INSTRUCTION

INSTRUCTION: The following questionnaire consists of six hundred (600)
MCQs contained in forty one (41) pages. Answer each question on the MCQ
by encircling the letter you have chosen.
The special diagnostic exam will start exactly 9:00 o’clock in the
morning and will end up to 3:00 o’clock in the afternoon.
Not following instructions and committing any violation will sanction for
fine of 100 pesos.
Check the number of pages at the bottom right hand corner of each page of
this Questionnaire and make sure it has the correct number of pages and
their proper numbers.
If you have some corrections kindly inform the proctor.
Avoid erasures on the Answer
1. Chemical process whereby fire consumes most solids is called
a. flame
b. free radicals
c. incandescent
d. pyrolysis
2. The transfer of heat by moving particles or liquids or gases, like the
heat that flows from hot water to peas when we boil them or the heat that
flows out of the kettle in a flow of steam.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Oxidation
D. Radiation
3. Heat transferred by direct contact from one body to another is known
as…
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Nuclear Fission
d. Radiation
4. A diffusion of heat through a fluid by means of the flow of the hotter
parts of the fluid to the colder parts.
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. spontaneous combustion
5. Any explosion that can occur only within a container of a vessel.
A. Chemical Explosion
B. Human Odor Explosion
C. Mechanical Explosion
D. Nuclear Explosion
6. A detonation has a
A. breaking effect
B. deteriorating effect
C. pushing effect
D. shattering effect
7. One of the kinds of oxidation which is the same as actual burning; it

is the rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
A. boiling point
B. combustion
C. flames
D. flash point
8. Chemical process whereby fire consumes most solids is called
A. flame
B. free radicals
C. incandescent
D. pyrolysis
9. Refer to the phenomenon when chemical compounds will ignite without

any outside source of heat.
A. chemical igniters
B. frictional heat
C. hypergolic reactions
D. spontaneous combustion
10. In arson, the protection and preservation of the crime scene is the
sole responsibility of the police officer who first responded to the
scene. Is this statement true?
yes
no
it depends
. sometimes
11. In reality, when we speak about arson, it was said to be
A. accidental burning
B. to be proven
C. intentional setting of fire
D. none of the above
12. Which among the following is the most motive of arson?
A. love C. jealousy
B. revenge D. malice
13. How do you call a person who enjoys watching fire?
A. Pyromaniac
B. pathological person
C. psychopathic fire setter
D. insane
14. What is the crime committed by a person who uses arson to kill
another person?
A. arson with murder
B. murder and arson
C. arson with homicide
D. murder
15. If explosive is found, what will you call?
A. Artillery
B. Ballistics
C. Ordnance
D. Special Action Force
16. As a fire prober, its primary objective is to determine?

A. Origin of fire
B. Extent of damage
C. Cause of fire
D. Odor of the smoke
17. In fire scene, it is very important to collect every minute object,
this may lead to its?
A. Evaluation
B. Determination
C. Solution
D. None of these
18. Before attacking a fire in closed building, it is necessary to
determine whether ventilating is necessary and if so, the method of
ventilating. Which is of least value in making such decision?
A. Observing density of smoke through windows
B. Observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the
building
C. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
D. Observing the color of smoke
19. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which
of the following facilities should you check?
A. Electric switch system
B. All of these
C. Gift-wrapped packages
D. Telephones
20. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient
to stimulate or support combustion?
A. smoke C. Carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember
21. The cause of the majority of fire death is _______.
A. Infection C. Shock
B. Burns D. Asphyxiation
22. Which of the following restricts the spread of the fire to the point
of origin or at least to the area involved?
Extinguishments
Suppression
Confinement
Control
23. A blue flame is an example of
Flames
B. luminous
C. Laminar
D. non-luminous
24. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good indicator
of the intensity of the fire and an important factor in determining
incendiarism?
Size of fire
smoke marks
color of flame
Direction of travel
25. How is the intensity of heat measured?
Kilograms
degrees temperature
Calories
kilowatts
26. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the
roof is referred to as:
Vertical ventilation
Cross ventilation
C. Forced ventilation
D. Combination of cross horizontal
27. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system
which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. fire exit C. fire trap
B. damper D. fire alarm
28. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order
A. To reduce vibration of the hydrant
B. To ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. To prevent water hammer
D. To close the coupling
29. Under what department is the Bureau of Fire Protection?
A. Department of National Defense
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of the Interior and Local
D. Government
30. What is that means of identifying physical evidence, in which the
investigator inscribes initial, date and time directly?
A. Marking
B. Labeling
C. Tagging
D. None of these
31. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. Inflammable substance found in the premises
B. Simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. Building insurance
D. Any of these
32. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through
electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is
A. conduction
B. combustion
C. radiation
D. convection
33. These fire results from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and
other carbonaceous materials.
Class “A” Fires

Class “B” Fires
Class “C” Fires
Class “D” Fires
34. A French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is the result of the
rapid union of oxygen with other substances.
ANTOINE LAVOISER
JOHN WALKER
THOMAS ALYA EDISON
ALEXANDER FLAMING
35. An American inventor who was able to send an electric current through
a carbon filament (wire) until the filament become so hot that it gave
off light.
ANTOINE LAVOISER
JOHN WALKER
THOMAS ALYA EDISON
ALEXANDER FLAMING
36. How many percent of oxygen is needed to produce a fire?
22%
31%
20%
21%
37. A graphical representation of the three elements of fire namely the

oxygen, heat and fuel.
Fire Tetrahedron
Fire Triangle
Fire Element
Fire Composition
38. The minimum temperature to start self sustained combustion
independent of the heating source.
CHAIN REACTION
IGNITION TEMPERATURE
PYROLYSIS
NONE OF THE ABOVE
39. A normal body temperature is
34 degrees
37 degrees
40 degrees
39 degrees
40. It is the process of reducing the temperature of a fuel below its
ignition temperature.
Smothering
Oxygen Dilution
Chain Breaking
Cooling
41. It is the process of separating fuel from oxygen to extinguish
burning process.
Smothering
Oxygen Dilution
Chain Breaking
Cooling
42. It is the process of disrupting the chemical process that sustains
the fire.
Smothering
Oxygen Dilution
Chain Breaking
Cooling
43. These are changes whereby energy is absorbed or is added before the
reaction takes place.
Endothermic Reaction
Exothermic Reaction
Endomorphic Reaction
Ectomorphic Reaction
44. What type of flame whereby it deposits soot because it is a product
of incomplete combustion, it has lower temperature.
Luminous Flame
Non luminous flame
Incomplete Combustion
None of these/
45. The following are classifications of fire based on cause, except

Natural fire
Accidental fire
Intentional fire
None of the choices
46. What classification of fire that involves flammable and gasses?
A
B
C
D
47. Fires that starts in live electrical wire, equipment, motors,
electrical appliances and telephone switchboard.
A
B
C
D
48. It is the sudden and rapid (violent) burning of heated gasses in a
confined area that occurs in the form of explosion.
Back Draft
Flash Over
Flash Hole
Flash Point
49. It is the unusual or accidental connecting between points at
different potentials (charge) an electrical circuit of relatively low
resistance.
High Circuit
Low Circuit
Short Circuit
Black Out
50. It is highly flammable chemical that are used to facilitate flame
propagation.
Paper
Gasoline
Accelerant
Black powder
51. What classification of fire extinguisher used on fires involving
liquids, grease, and gases?
A
B
C
D
52. What classification of fire extinguisher used on fires involving
ordinary combustible materials?
A
B
C
D
53. What used on fires extinguisher involving combustible metals?
A
B
C
D
54. What is the latest law that governs the fire code of the Philippines?
R.A. 9512
R.A. 9514
R.A. 9372
R.A. 934
55. It is the intentional or malicious destruction of property by fire.
Malicious Mischief
Arson
Fire Burning
Explosion
56. Mr. A with intention to burn the house of Mr. B poured a Kerosene at
the post of B’s house. What crime does mr. A committed?
Impossible crime
Attempted Arson
Consummated arson
No crime
57. The uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything without any
motivation.
Psychopath
Sociopath
Pyromania
Kleptomania
58. If the materials that is being burned is a petroleum product or

rubber . What is the color of the smoke and the flame?
A. White smoke with bright flame
B. Heavy brown with bright and flame
C. Black smoke with deep and flame-
D. Black smoke with red and blue green flame
59. If the materials that is being burned are magnesium products. What is
the color of the smoke and the flame?
A. White smoke with bright flame
B. Heavy brown with bright and flame
C. Black smoke with deep and flame-
D. Black smoke with red and blue green flame
60. Mr. A poured a kerosene at the foundation of the house of Mr. B and
lighted the same. Mr. C saw the burning and she immediately put off the
fire. The burning resulted to the discoloration of the post of the house.
What crime is committed?
Attempted arson
Consummated arson
Impossible crime
No crime
61. The following are components of fire except one:
Gas
Fuel
Oxygen
Heat
62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most
common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
Accelerants
Trailers
timing device
Stopper
63. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
PD 1108
PD 1017
PD 1081
PD 1185
64. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set
on fire except one:
Combustible
Corrosive
Flammable
Inflammable
65. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to

setting it on fire in order to __.
A. mislead the investigators
B. camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. provide a quick burning situation
D. all of the above
66. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are
the
A. By standers
B. Arsonists
C. Victims
D. Firemen
67. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the

position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or closed
may be ascertained by __.
consulting the original structure blueprint on file
interviewing spectators
collecting broken pieces of window glasses
locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors
68. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the electrical circuit, is known as __.
A. Over using
B. Over loading
C. Over plugging
D. Over capacity
69. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:

A. Shock
B. Burn
C. Falling materials
D. Asphyxiation
70. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as

A. Kleptomania
B. Pedophilia
C. Manic depressive
D. Arson
71. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of
the major investigative steps accomplished?
A. Details
B. Synopsis
C. Undeveloped
D. Conclusions
72. A fire started from the basement of the building. After 30 minutes,
the whole building has turned into ashes. Which among the following is
responsible for the spread of fire in the building?
A. Heat
B. Smoke
C. Flame
D. Combustion products
74. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by

secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and prosecution to
appeal.
a. Inquisatorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
75. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party
and the right to appeal are limited to the defense.
a. inquisatorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
76. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC.
a. R.A. 7691 b. R.A. 8493 c. BP 129 d.
R.A. 1379
77. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
a. Extent of penalty
b. Person accused
c. territory
d. subject matter
78. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of
public officer in charge of enforcement of the law violated filed either
to the court or to the office of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint b. Pleadings c. Information
d. Affidavit
79. Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or peace
officers or their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
80. The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure,

EXCEPT:
a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws
d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
81. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system
and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
Amphetamines
Naptha
Barbiturates
Diazepam
82. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without a

complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT:
a. Rape b. Abduction
c. Seduction d. Adultery and Concubinage
83. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense. This is the
rule on:
a. Duplicity of offense
b. Complex crime
c. compound crime
d. continuing crime
84. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates an arresting
officer should inform the person to be arrested of his rights?
a. Art. III Sec. 12
b.Miranda Doctrine
c. R.A. 7438
d. Rule 115
85. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of
2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for Other Purposes.
RA 9165
RA 1956
RA 9156
D. RA 1965
86. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
Reclusion Perpetua
Life Imprisonment
Death
D. Fine
100. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ after plea and
during the trial with leave of court and without causing prejudice to the
rights of the accused.
a. form b. substance and form c. substance d. none of these
101. Civil action arising from the offense is deemed instituted with the
criminal action unless:
a. offended party waives the civil actions
b. reserves the right to institute it separately
c. institutes the civil action prior to the criminal action
d. all of choices
102. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the pendency of a
prejudicial question in a civil action may be filed:
a. before the prosecution rests
b. before arraignment
c. before preliminary investigation d. before plea
103. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the cognizance of which
pertains to another tribunal.
a. Prejudicial question
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation
d. custodial investigation
104. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed
and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for
trial.
a. preliminary investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. prejudicial question
105. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
106. The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary

investigation, EXCEPT:
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their assistants
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal Circuit Trial
Courts
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; and
e. a and c
107. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court without a
preliminary investigation within how many days an accused person upon
knowing the filing of said complaint may ask for preliminary
investigation?
a. 5 days b. 15 days
c. 10 days d. 30 days
108. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound
to answer for the commission of an offense.
a. Arrest
b. Warrant
c. jurisdiction
d. Seizure
109. Validity of the warrant of arrest?
a. no fixed duration
b. 30 days
c. 20 days
d. 10 days
110. Lifetime of search warrant?
c. 5 days d. No fixed duration
111. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a warrant of
arrest the person charged with its execution shall report to the court
which issue such warrant when arrest was not been made?
112. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law
breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
a. instigation b. investigation
c. entrapment d. Entertainment
113. In flagrante delicto means _____?

a. caught in the act
b. instigation
c. caught after commission
d. entrapment
114. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
115. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the warrant of
arrest in his possession?
a. Need not have
b.Should always have
c. may sometime have
d. need to have
116. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer
after a person has been taken into custody.
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest
c. interview
d. interrogation
117. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting
officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal
knowledge based on probable cause that the person to be arrested has
committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
118. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in

custody of the law.
a. bail b. parole
c. fine d. conditional pardon
119. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed to appear
at the trial without justification and despite due notice.
a. In absentia
b. in flagrante de licto
c. on the merits
d. none of these
120. When Bail is a matter of right?
a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, Municipal or Municipal
Circuit trial court.
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
d. upon preliminary investigation
121. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:

a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
c. crimes punishable by death
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment when
evidence of guilt is strong
122. When bail is a discretionary?
a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by reclusion perpetua or
life imprisonment.
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20
years who is a recidivist.
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20
years when there is undue risk that he may commit another crime during
the pendency of the appeal.
d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20
years who has previously escaped from legal confinement.
123. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of its
commission and at the time of the application for admission to bail may
be punished with death.
a. capital offense b.less grave
c. heinous crime d.grave felony
124. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
a. Property Bond
b. Cash Bond
c. Corporate surety bond
d. Recognizance
e. None of these
125. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is
destierro, he shall be released after ____ of preventive imprisonment.
126. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
a. acquittal of the accused
b execution of the judgment of conviction
c. dismissal of the case
d. all of these
127. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation, one which is
consistent with the innocence of the accused and the other consistent
with his guilt, or they are evenly balanced. The constitutional
presumption of innocence should tilt the scale in favor of the accused
and he must be acquitted.
a. Equipoise rule
b. Presumption of guilt
c. Hornbook doctrine
d. due process of law
128. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute

litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. National Prosecution Office
129. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to

testify or to bring with him any books or documents under his control at
the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ducestecum
c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. warrant of arrest
130. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court

Circular, the arraignment shall be held within ___ days from the date the
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
131. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be

entered.
a. Not guilty
b. admission by silence
c. guilty
d. none
132. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following
circumstances:
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
d. all of these
133. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging
among others the defect of the complaint or information and the details
desired in order to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial.
This motion is known as:
a. motion for bill of particular
b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss
d. motion for postponement
134. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on

the following grounds:
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is
pending either at the DOJ or office of the President .
d. All of these
135. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused
is:
a. Motion to quash
b. nolleprosequi
c. Motion to dismiss
d. bill of particulars
136. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or
the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the offender after
the lapse of certain definite period from the commission of the offense.
a. Prescription of crime
b. acquisitive
c. prescription of penalty
d. extinctive
137. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of
being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time.
a. double jeopardy
b. double trial
c. double trouble
d. double counter
138. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not

exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall become
permanent after ____.
a. one year b. 2 years
c. 5 years d. 4 years
139. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court
acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall order a pre-
trial conference?
140. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial
after a plea of not guilty is entered?
141. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from receipt of the
pre-trial order?
142. This is a mandatory proceeding in criminal cases wherein the court
shall set after arraignment of the accused?
a. Plea bargaining (plea of guilty to a lesser offense
b. stipulation of facts
c. Pre-trial conference
d. trial proper
143. The trial court has how many days from the first day of trial to
terminate the same?
144. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the following
circumstances:
a. at the arraignment and plea
b. during the trial whenever necessary for identification purposes
c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light offense
d. all of these
145. The order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
146. It is the testimony of a witness taken upon oral question or written

interrogatories, in open court, and reduced into writing and duly
authenticated.
a. affidavit b. evidence
c. deposition d. Testimony
147. Is the person chosen by a child to be present or to accompany him to
testify or to attend the trial to provide emotional support.
a. guardian ad litem
b. facilitator
c. support person
d. interpreter
148. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any
other appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
c. Emotional security items
b. support
d. none of these
149. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of justice.
a. leading questions b. relevant
c. misleading d. Narrative
150. The discharge of accused to be state witness operates as ____?

a. suspension b. conviction
c. acquittal d. Termination
151. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused to be

state witness:
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused.
b. said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime involving moral
turpitude/
d. all of these
152. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person may move for
the dismissal of the case on:
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to
be heard.
b. Demurrer to evidence
c. motion for reconsideration
d. motion for new trial
153. It is the judicial examination and determination of the issue in an
action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
a. pre-trial b. trial
c. plea bargaining d. Judgment
154. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not
guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the proper penalty
and civil liability.
a. judgment
c. rendition of judgment
b. promulgation of judgment
d. conviction
155. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the possibility
of error, produces absolute certain. Moral certainty only is required.
a. acquittal
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. clear and convincing
d. preponderance of evidence
156. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the evidence
does not show that his guilt is beyond reasonable doubt.
a. dismissal b. conviction
c. acquittal d. judgment
157. Judgment becomes final when?
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied or served.
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to appeal.
d. when he appealed for probation
e. all of these
158. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of conviction

becomes final.
a. Motion for new trial
b. Motion for reconsideration
d. All of these
159. Which is a ground for new trial?

a. errors of law or irregularities during the trial
b. new and material evidence has been
discovered
c. a and b
d. none of these
160. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?

a. prosecutor
b. Secretary of DOJ
c. appellant (making the appeal)
d. Solicitor General
161. The party appealing the case shall be called?
a. appellant b. accused
c. Appellee d. Defendant
162 It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the
power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in criminal
case.
a. Venue
b. Jurisprudence
c. jurisdiction
d. court
163. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. Original jurisdiction
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. concurrent jurisdiction (vested on two or more courts)
d. appellate jurisdiction (power to review cases)
163. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
others.
d. appellate jurisdiction
c. concurrent jurisdiction
165. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by
secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and prosecution to
appeal.
a. Inquisatorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
166. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either at
the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party and the
right to appeal are limited to the defense.
a. inquisatorial
b. mixed
c. accusatorial
d. fixed
167. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC.
a. R.A. 7691 b. R.A. 8493 c. BP 129 d.
R.A. 1379
168. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:

a. Extent of penalty
b. Person accused
c. territory
d. subject matter
169. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of
public officer in charge of enforcement of the law violated filed either
a. Complaint b. Pleadings Section
c. Information d. Affidavit
170. Prescription of offense commences to run:

a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or peace officers or
their agent.
b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused.
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
170. When an appeal shall be taken?

a. within 10 days
b. within 30 days
c. within 15 days
d. within 5 days
171. The party appealing the case shall be called?
a. appellant b. accused
c. Appellee d. defendant
172. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
a. Subject of the offense
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense
d. Firearm
173. When search must be made?
a. in the day time
b. only during sunrise
b. any time of the day and night d. in the presence of two
witnesses
174. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?
a. Plaintiff b. offended party
c. defendant d. Respondent (suspect while in prosecution stage)
175. A complaint or information have the same legal content, however,

they differ as to who subscribe to it, who subscribe and information?
a. Accused b. Prosecutor
c. Witness d. victim
176. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the

following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation
except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
177. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or

under custodial investigation as well as duties of the arresting
detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438 b. R.A. 7348 c. R.A. 7834
d. R.A. 3478
178. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
179. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are
prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
180. In preliminary investigation, the respondent may submit the

following except:
a. counter-affidavit (reply to a complaint) b. witness affidavit
d. supporting evidence
181. The following cases committed by public official with salary grade
27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan,
Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2,
chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with
executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
d. None of these
182. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to
crimes against person, making crime prosecutable even without a complaint
filed the offender party?
a. R.A. 8353 b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493 d. R.A. 7055
183. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed

instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided by
Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for
recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute the
civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the
criminal action.
d. all of these
184. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?

a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Independent civil action instituted may be continued against the
estate or legal representative of the accused.
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall be dismissed
without prejudice to any civil action the offended party may file against
the estate of the deceased.
d. all of these
185. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be

released on bail in the following manner, except:
a. property bond
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
186. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
187. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ otherwise
the said accused could no longer questioned the same and that the arrest
is presumed by the court as valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c.before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
188. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial conference
except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
189. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
190. Amendment without leave of court before the accused pleads is
allowed by the Rules of Court under the following instances EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c.amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments the downgrades the nature of the crime
191. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may be
discharged in order to be state witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
192. The jurisdiction of the courts in criminal cases is determined by
the extent of the penalty which the law imposes for the offense charged
in the complaint.
a. absolutely true
b. partly true
c. partly false
d. absolutely false
193. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of 1991. Under
the said code, the Lupon of each barangay shall have authority to bring
together the parties actually residing in the same city or municipality
for amicable settlement where the offense committed is punishable by
imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
a. absolutely true b. partly true
c. absolutely false d. partly false
194. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:

a. Office of the President
b. Office of the Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor
d. Office of the Ombudsman
195. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information are

the following, EXCEPT:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the Philippines.
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court
196. The offended spouse should be the one to file the complaint in the
crimes of:
a. Bigamy
b. Rape
c. Adultery and concubinage
d. act of lasciviousness
197. A certain husband dies before he could institute the criminal action
for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
198. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of

incapacitated individual with no known parents, grandparents or guardian
is known as:
a. Doctrine of parens patriae
b. Doctrine of non-suability
c. police power
d. habeas corpus
199. The modes of making an arrest are:

a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
b. by the submission to the custody of the person making the arrest
c. by using unreasonable force
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
200. The order of trial is:

b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
201. The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of
Nations, EXCEPT.
a. Treason
b. Piracy and mutiny
c. Espionage
d. Rebellion
202. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes
allegiance to it.
a. treason
b. espionage
c. adherence to the enemy
d. rebellion
203. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.
a. substantial evidence
c. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. two witness rule
d. preponderance of evidence
204. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters;
b. The offenders are not members of its complement or passengers of
the vessel;
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or seize the
whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its equipment or personal
belonging of its complement or passengers.
205. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of Piracy:
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the high seas or
in Philippine waters
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing
upon the same.
c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means
of saving themselves.
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical
injuries, or rape.
206. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery Law of
1974.
a. Comm. Act No. 616
b. P.D. 532
c. P.D. 533
d. R.A. 6235
207. PO1 Agresibo, without legal grounds arrested and detained Mr.
Suspetsoso and deprived said person of his liberty is liable for:
a. illegal detention (private individual)
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest
d. kidnapping
208. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any person,
EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
b. escape from prison / penal institution
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the compulsory confinement
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
209. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release,
EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive order for the
release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to said prisoner.
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the liberation of
such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the detainee to
the proper judicial authority.
e. All of these
210. Mr. Robinhood was arrested for illegal possession of firearms which
is considered a low power gun. Considering that such is punishable by
correctional penalty, within how many hours should a case be filed to the
proper judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
211. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a person to
change his resident or otherwise expels him from the Philippines.
a. violation of domicile
c. trespass to dwelling
d. expulsion
12. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

a. Any public officer or employee who enters any dwelling against
the will of the owner thereof.
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any papers or other
effects found therein without the previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to leave the
premises, after having surreptitiously entered said dwelling and after
having been required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches domicile without
witnesses.
e. All of these
213. As a rule no search of house, room or premise shall be made except

in the presence of:
a. The lawful occupants of the premise.
b. Any member of his family
c. At least two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion
residing in the same locality.
d. any of the choices
214. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, search the house
of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having discovered the item specified in the
warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to be seized.
SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of
domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
215. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the States.
Which one can be committed by private person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
b. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful meetings
216. The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
217. Any person who committed an act of terrorism shall be punished with
an imprisonment of 40 years without the benefit of parole as stated
provided under R.A. 4103 otherwise known as the Indeterminate Sentence
Law, as amended, and shall be detained without warrant for a period not
more than?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 3 days
218. Bert de Leon not only confessed his membership with the Sparrow unit
but also his participation and that of his Group in the killing of SPO2
Manalad while the latter was manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave.
Manila. Under the facts given, what crime was committed by the former and
that of his Group?
a. murder( killing with qualifying circumstances
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide (killing of a person without qualifying circumstances and
without other elements of murder)
219. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against
government to completely overthrow and supersede said existing
government.
a. treason (breach of allegiance in times of war) b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat (commited against military)

