Civil Engineering Objective Questions For Government Exams

[Free Circulated Soft Copy for Students Preparing MES Civil]
VISION ENGINEERING ACADEMY, PUNE

Centre for Excellence in Civil Engineering Competitive Examinations
GATE + IES + PSUs + MPSC
Elements of Civil Engineering
(Theory & Objective)
*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

Contact No: 7058477771 Page 1
Cement
Cement is the most important building material which is first used to bind sand and coarse
aggregates together and then to fill voids between sand and coarse aggregate to get compact
mix.
Most commonly used cement is Portland cement. Mortar and concrete ingredients can be
classified as active like cement, water and inactive like sand, aggregate.
Manufacture of Portland cement
The raw materials required for manufacture of cement are calcareous materials such as
limestone, chalk & marls and the argillaceous materials such as clay, shale, slate, blast
furnace slag, etc.
There are two processes of manufacturing of cement dry and wet process.
Dry process is most commonly used now days.
Above materials in definite proportion are mixed together then Crushed to required size.
In wet process water is added after mixing material to get slurry.
The slurry is then fed into huge fire bricks lined Rotary kiln at the temperature around 1400
degree centigrade.
At this temperature sintering takes place and the substance having its own physical and
chemical properties called clinker or nodules is formed.
Clinker is cooled down, crushed and mixed with 3 % of gypsum. This material is passed
through grinding mills till the material of required size is obtained (size between 5 to 30
micron to the extent of 50%).
This product is known as cement.
Note: Limestone and clay are 2 basic ingredients where there are four parts of limestone and
one part of clay.
Oxides composition in raw materials of OPC
Oxides Average Percentage
Lime, CaO 63
Silica, SiO2 20
Alumina, Al2O3 6.3

iron oxide, Fe2O3 3.6
Magnesia, MgO 2.4
Sulphur trioxide, SO3 1.5
Alkalies 1
Oxide compound mentioned above are in the form of
Main compounds Chemical composition Percentage in Mass
tricalcium silicate ( C3S) 3 CaO SiO2 25 to 50
Dicalcium silicate (C2S) 2 CaO SiO2 22 to 45
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) 3 CaO Al2O3 5 to 12
Tetra calcium alumino ferrite (C4AF) 4 CaO Al2O3 Fe2O3 6 to 12
Basic properties of cement ingredients

I) In terms of oxides
1. Lime: Almost two third of cement. Higher lime content increases setting time and also
results in higher strength. Unburnt or free line delays hydration causing expansion and
deterioration of mortar and concrete.
2. Silica: One fifth of cement. High silica prolongs setting time. More silica means more
calcium silicate and more strength.
3. Alumina: Alumina reacts quickly with water thus decreases setting time. More Alumina
means more weak cement.
4. Iron oxide: Gives grey colour to the cement.
5. Magnesia: magnesia effects colour and hardness of cement. More magnesia means more
unsoundness.
6. Sulphur trioxide: more content of sulphur trioxide increases the setting time and causes
unsoundness.
7. Alkalis: Alkalis are present in very small quantity. More alkali content causes
efflorescence, strain on concrete and masonry work.
8. Calcium sulphate: To control setting time of cement.
II) In terms of compounds
1. Calcium silicate (C3S & C2S): Calcium silicates constitute 70 to 80% of cement. C3S
gives high early strength since it has faster rate of reaction. C2S gives ultimate strength since
it hydrates and hardens slowly.
2. Tricalcium Aluminates (C3A): C3A is responsible for the highest heat of evolution. It
does not contribute much to the strength. C3A reacts faster with water and may lead to an
immediate stiffening of paste called as flash set.
3. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite (C4AF): It hydrates rapidly but contribution to the strength
is insignificant. Does not play important role in setting and hardening. It is more stable than
C3A.
Notes:
1. C3A is responsible for initial setting of cement but does not contribute to development
of strength.
2. C3A generates maximum heat.
3. C3S is responsible for high early strength. About 70% of C3S hydrates in 28
days. Example: rapid hardening Portland cement.
4. Hydration of C2S goes from 7 days to 1 year. It gives later or ultimate strength.
5. For delayed or later age strength higher percentage of C2S should be used.
6. Water cement ratio - 0.4 to 0.5.
Physical properties of Portland Cement

The important physical properties based on which quality of cement can be compared are
1. Fineness:
Fineness is expressed in terms of specific surface. More fine means more specific surface
area that means more surface area for chemical reaction which gives more strength. Fineness
of cement is measured by particle size distribution or by Blains air permeability method. If
cement is excessive finer then its cementing properties may adversly effect due to
prehydration by atmospheric moisture. As per IS SSA of cement should not be less than
2250 cm2/gm and residue should not be more than 10% after sieving on 90 micron IS sieve.

2. Setting time:
Setting is the stage at which cement paste is sufficiently rigid to withstand definite amount of
pressure and time required to reach this stage is called setting time.
This can be divided as initial and final setting time.
Initial setting time is the time from the instant when water is added to the instant at which
cement paste loses all its plasticity so that any crack developed after this time will not reunite.
Final setting time is the time taken to reach the stage when the paste becomes hard mass.
These times are determined by Vicat's apparatus where initial setting time is a time from the
instant of addition of water to the instant when 1 mm square test needle fails to penetrate
standard cement paste placed in the Vicats test mould and final setting time is the time from
the instant of addition of water to the instant when a test collar fails to make impression on
cement paste in vicat mould.
For OPC initial setting time should not be less than 30 minutes and final setting time
should not be more than 600 minutes.
3. Compressive strength:
Compressive strength is determined on cement sand mortar cubes (1:3) having an area of 50
cm square in compression testing machine. For OPC compressive strength after 3 and 7 days
should not be less than 16 and 22 N/mm2 respectively.
4. Soundness:
Unsoundness is the expansion of cement when it comes in contact with water. This
expansion may result in disintegration and cracking.
This unsoundness is due to presence of free line and magnesium. Soundness test are Le-
Chatlier and Autocalve test.
Expansion by Le-chatlier test should not be more than 10 mm and by Autocalve test should
not be more than 0.8%.
5. Heat of hydration:
It is the amount of heat in calories per gram of hydrated cement liberated on complete
hydration at a given temperature. Normally it is 90 to 100 calories per gram in 7 to 28 days.
6. Specific gravity: Generally it is about 3.15.
Chemical properties of cement

1) Loss on ignition by hitting 1 gram of cement in a Platinum crucible at a temperature 900 to
1000 degree centigrade for 15 minutes should not be more than 4%.
2) Insoluble Residue after boiling for 15 minutes mix of 1 gram cement 40 ml water and 10
ml of HCL should not be more than 0.85%. Lesser the Residue better is cement.
Types of cement
1) General purpose Portland cement: 33 grade, 43 grade, 53 Grade where 33, 43, 53
are the compressive strength.
2) Special purpose cement: These are modified for special performance requirements.
OPC Based Cement

a) Rapid hardening Portland cement or high early strength cement: Higher C3S
content. Initial strength is high but ultimate strength is same. It is used where Rapid
development of strength is required
b) Extra rapid hardening cement: 2% calcium chloride is added. It should be placed
and compacted within 30 minutes of mixing.
c) Quick setting cement: This is for underwater construction and produced by
reducing the gypsum or calcium sulphate content and by adding Aluminium Sulphate.
d) Low heat Portland cement: Produced by increasing C2S and reducing C3S, C3A
content. This is for slow rate of development of strength.
e) Sulphate resisting cement: Sulphate attack can cause increase in volume of
calcium and magnesium compounds. So cement with low content of C3A and C4AF
is effective against sulphate attack.
f) White Portland cement: Amount of iron oxide is limited which is responsible for
greyish colour.
g) Waterproof Portland cement: waterproofing substances like calcium stearate,
aluminium stearate and the gypsum treated with tannic acid are added.
h) Hydrophobic cement: Stearic acid, boric acid, Folic acid, naphthene soap and
pentachlorophenol added to OPC.
i) Air entraining cement
j) Expansive cement: used for grouting.
k) Oil well cement: to seal oil well.

Portland Pozzolana cement: It consists of Portland cement clinker and pozzolana. It has
higher surface resistance and suitable for marine applications.
Portland slag cement: It consists of 35 to 65% of OPC and blast furnace slag. It is suitable
for mass concreting but unsuitable in cold weather. Used in seawater construction since it has
got high sulphate resistance.
Super sulphated cement: It consists of 80 to 85% slag, 10 to 15% calcium sulphate and 5%
OPC. It has low heat of hydration. It is used for foundations exposed to chemically
aggressive conditions.

Objectives
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List-II
A. Fineness of cement 1. Le-Chatelier apparatus
B. Setting time 2. Vicat‘s needle
C. Soundness 3. Air permeability apparatus
D. Workability 4. Slump cone
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 1 4 2
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 4 3 2
2. If ‗p‘ is the standard consistency of cement the amount of water used in conducting the
initial setting time test on cement is
(1) 0.65 p (2) 0.85 p (3) 0.6 p (4) 0.8 p
3. For complete hydration of cement the water cement ratio needed is
(1) less than 0.25 (2) more than 0.25 but less than 0.35
(3) more than 0.35 but less than 0.45 (4) more than 0.45 but less than 0.60
4. Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Air entraining Portland cement
B. Low-heat Portland cement
C. Hydrophobic Portland cement
D. Rapid hardening Portland cement
List-II
1. Suitable for very large structures
2. Unsuitable for very large masses of concrete
3. Greater resistance to frost attack
4. Safe storage under unfavorable conditions of humidity
Codes: A B C D
(1) 4 2 3 1
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 4 1 2 3
lists:
List-I List-II
A. Vicat‘s needle 1. Setting time
B. Michaeli‘s compound lever apparatus 2. Specific surface
C. Le Chatelier‘s apparatus 3. Tensile strength
D. Turbidimeter 4. Soundness
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 3 4 2
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 3 4 1 2
6. What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of
chemical reactions in the process of hydration of OPC?
(1) 10 to 15% (2) 15 to 20% (3) 20 to 25% (4) 25 to 30%
7. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one
tonne of cement comprise?
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 20
8. Which of the following pairs in respect of Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) are correctly
matched?
1. Initial setting time ... 30 minutes
2. Final setting time ... 10 hours
3. Normal consistency ... 10%
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) 1 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3 ) l and 2 (4) 1 and 3
9. High alumina cement is produced by fusing together a mixture of
(1) limestone and bauxite (2) limestone, bauxite and gypsum

(3) limestone, gypsum and clay (4) limestone, gypsum, bauxite, clay and chalk
10. Consider the following statements:

High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1. fine grinding
2. decreasing the lime content
3. burning at higher temperatures
4. increasing the quantity of gypsum
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 2, 3 and 4 (4) 1, 3 and 4
11. The temperature range in a cement kiln is
(1) 500° to 1000°C (3) 1000° to 1200°C
(3) 1300° to 1500°C (4) 1600° to 2000°C
1. Tests on cement paste to determine initial and final setting times are done at
normal consistency condition.
2. Low heat cement has a high percentage of tricalcium aluminates‘.
3. High early strength Portland cement contains a larger percentage of tricalcium
silicate and a lower percentage of dicalcium silicate.
(1) 1 and 2 (2) l and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3
13. Match List-I (Property of cement) with List-Ii (Testing apparatus) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List –I List – II
A. Specific gravity 1. Blain‘s apparatus
B. Setting time 2. Le Chatelier‘s flask
C. Soundness 3. Compressometer
D. Fineness 4. Autoclave
5. Vicat‘s apparatus
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 5 1 2
(2) 2 5 1 4

(3) 2 5 4 1
(4) 5 3 4 1
14. Consider the following oxides:
1. Al2O3 2. CaO 3. SiO2
The correct sequence in increasing order of their percentage in an ordinary Portland
cement is
(1) 2, 1, 3 (2) 1, 3, 2 (3) 3, 1, 2 (4) 1, 2, 3
15. 1ncrease in fineness of cement
(1) reduces the rate of strength development and leads to higher shrinkage.
(2) increases the rate of strength development and reduces the rate of deterioration
(3) decreases the rate of strength development and increases the bleeding of cement
(4) increases the rate of strength development and leads to higher shrinkage
16. Match List-I (cement) with List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. High alumina cement 1. High early strength
B. Blast furnace cement 2. Gypsum free cement
C. Quick setting cement 3. Selenetic cement
D. Rapid hardening cement 4. Used in mass concrete work
5. Used in chemical factories and mines.
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 5 4 2 1
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 5 4 3 2
(4) 4 5 1 2
17. The fineness of cement is tested by
(1) air-content method (3) air-permeability method
(3) Le-Chatelier apparatus (4) Vicat‘s apparatus
18. The test on cement designed to accelerate the slaking process of the ingredient of cement
and to determine the resulting expansion in a short time is
(1) setting time test (2) soundness test
(3) normal consistency test (4) accelerated test

High Alumina Cement (HAC)
1. has high early compressive strength and high heat of hydration than OPC-43 grade)
2. is not suitable to be used in cold regions
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 alone (2) 2 alone (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2
When cement is tested for setting time, on gauging it shows quick setting. This
phenomenon known as ―Flash set‖ of cement is due to the presence of high
1. tricalcium aluminate (C3A) in cement
2. alkalies in cement
3. tricalcium silicate (C3S) in cement
(1) 1,2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 2 (4) 1 and 3
21. Which one of the following statements regarding the cement fineness is NOT correct?
(1) Fine cement is more liable to suffer from shrinkage cracking than a coarse cement.
(2) Fine cement will show faster rate of hardening than coarse cement.
(3) Fine cement show faster rate of heat evolution and total quantity of heat evolved is
much large than coarse cement.
(4) Fine cement shows the same setting time as coarse cement.
22. For marine works, the best suited cement is
(1) low heat Portland cement (2) rapid hardening cement
(3) ordinary Portland cement (4) blast furnace slag cement
23. Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer
List-I
A. Ordinary portland cement
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Low heat cement
D. Sulphate resistant cement
List-II
1. The percentage of C3S is maximum and is of the order of 50%
2. The percentages of C2S and C3S are the same and of the order of 40%

3. Reacts with silica during burning and causes particles to unite together and
development of strength
4. Preserves the form of brick at high temperature and prevents shrinkage
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 3 1 4 2
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 3 4 1 2
24. Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II (Property/Characteristics) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. High strength Portland cement
B. Super sulphated cement
C. High alumina cement
D. Rapid hardening Portland cement
List-II
1. Should not be used with any admixture
2. Is extremely resistant to chemical attack'
3. Gives a higher rate of heat development during hydration of cement
4. Has a higher content of tricalcium silicate
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
25. Four main oxides present in ordinary Portland cement are : CaO, A12O3, SiO2 and Fe2O3.
Identify the correct ascending order of their proportions in a typical composition of OPC.
(1) A12O3, Fe2O3, CaO, SiO2 (2) A12O3, CaO, Fe2O3 SiO2
(3) Fe2O3, A12O3, SiO2, CaO (4) Fe2O3, SiO2, A12O3, CaO
26. The proper size of mould for testing compressive strength of cement is
(1) 7.05 cm cube (2) 10.05 cm cube

(3) 15 cm cube (4) 12.05 cm cube
27. The specific gravity of commonly available ordinary Portland cement is
(1) 4.92 (2) 3.15 (3) 2.05 (4) 1.83
28. A quick-setting cement has an initial setting time of about
(1) 50 minutes (2) 40 minutes (3) 15 minutes (4) 5 minutes
29. Match List-I (Type of cement) with List-II (Property) and select the correct answer using
List – I List -II
A. Blast furnace slag cement 1. High percentage of tricalcium silicate
B. High alumina cement 2. Initial setting time is approximately three and a
half hours.
C. Low heat cement 3. Low percentage of iron oxide
D. White cement 4. Rate of hardening is low
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 2
(2) 1 3 4 2
(3) 1 2 3 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
30. Match List – I (Type of cement) with List –II (Characteristic) and select the correct
List-I List -II
A. Rapidly hardening cement 1. Lower C3A content than that in OPC
B. Low heat Portland cement 2. Contains pulverized fly ash
C. Portland pozzlana cement 3. Higher C3S content than that in OPC
D. Sulphate resisting cement 4. Lower C3S and C3A contents than that in
OPC
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 3 2 4 1

31. As per specifications, the initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be
less than
(1) 10 minutes (2) 20 minutes (3) 30 minutes (4) 60 minutes
32. In cements, generally the increase strength during a period of 14 days to days is primarily
due to
(1) C3A (2) C2S (3) C3S (4) C4AF
33. Consider the following types of cements:
1. Portland pulverized fuel ash cement
2. High alumina cenment
3. Ordinary Portland cement
4. Rapid hardening cement
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above cements in terms of
their increasing rate of strength gain?
(1) 2 – 3 – 4 - 1 (2) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
(3) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 (4) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
34. Ultimate strength of cement is influenced by which one of the following?
(1) Tricalcium silicate (2) Dicalcium silicate
(3) Tricalcium aluminate (4) Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite
35. Why is lime added to cement slurry for the topcoat of plastering?
(1) To improve the strength of plaster
(2) To stiffen the plaster
(3) To smoothen the plaster for ease of spread
(4) To make the plaster non-shrinkable
36. Cement is homogeneous and well proportioned mixture of lime stone and ________.
(1) Calcium (2) Clay (3) Soil (4) Silicate
37. In construction, following of which material is used as bending material _________.
(1) Cement (2) Sand (3) Brick (4) Steel
38. Cement is the __________ product obtained by burining and crushing of lime stone and
clay.
(1) Hard (2) Strong (3) Artificial (4) Natural
39. Surface area of cement in cm² per gram is known as _____________.
(1) Fineness (2) Fitness (3) Setting (4) Soundness

40. For ordinary Portland cement, 7 days compressive strength should be greater than
________.
(1) 12 N/mm² (2) 32 N/mm² (3) 42 N/mm² (4) 22 N/mm²
lists:
List-I
A. Absorption and surface moisture in aggregates
B. Deleterious material
C. Grading of aggregate
D. Chemical stability
List-II
1. Interferes with hydration of cement
2. Improves workability of mix
3. Ensures durability of all structures
4. Affects the mix proportions
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 2 4
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 4 1 2 3
1. Setting and hardening of cement takes, place after the addition of water.
2. Water causes hydration and hydrolysis of the constituent compounds of cement
which act as binders.
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Match List-I (Composition of raw material used in manufacture of cement) with List-II
(Component of raw material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-I List -II
A. 25% 1. Silica
B. 65% 2. Calcium oxide

C. 5% 3. Aluminium oxide
D. 5% 4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 4 2 3 1
44. Match List-I (Compound) with List-II (Proportion) and select the correct answer using
List – I List – II
A. Tricalcium silicate 1. 25 to 30 %
B. Dicalcium silicate 2. 50 to 60 %
C. Tricalcium aluminate 3. 6 to 8 %
D. Tetra calcium alumina ferrite 4. 8 to 12%
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
45. Consider the following statements.
1. Rise temperature does not cause any change in the colour of cement concrete.
2. Curing minimizes the shrinkage of cement concrete when it sets.\
Which of these statement is / are correct?
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 not 2
46. Due to presence of lime and magnesum oxide, expansion of cement takes place and it
comes in contact with water. This property of cement is known as ________.
(1) Strength (2) Fineness (3) Soundness (4) Setting
47. Expansion of cement measured by Le Chatlier‘s apparatus should not be more than
_______.
(1) 5 mm (2) 10 mm (3) 55 mm (4) 100 mm
48. Initial setting time of cement should not be less than ________.

