resonant shunts is connected across the output terminals of a multi-anode mercury rectifier to
(A) reduce the effect of harmonics
(B) reduce the noise level
(C) improve the power factor of supply
(D) reduce internal losses.
56. Ripple frequency of full wave rectifier working on 50 Hz supply will be
(A) 25 Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 6 anode rectifier with inter phase transformer
(D) All will have identical power factor.
57. In mercury arc rectifiers, mercury is selected as cathode because
(A) its ionization potential is low
(B) it has low specific heat
(C) it has small latent heat of vaporization
58. A three anode mercury rectifier is connected to 440 V, 3 phase 50 Hz Supply. Each anode will conduct for
(A) 50 seconds
(B) 1/50 seconds
(C) 1/3 of the period
(D) 1/6 of the period.
59. A 6 anode mercury arc rectifier without inter-phase transformer has rims value of anode current as 41 A. This
rectifier with inter phase transformer will have rms value of anode current as
(A) 66 A
(B) 42.5 A
(C) 41A
(D) 22 A.
60. The rms value of half wave-rectified sine wave with im as peak value is
(A) 0.707 im
(B) 0.66 im
(C) 0.5 im
(D) 0.318 im.
61. The mean value of half wave rectified sine wave is
(A) 0.707 im
(B) 0.66 im
(C) 0.5 im
(D) 0.318 im
62. The form factor for half wave rectified sine wave is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.11
(C) 1.44
(D) 1.57
63. For full-wave rectified sine wave, rms value is
(A) 0.707 im
(B) 0.6036 im
(C)0.5 im
(D) 0.318 im
64. For full-wave rectified sine wave, mean value is
(A) 0.70 im
(B) 0.636 im
(C) 0.5 im
(D) 0.318 lm
65. For full-wave rectified sine wave, form factor is
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.41
(C) 1.28
(D) 1.11.
66. A half-wave rectifier circuit with a capacitive filter is connected to a 200 volts, 50 Hz ac line. The output voltage
across the capacitor should be approximately
(A) 300 volts
(B) 280 volts
(C) 180 volts
(D) 80 volts.
67. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half wave rectifier circuit without filter is
(A) half of that for a half 'wave rectifier
(B) less than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit
(C) equal to that of a half wave rectifier.
68. A thyratron is a
(A) vacuum tube with four electrodes
(B) gas-filled diode
(C) gas-filled triode
69. A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a
(A) Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
(B)Triac
(C) Diac
70. A silicon controlled rectifier is a
(A) Unijunction device
(B) Device with three junction
(C) Device with four junctions
71. The RMS value of a half wave rectifier current is 10 A. Its value for full wave rectification would be
(A) 10 A
(B) 14.14 A
(C) (20/π) A
(D) 20 A.
72. For single phase supply frequency of 50 Hz, ripple frequency in full wave rectifier is
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C)100
(D) 200.
73. The aim of introducing reactor in the ignition circuit of mercury arc rectifier is to limit
(A) the current in the circuit
(B) wave ripple
(C) voltage of the circuit
(D) the rate of change of flux.
74. A mercury vapor discharge tube used for domestic lighting
(A) does not have a filament
(B) has one filament
(C) has two filaments
(D) has two main and one auxiliary filament.
75. For a waveform more peaky than a sine wave, the form factor will be
(A) more than 1.11
(B) less than 1.11
(C) 1.11
(D) 1.
76. Peak inverse voltage for a diode is the
(A) voltage corresponding to rated maximum voltage
(B) maximum voltage that can be applied across the diode in the conducting direction
(C) maximum voltage that can be applied across the diode in the non-conducting direction
77. When voltage applied to a diode is more than PIV, it is likely to result in
(A) More distortion on output side
(B) Poor regulation
(C) Conduction in both directions
(D) Breakdown at the junction.
78. Which of the following is known as metal rectifier
(A) Selenium disc rectifier
(B) Copper oxide rectifier
(C) Gas tube diode
79. PIV of a diode is usually
(A) Half the dc voltage
(B) Same as dc voltage
(C) Twice the dc output voltage
(D) Hundred times the dc output voltage.
80. The most commonly used connection for joining the six secondaries of a transformer used for 3
phase to 6 phase conversion is
(A) Diametrical
(B) Zig-Zag
(C) Double delta
(D) Double star.
81. A rotary converter
(A) Combines the functions of an induction motor and dc generator
(B) has a set of slip rings at both ends
(C) has an armature and two fields
(D) is a synchronous motor and a dc generator combined.
82. The ac line current at slipping in a 6 phase, 6 ring rotary converter having 100% efficiency and unity power factor
is........... times the dc current
(A) 0.236
(B) 1.414
(C)0.472
(D) 0.943.
83. The advantage of motor generator set is
(A) dc output voltage is practically constants
(B) dc output can be controlled by adjusting shunt field regulator
(C) unit is self-starting
84. A mercury arc rectifier works on the principle of
(A) ionization by collision
(B) directional movement of electrons
(C) release of electrons by thermal excitation
85. A rectifier is a
(A) Bilateral device
(B) Linear device
(C) Non-linear device
(D) Passive device.
Electric Illumination
1. Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on
(A) shape of the source
(B) temperature of the source
(C) wavelength of light rays
2. Light waves travel with a velocity of
(A) 3 x 1010cm/s
(B) 3 x 1012cm/s
(C) 3 x 1015 cm/s
(D) 3 x 1018 cm/s
3. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in
(A) domestic lighting
(B) street lighting
(C) cinema projectors
(D) photography.
4. The unit of solid angle is
(A) solid angle
(B) radian
(C) steradian
(D) candela.
5. Candela is the unit of
(A) Luminous flux
(B) Luminous intensity
(C) Wavelength
6. The unit of luminous flux is
(A) steradian
(B) candela
(C) lumen
(D) lux.
7. The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle made by the normal to the illuminated surface
with the direction of the incident flux. Above statement is associated with
(A) Planck's law
(B) Macbeth's law of illumination
(C) Bunsen's law of illumination
(D) Lambert's cosine law.
8. Which curve represents life of the lamp?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
9. Illumination level required for precision work is around
(A) 50 lm/m2
(B) 100 lm/m2
(C) 200 lm/m2
(D) 500 lm/m2
10. Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination?
(A) Proof reading
(B) Bed rooms
(C) Hospital wards
(D) Railway platforms.
11. Which of the following will need lowest level of illumination?
(A) Displays
(B) Fine engraving
(C) Railway platform
(D) Auditoriums.
12. Which of the following lamp gives nearly monochromatic light?
(A) Sodium vapor lamp
(B) GLS lamp
(C) Tube light
(D) Mercury vapor lamp.
13. The illumination level in houses is in the range
(A) 10-20 lumen/m2
(B) 30 - 50 lumen/m2
(C) 40-75 lumen/m2
(D) 100-140 lumen/m2
14. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is
(A) 5- 10 lumens/watt
(B) 15-20 lumens/watt
(C) 30 - 40 lumens/watt
(D) 60 - 65 lumens/watt.
15. One lumen per square meter is the same as
(A) One lux
(B) One candela
(C) One foot candle
(D) One lumen meter.
16. Standard wattage of 3 ft. fluorescent tube is
(A) 10 W
(B) 40 W
(C) 65 W
(D) 100 W.
17. For the same wastage which lamp is cheapest?
(B) Mercury vapor lamp
(C) Fluorescent tube
(D) GLS lamps.
18. Optical instruments used for the comparison of candle powers of different sources arc known as
(A) Candle meters
(B) Radio meters
(C) Bunsen meter
(D) Photo meter.
19. Which photometer is used for comparing the lights of different colors?
(A) Bunson photometer
(B) Grease spot photometer
(C) Lummer Brodhum photometer
(D) Guilds Flicker Photometer.
20. Which photometer depends for its operation on Lambert's cosine law?
(A) Macbeth lllumino meter
(B) Trotter Illumination Photometer
(C) Lummer Brodhum Photometer
(C) Guild's Flicker Photometer.
21. Which photometer depends for its operation on Inverse Square Law?
(A) Guilds Flicker Photometer
(B) Lummer Brodhum Photometer
(C) Macbeth illuminometer
(D) Trotter Illumination Photometer.
22. The color temperature of day light is around
(A) 50 K
(B) 160 K
(C) 600 K
(D) 6000 K.
23. Light is produced in electric discharge lamps by
(A) heating effect of current
(B) magnetic effect of current
(C) ionization in a gas or vapor
(D) carbon electrodes.
24. Lumen/watt is the unit of
(A) Light flux
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminous efficiency.
25. Candela is-the unit for
(A) Light flux
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminous efficiency.
26. Which gas is sometimes used in filament lamps?
(A) Argon
(B) Krypton
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide.
27. Which bulb operates on lowest power?
(A) Night bulb
(B) Neon bulb
(C) GLS bulb
(D) Torch bulb.
28. The output of a tungsten filament lamp depends on
(A) size of lamp
(B) size of shell
(C) temperature of filament
29. A zero watt lamp consumes
(A) no power
(B) about 5 to 7 W power
(C) about 15 to W power
(D) about 25 to 30 W power.
30. Melting temperature of tungsten is
(A) 2000°K
(B) 2500°K
(C)2655°K
(D) 3655°K.
31. The life of incandescent lamp is expected to be
(A) 100 hours
(B) 200 hours
(C) 1000 hours
(D) 10000 hours.
32. The source of illumination for a cinema projector is
(A) Incandescent lamp
(B) Mercury vapor lamp
(C) Sodium lamp
(D) Carbon arc lamp.
33. Sodium vapor lamps need ionization potential of about
(A) 5 volts
(B) 50 volts
(C) 100 volts
(D) 112 volts.
34. When a sodium vapor lamp is switched on, initially the color is
(A) Pink
(B) Yellow
(C) Green
(D) Blue.
35. In a sodium vapor lamp the discharge is first started in the
(A) neon gas
(B) nitrogen gas
('C) argon gas
(D) krypton gas.
36. A auto transformer used with sodium vapor lamp should have
(A) high efficiency
(B) high step-up ratio
(C) high step-down ratio
(D) high leakage reactance.
37. The capacitor used in auto transformer circuit for sodium vapor lamps, is for
(A) protection against accidental power failure
(B) controlling illumination level of the lamp
(C) for regulating discharge voltage
(D) for improving the power factor of the circuit.
38. A mercury vapor lamp gives
(A) pink light
(B) yellow light
(C) greenish blue light
(D) white light.
39. Under the influence of fluorescent lamps sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery appear to be stationary.
This is due to the
(A) fluctuations
(B) luminescence effect
(C) stroboscopic effect
(D) low power factor.
40. Power factor is highest in case of
(A) Mercury arc lamp
(B) Sodium vapor lamps
(C) Tube lights
(D) GLS lamps.
41. Which of the following electric discharge lamp gives highest lumens/watt
(B) Neon lamp
(C) Mercury lamp at low pressure
(D) Mercury vapor at high pressure.
42. The solid angle subtended at the center of a hemisphere of diameter D will be
(A) 4πD
(B) 2πD
(C) 2π
(D)4π
43. Which one of the following is a cold cathode lamp?
(A) Sodium lamp
(B) Neon lamp
(C) GSL lamp
(D) Tube light
44. In a mercury vapor lamp light red objects appear black due to
(A) high wavelength of red objects
(B) color mixing
(C) absence of red light from lamp radiation
(D) absorption of red light by the lamp radiation.
45. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamp is more pronounced at
(A) lower voltages
(B) higher voltages
(C) lower frequencies
(D) higher frequencies.
46. The frequency of flickers in a fluorescent lamp at 220 V, 50 Hz supply will be
(A) 25 per second
(B) 50 per second
(C) 100 per second
(D) 220 per second.
47. Wavelength of green color is nearly
(A) 4000 A
(B) 4500 A
(C) 5000 A
(D) 5500 A.
48. One Angstrom is
(A) 10-6 meter
(B)10-8 meter
(C) 10-8 cm
(D) 10-8 mm.
49. Which of the following color has wave-length between green and color ?
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Violet
(D) None.
50. The purpose of providing a choke in a tube light is
(A) to eliminate corona effects
(B) to avoid radio interference
(C) to improve power factor
(D) to limit current to appropriate value.
51. A 60 W lamp given a luminous flux of 1500 lumen. Its efficiency is
(A) 1500 lumen/watt
(B) 250 lumen/watt
(C) 25 lumen/watt
(D) 2.5 lumen/watt.
52. One lux is the same as
(A) one lumen/sq. cm
(B) one lumen/sq. m
(C) one lumen/100 sq. m
(D) one lumen/1000 sq. m.
53. The vacuum inside an incandescent lamp is of the order of
(A) 10-2 mm Hg
(B) 10-3 mm Hg
(C) 10-4 mm Hg
(D) 10-5 mm Hg
54. Which of the following application does not need ultra-violet lamps ?
(A) Medical purposes
(B) Aircraft cockpit dashboard lighting
(C) Car lighting
(D) Blue print machines.
55. When using ultra-violet lamps, the reflector for maximum should be made of
(A) aluminium
(B) copper
(C) leaf
(D) glass
56. Which of the following combination of gas is filled in lamp and the resulting color is incorrect?
(A) Neon-red
(B) Nitrogen-buff
(C) Carbon dioxide - day light white
(D) Magnesium-white.
57. Which of the, following vapors/gas will give yellow color in a filament lamp?
(A) Helium
(B) Mercury
(C) Sodium
(D) Magnesium.
58. Which of the following phosphor produces green color
(A) Zinc silicate
(B) Cadmium borate
(C) Magnesium tungstate
(D) Calcium halo phosphate.
59. If d is the distance of a surface from a source, the illumination of the surface will vary as
(A) d
(B) 2d
(C)1/d
(D) 1/ d 2
60. The level of illumination on surface least depends on
(A) candle power of the source
(B) distance of the source
(C) type of reflector used
(D) ambient temperature.
61. The level of illumination from a 100 W incandescent lamp will not increase by
(A) increasing the supply voltage
(B) increasing filament temperature
(C) increasing glass shell diameter.
62. The rate of evaporation of tungsten filament in a lamp depends on
(A) glass shell diameter
(B) exhaust tube diameter
(C) vapor pressure inside
63. A gas filled filament bulbs, the gas used is
(A) oxygen
(B) helium
(C) nitrogen
(D) ozone.
64. Heat from the filament of a lamp is transmitted to the surrounding- mainly through
(A) conduction
(B) convection
(C) radiation.
