layer and both the M and S rings are associated

This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice with the cytoplasmic membrane.

Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
4. Which among the following acts as a transport
“Structures External to the Cell Wall”.
protein for protons in flagellar motion?

1. Bacteria having cluster of flagella at both a)fli.protein

poles of cells are known as? b)cGMP

a)Lophotrichous c)atp

b)Peritrichous d)mot.protein

c)Amphitrichous View Answer

d)Monotrichous Answer: d
Explanation: The proton binds to the Mot protein
View Answer and this changes the conformation of Mot
Answer: c protein. It results in releasing the ring and helps
Explanation: In amphitrichous, flagella occur in flagellar motion. The fli protein helps in
either singly or in clusters at both cell poles. changing the direction of flagella.
Lophotrichous refers to a cluster of polar 5. F pilus has a major role as___________
flagella, peritrichous is surrounded by lateral
flagella and monotrichous is for a single polar a)motility of the cell
flagella. b) port of entry of genetic material during mating
2. Salmonella typhi has which type of flagella c)attachment to host cell
arrangement? d)human.infection
a)Amphitrichous View Answer
b)Peritrichous Answer: b
c)Monotrichous Explanation: Pili are hollow,filamentous
appendages that are thinner and shorter.They
d)Lophotrichous do not function in motility and have other
View Answer different functions.One type known as F plus or
sex plus serves as the port of entry of genetic
Answer: b material during bacterial mating.
Explanation: Salmonella typhi has peritrichous
type of flagella arrangement. In peritrichous, the 6.Prosthecae helps in __________
bacteria is surrounded by lateral flagella. a)motility
3. The L Ring in a Gram-Negative bacterium b) nutrient absorption and attachment to
flagella is associated with_________ surfaces
a)Peptidogycan c)human.infection
b)Outer.Membrane d)protection.from.environment
c)Cytoplasmic.Membrane View Answer
d)Cell.Membrane Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Prosthecae increases the surface
area of the cells for nutrient absorption, which is
Answer: b advantageous in dilute environments. Some
Explanation: The flagella in Gram-Negative prosthecate bacteria have an adhesive
bacteria has four basal rings. The L Ring of substance at the end of a prostheca that aids in
flagella is associated with the outer membrane. attachment to surfaces.
The P ring is associated with the peptidoglycan
7. The capsule of Klebsiella pneumoniae is This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
composed of heteropolysaccharides. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
a)True Cell Wall”.
b)False
1. Peptidoglycan layer is present in large
View Answer
quantity.in?
Answer: a
Explanation: Heteroploysaccharides are usually a)Gram-positive.bacteria
synthesized from sugar precursors that are b)Gram-negative.bacteria
activated within the cell, attached to a lipid
carrier molecule, transported across the c)Fungi
cytoplasmic membrane and polymerized outside d)Algae
the cell. The capsule of Klebsiella pneumoniae
is an example of heteropolysaccharides. View Answer

8. When a bacteria swim towards a chemical, it Answer: a

Explanation: Gram-positive bacteria usually
is termed as__________ have a much greater amount of peptidoglycan in
a)positive.chemotaxis their cell walls than do Gram-negative bacteria.
It may account for 50 percent or more of the dry
b)phototaxis weight of the wall of some Gram-positive
c)negative.chemotaxis species, but only about 10 percent of the wall of
Gram-negative bacteria.
d)magnetotaxis
2.Peptidoglycan is made up of __________
View Answer
a)N-acetylglucosamine
Answer: a
Explanation: When a bacteria swims towards or b)N-acetylmuramic.acid
away from chemical compounds, the c)N-acetylglucosamine, N-acetylmuramic acid
phenomenon is known as bacterial
chemotaxis.Swimming towards a chemical is d)N-acetylglucosamine,N-acetylmuramic
termed as positive chemotaxis; swimming away acid,amino acids
is negative chemotaxis.
View Answer
9. Which type of force drives the flagellar
Answer: d
motion? Explanation: Peptidoglycan differs somewhat in
a)Protonmotive.force composition and structure from one species to
another,but it is basically a polymer of N-
b)ATP.driven acetylglucosamine,N-acetylmuramic acid,Amino
c)Protonmotive and ATP driven acids like-L-alanine,D-alanine,D-glutamate and
a diamino acid.
d)No protonmotive nor ATP driven
3. Teichoic acid present in Gram-positive
View Answer
bacteria can bind to which ion?
Answer: a
Explanation: It is found that flagellar motor is a)Fe.ions
driven by the protonmotive force, i.e., the force b)Phosphorus.ions
derived from the electrical potential and the
hydrogen-ion gradient across the cytoplasmic c)Mg.ions
membrane. d)Sulphur ions
View Answer
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Teichoic acid bind magnesium ions Explanation: The polysaccharide O antigens
and there is some evidence that they help to which extend like whiskers from the membrane
protect bacteria from thermal injury by providing surface into the surrounding medium. Many of
an accessible pool of these cations for the serological properties of Gram-negative
stabilization of the cytoplasmic membrane. bacteria are attributable to O antigens like they
can serve as receptors for bacteriophage
4.Cord factor is a ___________ attachment.
a)protein
7. Porins are special proteins act as channels in
b)teichoic.acid.derivative
outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
c)mycolic.acid.derivative
a)True
d)carbohydrate
b)False
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a
Explanation: Cord factor (trehalose dimycolate)
Explanation: The outer membrane can allow
is a mycolic acid derivative which is toxic and
smaller molecules such as nucleosides,
plays an important role in the diseases caused
oligosaccharides, monosaccharides, peptides
by C.diphtheriae and M.tuberculosis. and amino acids to pass across by means of
5.The outer membarane of the Gram-negative channels in special proteins called porins.
cell wall is anchored to the underlying 8. NAG and NAM of peptidoglycan layer is
peptidoglycan by means of which of the linked by _________
following? a)beta-(1,4)glycosidic.linkage
a)Braun’s.Lipoprotein b)alpha-(1,4)glycosidic.linkage
b)Phospholipids c)alpha-(1,6)glycosidic.linkage
c)Proteins d)beta-(1,6)glycosidic.linkage
d)Lipopolysaccharide View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-
Answer: a acetylmuramic acid (NAM) of peptidoglycan
Explanation: The outer membrane of the Gram- layer are linked by beta-(1, 4) glycosidic linkage.
negative cell wall is anchored to the underlying Each strand contains from 10 to 65 disaccharide
peptidoglycan by means of Braun’s lipoproteins. units.
The membrane is a bilayered structure
consisting mainly of phospholipids,proteins and 9.Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant to
lipopolysaccharides(LPS).
antibiotics due to the presence of?
6. Which among the following acts as receptors
a)Thin.peptidoglycan.wall
for bacteriophage attachment in Gram-negative
b)Outer.lipopolysaccharide.layer
bacteria?
c)Porin.proteins
a)Cilia
d)Teichoic.acid
b)O.antigens View Answer
c)Lipid.A
Answer: b
d)Teichoic.acid Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria consists of
an outer membrane made up of
View Answer lipopolysaccharides beneath the thin
peptidoglycan layer. The outer membrane
serves as a barrier to various external chemicals c) Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
and enzymes that could damage the cell. It also d) Cannot be determined
protects the bacteria from antibiotics.
View Answer
10. Which of the following are present in teichoic
Answer: a
acids? Explanation: In Archaebacteria,the lipids are
a)ribitol.residues polyisoprenoid branched-chain lipids, in which
long-chain branched alcohols(phytanols) are
b)glycerol.residues ether linked to glycerol.In Eubacteria,the
phospholipids are phosphoglycerides, in which
c)glucose.residues
straight-chain fatty acids are ester-linked to
d)ribitol.or.glycerol.residues glycerol.
View Answer 2. Cytoplasmic membrane and the cell material
Answer: d bounded by it plus the outer membrane of cell is
Explanation: The teichoic acids are water
known as _________
soluble polymers,containing ribitol or glycerol
residues joined through phosphodiester a) Protoplast
linkages. The glycerol or ribitol is joined to a
sugar residue such as glucose, galactose or N- b) Cytoplast
acetyl glucosamine. c) Spheroplast
11. Bayer’s junctions are sites which help in d) Cell membrane
joining which of the following? View Answer
a)cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane Answer: c
b)outer membrane and capsule Explanation: A protoplast is that portion of a
bacterial cell consisting of the cytoplasmic
c)cytoplasmic membrane and periplasmic space membrane and the cell material bounded by it.
When the cell has two membranes, the
d)peptidoglycan layer and cytoplasmic
cytoplasmic membrane of the protoplast plus the
membrane outer membrane of the cell wall, the cell is called
a spheroplast rather than protoplast.
View Answer
3. Which among the following is associated with
Answer: a
Explanation: The cytoplasmic membrane and export of exocellular enzymes?
outer membrane are joined at sites termed
a) central mesosomes
Bayer’s junctions.In these regions, the outer
surface of the cytoplasmic membrane is b) peripheral mesosomes
continuous with the inner surface of the outer
membrane creating pores that vary in diameter c) thylakoids
from 25 to 50 nm. d) nucleus
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice View Answer
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Answer: b
“Structures Internal to the Cell Wall”. Explanation: Peripheral mesosomes show only a
shallow penetration into the cytoplasm, are not
restricted to a central location, and are not
1.Polyisoprenoid branched-chain lipids, are associated with nuclear material and they are
present in which of the following? involved in export of exocellular enzymes such
as penicillinase.
a)Archaebacteria
b)Eubacteria
 compound that helps in maintaining the rigidity
4.Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a of cell.
sedimentation coefficient of?
7. The nucleoid can be made visible under the
a)90S
light microscope by _________
b)80S
a)Methylene.blue
c)50S
b)Iodine
d)70S
c)Nile.blue
View Answer
d)Feulgen.staining
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a
sedimentation coefficient of 70S and are Answer: d
composed of two subunits, a 50S and a 30S Explanation: Bacteria consist of nucleotide,
subunit. But the ribosomes of eukaryotes have a consisting of a single, circular DNA molecule in
sedimentation coefficient of 80S and are which all the genes are linked and it is not a
composed of a 60S and a 40S subunit. discrete nucleus. The nucleoid can be made
visible under the light microscope by Feulgen
5.Poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate(PHB) present in staining,which is specific for DNA.
aerobic bacteria can serve as?
8. What helps in the heat resistance of
a)a reserve carbon and energy source
endospore?
b)a reserve source of phosphate
a)calcium-DPA.complex
c)acceptor.of.oxygen
b)water
d)provides.buoyancy
c)methylene
View Answer
d)calcium
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: A polymer found in aerobic
bacteria, especially under high-carbon,low- Answer: a
nitrogen culture conditions, is a chlorofoam- Explanation: All endospores contain large
soluble, lipid like material, poly-beta- amounts of dipicolinic acid (DPA). It occurs in
hydroxybutyrate(PHB), which can serve as a combination with large amounts of calcium and
reserve carbon and energy source. is probably located in the central part of the
spore.The calcium-DPA complex play a role in
6. Which among the following compound when the heat resistance of endospores.
added to cytoplasmic membrane helps in 9. Cysts also have high heat resistance like
maintaining the rigidity of cell? endospores.
a)lipopolysaccharide a)True
b)hopanoid b)False
c)phosphoglycerides View Answer
d)amino.acids
Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Cysts are dormant, thick-walled,
desiccation-resistant forms that develop by
Answer: b differentiation of a vegetative cell and which can
Explanation: Hopanoids are hydrophobic later germinate under suitable conditions. In
chemical compounds which when added to some ways cysts resemble endospores but they
cytoplasmic membrane forms a stable and hard do not have the high heat resistance of
endospores.
10. Which of the following methods can be d)phototrophs
utilized for removing peripheral proteins of the View Answer
cytoplasmic.membrane? nswer: c
Explanation: Organisms which can use reduced
a)treatment.by.detergents
inorganic compounds as electron donors are
b)osmotic.shock termed as lithotrophs. Some organisms which
use organic compounds as electron donors are
c)heat.application called organotrophs.
d)destruction.of.the.membrane 2. Which of the following is nutritional
View Answer characterization of Escherichia coli?
Answer: b a)Chemotrophic
Explanation: Peripheral proteins are loosely
attached to cytoplasmic membrane and can be b)Organotrophic
removed by mild treatments such as osmotic
c)Autotrophic
shock. On the other hand, integral proteins can
be removed only by destruction of the d)Chemotrophic, Organotrophic, Heterotrophic
membrane, as with treatment by detergents.
View Answer
11. Which of the following are true for
Answer: d
cytoplasmic.membrane? Explanation: Escherichia coli are chemotrophic,
organotrophic, and heterotrophic organism. This
a)hydrophilic.barrier
means they rely on chemical compounds for
b)hydrophobic.barrier their energy and uses organic compounds as
electron donors. They also require organic
c)site of generation of protonmotive force compounds as their carbon source and are
d) hydrophobic barrier and site of generation of hence heterotrophic.

protonmotive force 3. Which of the following amino acids require

View Answer sulphur for their synthesis?