(1) 30 min (2) 30 sec (3) 300 sec (4) 10 min
49. Final setting time of cement is about _______.
(1)14 to 16 hrs (2) 1 to 2 days (3) 4 to 7 days (4) 3 to 6 hrs
50. The phenomenon by which the plastic cement paste changes into hard mass is known as
_________.
(1) Compressive strength (2) Soundness
(3) Setting time (4) Fineness
51. Consider the following statements.\
Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S in cement will result in
1. higher ultimate strength with less heat generation
2. rapid-hardening
3. better resistance to chemical attack
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 3 (4) 1,2 and 3
52. When cement is thrown into a bucket of water it should __________ for sometime.
(1) Sink (2) Hard (3) Smooth (4) Float
53. If one‘s hand is plunged into a bag of cement he should feel ________.
(1) Warm (2) Hot (3) Cool (4) Sticky
54. The cement may be trusted, if the cement is found in the form of ________ powder.
(1) Impervious (2) Impalpable (3) Immersed (4) Ingredient
55. One of the use of cement is __________.
(1) Construction of earthen dam (2) Reinforcement in R.C.C
(3) Manufacturing of bricks (4) Manufacturing of tiles
56. The materials required for the construction of structures are known as ________.
(1) Building materials (2) Construction materials
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
57. The raw metarial required for the manufacture of Portland cement are ______.
(1) Calcareous materials (2) Argillaceous materials
58. The argillaceous material required for the manufacture of Portland cement are ________.
(1) Shale or clay (2) Limestone or chalk
(3) Sandstone or granite (4) None of these
59. The calcareous material required for the manufacture of Portland cement are ________.

(1) Shale or clay (2) Limestone or chalk
(3) Sandstone or granite (4) None of these
60. The burning of the raw material for the manufacture of cement in a kiln takes place at a
temperature of about __________.
(1) 1100 to 1500°C (2) 1200 to 1500°C
(3) 1300 to 1500°C (4) None of these
61. The addition of Gypsum in the manufacturing of Portland cement is _______.
(1) 1 to 3 % (2) 2 to 3% (3) 2 to 4% (4) 2 to 5%
62. Match the following for the oxide and the % of the content.
List I (Oxide) List II (%Content)
A. CaO 1. 17-25
B. SIO2 2. 60-67
C. Al2O3 3. 0.5-0.6
D. Fe2O3 4. 3-8
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 4 3 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
63. The % of oxide content for MgO is ________.
(1) 0.1-0.4 (2) 0.1-0.3 (3) 0.1-0.2 (4) 0.1-0.5
64. Match the following for the compound and the formula.
List (Compound) List II (Formula)
A. Tricalcium silicate 1. 2CaO . SiO2
B. Dicalcium silicate 2. 3CaO . SiO2
C. Tricalcium aluminate 3. 4 CaO . Al2O3 . Fe2O3
D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite 4. 3CaO . Al2O3
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 4 3 2
65. Match the following for the compound and the abbreviated formula :
List I (Compound) List II (Formula)
A. Tricalcium silicate 1. C2S
B. Dicalcium silicate 2. C3S
C. Tricalcium aluminate 3. C4AF
D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite 4. C3A
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 1 2
66. Match the following cement with the use of cement in various civil engineering works.
List I (Type of Cement) List II (Use of Cement)
A. Ordinary Portland Cement 1. Construction of highway slabs
B. Rapid Hardening Portland Cement 2. Culverts and canal lining
C. Low heat cement 3. Suitable for all construction work
D. Sulphate resisting cement 4. Construction of dam, bridges etc.
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 3 1 4 2
67. Match the following :
List I (Type of Cement) List II (Use of Cement)
A. Blast furnace slag cement 1. Interior decoration and architectural finish
B. White coloured cement 2. Used for sealing oil wells
C. High alumina cement 3. Marine structures
D. Oil well cement 4. Suitable for manufacture of R.C.C. pipes
Codes :
A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 4 3 1 2
68. The reaction of cement with water is _________.
(1) Exothermic (2) Endothermic (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
69. The colour of the cement used for the construction should be _________.
(1) Greenish gray (2) Greenish yellow (3) Greenish blue (4) Greenish pink
70. One of the use of cement is ________.
(1) Used as a base in paints (2) Manufacturing of plywood
(3) Used in Manglore (4) None of these

Bricks
Brick is a rectangular building unit obtained by moulding a mixture of clay and sand and
burnt at high temperature. Brick is a simplest and most ancient fired clay building material
widely used because of its load bearing, decorative, durability, lightweight, thermal
insulation, easy availability and low cost properties. Well fired brick will last almost
indefinitely.
Clay bricks can be divided as
1) Unburnt or Sun dried bricks or Kutcha bricks
2) Burnt bricks
The principle on which bricks are manufactured is that the clay soil containing 20 to 60% of
clay undergoes irreversible reaction when fired at 850 to 1000 degree centigrade in which the
particles are bonded together by a glassy ceramic material.
Composition of brick Earth:

Raw material is clay 20 to 30% by weight, silt 22 to 35% and sand 35 to 50%.
Chemical composition of brick:

Contains silica, alumina, lime, oxides of iron and magnesium the function of various
components are
a) Silica: Presence of silica prevents shrinkage, cracking or warping of brick. Silica also
gives hardness and durability to brick. However its excess amount reduces Cohesion and may
make brick brittle.
b) Alumina or clay: It can be moulded to any shape when wet and on drying becomes hard
and on burning causes fusion of constituents.
c) Lime: Lime reduces shrinkage on drying and acts as a flex during burning process to fuse
silica with other particles.
d) Oxides of iron: Acts as a flex and provides strength and hardness to brick. It also gives
red or dark brown colour to brick.
e) Magnesia: Magnesia reduces shrinkage and combines with oxides of iron to make brick
yellow in colour.

Manufacturing of Bricks
Consists of six general phases
1) Mining and storage of raw materials
2) Crushing, grinding, screening and mixing of raw materials
3) Making the brick
4) Setting and drying
5) Firing and cooling
6) Storing and packaging
Properties of Bricks (IS 1077-1976)
1. Size and shape of brick: Standard size of common building break is 19 cm * 9 cm * 9

cm. Effective size of brick is 20 cm * 10 cm * 10 cm (that is including mortar).
Size of thinner brick is 19 cm * 9 cm * 4 cm (effective size is 20 cm * 10 cm * 5 cm).
Note 1: Permissible variation in dimensions are ± 3% for class I brick and ± 8% for class II
and III bricks.
Note 2: Frog on the brick is provided for better bonding which is of 10 mm.
2. Water absorption: It is equal to the mass of water absorbed by dry mass of brick in
percentage. There are two types of water absorption test
a) 24 hour cold water absorption test: First bricks are dried in oven for 48 hours at 110±5
degree centigrade till they attain constant mass, then after weighing they immersed in water
at room temperature for 24 hours. Then surface dry weight of brick is taken.
For Class I brick water absorption should not be more than 20% (for class II 22% & for class
III 25%).
b) 5 hour boiling water absorption: Water absorption is equal to the mass of water absorbed
by brick after boiling for 5 hours by dry mass in percentage.
3) Efflorescence: Brick if contain salt such as sulphates of sodium and potassium may get
dissolved with water and when water evaporates the salt crystallizes on the surface called as
efflorescence. Brick is immersed in water and observed after two cycles of immersion &
evaporation.
Nil - no perceptible deposit of salt on surface of brick
Slight - Not more than 10% of surface of brick covered with salt

Moderate - up to 50% of brick surface covered with salt
Heavy - more than 50% of brick surface covered with salt
As per IS 3495-1976 efflorescence should not be more than moderate or Light for higher
classes.
4) Compressive strength: It is used to determine durability and ability of brick to resist

crushing load. Compressive strength for class I brick is 7.5 MPa, class II brick 5 MPa, class
III brick 3.5 MPa. Common building brick should have minimum strength of 35 Kg/cm2.
5) Hardness of brick: Brick should be sufficiently hard so that finger nail does not leave any
impression on scratching the brick surface
Class strength maximum water efflorescence Uses

Mpa absorption
10 10 12 to 15 Nil
I 7.5 20 Slight permanent works, load bearing

walls, walkways, floor
II 5 22 Slight plastered works
III 3.5 25 Moderate unimportant structures
Objectives
1. A good brick should not absorb water by weight more than
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%
2. The shape of first class bricks are ________.
(1) Sharp straight edges and plain rectangular faces
(2) Sharp straight edges adn rough rectangular faces
(3) Blunt straight edges and plain rectangular faces
(4) Distorted round edges and plain rectangular faces
(1) About 25% of alumina in brick earth imparts the plasticity necessary for moulding
bricks into required shape.
(2) Iron pyrite present in brick earth preserves the form of the bricks at high
temperatures.

(3) Presence of weeds in brick earth makes the bricks unsound.
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3
4. The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to
(1) emboss manufacturer‘s name
(2) reduce the weight of brick
(3) form keyed joint between brick and mortar
(4) improve insulation by providing ‗hollows‘
5. Bricks are burnt at a temperature range of
(1) 500° to 700°C (2) 700° to 900°C
(3) 900° to 1200°C (4) 1200° to 1500GC
6. Which one of the following procedure is applied to determine the soundness of bricks?
(1) Immersing the brick under water for 16 hours and determining the quantity of
water absorbed by the brick.
(2) Immersing the brick under water for 24 hours and determining its expansion using
Le Chatelier apparatus.
(3) Taking two bricks, hitting one against the other and observing whether they
break or not and the type of sound produced while hitting.
(4) Scratching the brick by finger nail and noting whether any impression is made or
not.
7. The minimum compressive strength of first class bricks should be ,
(1) 5 N/mm2 (2) 7.5 N/mm2 (3) 9 N/mm2 (4) 10 N/mm2
8. Match List-1 (Test) with List-II (Procedure) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List – I List-II
A. Absorption 1. A brick is to be broken for the test
B. Hardness 2. Two bricks are taken and they can be struck with each other
without breaking
C. Soundness 3. A scratch is easily made on brick surface with the help of a
finger nail
D. Structure 4. Difference in weight between the brick immersed in water
for 16 hours and its dry weight
Codes:

A B C D
(1) 1 3 2 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 4 2 3 1
(4) 1 2 3 4
9. Refractory bricks resist
(1) High temperature (2) chemical action
(3) dampness (4) all of the above
10. When a first class brick is immersed in cold water for 24 hours, it should not absorb water
by weight more than
(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%
11. Which one of the following is the nominal size of standard modular brick?
(1) 25 cm × 13cm × 8 cm (2) 25 cm ×10 cm × 8 cm
(3) 20 cm ×10 cm × 10 cm (4) 20 cm × 15 cm × 10cm
12. Absorption of water by weight in case of first class brick is __________.
(1) Less than 30% (2) Less than 25%
13. Absorption of water by weight in case of second class brick is ________.
14. Absorption of water by weight in case of third class brick is ________.
15. Compressive strength of first class brick shoul be ________.
(1) Greater than 10.5 N/mm² (2) Greater than 7 N/mm²
(3) Greater than 5 N/mm² (4) Greater than 3.5 N/mm²
16. Compressive strength of second class should be ________.
1. Soil containing more than 30% of calcium hydroxide is used for manufacture of
sand lime brick.
2. Carbon brick is made from crushed coke bonded with tar.

(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2
18. The average compressive strength of a burnt clay brick is less than 12.5 N/mm2. The
allowable rating of efflorescence is
(1) moderate (2) serious (3) heavy (4) zero
1. Bricks lose their strength by 25% when soaked in water
2. Minimum crushing strength of brick in buildings should be 35 kg/cm2
3. The size of modular type bricks is 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm including mortar
thickness.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 1 and 3 only (4) 2 and 3 only
20. Compressive strength of third class brick should be _________.
21. Colour of which class of brick is uniform red _________.
(1) First class (2) Second class (3) Clay (4) Zhama
22. The size of modular brick as per Indian standards is ________.
(1) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm (2) 19 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
(3) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm (4) 20 cm × 9 cm × 9cm
23. For construction of building and architectural composition following of which building
material is economically used ________.
(1) Prestressed Concrete (2) Brick
(3) Steel (4) R.C.C
24. Which bricks are used as road metal and as aaggregate in road construction ?
(1) First class (2) Firebricks (3) Zhama (4) Clay
25. The class of bricks used in construction of load bearing wall is ________.
(1) Clay and Zhama (2) 1st class and 2nd class
(3) Fire bricks (4) Prestressed bricks
26. The class of bricks used in construction of steel furnaces, cement kiln, acid plants is
________.
(1) Clay and Zhama (2) 1st class and 2nd class
(3) Fire bricks (4) Prestress bricks

27. The total content of clay and silt may preferably be not less than ________ by weight.
(1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 50%
28. Match the following for the constituents of the brick and their functions.
List I (Constituents of Brick) List II (Functions)
A. Silica or snad 1. Imparts ared colour to brick
B. Clay or alumina 2. Brick earth plastic and makes brick hard
C. Oxides of iron 3. Changes the brick to yellow colour
D. Magnesia 4. Prevents shrinkage in brick earth, cracking
and wrapping of bricks
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 2 1 3
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 4 3 2 1
29. The process of manufacturing of brick is as follows. Write them in a sequential form.
1. Moulding of bricks 2. Drying of bricks 3. Selection of site 4. Burning of
bricks 5. Preparation of clay
Codes:
(1) 5 4 3 2 1
(2) 3 5 1 2 4
(3) 1 2 3 4 5
(4) 5 3 4 2 1
30. For the proper locking of one layer to another layer the depth of frog is taken as
______deep.
(1) 30 mm (2) 20 mm (3) 10 mm (4) 40 mm
31. The common size of a traditional brick is ________.
(1) 23 × 11.4 × 7 cm (2) 23 × 12 × 8 cm (3) 23 × 13 ×7 cm (4) All of these
34. Actual size of brick is ________.
(1) 20 x 10 x 10 cm (2) 19 x 9 x 9 cm (3) 23 x 15 x 11 cm (4) None of these
35. Which tests are carried out on bricks to test its Quality ?
(1) Compressive strength, (2) Water absorption
(3) Soundness (4) All of these

36. The reason for the popularity of bricks as construction material is that ________.
(1) They are cheap and available locally at all places
(2) They are durable and possess fairly good strength and«lighter than stones
(3) They have good insulating properties against heat and sound
(4) All of the above

Stones:
Stone is the most ancient building material used in India as well as world. Example: forts,
temples, etc.
Stones are of different variety so selection of stone is very important. For selection of stone
strength durability appearance and cost are important.
Classification of rocks
Rocks can be classified into following groups based on various criteria.
Geological classification based on their geological mode of formation natural rocks can be
classified as
1. Igneous rocks: formed by direct cooling of molten lava or magma. Do not contain fossils
or shells. These are solid, massive, crystalline, without stratification. Example Basalt, trap
granite, diorite & syenite.
2. Sedimentary rocks or stratified rocks: are formed due to disintegration and deposition of
original igneous rock through water, wind, ice, etc or by accumulation of organic matter.
After deposition consolidation of layers takes place under pressure by heat or due to
cementious action by chemical agents. Example: laterite, sandstone, limestone, shale.
3. Metamorphic rocks: Parent rock is igneous or sedimentary rock which undergoes

metamorphism under temperature and pressure and changes its shape, structure,
mineralogical composition.
Example: marble - limestone and Marl

Gneiss – laterite and granite
Slate - mud stone
schist - balast and trap
Quartzite - sandstone
Physical classification or petrological classification:

Building stones are classified based on physical characteristics as
1. Stratified rocks: This is a layered structure in the natural environment. These are derived
from sedimentary rocks. Example: sandstone, limestone, slate, etc.

2. Unstratified rocks: Rocks which do not have strata and cannot be split into thin slabs falls
under unstratified rock category. Example: marble, granite, trap, etc.
3. Fragmented rocks
Chemical classification
Classification is done based on chemical composition as
1. Siliceous rocks: These are having silica as their main constituent. Example: granite,
gneiss, trap.
2. Argillaceous rocks: clay or Alumina is the main content. Though these rocks are compact,
dense and hard, these are also brittle which can't with stand shocks. Example: slate laterite,
etc.
3. Calcareous rocks: Calcium carbonate is the main constituent. Durability depends upon
atmospheric conditions since these rocks can be acted upon by hydrochloric acid. Example:
Marble, limestone.
Note: Seasoning of stone: The process of removing interstitial moisture by evaporation is

called seasoning of stone.
Recommended test for stone
Crushing strength
granite 70 to 140 mpa

Hard limestone 55 to 90 mpa
Sandstone 30 to 110 mpa
marble 60 to 140 mpa
slate 60 to 180 mpa
generally for good stone crushing strength should be 60 to 85 mpa.
Specific gravity of stone is from 2.5 to 2.8.
Applications or uses of stones

1. For course masonary, window sills, lintel steps and paving.
2. For foundations, floors, roofing.

3. Impermeable stone like granite can be used as a damp proof course.
4. Masonry walls.
5. As a aggregate for bituminous construction.
6. In cement production limestone
Objectives
1. Igneous rock, Sedimentary rock and Metamorphic rock are classified as ________.
(1) Geological (2) Physical (3) Geographical (4) Chemical
2. Stratified rock, Unstratified rock and Laminated rock are classified as _________.
3. Siliceous rock, argilaceous rock and Calcareous rock are classified as _________.
4. Soft rock, Medium rock and Hard rock are classified as ________.
(1) Geological classification of rock
(2) Physical classification of rock
(3) Classification based on hardness of rock
(4) Chemical classification of rock
5. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of molten lava are known as _______.
(1) Igneous rock (2) Sedimentary rock
(3) Metamorphic roc (4) Stratified rock
6. The rocks that are formed by denudation and deposition of existing rocks because of the
weathering action are known as ________.
(3) Metamorphic rock (4) Stratified rock
7. The rocks that have undergone considerable changes in their constitution, i.e. in their
shape, structure and sometimes even in mineral compostion is known as :
8. One of the example of Igneous rock is _________.
(1) Granite (2) Marble (3) Lime stone (4) Gneiss
9. One of the example of Sedimentary rock is __________.