65. In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as
(A) starter
(B) power factor improving device
(C) source of heat
(D) current limiting device.
66. When a fluorescent lamp is to be operated on dc which of the following additional device must be incorporated in
the circuit?
(A) Condenser
(B) Transformer
(C) Resistance
(D) Inductance.
67. For same rating the amount of radiant heat produced in which of the following lamp is the least?
(A) Fluorescent lamp
(B) Filament lamp
(C) Sodium vapor lamp
68. The amount of radiant heat produced by a fluorescent lamp is nearly what percent of that of a filament lamp of
same rating
(A) 80%
(B) 60%
(C)40%
(D) 20%.
69. Which of the following lamp gives nearly ultra-violet light?
(A) Vacuum type filament lamp
(B) Nitrogen filed filament lamp
(C) Argon filled filament lamp
(D) Carbon arc lamp.
70. Luminous flux is
(A) rate of energy radiation in the form of light waves
(B) light energy radiated by sun
(C) part of light energy, radiated by sun which is received on earth
71. Match the following Column I Column II
(a) Luminous flux (i) Candela
(b) Luminous (ii) Candle power x intensity Solid angle
(c) Lumen (iii) Lumens/W steredians
(d)Candle power (iv) Lumens.
(A)a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(B) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(C) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c- (i), d - (ii).
72. According to Lambert's law, the illumination on a surface is proportional to
(A) cos2 θ
(B)cos3θ
(C)1/cos3θ
(D) 1/ cos2 θ.
73. A lamp has a mean spherical candle power of 25, the total flux of light from the lamp is
(A) 25 lumens
(B) 25 π lumens
(C) 314 lumens
(D) 625 lumens.
74. Which of the following material can be used for the filaments in incandescent lamps is
(A) carbon
(B) tungsten
(C) tantalum
75. The melting point of carbon is
(A) 1800°C
(B) 2200°C
(C) 3500°C
(D) 5500° C.
76. Which of the following filament material has the lowest melting point?
(A) Carbon
(B) Tungsten
(C) Tantalum
(D) Osmium.
77. The operating characteristics of an incandescent lamp arc materially affected by departure from its normal
operating voltage. The total number of lumens given out by the lamp increases with the increase in operating voltage
and the relation between them is: Lumens output α Vn where n is a constant. The value of n for tungsten varies for
(A) 0.5 to 0.75
(B) 1.5 to 2.5
(C) 4 to 5
(D) 8 to 10.
78. Filament lamps operate normally at a power factor of
(A) 0.5 leading
(B) 0.5 lagging
(C) unity
(D) 0.8 lagging.
79. Neon gas in sodium vapor lamp
(A) changes the color of light
(B) acts as a shield around the filament
(C) assists in developing enough heat to vaporize the sodium
(D) prevents vaporization of filament.
80. Which of the following is a cold cathode lamps?
(B) High pressure mercury vapor lamp
(C) Low pressure mercury vapor lamp
(D) Neon lamp.
81. In fluorescent tubes ballast resistance is connected in series with the choke
(A) when supply frequency is low
(B) to reduce radio interference
(C) when tube operates on dc supply
(D) to reduce stroboscope effects.
82. While comparing tungsten filament lamps with fluorescent tubes, all of the following are the advantages in favor
of tungsten filament lamp EXCEPT
(A) Longer life
(B) Less costly
(C) More brightness
(D) Simple installation.
Questions 83 to 85 refer to data given below: The 220 V lamps, one of 60 W and the other of 75 W arc connected in
series across a 440 V supply.
83. The potential difference across 60 W lamp will be
(A) 195 V
(B) 220 V
(C) 245 V
(D) 440 V.
84. The potential difference across 75 watt lamp will be
(A) 195 V
(B) 220 V
(C) 245 V
(D) 440 V.
85. Assuming candle power to be proportional to fourth power of the voltage, the candle power of 60 W lamps under
above conditions as a percentage of its value under normal operation at 220 V will be
(A) 110%
(B) 1549%
(C)220%
(D) 440%.
A 60 CP 250 V metal filament lamp has a measured candle power of 17.5 CP at 260 V and 50 C.P. at 240 V.
86. if the equation for C and V is C = aV b where C = candle power and V = voltage, the value of constant b is
(A) 4.5
(B) 0.98 x l0-9
(C) 0.98 x 10-6
(D) 450
87.The value of constant is a
(A) 0.98 x 10-9
(B) 0.98 x 10-7
(C) 0.98 x 10-5
(D) 0.98 x 10-3
88. The change in candle power per volt at 250 V will be
(A) 1.1 V
(B) 4.4 V
(C) 8.8 V
(D) 17.6 V.
A 110 V lamp 16 C.P. and a lamp of the same material and worked at the same efficiency develops 25 CP on 220 V.
89. The ratio of diameters of the filaments will be
(A) 0.54
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.18
(D) 1.78
90. The ratio of lengths of the filaments will be
(A) 0.54
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.18
(D) 1.78
91. Which of the following lamp has last capacity to sustain voltage fluctuations?
(A) sodium vapor lamp
(B) fluorescent lamp
(C) incandescent lamp
(D) mercury vapor lamp.
92. In neon signs argon gas is used for
(A) yellow color
(B) blue color
(C) red color
(D) green color.
93. In neon signs, helium is used for
(A) yellow color
(B) green color
(C) red color
(D) blue color
94. In neon signs, neon with a mixture of mercury gives
(A) green color
(B) blue color
(C) red color
(D) yellow color.
95. The electrodes of neon tubes work at
(A) very low temperatures
(B) ordinary voltages
(C) 400 to 440 volts
(D) 2000 to 6000 volts.
96. Glare may result from
(A) excessive lighting contrast in the field of vision
(B) excessive luminance
97. To avoid glare
(A) object should be viewed from a distance
(B) object should be viewed from a close vicinity
(C) object should be moved constantly
(D) viewer should move constantly.
98. The light output of GLS lamps is normally in the range
(A) 10 to 18 lumens/watt
(B) 50 to 80 lumens/watt
(C) 100 to 180 lumens/watt
(D) 200 to 300 lumens/watt.
99. Nitrogen or argon is filled in GLS lamps to
(A) reduce the glare
(B) improve efficiency
(C) change the color of light
(D) retard evaporation of tungsten filament.
100. In case of frosted GLS lamps, frosting of shell is done by
(A) ozone
(B) ammonia
(C) acid etching
(D) salt water.
101. The luminous flux reaching the working plane least depends on
(A) the lumen output of the lamps
(B) proportion of the room
(C) reflectance of internal surfaces
(D) color of the working plane surface.
102. Which of the following lamp gives nearly monochromatic light?
(B) GLS lamp
(C) Tube light
103. Materials which reflect all wavelengths in the light spectrum appear to be
(A) black to white
(B) transparent
(C) opaque
(D) green to red.
104. An object which appears red to the eyes, absorbs
(A) green radiations
(B) blue radiations
(C) violet radiations
105. Glare is the result of
(A) very low luminance
(B) normal luminance
(C) excessive luminance
106. Glow lamps
(A) have cold cathode
(B) have hot cathode
(C) cannot withstand shocks
(D) consume high power.
107. The illumination required for normal reading is around
(A) 500 lumens/m2
(B) 300 - 400 lumens/m2
(C) 100 - 250 lumens/m2
(D) 60 - 100 lumens/m2
.
108. Which of the following surface has the lowest reflection factor for white light ?
(A) Aluminium sheet
(B) White plaster work
(C) Blue curtains
(D) White oil paint.
109. Which of the following glass transmits the maximum light?
(A) Serrated glass
(B) Opalescent glass
(C) Clear glass
(D) Milk glass.
110. Which of the following glass transmits the least amount of light?
(A) Clear glass
(B) Serrated glass
(C) Milk glass
(D) Opalescent glass.
111. B-15 size cap for GLS lamp indicates that
(A) cap diameter is 15 mm
(B) cap is screw type
(C) cap is made of brass
(D) cap is filled by cement.
112. E-40 caps arc generally used for GLS lamps of wattage above
(A) 25 W
(B)100W
(C)300W
(D) 1000 W.
113. In case of GLS lamps as the supply voltage increases, which of the following decreases?
(A) Lumen output
(B) Power consumption
(C) Life
(D) Efficiency.
114. The advantage of halogen lamp is
(A) no depreciation of light output
(B) increased operating temperature with increased luminous efficiency
(C) reduced dimensions of the lamp
115. Halogen lamps are useful for the illumination of
(A) Sports grounds
(B) Parks
(C) Airports
116. Coating or fluorescent lamps
(A) converts ultra-violet, radiations into visible light
(B) converts visible light into ultra-violet radiations
(C) reduces glare
117. The light output of fluorescent lamps is around
(A) 10 lumens/watt
(B) 20 lumens/watt
(C) 70 lumens/watt
(D) 200 lumens/watt.
118. Which of the following is preferred for air conditioned spaces?
(A) GLS lamp
(B) Fluorescent tube
(C) Mercury vapor lamp
(D) Sodium vapor lamp.
119. The normal life span of a fluorescent lamp is
(A) 500 hours
(B) 1000 hours
(C) 1500 hours
(D) 7500 hours.
120. The color of light depends on
(A) wavelength
(B) frequency
(C) wavelength and frequency
(D) wavelength, frequency speed and intensity.
121. The disadvantage of fluorescent lamps as compared to GLS lamps is
(A) noise in choke
(B) stroboscope effect
(C) high cost
122. In case of a fluorescent lamp if only the ends of the lamp remain lighted it indicates
(A) a short circuited starter
(B) a defective choke
(C) a defective lube
(D) defective wiring.
123. Blinking of a fluorescent tube may be due to
(A) low circuit voltage
(B) low ballast rating
(C) low temperature
124. Radio interference generally results due to
(A) GLS lamps
(B) Halogen lamps
(C) Fluorescent lamps
(D) Sodium lamps.
125. A fluorescent tube can be operated on
(A) AC only
(B) DC only
(C) Both AC as well as DC.
126. The ignition voltage for sodium lamps is
(A) 100 to 150 volts
(B) 200 to 220 volts
(C) 400 to 440 volts
(D) 400 to 600 volts.
127. A leak transformer is provided with
(A) frosted GLS lamps
(B) high wattage GLS lamps
(C) fluorescent lamps
(D) sodium lamps.
128. Leak transformer in sodium lamps initially provides
(A) low voltage
(B) high current
(C) high voltage
129. The color of sodium lamp is
(A) blue
(B) yellow
(C) red
(D) white.
130. Sodium lamps are used for:
(A) reading rooms
(B) street lights
(C) auditoria
(D) libraries.
131. The average life of sodium lamps is around
(A) 1000 hours
(B) 2500 hours
(C) 6000 hours
(D) 12000 hours.
132. High pressure mercury vapor light contains
(A) yellow color
(B) bluish white color
(C) red color
(D) white color.
133. The average life high pressure mercury vapor lamps is
(A) 500 hours
(B) 1000 hours
(C) 9000 hours
(D) 20,000 hours.
134. High pressure mercury vapor lamps are generally used in
(A) factories
(B) railway yards
(C) shopping centers
135. A substance which changes its electrical resistance when illuminated by light is called
(A) photovoltaic
(B) photoelectric
(C) photo-conductive
136. Wavelength for blue color
(A) 4400 A
(B) 5250 A
(C) 6150 A
(D) 5950 A.
137. Radio interference from a fluorescent lamp can be reduced by
(A) putting two lamps in parallel
(B) eliminating choke
(C) putting a capacitor across the lamp
138. Dimming systems for lights are used in
(A) theatres
(B) auditoriums
(C) ball room
139. Which of the following can be used as a light dimming device?
(A) Auto transformer
(B) Variable reaction
(C) SCR
140. Which of the following is difficult to adopt for dimming?
(A) GLS lamps
(B) Cold cathode lamps
(C) Fluorescent lamps
141. Heat from light source is particularly of importance while
(A) designing for illumination level
(B) designing for floor space utilization
(C) designing for air conditioning
142. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the arc
(A) a condenser is connected in parallel to supply
(B) a condenser is connected in series to supply
(C) a variable resistor is connected in the circuit
(D) a reactive choke is connected in series with supply.
143. The lens of the eye to focuses an image on the
(A) corona
(B) membrane
(C) calorie
(D) retina.
144. The sensors in the eye arc known as
(A) rods and cones
(B) wires and nerves
(C) retina and antenna
(D) high and low.
Electric Traction
1. Overall efficiency of steam locomotive system is close to
(A) 5 to 10%
(B) 25 to 30%
(C) 55 to 60%
(D) 75 to 80%.
2. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through
(A) battery system
(B) diesel engine generator
(C) overhead wire
(D) small turbo generator.
3. Maximum horse power of steam locomotive is
(A) 100
(B) 500
(C) 1500
(D)2500.
4. The pressure of steam in a locomotive is
(A) 10-15 kg/cm2
(B) 20 - 30 kg/cm2
(C) 40 - 50 kg/cm2
(D) 80 - 90 kg/cm2
5. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly
(A) 20 - 25 percent
(B) 35 - 40 percent
(C) 50 - 55 percent
(D) 70 - 75 percent.
6. The advantage of electric traction over other methods is
(A) no pollution problems
(B) faster acceleration
(C) better braking action
7. Suburban railways use
(A) 1500 V DC
(B) 440 V three phase AC
(C) 660 V three phase AC
(D) 3.3 kV three phase AC.
8. Long distance railways use
(A) 200 V DC
(B) 25 kV Single phase AC
(C) 25 kV Two phase AC
(D) 25 kV Three phase AC.
9. The range of horsepower for diesel locomotives is
(A) 100 to 500
(B) 500 to 1000
(C) 1500 to 2500
(D) 4000 to 5500.
10. Steam Engine provided on steam locomotives is
(A) Single acting condensing type
(B) double acting condensing type
(C) double acting non - condensing type
(D) single acting non condensing type.
11. A submarine while moving under water, is provided driving power through
(A) diesel engines
(B) steam turbine
(C) gas turbine
(D) batteries.
12. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(A) 1 %
(B) 10%
(C) 25%
(D) 50%.
13. Which locomotive has the highest operational availability
(A) Diesel
(B) Electric
(C) Steam
(D) All have same availability.
14. Which motor is used in tramways
(A) AC single phase capacitor start motor
(B) AC three phase motor
(C) DC series motor
(D) DC shunt motor.
15. A drive suitable for mines where explosive gas exist, is
(A) Diesel engine
(B) Steam engine
(C) Battery locomotive
16. The advantage of electric braking is
(A) is an instantaneous
(B) more heat is generated during braking
(C) it avoids wear of track
(D) motor continue to remain loaded during braking.
