9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called

Chapter 1. Introductory Topics

a. Information theory
b. Fourier analysis
1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in c. FFT
accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create a d. Hartley's law
modulated signal?
10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when
a. Phase
b. Frequency a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.
c. Time b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
d. Amplitude c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by what
characteristic? 11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel resonant circuit?

a. Modulation frequency
b. Carrier frequency a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a minimum.
c. Transmission distance
d. Information transmitted b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if it were a
series.
3 Voltage gain in decibels is c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current from the
constant-voltage source.

a. 10 ln 12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit for
swamping out the effect of the
transistor's internal capacitances is the
b. 10 log
a. Hartley design
b. Clapp design
c. 20 ln c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design

d. 20 log 13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is due to

4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W reference

a. The flywheel effect
a. dBm(1) b. Barkhausen criteria
b. dB1 c. The piezoelectric effect
c. dBW d. Frequency synthesis
d. dB(W)

5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 input

resistance. If it is operating at 22° C and 14 The Barkhausen criteria has to do with
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output of this
amplifier would be approximately a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
c. Oscillation
a. d. Troubleshooting

b. 15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?

c. a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
b. Signal tracing and signal injection
d.
c. Voltage and resistance measure
d. Substitution
6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise e. All the above

a. Fluorescent light
b. Solar emission Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission
c. Resistor noise
d. Lightning
1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is not called
7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal mixed in the
with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load impedance is 50 . What
is the amplifier's output S/N level in dB? a. Modulating signal
b. Information signal
a. 22.9 dB c. Modulating wave
b. 54.9 dB d. Carrier
c. 45.9 dB
d. 51.9 dB 2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three frequency
components of 100 Hz,
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2- 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the lower
kHz sinewave? sideband?

a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave. a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz
b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz
the sinewave has only one. c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise. d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas
the sinewave does not.
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured to be 850 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to
W. What is the total output sideband
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%? a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
a. 425 W c. Prevent overmodulation.
b. 850 W d. Prevent undesired transmissions.
c. 283.3 W
d. 141.65 W 13. A spectrum analyzer is

4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz – 2kHz signal. The upper a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT.
sideband is b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from
any spurious signals.
a. 102 kHz c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range.
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz d. All the above.
c. 101 kHz
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz
14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the following.
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which percentage of a full
sinewave? a. Verify that a problem exists.
b. Isolate the defective stage.
a. 25% c. Isolate the defective component.
b. 50% d. Replace the defective component and hot check.
c. 100% e. All the above.
d. 200%
15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and sideband
6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at minimum is 40 V combine to form the AM waveform
p-p. The modulation percentage is is

a. 250% a. The tangential method.

b. 40% b. Phasor representation.
c. 25% c. Keying.
d. 37.5% d. None of the above.

7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when

modulated with a single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation: Reception
modulated with another sinewave at 60% modulation, calculate the total
transmitted power.
1. The main problem with the TRF design is
a. 1084 W
b. 1170 W a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations
c. 1350 W b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
d. 1224 W c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station
d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations
8. Low-level modulation is
2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to
a. The most economic approach for low-power transmitters.
b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to amplify a. Withstand shock
the AM signal. b. Receive one station versus another
c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence signals mix c. Receive weak stations
at low power levels d. All the above
d. All the above.
3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM waveform consisting
9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system compared to a of a carrier and its
low-level system is that it sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the original
intelligence because
a. Allows more efficient amplification.
b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal. a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.
c. Provides higher modulation percentage. b. A dc component is also produced.
d. Is more economical. c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the original
intelligence frequency.
10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a transmitter? d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower sideband
frequencies.
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious frequencies in
the output signals. 4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be mixed with a
b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency. local oscillator output signal in
c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from drifting off order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what should
frequency. the L.O. frequency be set?
d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
a. 455 kHz
11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to b. 1395 kHz
c. 910 kHz
a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the antenna's d. 1850 kHz
impedance to provide maximum
power transfer. 5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a capacitance that
b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at the varies inversely proportional to
same time. the amount of reverse bias are called
c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM output
signal. a. Varactor diodes
d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier b. Varicap diodes
frequency at the same time. c. VVC diodes
d. All the above
6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver using a 455-
kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680 Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications
kHz would be

a. 1135 kHz 1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 load results in a
b. 225 kHz PEP rating of
c. 1590 kHz
d. 1815 kHz a. 200 W
b. 50 W
c. 100 W
7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of d. 800 W

a. Image frequency 2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.