10. One of the example of Metamorphic rock is ________.
11. Basalt, Granite and Dolerite are some examples of _________.
12. Sand stone, Lime stone and Gravel are some examples of ________.
13. Marble, Gneiss and slate are some example of _________.
14. Rocks which do not have strata and cannot be easily split into thin slabs and their
structure may be crystalline or granular are classified as __________.
(1) Unstratified rocks (2) Laminated rocks
(3) Crystalline rocks (4) Stratified rocks
15. Rocks which show a layered structure in their natural environment and possess planes of
stratification and can be easily split up along these planes are classified as ________.
(1) Unstratified rocks (2) Laminated rocks (3) Crystalline rocks (4) Stratified rocks
16. ________ rocks have silica as their main constituent and they are hard, durable and not
affected by weathering agents.
(1) Siliceous rocks (2) Argillaceous rocks
(3) Calcareous rocks (4) Laminated rocks
17. ________ rocks have clay or alumina as their main constituent and they are hard, dense
and compact and cannot withstand shocks.
18. ________ rocks have calcium as their main constituent and durability of these rocks
depends upon the atmospheric constituents as they are acted upon by hydrochloric acid.
19. ________ is extremely suitable for ornamental and superior type of building work,
monumental structures.

20. _________ is used for rubble masonary, road metal and aggregate for concrete.
(1) Granite (2) Marble (3) Quartzite (4) Gneiss
21. _________ is used for bridge abutment and pier, flooring, kitchen platform, steps etc.
22. Igneous rocks are compact granular in nature and do not show any stratification, are
therefore classified as ________.
(1) Disintegrated rock (2) Unstratified rock
(3) Stratified rock (4) Laminated rock
23. What are the different uses of building stones ?
(1) For construction of masonry walls
(2) For lintels, floorings or tiles
(3) As aggregates in concrete and for road construction
(4) All the above
24. Most commonly used building stone in Maharashtra is ________.
(1) Basalt (2) Sandstone (3) Quartzite (4) Marble
25. Which of the following is the reason for the decrease in the use of stones as building
material?
(1) Steel and RCC are less bulky and more durable
(2) Strength of stones cannot be rationally analysed
(3) Stones are not conveniently available in plains
26. The process of taking out stones of various sizes from natural rocks is known as
________.
(1) Pitching (2) Dressing (3) Seasoning (4) Quarrying
27. The process of giving definite and regular shape with smooth faces is known as
________.
(1) Pitching (2) Dressing (3) Seasoning (4) None of these

Sand
Sand is a granular material of silica which may be rounded or angular. Sands are of two types
Natural sand: natural sand are obtained from pits, river beds, ocean beds, etc. as a product of
physical disintegration of rock.
Artificial sand: Obtained artificially by crushing stones or rocks in stone crushers.
Based on its size sand can be classified as
Fine sand when particle size is less than 4.75 mm & course sand when particle size is more
than 4.75 mm.
Test to be conducted on sand

1. Particle size - lab
2. Silt content
This is the field as well as lab test where Silt content should not be more than 8 or
10%. Silt content should be checked daily.
3. Bulking of sand
It is the field test. Moist sand occupies more volume than dry sand due to thin film of
water which forms around its particles, this increase in volume due to moisture is
called bulking of sand. Smaller the grain size more will be the bulking. Moisture
content from 5 to 8% can cause bulking up to 20 to 35%. Bulking of sand will affect
the concrete mix design in case of volume batching.
4. Percentage of deterious material - lab test
Objectives
1. The sand passing through I.S. sieve of size 4.75 mm is known as ________.
(1) Coarse sand (2) Medium sand (3) Fine sand (4) Soft sand
2. The sand retained on I.S. sieve of size 4.75 mm is known as _________.
3. Sand obtained form pits, river beds, shore, sea bed is classified as ________.
4. Sand obtained from crushing of stone is classified as __________.
5. Depending upon fineness, the sand is classified into ________.
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) Zero

6. Sand prevents excessive _________ of cement paste thereby avoiding cracks during
setting.
(1) Shrinkage (2) Swelling (3) Soundness (4) Softening
7. Sand is used in cement mortar and cement concrete increase _________.
(1) Shrinkage (2) Swelling (3) Soundness (4) Softening
8. One of the uses of sand is ________.
(1) Preparation of mortar (2) Preparation of points
(3) Preparation of cement (4) Preparation of stone
9. The minimum % of voids the sand should have is ________.
(1) 20-30% (2) 30-35% (3) 30-40% (4) 30-50%
10. The size of very fine sand is ________.
(1) 0.06-1 mm (2) 0.06-2 mm (3) 0.06-3mm (4) 0.06-4 mm
11. The size of coarse sand is _________.
(1) 1to 4 (2) 1 to 3 (3) 3 to 4.75 (4) 1 to 5 mm
12. The size of fine sand is ________.
(1) 1 to 4 mm (2) 1 to 3 mm (3) 3 to 4.75 mm (4) 1 to 5 mm
Reinforcing Steel
These are circular bars available in different grades like Fe 250, Fe 415, Fe 500, Fe 550
where Fe denotes ferrous and number represents yield strength.
Cast iron and steel are alloys of carbon and steel. Wrought iron is pure iron with carbon
content between 0.02 to 0.03 %.
Based on carbon content steels are classified as

1. Low carbon steel: carbon content is less than 0.15 %. These are soft and used for wire and
thin steel.
2. Mild steel: carbon content between 0.15 to 0.25%. These are strong, ductile and suitable
for rolling, welding etc.
3. Medium carbon steel: carbon content up-to 0.5% and used for engineering works.
4. High carbon steel: carbon content up-to 1.5%. These are having high wearing resistance
and suitable for casting but not welding.
Note: All ferrous metals are made from pig iron.
Note: Price of 16 mm bar is taken as the basic price.

Classification of steel reinforcement
Common bars available for RCC are
1. Hot rolled bars: These are of four types
a) Hot rolled plain round Steel bars: Produced by hot rolling with smooth surface.
More resistance to corrosion than HYSD bars.
b) Hot rolled mild steel ribbed bars: ribs or ridges are provided on bars which
increases bond strength.
c) High yield strength bars: These are high strength ribbed bars.
d) Thermo mechanically treated bars: almost all bars are now replaced with TMT
bars. Here bars are hot rolled and subjected on line thermomechanical treatment in
three stages viz. quenching, self tempering and atmospheric cooling.
2. Hot rolled cold twisted deformed bars like Tor steel
3. Hard drawn steel wire fabric
Steel for prestressed concrete

High tensile steels having ultimate strength of order 1400 to 1700 MPa are used for
prestressed concrete.
Objectives
1. Intermediate form between cast iron and wrought iron is known as _________.
(1) Ferrous (2) Copper (3) Steel (4) Aluminium
2. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon, containing carbon from _________.
(1) 0.25 to 1.25% (2) 0.55 to 1.5 % (3) 0.75 to 1.75 % (4) 0.85 to 1.95 %
3. Mild steel bars are designated as _______ due to yield strength of 250 N/mm².
(1) Fe 415 (2) Fe 250 (3) Fe 500 (4) Ms 250
4. The steel used as reinforcement in R.C.C is known as ________.
(1) Mild steel (2) High tensile steel (3) Tor steel (4) Hard steel
5. Tor steel bars are available in two grades namely ________.
(1) Fe 250 and Fe 500 (2) Fe 250 and Fe 415
(3) Ts 415 and Ts 500 (4) Fe 415 and Fe 500
6. The percentage of carbon in steel is _________.
(1) 0.25 to 4% (2) 0.25 to 3% (3) 0.25 to 2% (4) 0.25 to 1.25 %
7. The reinforcing steel is available in different grades are ________.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

8. In Fe-500, Fe refers to ferrous metal and the number refers to the specified guaranteed
yield stress in ________.
(1) kN/cm² (2) N/cm² (3) kN/mm² (4) N/mm²
9. The diameter of wires in high tensile strength which are used in prestressed concrete are
_______.
(1) 1.5-8 mm (2) 1.5-9 mm (3) 1.5-10 mm (4) 1.55-11 mm
10. The ultimate stress for high tensile steel wire is ranging from ________.
(1) 1500 - 1600 N/mm² (2) 1500-2350 N/mm²
(3) 1500-400 N/mm² (4) 1500-600 N/mm²
11. Match the following for steel and the use.
List (Steel) List II (Use)
A. Mild steel 1. Reinforcement in RCC work
B. Tor steel 2. I section, channel, angle, flat and round bars
C. High tensile steel 3. Prestressed concrete
Codes:
A B C
(1) 2 1 3
(2) 3 1 2
(3) 1 2 3
(4) None of these
Concrete
The word concrete comes from Latin word concretus which means hardened or hard.
There are four basic types of concrete based on cementing material:
a) mud concrete b) lime concrete c) cement concrete d) polymer or special concrete
Cement concrete: It is obtained by mixing cement, sand, crushed stone and water in definite
proportion.
Classification of concrete based on perspective specification

Concrete is classified by proportion of different ingredients such as cement : sand :
aggregates. This type of concrete mix is called nominal mix. This has limited significance. IS
456 allows nominal mix only upto M20.

Classification based on performance
When concrete mix design is done based on specification such as strength, water-cement
ratio, compaction factor, slump, etc.
In design mix concrete the mix is designed to produce grade of concrete having specified
strength and workability.
Classification based on grade of concrete

28 days strength of concrete cube of size 150 mm is obtained and based on it concrete is
classified as,
Grade M M M M M 20 M M M M M45
5 7.5 10 15 25 30 35 40
Characteristic Strength 5 7.5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45

(N/mm2)
Proportion 1:3:6 1:2:4 1:1.5:3 1:1:2
Classification based on strength

Low strength concrete < 20 N/mm2
Medium strength concrete 20 - 40 N/mm2
High strength concrete > 40 N/mm2
Classification Based on Bulk Density

Light Weight: when bulk density is less than 1800 Kg/m3
Dense Weight: when bulk density is between 1800 - 2500 Kg/m3
Super Heavy Weight: when bulk density is more than 2500 Kg/m3
Classification Based on place of casting

In-situ Concrete: Concrete is placed at site.
Precast Concrete: when concrete units are fabricated in factory.
Making of Concrete
Concrete is a mixture of cement, aggregates & water.
Cement: It gives adhesive & cohesive properties to a concrete & binds various ingredients in
compact form.

Aggregates: It occupies around 70-80% volume of concrete & thus forms the body of
concrete. It contains fine & coarse aggregates.
Water: for hydration of cement.
Concrete can be made in following stages:

1) Batching / Measurements of Materials
For good quality of concrete accurate quality of all ingredient should be used for that
cement, aggregate & water should be measured to an accuracy ± 3% & admixtures 5%.
There are two types of batching
a) Volume batching – For small works.
b) Weigh batching – For important works.
1 bag of cement – 0.035m³
2) Mixing
To obtain homogenous and uniform colour concrete. As per IS 456 approximate mixing
time is 2 min (Generally 20 revolutions in mixer).
3) Transporting
Mixing, transporting, placing and compacting the concrete should not take time more than
initial setting time of cement (30 min).
4) Placing
In mass concreting layer thickness should be 350-450 mm. When concrete is subjected to
lateral thrust bond bars or bond stones are provided to form key between different layers.
5) Compaction
To achieve highest possible density & thus strength. 5% voids reduces strength by 30%
& 10 % voids reduces strength by 50%.
6) Curing
It is the process of preventing loss of moisture from the concrete while maintaining
satisfactory temperature regime.
Since, moisture is required for hydration gives strength to cement & it requires time.
Curing must be done at least for 21 days & in no case less than 10 days.
Curing temperature: 5°C to 28°. Steam curing : accelerates the curing
mass of water
Water – cement ratio 
mass of cement
It should be 0.23 for complete hydrating of cement

1
As per Abhram law, Compressive strength α
w/c ratio
w/c > 0.6, can cause more porosity & less than strength.
Strength of concrete
Tensile & bending strength of concrete is 10-15% of it compressive strength & shear is
20% of its compressive strength.
Characteristic strength of concrete is that strength below which not more than 5% of test
results are expected to fall.
Thus, mean strength should be significantly more than characteristic strength.
Compressive strength test

Cement, fine aggregate & coarse aggregate (upto 38mm) are used for test. After
thoroughly mixing, mixture is placed in a mould of size (150mm × 150mm × 150mm) in
layers 50 mm each & being tamped 35 times with tamping rod. After 24 hours of mixing
specimen are placed in water for 28 days. Specimens are then tested in compression
testing machine which applies load at the rate of 14N/mm²/min. Average of three values
is taken as compressive strength of concrete.
Note: IS codes also recommends cube of 100 mm size provided aggregate size is less than
19mm.
Flexural tensile strength

To determine tensile load at which concrete may crack. Mould size 150 × 150 × 700 mm.
Load is applied at the rate of 0.7N/mm²/min.
Factors affecting strength of concrete

1. Size of cube: If cube size is less than 150mm compressive strength tends to increase.
2. Moisture condition of cube: Strength of dry sample = (1.1 to 1.2) × strength of saturated
sample.
3. Air voids: With increase in air voids strength of concrete decreases.
4. Rate of loading: Strength of concrete increases with increases in rate of loading.
5. Age of cement: Strength is inversely proportional to age of cement.
Note: modulus of elasticity of concrete as per IS 456 Ec  5700 fck
Workability of concrete
It is the ease with which concrete can be compacted with regard to mode of compaction &
place of compaction.
Measurement of workability
1) Slump test: Measures both consistency & workability of concrete.
2) Compacting factor test: More accurate than slump test
wt. of partially compacted
Compacting factor 
wt. of fully compacted concrete
3) Vee-bee consist meter test: Consistency is given in vee-bee degree in secedes.
Mix design
fcm  fck  1.65 σ
fcm = target mean strength
fck = characteristic strength
σ  std deviation of the receded values.
Objectives
1. The split tensile strength of M 15 grade concrete when expressed as percentage of its
compressive strength is
(1) 10 to 15% (2) 15 to 20% (3) 20 to 25% (4) 25 to 30%

2. The most important artifical building material commonly used in the construction is
______.
(1) Cement concrete (2) Stone (3) Granite (4) All of these
3. The grade of concrete is M-40 i.e. M stands for concrete mix and 40 stands for the
compressive strength of a 15 cm cube in _______.
(1) kN/km² (2) kN/m² (3) kN/mm² (4) N/mm²
4. Match the following for the grade of concrete and the proportion of mix.
List I (Grade of concrete) List II (Proportion mix)
A. M10 1. 1 : 2 : 4
B. M15 2. 1 : 1 : 2
C. M20 3. 1 : 3 : 6
D. M25 4. 1 : : 3
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
5. Match the following for the grade of concrete and compressive strength N/mm².
List I (Grade of concrete) List II (Compressive strength)
A. M10 1. 20
B. M15 2. 15
C. M20 3. 25
D. M25 4. 10
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 4 2 1 3
(4) 4 1 3 2
6. The approximate ratio between the strengths of cement concrete at 7 days and at 28 days is
(1) ¾ (2) 2/3 (3) ½ (4) 1/3
7. Modulus of elasticity of M 25 concrete as determined by formula of IS:456 is
(1) 1,24, 500 MPa (2) 90,125 MPa
(3) 28,500 MPa (4) 16,667 MPa
8. Tensile strength of concrete is measured by
(1) direct tension test in the universal testing machine
(2) applying compressive load along the diameter of the cylinder
(3) applying third point loading on a prism

(4) applying tensile load along the diameter of the cylinder
9. The approximate ratio of strength of 15 cm × 30 cm concrete cylinder to that of 15 cm
cube of the same concrete is
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.00 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.50
10. General shrinkage in cement concrete is caused by
(1) carbonation
(2) stressed due to external load
(3) drying with starting with a stiff consistency
(4) drying with starting with a wetter consistency
11. While concreting in cold weather whore frosting is also likely, one uses
(1) high quality Portland cement with minimum additives
(2) high alumina cement with calcium chloride' additives
(3) Portland cement together with calcium chloride additives
(4) a mixture of high alumina cement and Portland cement

12. Weight-batching proceeds on
(1) the assumption of the declared weight in each bag of cement
(2) weighing the contents of each bag
(3) accurately estimating the weight of each material to be used in each batch
(4) the assumption of correct dry weight of each size range of each material and
the weight of water
13. The modulus of elasticity (E) of concrete is given by
(1) 𝐸 = 1000𝑓𝑐𝑘 (2) 𝑬 = 𝟓𝟕𝟎𝟎 𝒇𝒄𝒌
(3) 𝐸 = 5500 𝑓𝑐𝑘 (4) 𝐸 = 10,000 𝑓𝑐𝑘

14. The optimum number of revolutions over which concrete is required to be mixed in a
mixer machine is
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 50 (4) 100
15. Match the following for the grade of concrete and the specific use.
List I (Grade of concrete) List II (Compressive strength)
A. M10 1. Water tank, bridge construction and
sewers, under water construction
B. M15 2. Mass concrete structures
C. M20 3. Heavily loaded structures
D. M25 4. For general RCC work
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 2 4 1 3
16. The construction of radiation shielding the grade of concrete used is ________.
(1) M25 (2) M30 (3) M35 (4) M40
17. The grades of concrete specified by Indian Standard are ______.
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
18. The mixture of cement, sand and coarse aggregates with an adequate quantity of water
with reinforcing steel is called as ________.
(1) Plain cement concrete (2) Reinforced cement concrete
(3) Precast concrete (4) Pre - stress concrete

Higher water-cement ratio in concrete result in
1. Stronger mix
2. Better workable mix
3. A weak mix
4. Less bleeding
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 4
20. A splitting tensile test is performed on cylinder of diameter D and length L. If the
ultimate load is P, then splitting tensile strength of concrete is given by
𝑃 𝟐𝑷 4𝑃𝐿 4𝑃𝐿
(1) (2) (3) (4)
𝜋𝐷𝐿 𝝅𝑫𝑳 𝜋𝐷 3 𝜋𝐿 3
21. Match List –I (Admixtures) with List –II (chemicals) and select the correct answer using
A. Water-reducing admixture 1. Sulphonated melanin formaldehyde
B. Air-entraining agent 2. Calcium chloride
C. Superplasticiser 3. Lignosulphonate
D. Accelerator 4. Neutralised vinsol resin
Codes:
A B C D
A. 2 4 1 3
B. 1 3 4 2
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 3 4 2 1
21. The mixture of cement, sand and coarse aggregates with an adequate quantity of water
with reinforcing steel is called as _________.
(3) precast concrete (4) Pre-stress concrete
22. The individual concrete units of various types which are cast in separate form before
they are placed in a structure is known as________.
(3) Precast concrete (4) Pre-stress concrete
23. Plain cement concrete is very strong in ________.

