REVIEWER For COMPREHENSIVE EXAM

COMPREHENSIVE EXAM REVIEWER
MODULE I
A. Strategic Communication
1. The following are the four basic components of Strategic Communication Plan, EXCEPT
A. Rationale Statement
B. Situational Analysis
C. Goals and Objectives
D. Financial Requirements
E. Key Stakeholders the Message, and Media
2. Which of the following is TRUE about Strategic Communication?
I. The most important and often least understood factor that moves an organization from
strategy development to implementation is strategic communication.
II. Strategic communication entails packaging a core message that reflects an agency's
overall strategy, values, purpose and mission to persuade key stakeholders and enhance
positioning
III. Strategic Communication establishes organizational clarity and dissuades freelance
endeavours that may serve a few well, but detract from the organization’s overall direction
and purpose
IV. A Solid Strategic Communication Plan (SCP) should synchronize organizational units and
align resources to deliver a common core message.
A. Statements I, II and III are true.

B. Statements II, III and IV are true.
C. Statements III, IV and I are true.
D. Statements IV, I, and II are true.
E. All statements are true.
3. One of the major parts of Strategic Communication Plan is the Rationale Statement. Which of
the following is NOT related to Rational Statement?
A. The rationale statement should underscore this sense of here-but-not-et tension and also
summarize the SCP goals and objectives that will move the organization toward strategy
implementation.
B. The rationale statement serves as a kind of introduction to the broader SCP.
C. In the rationale statement, the agency needs to diagnose the existing culture, or how
things are done now.
D. The rationale statement makes a concise case for the desired change.
E. In the rationale statement, the agency must articulate why the current process is insufficient.
4. Which of the following refers to the PNP Masterplan for Anti-Criminality Campaign?
A. Santinig
B. Sandugo
C. Sandigan
D. Saklolo
E. Sang-banat
5. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Arrange the following
major parts according to its proper order presented in the lecture?
I. Goals and Objectives
II. Situational Analysis
III. Rationale Statement
IV. Key Stakeholders, the Message and Media
V. Budgetary Requirements
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, V, II
C. V, IV, III, II
D. II, V, I, III
E. III, II, I, IV
6. Which of the following is TRUE about Key Stakeholders, the Message and Media?
A. Stakeholders include anyone affected by the strategic communication goal, including

employees, citizens, lawmakers, or other groups who have a vested interest in the outcome.
B. The messages must be tailored for the respective target or audience, and an agency must
answer the “what’s in it for me questions that inevitably emerge.
C. For law enforcement departments, the message for employees must address how the change
will increase effectiveness, esprit de corps, or other relevant cultural issues.
D. Selecting the right medium to either inform of or discuss the change depends on the
stakeholders.
E. All of the choices.
7. Which of the following refers to the PNP Masterplan for Anti-Illegal Drugs Campaign?
A. SANTINIG
B. SANDUGO
C. SANDIGAN
D. SAKLOLO
E. SANG-BANAT
8. What does the following sentence describe It is the process of infusing communications efforts
with an agenda and a master plan?
A. Mass Communication
B. Strategic Communication
C. Corporate Communication
D. Company Communication
E. Government Communication
9. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Which of the following is
the SECOND major part?
A. Goals and Objectives

B. Budgetary Requirements
C. Situational Analysis
D. Rationale Statement
E. Key Stakeholders, the Message, and Media
10. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Which of the following is
the FIRST major part?
A. Goals and Objectives

B. Budgetary Requirements
C. Situational Analysis
D. Rationale Statement
E. Key Stakeholders, the Message, and Media
11. The BEST way to accomplish the PNP mandate is done through-.
A. Individual
B. Teamwork
C. Unit
D. Division
E. Section
12. Which among the following values is considered PARAMOUNT to the leadership of PNP
heads?
A. Integrity
B. Faithfulness
C. Religious
D. Commitment
E. Honesty
13. These are easier to define or identify and management can directly influence them:
A. Hard elements
B. Skills
C. Soft elements
D. Style
E. None of the above
14. According to John Maxwell, the price tag of leadership is:
A. Hardwork
B. Integrity
C. Honesty
D. Self-control
E. Dedication
15. Values refer to something that we have enduring preference, while character, positively
speaking, means good reputation or good moral constitution. Which of the following is your stand
regarding this statement:
a. The statement is too vague

b. The statement is false
c. The statement is true
d. The statement has no basis
e. The statement is half truth
16. Servant-leadership empowers people through:
A. Guidance, caring, and trust

B. Example, understanding, and sensitivity
C. Appreciation and encouragement
D. A and B
E. All of the above
17. The process of becoming a servant leader is a ____________ process:
a. Difficult
b. Very hard
c. Life-long
d. Challenging
e. Problematic
18. Character is made up of which two interacting parts:
a. Tactical and technical skills

b. Values and culture
c. Values and attributes
d. Balance and stability
e. Mental and emotional
19. Coaching, Teaching, Counseling, Motivating and Empowering are leadership skills known as:
A. Technical Skills
B. Conceptual Skills
C. Tactical Skills
D. Interpersonal Skills
E. Decision-making Skills
20. In the question "What a leader must be, special emphasis is placed on character. Which of the
following is/are the reason/s therefore?
A. Character contributes significantly to how a person acts

B. A person of character will act faultlessly.
C. Character helps a person to know what is right and do what is right all the time and at whatever
cost.
D. A and B
E. A and C
21. It refers to the conceptual skills in leadership
A. Analytical reasoning
B. Planning
C. Decision-making
D. Influencing
E. Controlling
22. Adaptive Leadership is:
A. A "reality on the ground" approach to leadership.

B. An approach to command.
C. Based on the situation and factors such as mission, personnel's capabilities geography,
weaponry, and more.
D. All of the above
23. The following describe an "adaptive leader, EXCEPT:
A. Anticipate and employ a broad-based style of command.

B. Take risks and make decisions, learn from events, and adjust plans accordingly
C. Gives emphasis on detailed solution of a problem.
D. Able to switch from one critical task to another without hesitation.
24. Which among the three aspects Contemporary Operating Environment
a. Ambiguity, Technicality, and Change

b. Clarity, Complexity, and Change
c. Ambiguity, Complexity and Change
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
25. To be and adaptive leader, one must have the following:
a. Training and education which is the foundation of this leadership style

b. Embrace lifetime learning to build the technical and critical-thinking skills
c. Entrust subordinates with responsibility and authority, empower them to take prudent risks,
accept mistakes as opportunities to learn, and help others to learn to cope with constant
change
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
26. This identifies what needs to be realigned to improve the organization's performance and
maintain alignment during a period of change.
A. McKinsey's 5's Framework

B. McKinsey's 8's Framework
C. Strategy
D. McKinsey's 7's Framework
E. All of the above
27. One of the following is a technique used to identify the key people who have to be won over.
This is typically used when you do your programs and projects to build the support that will help
you succeed:
A. SWOT
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Environmental scanning
D. PESTEL
E. All of the above
28. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory of Motivation states ONE of the following:
A. Positive outcomes and high level of motivation can be expected only when employees
perceive their treatment to be fair.
B. All organizations have policies which are statements of goals and objectives,
C. Encompasses conflicts between government and citizens.
D. Involves allocating time and influence.
E. All of the above
29. Expectation management is often said the driver to managing staff well known as Pygmalion
effect and the Galatea effect. Which among the following succinctly describes this concept?
A. The ways managers treat their subordinates is subtly influenced by what they expect of
them.
B. They leave scar on the careers of young people, cut deeply onto their self-esteem and distort
their image of themselves as human beings.
C. The time horizon of the work in terms of days, months and years.
D. Their rate of change overtime.
E. All of the above
30. According to Hambrick and Fredrickson, there are five (5) elements of strategy. In this case,
the following are these elements, EXCEPT:
A. Vehicles
B. Political Logic
C. Arenas
D. Differentiators
31. Strategy formulation requires a series of steps performed in sequential order that must be
taken to build upon one another. But, these two processes are continually performed throughout
the strategy formulation.
A. Values assessment and culture awareness.

