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CLATGyan | Batch of 2019, 2020, 2021 & 2022 – NALSAR University of Law
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SECTION 1: General Knowledge

1. X was appointed as the Deputy Election Commissioner. He will have a tenure of five
years and was formerly the Chief Electoral Officer of Delhi. Who is X?
a) Om Prakash Rawat
b) Sunil Arora
c) Chandra Bhushan Kumar
d) Ashok Lavasa

2. Scientists discovered a new organ in the human body and have named it ‘X’. It will be
the Yth organ in the human body.
a) X – uterstitum, Y – 60th
b) X – interstitium, Y – 70th
c) X – interstitium, Y – 80th
d) X – uterstitum, Y – 85th

3. A country has successfully test fired its latest nuclear Inter Continental Ballistic Missile
(ICBM) RS-28 Sarmat. With this missile, it seeks to replace the R-36M2 Voyevoda
ICBM that happens to be its only Strategic Missile Force since 1988. Which country?
a) Israel
b) Russia
c) United States of America
d) Japan

4. a) X is the indigenously developed Submarine Launched Version of Cruise Missile

(SLCM) that was successfully test fired by the Pakistan Navy.
b) X defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Sher Shah
d) Babur

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5. Which Scandanavian country was ranked 1st among the 156 countries in World
Happiness Index 2018, recently released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions
a) Norway
b) Finland
c) Sweden
d) Denmark

6. This was enacted when it was found that the normal provisions of the existing laws like,
the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 and the Indian Penal Code, 1860 were
inadequate to check the continuing atrocities being committed against Scheduled Castes
and Tribes.
a) Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
b) Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Inclusion) Act, 1990.
c) Untouchability (Abolition) Act, 1955.
d) Prevention of Social Discrimination Act, 1983.

7. A protein-rich breed of chicken, popularly known as Kadaknath, has become a bone of

contention between two Central India states, with both staking claim over its nativity.
Recently, Geographical Indication (GI) Tag was awarded by the Geographical
Indication Registry and Intellectual Property India for the chicken to one of the
following states.
a) Jharkhand
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh

8. World Consumer Rights Day : X :: National Consumer Day : Y

a) X – March 15th , Y – December 24th
b) X – March 20th , Y – December 25th
c) X – March 25th , Y – December 26th
d) X – March 26th , Y – December 27th

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9. Hindon Elevated Road, India’s longest elevated road was inaugurated in this city of
Uttar Pradesh. It is often referred to as the Gateway of Uttar Pradesh due to proximity
with New Delhi and is a part of the National Capital Region (NCR). Which city?
a) Moradabad
b) Gurgaon
c) Ghaziabad
d) Noida

10. India received its first Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) cargo from X under a 20-year Sale
Purchase Signed with X’s natural gas exporter Cheniere Energy. X also happens to be
the leading producer of natural gas in the world. Name X.
a) Iran
b) Saudi Arabia
c) Russia
d) United States of America

11. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved for removal of
prohibition on export of all varieties of edible oils except one specific oil, which is
popular as a cooking oil in northern India and Pakistan. Which?
a) Soybean oil
b) Peanut oil
c) Mustard oil
d) Coconut oil

12. The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences has undertaken development
of coded drug AYUSH QOL-2C for improving quality of life of patients suffering from
______ .
a) Malaria
b) Cancer
c) Dengue

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13. Name the spectroscopy technique (also known as ‘wobble method’) that the scientists
had employed while using Kepler 2 telescope to discover a hot, metallic Earth-sized
planet named K2-229b.
a) Woppler
b) Wobbler
c) Doppler
d) Dobbler

14. The ECOWAS is a regional economic union of fifteen countries located in this region.
The union was established in 1975 after the Treaty of Lagos was signed with its stated
mission to promote economic integration across the this region. The headquarters of
ECOWAS is in Abuja, Nigeria.
a) West Africa
b) North Africa
c) North-Western
d) Southern Africa

15. The Ministry of Power has partnered with Ministry of Skill Development &
Entrepreneurship to train the manpower in six states for speedy implementation of its
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya Scheme). Which among the
following is not one of the states where the training shall take place?
a) Assam
b) Bihar
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Maharashtra

16. The Department of Posts under Ministry of Communications has launched Cool EMS
Service between India and X. It is a one-way service from X to India which allows
customers in India to import food items from X for personal use which is allowed under
Indian regulations.
a) Nepal
b) China
c) Russia
d) Japan
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17. India’s first insect museum with state-of-the-art amenities was unveiled at the Tamil
Nadu Agricultural University campus in this city, which is also known as Kovai and
has been given the sobriquet of Manchester of South India. It is located on the banks of
the Noyyal River and is surrounded by the Western Ghats. Which city?
a) Ooty
b) Coimbatore
c) Chennai
d) Pondicherry

18. The Airports Authority of India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the
government of a North-Eastern state, for sustainable development of human settlements
at villages. This state is situated south of the eastern Himalayas along the Brahmaputra
and Barak River valleys, and the Kaziranga National park of this state is home to most
of the world’s one-horned rhinoceroses.
a) Assam
b) Mizoram
c) Meghalaya
d) Sikkim

19. International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an initiative jointly launched by India and X in
November 2015 at X’s capital city on sides lines of COP 21 UN Climate Change
Conference. Name X.
a) Sweden
b) Norway
c) Germany
d) France

20. Which district in India became the first in the country to have 100% solar powered
Primary Health Centres (PHCs). This city is also a centre for diamond cutting. Which
a) Hyderbad
b) Kochi
c) Surat
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d) Wayannad

21. Peatlands are wetlands that contain a mixture of decomposed organic material, partially
submerged in layer of water, lacking ________.
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Both (b) and (c)

22. This was awarded 2017 Kochon Prize for building tradition of excellence in
Tuberculosis research and development. It was established in 1911 and is one of the
oldest and largest medical research bodies in the world.
a) Medical Council of India
b) World Medical Council
c) Indian Council of Medical Research
d) Global Health Medical Council

23. Which State was awarded National Water Digest Award for Water Conservation –
Diversion and increasing the irrigation capacity in the state? Through this State, the
rivers Mahanadi and Godavari flow with the former originating in this State itself.
a) Rajasthan
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Bihar

24. President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated World Hindi Secretariat building in this
country. Its capital is Port Louis where the Secretariat has been set up. It is the only
country in Africa where Hinduism is the largest religion.
a) Kenya
b) Nigeria
c) Mauritius
d) Chad

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25. X was nominated by the Ministry of Human Resource Development as India’s

representative to Executive Board of United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). X, an educationist, is the former Director of NCERT
and is also a Padma Shri awardee, apart from being the recipient of the Jan Amos
Comenius Medal in 2004.
a) JS Thakur
b) JS Thappar
c) JS Shankar
d) JS Rajput

26. Bidya Devi Bhandari is the first woman President and was re-elected for a second term
of a landlocked country, which hosts the permanent secretariat of the South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). Which country?
a) Mauritius
b) Indonesia
c) Nepal
d) Myanmar

27. The world’s longest sandstone cave named Krem Puri has been discovered in here.
Hint: The sandstone cave happens to be in the wettest place on the Earth.
a) Argentina
b) Venezuela
c) Australia
d) India

28. The Ministry OF Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation has
constituted X Water Dispute Tribunal for adjudication of longstanding disputes
between Odisha and Chhattisgarh over sharing of X river water. The Hirakud Dam is
built across X river. Name X.
a) Godavari
b) Narmada
c) Mahanadi
d) Tapti

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29. On what day is World Tuberculosis Day observed every year to raise public awareness
about the global epidemic of Tuberculosis and efforts to eliminate the disease?
a) 24th March
b) 25th March
c) 26th March
d) 27th March

30. The Government of X launched multi-utility vehicle “World on Wheels” to bring

technology to remote corners. This initiative is a part of the “Smart Village Smart
Ward” programme that was launched by the X Government. Name X.
a) Telangana
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu

31. Robert P. Langlands of Canada has won the prestigious X for his visionary programme
connecting representation theory to number theory. X is a Norwegian Prize that is
awarded by the Government of Norway to outstanding mathematicians. It was first
awarded in 2003 to Jean-Pierre Serre of France and the most recent recipients include
Yves Meyer (2017) and Andrew Wiles (2016). Name X.
a) Pulitzer Prize
b) Wolf Prize
c) Kavli Prize
d) Abel Prize

32. A) Indian Navy’s indigenously built warship X was decommissioned in Mumbai,

Maharashtra after over thirty years of service.
B) The river X flows through India and Bangladesh and is 2525 kms long. X is the third
largest river in the world by discharge and is also known as Padma in Bangladesh.
a) INS Yamuna
b) INS Gangotri
c) INS Ganga
d) INS Brahmaputra

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33. The 12 out of 14 States or Union Territories have replied to the Home Ministry that
capital punishment or death penalty should stay, as it serves to act as deterrent in cases
of heinous crimes such as murder and rape. Two states want the practice to be done
away with. Name them.
a) Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh
b) Tamil Nadu and Tripura
c) Tripura and Karnataka
d) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

34. Scientists at the Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology have developed an
instrument called Fluorimeter to measure traces of X in water. The atomic number of
X is 92 and it is a silvery-grey metal in the actinide series of the periodic table. X has
the highest atomic weight of primordially occurring elements.
a) Uranium
b) Lithium
c) Fluorine
d) Radium

35. The headquarters of the International Energy Agency (IEA) are located in X. Other
organisation that are headquartered in X are UNESCO and Organisation for Economic
Co-operation and Development (OECD).
a) Washington D.C., United States of America
b) Italy, Rome
c) London, United Kingdom
d) Paris, France

36. The Union Cabinet has approved second and final extension of term of Commission
headed by Justice (Retd.) G. Rohini. This commission was constituted to examine the
issue of?
a) Higher education
b) LGBTQ Rights
c) Sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes
d) None of the above

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37. The Government has shifted headquarters of Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)
to X in Haryana from Y in Tamil Nadu. It was shifted after consultation with the Board
for better coordination between the Environment Ministry and AWBI for carrying out
the animal welfare activities. Name X and Y.
a) X – Rohtak, Y - Ooty
b) X – Ambala, Y - Madurai
c) X – Ballabhgarh, Y - Chennai
d) X – Hissar, Y - Chennai

38. India’s first helicopter shuttle service (HeliTaxi) was launched in X in a bid to provide
last-mile connectivity. This is being provided by Thumby Aviation and such a service
is needed in X much more than other cities as X has poor road density (measure of road
length per square km area of land). Name X.
a) Chennai
b) Hyderabad
c) Mumbai
d) Bengaluru