Answer: d a)tryptophan
Explanation:The cytoplasmic membrane is a b)methionine
hydrophobic barrier to penetration by most
water-soluble molecules. Because of its c)cystine
impermeability to protons, the cytoplasmic
d)methionine.and.cystine
membrane is the site of generation of the proton
motive force. View Answer
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice Answer: d
Explanation: Sulphur is needed for synthesis of
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
certain amino acids like methionine and cystine.
“Nutritional Requirements”. Some bacteria require organic sulphur
compounds, some are capable of utilizing
1.The organisms which can use reduced inorganic sulphur compounds and some can
even use elemental sulphur.
inorganic compounds as electron donors are
4. Phosphorus is essential component of
known.as_________
__________
a)chemotrophs
a)teichoic.acid
b)organotrophs
b)nucleotides
c)lithotrophs
c)phospholipids
 Answer: a
d) teichoic acid, nucleotides, phospholipids Explanation: Most bacteria do not require Na
View Answer ion, but certain marine bacteria,cyanobacteria
and photosynthetic bacteria do require it. For
Answer: d those members of the archaeobacteria known
Explanation: Phosphorus, usually supplied in the as the “red extreme halophiles”, the requirement
form of phosphate,is an essential component of is astonishing: they cannot grow with less than
nucleotides,nucleic acids,phospholipids,teichoic 12 to 15 percent NaCl. They require this high
acids, and other components. level of NaCl for maintenance of the integrity of
5. Which of the following are trace elements? their cell walls and for the stability and activity of
certain of their enzymes.
a) Potassium ion
8. Which of the following are functions of water
b) Sodium ion
in the culture medium?
c) Copper ion
a) nutrients must be in aqueous solution
d) Magnesium ion
b) cofactor of enzymes
View Answer
c) provides resistance to sudden transient
Answer: c
Explanation: Trace elements are those elements temperature changes
which are needed at very low concentrations d) it is a chemical reactant, nutrients must also
such as Zinc ion, Copper ion, Manganese ion,
Nickel ion, Cobalt ion, Boron ion, Molybdenum be present in aqueous solution and provides
ion. resistance to sudden temperature changes.
They always occur as contaminants of other
components of culture media in amounts View Answer
sufficient to support bacterial growth.
Answer:d
6. Which of the following ions are cofactors for Explanation: In case of bacteria, all nutrients
must be in aqueous solution before they can
various enzymes? enter the cells. The high specific heat of water
a) Potassium ion provides resistance to sudden, transient
temperature changes in the environment. Water
b) Iron ion is also a chemical reactant, being required for
c) Magnesium ion and Iron ion the many hydrolytic reactions carried out by a
cell.
d) Calcium ion
9. Chromatium okenii uses which of the
View Answer
following compound as electron donor?
Answer: c
Explanation:Among the trace elements, iron ion, a) Hydrogen sulphide
magnesium ion, zinc ion, manganese ion and b) Fatty acids
copper ion are known to be cofactors for various
enzymes. c) Alcohol

7.”Red extreme halophiles”, are members of the d) Succinate

archaebacterial which cannot grow with less View Answer

than 12 to 15 percent NaCl. Answer: a

Explanation: Chromatium okenii are
a) True photolithotrophs i.e., they are phototrophic
b) False bacteria that uses inorganic compounds as their
source of electrons.They use Hydrogen
View Answer Sulphide as its electron donor,oxidizing it to
elemental sulphur.
 agent for media and is not considered a source
10.Which of the following bacteria can grow both of nutrient to the bacteria. Agar dissolved in
as chemolithotrophs or as chemoorganotrophs? aqueous solutions, gels when the temperature is
reduced below 45 degree Celsius.
a)Nitrosomonas.sp.
3. Which of the following is a rich source of B
b)Pseudomonas.pseudoflava
vitamins?
c)Rhodospirillum.rubrum
a)Peptone
d)Chromatium.okenii
b)Yeast.extract
View Answer
c)Beef.extract
Answer: b
Explanation: Pseudomonas pseudoflava can d)Agar
grow either as chemolithotrophs or View Answer
chemoorganotrophs. They can use either the
organic compound glucose or the inorganic Answer: b
compound hydrogen as its source of electrons. Explanation: Yeast extract which is an aqueous
extract of yeast cells is a very rich source of the
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice B vitamins and it also contains apart from it
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on organic nitrogen and carbon compounds.
“Bacteriological Media”. 4. The isolation of gonorrhea-causing organism,
Neisseria gonorrhoeae by the use of certain
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of
antibiotics in media is an example of which of
beef.extract?
the.following?
a)product resulting from the digestion of
a)Selective.media
proteinaceous materials
b)Differential.media
b)aqueous extract of lean beef tissue
c)Enriched.media
c)aqueous extract of yeast cells
d)Assay.media
d)complex carbohydrate obtained from certain
View Answer
marine.algae
Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The isolation of gonorrhea-causing
Answer: b organism,Neisseria gonorrhoeae, from a clinical
Explanation: Beef extract, a complex raw specimen is facilitated by the use of media
material used as ingredient for preparing containing certain antibiotics; these antibiotics
bacteriological media is an aqueous extract of do not affect N.gonorrhoeae but do inhibit the
lean beef tissue concentrated to a paste. growth of contaminating bacteria. This is an
example of selective media as it allows the
2. Which of the following is used as a solidifying growth of only a particular microorganism.
agent.for.media? 5. Nutrient broth, a liquid media contains beef
a)Beef.extract extract and peptone respectively in how much
b)Peptone amounts?
c)Agar a)0.2%,0.4%
d)Yeast.extract b)0.1%,0.6%
View Answer c)0.3%,0.5%
Answer: c
Explanation: Agar is used as a solidification
 Answer: c
d)0.7%,0.3% Explanation: Complex media is a chemically
View Answer undefined media where the exact composition is
not known. For fungal growth, complex media
Answer: c used is Potato Dextrose Agar(PDA) media.
Explanation: Nutrient broth which is the most
widely used media in general bacteriological 9. Which of the following are functions of
work, contains 0.3 percent beef extract and 0.5 Maintenance Media?
percent peptone.It may also contain if required
0.8 percent NaCl to maintain the salt a) used for assay of vitamins,amino acids
concentration.
b) used for determining the bacterial content
6. Which of the following instrument is used for
c) used for determining the type of growth
sterilizing the media after it has been prepared?
produced by bacteria
a)Autoclave
d) used for the maintenance of the viability and
b)Laminar.Air.Flow.Chamber
physiological characteristics
c)Inoculum.Needle
View Answer
d)Incubator
Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Satisfactory maintenance of the
viability and physiological characteristics of
Answer: a culture over time may require a medium different
Explanation: Autoclave is a type of pressure from that which is optimum for growth.Prolific,
cooker which has steam at 121.5 degree Celsius rapid growth may also be associated with rapid
and under 15 psi pressure. This steam kills all death of the cells at the end of the growth
the microbes present in the media and sterilizes phase. Thus, a maintenance medium is required
it. then.
7. Colony formation can be observed in liquid 10. Which of the following bacteria requires
media broth. nicotinic acid as a growth factor in their media?
a)True a) Proteus vulgaris
b)False b) Nitrosomonas sp.
View Answer c) E. coli
Answer: b d) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
Explanation: If microbial growth is found in liquid
media, then the media shows turbidity but no View Answer
colony formation can be observed. But in solid
Answer: a
media microbial growth can be observed by
Explanation: Proteus vulgaris require nicotinic
colony formation as the media is already turbid
acid as a growth factor in their media along with
due to the presence of agar powder.
glucose as a carbon source and also
8. Which of the following is a Complex media for Ammonium Chloride.
fungal growth? This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
a)Nutrient.broth Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
b)Luria-Bertani.media “Physical Conditions Required for Growth”.
c)PotatoDextroseAgar(PDA)media
1. The temperature that allows for most rapid
d)MacConkeyAgarmedia
growth during a short period of time is known as
View Answer
__________
 cytoplasmic membrane of thermophiles also
aMinimumTemperature contains Inositol diphosphate or Inositol
b)MaximuTemperature triphosphate which can tolerate high
temperature and maintains the fluidity of the
c)OptimumTemperature membrane.
d)GrowthTemperature 4.The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is
View Answer which.type.of.bacteria?
Answer: c a)Psychrophile
Explanation: The temperature that allows for
most rapid growth during a short period of b)Mesophile
time(12 to 24 hrs) is known as the optimum c)Thermophile
temperature. Maximum temperature for growth
lies very close to the optimum temperature d)Mesophile.and.psychrophile
whereas minimum temperature for growth is
View Answer
usually much lower than the optimum.
Answer: b
2.Mesophiles are group of bacteria that grow
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus is a
within the temperature range of? mesophilic bacteria which can grow in the
temperature range of 6.5-46 degree Celsius and
a)0-20degreeCelsius has an optimum temperature at 30-37 degree
b)25-40degreeCelsius Celsius.
c)45-60degreeCelsius 5.Microaerophilic bacteria require low levels of
d)more.than.60.degree.Celsius oxygen.for.growth.
View Answer a)True

Answer: b b)False
Explanation: Mesophiles grow best within a View Answer
temperature range of 25 to 40 degree Celsius.All
bacteria that are pathogenic for humans and Answer: a
warm-blooded animals are mesophiles, most Explanation: Microaerophilic bacteria require low
growing best at about body temperature(37 levels of oxygen for growth but it cannot tolerate
degree Celsius). the level of oxygen present in an air
atmosphere.
3. Which of the following factors are responsible
6. The Reactive Oxygen Species(ROS) poduced
for the stability of thermophiles at high
by some bacteria are degraded by which of the
temperatures?
following.enzymes?
a)increased leakage of cell components
a)Peroxidase
b)presence of large no. of polar amino acids and
b)Lyase
alpha-helix protein
c)Catalase
c)thermal stability of ribosomes
d)Superoxide dismutase, Catalase and
d)presence of Inositol diphosphate and thermal
Peroxidase
stability of ribosomes
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d
Explanation: In some cases, oxygen may accept
Explanation: Factors that have been implicated large number of free electrons and produces
in the ability to grow at high temperature is an Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS).They are
increased thermal stability of ribosomes.The
harmful as they degrade macromolecules
required for growth and nutrition. But aerobic Answer: d
bacteria contains three different enzymes- Explanation: The phosphates are used widely in
Superoxide dismutase, Catalase and the preparation of media because they are the
Peroxidase which eliminates the different ROS. only inorganic agents that buffer in the
physiologically important range around neutrality
7. Which of the following ROS is a powerful and that are relatively non-toxic to
oxidizing.agent? microorganisms. In addition, they provide a
source of phosphorous, which is an essential
a)Superoxide.radical element of growth.
b)Hydrogen.peroxide 10. The optimum pH for the growth of most
c)Hydroxyl.radical bacteria lies between_______
d)Singlet.oxygen a)5-9
View Answer b)6.5-7.5
Answer: b c)2-3.5
Explanation: Superoxide radicals form toxic
substances such as hydrogen d)9-9.5
peroxide.Hydrogen peroxide is not a free radical, View Answer
but it is a powerful oxidizing agent .
Answer: b
8. The GasPak system is suitable for which of Explanation: pH is an important physical
the.following? condition controlling the growth of bacteria. For
most bacteria, the optimum pH for growth lies
a)Aerobic.bacteria between 6.5 and 7.5.This pH of the media is
b)Anaerobic.bacteria maintained by using a buffer into the medium.

c)Facultatively.anaerobic.bacteria This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice

d)Microaerophilic.bacteria Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

View Answer “Modes of Cell Division”.

Answer: b 1. Growth of bacteria or microorganisms refer to

Explanation: GasPak Jar is a system for
anaerobic bacteria. In this jar media is __________________
inoculated and placed in the jar. To this water is
a)an increase in the size of an individual
added, causing the evolution of Hydrogen gas
and Carbon dioxide. The Hydrogen gas reacts organism
with oxygen on the surface of the palladium
catalyst, forming water and establishing b)an increase in the mass of an individual
anaerobic conditions. organism
9.Which of the following are functions of c)changes in the total population
phosphates used in the preparation of media? d)an increase in number of cells
a)they.act.as.buffer View Answer
b)source.of.phosphorous Answer: d
c)act.as.“reserve.alkali” Explanation: Growth denotes the increase in
number of cells beyond that present in the
d)they act as buffer and is a source of original inoculum. It does not refer to an
increase in size or mass of an individual
phosphorous
organism.
View Answer
2. Transverse binary fission requires the
formation of a crosswall.
 Answer: b
a)True Explanation: Streptomyces sp. produce many
b)False spores per organism by developing
crosswalls(septation) at the hyphen tips and
View Answer then each spore gives rise to a new organism.
Answer: a 6.The synthesis of new membrane material
Explanation: The most important mode of cell
division in the usual growth of bacterial during reproduction in Gram-positive cells is
population is transverse binary fission, in which performed by which of the following organelles?
a single cell divides after developing a
transverse septum(crosswall). a)Nucleus
3.Which of the following bacterial species b)Mesosome
divides by fragmentation? c)Endoplasmic.Reticulum
a)Bacillus.subtilis d)Cytoplasmic.membrane
b)Streptococcus.faecalis View Answer
c)Rhodopseudomonas.acidophila Answer: b
Explanation: The first step in reproduction is an
d)Nocardia.sp. inward growth of the cytoplasmic membrane at
View Answer the middle of the cell.A mesosome which is
usually attached to the cytoplasmic membrane
Answer: d in Gram-positive cells, have a role in the
Explanation: Bacteria that produce extensive synthesis of new membrane material.
filamentous growth, such as Nocardia sp.
reproduce by fragmentation of the filaments into 7.Equatorial ridge formation in the cell wall takes
small bacillary or coccoid cells, each of which place in which of the following bacteria?
gives rise to new growth.
a)Streptomyces.sp.
4.Rhodopseudomonas acidophila reproduces by
b)Bacillus.subtilis
which of the following methods?
c)Streptococcus.faecalis
a)Binary.fission
d)Escherichia.coli
b)Budding
View Answer
c)Fragmentation
Answer: c
d)Sporulation Explanation: In Streptococcus faecalis, all of the
View Answer new wall material formed by the dividing cell is
made during synthesis of the septum which
Answer: b begins beneath an equatorial ridge in the cell
Explanation: Rhodopseudomonas acidophila wall.
reproduce by budding, a process in which a
small protuberance(bud) develops at one end of 8. When septum formation occurs near the pole
the cell;this enlarges and eventually develops of cell then it results in the formation of daughter
into a new cell which separates from the parent.
cell known as _________
5.Streptomyces sp. show the budding mode of
a)microcell
reproduction.
b)macrocell
a)True
c)minicell
b)False
d)daughter.cell
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In some mutants of E.coli and b)Logarithmic.phase
B.subtilis, septum forms near the pole resulting c)Stationary.phase
in a very small daughter cell termed as minicell
which lacks DNA and therefore cannot multiply. d)Decline.phase