B. Vision and mission formulation
C. Strategy design and thrusts
D. Environmental scanning and continuous implementation
32. Strategic planning is done unless the external and internal context has changed dramatically
and does a strategic review every year to look at the strategic framework or reality check.
A. Annually
B. Daily
C. Once every three years
D. Quarterly
E. Semi-Annually
33. These are qualitative manifestations that the objectives are being attained:
A. Key Result Areas

B. Mission
C. Core Values
D. Vision
E. All of the Above
34. Project Management is:

A. Solely a science in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating project
B. Both science and art in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating project
C. Solely an art in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating projects
D. Neither a science nor art in planning, implementing, monitoring, evaluating project
E. All of the Above
35. Project Management differs from other forms of management in the sense that:
A. It has a fixed timeline, budget, objectives/goal, and management structure

B. It is an ongoing concern with unlimited timeline, budget, objective and management
C. It does not consider external conditions or threats in designing an intervention
D. It considers internal capabilities in designing an intervention
E. All of the Above
36. The goal or end result in Project Management refers to
A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries

B. Contribution to society/sector, to include direct beneficiaries and other people
C. Products and services delivered to the beneficiaries
D. Tasks performed by the project implementers
E. Resources needed for the project
37. The output or immediate result in Project Management refers to:
A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries

B. Contribution to society/sector, to include direct beneficiaries and other people
C. Products and services delivered to the beneficiaries
D. Tasks performed by the project implementers
38. Risks and Assumptions in Project Management look into:
A. Internal strengths and weaknesses

B. External opportunities and threats
C. Strategies how to implement the project
D. All factors that can negatively impact on project
39. Indicators are measures of performance. Which of the following is not a good indicator?
A. Number of police officers trained in Project Management

B. Increase in crime incidence rate
C. Number of intelligent police officers
D. Ratio of the number of police personnel versus land area covered by
40. Implementation of project means?
A. Launching the project

B. Executing the activities and plans of the project
C. Checking of accomplishments versus plans
D. Checking of expenditures versus budget
E. All of the choices
41. Which of the following is least important in setting up the project team?
A. Names and address of the managers and staff

B. Roles and responsibilities of the managers and staff
C. Hierarchy of decision making
D. Office layout for efficiency and effectiveness
42. Evaluation a Project means?
A. Looking at the grand scheme of things upon project

B. Tracking end results versus planned goal
C. Tracking output and outcome accomplishments versus target
D. All of the above
E. A and C
43. Project completion Date best describes the:
A. Day when you submit the Project Completion Report

B. Day when project goal and objectives will be attained
C. Last day of conducting activities and disbursing funds
D. Last working day of the Project Management Team
44. When we say vision in Project Management, we mean:
A. What you want to see

B. What you want to be
C. What you want to do
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
45. The following are definitions of Financial Management, EXCEPT:
A. It is the planning, organizing, directing and controlling, and monitoring of the monetary
resources of an organization.
B. It is the wise utilization of available resources towards the achievement of organizational
goal.
C. It means planning, organizing, directing and controlling the financial activities such as
procurement and utilization of funds of the enterprise. It means applying general management
principles to financial resources of the enterprise.
D. It is the Operational Activity of a business that is responsible for obtaining and effectively
utilizing the funds necessary for efficient operation.
E. It refers to the efficient and effective management of money (funds) in such a manner as to
accomplish the objectives of the organization.
46. The following are the objectives of Financial Management, EXCEPT:
A. Profit maximization
B. Wealth maximization
C. Minimization on capital cost
D. Investment decision
E. Maintaining proper cash flow
47. Under existing laws, rules and regulations, the following are some of the fundamental
principles in financial transactions in government, EXCEPT:
A. No money shall be paid out of any public treasury or depository except in pursuance of an
appropriation, law or other specific statutory authority.
B. No obligation of the government shall be paid without the prior approval of the Resident
Auditor of the Commission on Audit.
C. Fiscal responsibility, shall to the greatest extent, be shared by all those exercising authority over
the financial affair, transactions, and operations of the government agency.
D. Claims against government funds shall be supported with complete documentation.
E. Disbursements or disposition of government funds or property shall invariably bear the approval
of the proper officials.
48. The following are the basic requirements applicable to all classes of disbursements in
government EXCEPT:
A. Duly approved purchase order by the head of agency or his duly authorized
representative.
B. Certificate of availability of fund.
C. Documents to establish validity of claim.
D. Conformity of the expenditure to existing laws and regulations.
E. Proper accounting treatment.
49. A massive and reinvigorated conduct of anti-illegal drugs operations targeting illegal drug
personalities and drug syndicates.
A. Project Double Barrel

B. Oplan Tokhang
C. Project High Value Target
D. Project Double Barrel Alpha
50. It refers to a level of drug personalities whose arrest will decrease drug activities and lessens
crime incidents in the area and shall increase the safety and security of the community.
A. High Impact Target (HIT)

B. Drug-Affected Barangay
C. Project High Value Target
D. Project Double Barrel Alpha
51. It refers to the PNP Anti-Illegal Drugs Campaign, Command Memorandum Circular No. 16-
2016
a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie

b. Project: Double Barrel
c. Project: HVT
d. Project: Double Barrel Alpha
e. Project: HIT
52. A practical and realistic means of accelerating the drive against illegal drugs in affected
barangays. This concept involves the conduct of house to house visitation to persuade suspected
illegal drug personalities to stop their illegal activities.
a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie

b. Project: HVT
c. Project: Tokhang
d. Project: Double Barrel Alpha
e. Project: HIT
53. Issued on the 16th of June 2015 with Subject: Revitalization of the Barangay Anti-Drug Abuse
Council (BADAC) and their role in Drug Clearing Operations.
a. DILG Memo Circular No. 2015-63

b. DILG Memo Circular No. 98.227
c. DILG Memo Circular No. 2012-94
d. DILG Memo Circular No. 2007
e. DILG Memo Circular No. 2015-227
54. It provides the implementing guidelines in the formulation and institutionalization of a standard
preventive information and education program of the PNP to protect the youths from the harmful
effects and dangerous drugs.
a. Project: HVT
b. Project: Baraks Ni Good Brother
c. Project: Reality
d. CARE: Project
e. Project: SPARE
56. In the hierarchy of Drug Trafficking Syndicate they are the mastermind of the complicated,
compartmentalized network. The source orchestrates not only the distribution of the illegal drugs
but also the actual selection and deployment of the elements needed to run the laboratory and
manufacturing operations
A. Wholesaler
B. Distributor
C. Street Pushing
D. Source
E. Manufacturing
56. A new drug group operating in the Philippines. They associated with the Chinese drug Group
to penetrate the Philippine market.
A. Chinese or Filipino-Chinese drug syndicates
B. African Drug Syndicate (ADS)
C. Local Drug Syndicate
D. Mexican-Sinaloa Drug Cartel
E. African Drug Syndicate
57. Performance excellence STARTS with the management functions on .
A. Organizing
B. Directing
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
E. Planning
58. The BEST time to set performance standards for any activity to be done
is .
A. Before the start of the work