39. The Metropolitan Service, alternatively referred to as X, is the territorial police force
responsible for policing most of London. X Senior Indian-origin X officer Neil Basu
became the first person of Asian heritage to be appointed as Counterterrorism Chief
replacing Mark Rowley. Name X.
a) Interpol
b) Mossad
c) MI5
d) Scotland Yard

40. X in Pacific Ocean is set to become first country in world to recognise cryptocurrency
as its legal tender and adopt transparent crypto monetary system. X is closely aligned
with US under Compact of Free Association and uses US dollar as its official currency.
X is a part of the larger island group of Micronesia and its capital is Majuro. Name X.
a) Galapagos Islands
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b) Aleutian Islands
c) Marshall Islands
d) Hawaii Islands

41. India, X and Y have signed a tripartite MoU for cooperation in construction of Rooppur
nuclear power plant near X. It is first initiative under India-Y nuclear deal to undertake
atomic energy projects in third countries. It will be India’s first atomic energy venture
abroad. Name X.
a) X – Bangladesh, Y – China
b) X – China, Y – Russia
c) X – Russia, Y – China
d) X – Bangladesh, Y – Russia

42. The X is a multi-lateral developmental investment bank. It was established in 1991 after
the fall of the Berlin wall to promote private and entrepreneurial initiative in the region
where it is based. It is headquartered in London, United Kingdom. Recently, India
become the 69th member of X after the shareholders of X gave their nod to the
candidature. Name X.
a) Asian Development Bank
b) European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
c) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
d) International Finance Corporation

43. Gulf Shield – 1 military exercise of 23 countries including Gulf Cooperation Council
member states was held in X, that happens to be the world’s largest oil producer and
exporter. Name X.
a) Saudi Arabia
b) United Arab Emirates
c) Qatar
d) Yemen

44. X became the first Indian to win the prestigious Pritzker Prize that is considered to be
the Nobel in the field of Y. Name X and what is Y?
a) X – Balkrishna Joshi, Y – Journalism
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b) X – Balkrishna Doshi, Y – Architecture

c) X – Balkrishna Doshi, Y – Nano-technology
d) X – Balkrishna Joshi, Y – Music

45. X and India share 4,156 km long international border and it is the longest international
border shared by India with its neighbours. An 8.3 km stretch on this border was
declared as the first ‘crime-free zone’. What is X?
a) China
b) Bangladesh
c) Pakistan
d) Myanmar

46. X was the first country to successfully withdraw from the International Criminal Court
(ICC). It is a landlocked country and gained independence in 1962. Bouts of ethnic
cleansing and ultimately two civil wars and genocides during the 1970s and 1990s left
X undeveloped making its population one of the poorest in the world. Name X.
a) Italy
b) Philippines
c) Burundi
d) Rwanda

47. X has become the first and only Union Territory in the country to be fully run on solar
energy. X is an area of just 42 square kilometres and is dependent on the Gujarat
government for water and electrivity. Name X.
a) Daman and Diu
b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
c) Lakshadweep
d) Khambat

48. X will be co-hosting the 8th Theatre Olympics, the largest international theatre festival.
Also known as the Pink City, X forms a part of the Golden Triangle tourist circuit in
India. Name X.
a) Jaipur
b) Kochi
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c) Kolkata
d) Surat

49. In the 5th edition of Annual Survey of India’s City-Systems 2017 report released by
Janaagraha, X ranked first among cities across India in terms of quality of urban
governance. X is known as the Queen of Deccan and the Oxford of the East. Name X.
a) Hyderabad
b) Pune
c) Bengaluru
d) Mumbai

50. X is an annual international men’s field hockey tournament held in Malaysia and has
been named after the 9th king of Malasia who was the father of Malaysian Hockey. It
was established in 1983. Australia has won the X for a record 10 times while India has
won it 4 times. Name the tournament X.
a) Sultan Ibrahim Ismail Hockey Tournament
b) Sultan Azlan Shah Cup
c) Durand Cup
d) Subroto Cup

SECTION 2: Legal Reasoning

51. Principle – Negligence refers to an act, or omission, that occurred as a result of failure
to take reasonable care. There is no intention to cause the harm done, if the act is said
to be negligent. Unless an act is negligent, no action lies in tort.

Facts – Aditi, a housemaid was washing utensils in the kitchen. She notices that there
was some oil left on some of the plates and forgot to clean it. She arranged the plates in
an unruly manner. She later on left the baby of the house who was under her care near

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the plates. The baby touched the plates which came crashing down. The baby was
injured in the process. Will Aditi be liable for causing injuries to the baby?

a) Yes, since her failure to take care to clean the oil amounts to negligence.
b) No, since there was no negligence.
c) Yes, since she has caused harm to her employee’s son.
d) No, she had no state of mind to cause the harm.

52. Principle – A master is liable for all the acts of his servant.

Facts – A dealer in spare parts asks his servant to watch over the shop as he was going
out for lunch. The servant, just for fun, put some marbles on the road. A car skidded
and hurt a child who was walking with his mother. Decide the liability of the dealer.

a) The dealer will not be liable, since the act of putting marbles wasn’t an authorised
b) The dealer is liable on account of the servant’s mischief.
c) The dealer is liable since it was the servant’s act that hurt the child.
d) The dealer is not liable since the damage is too remote.

53. Principle – No law can be applied retrospectively unless it is for the benefit of the public
and doesn’t adversely affect anyone.

Facts – A law is passed in Maharashtra that seeks to prosecute those men who drink in
public places and create nuisance. Since some policemen had seen Anvad, a local
drunkard creating a scene on the day the law had been passed but hadn’t yet
commenced, can Anvad be prosecuted under the new law?

a) Yes, he can be prosecuted

b) Yes, he can be prosecuted since it will curb the menace of public drinking which is
a substantial public benefit.
c) No, the law can’t be applied retrospectively.
d) If the police can produce the members of the public who can verify Anvad’s act

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54. Principle – The State must treat equals as equals and unequals as unequals. The State
must protect the Fundamental Rights of every individual. Any law that differentiates
between people, must give some reason for this distinction.

Facts – The government passes an act that gives preference to Medical School students
over law school students applying for their passports for working in foreign countries.
Is the law valid?

a) Yes, since Medical and Law students are unequals, hence treated like that.
b) No, since the law doesn’t provide any reason for this distinction.
c) No, since this will be violating the fundamental right to freedom of trade and
profession. No law can override the fundamental rights.
d) No, since all students are students and cannot be treated as unequals based just on
their disciplines.

55. Principle - No illegal activity may be taxed. An act is illegal only if it forbidden by the

Facts – The government raids all brothels in Mumbai, which though not sanctioned by
law, are working with full knowledge and consent of the policemen. They were then
taxed for upto 80% of their income. They protested saying they weren’t illegal. Can
they be taxed?

a) No, since prostitution is illegal activity in India and thus cannot be taxed.
b) Yes, since the tax is on income. Income tax is legal.
c) No, since the brothels are working with the permit of the police – the law enforcers
and thus are legal in a way.
d) No, the government can impose a fine on the brothels but cannot impose a tax

56. Principle – No contract without consideration is valid unless there is natural love and
affection involved.

Facts – Zaara is tired of her boyfriend Mr. InMyDreams and hence, she decides to pay
him a monthly sum of 1000/- if he calls and texts her lesser thus giving her more space.
She even signs a stamp paper to this effect. Is it a valid contract?

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a) Yes, since the agreement is a written one.

b) No, since there is no natural love and affection.
c) No, since there is no consideration.
d) Yes, because Zaara has a valid reason and intention to enter into this contract with
Mr. InMyDreams.

57. Principle – Involuntary intoxication is an absolute defence.

Facts – Dheeraj went to a bar and ordered a beer. He was quite fine and sober. Later,
his friends Ashutosh and Namratha came and forced some martini shots down his
throat. Thereafter, he was quite drunk and bashed up his ex-girlfriend’s husband
Karthik. Can he claim the defence of intoxication?

a) No, he can’t since he had obviously decided to beat up the guy, regardless of
whether he was drunk or not.
b) No, he can’t since he asked for beer in the first place.
c) Yes, he can since martini has a higher level of alcohol content.
d) Yes, he can since the intoxication was involuntary even if only in part.

58. Principle – Any agreement of wager or bet is void. The amount of the bet has to a
substantial and definite amount, for the bet to be illegal.

Facts – Two sports car owners agree to race, and it is decided that whoever wins will
pay the winner a sum of money not less than 50 lakhs. Can the winner claim the

a) No, since this is a bet

b) No, since this is a wager
c) Yes, he can claim the amount
d) The law doesn't take note of trifles.

59. Principle – Ignorance of the law is no excuse.

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Facts – A blind man commits the murder of his ex-girlfriend. He then claims that he
did not know anything about the law since he was illiterate and could never read the
Indian Penal Code, owing to his blindness. Will he succeed?

a) Yes, he is blind. The law is for people who can see.

b) Irrespective of education, everyone is to know that murder is a criminal offence.
Ignorance is no excuse.
c) He has broken the law deliberately. Blind or not blind, he is liable.
d) None of the above

60. Principle – For an offence of robbery to be committed, more than five people should
plan and participate.

Facts – Samad and his band of dacoits decide to rob Nalsarpur. Seven of them
meticulously plan out each detail and decide to give effect to the crime on the day of
Diwali. As the seven approach the town, Dev is killed as he is thrown from his horse.
The gang leaves Neel to take care of him and to keep a lookout for any police
approaching the town. The five of them then go and loot the town while Kalia waits in
the getaway car and helps them escape. Police later registers a case of robbery. Are they
guilty of robbery?

a) No, since only five of them participated in the commission of the crime.
b) No, since all seven were never caught and therefore cannot be brought to book.
c) Yes, since more than five people participated in the crime.
d) Yes, since Kalia too was taking part in the crime, and that makes six of them.

61. Principle –
i. Mistake regarding material facts of the contract doesn’t render a contract void.
ii. Hiding of material defects by one party that could influence the other party’s
decision to enter into the contract renders the contract void ab initio, if the defects
were latent.

Facts – Anwar enters into a contract with Bakshi to buy a show horse from Bakshi. The
horse has some of its teeth missing and this fact is not revealed by Bakshi. Anwar
notices this three months after the sale and seeks to rescind the contract. Can he do so?

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a) Yes, he can as Bakshi was obliged to reveal the material defect.

b) No, he can’t, since he didn’t ask Bakshi if there was any defect in the first place.
c) Yes, he can as the horse was a show horse, and missing teeth were thus a material
d) No, he can’t, as he didn’t examine the horse properly before buying and the law
will not hold Bakshi liable for this.

