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a. Modulation frequency
b. Carrier frequency a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a minimum.
c. Transmission distance
d. Information transmitted b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if it were a
series.
3 Voltage gain in decibels is c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current from the
constant-voltage source.
a. 10 ln 12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit for
swamping out the effect of the
transistor's internal capacitances is the
b. 10 log
a. Hartley design
b. Clapp design
c. 20 ln c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design
a. Fluorescent light
b. Solar emission Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission
c. Resistor noise
d. Lightning
1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is not called
7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal mixed in the
with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load impedance is 50 . What
is the amplifier's output S/N level in dB? a. Modulating signal
b. Information signal
a. 22.9 dB c. Modulating wave
b. 54.9 dB d. Carrier
c. 45.9 dB
d. 51.9 dB 2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three frequency
components of 100 Hz,
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2- 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the lower
kHz sinewave? sideband?
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave. a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz
b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz
the sinewave has only one. c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise. d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas
the sinewave does not.
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured to be 850 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to
W. What is the total output sideband
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%? a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
a. 425 W c. Prevent overmodulation.
b. 850 W d. Prevent undesired transmissions.
c. 283.3 W
d. 141.65 W 13. A spectrum analyzer is
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz – 2kHz signal. The upper a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT.
sideband is b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from
any spurious signals.
a. 102 kHz c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range.
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz d. All the above.
c. 101 kHz
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz
14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the following.
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which percentage of a full
sinewave? a. Verify that a problem exists.
b. Isolate the defective stage.
a. 25% c. Isolate the defective component.
b. 50% d. Replace the defective component and hot check.
c. 100% e. All the above.
d. 200%
15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and sideband
6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at minimum is 40 V combine to form the AM waveform
p-p. The modulation percentage is is
a. 1135 kHz 1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 load results in a
b. 225 kHz PEP rating of
c. 1590 kHz
d. 1815 kHz a. 200 W
b. 50 W
c. 100 W
7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of d. 800 W
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning 4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a regular
from a weak signal to a strong signal. modulator?
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the
speaker. a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced modulator.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180º phase shift between the upper
the weather and ionosphere change. and lower sidebands.
d. All the above c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are suppressed.
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver manufactured on
an integrated circuit is 5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is accomplished by
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver input 6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?
signal and its sensitivity is called
a. Crystal filter
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver b. Ceramic filter
b. Automatic gain control (AGC) c. Mechanical filter
c. The dynamic range of the receiver d. Tank circuit
d. The IF amplifier gain
12. The simplest AM detector is the 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is
13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method over the
filter method in producing SSB?
a. Trimmer capacitor
b. Padder capacitor a. The design of the 90º phase-shift network for the intelligence
c. Varicap diode frequencies is simple.
d. a and b b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically used, because a
e. All the above high-Q filter is not necessary.
c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary, because high-Q
14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, the filters are not needed.
likely problem is d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other.
a. Low RF gain 9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be amplified by
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
d. LO tracking b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
the
10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB do not apply to
a. Power supply transmission of
b. RF section
c. Audio amplifier a. Code
d. AGC diode b. Music
c. Noise
d. All the above b. 5
c. 2
11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" attenuation of a
Butterworth filter. d. 20
2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the center a. Capture effect
frequency in an FM signal is called the b. Signal-to-noise ratio
c. Noise figure
a. Index of modulation
d. Bessel function
b. Frequency deviation
c. Phase deviation
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center frequency
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed through four
cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two triplers, one doubler, and
3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the intelligence one quadrupler. What type of signal appears at the output of the
frequency in last multiplier stage?
4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a maximum 12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a
deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is set at 162.4 Mhz, transmitter up to a specified value is called the
what is its index of modulation?
a. Multiplier
a. 10 b. Expander
c. Pump chain
d. All the above 6 Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation through the
a. Receiver's wiring
13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast b. IF transformer
transmitter is to c. Antenna
d. All the above
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L – R audio
7 Which is not one of the three stages in which a PLL can be
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L – R channels operated?