B. During the work process
C. Any time of the activity
D. Before the final payment
E. All of the above
59. The leadership EMPHASIS during the 20th Century was more of .
A. Service
B. Authority
C. Credentials
D. Job knowledge
60. The flow of information and feedbacking in an organization should be:
A. Top-down only
B. Bottoms-up
C. Top-down and vice-versa
D. It depends
E. All of the above
61. which of the following does not define peace building?
A. address the root causes of conflict

B. Reconcile differences
C. Normalize relations
D. Building institutions that can manage conflicts without restoring to violence
E. Social Media
62. Which of the following does NOT belong to the four channels of communication flows?
A. Between individuals in conflict
B. Within a group where conflict exist
C. Social media versus traditional media
D. Within groups or communities in conflict
E. Between Communities and organizations such as multilaterals government and NGOs
63. It includes the key challenges in communications:
A. Collaboration and management of information flows

B. Social Media
C. Credibility
D. Environmental factors
E. Privacy
64. Functional analysis media in conflict prevention and peace building includes:
A. Media as information provider and interpreter

B. Media as watchdog
C. Media as jury
D. Media as peace promoter
E. Media as bridge builder
65. The process of developing aligned Scorecards throughout an organization. Each level of the
organization will develop Scorecards based on the objectives and measures they can influence
from the Scorecard of the group to whom they report.
A. Cascading
B. Workshop
C. Lead Indicator
D. Balanced Scorecard
66. An integrated framework for describing strategy through the use of linked performance
measures in four, balanced perspectives - Financial, Customer, Internal Process, and Employee
Learning and Growth. It acts as a measurement system, strategic management system, and
communication tool.
A. Cascading
B. Workshop
C. Lead Indicator
67. The specific programs, activities, projects or actions an organization will undertake in an effort
to meet performance targets
A. Initiatives
B. Measures
C. Workshop
68. Measures in this perspective are often considered "enablers" of measures appearing in the
other three perspectives. Employee skills, availability of information, and organizational climate are
often measured in this perspective.
A. Community Perspective
B. Learning and Growth Perspective
C. Lead Indicators
69. PACREP stands for?
A. Periodic Analysis Crime Report

B. Periodic Area Commander's Report
C. Police Analysis Commander's Report
D. PRO Area Commanders Report
70. UCPER stands for'?
A. Unit Crime Preparation Report

B. Unit Case Performance Report
C. Unit Crime Periodic Report
D. Unit Case Periodic Report
71. The formula on how to get the Total Crime Solution Efficiency:
A. Index Crime + Non-Index Crimes

B. Total Solved Cases/Total Crime Volume x 100%
C. Total Cleared Cases/Total Crime Volume x 100%
D. Crime Volume/Population x 100,000
72. What is the acronym of the first e-Projects?
A. e-Blotter
B. e-Warrant
C. e-Subpoena
D. e-Rogue
73. Aside from incidents recorded in the main blotter book, what are the two (2) incidents that
should be included in the entry of CIRAS/e-Blotter?
A. Theft and Robbery Cases

B. Drugs and Special Law Cases
C. Traffic and Women's and Children Concern Cases
D. Heinous and Sensational Cases
74. What Memorandum Circular authorizes the implementation of CIRAS?
A. MC 2014-006
B. MC 2014-008
C. MC 2014-010
D. MC 2014-007
E. MC 2014-009
75. Which of the following system is named as the investigator's digital notebook?
A. CIRAS
B. CMAS
C. CIDMS
D. CBIS
76. In e-Rogue Gallery System, which among the following shall be uploaded?
A. All arrested person with Warrant of Arrest

B. All arrested person without Warrant of Arrest
C. All arrested person with or without Warrant of Arrest
E. All person applying for Police Clearance
77. Which level of PNP units can upload in the e-Rogue Gallery System?
A. All PNP units

B. All Police Stations
C. All PPOs/CPOs
D. All PROs
E. All of Districts
78. How many views of mug shots are required for uploading in e-Rogue Gallery?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 5
79. It refers to the PNP unit that initially used CIDMS.
A. DIDM
B. CIDG
C. ITMS
D. WCPC
80. What does the following describe? “It is a process where community members come together
to take collective action and generate solution to community problems:
A. Unit Development
B. Community Enhancement
C. Community Development
D. Organizational Development
E. Community immersion Program
81. Below are the characteristics of community development EXCEPT:
A. Long term endeavour

B. Well-planned
C. Exclusive and undivided
D. Holistic and integrated into bigger pictures
E. Initiated and supported by community members
82. What is the ultimate goal of Community Development?

A. Improve the quality of life
B. Diversity of interests within a community
C. Relationship to building capacity
D. Reduce poverty and suffering
E. Create employment opportunities
83. Community Development is a grassroots process by which communities _________.

A. Become more responsible
B. Organize and plan together
C. Develop healthy lifestyle options
D. Empower themselves
E. All of the above
84. Which of the following are effective Community Development results in mutual benefit and
shared responsibility among community members?
I. The connection between social, cultural, environmental, and economic matters
II. The diversity of interests within a community
III. Its relationship to building capacity
IV. Benefit to the community
V. Grounded in experience that leads to best practices
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. IV, V, I
E. V, II, III
85. Which of the following factors can be used to define a community?

A. Beliefs
B. Language
C. Cultural heritage
D. Shared interests
E. All of the above
86. Which of the following are NOT tools for managing change?
I. A holistic and integrated into the bigger picture
II. An initiated and supported by community members
III. A quick fix or a short-term response to a specific issue within a community
IV. A process that seeks to exclude community members from participating
V. An initiative that occurs in isolation from other related community activities
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. IV, V, I
E. V, II, III
87. Which of the following statements is TRUE about community?

I. Often when we think of community, we think in geographic terms.
II. Our community is the city, town or village where we live.
III. When community is defined through physical location, it has precise boundaries that
are readily understood and accepted by others.
IV. Defining communities in terms of geography, however, is only one way of looking at
them.
A. Statements I, II and III are true.

B. Statements II, III and IV are true.
C. Statements III, IV and I are true.
D. Statements IV, I and II are true.
E. All statements are true.
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Community Development?