(1) Compression (2) Tension (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
24. Plain cement concrete is very weak in________.
(1) Compression (2) Tension (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
25. Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in ________.
(1) Compression (2) tension (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
26. The capacity of a ―28S type‖ concrete mixer is 0.8m3. For mixing one cubic meter of
concrete, the quantity of cement required is 5.5 bags. In order to avoid fractional usage of
cement bags, the volume of concrete (in m3) to be mixed bper batch will be
(1) 0.79 (2) 0.55 (3) 0.73 (4) 0.44
26. Batching refers to
(1) controlling the total quantity at each batch
(2) weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
(3) controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
(4) adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of
the materials being mixed in the batch.
27. Consider the following strengths of concrete:
1. Cube strength
2. Cylinder strength
3. Split-tensile strength
4. Modulus of rupture
The correct sequence in increasing order of these strengths is
(1) 3, 4, 2, 1 (2) 3, 4, 1, 2 (3) 4, 3, 2, 1 (4) 4, 3, 1, 2
28. Consider the following statements :
The effect of an air entrainment in concrete is to
1. increase resistance to freezing and thawing
2. improve workability
3. decrease strength
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 1 alone (4) 1,2 and 3
29. As per IS Code of Practice, concrete should be cured at
(1) 5°C (2) 10oC (3) 27°C (4) 40°C
30. The correct sequence of workability test(s)/ methods(s) in the order of their application
from low to high workability is

(1) slump test, compacting factor test and vee-bee consistometer
(2) compacting factor test, vee-bee consistometer and slump test.
(3) vee-bee consistometer, slump test and compacting factor test.
(4) vee-bee consistometer, compacting factor test and slump test.
31. While testing the compressive strength of cement concrete, the correct standard
conditions (vis., temperature, age, humidity and size of the specimen) to be maintained as per
I.S. are
(1) 27 + 3°C, 28 days, 90% and 15 cm3 (2) 26 + 2°C, 21 days, 80% and 15 cm3
(3) 25 + 1°C, 14 days, 75% and 15 cm3 (4) 27 +.3°C, 7 days, 70% and 10 cm3
32. Which one of the following types of concrete is most suitable in extreme cold climates?
(1) Air-entrained concrete (2) Ready mix concrete
(3) Vacuum concrete (4) Coarse concrete
33. Match List-I (Workability test) with List-II (Measurements) and select the correct
A. Slump test 1. 300 – 500
B. Compacting factor 2. 75 – 125 mm
C. Vee-bee test 3. 0.80 to 0.98
D. Flow test 4. 0 to 10 sec
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 1 3 4 2
(3) 1 4 3 2
(4) 2 3 4 1
34. Consider the following statements :
Curing of concrete by steam under pressure
1. increases the compressive strength of concrete
2. reduces the shear strength of concrete
3. increases the speed of chemical reaction.
Which of these statement is/are correct?
(1) 1,2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 3 alone

Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is
1. used to measure the strength of wet concrete
2. used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements
3. a non-destructive test
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 2 (4) 1 and 3
36. The length of time for which a concrete mixture will remain plastic is usually more
dependent on
(1) the setting time of cement than on the amount of mixing water and atmospheric
temperature
(2) the atmospheric temperature than on the amount of mixing water and the setting
time of cement
(3) the setting time of cement and the amount of mixing water than on atmospheric
temperature than on the setting time of cement
(4) the amount of mixing water used and atmospheric temperature than on the
setting time of cement
37. Match List-I (Admixture) with List-II (Action in concrete) and select the correct answer
List-I List - II
A. Calcium lignosulphonate 1. Anti - bleeder
B. Aluminum powders 2. Retarder
C. Tartaric Acid 3. Air entrainer
D. Aluminum sulphate 4. Water reducer
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 2 3 1
38. Bleeding of concrete leads to winch of I he following?
1. Drying up of concrete surface
2. Formation of pores inside
3. Segregation of aggregate

4. Decrease in strength
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(1) 1 only (2) 1 and 2 (3) 1 and 3 (4) 2 and 4
39. Match List-1 (Material characteristics) with List-II (Property of concrete) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List - II
A. Water cement ratio 1. Durability
B. Water content 2. Compressive strength
C. Minimum cement content 3. Stability of mix
D. Segregation 4. Workability
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 2 4 3 1
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 2 4 1 3
40. Stress-strain curve of concrete is
(1) a perfect straight line up to failure
(2) straight line up to 0.002% strain value and then parabolic up to failure
(3) parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure
(4) hyperbolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure
41. Match List-I (Material used in individual batching of concrete) with List-II (Tolerance
when batch weight exceeds 30% of scale capacity) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List – I List-II
A. Cement 1. ± 0.3% of scale capacity
B. Water 2. + 1% of scale capacity
C. Aggregates 3. ± 2% of scale capacity
D. Admixtures 4. ± 3% of scale capacity
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 2 4 3

(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 3 2 1
1. The crushing strength of concrete is fully governed by water-cement ratio.
2. Vibration has no effect on strength concrete at high water-cement ratios.
3. Workability of concrete is affected by improper grading of aggregates.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 only (3) 2 only (4) 3 only
43. For different concrete specimens, each hydrated to the same degree, the permeability is
(1) Higher with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content
(2) Lower with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content
(3) Lower with higher water cement ratio and lower cement content
(4) Lower with higher water cement ratio and higher cement content

44. The use of super-plasticizers as admixture
(1) increases compressive strength of concrete
(2) permits lower water cement ratio, thereby strength is increased
(3) reduces the setting time of concrete
(4) permits lower cement content, thereby strength is increased
For increasing the workability of concrete, it is necessary to
1. increase the quantity of cement
2. decrease the quantity of sand
3. alter the proportion of fine and coarse aggregates
4. decrease the quantity of water
5. use angular aggregate
(1) 1,2,3,4 and 5 (2) 2, 4 and 5 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1 and 5
46. Slump and compaction factors are two different measures of workability of concrete. For
a slump of 0 to 20 mm, what is the equivalent range of compaction factor?
(1) 0.50 - 0.70 (2) 0.70- 0.80 (3) 0.80 - 0.85 (4) 0.85-0.92
47. The values of slump commonly adopted for the various concrete mixes are given below:
1. Concrete for road works : 20 to 28 mm
2. Ordinary ROC work : 50 to 100 mm
3. Columns retaining walls : 12 to 25 mm
4. Mass concrete: 75 to 175 mm
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(1) 1, 3 and 1 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 3 and 4 (4) 2 and 4
48. Consider the following pairs:
1. Hand compaction of heavily reinforced sections: Low workability (0 =25 mm
slump)
2. Concreting of shallow sections with vibrations : High workability (125 -150 mm
slump)
3. Concreting of lightly reinforced sections like pavements : Low workability (5 – 50
mm slump)
4. Concreting of lightly reinforced section by hand : Medium workability (25-75 mm
slump)

Or heavily reinforced sections with vibration
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 3
49. Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of bulking of sand:
1. It is due to film of water around sand particles.
2. It is due to capillary action.
3. It is more in finer sands.
(1) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
50. On which one of the following factors, does strength of concrete depend primarily?
(1) Quality of coarse aggregate (2) Quality of fine aggregate
(3) Fineness of cement (4) Water-cement ratio
Cement concrete is a/an
1. elastic material
2. visco-elastic material
3. visco-plastic material
(1) 1,2 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 2 only (4) 1 only
52. Why is super plasticizer added to concrete?
1. To reduce the quantity of mixing water.
2. To increase the consistency
3. To reduce the quantity of cement.
4. To increase resistance to freezing and thawing
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) 1,2 and 4 (2) 1,3 and 4 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 4 only
53. ________principle of concrete hammer for non-destructive test based?
(1) Rebound deflections (2) Radioactive waves
(3) Ultrasonic pulse (4) Creep-recovery
54. What is the correct sequence of operations involved in concrete production?
(1) Batch—mixing—handling—transportation
(2) Mixing — batching — handling —transportation
(3) Transportation — handling — mixing— batching

(4) Handling— transportation— mixing — batching
55. What is the approximate ratio of the strength of cement concrete at 7 days to that at 28
days curing?
(1) 0.40 (2) 0.65 (3) 0.90 (4) 1.15
56. Which one of the following properties of cement concrete is ascertained by conducting
compaction factor test?
(1) Bulk density (2) Compressive strength
(3) Modulus of rupture (4) Workability
57. The mix design for pavement concrete is based on the
(1) flexural strength (2) characteristic compressive strength
(3) shear strength (4) bond strength
58. In what context is the slump test performed?
(1) Strength of concrete (2) Workability of concrete
(3) Water-cement ratio (4) Durability of concrete
Curing of concrete is necessary because
1. Concrete needs more water for chemical reaction
2. It is necessary to protect the water initially mixed in concrete from being lost
during evaporation
3. Penetration of surrounding water increases the strength of concrete?
(1) 1,2 and 3 (2) 1 and 3 only (3) 2 only (4) 3 only
60. Which one of the following is employed to determine strength of hardened existing
concrete structure?
(1) Bullet test (2) Kelly ball test
(3) Rebound hammer test (4) Cone penetrometer
61. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the target mean strength ft of
concrete mix?
(1) ft = kfck + σ (2) ft = kfck + kσ
(3) ft = kfck + σ (4) ft = kfck + k
where fck, is characteristic strength, k is probability factor and S is standard deviation
62. Which factors influence the workability of concrete without sacrificing strength?
1. Fine aggregate

2. Quantity of mixing water
3. Maximum size of coarse aggregate
4. Shape of coarse aggregate
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) 1 and 2 (4) 3 and 4
63. Consider the following statements regarding cement concrete:
1. Bleeding indicates deficiency of coarser materials in the mix.
2. Segregation generally indicates poor aggregate grading
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Match the sequence of determination of components of a concrete mix as per Indian
Standard method of mix design and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List –I List – II
A. Cement content 1. First step
B. Aggregate content 2. Second step
C. Water content 3. Third step
D. Water-cement ratio 4. Fourth step
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 4 3
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 3 4 2 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
65. Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?
(1) Compressive strength and flexural strength of concrete
(2) Cement content per cubic meter and compressive strength of concrete
(3) Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
(4) Age and aggregate content per cubic meter of concrete
66. Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of
concrete?
(1) Compression test (2) Ultrasonic pulse velocity test

(3) Split test (4) Tension test
67. Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of
durability in concrete?
(1) Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface
(2) Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface
(3) Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and
the type of cement
(4) Compacting the concrete to a greater degree
68. Consider the following statements about the air entraining admixture in concrete:
1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density
(1) 1,2, 3 and 4 (2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3 only (4) 3 and 4 only
Admixtures are added to concrete to
1. Increase its strength
2. Reduce heat of hydration
3. Delay the setting of cement
4. Reduce water-cement ratio
(1) 1 only (2) 1 and 2 (3) 3 and 3 only (4) 3 and 4
1. Strength of concrete cube is inversely proportional to water-cement ratio.
2. A rich concrete mix gives a higher strength than a lean concrete mix since it has
more cement content.
3. Shrinkage cracks on concrete surface are due to excess water in mix.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 2 only (4) 2 and 3 only

Prestressed concrete
It is the concrete in which internal stresses of suitable magnitude & distribution are
introduced so as to counteract the stresses developed due to external load.
1. Pre tensioning: Here high strength steel wires are pulled between abutments prior to
casting of concrete. Once the concrete achieve desired strength wires are cut loose from
abutments. Prestress is transferred to concrete from wires through bond between them.
2. Post tensioning: Here, ducts for the wires are placed along with reinforcement prior to
casting of concrete. Wires are placed in ducts after the casting of concrete. There is no
contact/bond between wires & concrete. Wires are anchored at one end & at the other end
tension is applied by jack.
Advantages of prestressing
1. Section remains uncracked at service load.
2. Full section of concrete is utilized.
3. Shear resistance increases.
4. Useful for water retaining structures.
5. Use of large spans is permitted.
6. Suitable for dynamic & fatigue loading
7. Suitable for precast construction

Precast concrete
When there is need of large number of units of similar dimensions then it is easy to make
such units in factory called as precast concrete.
Objectives
1. One of the best examples of precast is ________.
(1) Hollow concrete block (2) Sand
(3) Cement (4) None of these
2. The method in which the tendons are first stretched to the desired tension in the form by
hydraulic jack is called as ________.
(1) Pre-tensioning (2) Post-tensioning (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
3. The method in which the tendons are given the required tension after the concrete has
attained the desired strength is called as ________.
(1) Pre-tensioning (2) Post-tensioning (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
4. In prestress concrete, the concrete is subjected to ________. .
(1) Compressive stresses (2) Tensile stresses
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) All of these
5. Match the following for the type of cement concrete and the use of it.
List I (Type of Cement Concrete)
A. Plain cement concrete
B. Reinforced cement concrete
C. Precast concrete
D. Post-tensioning
List II (Use)
1. Electric poles, cover of man hole, drainage pipe etc.
2. Foundation masonary, base for foundation, flooring base.
3. Construction of multistoried building
4. Prestressd concrete girder and used in bridge construction
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 4 4 1 2
6. In post-tensioning, it permits the use of large spans with shallow member greater than
______.
(1) 10m (2) 20 m (3) 30 m (4) 40 m
Introduction to smart materials

Smart materials are also called as active or adaptive materials. Smart materials are the
materials having one or more properties which can be significantly changed in controlled
fashion by externally applied driving forces such as stress, temp, moisture, PH, electric
field.
The devices which are made using smart materials are called smart devices.
Classification of smart materials:
1) Colour changing materials: Consists of photo chromic & thermo chromic materials.
2) Light emitting materials: Shown by electroluminescent, fluorescent & phosphorescent
materials.
3) Moving materials: Consists of conducting polymers, dielectric elastomers,
piezoelectric materials, polymer gels & shape memory alloys.
4) Self-assembling materials:
5) Self-diagnostic materials: optic fibre composite,
6) Temperature changing materials: Thermoelectric materials.
7) Thickness changing fluids: Magneto – Rheological fluids.
Types of smart materials

1) Piezoelectric materials: These are used as sensors in different environments. When
electric current is passed through piezoelectric materials it shows change in dimensions.
Exa : Structures which will bend, expand or contract on application of voltage.
2) Shape memory alloys (SMA) & shape memory polymers (SMP): In these materials
large deformation be induced & recovered by temperature or stress changes.
3) Magnetic shape memory alloys / magnetostrictive materials: These materials changes
shape with change in magnetic field. Used for sensing and actuation.
4) Temperature – responsive polymers: materials undergo changes with change in
temperature.
5) Electro active polymers: Materials can be shaped such that it acts as a natural filter.
6) Halochromic materials: These materials changes colour with acidity. For paints that can
change colour to indicate corrosion in metal underneath them.

7) Smart hydrogels: These are the polymers which can absorb large amount of water &
can swell upto 1000 times of its original volume.
8) Chromogenic systems: These changes colour in response to electrical, optical or thermal
changes. Exa. Light sensitive sunglasses that darken when exposed to bright sunlight.
9) Photomechanical material: Changes shape under exposure to light.
10) Self-heating materials
11) Dielectric elastomers (DEs): These materials produces deformations under electric field.
Applications of smart materials

1) SMA‘s can be used to detect vibration, earthquakes, etc.
2) Smart material tag can be used as a remote sensor to detect stress, moisture cracks, voids,
etc.
3) Retrofitting , 4) Self-healing, 5) Self-repair
6) Structural health monitoring using piezo transducers to detect damage.
7) Smart concrete can be used in smart highway to detect speed & weighing vehicles
travelling normally.
8) To control rail track sleepers.
Objectives
1. The material having one or more properties that can be significantly changed in a
controlled fashion by external stimuli such as stress, temperature, moisture, pH, electric or
magnetic field is called as ________.
(1) Building material (2) Smart material
(3) Ecofriendly material (4) None of these
2. The devices which are made by using smart materials are called as ________.
(1) Piezoelectric material (2) Shape memory alloys
(3) Magnetic shape memory (4) pH sensitive polymers
3. The smart materials which produces a voltage when stress is applied is called as _______.
4. The designed structures made from these ________ can bend, expand, or contract when
voltage is applied.

5. The materials than change their shape in response to a significant change in the magnetic
field is called as ________.
6. The materials which undergo changes depending upon temperature is called as ________.
7. The material which can change their colour as a result of changing acidity is called as
______.
(1) Temperature responsive polymers (2) Halochromic
(3) Chromogenic systems (4) Non-newtonian fluid
8. The material which can change their colour as a result of changing acidity is called as
______.
9. The system in which they change their colour in response to electrical, optical or thermal
changes is called as ________.
10. The liquid which changes its viscosity in response to an applied shear rate is called as
________.
11. The smart concrete i.e. composition of carbon fibers and concrete is capable of sensing
minute structural ________.
(1) Cracks flaws (2) Deflection (3) Vibrations (4) All of these
Recycling of Materials
Recycling means the processing of used materials into new product in order to avoid
wastage of potentially useful materials.
Recycling reduces use of fresh materials, reduces energy usage, reduces water & air
pollution. Reduces the need of conventional waste disposal & low green house gas
emission. Recycling is the third component of ―reduce, reuse & recycle‖ waste hierarchy.