62. Principle
i. No act is a crime which a person does in order to protect someone from an
unavoidable greater harm,
ii. This is called necessity and can even extend to the taking of someone’s life, if the
situation so demands.

Facts – Anurag, Basani and Chandini lose their way in the jungle and find that their
food supplies are over. Basani and Chandini decide to kill Anurag since he is the fattest.
Are Basani and Chandini liable for murder?

a) No. They would have died themselves if they hadn’t done so.
b) Yes, since they should have drawn lots to decide who would be killed.
c) Yes, since there was no need to kill Anurag in the first place.
d) No, since Basani did this to prevent Chandini from dying and vice versa.

63. Principle:
i. Nothing is a crime, which is done without a criminal intent.
ii. Intent is deduced from facts.

Facts – Avani and Bhuvana decide to throw stones into a crowd of people, in order to
see if probability actually does work. One such stone falls on Zainab’s head and causes
severe trauma. Are Avani and Bhuvana liable for committing a crime?

a) Yes. There are better methods to check what they were checking.
b) Yes. Because there were many people in crowd and thus, the probability of someone
getting hurt increased.
c) Yes, since there is an element of mens rea.
d) No, since they had no intention to hurt Zainab.

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64. Principle:
i. A master-servant relationship is one in which one person acts on behalf of another
in return for some consideration.
ii. A master is liable for all acts committed by the servant within the scope of his
iii. There is no master-servant relationship in the absence of consideration.

Facts – Manju was asked by Parika to buy her some goods as she returned from office.
She persuaded her by saying that she’d keep hot tea and halwa ready for her when she
got home. Manju, while buying the goods, slapped the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper
seeks to hold Parika liable. Can he do so?

a) No, since Manju had not been authorised to slap the shopkeeper.
b) No, since there is no master-servant relationship.
c) Yes, since Manju was authorised to buy the goods.
d) No, since Manju acted without authority.

65. Principle – Whoever brings a dangerous object onto his land is responsible for all
damage caused due to escape of such a thing.

Facts – Matthew builds a toxic waste disposal unit on his land. One day, due to an
earthquake, the storage tank leaks and damages all the vegetation around the area. The
forest department brings a suit claiming damages from Matthew, who claims that the
leakage was due to vis major and beyond his control. Is Matthew liable to pay?

a) If the forest department can prove that the plant was managed negligently, then,
yes, damages can be claimed.
b) If Matthew can prove that he had taken all precautions, he is not liable.
c) The toxic waste disposal unit was something that was for the benefit of the public
in general. Not liable, due to the principle of ‘greater good’.
d) He is liable as vis major or ‘act of god’ cannot be used as a justification.

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66. Principle
i. Undue influence is said to be exercised when one used a position of dominance
or authority to influence the will of the other, thereby causing them loss.
ii. Undue influence makes a contract voidable at the option of the party influenced

Facts – Rakesh Baba is a mystic who has widely acclaimed fame for being able to bring
any wish true. Jyothsna, one of his disciples, wants to sell a piece of depreciating land,
and she seeks his advice. The Baba, knowing that the piece of land will soon be
submerged under water due to the construction of a dam and not wanting to cause
anyone loss, asks her to sell it to him. Soon after the sale, a Supreme Court judgement
prevents the dam from being constructed and the price of the land shoots up. Jyothsna
seeks to make void the contract of sail, claiming undue influence. Can she do so?

a) Yes, since the Baba’s advice caused her a huge loss.

b) No, since the Baba had in fact acted in good faith.
c) No, since the Baba had used logic and not undue influence when he gave her the
d) No, since the Baba was a well-meaning person who would never exercise undue

67. Principle – Necessity carries with itself the authority of the law.

Facts – A fire broke out in Shamirpet in a firecracker factory and started spreading to
all the houses in the vicinity. A policeman who was on patrol duty in the area reached
the spot and ordered the demolition of all houses/huts within a 300 metre radius, in
order to stop the spread of fire. The people whose houses were destroyed claimed
damages against the policeman. Will he be liable for the demolition?

a) He will be liable despite his best intentions since the people have suffered
damage and must be compensated.
b) The government will be vicariously liable for the damage.
c) The policeman is not liable since what he did was in his official capacity and he
was just doing his duty.

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d) The policeman or anyone else won’t be liable since the aim was to prevent the
fire from spreading and causing more damage.

68. Principle
i. No person can be prosecuted for the same offence twice.
ii. Being prosecuted for the same offence is double jeopardy.

Facts – Rahul is being tried for the murder of Sunishth. During the proceedings, Kshitij
also files a case of murder against Rahul for murdering his daughter Sadifa. Rahul
claims that this infringes his right against double jeopardy. Can he claim this defence?

a) No, he can’t, since murdering Sadifa would be a separate offence

b) No, he can’t, because double jeopardy doesn’t apply to the offence of murder.
c) He can’t claim the defence, since he is being prosecuted twice for the same
offence i.e. murder.
d) He can claim this defence if he can prove malice on part of Kshitij.

69. Principle – Individuals can’t sue for public nuisance unless they prove some
extraordinary damage.

Facts – On a busy Tuesday evening, Mark parks his car on the road in such a way that
the entire traffic gets blocked for four hours. Which of the following can successfully
sue him for damages for causing public nuisance?

a) Rohit was on his way to meeting with his bosses where he hoped he’d be chosen
for the post of the MD of the company by the board. He was unable to get to the
meeting and the board chose Kruttika.
b) Sadhika missed her flight to Delhi which made her miss the Iron Maiden
concert. She claims she lost a life time opportunity to watch the band.

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c) Pavani Constructions had to pay heavy damages to Nilav builders since they
failed to deliver construction equipment on time.
d) Laveez who was taken to the hospital for a minor head injury had to undergo a
surgical operation due to excessive bleeding due to the delay.

70. Principle
i. In cases other than negligence, tortuous liability requires intent.
ii. Malicious prosecution, a tort, is committed when a person files a case against
another based purely on malice.

Facts – Siddharth was a habitual offender and one day angered Mayank. Mayank swore
to take revenge. One morning, Mayank was walking down the street when he noticed
Siddharth plucking flowers from the public garden. Plucking flowers from the park was
prohibited. Siddharth notices that Mayank has seen him and pleads with him not to tell
anyone. Mayank reminds him of his promise to take revenge and goes and complains
to the local authorities. Can Siddharth claim malicious prosecution against Mayank?

a) Yes, since Mayank acted with malice.

b) Yes, since Mayank acted only in order to claim revenge.
c) No, because Mayank reported him for the public good.
d) No, because although Mayank reported him to take revenge, Siddharth had
actually committed an offence.

71. Principle – Serving liquor to a policeman on duty is an offence.

Facts – Anirudh, a constable enters a restaurant. The shop owner Samrat served him a
glass of beer. When he was prosecuted for the offence, he claimed that Anirudh wasn’t
wearing his belt at that time, and so he didn’t know if Anirudh was on duty. Decide if
he is liable.

a) Liable. He should have asked the policeman if he was on duty.

b) Not liable, since any reasonable person would assume that Anirudh wasn’t on
c) Liable since he committed the offence in the first place.
d) Liable for breaking a law that seeks to protect the public.

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72. Principle – Where there is a law, there is a right.

Facts – The government declares on its 4th anniversary that a new scheme for the
unemployed will be started. Under this scheme, all unemployed people will be paid 500
kg of wheat for a week’s work. When the scheme is not implemented for a long time,
Sarah files in the Supreme Court claiming that the Government must implement the
scheme. Can the Supreme Court direct the Government to do so?

a) No, since this is a policy matter and the Supreme Court cannot decide on policy
b) Yes, since announcement of the scheme created a legal obligation on the
government to do so.
c) Yes, because the rights of the unemployed are being violated.
d) Yes, because the Supreme Court can use its appellate jurisdiction to do

73. Principle – No one can contract with a minor. A contract with a minor is void ab initio.

Facts – Adwait is approached by a boy of 12 who claims he has been separated from
his mother and that he needs money to get back home in another town. The boy even
gives Adwait his address. Adwait gives him the money and later goes to the boy’s home
to claim the money. Can he do so?

a) Yes, he can if he can prove that he gave the money due to a necessity.
b) No, since one cannot contract with a minor.
c) No, since there is nothing to show any necessity.
d) No, since he ought to have followed the law. He should be fined for contracting
with a minor.

74. Principle –Abduction refers to the taking away of a person against his will. Abducting
for ransom carries the death penalty.

Facts – Terrorists abduct a senior police official and torture him for months. They
announce that the man has been taken away because he had killed a comrade of theirs
and is now paying for his sins. They then kill the police officer. If caught and
prosecuted, can they be given the death penalty?

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a) No, since they did not demand any ransom.

b) Yes, since they killed the policeman and this is murder.
c) Yes, since they abducted a servant of the State and therefore, committed the crime
against the State.
d) Yes, since it is only logical to assume that they must have also demanded some

75. Principle – Nothing done under the reasonable belief that one is mandated by law to do
it is an offence.

Facts – As a crowd started rioting in Nalsarbad, the senior-most police officer present
ordered his troops to fire on the crowd. The troops start firing indiscriminately with
their automatic weapons and the place turns into a bloodbath. A case is registered
against the troops and the police officer. Can they claim that they were acting as the
law required them to?

a) The police officer can claim this since he merely ordered his troops to fire and they
should have known better than to fire indiscriminately.
b) The troops can claim this defence since they were acting under the orders of their
superior. Violation of a senior officer’s order is punishable under the Police Act.
c) All of them can claim this defence since they were acting to protect law and order
d) Neither can claim this defence. The soldiers were unreasonable in firing in the
manner they did and the police officer will be held liable for the actions of his men.

76. Principle – The right of private defence is available to a person for defending his own
body and the body of other persons.

Facts – Harsh happens to see Xavier, his brother, fighting with Quentin. In fact, they
were playing. At a point, when Harsh thought that Xavier was to be felled by Quentin,
he kicked Quentin to death. On being charged with murder, Harsh pleads the right of
self-defence. Decide.

a) He is guilty since it is a genuine mistake of fact.

b) Harsh is guilty of murder.
c) Harsh is not guilty.

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d) None of these.

77. Principle – A person who interferes with another’s use and enjoyment of public places
is liable for nuisance.

Facts – Rajul runs a tea stall by the roadside. She has installed benches outside her stall
and also a table fan for the comfort of her customers. Her benches, the fan and other
possessions extend into the road. Is Rajul liable for nuisance?

a) Rajul is not liable for nuisance since her shop is itself a public place.
b) Rajul is not liable for nuisance since a road is not a public place.
c) Rajul is liable for nuisance because her shop extends into the road and hence can
hamper the movement in the road.
d) Rajul is not liable because it is commonplace in India to have roadside stalls and
removing them will cause great hardship to people.