d. sedition (rise publicly and tumultuously)
220. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth,
directed against duly constituted authorities, public utilities, military
camps and installation with or without civilian support for the purpose
of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
221. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the legal method.
a. treason b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat d. sedition
222. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while going to
attend a senate session for a traffic violation is liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
223. The Kilusanngmga Ungas at Paranoid (KUP) was organized by Mr. Panot
allegedly for protecting the poor laborer, where in fact it was organized
to form a group that would rise against the rich businessmen of their
city. For what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
224. Any association, organization, political party or group of persons
organized for the purpose of overthrowing the Government of the Republic
of the Philippines or for the purpose of removing the allegiance to said
government or its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof,
with the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign power by force
violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization d. Illegal Assembly
225. Mrs. Ditas, a Mayor of Caloocan together with engineer Pandac and
Councilor Panot were surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
government projects and for their relocation. The residents oppose with
the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor
Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor
defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For
what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Ditas?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
226. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in
authority
It should be noted that the assault should be mad without public
uprising.
227. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an

individual or as a member of some court or government corporation, board
or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
228. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey
any person in authority, or the agents of such person, while engaged in
the performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of
such person
229. In applying the provisions of Article 148 and 151 of the RPC the
following shall be deemed a person in authority while in the performance
of their professional duties as amended by B.P. 873. Approved June 12,
1985, EXCEPT:
a. Teachers b. Lawyers
c. Professors d. Barangay Tanod Officer
230. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances
c. Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of these
231. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the
air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his birthday. Such
act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
232. Mrs. Maria G., a sister of Mr. Mario G (a sentenced prisoner), gave
20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the escape of her brother
is guilty of what crime?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. delivering prisoners from jail
c. Bribery d. Corruption of public official
233. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of
service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry (by scaling).
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or
intimidation.
d. Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal
institution.
e. All of these
234. A convict who shall evade the service of sentence, by leaving the
penal institution where he shall have been confined, on occasion of
disorder resulting from a conflagration, earthquake, explosion or similar
catastrophe or during a mutiny in which he has not participated and shall
fail to give himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the
issuance of the proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing the
passing of the calamity shall suffer an increase of 1/5 of the time still
remaining but which in no case shall exceed:
a. 1/5 of the remaining period of the original sentence
b .6 months
c. one (1) year
d. 2 years
235. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before serving his
sentence or while serving the same he committed a crime of murder. What
condition is said to have occurred?
a. recidivism
b. reiteration
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
236. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of a true and
genuine document. It is likewise committed by falsification through
erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the
figures, letters, words or signs contained therein (Art. 169)
a. Falsification of public document
b.Forgery
c. Falsification
d.Fasification by public officer, employee or notary or ecclesiastical
minister
237. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker and
sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
b. Theft through falsification of a public document
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries
238. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction, by
falsely representing himself as an officer and performing under pretense
of official position any act pertaining to such person.
a. usurpation of authority
b. estafa
c. usurpation of official functions
d. a & c
239. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself without
authority of the law.
a. alias
b. A.K.A.
c. fictitious names
d. true name
240. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are required to
testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a
competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something contrary to
it.
a. forgery b. perjury
c. falsification d. false testimony
241.Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs,
which having been committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal
to persons who have witness the same.
a. immoral doctrines
b. obscene publication and exhibition
c. grave scandal
d. libel
242. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has
the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or herself to
lawful calling.
a. bum b. vagrant
c. prostitute d. destitute
243. It is the improper performance of some acts which should have been
lawfully be done.
a. malfeasance
b. misfeasance
c. nonfeasance
d. dereliction of duty
244. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an unjust
order which decides some point or matter but which however, is not a
final decisions of the matter in issue:
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
b. Judgment rendered through negligence
c. Unjust interlocutory order
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – revelation of
secrets
245. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in

dereliction of the duties of his office, shall maliciously refrain from
instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of law, or shall
tolerate the commission of offenses.
a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Qualified bribery
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution of offenses
246. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee who shall
agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in connection with the
performance of his official duties, in consideration of any offer,
promise, gift or present received by such officer, personally or through
the mediation of another.
a. Direct bribery
c. Qualified bribery
b. Indirect bribery
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in prosecution
247. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement who refrain
from arresting or prosecuting an offender who has committed a crime
punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or death in consideration of any
offer, promise, gift or present.
a. bribery b. direct bribery
c. qualified bribery d.indirect bribery
248. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who shall

become interested in any transaction within his territory, subject to his
jurisdiction during his incumbency.
a. Prohibited transaction b. Possession of prohibited
interest by a public officer
c. Fraud against public treasury
d. Prevarication
249. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall
appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, or through
abandonment or negligence shall permit another person to take public
funds or property.
a. Direct bribery
b. Technical malversation
c. Malversation of public funds
d. Embezzelment
250. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public

officers:
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoner b. Infidelity in the
custody of documents
c. Revelation of secrets
d. all of these
251. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall overdo
himself in the correction or handling of a prisoner or detention prisoner
under his charge by the imposition of punishment not authorize by the
regulations or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
a. Police brutality
b.Sadism
c. Maltreament of prisoners
d. Physical injures
252. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or make
immoral advances to a woman under his custody or to other women like the
wife, daughter, sister or relative within the same degree by affinity of
any person in the custody of a warden or officer.
a. Sexual harassment
b. Abuses against chastity
c. Acts of Lasciviousness
d. Abuse of authority
Case Situation:
Benny B. Rotsa got married to Ms. Pining Garcia. After 4years from
of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a child. Benny had
an illicit relation with Ms. Malou W. Ang ( a neighbor), who gave birth
to child (C). Pining learned about Benny’s relation with Ms. Malou. To
cover their illicit relation, Benny intentionally killed his illegitimate
infant at its 72 hours age.
253. For what crime Benny can be charged?

a. homicide b. parricide
c. murder d. infanticide
254. What if it is Pining who killed the infant?
255. What if it is the father of Benny who killed the infant?
256. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is committed
by Benny, Pining or the father of Benny?
257. It is the violent expulsion of a human fetus from the maternal womb
of birth which results in death.
a. infanticide b.abortion
c. murder d. parricide
258. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant
to quarrel among the several persons not continuing a group and the
perpetrators cannot be ascertained.
a. homicide
b.murder
c. death caused by tumultuous affray
d. riots
259. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the death of
their unborn child is guilty of:
a. parricide
b. abortion
c. intentional abortion
d. unintentional abortion
260. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties
in the presence of two or more seconds of lawful age on each side, who
make the selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
a. riot
b. duel
c. tumultuous affray
d. mutilation
261. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a
woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the latter of its
true.
a. physical injury
b. duel
c. tumultuous affray
d. mutilation
262. What crime is committed by person who assaulted another, causing the
latter to be absent from work for two weeks?
a. mutilation
b. serious physical injury
c. less serious physical injury
d. slight physical injury
263. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a child less than
12 years old.
a. rape
b. acts of lasciviousness (lewd conducts no amounting to rape)
c. seduction (having carnal knowledge of a woman below 18 above 12
through deceit or marital promise)
d. abduction (taking away of a woman with lewd design)
264. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days is guilty
of:
a. illegal detention
c. serious illegal detention
d. slight illegal detention
265. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted the latter
for the purpose of delivering his victims to the jailer is guilty of what
crime?
a. illegal detention
b. illegal arrest
c. unlawful arrest
d. physical injuries
266. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another with
the infliction upon the person, honor or property of the latter or of his
family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. grave coercion
d. light coercion
267. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is made by

another, what crime is committed?
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. graver coercion
d. light coercion
268. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything belonging
to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to the payment of a
debt, is committing.
a. grave threat b. light threat

c. graver coercion d. light coercion
269. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force,
violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right
or wrong.
a. grave threat
b. light threat
c. grave coercion
d. light coercion
270. It includes human conduct, which although not productive of some
physical or material harm would annoy any innocent person
a. light threat
b. light coercion
c. unjust vexation
d. grave coercion
271. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with intent to
gain by means of violence against, or intimidations upon things of any
person, or using force upon anything.
a. robbery b. theft
c. brigandage d. estafa
273. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the owner, what
crime was committed?
a. a theft
b. robbery
c. possession of pick locks
d. possession of false key
274. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a
band for the purpose of committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping
persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any
other purpose to be attained by means of force & violence.
a. robbery b. kidnapping
c. brigandage d. theft
275. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but without violence
or intimidation of persons nor force upon things shall take personal
property of another without latter’s consent.
a. robbery b. kidnapping
c. brigandage d. theft
276. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture
of her employer would be charged of what crime?
a. theft b. robbery
c. qualified theft d. estafa
277. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property
would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
a. estafa
b. chattel mortgage
c. usurpation
d. altering boundaries or landmarks
278. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of

causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil motive.
a. swindling (estafa)
b. destruction of property
c. malicious mischief
d. chattel mortgage
279. What crime was committed by a married woman having carnal knowledge
with a man not her husband?
a. adultery
b. concubinage
c. acts of lasciviousness
d. seduction
280. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their conjugal
dwelling is liable of what crime?
a. adultery
b. concubinage
d. seduction
281. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not amounting to rape
by using force or intimidation.
a. adultery
b. concubinage
d. seduction
282. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his penis over
the woman’s genital organ is liable for what crime?
a. rape
b. seduction
c. forcible seduction
d. acts of lasciviousness
283. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by
promising the latter with marriage, what crime was committed?
a. seduction
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. abduction
d. none of the foregoing
284. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces of
jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding. The latter however,
pawned the said jewelries and misappropriated the same. What would be the
proper offense committed by Luz?
a. swindling (estafa) b. theft
c. robbery d. malicious mischief
285. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an absolutory

cause which could serves as an exemption against members of the family
from criminal ability in crimes against properties.
a. Robbery b. theft
c. malicious mischief
d. estafa
286. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and prosecution

of person alleged to have committed a crime.
a. Criminal procedure
b. Criminal jurisprudence
c. rules of court
d. rules of procedure
287. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Jurisprudence
c. Venue
d. territory
288. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where
the power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in
criminal case.
a. Venue
b. Jurisprudence
c. jurisdiction
d. court
289. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
c. concurrent
300. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the

others.
c. concurrent jurisdiction
301. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes,

treats of their nature and provides for their punishment.
a. civil law b. procedural law
c. criminal law d. substantive law
302. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:

a. Act 3815
b. City and municipal ordinance
c. Special penal laws
d. constitution
303. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal laws
in the Philippines. It took effect on?
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8,
d. January 1, 1933
304. The following are characteristics of classical theory of criminal

law, EXCEPT:
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of
the penalty is retribution.
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely free will to
choose between good and evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect
or result of the felonious act than the man.
c. there is scant regard to the human element.

d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and morbid phenomenon
which constrains him to do wrong, in spite of or contrary to his
violation.
305. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are acts
committed or omitted in violations of special laws?
a. felony
b. offense
c. misdemeanor
d. in fractional law)
306. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of criminal

law. What characteristics of criminal law states that criminal law is
binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines?
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
307. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, EXCEPT:
a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
b. Those who are immune under the law of preferential application
c. Those who are exempted under Public International law
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
308. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on

January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance was passed punishing
loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for
his act of loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it

b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law
d. No, for a did not loiter again
309. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above circumstance

falls?
a. Generality b. Territoriality
c. Prospective d. Retroactive
310. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
a. Pro reo
b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
d. Actus me invitusfactus non
311. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot be criminal
unless the mind is criminal”.
a. Pro reo
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
312. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a judicial
determination of guilt.
a. Ex post facto law (a law that punishes a crime prior to its

implementation)
b. Bill of attainder
c. Retroactive law
d. Prospective
313. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability under the
principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
a. Heads of states
b. ambassador
b. ministers of plenipotentiary
d. charges d affaires
e. None
314. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another country can
either be triable in that country or in the country where the vessel is
registered. What rule provides that a crime committed on board vessel
shall be NOT tried in the court of the country having territorial
jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and security of
the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
a. French rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
315. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the external
world.
a. act
b. Omission
c. Dolo
d. Culpa
316. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
a. Deceit
b. Fault
c. Culpa
d. Intent
317. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
a. evil b. mala in ce
c. mala in se d.mala prohibita
318. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
a. intent b. motive
c. deceit d. fault
319. The following are crime committed by mistakes which does not operate
as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. PreaterIntentionem
d. Mistake in fact
320. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence, unbroken
by any efficient intervening cause, produces the injury without which the
result would not have occurred.
a. Proximate cause
b. Intervening cause
c. Immediate cause
d. Probable cause
321. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of physical injuries

inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were inflicted was in
normal heath.
b. The death may be expected from the physical injuries inflicted.
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the victim.
322. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
a. That the act performed would be an offense against persons or
property.
b. That the act was done with evil intent
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, or that the
means employed is either inadequate or ineffectual.
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of negligence or
imprudence.
323. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he

thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a sugar. Y was not
killed as a consequence.
a. Mistake in the blow
b. No crime committed
c. preaterintentionem
d. impossible crime
324. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem proper
to repress and which is not punishable by law, it shall:
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Executive,
through the Department of Justice
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the
Department of Justice.
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court.
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court.
325. This takes place when the offender commences that commission of a
felony by overt acts, and does not perform all the acts of execution
which should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other
than his own spontaneous desistance.
a. Consummated b. Frustrated
c. Attempted d.Impossible crime
326. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury, What crime is
committed by A?
a. Physical Injury
b.Frustrated Homicide
c. Attempted Homicide
d. Less serious physical injury
327. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:
a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony as a consequence
but the felony is not produced.
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous
desistance.
328. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of her
husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the stage of convulsion,
Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and administer an antidote causing Mr.
William to survive but left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs.
Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
d. less serious physical injury
329. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting from
the point where the offender begins the commission of the crime to that
point where he has still control over his acts including their (acts)
natural course.
a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
c. Internal Act
d. Act of Execution
330. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining stage of
execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony; and
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
331. Light felonies as a general rule should only be punishable when
consummated, EXCEPT:
a. On crimes against persons and chastity
b. On crimes against person and property
c. On crimes against property and chastitY
d. On crimes against chastity and honor
332. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning

the commission of a felony and decide to commit it.
a. Proposal to commit a crime
b. Conspiracy and proposal to commit a crime
c. Conspiracy to commit a crime d. Instigation to commit a
crime
333. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the Banco de Oro.
While having their meeting at their safe-house, a group of PNP personnel
arrested them. What crime was committed by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly c. Conspiracy to commit
robbery
b. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
334. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in their
secret safe house. While they are planning how to commit the crime,
operatives of the NBI barged in and arrested the group.
What crime was committed by A,B and C?
a. No crime was committed
b. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere conspiracy to commit a
crime is not punishable
c. Attempted robbery
d. Frustrated robbery
335. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital
punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
336. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal laws,
what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC
337. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as its

author or owner. It implies that the act committed has been freely and
consciously done and may therefore be put down to the doer as his very
own.
a. Guilt b. Liability
c. Responsibility d. Imputability
338. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so
that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free
from both criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
339. The following circumstances except the person from both criminal and
civil liability, EXCEPT.
a. Self-Defense, Defense of Stranger and Defense of Relatives.
b. Fulfillment of a duty or in the lawful exercise of a right or
office.
c. Obedience to an order issued by a superior for some lawful
purpose.
d. Avoidance of Greater evil or injury.
e. None of these
340. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT

a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel
it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person
defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself.
341. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense
since there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the conditions
which make the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying b. Mitigating c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
342. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of Ms.
IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
343. The following circumstances exempt a person from criminal liability

though there is civil liability considering that there is crime
committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
c. Accident
b. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal
or greater injury.
344. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment.
345. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon commission
of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
d. Those who are 18 years of age
346. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty imposed.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Absolutory cause
d. Exempting circumstances
347. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of his trial he
died. What would be the effect of his death on the case involved and on
his criminal liability?
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his criminal liability is
extinguished.
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal liability is not
extinguished.
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his resurrection.
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his relatives
will be the one to face trial and punished in case of his conviction.
348. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
a. Spontaneous desistance (Art. 6)

b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal liability by reason of
relationship (Art. 20)
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical injuries under
exceptional circumstances (Art. 247)
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft swindling and
malicious mischief by relationship to the offended party (Art. 332)
e. All of these
349. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all crimes
such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
a. generic b. specific c. qualifying d.
Inherent
350. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her using
the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is committed aggravated by
what circumstances?
a. ignominy b. passion c. cruelty d. Craft
351. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past
offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single individual and is
usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political
offenders, who are subject to trial but not yet convicted.
a. Pardon
b. Commutation
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
352. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death penalty?
a. RA 6981 b. P.D. 968 c. R.A. 9346 d. R.A.
4103
353. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10) years
from the date of his release or last conviction of the crimes of Serious
Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification
is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or offener?
a. Recidivist b. Quasi recidivist
c. Reiteration d. habitual delinquent
354. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of

alternative circumstances, except:
a. Low degree education
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not
a habitual drunkard.
c. Relationship in crimes against property
d. Relationship in crimes against persons
355. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
a. principals
b. accessories
c. accomplice
d. instigators
356. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is regarded
as:
a. principal by direct participation b. principal by
indispensable cooperation
c. principal by induction
d. instigators
357. The desire or wish in common thing
a. intent b. motive c. conspire d. cooperate
358. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of another
person is liable as:
a. principal b. accessory c. accomplice
d. conspirator
359. Person who aide the felons to hide away evidences or profit from the
fruits of the crime are said to be:
a. principal b. accessory c. accomplice
d. conspirator
360. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property

to meet the fine.
a. subsidiary penalty
b. suspension
c. penalty
d.civil interdiction
361. A form of protection rather than a penalty in cases of Art. 247 of

the RPC.
b. suspension
c. Distiero
d.civil interdiction
362. In cases where in the commission of an offense is necessary in the
commission of another it is said the crime is:
a. formal crime
b. informal crime
c. compound crime
d. complex crime
363. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
a. degree
b. period
c. prescription d. duration
364. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law
subject to the termination by the parole board at any time after service
of the sentence.
a. suspension
b. indeterminate sentence
c. prescription
d. period of penalty
365. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute
the offender for the commission of a crime after a certain lapse of time.
a. prescription of the crime
b. prescription of the penalty
c. degree of the penalty d. period of penalty
366. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how
many years?
a. 15 years b. 1year
367. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and reclusion
temporal shall prescribe in:
a. 20 years b. 15 years
368. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in how

many years?
a. 20 years b. 15 years
369. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months b. 6 months
c. 4 months d. 2 months
370. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this week”.
A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B and shot him but killed
C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime committed by A is:
a. Attempted murder
b. frustrated murder
c. illegal discharge of firearm
d. all of these
371. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is:
a. frustrated homicide
b. murder
c. consummated homicide
d. none of the above
372. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide (consummated) which

is punishable by Reclusion Perpetua. He pleaded guilty to the charge at
the arraignment. Determine his penalty.
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to Reclusion temporal
(minimum period) as the maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to Reclusion temporal (any
period) as the maximum period of the indeterminate penalty
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to reclusion perpetua
as maximum
d. Prision mayor
373. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) punishable

by prision correctional. There was one aggravating circumstances in the
commission of the crime let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his
penalty.
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to Prision correctional
(maximum period) as maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to Prision correctional
(any period) as maximum period of the indeterminate penalty
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as maximum period
d. None of the above
374. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old
375. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the
offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
376. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the
final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgment
D. prescription of penalty
377. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is
suspended.
A. Pardon (total/partial extinction)
B. commutation (mitigation of sentence)
C. amnesty (general pardon)
D. reprieve
378. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more
orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
379. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in
the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy (roberry in the high seas)
380. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence ( lacking self-restraint )
C. omission
D. act (perfomance)
381. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance (improper performance)
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

a. Children 15 years of age belowb. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense since
there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the conditions which make
the act voluntary or negligent.
a. Justifying b. Exempting
c. Mitigating d. Aggravating
When a public officer convinces a person to commit a felony and would
arrest him or her after its commission he is committing.
a. instigation b. entrapment
b. conspiracy d. proposal
It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES depending upon
what the law provides and cannot be offset by any aggravating
circumstances.
Mitigating Circumstances
Exempting circumstances
OrdinaryMitigating Circumstances
PrivilegeMitigating circumstances
Is a crime in which a person who at the time of his trial for one crime
shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime
to which the law attached an equal or of grater punishment or which is
not embraced under the same title of the RPC?
Recidivism
Reiteracion
Quasi- recidivism
Habitual deliquency
The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative
circumstances, except:
a. Low degree education
b. Intoxication wherein the drunken person has not intended it or not a
habitual drunkard.
c. Relationship in crimes against property
d. Relationship in crimes against persons.
Crimes are classified in various categories. What classifications of
crime is when a single act results to or more serious or less serious
offenses.
Continuing Crime
Complex crime or delito complejo
Special complex crime
Compound crime or delito compuesto
Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle from Mr.
C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. Goddard sold the gun. Since
Mr. Pitts is in an Island for vacation and the only way to reach the
island is to ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton,
the owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the island. Also
knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton allowed the boat to be rented
for a much higher price. Mr. Dellinger successfully reached the island
and killed Mr. R. Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested
the service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s Pitts Body
in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was the crime committed by Mr.
Dellinger?
Homicide
Murder
Parricide
Manslaughter
What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
Principal by direct participation
Principal by induction
Principal by indispensable cooperation
Accomplice
What about Mr. C. Goddard?
Principal
Accomplice
Accessory
What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?