Recycling of material would produce a fresh supply of the same material Exa. Used
office papers.
Objectives of Recycling
1) To conserve natural raw material resources.
2) To make optimal use of all form of energy.
3) To adopt clean technology reduce pollution.
Recycling in construction industry

Objective
1) To conserve waste material i.e. not to dump the once used material.
2) To conserve land which might set wasted due to land fill.
3) To protect the environment by avoiding air, land & water pollution.
Industrial waste materials

1) Fly ash: It is the fine residue obtained from thermal power stations. It is used in
production of PPC. Concrete, bricks road embankment etc. BIS has given
recommendation for use of fly ash.
2) Blast furnace slag: It is obtained from steel industries as a by – product. It is used in slag
cement, light weight concrete, slag aggregate in road construction.
3) Cinder: Cinder is obtained after burning coal in industries. Can be used in mortar, jhama
concrete, highway construction.
Construction waste & demolition waste
Objectives
1. They materials which are used into new products in order to prevent the waste of
potentially useful materials, reduce the consumption of fresh raw material, reduce energy
wage, reduce air and water pollution is called as ________.
(1) Recycling of materials (2) Smart materials
(3) both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
2. The objective of recycling of materials in the construction industry.
(1) To conserve material resources
(2) To conserve valuable land - fill space

(3) To protect the environment by limiting the potential for discharge of ground water
of leached constituents from land fills
(4) All of these
3. ________ is the residue obtained from thermal power stations.
(1) Fly ash (2) Blast furnace slag (3) Cinder (4) All of these
4. ________ is obtained from the steel industries as a by-product.
(1) Fly ash (2) Blast furnace slag
(3) Cinder (4) All of these
5. ________ is obtained from different industries where coal is burnt as a fuel.
(1) Fly ash (2) Blast furnace slag
(3) Cinder (4) All of these
6. Fly ash can be used in the production of __________
(1) Manufacturing of bricks
(2) Production of blended cement
(3) Fly ash concrete
(4) Utilization as nutrient management to increase soil fertility
7. The use of blast furnace slag is in ________.
(1) Fly ash concrete (2) Slag aggregate in road construction
(3) Production of blended cement (4) None of these
8. Cinder is granular material having some porosity and is ________ in weight.
(1) Heavy (2) Light (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
9. The use of cinder is in _______.
(1) Stabilisation of soil mixed with lime for highway construction
(2) Manufacturing of bricks
(3) Slag cement
(4) All of these
10. The part of the building which is below the ground level is known as __________.
(1) Sub-structure (2) Superstructure (3) Plinth (4) None of these

Structure
Structure of any building is divided into two parts namely superstructure and substructure
which are above ground level and below ground level respectively.
Substructure or Foundations
We know that almost all the civil engineering structures including bridges, roads, railway
embankment, dams, etc are supported by earth and those which are not either fly, float or fall
over.
Therefore, the stability of the structure depends on the behavior of supporting ground i.e. soil
which is weaker than any other construction material like, wood concrete, steel or masonry.
So, compared to structural member, a larger area or mass of soil is involved in carrying the
same load.
Foundation the lowest part of structure which generally lies below earths surface and it also
refers to the material whose behavior civil engineer must study so as to provide satisfactory
and economical support to the structure.
If foundation is deficient in design then entire structure may be at risk, so foundation is the
most important consideration while designing a structure.
Function of foundation is to transfer the load to the strata or soil on which it is resting and
against shear failure and without any settlement beyond permissible limits.
Types of foundation
Type of foundation depends upon nature of sub-soil strata and type of super structure.
Broadly foundations are classified as,
1) Shallow foundations & 2) Deep foundations
1) Shallow foundation
 Shallow foundation is an arrangement where structural loads are directly carried by
soil or rock under the structure.
 According to Terzaghi shallow foundations are those whose depth Df does not exceed
width B.
𝑫𝒇
𝒊. 𝒆.
𝑩
≤ 𝟏 𝒐𝒓 𝑫𝒇 ≤ 𝑩

 These are constructed in open excavations and disturbance of soil is minimal.
 In case of shallow foundation rotational bearing failure is possible.
 Shallow foundations are always chosen from economy point of view.
Types of shallow foundations:

1) Strip footing or continuous footing;
Length is much greater than its width ( L >>> B) commonly used below walls.
2) Spread footing
 May by circular or square in section, commonly used below a column (isolated). Or
more than one column (combined)
 Combined footing may be rectangular or trapezoidal in plan.
3) Raft or mat foundation
 If loaded area of two columns or more columns overlaps, raft or mat foundation is
provided.
 It covers the entire area of a structure, transmitting the entire structural load or load
from several columns.
2) Deep Foundations
 Deep foundations are the members which carries load to the firm soil at considerable
depth below G.L.
𝐷𝑓
𝑖𝑓 > 1 𝑜𝑟 𝐷𝑓 > 𝐵 then it is deep foundations
𝐵
1 – 15 => moderately deep
>15 => deep foundations. Exa. Pile foundation
 In case of deep foundations, the load is supported by frictional resistance (skin friction
between member and soil) around the foundation and by bearing at the base of found
action.
For a satisfactory performance, foundation must satisfy following three criterion
1) Location and depth criterion
2) Bearing capacity criterion
3) Settlement criterion.
1) Location and depth criterion
 Generally foundation depth should be such that the supporting soil is adequate in
terms of bearing capacity and settlement criterion.
 However as per IS, minimum depth of foundation should be 50cm,

Terminology:
Total Pressure or Gross Pressure (q)
 For a footing with depth Df below ground surface, the gross pressure (q) at the base of
footing is due to the weight of the superstructure, self weight of the footing and
weight of the soil fill over the footing.
 Also called as gross loading intensity.
 Gross pressure may be less or more than bearing capacity. Net pressure.
Net Pressure (qn)

 The difference between the gross pressure and the overburden pressure due to soil
above footing base is called as net pressure at the base of footing.
𝒒𝒏 = 𝒒 – 𝜸 𝑫𝒇
Df = depth of foundation
Ultimate Bearing Capacity

 The maximum gross pressure which the soil can support before it fails in shear is
called as ultimate bearing capacity.
 It is the minimum gross pressure at the base of foundation at which soil fails in shear.
Net Ultimate Bearing Capacity (qnu)

 The maximum net pressure intensity at the base of foundation that the soil can support
without shear failure. Or The minimum net pressure that causes shear failure of soil.
𝒒𝒏𝒖 = 𝒒𝒖 – 𝜸 𝑫𝒇
Net Safe Bearing Capacity (qns)

 The minimum net intensity of loading that the soil can support safely without the risk
of shear failure is the net safe bearing capacity.
𝒒𝒏𝒖
𝒒𝒏𝒔 = , 𝑭𝑶𝑺 𝒊𝒔 𝒖𝒔𝒖𝒂𝒍𝒍𝒚 𝒕𝒂𝒌𝒆𝒏 𝒂𝒔 𝟑
𝑭
Gross Safe Bearing Capacity (qs)

 Maximum gross pressure that the soil can carry without shear failure
𝒒𝒔 = 𝒒𝒏𝒔 + 𝜸 𝒅𝒇
𝒒𝒏𝒖
𝒒𝒔 = + 𝜸 𝒅𝒇
𝑭
Net Safe Settlement Pressure (qnp)

 It is the maximum net pressure which the soil can carry without exceeding the
permissible value of settlement.
Net allowable bearing pressure (qna)

 It is the maximum net intensity of gross pressure with which soil neither fails in shear
nor undergoes excessive settlement.
 Also called as allowable bearing pressure or allowable bearing capacity.
 It is the minimum of net safe bearing capacity and net safe settlement pressure.
𝒒𝒏𝒂 = 𝒍𝒆𝒂𝒔𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒒𝒏𝒔 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒒𝒏𝒑
Design criterion of foundation or choice of net allowable bearing pressure

 Let, Q is the superimposed load upto GL, consisting of column load including all the
dead load and live loads on the column.
𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒔𝒂𝒇𝒆𝒕𝒚, 𝒒𝒏 ≤ 𝒒𝒏𝒂
𝑖. 𝑒. for safe design qn should be less than or equal to the net allowable bearing
pressure qna
Compensated Raft or Floating Raft
Compensated raft or floating raft is the foundations for which net footing pressure is zero.
Allowable Settlements
Effect of settlements
1) Cracks in interior masonry walls and interior plaster walls of buildings.
2) Tilt in structures.
 If the structure settles uniformly, it will not cause any structural damage, but when it
becomes excessive utilities such as water supply and sewage lines, electric and
telephone lines, etc. may get impaired. Such type of settlement is called as uniform
settlement where structure settles as a whole.
 When one part of the structures settles more than the other then the structure is said to
undergo differential settlement.
 The difference in total settlement between any two points is the magnitude of
differential settlement
 Angular distortion is the ratio of differential settlement between two columns and the
distance between them.
Maximum differential settlement = ¾ × total settlement, for granular soils

Maximum differential settlement = ½ × total settlement, for clayey soils
The maximum differential settlement is limited to 25 mm in sandy soils and 40 mm in
clayey soils.
As per IS 1904 – 1978

Soil Isolated Raft
Sand and hard clay 50 mm 75 mm

Plastic clay 75 mm 100 mm
Deep Foundations
 We have studied shallow foundations where load was transferred to the soil directly
beneath the foundations
 However, in case the soil at shallow depths in poor, so that it can‘t transfer the load,
hence, the depth of foundation need to be increased till the suitable soil is met. Such
foundations are called as deep foundations.
 Examples of deep foundations are piles, piers and wells.
 Piles are small diameter shafts driven or installed into the ground by suitable means
 Piles are usually installed in groups and are subjected to vertical loads, horizontal loads
or a combination of vertical and horizontal loads.
Necessity of Pile Foundation
1) When subsoil is weak i.e. it is unable to take direct loads.

2) To transfer load through a poor soil or water to a suitable bearing stratum.
3) To resist horizontal loads as in case of foundations of retaining walls, bridge abutments
etc. and also to resist uplift loads as in case of electric line to were.
4) To compact loose sand deposits.
5) To reduce settlements in case of important structures.
By providing pile foundation zero settlement can be achieved.
Types of piles
Based on mode of load transfer
1) End bearing piles or point bearing piles

Load is transferred through poor soil or water to a suitable stratum by means of
resistance at the pile tip or bottom.
Used when hard strata is available at reasonable depth.

2) Friction piles or floating piles
Load is transferred by means of friction along the length of pile and soil.
Used when hard stratum does not exist at reasonable depth.
3) Combined end bearing and friction pile
In this case load is transferred by combine action of end bearing and friction of piles.
Superstructure
It is that part of the structure which is constructed above ground level or plinth level.
Parts of Superstructure
Plinth: Plinth is the part of a superstructure located between the ground level and the floor
level. The plinth height should not be less than 45 cm.
Types of superstructure
1. Load bearing structures
2. Framed structures
3. Composite structures
1. Load bearing structures

Building consisting of slabs, beams and load bearing walls is known as load bearing
structures. Load from slab or trusses floors are transmitted through walls to the firm soil. In
load bearing structures upper floors are having less wall thickness than lower floors. Load
bearing structures are suited up to 3 floors.
2. Framed structures
It consists of slabs resting on beam which are supported by a network of columns. Loads
from slabs are transferred to beams and then to columns which transfers load to the soil. All
the walls may or may not be partition walls as none of them bear any load. Framed structures
are suitable for multi storied or high rise buildings. Framed structures are flexible since walls
can be shifted anywhere on the floor. In comparison with load bearing structures framed
structures gives more carpet area. Framed structures are Monolithic.
3. Composite structures
When buildings are constructed with combination of load bearing and framed structures it is
called composite structure. In composite structure external walls are treated as load bearing

walls and all internal walls are in the form of RCC columns. Composite structures are
provided for buildings having large spans such as warehouses, workshops, factory sheds, etc.
Loads on foundation
There are three types of load on foundation
1. Dead load, 2. Live load, 3. Wind load
1. Dead load: The load due to the materials used for all the components of building such as
walls, floors, roofs, etc is called dead load. All permanent loads in the buildings are included
in dead load. For future construction of partition wall the provision of dead load of amount
0.10 KN/m2 of the floor area is made.
Sr. No. Component Weight (KN/m3)
1 Bitumen 14.18
2 Brick 17.66
3 Cast iron 70.63
4 River sand 26.19
5 Mortar 17
6 Brick masonary 18.84
7 PCC 18.84
8 RCC 23.54
2. Live load or superimposed load: It includes all movable load like person standing on the
floor, furniture, weight of temporary stored materials. In design live load is converted into
equivalent dead load.
Sr. No. Type of building Equivalent dead load

(KN/m2)
1 Residential buildings, hospital rooms, hotel rooms 2.5

2 Office building, churches, school building, shops 4
3 all public buildings, assembly halls, theatres, 5

restaurants
4 heavy work shop, printing press and factories 7.5
5 warehouses, Book Stores 10
Also a percentage reduction is applied in a design of piers, columns, walls, foundation of

multi-storeyed building.
Sr. No. Number of Floors Percentage reduction
1 1 floor No reduction
2 2 floor 10
3 3 floor 20
4 4 floor 30
5 5 floor 40
6 6 floor & Subsequent 50
Live load for roof: The flat roof of a building should we design for minimum live load of 4
KN/m2 or 400 Kg/m2. The sloping and curve roofs should be designed for snow load and
rainwater load. For sloping roofs snow load is taken as------ for 1 cm depth of slope.
Wind load effect of wind load should be considered in case of tall buildings the buildings
which are subjected to wind pressure reduces pressure on foundation which are towards
windward side and increases pressure on foundations which are towards leeward side. Wind
pressure depends upon the velocity of wind location of structure and author metrological
factors.
Wind pressure can be given by
P = K V2
Where
P = wind pressure in KG/m2,
V = velocity of wind in kmph,
K = Coefficient which depends on wind speed, temperature of air, shape of building
Wind pressure can be neglected is the height of building is less than twice of its effective
with and also if building is sufficiently stiff.
Wind pressure can be neglected if the bearing pressure due to wind load is less than 25% of
that due to dead load and live load.
If it exceeds 25% then the combined effect of Dead load, live load and wind load should not
exceed by more than 25% of allowable bearing pressure. generally wind pressure in
horizontal direction is taken as 1 KN/m2.

Objectives
1. ________ is that part of structure which is in direct contact with the ground and transmits
the load of the structure to the ground.
(1) Foundation (2) DPC
(3) Safe bearing capacity (4) Plinth
2. The portion of sub-structure between the level of the surrounding ground and the level of
ground floor is called as __________.
(1) Plinth (2) Damp proof course
(3) Wall (4) None of these
3. ______ is the layer between superstructure and sub-structure.
(1) Plinth (2) Damp proof course
(3) Wall (4) None of these
4. The supporting power of a soil or rock is referred to as its ________
(1) Bearing capacity of soil (2) Ultimate bearing capacity
(3) Safe bearing capacity (4) All of these
5. The maximum load per unit area that the soil below the foundation can carry before failing
in shear is callesd as _______.
6. The maximum loading intensity which the soil can carry safely without the risk of shear
failure irrespective of the settlement they produce is called as ______.
7. The bearing of the soil is measured in ________.
(1) kN/m² (2) kN/km² (3) kN/mm² (4) kN/cm²
8. The physical properties of soil on which the bearing capacity depends are ________.
(1) Particle size (2) Moisture content, Density (3) Porosity (4) All of these
9. The vertical downward movement of the base is called is ________.
(1) Foundation (2) Settlement
(3) Uniform settlement (4) Differential settlement
10. The vertical downward movement of all the parts of the building is equal in magnitude
than this settlement is called as _________.

11. The vertical downward movement of the some part of the base of the structure is non-
uniform or unequal then the settlement is called as ________.
12. The cause for the uniform settlement is ________.
(1) Ground water lowering
(2) Surface erosion, creep or land slides and the effect of vegetation
(3) Elastic, consolidation and secondary compression of soil
(4) All of these
13. The ratio of the differential settlement between the footing to the distance between them
is known as the ________.
(1) Angular distortion (2) Uniform settlement
(3) Non-uniform foundation (4) All of these
14. When the depth of foundation D is less or equal to width B, it is called as ________.
(1) Deep foundation (2) Shallow foundation
(3) Machine foundation (4) All of these
15. When the depth of foundation D is greater than the width B, it is called as ________.
(1) Deep foundation (2) Shallow foundation
(3) Machine foundation (4) All of these
16. Combined footing supports ________ columns.
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
17. The two isolated spread footings connected by a rigid beam in cantilever footing is known
as _________.
(1) Strip (2) Beam (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
18. Match the following for the footing and the situation where it is used.
List I (Footings) List II (Situation where is used)
A. Mat or Raft foundation 1. Supports two columns
B. Cantilever or strap footing 2. Used to support individual column
C. Combined footing 3. Bearing capacity of soil is low and
loads are heavy

D. Isolated footing column 4. When the column position is on the
boundary of the plot, it is not possible to
provide footing such a column
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
19. The piles designed to transfer the load by the phenomenon of skin friction along the
length of piles is called as _______.
(1) Friction piles (2) End bearing piles (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
20. The piles designed to transfer the load through soft soil to a suitable bearing stratum is
called as ________.
(1) Friction files (2) End bearing piles
21. The part of the structure which is constructed above the plinth level or ground floor level
is called as ________.
(1) Substructure (2) Superstructure
22. The vertical components of the building, which are constructed to enclose the space are
called as ________.
(1) Walls (2) Floors (3) Doors (4) Roofs
23. _______ are the horizontal elements of a building structure.
24. The opening provided in the walls of the building to connect the internal rooms are called
as ________.
25. The uppermost horizontal or inclined part of a building provided to cover the space
enclosed by the walls is called as _______.
26. The component of the building which is provided for climbing from one floor to another
floor is called as ________.

(1) Stair (2) Lintel (3) Sill (4) Weather sheds
27. The components of building provided between the bottom of a window frame and the
wall below it is called as ________.
28. The components of the building provided between the bottom of a window frame and the
wall below it is called as ________.
29. The horizontal slabs projecting from the external walls just below the door, windows and
verandas are called as _______.
30. _________ is defined as the force whose magnitude position and direction remains
constant.
(1) Dead load (2) Live load (3) Wind load (4) Earthquake load
31. ________ is defined as the moving or variable loads due to occupants, weight of
furniture, home appliances, equipments and store.
32. When wind is obstructed by the structure, it exerts a pressure on the structure known as
______.
33. The wind pressure is expressed as ________.
(1) P = kV² (2) P = k²V² (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
34. For a height of 12 m of the structure wind pressure is taken as ________.
(1) 0.5 kN/m² (2) 0.7 kN/m² (3) 0.6 kN/m² (4) 1 kN/m²
35. For a height of 24 of a structure the wind pressure is taken as ________.
(1) 0.5 kN/m² (2) 0.7 kN/m² (3) 0.6 kN/m² (4) 1 kN/m²
36. The magnitude of earthquake force is given by _________.
(1) w α/g (2) wg/α (3) wgα (4) None of these
37. ________ of different part of a building can be determined by multiplying its volume by
the unit weight of the material.
(1) Dead load (2) Live load (3) Earthquake load (4) All of these
38. Match the following for the building material and unit weight of the material for the
calculation of dead load.
List (Material) List (Unit weight in kN/m²)

A. Stones 1. 22
B. Bricks 2. 20 - 24
C. Steel 3. 20 - 28
D. Plain cement concrete 4. 78
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 2
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 1 2 3 4
(4) 4 3 2 1
39. Match the following for the type of floor and the minimum live load for the calculation of
live load.
List I (Type of floor)
A. Bank and reading room
B. Werehouses, workshops for heavy weight
C. Warehouse, workshops for light weight
D. Warehouse, workshops for medium weight
List II (Minimum live load kN/m²)
1. 10.00 2. 3.00 3. 5.00 4. 7.5
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 3 2 1
40. The entire load of the superstructure is transmitted through the walls to the firm soil
below the around is called as
(1) Load bearing structure (2) Frame structure
(3) Composite structure (4) None of these
41. The entire load of the superstructure is transferred through a frame of slab, beam, column
and footing to the underlying soil is called as
(1) Load bearing structure (2) Framed structure

42. The combination of load bearing and frame structure is called as ________.
43. Less floor area is available for use because of thick wall in case of ________.
44. Which structure is suitable for multistoried building?
45. Component of a building is ________.
(1) Landscape (2) Paved portion towards garage
(3) Marginal distances (4) None of these
46. The components of a building are ________. .
(1) Walls, columns, foundations (2) Walls, columns, marginal distances
(3) Walls, columns, landscape (4) All of these
47. The functions of foundations are ________.
(1) Carrying the loads to firm strata (2) To offer-stability against uplift forces
(3) Minimize differential settlement (4) All of these

48. The cause for the settlement of the structure is ________.
(1) Reduction in volume of air in soil
(2) Implementing rain water harvesting system
(3) Lowering the water table
(4) (a) and (c)
49. Differential settlement is due to ________.
(1) Unequal load intensity
(2) Difference in compressibility of the strata below
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) None of these
50. Failure of foundation is observed because of ________.
(1) Excessive uniform settlement (2) Differential settlement