78. Principle – An accident without any negligence does not give any rise to a wrong.

Facts – Ammaar is a tenant in Juhi’s house. Juhi warns him against the danger of the
open wiring but Ammaar doesn’t pay heed. A few days later, there are heavy rains
which results in a short-circuit. This causes a fire and the house burns down. Juhi
believes that the fire was due to the negligence of Ammaar who should have taken care
to prevent the fire. Is Ammaar liable?

a) Ammaar is liable because he had been pre-warned by Juhi against the danger of
wiring in the open.
b) Ammaar is not liable because it is Juhi’s responsibility to take care of the wire as
she is the owner.
c) Ammaar is liable because he is the tenant and he had been forewarned about the
d) Ammaar is not liable since the fire was an accident and not negligence.

79. Principle – Something done to prevent a greater harm can be used as a defence.

Facts – There is a fire in the nearby slum. So, Shatrugan goes there and starts pulling
down the huts to prevent the spread of fire. The fire never reached these huts and the

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fire department brought it under control in a matter of minutes. The owners of these
huts want to sue Shatrugan. Is he liable?

a) Shatrugan is liable because he acted without thinking.

b) Shatrugan is not liable because his intentions were noble and he wished to stem the
fire which could have caused widespread damage
c) Shatrugan is liable because his actions were not required and caused trouble as the
fire never reached the huts.
d) Shatrugan is not liable because he did not cause the fire.

80. Principle – The owner of the premises is liable for all damage caused to his invitees,
such as can be reasonably foreseeable.

Facts – Aditya was an experienced swimmer but not an expert. He was fond of diving.
Going to a new swimming pool one day, he sees a diving board and uses it. Aditya
wears spectacles of a very high power of 7.50. Because he was going to be swimming,
he didn’t see the small sign which prohibited diving. He died. Are the swimming pool
authorities culpable?

a) Yes, the harm is reasonably foreseeable.

b) No, the owner fulfilled his or her duty by putting up the sign
c) No, people with such high power should not go swimming.
d) No, Aditya should be careful while swimming in new places.

81. Principle – The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.

Facts – Surakshit was constructing an underground water tank within his premises.
Since the construction work was not complete, the open surface of the tank was covered
with gunny bags. Surakshit’s house was located in a very posh colony and was a very
beautiful one too. A postman came to deliver a registered letter. Surakshit had put a
postbox at the gate so that all the mails to him could be deposited there. The postman
fell into the tank and hurt himself.

a) Surakshit is not liable as the postman was not an invitee.

b) Surakshit is not liable as the postman did not take care.

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c) Surakshit is liable as the postman entered his house in performance of his duty to
deliver the mail.
d) Surakshit is not liable as it was the postman’s fault that he did not notice the postbox
outside the house which was the place where the letters were meant to be deposited.

82. Principle

i. Whoever is under a duty of care to another shall be liable for any injury to the latter
directly resulting from the breach of the duty.
ii. A master is liable for all the wrongs committed by his servant during the course of

Facts – Venky Stores sent certain items on a horse carriage to a customer’s house that
was by the side of the main road and near a university zone. The driver of the carriage
had been serving long at the store. The driver of the horse carriage was carrying the
goods into the house leaving the carriage unattended on the road. In the meantime, there
was a certain amount of confusion and chaos in the university due to the elections
running there. Suddenly, riot broke loose in the university campus and students came
running out in a mob. They hit against the horse which ran amuck and when it was
about to run over Megha, her boyfriend Prithvi at great risk to his life, managed to seize
the horse and stop the carriage. In the process, Prithvi suffered personal injuries.

a) The Dean of the University is responsible to compensate the boy.

b) Venky Stores is liable to the boy.
c) The carriage-driver is liable to compensate the boy.
d) The boy cannot claim any relief from any of the parties in this case.

83. Principle – When any person dishonestly takes any moveable property out of the
possession of any other person without his/her consent, he/she is guilty.

Facts – Harshit comes to Uttkarsh’s house and takes away a book with the intention to
return it.

a) Harshit commits theft because the book has been taken without Uttkarsh’s consent.
b) Harshit does not commit theft because he intends to return the book.
c) Harshit commits theft because he has taken a book which is a moveable property.

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d) Harshit commits theft because he has moved the book from Uttkarsh’s house.

84. Principle - When any person dishonestly takes any moveable property out of the
possession of any other person without his/her consent, he/she is guilty.

Facts – Malavika finds a diamond ring lying on Anuja’s table. She picks up the ring
and places it under the sofa in Anuja’s living room with the intention of retrieving it for
herself at a later time.

a) Malavika commits theft because she has moved the ring from Anuja’s table without
her consent.
b) Malavika does not commit theft because he has still not left Anuja’s house.
c) Malavika does not commit theft because Anuja is careless with his valuables.
d) Malavika commits theft the moment she picks up the ring whether or not she
dishonestly intended to keep it.

85. Principle – Any person who keeps dangerous animals must take adequate care to ensure
safety of neighbours and visitors and forewarn them about the animal.

Facts – Rishabh keeps a lion in his house. One day, Raheja comes to see Rishabh. The
lion moves around inside the house freely and is very friendly to members of the house.
As soon as Raheja knocks on the door of Rishabh, Raheja heard the roar of a lion from
inside. As soon as Rishabh opens the door, Raheja faints and suffers head injury from
the fall. Raheja demands compensation.

a) Rishabh is not liable to Raheja as the lion did not attack Raheja.
b) Rishabh is liable to Raheja as a lion falls within the category of a dangerous animal.
c) Rishabh is not liable to Raheja as it was due to Raheja’s sensitivity that he fainted.
d) Rishabh is liable to Raheja as he should have put up a warning notice

86. Principle – For every legally authorised act of the servant, the master is liable provided
that the act falls within the course of employment when either the master has authorised
the same or it is a wrongful mode of doing some authorised act.

Facts – A school bus driver after dropping all the children home stopped at a roadside
restaurant for having lunch. While he was having lunch, the conductor of the bus who

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was not having a driving license drove the bus in order to turn it. While turning the bus
he caused an accident whereby a small boy, restaurant owner’s son was injured.
Restaurant owner brought a suit against the school authorities.

a) Restaurant owner’s suit against the school will fail.

b) School authorities are to be held liable as conductor is an employee of the school.
c) School authorities are liable since the driver and conductor had finished the task of
leaving children, a task for which they were authorised by the school authorities
d) None of the above

87. Principle – Volenti non fit injuria, a well-established legal principle, means that a
person has no legal remedy for the injury caused by an act to which he consented with
regard to taking risk. Contributory negligence is in some way contributing towards the
harm caused to oneself by another and would result in lesser compensation being

Facts – An old lady Aruna was walking in a narrow one-way lane in the opposite
direction. It was past midnight and there was no street lighting. A car moving in the
right direction but without headlights knocked her down since the driver Kaza could
not see her. Aruna filed a suit against Kaza.

a) Aruna would lose because she violated the traffic rules in the first instance.
b) Aruna would lose because she voluntarily exposed herself to the risks.
c) Kaza would lose because he drove without proper headlights.
d) Aruna would win the case but the compensation would be lessened.

88. Principle – The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.

Facts – Sanchit Verma arranged a cocktail party for his friends in his farm house with
nice gardens and a swimming pool. The area of the swimming pool was brightly lit and
the pool had sufficient enclosures. Santosh, one of the guests, in his inebriated condition
strayed into the area of the swimming pool and fell into the pool and suffered injuries.
He files a suit against Sanchit Verma claiming damages.

a) Sanchit Verma is not liable, because he invited his guest only for the party and not
for swimming.

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b) Sanchit Verma cannot be held responsible for the drinking propensities of his
c) Sanchit Verma as a host would be responsible to take care of guests when they are
in his premises.
d) None of the above.

89. Principle – A man must not make such use of his property as unreasonably and
unnecessarily to cause inconvenience to his neighbours. Contributory negligence is in
some way contributing towards the harm caused to oneself by another.

Facts – Mr. Rishu is the owner of a plot measuring 50 feet by 80 feet. He constructed a
small house at one corner and was using the rest of the land as a cow shed. He had 20
cows and is involved in selling the milk to the public. The cow dung and other wastes
were openly stored in a small 10 feet by 8 feet tank. This constantly paved way for bad
smell and breeding of mosquitoes. Mrs. Srishti, his neighbour constantly complained
to Mr. Rishu but in vain. Also, Mrs. Srishti buys milk from Mr. Rishu.

a) Srishti cannot take any action against Rishu.

b) Rishu can do something to prevent the foul smell.
c) Srishti can complain to the police.
d) Srishti can sue Rishu for damages based on the inconvenience caused by Rishu.

90. Principle – An act of God is an operation of natural forces so unexpected that no human
foresight or skill could reasonably be expected to anticipate it.

Facts – The Panchvati Colony was celebrating its 25th Anniversary and arranged for a
concert by a leading music group Indian Ocean. The event was organised in one of the
best auditoriums and all the tickets were sold out. On the day of the event, an earthquake
destroyed many buildings including the auditorium. People who had purchased the
tickets asked for refund from Panchvati Colony Association as the show could not take

a) The Panchvati Colony must refund the cost of the tickets.

b) The management of the auditorium must refund the cost of the tickets.

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c) The Panchvati Colony or anyone else need not refund the cost of tickets as it is an
act of God
d) The ticket holders can demand the show to be organised at a later point of time.

91. Principle – Even if the sovereign functions of the State are discharged negligently, the
State is not vicariously liable in tort.

Facts – Abhinav was a trader in silver. He was arrested by police and was detained in
the police lock up after search. The silver found on him along with sundry other things
were seized. Later he was discharged. His possessions seized by the police were
returned except for the silver. He moved against the state in tort. In the words of the
Supreme Court, “There can be no escape from the conclusion that the Police Officers
were negligent in dealing with the property after it was seized.” One of the constables
fled with the silver to Saudi Arabia.

a) Abhinav will succeed because the servants of the State were negligent and thus
caused injury.
b) Abhinav will fail because the Constable who seized the silver had fled to Saudi
Arabia and the silver was not with the State at all.
c) Abhinav failed because the acts of search and seizure by the Police Officer were
part of the sovereign function of the State.
d) There was some other relief given to Abhinav.