Principal
Accomplice
Accessory
The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
Obedience to a lawful order
Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or performance of duty
A person who acts under compulsion of an irresistible force
Avoidance of greater evil or injury
The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio without a
complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT:
Seduction
Rape
Abduction
Acts of Lasciviousness
What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal property
belonging to another is committed with grave abuse of confidence?
Robbery
Qualified Theft
Theft
Burglary
What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of murder with the

use of unlicensed firearm?
Murder
Illegal Possession of firearm
Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a person in a

manner that is determined and constant until the lawful purpose is
realize, the crime committed is:
Threat
Grave threat
Coercions
Light threat
When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the offended party does
not amount to a crime the designation of the offense is called
Threats
Grave threats
Light Threats
Coercion
A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or interrupt
the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the same is liable for:
Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
dissolution of peaceful meeting
Interruption of peaceful meeting
all of the above.
If a private person removes a person confined in jail or penal
institution or helps in the escape of such person by means of violence,
intimidation, bribery or any other means, the crime committed is:
Evasion of service of sentence
Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
Delivery of prison from jail
corruption of public official
Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months b. 4 months
c. 6 months d. 2 months
X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her, using the
dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is committed aggravated by
what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to
national defense with intent to be used to the injury of the Republic of
the Philippines.
a. treason b.
conspiracy to commit treason c.
espionage
d. misprision to treason
To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper

judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of committing a felony
punishable by penalties which are correctional in nature must be
delivered to said authorities within how many hours?
a. 12 b. 36
c. 18 d. 48
Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads are allowed under
the following circumstance.
Amendments as to substance
Amendments as to form
Amendments that change the nature of the offense
None of these
The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil liability
arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted with the criminal
action. This rule does not apply in the following instances, EXCEPT.
When the offended party waives the civil action
When the offended party reserves the right to institute separate civil
action
When the offended party institute the criminal action
When the offended party institute the civil action prior to the criminal
action.
The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall be
made:
Before the arraignment
During the pre-trial conference
Before the prosecution rest
Before the prosecution present evidence
The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the criminal
case, EXCEPT:
Motion for postponement
Counter affidavit
Counterclaim
Third party complaint
The petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the
pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action may be filed with the
following, EXCEPT one:
The court where the civil action is pending
The court where the criminal action is pending
Office of the prosecutor
None of these
Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required before the

filing of a complaint or information where the penalty for the offense
is:
At least 6 years and 1 day
At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
4 years, 2 months and 1 day
Exceeding 6 years and one day
The following may be submitted by the respondent in a preliminary
investigation, EXEPT:
Counter-affidavit
Motion to dismiss
Witness counter affidavit
supporting documents
The following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation on cases falling within their jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
Provincial prosecutor
City prosecutor
Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
Judges of Municipal trial court
An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and
of the application for admission to bail may be punish with death is
called:
Capital punishment
Heinous crime
Capital Offense
Grave offense
The court may dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency of
evidence:
On the motion of the accused filed with prior leave of court
By its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be
heard
On motion of the accused thru counsel
A and B only
Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben which was
snatched from him three days ago. He confronted the latter and force to
get back said cell phone against his will. For what crime or crimes may
Manuel be liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion b. Robbery
c. Threats d. Theft
The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
The accused may enter his plea by counsel
The accused must personally enter his plea
The accused must excused/waived arraignment
The accused may be arraigned in a court other than where the case is
assigned.
Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense and the
evidence of guilt is strong.
Wholly true
Wholly false
Partly true
d. Partly false
Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under the custody
of the law. It should be made at:
Anytime of the day
anytime of the day and night
Anytime of the morning
d. anytime of the night
It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with kettles, his horns,
etc, designated to deride or annoy:
Charivari
Grave scandal
Alarm and Scandal
Harana
The application for search warrant may be filed with the following,
EXCEPT:
Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed.
Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed
Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
Any Court Within judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced
An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level court shall
be by:
Notice of appeal
by Petition for review
Petition for review on certiorari
Petition for certiorari
After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss due to
insufficiency of evidence by:
The courts own initiative
By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer to evidence
By the prosecution on its own initiative
a and b only
Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the escape of his
brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail guard to leave the door
unlocked so as to facilitate the escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the
door unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was
committed by the Warden?
Evasion of service of sentence
Direct Bribery
Delivery of prison from jail
corruption of public official
What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives with the
prisoner?
Conniving with or consenting to evasion
Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
Delivering prisoner from jail
A and B
A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral or indecent
advances to a woman who is under his custody or wife or daughter of the
person under his custody shall be liable for:
Acts of lasciviousness
Abuses against Chastity
Indirect Bribery
infidelity in the custody of prisoners
Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence which
means that evidence must have such relation to the fact in issue as to
induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The other requisite is
____________?
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
d. That it is the best evidence
Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral
matters are not allowed. Except:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or
improbability of the fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on other
related evidence.
Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a person
will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what requisites of
admissibility?
a. materiality c. competency
b. relevancy d. credibility
It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier of
facts because of its logical connection with the issue. Evidence which
has an effective influence or bearing to the question?
a. material b. relevant
c. competent d. credible
The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment of more
than 6 years shall become permanent ________ after issuance of the order
without the case having been revived.
One year
six months
Two years
three years
Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court
trial conference?
30 days
20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a
plea of not guilty is entered?
The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court is
called?
R.A. 7691
R.A. 3019 (anti graft and corrupt practices act)
R.A. 8493
B.P. 129
Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of
public officer in charged of enforcement of the law violated filed either
Complaint
Information
Pleadings
affidavit
Prescription of offense commence to run:
Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or peace officers or
their agent.
Upon filing of cases in court
Upon escape of the accused
Upon re-appearance of the accuse
The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure EXCEPT:

Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
Violation of traffic laws
Violation of rental laws
Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute

litigant?
a. Counsel de officio c. counsel de parte
b. Public Attorney’s Office d.National
Prosecution Office
It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to
a. subpoena c. subpoena duces tecum
b. subpoena ad testificandum d. warrant of arrest
When reception of evidence is discretionary under the following
circumstances:
b. plea of guilty to capital offense.
C. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense.
d. all of these
The order of trial is:
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any other
appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
b. Emotional security items
c. support item
d. none of these
It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of justice.
a. leading questions
c. misleading
b. relevant
d. narrative
Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence of
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
c. The measure of time
b. Law of nations
d. Law of nature
Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise of its
discretion, EXCEPT.
a. The geographical divisions
b.Matter which are of public knowledge;
c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial
functions.
Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These
requisites are:
a. The matter must be one of common and general knowledge.
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not doubtful or
uncertain
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the jurisdiction of the
court.
d. All of these
Self incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt
made by a party in the course of the proceeding in the same case which
does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. self serving statement
c. declaration against interest
d. confession
When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no evidence
shall be admissible other than the original documents itself. This refers
to the _____.
a. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
When the original has been lost or destroyed or under cannot be produced
in court, without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party
against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it
after reasonable notice;
When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents which
cannot be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the general result of the
whole; and
When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer
or is recorded in a public office.
(e) All of the choices
What are secondary evidence?
A Certified true COPY of a document
A recital of its contents in some authentic document
Testimony of witnesses
All of these
When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is

considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be, as
between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
terms other than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol evidence Rule b. parol evidence
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, can make known
of their perception to others can be witness and the following shall not
be a ground for disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law
d. All of these
An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and Benefit program
and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
c. R.A. 6646
b. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct
ascendants, children or other direct descendants. This is embodied under
what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. res inter alois acta rule
An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any liability
and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on the following
case, EXCEPT.
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence (quasi-offense)
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other
expenses occasioned by an injury.
d. In criminal cases
A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea of
guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea
of offer.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea of
offer
c. shall not be considered an plea
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or
omission of another, except as provided by the rules of court.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or saying anything when
an act or declaration is said against him in his presence.
The following are the requirements in determining child’s competency as a

witness EXCEPT:
a. capacity of Observation
b. capacity of Recollection (remember)
c. capacity of Communication
d. capacity to Comprehend (understand)
Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made by several person

charged with the same offense and without the possibility of collision
among them, the fact that the statements are in all respects identical is
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and are admissible
against the other persons implicated therein.
a. interlocking confessions
c. res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by privies
d. confession by co-defendant
An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or
observation of a party who does or says nothing when the act or
declaration is such as to call for action or comment if not true, and
when proper and possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence
against him.
a. admission by silence b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?

a. That a witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of
his personal knowledge; that ism which are derived from his own
perception.
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in court
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the authority of another
person.
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to facts of which the
witness has no personal knowledge because it is derived from the
knowledge or perception of others who are not called to testify.
The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an
impending death, may be received in any case wherein his death is the
subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding
circumstances of such death.
a. Dying declaration
b. res gestae
c. declaration against interest
d. declaration about pedigree
Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in issue
necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence
required by law.
a. burden of evidence
b. burden of proof
c. proof of evidence
d. cause of action
463. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia anchored at
Manila Bay wherein an Australian national was caught in possession of
Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime committed while on board of the
vessel.
a. French rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
464. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
guardianship.
b. penalty
c. suspension
d. civil interdiction
It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual relationship to a
married man.
This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
d. Partly false
466. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:

a. death by lethal injection
b. reclusion perpetua
c. reclusion temporal
d. prison mayor
It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual relationship to a

married woman.
This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
d. Partly false
467. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from
conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on
material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
468. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence
of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
469. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render
judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8, 1930
d. January 1, 1933
471. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
472. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be

entered.
a. Not guilty
b. admission by silence
c. guilty
d. none
473. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following
circumstances:
b. plea of guilty to capital offense
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
d. all of these
474. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging
among others the defect of the complaint or information and the details
desired in order to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial.
This motion is known as:
a. motion for bill of particular
b. motion for clarification
d. motion for postponement
475. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on
the following grounds:
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
b. There exist a prejudicial question.
c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is
pending either at the DOJ or office of the President .
d. All of these
476. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused
is:
a. Motion to quash
b. nolleprosequi
d. bill of particulars
477. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or
the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the offender after
the lapse of certain definite period from the commission of the offense.
a. Prescription of crime
b. acquisitive
c. prescription of penalty
d. extinctive
478. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of
being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time.
a. double jeopardy
b. double trial
c. double trouble
d. double counter
479. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not

exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall become
permanent after ____.
a. one year b. 2 years (exceeding 6 years) c. 5 years d. 4 years
480. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court
trial conference?
481. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial
after a plea of not guilty is entered?
482. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the
following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation
except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
483. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or

under custodial investigation as well as duties of the arresting
detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438 b. R.A. 7348 c. R.A. 7834
d. R.A. 3478
484. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
485. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are
prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
486. In preliminary investigation, the respondent may submit the
following except:
a. counter-affidavit
b. witness affidavit
d. supporting evidence
487. The following cases committed by public official with salary grade
27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan,
Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2,
chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with
executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
d. None of these
488. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to
crimes against person, making crime prosecutable even without a complaint
filed the offender party?
a. R.A. 8353 b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493 d. R.A. 7055
489. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided by
Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for
recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to institute the
civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the
criminal action.
d. all of these
490. Mrs. Sitaw, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer Panday and
Councilor Supot were surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
government projects and for their relocation. The residents oppose with
the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor
Sitaw when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor
defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For
what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Sitaw?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
491. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in
authority
It should be noted that the assault should be mad without public
uprising.
individual or as a member of some court or government corporation, board
or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
d. Public employee
493. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey
any person in authority, or the agents of such person, while engaged in
the performance of official functions.
a. Direct assault
b. Indirect Assault
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of
such person
494. In applying the provisions of Article 148 and 151 of the RPC the
following shall be deemed a person in authority while in the performance
of their professional duties as amended by B.P. 873. Approved June 12,
1985, EXCEPT:
a. Teachers b. Lawyers
c. Professors d. Barangay Tanod Officer
495. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order (
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances c.
Alarms and scandals
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
e. None of these
496. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the
air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his birthday. Such
act constitutes ___?
a. illegal discharge of firearm
b. alarm & scandals
c. disturbances
d. outcry
497. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner), gave
20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the escape of her brother
is guilty of what crime?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
c. delivering prisoners from jail
b. Bribery d. Corruption of public official
498. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of

service of sentence.
a. By means of unlawful entry (by scaling).
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or
intimidation.
d. Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal
institution.
e. All of these
Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court
trial conference?
30 days
20 days
c. 15 days
d. 60 days
How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a
plea of not guilty is entered?
Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a
complaint filed by whom?
a.Parents
b. Offended Spouse
c. Guardians
d.Godfather
502. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public
policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. complex crimes
503. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it

was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime
504. The law which re-imposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553 (Anti Rape Law)
C. RA 7659 (death penalty)
D. RA 8551 (Police Act 1998)
505. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom

of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. insanity
B. epilepsy
C. imbecility
D. feeblemindedness
506. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its
owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability
507. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it
comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bound s of
humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny
508. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices,
usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws
509. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime

any of all the conditions that would make an act. Voluntary and hence,
though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
510. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with
the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
511. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers
slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the
consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
512. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the
same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism
513. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty
C. rule of law
515. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release
or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of
any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
517. It means mistake in the blow.
A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
518. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
519. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of

facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony
520. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a
judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact?
a. Evidence b. Facts
c. Proof d. Burden of proof
521. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It
is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of action?
a. Factum probandum
b. Evidence
c. factum probans
d. proof
522. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise provided
by law or these rules.
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
c. dependent on the type of case involved
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
523. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence

which means that evidence must have such relation to the fact in issue as
to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The other requisite
is ____?
a. That it should not be excluded for by law
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
c. That it is credible
d. That it is the best evidence
524 Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral
matters are not allowed. Except:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the
probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on
other related evidence
525. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a
person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what
requisites of admissibility?
a. materiality b. relevancy c. competency
d. credibility
526. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier of
facts because of its logical connection with the issue. Evidence which
has an effective influence or bearing to the question?
a. material b. competent c. relevant d.
credible
527. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or know of the
factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
a. negative b. affirmative
c. positive d. Alibi
528. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove the same

facts in issue. Evidence which are supplementary to that already given
and tending to strengthen or confirm it.
a. Corroborative b. Associative
c. Commulative d. Credible
529. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the

logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record, exclusive of any
other consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of the accused
or that degree of proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced
mind.
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence (civil)
d. Substantial evidence(admin)
530. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to establish the
facts or to counterbalance the presumptions of innocence to warrant a
conviction.
a. Prima-facie evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Rebuttal evidence
d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
531. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Matters of Public Knowledge
b. Law of nation
c. The measure of time
d. Law of nature
532. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of its
discretion, EXCEPT:
a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge
c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial
functions.
533. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These
requisites are:
a. The matter must be one of common and general knowledge.
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not doubtful or
uncertain.
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the jurisdiction of the
court.
d. All of these
534. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a

party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow the parties to be
heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a material issue in the case?
a. after the trial
b. before judgment
c. on appeal
d. all of these
535. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgment of
guilt made by a party in the course of the proceeding in the same case
which does not require proof.
a. Admission
b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement
536. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
537. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no
evidence shall be admissible other than the original documents itself.
This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
538. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed orunder cannot be
produced in court, without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party
against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it
after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents
which cannot be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of the public
officer or is recorded in a public office.
e. All of these
539. The following are considered original document, EXCEPT

a. The original of a document is one of the contents of which are the
subject of inquiry.
b. When the document is in two or more copies executed at or about the
same time, with identical contents, all such copies are equally regarded
as originals.
c. When an entry is repeated in the regular course of business, one being
copied from another at or near the time of the transaction, all the
entries are likewise equally regarded as originals.
d. When the document is more than 30 years old kept in a place where it
is normally to be found and not embellished by any alteration.
540. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be
reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of its execution or
existence and the cause of its unavailability without bad faith on his
part, may prove its contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents
in some authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in the order
stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
541. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or cannot be produced in
court, without bad faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under the control of the
party against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
produce it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents
which cannot be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact
whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of a public
officer or is recorded in a public office
e. All of these
542. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of these
543. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is
considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be, as
between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
terms other than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
544. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a party

presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to the terms of the
written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
545. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence can be
accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the
written agreement;
b. The failure of the written agreement to express the true intent and
agreement of the parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties or their
successors in interest after the execution of the written agreement.
e. All of these
546. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving can make
known of their perception to others can be witness and the following
shall not be a ground for disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief

b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. Conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law
d. All of these
547. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person to be
state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused whose
discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the proper prosecution
for the offense committed except the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be substantially corroborated in its
material points;
d. Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted of an offense
involving moral turpitude;
f. All of these
548. An Act Providing for a Witness Protection, Security and Benefit

program and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981 b.P.D.749
c. R.A. 6646 d. R.A. 6770
549. The following are grounds for disqualification to be a witness,
EXCEPT:
a. Disqualification by reason of mental incapacity or immaturity.
b. Children whose mental maturities make them incapable of perceiving and
relating what was perceived truthfully.
c. Disqualification between spouses by reason of marriage, except on
certain cases filed against one another or their direct descendants or
ascendants.
d. Conviction of a crime involving moral turpitude.
550. It is the rule which disqualified a parties or assignors of parties
to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is prosecuted, from
testifying against an executor or administrator or other representative
of the deceased person or against person of unsound mind, upon a claim or
demand against the estate of such deceased person or against such person
of unsound mind, on any matter of fact occurring before the death of such
deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind.
a. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of adverse party (Dead
Man rule)
b. Declaration against interest (Dead man’s statute)
c. Disqualification by reason of privilege communication
d. Admission by privies
551. Which of the following persons are covered by disqualification by
reason of privileged communication?
a. Husband and wife during or after the marriage as to any communication
received in confidence by one from another during the marriage.
b. Attorney-client, on any communication made by the client to him, or
his advice given in view of the professional employment nor an attorney’s
secretary, stenographer, or clerk be examined.
c. Physician-patient, to any advice or treatment given by him or any
information acquired in attending to such patient in a professional
capacity, and which would blacken the reputation of the patient.
d. Priest-confessant, as to any confessional character in the course of
the discipline enjoined by the church to which the minister or priest
belongs.
e. A public officer, during his term of office or afterwards, as to
communications made to him in official confidence, when the court finds
that the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.
f. All of the choices
552. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or examination
of bank deposits. As a general rule bank deposits are absolutely
confidential in nature and may not examined or inquired or looked into by
any person or government officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber, dereliction of duty
of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is the subject matter of
litigation
e. in cases of unexplained wealth
f. all of the choices
553. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other
direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants. This is embodied
under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. declaration against Parental relationship
554. Are those made by a party against himself as to relevant fact and
are admissible in evidence against him.
a. admission
b. confession
c. self-serving statement
d. declaration against interest
556. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any

liability and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on the
following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence (quasi-offense)
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses
occasioned by an injury
d. In criminal cases
557. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
558. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
559. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from

conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on
material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
560. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence
of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
C. rule of law
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1932
c. December 8, 1930
d. January 1, 1933
intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
564. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of
their nature and provides for their punishment?
Act 3815
Criminal Law
Revised Penal Code
Criminal Procedure
565. The following are the exceptions to the police power of the state to
in act criminal laws, EXCEPT:
Violate the equal protection clause of the Constitution.
Partakes the nature of Ex post facto law
Partakes the nature of Bill of attainder
Imposes cruel and unusual punishment or excessive fines.
None of these
Which of the following characteristics of the Criminal law states that
laws shall have no retroactive effect and that the law shall be forward
and the judges should be backward.
Generality
Territoriality
Prospectively
Dynamically
Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
territory regardless of sex, race or religious affiliation. EXCEPT
matters covered by:
Treaty Stipulation
Public International Law
Law of Preferential Application
All of these
By Principles of Public International law, the following enjoin immunity
from the application of the Philippine Criminal law, EXCEPT:
Consul
Heads of State
Ambassador
d. Minister de affaires
Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or forbidding it:
Crimes
Felonies
Offense
Infractions of law
Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal liability is
human free will, the purpose of punishment is retribution and is
generally exemplified in the Revised Penal Code.
Eclectic(religious/church)
Classical Theory (free will)
Positivist Theory (scientific)
Neo-Classical Theory (modified free will theory)
The Rule applies on Registered vessel on Foreign territorial jurisdiction
which generally follows the Nationality Principle and not the Domiciliary
Principle except when the crime committed on board vessels affects the
national security of the Country where such vessel is located.
Frenc Rule
English Rule
Spanish Rule
d. Greek Rule
The Revised Penal Code otherwise known as Act 3815 took effect on:
a. January 1, 1923
b. January 1, 1922
c. January 1, 1932
d. January 1, 1933
A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence
being the substitution of legislative fiat for a judicial determination
of guilt.
a. Ex post facto law c. Retroactivity
b. Bill of attainder d. Prospective
Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of Dolo or Deceit?

Intent
Freedom
Intelligence
Negligence
These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself but the doer is
found to have transgress the law for act which it prohibits.
Crime
Felonies
Mala in se
Mala Prohibita
Is that act performed which would be an offense against persons or
property where it not for the inherent or legal impossibility of its
accomplishment.
Mala in se
mala prohibita
Impossible crime
Formal crimes
It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and not an
essential element of a crime but would tend to establish the identity of
the perpetrator.
Intent
Motive
Negligence
ignorance
The following are causes which would produce criminal liability though
the result be different from what is intended, EXCEPT:
Abberatio ictus
Error in Personae
Preater intentionem
Ignorantia Facti
The offender performs all the acts of execution that would produce the
felony as a consequence but the felony is not produced by reason of
causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
Attempted
Consummated
Frustrated
Formal Crimes
It is the phases in the commission of a crime where the perpetrator is

still in control of the consequences of unlawful act.
Objective phase
Subjective phase
External act
Internal act
Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.

a. formal crimes
b. formal felonies
c. informal crimes d. material crimes
580 .The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. crimen
b. criminologo
c. criminologia
d. criminologie
It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to

prevent and repressed them?
a. Crime c. Criminology
b. Victimology d. Criminal justice
The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of

other sciences and field of study which makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic
b. Nationalistic
c. Social science
d. An applied science
Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between

criminality and the inhabitants of a certain locality:
a.Ecology
b) Demography
c) Epidiomology
d) Physical anthropology
It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure, functions and

direction.
a. Sociology
b. Criminology
c. Psychology
d. Anthropology
It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
a. Criminology
b. Criminal Etiology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal Sociology
An act or omission in violation of the public law commanding or

forbidding it.
a. Crime
b. Felony
c. Offense
d. Infraction of law
Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by _____________.

a. Culpa
b. intent
c. Fault
d. both a and c
The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT:

a. Intelligence
c. Freedom
b. Intent
d. Negligence
Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant, a neighbor,

before he dies on her way to the hospital where she was declared dead on
arrival, This crime is called,
a. complex crime
b. simple crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal

communication. She had committed estafa to several persons through
illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did she committed?
acquisitive crime
b. extinctive crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the commission of a
crime.
a. criminal victim
b. criminal psychiatry
c. victimless crime
d. victimology
It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s external

manifestation in relation to criminality.
a) Epidiomology
b) Criminal Psychiatry
c) Criminal psychology
d) Physical anthropology
A crime can be classified according to its stages of commission. What
crime is committed when the offender merely commences the execution of an
offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
execution which would produce the felony by reason of some cause other
than his own spontaneous desistance?
a. Attempted crime
b. Consummated crime
c. Frustrated crime
d. Complex crime
It is the process by which individual reduce the frequency of their

offending behavior as the age increases.
a. doing gender
b. aging out
c. criminal reduction
d. active precipitation
Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code according to their
gravity. What crime to which the law attaches the capital punishment or
afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies
b. less grave felonies
c. light felonies
d. complex felonies
What crimes according to the time or period of the commission are those
which are committed only when the circumstances or situation is conducive
to its commission like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes
b. instant crimes
c. situational crimes
d. continuing crimes
There are crimes that are committed within a certain length of time. What
crime is committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of time?
a. static crime
b. instant crime
c. situational crime
d. episoidal crime.
Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to

maintain one’s livelihood or as a means for living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes
b. Irrational crimes
c. Blue-collar crimes
d. White collar crimes
It is that element of intentional felony which means that the person who
committed the felony has the capacity to distinguish between what is
right and wrong and fully understands the consequences of his actions:
a. intelligence
b. imprudence
c. intent
d. freedom
A psychological disorder in which a child shows developmentally

inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of attention.
a. psychotism
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. neuroticism
d. KSP disorder
The commission of criminal acts using the instruments of modern
technology such as computers or the internet.
a. cyber sex
b. cyber crime
c. computer crimes
d. computer hacking
An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring

financial gain to the offender.
a. organized crime
b. economic crime
c. cyber crime
d. profit crime
This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is used
interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
a. violence
b. revolution
c. guerilla
d. rebel
The killing of a large number of people over time by an offender who

seeks to escape detection.
a. road rage
b. hate crime
c. mass murder
d. serial murder
Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.

a. Margaret Juke
b. Ada Kallikak
c. Ada Juke
d. Ada Edwards
It refers to an study showing the relationship between the physical built

of a person to his personality structure and the type of offense he is
most prone to commit
a. physiognomy
b) somatotype
c. phrenology
d) psychology
It is a proposal of a double male or super male syndrome. This theory

held that the possession of an extra Y-chromosome causes males to be
violent and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome
b XXY syndrome
c. YYX syndrome
d. YXX syndrome
A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of delinquent behaviors as

socially learned and transferred from one generation to the next taking
place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
a. Cultural Transmission
b) Social Phenomenon
c. Crime
d) Delinquent behavior
In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed as manifestations of

basically evil human nature reflecting either with the prince of darkness
or an expression of divine wrath.
Classical theory
positivist theory
Demonological theory
neo-classical theory
An attempt to determine intelligence and personality on the basis of the

size and shape of the skull.
Physiognomy
palmistry
Craniology
Somatotype
It involves the measurement of facial and other body characteristics as

indicative of human personality.
Physiology
somatotype
Physiognomy
Palmistry
According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or body built which have

relationships to personality characteristics are the following, EXCEPT:
Ectomorph
extomorph
Endomorph
Mesomorph
A type of violent offender who uses violence as a means of perpetrating

the criminal act:
Culturally violent offender
pathologically violent offender
Criminally violent offender
d. situationally violent offender
One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What kind
of criminal is that whose action arises from the intra-psychic conflict
between the social and anti-social components of his personality?
a. Acute
c. Chronic
b. neurotic
d. normal
Criminals can also be classified according to this behavioral system.

What are those criminals who have high degree of organization that
enables them to commit crime without being detected and usually operates
in a large scale?
a. ordinary criminals
b. professional criminals
c. situational criminals
d. organized criminals
A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are acquainted with
each other.
a. statutory rape
b. date rape
c. marital rape
d. acquaintance rape
According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that

distinguish born criminals from the general population and are throwbacks
to animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata
d. ape-like appearance
It is the most essential part of the definition of the criminal law:
a. elements
b. penalty
c. degree of evidence
d. motive
The concept that conduct norms are passed down from one generation to the
next so that they become stable within the boundaries of a culture.
a. heredity
b. inheritance
c. cultural transmission
d. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship between
environmental conditions and crime.
a. classical school
b. chicago school
c. neo-classical school
d. positive school
He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon
b. the Hittites
c. Solon
d. Hammurabi
He said that individuals are like human calculators. Before a person

commits a crime, he first analyzes whether the satisfaction he would gain
is greater than the possible negative effect he would have to suffer if
the gets caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Edwin Sutherland
d. Jeremy Bentham
Who stated that crime is normal in a society?

a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Emile Durkheim
d. Enrico Ferri
He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of

society, which to him passes through stages divided on the basis of how
people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive stage and
those who followed his writings were called,
a. August Comte b. Positivists
c. Positivism
d. Sociologists
This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating
that its absence among mentally retardate persons or those with some
psychological imbalances and personality disorders or physical
disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby citing
said theory as one of crime causation.
a. Classical Criminology
b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology
d. Social Structure Theory
This refers to the act of killing a large number of people in a single

violent outburst.
Road rage
serial killing
Mass murder
mass destruction
A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves sexual gratification
by cruelty, psychotic desire to often torment torture or otherwise abuse
his victim.
Masochism
bestiality
Sadism
Incest
A sexual relationship between persons closely related by blood.