51. Shallow foundation indicates ‗D‘ is .
(1) < 2.5 (2) < 5 (3) < 7.5 (4) < 10
52. Shallow foundation indicates‘D/W ratio is ________.
(1) < 1 (2) < 2 (3) < 3 (4) None of these
53. Shallow foundation‘s classification indicates
(1) Isolated footing (2) Cantilever footing
(3) (a) and (b) (4) None of these
54. Deep foundation‘s classification indicates ________.
(1) End bearing piles (2) Under reamed piles
(3) Friction piles (4) All of these
55. Stepped foundations are provided below
(1) Plinth beams (2) Load bearing walls
(3) (a) and (b) (4) None of these
56. Necessity of spread-stepped foundation is to avoid effect of ________.
(1) Simply supported (2) Fixed end (3) Cantilever action (4) None of these
57. Minimum depth of foundation is ________.
(1) 90 or 50 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 120 cm (4) 150 cm
58. Combined footing is provided in case of ________.
(1) Loads on adjacent columns are high
(2) Relatively less bearing capacity of the soil
(3) Possibility of heavy differential settlement
59. Rectangular combined footing is preferred when ________.
(1) Loads on two columns are high and farely equal
(2) Distance between the columns is less
(3) Projection beyond two columns is permitted
60. The condition for combined footing to avoid uplifting and differential settlement is
________.
(1) C.G. of loading and C.G. of footing coincides
(2) C.G. of loading is at different location w.r.t. C.G. of footing
(3) Distance of C.G. of loading from edge of footing varies inversely with distance of
C.G. of footing

(4) None of the above
61. Trapezoidal footing is provided when ________.
(1) Loads to be carried by two adjacent columns are high and bearing capacity is less
(2) Distance between two columns is relatively high
(3) Loads are different
62. Cantilever footing is also known as ________.
(1) Strap footing (2) Pump handle footing
63. Strap footing is provided when ________.
(1) Projection beyond a column face is not permitted
(2) Column is located at boundary of the plot
(3) Distance between two columns is too large hence rectangular footing is
uneconomical
64. Mat foundation is also known as ________.
(1) Strap (2) Raft (3) Isolated (4) Deep
65. Raft foundation is provided when ________.
(1) B.C. of soil is less or of doubtful nature
(2) Loads are heavy and hence spread footings covers more than 50% of entire area
(3) It is difficult to control differential settlement
66. The permitted settlement value in Case of raft foundation is ________.
(1) 50 to 75 mm (2) 75 to 100 mm (3) 100 to 125 mm (4) 125 to 150 mm
67. Raft foundation is also called as ________ if weight of excavated soil = weight of
structure of loads together.
(1) Floating foundation (2) Strip foundation
68. The types of deep foundations are ________.
(1) Pile (2) Well and Caissons
(3) Pier (4) All of these
69. Which of the following has the lowest bearing capacity ?
(1) Fine sand loose and dry (2) Moist clay

(3) Coarse sand loose and day (4) Coarse gravel
70. The type of foundation recommended for heavily loaded steel stanchions in poor bearing
capacity soil is .
(1) Raft foundation (2) Pile foundation
(3) Well foundation (4) Grillage foundation
71. The most commonly used deep foundation in buildings ________.
(1) Raft foundation (2) Pile foundation
(3) Grillage foundation (4) Well foundation
72. The safe bearing capacity of soil can be improved by ________.
(1) Increasing depth of foundation
(2) Grouting the soil
(3) Draining the soil if water table is very near to base of the footing
(4) All the above
73. The minimum depth of the foundation below the ground in any soil is ________.
(1) 120 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 80 cm (4) 60 cm
74. A foundation could fail due to ________.
(1) Unequal settlement of foundation
(2) Unequal distribution
(3) Horizontal movement of earth adjoining the structure
(4) Any of above
75. If footing supports more than two columns it is called ________.
(1) Continuous footing (2) Combined footing
(3) Strip footing (4) Strap footing

Masonry:
Masonry is the systematic arrangement of building unit which are bonded together in
horizontal courses. Masonary can be of stones, bricks, concrete block, etc. Masonary serves
as load bearing wall, partition wall. It also provides thermal insulation and fire resistance to
building.
Important definitions
Course: course is a horizontal layer of masonry units whose thickness is equal to thickness
of masonry unit plus thickness of joint.
Stretcher: stretcher is a full stone or brick or concrete block laid in such a way that its length
is parallel to face of the wall.
Header: Header is a full stone or brick laid in such a way that its length is perpendicular to
face of wall.
Quoin: The corner or exterior angle of wall is known as quoin. if length of quoin is parallel
to face of wall it is called stretcher quoin. if length of wall is perpendicular to face of wall it
is called header quoin.
Closer: A closer is the portion of brick which is obtained by cutting a brick in such a way
that it's one long face remains uncut.
Queen closer: It is obtained by cutting the brick into two equal parts along its length.
King closer: It is obtained by cutting off triangular portion between centre of one side and
centre of adjacent side.
Bat: Bat is obtained by cutting a brick along its width.
Book - The inner surface of wall which is not exposed.
Face - The exterior of a wall exposed to weather.
Hearting - It is interior portion of wall between facing & backing
Spalls - There are the chips of stones used for filling the interseches in stone masonry
Lap - Horizontal distance between two perponds in two successive courses is called lap.

Bull Nose - Brick having one or two edges rounded.
Classification of stone masonry

Stone masonry
Rabble masonry Ashlar masonry

Ashlar fine
Uncovered Coursed Dry Ashlar rough
Rubble Rubble Rubble
masonry masonry masonry Ashlar chamfer red
Ashlar facing
Rubble masonry
The stone masonry in which roughly dressed or undressed stones are laid i suitable morter is
called rubble masonry
Types
1. UCR
 Roughest & cheap form

 Stones are not uniform size & shape
 Quoins are hammer clressed & laid as alternate header & strecher
 Thickness of joint not qreater than 13 mm
Use - For compound wall
2. Coursed Rubble Masonry

 Face stones are hammer dressed
 All course of same height
 Minimum height of course is 15 cm
Use - Public and residential building, pier Abutment
3. Dry Rubble masonry
It is masonry without mortor

Use - Used for non load bearig wall, comound wall.
Ashlar Masonry
The stone masonry in which proerly cut in uniform size and dressed with fine finish stones
are laid with a mortar of uniform thickness is called ashlar masonry.
1. Ashlar fine
Stones are fine tooted . Height of course is not less than 30 cm. Face stone laid altrnate
header & strecher . Height is not less than widt (H > B) & length is not less than twice height
(L>2H). Thickness of joint not exceed 3mm
Use - Public building, university building, court building
2. Ashlar Rough
Exposed face of stone are hammered to provide rough surface. Thickness of joint should
not exceed 6 mm
3. Ashlar chamfered
If is similar to ashlar masonry, only difference is that edges at exposed face of stone are
bevelled off at an angle of 45o to depth of 25 mm.
4. Ashlar Facing
Face stone are rough tooled. Backing is made up or brick or concrete etc
Height of stone should notbeless than 20 cm.
Objectives
1. King closers are related to
(1) doors and windows (2) king post truss
(3) queen post truss (4) brick masonry
2. For one cubic metre of brick masonry, the number of modular bricks needed is
(1) 400 or less (2) 400 to 450
(3) 500 to 550 (4) 600 to 650
3. In brick masonry,

(1) mortar strength should match brick
(2) mortar strength should exceed brick strength
(3) brick strength should exceed mortar strength
(4) the strengths of masonry and brick are independent
4. When the corner of a brick is removed along the line joining midpoints of adjoining sides,
the portion left is called
(1) closer (2) squint brick (3) queen closer (4) king closer
5. The number of bricks required per cubic metre of brick masonry is.
(1) 400 (2) 450 (3) 500 (4) 550

6. ________ may be defined as the systematic arrangement of bonding together of building
units, usually in horizontal courses with some form of mortar.
(1) Masonary (2) Course (3) Stretcher (4) Header
7. ________ is a horizontal layer of masonary units.
8. The full stone or brick or concrete block unit, laid in such a way that the length is parallel
to the face of wall is called as ________.
9. The full stone or brick or concrete block unit, laid in such a way that the length is
perpendicular to the face of wall is called as ________.
10. ________ is the lower surface of a brick or stone in each course.
(1) Bed (2) Bond (3) Quoin (4) Closer
11. ________ is defined as an arrangement of bricks or stones in alternate course by
overlapping so that the individual units are tied together and no continuous vertical joints on
formed.
12. The comer of exterior angle of a wall is known as
13. Which type of brick masonry bond is provided for heavy loads on masonry?
(1) English bond (2) Zigzag bond

(3) Single Flemish bond (4) Double Flemish bond

14. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is the number of bricks required of nominal size
20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm, with 1.2 cm wide cement mortar all around and with
allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m2 area?
(1) 400 (2) 410 (3) 425 (4) 440

15. For high class brick masonry, which are the proper bricks?
(1) Refractory bricks (2) Jhumb bricks
(3) Bull nose bricks (4) Modular bricks
16. Modular bricks are of nominal size 20 × 10 × 10 cm and 20% of the volume is lost in
mortar between joints. Then what is the number of modular bricks required per cubic
meter of brickwork?
(1) 520 (2) 500 (3) 485 (4) 470

1. Strength of brick masonry is influenced by type of mortar.
2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar
masonry.
3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry.
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (3) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Bricks are soaked in water before use in masonary work
1. to remove dust
2. to remove air voids
3. so that they do not absorb water from cement mortar
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 only (3) 2 and 3 (4) 3 only
18. The mortar used for masonry construction are classified based on strength in IS : 2250
and IS : 1905 according to their designations L1 , L2, H1 , H2, M1 , M2. The correct
sequence of increasing order of their strength is
(1) L1, L2, H1, H2, M1 ,M2 (2) L2, L1, M2, M1, H2, H1
(3) M1, M2, H1, H2, L1, L2 (4) L2, L1 ,M1, M2, H1, H2
19. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should NOT be more than
(1) 50 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 20
20. Brick masonry walls and columns of a building are to be protected from earthquake. The
earthquake proofing is done by providing
(1) cross walls (2) less openings
(3) under-reamed piles (4) a steel band at corners above windows below ceiling
21. When a beam or truss is placed on a masonry wall, it is supported on bed stone or plate.
The bed stone or bed plate is necessary to
(1) add to aesthetic appearance (2) transfer the reaction over a larger contact area
(3) increase stability of beam or truss (4) prevent outward thrust on the wall
22. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio for masonry walls is
(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 10

23. ________ is the portion of a brick cut in such a manner that its one long face remains
uncut.
24. ________ is that portion of a brick obtained by cutting a bring along its length into two
unequal parts.
(1) Queen closer (2) Bing closer (3) Stretcher quoin (4) All of these
25. ________ is that portion of a brick obtained by cutting off the triangular portion between
the centre of one end and centre of the adjacent side.
(1) Queen closer (2) Bing closer (3) Stretcher quoin (4) All of these
26. ________ is that portion of a,brick obtained by cutting a brick along its width.
(1) Queen closer (2) Bing closer (3) Stretcher quoi (4) All of these
27. When stones are used as building units and are bonded together with mortar, it is known
as ______.
(1) Stone masonary (2) Brick masonary (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
28. When bricks are used as building units and are bonded together with mortor it is known
as
(1) Stone masonary (2) Brick masonary
29. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed
surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which among
the following are the causes of these defects?
1. Settlement of foundation, 2. Over-loading of the walls, 3. Sulphate attack 4.

Efflorescence
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
30. When a column is supported throughout its length either by masonry walls or by
construction on all the sides, then its slenderness ratio is
(1) Infinite (2) Zero (3) Reasonably high (4) Low
31. The minimum wall thickness of any load bearing wall in case of public building built
with mortar, as per IS code, should be not less than

1 1
(1) (2) 1 brick (3) 1 brick (4) 2 brick
2 2
32. Maximum slenderness ratio for load-bearing masonry wall built in cement mortar, as per
IS code, shall not exceed
(1) 13 (b) 20 (3) 27 (4) 30
33. As per masonry code, the stiffening coefficient for walls stiffened by piers, buttresses or
intersecting walls can be
(1) 0 to 1.0 (2) 1.0 to 2.0 (3) Greater than 2.0 (4) Invariantly 1.0
Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not usd in masonry work because
1. There is no gain in strength of masonry

2. There is high shrinkage.
3. They are prone to segregation
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1 and 3 only
35. Which of the following monuments are constructed with stone masonry?
(1) Taj Mahal (2) Red fort Delhi
(3) Shaniwar Wada Pune (4) All of these
36. Which of the following is correct definition of masonry?
(1) The art of distempering the surfaces of wall is masonary
(2) The art of plastering the surfaces of wall is masonary:
(3) The art of construction in stones or bricks is called masonry
37. Why are bricks soaked in water before using the brick masonry?
(1) For removing dust

(2) For reducing air voids
(3) For preventing depletion of moisture from mortar
(4) For reducing efflorescence
38. Masonry may be broadly classified into categories viz. are ________.
(1) Stone masonry (2) Brick masonry
(3) Concrete block masonary (4) All of these
39. Which of the following materials required for stone masonry ?

(1) Stones and mortar (2) Stones and lime
(3) Stones and mud (4) All of these
40. Single stone passing from front to back face and acts as a bond is kriown as
(1) Through stone (2) Cornice (3) Jambs (4) Quoins
41. Stone masonry is classified as
(1) Rubble masonry (2) Block masonry (3) Ashlar masonry (4) None of these
42. Rubble masonry is classified into ________.
(1) Coursed rubble masonry (2) Dry rubble masonry
(3) Polygonal rubble masonry (4) All of these
43. Stretcher bond is possible only in ________.
(1) Half brick wall (2) One brick wall
(3) One and half brick wall (4) Wall of any thickness
44. A brick masonry could fail due to ________
(1) Rupture along the vertical joint in poorly bounded walls
(2) Shearing along the horizontal plane ‗
(3) Crushing due to overloading
(4) Any of the above
45. Good bonding in the brick masonry is ensured when . .
(1) All bricks used are of uniform size
(2) The vertical joints in alternate courses are in plumb from top to base
(3) Bricks are used as sparingly as possible
46. When first class bricks are immersed in water for one hour, the weight of water absorbed
by them should not exceed ________.
(1) l/5th of weight of brick (2) l/4th of weight of brick
(3) l/6th of weight of brick (4) l/2th of weight of brick
47. Which of the following is true ?
(1) D.P.C. should be continuous (2) D.P.C. may be horizontal or vertical
(3) D.P.C. should be impervious (4) All the these
48. Which of the Following is not true in case of a good burnt clay bricks ?
(1) It should be well burnt, perfectly rectangular in shape with unbroken corners
(2) It should be free from any spots or defects and produce a clear ringing sound when
struck against each other

(3) It should be able to resist the attack of atmospheric agents
(4) It should have more water absorption capacity
Introduction to Automation in Construction

1. ________ is the replacement of manpower with machine power.
(1) Automation (2) Construction
(3) Information technology (4) All of these

Maps and Field Surveys
Surveying is the art or science of determining the relative positions of point on above or beneath the
surface of earth with the help of direct or indirect measurements of distances, direction and elevation.
The principle objective of surveying is to prepare plan or map.
Primary Division of Surveying
 Earth seems to be perfect sphere but its actual shape is oblate spheroid or oblate tri-
axial ovaloid.
 Length of the polar axis of the earth is 12713.8 km which is lesser than length of its
equatorial axis (12756.57 km) by 42.77 km.
 Earths polar axis is 0.34% less compared to its diameter.
 The average radius of earth is taken as 6370 km for all calculations.
 If the irregularities on the earth surface are neglected the shape of the earth surface is
curved, every element of which is normal to plumb line.
 Thus primary division of surveying is based on whether the curvature of earth is
considered or not.
There are two types:
Plane surveying:
 In plane surveying curvature of the earth is not considered and it is assumed as a plane
surface.
 All triangles formed by survey lines are considered as plane triangles.
 All angles (vertical & horizontal) are planes angles.
 The direction of vertical line or plumb line is indicated by the freely suspended plumb bob
and all plumb lines are considered as parallel to each other.
 Curved line on the earth‘s surface is considered as straight or horizontal.
 Plane surveying is applicable only when extent of area is less than 200 sq km.
 Also when the difference between an arc distance of 18.2 km on the earth surface and
corresponding chord distance is not more than 1 cm.
 And further when the difference between sum of the angles in spherical triangle & plane
triangles is only 1 second. For a triangle having an area of 195 sq km.

Geodetic Surveying:
 In geodetic surveying the curvature of the earth is taken into consideration.

 All lines on the earth surface are curved lines and all triangles and there angles are spherical.
 Geodetic survey involves spherical trignometry.
 This survey is carried out for large magnitude work and when high degree of precision is
required.
 The direction of plumb lines converges towards the centre of earth.
Classification of surveying:
Classification based on purpose of survey:
1. Control surveying:
 To establish horizontal & vertical position of control points using geodetic surveying
 For India, control surveying is done by "Survey of India".
2. Topographical Surveys:
To prepare a plan or map of a region which consists of natural features such as rivers,
streams, hills, lakes, forests etc. and also manmade features like roadways, canals, town &
villages, etc.
3. Cadastral Surveys: (Revenue Engineer)
Cadastral surveys are done to fix property boundaries, calculation of land area, or for transfer
of land from one owner to another.
This is also done to fix boundaries of municipalities, state & federal jurisdictions.
4. Engineering Surveys:
These are done for engineering works such as structures, roads and reservoirs etc.
5. Hydrographic Survey or Marine Survey:
Deals with water bodies for purpose of navigation, water supply, harbor works, determination
of water depth, etc.
6. Mine Survey:

This is done to explore mineral wealth.
7. Astronomical Surveys:
These surveys are done to determine latitude, longitude & Azimuth of a point to get absolute
location on earth.
8. Geological survey:
These surveys are done to find out different strata present in the earth crust.
This is done by geologist.

Classification based on instrument used:
1. Chain Survey:
 Only linear measurements are taken.

 No angular measurements are taken.
 This surveying is adopted when high precision (accuracy) is not required.
2. Compass Survey:
 This is more precise than chain survey.

 In this survey horizontal angles are measured with the help of compass and linear distances
are measured using chain or tape.
 Compass is not a precise instrument since it can have declinations, dip, etc.
3. Leveling:
 Leveling is done to measure vertical angles with respect to assumed datum.

 This is more precise than compass survey.
4. Plane Table Survey:
 This is the graphical method of survey in which taking field observations and plotting proceed
simultaneously.
 Alidade is used to direct object while chain or tape is used for linear measurement.
 It is less accurate.
 Useful in the field where magnetic influence is there and when other instruments like
compass cannot be used.
5. Theodolite Survey:
 Most precise instrument designed to measure horizontal as well as vertical angles.

 Has a wide applicability in surveying like laying off horizontal angles, locating points on line,
prolonging survey lines, establishing grades, determining difference in elevation setting out
curves, etc.
 Useful in traverse survey & triangulation.
6. Tacheometric Survey:

 Horizontal & vertical distances are obtained by optical means.
 Under favorable conditions error will not exceed 1/1000.
 This is suitable for inaccessible regions or for topographical regions.
7. Photogrammetric Survey:
 This survey is done by taking photographs of land to be surveyed.