92. Principle – For a contract, an offer has to be made that is accepted and there is consensus
ad idem.

Facts – Professor Hota of NALSAR is the History Faculty who lives alone in his
bungalow in NALSAR. He goes to a shop and asks for rice to be delivered to his
residence. In their previous dealings of about 12 years, Professor Hota has always
ordered the Basmati variety. The shopkeeper stores other five kinds of rice. He delivers
Vaagmati variety to Hota this time around. Hota wanted Basmati like always. The
shopkeeper wants to enforce the contract.

a) There was offer. There was acceptance. Valid contract. Binding on the Professor.

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b) There was consensus. Both parties understood rice to be the subject matter of the
agreement. Valid contract.
c) A contract is based on other considerations under Sec 26 of the Indian Contracts
d) Consensus ad idem was absent. Contract is void

93. Principle – Scienti non fit injuria means mere knowledge of the risk does not imply
consent to undergo harm.

Facts – Kevin wants to hitch a ride to Hyderabad from NALSAR. He stops Rudra who
was driving by. Rudra was drunk. Kevin knew that Rudra was inebriated but still took
the lift. An accident occurs where Kevin was injured and he brings a suit against Rudra.

a) Rudra is liable.
b) Rudra can claim the defence of scienti non fit injuria.
c) Rudra is liable as Kevin had not consented to the harm
d) Kevin had knowledge of Rudra being drunk but he still took the lift. He can claim
no compensation.

94. Principle – Decision by a higher court or higher bench strength is binding on a lower
court or on a lower bench strength, subject to jurisdictional issues.

Facts – A Division Bench of Telangana gives a ruling in a particular case. A matter

arises in the Kolkata High Court before a single judge bench with similar facts in toto.

a) Earlier decision is binding on Kolkata High Court as per the principle.

b) Kolkata High Court is one of the Presidency High Courts and therefore, its status is
above that of AP High Court. Not binding.
c) The decision only has a persuasive value.
d) As per Article 141 of the Constitution, law stated by the higher judiciary is law of
the land and therefore, is binding.

95. Principle – An international treaty is confirmed when the Head of the State signs on the
document. It is binding on the country only when its Parliament ratifies it. This is called
Dual Ratification.

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Facts – Republic of Zainasia and Rajigyandom entered into an agreement over sharing
of legal resources between the two countries. Harsha was the President of Zainasia and
he signed the document. The Parliament of Zainasia refused to ratify the agreement as
they believed it was against the national interest. Harsha was infuriated at the same and
now dissolved the Parliament. Thus, no Parliament was left to ratify the treaty.

a) Treaty is binding on the country now.

b) Treaty is confirmed.
c) There has to be a referendum held.
d) Treaty is not binding.

96. Principle – According to the Hindu Law in India, a custom has to be proved to be a long
standing one to be accepted as law of the land with relation to Hindus.

Facts – In Haryana, there is the custom of Khap Panchayats which decide matters
relating to religious issues. In an honour killing case, the Khaps approved the killing
that took place.

a) Khap Panchayat leaders can be booked under IPC for abetment to murder
b) Khaps are a long standing custom that has to be accepted by law.
c) Honour killing in itself is illegal
d) Khap Panchayats, if proved to be custom, can be made legal even if it is against
morality or ethics.

97. Principle – The USSR Constitution provides for Fundamental Rights of which one
guarantees the Right to Practice of profession and any trade, subject to restraints of law
and moral connotations.

Facts – The Moscow Red Light District is under glare from the FELITIA (Russia
Police). The sex workers approach a court of competent jurisdiction and claim that their
fundamental right has been infringed and file a writ petition.

a) They have a right to practice sex trade.

b) Constitutional guarantee does not mean moral connotations being ignored.
c) Right to solicit maybe taken away but the sex workers cannot be forced to give up
their trade.

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d) This is a matter of executive domain. Court is not a guardian of public morality.

98. Principle – Violation of a legal right, with or without actual damage, gives rise to a tort.

Facts – Chaman Bahaar is a very famous local supplier of cakes in the locality of
Shameerpet. One day Tevarsh called Chaman Bahaar and ordered a chocolate cake so
as to surprise his girlfriend, and directed Chaman to deliver it by the next day. However,
due to a damage in the supply car, the cake could not reach in time. Tevarsh wants to
sue Chaman, as his girlfriend got angry with him, due to which he had to suffer great
mental agony.

a) Chaman Bahaar is liable because he is a bad supplier.

b) Chaman Bahaar is not liable because there is violation of legal rights.
c) Chaman Bahaar is liable because Tevarsh’s legal right is violated and due to which
he suffered damage.
d) Chaman Bahaar is liable because supplying is not his cup of tea.

99. Principle: Under vicarious liability, a master is liable for the acts of his servant in the
course of the latter’s employment.

Facts: Joseph works for Martha as her cook and also does the other odd jobs in the
house like cleaning, washing the clothes, driving her around etc. One day while he was
cooking lunch, Martha realized that she needed to courier a package immediately, and
asked Joseph to run down to the nearby courier office and finish the work. As Joseph
wanted to finish his duties and leave early, he decided to take the car to the courier
office. As he was backing up the car from the drive way into the main street, he reversed
too fast without checking behind and ran over Martha’s neighbour’s daughter Julia,
who was playing on the street.

a) Joseph should be held liable as he ran over Julia.

b) Martha’s neighbours should be responsible as they were negligent in looking after
their daughter.
c) Martha should be held liable because it was her car that ran over Julia after all.
d) Martha should be held liable because while Joseph was driving the car, it was under
the course of the employment.

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100. Principle: An assault is an attempt or a threat to do corporal harm to another.

Explanation: Such an attempt or threat must be coupled with an apparent ability and
intention to do the act. If intoxication is used as a defence, it must be involuntary.

Fact: Toby and Caleb went to a nightclub, and over a couple drinks, due to some reason,
they started to have a heated argument. By that time Toby was completely drunk, Caleb
on the other hand was still in his senses and decided that rather than ruining a good
friendship it would be smarter to walk away from the argument and so he did; but Toby
already inebriated and angry now went after him and shoved him. When Caleb tried to
calm him down, Toby broke a bottle and threatened Caleb that if he doesn’t listen to
him, he will hit him with the bottle.

a) Toby has committed assault as the threat of apparent attack is clearly visible.
b) Toby hasn’t committed assault as he was drunk and not in his senses.
c) Toby hasn’t committed assault because Caleb was arguing with him and hence his
action is justified.
d) Toby has committed assault as he got angry.

SECTION 3: English

Arrange the sentences in a manner that makes it a comprehensible passage.


S1: First Mrs. Parker would show you the double parlours.

a) You would not dare to interrupt her description of their advantages and of the merits
of the gentleman who had occupied them for eight years.
b) Then you would manage to stammer forth the confession that you were neither a
doctor nor a dentist.

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c) Mrs. Parker's manner of receiving the admission was such that you could never
afterward entertain the same feeling toward your parents, who had neglected to train
you up in one of the professions that fitted Mrs. Parker's parlours.
d) Next you ascended one flight of stairs and looked at the second- floor-back at $8.

S6: Convinced by her second-floor manner that it was worth the $12 that Mr.
Toosenberry always paid for it until he left to take charge of his brother's orange
plantation in Florida near Palm Beach, where Mrs. McIntyre always spent the winters
that had the double front room with private bath, you managed to babble that you
wanted something still cheaper.

a) bdac
b) cabd
c) cdab
d) abcd

S1: One sunny afternoon in the autumn of the year 1861 a soldier lay in a clump of
laurel by the side of a road in western Virginia.
a) His extended right hand loosely grasped his rifle.
b) But for the somewhat methodical disposition of his limbs and a slight rhythmic
movement of the cartridge-box at the back of his belt he might have been thought
to be dead.
c) He was asleep at his post of duty.
d) He lay at full length upon his stomach, his feet resting upon the toes, his head upon
the left forearm.

S6: But if detected he would be dead shortly afterward, death being the just and legal
penalty of his crime.

a) dabc
b) abcd
c) adcb
d) bcad

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S1: Pathetic as poor Kate's face and voice were, it was impossible to help laughing at
the comical conclusion of her lament.
a) Sisters do very well to work for one, to pet one, and play confidante when one's
love affairs need feminine wit to conduct them.
b) Lennox tried to hide the smile on his lips by affecting to curl his moustache with
care, and to gaze pensively out as if touched by her appeal.
c) But he wasn't, oh, bless you, no! She was only his sister, and, though she might
have talked with the wisdom of Solomon, and the eloquence of Demosthenes, it
wouldn't have done a particle of good.
d) But when they begin to reprove, or criticise or moralize, it won't do, and can't be
allowed, of course.

S6: Lennox never snubbed anybody, but blandly extinguished them by a polite
acquiescence in all their affirmations, for the time being, and then went on in his own
way as if nothing had been said.

a) cdab
b) abcd
c) bcad
d) adbc

S1: The most notable thing about Time is that it is so purely relative.
a) A large amount of reminiscence is, by common consent, conceded to the drowning
b) That is what Trysdale was doing, standing by a table in his bachelor apartments.
c) On the table stood a singular-looking green plant in a red earthen jar.
d) It is not past belief that one may review an entire courtship while removing one's

S6: The plant was one of the species of cacti, and was provided with long, tentacular
leaves that perpetually swayed with the slightest breeze with a peculiar beckoning

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a) cadb
b) cabd
c) bcda
d) abcd

S1: For two years I had been studying Italian and working in the capacity of clerk to
the American legation at Rome, and I was going home to secure my first consular
a) Everything promised well.
b) Upon boarding my steamer at Genoa, I saw my luggage into my cabin and then
started for a rapid circuit of the deck.
c) All these things were in my mind when I stopped sharply before a chaise longue
placed sidewise near the stern.
d) The boat was thinly peopled, even for a July crossing; the decks were roomy; the
day was fine; the sea was blue; I was sure of my appointment, and, best of all, I was
coming back to Italy.

S6: Its occupant was a woman, apparently ill, who lay with her eyes closed, and in her
open arm was a chubby little red-haired girl, asleep.

a) bdac
b) abdc
c) cabd
d) badc

S1: Mr. Summers works down the list of families, summoning the head man of each
a) Mrs. Hutchinson begins to protest.
b) A male sixteen years or older comes forward and draws a slip of paper.
c) When every family has a slip of paper, Mr. Summers has everyone look at the slip
and we discover that Bill Hutchinson has drawn the one slip with a black spot.
d) It's his family that has been chosen.