17. Which braking system on the locomotives is costly
(A) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(B) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(C) Regenerative breaking on electric locomotives
(D) All breaking systems are equally costly.
18. The acceleration rate of trains on suburban services is
(A) 0.1 to 0.4 km phps
(B) 0.8 to 1 km phps
(C) 0.4 to 6.5 km phps
(D) 10 to 26 km phps.
19. The coasting retardation on trains is approximately
(A) 0.16 km phps
(B) 1.6 km phps
(C) 16 km phps
(D) 25 km phps.
20. The coefficient of adhesion is
(A) same on ac and dc traction systems
(B) high in case of dc traction and low in ac traction
(C) low in case of ac traction and high in dc traction.
21. Braking retardation on suburban trains is
(A) 0.3 to 0.5 km phps
(B) 0.5 to 1 km phps
(C) 3 to 5 km phps
(D) 30 to 40 km phps.
22. Power supply frequency for 25 kV single phase system is
(A) 161
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 60.
23. For supply on 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase, suitable motor for electric traction is
(A) ac single phase split phase motor
(B) ac single phase universal motor
(C) dc shunt motor
(D) dc series motor.
24. Method of speed control used on 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction is
(A) Tap changing control of transformer
(B) Reduced current method
(C) Series parallel operation of motors
25. The coefficient of adhesion is highest when
(A) the rails are dry
(B) the rails are oiled
(C) the rails ark wet with dew
(D) the rails are dusty.
26. When the speed of the train is estimated taking into account the time of stop at a station in addition to the actual
running time between stops, is known as
(A) Average speed
(B) Schedule speed
(C) Notching speed
(D) Free running speed.
27. A schedule speed of 45 km, per hour is required between two stops 1.5 km apart. The duration of stop is 20
seconds. The acceleration is 2.4 km phps and retardation is 3.2 km phps. For a simplified trapezoidal curve the
maximum speed over the mil will be
(A) 40 km per hour
(B) 48 km per hour
(C) 74 km per hour
(D) 90 km per hour.
28. Speed of locomotive is controlled by
(A) gear box
(B) flywheel
(C) regulating steam to engine
(D)applying brakes.
29. The specific energy consumption for suburban services is usually
(A) 18 to 25 watt-hours per tonne km
(B) 50 to 75 watt-hours per tonne km
(C) 125 to 150 watt-hours per tonne km
(D) 155 to 200 watt-hours per tonne km.
30. If the specific energy consumption for suburban services is 50 to 75 watts hours per tonne km, which of the
following could be a representative figure for energy consumption on main line service
(A) 150 to 200 watt-hours per tonne km
(B) 100 to 125 watt-hours per tonne km
(C) 50 to 75 watt-hours per tonne km
(D) 20 to 30 watt-hours per tonne km.
31. Specific energy consumption is least in
(A) urban service
(B) sub-urban service
(C) main-line service
(D) equal for all types of services.
32. Bearings used to support axles of rolling stock are
(A) Bush bearings
(B) Journal bearings
(C) Ball bearings
(D) Roller bearings.
33. If the coefficient of adhesion on dry rails 0.25. which of the following could be the value for wet rails?
(A) 0.32
(B) 0.25
(C)0.245
(D) 0.15.
34. A train has a schedule speed of 36 km per hour on a level track. If the distance between the stations is 2 km and
the stoppage is 30 seconds the actual time of run will be
(A) 260 seconds
(B) 230 seconds
(C) 200 seconds
(D) 170 seconds.
35. B0 B0 locomotives have two bogies with
(A) four driving axles each with individual driving motors
(B) three driving axles with group drives
(C) two driving axles with group drives
(D) two driving axles with individuals drive motor.
36. A locomotive exerts a tractive effort of 30,000 Newtons in pulling a train at 50 km per hour on the level hack. It is
to haul the same train at the same speed on a gradient and the tractive effort required is 45000 Nw. The horse power
delivered by the motor will be more if it is driven by
(A) dc series motors
(B) induction motor
(C) same in both cases.
37. A composite system consists of
(A) a combination of diesel engine and dc series motor
(B) a combination of diesel engine and ac single phase motor
(C) single phase power received is converted into dc or three phase power ac system
(D) use of combination of dc and ac motors on the same locomotive.
38. Horse power of steam locomotives is
(A) Up to 1500
(B) 1500 to 2500
(C) 2500 to 4000
(D) more than 4000.
39. Horse power of diesel locomotives is
(A) 1000 to 1500
(B) 1500 to 2500
(C) 2500 to 5000
(D) 5000 to 10,000.
40. Locomotives with manometer bogie have
(A) lot of skidding
(B) low coefficient of adhesion
(C) uneven distribution of tractive effect
(D) suitability for passenger as well as freight service.
41. The speed time curve for a local train is shown in Figure. In this AB represents
(A) Coasting
(B) Acceleration
(C) Braking
(D) Regeneration.
42. The duration for braking is represented by the time
(A) 0-t1
(B) 0-t2
(C)t1 - t2
(D)t2- t1
43. Area under the curve represents
(A) average speed
(B) average acceleration
(C) net acceleration
(D) distance traveled.
44. From the figure it can be concluded that
(A) rate of acceleration is the same as the rate of acceleration during braking
(B) average acceleration is zero
(C) time taken during coasting is equal to the time during acceleration and braking
(D) during coating the acceleration is negative.
45. For tramways the return circuit is
(A) through cables
(B) through rails
(C) through neutral wire
(D) through common earthling.
46. For 600 V dc line for tram cars
(A) track is connected to negative of the supply
(B) track is connected to positive of the supply
(C) track is connected to mid voltage of 300 V
47. Over head lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum height of
(A) 2 m
(B) 5 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 15 m.
48. Which of the following traction system is latest used in the world?
(A) 3 phase 3.7 kV
(B) 20 kV, 50 Hz. single phase
(C) 600 V, DC
(D) 3 kV, DC.
49. Which of the following frequencies not common in low frequency traction system?
(A) 161 Hz
(B) 25 Hz
(C) 40 Hz.
50. In a long distance electric train, power for lighting in passenger coach is provided
(A) through locomotive
(B) directly through overhead electric line
(C) through individual generator of bogie and batteries
(D) through rails.
51. In Kando system
(A) single phase supply is converted into three phase systems
(B) single phase ac is converted into dc
(C) three phase ac is converted into dc
(D) dc supply is due to run dc motors.
52. Free running and coasting periods arc generally long in ease if
(A) urban service
(B) sub-urban service
(C) main-line service
53. Which of the following factor affects specific energy consumption?
(A) Distance between stops
(B) Gradient
(C) retardation and acceleration values
A train runs at an average speed of 50 kmph between stations situated 2.5 km apart. The train accelerates at 2 kmph
and retards at 3 kmph. Speed-time curve may be assumed to be trapezoidal.
54. The maximum speed is
(A) 27.75 kmph
(B) 38.50 kmph
(C) 44.25 kmph
(D) 57.75 kmph.
55. The distance traveled before the brakes are applied is
(A) 0.75 km
(B) 1.35 km
(C) 2.0 km
(D) 2.35 km.
56. At an average the coal consumption per km in case of steam engine is nearly
(A) 28 to 30 kg
(B) 80 to 100 kg
(C) 150 to 160 kg
(D) 200 to 250 kg.
57. Unbalanced forces are maximum in case of
(A) electric locomotive
(B) diesel locomotives
(C) Petrol locomotives
(D) steam locomotives.
58. Maintenance requirements are least in case of
(A) electric locomotives
(B) diesel locomotives
(C) steam locomotives.
59. If the resistance to electric train is given by
Fr = a + bv + cv2
In this equation, constant c is likely to cover
(A) air resistance
(B) frictional resistance
(C)flange resistance
(D) track resistance.
A train is required to run between two stations 16 km apart at an average speed of 43 kmph. The run is to be made to
a simplified quadrilateral speed-time curve. The maximum speed is to be limited to 64 kmph, acceleration to 2 kmph
and coasting and braking retardations to .16 and 3.2 kmph respectively.
60. The duration of acceleration is
(A) 32 sec
(B) 24 sec
(C) 16 sec
(D) 12 sec.
A train is required to run between two stations 16 km apart at an average speed of 43 kmph. The run is to be made to
a simplified quadrilateral speed-time curve. The maximum speed is to be limited to 64 kmph, acceleration to 2 kmph
and coasting and braking retardations to .16 and 3.2 kmph respectively.
61. The duration of costing is
(A) 48.4 sec
(B) 96.8 sec
(C) 12.35 sec
(D) 15.15 sec.
62. The braking period is
(A) 1.5 sec
(B) 5.15 sec
(C) 12.35 sec
(D) 15.15 sec.
63. When a locomotive for Railways is designated as WAM1, in this the letter W indicates that
(A) the locomotive is to run on broad guage track
(B) the locomotive is to run on meter guage track
(C) the locomotive is for shunting duty
(D) the locomotive is for good train only
64. An ideal traction system should have
(A) high starting tractive effort
(B) equipment capable of withstanding large temporary overloads
(C) easy speed control
Questions 65-66 refer to the data given below:
A train runs at an average speed of 45 kmph between stations 2.5 km apart. The train accelerates at 2 kmph and
retards at 3 kmph speed-time curve may be assumed to be trapezoidal.
65. The maximum speed attained will be nearly
(A) 80 kmph
(B) 60 kmph
(C)50 kmph
(D) 1.535 kmph.
66. The distance traveled before the brakes are applied is
(A) 2.383 km
(B) 2.103 km
(C) 1.887 km
(D) 35 kmph.
67. The main difference between speed-time curves of mainline service as compared to suburban
services lies in
(A) longer free running periods
(B) longer coasting periods
(C) shorter acceleration gand braking periods
An electric train is to have a braking retardation of 3.2 kmph. The ratio of maximum speed to average speed is 1.3, the
time for stop is 26 seconds and acceleration is 0.8 kmph. The run is 1.5 km.
68. Actual time of run is
(A) 77 seconds
(B) 101 seconds
(C) 154 seconds
(D) 231 seconds.
69. The schedule time is
(A) 154 kmph
(B) 180 kmph
(C) 210 seconds
(D) 240 seconds.
70. The schedule speed is
(A) 25 kmph
(B) 30 kmph
(C) 45 kmph
(D) 60 kmph.
71. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for
(A) acceleration
(B) work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(C) work against the resistance to motion
72. Quadrilateral speed-time curve is the closer approximation for
(A) main line service
(B) suburban service
(C) urban service
(D) urban and suburban service.
73. Distance between the rails for meter gauge track is
(A) 2' - 6 3/8"
(B)3'-4 3/4"
(C) 4' - 6 1/2"
(D) One meter.
An electric train has quadrilateral speed time curve as follows:
(i) Uniform acceleration from rest at 2 kmph for 30 seconds
(ii) Coasting for 50 seconds
(iii) Uniform braking to rest for 20 seconds the train is moving a uniform up gradient of 1 in 100, train resistance is 40
N/tonne, rotational inertia effect 10% of dead weight and duration of stop 30 seconds.
74. Braking retardations is
(A) 0.87 kmphps
(B) 1.27 kmphs
(C) 1.87 kmphs
(D) 2 kmphps.
75. The distance traveled is
(A) 1.03 km
(B) 1.53 km
(C) 2.03 cm
(D) 2.53 cm.
76. Schedule time is
(A) 100 seconds
(B) 110 seconds
(C) 120 seconds
(D) 130 seconds.
Electric Machine Design

1. Which of the following gives materials in order of decreasing values of permeability?
(A) Cobalt, Nickel, Aluminium, Iron
(B) Permalloy, Nickel, Air, Water
(C) Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Iron
(D) Pure iron, Silicon iron. Aluminium, Bismuth.
2. In electrical machines the material preferred for pole shoes of electro-magnets is
(A) Pure iron
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Lead.
3. The percentage of silicon in transformer stampings is usually limited to
(A) 0.4%
(B) 1.4%
(C) 4%
(D) 14%.
4. Find the odd one out
(A) Absorptivity
(B) Emissivity
(C) Refractive index
(D) Dielectric strength.
5. Diamagnetic: Paramagnetic:
(A) Water: Air
(B) Iron: Steel
(C) Permalloy: Super-alloy
(D) Nickel: Cobalt.
6. If the permeability of a material is 0.999991. it can be classified as
(A) Diamagnetic material
(B) Paramagnetic material
(C) Ferro-magnetic material
(D) Ferrite.
7. Which of the following material has the highest permeability?
(A) Nickel
(B) Cobalt
(C) Pure iron
(D) Permalloy.
8. For a simplex lap winding, the commutator pitch is equal to
(A) +1
(B) ± 1
(C) -l
(D) ± 2.
9. If the resistivity of aluminium is 0.0283 x 10-6 Ω-m, the resistivity of copper could be
(A) 0.017 x 10-5 Ω-m
(B) 0.0382 x 10-5 Ω-m
(C) 0.0832 x 10-6 Ω-m
(D) 0.0889 x 10-6 Ω-m
10. Which variety of copper is used for overhead conductors?
(A) Hard drawn copper
(B) Native copper
(C) Annealed copper
(D) Purest form of copper.
11. Annealed copper is used in
(A) low voltage cables
(B) flexible wires
(C) machine windings
12. A ACSR conductor has central core of steel surrounded by a bunch of aluminium wires. In such conductors
(A) Current flows through aluminium conductors only
(B) Current flows through steel wire only
(C) Current flows through both steel as well as aluminium conductors
(D) Majority of current flows through aluminium and negligible amount flows through steel.
13. Which property of copper enables it to be drawn into thin wires and sheets?
(A) Ductility
(B) Elasticity
(C) Toughness
(D) Tenacity.
14. Which is non-magnetic material
(A) Nickel
(B) Cobalt
(C) Aluminium
(D) Gadolinium.
15. Which of the following is the least desired property in magnetic materials for electrical engineering applications?
(A) High magnetic permeability
(B) High electrical resistivity
(C) Large hysteresis loop
16. Above Curie point
(A) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
(B) a ferrite becomes an insulator
(C) an insulating material becomes a ferrite
(D) a diamagnetic material, becomes a paramagnetic material.
17. For a simplex lap winding, the winding pitch is equal to
(A) + 2
(B) - 2
(C) ± 1
(D) ± 2.