9. A bleb or fold like formation occurs in which of View Answer

the.following.bacteria? Answer: b
Explanation: A typical growth curve has four
a)Rhodopseudomonas.acidophila regions. An initial period of no growth known as
b)Bacillus.subtilis lag phase, followed by rapid growth known as
logarithmic phase. No growth is observed in
c)E.coli stationary phase and death phase.
d)Streptococcus.faecalis 2.The growth of bacterial population follows a
View Answer geometric.progression.
Answer: c a)True
Explanation: In E.coli a bleb or fold of the outer
membrane occurs at the site where the septum b)False
will be formed; it is not evident in the final stages View Answer
of septum formation.The cytoplasmic membrane
and the peptidoglycan layer grow inward in the Answer: a
early stages but the cytoplasmic membrane Explanation: The bacteria show growth by
does not invaginate until the final stages of following binary fission as means of
septum formation. reproduction.
Thus, if we start with a single bacterium, the
10. Which of the following does not occur during increase in population is by geometric
binary fission in bacteria? progression.

a)Cell.elongation 3. In the growth equation: n= 3.3 (log10 N –

b)Cytokinesis log10 No ), n stands for____________

c)DNA.duplication a)total.population

d)Spindle.formation b)initial.population

View Answer c)number.of.generations

Answer:d d)growth.constant
Explanation: Binary fission is a form of asexual View Answer
reproduction which starts with cell elongation
followed by division of cytoplasm(cytokinesis) Answer: c
and nucleus and finally DNA duplication occurs Explanation: In the above formula, n stands for
resulting in the formation of two daughter cells. the number of generations that have taken place
after the growth.
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
4. Lag phase is also known as ___________
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
a)period of initial adjustment
“Growth Cycle of Bacteria”.
b)transitional.period
1.The portion of the growth curve where a rapid c)generation.time
growth of bacteria is observed is known as d)period of rapid growth
____________ View Answer
a)Lagphase Answer: a
Explanation: In the lag phase, the bacteria
maybe deficient in enzymes or coenzymes
which must first be synthesized and thus time is 8. Which phase shows reproduction rate equal
required for adjustments in the physical to the equivalent death rate?
environment. So it is also known as period of
initial adjustment. a)Logphase

5. The generation time for E.coli is ________ b)Stationaryphase

a)20minutes c)Deathphase

b)35minutes d)Lagphase

c)2minutes View Answer

d)13minutes Answer: b
Explanation: In stationary phase there is a
View Answer complete cessation of division and thus the
reproduction rate is balanced by an equivalent
Answer: a
Explanation: The generation time for E.coli at a death rate.
temperature of 37 degree Celsius lies in the 9.Which of the following is used to grow
range of 15-20 minutes generally.
bacterial culture continuously?
6. During exponential phase, growth rate is
a)Chemostat
_______
b)Hemostat
a)same as generation time
c)Coulter-Counter
b)reciprocal of generation time
d)Turbidostat
c)time required for population to double
View Answer
d)rate of doubling population
Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Chemostat is used for continuous
Answer: b cultivation. This system depends on the fact that
Explanation: During exponential growth, the the concentration of an essential nutrient within
the culture vessel will control the growth rate of
growth rate (R) i.e., the number of generations
the cells.
per hour, is the reciprocal of the generation time
g. Growth rate is the slope of the straight line 10. The average size of the cells in the
obtained when the log number of cells is plotted
against time. exponential phase is ___________

7. In which of the following phase secondary a)larger than the initial size

metabolites are produced during growth? b)smaller than the initial size

a)Lagphase c)equal to the initial size

b)Log/Exponentialphase d)maybe smaller or larger than the initial size

c)Stationaryphase View Answer

d)Deathphase
View Answer
Answer:
Explanation: During the stationary phase, there
is complete utilization of the nutrients present in
media and thus produce secondary metabolites
which are then used in different industries.
Answer: b
Explanation: During the exponential phase, the
cells divide steadily at a constant rate and thus
give a straight line. So the average size of cells
c
goes on decreasing than the initial size due to
binary fission.
 to determine whether the cells being counted
This set of Microbiology Questions and Answers are viable.To determine the viable count of a
for Freshers focuses on “Quantitative culture, we must use a technique that allows
viable cells to multiply, such as the plate-count
Measurement of Bacterial Growth”. method or membrane-filter method.

1. Which of the following is an indirect method 4. The number of bacteria per ml depends on

for measuring bacterial growth? the dilution of the sample.

a)Cellcount a)True

b)Cellmass b)False

c)Cellactivity View Answer

d)Both Cell mass and Cell activity Answer: a

Explanation: In the plate count method, the
View Answer formula used is as follows:
Number of bacteria per ml= Number of colonies
Answer: c
counted on plate X dilution of sample.
Explanation: Cell activity is an indirect method
Thus number of bacteria directly depends on the
for measuring bacterial growth by relating the
dilution of sample.
degree of biochemical activity to the size of the
population. 5.Which of the following is the relationship
2. Which of the following instrument is used for between optical density and cell mass?
bacterial.count? a)exponentially.proportional
a)Petroff-Hausser.counting.chamber b)linearly.proportional
b)Microscope c)inversely.proportional
c)Chemostat d)not.related
d)Turbidostat View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The photoelectric colorimeter used
Answer: a
for measuring bacterial population, measures
Explanation: Bacteria can be counted easily and
optical density (a function of light intensity)
accurately with the Petroff-Hausser counting
which is almost linearly proportional to cell
chamber. This is a special slide accurately ruled
mass.
into squares that are 1/400 mm2 in area. A
suspension of unstained bacteria can be 6.How many cells present per millilitre in a
counted in the chamber, using a phase contrast
microscope. bacterial culture can make the culture turbid?

3.Which of the following method is used for a)1cell

viable count of a culture? b)1000cells

a)Direct.microscopic.count c)1lakhcells

b)Plate-count.method d)107-108cells

c)Membrane-filter.count View Answer

d)Plate-count method and membrane-filter count Answer: d

Explanation: Bacteria in a suspension absorb
View Answer and scatter the light passing through them, so
that a culture of more than 107 to 108 cells per
Answer: d
millilitre appears turbid to the naked eye. Then a
Explanation: The main disadvantage of direct
counting of cell numbers is that there is no way
spectrophotometer or colorimeter can be used
for turbidimetric measurements. a)Microscopic.count
b)Electronic.enumeration
7. A dead cell does not contribute to turbidity in
c)Plate.count
the.culture.medium.
d)Turbidimetric.measurement
a)True
View Answer
b)False
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: Since the plate count method is
Answer: b used in the enumeration of bacteria in milk,
Explanation: Both dead as well as living cells water,foods,soil,etc, the unit in which growth is
contribute to turbidity. However, turbidity cannot measured is colony-forming units per ml as the
be measured for cultures grown in deeply bacteria forms colonies in the petri dish.
colored media or cultures that contain
suspended material other than bacteria. This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
8.Which of the following is a direct measurement
“Selective Methods”.
of.growth?
a)Determination.of.nitrogen.content 1.Isolation of pure culture refers to ___________
b)Turbidimetric.methods a)purification of culture
c)Determination of Dry weight of cells b)introduction of inoculum
d)Measurement of a specific chemical change c)separation of a single colony
produced on a constituent of the medium d)to grow microorganisms on a surface
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: To measure the dry weight of cells Explanation: To study the characteristics of one
is the most direct approach for quantitative species, that species must be separated from all
measurement. All others are indirect methods the other colonies of species, i.e., it must be
and is applicable only in special circumstances. isolated in pure culture.
9.Which of the following method is used for 2.Enrichment media allows the growth of a large
enumeration of bacteria in vaccines and number of varied bacterial species.
cultures? a)True
a)Microscopic.Count b)False
b)Membrane.filter View Answer
c)Plate.count Answer: b
d)Dry.weight.determination Explanation: Enrichment media is a selective
method used for the enhancement of growth of a
View Answer particular bacterial species.
Answer: a 3. Which of the following is not a physical
Explanation: Membrane count is used for
enumeration of bacteria in vaccines and method for selection of pure culture?
cultures. Even electronic enumeration is used in a)Heat.treatment
this application.
b)pH.of.the.media
10.Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of
c)Cell.size.and.motility
_____________
d)Use.of.dilute.media d)toxic.chemicals
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Use of dilute media is a chemical Explanation: In the biological method of
method of selection in which a mixed culture selection, a disease producing species occurring
was inoculated into a very dilute medium to in a mixed culture can often be selected by
isolate a particular bacterial colony. taking advantage of its pathogenic properties.
Others are chemical methods of selection.
4.In physical method of selection, endospore-
7.Treponema sp. can be selected by taking
forming bacteria can be obtained by heating the
advantage of ____________
mixed culture to _____________
a)small.cell.size
a)70degreeC.for.10.minutes
b)motility
b)80degreeC.for.10.minutes
c)dilute.media
c)60degreeC.for.10.minutes
d)small cell diameter and bacterial motility
d)90degreeC.for.10minutes
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b
Explanation: Treponema sp. from human oral
Explanation: To select for endospore-forming
cavity can be selected by taking advantage of its
bacteria,a mixed culture can be heated to 80 small diameter and bacterial motility. They have
degree C for 10 minutes before being used to the ability to swim through solid agar media.
inoculate culture media.Vegetative cells will be
killed by this treatment but endospores will 8.A large cluster of colonies are obtained in
survive and subsequently germinate and grow.
streak plate method.
5. Vibrio cholerae can grow in a medium with a
a)True
pH of _______
b)False
a)5.5
View Answer
b)7.0
Answer: b
c)8.5 Explanation: In streak plate method, the
bacterial cells are thinned out so that the
d)2.0
bacterial cells are far apart in the medium to
View Answer ensure that colony developing from one cell
does not merge with that growing from another.
Answer: c
Explanation: Vibrio cholerae, cholera causing This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
bacterium can be selected from a medium with a
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Pure
ph of 8.5; most intestinal bacteria are unable to
grow at this pH. Cultures”.
6.Disease-producing species occurring in a
1.Roll-tube technique is used to isolate
mixed culture can be selected by taking
___________
advantage of _________
a)aerobes
a)its.pathogenic.properties
b)anaerobes
b)special.carbon.source
c)facultatives
c)special.nitrogen.source
d)stringent.anaerobes 5. Which of the following are not performed in
View Answer lyophilization?
Answer: d a) agar slant is covered with mineral oil
Explanation: Roll-tube technique which is a
b) cell suspension is frozen at -60 degree to -78
modification of streak-plate technique is used to
isolate stringent anaerobes. degree C
2. In pour-plate method,the medium should be c) vials are connected to high-vacuum line
maintained at what temperature? d) bacterial sample is dehydrated
a) 37 degree C View Answer
b) 67 degree C Answer: a
Explanation: In lyophilization or freeze-drying, a
c) 45 degree C
dense cell suspension is placed in small vials
d) 0 degree C and frozen at -60 degree to -78 degree C. The
vials are then connected to a high-vacuum line.
View Answer
The ice present in the frozen suspension
Answer: c sublimes under the vacuum and results in
Explanation: In pour plate method, the medium dehydration of the bacteria.
is maintained in a liquid state at a temperature of 6. Which of the following is a function of
45 degree C to allow thorough distribution of
inoculum. cryoprotective agents?
3. Which of the following method can be used to a) for long-term preservation of cultures
determine the number of bacteria quantitatively? b) prevents cell damage due to ice crystal
a) Streak-plate formation
b) Spread-plate c) prevents formation of ice
c) Pour plate d) to trap the liquid nitrogen
d) Pour-plate and spread plate View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: For preservation at low
Answer: d temperatures the cells are prepared as a dense
Explanation: Due to higher degree of dilution, suspension in a medium containing
pour-plate and spread-plate techniques may be cryoprotective agent such as glycerol or
performed in a quantitative manner to determine dimethyl sulphoxide which prevents cell damage
the number of bacteria present in a specimen. due to ice crystal formation.
4. Dilution of the mixed culture is a common step 7. What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?
in all the three methods: the streak-plate,the a) -120 degree C
spread-plate and the pour-plate technique. b) 0 degree C
a) True c) -150 degree C
b) False d) -196 degree C
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The streak-plate technique does Explanation: Liquid nitrogen has a temperature
not require dilution as a portion of the mixed of -196 degree C and is used for storage of
culture is placed on the surface of an agar culture medium.
medium and streaked across the surface.
 central collection whose main purpose would be
8. Nichrome loop wire is used in which of the the acquisition, preservation, and distribution of
following techniques? authentic cultures of living organisms.
a) Pour-plate 2. The American Type Culture Collection,
b) Streak-plate located in Rockville, Maryland in the year 1980
c) Spread-plate has a collection of bacterial strain in what
d) Roll-tube technique numbers?
View Answer a) 10,000

Answer: b b) 11,000
Explanation: In streak plate technique, with the c) 500
help of a nichrome loop wire, a portion of mixed
culture is placed on the surface of an agar d) 11,500
medium and streaked across the surface.
View Answer
9. Which device is used to pick a single bacterial
Answer: d
cell from a mixed culture? Explanation: In US the major collection is the
American Type Culture Collection, located in
a) microscope Rockville, Maryland. In 1980 the collection
b) micropipette included the following number of strains:
bacteria-11,500; bacteriophages-300; algae-
c) microprobe 130; protozoa-720; fungi and fungal viruses-
d) micromanipulator 13700 etc.

View Answer 3. Which of the following has a larger diameter?