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S6: With tension mounting it becomes clear that "winning" this lottery isn't going to be
what we expected, and that the "winner" isn't going to walk away with a pile of cash.

a) dabc
b) bcda
c) cdab
d) cdba

S1: When Martha Hale opened the storm-door and got a cut of the north wind, she ran
back for her big woollen scarf.
a) She hated to see things half done; but she had been at that when the team from town
stopped to get Mr. Hale, and then the sheriff came running in to say his wife wished
Mrs. Hale would come too--adding, with a grin, that he guessed she was getting
scary and wanted another woman along.
b) As she hurriedly wound that round her head her eye made a scandalized sweep of
her kitchen.
c) It was no ordinary thing that called her away--it was probably further from ordinary
than anything that had ever happened in Dickson County.
d) But what her eye took in was that her kitchen was in no shape for leaving: her bread
all ready for mixing, half the flour sifted and half unsifted.

S6: So she had dropped everything right where it was.

a) bcda
b) abcd
c) cdba
d) bdac

S1: Roads are a city’s arteries, and when they are given new names, the old lose their
connect, and with it a part of history is lost.
a) Aurangzeb is the archetypal villain in the Hindu nationalist imagination — the cruel
ruler who put a sword to people’s heads, offering them a choice between Islam and

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b) And a despot who hated music so much he ordered it buried deep so that no sound
could escape and reach anyone’s ears.
c) The Bharatiya Janata Party has picked on Mughal emperor Aurangzeb to rewrite
New Delhi’s history by renaming a road named after him.
d) Perhaps much of it was true, but often the nuance is lost in textbooks where the
process of internalisation of history begins at a young age.

S6: Not only cruel, Aurangzeb for the BJP is an outsider, a part of Mughal history, and
history it desires to wish away.

a) abdc
b) cabd
c) dacb
d) adcb

Passage 1:

The concern for the English lexicon of those running the so-called elite schools is quite
understandable. With the increasing nonchalance of the majority of government schools
towards academics, these English medium schools have become a saleable commodity. The
craze for what they generally call “spoken English” at times becomes quite awkwardly
pronounced in schools which are cursed to pass through a deliberate and compulsive transition
to the English medium tribe, simply because they find it difficult to carry on without a forceful
articulation of being linguistic apartheids, that is, having a pronounced bias towards English in
comparison to other subjects, especially languages. Thrusting English from the top level is an
ongoing activity in such schools. English books, English plays, English songs, a compulsion
to speak only in English lest the vernacular-free zone status of the campus is jeopardised,
repeated threats of fine if caught conversing in the vernacular — there are so many pressures
that loom large on these supposedly elite campuses standing guarantee for excellent
communication skills in English and thus a secure future for their end-products.

Seeking to cope with the market pressure, the proprietors and those made responsible for
running these schools often tend to forget that the target group being addressed by them consists
of those in their formative years, that is, small children still in the process of learning their
primary language. It is the diversity of experiences and exposures that enriches your

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expressions, whetting the desire to learn new words, new phraseology and ever-newer ways of
putting your ideas across. Obviously, giving an opportunity to someone to express his thoughts
and thus to look for new words and coin new sentences, is the best way out to strengthen his
language. An enlightened parent or a school worth its name will use such an opportunity as a
first step towards the much-desired inculcation of the reading habit. But how many of us do it?

In schools of the referred genre, mounting efforts to impose English invariably knock off or at
least retard the very process of learning one’s own language in what linguists call the critical
period. The self-styled educationists associated with such schools often ignore the fact that
unlike the first language, that is always imbibed, learning the second language is an academic
process. Instead of allowing them to make voluntary access to the new phraseology in order to
react to ever-newer situations and exposures, when those in their growing years are expected
and forced to cling to the set of situational sentences taught in the language lab or through the
so-called smart boards in an equally smart classroom — they are actually deprived of the
opportunity to learn their primary language and that too during a critical period.

It is often said that it is one’s proficiency in his primary language that decides the pace of his
learning a second language. It is indeed essential to learn English as it is an international
language. However, the approach conditioned by the presumption that conversing in one’s own
mother tongue during the early school days is detrimental to the pace of his learning the second
language is absolutely unfounded. Without impeding their spontaneity in the mother tongue by
exerting numerous pressures, if those in their formative years are given an opportunity to listen
to and read something which they can identify and relate to, I think we would be doing justice
to them. I have a strong feeling that by way of imposing linguistic restrictions we have been
guilty not only of effecting a kind of stratification among the juvenile learners but also of
blunting their sensitivities and spontaneity, as both these attributes are closely linked to

Today, when the market forces are already getting hyperactive, it is high time for us to review
not only our approach towards learning an international language but also our priorities. What
kind of a generation do we want in the days to come — that of human templates programmed
to reproduce the extended version of well-learnt situational sentences, or individuals who can
think, feel, innovate and create? The choice is ours.

109. What is the synonym of the word GLOSSARY in the passage?

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a) Nonchalance
b) Lexicon
c) Apartheid
d) Articulation

110. Why are they called linguistic apartheids?

a) Because they believe people of darker skin colour shouldn’t learn English
b) Because this increasing demand for English as a medium of education, grew in the
Apartheid era
c) Because by favouring English over other languages, they are following the system
of discrimination, figuratively
d) They are being forceful in the implementation of using only English as a medium
of language, thus showing the brutal force and oppression meted out during the time
of the Apartheid regime.

111. What is the antonym of VERNACULAR?

a) Regional
b) Indigenous
c) Vulgar
d) Uncommon

112. What are the pressures of thrusting English at the top level?
a) They have to teach English to those who don’t know the language
b) There aren’t enough resources, in terms of English books, plays, songs, etc
c) They need to ensure that only English is learnt and spoken, and hence stringent
measures need to be in place to fine use of vernacular language
d) All of the above

113. Which is the target group mentioned in the passage?

a) Students of a particular age group only
b) Parents of students
c) Students
d) Only 1 and 2

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114. What is the meaning of the word inculcation?

a) Self-control
b) Orderliness
c) Restraint
d) All of the above

115. What is the problem with enforcing only English?

a) Forgetting the mother-tongue/vernacular, in the process of teaching only English
b) Decreasing ability to learn one’s own language, because of increasing mental
stimulation used to learn English
c) Lack of proficient teachers
d) Being unable to learn one’s own language, because of less time, due to increasing
importance given to English, in schools

116. “However, the approach conditioned by the presumption that conversing in

one’s own mother tongue during the early school days is detrimental to the pace of his
learning the second language is absolutely unfounded.” - What does this mean?
a) There is a direct correlation between learning two different languages
b) Learning of one language doesn’t hamper the ability to learn another
c) Presumptions relating to ability to learn can often be rebutted
d) Only 1 and 2

117. What are the two attributes of expression, according to the passage?
a) Spontaneity and impulse
b) Sensitivities and ability to sympathise
c) Spontaneity and receptiveness
d) None of the above

Passage 2:
It is ironical that at a time when yoga is increasingly being recognised around the world as an
efficacious discipline that aids physical and mental well-being, the ancient Indian system is
caught in a needless controversy, mainly due to its aggressive promotion by the Narendra Modi

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government. It is difficult to avoid the impression that the government is showing excessive
zeal as well as a tendency to use its employees and institutions to propagate its own view of
culture and tradition. Mobilising staff members and students seems to be this regime’s way of
promoting an idea. If it was Good Governance Day last Christmas, it will be International Yoga
Day on June 21. It is indeed true that Prime Minister Modi’s address to the United Nations
General Assembly in September 2014 provided the platform for the international community
to recognise the importance of yoga. In December, the UNGA passed a resolution with the
backing of over 170 countries to designate June 21 as International Yoga Day. No doubt, the
benefits of yoga ought to be widely disseminated. However, does promoting it require the
mobilisation of tens of thousands of people at Rajpath in Delhi for a massive demonstration?
There are apprehensions that employees and students would be asked to participate in related
events on a Sunday, even though it has not been made mandatory.

The government is even aiming for an entry in the Guinness World Records for the single
largest yoga demonstration. It appears that having international impact is a key objective
behind the promotional activities. If yoga is all about health, peace and harmony, there really
is no need for a demonstrative approach to it. The visible presence of the state in the promotion
of yoga will only detract from the idea of making it a people’s movement. Rather, the
government’s role should be confined to providing facilities for the practice of yoga in various
institutions under it and disseminating information about its benefits. A related issue that has
given a sectarian dimension to the yoga campaign concerns a perception that the practice of
yoga, especially the surya namaskar part of it, is against the tenets of Islam. Recognising this,
the government has dropped surya namaskar from the list of asanas to be performed on June
21. While it is true that yoga is part of a wider heritage and attracts practitioners from among
adherents of various religions, the government is obviously unable to convince everyone that
its programmes are free of all religious or cultural association. It should work to remove its
initiatives from areas of contestation so that even programmes having universal value do not
take the hue of its ideology.

118. What is the synonym of efficacious?

a) Incapable
b) Unproductive
c) Puissant
d) Enthusiastic

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119. Where and when did India stress on the importance of Yoga?

a) By asking for June 21st to be International Yoga Day

b) In the Indian Parliament
c) In December in the UN General Assembly
d) In September in the UN General Assembly

120. Synonym of disseminate

a) Promulgate
b) Collect
c) Gather
d) All of the above

121. What is the main flaw in the government’s argument in favour of Yoga

a) It is ignoring the wishes of certain sects in the country

b) It is unable to convince the people of the secular nature of Yoga
c) It is focusing only on the demonstrative aspect of the tradition
d) Both A and B

122. How is the enthusiasm of the government being interpreted?

a) It considers Yoga a sacred tradition

b) It believes in the need to practice Yoga
c) It considers Yoga important for mental and physical well-being
d) All of the above

123. What does the word “Alacrity” mean in the passage?

a) zeal
b) dissemination
c) efficacious
d) regime

124. From a social perspective, what was the main argument against Yoga being
propagated as a tradition and culture?

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a) It ignored the views of the population by catering only to the demands of the
b) Certain practices under Yoga were contrary to certain beliefs of other religion
c) There was no need for a demonstrative approach to stress the importance of Yoga
d) None of the above

125. What was the problem with June 21st being set as Yoga Day?

a) It was a Sunday and hence will amount to giving up a holiday.

b) It went against the tenets of Islam, being the day of the Summer Solstice
c) It would be an extremely long day
d) All of the above

126. What was the main aim of the government to set an International Yoga Day?

a) It wanted to get into the Guinness book of world records

b) It wanted to spread physical and mental well-being in the country
c) It seemed to have an international impact as a key objective
d) All of the above

Given below are a set of idioms. Choose the option that mostly closely gives the meaning:

127. Come within an ace of something

a) To absolutely achieve something

b) To strike fortune
c) Come close to succeeding
d) Have an advantage to yourself