Incest
sadism
Masochism
rape
These are violent acts directed toward a particular person or members of
group merely because the targets share discernible racial, ethnic,
religious or gender characteristics.
Violent crimes
hate crimes
Copy-cat crimes
victimless crimes
A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated violence
perpetrated against non-combatant targets by subnational groups or
clandestine agents, usually intended to influence an audience.
Rebellion
piracy
Terrorism
little war
It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might inhibit the
exercise of free will.
Classical theory
neo-classical
Sociological
positivist
These are crimes committed by a person of respectability and high social
status in the course of occupation.
Blue collar crimes
crime of the upper world
White collar crimes
crime of the underworld
Public order crime is otherwise known as:
Violent crimes
economic crimes
Organized crimes
victimless crimes
The law that provides Board Examination for Criminologists in the
Philippines.
R.A. 6975 (DILG 1990)
R.A. 8551 (Police Act 1998)
R.A. 6506
R.A. 8353 (Rape Law)
Criminals who have a high degree of organization to enable them to commit
crimes without being detected.
Professional criminals
ordinary criminals
Organized criminals
expert criminals
Who among the following are the “Holy Three in Criminology”?
Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria
Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri
Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri
Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso
Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he concluded
that the main difference between a criminal and a non-criminal is that
each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
Emile Durkheim
b) Andre Michael Guerry
c) Thorsten Sellin
d) Abraham Maslow (Heirarchy of Needs)
This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals

have self-rule, there are other factors that affect the exercise of their
autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
a) neo-classical
b) utilitarianism
c) classical
d) positivist
This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on
the social influences they acquired from other people that practically
determine their behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning
process of delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most
important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the loss of order in a

society.
a. synomie
b) anarchy
c) anomie
d) chaos
He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that individuals
copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and that those with weaker
personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with stronger
personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim
b) Adolphe Quetelet (Thermo-dynamics)
c) Gabriel Tarde
d) Enrico Ferri
A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
a. road rage
b. predation
c. hate crime
d. serial murder
This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically;
that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as demonstrated
by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory
b) Psychological theory
c) Strain Theory
d) Labeling theory
The theory which states that attachment, connection and link to society
will determine whether a person shall commit a crime or not:
a. social control
b) social disorganization
c) social bond
d) social learning
The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who violate the rights
of others deserve to be punished. The severity of the punishment should
be commensurate with the seriousness of the crime.
a. restorative justice
b. jus desert
c. utilitarianism
d. equality of punishment
A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls below levels

necessary for normal and efficient brain functioning.
a. hyperglycemia
b. hyperglycomia
c. hypoglycemia
d. hypoglycomia
This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and
concentrated on the need for the quality among all citizens. They
provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in crime
rates are associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School
“Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This was the term used
by Philippe Pinel describing the personality that is characterized by an
inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and
goals in life both as an officer of the law, and as a private
citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this
particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
c.Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month. It is the
theoretical basis which determines the peace and order situation.
a. index crimes b. crime rate
c. non-index crimes d. crime statistics
The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of
the leniency which the police treat female offenders.
Doing gender
masculinity hypothesis
Chivalry hypothesis
pre-menstrual syndrome
A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their
fathers.
a. Oedipus complex
b. doing gender
c. Electra complex
d. chivalry hypothsis
The legal principle by which the decision or holding in an earlier case
becomes the standard by which subsequent similar cases are judged. It
literally means “to stand by decided cases”.
a. jus desert b. stare decisis
c. story decisis d. just stare
This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that people are law
abiding but under great pressure, they will resort to crime.
a. strain theory b. social learning
c. cultural deviance d. anomie
The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist named:
a. Rafael Garofalo b. Albert Bandura
c. Walter Reckless d. Alfred Binet
His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he concluded that
feeblemindedness is inherited and related to deviant behavior and
poverty. He was the first person to use the term “moron”.
a. Robert Dugdale b. Henry Goddard
c. Eaenest Hooton d. Charles Goring
This theory focuses on the development of high crime areas associated

with the disintegration of conventional values caused by rapid
industrialization, increased migration and urbanization.
Cultural Deviance Theory
Differential Association Theory
Social Disorganization Theory
Strain Theory
A societal stage marked by normlessness in which disintegration and chaos
have replaced social cohesion.
Social disorganization
Anomie
Strain
Synomie
It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal activities together with
the time.
Birth cohort
aging out phenomenon
Criminal aging
crime rate
He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and punishment is the
principle of the greatest happiness shared by the greatest number of
people.
Utilitatrianism
Jeremy Bentham
Felicific Calculus
Cesare Beccaria
The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother, which occurs during
the third year from birth is known as:
Oedipus Complex
Inferiority Complex
Electra Complex
Incest
Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through series of acts or
episodes and in much longer time. This crime is classified as:
Instant crime
episoidal crime
Situational crime
seasonal crime
The following are the characteristics of the Classical School of
Criminology:
The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of
penalty is retribution
Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute free will to choose
between right and wrong.
Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals because of their
physical deviations.
That every man is therefore responsible for his act.
I, II, III are correct.
I, III, IV are correct.
II, III, IV are correct.
I, II, IV are correct.
It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of free
will.
Classical theory
positivist theory
Neo-classical theory
radical theory
His great contributions to criminology were the principle of
utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
Cesare Beccaria
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Lombroso
Emile Durkheim
He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired the now known “Father
of Modern Criminology” to develop the theory of atavism.
Cesare Lombroso
Charles Goring
Cesare Beccaria
Charles Darwin (Theory of Evolution)
According to him, people with criminal behavior, should be prohibited
from having children.
Robert Dugdale
Henry Goddard
Charles Goring
George Wilker
It states that individuals are deviant mainly because they have been
labeled as deviant by social agencies and others. The notion of deviance
is not inherent in the act itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma
attached to the actor.
Containment Theory
Theory of Imitation
Social Process Theory
Social Reaction theory
Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with five (5) or more
atavistic stigmata.
Born-criminal type
insane
Criminaloid
pseudo-criminal
These are crimes which are wrong from their very nature. Examples of
these are murder, robbery, and other violations of the Revised Penal
Code.
Heinous crimes
mala in se
Serious crimes
mala prohibita
These are crimes which are wrong only because there are laws that
prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly society. Examples of these
are the violations of special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking
Law”.
Mala prohibita
less grave felonies
Mala in se
light felonies
The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine
lege” means:
An act done by me against my will is not my act
There is no crime where no law punishing it.
Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
Mistake of fact is an excuse.
He was the one who introduced the following definition of criminology:
“It is the entire body of knowledge regarding crime as a social
phenomenon. It includes within its scope the process of making laws, of
breaking laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo
b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria
d) Paul Topinard (coined the word “criminologie”)
Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is focused on
an individual's choice as to whether or not he will commit a crime and
the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment is________________.
a) Restoration b) Treatment
c) Retribution d) Deterrence
Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the commission of a crime

serve to increase the penalty, without however exceeding the maximum of
the penalty provided by law for the offense.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
Those wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law,
hence he incurs no criminal liability.
Exempting
aggravating
Justifying
Mitigating
Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on January

12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance was passed punishing loitering
within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law.
d. No, for A did not loiter again.
His theory was that God did not make all the various species of animals
in two days, as what the bible says but rather that the species had
evolved through a process of adoptive mutation and natural selection
which led to his conclusion that man was traced to have originated from
the apes.
a. Jeremy Bentham b) Charles
Darwin
c. Prince Charles d)Charles de Gaulle
Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of crime and
true to his dedication to his lifetime works, upon his death he willed
his brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin
in Italy to be further studied. To this, he was named the “Father
of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy
Bentham
Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of crime and
true to his dedication to his lifetime works, upon his death he willed
his brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin
in Italy to be further studied. To this, he was named the “Father
of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
681. Which of the following is NOT included in the components of

criminal justice system of the United States?
a. Law enforcement
b. Corrections
c. Prosecution
d. Courts
682 . This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most
important function of the CJS is the protection of the public and the
repression of criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention
b. Crime control
c. Law and order
d. Due process
683 . According to this criminal justice model, the rights of an
individual must be co-equal with the concern for public safety.
a. Crime prevention
b. crime control
c. Law and order
d. due process
684 . This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals,
and requires fair disbursement of common advantages and sharing of common
burden.
a. Prosecution
b. justice
c. equality
d. trial
685. This function of the law enforcement is being done through
elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of crimes, good
community relations, educating the citizens about their role,
introduction of delinquency prevention programs, good parenting and
others.
a. Maintenance of law and order b. Reduction of crime
c. crime prevention
d. crime control
686. This principal character of the criminal justice process links all
components of the CJS.
a. Offender
b. Victim
c. witness
d. Crime
687. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution
b. Correction
c. Police
d. Court
688. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police have
gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to warrant the filing of
charge(s) against the alleged violator.
a. Investigator
b. judge
c. prosecutor
d. solicitor genera
689. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense and the
prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court
b. judge
c. sheriff
d. jury
690. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive branch of the
government.
a. law enforcement
b. court
c. prosecution
d. correction
691. This is a governmental body that is charged with the responsibility
of administering justice.
a. Law enforcement
b. correction
c. Prosecution
d. court
individual or as a member of some court, Government Corporation, board or
commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Government employee
c. Government officer
d. person in authority
693. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the Philippine
Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer of the State or government
in criminal cases.
a. law enforcement
b. court
c. prosecution
d. correction
694. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office before it can
entertain a complaint on a case covered by the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
695. It refers to the study of the various agency of our government in
charged of processing law violators to ensure the protection of the
society and maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology
b. Criminal Justice
c. Victimlogy
d. Sociology
696. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the commission of a
crime and subject of an investigation.
a. Convict
b. respondent
c. Accused
d. suspect
697. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct
necessary to protect life and property and to maintain peace and order?
a. Criminal Justice System
b. Criminology
c. Criminal law
d. Criminal jurisprudence
698. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would
convince a reasonable mind based on moral certainty but which
nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of error.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
699. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed
at reaching an agreement whereby the prosecutor uses discretion to obtain
from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s
entering a guilty plea.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. pre-trial
d. plea bargaining
670. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country which is under
the ________?
a. DOJ
b. DILG
c. NAPOLCOM
d. DSWD
671. A person who is under custodial investigation is basically protected
by a number of rights mandated under the constitution and this was even
expounded in the legislative act known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine
b. R.A. 7438
c. Bill of Rights
d. R.A. 6975
672. A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial

power is vested or the administration of justice is delegated.
a. court
b. corrections
c. prosecution
d. law enforcement
673. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order,
enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and ensure public
safety.
a. police
b. prosecution
c. court
d. corrections
674. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment
of persons convicted of committing crime.
a. police
b. prosecution
c. court
d. corrections
675. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 8294
b. R.A. 7080 (anti plunder)
c. R.A. 1379
d. R.A. 3019
676. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with

imprisonment not exceeding six years.
a. Supreme Court
c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals
d. MTC
677. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local

Government Act of 1990, enacted on December 13, 1990. Established the
PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975
b. P.D. 1184
c. R.A. 8551
d. R.A. 6040
678. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, cause oriented

groups and advocacy groups that promote the welfare of the people against
all forms of abuse and exploitation.
a. crime control
b. political parties
c. civil society
d. volunteer
679. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the existence of a
cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen the police work as
suppressing the spread of criminality.
a. Crime Prevention
b. Crime control
c. Criminal apprehension
d. law enforcement
680. Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its
most important function in the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and
recognize the rule of law through the speedy d2elivery of services
particularly in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service b. PNP
c. Ombudsman
d. Solicitor General
681. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more municipalities?
a. MTC
b. MeTC
c. MCTC
d. MTC’s
682. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s own judgment
in a given situation without referring to your superior due to the
eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness
b. Police discretion
c. Police integrity
d. police prudence
683. It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators,
locating and tracing them in order to affect their arrest and gather
evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. Crime prevention
b. criminal investigation
c. Crime control
d. Intelligence work
684. An attached agency of the Office of the President tasked to
implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
a. Narcotics Command
b. AID-SOTF
c. PDEA d. NBI
685. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of
public officer in charged of enforcement of the law violated filed either
a. Complaint
b. Information
c. Pleadings d. Affidavit
686. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed
and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for
trial.
a. preliminary investigation b. Prejudicial question

c. inquest proceeding
687. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
688. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the law in
order for him to answer for the commission of an offense.
a. Arrest
b. investigation
c. invitation
d. seizure
689. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent from any
branch of government.
a. prosecution
b. correction
c. court
d. community
690. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs
the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on the behalf of the
state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of
Appeals, who represents the State in the prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor
b. Solicitor General
c. National or provincial prosecutor d. Judge
691. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer
after a person has been taken into custody.
a. custodial investigation
b. interview
c. inquest
d. interrogation
692. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 and above
in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised
Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the office of _______ for
the conduct of the required preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman
b. Solicitor General
c. Judge of MTC
d. the President
693. In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act
b. caught after commission
c. instigation
d. entrapment
694. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try cases
submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in referring to the
authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Venue
c. Jurisprudence
d. Territory
695. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first
time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction
b. exclusive jurisdiction
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
696. It is the formal reading of the charges against a person accused of
a crime and latter asking him whether he pleads guilty or not to the
crime charged.
a. arraignment
c. plea
d. promulgation of judgment
697. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within Barangay
level.
a. barangay tanod
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council
d. lupon tagapamayapa
698. It is the most common way by which the police discovers or it
informed that a crime has been committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
699. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the Brgy. Chairman as
Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy. Secretary as the Secretary of the
Lupon and other members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10
d. less than 10
670. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
671. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting
officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal
knowledge based on probable cause that the person to be arrest has
committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
672. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute
litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. volunteer counsel
673. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. warrant of arrest
674. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
a. R.A. 7080 c. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 6713
675. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide free legal
assistance to poor members of society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
676. This is the power to apply the law to contests or disputes
concerning legally recognized rights or duties between the state and
private persons, or between individual litigants in cases properly
brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power
b. Judicial Review
c. Court
d. Court of Justice
677. This is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before
the court of justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor
b. Prosecution
c. Trial
d. Preliminary Investigation
678. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to hear both sides
and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation
b. Settlement
c. Arbitration
d. Agreement
679. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of the
government?
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Private Prosecutor
c. Prosecution
d. Ombudsman
680. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Supreme Court
d. MTC
681. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, which has
exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on appeal decisions of the
Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and
decisions of the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
682. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by high-ranking
public officials (with salary grade of 27 above), which can only be
committed because of their position.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
683. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the signature of
the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the
convicted offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order
b. Mittimus
c. warrant of arrest
d. habeas corpus
984. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, house,

papers or effects, or other buildings and premises to discover contraband
or some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal
action:
a. Search b. seizure
c. Raid
d. entrapment
685. This court was established by virtue of PD1083, otherwise known as
“Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals
b. Shari’a Court
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Family Court
686. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those over but unable
to fully take care of themselves from neglect, abuse, cruelty,
exploitation or discrimination due to some physical defect or mental
disability or condition.
a. child
b. wards
c. physically disabled
d. youth
687. Act or omission which may not be punishable if committed by an
adult, but becomes unlawful when they are committed by a child or a
person of tender year or one who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. crime
b. status offense
c. delinquency
d. felonies
The power of the state to give any form of charity of public nature. It
is the philosophy behind the view that youthful offender/child in
conflict with the law is the victim of improper care and that the state
is duty bound to provide protection.
a. positivism b. loco parentis
c. patria potestas
Under the law, they are the one responsible for preventing the child from
becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking,
gambling or any harmful practices.
a. DSWD b. Parents
c. state
d. police
The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
c. from the time of his conception
d. upon reaching the age of majority
Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the legal guardian of
the child even though the parents of the child are still alive when the
best interest of the said child so require.
a. adopter
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian
Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal
liability unless:
a. he is committed a henious crime
b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be prosecuted for the
commission of the following, EXCEPT:
a. mendicancy
b. sniffing of rugby
c. prostitution
d. theft
A child left by himself without provisions for his needs/or without

proper supervision falls under what special category of a child?
a. abandoned child
b. abused child
c. neglected child
d. dependent child
In the absence of death of both parents of the child who shall continue
to exercise authority over the child?
Surviving grand parents
Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
Surviving parents of child
Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.
a. I, II and IV only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, III only d. all of the
above
Is a self association of peers, bound together by mental interest, who
acted in concert in order to achieve a specific purpose which includes
the conduct of illegal activities and control over a particular
territory, facility or type of enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang
b. Organized criminal
c. a bond
d. street corner gang
A child that was conceived outside of a marriage, born during the
marriage of the parents.
a. Illegitimate b. legitimated
c. legitimate d. adopted
The court can suspend parental authority if it finds that the parent:
Treats the child with excessive harshness of cruelty.
Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or example
Compel the child to beg
Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
a. I and II only
c. I and III only
b. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II and III only
Who among the following is considered as “Child in Conflict with the
Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Yang who is 10 years old.
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are most beneficial for
the child.
a. child as zone of peace
b. nation building
c. best interest of the child
d. presumption of minority
Is the mass obligation which the parents have in relation to the persons
and property of their an unemancipated child.
a. Paretal authority
b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae
d. Parental Responsibility
A person of such age is automatically exempted from criminal liability
but should be taken to the custody and care of his parents, DSWD
representative or any institution engage in child caring.
a. 15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child by subsequent
marriage of his/her parents.
a. illegitimate
b. legitimated
c. legitimate
d. adopted
In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of such age
is given by the court the preference to choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
Refers to aggregate of persons working in commercial, industrial and
agricultural establishments or enterprises whether belonging to the labor
or management whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
working children.
a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the above
Which of the following is the best way for the police to win youth’s
trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in authority
A child born inside a marriage where either party is suffering from an
impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
Is a process in which a child is given the same status and rights as
legitimate child, both in relation to the parents and to the relatives of
the later.
a. adoption
b. legitimation
c. marriage
d. emancipation
This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child who

committed an offense by the law enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
This common procedure applied when arresting an offender shall NOT be
employed when the person who is the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are
most congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of
the child and most encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development. It also means the least detrimental available
alternative for safeguarding the growth and development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall be determine in
the absence of proof what principle shall be observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending such issuance
he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to prove his age.
It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits
of women victims and their inability to respond to repeated physical and
psychological violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome
Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion program without
necessity of court intervention on the following:
Where the imposable penalty for the crime committee is not more than six
(6) years imprisonment;
Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years
imprisonment;
Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years
but not more than 12 years imprisonment;
Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds 12
years imprisonment.
Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict with the law
is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall:
A. Pronounce its judgment;
B. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of the child and
order his turn over to DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with law under suspension of
sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final discharge of the
child in conflict with the law.
Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age of 18 while under
suspended sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence;
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to its maximum age
of 21.
D. Any of the above.
All records and proceedings involving children in conflict with the law
from initial contact until final disposition of the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of the public record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential
Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18th birthday when she painted her
neighbor’s walls with greeting to herself. How will you classify Mona as
an offender?
a. juvenile offender
b. habitual offender
c. adult offender
d. none
All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:

a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency when parents find
it hard to balance their jobs with their parental responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child must learn his life values
Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24 hours a day with no
place to go, surviving on foods given by kind-hearted people with no one
to supervise him at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro
as a child?
a. neglected child
b. independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
Ms. Wang Bu, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by her addict neighbor,
Mr. Sha Bu. How do you classify her as a victim?
a. an adult
b. an insane
c. a child
d. an adolescent
It refers to any act, transaction, scheme or design involving the use of
a child by another, for sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct in
exchange for money, profit or any other consideration.
Child trafficking
child abuse
Child prostitution
obscene publications
It is the act of buying and selling children:
a. exploitation
b. prostitution
c. abuse
d. trafficking
This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether habitual or not:
a. exploitation
b. abuse
c. prostitution
d. trafficking
Children are declared as ____________ in situations of armed conflict:
a. priorities for evacuation
b. exemptions
c. zones of peace
d. shields
This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her personal services or
those of a person under his or her control as security or payment for a
debt, when the length and nature of services are not clearly defined:
a. debt bondage
b. involuntary servitude
c. abuse
d. slavery
A working child below fifteen years old may be allowed to work for only
_______ hours per day:
a. eight
b. four
c. five
d. six
Publication of photographs of persons or children in various obscene or
indecent poses meant to cause sexual excitement to those who will see
them is a form of:
a. adult entertainment
b. illegal publication
c. obscene material
d. pornography
Employers shall provide an opportunity for education to all working
children up to this level:
a. elementary
b. college
c. secondary
d. vocational
In employing children, the employment contract must be signed:
a) by the Department of Labor and Employment
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d) and notarized by a Notary Public
In cases of working children, this has the duty of securing the permit
from the Department of Labor and Employment:
a. parents
b. working child
c. manager
d. employer
This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to cause mental or
emotional suffering of the victim such as but not limited to
intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated verbal abuse:
a. battery b. psychological
c. sexual d. physical
The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
a) the person trafficked is an elderly
b) the person trafficked is a woman
c) the person trafficked is a special child
d) the person trafficked is a child
This refers to any word or deed which debases, degrades or demeans the
intrinsic worth and dignity of the child as human being.
a. neglect
b. psychological abuse
c. sexual abuse
d. cruelty
The following person are liable for child prostitution, EXCEPT:
a. those who act as procurer of child prostitute
b. children recruited as prostitutes
c. managers or owners of the establishment where the prostitution takes
place
d. clients of child prostitute
This refers to the use, hiring, employment and coercing of children as
actors or models in printed pornographic materials:
a. indecent shows
b. child prostitution
c. obscene publication
d. child exploitation
The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and purposes of human
trafficking:
a. R.A. 9344 (JJWC)
b. R.A. 7610 (anti child abuse)
c. R.A. 9208 (Human Trafficking)
d. R.A. 8043
1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when the trafficked

person is a child.
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 years of age shall not
be employed.
Both statements are correct.
The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is incorrect.
The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is correct.
Both statements are incorrect.
The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children Act of 2004”:
a. R.A. 9262 c. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9208 d. R.A. 9344
It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or her
child resulting to the physical and psychological or emotional distress.
a. stalking
b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence
This includes the employment, use, inducement or coercion of a child to
engage in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct; the molestation,
prostitution and or incest with children.
a. sexual abuse b. physical abuse
b. psychological abuse d. cruelty
Refers to a program organized by travel establishments and individuals
which consist of packages or activities, utilizing and offering escort
and sexual services as enticement for tourists.
a. prostitution
b. exploitation
c. sex tourism d. pornography
Refers to an intentional act committed by a person who knowingly and
without lawful justification follows the woman or her child or places the
woman or her child under surveillance directly or indirectly.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence
A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may work but his work
hours must not exceed ____ hours:
a) eight c) seven
b) ten d) six
A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm
b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
It means failure to provide, for reasons other than poverty, the basic
needs of the child, such as food, clothing, medical care, shelter and
basic education
a. sexual abuse
b. physical abuse
c. psychological abuse
d. neglect
Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman financially
dependent.
a. stalking
b. economic abuse
c. battery
d. sexual violence
No child shall be employed as a model in any advertisement directly or