18. If yb is the back pitch and u is the no. of coil sides per slot, then split coils can be avoided if the following quantity
is an integer
(A) (yb + 1)/ μ
(B) (yb + 1)
(C) (yb - 1)/ μ
(D) (yb - 1)
19. Which of the following is a paramagnetic material?
(A) Palladium
(B) Lead
(C) Pure iron
20. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?
(A) Pure iron
(B) Lead
(C) Bismuth
(D) Water.
21. For simplex wave and lap windings, the back pitch yb and front pitch yf are as follows:
(A) yb is odd, yf is even
(B) yb is even, yf is odd
(C) both yb and yf are odd
(D) both yb and yf are even.
22. All of the following are ferromagnetic materials EXCEPT
(A) Nickel
(S) Bismuth
(C) Silicon
(D) Mild steel.
23. Diamagnetic: Copper: Ferromagnetic:
(A) Iron
(B) Lead
(C) Air
(D) Water.
24. Diamagnetic: Ferromagnetic:
(A) Copper: Silver
(B) Air: Water
(C) Iron: Steel
(D) Lead: Cobalt.
25. Which of the following gives materials in order of increasing values of permeability?
(A) Water, Iron. Copper, Silver
(B) Water, Air, Pure iron. Permalloy
(C) Cobalt, Aluminium, Copper, Silver
(D) Silicon iron. Palladium, Lead, Silver.
26. By adding silicon to ferromagnetic, materials
(A) electrical resistivity increases and also magnetic permeability increases
(B) electrical resistivity decreases and also magnetic permeability increases
(C) electrical resistivity decreases and magnetic permeability increases
(D) electrical resistivity increases and magnetic permeability decreases.
27. Which of the following can be worked with higher flux densities?
(A) Mild steel
(B) Silicon iron
(C) Cold rolled silicon steel
(D) Hot rolled silicon steel.
28. Hysteresis loss varies with frequency (f) as
(A) f
(B) f 1.6
(C) f 2
(D) f 2.6
29. Hysteresis loss varies with maximum flux density (B) as
(A) B
(B) B 1.6
(C) B 2
(D) B 2.6
30. In large bulky materials, the uni-axial anisotropy can be induced by
(A) cold rolling
(B) magnetic annealing
(C) magnetic quenching
31. Magnetostriction
(A) grain oriented magnetic properties
(B) represents the upper limit to which magnetic properties can be induced
(C) change in dimensions resulting from magnetisation of ferromagnetic materials
32. An ideal insulating material should have low
(A) insulation resistance
(B) dielectric strength
(C) dielectric loss angle
(D) mechanic strength.
33. The class of insulation used for large rating HV alternators
(A) Y
(B) A
(C) B
(D) C.
34. Asbestos has
(A) fibrous structure
(B) crystalline structure
(C) grain oriented crystalline structure
35. Asbestos can bear a temperature up to __________ without loosing its insulating properties
(A) 100°C
(B) 200°C
(C) 300°C
(D) 400°C.
36. Fibre glass insulation can be used up to temperature of
(A) 60°C
(B) 80°C
(C) 130°C
(D) 180°C
37. Raw form of natural rubber is known as
(A) malamine
(B) milk of lime
(C) epoxy
(d) latex.
38. Which of the following is the characteristic of ceramic insulators?
(A) These are hard, strong and dense
(B) These are stable at high temperatures
(C) These are unaffected by commercial acids and alkalies
39. The number of commutator segments in a dc machine is equal to the no. of
(A) coil-sides
(B) turns
(C) coils
(D) slots.
40. Dielectric strength of PVC is around
(A) 5 kV/mm
(B) 10 kV/mm
(C) 15 kV/mm
(D) 30 kV/mm.
41. Gaseous insulating material
(A) Teflon
(B) Sulphur hexafluoride
(C) Stealite
(D) Phologopite mica.
42. Silver finds application generally as
(A) contact material
(B) fusing material
(C) low temperature insulating material
43. When I is the current in amperes, the temperature rise at which fuse wire will melt is proportional to
(A) I
(B) I 2
(C) 1/ I
(D) 1/ I2
44. The fusing current depends on
(A) diameter of fuse wire
(B) number of strands of wire
(C) length of the fuse wire
45. Class H insulation is normally used in
(A) traction motors
(B) submersible pump motors
(C) single phase motors
(D) dc motors.
46. An ideal liquid insulating material should have low
(A) heat conductivity
(B) dielectric strength
(C) mechanical strength
(D) volatility.
47. The electric breakdown strength of an instating material depends on
(A) composition of the material
(B) thickness of the material
(C) time of application of voltage
48. When V is the voltage applied across the insulation, the dielectric loss for an insulating material will be
proportional to
(A) V
(B) V2
(C) 1/ V
(D) 1/ V2
49. When δ is the dielectric loss angle, the value of tan δ increases with
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) presence of moisture
(C) voltage
50. Which has lowest dielectric strength
(A) Cotton
(B) Empire cloth
(C) Porcelain
(D) Mica.
51. Silicon steel E330 indicates that
(A) it has 33% silicon
(B) it has normal specific loss at 50 Hz
(C) it is cold rolled grain oriented
52. Which of the following silicon steel will have least specific lose?
(A) E11
(B) E42
(C) E31
(D) E41
53. Which of the following silicon steel has higher percentage of silicon as compared to the remaining?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
54. In silicon steel designation like E320 the first figure 3 indicates
(A) the percentage of silicon
(B) the specific loss at 50 Hz
(C) the specific lose at 100 Hz
(D) the grain oriented cold rolled variety.
55. In silicon steel designation like E320, the second figure 2 represent
(A) specific loss
(B) direction of grain orientation
(C) magnetic variety
(D) non-magnetic variety.
56. In high nickel alloys the percentage of nickel is
(A) 5 to 10 percent
57. Pumps, blowers and fans are usually called for
(A) continuous duty
(B) short time duty
(C) intermittent periodic duty
(D) intermittent periodic duty with starting and braking.
58. Which of the following is normally called for continuous duty with starting and braking?
(A) Machine tools
(B) Compressors
(C) Sirens
(D) Escalators.
59. In lap windings, the equalizer rings arc used to save
(A) armature winding from carrying circulating currents
(B) commutator from carrying circulating currents
(C) brushes from carrying circulating currents
(D) armature core from eddy currents.
60. Which of the following calls for intermittent duty with starting and braking?
(A) Pumps
(B) Conveyors
(C) Wind lasses
(D) Cranes.
61. The percentage of overload on a continuous rating machine is
(A) zero
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 50%.
62. Open circuit test on a transformer is conducted to obtain
(A) the leakage impedances
(B) the ohmic loss
(C) hysteresis loss only
(D) core loss only
(E) eddy current loss only.
63. Heat transfer capability of hydrogen is nearly __________ times that of air
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 17.
64. The density of hydrogen is __________ that of air
(A) 14
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/7
(D) 1/14
65. Turbo-alternators of rating __________ and above are normally hydrogen cooled.
(A) 10 MW
(B) 20 MW
(C) 25 MW
(D) 50 MW.
66. Iron losses of a machine are
(A) directly proportional to flux density
(B) directly proportional to the square of flux density
(C) inversely proportional to flux density
(D) inversely proportional to the square of flux density.
67. While considering hysteresis loss in a transformer, under which of the following the loss will not increase?
(A) when flux density is increased by 10%
(B) when thickness of lamination is caused by 10%
(C) when frequency is increased by 10%
(D) when both thickness and frequency are increased by 10%.
68. The shaft of electric motors is generally made of
(A) mild steel
(B) cast iron
(C) copper
(D) aluminium alloy.
69. The critical speed of the shaft for an electric motor should be
(A) away from the operating speed
(B) exactly the same as operating speed
(C) half the operating speed
(D) double of the operating speed.
70. The shaft of electric motors is generally supported in
(A) magnetic bearings
(B) bush bearings
(C) ball or roller bearings
(D) cast iron bearings.
71. Ball and roller bearings are generally lubricated by
(A) graphite
(B) grease
(C) water
(D) air.
72. In case of ball bearings, the ball are made of
(A) cast iron
(B) mild steel
(C) carbon chrome steel
73. A ball bearing is secured to the shaft by means of
(A) key
(B) slot
(C) pin
(D) sleeve.
74. In case of 110 MW generators, the shaft is supported on
(A) ball bearings
(B) roller bearing
(C) needle bearings
(D) bush bearings.
75. Which of the following is classed as anti friction bearing?
(A) Ball bearing
(B) Roller bearing
(C) Needle bearing
76. The force exerted by a lifting magnet varies with distance (D) as
(A) D
(B) D2
(C) 1/D
(D) 1/D2
77. The force-stroke curve for a lifting magnet will be of the shape shown in
(A) figure A
(B) figure B
(C) figure C
(D) figure D.
78. When B is the flux density; A is the area of the working gap and μ is the permeability, the force exerted by the
attractive type magnets is given by
(A) μA / 2B
(B μ B / A2
(C) A2B1/ 2μ
(D) B A2/ 2μ
79. Transformer-core laminations are made of
(A) cast iron
(B) wrought iron
(C) silicon steel
(D) cast steel.
80. When commutation is obtained by increasing the current density at the leading edge and decreasing the same at
trailing edge, it is known as
(A) under commutation
(B) over commutation
(C) straight commutation
(D) sinusoidal commutation.
81. Skewing of rotor slots helps in
(A) improving beat transfer
(B) reducing noise
(C) suppressing undesirable harmonics
82. The harmonics in rotating machines are generated due to
(A) non-sinusoidal field form
(B) slotting of the stator core
83. The effect of harmonics in rotating machines can be minimized by
(A) use of longer air gap
(B) skewing the poles
(C) use of distributed winding
84. Which of the following measure will not help in reducing the effect of harmonics?
(A) connecting 3 phase winding in star or delta without neutral
(B) use of short pitch coils or fractional slot windings
(C) chamfering the pole shoes of salient pole machines
(D) reducing the number of slots per pole per phase.
85. In dc machines the number of poles is generally decided by
(A) frequency of flux reversals
(B) weight of iron parts
(C) weight of copper
86. In dc machines by increasing the number of poles, all of the following reduce except:
(A) weight of copper
(B) weight of iron parts
(C) frequency of flux reversals
(D) overall size of the machine.
87. Transformer action requires a
(A) constant magnetic flux
(B) increasing magnetic flux
(C) alternating magnetic flux
(D) alternating electric flux.
88. Which component of the no load current of the transformer is opposite in phase to the induced emf ?
(A) magnetizing component
(B) core loss component
89. In transformers, the cylindrical winding with rectangular conductors is generally used for
(A) low voltage winding
(B) high voltage winding
(C) tertiary voltage winding
90. Cylindrical winding on transformers is generally not used beyond
(A) 6 kV
(B) 30 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.
91. The disadvantage of cylindrical winding is
(A) increased eddy current loss
(B) high copper loss
(C) low mechanical strength
92. For transformer laminations
(A) hot rolled silicon steel is preferred
(B) cold rolled silicon steel is preferred
(C) grain oriented silicon steel is preferred
(D) any of the above steel can be used.
93. The percentage of silicon in the core steel is
(A) 1 to 2 percent
(B) 2 to 3 percent
(C) 4 to 6 percent
94. The stacking factor will be least for
(A) Square core
(B) Cruciform core
(C) Three stepped core
(D) Four stepped core.
95. In static transformers mechanical forces are produced due to
(A) vibrations
(B) gap between laminations
(C) interaction of current flowing in the conductor and leakage flux around it.
96. The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually
(A) 0.003 to 0.05 mm
(B) 0.03 to 0.05 mm
(C) 0.03 to 0.5 mm
(D) 3 to 5 mm.
97. Transformer action requires a
(A) short circuiting
(B) increasing resistivity
(C) reducing resistivity
98. In an oil filled transformer, oil is provided for
(A) Cooling
(B) Insulation
(C) Lubricating
(D) Both cooling and insulation
(E) Preventing accumulation of dust.
99. The dimensions of a dc machine primarily depend on
(A) kW output
(B) work done per revolution
(C) exposed surface
Questions 100 to 104 are based on data below:
The various losses of a 60 HD, 220 V 850 rpm dc motor are as follows: - Copper losses 3.2 kW, core losses 0.8 kW,
mechanical losses 0.1 kW. Now let us consider another dc machine otherwise similar to this machine but having its
linear dimensions 1.5 times.
100. The copper losses of new machine will be
(A) 1.5 x 3.2 kW
(B) (1.5)2 x 3.2 kW
(C) (1.5 )3 x 3.2 kW
(D) 1/ (1.5)2 x3.2 kW
101. The iron losses of new machine will be
(A) (1.5) x 0.8 kW
(B) (1.5)2 x 0.8 kW
(C) (1.5)4 x 0.8 kW
(D) (1.5)5 x 0.8 kW
102. The mechanical losses will be
(A) 1.5 x 0.1 kW
(B) (1.5)2 x 0.1 kW
(C) (1.5)3 x 0.1 kW
(D) 1/ (1.5)2 x 0.1 kW
103. The rating of the new machine will be
(A) 1.5 x 60 HP
(B) (1.5)2 x60 HP
(C) (1,5)3 x 60 HP
(D) (1.5)4 x 60 HP
104. The efficiency of the new machine will be
(A) 88.8%
(B) 91.7%
(C) 94.5%
(D) 96.7%.
105. The diameter of a 10 SWG wire will be closer to
(A) 0.1 mm
(B) 1mm
(C) 3 mm
(D) 13 mm.
106. Tap changing facility is generally provided on
(A) high voltage transformers
(B) distribution transformers
(C) current transformers
(D) step up transformers.
107. In case of air natural cooling, the cooling surface increases as the __________ of the size
(A) inverse
(B) inverse square
(C) square
(D) cube.
108. In case of air natural cooling the losses increase as the __________ of the size
(A) inverse
(B) inverse square
(C) square
(D) cube.
109. The heat generated in the transformer is dissipated to the surroundings mainly by
(A) conduction
(B) convection
(C) radiation
110. The heat transfer by convection least depends on
(A) temperature difference
(B) air velocity
(C) surface area
(D) color of the paint.
111. Oil for transformer cooling should have low
(A) dielectric strength
(B) viscosity
(C) flash point.
112. Oil for transformer cooling should have high
(A) flash point
(B) viscosity
(C) sludging tendencies
(D) moisture content.
113. The oil selected for transformer cooling should be free from
(A) alkalies
(B) acids
(C) sulphur
114. Normally for the design of transformer the ambient temperature is taken as
(A) 20°C
(B) 25°C
(C) 45°C
(D) 75°C.