128. The acid test:

a) An experience that attests your skills or effectiveness

b) Difficult times
c) A do or die situation
d) A bitter incident that tests will-power

129. A class act:

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a) A cunning person
b) A conman
c) A exemplary performer in one’s field
d) An acclaimed performer

130. Get your act together

a) Putting the pieces together

b) Seeking redemption
c) Turning over a new leaf
d) Taking stock of one’s actions in order to be successful

131. Not know someone from Adam

a) Haven’t met for a long time

b) Completely unrecognisable
c) Complete stranger
d) Long lost stranger

132. Hot air

a) Pretentious claims and promises

b) Haughty
c) Furious
d) Failed plans

133. Roll in the aisles

a) Being jostled
b) Unbearable laughter
c) Keep waiting
d) Frantically searching

134. A smart Aleck

a) Conniving
b) Industrious

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c) Haughty
d) Know-it-all

135. A blind alley

a) A dangerous situation
b) A trickery
c) Useless action not leading anywhere
d) Going through adversity

Choose the synonyms/antonyms of the words highlighted in bold as indicated:

136. Being born in a royal family, he once had a luxurious life but then he was
denounced as wastrel as he had dissipated his inheritance. (Synonym)

a) Licentious
b) Wanderer
c) Profligate
d) Spendthrift

137. The assiduous policeman was awarded for maintaining the law and order when
riots broke down in the city. (Antonym)

a) Dull
b) Lazy
c) Untiring
d) Methodical

138. The UGC abrogated the ineffective provision of the remuneration policy.

a) Enforce
b) Break
c) Violate
d) Repeal

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139. In moot court competition, one of the team’s sophomoric arguments indicate
that they not given much thought to the moot problem. (Synonym)

a) Unpalatable
b) Ignorant
c) Immature
d) Non-serious

140. Sam used iniquitous ways to earn wealth and this led to his downfall.

a) Haughty
b) Sinful
c) Violent
d) Faultless

SECTION 4: Logical Reasoning

141. The rate of violent crime in the capital has gone up 20% from last year. The
fault lies entirely in the nation’s judicial system. In the past year, the judges have been
handing out sentences so leniently that even a person who commits a heinous offence
is almost sure he will not have to serve more than five years in jail.

The argument above would be most weakened by which of the following?

a) Most other cities in the nation have actually experienced a fall in crime rate.
b) White collar crime in the capital has increased by 25% since last year.

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c) Due to budget cuts, nearly 35% of the police force in the capital has been laid off.
d) The state has hired 25 new judges in the past year.

142. Violent video games are criticized by parents' groups, psychologists, religious
organizations, and politicians. A common focus of the criticism is that video games that
allow players to act out crimes, and reward players for doing so, encourage aggressive
behaviour. Though some psychological studies have shown a correlation between the
playing of violent video games and aggressive behaviour, the vast majority of such
studies do not claim behavioural causation.

Which of the following assertions can most properly be drawn from the given

a) Video games are the cause for aggressive behaviour in some children.
b) Video games that allow players to act out crimes cause aggressive behaviour.
c) Psychologists, politicians and religious organisations are correct in their criticism.
d) Video games that allow players to act out crimes may cause aggressive behaviour.

143. Most doctors recommend drinking alcohol in moderation, since the excessive
intake of alcohol has been linked to several diseases of the liver. Last year, however,
more nondrinkers than drinkers were diagnosed with liver failure. Thus, at least
concerning the liver, it can be concluded that drinking alcohol is no more dangerous
than abstaining from alcohol.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument

a) The non-drinkers diagnosed of liver failure had previously been alcohol addicts,
and then been cured of addiction.
b) The non-drinkers were diagnosed to have had liver failure due to excessive
consumption of fatty foods.
c) The non-drinkers were smokers and the effects of smoking and drinking are found
to be similar.
d) The non-drinkers occasionally consumed alcohol.

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144. During the past thirty years, the percentage of the population that smokes
cigarettes has consistently declined. During the same time period, however, the number
of lung cancer deaths has increased.

Which of the following can be most properly inferred from the passage?

a) Smoking is the direct cause for lung cancer.

b) Smoking is not the sole cause for lung cancer.
c) Vehicular pollution could be a contributory factor for lung cancer.
d) Smoking increases the likelihood of contracting lung cancer.

145. Some psychologists have concluded that one specific set of parental behaviours
towards children always signifies acceptances and a second set always signifies
rejection, for there is remarkable agreement among investigators about the maternal
behaviour designated as indicative of these personal attitudes.

The conclusion of psychologists mentioned above logically depends on the assumption


a) Most maternal behaviours have been interpreted as conveying either acceptance or

b) The maternal behaviours of indicating acceptance or rejection are exhibited by
fathers as well.
c) The behaviours of fathers towards children have been studied as carefully as have
the behaviours of mothers.
d) Acceptance and rejection are the easiest to recognise of all parental behaviours.

146. All administrations are illogical.

Most administrations are oppressive.
Some administrations are understanding.

Which of the following can be deduced from the above statements?

a) Some administrations are illogical.
b) Some understanding administrations may also be oppressive.

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c) Some illogical administrations may be understanding.

d) All of the above.

147. All drugs are chemicals.

Marijuana is a chemical.

a) Marijuana is a drug.
b) Drugs are marijuana.
c) All Chemicals are marijuana.
d) None of the above.

148. All rational persons believe in the rule of law.

Some rational people teach at NALSAR.

a) All persons who teach at NALSAR are rational.

b) All persons who teach at NALSAR believe in the rule of law.
c) Some persons who teach at NALSAR believe in the rule of law.
d) None of the above.

149. If Riya has leukemia, she will die.

Riya will die.

Which of the following is the most logical deduction from the above set of statements?

a) Riya has leukemia.

b) Riya may or may not have leukemia.
c) All persons die, and so must Riya.
d) All of the above.

150. There are few 19th century houses left, but those that remain provide a solid
foundation for the belief that 19th century houses were more resistant to all sorts of
cataclysms than modern housing is. Studies support the conclusion that 19th century

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houses that have already survived over a century of use are more likely to endure natural
disasters than most houses constructed within the last decade.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
a) Most areas where 19th century houses still exist have not been subject to serious
natural disasters since the end of the 18th century.
b) Modern technology makes it possible to use lightweight materials and prefabricated
panels to construct small and medium-sized houses without compromising their
c) Some houses constructed over the last decade are more resistant to cataclysms than
19th century houses.
d) With the exception of those built of the most durable materials, houses fall into
disuse and decay within 60 years of their construction.

151. The greater the division of labour in an economy, the greater the need for
coordination. This is because increased division of labour entails a larger number of
specialized producers, which results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially,
in a greater number of disruptions of supply and production. There is always more
division of labour in market economies than in planned economies.

If all of the statements given are true, which of the following must also be true?
a) Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in planned economies than
in market economies.
b) There are more specialized producers in planned economies than in market
c) The need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned
d) A manager’s task is easier in a market economy than in a planned economy.
152. Everyone who is compassionate is kind, and someone who has experienced
life’s challenges is invariably compassionate. Asad is kind, so he has experienced life’s
Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of flawed reasoning most similar to that
exhibited above?

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a) Rakshanda is a highly productive person. Every person who is motivated is highly

productive, and every person who is organized is motivated. Therefore, Rakshanda
is very organized.
b) Nice people are always sympathetic people, and those who have experienced
hardships always end up being nice. Rachel is not a sympathetic person, so Rachel
has not experienced hardships.
c) Almost everyone who loves black and white films is a movie buff, and all movie
buffs enjoy popcorn. Monica does not love black and white films, so Monica
probably does not enjoy popcorn.
d) Successful entrepreneurs are either confident or experienced. Chandler is a
successful entrepreneur, and he is not experienced. Therefore, Chandler is

153. Recent dental research shows that bacteria around the gum line produces a
substance that in sufficient amounts can induce preterm labour in pregnant women and
can cause heart disease by clogging arteries. Both medical outcomes add to payouts by
health insurers to medical-service providers. The bacteria is best removed by a dentist
or trained hygienist during a routine cleaning. One health insurer has calculated that it
can reduce its payouts by reimbursing subscribers who are either pregnant or at high
risk of developing heart disease for the cost of one professional dental cleaning per

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the assertion that the insurer's
payouts to medical-service providers will decrease if it implements the reimbursement
plan described above?
a) Dental-hygiene regimens such as brushing or flossing can slow the accumulation
of the bacteria-produced substance.

b) Individuals are generally less likely to postpone or forego inexpensive or free

dental procedures than expensive ones.

c) Pregnant women typically crave sugary foods, which are proven to contribute to
tooth decay.

d) The risk of developing heart disease is greater for individuals with a family history
of heart disease than for those with no such history.

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154. Rachel: The population of this country is aging. Elderly people generally prefer
not to live in harsh climates characterized by extreme temperatures. Accordingly, in
this country's coastal regions, where the climate is generally most temperate, the
population is likely to grow, while other regions are likely to suffer population declines.

Ross: I disagree. With few exceptions, regions where the climate is harsh are
characterized by comparatively low living costs, a compelling factor for retired people
with little savings and no fixed incomes.

Which of the following is the most likely point of disagreement between Rachel and
a) the reason for the population shift toward coastal areas and away from other regions

b) whether the country's current decline in overall population will continue into the
forseeable future

c) why older people find certain regions where the climate is harsh attractive places to live

d) whether regions characterized by harsh climates are likely to experience population

declines in the foreseeable future

155. An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at
bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch
television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes
to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the
opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?
a) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

b) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music

c) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than
among people who do not.

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d) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a

person’s ability to fall asleep.

156. The top national law school has built its reputation for academic excellence
largely on significant contributions from wealthy alumni who are avid fans of the
school’s mooting culture. Although the university’s teams have won more national
moots over the years than any university’s teams, this year it did not even win the
simplest of moots, and so the law school can expect to see a decline in alumni
contributions next year.
The above argument relies on which of the following assumptions about the law school?

a) The law school’s reputation for academic excellence depends on the performance of its
moot teams.

b) Contributions from alumni are needed for the law school.

c) Alumni contributions depend to an extent on a winning record by the law school’s moot

d) The law school’s moot teams will continue their losing streak next year.