b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
d. Poor sensitivity b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference
8. An auxiliary AGC diode d. a and c

a. Reduces selectivity 3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is

b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity a. 3–5 dB
d. All the above b. 5–7 dB
c. 8–10 dB
9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC? d. 10–12 dB

a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning
from a weak signal to a strong signal.
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the
speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as
the weather and ionosphere change.
d. All the above
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver manufactured on
an integrated circuit is
4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a regular
modulator?
a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced modulator.
b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180º phase shift between the upper
and lower sidebands.
c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are suppressed.
5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is accomplished by

a. Tuned circuits and volume controls a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry

b. Cost b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic fields
c. Phase-locked loops c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
d. Ceramic filters d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages

11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver input 6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?
signal and its sensitivity is called
a. Crystal filter
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver b. Ceramic filter
b. Automatic gain control (AGC) c. Mechanical filter
c. The dynamic range of the receiver d. Tank circuit
d. The IF amplifier gain

12. The simplest AM detector is the 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is

a. Synchronous detector a. The shape factor

b. Product detector b. The peak-to-valley ratio
c. Heterodyne detector c. The insertion loss
d. Diode detector d. The quality factor

13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method over the
filter method in producing SSB?
a. Trimmer capacitor
b. Padder capacitor a. The design of the 90º phase-shift network for the intelligence
c. Varicap diode frequencies is simple.
d. a and b b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically used, because a
e. All the above high-Q filter is not necessary.
c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary, because high-Q
14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, the filters are not needed.
likely problem is d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other.

a. Low RF gain 9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be amplified by
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
d. LO tracking b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
the
10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB do not apply to
a. Power supply transmission of
b. RF section
c. Audio amplifier a. Code
d. AGC diode b. Music
c. Noise
 d. All the above b. 5
c. 2
11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" attenuation of a
Butterworth filter. d. 20

a. 3-dB slope per octave

5 The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given
b. 3-dB slope per decade
modulating input voltage level is called the
c. 6-dB slope per octave
d. 6-dB slope per decade
a. Frequency deviation
12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal by b. Index of modulation
c. Deviation constant
a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the resulting
different frequencies d. Deviation ratio
b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and the
internally generated carrier signal 6 Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth of
c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband signal
frequencies
d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action a. 150 kHz
b. 200 kHz
13. Common types of balanced modulators include c. 75 kHz
a. Ring modulator d. 15 kHz
b. Phase modulator
c. Lattice modulator 7 Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary
d. All the above
a. Frequency deviation
14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's b. Bandwidth
balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier c. Capture ratio
leakthrough.
d. Modulation index
a. Trapezoidal wave
b. Sinewave 8 An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it is not
c. FM wave modulated. When intelligence is added, its modulation index is 2.0.
d. AM wave What is its output power with a modulation index of 2.0?
15. The two-tone test is used to
a. 250 W
a. Test carrier suppression b. 500 W
b. Test filter ripple c. 1000 W
c. Test amplifier linearity
d. None of the above d. 2000 W

9 Another way to describe the modulation index is using the

Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission
a. Deviation ratio
1 Angle modulation includes the following types of modulation:
b. Deviation constant
a. FM c. Capture ratio
b. PM d. Maximum deviation
c. AM
d. All the above 10 The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of undesired
signals operating at the same or nearly the same frequency as the
e. a and b desired station is known as the

2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the center a. Capture effect
frequency in an FM signal is called the b. Signal-to-noise ratio
c. Noise figure
a. Index of modulation
d. Bessel function
b. Frequency deviation
c. Phase deviation
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center frequency
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed through four
cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two triplers, one doubler, and
3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the intelligence one quadrupler. What type of signal appears at the output of the
frequency in last multiplier stage?

a. An FM signal a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz

b. A PM signal b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz
c. Both FM and PM signals c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz
d. Neither FM nor PM signals d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz

4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a maximum 12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a
deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is set at 162.4 Mhz, transmitter up to a specified value is called the
what is its index of modulation?
a. Multiplier
a. 10 b. Expander
 c. Pump chain
d. All the above 6 Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation through the

a. Receiver's wiring
13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast b. IF transformer
transmitter is to c. Antenna
d. All the above
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L – R audio
7 Which is not one of the three stages in which a PLL can be
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L – R channels operated?
c. Separate the left channel from the right channel
d. Modulate the L + R and L – R signals with the carrier signal a. Free-running
b. Capture
c. Locked/tracking
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a maximum d. Searching
deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is
8 A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9 Mhz. The
a. 125 VCO does not change frequency unless its input is within
75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it does lock, the input frequency
b. 0.2
can be adjusted within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without having
c. 5 the PLL start to free-run again. The capture range of the
d. 6 PLL is

a. 75 kHz
15 Frequency multipliers b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of an FM d. 240 kHz
signal
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that 9 Slope detection is seldom used due to
filters out a single harmonic
a. Nonlinearity
c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM signal b. Attenuation
d. All the above c. Complexity
d. All the above
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception
10 In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of the 23–53-
1 A difference between AM and FM receiver block diagrams is kHz filter?
that the FM version includes a
a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the
a. Limiter discriminator
b. Discriminator b. To filter out the L – R signal at the output of the
c. Deemphasis network discriminator
d. All the above c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the
discriminator
2 An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without an RF d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L + R and
amplifier because L – signals

a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input signal 11 A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of channel
levels due to thei noise separation. If the right channel has 4 W of output power,
characteristics how much of this power could be due to the left channel
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth. intelligence?
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in their IF
amplifier stages. a. 4 W
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to b. 79 nW
decode stereo signals. c. 1.26 W
d. 2.25 mW
3 A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 113 dB
prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting voltage is 400 mV. 12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the
Its sensitivity is approximately
a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked
a. b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage
b. d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures
c.
d. 13 The input signal into a PLL is at the
4 The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier stages a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of JFETs c. Comparator
b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do JFETs d. Phase detector
c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do JFETs
d. Is not compatible with AGC 14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus output
5 The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to the ratio a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver
detector in that it b. Provides improved noise performance
c. Reduces shot noise
a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude variations d. Minimizes cross-modulation
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM 15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input
deviations signal should be abouto
d. Does not need a limiter stage
 a.
8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a 6-dBm
b. third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity
c. 1 mV rms is
d. 100 mV rms
a. –94 dB
b. –82.2 dB
Chapter 7 Communication Technique c. –79.2 dB
d. –81 dB

1 Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in FM

receivers than they are in SSB or AM receivers? 9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of frequencies into
the VHF band due to
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.
a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions
b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.
b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.
c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic programmable
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.
divider designs
d. All the above
2 The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne receiver
are called the
10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over analog
frequency synthesizers is
a. Front end
b. Tuner
a. Its complexity and cost
c. Preselector
b. Its limited maximum output frequency
d. All the above
c. Its higher phase noise
d. All the above
3 The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal-strength
level is called the ________ .
11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of
a. S meter
a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation modes
b. Signal meter
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation mode
c. Strength meter
and a channel guard function
d. All the above
c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequencies
d. A cellular telephone transceiver
4 An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits with a Q
of 50 prior to the IF stage. The IF frequency is 460 kHz and the
receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. The image-frequency 12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched
rejection is frequency or time transmissions is known as

a. 41 dB a. Synthesizing
b. 36.2 dB b. Facsimile
c. 72.4 dB c. Spread spectrum
d. 82 dB d. Compression

5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at some 13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.
arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to prevent
overloading the receiver is known as a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems
a. Arbitrary AGC c. Code-division multiple-access systems
b. Auxiliary AGC d. Channel-division multiple-access systems
c. Delayed AGC

14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a frequency

synthesizer is
6 Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):
a. A small frequency error
a. Less expensive filters b. A large frequency error
b. Good image-frequency rejection c. No output
c. Minimized tuning range for the LO d. All the above
d. .b and c
15 A transceiver is
7 The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of frequencies
b. A transmitter that transmits digital data
a. Level of acceptability c. A receiver that receives digital data
b. Dynamic range d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package
c. Degree of usefulness
d.Specified input Chapter 8 Digital Communication : Coding Technique
1 The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over analog a. ASCII
include
b. EBCDIC

a. Noise performance c. Baudot code

d. Gray code
b. Regeneration
c. Digital signal processing
d. All the above 10 The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made
less significant by

2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is a. Companding
b. Using time-division multiplexing
a. Aperture time
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
b. Acquisition time
d. Filtering out the alias frequency
c. Flat-top time
d. Dmin
11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate parts
3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are called within the same transmitted code, it is called a(n)

a. Foldover distortion a. Systematic code

b. Aliasing b. CRC
c. Nyquist rate c. (n,k) cyclic code
d. a and b d. Interleaved code

4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code? 12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been
shifted in is the
a. RZ-unipolar
b. RZ-bipolar a. Quantile interval
c. RZ-M b. Codec
d. RZ-AMI c. BCC
d. Syndrome
5 In an asynchronous data system
13 Which of the following is not an example of code error detection
a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the same and correction in a data communication channel?
clock frequency.
b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed by a a. Parity
stop bit to frame the word. b. Frequency-shift keying
c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data c. Block-check character
stream.
d. Hamming code
d. All the above.