I. Community Development is a tool for managing change.
II. Community Development helps to build community capacity in order to address issues
and take advantage of opportunities, find common ground and balance competing
interests.
III. Community Development helps to build community capacity in order to address issues
and take advantage of opportunities, find common ground and balance competing
interests.
IV. Community Development balances the need for long-term solutions with the day-to-day
realities that require immediate decision-making and short-term action.
V. Community Development is a process that seeks to exclude community members from
participating.
A. I, II, III, and IV

B. II, III, IV, and V
C. III, IV, V, and I
D. IV, V, I, and II
E. V, I, II, and III
89. Community policing is a that promotes organizational strategies, which

support the systematic use of partnerships and problem-solving techniques.
A. Philosophy
B. Sociology
C. Science
D. Psychology
E. Psychology and Science
90. This requires the police to make a conscious effort to create an atmosphere in which
community partners actively and willingly co-operate with the police.
A. Cooperation
B. Friendship
C. Collaboration
D. MOU
E. Partnership
91. Community policing is , promoting the concept of community as

client, and police as provider. The needs of the client become the goals of the provider in
delivering professional, client-centered service that is effective, efficient, and accountable.
A. Vision-oriented
B. Mission-oriented
C. Service-oriented
D. All of the above
92. Community Policing is an agent of creating a sense of joint responsibility and a joint capacity
for addressing issues of concern to the community and police personnel.
A. Cooperation
B. Empowerment
C. Partnership
D. Collaboration
E. Understanding
93. The study of Terrorism is basically described as an act or threat of violence with the purpose
of sowing or planting fear among the populance, which ultimate objectives are for religious,
ideological, or political control and/or influence. Counter-terrorism, on the other hand, is the PNP’s
strategy famously known as the “Three-Tiered Defense System”. It involves into various cycles,
such as: Intelligence, Target, Hardening, Incident Management, and Legal Offensive at the core.
The imaginary double arrows among the variables are said to symbolize .
A. Corroboration
B. Interdependence
C. Collaboration
D. Close cooperation
E. Interoperability
94. During the last quarter of 1973 (December), there were reported skirmishes between the AFP
troopers and muslim rebel groups in western Mindanao. This situation escalated into the MNLF
rebellion led by Prof. Nur Misuari from 1974 to 1976 resulting to the loss of numerous lives,
displacement of local inhabitants, and destruction of properties among others which seriously
affected the security, stability and development in that part of the country. Accordingly, the main
root causes of secessionist movement in the southern Philippines aggravated by the famous
Jabidah massacre on 18 March 1968 in Corregidor island are:
A. Ancestral Domain
B. Self-Determination
C. Military Abuses
D. Both A and B
E. Poverty
95. Based on the book, Inside the Revolution” Joel Rosen Berge according to him around 1.2
billion Muslims all over the world, 90 million of whom are “radicals” who espouse Islamic
extremism, while about 1.1 billion as “reformist” who still believe in traditional Islam. The most
dangerous issue that differs one from the other is the radical interpretation of “JIHAD” Which one
below does not quality as the extremist way of Jihads.
A. A holy war on behalf of Islam
B. Use of Mujahideen of freedom fighter
C. A religious duty to kill Americans and Jaws
D. Martydom as a consequences of struggle
E. None of the Above
96. Filipino Muslims are basically known as Bangsamoro people who profess the Islamic faith
based on the Holy Qur’an and the Shariah Law. Salamat Hashim, the former Vice Chairman of
MNLF broke away from Prof. Nur Misuari when the latter forged a peace agreement with the
government in 1976 hosted by Moammar Khadaffy in Tripoli, Libya. This secessionist group
presently known as Moro Islamic Liberation Front continues to fight for their cause which aims to:
A. Break away from the Republic of the Philippines
B. Establish an Islamic Theocratic government
C. Establish an independent Republic
D. Form the Bangsamoro Islamic Armed Forces
E. All of the above
97. On September 11, 2001, the world’s dreaded terrorist group attacked the U.S. mainland using
four hijacked commercial planes that slammed through the twin towers, and the Pentagon which
caused the death of around three thousand lives and the destruction of properties worth billions of
dollars. Al Qaeda is an Islamic extremist group which is basically stateless and army-less but
advocates religious-political objective. Through terror tactics it ultimately aims to establish pan
Islamization of caliphate.
A. the Middle East
B. the whole world
C. Southeast Asia
D. the western world
E. Asia and Pacific
98. Russian communism adopted the Marxist-Leninist doctrines which basically called for a
proletarian revolution to overthrow the government. In the Philippines, the CPP/NPA/NDF has
espoused the Mao Tse Tung's dogma of "encircling the cities from the countryside’s" thus, leading
to the formation of the peasant farmers as the main force of the revolution first, followed by
workers to act as the leading force during the final stage of the ward. This is otherwise known as:
A. Guerilla Warfare
B. Unorthodox War
C. Protracted People's War
D. War of Movements
E. Unconventional Warfare
99. The private talks that transpired between Pres. Aquino and Chairman Al Hur Murad sometime
in 2011 in Tokyo, Japan precipitated into further conflict which prompted revel Comdr. Ameril
Umbra Kato to break away from the MILF and for another secessionist group in southern
Philippines. Reportedly, there had be armed confrontations between the two groups where in the
latter accredit Chairman Murad of diverting the true cause of the Bansamoro people independence
and autonomy by apparently submitting the MILF to the government’s conditions. This separatist
group is known as:
A. Misuari Breakaway Group
B. Bangsamoro Islamic Freedom Fighters
C. Rajah Sulaiman Group
D. Abu Sayyaf Group
E. Royal Forces of the Sultanate of Sulu
100. Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) is an Islamic extremist group which claimed responsibility in several
bombing attacks particularly in Bali, Indonesia and Marriot Hotel, the Rizal and Valentine's Days in
the Philippines, among others, killing and wounding several hundreds of innocent civilians.
Accordingly, JI is closely link with Al Queda and the Abbu Sayyaf Group (ASG) and its objectives is
to undertake intensified terror assaults in order to establish an Islamic caliphate or empire in:
A. The Philippines
B. Asia and the Pacific
C. Southeast Asia
D. Malaysia
E. Indonesia
101. Abu Sayyaf Group a local terrorist group operating in southwestern Philippines has been
reportedly associated with the Al Qaeda and Jemaah Isalamiyah. Apparently its main objective is
the establishment of an Islamic caliphate in the country. One of its terror tactics is the decapitation
of their captured enemies as evidenced by seach and retrieval operations. Accordingly, beheading
is just considered a normal activity against those who are considered enemies of Allah which a
justified under the following factors and circumstances EXCEPT;
A. As part of traditional Jihad
B. As part of offensive or defensive Jihad
C. No to entertain guilty feelings/conscience
D. Expect blessing from Allah in return
E. As an offering that gives pleasure to Allah
102. Islamic extremism portulates that “Al Akbak” is the greater type of Jihad which simply means
the offering of one’s life as a supreme sacrifice in the cause of Allah (Jihad Fi Sabililah-laggu”) or
Jihad in the way of God is the greatest devotion Islamic radicals believe that a Martyrdom is the
highest expression of Jihad and every martyr shall be rewarded with the following, EXCEPT:
A. To be accompanied by 72 virgins upon death
B. To receive the grace of salvation
C. To live at the highest place in paradise
D. To enjoy eternal life with Allah
103. It is the process of using a geographic information system in combination with crime analysis
techniques to focus on the spatial context of criminal and other police activity.
A. Computerized Crime Mapping
B. Quantitative Crime Analysis
C. Qualitative Crime Analysis
D. Spatial Crime Analysis
104. Most police organizations have extensive and directives to guide officer conduct in a number
of situations?
A. Police Operations Manuals
B. Rules and regulations
C. Decorum manual
D. Police Ethics
105. A process grounded in data, begins with collecting, analysing and mapping crime
occurrences.
A. Qualitative Crime Analysis
B. Quantitative Crime Analysis
C. COMPSTAT
D. Crime Rate
106. Who is responsible for the review all police/barangay reports and blotter entries every day
with the goal of identifying patterns as they emerge?
A. Station Commander
B. Investigators
C. Crime Analysts
D. Chief, Investigation
107. This is used to communicate response goals, objectives and support activities throughout the
ICS organization and is developed for each operational period (usually 12-24 hours)?
A. Incident Command System
B. Incident Action Plan
C. Incident Command Post
D. Staging Area
108. An occurrence that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of lives, or damage
to property.
A. Incident Command System
B. Incident Commander
C. Incident
D. Command
109. Under the Operations Section, the is divided geographically based