indirectly promoting the following:
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
II. pornographic materials
III. medicines for use of adults
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
I, II, III are correct
II, III, IV are correct
I, II, IV are correct
I, III, IV are correct
The law that provides special protection of children against child abuse,
exploitation and discrimination.
a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9208
c. R.A. 9231 d. P.D. 603
The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor.
a. R.A. 9262(VAWC) c. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9231 d. R.A. 9344
This form of child abuse includes lacerations, fractured bones, burns,
internal injuries and serious bodily harm suffered by a child:
a. psychological
b. emotional
c. physical
d. cruelty
This refers to offenses where there is no private offended party:
Victimology c. public order crime
Victimless crime d. both a and c
Victimology – study of victim’s role in the commission of crime
Children born outside of marriage may still use the surname of the
father, provided he is acknowledged by his father as his child. This is
one of the provisions of this law:
a) RA 9523 c) RA 9231
b) RA 9255 d) RA 9208
Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the adopter and the
adoptee must first undergo a supervised trial custody for a period of:
a) at least six months
b) not more than six months
c) at least one year
d) not less than one year
This refers to the document issued by the court signifying the approval
of the application for adoption:
a) decree of adoption
b) petition for adoption
c) annulment
d) rescission
This is the legal age in the Philippines:
a) twenty-one c) seventeen
b) eighteen d) twelve
A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily committed to the DSWD
or to a duly licensed child placement agency and is free from parental
authority:
a) child legally available for adoption
b) legally-free child
c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to cause mental or
emotional suffering of the victim such as but not limited to
intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated verbal abuse:
a) battery b) psychological
c) sexual d) physical
A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen years old may be
allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven to
eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
Emancipation takes place when:
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or her
b) the child becomes 18 years old
c) the child is already married
d) the child applies for it
d) games and gadgets
The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic suspension of sentence until
the maximum age of __:
a) twenty-three
b) eighteen
c) twenty-one d) twenty
In case the child has been found guilty by the court, he shall be ordered
to be transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) a youth detention home
c) a city or municipal jail
d) an agricultural camp
Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted when the:
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment
d) victim filed the complaint
The law enforcement officer must ensure that all statements signed by the
child during investigation are witnessed and signed by the following:
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel
d) social worker
The body search of the child in conflict with the law must be done only
by a law enforcement officer:
a) who has initial contact
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex
d) of the same gender
The first important thing that a law enforcer must do upon initial
contact is to ____:
a) know the age of the child
b) notify the local DSWD
c) call the parents
d) make a report
It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in conflict with
the law:
a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) testimony of the child
c) certificate of birth
d) school records
It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the sentence imposed by
the court upon a finding of guilt of the child in conflict with the law,
whereby the child undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under
such terms and conditions as may be ordered by the court:
a) probation
b) suspension of sentence
c) parole
d) pardon
It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and
sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and to
the supervision of a probation officer:
a) suspension of sentence
b) parole
c) probation
d) pardon
A child in conflict with the law is exempted from _____:
a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
c) criminal liability only
d) civil liability only
If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is imprisonment of
more than six years, diversion will be within the jurisdiction of the
____________:
a) barangay c) DSWD
b) police d) court
Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is over fifteen years
old. The decision as to whether the child acted with or without
discernment is made initially by the _______:
a) social worker c) law enforcer
b) CICL d) judge
The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict with the law
lies with the _______:
b) CICL d) judge
The age of full criminal responsibility is:
Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
More than 18 but less than 70 years old
Over 15 but under 18 years old
Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old
It pertains to the document that must be signed by the parents of the
child in conflict with the law as part of the conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation
c) memorandum of agreement
d) contract of diversion
A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years of age shall
be turned over to the ________________ by the police for the
determination of appropriate program:
a) nearest police station b) family
c) local DSWSD d) court
The diversion proceedings must be completed within ____ days:
a) thirty b) forty-five
c) sixty d) twenty
If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is guilty of
the crime he is accused of doing, the ____________ of the sentence shall
automatically be suspended:
a) imposition b) determination
c) execution d) discharge
The ________________ has the right to refuse the diversion program
designed for the child:
a) offended party b) parents of the child
c) victim d) social worker
When the court decides to execute the suspended sentence, the child must
be transferred to a:
a) youth rehabilitation center
b) youth detention home
c) agricultural farm
d) prison
It shall be the duty of the ______________________ to make proper
recommendation to the court regarding the disposition of the child who is
undergoing rehabilitation while under suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor b) social worker
c) lawyer d) judge
All records pertaining to the case of the child in conflict with the law
shall remain _______ and ______:
a) privileged and confidential
b) classified and confidential
c) privileged and restricted
d) secret and confidential
The age of full criminal irresponsibility is:
Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with discernment
18 to 70 years old
15 years old and below
Below 18 even if the act is committed with discernment
It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his environment or the
way human beings act.
Human Beings
Learning
Human Behavior
Stimulus
Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited by people
because of their inherited capabilities or the process of natural
selection.
Inherited Behavior
. Inborn Behavior
Learned Behavior
both a and c
It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form
adjustment and attempt to experience them again in memory.
a. phobia (exaggerated fear) b. anger
b. frustration d. regression
Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from _____.
a. anger
b. fear
c. pleasure d. pain
Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation of the ______ from
within the person or from his environment.
a. stimulus b. action
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. inclination
This personality system controls the gateway to action.
a. alter ego b. Id (instinctual
drive)
c. ego (reality principle) d. Superego
(conscience)
What is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways to make it more
acceptable to the self usually with the use of good reasons and alibi to
substitute for real cause?
a. projection b. sublimation
c. rationalization d. Compensation
Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what
particular defense mechanism?
a. repression b. sublimation
c. displacement d. projection
An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania b. pyromania
c. phobia d. Dipsomania
This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or

state of affairs at the same time repulsion towards something associated
with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance d. multiple
This is the process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or
feeling that causes pain, shame or guilt.
a. identification b. regression
c. repression
d. fixation
This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or
undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
a. rationalization b. sublimation
c. compensation d. projection
Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting an unripe mango
grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. olfactory
b. Auditory
c. cutaneous
d. gustatory
This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation
of withdrawal from reality.
a. Neurosis b. Depression
c. Psychosis
d. Anxiety
This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration
b. conflict
c. anxiety d. Depression
The aggregate observable responses of an organism to internal and

external stimuli.
a. human behavior b. behavior
c. personality d. attribute
The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or
practice.
a. actualization
b. learning
c. thinking d. feeling
This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable but mutually
exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple
This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which
has both pleasant and unpleasant consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple
This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly
natural situation or object.
a. melancholia
b. phobia
c. exaltation
d. Mania
It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.

a. psychoses b. neuroses
c. abnormality d. Psychopathy
Hydrophobia is fear of ________.

Water
darkness
Snakes
deep water
A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.
a. psychosis
b. neurosis
c. abnormality
d. psychopathy
A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to
disease, etc. from parents to offspring.
a. heredity b. environment
c. inheritance d. Introvert
Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have problems. This is a
manifestation of what type of defense mechanism?
Fantasy
sublimation
Denial
displacement
Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the evening session, blames
his poor performance in the preliminary examination to his professor
rather than his lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of
defense mechanism?
Reaction formation
displacement
Sublimation
rationalization
Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when she saw the latter
kissing another girl, cries. This is an example of what defense
mechanism?
Regression
suppression
Repression
displacement
Texting while driving is an example of what classification of human
behavior?
Habitual b. symbolic
Instinctive d.complex
It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus which largely
helps to determine the actual behavioral response in a given situation.
Perception
awareness
Sensation
Learning
A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is said to be:

Psychotic
ambivert
Neurotic
angry bird
He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”.
Tom Cruise
Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
Sigmund Freud
Cesare Lombroso
Coping mechanism is the way people react to __________.
Fear
anxiety
Frustration
anger
It can be seen among people who handle their problems in a very objective
way.
Coping Mechanism
Direct Approach
Detour
Withdrawal
The most tolerated way of handling frustration.
Defense Mechanism
Direct Approach
Detour
Withdrawal
A type of defense mechanism whereby a person concentrates in area where
he can excel.
Displacement
compensation
Rationalization
fantasy
What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining Garcia when he
joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
Identification
projection
Fantasy
regression
This refers to an action-producing agent:
Motives
Drives
Stimulus
sensation
Human actions in relation to events taking place inside the body such as
the brain and the nervous system is known as:
Neurological
psychological
Cognitive
humanistic
A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating manifests what
particular classification of human behavior?
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards signify one’s academic
achievement. This classification of human behavior is known as:
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
Mathematical ability and English communication skills are examples of
what type of human behavior?
Learned
inborn
Operant
both a and b
Eating when you are hungry is an example of _______ behavior.
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
It is the ability to withstand frustration without developing inadequate
modes of response such as being emotionally depressed or irritated,
becoming neurotic, or becoming aggressive.
Frustration Tolerance
Frustration Shield
Frustration Flexibility
all of the above
Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up applying into the
Armed Forces of the Philippines when he failed in the initial height and
weight measurement stage because he was under height. This is an example
of:
Sublimation
repression
Substitution
withdrawal
Which of the following items does not belong to the group?
a. prostitution
b. assassination
c. sabotage
d. bombing
It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience,
deficient feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment
and other people.
a. schizophrenic personality b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis
d. neurotic personality
Which of the following is not a common tactic in terrorism?
a. robbery c. bombing
b. hijacking d. kidnapping
This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person performs an act
while sleeping.
a. somnambulism
b. mesmerism
c. somnolencia
d. delirium
Animals are used for the achievement of sexual excitation and
gratification.
a. voyeurism
b. fetishism
c. pedophilia
d. bestiality
A person suffers from _____ when he developed a maladaptive behavior in
his childhood as a result of an external influence that later on becomes
a part of his lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around
him.
a. personality disorder
b. abnormal behavior
b. personality behavior
d. abnormal personality
These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people
The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
When both hostage and hostage taker develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
understanding, and other shared stand on issues, leading them to become
enemies of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Confrontation
c. Negotiation
d. familiarization
Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to assault or injure
is:
a. need deference
b. need aggression
c. need recognition d. need order
The need to influence or control others is:
a. need order
b. need dominance
c. need achievement
d. need exhibition
A person has _____ when he/she has painful memories associated with some
shocking experience which are repressed and cannot be
recalled.
a. anxiety c. delusions
b. amnesia d. phobia
The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control c. negotiation
b. assault d. traffic control
Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place pleasure in imagining
having sexual relations with newly dead young female bodies who were
victims of suicides or vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did
Antonio commit?
necrophilia
rape
incest
none
The most important person in a hostage situation:
a. negotiator
b. hostage taker
c. commander
d. hostage
A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together
with their hostages; their demand is geared towards:
a. revenge
b. economic gain
c. escape
d. vindication
In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness
and willingness to listen can be shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to
negotiate
It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching nude woman or man.
a. exhibitionism
b. voyeurism
c. transvestitism
d. fetishism
It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience

deficient feeling of affection to others and aggression.
a. schizophrenic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis
d. neurotic personality
This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon
which society is based.
a. Anti-social
b. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic
d. Sociopath
A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of religious
feeling.
a. mania
b. mania fanatica
b. delusion
d. legal insanity
This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an
inability to achieve it.
a. masturbation
b. prostitution
c. exhibitionism
d. frigidity
This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and
compelling need for sexual gratification by any technique, other than
willing coitus between man and woman and involving actions that are
directly results in genital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage
taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate,
except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used is_____?
A. Kidnapping C. Bombing
B. Assassination D. Extortion
A personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness, hypersensitivity,
envy, excessive self important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to
blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil
motives to others.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Dependent Personality
C. Schizoid Personality D. Borderline Personality
Apersonality disorder characterized by an inability to form social
relationships and can be classified as “loners”.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Schizoid Personality
C. Dependent Personality
D. Borderline Personality
A personality disorder characterized by instability, reflected in

dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. Such individuals are
frequently described as impulsive and unpredictable.
A. Borderline Personality
B. Compulsive Personality
C. Passive-aggressive Personality
D. Anti-social Personality
When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental and physical fatigue

and by various aches and pains, it is considered as:
A. Anxiety Disorder
B. Somatoform Disorder
C. Dissociative Disorder
D. Amnesia
The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped expand a
great deal of emotional physical and psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies a need:

a. interest
b. perception
c. motives
d. drives
It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective plan, policies,
procedures and techniques in dealing with sudden violent act of
terrorist.
a. Crisis management c. stress mgt.
b. hostage negotiation d. political analysis
Last option in hostage crisis:
a. crowd control
b. negotiation
c. traffic control
d. assault
It is any incident in which people are being held by another person or
persons against their will, usually by force or coercion, and demands are
being made by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management
c. hostage incident
d. abduction
“Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is called;
A. eros
B. animus
C. thanatos
D. lupus
In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” ,
which means:
a. the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the host
When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-
negotiable demands, they were left with three options: (1) choose
martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom
and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands an
airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
go to your ground commander
give it with consent
talk to him and delay the moment
assault and kill him immediately
Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:

a. Prostitution
b. Bombing
c. Assassination
d. Kidnapping
These are important in a hostage taking situation, EXCEPT:
Presence of linguist negotiator
Considerable screening of all members
Dry run or constant practice
Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
It is the position from which a unit commander and his staff exercise
command over the hostage incident.
a. command post
b. outer perimeter
c. inner perimeter
d. command headquarters
It is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault operation
whenever negotiation fails.
a. Negotiation Team
b. Medical Team
c. Tactical Team
d. Response Team
Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures Manual of 2010, this
group should immediately be activated in case of hostage situation:
a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. Civil Disturbance Management Team
c. Crisis Management Task Group
d. PNP Command Post
P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer who first arrives
in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground
commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue
operations, the objectives are as follows, except one:
Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free.
Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of the
hostage takers.
Hostage takers desist from his threats.
hostage takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be
incapable of causing harm
Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic?
noise barrage
assassination
c.bombing
d.kidnapping
In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
a.give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c.give in to all demands
d.look friendly or accommodating
The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief
negotiator because:
hostage takers will be afraid

he is not authorized to grant concessions
of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
hostage takers will not trust him
What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where
target are often police, military officials or political figures?
a.Hijacking
b. Ambush
c.Assassination
d. Kidnap for Ransom
The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control

in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is called
Proactive Crisis Management
Reactive Crisis Management
Performance Stage
Reaction Phase
A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific
action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called
Floor plan
Bomb threat plan
Drill
Contingency plan
884.It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society
to prevent and repressed them?
a. Penology b. Victimology
c. Criminology d. Sociology of law
885. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates

openness and willingness to listen can be shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to
negotiate
886. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
887. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
a. mental derange
b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality
d. mental balance
888. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation:

a. guns and ammunition
b. drinks
c. foods
d. all of these
889. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
a. bombing (modern tactics) b. assassination (oldest
tactic)
c. hostage-taking
d. media exposure
890. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense when trapped expand
a great deal of emotional physical and psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
891. When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked
non-negotiable demands , they were left with three options: (1) choose
martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom
and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
892. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic
hostage taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
893. The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to
negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
894. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
895 P/SSupt. Coronel is the highest ranking PNP officer who first arrives
in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground
commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue
operations, the objectives are as follows, except one:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed and set free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands
of the hostage takers.
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be
incapable of causing harm
896. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a
“cardinal rule”:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face to face
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage taker
897. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but “SALVARI
VITAS”, which means:
a. the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the hostages
898. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation.
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker
899. Last option in hostage crisis:
a. crowd control
b. negotiation
c. traffic control
d. assault
900. It is any incident in which people are being held by another person
or persons against their will, usually by force or coercion, and demands
are being made by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management
c. hostage incident
d. abduction
901. The following are the priorities in hostage taking situation,

except:
a. preservation of life
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate
902. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
903. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault
operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. medical team
b. tactical team
c. negotiation team
d. snipers
904. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is called;
a. eros
c. animus
b. thanatos
d. lupus
These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from their base, thereby
showing the gunner the path as well as the striking point of the bullet.
Jacketed bullet
Armor-piercing
Semi-wed cutter bullet
Tracer bullet
In the campaigns against the fanatical natives of the north-west
frontier of India at the close of the last century of English Army, they
invented a kind of bullet which were called DUM-DUM or otherwise called
expanding bullets, they are:
Boat tail bullet
Soft point and hollow point bullet
Incendiary bullet
Sharp pointed military bullet
907. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the bore diameter
measured from:
Land to firearm
Land to land
Land to groves
Groves to land
908. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is sealed by a solid
flat block of metal against which the barrel comes into position when the
weapon is closed for firing, which is termed as:
Extractor
Breechface
Head space
Breechblock
909. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one inch in
diameter is called.
Machine gun
Musket
Artillery
Single-shot firearm
910. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class characteristics of:
Four lands, four grooves right twist
Six lands, six grooves left twist
Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
Five lands, five grooves right twist
911. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its passage inside
the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in its flight is called:
Range
Gauge
Rifling
Center-fire
912. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets fired from a Revolver
due to a poor alignment of the cylinder with the bore:
Shaving marks
Skid marks
Pivot marks
landmarks
913. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
James Forsythe
Philip O. Gravelle
Van Amberg
Berthold Scwartz
914. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures the pitch of
rifling is:
Chronograph
Helixometer
Micrometer
Taper gauge
915. A magnified photograph of a small object produced by connecting a
camera with the ocular of a compound microscope is:
Photomacrograph
Microphotograph
Photomicrograph
Photography
916. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is smaller than the
diameter of the body of the case:
Rimmed cartridge
Rebated cartridge
Tapered cartridge
Rimless cartridge
917. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands have been
worn down or through a bore is slightly oversize or oily, the marks are
called:
Skid marks
Slippage marks
Rifling marks
Shearing marks
918. When two specimens are compared under the comparison microscope at
the same direction, the same level, the same magnification and the same
image, they are called:
Positively match
Pseudo match
Juxtaposition
Drag marks
919. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles using home-
made weapons generally referred to as:
Freakish device
Zip guns
Matchlock
Flare guns
920. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
Revolver
Pistol
Rifle
Pistol & Revolver
921. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
730”
728”
729”
724”
922. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the chamber of
firearm for firing is referred to as:
Bullet
Shell
Primer
Cartridge
923. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of:
Pitch
Twist
Lands & grooves
Cannelures
924. Class characteristics are determinable even:
During
After
Before
Never the manufactures of the firearm
925. The caliber is determined with the aid of:
Combined microscope
Micrometer
Macrometer
Manufacturer of the firearm
926. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the crime scene
will request the ballistician to determine:
Owner of the firearm
Model of the firearm
Caliber and types of the firearm
manufacture
927. That science which deals with the motion of the projectiles at the
time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the time it hits the target is
known as:
Terminal ballistics
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Forensic ballistics
928. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the projectile
on target is called:
Exterior ballistics
Interior ballistics
Anterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
That science dealing with the motion of projectile from the time the
firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it reaches the muzzle of the
barrel is called:
Posterior ballistics
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different from those left
by any other gun barrel. This fact is most useful in directly identifying
the:
Person who fired the particular gun
Direction form which a shot was fired
Gun from which a bullet was fired
Bullet which caused a fatal wound
Cannelures are valuable in firearm identification because they help the
expert determine the:
Identifying the weapon fired a particular bullet
Type of gun that fired a particular bullet
Manufacture of a weapon
Manufacture of the bullet
. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
At no time
Primarily to stop a quarrel
To impress upon citizen the need for respect
Only as a last resort
. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a revolver is
to keep:
Both eyes closed
Both eyes open
Only the right eye is open
Only the left eye is open
.Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the differentiated by
the direction of the twist of the rifling which may be either be to the
left or to the right. Of the following statement the one which can most
accurately be inferred is that:
Most pistols have the same number of grooves
Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either left or right
All of the above
. The secret of good shooting form is:

Proper sighting of the target
Firing slowly and carefully
A relaxed and natural position
Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the:
Acceleration of the projectile in flight
Average speed of the bullet in flight
Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
Discharged bullet are initiated at:
On base or nose
Left side
Right side
The end of the bullet
Discharged shell are initiated at:
Inside or outside of a case near open end
Where firing pin strikes
On any part of the shell
None of the above
Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
Increase the speed of the bullet
Decrease the amount of recoil
Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
The caliber of the gun is:
Its barrel length
The circumference of its barrel
The size of the ammunition used
Diameter of the bore
A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the exploded shell
have been recovered by the investigator of the crime. In order to
identify the shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should be
given:
The cap, the weds and the pellets
The cap and the wads
The cap and the pellets
The shot shell only
Which of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the
identification of an unknown firearm by means of the ballistics is that:
Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight lands
The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined by the angle of lead
Pistols with the same number of land can be differentiated by the
direction of the lead
The angle lead is the angle which the land from the width of the groove
945. Paraffin test is used to:
Detect whether a witness is telling the truth
Discover whether the deceased person was poisoned
Estimate the approximate time of death of the deceased
Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun recently
The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly
that:
The revolver has both safely and automatic firing action
Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the hammer
The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is pushed from
the magazine at the same time
The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or Rifle barrels
is called:
Land
Groove
Lead
One complete revolution inside the bore
Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by the:
Firing
Ejector
Extractor
Hammer
It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that withdrawn the shell or
cartridge from the chamber is called the:
Ejector
Primer
Striker
extractor
A revolver to be tested and used in evidence should be picked up by:
Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel
Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger guard
Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found at the scene of
the crime is normally not individual marked for identification in the:
Trigger
Ejector
Slide
barrel
The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is usually a:
Rifled bore
Choke bore
Full choke bore
Smooth bore
The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a firearm discharge will
usually produce detectable powder pattern on a target is about:
6 to 10 inches
6 to 10 feet
6 to 10 yards
6 to 10 meters
When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a criminal:
The empty shell remain within the chamber
The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should:
Grasp the stock
Be straight along the barrel
Touch the outside of the trigger guard
Be inside of the trigger guard
A member of the police force may properly used his pistol:
To disperse a disorder group of people
To subdue a maniac
To prevent the escape of a pelon
To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime
A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a revolver, in
reference to this he should be most careful:
To see that it is not loaded
To put on the safety lock
Not to handle it unnecessarily
To mark it readily on the barrel
The term “MAGNUM” originated in:
United States
France
England
Italy
The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due to rusting or the
action of salts deposited from the cap or gunpowder is:
Pressure
Extractor
Corrosion
Priming Composition
The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm due to sliding
friction when the bullet passes through is:
Ejector
Single action
Erosion
Potassium nitrate
When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire continuously while
the trigger is depressed is called:
Double action
Caliber
Automatic
Trigger
The distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn inside
the gun barrel is called:
Gauge
Breech End
Pitch of rifling
Velocity
Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases the hammer that must
be manually cocked is called:
Automatic
Repeating arms
Single action
Ejector
Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks and releases the
hammer:
Single action
Trigger
Hammer
Double action
When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability bored with a
slightly constriction near the muzzle end is known as:
Shotgun
Choke
Gauge
Chamber
The only sure method of determining the velocity is by the use of:
Micrometer
Taper Gauge
Caliber
Chronograph
One of the most important single case in Firearms Identification History
was that involving two men who were supposed to have their employer and
his housekeeper in upper New York State:
Castelo Case
Timbol Case
The Stielow Case
Castaneda case
During the seven years of radical agitation that followed the arrest of
these men , It was apparently forgotten that they had been seized on
specific charge of murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard
Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange into national prominence during
this last phrase of:
Brownell Case
Sacco-Vanzetti Case
Mitchell Case
Weber Case
He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First World War who had
transferred to the ordinance corps and considered the Father of modern
Ballistics:
Lieutenant Van Amberg
Maj. Calvin Goddard
Capt. Edward C. Crossman
Philip O. Gravelle
The most important single process in barrel manufacture from the
standpoint of the identification expert is:
Reaming operation
Rifling operation
Boring operation
Grinding or machining
That part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes empty shells or
cartridge cases to be thrown from the gun is called:
Extractor
Ejector
Hammer
trigger
This process of combustion results in the solid powder being converted
into gases rapidly, and at a high temperature, and it is the expansion of
these gases which causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or
shot charge along the barrel. This force is known as:
Energy
Pressure
Velocity
High Intensity
A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with the right hand
twist is:
Smith & Wesson
Browning type
Colt type
Webley type
An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by the expansive
force of gases coming from burning powder a:
Helixometer
Firearm
Stereoscopic
Comparison microscope
A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of the bullet which
contains lubricant in order to minimize friction during the passage of
the bullet inside the bore is:
Jacketed bullet
Wad cutter bullet
Cannelure
Plated bullet
The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its original trajectory
is:
Range
Fouling
Key hole shot
ricochet
Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or there is a delayed
in explosion due to faulty functioning of the primer or faulty ignition
of the propellant is:
Misfire
Recoil
Hang-fire
velocity
type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as phosphorus or other
material, that can set fire upon impact is called:
Boat tail bullet
Tracer bullet
Incendiary bullet
Ball type
A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”.
Gatling guns
Pistolized shotgun
Carbine
muskets
A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by means of compressed
air is:
Springfield armory
Marlin rifle
Carbine
Air rifle
A 7.62 mm. x 51 is equivalent to:
.32 caliber
.308 caliber
.30 caliber
.30-60 caliber
The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol is:
5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
Caliber .32
Caliber .25
Caliber .45
Caliber .22
How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch shot shotgun cartridges
contains:
12 gauge
24 pellets
6 pellets
9 pellets
Here is a case, when two specimens are examined under the comparison
microscopic and was erroneously drawn a conclusion and actually no
identity exist, this matching is called:
Photomicrograph
Pseudomatch
Microphotograph
striagraph
Here is a case, when two specimens are examined under the comparison
microscopic and was erroneously drawn a conclusion and actually no
identity exist, this matching is called:
Photomicrograph
Pseudomatch
Microphotograph
striagraph
When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a stationary position and is
forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural tendency is to go straight
forward before encountering the regular rifling twist is called:
Shaving marks
Skidmarks
Individual characteristics
Slippage marks
Those characteristics which are determinable only after the manufacture
of the firearm. They are characteristics whose existence is beyond the
control of men and which have random distribution. Their existence in a
firearm is brought about through the failure of the tool in its normal
operation through wear and tear, abuse, mutilation, corrosion, erosion
and other fortuitous causes:
Forensic ballistics
Class characteristics
Riflings
Individual characteristics
The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against the force of
the charge is:
Breechface
Breechblock
Chamber
bore
Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch in diameter are
generally classified as:
Artillery
Small arms
Cannons
Recoilless rifle
The actual pattern or curved path traveled by a bullet in flight is:
Velocity
Trajectory
Penetration
Pressure generated
It is the study of firearms Identification by means of the ammunition
fired through them:
Ballistics
Forensic Ballistics
Terminal ballistics
Interior ballistics
The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, revolver caliber .38 is:
Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
Foot pound
Lbs./sq. inch
Feet per second
millimeter
How many types of problem are there in Forensic Ballistics?
8
7
6
5
What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the flame coming from
the priming composition passes?
Shell head
Vent
Primer pocket
anvil
What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
Magnum .357
Magnum .44
Magnum .50
Magnum .41
What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter?
7.65mm
6.35 mm
9 mm
7.63 mm
This barrel is formed by twisting or braiding together by steel, iron or
bars.
Paradox gun
Damascus barrel
Smooth bore firearm
Artillery firearm
When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in explosion;
Misfired cartridge
Hang-fire
Tapered cartridge
Rebated cartridge
What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of the bullet?
Omoscope
Helixometer
Chronograph
micrometer
Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of:
Pitch grifling
Twist
Lands & grooves
cannelures
The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after explosion is
called:
Suppressor
Muzzle blast
Compensation
choke
This type of bullet is fired from a pistol that doesn’t have clear-cut
shoulders of lands & grooves.
Conventional bullet
Polygonal bullet
Copper jacketed bullet
Lead bullet
What are muzzle loading firearms?
Muskets
Shotgun
Single sot firearms
Rifled arms
In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you mean by 51?
The diameter of the cartridge case
The shoulder of the cartridge case
The diameter of the cartridge
The length of the cartridge case
A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
Caliber .32
Caliber .30
Caliber .308
Caliber 30.06
How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun cartridge 12 gauge?
12 pellets
9 pellets
10 pellets
16 pellets
. A firearm which features a movable firearm which is manually actuated
in motion parallel to the barrel by the shooter;
Slide action type
Lower action type
Bolt action type
Single shot firearm
A device primarily designed for another purposes that have a gun
mechanism in corporated in them.
Gas gun
Liberator
Freakish device
Flare guns
The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the head of the
cartridge case to shotshell to identify the manufacturer, caliber or
gauge.
Headspace
Headstamp
Proof mark
ratchet
The distance from the face of the closed breech of a firearm to the
surface in the chamber on which the cartridge seats.
Keyhole
Headspace
Gas operator
Silencer
The most important single process in barrel manufacture from the
standpoint of the identification expert.
Reaming operation
Rifling operation
Boring operation
Grinding operation
The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the target sideways;
Ricochet
Hang-fire
Key hole shot
misfired
An obsolete barrel designed in which the major length of the barrel in
smooth and the few inches are rifled.
Gas operated
Damascus barrel
Paradox gun
Cape gun
A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to rotate when force
is applied by a level called a hand.
Headspace
Ratchet
Trigger pull
Cylinder stop
A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to prevent accident
discharge or damage to it.
Trigger pull
Trigger guard
Trailing edge
Thumb rest
Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
feet/second
Lbs./sq. inch
Foot pound
millimeter
Used in cases such as for sending signals and enabling to see enemies in
the dark.
Harpoon guns
Gas guns
Flare guns
Care guns
In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second 30?
Refers to the caliber
Refers to the weight of gunpowder
Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
Refers to the weight of the bullet
In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
Muzzle energy
Diameter of the cartridge
Muzzle velocity of the bullet
Pressure developed
In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more than one bullets
will come out of the barrel in one press of the trigger?
Slide
Main spring
Disconnector
Magazine catch
The amount of force which must be applied to the trigger of a firearm to
cause sear to be released.
Velocity
Muzzle energy
Trigger pull
Shocking power
Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in police