14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the receiver

6 A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth of 20 Hz are called
to 20 kHz. The minimum sample rate to satisfy the Nyquist criteria
is
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
b. Block-check characters (BCC)
a. 20 Hz
b. 20 kHz c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
d. Parity
c. 40 Hz
d. 40 kHz
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble digital noise are

7 With respect to converter circuits

a. Systematic codes

a. DACs include an ADC b. PN codes

b. ADCs include a DAC c. Pseudonoise codes

d. b and c
c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical
d. All the above.
Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission
8 The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the parameters
of the transmitted and received signal is known as
1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that
provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n)
a. Phase modulation
b. Pulse modulation a. Constellation pattern
c. Amplitude modulation
b. Loopback
d. Frequency modulation c. Statistical Concentration
d. Eye pattern
9 An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal values from 0 to
9 that is based on the relationship that only one bit in a binary word
changes for each binary step is known as 2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic equipment?
 c. Radio facsimile
a. It uses an automatic request for repetition. d. Radio telemetry
b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect. 11 The bit error rate is
d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an extremely
complicated process. a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of bits
transmitted
3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data rates b. The most common method of referring to the quality of a digital
in limited-bandwidth channels is called communication system
c. Virtually the same as the error probability
a. Delta modulation d. All the above
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) 12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)
a. Excessive noise producing errors
4 FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-modulation b. Slope overload
systems with respect to c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design
a. Noise performance
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel 13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047 if its
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is
d. Power consumption
a. 30,000 bits per second
5 Which is not a type of pulse modulation? b. 33,000 bits per second
c. 38,500 bits per second
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) d. 35,000 bits per second
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) 14 The AT&T T1 lines
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)
a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
6 PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
a. Noise characteristics d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels
b. Bandwidth characteristics
c. Simplicity in design 15
A digital transmission has an error probability of and is
d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal
long. Its expected number of error bits is
7 Half-duplex operation involves communication
a.
a. In one direction only
b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time b.
c. Where both parties can talk at the same time c.
d. All the above
d.
8 A procedure that decides which device has permission to transmit
at a given time is called
Chapter 10 Network Communications
a. Line control
b. Protocol
c. Flow control 1 An interconnection of users that allows communication with one
another is known as a
d. Sequence control

a. Modem
9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of b. UART
two successive data bits is c. Network
d. Protocol
a. CSU/DSU
b. TDM 2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from signals that
c. CVSD are traveling down long transmission lines is called a(n)
d. DPSK
a.. Delay equalizer
10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular b. UART
phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is known as c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher
a. Radio teletype
b. Radio multiplexing
3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of telephone
 equipment are adapting to the increasing use of computers and b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
digital coding in telephone communication links? c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
e. a and b
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of multiplex
systems to maximize use
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase channel 12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone systems.
capacity
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data signals a. Frequency reuse
b. Cell reuse
4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an example of c. Cell splitting
d. Handoff
a. A cellular telephone system
b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse 13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies are
c. A cell-splitting telephone system seldom used.
d. All the above
a. Star
b. Ring
5 Which is not a major function of a protocol?
c. Bus
a. Framing d.a and b
b. Line control
c. Flow control 14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax and
twisted pair is rarely used
d. Topology
e. Sequence control a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5
6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment c. 10 Base T
Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called
d. 100 Base FX
a. IEEE-488 e. a and b
b. Ethernet
c. OSI 15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is
d. CSMA/CD
a. VDSL
b. SDSL
7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different protocols
and formats is called a c. HDSL
d. IDSL
a. Bridge e. ADSL
b. Gateway
Chapter 11 Transmission Lines
c. Router
d. Node
1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line is
8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have identical
protocols at the physical and data link layers is called a a. Minimized radiation losses
b. Low cost
a. Bridge
c. Low noise pick up
b. Gateway
d. Low resistive losses
c. Router
d. Node
2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is