Answer: d a) well-separated colonies

Explanation: A device called the b) crowded colonies
micromanipulator can be used in conjunction
with a microscope to pick a single bacterial cell c) young colonies
from a mixed culture. The micro manipulator d) old colonies
permits the operator to control the movements of
a micropipette or a microprobe so that a single View Answer
cell can be isolated.
Answer: a
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice Explanation: Well-separated colonies have a
larger diameter than those which are crowded
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on together because widely separated colonies are
“Cultural Characteristics”. subject to less competition for nutrients and less
inhibition by toxic products of metabolism.
1. The National Collection of Type Cultures is 4. Surface texture of strains are related to
situated in ____________ virulence.
a) France a) True
b) England b) False
c) Germany View Answer
d) Japan Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: For several species of pathogenic
species, the surface texture of colonies may
Answer: b bear a relation to virulence. For example,
Explanation: In England, the National Collection Smooth colonies of S.pneumoniae or of
of Type Culture is in London which is a large
Salmonella species are usually virulent, whereas
Rough colonies are not. b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Chromobacterium violaceum
5. What is the color of colonies of
d) Pseudomonas chlororaphis
Staphylococcus aureus?
View Answer
a) Pink
b) Red Answer: c
Explanation: Chromobacterium violaceum
c) Violet produces a water-insoluble pigment which
causes its colonies to become violet in color.
d) Gold
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
View Answer
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Answer: d
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus produces “Some Principles of Bioenergetics”.
and retains water-insoluble pigments which give
golden color to their colonies. 1. The respiratory chain of bacteria is associated
6. Pyoverdin is which type of pigment? with the _____________
a) water-insoluble pigment a) miitochondrial membrane
b) water-soluble pigment b) cytoplasmic membrane
c) fluorescent pigment c) cell wall
d) sparingly water-soluble pigment d) cytoplasm
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Pyoverdin is a fluorescent pigment Explanation: The respiratory chain of bacteria is
and is water-soluble in which the agar medium associated with the cytoplasmic membrane and
around the colonies glows white or blue-green that of eukaryotes is present in mitochondrial
when exposed to ultraviolet light. It is produced membrane.
by P.aeruginosa.
2.The prosthetic group of a cytochrome contains
7. Growth in broth cultures occurs mainly in the
how many iron atoms?
form of __________
a) one
a) slightly turbid
b) two
b) heavy surface pellicle
c) three
c) sediment
d) four
d) viscous
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Cytochromes are a major class of
Explanation: Growth in broth cultures occurs oxidative enzymes whose prosthetic group is a
mainly in the form of a heavy surface pellicle derivative of heme and contains a single iron
and the medium below the pellicle is only slightly atom, which is responsible for the oxidative or
turbid. reductive properties of the enzyme.
8. Which bacteria among the following produces 3. Among the following which can directly react
a water-insoluble pigment? with oxygen?
a) Mycobacterium kansasii a) cytochrome c
 Answer: c
b) cytochrome c1 Explanation: In photosynthesis by green plants,
c) cytochrome a algae and cyanobacteria, water serves as a
primary electron donor and NADP+ as a terminal
d) cytochrome a3 electron acceptor.
View Answer 7. A reducing agent will accept electrons and an
Answer: d oxidizing agent will donate electrons.
Explanation: Cytochrome a and a3 together are
called cytochrome oxidase, both of them contain a) True
copper. But only cytochrome a3 can react b) False
directly with oxygen.
View Answer
4. How many ATP molecules are formed for per
Answer: b
molecule of FADH2 reoxidized? Explanation: An oxidizing agent will absorb
a) 3 electrons and will therefore become reduced
whereas a reducing agent donates electrons,
b) 1 becoming oxidized in the process.
c) 2 8. Keq is greater than 1.0 depending on which of
d) 4 the following conditions?
View Answer a) standard free energy change is negative
Answer: c b) standard free energy change is positive
Explanation: Three ATP are formed per
molecule of NADH2 reoxidized but only two ATP c) chemical reaction proceeds in reverse
molecules are formed per molecule of direction
FADH2 reoxidized, because of the high energy
of NADH2. d) products are not formed
5 .In aerobic respiration the terminal electron View Answer
acceptor is oxygen,nitrate,sulphate, etc. Answer: a
Explanation: When standard free energy change
a) True is negative value then Keq is greater than 1.0
b) False and the formation of products is favoured.
View Answer This set of Microbiology Interview Questions and

Answer: b Answers for freshers focuses on “Energy

Explanation: In aerobic respiration the terminal Production by Anaerobic Processes”.
electron acceptor is oxygen; in anaerobic
respiration the final electron acceptor is nitrate,
sulphate and carbonate. 1. Glycolysis can occur in ___________
a) aerobic cells
6. In photosynthesis by green plants, algae,
b) anaerobic cells
cyanobacteria which of the following acts as
c) both aerobic and anaerobic cells
terminal electron acceptor?
d) neither aerobic and anaerobic cells
a) Water
View Answer
b) Oxygen
c) NADP+ Answer: c
Explanation: Glycolysis does not require the
d) FAD+ presence of oxygen and therefore can occur in
both aerobic and anaerobic cells.In anaerobic
View Answer
cells glucose is degraded into fermentation
products and in aerobic cells glucose is
degraded into carbon dioxide and water. b) False
View Answer
2. The step where glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
is oxidized is a substrate-level phosphorylation. Answer: a
Explanation: Entner-Doudoroff pathway is found
a) True both in aerobic and anaerobic procaryotes,
particularly among Gram-negative bacteria but
b) False
not in eukaryotes.
View Answer
6. Which of the following are propionic acid
Answer: b
bacteria?
Explanation: The step where glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate is oxidized to 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate a) Streptococcus
is an oxidative-level phosphorylation where a
pair of electrons (two hydrogen atoms) is b) Acetobacter
removed. c) Clostridium
3. Xylulose-5-phosphate is an intermediate in d) Veillonella
___________ View Answer
a) Glycolysis Answer: d
b) Pentose Phosphate Pathway Explanation: Veillonella is a propionic acid
bacteria which produces propionic acid, acetic
c) Entner-Doudoroff Pathway acid and carbon dioxide as fermentation
products.
d) Fermentation
7. What is the other name of glycolysis?
View Answer
a) PPP cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: Epimerization of ribulose-6- b) TCA cycle
phosphate yields xylulose-5-phosphate and
ribulose-5-phosphate in Pentose-phosphate c) C4 cycle
pathway.These two compounds are the starting d) EMP pathway
point for a series of transketolase and
transaldolase reactions. View Answer

4. How many molecules of glucose-6-phosphate Answer: d

Explanation: EMP is named after the scientists
are regenerated in pentose-phosphate pathway? that proposed the pathway, and they are
a) 3 Embden, Meyerhof, Parnas. It involves the
conversion of Glucose into pyruvic acid.
b) 2
8. How many ATPs are paid back during
c) 5
Pentose phosphate Pathway?
d) 4
a) 1
View Answer
b) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: From 6 molecules of ribulose-5- c) 4
phosphate, 5 molecules of glucose-6-phosphate d) 5
are again regenerated.
View Answer
5. Entner-Doudoroff pathway takes place only in
Answer: a
procaryotes. Explanation: One ATP is paid back for
a) True converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate in
the presence of hexokinase enzyme.
9. Stickland reaction is the alternative name for 3. Which pathway will result in the production of
________ four carbon dioxide molecules, two ATP
a) Lactic acid fermentation molecules, NADH2 and FADH2?
b) Alcoholic fermentation a) glycolysis
c) Mixed acid fermentation b) Krebs cycle
d) Amino acid fermentation c) Calvin cycle
View Answer d) electron transport system
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Amino acid fermentation reaction is
also known as Stickland reaction alternatively. Answer: b
Explanation: Krebs Cycle is another name for
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice TCA cycle whose overall reaction is as follows:
2Acetyl CoA+ 3H2O + 3NAD+ + FAD+ ADP+
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Pi———> 4CO2+ 2CoA+ 2NADH2+ 2FADH2+
“Energy Production by Aerobic Processes”. ATP.
4. The TCA cycle is regulated by which of the
1. The TCA Cycle is an _____________
following enzymes?
pathway.
a) citrate synthase
a) catabolic
b) isocitrate dehydrogenase
b) anabolic
c) malate dehydrogenase
c) amphibolic
d) succinate dehydrogenase
d) respiratory
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: TCA cycle is regulated by the
Explanation: The TCA cycle is an amphibolic enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase which is
cycle which means that it functions not only in sensitive to feedback inhibition by high
catabolic (breakdown) but also in anabolic concentration of ATP and NADH2 and
(synthesis) reactions. stimulation by high concentration of ADP and
2. Which of the following intermediates of TCA NAD.

cycle act as amino acid precursors? 5. Protein molecules can easily pass into the cell

a) oxaloacetic acid for being utilized for energy production.

b) succinic acid a) True

c) citric acid b) False

d) acetyl CoA View Answer

View Answer Answer: b

Explanation: Protein molecules are too large to
Answer: a pass into the cell, bacteria secrete exoenzymes
Explanation: Oxaloacetic acid and alpha- called proteases that hydrolyze exogenous
ketoglutaric acid are some of the intermediates proteins to peptides, which are then transported
of TCA cycle which act as amino acid into the cell cytoplasm.
precursors.Oxaloacetate forms aspartate which
then gives us lysine and threonine. 6. Which of the following pathway is common for
oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids and amino
acids? c) ATP
a) Calvin cycle d) acetyl-CoA
b) Electron transport chain View Answer
c) TCA cycle Answer: d
Explanation: The first step of the TCA cycle is
d) Pentose phosphate pathway
the reaction between oxaloacetate and acetyl-
View Answer CoA to form citrate. This acetyl-CoA comes from
carbohydrate, lipid metabolism.
Answer: c
Explanation: Since acetyl-CoA is a common 10. The number of ATP molecules generated in
intermediate of carbohydrate, lipid, and amino
TCA cycle is _________
acid metabolism so it enters the TCA cycle and
hence TCA cycle is a common pathway for a) 34
oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids and amino
acids. b) 38

7. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) is converted to c) 24

oxaloacetate by the enzyme PEP deaminase. d) 12

View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
Explanation: In TCA cycle the following result is
View Answer obtained:
6 NADH2 —> 18 ATP
Answer: b 2 FADH2 —> 4 ATP
Explanation: PEP is converted to oxaloacetate 2 GTP —> 2 ATP
by the enzyme PEP carboxylase. This is a type
Thus, total ATP = 24 ATP.
of carbon dioxide fixing reaction.
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
8. The enzymes present in glyoxylate cycle are
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
which type of enzymes?
“Energy Production by Photosynthesis”.
a) reductase enzymes
b) anaplerotic enzymes 1. Which of the following acts as chemical
c) transferase enzymes reductant in bacterial photosynthesis?
d) hydrolase enzymes a) oxygen
View Answer b) water
Answer: b c) hydrogen sulphide
Explanation: The specific enzymes for
glyoxalate cycle are isocitrate lyase and malate d) ammonia
synthase which carry out replenishment of the View Answer
pool of intermediates of the TCA cycle and
hence are known as anaplerotic enzymes. Answer: c
Explanation: Bacteria that performs
9. Which molecule will combine with the four- photosynthesis utilises inorganic compound H2S
carbon oxaloacetate in the TCA cycle to form or organic compounds as chemical reductant
instead of water.
the six-carbon citrate?
2. The region in which bacteriochlorophyll can
a) lactic acid
absorb light is _________
b) NADH
a) ultraviolet region
b) infrared region d) electron transfer
c) visible region View Answer
d) microwave region Answer: a
Explanation: In cyclic photophosphorylation
View Answer
electron lost by pigment system II is not cycled
Answer: b back instead they are replaced by the light-
Explanation: Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria generated breakdown of water, called
possess bacteriochlorophyll which absorb light photolysis.
in the infrared region (725 to 1035 nm).
6. Purple Sulphur Bacteria contains
3. Where are bacteriochlorophyll present in the bacteriochlorophyll b and bacteriochlorophyll c
cell? a) True
a) chloroplast b) False
b) cytoplasm View Answer
c) mitochondria
Answer: b
d) membrane Explanation: Purple Sulphur bacteria contains
bacteriochlorophyll a and bacteriochlorophyll b
View Answer and it utilizes sulphur containing compound as
Answer: d chemical reductant.
Explanation: Bacteriochlorophyll are not 7. Chlorobium sp. is which type of bacteria?
contained in the chloroplasts but are found in
extensive membrane systems like the a) Purple Sulphur Bacteria
cytoplasmic membrane throughout the bacterial
b) Purple Non-sulphur Bacteria
cell.
c) Green Sulphur bacteria
4. Which of the following steps during electron
d) Green Non-sulphur bacteria
transfer in anoxygenic photosynthesis is the
View Answer
ATP production step?
Answer: c
a) Ferredoxin to ubiquinone
Explanation: Chlorobium sp. is a Green sulphur
b) ubiquinone to cyt b bacteria that contains bacteriochlorophyll c and
d and utilizes sulphur as chemical reductant in
c) cyt b to cyt f photosynthesis.
d) cyt f to excited bacteriochlorophyll 8. RuBisCO enzyme plays an important role in
View Answer __________
Answer: c a) light phase
Explanation: The energy released in electron
transfer between cytochrome b and cytochrome b) dark phase
f is used for photophosphorylation i.e., the
c) electron transport chain
generation of ATP from ADP and inorganic
phosphate. d) TCA cycle
5. An essential process connected with View Answer
photosynthesis is Answer: b
Explanation: All the enzymatic reactions take
a) photolysis
place in the dark phase which does not depend
b) synthesis of glucose on light.RuBisCO helps in the reaction between
RuBP and carbon dioxide to form 3-
c) photophosphorylation phosphoglycerate.
9. The final product of Calvin cycle is _________ a) ATP
a) RuBP b) protonmotive force
b) Glucose c) electrons
c) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate d) water gradient
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The flagellar motor is driven by the
Answer: d protonmotive force, i.e., the force derived from
Explanation: Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is the
the electric potential and the hydrogen gradient
final product of Calvin cycle which again
across the cytoplasmic membrane and not ATP.
regenerates RuBP.
3. Rotary motor of flagella is associated with
10. The dark reaction in photosynthesis is
_________
governed by __________
a) M ring
a) CO2, temperature, and light
b) P ring
b) CO2, light, and water
c) L ring
c) water, temperature, and CO2
d) M and S ring
d) oxygen, water, and temperature
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: The rotary motor is believed to be
Explanation: The dark reaction does not require
the two elements in the basal body, the M ring
light and involves reduction of carbon dioxide to
and the S ring.The rod (which is connected to
yield glyeraldehyde-3-phosphate. the filament by the hook) is fixed rigidly to the M
This set of Microbiology Questions and Answers ring, which rotates freely in the cytoplasmic
membrane.The S ring is mounted rigidly on the
for Experienced people focuses on “Utilization of cell wall.
Energy in Nonbiosynthetic Processes”. 4. Passive diffusion requires the use of

1. Which of the following has no detectable membrane transport proteins for the transport of

ATPase activity? solute molecules across the membrane.