115. A transformer is designed for certain ambient temperature. If it actually operates at a temperature 10°C above
the design temperature its kVA rating should be
(A) increased by 10%
(B) reduced by 5%
(C) reduced by 10%
(D) reduced by 20%.
116. The overload capacity of a transformer depends on
(A) ratio of full load copper losses to its iron losses
(B) size of the core
(C) frequency
117. Which surge will be most damaging for a transformer?
(A) steeper front flatter tail
(B) flatter front steeper tail
(C) uniform
(D) all will be equally damaging.
118. A transformer is considered to have a network of series capacitance due to
(A) inter-turn insulation
(B) earthing
(C) laminated core
(D) surrounding tanks.
119. In a transformer the shunt capacitance is decreased and series capacitance is increased by the use of
(A) shielded windings
(B) inter-leaved winding
(C) layer type winding
120. An air core transformer as compared to iron-core transformer has
(A) Less magnetic core loss
(B) More magnetic core loss
(C) No magnetic core loss
(D) Less ohmic loss.
121. In case of thyrite the resistance is
(A) inversely proportional to the applied voltage
(B) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(C) directly proportional to the cube of the applied voltage
122. The 'hum' in a transformer is due to
(A) vibrations in cooling oil
(B) vibration in laminations
(C) sinusoidal voltage waveform
123. Which test is conducted on transformers to check its ability to withstand the transient voltages due to lightening
etc.?
(A) Induced over voltage test
(B) Partial discharge test
(C) Impulse test
124. The density of transformer oil is around
(A)1.2gm / cc
(B) 1.0 gm/cc
(C) 0.95 gm/cc
(D)J0.80 gm/cc.
125. The flash point of transformer oil is usually
(A) 50°C
(B) 75°C
(C) 160°C
(D) 150°C.
126. The maximum permissible water content in transformer oil is
(A) zero
(B) 10 ppm
(C) 25 ppm
(D) 50 ppm.
127. The kinetic viscosity of transformer oil should be
(A) 5 cst
(B) 2.5 cst
(C) 50 cst
(D) 125 cst.
128. The maximum pour point of transformer oil should be
(A)10°C
(B) 0°C
(C) 4°C
(D) 14.4°C.
129. The dielectric strength of transformer oil' should not be less than
(A)10kV
(B) 20 kV
(C) 30 kV
(D) 50 kV.
130. The specific resistance of the transformer oil is of the order of
(A) 104 ohms cm
(B) 106 ohms cm
(C) 1012 ohms cm
(D) 1024 ohms cm.
131. Phase spread in ac machines is almost always
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C)120°
(D) 50°
132. The electric motor provided on refrigerators is usually
(A) open type
(B) protected type
(C) screen protected type
(D) totally enclosed type.
133. Flame proof motors are used in
(A) explosive atmosphere
(B) moisture free atmosphere
(C) dust free atmosphere
(D) moisture and dust free atmosphere.
134. Which of the following machine is invariably provided with forced ventilation?
(A) Fractional horse power slow speed motor
(B) Fractional horse power high speed motor
(C) Hermetically sealed motor of refrigerator
(D) 50 MW generator in a power plant.
135. Since hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air its use as cooling medium is mainly to
(A) reduces noise
(B) reduces windage losses
(C) increase maintenance
136. As compared to air, hydrogen has ___________ thermal conductivity and __________ density.
(A) lower .......... lower
(B) lower........ higher
(C) higher......... lower
(D) higher .......... higher.
137. A machine is specified as 50 kW maximum continuous rating. The machine
(A) cannot be overloaded
(B) can be overloaded 10% only
(C) can be overloaded 20% for half an hour only
(D) can be overloaded 20% for two hours only
138. A short time intermittent rating of electric motors is considered while selecting motors for
(A) blowers
(B) punching machines
(C) reciprocating compressors
(D) sirens.
139. Short time rating machines have usually
(A) low operating times and longer shut down times
(B) low operating times and shorter shut down times
(C) longer operating times and shorter shut down times
(D) longer operating times and longer shut down times.
Questions 140 to 142 refer to data below:
The rate of temperature rise as measured from a temperature time curve of a transformer is 0.0803 °C per minute and
00605 °C per minute, when the temperature rise is 20.5 °C and 28.5 °C respectively.
140. The temperature rise at any time t is given by
(A) θ = θf (1- e-t/T)
(B) θ = θf (1+ e -t/T)
(C) θ = θf (1+ e t/T)
(D) θ = θf (1+ e -t/T)
141. The final steady temperature rise will be
(A) 15.5°C
(B) 35.5°C
(C) 52.5°C
(D) 72.5°C.
142. The heating time constant is
(A) 102 minutes
(B) 204 minutes
(C) 306 minutes
(D) 398 minutes.
143. A. 3 φ, 52 slot, 8 pole machine can have a coil-span of
(A) 4
(B) 71/2
(C) 6
(D) 8.
144. In case of induction motors the value of air gap flux density usually taken is
(A) 0.1 to 0.2 Wb/m2
(B) 0.35 to 0.6 Wb/m2
(C) 1.05 to 1.35 Wb/m2
(D) 2.15 to 2.55 Wb/m2
145. Larger values of air gap flux density can be adopted while designing induction motors of
(A) larger output
(B) larger diameter of rotor
146. Higher values of flux density can be taken while designing machines for
(A) low voltages
(B) smaller number of poles
147.. A 5 HP cage induction motor has power factor of 0.75 at 750 rpm. A motor of 100 HP at 750 rpm can be expected
to have a power factor of
(A) 0.88
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.72.
148. An induction motor of 100 HP at 750 rpm is expected to have power factor of 0.88. A 100 HP induction motor at
1500 rpm can be expected to have power factor of
(A) 0.91
(B) 0.88
(C) 0.81.
149. An induction motor of 10 HP at 750 rpm has efficiency of 83%. An induction motor of 100 HP at 750 rpm can be
expected to have an efficiency of
(A) 81%
(B) 83%
(C) 90%
(D) 99.9%.
150. An induction motor of 20 HP at 750 rpm has efficiency of 85%. Another induction motor of 20 HP operating at
1500 rpm can be expected to have an efficiency of
(A) 80%
(B) 82%
(C) 85%
(D) 88%
151. When D is the diameter and L is the length of rotor of an induction motor, the best power factor can be obtained
when (P = no. of poles)
(A) D=L
(B) D = PF
(C) D = √(PL)
(D) D = 1.35 P √L.
152. The power factor of the induction motor will be __________ if the magnetizing current is __________
(A) low......low
(B) high........high
(C) high......low
(D) low ....... high.
153. The magnetizing current of an induction motor will be __________ for __________ air gap
(A) larger .......... smaller
(B) larger ......... larger
(C) smaller....... larger
(D) smaller ........... smaller.
154. In induction motors, small air gap __________ power factor and __________ noise level
(A) increases .......... reduces
(B) reduces .......... increases
(C) reduces..........also reduces
(D) increases..........also increases.
155. In induction motors, larger air gap __________ noise level and __________ cooling
(A) increases .......... improves
(B) reduces .......... improves
(C) reduces..........jeopardises
(D) increases..........jeopardises
156. In case of induction motors, phase reactance of the winding is __________ proportional to the number of slots
per pole per phase
(A) directly
(B) inversely.
157. In the design of induction motors, normally the number of slots per pole per phase is taken as
(A) two
(B) three
(C) three or more
(D) three or less.
158. Normally open type stator slots in induction motors are not provided because
(A) exciting current increases
(B) coils cannot be slid through the top
(C) time required for the winding will be large
159. In induction motors provided with open type slots the exciting current is __________ and power factor is
__________
(A) high..........high
(B) low..........low
(C) high..........low
(D) low .......... high.
160. Which type of slots are generally used in induction motors?
(A) Open type
(B) Semi-closed type
(C) Closed type
161. In induction motors, the difference between the number of stator and rotor slots should not be
(A) P
(B) 2 P
(C) 5P
162. For avoiding cogging in induction motor the difference between the number of stator and rotor slots should not
be
(A) P
(B) 3P
(C) 5 P
163. In induction motor which of the following depends on the leakage reactance?
(A) starting torque
(B) maximum torque
(C) starting current
164. Leakage reactance in induction motors may result from
(A) slot leakage flux
(B) overhang leakage flux
(C) differential leakage flux
165. The slip rings of wound rotor machines are made from
(B) brass
(C) cast iron
(D) mild steel.%.
166. Stiff shaft is necessary in case of induction motors due to
(A) high operating speeds
(B) asynchronous-speed operation
(C) pulsating torque
(D) small air gap.
167. The average value of specific electric loading of induction motors is in the range
(A) 5 to 50 ampere conductors/meter
(B) 50 to 450 ampere conductors/meter
(C) 500 to 4500 ampere conductors/meter
(D) 5000 to 45000 ampere conductors/meter.
168. In case of induction motors the ratio of length to pole pitch for minimum cost, is taken as
(A)1.0
(B) 1.5 to 2
(C) 2 to 3
(D) 3 to 5.
169. In case of induction motors, the ratio of length to pole pitch for good efficiency is taken as
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 5.0.
170. For small induction motors, the ratio of length to pole pitch is taken as
(A) 0.6
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0.
171. The number of parallel paths in an integral slot winding with P poles are
(A) P
(B) 2P
(C) P/2
(D) P/4.
172. The use of double squirrel cage winding on the rotor provides
(A) low noise
(B) reduced starting torque
(C) a large starting torque
(D) higher efficiency.
173. By providing deep narrow slots in the rotor punching in induction motor
(A) starting torque can be increased
(B) running torque can be reduced
(C) efficiency can be improved
174. In induction motor if the number of rotor slots is equal to the stator slots then
(A) the motor will run smoothly
(B) the motor will mil at zero slip
(C) the noise level will be low
(D) the motor may refuse to start.
175. A __________ value of magnetizing current gives __________ power factor
(A) large........poor
(B) large ......... better
(C) smaller........poor
(D) smaller ........ larger.
176. Friction and windage loss in induction motor is usually
(A) 0.1% of the rated output
(B) 1% of the rated output
(C) 5% of the rated output
(D) 10% of the rated output.
177. In case of double cage rotor the upper cage which is near to the air gap is made of
(B) annealed copper
(C) brass
(D) steel.
178. Losses due to harmonic currents produced in the cage rotor winding can be reduced by
(A) using skewed rotor
(B) using chorded stator winding
(C) proper slot combination of rotor and stator
179. In squirrel cage motors, skin effect occurs in
(A) stator winding
(B) rotor winding
180. For a 3 φ fractional slot winding with P poles the number of parallel paths is
(A) P
(B) 2P
(C) P/2
(D) none of these.
181. The output of a rotating electrical machine is limited by
(A) size of the machine
(B) peripheral velocity
(C) temperature rise
182. The hum in the transformer is due to
(A) transformer winding
(B) magnetostriction
(C) transformer oil
(D) tank walls.
183. Turbo alternators are characterized by
(A) short diameters and great axial lengths
(B) short diameters and narrow axial lengths
(C) large diameters and narrow axial lengths
(D) large diameters and great axial lengths.
184. Short circuit ratio for turbo-alternators is usually
(A) 0.1 to 0.2
(B) 0.2 to 0.4
(C) 0.5 to 0.7
(D) 0.8 to 0.95.
185. A synchronous machine having large length of the air gap will have
(A) higher noise level
(B) smaller unbalanced magnetic pull
(C) lower limit of stability
(D) higher value of inherent regulation.
186. Damper windings are provided in synchronous machines to
(A) damp out rotor oscillations
(B) reduce the over-voltages under abnormal conditions
(C) facilitate starting
187. The use of salient poles on high speed alternators will cause
(A) excessive windage loss and excessive noise
(B) reduced windage loss and low noise
(C) reduced windage loss but excessive noise
(D) excessive windage loss but reduced noise.
188. Arc welding transformer is basically a
(A) frequency changing device
(B) step up transformer
(C) step down transformer
(D) current transformer.
189. The output voltage of arc welding transformer is usually
(A) 10 to 30 V
(B) 35 to 55 V
(C) 55 to 65 V
(D) 110 to 135 V.
190. A welding transformer should have
(A) drooping voltage-current characteristics
(B) open circuit voltage less than 80 V
(C) current controlled continuously over the full range
191. The drooping characteristics of a welding transformer are usually obtained by
(A) using series reactance
(B) adopting oil cooling
(C) multiple tapings on secondary
192. The power factor of a welding transformer is usually
(A) 1.0
(B) high
(C) 0.5
(D) very low.
193. For the load cycle shown in the figure, the rating of the motor should be
(A) 600 kW
(B) 350 kW
(C) 300 kW
(D) 275 kW.
Questions 194 to 196 refer to data below:
Three cores made up of iron, aluminium and wood have the same dimensions and are wound with the same number
of turns. All these are fed from the same voltage source at a fixed frequency.
194. The materials in order of decreasing magnetizing currents will be
(A) wood, aluminium, iron
(B) wood, iron, aluminium
(C) iron, wood, aluminium
(D) iron, aluminium, wood.
195. The materials in order of decreasing hysteresis loss will be
(A) wood, aluminium and iron
(B) iron, aluminium, wood
(C) iron, wood, aluminium
(D) aluminium, iron, wood.
196. The materials in order of decreasing eddy current loss will be
(A) iron, wood, aluminium
(B) iron, aluminium, wood
(C) aluminium, iron, wood
(D) wood, aluminium, iron.
197. For a 5 kW DC motor the number of slots per pole should be
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16.
198. In a synchronous generator in order to eliminate the fifth harmonic the chording angle should be
(A) 9°
(B) 18°
(C) 27°
(D) 36°.
199. Inter poles in DC machines are provided to reduce
(A) sparking
(B) armature reaction
(C) iron loss
(D) efficiency.
200. Skewing in the slots of an induction motor is provided to reduce
(A) iron loss
(B) noise
(C) harmonics
(D) temperature rise.
201. Sometimes a reactor is connected in series with a transformer to
(A) improve regulation
(B) control fault current
(C) improve efficiency
(D) improve power factor.
202. DC motor yoke is generally made of
(A) wood
(B) copper
(C) aluminium
(D) steel.
203. For the same rating, the cost of an induction motor as compared to that of a DC motor is
(A) more
(B) less
(C) same
(D) nearly the same.
204. In case of electrical machines, the intermittent rating as compared to its continuous rating is
(A) more
(B) less
(C) same.