photography?
Single, glossy, white
Single, matte, cream
Double, glossy, white
Double matte, cream
When a photograph was developed, the objects in open space casts a deep
and uniform shadow, what was the lighting condition when the shot was
taken?
Bright
Dull
Hazy
Cloudy
Refers to the response of film to different wavelength of light source.
Spectral sensitivity
Color sensitivity
Light sensitivity
Film sensitivity
A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.
Blue sensitive
Orthochromatic
Panchromatic
Infra red
Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow.
Bright
Dull
Hazy
Cloudy
Lens corrected for astigmatism.
Aprochomat lens
Anastigmat lens
Achromatic lens
Rapid rectilinear lens
A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with focal length that
is:
Wide angle lens
Normal lens
Telephoto lens
Narrow angle lens
When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it is said to be:
Transparent
Translucent
Opaque
All of the above
To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs and transmits light
rays passing through it.
Filter
Stop bath
Developer
Fixer
In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens type for interior
photograph?
Wide angle lens
Normal lens
Telephoto lens
Narrow angle lens
Refers to the most difficult lens defect.

Astigmatism
Coma
Distortion
Chromatic aberration
It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined

time interval.
View finder
Shutter
Light tight box
Holder of sensitized material
Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the subject.
Light tight box
Shutter
Lens
View finder
It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given
particular diaphragm opening.
Depth of field
Hyper-focal distance
Focal distance
Scale bed
It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.
Depth field
Scale bed
Focal distance
Which among the following is not a primary color?
Red
Blue
Yellow
Green
It is a microscopically small photograph.
Microphotograph
Photomicrograph
Photomacrograph
Macrophotograph
The normal developing time of a paper or film.
1 to 1 ½ minutes
5 to 10 minutes
20 to 30 minutes
30 to 60 minutes
In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing?
Chloride paper
Bromide paper
Contact paper
Chloro-bromide paper
This refers to the absence of all colors.
White
Red
Blue
Black
A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent
shadow.
Hazy
Cloudy Dull
Cloudy bright
Bright
To view watermarks in disputed documents, what particular method of
photography is utilized?
Bounce light
Side light
Transmitted light
Reflected light
Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical
solution in chemical processing in photography.
Development
Stop-bath
Fixation
Bleaching
Which among the following comprises the essential parts of a camera?
Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized material, View finder
Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized material, View finder
Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized material, Shutter
Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder of sensitized
material
A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
Wide angle lens
Normal lens
Long lens
Telephoto lens
Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of convergence of light
coming from a subject as seen from two apertures.
Focusing scale
Scale bed
View finder
Range finder
It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by connecting the
lens of a camera with the ocular of a compound microscope.
Microphotograph
Photomicrograph
Photomacrograph
Macrophotograph
Attributed as the person who first discovered first true photography.
William Henry Fox Talbot
Thomas Wedgewood
Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
Joseph Nicephore Niepce
Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with
normal subject.
1/30 f-8
1/125 f-11
1/60 f-4
1/250 f 2-8
In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a
camera at what particular level?
Elevated
Eye level
Bird’s eye view
Worm’s eye view
The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference to visible light
is:
001 to 100
300 to 400
400 to 700
700 to 1000
Photography is defined as drawing with what particular element?
Light
Camera
Film
Developer
It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker center and
thinner sides.
Positive lens
Negative lens
Concave lens
Convex lens
It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the various
energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Infra-red
X-ray
Orthochromatic
Panchromatic
The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?
Crime prevention
Identification files
Surveillance work
Crime scene investigation
The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the
paper or film becomes visible.
Fixer
Bleacher
Stop bath
Developer
Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.

Microphotography
Photomicrography
Macrophotography
Photomacrography
The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image refers to:
Focal distance
Focusing
Focal length
Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
Laser light
Coherent light
Black light
Heat rays
The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in logarithmic values refers

to:
ISO rating
ASA rating
DIN rating
BSI rating
Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing solution.
Hypo or silver halide
Potassium Alum
Sodium Sulfate
Acetic Acid
Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
Hydroquinone
Sodium sulfite
Sodium carbonate
Potassium bromide
Refers to the product of illumination and time.
Exposure
Development
Sensitized material
Photograph
Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
Potassium Bromide
Sodium Sulfite
Sodium Carbonate
Boric Acid
A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits differentially light
rays passing through it.
Stop bath
Fixer
Filter
Dektol
Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:
Fingers
Palms
Soles of the feet
All of the above
The fingerprint classification which is used in the US
Henry System
Batley System
Bertillion System
Galton System
Which among the following is considered as a basic type of ridge
characteristics?
Ridge endings
Bifurcation
Dots
All of the foregoing
Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as
means of identification.
Edgeoscopy
Poroscopy
Podoscopy
Chiroscopy
In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
Necessary
Unnecessary
Optional
Excessive
Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is:
Temporary
Permanent
Lasting
Stable
An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
Porelon
Special pad
Inkless pad
None of the foregoing
If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression are held to
be:
Plain whorl meeting
Loops
Arches
Dependent on ridge tracings
Referred to as outer terminus:
Delta
Dots
Bifurcation
Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
Impression of false markings
Accentuation of patterns
Pattern reversals
Difficulty in photographing
In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the body of the
subject.
All fingers
All fingers except the thumbs
Both thumbs
Both little fingers
Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are
referred to as:
Rolled impressions
Plain impressions
Fragmentary impressions
Visible impressions
Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are
exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20
years.
Darwin
Mendel
Galton
Bertillon
The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to view the area:
Obliquely
About half an inch distance
Directly
About one inch distance
Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are
represented:
Accidental Whorl
Central pocket loop
Double loop
Whorl
A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its
respective shoulder and deltas.
Double loop
Accidental loop
Central pocket loop
Whorl
A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.
Accidental loop
Double loop
Whorl
Central pocket loop
What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the
little finger?
Tented Arch
Radial loop
Ulnar loop
Loop
A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of
the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
Tented arch
Radial loop
Ulnar loop
Loop
It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the
outer portion of the pattern.
Latent prints
Ridge
Core
Delta
The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs
Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
Type lines, converging ridges and recurving ridges
A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is
called:
Enclosure ridge
Dot ridges
Short ridges
Resembling a loop
Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.
Soles of the foot
Palm
Finger
Elbow
Points often missed in rolling impression.
Bifurcation
Core
Delta
Ridge
Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or
imprint.
Latent print
Pattern
Loop
Arch
Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
Loop
Arch
Whorl
Accidental
A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals
around core axes.
Whorl
Central pocket loop
Double loop
Accidental
Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as
a means of identification.
Poroscopy
Edgeoscopy
Podoscopy
Dactyloscopy
A ridge which forks out into two ridges.
Delta
Bifurcation
Core
Pores
Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the
little finger toward the thumb.
Ulnar loop
Radial loop
Arch
Whorl
Basis of fingerprint identification.
Pores
Ridges
Friction ridges
Latent print
Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification
due to following reason; except:
Fingerprints are not changeable
There are no two identical fingerprints
Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and
developed?
3rd month of fetal life
6th month of infancy
At birth
3 months after birth
Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or

rod.
Delta
Core
Ridge
Whorl
Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the identity between
two points.
Nine
Twelve
Fifteen
Eighteen
Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and chemical
properties, physiological action, treatment and method of detection.
Forensic Chemistry
Toxicology
Posology
Forensic Medicine
A substance which when introduced into the body is absorbed in the blood
stream and acting chemically is capable of producing noxious effect.
Drugs
Dangerous drugs
Poison
Antidotes
Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the mucus membrane and
characterized by vomiting, pain in the abdomen and purging.
Corrosives
Irritants
Narcotics
Tetanics
When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord producing immobility
or stiffness to the parts to which they are attached, it is classified
as:
Corrosives
Irritants
Narcotics
Tetanics
In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important application in:
Counterfeit coins
Theft and Robbery
Bombs and Explosives
Restoration of tampered serial numbers
Agents which depress or retard the physiological action of an organ.
Corrosives
Sedatives
Tetanics
Narcotics
According to the methods of isolation, what poison is isolated by means
of distillation.
Volatile poisons
Non volatile poisons
Metallic poisons
Tetanic poisons
When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of function or death
within a short time, the poisoning is classified as:
Acute poisoning
Sub-acute poisoning
Chronic poisoning
Suicidal poisoning
When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance produced in
distant part from the site of application, it is classified as:
Local
Remote
Combined
Acute
Refers to the branch of science which treats of the form and quantity of
medicine to be administered within a certain period.
Pharmacy
Posology
Toxicology
Pharmacology
Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
Semen
Blood
Cells
Muscles
A man of average built would normally have how many quarts of blood?
6 quarts
7 quarts
8 quarts
9 quarts
It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 65% of the
blood.
Platelets
Fibrin
Leucocytes
Plasma
It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.
Plasma
Hemoglobin
Erythrocytes
Fibrin
Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and
stained with contamination.
Benzidine test
Van Deen’s Test
Phenolphthalein test
Precipitin test
Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is
definitely blood.
Preliminary test
Confirmatory test
Precipitin test
Blood typing and grouping
Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
Preliminary test
Confirmatory test
Precipitin test
Blood typing and grouping
Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen in Barberio’s
test.
Picric acid
Spermine picrate
Napthol diazonium
Anthraquinous chloride
Coffee when given to drunk persons is what kind of antidote?
Cathartic
Chemical
Physiological
Demulcent
Animal fiber may be best described by:
It is composed of protein
Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light
It burns fast
It has acid like odor when burned
When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the approximate time of
firing the gun?
Soot
Nitrates and nitrites
Gases
Metallic fragments
In determining whether the hair is of human or animal origin what should
the chemist examine under the microscope?
Parts of the shaft
Parts of the tip
Parts of the hair
Parts of the root
A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue litmus to red, it
is:
Cotton
Silk
Fiber glass
Steel wool
It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race determinant?
Cortex
Cuticle
Medulla
Shaft
A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal
origin
Ignition test or burning
Fluorescence analysis
Chemical analysis
Microscopic analysis
Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is ineffective.
Carbon
Logwood
Nigrosine
Gallotanic
Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.
Emetics
Antidotes
Alkaloids
Tetanics
Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to
u.v. light?
Blood
Semen
Saliva
Urine
Oldest known explosive.
Black powder
Smoke powder
Dynalite
TNT
Deals with the study and identification of body fluids.
Immunology
Serology
Posology
Pharmacology
The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
Casting
Cementing
Moulage
Pickling
Major component of a glass.
Lime
Silica
Soda
Lime
Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and
causes nausea.
Corrosives
Irritants
Tetanics
Asthenics
Poison which produces stupor and less feeling.
Neurotics
Irritants
Depressant
Narcotics
A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
Lime
Soda
Glass
Gel
An organic bacterial poison.
Strychnine
Ptomaine
Brucine
Chloroform
This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained
clothing.
Microscopic test
Barberio’s test
Florence test
Ultraviolet test
The best method in comparative soil analysis.
Chemical examination
Density gradient test
Ultra-violet light examination
Microscopic test
To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
Accelerated aging test
Bursting strength test
Opacity examination
Microscopic examination
A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
Chloride
Ammonia
Carbon dioxide
Hydrogen sulfide
The application of chemical principles in the examination of evidence.
Forensics
Criminalistics
Instrumentation
Forensic Chemistry
To positively determine the presence of blood in stained material, what
test is used?
Takayama Test
Phenolphtalien test
Baberio’s test
Florence test
According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may be isolated by
means of what process?
Extraction
Dilution
Distillation
Dialysis
Which of the following is not an accurate test for the presence of
alcohol in the human body?
Saliva test
Harger breath test
Fecal test
Drug test
A disturbance produced by poison on that part with which the poison came
into contact.
Acute
Local
Remote
Combined
A material which is used to which is used to improve the quality of the

paper.
Sizing material
Rosin
Gelatin
Starch
By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed if it is pesent.
Rosin
Starch
Casein
Gelatin
Oldest ink material known to man.
Logwood
Nigrosine
Carbon
Gallotanic
Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
Logwood
Nigrosine
Carbon
Gallotanic
It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, pencil or
other marking material.
Erasure
Obliterated writing
Indented writing
Contact writing
A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in

male the supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with females.
Less sharp
Sharper
More pointed
Smoother
Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
Greater
Equal
Lesser
Less significant
How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration,
circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a person
clinically dead?
10-15 minutes
15-30 minutes
30-45 minutes
45-60 minutes
A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water
or mercury in a container on top of the chest of a person and no visible
movement is noticed.
Winslov test
Florence test
Barberio test
Castle Meyer test
A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in
which it no longer responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to
the dissolution of proteins.
Stage of primary flaccidity
Stage of secondary flaccidity
Rigor mortis
Livor mortis
In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in
how many days?
7
14
21
28
Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death?
1
2
3
4
Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of
alignment of the affected bones and separation of fragment bones.
Simple fracture
Compound fracture
Comminuted fracture
Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
Internal hemorrhage
Hematoma
Contusion
Internal wound
Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
Imprint abrasion
Pressure abrasion
Friction abrasion
Graze
Reduction of oxygen in the blood.
Hypoxia
Asphyxia
Hypercapnea
Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying
movement over the skin.
Pressure abrasion
Imprint abrasion
Impact abrasion
Graze
A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of
consciousness.
Epilepsy
Apoplexy
Catalepsy
Uremia
Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the
urine; specifically a toxic condition seen in urinary suppression, marked
by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion.
Epilepsy
Apoplexy
Catalepsy
Uremia
Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when
the blood has already clotted or diffused to different parts of the body
wherein the discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
12 hours
24 hours
36 hours
48 hours
In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A
or B what would be the particular blood group of the sample.
Group A
Group B
Group AB
Group O
Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
10 years
20 years
30 years
40 years
It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy
substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
Saponification
Rigor mortis
Mummification
Maceration
A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in
the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts
20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
Rigor mortis
Primary flaccidity
Maceration
Livor mortis
Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
2 to 3 hours
3 to 4 hours
4 to 5 hours
5 to 6 hours
Rate of growth of human hair.
0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is
about:
10 to 15 deg. F
15 to 20 deg. F
20 to 25 deg. F
25 to 30 deg. F
Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the
blood stream. It may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct and
subsequent congestion of the gland.
Perforated peptic ulcer
Generalized peritonitis
Acute intestinal obstruction
Acute pancreatitis
A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
Wound
Trauma
Bruise
Scratch
A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will
endanger one’s life.
Non-mortal wound
Mortal wound
Trauma
Coup injury
A collection of blood underneath the skin.
Contusion
Bruise
Petechiae
Hematoma
Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin
discoloration and extreme pain.
Sprain
Contusion
Fracture
Dislocation
It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
Simple
Compound
Comminuted
Dislocation
A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external
wounds.
Sprain
Fracture
Hematoma
Dislocation
In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissue and blackening
of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning
that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
6 inches
12 inches
18 inches
24 inches
A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site
of the application of force.
Extensive injury
Coup injury
Contre coup injury
Coup and contre coup injury
A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
Extensive injury
Coup injury
Contre coup injury
Coup and contre coup injury
A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
Punctured wound
Hack wound
Lacerated wound
Incised wound
When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be
exhibited?
Punctured wound
Hack wound
Lacerated wound
Incised wound
Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.

Punctured wound
Hack wound
Lacerated wound
Incised wound
The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for what?
Adenine
Adenide
Adenum
Adenoid
In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be
obtained for DNA testing?
Fingerprints
Hair
Skeleton
Teeth
It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the
cell body
Nuclear DNA
Helix
Mitochondrial DNA
DNA nucleus
Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
10 years
20 years
30 years
40 years
A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation
and almost all brain function of an organism.
Somatic death
Cellular death
Molecular death
Apparent death
Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
Mannerism
Tic
Gait
Body language
This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is
characterized by the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural
tone.
Stage of primary flaccidity
Post mortem rigidity
Cadaveric spasm
Secondary flaccidity
Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.
Minimum of 2 weeks
Minimum of 4 weeks
Minimum of six weeks
Minimum of eight weeks
Period of time wherein there body would be skeletonized, under normal
conditions in tropical countries.
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change.
Cold stiffening
Heat stiffening
Instantaneous rigor
Putrefaction
Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has
diffused to different parts of the body.
Diffusion lividity
Clotting of the blood
Rigor mortis
Hypostatic lividity
Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal
conditions.
2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters
2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters
5 to 10 cubic centimeters
10 to 15 cubic centimeters
DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the
fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
Deonatural acid
Dynamic natural anti-body
Deoxyribonucleic acid
Deoxyribunucliec acid
A powerful tool in identification which points to the source of
biological evidence by matching it with samples from the victims,
suspects and their relatives.
DNA profiling
Serology
Instrumentation
Forensics
Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
Saliva and tears
Semen and saliva
Urine and semen
Semen and blood
Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA testing.
Hair
Bone
Skin
Fingernails
It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its
bacteria and enzyme.
Primary flaccidity
Post mortem rigidity
Cadaveric spasm
Putrefaction
Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female.
Possession of vagina
Possession of ovaries
Possession of estrogen
Possession of progesterone
A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.
Hippocratic facie
Mongolian facie
Myxedema facie
Facies lionine
Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
Presence of testis
Presence of androsterone
Possession of penis
Possession of testosterone
A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the
respiratory track after death.
“Cutis anserina”
Washerwoman
“Champignon d’ ocume”
Cadaveric spasm
It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
Natural death
Molecular death
Somatic death
Apparent death
A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact with
a moving object.
Thermal burn
Friction burn
Radiation burn
Electrical burn
A condition of a woman who have had one or more sexual experience but not
had conceived a child.
Moral virginity
Demi-virginity
Physical virginity
Virgo intact
Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
Flaccidity
Rigidity
Lividity
Putrefaction
A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body
which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by
cold stiffening and diminished body temperature.
Gangrene
Frostbite
Trench foot
Immersion foot
Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating
mechanism.
Heat cramp
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Burning
In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?
Skull
Pelvis
Sternum
Tibia
A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and bones, considered as
the most severe burn causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes
in the body and massive infection.
Sunburn
1st degree burn
2nd degree burn
3rd degree burn
A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the
case of death would be?
Stupor
Stroke
Asphyxia
Exhaustion
Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.
Gonodal test
Social test
Genital test
Chromosomal test
Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the time of death.
Cadaveric spasm
Putrefaction
Mascular contraction
Rigor mortis
Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
Masturbation
Fingering
Sodomy
Sexual intercourse
In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:
20 to 30 minutes
3 to 6 hours
12 to 24 hours
24 to 36 hours
Most noticeable sign of death.
Cessation of respiration
Progressive fall of body temperature
Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
Cessation of heart action and circulation
Most common and scientific method of detecting deception.
Polygraphy
Polygraph
Truth serum
Interrogation
Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate,
respiration and blood pressure.
William Marston
Angelo Mosso
John Larson
Sticker
Psychological response to any demand.
Reaction
Stress
Pressure
All of the above
For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is to be utilized
in the system of cardio or vent.
30 mm
60 mm
90 mm
120 mm
A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for
polygraph examination.
5
6
7
8
Type of question related to the facts of the case and is answerable by
NO.
Relevant question
Irrelevant question
General question
Immaterial question
Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.
Relevant question
Irrelevant question
General question
Immaterial question
An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something is hidden or
obscure.
Fear
Deception
Detection
Reaction
An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or organism as
a result of stimulation.
Response
Deception
Detection
Reaction
Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go
beyond a person’s defensive power.
Response
Reaction
Stimuli
Fear
This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
Cardiosphygmograph
Kymograph
Galvanograph
Pneumograph
Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
Finger electrode plate
Diacritic notch
Rubber convoluted tube
Kymograph
This component record changes of the subject blood pressure and pulse
rate.
Cardiosphygmograph
Sphygmomanometer
Galvanograph
Pneumograph
It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of
electricity.
Cardisphygmograph
Sphygmomanometer
Galvanograph
Pneumograph
This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.

Cardisphygmograph
Sphygmomanometer
Galvanograph
Pneumograph
Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
Black lie
White lie
Red lie
Yellow lie
Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
Reaction
Normal response
Specific response
Positive response
Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
Reaction
Normal response
Specific response
Positive response
Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
20 to 30 minutes
30 to 60 minutes
60 to 90 minutes
90 to 120 minutes
The primary objective of post test interview.
To thank the subject
To obtain confession
To make the subject calm
To explain polygraph test procedures
The purpose of pretest interview.
To prepare subject for polygraph test
To obtain confession
To make the subject calm
To explain polygraph test procedures
Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in
degree and consistency.
Guilt complex test
Silent answer
Peak of tension
None of the above
Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of
response.
Relevant questions
Irrelevant questions
Supplementary questions
Control questions
The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph.
3
4
5
6
Did you hide Senator Lacson in your beach resort? Is an example of
interrogation in lie detection which is:
Control question
Irrelevant question
Relevant question
Leading question
Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
William Marston
Harold Burtt
John Larson
Leonarde Keeler
He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs
of deception.
William Marston
Harold Burtt
Leonard Keeler
John Larson
Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for accused
persons.
Angelo Mosso
Veraguth
Lombroso
Vittorio Benussi
Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
Angelo Mosso
Veraguth
Lombroso
Vittorio Benussi
Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration
component and blood pressure.
Harold Burtt
Hans Gross
Leonarde Keeler
John Larson
Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally without any attempt
to change or control its identifying habits and its usual quality of
execution.
Natural writing
Disguised writing
Cursive writing
System of writing
Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide his identity is
using:
Natural writing
Disguised writing
Cursive writing
System of writing
Writing in which are for most part joined together.
Natural writing
Disguised writing
Cursive writing
System of writing
Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual
handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
Normal variation
Natural variation
Tremor
Wrong hand writing
A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted
produces a:
Guided signature
Normal signature
Scribble
Handwriting signature
A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.
Embellishment
Beard
Buckle knot
Diacritic
A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.
Hook
Spur
Loop
Staff
An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
Hook
Spur
Loop
Staff
The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of many capital
letters and which can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes
of small letters.
Embellishment
Beard
Buckle knot
Hitch
A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
Embellishment
Beard
Buckle knot
Diacritic
Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of
holding the writing instrument.
Line quality
Rhythm
Baseline
Writing pressure
Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
Embellishment
Hump
Diacritic
Knot
Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of
impulse.
Line quality
Rhythm
Baseline
Writing pressure
Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the
pen against the paper surface with increase pressure.
Writing pressure
Shading
Pen emphasis
Natural variation
An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
Line quality
Baseline
Foot
Hitch
A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without
attempting to copy to form of the genuine signature.
Traced forgery
Disguised forgery
Simulated forgery
Simple forgery
A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.
Traced forgery
Disguised forgery
Simulated forgery
Simple forgery
Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?
Continuity
Smoothness
Skillful writing
Tremor
Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as taught
in school.
Letter form
Line quality
Copy book form
System of writing
Document which is completely written and signed by one person.
Genuine document
Disputed document
Holographic document
Authentic document
A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
Altered documents
Disputed document
Obliterated document
Inserted document
Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.
Complete
Formal
Cursory
Careless scribble
It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original
undecipherable.
Decipherment
Restoration
Obliteration
Interlineation
A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.