a) cilia a) True

b) eukaryotic flagella b) False

c) bacterial flagella View Answer

d) endoflagella Answer: b
Explanation: In passive diffusion no substance in
View Answer the membrane interacts specifically with the
solute molecules. The difference in
Answer: c
concentration gradient governs the rate of
Explanation: Bacterial flagella appears to have
inward flow of solute molecules.
no machinery for interconverting chemical and
mechanical energy.Flagellin, the flagellar protein 5. The entry of glycerol into the bacterial cells is
molecule, has no enzymatic activity i.e. no
detectable ATPase activity. by ____________

2. Which force drives the flagellar rotation in a) passive diffusion

bacteria? b) facilitated diffusion

 Answer: a
c) group translocation Explanation: The reaction for the transfer of
d) active diffusion phosphoryl group of phosphoenol pyruvate to
the sugar molecule requires Mg2+, the products
View Answer formed are sugar phosphate and pyruvate.
Answer: b 9. HPr stands for ______________
Explanation: The entry of glycerol into the
bacterial cells is an example of facilitated a) heat-stable carrier protein
diffusion which involves the use of a specific b) hydrogen carrier protein
protein carrier molecule called a porter for the
diffusion of solutes. c) pyruvate dehydrogenase
6. Porter or permease is located in the d) high-energy protein
_______________ View Answer
a) cytoplasmic membrane Answer: a
Explanation: Heat-stable protein (HPr) is
b) cell membrane activated first by transfer of phosphate group
c) nuclear membrane from the high-energy compound phosphoenol
pyruvate inside the cell.
d) outer membrane
10. In phosphotransferase system(PTS), the
View Answer
sugar-phosphate is released inside the cell by
Answer: a
Explanation: Porter or permease is a specific which of the following?
protein carrier molecule which is required in a) Enzyme I
facilitated diffusion which combines reversibly
with the solute molecules and releases it into the b) Enzyme II
inside of cell.
c) Enzyme III
7. Facilitated diffusion does not require
d) HPr
metabolic energy.
View Answer
a) True
Answer: b
b) False Explanation: Enzyme II is specific for a particular
sugar, and is an integral component of the
View Answer
cytoplasmic membrane. Here it combines with
Answer: a the phosphate group carried by the activated
Explanation: Both the passive diffusion and HPr.The sugar-phosphate is released by
facilitated diffusion does not require metabolic enzyme II and enters the cell.
energy. This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
8. The reaction for the transfer of phosphoryl Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
group of phosphoenol pyruvate to the sugar “Utilization of Energy in Biosynthetic Processes”.
molecule requires which ion?
1. The biosynthesis of proline takes place from
a) Mg2+
____________
b) Fe2+
a) aspartic acid
c) O
b) glutamic acid
d) PO42-
c) pyruvic acid
View Answer
 chemoheterotrophs.Thus chemoautotrophs are
d) alpha-keto glutaric acid at a considerable energetic disadvantage for this
View Answer reason.

Answer: b 5. ATP dependent NADPH2 production is a

Explanation: The biosynthesis of proline takes process found in ______________
place from glutamic acid in which the initial step
utilizes metabolic energy in the form of ATP. a) Nitrosomonas
2. Which of the following acts as a precursor for b) Nitrobacter
the activation of peptidoglycan? c) Rhizobium
a) TP d) E.coli
b) UDP View Answer
c) NADPH Answer: b
Explanation: Nitrobacter is a chemiautotrophic
d) GTP bacteria that follows the process of ATP-
View Answer dependent-NADPH2 production for the
production of NADPH2 to be used with ATP for
Answer: b carbon dioxide fixation.
Explanation: Sugars such as acetylglucosamine
are activated by the attachment of a UDP to 6. Each turn of Calvin cycle results in the fixation
form a sugar-UDP precursor which is a general of ________ molecule of carbon dioxide.
method involved in the biosynthesis of
peptidoglycan. a) one
3. Bactoprenol is a ___________ b) two
a) membrane phospholipid c) four
b) amino acid carrier d) six
c) fatty acid View Answer
d) enzyme Answer: a
Explanation: Each turn of the Calvin cycle
View Answer
results in the fixation of one molecule of carbon
Answer: a dioxide. Carbon dioxide is fixed in a reaction
Explanation: Bactoprenol is a membrane with the acceptor molecule ribulose
phospholipid to which the AMA-UDP precursor diphosphate.
is coupled during the synthesis of peptidoglycan. 7. The peptidoglycan layer of Staphylococcus
4. Electrons entering the respiratory chain of aureus consists of a bridge between muramic
chemoautotrophic bacteria enter the chain at acid peptides which is composed of?
higher potential. a) alanine
a) True b) lysine
b) False c) proline
View Answer d) gycine
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Electrons entering the respiratory
chain from oxidation of inorganic substrates by Answer: d
chemoautotrophic bacteria usually enter the Explanation: In Staphylococcus aureus a bridge
chain at a higher point than those electrons from composed of five glycine molecules can link two
the oxidation of organic substrates by muramic acid peptides together.
8. Binding proteins for active transport systems 3. Which of the following are features of
of Gram-negative bacteria are associated with semiconservative replication?
____________ a) RNA replicates DNA molecule
a) cell membrane b) The DNA molecule produced contains two old
b) cytoplasmic membrane templates
c) periplasmic space c) One new DNA helix is formed
d) nuclear membrane d) DNA duplicates itself and the new chain
View Answer contains old template strand and new
Answer: c complementary strand
Explanation: Active-transport of Gram-negative
View Answer
bacteria are associated with binding proteins in
the periplasmic space. The binding proteins Answer: d
have very high affinities for specific nutrients, Explanation: In semiconservative replication
including amino acids, sugars, and inorganic DNA duplication occurs in which one
ions. polynucleotide chain acts as a template to direct
the synthesis of a new chain complementary to
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
itself.It results two daughter helices, each
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The containing one old template strand and one new
complementary strand.
Biosynthesis of Deoxyribonucleic Acid”.
4. The chromosome of a typical bacterium is
1. In DNA molecule, the amount of purines is ________________
equal to the amount of pyrimidines. a) circular double-stranded DNA
a) True b) circular single-stranded DNA
b) False c) double-helix DNA
View Answer d) single stranded DNA
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: In DNA the nitrogenous bases like
adenine binds with thymine, and guanine binds Answer: a
with cytosine.As a consequence, the ratio of Explanation: The chromosome of a typical
adenine to thymine or of guanine to cytosine in bacterium is a circular double-stranded DNA
double stranded DNA is always 1:1.So the molecule; that is, the double helix for a complete
amount of purines is equal to the amount of genome has no free ends.
pyrimidines.
5. If the chromosome were extended linearly
2. RNA consists of which combination of bases?
then it would approximately measure?
a) Thymine,Guanine,Cytosine
a) 13500 micrometre
b) Guanine,Cytosine,Uracil
b) 1000 micrometre
c) Thymine,Adenine,Guanine
c) 1250 micrometre
d) Adenine,Cytosine,Thymine
d) 500 micrometre
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: RNA is composed of nitrogenous
Explanation: If the chromosome were extended
bases adenine,guanine,cytosine and uracil.
linearly then it would measure approximately
They do not contain thymine as present in DNA.
1250 micrometers or 1.25 mm which is several unidirectional or bidirectional manner from each
hundred times longer than the bacterial cell that origin.
contains it.
9. DNA gyrase is a ______________ protein.
6. The Lambda Bacteriophage carries out which
a) helix-unwinding
of the following replication methods?
b) helix-destabilizing
a) Theta mode
c) helix-relaxing
b) Sigma mode
d) helix-winding
c) Linear mode
View Answer
d) Does not carry out replication
Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: DNA gyrase is a helix-relaxing
protein which work along with other enzymes
Answer: b
and participate in opening the parental DNA
Explanation: The Lambda Bacteriophage follows helix ahead of the replication fork.
sigma mode of replication in which the
intermediate structures of DNA have sigma 10. Which of the following enzyme removes the
conformation.In this replication begins with the
cleavage of a phosphodiester bond in one RNA primer with its 5’-nuclease activity?
strand of the circular DNA molecule to produce a a) DNA polymerase I
nick with 3’-OH and 5’-PO4 ends on that strand.
b) DNA polymerase II
7. Which of the following replication methods
c) DNA polymerase III
leads to the production of two circular daughter
d) RNA polymerase
chromosomes?
View Answer
a) Theta mode
Answer: a
b) Sigma mode Explanation: DNA polymerase I removes the
c) Linear mode RNA primer with its 5”-nuclease activity;
simultaneously it fills in the gap with DNA via its
d) Rolling circle method 3’-polymerase activity.
View Answer This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
Answer: a Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Explanation: In Theta mode of replication a
circular parental chromosome is replicated to “Transcription and Translation of Genetic
two circular daughter chromosomes, in each of Information”.
which one strand of the parental DNA molecule
is conserved and a complementary strand is 1. Translation takes place before transcription.
newly synthesized.
a) True
8. Eukaryotes replicate their DNA from one
b) False
origin or growing point per molecule.
View Answer
a) True
Answer: b
b) False Explanation: According to central dogma of
View Answer molecular genetics, the first step is DNA
replication, the second is transcription and the
Answer: b last step is translation.
Explanation: Procaryotes replicate their DNA
from one origin or growing point per molecule 2. Which of the following bacteria can synthesize
while eukaryotes replicate from many origins per all of the amino acids required for protein
molecule.Replication may occur in either a
synthesis? c) mRNA
a) E.coli d) hnRNA
b) Lactobacillus bravis View Answer
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) constitutes
d) Bacillus subtilis
about 90 percent of the total cellular RNA and
View Answer this is important from all other types of RNA.
Answer: a 6. The synthesis of polynucleotide chain of
Explanation: Microorganisms differ widely in
mRNA is catalyzed by the enzyme
their ability to synthesize amino acids like E.coli
can synthesize all of the amino acids required _____________
for protein synthesis, whereas lactic acid
bacteria cannot. a) RNA helicase

3. RNAase is a single polypeptide chain of b) RNA polymerase

__________ amino acid residues. c) DNA polymerase

a) 2 d) DNA helicase
View Answer
b) 350
c) 4 Answer: b
Explanation: The synthesis of polynucleotide
d) 124 chain of mRNA is catalyzed by the enzyme RNA
polymerase. The process in which a single-
View Answer
stranded mRNA is synthesized complementary
Answer: d to one DNA strand is called transcription.
Explanation: RNAase is a single polypeptide
7. Which of the following is responsible for the
chain of 124 amino acid residues; it is folded,
bent and twisted into a globular shape in its initiation of RNA polymerase activity?
active form.
a) initiation site
4 .Protein synthesis in bacteria takes place on
b) promoter region
which of the following organelles?
c) sigma factor
a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
d) rho factor
b) Golgi body
View Answer
c) Ribosomes
Answer: c
d) Mitochondria Explanation: In bacteria, the initiation of RNA
polymerase activity at the initiation site is due to
View Answer
an initiation factor called the sigma factor, which
Answer: c is a component of the enzyme.
Explanation: Protein synthesis in bacteria takes
8. Rho factor is a dimeric protein factor.
place on the ribosomes, which are larger RNA-
protein particles in the cytoplasm of the bacterial a) True
cell.
b) False
5. Which of the following RNA constitutes 90
View Answer
percent of the total cellular RNA?
Answer: b
a) rRNA Explanation: Rho factor is a tetrameric protein
factor that binds to RNA polymerase and
b) tRNA
promotes its termination.When transcription has
been completed, rho dissociates from the RNA the activation of amino acids.The amino acids
polymerase-DNA complex. are activated by amino-acid activating enzymes
called aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
9. The following code codes for which of the
2. The activation of amino acids require energy.
amino acid respectively?
a) True
AUG and GUG
b) False
a) Phenylalanine,tyrosine
View Answer
b) Methionine,valine
Answer: a
c) Methionine,alanine
Explanation: The activation of amino acids for
d) Lysine,valine protein synthesis requires energy in the form of
ATP.There is a specific activating enzyme for
View Answer each kind of amino acid.
Answer: b 3. tRNA has a _______________ structure.
Explanation: Three base triplets form a codon
which codes for an amino acid.Thus AUG codes a) strand-like
for methionine and GUG codes for Valine.AUG
b) ball-like
and GUG are both initiating codons for
translation. c) clover-leaf
10. Which of the following are non-sense d) leaf-like
codons? View Answer
a) AUG Answer: c
Explanation: tRNA has a clover-leaf
b) GUG
structure.The tRNA functions in protein
c) UAA synthesis to carry amino acids to, and recognize
codons in, mRNA.
d) UCU
4. Transfer RNA is a single chain of
View Answer
___________ nucleotides.
Answer: c
Explanation: UAA, UAG and UGA are a) 340
polypeptide-chain-terminating codons and are
b) about 100
called non-sense codons.
c) about 80
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
d) 200
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
View Answer
Process of Protein Synthesis”.
Answer: c
1. The amino acids for protein synthesis is Explanation: Transfer RNA is a single chain of
about 80 nucleotides that is folded back upon
activated by the enzyme ______________ itself and held in a clover-leaf arrangement by
a) rna synthetase means of hydrogen bonding due to
complementary base pairing.
b) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
5. The terminal sequence of nucleotides in all
c) tRNA synthetase
tRNA is __________
d) aminoacyl-mRNA synthetase
a) ACC
View Answer
b) UGC
Answer: b
Explanation: The first step in protein synthesis is c) UCC
d) AGC d) how the subunits combine in a ribosome
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The terminal sequence of Explanation: S is the Svedberg unit, a measure
nucleotides is adenylic-cytidylic-cytidilic (ACC) of how fast particle sediments during
and is found in all tRNA. The amino acid to be ultracentrifugation. The association of a 30S and
carried is linked to the terminal nucleotide 50S subunit to form a 70S ribosome shows that
containing adenine. the sedimentation behavior of the 70S ribosome
is not a simple addition of the units of the
6.The tRNA carries amino acids to the smaller particles.
____________
9. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) rRNA
a) The ribosome binds to any end of a mRNA
b) mRNA
b) CTP is required for activation of amino acids
c) sRNA
c) Activated amino acids bind to the 5’ end of
d) hnRNA
respective tRNA molecule
View Answer
d) The protein chain dissociates from the last
Answer: b tRNA molecule
Explanation: The tRNA carries amino acid to the
mRNA attached to the surface of the ribosome. View Answer
Here the amino acid is added to a growing
polypeptide chain. Answer: d
Explanation: The amino group of the amino acid
7. The ribosome of E.coli is made up of which on the second tRNA reacts with the active
terminal carboxyl group on the amino acid of the
two subunits? first tRNA to form a dipeptide; the first tRNA is
a) 60S and 40S then released. The process is continued till the
peptide chain is complete. Termination takes
b) 60S and 30S place at one of the nonsense codons and the
c) 50S and 40S chain dissociates from the last tRNA molecule.