9 In telephony, traffic is defined in a. Seldom used due to noise problems

b. Increasingly used in computer networking
a. Hundred-call seconds
c. More costly than coaxial cable
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time
d. All the above
c. Erlang
d. All the above
3 The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called

10 The Internet and the WWW are a. Velocity factor

b. Relative dielectric constant
a. The same thing
c. Velocity of propagation
b. Completely different
d. Delay time
c. Related
d. Local area networks
4 In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but is

11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is a. 45º out of phase

b. 90º out of phase
a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered
 c. 180º out of phase b. Balun
d. 270º out of phase c. Shorted-stub section
d. Slotted line
5 What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG-8A/U
coaxial cable at a frequency of 144.2 Mhz if its velocity factor is 0.69. 13 A 50- transmission line with a 300- load impedance has a
reflection coefficient of
a. 52.1 cm
b. 35.9 cm a. 6
c. 143.6 cm b. 0.166
d. 2.08 m c. 0.714
d. 1.4
6 A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a resistive load
that is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1 nF/ft. The
delay introduced by a 1-ft section is
a. Has the same impedance at all points along the line
b. Has a VSWR of 1:1 a. Not able to be calculated with the given information
c. Has the same voltage at points along the line
d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zero b.

e. All the above c.

7 A flat line indicates d.

a. No reflection 15 A transmission line can be used as a(n)

b. VSWR = 1
c. No physical imperfections a. Inductor

d. a and b b. Capacitor
c. Filter
8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit has an d. Matching section
e. All the above
a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
incident voltage
Chapter 12 Wave Propagation
b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
incident voltage
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the
1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n)
incident voltage
d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than a. Oscillator
the incident voltage
b. Capacitor
c. Transducer
9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and attenuation
is d. Frequency multiplexer

a. ACR 2 A wave that is characterized by having its direction of propagation

b. CAS perpendicular to its oscillation is known as
c. CAA
a. Isotropic
d. AAC
b. Transverse
c. Polarized
10 A 50- transmission line that has a load impedance of 300 has a
d. Refractive
VSWR of

a. 6:1 3 Which is not an effect of our environment on wave propagation?

b. 1:6
a. Radiation
c. 0.666:1
b. Reflection
d. 1.5:1
c. Refraction
d. Diffraction
11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a 50-
transmission line that is terminated with a short is
4 A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally in all
directions is called
a. 50
b. 0 (a short) a. Transverse
c. Infinite (open) b. Isotropic point source
d. 100 c. Omnisphere
d. Shadow zone
12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced transmission line to a
balanced transmission line is called a 5 The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths, bending
around an obstacle is
a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer
 a. Radiation a. EMI
b. Reflection b. Fading
c. Refraction c. Reflections
d. Diffraction d. All the above

6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave from 14 Diversity reception does not include:
the transmitting to receiving antenna?
a. Space diversity
a. Ground wave b. Time diversity
b. Shadow wave c. Frequency diversity
c. Space wave d. Angle diversity
d. Satellite link
e. Sky wave 15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome
diffraction problems by finding a
7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F layers of
the ionosphere is: a. Null zone
b. Downlink
a. Ground wave c. Hot spot
b. Space wave d. Skip zone
c. Sky wave
d. Satellite
Chapter 13 Antennas
8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when
transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions is called
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and transmitting
the
operations of antennas is known as

a. Critical frequency
a. Polarization
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
b. Reciprocity
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
c. Efficiency
d. Skip zone
d. Counterpoise

9 The characteristic impedance of free space is

2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as

a. Not known
a. Marconi antenna
b. Infinite
b. Hertz antenna
c. 50 c. Vertical antenna
d. 377 d. Phased array

10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends and first 3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that
sky wave returns is called the the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a

a. Quiet zone a. Hertz antenna

b. Skip zone b. Dipole antenna
c. Null Zone c. Marconi antenna
d. All the above d. All the above
e. a and b
4 The angular separation between the half-power points on an
11 The refraction and reflection action of a skywave between the antenna's radiation pattern is the
ionosphere and ground is known as
a. Bandwidth
a. Space diversity b. Front-to-back ratio
b. Skip c. Lobe distribution
c. Tropospheric scattering d. Beamwidth
d. Fading
5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is
12 A satellite communication system used by companies such as K-Mart approximately
to quickly verify credit cards and check inventory data is called
a. 36.6
a. VSAT
b. 50
b. MSAT
c. 73
c. SATCOM
d. WESTAR d. 300