205. For the use of mush windings in 3φ induction motors, the slot should be
(A) semi-closed
(B) open
(C) closed
(D) either (a) or (b).
206. A hunting sound is produced in a synchronous motor when
(A) load fluctuates
(B) supply frequency varies
207. The transformer noise is mainly because of
(A) cooling oil
(B) sinusoidal current
(C) magnetic flux
208. Stampings in transformers are provided to reduce
(A) hysteresis loss
(B) eddy current loss
(C) copper loss
209. Which loss occurs in the yoke of a DC machine?
(A) iron loss
(B) copper loss
(C) heat loss
(D) no loss.
210. The losses occurring in the rotor of an induction motor are less than those in the stator because of
(A) small diameter of rotor
(B) less rotor frequency
(C) slot skewing
211. In case of transformers, with increasing frequency
(A) copper losses reduce but efficiency increases
(B) copper losses increase but efficiency decreases
(C) both copper losses and efficiency increase
(D) copper losses remain unaffected while efficiency increases.
212. The regulation of a transformer is least affected by changes in frequency at
(A) leading power factor
(B) lagging power factor
(C) unity power factor
213. In case of induction motor, with increase in supply voltage, which of the following increases?
(A) Power factor
(B) Slip
(C) Torque
214. In most AC machines, it is usually a standard practice to use
(A) fractional slot winding with full-pitch coils
(B) fractional slot winding with chorded coils
(C) integral slot winding with chorded coils
(D) integral slot winding with full pitch coils.
215. In a transformer iron losses vary as __________ of voltage
(A) inverse
(B) inverse square
(C) square
(D) cube.
216. In case of distribution transformers, at fractional loads
(A) with increase in voltage efficiency decreases
(B) with increase in voltage efficiency increases
(C) with decrease in voltage efficiency decreases
217. In case of transformers regulation varies as
(A) inverse of voltage
(B) square of voltage
(C) inverse square of voltage
(D) voltage.
218. In a transformer, with change in frequency
(A) copper losses increase
(B) copper losses decrease
(C) copper losses remain unchanged.
219. Distribution transformer has core losses
(A) > copper losses
(B) = copper losses
(C) ∞ copper losses
(D) = 1/2 copper losses.
220. If a synchronous motor fails to start, the probable cause could be
(A) low voltage
(B) too much load at starting
(C) single phasing
221. In case a synchronous motor starts but fails to develop full torque, the probable cause could be
(A) low excited voltage
(B) reverse field winding
(C) open or short circuit
222. If a DC machine gives shock the probable cause could be
(A) armature field coils or brush holders earthed
(B) weak or leaky insulation
(C) loose earth wire
223. If a DC motor stops after running for some time, the probable cause could be any of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Weak or no field
(B) Brushes ahead of neutral
(C) Insufficient power supply
(D) Insufficient torque developed.
224. If fuse blows at the starting of a DC motor the probable cause could be
(A) low capacity of the fuse
(B) overload
(C) short circuit in the starter resistance
225. Sound in a DC motor may be due to
(A) unequal resistance of the armature and field coils
(B) loose fittings of the field core with yoke or frame
(C) improper fitting of the side covers
Communication
1. If the sampling time is less the Nyquist interval
(A) Simpler filter can be used to obtain the original signal
(B) Bandwidth increases
(C) Channel capacity increases
(D) Guard time becomes less
2. As per sampling theorem
(A) The signal should be sampled at least twice each cycle of its lowest frequency
(B) Twice each cycle of its highest frequency
(C) Guard time should be as large as possible
(D) Nyquist rate should be as low as possible
3. The Nyquist rate of signal.in samples/sec is:
(A) fmax
(B) 2fmax
(C) 1 / fmax
(D) 1 / 2fmax
4. A signal of maximum frequency of 10 KHz is samples at Nyquist rate. The time interval between two successive
samples is:
(A) 50 µs
(B) 100 µs
(C) 1000 µs
(D) 5 µs
5. A narrowband signal occupying a frequency range of nf0 to (n + 1)f0 is to be sampled. The maximum sampling rate is
(Take n to be an integer).
(A) 2nf0
(B) 2(n+1)f0
(C) 2f0
(D) None of these
6. The minimum required bandwidth for transmission of n signals each band-limi9ted to fm Hz is
(A) fm Hz
(B) 2fm Hz
(C) mfm Hz
(D) 2nfm Hz
7. Impulse modulation systems; the number of samples required to ensure no loss of information is given by
(A) Fourier transform
(B) Nyquist theorem
(C) Parseval’s theorem
8. TDM is preferred because
(A) It requires less power
(B) It needs lesser bandwidth
(C) More than one message can transmitted simultaneously over a common channel
(D) None of these
9. One of the following is not an advantage of TDM over FDM
(A) TDM has simpler instrumentation
(B) TDM is not vulnerable in the usual sources of FDM inter-channel cross talk
(C) TDM can achieve the minimum bandwidth as FDM without loss of cross talk immunity
10. In sampling theorem, Nyquist interval equals
(A) 1 / 2fm
(B) 1 / fm
(C) 1 /5fm
(D) 1 / 10fm
11. In communication the sampling technique leads to
(A) Higher efficiency
(B) High speed of communication
(C) Cheaper equipment
12. For a periodic function, the spectral density and the auto-correlation functions are
(A) Fourier transform pair
(B) Laplace transform pair
(C) One and the same thing
13. Channel capacity is exactly equal to
(A) Bandwidth of demand
(B) Amount of information per second
(C) Noise rate in the demand
14. Spectral density of white noise
(A) Varies with frequency
(B) Is constant
(C) Varies with bandwidth
15. A random process is defined as ergodic if
(A) All type of ensemble averages arc not changeable
(B) All types of ensemble averages are constant
(C) All types of ensemble averages are interchangeable
(D) None of above
16. Spectral density expresses
(A) Average voltage
(B) Average current
(C) Average power in a waveform as a function of frequency
17. For a Gaussian process, auto-correlation also implies
(A) Statistical dependence
(B) Statistical independence
(C) Ergodic process
18. The auto-correlation function of a signal (t) at t0= 0 is equal to
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Average voltage of the signal
(D) Average power of the signal
19. The auto-correlation function is
(A) An odd function in t0
(B) An even function in t0
(C) An exponential function in t0
20. If ŋ is the positive-frequency power density, the power density spectrum white noise δ(ɷ) is equal to
(A) 1/ ŋ
(B) ŋ/2
(C) ŋ
(D) 2 ŋ
21. An ergodic process in communication is present if many random signals have
(A) Identical time averages
(B) Identical ensemble averages
(C) Identical time and ensemble averages
22. Which of the following is no true regarding auto-correlation function
(A) It is an average function
(B) It is defined only for period signals
(C) It is a measure of both time variation and statistical dependence
(D) It is non-unique description of signals
23. Probability density function of thermal noise
(A) Binomial
(B) Gaussian
(C) Poisson
24. The auto-correlation function of white noise is a
(A) Step function
(B) Impulse function
(C) Gaussian function
(D) constant
25. In ergodic process
(A) Ensemble and time averages are identical
(B) Ensemble and time averages are different
(C) Ensemble and time averages are opposite to each other
26. Redundancy in communication system
(A) Reduces efficiency of communication
(B) Helps to detect errors
(C) Helps to correct errors
27. Entropy is basically a measure of
(A) Rate of information
(B) Average of information
(C) Probability of information
(D) Disorder of information
28. In sampling theorem, sampling rate can be
(A) Equal to 2fm
(B) More than 2fm
(C) Less than 2fm
(D) ≥ 2fm
29. The capacity of a channel is
(A) Number of digits used in coding
(B) Volume of information it can take
(C) Maximum rate of information transmission
(D) Bandwidth required for information
30. Amount of information in a continuous signal is
(A) Zero
(B) 2 bits
(C) 4 bits
(D) Infinite
31. In a TDM system, different signals are distinguished from each other
(A) Only in time
(B) Only in frequency
(C) Both in time and frequency
(D) In amplitude
32. To transmit n signals each band limited to fm Hz by TDM will require a minimum bandwidth of
(A) fm
(B) 2fm
(C) Nfm
(D) 4fm
33. A TDM system
(A) Needs lower bandwidth
(B) Gives low signal to noise ratio
(C) Uses simpler circuits as compared to FDM system
(D) Needs higher bandwidth
34. Quadrature multiplexing is a form of
(A) Time division multiplexing
(B) Frequency division multiplexing
(C) Combined time and frequency division multiplexing
35. Synchronous Time division multiplexing is called synchronous because
(A) Synchronous transmission is used
(B) Time slots are already assigned to source and fixed
(C) None of the above
FM
1. In FM the carrier deviation is determined by
(A) Modulating voltage
(B) Frequency
(C) Either of the above
2. The percentage of modulation for 45 kHz deviation in the FM broadcast band will be
(A) 30%
(B) 40 W
(C) 60%
(D) 90%
3. A frequency multiplier stage should operate as
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Either of the above
4. Which of the following frequency is likely to be associated with FM radio broadcasting
(A) 90 Hz
(B) 90 kHz
(C) 900 kHz
(D) 90 MHz
5. For an FM wave carrier modulating frequency is 10 kHz and bandwidth is 2 MHz, If the modulating signal amplitude
is doubled the bandwidth will be
(A) 0.5 MHz
(B) 1 MHz
(C) 2 MHz
(D) 4MHz
6. An FM signal has modulating frequency fm and maximum frequency deviation of δ. The bandwidth will be nearly
(A) δ
(B) 2δ
(C) 2fmδ
(D) fmδ
7. Which of the following is likely to be the bandwidth of FM receiver?
(A) 5 kHz
(B) 20 kHz
(C) 200 kHz
(D) 20 MHz
8. FM broadcast band generally lies in
(A) LF
(B) HF
(C) VHF
(D) SHF
9. In case of wideband FM signal the modulation index may be expected to be
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) Less than 1
(D) More than 1
10. In FM
(A) Noise decreases by increasing deviation
(B) Noise decreases by decreasing deviation
(C) Noise decreases by maintaining deviation constant
11. An FM wave has bandwidth of 160 kHz and modulation index of 7.5. The frequency deviation will be
(A) 75 kHz
(B) 115 kHz
(C) 75 MHz
(D) 115 MHz
12. In frequency modulation for a given frequency deviation the modulation index varies
(A) Inversely as the modulating frequency
(B) Directly as the modulating frequency
(C) Independent of modulating frequency
13. In case the depth of modulation is doubled in FM system, the power transmitted
(A) Increases by factor of √2
(B) Increases by factor of √3
(C) Increases by factor of 2
14. In an FM signal, the power
(A) Increases as modulation index increases
(B) Reduces as modulation index increases
(C) Remains constant even when modulation index varies
15. In FM, the frequency deviation is
(A) Proportional to modulating frequency
(B) Proportional to amplitude of modulating signal
(C) Constant
(D) Directly proportional to amplitude and inversely proportional to modulating frequency
16. Which of the following oscillator is not in FM?
(A) Crystal oscillator
(B) Hartley oscillator
(C) Colpitts oscillator
17. Which of the following is not the advantage of FM over AM?
(A) More bandwidth is required
(B) FM can be made relatively immune from noise
(C) Amplitude of modulated wave is
18. All of the following statements about wideband FM arc valid EXCEPT
(A) More bandwidth of frequency is required
(B) Noise suppression is more effective
(C) Pre-emphasis and de-emphasis cannot be used
(D) Noise peak may become excessive
19. When bandwidth is major consideration, a narrow band FM can be approximated to
(A) SSB
(B) AM
(C) PM
20. When FM and AM transmitters are to be compared, which of the following statement is valid?
(A) AM transmitter is more efficient as compared to FM transmitter
(B) FM transmitter is more efficient as compared to AM transmitter
(C) FM and AM transmitter have the same efficiency
(D) Efficiency of transmitters depends on frequency only
21. Which of the following statement is not valid for FM systems?
(A) It needs less bandwidth
(B) It offers better S/N ratio
(C) It requires least modulating power
22. A frequency deviation of 20 kHz in the RF carrier is produced by an audio-modulating frequency of 5 kHz. The
modulation index will be
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 2
(D) 4
23. Pre-emphasis is used to amplify
(A) Low frequency
(B) High frequency
(C) Both (A) and (B)
24. In the stabilized reactance modulator AFC system
(A) The discriminator must have a fast time constant to prevent demodulation
(B) The higher the discriminator frequency the better the oscillator frequency stability
(C) The discriminator frequency must not be too low or the system will fail
(D) Phase modulation is converted into PM by the equalizer circuit
25. Which of the following is an indirect way of generating FM?
(A) Armstrong modulator
(B) Varactor diode modulator
(C) Reactance FET modulator
(D) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
26. An FM signal has a frequency deviation of 20 kHz produced by 2 V audio signal of 4000 Hz. What Will be the
modulation index?