 Used when area is vast & inaccessible.
8. EDM Surveys:
 Based on triangulation.
 All the sides of triangle are measured with EDM instrument.
Principles of Surveying:
The fundamental principles upon which the various methods of surveying are based are:
1. Location of a point by measurement from two points of reference
After deciding the position of point, its reference must be kept at least from two permanent
objects or stations whose position have already been well defined.
2. Working from whole to part
This is to localize minor errors and to prevent accumulation of errors. First a control points
are established with higher precision for large area and minor control points are then
established within the main area with less precise methods.
If reverse process is repeated, then errors will expand to greater magnitudes.
Plans & maps:
Plan:
 Plan is a graphical representation of the feature on or below the surface of the earth
constructed by using orthographic projections on a horizontal plane without considering the
curvature of Earth.
 A plan is drawn relatively to large scale.

Map:
 When the scale is small plan is called map. A map is generally drawn when extent of area is
large such as city map, district map, country map, etc.
 On a map vertical distances are also represented by contours, hatchers, etc.
 Projection system other than orthographic system is used.
Scale:
 Scale is the fixed ratio that every distance on plan or map corresponds to a distance or ground.
𝑫𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒐𝒏 𝒑𝒍𝒂𝒏 𝒐𝒓 𝒎𝒂𝒑

𝑺𝒄𝒂𝒍𝒆 =
𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒐𝒏 𝒈𝒓𝒐𝒖𝒏𝒅
 A good draughtsman can plot to an accuracy of ±0.25 mm.

Scales can be represented in following ways:
1. Engineer’s Scale:
One cm on plan or map represents some whole number of meters on ground.
For example: 1 cm = x m
2. Representative Fraction:
1 unit of length on plan or map represents some number of same unit lengths on ground.
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐨𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐧 𝐨𝐫 𝐦𝐚𝐩 (𝐬𝐚𝐦𝐞 𝐮𝐧𝐢𝐭)

𝑹𝒆𝒑𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒗𝒆 𝑭𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓 =
𝐝𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐨𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐠𝐫𝐨𝐮𝐧𝐝(𝐬𝐚𝐦𝐞 𝐮𝐧𝐢𝐭)
𝟏
For example: 𝑹𝑭 = , 1cm on plan equals to 10m on ground
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
Larger the denominator of RF smaller is the scale.
Errors Due to Use of Wrong Scale
𝑅𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑔 𝑆𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡𝑕 = × 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡𝑕
𝑅𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑆𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑒

𝑅𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑔 𝑆𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑒 2
𝐶𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = × 𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎
𝑅𝐹 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑆𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑒
Field Book
In this book all detailing of survey are recorded. Dimensions: 20 cm x 21 cm. For ordinary field work
double line field book is used whereas for very large scale work single line field book is used.
Objectives
1. Which of the following closely represents the shape of the Earth

(1) spheroid (2) Ellipsoid (3) oblate spheroid (4) ellipse

2. Geodetic surveying" is different from plane surveying because of
(1) working from whole to part (2) curvature of the earth taken into account
(3) large area (4) None of the above.
3. The methods of plane surveying can be used when the extent of area is less than
(1) 250 Sqkm (2) 500 Sqkm (3) 1000 Sqkm (4) 2500 Sqkm
4. The difference between an arc distance of 'x' Km on the surface of earth and the
corresponding chord distance is about 10mm then 'x' is
(1) 250 km (2) 195 km (3) 18.2 km (4) 182 km
5. Which of the following scales is the smallest one?
(1) 1cm = 10m (2) R.F. = 1/5000 (3) 1:10,000 (4) l cm =10km
6. To determine the length of bridge proposed to be built across a very wide river, the
surveying method of choice would be
(1) Chain survey (2) Hydrographic survey
(3) Topographic survey (4) Triangulation
7. Surveys which are carried out to show natural features of country such as rivers, hills etc.,
is
(1) Cadastral surveys (2) Engineering surveys
(3) Topographic survey (4) Route survey
8. The basic principle of "working from whole to part"
(1) Prevents accumulation of errors (2) Makes plotting easier
(3) Localized minor errors (4) both a & c
9. A distance of 10m on ground is plotted on a map as 0.5cm. The representative fraction of
the scale is
(1) 1/500 (2) 1/1000 (3) 1/2000 (4) 1/200
10. The representative fraction 1/2500 means that the scale is 1 cm equal to
(1) 0.25 m (2) 2.5m (3) 25 m (4) 2.5 km
11. The double-line field book is most commonly used for recording
(1) precise work (2) ordinary chain survey work
(3) large-scale plotting work (4) small-scale accurate plotting work
12. The smallest scale adopted for topographical survey is
(1) 1:25,000 (2) 1:50,000 (3) 1:2,50,000 (4) 1: 5,00,000
13. Which one of the following scales is the largest scale
(1) 1 cm = 50m (2) 1:42000 (3) RF = 1/3,00,000 (4)l cm = 50 Km
Electronic Distance Meter (EDM)
EDM was first introduced in the late 1950‘s. Initially they were complicated, large, heavy,
and suited primarily for long distances. Current EDM‘s use either infrared (light waves) or
microwaves (radio waves). Microwaves require transmitters/receivers at both ends and
infrared use a transmitter at one end and a reflecting prism at the other and are generally used
more frequently.
EDMs are available in long (greater than 100 km), medium (upto 100 km), and short range
(upto 5 km). Range limits up to 50 km
EDM is typically mounted on top of a theodolite, but can be mounted directly to a tribrach.
EDM is very useful in measuring distances that are difficult to access or long distances such
as valleys or steep hills.
Principle of Working
Transmitter sends continuous waves to a receiver from which it is returned. It measures the
time required for a wave to sent to a target and reflect back. The distance between transmitter
and reflector is given by
D = 2 λ + λ/4 Where λ is the modulated wavelength.
Note: The range of distance measurement of EDM increases with increase in number of
prisms.

Theodolite
Most precise / accurate instruments used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles.
Theodolites are classified as transit and non-transit theodolite
Transit theodolite or simply transit:
One in which the line of sight can be reversed by revolving the telescope through 1800 in
vertical plane.
Non-transit theodolites or Y-theodolites are those in which telescope cannot be reversed.
Essential parts of the transit theodolite:
1) The telescope:
 it is an integral part of theodolite and mounted on a spindle known as horizontal
axis or trunion axis
2) Vertical circle:
 It is a circular graduated arc attached to the trunion axis or spindle.
 Telescope can be set at any desired position in vertical plane by means of vertical
circle clamp and its corresponding slow motion or tangent screw.
 Gradations on vertical circle are from, 00 to 3600 in clockwise direction or it is
divided into quadrants.
3) Index frame or T-frame or vernier frame:
 It has are horizontal bar known as index arm. Or vernier arm.
 Two verniers are fitted at the extremities of the index arm to read the vertical
circle.
 Vertical circle moves relative to the verniers with the help of which reading can be
taken.
4) Standards or A-frame: mounted on the upper plate and its shape resembles to letter A.
 Trunion axis is supported on A frame.
5) Leveling head:
 Consists of two parallel triangular plates known as tribrach plates
 Function of leveling head is to support the main part of the instrument, to attach
theodolite to tripod, to provide mean for leveling theodolite.
6) Two spindles or Axes or centers.
7) Lower plate or scale plate:
 Attached to the outer spindle and carries a horizontal scale / circle, and therefore
also known as scale plate.

 Size of the theodolite is represented by the size of scale plate. Exa. 12 cm
theodolite or 12 cm theodolite.
8) Upper plate or vernier plate.
 Carries two verniers, diametrically opposite.
9) Plate levels or level tubes.
10) Tripod
11) Plumb bob
12) Compass
13) Striding level
 To check the horizontality of transit or trunion axis
Definitions and term:
1) Vertical axis:
It is the axis about which instrument can be rotated in horizontal plane.
2) Horizontal axis or trunion axis
Horizontal axis is the axis about which the telescope and the vertical circle rotates in
vertical plane.
3) Line of sight or line of collimation
The line passing through the intersection of the horizontal & vertical cross-hairs and
the optical centre of the object glass and its continuation.
4) Axis of the level tube: or bubble line
It is a straight line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the level tube at its centre.
It is horizontal align bubble is at centre.
5) Centrign:
Process of setting the theodolite exactly aer station mark, done by using plumb bob.
6) Transiting
Process of turning the telescope in vertical plane through 1800 about the trunion axis.
Line of sight is reversed in this process so also known as plunging or reversing.
7) Swinging the telescope:
The process of turning the telescope in horizontal plane.
8) Face left observation:
When observation of vertical or horizontal angle is taken by keeping the face of
vertical circle to the left of observer it is FLO. And vice versa for face right
observation
9) Face right observations
10) Telescope normal: or direct
When face of the vertical circle is to the left and the ―bubble up‖ (of the telescope).
11) Telescope inverted:

When face of the vertical circle is to the right and the ―bubble down‖.
12) Changing face:
Operation of bringing the face of the telescope from left to right and vice versa.
13) Double sighting:
Taking observation angles of same object once with telescope normal and ace with
telescope inverted. Also called as double centering.
Temporary adjustments/ or station adjustments
Made at every instrument setting and preparatory to taking observations with the
instrument.
1) Setting over the station.
Includes a) centering of the optional plummet is used for centering instrument over
the station mark by a plumb bob or by optical plummet. B) Approximate leveling by
tripod legs
2) Leveling up: Accurate leveling is done by using foot screws with reference to plate
levels or level tube
3) Elimination of parallax
 Parallax is the condition arising when the image formed by objective is not in the
plane of cross hairs.
 Parallax can be eliminated in following two steps,
1) By focusing the eye piece for distinct vision of cross hairs
Point the telescope towards the sky or hold a sheet of white paper in front of
the objective and move eyepiece in or out till the cross hairs are seen sharp
and distinct.
2) By focusing the objective: to bring the image of the object in the plane of
cross hairs. The telescope is now directed towards the object to be sighted and
focusing screw is turned till the image appears clear and sharp.
Fundamental lines and desired relations:
1) Vertical axis 2) Horizontal axis or trunion axis or transit axis, 3) line of
collimation or line of sight 4) Axis of plate level 5) Axis of altitude level,
For the proper adjustment or accurate adjustment of the theodolite following relations
between fundamental lines are desired,
1) Line of collimation must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis at its intersection.
2) Axis of the plate level must be perpendicular to vertical axis.
3) Horizontal axis must be perpendicular to vertical axis.
4) Axis of altitude level or telescope level must be parallel to line of collimation.
5) The vertical circle vernier must read zero when the line of collimation is horizontal.
6) Striding level axis must be parallel to horizontal axis.

Functions of clamp and tangent screws.
1) Clamp screws:
 When the upper clamp screw is tightened and lower clamp screw is loose, the
instrument rotates about outer axis, without any relative motion between plates. The
vernier reading do not change.
 When lower clamp screw is tightened, but the upper clamp screw is loose, the
instrument rotates about the inner axis with a relative motion between the tow plates.
The vernier reading changes.
 If both the clamp screw are tightened instrument cannot rotate at all.
2) Tangent screws for small movement of plates or for accurate fixing of plates
corresponding tangent screw (corresponding to plates) are used.
Measurement of horizontal angle:
Horizontal angle measurement by repetition method
 By using this method angle can be measured to a finer degree of accuracy.
 In this method angle is repeatedly measured and average angle is calculated by
dividing total angle by umber of repetitions.
Following errors are eliminated by this method.
1) Errors due to eccentricity of verniers and centres are eliminated by taking both
vernier reading.
2) Errors due to in adjustment of line of collimation and the trunion axis are
eliminated by taking both face readings.
3) Errors due to inaccurate graduations are eliminated by taking the readings at
different parts of circle.
4) Errors due to inaccurate bisection of the object, eccentric centering, etc. may be
counter balanced.
Note: errors due to ship, displacement of station signals, and want of verticality of the
vertical axis etc. are not eliminated since they are all cumulative.
Direction method or reiteration method or method of series
Sources of error in theodolite work:
1) Instrumental, 2) Personal , and 3) Natural
Objectives
1. Turning the telescope in the vertical plane about the horizontal axis is called
(1) Transiting (2) Plunging (3) Swinging (4) Both 1 & 2

2. The process of turning the telescope of a Theodolite in a horizontal plane is called
(1) Transiting (2) Plunging (3) Swinging (4) Reversing
3. ―Theodolite‖ can be used for measurement of
(1) horizontal angles only (2) vertical angles only
(3) deflection angles also (4) None of the above.
4. The line of collimation of a theodolite is
(1) parallel to axis of plate levels (2) perpendicular to vertical axis
(3) parallel to vertical axis (4) parallel to horizontal axis
5. Size of a theodolite is specified by
(1) Length of telescope (2) Diameter of vertical circle
(3) Diameter of lower plate (4) Diameter of upper plate
6. The most commonly used set of theodolite operations are
(1) Left face and right swing (2) Right faces and left swing
(3) Left face and left swing (4) Right face and right swing
7. A telescope is said to be inverted if its vertical circle is to its
(1) Right and the bubble of telescope is down
(2) Right and the bubble of the telescope up
(3) Left and bubble of telescope down
(4) Left and bubble of telescope up.
8. While taking back sight, the screw used is
(1) Upper clamp (2) lower clamp
(3) Lower tangent (4) Upper tangent
9. Parallax cat be removed by focusing of

(1) Objective only (2) eye piece is not essential
(3) eye piece also (4) None of the above
10. For measuring a horizontal angle between two lines with better accuracy than that given
by vernier; the method commonly used is
(1) Reiteration (2) Repetition (3) Direction (4) Double sighting
11. If a group of angles are to be taken about a common point, it is called method of
(1) Repetition (2) Reiteration (3) Direction (4) both b & c

12. If a back sight is taken on the preceding transit station with the vernier reading equal to
the back azimuth of preceding line and then the instrument is turned to sight the forward
station, the vernier reading will give
(1) Back azimuth of forward line (2) Azimuth of forward line
(3) Difference of 360° and azimuth of forward line (4) None of the above
13. Which of the following errors cannotbe eliminated by method of repetition.
(1) Error due to in adjustment of line of collimation
(2) Error due to in accurate graduations.
(3) Error due to eccentricity of verniers.
(4) Error due to wrong vertically of vertical axis.
14. When a theodolite is in proper adjustment, which of the following conditions between
fundamental lines are satisfied?
1. Axis of the plate level is perpendicular to the vertical axis.
2. The line of collimation is at right angles to the vertical axis.
3. The axis of the altitude level is parallel to the line of collimation when it is horizontal
and the vertical circle reads zero.
Select the correct answer,
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3
Total Station
When digital theodolite is combined and interfaced with EDM and electronic data collector‘s
with built in microprocessors it becomes total station.
Total station is used to measure horizontal angles, vertical angles and sloping distances.
Total station can perform number of operations such as multiple angle and distance
measurements, calculation of coordinates, determination of slope corrections, determination
of distance and elevation between remote points, etc.
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Global Positioning System (GPS), originally Navstar GPS is a space-based radionavigation

system owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force.
It is a global navigation satellite system that provides geolocation and time information
to GPS receiver anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to
four or more GPS satellites.

The GPS system does not require the user to transmit any data, and it operates independently
of any telephonic or internet reception, though it can enhance the usefulness of the GPS.
The current GPS consist of three major segments
1. Space segment
The space segment consists of the orbiting GPS satellites, or Space Vehicles (SV) in GPS
parlance. The GPS design originally consists of 24 SVs. The orbital period is one-half
a sidereal day, i.e., 11 hours and 58 minutes. Now there are 32 satellites in the
GPS constellation, 31 of which are in use.Mminimum four satellites needed for a position.
2. Control Segment
The control segment consist of a master control station (MCS), an alternate master control
station, four dedicated ground antennas and six dedicated monitor stations.
3. User Segment: It consist of receiver in hand or in vehicle. It consists of GPS unit and
users.
In addition to GPS, Russias GLONASS, Indias NAVIC, etc. are under development.
Planimeter
Planimeter is an instrument which measures the area of plan or map of any shape very
accurately. Areas between curved boundaries an a plan or map can be found by planimeter.
Amsler polur planimeter is most communly used.
The error involved in the planimeter measurement are accidental and are mainly due to the
inability of the observer to follow exact boundary of the figure with the tracing point.
Zero circle or circle of correction: The circle round the clrcumference of which if the
tracing point is moved, the wheel will simply slide (without rotation) an the paper without
any change in the reading.
Leveling
Objectives of Leveling:
1) To find the elevations of given points with respect to any given or assumed datum.
(used in planning /design)

2) To establish points at elevations given, with respect to given or assumed datum. (used
in setting out all kinds of eng. Works.)
 Leveling deals with measurements in vertical plane (linear or angular).
Important Terms:
Level surface:
 Level surface is the curved surface which at each point is perpendicular to direction of
gravity.
 Surface of still water (sea water) is truly level surface.
 Any surface parallel to mean spheroidal surface of earth is a level surface.
Level line:
 A line lying in a level surface is a level line
 It is always normal to plumb lines at all points.
Horizontal plane:
It is the plane tangential to level surface at a point. It is therefore, perpendicular to
plumb line at that point.
Horizontal line:
A straight line tangential to the level line at a point.
Vertical line:
 Line normal to the level line at a point.
 Generally, it is a line defined by a plumb line.
Datum:
Datum is any surface with respect to which elevations are determined.
Elevation:
Elevation of a point is its vertical distance above or below an arbitorrily assumed
level surface or datum.
Mean sea level:
Average hight of sea for all tide levels Average over a period 19 years.
Bench mark:
 Bench mark is a relatively permanent point of reference whose elevation with respect
to some assumed datum is known.
 Used as a either starting point for levelling or as a point upon which to cloose as a
check.
Methods of Leveling:

To determine difference in elevation, three methods are used.
1) Barometric leveling:
 Based on the phenomena that difference in elevations between two points is
proportional to difference in atmospheric pressures at those points.
2) Trigonometric leveling (Indirect leveling)
 It is the process of leveling in which the elevations of pts are competed from
observed vertical angles and known distances.
3) Spirit leveling (Direct leveling)
 A spirit level and a sighting device (telescope) are combined and vertical distances
are measured by observing on graduated rods placed at a point.
 Most precise and most commonly used method.
Leveling Instruments:
Commonly used instruments in direct leveling are
1) Level 2) Leveling staff.
1) Level
 A level is to provide horizontal line of sight.
 It consists of four important parts.
1) A. telescope – to provide line of sight
2) A level tube – to make line of sight horizontal.
3) A leveling head – to bring the bubble in centre of run.
4) A tripod – to support the instrument.
Types of levels:
1) Dumpy 2) Wye or y, 3) Reversible, and 4) Tilting
1) Dumpy level
 Given by Gravatt.
 The name is so because formerly this level was equipped with an inverting eye piece
and hence was shorter than wye level of same magnifying power.
Advantages of dumpy level over wye level.
1) Simpler construction and fewer movable parts.
2) Lesser adjustment to be made.
3) Longer life of adjustments.
2) Wye level or Y-level

 In dumpy level telescope is fixed to spindle while in wye level the telescope is carried
in two vertical ‗Y‘ supports.
 In case of wye level adjustments can be tested with greater rapidity and ease.
3) Reversible level:
 It combines the features of both dumpy and wye level.
4) Tilting level:
 In case of dummy and wye level, line of sight is perpendicular to vertical axis.
 While in tilting level line of sight can be slightly tilted without tilting vertical axis.
Leveling staff:
The purpose of leveling staff is to determine the amount by which the station (i.e. foot of
the staff) is above or below the line of sight.
There are three types of self reading staff:
1) Solid staff:
- Smallest division is 0.01 ft or 5 mm. However. Some staff have fine graduations
upto 2mm.
- Made up wood having general length 10 ft or 4m.
2) Folding staff:
3) Telescopic staff (sop with pattern)
- 14 ft or 5 m in length.
- Since, telescope is used, readings appear to be inverted. So, readings are taken
from above downwards.
The surveying telescope:
 Surveyors telescope is adaptation of keplers telescope which has two convex lenses,
one nearer to object called as objective and other near the eye called as eyepiece.
Line of sight or line of collimation:
- Line passing through optical centre of objective and the intersection of cross hairs
is called line of sight.
Parallax:
 If the image formed by objective lens is not in the same plane with cross hairs, any
movement of eye is likely to cause an apparent movement of the image with respect
to the cross hairs. This is called as ―parallax‖.
 Parallax can be eliminated by,
1) Focusing the eye piece: to bring the cross hairs in the plane of distinct vision.