Formal
Complete
Cursory
Careless scribble
Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.
Complete
Cursory
Informal
Careless scribble
A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a fraudulent
document underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of pointed
instrument.
Carbon process
Indention process
Projection process
Transmitted light process
A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of
its outline.
Off its feet
Twisted letter
Clogged type face
Rebound
It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious
expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from fixed mental
impressions.
Handwriting
Writing
Typewriting
Writing movement
A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen-lifts
difficult.
Ball point pen
Fountain pen
Iron nutgall ink
Markers
Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of
movement control.
Pen lift
Retouching
Patching
Retracing
A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during
manufacture.
Water marks
Fiber marks
Paper design
Wire marks
In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition
is manifested?
Grainy image
Two image
Overlapping image
Three dimensional image
An element which is added to complete another letter.
Spur
Slant
Diacritics
Arc
It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and
normal writing conditions.
Complete signature
Standard signature
Evidential signature
Model signature
Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink
stroke.
Shading
Pen emphasis
Pen lift
Pen pressure
The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
Quality of the engraving
Color of the seal
Wet strength of the paper
Watermarks
A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or

superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
Priceless coin
Mutilated coin
False coin
All of the above
It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by
the momentum of the hand.
Tremor
Tremors of fraud
Genuine tremor
Deterioration
Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
Staff
Slant
Diacritics
Humps
A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
Pica
Elite
Proportional spacing machine
Adding machine
Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most
police departments.
Lee and Abbey
Rolando Wilson
Levine
Landsteiner
A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private
parties but notarized by competent officials.
Official document
Public document
Commercial document
Private document
An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
False coin
Counterfeit coin
Priceless coin
Mutilation of coin
It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
Character
Design
Pitch
Type face
Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
Base
Baseline
Foot
Staff
It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.
Slant
Diacritics
Staff
Foot
It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.
Decipherment
Collation
Obliteration
Comparison
An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying
characteristics.
Comparison
Collation
Conclusion
Examination
An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of
illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper.
Transmitted light examination
Oblique photography examination
Infrared examination
Ultraviolet examination
The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his
handwriting.
Questioned Document Examination
Polygraphy
Graphology
Psychology
Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.

Projectile
Ball
Shell
Missile
The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it
leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile
on the target.
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
Trigger
Hammer
Sear
Main spring
Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the
diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound equal to reciprocal gauge
index.
Caliber
Gauge
Shot
Charge
An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
Shotgun
Rifle
Musket
Pistol
A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one
charge.
Shotgun
Rile
Musket
Pistol
Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force
of the charge.
Breechblock
Breechface
Ejector
Extractor
Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the
chamber.
Breechblock
Breechface
Ejector
Extractor
Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
Rifling
Land
Groove
Cannelure
Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
Recoil
Force
Backfire
Shot force
Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding
friction when the bullet passes through it.
Erosion
Rusting
Corrosion
Decomposition
Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete turn.
Pitch of rifling
Choke
Trajectory
Recoil
Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit
Bullet
Primer
Gunpowder
Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base
portion of then fired cartridge.
Firing pin impression
Ejector marks
Extractor marks
Chamber marks
Failure of cartridge to discharge.
Misfire
Hang fire
Ricochet
Key hole shot
Invented the gunpowder.
Chinese
James Forsythe
Van Amberg
Berthold Schwartz
Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.
Cartridge
Primer
Bullet
Shell
The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
Gauge
Mean diameter
Caliber
Riflings
This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the
cartridge.
Hammer
Ejector
Trigger
Firing pin
Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
Breech
Ogive
Rim
Pitch
A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings.
Shotgun
Rifle
Pistol
Revolver
A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
Jacketed bullet
Metal cased bullet
Metal point bullet
Plated bullet
The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target
sideways.
Key hole shot
Ricochet
Hang fire
Misfire
A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
Interior
Exterior
Terminal
Forensic
Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.
3 test bullets/shell
4 test bullets
It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side
position.
Drag marks
Positively matched
Juxtaposition
Pseudomatch
Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
Range
Trajectory
Velocity
Yaw
Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is
projected.
Incendiary bullet
Ball bullet
Tracer bullet
Explosive bullet
Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
Mushroom
Key hole shot
Ricochet
Misfire
Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular
part?
From land to land
From land to groove
From groove to groove
From groove to land
Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
Frame
Barrel
Slide assembly
Rotating cylinder
The term double action in a firearm means.
Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
Manually cocks the hammer
Autoloads before firing
Double pressing of trigger
The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact.
Mushroom
Keyhole shot
Ricochet
Scorching
Regarded as the father of ballistics,
Albert Osborne
Col. Calvin H. Goddard
Hans Gross
Charles Waite
Raised portion between the groove found inside the barrel.
Land
Caliber
Gauge
Rifling
The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
Yaw
Trajectory
Velocity
Gyroscopic action
A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
Rifle
Revolver
Pistol
Sub-machine gun
It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
Rifling
Breaching
Ogive
Swaging
A primer with two vents or flash holes.
Bordan primer
Berdan primer
Boxer primer
Battery primer
Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
Flare guns
Zip guns
Matchlock
Freakish device
The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired
cartridges are concerned.
Extractor marks
Ejector marks
Chamber marks
Breech face marks
It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to
explode on time.
Misfire
Hang fire
Ricochet
Key hole shot
A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its
lands have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
Slippage marks
Skid marks
Rifling marks
Shearing marks
Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
Caliper
Chronograph
Test bullet
Bullet recovery box
Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of persons so as

to differentiate him from others
a. Dactyloscopy
c. Identification
b. Personal
d. Comparison
Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in person done
by measuring various bony structure of the human body.
a. Portrait-Parle c. Photography
b. Antropometry d. Anthropometry
1351. It is the principle involve in personal Identification, except.
a. Law of individuality
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
b. Law of infallibility d. Law of constancy
Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?

a. Hair b. Speech
c. Dress d. personal pharapernalia
1353. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
Identification.
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Dactyloscopy
c. Fingerprint Identification d. Photography
1354. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or
by____?
a. Exclusion b. Examination
c. Experimentation d. Inclusion
1355. The person credited for the discovery of the two main layers of
the friction skin.
a. Alphonse Bertillion c. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Herman Welcker d. J.C.A. Mayer
1356. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from white jade
containing the name and the thumb print of the owner.
a. Tien Chi c. Tein Chi
b. Tein Shi d. Tien Shi
1357. He is known to be the father of personal Identification having
devised the first scientific method of personal Identification.
a. John Dellinger c. Cesare Lombroso
b. John F. W. Herschel d. Alphonse Bertillion
1358. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of forty-one
years just to prove that prints do not change, except for some scratches
due to old age.
a. Herman Welcker c. Marcelo Malpighi
b. J.C.A. Mayer d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
1359. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for signature to
avoid impersonation among Indian native.
a. William Herschel c. Dr. Henry Faulds
b. Dr. Francis Galton d. Sir Edward Henry
1360. Is person considered to be the father of modern fingerprint. His
system of classification was accepted in almost all English speaking
country.
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Juan Vucetich
c. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Dr. Hans Gross
1361. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges and pores of
the hand and feet which was read before the Royal Society of London.
a. Nehemiah Grew b. G. Bidloo
c. Hintze d. Albinus
1362. A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
a. Fingerprint b. Skeletal Identification
c. Odontology d. Photography
1363. The following are characteristics of man which can easily be

changed EXCEPT?
a. Hair Growth c. Body Ornamentation
b. Speech d. Clothing
1364. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who
is almost a stranger?
a. 100 yrds
b. 25 yrds
c. 16-17 yrds
d. 10-13 yrds
1365. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives
recognition to the science of fingerprint?
a. People Vs. Medina
c. People Vs. Jennings (U.S.)
b. Miranda Vs. Arizona d. West Case
1365. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of
fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark as a
protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
c. Gilbert Thompson
b. Capt James Parke
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
1366. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive examination in
fingerprint which was initiated by New York Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Generoso Reyes c. Isabela Bernales
b. Patricio Agustin d. Marcelo Bonifacio
1367. Father of fingerprint patters who said that is there is
possibility for two prints to be the same it is 1:63,000,000,000.
a. Francis Bacon c. Francis Galton
b. J.C.A. Mayer d. Herman Welker
1368. The person who used the system of identification which was
accepted by Spanish countries.
a. Juan Vucetich c. Henry Faulds
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. William Herschel
1369. Is the law which states that the greater the number of the
similarity or differences the more probability for the conclusion to be
correct..
a. Law of Infallability
c. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
b. Law of Permenancy
d. Law of Barcelinity
1370. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
a. Greek word c. French word
b. Latin word d. English word
1371. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with the
interpretation of one’s personality?
a. Dactyloscopy c. Dactylomancy
b. Dactylography d. Dactylo-analysis
1372. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of the last
joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth surface with the aid of
sweet or ink?
a. Dactyloscopy c. Dactyloanalysis
b. Latent Print
d. Fingerprint
1373. Which of the following serves the importance of Poroscopy?
a. For determination of whether the prints belong to a young or
adult person.
b. For Identification of person
c. For determination of whether the prints was taken during the
lifetime or after death of a person
d. B and C only
1374. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will constitute
a permanent scar.
a. Epidermis c. Stratum corneum
b. Dermis d. Stratum mucosum
1375. Considered to be the Father of Poroscopy.
a. Francis Galton c. Marcelo Malpighe
b. John Herschel d. Edmond Locard
1376. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the ridges.
a. Podoscopy
c. Poroscopy
b. Chiroscopy
d. Edgeoscopy
1377. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a permanent scar
in a normal friction skin?
a. less than 1cm c. less than 1 mm
b. more than 1cm d. more than 1mm
1378. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in U.S who
attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of corrosive acid.
a. John Derenger c. John Dillenger
b. Robert James Pitts
d. Robert Joworski
1379. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and without hair
found on the palm of the hand and soles of the feet?
a. Epidermal skin c. Papillary skin
b. Friction d. All of these
1380. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers the skin?
a. Epidermis c. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum Sangum d. Stratum musocum
1381. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the hands?
a. Podoscopy c. Chiroscopy
b. Poroscopy d. Chairoscopy
1382. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores)
in an inked finger impression?
a. sweat pores
c. furrows
b. ridges
d. sweat duct
1383. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction
skin (found between ridges).
a. pores
c. indentions
b. furrows
d. duct
1385. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat is
excreted?
a. duct b. furrows c. pores
d. sweat glands
1386. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? (types)
a. three
b. two
c. eight
d. nine
1387. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and dermis
layer which responsible for the ridge formation
a. Generating layer c. Dermal papillae
b. Sweat glands d. Dermis Papillary
1388. During what stage of the fetus life the ridges starts to develop?
a. 5th to 6th months before birth c. 7th to 8th months
b. 3rd to 4th months
d. 3rd to 4th months before birth
1389. The person who attempt to destroy his fingerprint through surgery.
Also known as the man without fingerprint?
a. John Augustus c. Robert James Pitts
b. John Dillenger
d. Roscoe Pitts
1390. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states that
fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of Identification?
a. Principle of Individuality b. Principle of
Constancy
c. Principle of Infallibility
d. Principle of Permanency
1391. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the
pattern and flow to the other side with a rise in the center?
a. loop
c. tented arch
b. plain arch
d. exceptional arch
1392. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have
_______ridge count.
a. 1
c. 2
b. at least 1
d. 3
1393. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges
makes a turn through one complete circuit?
a. arch
c. loop
b. accidental whorl
d. whorl
1394. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of
the three basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain arch
c. central pocket loop
b. tented arch
d. accidental whorl
1395. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting
ridges flows towards the little finger?
a. loop b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop d. tented arc
1396. The diagonal sign / means ________.
a. right hand ulnar c. left hand radial
b. left hand ulnar d. none
1397. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving ridge
and a ridge count of at least one.
a. radial loop b. ulnar loop c. loop
d. tented arch
1398. What type of a pattern consisting of two or more deltas, one or
more ridge forming a complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is
drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or cross the circuiting
ridge/s considered as the most common type of whorl.
a. plain whorl
c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
d. accidental whorl
1399. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not
included in the combination?
a. ulnar loop b. plain whorl c. tented arch
d. plain arch
1400. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
a. inner terminus
c. outer terminus
b. focal point
d. pattern area
1401. A point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near
the center of the diverging typelines.
a. core
c. island ridge
b. delta d. convergence
1402. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation
deltas which conform to the definition of delta?
the one nearest the core should be chosen
the one away from the core should be counted
the one which does not open towards the core is counted
the one towards the core should be counted
1403. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary
line, how is it counted?
a. one b. two
c. three d. six
1404. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side
by side?
a. bifurcation
c. convergence
b. divergence
d. enclosure
1405. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?
a. lake c. ending ridge
b. island ridge
d. incipient ridge
1406. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form
the original figure?
a. bifurcation c. island ridge
b. lake ridge
d. convergence
1407. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction
from which it started?
a. diverging ridge c. recurving
ridge
b. converging ridge d. bifurcation
1408. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow
above the right delta and there are three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl
c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl
d. central pocket loop whorl
1409.The primary objective of Philippine National Police:

A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention
1410. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It

was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Rafael Palma C. Cesar Nazareno
B. Rafael Crame D. Emilio Aguinaldo
1411. Angelo joined the PNP in 1997. She was 30 years old then. What year
can Eugene retire?
A. 2017 B. 2031
C. 2032 D. 2023
1412. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of
insurgency and serious treats to national security?
The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving insurgency and other serious treats to
national security.
The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other
serious treats to national security.
The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
All of these
1413. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all

kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field operations relative
to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to
Field Procedure
Time Specific plan
Problem oriented plan
Headquarters procedure
1414. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years. B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years. D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
1415. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance
and promotional examination for police members refers to:
A. RA 6040 B. RA 157 (NBI)
C. RA 5487 (security) D. PD 765 (INP)
1416. The theory of police service which states those police officers are
servants of the people or the community refers to:
A. Old C. Home rule
B. Modern D. Continental
1417. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine
National Police. What would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector B. Chief
Inspector
C. Inspector D. NONE
1418. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:
A. primary functions C. administrative functions
B. secondary functions D. auxiliary functions
1419. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose

evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made. D. Turnover the suspect to the
immediate supervisor.
1420. He is known as the father of modern policing system?
A. August Vollmer B. Robert Peel
C. Oliver Cromwell D. Cesare Lombroso
1421. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or
found explosives, what immediate actions should the patrol officer will
do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal
Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be
followed, after investigating the item.
1422. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the
Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in the PNP?
A. Inspector B. Chief Inspector
C. Senior Inspector D. Superintendent
1423. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
A. 1 B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
1423. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
A. Four star general C. Director
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General (PNP)
1424. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
A. 1:1000 B. 1:1500
C. 1:500 D. 1:7
1425. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the __________.

A. DDG for operation C. Chief, Directorial Staff
B. DDG for administration
D. Chief, PNP
Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and function of the
PNP?
A. enforce all laws and ordinances C. maintain peace and
order
B. investigate and prevent crimes D. prosecute criminal
offenders
1427. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which
means government of the city.
A. politia C. Polis
B. politeia D. Policy
1428. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives

of the organization will be attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B. police planning D. Development
1429. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human

resource development and continuing education of all personnel of the
PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC B. RTS
C.PNPA
D. NPC
1430. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint
against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB
D. NAPOLCOM
1431. The following are the grounds for Patrol officers to execute spot
checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the suspect’s prior criminal
record and;
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect is carrying a
pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, B. a, c, d
C. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
1432. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a
list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six B. Five (C.O.P.)
C. Three D. four
1433. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality
to prevent and deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-day services
to the community.
A. Patrol B. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol C. Area Patrol
1434. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

A. Director General
B. Solicitor General
C. Inspector General
D. IAS General
1435. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB
for every 500 police personnel?
A. one (1) B. more than one
C. at least one D. less than one
1436. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate
things to do when accident occur?
A. Cordon the area B. Go away and call your
superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital D. Chase the criminal
and Arrest him
1437. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP
in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who
introduces this DBS?
A. Dir. Alma Jose B. Dir. Romeo Pena
C. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
1438. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement
Board, EXCEPT:
Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of barangay captains
Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
1439. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the
reason for establishing such organization. They must identify the
organization’s _________:
A. strategy B. mission
C. vision D. objective
1440. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
establish objectives and standards
count the number of supervisors
require completed work
define authority and responsibility
1441. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one
person tends to:
Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as
well as between individual subordinate increases
Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the
subordinate
Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line
supervisory level to the management level
All of the above
1442. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through
unity of command from top to bottom of organization:
A. Audit B. Coordination
C. Monitoring D. Authority
1443. Which of the following statements is true:
Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel
1444. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:

Administrative control
Operational supervision
Administration and control
Policy and program coordination
1445. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is
the principle of __________:
delegation of authority
B. span of control
unity of command
chain of command
1446. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director
General of the PNP is;
A. 4 years C. 56 years
B. 5 years D. 21 years
1447. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
A. standard operation procedures
B. special operation procedures
C. standard operating procedures D. special operating
procedures
1448. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, except:
A. flexibility B. specific
C. clear D. expensive
1449. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many of
the annual quota is allocated for women?
A. 10%
B. 120
C. 100 D. 200
1450. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in
the following order:
age, height, weight & education
age, weight, height & education
height, education, weight & age
in any order
1451. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.
A. attrition B. separation
C. promotion D. Retirement
1452. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than
twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP
applicants using the lateral entry program is ____.
A. 35 years old B. 25 years old
C. 30 years old D. 31 years old
1453. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required
for permanency of their appointment. Who among the following is exempted
to undergo the Field Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral
entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral
entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after
graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the
Examination.
1454. Planning as a management function is to be done in the various

levels of PNP organization. Broad policy based from laws directives,
policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans B. President of the
Philippines
C. Chief, PNP D. Dep. Dir. For
Administration
1455. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy Director General in the
Armed Forces of the Philippines?
A. Lt. General B. Major General
C. Brigade General D. General
1456. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300 new policemen on
March 2012 to fill up its quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D, Migz who was born on August 10, 1990
1457. Inspector Mark Espinosa joined the Philippine National Police on
October 5, 1988. Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as embalmer,
he decided to file an optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits
of the gratifying PNP which he served with extreme commitment and
loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 B. October 6, 1999
C. September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008
1458. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately
executory?
A. Dismissal B. Forfeiture of pay
C. Suspension D. Death penalty
1459. It is the third in command in the Philippine National Police:
A. Regional Director B. Chief Directorial Staff
C. Deputy Chief for Administration D. Deputy Chief for
Operation
1460. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall
assume the position of NCR director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent B. Director
C. Superintendent D. General
1461. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is
the least priority for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college B. Renz who is under
height
C. Justine who is underweight D. Philip who is overage
1462. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
1463. The following are the component agencies that compose the
Philippine National Police (Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command;
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e B. b, a, e, c
C. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
1464. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00 base pay since he was
promoted. After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base
pay after adding his longevity pay?
A. 32, 690.00 B. 37, 690.00
C. 30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00
1465. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to
the__________:
A. Regional Appellate Board C. National Appellate Board
B. People’s Law Enforcement Board D National Police
Commission
1466. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
A. R.A. 4864 B. R.A. 8551
C. Act 175 D. PD 765
1467.__________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of
conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the
call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion D. On-the-Spot Promotion
1468. PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure
to comply with the requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes B. Maybe No
C. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
1469. The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to
be in complete uniform is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank B. Superior
C. Profession D. Comrades
1470. Which among the following is NOT subjected to field Operational
Plans?
A. Patrol B. Records
C. Investigation D. Traffic
1471. Which of the following is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police department
1472. The performance evaluation system is conducted:
A. thrice a year B. Every 6 months
C. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
1473. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the
performance of his duty and unable to further perform his duty shall be
entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary C. 70% of his last salary
B. 60% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary
1474. How many successive annual rating periods before a police officer
may be separated due to inefficiency or poor performance?
2
4
3
1
1475. How many cumulative annual rating periods before a police officer
may be separated due to inefficiency or poor performance?
2
4
3
1
1476. In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and
self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is believed that employees
enjoy their mental and physical work duties.
Hawthorne Effect
Stockholm Syndrome
X theory
Y theory
1477. The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?

Edward H. Sutherland
C. Edwin Hawthorne
Henry A. Landsberger
Douglas McGregor
1478. In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in most

modern practice, management assumes employees are inherently lazy and
will avoid work if they can and that they inherently dislike work. As a
result of this, management believes that workers need to be closely
supervised and comprehensive systems of controls developed.
Hawthorne Effect
Stockholm Syndrome
X theory
Y theory
1479. This kind of organizational structure classifies people according
to the function they perform in their professional life or according to
the functions performed by them in the organization.
A. Functional Structure B. Line and Staff Structure
C. Line Structure D. Divisional Structure
1480. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days
but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP
member shall be filed at the
Office of the chief of police
PLEB
Mayor’s Office
any of the choices
1481. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and
longevity pay of the retired grade in case of 20 years active service
50%
10%
2.5%
55%
1482. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug
crackdown, crime prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign.
It concludes when the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
time bound operational plan
1483. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and
field operations and some special operations
Strategic plan
Time Specific plan
D. policy or procedural plan
1484. The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A. Superintendent B. Director
C. Senior Superintendent D. Chief Superintendent
1485. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police
officer is
A ground for dismissal
Not qualified for promotion
Automatically dismiss
Not a bar to promotion
1486. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for
the purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws,
maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals
and bringing the offenders to justice
Deployment
Reinforcement
Reintegration
D. Employment
1487. What is the first step in making a plan?