13 A common type of radio wave interference is 6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below a
quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
 a. Increases b. By connection in parallel with the inductance
b. Decreases c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit
c. Remains the same d. By connection in series with the capacitance
d. All the above
15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that indicates a
7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 problem is
transmission line. If a
quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the non-
resonant matching section, what must be the characteristic a. Greater than 1
impedance of the cable used in the matching transformer? b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1.5
a. 186.5 d. Less than 0.5
b. 103.9
c. 122.5
d. 147.9 Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR

8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as 1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance of 30 mi,
it approaches the antenna is called a which is the most efficient device for energy transfer?

a. Delta match a. Transmission lines

b. Quarter-wave matching device b. Waveguides
c. Director c. Antennas
d. Counterpoise d. None of the above

9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to 2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal 1500 ft
would typically be
a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance
of the antenna a. Transmission lines
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance b. Waveguides
of the antenna
c. Antennas
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
d. None of the above
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna

3 The dominant mode for waveguide operation is

10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of
transmitting antennas?
a. TE10
a. Driven collinear array b. TE01
b. Marconi array c. TM10
c. Yagi-Uda d. TM01
d. Log-periodic
4 The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide, when
compared to the speed of light is
11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast receivers is a
a. larger
a. Ferrite loop antenna
b. smaller
b. Folded dipole antenna
c. the same velocity
c. Slot antenna
d. either b or c
d. Log-periodic antenna

5 Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular waveguides in

12 The folded dipole antenna has their

a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole a. cost

b. A 288- input impedance b. attenuation
c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole c. ability to work at lower frequency
d.. a and b d. ease of construction
e. b and c
6 A circular waveguide is used for
13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of
a. Efficiency reasons
a. A driven director and parasitic reflector b. Ease of manufacture
b. A driven reflector and parasitic director c. Rotating section applications
c. A parasitic director and reflector d. Greater bandwidth
d. All the above
7 Variable attenuators are used in waveguides to
14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of tuned circuits
a. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to preclude
a. By connection in series with the inductance frequency pulling.
 b. Adjust the signal levels. guide waves
c. Measure signal levels. d. b and c
d. All the above.

Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers

8 The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85 mW into the
main guide and 0.45 mW out the secondary guide is
1 Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave
a. 22.8 frequencies?
b. 18.9
c. 188.9 a. Parabolic horn
d. 45.6 b. Circular horn
c. Pyramidal horn
9 The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by changing the d. Sectoral horn
cavity's
2 Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves a
a. Volume
b. Inductance a. Dipole antenna
c. Capacitance b. Point-source antenna
d. All the above c. Secondary reflector
d. Any of the above
10 The guide wavelength is
3 Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna with a 6-m
a. Greater than free-space wavelength mouth diameter when used at 5 Ghz.
b. Equal to free-space wavelength
c. Less than free-space wavelength a. 0.49°
d. All the above b. 4.9°
c. 7°
11 The process of employing radio waves to detect and locate physical d. 0.7°
objects is known as
4 Zoning refers to
a. The Doppler effect
b. Radar a. A method of producing a radome
c. Directional coupling b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wave
d. Cavity tuning c. Creating a polar radiation pattern
d. Fading into nonreality
12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller
conductive strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on
5 Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise characteristics,
a printed circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is
and wide bandwidth?
known as

a. Traveling wave tube oscillator

a. Artwork traces
b. Gunn Oscillator
b. Dielectric waveguide
c.Klystron oscillator
c. Microstrip/stripline
d. Magnetron oscillator
d. MICs or MMICs

6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide oscillator?

13 Second return echoes are

a. Ease of removing heat from the chip

a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a second trip
b. Small size
b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse
c. Ruggedness
c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long
d. Lack of filaments
d. All the above
e. Low cost of manufacture

14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is

7 The i in P-I-N diode refers to
a. 75
a. Indium
b. 377 b. Impact
c. Dependent on frequency c. Integrated
d. Dependent on waveguide shape d. Intrinsic
e. c and d
8 Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a microwave system?
15 A dielectric waveguide is
a. attenuator
a. Enclosed by a conducting material b. amplifier
b. A waveguide with just a dielectric c. isolator
c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar dielectrics can d. circulator
9 A low noise microwave amplifier that provides amplification via the 2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the
variation of a reactance is known as a
a. Charge couple device
a. Maser
b. Vidicon
b. Laser
c. Image orthicon
c. Yig
d. Iconoscope
d. Parametric amplifier