(A) 2.5
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
27. De-emphasis circuit is used
(A) Prior to modulation
(B) After modulation
(C) For de-emphasizing high frequency component
(D) For de-emphasizing low frequency component
28. Foster Seelay discriminator uses a
(A) Single tuned circuit
(B) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary tuned to the same frequency
(C) Double tuned circuit with primary and secondary tuned to the different frequency
29. A frequency doubler has an FM signal input at 13 MHz with a deviation of 5 kHz. The output frequency for the
carrier will be
(A) 26 MHz
(B) 26.1 MHz
(C) 10 kHz
(D) 100 kHz
30. A frequency multiplier stage should operate as
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class B
(D) Class C
31. The commercial FM radio broadcast band is
(A) 535 to 1600 kHz
(B) 20 to 80 kHz
(C) 88 to 180 MHz
(D) 300 to 3000 MHz
32. For an FM broadcast station, the maximum deviation produced by audio modulation is 45 kHz. The percent
modulation is
(A) 10
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 100
33. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates as
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
34. The difference between PM and FM
(A) Lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation
(B) Is too great to make the two systems compatible
(C) Is purely theoretical because practically both are identical
(D) Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
35. An FM discriminator changes
(A) FM signa1 into FM signal of low frequency
(B) FM signal into FM signal of high frequency
(C) FM signal into AM signal
(D) FM signal into PM signal
36. In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave
(A) The carrier frequency disappears when modulation index is large
(B) Amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
(C) The total number of sideband depends on the modulation index
(D) The carrier frequency cannot disappear
37. A frequency multiplier circuit
(A) Operates as class A
(B) Is tuned to a harmonic of the input signal
(C) Needs parasitic oscillations
(D) Is usually pulse-modulated
38. Which system is free from noise?
(A) FM
(B) AM
(C) Both FM and AM
39. The frequency of the stereo sub-carrier signal in FM broadcasting is
(A) 19 kHz
(B) 38 kHz
(C) 50 kHz
(D) 76 kHz
40. An FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through frequency tripler. The wave in the output of the tripler
will have a modulation index of
(A) mf / 3
(B) mf
(C) 3mf
(D) 9mf
PM
1. Pulse modulation is used in
(A) Radio navigation
(B) Automatic landing equipment
(C) Data communications
2. Pulse modulation is often used in
(A) Microwave band
(B) LF band
(C) Telegraphy
(D) Telephony
3. All the output pulses are at full transmitter power for a strong signal in all of the following except
(A) PWM
(B) PAM
(C) PFM
(D) PCM
4. 1n pulse modulation the ratio of time on to time off is called
(A) Efficiency
(B) Duty cycle
(C) Base
(D) Bandwidth
5· While demodulating PCM, it is first converted into
(A) PAM
(B) PPM
(C) PWM
6. The signal to quantization ratio in a PCM system depends on
(A) Sampling rate
(B) Number of quantization levels
(C) Message signal bandwidth
7. Quantization noise occurs in
(A) PCM
(B) TDM
(C) FDM
(D) PWD
8. Which of the following modulating system is inherently most noise resistant?
(A) PCM
(B) PPM
(C) FM
(D) DSB
9. Which of the following pulse modulating system is analog?
(A) PCM
(B) PWM
(C) Both (A) and (B)
10. PCM transmission requires ____________ band-width than amplitude transmission
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) Negligible
11. Which of the following modulation system is digital?
(A) PPM
(B) PWM
(C) PCM
(D) PEM
12. For transmission of normal speech signal, the PCM channel needs a bandwidth of
(A) 64 kHz
(B) 8 kHz
(C) 4 kHz
(D) 2 kHz
13. The main advantage of PCM system is
(A) Lower bandwidth
(B) Lower power
(C) Lower noise
14. Sampling theorem is associated with
(A) PCM
(B) FM
(C) AM
15. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Pulse modulation has low power efficiency and narrow bandwidth
(B) The PAM system has the best signal to noise ratio
(C) Blocked-grid keying is similar to frequency-shift keying
16. The signal-to-quantization noise ratio in a PCM system depends upon
(A) Sampling rate
(B) Number of quantization levels
(C) Message signal bandwidth
17. The use of non-uniform quantization leads to
(A) Reduction in transmission bandwidth
(B) Increase in maximum SNR
(C) Increase in SNR for low signal levels
(D) Simplification of quantization process
18. In pulse modulation, the number of samples required to ensure no loss of information is given by
(A) Nyquist theorem
(B) Perceval’s Theorem
(C) Fourier Transform
(D) Laplace Transform
19. PAM signal can be demodulated by using
(A) A low pass filter
(B) A band pass filter
(C) A high pass filter
20. In a pulse position modulation system, the transmitted pulse has
(A) Constant amplitude but varying width
(B) Constant amplitude and constant width
(C) Constant width but varying amplitude
21. Pulse amplitude modulation is a process whereby
(A) The position of the pulse is changed as a function of the sampled value
(B) The width of the pulse is varied as a function of time
(C) The height of a pulse is made proportional to the sampled value
(D) None of these
22. Which of the following restriction is imposed on the reconstruction of a sampled signal?
(A) Impulses must be passed through high pass filter
(B) Impulses must be passed through a band pass filter
(C) The sampling rate must be in the form of impulses
(D) None of these
23. Pulse width modulation is a process whereby
(A) The position of a pulse is changed as a function of the sampled value
(B) The sampled value is first coded and then transmitted
(C) The width of a pulse is varied as a function of the sampled value
(D) None of these
24. The signal to noise (S/N) ratio appearing at the output of each channel in PAM is
(A) Three times the input S/N ratio
(B) One and half times the input S/N ratio
(C) Twice the input S/N ratio
(D) None of these
25. A PWM signal can be generated by
(A) A monostable multi-vibrator
(B) An astable multi-vibrator
(C) Integrating the PPM signal
(D) Differentiating the PPM signal
26. Pulse communication system that is inherently highly immune to noise is
(A) PAM
(B) PWM
(C) PPM
(D) PCM
27. In order to reduce quantizing noise one must
(A) Increase the number of standard amplitudes levels
(B) Send pulses with nearly vertical sides
(C) Use an RF amplifier in the receiver
(D) Increase the number of samples per second
28. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is
(A) Its inability to handle analog signals
(B) The high error rate
(C) Its incompatibility with TDM
(D) The large bandwidth that is required for it
29. Quantization noise is produced in
(A) All pulse modulation systems
(B) PCM
(C) All modulation systems
30. In PCM system, output S/N increases
(A) Linearly with bandwidth
(B) Exponentially with bandwidth
(C) Inversely with bandwidth
(D) None of these
31. Companding is used
(A) To overcome quantizing noise in PCM
(B) In PCM transmitters to allow amplitude limiting in the receivers
(C) To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
(D) In PCM receiver to overcome impulse noise
32. Which of the following system is analog
(A) PCM
(B) Delta
(C) Differential PCM
(D) PAM
Radio Transmitters
1. In an oscillator crystal the parallel resonant frequency is
(A) Equal to
(B) Higher than
(C) Lower than series resonant frequency
2. In an FM transmitter if the modulation stage is followed by a frequency multiplied stage it will give
(A) Distortion
(B) Higher frequency deviation
(C) Lesser frequency deviation
(D) None
3. RC capacitive reactance tube behaves as capacitance of value
(A) CR
(B) gm CR
(c) CR/gm
(D) 1/gm CR
4. In capacitance reactance tube using RC network it is so arranged that
(A) R << 1/ωC
(B) R >> 1/ωC
(C) R = 1/ωC
(D) R = 10/ωC
5. In RC inductive reactance tube it is so arranged
(A) R<<1/ωC
(B) R>>1/ωC
(C) R=1/ωC
(D) R=1/10ωC
6. If the plate supply voltage for a plate modulated class C amplifier is V the maximum plate cathode voltage could be
almost as high as
(A) 4v
(B) 3V
(C) 2V
(D) 1V
7. In following low-level AM system amplifier the modulated stage must be
(A) Linear devices
(B) Harmonic devices
(C) Class C amplifier
(D) Non-linear devices
8. The modulated index of any AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
(A) Unchanged
(B) Halved
(C) Doubled
(D) Increased by 50%
9. Inductive reactance tube using RC network behaves as an inductance of value
(A) CR
(B) gm CR
(C) CR/gm
(D) 1/gm CR
10. RC capacitance reactance FET behave as capacitance of value
(A) CR
(B) gm CR
(C) CR/gm
(D) 1/gm CR
11. In capacitive reactance FET using RC network it is so arranged that
(A) Xc >> R
(B) Xc << R
(C) Xc=R
(D) Xc =10R
12. One of the following is an indirect way of generating FM. this is the
(A) Reactance FET modulation
(B) Reactor diode modulation
(C) Armstrong modulator
(D) Reactance bipolar transmitter modulator
13. An FM signal with a deviation and is passed through a mixer and has its frequency reduce five-fold. the deviation i
the output of the mixer is
(A) 5 δ
(B) Indeterminate
(C) δ/5
(D) δ
14. Leak-type bias is used in a plate -modulated class C amplifier to
(A) Preent tuned circuit damping
(B) Prevent excessive grid current
(C) Prevent over modulation
(D) increase the bandwidth
15. In RC inductive reactance FET, it is so arranged that
(A) Xc >> R
(B) Xc << R
(C) Xc = R
(D) Xc = 10R
16. inductive reactance FET using RC network behaves as an inductance of value
(A) CR
(B) gm CR
(C) CR/gm
(D) 1/gm CR
17. pre –emphasis circuit in FM transmitter emphasizes the
(A) low frequency terms
(B) middle frequency terms
(C) both low and middle frequency terms
(D) high frequency terms
18. to ensure the highest practical frequency stability in an oscillator the configuration used shall be
(A) hartly
(B) crystal controlled
(C) hartely –lollpits
(D) electron coupled
19. for efficient amplification of the RF carrier the most frequently used amplifier are
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Push- pull
20. the purpose of RF bypass capacitors in a transmission is to
(A) coupled the RF energy from stage to stage
(B) stabilize the RF oscillator
(C) prevent detuning of the power amplifier
(D) keep RF current of the power supply
21. a frequency multiplier usually operates in
(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Push – pull
22. over –modulation of transmitter signal corrected b the adjustment of the
(A) speech amplifier
(B) power amplifier
(C) RF oscillators
(D) Frequency doubler
23. the chief advantage of the pre-emphasis circuit in FM transmitter is to
(A) improve the signal to noise ratio of the lower side band frequencies
(B) improve the signal to noise ratio of the higher side band frequencies
(C) Increase the carrier power
(D) Increase the bandwidth of the side band
24. the pre-emphasis is FM aids in providing extra noise immunity by
(A) emphasizing on the higher frequency components
(B) emphasizing the entire frequency band
(C) emphasizing the lower frequency components
(D) cutting down the low frequency components
25. in a low level modulation system the amplifier following the modulated stage can be only
(A) linear amplifiers
(B) Class C amplifiers
(C) harmonic generators
(D) other non-linear amplifiers
26. it is not desirable to modulate on oscillator directly because of the
(A) Large power required by the modulator
(B) Incidental frequency modulator
(C) Non-linear output
(D) Generation of sub-harmonics
27. A speech amplifier is not used to modulate power amplifier because
(A) Of excessive distortion
(B) Of the low output level of the speech amplifier
(C) The speech amplifier must be silated from the power amplifier
28. long wave broadcast transmitter are used in
(A) tropical countries
(B) temperate countries
(C) everywhere
(D) none of above
29. long wave AM broadcast transmitter need
(A) very large carrier power
(B) medium carrier power
(C) small carrier power
(D) no need of carrier power
30. medium wave broadcast is used for
(A) regional service
(B) national service
(C) international service
(D) all above
Wave Propagation
1. A ship-to-ship communication system is plagued by fading. Best solution seems to be the use of
(A) Space diversity
(B) Frequency diversity
(C) A broad band antenna
(D) A more directional antenna
2. High frequency waves are
(A) Absorbed by the F2 layer
(B) Reflected by the D layer
(C) Affected by the solar cycle
3. Which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond the horizon terrestrial communications
without repeaters
(A) 25 kHz
(B) 15 MHz
(C) 750 MHz
(D) 12 GHz
4. The intrinsic impedance of free space has the correct value equal to
(A) 75 ohm
(B) 73 ohm
(C) 120 π ohm
(D) 377 ohm
5. MF is generally used for
(A) Telegraphy etc.
(B) Radio and television links, etc.
(C) Satellite communication
(D) Broadcasting, navigation, etc.
6. The troposphere extends from earth surface to a height of
(A) 15 km
(B) 90 km
(C) 150 km
(D) 200 km
7. Which of the following is not between F2 layer and D layer?
(A) E layer
(B) F1 layer
(C) G region
8. The minimum height of outer atmosphere is
(A) 100 km
(B) 150 km
(C) 200 km
(D) 400 km
9. F2 layer of atmosphere extends from
(A) 250 km to 400 km
(B) 150 km to 250 km
(C) 50 km to 150 km
(D) 15 km to 50 km
10. Which of the following non-standard propagation conditions cause a reduction in range
(A) Super-refraction
(B) Skip effect
(C) Sub-refraction
(D) Ducting
11. The skip distance for radio wave increases with
(A) Increase in frequency
(B) Reduction in frequency
(C) Temperature of atmosphere
12. Which of the following is abnormal variation in ionosphere?
(A) Diurnal variation
(B) Seasonal variation
(C) Ionospheric storms
13. VLF waves are used for communication system because
(A) Of low power requirement
(B) They are least prone to distortion
(C) They penetrate the ionosphere easily
(D) The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
14. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by
(A) Space wave
(B) Surface waves
(C) Sky waves
(D) Ground waves
15. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space
(A) Increases as the frequency increases
(B) Is independent of frequency
(C) Decreases as frequency increases
16. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
(A) 1 ohm
(B) 47π ohm
(C) 120π ohm
(D) 3 x l08 ohm
17. The effective refraction index of the ionosphere for radio waves is
(A) More than Unity
(B) Less than unity
(C) Equal to unity
(D) Either more or less than unity depending on the electron concentration
18. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propagation at
(A) High frequencies
(B) Ultra high frequencies
(C) Microwave frequencies
(D) Optical frequencies
19. · Which of the following statement is false?