d) 50S and 30S This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice

View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The

Answer: d Spirochetes”.
Explanation: The ribosomes of E.coli have been
studied extensively and have been found to 1. The endoflagella is present in which class of
consist of two subunits. The larger subunit is a
bacteria?
50S particle, while the smaller unit is a 30S
particle. a) Spirilla
8. S,the Svedberg unit is a measure of b) Spirochetes
____________________________ c) Bacillus
a) the size of the ribosome d) Coccus
b) the composition of the ribosome View Answer
c) how fast a particle sediments during Answer: b
Explanation: Spirochetes have an ability to twist
ultracentrifugation.
or contort their shape due to the occurrence of a
special kind of flagella termed periplasmic
flagella or endoflagella.
2. Where is the endoflagella located in b) False
Spirochetes? View Answer
a) In the cell membrane Answer: a
Explanation: The family Leptospiraceae of
b) In the cytoplasm
spirochetes are aerobes who use long-chain
c) In the peptidoglycan layer fatty acids as the carbon and energy source.
d) In the periplasmic space 6. Which among the following are
View Answer microaerophilic bacteria?
Answer: d a) Spirochaeta
Explanation: In spirochetes, the endoflagella or
b) Cristispira
as it is called periplasmic flagella is located
between the outer membrane and the c) Treponema
protoplasmic cylinder; thus they are located in
the periplasmic space of the cell. d) Borrelia
View Answer
3. Spirochetes like other bacteria swim best in
media of low viscosity. Answer: d
Explanation: Borrelia is the genus of bacteria
a) True belonging to the class Spirochaetaceae and are
microaerophilic.
b) False
7. Which of the following bacteria causes
View Answer
syphilis in humans?
Answer: b
Explanation: Spirochetes because of the added a) Treponema dysenteriae
advantage of having an endoflagella swims best
in media of high viscosity, whereas bacteria with b) Treponema pallidum
ordinary flagella swim best in media of low c) Leptospira biflexa
viscosity.
d) Leptospira interrogans
4. Which of the following methods is used for
View Answer
viewing spirochetes?
Answer: b
a) Bright-field microscopy Explanation: Treponema pallidum causes
b) Phase-contrast microscopy syphilis in humans and is microaerophilic. They
belong to the family Spirochaetaceae and are
c) Dark-field microscopy found in the mouth,intestinal tract, and genital
areas of humans and animals.
d) Electron microscopy
8. Which of the following have bipolar tufts of
View Answer
flagella?
Answer: c
Explanation: Most spirochetes are so thin that a) Aquaspirillum
they cannot be easily seen by light microscopy,
even when Gram-stained; however, dark-field b) Azospirillum
microscopy does provide sufficient contrast and c) Cristispira
is the method of choice for visualizing these
organisms. d)Borrelia

5. The family Leptospiraceae are aerobes. View Answer

a) True Answer: a
Explanation: Aquaspirilla are helical or vibroid
organisms that typically possess bipolar tufts of
flagella. They may be aerobic or microaerophilic test.It is a laboratory test based on the presence
and occur in stagnant stream or pond water. of cytochrome c.
9. Which of the following causes diarrhea in This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
humans? Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
a)A.lipoferum “Negative Rods and Cocci+”.
b)L.interrogans
1. Pseudomonas bacteria uses which of the
c)C.jejuni
following as an electron acceptor for anaerobic
d)E.coli
respiration?
View Answer
a) Oxygen
Answer: c
Explanation: C.jejuni causes diarrhea in humans b) Nitrate
and belong to the genus Campylobacters.They c) Phosphate
are microaerophilic parasites and occur in the
reproductive organs, intestinal tract, and oral d) Sulphate
cavity of humans and other mammals. View Answer
10. Which genus among the following has Answer: b
certain similarities to the genus Bdellovibrio? Explanation: All pseudomonads can grow
aerobically, but some can also grow
a) Azospirillum anaerobically by using nitrate as an electron
b) Oceanospirillum acceptor.

c) Campylobacter 2. Pseudomonas maltophilia is a fluorescent

d) Vamprirovibrio species.

View Answer a) True

Answer: d b) Flase
Explanation: The genus Vampirovibrio has View Answer
certain similarities to the genus Bdellovibrio, but
the organisms attack eukaryotic algae, not Answer: b
bacteria. Explanation: Pseudomonas maltophilia is a non-
fluorescent species that is also frequently
11. Which group of bacteria among the following isolated from clinical specimens.
give a positive reaction by the oxidase test? 3. Pyocyanin, a blue water-soluble pigment is
a) Spirochetes produced by which of the following
b) Aerobic/Microaerophilic, pseudomonads?
Motile,Helical/Vibroid,Gram-negative bacteria a) P.mallei
c) Non-motile,Gram-negative, Curved bacteria b) P.syringae
d) Aerobic,Gram-negative rods and cocci c) P.fluorescens
View Answer d) P.aeruginosa
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation:
Aerobic/Microaerophilic,motile,Helical/Vibroid,Gr Answer: d
am-negative bacteria are organisms which Explanation: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
usually give a positive reaction by the oxidase produces a water-soluble blue pigment,
pyocyanin. The organism is mainly a soil and
water saprophyte but can also be isolated from
wound, burn etc. b) Azotobacteraceae
c) Rhizobiaceae
4. Which of the following are important plant
d) Methylcoccaceae
pathogens?
View Answer
a)P.aeruginosa
b)P.maltophilia Answer: b
Explanation: The family Azotobacteraceae have
c)P.syringae organisms that can fix nitrogen under aerobic
conditions.
d)P.pseudomallei
8. Agrobacterium also fixes atmospheric
View Answer
nitrogen.
Answer: c
Explanation: P. syringae are important plant a) True
pathogens, causing diseases such as leaf spot,
leaf stripe, wilt, and necrosis. b) False
View Answer
5. What is the color of the pigment
xanthomonadin? Answer: b
Explanation: Agrobacteria do not fix atmospheric
a) Blue nitrogen. The organisms are plant pathogens
that incite tumors when they invade roots,crown
b) Yellow
and stems.
c) Fluorescent
9. Methylococcus and Methylomonas are all
d) Red
_______________ methane-oxidizers.
View Answer
a) aerobic
Answer: b
b) facultative
Explanation: Xanthomonadin is a yellow pigment
formed by bacteria of the genus Xanthomonas c) obligate
of the family Pseudomonadaceae.
d) anaerobic
6. Which of the following is an important
View Answer
characteristic of bacteria belonging to Zoogloea?
Answer: c
a) They are plant pathogens Explanation: Methylococcus and Methylomonas
are all obligate methane-oxidizers i.e., carbon-
b) Cells are embedded in a gelatinous matrix
sources such as glucose cannot be used for
c) Cause diseases in humans growth.
d) Useful for industrial applications 10. Which of the following have peritrichous
View Answer flagella?
Answer: b a) Acetobacter
Explanation: The outstanding characteristic of
b) Gluconobacter
the genus Zoogloea is the embedment of cells in
a gelatinous matrix to form slimy masses with a c) Agrobacteria
fingerlike morphology.They are mainly used in
sewage treatment plant. d) Rhizobium
View Answer
7. Which of the following family of bacteria fix
nitrogen under aerobic conditions? Answer: a
Explanation: Acetobacter possesses peritrichous
a) Pseudomonadaceae
flagella. They belong to the family
Acetobacteraceae. b) Enterobacter
c) Escherichia
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
d) Shigella
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
View Answer
“Facultatively Anaerobic Gram – Negative
Rods”. Answer: c
Explanation: Some bacteria of genus
Escherichia causes gastroenteritis and some
1. The cell diameter of bacteria belonging to others can also cause urinary tract infections.
family Enterobacteriaceae is ____________
5. Enterobacter sp. gives negative result for
a)1m
Voges-Proskauer test.
b)1cm
a) True
c).3-1.5micrometre
b) False
d)5micrometre View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Enterobacter sp. gives positive
Explanation: A distinctive feature of the family result for Voges-Proskauer test by giving a
Enterobacteriaceae is that the cell diameter is reddish-pink colouration.
0.3 to 1.5 micrometer.
6. Which of the following genus of bacteria
2. What is the cell shape of the organisms
under the family Enterobacteriaceae is mainly
belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
associated with plants?
a) vibrio
a) Erwinia
b) coccus
b) Serratia
c) bacillus
c) Proteus
d) straight rod
d) Yersinia
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: The cell shape of organisms
Explanation: Bacteria belonging to the genus
belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae is
Erwinia differ from most other
that of a straight rod.
Enterobacteriaceae by being mainly associated
3. Enterobacteriaceae possesses endoflagella. with plants.They are often plant pathogens,
causing diseases such as blights,leaf spot, wilts
a) True etc.
b) False 7. Which of the following is the causative agent
View Answer of plague?
Answer: b a) Y.enterocolitica
Explanation: Enterobacteriaceae possesses
lateral flagella and moves by means of it. It does b) Y.pestis
not possess endoflagella. c) P.mirabilis
4. Which of the following genus of bacteria d) E.coli
causes gastroenteritis in humans? View Answer
a) Salmonella
Answer: b
Explanation: Yersiniae are parasites of animals 11. The X factor and/or the V factor is required
but can also cause infections in humans.For by which genus of bacteria?
example, Y.pestis is the causative agent of
plague. a) Pasteurella

8. The family Vibrionaceae is b) Haemophilus

_________________ c) Actinobacillus

a) oxidase-positive d) Zymomonas

b) oxidase-negative View Answer

c) coccus shaped Answer: b

Explanation: Haemophilus bacteria is
d) non-motile distinguished by unusual nutritional
View Answer requirements: the X factor (heme, occurring in
blood) and/or the V factor( the coenzyme
Answer: a nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide).
Explanation: A distinctive feature of the family
Vibrionaceae is that they are usually oxidase- This set of Microbiology Interview Questions and
positive.They are motile by means of polar Answers for Experienced people focuses on
flagella and cell shape is that of curved or
straight rods. “Anaerobic Gram-Negative Straight, Curved and

9. Which of the following genus shows the Helical Rods”.

characteristic of bioluminescence? 1. Bacteria belonging to the family

a) Aeromonas Bacteriodaceae uses which of the following
b) Zymomonas compounds as electron acceptors?
c) Vibrio a) oxygen
d) Haemophilus b) inorganic sulphur
View Answer c) nitrate
Answer: c d) phosphate
Explanation: Some species of genus Vibrio can
emit light of a blue-green View Answer
color(bioluminescence), an oxygen-dependent
Answer: c
reaction catalyzed by the enzyme luciferase.
Explanation: Bacteriodaceae do not respire
10. Among the given families, which family anaerobically by using inorganic sulphur as
electron acceptors; some do respire
contains organisms that are non-motile? anaerobically with nitrate or fumarate.
a) Enterobacteriaceae 2. The organic acids produced by bacteria
b) Vibrionaceae belonging to the family Bacteriadaceae is
c) Pseudomonadaceae identified by?
d) Pasteurellaceae a) distillation
View Answer b) gas chromatography
Answer: d c) spectrophotometer
Explanation: Pasteurellaceae contains cells that
are nonmotile.Their cell diameter is very small d) ion-exchange chromatography
and the shape is that of a straight rod. View Answer
Answer: b and acetate as organic acid end products of
Explanation: The bacteria of Bacteriadaceae fermentation process.
differ in the kinds of organic acid end products
they produce.The organic acids are identified by 6. Desulphuromonas can respire with elemental
means of a gas chromatograph. sulphur as the electron acceptor.
3. Which of the following genus of bacteria do a) True
not have a fermentative type of metabolism? b) False
a) Bacteroides View Answer
b) Fusobacterium Answer: a
c) Wolinella Explanation: Desuphuromonas is one genus of
sulphur reducing bacteria that can respire with
d) Selenomonas elemental sulphur as the electron acceptor.The
other genera cannot use sulphur but can use
View Answer
sulphate,thiosulphate, or other oxidized sulphur
Answer: c compounds.
Explanation: Wolinella do not have a
7. Veillonellaceae, is the family of bacteria
fermentative type of metabolism.They respire
anaerobically with hydrogen or formate as consisting of motile cocci.
electron donors and fumarate or nitrate as
electron acceptors. a) True
b) False
4. Which of the following possess peritrichous
View Answer
flagella?
a) Bacteroides Answer: b
Explanation: Veillonellaceae consists of
b) Anaerovibrio nonmotile cocci, typically occurring in pairs,
often with the adjacent sides flattened.
c) Succinimonas
8. The violet pigement, violacein, is produced by
d) Fusobacterium
which of the following bacterial genus?
View Answer
a) Zymomonas
Answer: a
Explanation: Bacteroides are straight-rod b) Gardnerella
shaped.They are nonmotile or motile by means
of peritrichous flagella. c) Streptobacillus