157. Pranjal: We recently ran some advertisements in the print version of a travel
magazine and on that magazine's website. We were unable to get any direct information
about consumer response to the print ads. However, we found that consumer response
to the ads on the website was much more limited than is typical for website ads. We
concluded that consumer response to the print ads was probably below par as well.
Pranjal’s reasoning does which one of the following?

a) bases a prediction of the intensity of a phenomenon on information about the intensity

of that phenomenon's cause

b) uses information about the typical frequency of events of a general kind to draw a
conclusion about the probability of a particular event of that kind

c) infers a statistical generalization from claims about a large number of specific


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d) uses a case in which direct evidence is available to draw a conclusion about an

analogous case in which direct evidence is unavailable

158. Vageeshan: Democracy does not promote political freedom. There are historical
examples of democracies that ultimately resulted in some of the most oppressive
societies. Likewise, there have been despotic systems and oligarchies that have
provided a remarkable level of political freedom to their subjects.
The reasoning in Vageeshan’s argument is flawed because it

a) confuses the conditions necessary for political freedom with the conditions sufficient
to bring it about

b) fails to consider that a substantial increase in the level of political freedom might
cause a society to become more democratic

c) appeals to historical examples that are irrelevant to the causal claim being made

d) overlooks the possibility that democracy promotes political freedom without being
necessary or sufficient by itself to produce it

159. Phoebe is an athlete.

All athletes have blonde hair.
Joey has blonde hair.

Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion that can be drawn?

a) Joey and Phoebe are the same person.
b) All athletes may not have blonde hair.
c) Joey is an athlete.
d) Joey may not be an athlete.
160. All that glitters is uranium.
Plutonium glitters too.
a) Plutonium is Uranium.
b) Plutonium may not be Uranium.
c) These statements defy all logic.
d) All glittery things are either plutonium or uranium.

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Directions for 161 to 165: Study the information carefully and answer the given question.

A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting around a circular are at equal distances from their neighbors
but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while some of
them are facing outward (i.e. in a direction opposite the centre).

NOTE: Same direction means if one person is facing the centre then the other also faces the
centre and vice versa. Opposite direction means that if one person is facing the centre then
the other is facing outward and vice versa.

D sits third to the right of B. E sits second to the left of B. The immediate neighbors of B face
the same direction (ie if one neighbor faces the centre the other neighbor also faces the centre
and vice versa). C sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre. F sits third to the right of C.
G sits second to the left of H. H is not an immediate neighbor of B. G faces the same direction
as D. The immediate neighbors of F face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbor faces the
centre the other neighbor faces outward and vice versa.)

161. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

162. Which of the following is TRUE regarding A as per the given seating
a) H sits second to the left of A.
b) A faces upward
c) Only two people sit between A and B.
d) Only three people sit between A and G.

163. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on the following group.
Which of them does not belong to the group?
a) F
b) H

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c) B
d) G

164. What is E’s position with respect to H?

a) Third to the left
b) On the immediate left.
c) On the immediate right.
d) Second to the right.

165. Who sits second to the left of G?

a) H
b) A
c) B
d) F

Directions for 166 to 170: Study the given information carefully and answer the following

Ajatshatru, Bansi, Chinmayi, Debarpan, Kopal, Lakshmi and Malika live on seven different
floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building
is numbered one, the one above it is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered
seven. Each one of them also likes a different game, namely Snooker, Badminton, Chess, Ludo,
Cricket, Hockey and Polo. (Not necessarily in same order)

Only two people live between Bansi and Kopal. Bansi lives on one of the floors above Kopal.
Kopal does not live on the lowermost floor. Only one person lives between Bansi and the one
who likes Chess. The one who likes Polo lives on one of the even numbered floors above the
one who likes Chess.

Only two persons live between Malika and the one who likes Chess. The one who likes Snooker
lives immediately above Malika. Ajatshatru lives immediately above Lakshmi. Ajatshatru
doesn’t like Chess.

The one who likes Ludo lives on one of the odd numbered floors below L. Malika doesn’t like
Ludo. Debarpan lives on one of the floors above Chinmayi. Only one person lives between the
one who likes Cricket and the one who likes Hockey. Debarpan does not like Cricket. Malika
does not like Badminton.
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166. Which of the following games does Bansi like?

a) Snooker
b) Ludo
c) Polo
d) Badminton

167. Which of the following lives on the floor numbered 4?

a) The one who likes Hockey.
b) The one who likes Chess
c) Ajatshatru
d) Lakshmi

168. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement?
a) Only two people live between Kopal and Malika.
b) The one who likes Hockey lives immediately above Kopal.
c) Chinmayi likes Chess.
d) Chinmayi lives on even numbered floor.

169. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the
positions of how many people will remain unchanged?
a) 0
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

170. Which of the following combinations is TRUE with respect to the given
a) Polo- Chinmayi
b) Ludo- Bansi
c) Cricket- Kopal
d) Chess- Lakshmi

171. A person starts walking from his office towards a party hall. He walks for 30m
towards East. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15m. He again takes a 90° right
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turn and walks for another 20m. He then walks for 25m after taking a 90° left turn.
Turning 90° towards his right he walks for 10m to reach the party hall. How far and in
which direction is the party hall from his office?
a) 40 m West
b) 40 m South
c) 45 m South
d) 45 m North

Study the following information for Questions 172 to 174:

 J is sister of T. T is married to D. D is father of R.

 M is son of H. T is mother in law of H.
 D has only one son and no daughter.
 J is married to B. L is daughter of B.

172. How is L related to T?

a) Niece
b) Sister
c) Daughter
d) Mother

173. How is M related to D?

a) Niece
b) Uncle
c) Brother
d) Grandson

174. How is J related to R?

a) Sister
b) Aunt
c) Mother-in-Law
d) Mother

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175. Pointing to a girl in a photograph, Mehra tells his friend, “She is the grand-
daughter of the elder brother of my father,” How is that girl in the photograph related
to Mehra?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Sister
c) Aunt
d) Niece

Analogy – Select the related letters/words from the given alternatives:



177. ACEG : KMQQ : : UWYA : ?


178. ABCD : CEGI : : KLMN : ?


179. ADFG : KNPQ : : DGIJ : ?


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180. ROAD : WTFI : : BEAT : ?


SECTION 5: Mathematics
181. A 1.5m long boy, looks up at the top of a pole standing on the center of a circle
of radius 3.5m. The boy stands on the circumference of the circle with his head inclined
at angle of 450 when looking at the top of the pole. What is the area of the triangle
formed by lines joining the boy’s head with the top and bottom of the pole?
a) 9 sq. m
b) 8.5 sq. m

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c) 8.75 sq. m
d) 9.75 sq. m

182. A 185m long train starts crossing a 325 m long platform, the tip of the train
reaches the other end of the platform in 25 seconds. What is the speed of the train in
a) 40km/hr.
b) 40.4km/hr.
c) 41km/hr.
d) 41.4km/hr.

183. A man starts by going 8.4km upstream, stays there for one and a half hours and
then, comes down and finally rows 5.1km. His upstream speed is 7km/hr and
downstream speed is 10km/hr. How long did the complete tour last?
a) 4.12 hr
b) 2.41 hr
c) 2.15 hr
d) 4.14 hr

184. What is the probability of drawing an ace together with getting a prime number
on the throw of a die and heads on a coin?
a) 1/78
b) 3/52
c) 1/52
d) 1/26
185. In a grid there are 4 rows and 4 columns now the rows and columns are to be
filled with numbers from 4 to 19 in such a manner that the sum of the numbers in each
row and each column is the same. What is that sum going to be?
a) 41
b) 44
c) 45
d) 46

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186. What is the angle made between the hour and minute hand of the clock at 4:36
a) 54o
b) 56o
c) 45o
d) 48o

187. Two cars are moving antiparallel to each other, they are both approaching a
particular crossroad, at the same distance of 500m from both the cars. The first car is
moving at a speed of 90km/hr and the second one is moving at a speed of 54km/hr.
when will the two cars collide?
a) 12.5s
b) 25s
c) 26.6s
d) None of these

188. In a trapezium ABCD the parallel sides AB and CD measure 4cm and 6cm
respectively, there are two perpendiculars CE and DF measuring 3cm each. What will
be the sum of the areas of the triangles AEC and BFD?
a) 4sq. cm
b) 3sq. cm
c) 6sq. cm
d) 5sq. cm

189. A pizza (radius 14cm) is divided into seven parts, of which 3 are of one size and
4 are of a different size. The sizes are in the ratio of 5:7 respectively. What is the area
of one of the bigger pieces?
a) 200/43 sq. cm
b) 220/43 sq. cm
c) 230/41 sq. cm
d) 201/41

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190. A telephone company charges progressively , charges being 0.6 paise per
second for the first 30 seconds , 0.7 paise for the next 30 seconds and after that a uniform
0.9 paise per second. How much will you be charged for talking 4minutes and 15
a) 2.135 rupees
b) 2.14 rupees
c) 2.145rupees
d) 2.13rupess

191. If it takes 0.07 Ml of ink to print the capital letters and 0.06 ml to print the
small letters how much ink will go in printing the first 10 letters of this question?
a) 0.74ml
b) 0.58ml
c) 0.64ml
d) 0.66ml

192. There is a door with a wall perpendicular to the door frame, the door has a height
of 2m and width of 0.8m and it is half open. What will be the length of the arc formed
when the door is changed to full open position?
a) 0.628 m
b) 1.256 m
c) 1.884m
d) 2.8m

193. What is the area of a regular hexagon with side 7 cm?

a) 12.25√3
b) 36.75√3
c) 73.5√3
d) 49√3

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194. Ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is 12.25:12.96 what will be the ratio
of the length of corresponding sides?
a) 5:6
b) 7.2:9.8
c) 7:7.2
d) 8:9

195. What is the shortest distance between the hypotenuse and the orthocentre of a
right angled triangle with sides measuring as 5cm, 3cm and 4 cm?
a) 12/5cm
b) 9/5cm
c) 16/5cm
d) None of these

196. What will be the volume sweeped by a circle of radius 3.5 cm which is rotated
one revolution along one of its diameters?
a) 369.3 sq. cm
b) 359.3sq. cm
c) 349.3 sq. cm
d) None of these

197. Which of the following pair is different from the others?

a) 2,7
b) 5,124
c) 3,28
d) 4,63

198. A ball is thrown into a square compound of side 7m with a circular garden of
radius 1.4 m inside it what is the probability of the ball landing inside the garden?
a) 6.28/49
b) 6.11/49
c) 7.24/49
d) 6.16/49

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199. Which of the following equations will give real roots (roots should be real
numbers not imaginary like √−1 )?
a) x2 + x + 4 = 0
b) x2 + 7x + 2 = 0
c) x2 + 3x + 7 = 0
d) 5x2 + 4x + 1 = 0

200. Find the missing term 0,6,18,?,100,180

a) 49
b) 58
c) 45
d) 48

CLATGyan | Batch of 2019, 2020, 2021 & 2022 – NALSAR University of Law