2) Focusing the objective: to bring the image of object in the plane of cross hairs
which are clearly visible.
Parts of telescope:
1) Objective 2) Eyepiece 3) diaphragm 4) Body and focusing
device
1) Objective:
 It is a compound lens consisting of the front convex lens made up of crown glass and
back concave convex lens made ujp of flint glass cemented together such compound
lens is called achromatic lens.
 By using compound lens spherical and chromatic are aberrations eliminated.
2) Eye piece:
Ramsden eye-piece: most commonly used. Composed of plano-convex uses of equal
focal length, with spacing of 2/3 F.
Huygevs eye piece: Not commonly used.
3) Diaphragm: consists of cross hairs.
Optical defects in single lens: are
1) Spherical aberrations:
 The rays from a given points are not collected at one point
 A plantation – absence of spherical aberrations.
2) Chromatic aberrations:
 A chromatin – absence of chromatic aberrations.
 A beam of light is made up of seven colors and focal length of single lens is
different for different colors of light. So, all the colour lights will not converge at
a point.
 Violet ray is refracted most and red least
3) Coma
4) Astigmation
5) Curvature of field
6) Distortion.
Temporary adjustments: 1) setting up the level, 2) leveling up, 3) Elimination of
parallax.
Important terms in leveling:

1) Station: station is the point at which the level rod is held and not where level is set
up.
2) Height of instrument: (HT) it is the elevation of line of sight (plane of sight) with
respect to assumed datum.
3) Back sight (BS)
Back sight is the sight taken on a rod at a point of known elevation, to find the height
of line of sight above that point. (thus to botain height of instrument)
Also known as plus sight.
4) Fore sight (FS)
 Fore sight is the sight taken on a rod held at a point of unknown elevation, to
ascertain the amount by which the point is below line of sigtht and thus to obtain
the eleven of point.
 Also called as minus sight.
5) Turning point: (TP) change point:
 A point on which both BS and FS are taken on a line of direct levels.
 To establish other instrument station with new H.I.
6) Intermediate station: (IS) /intermediate sight:
 A point intermediate to two turning points on which only FS or minus sight is
taken to determine the elevation of station.
Booking and Reducing of levels:
1) Height of instrument method, and 2) Rise and fall method
1) Height of instrument method: (collimation method)
 In this method, HI is calculated for each set up of the instrument.
 The elevations of RL‘s of the turning points (other staff station) are then calculated by
subtracting FS from HI.
 For next set up of the instrument HI is calculated by adding BS taken on T.P.1 to its
R.L. The process continues till the R.L. of last point.
 If there are some intermediate points, then the R.L. of these points is calculated by
subtracting IS (minus sight) from H.I. for that set up.
 Generally used for fly leveling or to establish BM‘s.
Check: 𝐵𝑆 − 𝐹𝑆 = 𝐿𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑅𝐿 − 𝐹𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑅. 𝐿
2) Rise and fall method:
 HI is not at all calculated.

 The difference of level between two consecutive points is found by comparing the
staff readings on the two points for the same setting of the instrument.
 Higher staff reading of consecutive point indicates fall while lesser indicate rise.
 Generally used in contour survey, in small areas
 Used when large no. of intermediate station readings are required.
Check: : 𝐵𝑆 − 𝐹𝑆 = 𝐿𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑅𝐿 − 𝐹𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑅. 𝐿 = 𝑟𝑖𝑠𝑒 − 𝑓𝑎𝑙𝑙
Curvature and Refraction:
Correction for curvature (-ve)
Therefore the correction for curvature is negative.
𝑑2
𝐶𝑐 = 𝑎𝑙𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠(−𝑣𝑒)
2𝑅
𝐶𝑐 = 0.07849 𝑑 2 𝑚, 𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑘𝑚
Correction for refraction: (+ve)
 Due to refraction line of sight curves downward, thus reading decreases.
 Therefore correction for refraction is positive
1 𝑑2
𝐶𝑟 = 𝑑 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠.
7 2𝑅
𝐶𝑟 = 0.01121 𝑑2 𝑚 𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑚
Combine correction for curvature and refraction
6 𝑑2
𝐶 = 𝑎𝑙𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 (−𝑣𝑒)
7 2𝑅
𝐶 = 0.06728 𝑑2 𝑚, 𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑚
Special methods of spirit leveling or direct leveling:
1) Differential leveling:
The operation of leveling to determine the elevation of point at some distance
apart is called differential leveling.
Or To determine difference in elevations of two points regardless of horizontal
position of the points with respect to each other.
- Need to set up instrument several times.
- Also called as fly leveling.
2) Profile leveling:
 To determine elevations of pts at measured intervals along a given line in order to
detain profile of the surface along that line.

3) Cross – sectioning:
 Process of taking levels on each side of a main line at right angle to that line
Example: road survey
4) Precise leveling:
 Leveling in which degree of precision required is too great.
5) Reciprocal leveling:
 Leveling in which difference in elevation between two pts is actually determined by
taking two sets of reciprocal observations.
 By reciprocal leveling following errors can be eliminated.
1) Error in instrument adjustment or error in line of eliminated,
2) Combine effect of earths curvature and refraction
3) Variations in the average refraction.
𝑕 𝐴 −𝑕 𝐵 +(𝑕 𝐴′ −𝑕 𝐵
′
)
True difference in elevation 𝐻
2
Hypsometers:
The working of hypsometer for determination of attitudes of stations depends on the
fact that the temp at which water boils varies with the atmospheric pressure.
Altimeter is used to find heights based on barometric pressure difference.
Objectives
1. The object of leveling is to determine

(1) Level differences only (2) Elevations of stations
(2) Level differences of Elevations (4) Level differences and Elevation.
2. Leveling deals with distances in a
(1) Vertical plane only (2) Horizontal plane only
(3) Oblique planes (4) None of the above
3. A ―Level Surface‖ is a
(1) Horizontal Surface (2) Inclined surface
(3) Curved Surface (4) Horizontal or Curved surface
4. An example for level surface is
(1) Still water in a lake (2) Sea level unaffected by tides
(3) A plane ground (4) Both a & b
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of Level Line?
(1) It is curved

(2) All points on a level line are at the same elevation.
(3) Every element of level line is perpendicular to the direction of quality.
(4) All the above
6. ―Altitude‖ of a point is the vertical distance above
(1) Any reference datum (2) Mean sea level
(3) Ground level (4) None of above.
7. At a point vertical angle is usually measured with respect to a
(1) Land surface (2) Land line
(3) Horizontal Surface (4) Horizontal line
8. Pick up the incorrect statement of the following
(1) G.T.S (Great Trigonometrically Survey) Bench Marks are most accurate.
(2) G.T.S Bench Marks are correct to two decimal places.
(3) Indicated by a triangle.
(4) All are correct.
9. An altimeter is an instrument
(1) For determining Altitudes (2) Based on Barometric pressure differences.
(3) Used for preliminary surveys (4) All the above
10. Pick up the incorrect pair:
Type of Leveling Phenomenon involved
(1) Direct Leveling : Sprit Level leveling
(2) Trigonometric Leveling Direct Method
(3) Barometry: Pressure
(4) Hypsometer: Temperature differences
11. ―Differential Leveling‖
(1) Involves more than one setting of instrument.
(2) Resorted when two points are situated quite apart
(3) Also called compound leveling.
(4) All the above
14. Pick up the incorrect pair:
Type of Leveling Purpose
(1) Profile Leveling LongitudinalSections
(2) Chock Leveling Check Levels at the end of days work
(3) Compound Leveling Difference inlevels of two distant points

(4) Reciprocal Leveling To apply corrections to curvature and refraction.
15. Pick up the incorrect of the following:
(1) Definition of a telescope is its ability to produce a sharp image.
(2) The power of a lens is reciprocal of its length in meters.
(3) Chromatic and spherical abrasions can be eliminated using compound lenses.
(4) All the above
16. Pick up the Incorrect statement of the following about internal focusing telescope:
(1) Length of Telescope is small (2) It has better optical properties
(3) Better brightness of image (4) There is less imbalance
17. The space between two lenses of―Ramsden Eye Piece‖
(1) (1/3) F (2) (2/3) F (3) F (4) (3/4)F
18. The eyepiece that is generally used for high precise instruments is
(1) Huygen‘s (2)Ramsden’s (3) Kepler‘s (4) None of above.
19. Pick up the correct statement of the following about ―Dumpy Level‖
(1) Telescope is generally of internal focusing type.
(2) Size is defined by the focal length of the object glass
(3) The line joining the point of intersection of the cross hairs and the optical centre
of the objective is called line of collimation
(4) All are correct.
20. The most important requirement for leveling is that the
(1) Horizontal cross hair should lie in a plane perpendicular to the vertical axis
(2) Axis of bubble tube should be perpendicular to the vertical axis
(3) Line of sight should be parallel to the axis of bubble tube.
(4) None of above.
21. Levelling of dumpy level is done to make
(1) The vertical axis truly vertical (2) The line of sight truly horizontal.
(3) The optical axis truly horizontal (4) None of above.
22. The following type of leveling cannot be done with a dumpy level.
(1) Differential Leveling (2) Reciprocal Leveling
(3) Trigonometric Leveling (4) Profile Leveling
23. ―Philadelphia rod― is a type of
(1) Solid shaft (2) Folding shaft (3) Telescopic shaft (4) NOTA
24. on a turning point

(1) Only a fore sight is taken (2) Only a back sight is taken
(3) Both F.S & B.S are taken (4) An intermediate sight is taken.
25. The number of divisions for one meter of an ordinary leveling staff are
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 400 (4)1000
26. Height of instrument (H.I) in leveling is the
(1) Height of Telescope axis above the ground
(2) Elevation of line of sight with respect to a datum
(3) Elevation of line of sight with respect to M.S.L
27. A fore sight is a sight taken on a point which is
(1) Last point only (2) Turning point only
(3) First point only (4) Both turning and last points
28. The balancing of sights generally means
(1) B.S distance = F.S distance
(2) B.S distance = Intermediate sight distance
(3) F.S distance = Intermediate sight distance
(4) None of above
29. The elevation of a Bench mark is +100.00. The Back sight taken on a staff held vertically
is 2.30 m. If the foresight taken as a point of ‗A‘ is +2.45m. The R.L of ‗A‘ is
(1) +100.15 (2) +99.85 (3) +102.45 (4)+102.30
30. The R.L of Bench Mark taken on roof of a tunnel is +200.00. The B.S taken on a staff
held inverted is +1.500. If the F.S is taken on a staff held vertically at a point 6 A‘ is +2.500,
the R.L of A is
(1) +199.00 (2) -196.00 (3) +196.00 (4) +204.00
31. In ‗Collimation method‘ there is a check on
(1) B.S and F.S only (2) B.S and I.S only
(3) B.S only (4) B.S, F.S and I.S.
32. The rise and fall method provides an arithmetic check on
(1) Back Sights only (2) Fore sights only
(3) Back sights and Fore sights (4) Intermediate sights also
33. If the staff reading of a succeeding point is smaller than that of preceding point it
indicates (staff held vertically on ground)
(1) Rise (2) Fall (3) Rise or Fall (4) None

34. Balancing Back Sights and Fore Sights can eliminate the error due to
(1) Collimation only (2) Curvature and refraction only
(3) Collimation, curvature and refraction (4) None of the above
35. Pick up the incorrect statement of the following:
(1) Correction for curvature is negative (2) Correction for refraction is positive
(3) Combined correction is positive (4) Error due to curvature is positive
36. If the distance between the instrument station and staff station is 1 km, the correction for
refraction in ‗m‘ is
(1) 0.0673 (2) 0.0785 (3) 0.0112 (4) 0.0121
37. In Reciprocal leveling the errors which is not completely eliminated is due to
(1) Earth‘s Curvature (2) Non adjustment of line of collimation
(3) Refraction (4) Non adjustment of bubble tube
38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists
List I List II
P. Reciprocal leveling Points above the line of collimation
Q. Balancing Fore Sig ht and Back Eliminates the collimation error Sight distances
R. Inverted Staff Reading The vertical axis is not perpendicular to the
line of collimation
S. Tilting level Eliminates error due to inclined line of
collimation also
Codes:
(1) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (2) P-4, Q-2, R-l, S-3
(3) P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-2 (4) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
39. The two-peg test in the adjustment of a dumpy level employs the principle that
(1) Equal lengths at back sight and fore sight do not affect the difference in level
(2) Reciprocal leveling eliminates errors of non-parallel instrument and collimation
axes.
(3) Tow readings from the same station will minimize errors in bubble tube axis
(4) Correction is made for vertical axis at one peg and for horizontal axis at the other
peg
Contour

 Contour is a imaginary line joining points of equal elevation.
 Vertical distance between any two consecutive contours is called ―contour interval‖
 Horizontal distance between any two points on two consecutive contours is known as
―horizontal equivalent‖.
Choice of contour interval depends upon:
1) The nature of the ground
2) The scale of the map.
3) The purpose and extent of the survey.
4) Time and expense of field and office work.
Characteristics of contours:
1) Two contour lines of different elevations never cross each other. If they crosses that
means point of intersection may have two different elevations. However contour line can
intersect only in case of overhanging cliff or cave
2) Contour lines of different elevations con unite to form one line only in the case of a
vertical cliff.
3) Contour lines close together indicates steep slope if they are a part, gentle slope is there.
If contour lines are equally spaced, uniform slope is indicated.
4) A contour passing through any point is 1lar to the line of steepest slope at that point.
5) A closed contour line with one or more higher readings inside it represents a hill. A
closed contour with one or more lower ones inside it represents a depression without an
outlet.
6) Two contour line having same eleven cannot unite and continue as one line similarly,
single contour cannot split into two lines.
7) Contour line must close upon itself, though not necessarily within the limits of map.
8) Contour lines cross a watershed or ridge line at right angles. They form curves of U
shape round it with the concave side of the curve towards higher ground
9) Contour lines cross a valley line at right angles. They from sharp curves of V – shape
across it with the convex side of the curve towards higher ground.
10) The same contour appears on either side of a ridge or valley, for the highest horizontal
plane that intersect the ridge must cut it on both sides.
Uses of contour maps:
1) In drawing sections
2) Determination of intervisibility between two points
3) Tracing of contour gradients and location of route.

4) Measurement of drainage area.
5) Calculation of reservoir capacity
6) Intersection of surfaces and measurement of earthwork.
Methods of Contouring
For locating contours horizontal and vertical distances between points should be known.
1. Direct Method
Contour to be plotted is actually traced on ground. Elevations of those points are determined
which need to be plotted. Method is slow and tedious. Used for small areas where great
accuracy is required (large scale maps).
2. Indirect Method
Points are selected along a system of straight lines and their elevations are determined.
Contours are then drawn by interpolation. While interpolating it is assumed that slope
between two guiding points is uniform. Selected points are not points on contour except by
coincidence. Less tedious and less time consuming, so preferred for most of the engineering
works.
Geographical Information System (GIS)

GIS is a system designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present spatial
or geographic data.
Objectives
1. Altimetry may be depicted most accurately by
(1) hachures (2) relief shading (3) layer tinting (4) contour lines
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Vertical cliff 1. Contour lines of different elevations unite to form one line
B. Steep slope 2. Contour lines of different elevations cross one another
C. Hill 3. Contour lines are closely spaced
D. Overhanging cliff 4. Closed contour lines with higher values inside them
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 2
(2) 1 3 4 2

(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 4 2 1 3
3. Match List - I (Terms) with List - II (Description) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Contour
B. Line of collimation
C. Tie line
D. Magnetic meridian
List-II
1. Line joining magnetic North and South
2. Line joining subsidiary station on the main line
3. Line joining points of same elevation
4. Line joining optical centre of the objective, lens with point of intersection of
cross-wires
Codes:
A B C O
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 3 1 2
6. What is the angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line?

(a) 300 (b) 00 (c) 180 (d) 900
7. Consider the following statements about the characteristics of contours:

1. Closed contour lines with higher values inside show a lake.
2. Contour is an imaginary line joining points of equal elevations.
3. Closely spaced contours indicate steep slope.
4. Contour lines can cross each other in case an overhanging cliff.
(1) 2, 3 and 4 (2) 1 and 2 only (3) 1 and 4 (4) 1 , 2 and 3


Civil Engineering Objective Questions For Government Exams

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originaltitel

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Civil Engineering Objective Questions For Government Exams

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

[Free Circulated Soft Copy for Students Preparing MES Civil]

VISION ENGINEERING ACADEMY, PUNE

GATE + IES + PSUs + MPSC

Elements of Civil Engineering

(Theory & Objective)

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

Manufacture of Portland cement

Oxides composition in raw materials of OPC

Oxides Average Percentage

Alumina, Al2O3 6.3

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

Magnesia, MgO 2.4

Sulphur trioxide, SO3 1.5

Oxide compound mentioned above are in the form of

Main compounds Chemical composition Percentage in Mass

tricalcium silicate ( C3S) 3 CaO SiO2 25 to 50

Dicalcium silicate (C2S) 2 CaO SiO2 22 to 45

Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) 3 CaO Al2O3 5 to 12

Tetra calcium alumino ferrite (C4AF) 4 CaO Al2O3 Fe2O3 6 to 12

Basic properties of cement ingredients

Physical properties of Portland Cement

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

6. Specific gravity: Generally it is about 3.15.

Chemical properties of cement

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

OPC Based Cement

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

10. Consider the following statements:

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

Composition of brick Earth:

Chemical composition of brick:

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

Properties of Bricks (IS 1077-1976)

1. Size and shape of brick: Standard size of common building break is 19 cm * 9 cm * 9

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

4) Compressive strength: It is used to determine durability and ability of brick to resist

Class strength maximum water efflorescence Uses

I 7.5 20 Slight permanent works, load bearing

II 5 22 Slight plastered works

III 3.5 25 Moderate unimportant structures

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

3. Metamorphic rocks: Parent rock is igneous or sedimentary rock which undergoes

Example: marble - limestone and Marl

Physical classification or petrological classification:

*** Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE ***

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *

* Vision Engineering Academy, PUNE *