on the needs of the incident.
A. Group
B. Division
C. Branch
D. Task Force
110. This facility is the temporary location where helicopters can safely land and take off?
A. Staging Area
B. Helispot
C. Base
D. Incident Command Post
E. Camp
111. Executive Order Nr is one of the legal basis of ICS signed by President Benigno
Aquino III.
A. 81
B. 82
C. 83
D. 84
E. 85
112. This facility is the location for out-of-service equipment (for repair) and personnel (for
medication).
A. Incident Command Post
B. Camp
C. Base
D. Staging Area
113. Which among the following situations is not contemplated in “mistake” under Article 4,
paragraph 1, Revised Penal Code?
A. Mistake of Fact
B. Praeter Intentionem
C. Aberatio Ictus
D. None of the above
E. Error in Personae
114. generally gives rise to a complex crime. The penalty for the more
most serious crime is imposed in the maximum period.
A. Mistake of Fact
B. Error in Personae
C. Aberratio Ictus
D. Praeter Intentionem
115. Even if there is conspiracy, if a con-conspirator merely cooperated with insignificant or

minimal acts, such co-conspirator should be punished as an accomplice only, EXCEPT when the
felony constitutes a .
A. Composite Crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Complex crime
D. impossible crime
116. The Obligation of suffering the consequences of a crime.

A. Guilt
B. Responsibility
C. lmputability
D. Liability
117. X threatened to kill Y if Y will not sign a Deed of Sale of Y’s property in favor of X. Y signed
the Deed of Sale. What felony did X commit?
A. Grave Threats
B. Robbery
C. Grave Coercion
D. Estafa
118. X kidnapped children A, B and C and asked for ransom from their parents. When. The
parents failed to give the ransom money, X killed A, B and C. What crime/s did X commit?
A. Kidnapping with Murder
B. Kidnapping with Multiple Murder
C. Kidnapping with Homicide
D. Kidnapping with Multiple Homicide
119. X was able to have carnal knowledge of his girlfriend while the latter was drunk. What crime
did X commit?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Rape
D. None of these
E. All of the above
120. X stole a Rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner. What crime did he
commit?
A. Theft
B. Possession of Picklock
C. Robbery
D. Possession of False Key
121. A took several jewelry from a room by entering through the window. A is liable for:
A. Robbery
B. Brigandage
C. Theft
D. Estafa
E. None got the above
122. Any person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the
purpose of applying the same to the payment of the debt, commits:
A. Grave Threats
B. Grave Coercion
C. Light Threats
D. Light Coercion
123. A PNP member inflicted physical injuries on a detainee to obtain information in the
commission of a crime. What crime did he commit?
A. Physical Injuries
B. Misfeasance
C. Maltreatment of Prisoners
D. Malfeasance
124. A PNP member who entered the dwelling of X against the latter’s will to search for
unlicensed firearms in liable for:
A. Violation of Domicile
B. Expulsion
C. Trespass to Dwelling
D. Abuse of Authority
125. Children used by any person as beggars are liable under:

A. RA 9344
B. RA 9262
C. RA 9208
D. RA 7610
E. RA 9775
126. What is the criminal liability of Alfredo if he entered a motel with a sixteen (16) year old girl?
A. Trafficking in Person
B. Child Abuse
C. Sexual Assault
D. Violence against Women and Children
E. Sexual Harassment
127. lf Alfredo was the coach of Aileen and in order for the latter to continue her 100% varsity
scholarship, she agreed to have a date with Alfredo. What is Alfredo’s criminal liability?
A. Trafficking in Person
B. Child Abuse
C. Sexual Assault
D. Violence against Women and Children
E. Sexual Harassment
For nos..128 — 131, refer to the paragraph below:
Susan, is a business woman who secured MAC Construction Corporation for the construction of a
7 storey bldg. Susan approve for the structural design and all plans presented by said construction
Corporation. The Service Contract between them stipulates that all the plans and permit for the
construction as well as the occupancy permit are included on their contract. MAC started the
construction when it applied all the requirements for the construction from the appropriate agency.
Representative from
BFP issued a written notice to the owner &/or contractor to stop the work due to absence or
violation of approved plans and specifications, permit and/or clearance or certification as approved
by the duly authorized representative of BFP.
128. What is the criminal liability of Susan?
A. RA 8749
B. PD 705
C. RA 9514
D. RA 7183
E. None
129. Which of the following law shall apply for the criminal liability of Mac Construction
Corporation?
A. RA 8749
B. PD 705
C. RA 9514
D. RA 7183
E. RA 7778
130. If the BFP will issue administrative measure to committed stop the construction due to
violation committed on the construction as the same hazardous to life and property, what is should
it issue?
A. Fire Safety Inspection Certification (FSIC)