5. Propionate and acetate are produced as an d) Chromobacterium

View Answer
end product of fermentation in which of the
following bacteria? Answer: d
Explanation: Chromobacterium are motile, rod-
a) Fusobacterium shaped organisms having the unusual property
of forming violet colonies, due to a pigment
b) Succinimonas
called violacein.They can cause infections in
c) Wolinella humans and other mammals.
d) Anaerovibrio This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
View Answer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
Answer: d Rickettsias and Chlamydias”.
Explanation: Anaerovibrio are slightly curved rod
shaped bacteria which are motile by means of a 1. Which of the following infect arthropods only?
single polar flagellum.They produce propionate
a) Rickettsieae
b) Ehrlichieae 5. Which of the following genus of
c) Wolbachieae Rickettsiaceae have a high resistance to heat?
d) Rochalimaea a) Rickettsia
View Answer b) Rochalimaea
Answer: c c) Coxiella
Explanation: The Wolbachieae are not
d) Wolinella
pathogenic for vertebrates,they infect arthropods
only. View Answer
2. The Rickettsias and Chlamydias are similar in Answer: c
Explanation: The organisms belonging to
all respects.
Coxiella have an unusually high resistance to
a) True heat [may survive a temperature of 62 degree C
for 30 mins], probably due to occurrence of
b) False endospore-like structures in the cells.
View Answer
6. C.burnetti causes which of the following
Answer: b diseases?
Explanation: The Rickettsias synthesize ATP as
a source of energy whereas Chlamydias cannot a) Q fever
synthesize ATP.
b) Trench fever
3. Classical typhus fever is transmitted by which
c) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
of the following arthropod?
d) Typhoid
a) ticks
View Answer
b) mites
Answer: a
c) fleas Explanation: C.burnetti is the causative agent of
the Q fever, a type of pneumonia.It belongs to
d) lice the family Rickettsiaceae.
View Answer
7. Biting flies occur in which of the following
Answer: d place?
Explanation: Classical typhus fever is caused by
Rickettsia species and the arthropod vector a) Australia
which transmits the disease is lice.
b) North America
4.”Growing epicellularly” means
c) South America
_______________________
d) Africa
a) on the surface of host cells
View Answer
b) within the host cell
Answer: c
c) engulfing the host cell Explanation: Biting flies occur along the western
slopes of the Andes mountains in South
d) damaging the cell membrane of host cell America. They transmit Oroya fever in humans.
View Answer
8. Initial body in reproduction of Chlamydias is
Answer: a larger than the elementary body.
Explanation: Growing epicellularly means
growing on the surface of host a) True
cells.Rochalimaea grow epicellularly rather than
in the cytoplasm or nucleus.
 Answer: b
b) False Explanation: Because of the lack of a cell wall,
View Answer mycoplasmas are not inhibited by even high
levels of penicillin; however, they can be
Answer: a inhibited by antibiotics that affect protein
Explanation: Within the vacuole the elementary synthesis, such as tetracyclines or
body is reorganized into a reticulate body known chloramphenicol.
as initial body, which is two or three times the
size of the elementary body and contains a less 3. Mycoplasmas can be cultivated in vitro on
dense arrangement of nucleoid material. nonliving media as _____________
9. Which is the most prevalent sexually a) facultative aerobes
transmitted disease in US? b) obligate aerobes
a) syphilis c) facultative anaerobes
b) AIDS d) microaerophiles
c) lymphogranuloma venerum View Answer
d) nongonococcal urethritis Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Mycoplasmas can be cultivated in
vitro on nonliving media (of rich composition) as
Answer: d facultative anaerobes or obligate anaerobes.
Explanation: Nongonococcal urethritis is the
most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in 4. The colonies of Mycoplasmas in agar plate
the United States and is caused by the can be observed by means of a
organisms belonging to the genus Chlamydia.
__________________.
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
a) low-power microscope
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The
b) high-power microscope
Mycoplasmas”.
c) phase contrast microscopy
1. The smallest cells of mycoplasmas are about d) bright-field microscopy
___________ in diameter. View Answer
a) 1 micrometre Answer: a
b) 0.3 micrometre Explanation: Colonies on agar plate are usually
tiny and require observation by means of a low-
c) 5 micrometre power microscope. The colonies are embedded
d) 1 metre in the agar surface and usually have a
characteristic fried-egg appearance.
View Answer
5. What type of colonies are formed by
Answer: b
Explanation: The smallest cells of Mycoplasmas Mycoplasmas on agar plate?
are about 0.3 micrometre in diametre and the a) colourless
plasticity of these cells allow them to pass even
through bacteriological filters. b) coloured

2. Penicillin causes inhibition of Mycoplasmas. c) lawn formation

a) True d) fried-egg

b) False View Answer

View Answer Answer: d

Explanation: The colonies are embedded in the
agar surface and usually have a characteristic
fried-egg appearance. The colonies are usually 9. L.flagellatum performs the function of
very tiny. synthesizing _______________
6. The mycoplasmas require which of the a) vitamins
following substance for growth? b) hormones
a) Nitrogen c) organic acids
b) Carbon d) folic acid and toxins
c) Cholesterol View Answer
d) Glucose Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: One function of L.flagellatum is to
synthesize the vitamin folic acid for its host;
Answer: c another function is to produce a toxin that is
Explanation: The Mycoplasmas require liberated into the culture medium.
cholesterol for growth and are parasites of the
mucous membranes and joints of humans or 10. Mycoplasmas cannot give rise to walled
animals. bacterial form like L-phase variants.
7. Which of the following family of bacteria are a) True
pathogenic for citrus and other plants? b) False
a) Mycoplasmataceae View Answer
b) Acholeplasmataceae Answer: a
c) Spiroplamataceae Explanation: L-phase variants are derived from
walled bacteria and can usually revert to the
d) Anaplasmataceae normal walled bacterial form, whereas
mycoplasmas do not give rise to walled forms.
View Answer
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
Answer: c
Explanation: The organisms of Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Gram
Spiroplasmataceae are pathogenic for citrus and
– Positive Cocci”.
other plants. They can be isolated from plant
fluids and plant surfaces and from arthropods
that feed on plants. 1. The cocci belonging to the family

8. Lyticum flagellatum is an endosymbiont Dienococcaceae occur mainly in

carried by certain strains of _______________

__________________ a) tetrads

a) bacteria b) diplococci

b) fungi c) streptococci

c) viruses d) staphylococci

d) protozoa View Answer

View Answer Answer: a

Explanation: The cocci belonging to the family
Answer: d Deinococcaceae occur mainly in tetrads or
Explanation: Lyticum flagellatum is an cubical packets.
endosymbiont carried by certain strains of the
protozoan Paramecium tetraurelia. 2. The organisms belonging to the genus
Deinococcus forms colonies of which color?
 i.e., the predominant end product of sugar
a) colourless fermentation is lactic acid.
b) blue
6. Which of the following species of streptococci
c) red
belongs to Lancefield group N?
d) violet
a) S.pyogenes
View Answer
b) S.mutans
Answer: c c) S.pneumoniae
Explanation: The family Deinococcaceae
contains a single genus Deinococcus which d) S.cremoris
forms red colonies.
View Answer
3. The family Micrococcaceae do not exhibit any
Answer: d
unusual resistance to gamma and ultraviolet Explanation: The streptococci are divided into
categories known as the Lancefield groups
radiation. based on differences in their cell-wall
a) True polysaccharides. S.cremoris belong to
Lancefield group N and are harmless
b) False contaminants of milk and dairy products.
View Answer 7. S.pneumoniae produces which of the
Answer: a following type of colonies?
Explanation: The family Micrococcaceae do not
exhibit any unusual resistance to gamma and a) alpha-haemolytic
ultraviolet radiation. But the organisms b) beta-haemolytic
belonging to family Deinococcaceae have an
unusually high resistance to gamma and c) non-haemolytic
ultraviolet radiations.
d) alpha-, beta-haemolytic
4. Among the following which is positive for
View Answer
coagulase test?
Answer: a
a) Staphylococcus aureus Explanation: S.pneumoniae are alpha-
haemolytic i.e. colonies are surrounded by a
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis cloudy, colorless or greenish zone of partially
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus lysed erythrocytes.
d) E.coli This set of Microbiology test focuses on
View Answer “Endospore – Forming Gram – Positive

Answer: a Bacteria”.
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is positive
for coagulase test which is a test for the ability of 1. Which of the following are mesophilic
the bacteria to cause blood plasma to clot.
saprophytes?
5. Streptococcus are catalase-positive.
a) B.polymyxa
a) True
b) B.anthracis
b) False
c) B.subtilis
View Answer
d) B.thuringiensis
Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: Streptococcus are catalase-
negative.The organisms are homofermentative Answer: c
Explanation: Bacillus subtilis are mesophilic
saprophytes and are widely distributed in nature.
This means they can grow best within a 5. C.perfringens is the major causative agent of
temperature range of approximately 25 to 40 __________________
degree Celsius.
a) botulism
2. Which of the following causes “milky disease”
b) tetanus
of Japanese beetle grubs?
c) gas gangrene
a) B.thuringiensis
d) anthrax
b) B.popilliae
View Answer
c) B.sphaericus
Answer: c
d) B.anthracis Explanation: Clostridium perfringens is the major
View Answer causative agent of the wound infection known as
gas gangrene.
Answer: b
Explanation: B.popilliae is a pathogenic species 6. Which of the following Clostridium species
of Bacillus species that causes “milky disease” has the ability to fix Nitrogen?
of Japanese beetle grubs.
a) C.difficile
3. Which of the following species is associated
b) C.pasteurianum
with spoilage of canned goods?
c) C.tetani
a) B.stearothermophiles
d) C.thermosaccharolyticum
b) B.cereus
View Answer
c) B.subtilis
Answer: b
d) B.sphaericus Explanation: C.pasteurianum is a mesophilic soil
View Answer clostridium that is particularly noted for its ability
to fix Nitrogen.
Answer: a
Explanation: B.stearothermophilus is a 7. The genus Desulfotomaculum obtain energy
thermophilic species having a maximum of 65 to by anaerobic respiration.
75 degree Celsius. The endospores are highly
resistant to heat and,therefore, this species is a) True
one of those associated with spoilage of canned b) False
goods.
View Answer
4. Which of the following genus of species play
Answer: a
an active role in the decomposition of urea? Explanation: The members of the genus
a) Bacillus Desulfotomaculum obtain energy by anaerobic
respiration, with sulphate serving as the terminal
b) Sporosarcina electron acceptor and organic substrates such
c) Clostridium as lactic or pyruvic acid serving as the electron
donors.
d) Desulfotomaculum
8. Pseudomembranous colitis is a disease of
View Answer
_________________
Answer: b
Explanation: Sporosarcinae are widely a) stomach
distributed in fertile soil, where they play active b) wounds
role in the decomposition of urea.
c) bowel
 composed of large,disk-shaped cells arranged in
d) limbs trichomes.They are aerobic organisms and are
View Answer motile by peritrichous flagella.

Answer: c 3. Which of the following genus of organisms

Explanation: C.difficile causes causes meningitis in adults?
pseudomembranous colitis,a severe disease of
the bowel. a) Erysipelothrix
9. Bacillus species cannot fix Nitrogen. b) Listeria
a) True c) Caryophanon
b) False d) Brocothrix
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Bacillus polymyxa has the ability to Explanation: The species L.monocytogenes of
fix Nitrogen under anaerobic conditions. the genus Listeria is a parasite and causes
meningitis in adults and prenatal or postnatal
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice disease in infants.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on 4. Brocothrix is a facultatively anaerobic genus
“Nonspore – Forming Gram – Positive of species.
Bacteria”. a) True

1. Which of the following Nonspore forming b) False

Gram-positive rods show negative result for View Answer

catalase test? Answer: a

Explanation: Brocothrix are rods often occurring
a) Lactobacillus in long,kinked filaments and are facultatively
b) Kurthia anaerobic.

c) Brocothrix 5. Volutin granules stain which colour with dilute

d) Renibacterium methylene blue?

View Answer a) Violet

Answer: a b) Blue
Explanation: Lactobacillus which are strictly c) Red
fermentative organisms show negative result for
catalase test. d) Reddish purple

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of View Answer

the genus Caryophanon? Answer: d

Explanation: The cells of Corynebacterium
a) anaerobic species accumulate intracellular volutin granules
b) non-motile organism (metachromatic granules) which stain reddish
purple with dilute methylene blue.
c) disk-shaped cells
6. The cell walls of Corynebacterium contain
d) parasitic
mycolic acid containing ______________
View Answer
carbon atoms.
Answer: c
Explanation: Caryophanon is unusual as it is a) 2 to 3
b) 100 to 150 d) Rothia
c) 32 to 36 View Answer
d) 20 to 25 Answer: d
Explanation: The genus Rothia is
View Answer
aerobic,catalase-positive, and a normal
Answer: c inhabitant of the human mouth.
Explanation: The cell walls of Corynebacterium
10. Mycobacteria are acid-fast organisms.
contain mycolic acids (corynemycolic acids)
containing 32 to 36 carbon atoms. a) True
7. Cells of Arthrobacter in the stationary phase b) False
of growth are ____________ shaped. View Answer
a) rod Answer: a
Explanation: A major characteristic of
b) irregularly
mycobacteria is that they are acid-fast; that is,
c) coccoid once stained with aniline dyes, they are difficult
to decolourize, even when treated with a mixture
d) rudimentary branching of acid and alcohol.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cells of Arthrobacter in the
stationary phase of growth are distinctly coccoid;
when these are inoculated into fresh media, they
give rise to rod-shaped cells.
8. Which of the following genus of species occur
on the surface of certain cheeses such as brick
and Limburger?
a) Brevibacterium
b) Microbacterium
c) Cellulomonas
d) Arthrobacter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: B.linens of the Brevibacterium has
its usual habitat on the surface of certain
cheeses such as brick and Limburger, where it
produces proteolytic enzymes that aid in the
cheese-ripening process.
9. Which of the following genus of organisms are
normal inhabitants of human mouth?
a) Agromyces
b) Arachnia QUESTIONS ON FUNGI
c) Actinomyces
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice b) 5 to 10 micrometre
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on c) 1 metre
“Morphology”. d) 1 centimetre
View Answer
1. Fungi are ______________
Answer: b
a) prokaryotic Explanation: The thallus or body of a fungus
b) eukaryotic consists of filaments, 5 to 10 micrometre across,
which are commonly branched.
c) prokaryotic and lack chlorophyll
5. The yeast cell or mould filament is surrounded
d) eukaryotic and lack chlorophyll
by a true cell wall.
View Answer
a) True
Answer: d
Explanation:Fungi are eucaryotic spore-bearing b) False
protists that lack chlorophyll.They are of great View Answer
practical and scientific interest to
microbiologists. Answer: a
Explanation: The yeast cell or mould filament is
2. Hyphal wall consists of microfibrils composed surrounded by a true cell wall.The exception
of ___________________ being the slime moulds, which have a thallus
consisting of a naked amoeboid mass of proto-
a) hemicellulose or chitin plasm.
b) cellulose 6. What do the term dimorphic mean?
c) lipids a) Bisexual
d) proteins b) Unisexual
View Answer c) Exists in two forms
Answer:a d) Exists in single form
Explanation: The hyphal walls of fungi consists
of microfibrils composed for the most part of View Answer
hemicellulose or chitin; true cellulose occurs
Answer: c
only in the walls of lower fungi.
Explanation: Some fungi are dimorphic, that is,
3. Coenocytic hyphae have ________________ they exist in two forms.Some pathogenic fungi
have a unicellular and yeastlike form in their
a) septate with uninucleate cells host, but when growing saprophytically in soil or
b) septate with multinucleate cells in laboratory medium they have a filamentous
mold form.
c) no septate
7.Yeasts have flagella for the purpose of
d) no septate with uninucleate cells
locomotion.
View Answer
a) True
Answer: c
Explanation: Coenocytic hyphae are also known b) False
as nonseptate hyphae and hence have no sep- View Answer
ta.
Answer: b
4. What are the dimensions of the filaments that Explanation: Yeasts have no flagella or other
the thallus of a fungus consists of? organelles of locomotion.