c. Separate the left channel from the right channel
d. Modulate the L + R and L – R signals with the carrier signal a. Free-running
b. Capture
c. Locked/tracking
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a maximum d. Searching
deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is
8 A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9 Mhz. The
a. 125 VCO does not change frequency unless its input is within
75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it does lock, the input frequency
b. 0.2
can be adjusted within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without having
c. 5 the PLL start to free-run again. The capture range of the
d. 6 PLL is
a. 75 kHz
15 Frequency multipliers b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of an FM d. 240 kHz
signal
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that 9 Slope detection is seldom used due to
filters out a single harmonic
a. Nonlinearity
c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM signal b. Attenuation
d. All the above c. Complexity
d. All the above
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception
10 In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of the 23–53-
1 A difference between AM and FM receiver block diagrams is kHz filter?
that the FM version includes a
a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the
a. Limiter discriminator
b. Discriminator b. To filter out the L – R signal at the output of the
c. Deemphasis network discriminator
d. All the above c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the
discriminator
2 An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without an RF d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L + R and
amplifier because L – signals
a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input signal 11 A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of channel
levels due to thei noise separation. If the right channel has 4 W of output power,
characteristics how much of this power could be due to the left channel
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth. intelligence?
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in their IF
amplifier stages. a. 4 W
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to b. 79 nW
decode stereo signals. c. 1.26 W
d. 2.25 mW
3 A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 113 dB
prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting voltage is 400 mV. 12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the
Its sensitivity is approximately
a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked
a. b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage
b. d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures
c.
d. 13 The input signal into a PLL is at the
4 The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier stages a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of JFETs c. Comparator
b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do JFETs d. Phase detector
c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do JFETs
d. Is not compatible with AGC 14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus output
5 The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to the ratio a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver
detector in that it b. Provides improved noise performance
c. Reduces shot noise
a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude variations d. Minimizes cross-modulation
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM 15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input
deviations signal should be abouto
d. Does not need a limiter stage
a.
8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a 6-dBm
b. third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity
c. 1 mV rms is
d. 100 mV rms
a. –94 dB
b. –82.2 dB
Chapter 7 Communication Technique c. –79.2 dB
d. –81 dB
a. 41 dB a. Synthesizing
b. 36.2 dB b. Facsimile
c. 72.4 dB c. Spread spectrum
d. 82 dB d. Compression
5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at some 13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.
arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to prevent
overloading the receiver is known as a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems
a. Arbitrary AGC c. Code-division multiple-access systems
b. Auxiliary AGC d. Channel-division multiple-access systems
c. Delayed AGC
2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is a. Companding
b. Using time-division multiplexing
a. Aperture time
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
b. Acquisition time
d. Filtering out the alias frequency
c. Flat-top time
d. Dmin
11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate parts
3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are called within the same transmitted code, it is called a(n)
4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code? 12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been
shifted in is the
a. RZ-unipolar
b. RZ-bipolar a. Quantile interval
c. RZ-M b. Codec
d. RZ-AMI c. BCC
d. Syndrome
5 In an asynchronous data system
13 Which of the following is not an example of code error detection
a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the same and correction in a data communication channel?
clock frequency.
b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed by a a. Parity
stop bit to frame the word. b. Frequency-shift keying
c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data c. Block-check character
stream.
d. Hamming code
d. All the above.
a. Modem
9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of b. UART
two successive data bits is c. Network
d. Protocol
a. CSU/DSU
b. TDM 2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from signals that
c. CVSD are traveling down long transmission lines is called a(n)
d. DPSK
a.. Delay equalizer
10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular b. UART
phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is known as c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher
a. Radio teletype
b. Radio multiplexing
3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of telephone
equipment are adapting to the increasing use of computers and b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
digital coding in telephone communication links? c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
e. a and b
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of multiplex
systems to maximize use
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase channel 12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone systems.
capacity
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data signals a. Frequency reuse
b. Cell reuse
4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an example of c. Cell splitting
d. Handoff
a. A cellular telephone system
b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse 13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies are
c. A cell-splitting telephone system seldom used.