B. Summary abatement
C. Chief, BFP or his authorize representative shall issue a sign in front of the building or structure
is fire hazard.
D. Chief, BFP or his authorized representative shall issue “WARNING: THIS
BUILDING/STRUCTURE IS A FIRE HAZARD
E. File case in court for judicial abatement
131. The following are prohibited acts committed by MAC Construction Corporation EXCEPT:
A. Not securing a permit from the BFP
B. Not installing fire which is not a prohibited act committed by the Mac Construction company
C. Use of jumpers or tampering with electrical wiring or overloading the electrical system beyond
its designated capacity
D. Abandoning or leaving a building or structure by the occupant or owner without appropriate
safety measures
E. Securing a Fire Safety Inspection Certification (FSIC) from Chief, BFP, or his/her duly
authorized representative
132. The PNP members who refrain from indulging themselves in any corruption and/or dishonest
practice in accordance with the provision of RA 6713 and other applicable laws are imbued with
A. Integrity
B. Humility
C. Kindness
D. Orderliness
E. Perseverance
133. Term of imprisonment for a person found to have illegally use fire crackers and pyrotechnic
devices.
A. Not less than six (6) years but not more than twelve (12) years
B. Six (6) years to twelve (12) years
C. Not less than six (6) months not more than one (1) year
D. Six (6) months to one (1) year
E. Not less than one (1) year not more than two (2) years
134. Which of the following is the best description of the PNP members endowed with humility?
(DOUBLE ENTRY)
A. Respect and protect human dignity and uphold the human rights of all persons.
B. Conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with the rules and regulations of the
organization.
C. Uphold the Constitution and are loyal to the country, people and organization, above their
loyalty to any person.
D. Obey lawful orders of are courteous to superior officers and other appropriate authorities
within the chain of command.
E. Recognized the fact that they are public servants and not the masters of the people
and toward this end, they perform their duties without arrogance.
135. Which is NOT a requirement in securing a license and permit for the manufacturing or selling
either of whole sale or retail of firecrackers and other pyrotechnic devices?
A. Filipino citizens of good moral character
B. Duly registered at (DTI) or (SEC)
C. Filipino citizens
D. 100% capital of Filipino
E. All of the above
136. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A. Neighborhood sanitation through burning waste is allowed
B. Food preparation is allowed.
C. Crematoria is allowed.
D. Incineration is allowed.
137. A Division in the DENR that has the power to impose fine and penalties against owner or
operator of stationary source of pollution:
A. Land Transportation Office
B. Pollution Adjudication Board
C. Bureau of Science and Technology
D. Department of Science and technology
E. Environmental Management Bureau
138. LOL Corporation is an owner of a fourteen-storey building situated beside another fourteen-
storey building. The air conditioner of LOL Corp causes pollution and noise nuisance to its
adjacent fourteen-storey building. What action can be filed by the adjacent building owner against
LOL Corp?
A. Writ of kalikasan
B. Writ of continuing mandamus
C. Abatement
D. Environmental Protection Order
E. All of the above
139. The absence of marriage certificate proves that no marriage took place.
A. True, the marriage certificate is the sole evidence of marriage, failure to present proves that no
marriage took place.
B. False, the marriage certificate is considered only as primary evidence and not the sole
evidence of marriage.
C. True, marriage certificate details the essential and formal requisites of marriage.
hence; its absence proves no- marriage took place. ,
D. False, testimonies of witness and department of persons as husband and wife cannot prove
marriage but merely evidence it.
E. insufficient data to form a conclusion.
140. Elise got married to Benidic when he was only 18 years of age. Two years later, Elise died.
Benidic later married without the consent of his parents with Shannon. Is the
marriage between Benidic and Shannon valid?
A. The marriage is valid as Benidic was already previously married, thus, parental
consent is no longer necessary.
B. The marriage is invalid, parental consent is necessary despite previous marriage-
C. The marriage is valid, parental consent is neither an essential nor a formal requisite.
D. The marriage is invalid, as marriage license should not have been issued.
E. Insufficient data to form a conclusion.
141. Statement No.1- In order to classify the marriage as a marriage in Articulo Mortis, the law
requires that the party who is at the point of death must die immediately after the celebration of the
marriage.
Statement No.2- A voidable marriage is inexistent from the time of its performance, whereas a void
marriage is binding until annulled by a competent court.
Statement No.3- The effect of lack of marriage counseling will result in the annulment of the
marriage.
A. All statements are valid.
B. All statements are void.
C. No. 1 is valid; No.2 is void; No.3 is valid
D. No.1 is void; No.2 is valid; No.3 is void
E. No. 1 is valid; No. 2 is valid; No. 3 is void
142. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. After the filing of the legal separation, the parties are already entitled to live separately from
each other.
B. After filing of the petition for declaration of nullity of marriage, the parties are already entitled to
live separately from each other.
C. After the filing of the petition for annulment of marriage, the parties are already entitled to live
separately from each other.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
143. The following are the kinds of Administrative Law. EXCEPT:

A. Statutes setting up administrative authorities
B. Rules, regulations or orders of such administrative authorities promulgate pursuant to purposes
for which they are created
C. Determinations, decisions and orders of such administrative authorities made in the settlement
of controversies arising in their particular field.
D. Determinations, decisions and orders of such administrative authorities made in exercise of
their quasi-judicial functions in the settlement of controversies arising before them
E. Body of doctrines and decisions dealing with the creation, Operation and effect of
determinations and regulations of such administrative authorities.
144. It is a branch of public law which fixes the organization and determines the competence of
administrative authorities and indicates to the individual remedies for violation of his rights.
A. Law on Public Officers
B. Political Law
C. Administrative Law
D. Constitutional Law
E. Public International Law
145. It is defined under the 1987 Administrative Code as acts of President providing for rules of a
general or permanent character in implementation or execution of constitutional or statutory
powers.
A. Administrative Orders
B. Memorandum Orders
C. Proclamations
D. Memorandum Circulars
E. Executive Orders
146. It is a fundamental principle in the Philippine System of Government which confers upon each
department of the government exclusive authority over matters within its jurisdiction, it is supreme
within its own sphere. Its mandates is separate and distinct, absolutely unrestrained and
independent of each other.
A. Check and Balances
B. Separation of Powers
C. Blending of Powers
D. Balancing of Powers
E. Delegation of Powers
147. What is the power of the President over local governments?

A. Control
B. Administration
C. Decentralization
D. Subordination
E. Supervision
148. What will happen if the local chief executive will not act on the submitted ordinance enacted
by the Sanggunian?
A. It is deemed disapproved.
B. it will be archived.
C. it will lapse into law.
D. it will be remanded back only to the Sangunian
149. Which among the following is not an inherent power of the government.
A. Police Power
B. Power of Taxation
C. Executive Power
D. Eminent Domain
150. Under existing laws, which local chief executive who may act as a court sheriff in levying
certain properties of the debtor under a given circumstance?
A. The Provincial Governor
B. The City Mayor
C. The Municipal Mayor
D. The Punong Barangay
151. Which among the following offices cannot conduct diversion under the law?
A. Office of the Mayor
B. Office of the Punong Barangay
C. Women and Children’s Desk
D. DSWD/LSWD
E. Prosecutor’s Office
152. Which of the following is NOT a local government unit/political subdivision?

A. Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
B. City of Manila
C. Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao
D. Barangay Baclaran
153. It is the foundation for unity as well as the sense of social justice.
A. Joy and Humor
B. Faith and Religiosity
C. Pakikipagkapwa-tao
D. Hard Work and integrity
E. Flexibility, Adaptability and Creativity
154. It refers to broad beliefs or ideal about what is or is not appropriate behavior.
A. Ethics
B. Values
C. Education
D. Culture
E. Morality
155. It results in the dampening of community spirit and in the trampling upon of the rights of
others.
A. Extreme personalism
B. The kanya-kanya syndrome
C. Passivity and lack of initiative
D. Extreme family centeredness
E. Lack of self analysis and self reflection
156. It refers to the development of the appropriate sensibilities such as moral, cultural, spiritual
and the ability to make proper value judgment and internalize them in one’s life.
A. Esteem
B. Self Development
C. Moral Development
D. Values Education
E. Human Development
157. Under this ethical standard, the Philippine National Police (PNP) members shall take a
legitimate means to achieve goals despite of internal or external difficulties.
A. Perseverance
B. Devotion to Duty
C. Secrecy of Discipline
D. Loyalty
E. Orderliness
158. The PNP members who refrain from indulging themselves in any corruption and/or dishonest
practices in accordance with the provisions of RA 6713 and other applicable laws are imbued with
A. Integrity
B. Humility
C. Orderliness
D. Perseverance
E. Secrecy of Discipline
159. Which of the following statements best describes ethics?

A. Individual's own principles regarding right and wrong.
B. Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community.
C. Individual’s choice of action and responses to challenges, incentives and rewards.
D. A manner of thinking, feeling or behaving that reflects a state of mind or disposition.
E. The capacity to determine right conduct and the knowledge of what is right from wrong.
160. This is an ethical standard that requires PNP members to follow logical procedures in
accomplishing their duties in order to minimize waste in the use of time, money and effort.
A. Loyalty
B. Devotion to duty
C. Secrecy discipline
D. Orderliness
E. Perseverance
161. Which of the following is the best description of the PNP members endowed with humility?
A. Respect and protect human dignity and uphold the human rights of all persons.
B. Conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with the rules and regulations of the
organization.
C. Uphold the Constitution and are loyal to the country, people and organization, above their
loyalty to any person.
D. Obey lawful orders of are courteous to superior officers and other appropriate authorities within
the chain of command.
E. Recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the masters of the people and
toward this end, they perform their duties without arrogance.
162. Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of the values education program?
A. Develop Filipinos who manifest, in actual life, an abiding faith in God as a reflection of their
spiritual being.
B. Develop Filipinos who are social beings with sense of responsibility for their community and
environment.
C. Develop Filipinos who are self-actualized integrally developed human beings imbued with the
sense of human dignity.
D. Develop Filipinos who are productive persons who contribute to the economic security and
development of the family and the nation.
E. Develop Filipinos who respect the dignity of human sexuality by practicing chastity in
marriage through sexual love that is romantic, procreative, exclusive and lasting, or if
unmarried, by having no experience of sexual pleasure.
163. You are a bank manager and one of your valued clients is dividing his deposits into 2 by
filling up two deposit slips upon the effectivity of AMLA but his total average deposit of P700k
remained the same. Upon query, he explained to you that he is hiding his deposits from his wife.
How do you consider the deposit?
a. Covered transaction.
b. Possible suspicious transaction
c. confidential transaction
d. Immoral transaction
e. Illegal transaction
164. Coco Martin wanted to open a Peso Savings Account. As a standard operating procedure the
branch manager requested for the pertinent “Know Your Client” KYC documents. He only left a
xerox copy of driver’s license claiming that he is a very famous actor in the Philippines and
everybody knows him and specially his teleserye “Probinsyano”. Will the branch manager allow the
opening of a Peso Savings Account?
a. No, simply because he is an actor.

b. Yes, because he is an actor and his identity is publicly known.
c. No, because the AMLA required these KYC documents and other
information before a bank can establish business relationship with a
client.
d. Yes, because the branch can attain its quota requirement.
e. Yes, for marketing purposes.
165. In question No. 164. How about if the client is a low profile business man, will the branch
manager allow the opening of a Peso Savings Account?
a.No, simply because he is a low profile businessman

b.Yes, because he is a businessman
c.No, because the AMLA required these KYC documents and other information before a
bank can establish business relationship with a client.
d.Yes, because the branch can attain its quota requirement.
e.Yes, for marketing purposes.
166. What are the transactions covered by AMLA?

a.Covered and Suspicious transactions.
b.Covered transactions only.
c.Suspicious transactions only.
d.Bank transactions only
e.Insurance transactions only
167. The Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) is composed of:

a.The Governor of the BSP as Chairman, Commissioner of the Insurance Commission and
the Chairman of the SEC
b.The Governor of the BSP only
c.The Commissioner of the Insurance Commission only
d..The Chairman of the SEC only
e.The Cabinet Secretaries.
168. Rationale for enacting AMLA, the Dirty Money Law.

a.For the Philippines to contribute its share and play a vital role in the global fight against
money laundering.
b.To ensure that the Philippines is not used as a site to launder proceeds of unlawful
activities.
c.To increase investor’s confidence.
d.A and b
e.B and c
169. AMLC also extends cooperation in transnational investigation and prosecutions of persons
involve in _____________activities wherever committed.
a.Money laundering
b.Criminal
c.International
d.Financial
e.Social
170. What law is the General Rule or the Law of General Application?
a.RA 1405- Secrecy of Bank Deposits
b.AMLA
c.Plunder
.d.Malversation
e.Graft and Corruption
171. What are some of the predicate crimes/unlawful activities under AMLA?
a.Kidnapping for ransom, Drug Trafficking and related offense, graft and corrupt practices
b.Plunder, Robbery and extortion, Jueteng and Masiao, Piracy, Qualified Theft, swindling
smuggling
c.Violations under Electronic Commerce Act of 2000
d.Hijacking, destructive arson, murder
e.A, B ,C , D
172. Which of the following are included as predicate crimes/unlawful activities under AMLA?
a.Fraudulent practices and other violations under SEC
b.Felonies or offenses of similar nature that are punishable under the penal laws of other countries
like hijacking
c.Terrorism Financing and organizing or directing others to commit terrorism
d.Bribery and corruption of Public officers
e.A, B, C, D
173. Republic Act No. 9262 is known as the “Anti-Violence Against…?

a.Women and their children
b.Men and their children
cWomen and their husband
.d.Men and their wives
e.Men and women
174. Violence against women and their children refers to any act or series of acts committed by
any person:
a.Against a woman who is his wife, former wife,
b.Against a woman with whom the person has or had sexual dating relationship, or with whom he
has a common child
c.Against her child whether legitimate or illegitimate,
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
175. Violence against women and their children includes:

a.Physical violence
b.Sexual violence
c.Psychological violence
d.Economic abuse
e.All of the above
176. Physical Violence refers to acts:

a.That include bodily or physical harm
b.Sexual in nature
c.Causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering.
d.That make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent
e.Unreasonably ordering around
177. Sexual Violence refers to acts:

b.Sexual in nature
178. Psychological Violence refers to acts :

b.Sexual in nature
e.All of the above
179. Economic Abuse refers to acts:

b.Sexual in nature
180. Name the protection order/s that may be issued under RA 9262?
a.Barangay Protection Order (BPO)
b.Temporary Protection Order (TPO)
c.Permanent Protection Order (PPO)
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
181. All TPOs and PPOs issued under the RA 9262 shall be enforceable:
a.Anywhere in the Philippines
b.Only inside the residence of the respondent.
c.Only inside the residence of the women and children
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
182. Violence against women and their children shall be considered:

A. A public offense
B. A private offense
C. A labor offense
D. A commercial offense
E. A Official Office
183. The treaty clause of the 1987 Constitution

A. Article VI, Section 21
B. Article VI, Section 20
C. Article VII, Section 21
D. Article VIII, Section 21
184. Article VII of the 1987 Constitution refers to:

a.Legislative Department
b.Executive Department
c.Judicial Department
d.Police Department
e.none of the above
185. It refers to Norms of international Law based on multilateral treaties

A. Customary
B. Conventional
C. Missionary
D. Bilateral
E. Jus cogens
186. Which law is applicable in times of war?

A. International human rights law
B. International humanitarian law
C.UN convention on the rights of the child
D.UN convention against torture
E. All of the above
187. Which law is not part of international bill of Rights?
A. UN convention of civil and political rights

B. UN convention on economic social and cultural rights
C. UN Declaration of human Rights
D. All of the above
188. It is a principle that national courts and the ICC have concurrent jurisdiction
A. complimentary jurisdiction
B. complementary jurisdiction
C. Universal jurisdiction
D. Territorial jurisdiction
E. All of the above
189. Article II. Section 2 of the 1987 Constitution is known as

A. archipelagic doctrine
B. universal jurisdiction
C. incorporation clause
D. Establishment clause
E. Non-derogability doctrine
190. It risked to the international institution tasked to implement and monitor IHL compliance.
A. International Committee of the Red Cross
B. International Committee of the Red Crescent
C. International Committee of the Red Crystal
D. All of the above
191. It is doing the right thing with the highest quality maximum satisfaction of customers;
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Productivity
D. Management
E. All of the above
192. It is doing it right the first time to minimize cost and maximize utilization of resources:
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Productivity
D. Management
E. All of the above
193. This is a principle that assures consistent quality of product or service of an organization that
defines the purpose of quality for the organization it represents:
a.Competitiveness
b.Quality
c.Quality Management
d.Pillars
e.None of the above
194. One of the following is NOT a Quality Management principle:

a.Leadership
b.Involvement of people
c.Customer focused organization
d.Approaches
e.None of the above
195. In the PDCA cycle, C stands for:

a.Check
b.Coherence
c.Concise
d.Correct
e.All of the above
196. One of the following improves productivity

a.Leadership approach
b.Innovation approach
c.Precise approach
d.Management approach
e.All of the above
197. There are three (3) critical dimensions of productivity, except:

a.Conceptual perspective
b.Improvement perspective
c.Human perspective
d.Goal perspective
e.All of the above
198. Productivity is an attitude of the mind, which means:

a.An attitude of the mind
b.Discretion of management
c.Standard operating procedures
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
199. This can be a product of service:

a.Output
b.Input
c.Procedures
d.All of the above
e.Outcome
200. Manpower, machine, materials, money, method and inputs:

a..Management
b.Memory
c.Molecules
d.Melody
e.Mastery
PNP BADGE OF HONOR

I. Upon taking the oath and assumption to office, you are invested by the people and the law
with the authority as law enforcer.
II. The PNP Badge pinned on your left breast is the symbol of that legal authority: It is so
placed, nearer to your heart, to remind you of the fidelity and dedication to duty expected of
you as a public servant.
III. You have been entrusted with the badge as a symbol of your worthiness as a police officer to
serve and protect the people from whom you derived the power and authority, to enforce the
laws of the land without fear or favor.
IV. You are to oversee the general welfare of the people and ensure that peace and order is
maintained at all times. You shall ever be mindful that the police are the protector of the
weak, defender of the innocent and advocate of human rights.
V. At the center of your badge is the PNP seal held bravely by your hero, Lapu-lapu, the first
Filipino to defend our country against foreign invaders despite being inferiorly equipped.
VI. Inside the seal are the virtues of service, honor and justice. They remind you to always
render the highest form of public service for our fellowmen. You are to serve the citizenry
with the commitment of sacrifice and willingness to die in the service of God, country and
people.
VII. Duty and honor now bind you to be faithful to the trust bestowed upon you by the people.
Your badge reminds you to maintain the dignity of your character at all times, and to
strenuously enforce by example, a steady obedience to the laws of the land.
VIII. Exemplary conduct on your part will convince our people that you merit the just title and
authority as you patrol the street and walk your daily beat.
IX. Walk tall, head up and bravely face the daily dangers of duty. Keep the badge unsullied and
free of any breach of fidelity by the regularity of your conduct. Always endeavor to avoid any
aspersion against our institution.
X. You are to preserve our cherished customs and traditions and never countenance any
deviation from them nor allow them to be infringed.
XI. Your dignity as a police officer symbolized by the badge is now pinned in your heart, never
swerve from your solemn oath of office, violate your vows or betray the public trust.
XII. You are a police officer… wear your badge with honor!…

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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM REVIEWER

2. Which of the following is TRUE about Strategic Communication?

A. Statements I, II and III are true.

A. Stakeholders include anyone affected by the strategic communication goal, including

A. Goals and Objectives

A. Goals and Objectives

14. According to John Maxwell, the price tag of leadership is:

a. The statement is too vague

16. Servant-leadership empowers people through:

A. Guidance, caring, and trust

17. The process of becoming a servant leader is a ____________ process:

18. Character is made up of which two interacting parts:

a. Tactical and technical skills

A. Character contributes significantly to how a person acts

22. Adaptive Leadership is:

A. A "reality on the ground" approach to leadership.

23. The following describe an "adaptive leader, EXCEPT:

A. Anticipate and employ a broad-based style of command.

24. Which among the three aspects Contemporary Operating Environment

a. Ambiguity, Technicality, and Change

a. Training and education which is the foundation of this leadership style

A. McKinsey's 5's Framework

A. Values assessment and culture awareness.

A. Key Result Areas

34. Project Management is:

A. It has a fixed timeline, budget, objectives/goal, and management structure

36. The goal or end result in Project Management refers to

A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries

37. The output or immediate result in Project Management refers to:

A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries

38. Risks and Assumptions in Project Management look into:

A. Internal strengths and weaknesses

A. Number of police officers trained in Project Management

40. Implementation of project means?

A. Launching the project

A. Names and address of the managers and staff

42. Evaluation a Project means?

A. Looking at the grand scheme of things upon project

43. Project completion Date best describes the:

A. Day when you submit the Project Completion Report

A. What you want to see

46. The following are the objectives of Financial Management, EXCEPT:

A. Project Double Barrel

A. High Impact Target (HIT)

a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie

a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie

a. DILG Memo Circular No. 2015-63

57. Performance excellence STARTS with the management functions on .

A. Before the start of the work

60. The flow of information and feedbacking in an organization should be:

61. which of the following does not define peace building?

A. address the root causes of conflict

A. Collaboration and management of information flows

A. Media as information provider and interpreter

69. PACREP stands for?

A. Periodic Analysis Crime Report

70. UCPER stands for'?

A. Unit Crime Preparation Report

A. Index Crime + Non-Index Crimes

72. What is the acronym of the first e-Projects?

A. Theft and Robbery Cases

74. What Memorandum Circular authorizes the implementation of CIRAS?