(A) Television signals are propagated as ground waves
(B) Surface waves can propagate on piezo-electric substrates
(C) The skip distance is the maximum distance up to which ionospheric reflection is possible
(D) Tropospheric scatter propagation is always subject to fading
(A) The maximum usable frequency for the E layer is 10 MHz
(B) The critical frequency of F layer is greater than 30 MHz
(C) Ionosphere storm causes an abnormal decrease in the critical frequency
21. Anomalous propagation is caused by
(A) Super refractive duct
(B) Meteorological factors
(C) Troposcatter
22. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in dielectric medium of relative permittivity 9, Relative to free space, the
velocity of propagation in the dielectric is
(A) Increased by a factor of 9
(B) Increased by a factor of 3
(C) Unchanged
(D) Reduced by a factor of 1/3
23. The term critical frequency denotes
(A) The lowest frequency that is reflected by the ionosphere
(B) The highest frequency that is reflected by the ionosphere at vertical distance
(C) The lowest frequency by which communication is possible between two given points
24. Microwave signals transmitted towards sky are
(A) Strongly absorbed by the ionosphere
(B) Strongly reflected by the ionosphere
(C) Transmitted through the ionosphere
(D) Unable to reach the ionosphere because of strong absorption in the lower atmosphere
25. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this is known as
(A) The Faraday Effect
(B) Ducting
(C) Tropospheric scatter
(D) Ionospheric reflection
26. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation
(A) To avoid the Faraday Effect
(B) To avoid tilting
(C) To prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
(D) To exceed the critical frequency
27. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on
(A) The polarization of the waves
(B) The polarization of the atmosphere
(C) Frequency of the waves
(D) Their distance from the transmitter
28. Which of the following term applies to troposcatter propagation?
(A) SlDs
(B) Faraday rotation
(C) Atmospheric storms
(D) Fading
29. Tropospheric Scatter is used with frequencies in the following range
(A) HF
(B) VHF
(C) UHF
(D) VLF
30. For very high frequencies earth acts as a
(A) Conductor
(B) Dielectric
(C) Resistor
31. The skip distance does not depend upon
(A) The power transmitted
(B) Type of wave propagation
(C) Angle of beaming of the wave
(D) Frequency of the signal transmitted
32. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than others is known as
(A) Critical frequency
(B) Window
(C) Gyro-frequency range
(D) Resonance in the atmosphere
33. Which of the following mode permits beyond the horizon propagation?
(A) Tropospheric scatter
(B) Satellite communication
(C) Surface wave
34. Which of the following is normal variation in ionosphere?
(A) Sunspot cycle
(B) Fading
(C) Whistlers
35. The duration of sunspot cycle is
(A) 1 year
(B) 11 years
(C) 55 years
(D) 100 years
36. The fluctuation in the received signal strength at the receiver or a random variation in the received signal is known
as
(A) Fluctuation
(B) Fading
(C) Absorption
(D) Cycling
37. Which type of fading causes serious distortion of modulated signal?
(A) Selective fading
(B) Interference fading
(C) Absorption fading
(D) Polarization fading
38. For F1 layer the maximum ionic density is 2.3 x 106 electrons per cc. The critical frequency for this layer will be
(A) 1.36 MHz
(B) 13.6 MHz
(C) 136 MHz
(D) 1360 MHz
39. Which layer is least important in high frequency propagation?
(A) D layer
(B) E layer
(C) F1 layer
(D) F2 layer
40. The ground waves eventually disappear as one moves away from the transmitter because of
(A) Tilting
(B) Maximum single-hop distance limitation
(C) Interference from the sky waves
(D) Loss of line-of sight condition
41. ln case of surface waves the field strength at a point is directly proportional to
(A) Antenna height
(B) Wave frequency
(C) Current of the antenna
(D) Distance of the point from the antenna
42. Long distance short-wave radio broadcasting uses
(A) Ground wave
(B) Ionospheric wave
(C) Direct wave
43. The relative permittivity of the ionosphere at radio frequencies is
(A) More than 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) 1
(D) Negligibly small
44. Scatter transmission is used at frequencies
(A) UHF and VHF
(B) UHF only
(C) VLF only
(D) VHF only
45. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
(A) Is caused by a reflection
(B) Is always vertical in an isotropic medium
(C) Results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
(D) Is due to the transvers nature of the waves
46. Refraction of electromagnetic wave occurs when they
(A) Pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
(B) Pass in to a medium of different dielectric constant
(C) Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
(D) Encounter a perfectly conducting surface
47. Skip distance
(A) Increases with increase in frequency
(B) Increases with decrease in frequency
(C) Decreases with increase in frequency
(D) Decreases with decrease in frequency
48. VLF waves used for some type of service because
(A) They penetrate the ionosphere easily
(B) The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
(C) Low power is required
(D) They are very reliable
49. During day time ionosphere consists of
(A) D, E Layers
(B) D, E, F1 Layers
(C) D, E, F2 Layers
(D) D, E, F1, F2 Layers
50. The absorption of electromagnetic waves by the atmosphere depends on
(A) The frequency in use
(B) The polarization of waves
(C) Distance from the transmitter
51. If a wave of critical frequency 30 MHz is departing at an angle of 60O. Then the MUF is
(A) 10 MHz
(B) 15 MHz
(C) 30 MHz
(D) 60 MHz
52. The velocity of the wave as it passes from air into ionosphere
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Reduces to zero
(D) Remains unaltered
53. Which of the following wave remains unaffected during day and night?
(A) Tropospheric wave
(B) Sky wave
(C) Ground wave
54. D Layer extends approximately from
(A) 50 to 90 km
(B) 20 to 50 km
(C) 90 to 110 km
(D) up to 50 km
55. Microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth and the phenomenon is known as
(A) Tropospheric scatter
(B) Duct propagation
(C) Faraday effect
56. Electromagnetic waves in free space can only be
(A) Absorbed
(B) Refracted
(C) Reflected
(D) Attenuated
57. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
(A) Is caused by reflections from the ground
(B) May occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
(C) Arises only with spherical wave fronts
(D) Occurs only when the waves pass through a large slot
58. For satellite communication, the frequency should be
(A) Equal to the critical frequency
(B) More than the critical frequency
(C) Less than the critical frequency
(D) 1 MHz
59. In sky wave propagation skip distance is used
(A) So as not to exceed the critical frequency
(B) To avoid the Faraday effect
(C) To prevent skywave and upper ray interference
(D) To obey tilting
60. The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer depends upon
(A) Only height
(B) Only electron density
(C) Both height and electron density
(D) Height, electron density and angle of incidence
TRANSMISSION LINES
1. The propagation constant of a transmission line is
𝑅+𝑗ωL
(A) 𝐺+𝑗ωC
(B) √(𝑅 + 𝑗ωL)(𝐺 + 𝑗ωC)
1
(C) √𝐿𝐶
2. The characteristic impedance of a lossy transmission line is
𝐿
(A) √𝐿𝐶
𝑅+𝑗ωL
(B) √𝐺+𝑗ωC
(C) √(𝑅 + 𝑗ωL)(𝐺 + 𝑗ωC)

3. The characteristic impedance in lossless transmission line is given by
(A) Z0 = √𝐿𝐶
(B) Z0 = √𝐿/𝐶
(C) Z0 = √𝐶/𝐿
(D) Z0 = 1 / √𝐿𝐶
4. The phase velocity in transmission line is
(A) v = 1 / LC
(B) v = √𝐿𝐶
(C) v = LC
(D) v = 1 / √𝐿𝐶
5. The Q of a resonant transmission line is
(A) Q = L / R
(B) Q = ωL / R
(C) Q = ωR / L
(D) Q = ω / LR
6. VSWR is defined as the ratio
(A) VSWR = Vmin / Vmax
(B) VSWR = Vmax / Vmin
(C) VSWR = Vmax + Vmin / 2
(D) VSWR = Vmax.Vmin
7. If reflection coefficient is 1/5 then corresponding VSWR is given by
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 3 / 2
8. The shunt admittance of a transmission line is given by
(A) γ = R + jωL
(B) γ = R – jωL
(C) γ = G + jωC
(D) γ = jωGC
9. The measure of mismatch between the load and the transmission line is known as
(A) Directivity
(B) (1 – Gain)
(C) Standing wave ratio
(D) Reflection coefficient
10. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Standing wave ratio
(B) Reflection coefficient
(C) Gain
11. Which of the following is high frequency transmission line?
(A) Coaxial cable
(B) Open wire
(C) Twin lead
12. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line it is best to use a
(A) Slotted line
(B) Balun
(C) Directional coupler
(D) Quarter wave transformer
13. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima is given by
(A) λ / 2
(B) 2λ
(C) λ
(D) λ / 4
14. If short circuited and open circuited impedances are 5 ohms and 20 ohms, then characteristic impedance is
(A) 1 ohm
(B) 10 ohms
(C) 25 ohms
(D) 100 ohms
15. For transmission line matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a
(A) Single stub of adjustable position
(B) Double stub
(C) Broadband directional coupler
(D) Balun
16. An open wire transmission line having a characteristic impedance of 600 ohms is terminated by a resistive
load of 900 Ω. The standing wave ratio will be
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.5
(C) 3.5
(D) 4.5
17. A (0.75 - j50) ohm load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Z0 = 75 ohms at a frequency of 10 GHz.
Which of the following will be the best method of matching?
(A) Connecting an inductance at the end
(B) Connecting a short-circuited stub at the load
(C) Connecting a capacitance at some distance from the load
(D) Connecting a short-circuited stub at some specified distance from the load
18. The impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) A short-circuited stub
(B) An open-circuited stub
(C) A half wave line
(D) A quarter-wave line
19. Which type of transmission line will have the least characteristic impedance?
(A) Open wire line
(B) Twin lead line
(C) Coaxial cable
(D) All have same impedance
20. For which type of transmission line the capacitance per meter will be least?
(A) Open wire line
(B) Twin lead line
(C) Coaxial cable
21. Short-circuited stub is preferred to open circuited stub because the latter is
(A) More difficult to make and connect
(B) Incapable of giving a full range of reactance
(C) Made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
(D) Liable to radiate
(A) Z0 is an AC characteristic that is same for any length of time
(B) The characteristic impedance can be measured approximately with a sensitive ohmmeter
(C) A line terminated in its Z0 is a flat or non-resonant line
(D) A twin lead has higher Z0 but lower losses than coaxial cable
23. The phase angle corresponding to λ/4 standing-wave pattern is
(A) 30°
(B) 90°
(C) 135°
(D) 180°
24. When a particular mode is excited in a wave guide, there appears an extra electric component in the direction
of propagation. The resulting mode is
(A) Transverse electric
(B) Transverse magnetic
(C) Longitudinal
(D) Transverse-electromagnetic
25. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signal because
(A) They depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwave only
(B) Losses would be too heavy at lower frequency
(C) There are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies
(D) They would be too bulky at lower frequencies
26. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
(A) Is greater than in free space
(B) Depends on the wavelength dimensions, and the free space wavelength
(C) Is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
(D) Is directly proportional to the group velocity
27. The main difference between the operation of transmission lines and waveguides is that
(A) The latter are not distributed like transmission lines
(B) The former can use stubs and quarter wave transformers, unlike the latter
(C) Transmission lines use the principle mode of propagation, and therefore do not suffer from low frequency cut off
(D) Terms such as stub matching standing wave ratio cannot be applied to waveguides
28. A lossless line will be distortionless if the phase shift
(A) Is constant with frequency
(B) Varies directly with frequency
(C) Varies inversely with frequency
(D) Has nothing to do with distortion on a lossless line
29. The reflection coefficient on a lossless transmission line
(A) Is always purely imaginary
(B) Is always purely real
(C) Is always complex
(D) Can be any way
30. Input impedance of a shorted loss less line of length λ/4 is
(A) Zero
(B) Infinity
(C) Z0
31. On a transmission line with standing waves, the distance between a voltage maximum and adjacent current
maximum is
(A) λ /8
(B) λ /4
(C) λ /2
(D) λ/16
32. Stub matching eliminates standing waves on
(A) Load side of the stub
(B) Transmitter side of stub
(C) Both sides of the stub
33. The guide wavelength in a metal cylindrical waveguide is
(A) Greater than the free space wavelength
(B) Equal to free space wavelength
(C) Less than the free space wavelength
34. When free space wavelength of a signal equals the cut-off wavelength of guide
(A) vg becomes zero
(B) vp becomes infinite
(C) Z0 becomes infinite
(D) λg becomes infinite
35. Impedance matching over wider frequency range can be obtained using
(A) Double stub
(B) Single stub
(C) Quarter Wave transformer
36. Loading is used in telephone cables
(A) To reduce distortion
(B) To increase power handling capacity
(C) To increase the load resistance
37. Input impedance of an open-circuited lossless line of length λ /5 is
(A) Infinity
(B) Finite capacitive reactance
(C) Finite inductive reactance
38. Matching stub should be
(A) Nearest to load
(B) Nearest to transmitter
(C) Midway between load and transmitter
39. There will be no reflection in transmission line if it is terminated by an impedance
(A) Equal to characteristic impedance
(B) Equal to twice the characteristic impedance
(C) Less than the characteristic impedance
40. The velocity factor of a transmission line
(A) Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
(B) Increases the velocity along the transmission line
(C) Is governed by the skin effect
(D) Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
41. When a line of any odd multiple of λ /4 is short circuited, it represents
(A) Capacitance
(B) Inductance
(C) A Series resonant
(D) A parallel resonant circuit
42. The minimum standing waves occur where reflection coefficient is
(A) Zero
(B) Unity
(C) -1
(D) None of these
OPTO ELECTRONICS
1. In photo-conductive effect, radiations of wavelength greater than critical wavelength will
(A) Produce free electrons
(B) Not produce free electrons
(C) Emit electrons from the surface
(D) Produce protons
2. In a photo-transistor, the photo-current is generated at
(A) Emitter-base junction
(B) Collector-base junction
(C) Either of the junction
(D) Both the junction
3. Typical value of open-ckt voltage of a solar cell is
(A) 10 mV
(B) 100 mV
(C) 0.5 mV
(D) 1 V
4. In a solar cell, the short ckt current or open ckt voltage is produced as sun’s radiation falls on it because
(A) Majority carriers flow across the junction
(B) Minority carriers flow across the junction
(C) Carrier recombination takes place near the junctions
(D) Depletion layer gets reduced
5. A photo-diode is used in reversed bias because
(A) Majority swept are reverse across the junction
(B) Only one side is illuminated
(C) Reverse current is small as compared to photo current
(D) Reverse current is large as compared to photo current
6. Photo multiplier are based on the principle of
(A) Pyro-electric effect
(B) Photo-voltaic effect
(C) Photo-conduction
(D) Secondary emission
7. The sensitivity of the human eye peaks at the
(A) Red part of the visual region of the spectrum
(B) Violet region
(C) Green area of the spectrum
(D) White part of the spectrum
(E) Black or absence of light
8. An LED source produces light when
(A) Holes and electrons combine in the depletion region
(B) The PN junction is reversed biased
(C) The depletion region becomes wider
(D) Electrons are emitted from the junction surface
(E) The PN junction becomes hot
9. A photomultiplier tube responds to
(A) The conductivity of current through a specific material
(B) The emission of electrons from a cathode
(C) The secondary emission of electrons from dynodes
(D) Thermionic emission
(E) Electrostatic excitation
10. Which of the following is not classified as a photoconductive device?
(A) A PN photodiode
(B) A PIN photodiode
(C) A phototransistor
(D) A light dependent register
(E) A photo voltaic cell
11. Discrete bundle of energy produced by a source of light are called
(A) Ions
(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Photos
12. Light is best described as a form of
(A) Work
(B) Energy
(C) Waves
(D) Force
(E) Heat
13. Radiation is described as
(A) Energy transfer
(B) Energy conversion
(C) A form of work
(D) A frequency
(E) A series of waves
14. A photometric system deals with
(A) The response of the human eye
(B) All electromagnetic radiation
(C) Only infrared energy
(D) Only ultraviolet energy
(E) A combination of infrared and ultraviolet energy
15. Radiation systems deals with
(A) Only visible light
(B) All electromagnetic energy
(C) Only AM, FM and TV electromagnetic energy
(D) Only gamma rays, X-rays, and microwaves
(E) Only the invisible part of the electromagnetic spectrum

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