d. All the above
a. Star
b. Ring
5 Which is not a major function of a protocol?
c. Bus
a. Framing d.a and b
b. Line control
c. Flow control 14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax and
twisted pair is rarely used
d. Topology
e. Sequence control a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5
6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment c. 10 Base T
Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called
d. 100 Base FX
a. IEEE-488 e. a and b
b. Ethernet
c. OSI 15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is
d. CSMA/CD
a. VDSL
b. SDSL
7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different protocols
and formats is called a c. HDSL
d. IDSL
a. Bridge e. ADSL
b. Gateway
Chapter 11 Transmission Lines
c. Router
d. Node
1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line is
8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have identical
protocols at the physical and data link layers is called a a. Minimized radiation losses
b. Low cost
a. Bridge
c. Low noise pick up
b. Gateway
d. Low resistive losses
c. Router
d. Node
2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is
d. a and b b. Capacitor
c. Filter
8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit has an d. Matching section
e. All the above
a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
incident voltage
Chapter 12 Wave Propagation
b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
incident voltage
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the
1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n)
incident voltage
d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than a. Oscillator
the incident voltage
b. Capacitor
c. Transducer
9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and attenuation
is d. Frequency multiplexer
6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave from 14 Diversity reception does not include:
the transmitting to receiving antenna?
a. Space diversity
a. Ground wave b. Time diversity
b. Shadow wave c. Frequency diversity
c. Space wave d. Angle diversity
d. Satellite link
e. Sky wave 15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome
diffraction problems by finding a
7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F layers of
the ionosphere is: a. Null zone
b. Downlink
a. Ground wave c. Hot spot
b. Space wave d. Skip zone
c. Sky wave
d. Satellite
Chapter 13 Antennas
8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when
transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions is called
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and transmitting
the
operations of antennas is known as
a. Critical frequency
a. Polarization
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
b. Reciprocity
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
c. Efficiency
d. Skip zone
d. Counterpoise
a. Not known
a. Marconi antenna
b. Infinite
b. Hertz antenna
c. 50 c. Vertical antenna
d. 377 d. Phased array
10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends and first 3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that
sky wave returns is called the the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a
13 A common type of radio wave interference is 6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below a
quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
a. Increases b. By connection in parallel with the inductance
b. Decreases c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit
c. Remains the same d. By connection in series with the capacitance
d. All the above
15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that indicates a
7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 problem is
transmission line. If a
quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the non-
resonant matching section, what must be the characteristic a. Greater than 1
impedance of the cable used in the matching transformer? b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1.5
a. 186.5 d. Less than 0.5
b. 103.9
c. 122.5
d. 147.9 Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR
8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as 1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance of 30 mi,
it approaches the antenna is called a which is the most efficient device for energy transfer?
9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to 2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal 1500 ft
would typically be
a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance
of the antenna a. Transmission lines
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance b. Waveguides
of the antenna
c. Antennas
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
d. None of the above
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna
6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after the signal
a. Low gain
is removed is termed
b. Spurious modulation
c. Poor frequency response a. Retention
d. Low RF output b. Flicker
e. All the above c. Persistence
d. Back porch
14 Which of the following is not used as a microwave antenna?
7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver?
a. Patch antenna
b. Marconi antenna a. The rf amplifier stage
c. Lens antenna b. The mixer stage
d. Horn antenna c. The local oscillator stage
d. The video-detector stage
15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies are
8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and
a. Less efficient horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is the
b. More efficient
c. Simpler a. Video detector
d. Heavier b. Video IF amplifier
c. Sync separator
Chapter 16 Television
d. Sound detector
1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once. 9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron
They are beam with its magnetic field is called the
11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and 11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and
raster but no picture must have a problem in the raster but no picture must have a problem in the
a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply
b. Main power supply b. Main power supply
c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff
d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff
a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being
received received
b. CRT resolution b. CRT resolution
c. CRT aspect ratio c. CRT aspect ratio
d. All the above d. All the above
13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the 13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the
low-voltage power supply using low-voltage power supply using
14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has 14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has
been hampered by been hampered by
15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the 15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the
video, it is video, it is
1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over 1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over
using transmission lines or waveguides? using transmission lines or waveguides?
2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is 2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is
a. Infra-red a. Infra-red
b. Red b. Red
c. Violet c. Violet
d. Ultraviolet
e. a and b above
a. Air gaps
b. Rough surfaces
c. Axial misalignment
d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above
a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion
a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above
ANSWER KEY
CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E
2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A
3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E
4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C
5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D
6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C
7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E
8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D
9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C
10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D
11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E
12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D
13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C
14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E
15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A