3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing pulses, followed

10 The major difference between a laser and a maser is the by serrations, followed by more equalizing pulses at a rate of 60
times per second are called
a. Frequency of the signal being amplified
b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified a. Color synchronizing pulses
c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified b. Horizontal retrace pulses
d. Phase of the signal being amplified c. Vertical retrace pulses
d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses
11 Lasers are useful in
4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is
a. Industrial welding approximately
b. Surgical procedures
a. 30 frames per second
c. Distance measuring
b. 40 frames per second
d. Compact disc players
c. 60 frames per second
e. All the above
d. 100 frames per second

12 The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave device:

5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 Mhz.
The channel 12 carrier frequency is
a. PIN diode
Approximately
b. Baritt diode
c. Zener diode a. 204.5 Mhz
d. Tunnel diode b. 205.25 Mhz
c. 211.25 Mhz
13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a TWT d. 211.75 Mhz
amplifier?

6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after the signal
a. Low gain
is removed is termed
b. Spurious modulation
c. Poor frequency response a. Retention
d. Low RF output b. Flicker
e. All the above c. Persistence
d. Back porch
14 Which of the following is not used as a microwave antenna?
7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver?
a. Patch antenna
b. Marconi antenna a. The rf amplifier stage
c. Lens antenna b. The mixer stage
d. Horn antenna c. The local oscillator stage
d. The video-detector stage
15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies are
8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and
a. Less efficient horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is the
b. More efficient
c. Simpler a. Video detector
d. Heavier b. Video IF amplifier
c. Sync separator
Chapter 16 Television
d. Sound detector

1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once. 9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron
They are beam with its magnetic field is called the

a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and frequency- a. Coil

modulated audio signal b. Yoke
b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audio c. Deflector
c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and frequency- d. Magneto
modulated video signal
d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio
10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV receiver in
 a. Alignment a. Alignment
b. Convergence b. Convergence
c. Interleaving c. Interleaving
d. Interlacing d. Interlacing

11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and 11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and
raster but no picture must have a problem in the raster but no picture must have a problem in the

a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply
b. Main power supply b. Main power supply
c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff
d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff

12 Raster refers to 12 Raster refers to

a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being
received received
b. CRT resolution b. CRT resolution
c. CRT aspect ratio c. CRT aspect ratio
d. All the above d. All the above

13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the 13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the
low-voltage power supply using low-voltage power supply using

a. Its power-line transformer a. Its power-line transformer

b. The yoke coil b. The yoke coil
c. The vertical oscillator c. The vertical oscillator
d. The flyback transformer d. The flyback transformer

14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has 14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has
been hampered by been hampered by

a. Delays in chip designs a. Delays in chip designs

b. Shortages of appropriate chips b. Shortages of appropriate chips
c. Customer rejection c. Customer rejection
d. Less than ideal regulatory climate d. Less than ideal regulatory climate

15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the 15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the
video, it is video, it is

a. due to bandwidth problems a. due to bandwidth problems

b. Called a pixelate b. Called a pixelate
c. Due to noise c. Due to noise
d. b and c d. b and c

Chapter 17 Fiber Optics Chapter 17 Fiber Optics

1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over 1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over
using transmission lines or waveguides? using transmission lines or waveguides?

a. Small size a. Small size

b. Extremely wide bandwidths b. Extremely wide bandwidths
c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI) c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)
d. Lower cost d. Lower cost
e. All the above e. All the above

2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is 2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is

a. Infra-red a. Infra-red
b. Red b. Red
c. Violet c. Violet
d. Ultraviolet
 e. a and b above

11 Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to

a. Air gaps
b. Rough surfaces
c. Axial misalignment
d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above

12 Fiber optic technology is used in applications of

a. Local area networks (LANs)

b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
c. Telephone networks
d. All the above

13 The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion

of the light energy traveling in the cladding is called

a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion

14 Recent laser developments for fiber optic communication

include

a. Distributed feedback (DFB)

b. Heterojunction
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
d. a and b above
e. a and c above

15 The following consideration is important when deciding

between using a diode laser or an LED

a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above
 ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E

2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A

3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E

4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C

5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D

6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C

7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E

8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D

9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C

10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D

11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E

12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D

13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C

14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E

15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A