a) 1 micrometre
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice c) Basidiospores
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on d) Oospores
“Reproduction”. View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which among the following are asexual Explanation: Basidiospores are single-celled
spores? spores borne on a club-shaped structure called
a basidium.
a) Blastospores
5. Asexual fruiting bodies have name such as
b) Ascospores
________________
c) Basidiospores
a) perithecium
d) Zygospores
b) pycnidium
View Answer
c) antheridium
Answer: a
Explanation: Blastospores are asexual spores d) apothecium
and are formed by budding. View Answer
2. Aplanospores are ___________________ Answer: b
a) motile sporangiospores Explanation: Fruiting bodies are highly
organized protective structures that surround the
b) nonmotile sporangiospores asexual and sexual spores. Asexual fruiting
c) oidia bodies have names such as acervulus and
pycnidium.
d) chlamydospores
6. There are one or more oospheres in each
View Answer
oogonium.
Answer: b
Explanation: Aplanospores are nonmotile a) True
sporangiospores.Sporangiospores are single- b) False
celled spores and are formed within sporangium.
View Answer
3. Which among the following are spores formed
Answer: a
by budding? Explanation: Oospheres are eggs formed within
a) Arthrospores a special female structure, the oogonium.There
are one or more oospheres in each oogonium.
b) Chlamydospores
7. How many ascospores are present in each
c) Blastospores
ascus?
d) Conidiospores
a) Four
View Answer
b) Six
Answer: c
Explanation: Blastospores are asexual spores c) Two
and are formed by budding. d) Eight
4. Spores formed by sexual reproduction on a View Answer
club-shaped structure are _______________ Answer: d
a) Ascospores Explanation: Ascospores are single-celled
spores produced in a sac called an ascus.These
b) Zygospores are usually eight ascospores in each ascus.
8. Which of the following spores are formed at 1. Pathogenic fungi have a temperature
the tips of sterigmata? optimum at __________
a) Zygospores a) 30 to 37 degree celsius
b) Oospores b) 22 to 30 degree celsius
c) Basidiospores c) 37 to 42 degree celsius
d) Blastospores d) 42 to 50 degree celsius
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Basidiospores are formed Explanation: Fungi grow over a wide range of
exogenously at the tips of the special outgrowths temperature.Pathogenic species have a higher
called sterigmata. Usually four spores are temperature optimum, generally 30 to 37 degree
formed at the tip of each sterigma. Celsius.
9. The process of fusion of nuceus of two mating 2. Sabouraud media for the growth of fungi is
types is known as plasmogamy. composed of ____________________
a) True a) glucose and ammonia
b) False b) maltose and peptone
View Answer c) sucrose and peptone
Answer: b d) peptone
Explanation: The two haploid nuclei of two
View Answer
mating types fuse together to form a diploid
nucleus and this process is known as Answer: b
karyogamy. Explanation: One of the best known and oldest
media for growth of fungi is Sabouraud media
10. In which of the following process does the
that contains maltose and peptone as its
male nucleus migrates through a fertilization principal ingredients.
tube into the female gametangium? 3. Sabouraud media has
a) Gametic copulation _________________________
b) Gamete-gametangial copulation a) high ph,low sugar concentration
c) Gametangial copulation b) high ph,moderate sugar concentration
d) Somatic copulation c) low ph,high sugar concentration
View Answer d) low ph,moderate sugar concentration
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: In gamete-gametangial copulation,
the two gametangia come into contact but do not Answer: c
fuse; the male nucleus migrates through a pore Explanation: Sabouraud media is widely used
for the isolation of molds and certain yeasts.Its
or fertilization tube into the female
partial selective action is due to the high sugar
gametangium.
concentration and low pH.
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
4. Jams and jellies are spoiled by both bacteria
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
and fungi.
“Physiology and Cultivation of Fungi”.
a) True
 Answer: a
b) False Explanation: Moulds are strictly aerobic whereas
View Answer yeasts are facultative organisms.

Answer: b 8. Fungi are sensitive to which of the following

Explanation: Yeasts and molds can grow in a antibiotics?
substrate or medium containing concentrations
of sugars that inhibit most bacteria; this is why a) penicillins
jams and jellies may be spoiled by molds but not
b) tetracyclins
by bacteria.
c) chloramphenicol
5. What are the cell wall structural components
d) griseofulvin
of fungi?
View Answer
a) peptidoglycan
Answer: d
b) cellulose
Explanation: Fungi are resistant to
c) chitin penicillins,tetracyclins,chloramphenicol but are
sensitive to griseofulvin.
d) chitin,cellulose, or hemicellulose
9. Ordinary inoculating loop can be used for
View Answer
inoculation of yeasts.
Answer: d
Explanation: The cell wall structural components a) True
of fungi are chitin,cellulose, or hemicellulose
b) False
whereas the bacterial cell wall is composed of
peptidoglycan. View Answer
6. The optimum pH for the growth of fungi is Answer: True
Explanation: Ordinary inoculating loop used for
____________
bacteria is suitable for the inoculation of
a) 7.8-9.0 yeasts.But the needle used for molds is stiffer
and has a flattened tip for cutting the mycelium.
b) 12-14
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice
c) 3.8-5.6
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
d) 1.0-2.0
“Classification of Fungi”.
View Answer
Answer: c 1. In the fungal classification system
Explanation: The optimum pH for the growth of
fungi is 3.8-5.6.Acidic media (pH 5.6) are Ascomycetes come under the division of
tolerated by molds but are inhibitory to most ________________
bacteria.
a) Gymnomycota
7. Which of the following are the oxygen
b) Mastigomycota
requirements of molds?
c) Amastigomycota
a) Strictly aerobic
d) Gymnomycota,Mastigomycota
b) Facultatively aerobic
View Answer
c) Anaerobic
Answer: c
d) Microaerophilic Explanation: The class of Ascomycetes comes
View Answer under the division of Amastigomycota which are
terrestrial fungi.
2. Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to which class? d) perithecium
a) Acrasiomycetes View Answer
b) Zygomycetes Answer: b
Explanation: Fruiting bodies of slime moulds are
b) Ascomycetes
called sori that are masses of spores.
d) Deuteromycetes
6. The taxa having the ending -mycetes is
View Answer
_______________
Answer: b
a) Division
Explanation: Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to the
class Zygomycetes and division b) Subdivision
Amastigomycota.
c) Class
3. Which class of fungi among the following
d) Order
have motile cells with two laterally inserted
View Answer
flagella,one tinsel and the other whiplash?
Answer: c
a) Chytridiomycetes Explanation: Class have the ending -
mycetes.Division have the ending -mycota,
b) Zygomycetes
subdivision ends with -mycotina whereas order
c) Deuteromycetes ends with -ales.
d) Oomycetes 7. The common yeast Schizosaccharomyces
View Answer follows which of the following asexual
Answer: d reproduction methods?
Explanation: The Oomycetes class have motile
a) binary fission
cells with two laterally inserted flagella,one tinsel
and anteriorly directed, the other whiplash and b) budding
posteriorly directed.
c) fragmentation
4. Which division of fungi lack flagella?
d) spore formation
a) Mastigomycota
View Answer
b) Amastigomycota
Answer: a
c) Gymnomycota Explanation: In Schizosaccharomyces, asexual
reproduction is by binary fission.Sexual
d) Basidiomycetes
reproduction is by conjugation of compatible
View Answer cells with the subsequent formation of
ascospores.
Answer: b
Explanation: The division Amastigomycota or 8. The structure which contains the zygote
terrestrial fungi lack flagella.Mainly sexual
nuclei in Rhizopus stolonifer is is known as
spores are produced by the organisms of this
division. _______________
5.Fruiting bodies of slime moulds are called a) progametangia
______________ b) zygospore
a) acervulus c) suspensor cell
b) sori d) coenozygote
c) apothecium View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The walls of the two contacting d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
gametangia dissolve at the point of contact, the View Answer
two protoplasts mix and the + and – nuclei fuse
to form many zygote nuclei.The structure which Answer: b
contains them is called the coenozygote. Explanation: Synchytrium endobioticum is the
most serious parasite of the class
9. The mature zygospore lies dormant for how Chytridiomycetes that causes black wart disease
many days? of potato.The dark warts on the potatoes are
galls in which the host cells have been
a) 4-5 days stimulated to divide by the fungus.
b) 1-3 months 2. Zygomycetes have which type of mycelia?
c) 1 year a) nonseptate
d) 20 days b) septate with uninucleate
View Answer c) septate with multi muclei
Answer: b d) white,nonseptate
Explanation: The wall around the coenozygote
View Answer
thickens and its surface becomes black and
warty, forming the mature zygospore, which lies Answer: d
dormant for 1 to 3 or more months. Explanation: Morphologically, the mycelia of
10. Which of the following are acellular slime Zygomycetes are usually white or gray and are
nonseptate.
moulds?
3. In the life cycle of Rhizopus stolonifer,when
a) Acrasiomycetes
the protoplasts and nuclei of both gametangia
b) Myxomycetes
coalesce, the structure is known as
c) Oomycetes
________________
d) Ascomycetes
a) progametangia
View Answer
b) coenozygote
Answer: b
Explanation: Myxomycetes are acellular slime c) zygospore
molds whose vegetative phase consists of a d) zygote
multicellular, wall-less plasmodium, which
transforms into highly organized sporangia View Answer
bearing sporangiospores. Answer: b
This set of Microbiology Multiple Choice Explanation: The walls between two gametangia
dissolve and their protoplasts coalesce.Nuclei of
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on both mating types fuse in pairs, producing many
“Some Fungi of Special Interest”. zygote nuclei.The structure that contains them is
then called a coenozygote.
1. Which fungi causes black wart disease of 4. Schizosaccharomyces versatilis is isolated
potato? from ________________
a) Saprolegnia parasitica a) grape juice
b) Synchytrium endobioticum b) cheese
c) Rhizopus stolonifer c) honey
d) beer d) mycotic infection
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Schizosaccharomyces versatilis is Explanation: Cryptococcus neoformans is an
isolated from grape juice.It grows like a yeast important basidiomycetous pathogen of humans,
but it can also form a true mycelium. causing cryptococcosis, a generalized mycotic
infection involving the bloodstream as well as
5. Legitimate copulation refers to lungs, central nervous system and other organs.
___________________ 8. Aspergillus niger is used in the production of
a) fusion between cells of same mating type _______________
b) fusion between cells of different mating type a) cheese
c) no fusion b) citric acid
d) different sex cells are present within the same c) gluconic acid
body d) citric acid and gluconic acid
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: d
Explanation: Fusion normally occurs only
Explanation: It is an economically important
between cells of difffering mating types, a
fungi because they are used in a number of
process termed as legitimate copulation.Such industrial fermentations,including the production
fusions result in diploid cells which form asci of citric acid and gluconic acid in abundance.
containing viable ascospores.
9. Endocarditis is caused by which of the
6. Neurospora sp. is important for the study of
following fungi?
_____________________
a) Candida albicans
a) human diseases
b) Penicillium notatum
b) antibiotics
c) Penicillium chrysogenum
c) genetics and metabolic pathway
d) Agaricus campestris
d) plant diseases
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Candida albicans is often isolated
Explanation: Neurospora sp. which belongs to from warm-blooded animals, including humans
the class Ascomycetes is of particular interest to
and becomes pathogenic and causes many
biologists because of its wide use in the study of
serious infections.Endocaritis is caused by this
genetics and metabolic pathways.Some species
organism and it is an infection of heart.
are also responsible for food spoilage and some
are used in industrial fermentation. 10. What do you mean by hypertrophy?
7. Cryptococcosis is a disease of a) repeated cell division
________________ b) infection by zoospore
a) bacterial infection c) increase in cell volume
b) parasitic infection d) decrease in cell volume
c) viral infection View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the wart disease of potato, when
the host cell is infected by a zoospore, it reacts
by undergoing hypertrophy,i.e., increase in cell
volume, and adjacent cells also enlarge to form
the characteristic rosette.
11. Which of the following fungi causes severe
epidemic of disease among fish in the natural
environment?
a) Saprolegnia ferax
b) Saprolegnia parasitica
c) Neurospora crassa
d) Neurospora sitophila
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Species of Saprolegnia are
common in soil and fresh water;hence they are
commonly called water molds.S.parasitica
causes severe epidemics of disease among fish
in the natural environment.
12. Reproductive organs are formed on the
rhizoidal hyphae.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:The rhizoidal hyphae enters the
substratum and serve to anchor the organism
and to absorb nutrients, and the branched
hyphae is the one on which reproductive organs
are formed.
13. Rhizopus produces clusters of rootlike
holdfasts called _____________
a) stolons
b) hyphae
c) runners
d) rhizoids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The molds produce clusters of
rootlike holdfasts called rhizoids.They also
produce stolons or runners capable of taking
root where thay may give rise to new organisms.