Frame of reference
Analyzing the Facts
Collecting all pertinent data
Identification of the problems
1489. It identify the role of police in the community and future
condition in state
Visionary Plans
Strategic Plans
Synoptic Planning
Incremental Planning
1490. Is that field of management which involves planning, and
controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use of administrative
resources.
Human Resources
Personnel Management
Human Management
Personnel Administration
1491 Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement
of parts intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite
objective.
Management
Functioning
B. Budgeting
D. Planning
1492. Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific circumstances
and details with the following procedures.
Field Procedures
B. Procedural plan
Operational Plans
Functional plan
1493. Which of the following is not a function of police personnel unit?
Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to
all areas of the administration of human resources
Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding
personnel matters
Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and
subsequently correct, unsatisfactory working conditions
Establish a criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
1495. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s selection
criteria
Promotion
Recruitment
Transfer
Selection
1496. It is recognized as the best method of filing
Pigeon Hole
retrieval operation
Records Management
chain of custody
1497. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it
provides positive identification of the criminal
Arrest and booking report
Miscellaneous Records
Identification record
D. Fingerprint Records
1498. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and
allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of how many year?
1 year
2 months
4 years
D. 12 months
1499. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of
classroom training should be required for newly promoted supervisory
personnel
72 hours
80 hours
75 hours
D. 85 hours
1500. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need,
and delivered in such a way as to motivate the experienced officer to a
higher degree of professionalism/professionalization
Recruit Training
Specialized training
In Service
Field Training
1501. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire
mandatory and other consideration in promotion, is what kind of
promotion?
Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
1502. It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as
Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile
Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
Management Plans
Procedural plan
Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan
1503. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon,
which constitute the tangible evidence of an award:
A. Medal B. Awards
C, Decorations D. Ribbons
1504. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may

be awarded to nay PNP member:
A. Six B. Four
C. Five D. Three
1505. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
domination, or excessive use of authority:
A. Misconduct B. Dishonesty
C. Incompetency D. Oppression
1506. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile
strike force or reaction unit to augment police forces for civil
disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking, rescue
operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM B. SAF
C. SWAT D. SOCO
1507. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A. Line B. functional
C. staff D. line and staff
1508. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess
except when there is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as
determined by proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total
number of security guards.
A. 50% B. 20%
C. 30% D. 10%
1509 The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in

thickness?
A. 7 inches B. 9 inches
C. 6 inches D. 20 feet or more
1510. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a
breach of the protection system, or that, could result to loss.
A. Hazards B. Environmental Hazards
C. Natural Hazards D. Security Hazards
1511. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity,

morals and loyalty of an individual in order to determines person
suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
A. Character Investigation
B. Physical Investigation
C. Background Investigation D. Personnel Security
Investigation
1512. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the

national economy security
A. Relative vulnerability B. Relative program
C. Relative criticality D. Relative security
1513 Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A. SEC
B. DTI
C. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
1514. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what
must be constructed.
A. Full view fence B. Chain link fence
C. Solid fence
D. Multiple fences
1515. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or
cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms B. Mission Order
C. Duty Detail Order D. None of These
1516. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours B. 72 Hours
C. 48 Hours D. 300 Hours
1517. All except one are the line leadership staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Post-in-Charge
C. Chief Inspector D. Security Supervisor 1
1518. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12
gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire
fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet B. 7 feet
C. 9 feet D. 6 feet
1519. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to
security guards.
A. Any of these B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C. Secretary, DILG
D. C/PNP
1520. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric
B. Metallic foil C. Audio detection
D. Microwave Detection
1521. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine
compliance with establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education B. Security Survey
C. Security Planning
D. Security Inspection
1522. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the

knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means and the method
to reach these objective or goal must then involve.
A. Security Inspection B. Security Hazards
C. Security Planning
D. Security Survey
1523. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed
to prevent entry into a building, room container, or hiding place, and to
prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner
A. Padlocks B. Locks
C. Code Operated
D. Lever Locks
1524. A type of protective alarm system where the central station located
outside the installation. When the alarm is sounded, it will notifies the
police and other agency
A. Local Alarm system B. Auxiliary System
C. Central Station System
D. Proprietary
1525. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to enter
specific areas issued to an employees who keeps it in the possession
until his authorization is change or until he terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B. Visitors pass system D. Pass or badge system
1526. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may
activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to engage the
activation bar
A. Bill traps B. Foot Rail Activator
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons D. Foot buttons
1527. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long,
horizontal strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier; it
projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical
plane
A. Fresnel Lights B. Street Lights
C. Floodlights
D. Search lights
1528. The following Firearms are allowed to be issued to a private
security guard under normal condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
A. II, III, IV B. II, III, IV, V
C. III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V
1529. What is the required capital investment for organization of private
security agency?
A. P 500,000 B. P 100,000
C. P 1,000,000 D. P 50,000
1530. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all
types of items or supplies for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer B. Regular Pilferer
C. Casual Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer
1531. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items
in an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe B. Vault
C. File room D. None of these
1532. Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding
the top guard?
A. Seven feet B. Six feet
C. Four feet
D. Five feet
1533. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a
deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
A. Human B. Fences
C. Doors
D. Concertina
1534. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at
least _______fire resistant.
A. 3 hours B. 24 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours
1535. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is
deemed pick proof since it is operated by utilizing combinations by means
of a dial.
A. Lever locks B. Combination lock
C. Padlock
D. Code operated locks
1536. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should
not exceed by___ units.
A. 30 B. 70
C. 500
D. 1000
1537. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. Sodium vapor lamp B. Incandescent lamp
C. Mercury vapor lamp D. Quartz lamp
1538. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business
enterprises where personnel, processes, properties and operations are
safeguarded?
A. Personnel security
B. industrial security
C. Physical security D. bank security
1539. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
1540. The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or

disruption of operations due to various hazards.
A. Relative vulnerability B. Relative criticality
C. Relative susceptibility D. Relative security

1541. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority
that the person described is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period
of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year B. 4 years
C. 2 years D. 5 years
1542. The term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers and
penetrators of restricted areas or room.
A. Peterman B. Pick Lockers
C. Thug D. Peterpan
1543. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months B. Co-terminus with the
service contract
C. Two years D. Contractual
1544. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence,
except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the
intruder in planning.
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of
persons in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the
intruder.
D. None of these
1545. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall
answer for any valid and legal claims against such agency filed by
aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 B. 100, 000
C. 150, 000
D. 200, 000
1546. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about
the circumstances of a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. complete background investigation
C. personnel security investigation D. national agency
check
1547. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its
relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security Survey
1548. A type of security which provides sufficient illumination to areas
during hours of darkness
A. Protective Lighting C. Fresnel Lights
B. Search Lights D. Street Lights
1549. Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the interruption
of the light beam is known as:
A. Metallic foil C. Electric eye device
B. Audio alarm D. Microwave alarm
1550. What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm
is needed after operating for six months.
A. 1:3 B. 1:5
C. 1:2
D. 1:1
1551. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where
insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp B. Quartz lamp
C. Sodium vapor Lamp
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
1552. What is an act governing the organization and management of private
security agency, company guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 8574 B. RA 5478
C. RA 4587
D. RA 5487
1553. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain
link are for ______.
A. Solid structure B. Least permanent
structure
C. Permanent structure
D. Semi- permanent structure
1554. It is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & LAC since it
includes thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
A. Personnel Security Investigation B. Partial Background
Investigation
C. Background Investigation D. Complete Background
Investigation
1555. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter
barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area to afford better
observation of the installation refers to:
A. Clear zone B .Complimentary zone
C. Open zone D. Free zone
1556. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA
that lacks the required minimum number of guards is:
A. 1 month B. 6 months
C. 2 years D. 1 year
1557. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car
doors?
A. Warded lock B. Lever lock
C. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock
1558. Which among the following aspects of Security is the weakest of
them all?
A. Physical security B. Personnel security
C. Document and information security D. Personal Security
1559. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
A. Partially Correct B. Partially Wrong
C. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong
1560. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. Hazard B. Perimeter Barrier
C. Barrier D. Energy Barrier
1561. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas

located out of doors, and manned by guards on a full time basis.
A. Guard Control Stations B. Tower
C. Tower Guard D. Top Guard
1562. This lamps have the advantage of providing instant illumination
when the switch is open and most commonly used protective lighting
system.
A. Incandescent Lamp B. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
C. Mercury Vapor Lamp D. Quarts Lamp
1563. The following are the areas to be lighted:
a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.
A. a, c, e B. a, b, c, d
C. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
1564. It is a type of Alarm Detection System which is owned by, operated
and located in the facility. Response to all alarms is by facility’s own
security or fire personnel, since this system is monitored locally, the
response time to an alarm is reduced.
A. Local Alarm by chance System B. Auxiliary System
C. Central Station System D. Property System
1565. When are security guards deputized by the PNP Chief or local mayor
to have police authority within their assigned area of responsibility?
A. When there is an employee’s strike
B. When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the establishment
1566. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this
record does not have the same value as the original.
A. Vital Documents B. Important Documents
B. Useful Documents D. Non- Essential Documents
1567. It is the importance of firm with reference to the natural economy
and security.
A. Relative Operation B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability D. Relative Criticality of
Operation
1568. A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary
license to operate is good for how many years?
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
1569. The removal of the security classification from the classified

matter.
A. Segregation B. Declassify
C. Reclassify D. Exclusion
1570. The form of security that employs cryptography to protect
information refers to:
A. Document and information security B. Operational security
C. Communication security D. Industrial security
1571. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow complete
visual access between two areas is:
A. Solid fence B. Semi-solid fence
C. Full-view fence D. Masonry Fence
1572. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a
security agency is:
A. 40 yrs. Old B. 25 yrs. Old
C. 30 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
1573. The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, except:
A. Photoelectric B. Electric Eye Device
C. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
1574. Which of the following is not a false key?
A. A picklock or similar tool . B. A duplicate key of
the owner.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner.
1575. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
A. 500 lbs. B. 750 lbs.
C. 1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs.
1576. The minimum number of guards required for a company security force
is:
A. 1000 B. 30
C. 100 D. 200
1577. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys can open
a group of locks.
A. Key Control B. Master Keying
C. Change Key D. Great Grand Master Key
1578. PADPAO stands for:

A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency
Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency
Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency
Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations
Operators, Inc.
1579. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard

life and assets by various methods and device.
A. Physical Security B. Perimeter Security
C. Operational Security D. Security
1580. All except are the qualifications of a security officer.
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course.
B. Holder of Masters Degree.
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
D. Physically or mentally fit.
1581 These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be
locked and guarded.
A. Gates and Doors B. Side-Walk Elevator
C. Utilities Opening D. Clear Zones
1582. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency
in all aspects of security, with the corresponding recommendation is:
A. security inspection B. security education
C. security training D. security survey
1583. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license
for private security personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA B. PNP FED
C. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
1584. What is the most common type of human hazard?
A. Sabotage B. Pilferage
C. Theft D. Subversion
1585. What is the security force maintained and operated by any private
company/ corporation for its own security requirements?
A. GSU B. CSF
C. PSA D. PD
1586. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?

A. Limited B. Restricted
C. Special D. Exclusive
1587. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a
predetermined combination code of numbers?
A. Card- operated lock B. Combination lock
C. Electromagnetic lock D. Card Operated
1588. What type of lamp emits bright white light?
A. Sodium vapor lamp B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Incandescent lamp D. Quartz lamp
1589. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the
guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting B. Fresnel light
C. Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection
1590. What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed between
the potential intruder and the object, person and matter being protected?
A. Communication security B. Document security
C. Physical security D. Barrier
1591. The following are the purposes of Security Survey, EXCEPT:
A. To ascertain the present economic status
B. To determine the protection needed
C. To make recommendations to improve the overall security
D. None of these
1592. License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate document which is
issued by ____________ authorizing a person to engage in employing
security guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage,
direct, manage or operate a private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG B. Security and
Exchange Commission
C. Chief, PNP D. President
1593. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the
distances between strands will not exceed _______and at least one wire
will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
A. 3 inches B. 6 inches
C. 4 inches D. 7 inches
1594. Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the perimeter
barrier and structure within the protected areas.
A. 20 feet or more B. 40 feet or more
C. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more
1595. Which among the following statements is FALSE.
A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that intruders can
be seen, identified or
apprehend.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for guards identify employees during
night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological fear, which serves as a
deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the number of stationary
guards.
1596. The highest rank in security agency organizational structure:

A. Security Executive Director B. Chief Security Director
C. Security Staff Director D. Detachment Director
1597. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually
a part of the building structure use to keep, and protect cash, documents
and valuables materials.
A. Vault B. Safe
C. File Room D. None of these
1598. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what
shall he do with his Firearm?
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.
B. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
1599. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of

restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
A. Perimeter Fences B. Wire Fences
C. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier
1600. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police
station of fire department.
A. Proprietary Alarm B. Auxiliary Alarm
C. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
1601. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than
direction beam. They are widely used in parking areas
A. Street Lights B. Search Lights
C. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
1602. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes
through a staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.
A. Lock B. Padlock
C. Code Operated D. Card Operated
1603. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand
2000 0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has passed the
test.
A. Fire Endurance Test B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test D. Explain Hazard Test
1604. The following are phases of Security Education, EXCEPT:
A. Special Interview B. Security Seminar
C. Security Promotion D. Training Conference
1605. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little chance of
detection?
A. Systematic pilferer B. Ordinary pilferer
C. Casual pilferer D. Unusual pilferer
1606. The following are the specifications of a Vault:

I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of steel; and
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches.
A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
1607. What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside and
outside a facility to compliment and provide additional security measures
and operates to advertise entry into sensitive and protected area?
A. Protective locks B. Protective cabinet
C. Protective barrier D. Protective Lighting
1608. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty:
A. Post B. Beat
C. Area D. Route
1609. Psychology of Omniprescense means______.
A. Low Visibility B. High Visibility
C. Reactive D. Proactive
1610. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational
framework in truly affecting mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency
and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
A. Detective Beat Patrol B. Integrated Patrol System
C. Community Oriented Policing System D. Team Policing
1611. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the
line beat, and before returning to the point of origin.
A. Patrol Report B. Situation Report
C. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
1612. The ideal police response time is:
A. 3 minutes B. 5 minutes
C. 7 minutes D. 10 minutes
1613. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high
potential for criminal attack or for the creation of problem
necessitating a demand for immediate police service:
A. Hazard B. Opportunity
C. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
1615. The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity
to develop sources of information is:
A. Foot Patrol B. Marine Patrol
C. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
1616. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which
makes the policemen less visible during the night. The primary purpose
is:
A. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
B. To have sufficient cover
C. To attract less attention
D, For safety of the Patrol officer
1617. The following are included in the cause and effect of team
policing.
A. Reduce public fear on crime; B. lessen the crime rate;
C. Facilitate career development; D. Diminish police morale;
and
E. Improve police community relation.
A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
1618. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that
patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific predetermined preventive
functions on a planned systematic basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol D. Directed deterrent
Patrol
1619. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best
penetrated by the police through.
A. Foot patrol B. Bicycle patrol
C. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
1620. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the
police visibility program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police
Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts B. 4 shifts
C. 3 shifts D. every other day shift.
1621. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the
desire of human being to commit crime.
A. Preventive B. Proactive
C. Reactive D. High Visibility
1622. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since
they can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
D. Mobility and stealth
1623. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol B. K-9 Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
1624. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines
and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police
Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 B. May 17, 1954
C. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
1625. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places,
buildings/ establishments and vehicles especially during night-time, be
prepared to use your service firearm and Flashlight should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible
target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these
1626. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls
for Police Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals B. Securing the area
C. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
1627. The following are the duties of Patrol Supervisors:
I. Make a patrol plan;
II. Designate and select the members of the patrol team/s;
III. Inspect the members of the patrol on the completeness;
IV. Render hourly report of location and situation; and
V. Resolve conflicts/differences between neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V B. II, III, IV

C. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
1628. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except when its
occupants pose imminent danger of causing death or injury to the police
officer or any other person, and that the use of firearm does not create
a danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following parameters should be
considered EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s with the
police officer and other persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty the
police officer or other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police officer
or other persons.
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic
accident.
1629. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down

search, a more secure search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
D. All of these
1630. All except one are the types of specialized patrol method:
A. Marine Patrol B. Air Patrol
C. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
1631. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-
A. Knowledge of all problems in the community
B. Residents developed good public relations
C. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor offenses
D. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
1632. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
A. True B. False
1633. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of
apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types of crimes:
A. Preventive Patrol B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
1634. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police Department that can be
eliminated
1635. It is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless elements

from a crime scene, and is also established when nearby checkpoints are
ignored or during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked police vehicle, or
those conducting ISO and foot patrol operations within the
vicinity/periphery of the national or provincial highways.
A. Dragnet Operation B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop
1636. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals B. Responding to emergency
calls
C. Inspection services D. Preparation of
investigation reports
1637. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the
members of the community ideal in gaining the trust and confidence of the
people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
1638. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty
to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the
patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern D. Crisscross pattern
1639. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
1640. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in

smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call the large dog with
drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly
used for tracking purposes?
A. German shepherd B. Bloodhounds
C. Doberman pinscher D. Black Labrador Retrievers
1641. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
A. Foot B. Automobile
C. Bicycle D. Helicopter
1642. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of
number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports B. Superiors from whom he
takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
D. Any of the choices
1643. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming
_______ with people, hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted B Sluggish
C. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
1644. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before
the counter-clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag
1645. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police

officer by militant, dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots
demonstration in the street.
A. Unnecessary B. Necessary
C. Voluntary D. Redundant
1646. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Detective Beat System
D. Community Oriented Policing System
1647. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least
likely to become completely a function of automobile patrol is the
checking of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement.
1648. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas

where police hazards are serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.
D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is
needed.
1649. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
B.Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
1650. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:

A. Aberdeen, Scotland B. Lyons, France (interpol)
C. Vienna. Austria D. London, England
1651. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians B. English
C. Chinese D. American
1652. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to
catch criminals is known as:
A. High visibility patrol B. Blending patrol
C. Low visibility patrol D. Decoy patrol
1653. Awanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 17th floor building.
Which of the following should be the first thing to do by the Patrol
officer who first arrived at the scene?
A. Urge no to jump B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area D. Report immediately to Station
1654. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over
the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost B. Visibility
C. Speed D. Security
1655. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol officers are different
from ordinary Police Officer.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of Police Organization.
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in determining the quality
of justice to be served in a community.
4th Statement- All police function had been vested to the patrol
division.
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct B. The 2nd and 3rd
statements are
correct
The 1st and 3rd statements are
Incorrect.
D. All statements are correct
1656. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by
police activity which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less
emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.
C. Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily
associations with the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of
apprehension.
1657. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the
police and community interests into a working relationship so as to
produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Community Relation D. Team policing
1658. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited
to evacuation and search-and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse
1659 If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose
evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made. D. Turnover the suspect to the
immediate
supervisor.
1660. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators
become unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their
secondary positions?
A. Tear Gas B. Water Cannon
C. Truncheon D. Shield
1661. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol
officers to be deployed in an area are the following:
a. Size of the area; b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
A. a, c, d B. a, b, d
C. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
1662. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas such as
markets, malls, and ports is:
A. Blending patrol B. Reactive patrol
C. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol
1663. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until
reaching the point of origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise B. Zigzag
C. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
1664. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
A. Can report regularly to the command center.
B. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
C. It is inexpensive to operate .
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
1665. The following are advantages of the use of Radio in Police Work:
I. Simple Installation Process;
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone
down;
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission of classified
operational information.
A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV

C. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
1666. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational
framework in truly affecting mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency
and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
A. Detective Beat Patrol B. Integrated Patrol System
C. COPS-Community Oriented Policing
System
D. Team Policing
1667. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the
police unit headquarters at least _______ before the start of their shift
for accounting-
A. 10 minutes B. 1 hour
C. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes
1668. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law
abiding citizens and would be criminals alike that the police are always
existing to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will
just around the corner at all times. This statement refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion D. Integrated Patrol
1669. The patrol method characterized by speed and mobility and
considered as lest expensive as it utilizes lesser number of men and
covers a wider area in a short period of time, while protection to patrol
officers:
A. Foot patrol B. Motorcycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol D. Helicopter patrol
1670. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a manner designed
to help them blend the neighborhood where they are deployed.
A. Absolutely False B. Absolutely True
1671. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
A. One Man Patrol Car B. Two Man Patrol Car
C. Foot Patrol D. Canine Patrol
1673. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of activities:
A. Afternoon Shift B. Morning Shift
C. Night Shift D. None of these
1674. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific persons or
places:
C. Reactive Patrol D. Directed deterrent
Patrol
1675. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that
patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific predetermined preventive
functions on a planned systematic basis:
Patrol
1676. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous
person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power to
use all necessary and legal means to accomplish such end.
A. Dragnet Operation B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop
1677. Which among the following activities during post-patrol or post-

deployment phase is not included?
A. Formation & Accounting B. Debriefing/Report
Submission
C. Inspection & recall of Equipment D. Briefing
1678. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of service.
A. Reactive B. High Visibility
C. Proactive D. Low Visibility
1679. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was formed in
London. This patrol pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty to
ascertain that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the
patrol?
A. Straight B. Crisscross
C. Clockwise D. Counter clockwise
1680. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an

individual for weapons only.
A. Frisking B. Search
C. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search
1681. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the

beat not at random but with definite target location where he knows his
presence is necessary.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
1682. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are the
advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility

for action taken.
It enables patrol officers to cover a
considerable area
C. Inspire more Public confidence.
D. The officer can actually get to know the
physical layout of his beat better.
1683. The word Patrol was derived from the French word ________which
means to go through paddles.
A. Patroulier B. Patroul
C. Politeia D. Politia
1684. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one
boss.
Arrangement of officers from top to
bottom.
Number of subordinates that a Superior
can effectively supervise.
Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates.
1685. Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate when
responding to quick emergency call?
A. Motorcycle Patrol B. Air Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
1686. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services
A. Reactive patrol B. Directed deterrent
patrol
C. Proactive patrol D. Blending patrol
1687. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must be_______.
A. Voice Radio Operator B. Trained Formally
C. Licensed Dispatcher D. Coordinator
1688. The type of Patrol which requires special skills and training:
A. TV B. Air
C. Automobile D. Foot
1689. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:
A. August 10, 1917 B. August 7, 1901
C. November 22, 1901 D. March 17, 1901
1690. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during Post-
Deployment Phase?
A. Situation Report B. Citation Report
C. Daily Patrol Report D. Hourly Patrol Report
1691. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police
omnipresence:
Patrol
1692. It is the most prevalent and economical method of patrol used in

patrol force:
A. Foot Patrol B Air Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol D. Motorcycle Patrol
1693. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive
than human’s sense of smell?
A. One thousand times B. One hundred times
C. Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
1694. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another through common
medium and channel.
A. Information B. Communication
C. Police Communication D. Radio
1695. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by
the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce
the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone B. Public Place
C. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
1696. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to
prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the peace and order
situation in a particular area:
A. Police Patrol B. Preventive Patrol
C. Foot Patrol D. Patrol
1697. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:
A. Crime Prevention B. Protect and Serve
C. Law enforcement D. All of these
1698. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol B. Directed Patrol
C. Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
1699. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but
undetected, then the best patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Bicycle patrol B. Automobile patrol
C. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
1700. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that
enables another to victimize him:
A. Instrumentality B. Opportunity
C. Motive D. Capability
1701. The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol
officers to be deployed in an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area B. Possible problems to be
encountered
C. Topography D. Neither of them
1702. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together
in a cooperative manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol B. Team policing
C. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
1703. The theory in patrol which states that police officers should
conduct overt police operations in order to discourage people from
committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence B. Low police visibility
theory
C. Low profile theory D. Maximum deterrence
theory
1704. The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol
officers should be under the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command D. Command responsibility
1705. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a
result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression D. Crime deterrence
1706. The Greek word which means “government of a city” or “civil
organization and the state”, which is claimed as the origin of the word
police refers to:
A. Politia B. Policia
C. Politeia D. Polis
1707. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective of patrol
activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
1708. The following are benevolent services performed by the Patrol
officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of
crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
1709. All but one are the dogs best suited for police work except:
A. Askals B. Chihuahua
C. Rottweiler D. All of these
1710. What law provides for the creation of the National Intelligence
Coordinating Agency?
A. RA 157 (NBI) B. EO 213
C. RA 6040 D. EO 246
1711. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
A. Crypto Analyst B. Cryptographer
C. Cryptograph D. Code breaker
1712. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized to harass the
enemy in a hot war situation.
A. Guerilla B. Propagandist
C. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
1713. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that will
correspond to the operation.
A. Multiple B. Natural
C. Artificial D. Unusual
1714. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report any time since
it is to processes.
B. All intelligence information’s are collected by clandestine
method.
C. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium size police
station.
D. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information by
initiating good public relations.
1715. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly prohibited but
it can be done at the commander’s discretion since it tends to collect
intelligence information.
A. Partly True B. Partly False
C. Wholly True D. Wholly False
1716. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy,
will this information be discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes B. Yes
C. No D. Maybe No
1717. In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor to be
considered is:
A. Age B. Access
C. Educational Attainment D. Body built
1718. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” which prohibits
wiretapping in our country.
A. RA 1700 B. RA 4200
C. RA 7877 D. RA 7160
1719. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority
that the person described is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period
of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year B. 5 years
1720. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent Buanko with
an evaluation rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true information
B. Unreliable source – probably true information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information
1721. It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured

enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
A. Interview B. Interrogation
C. Forceful Interrogation D. Tactical Interrogation
1722. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Eavesdropping B. Bugging
C. None of these D. Wiretapping
1723. The process of extracting information from a person believes to be

in possession of vital information without his knowledge or suspicion.
A. Elicitation B. Surveillance
C. Roping D. Undercover Operations
1724. It refers to an associate of the subject who follows him to detect
surveillance.
A. Convoy B. Decoy
C. Close-in Security D. Body Guard
1725. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who leaks
false information to the enemy.
A. Double Agent B. Expendable Agent
C. Agent of Influence D. Penetration Agent
1726. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence
which refers to the knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes and
the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence C. Public Safety
Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence D. Preventive Intelligence
1727. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the collection,

evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of all available
information. What is considered as the core of intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination B. Analysis
C. Mission D. Planning
1728. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister D. Arthur Wellesley
1729. There are four categories of classified matters; top secret,
secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish one against the
other, their folder consists of different colors. What will be the color
of the document which requires the highest degree of protection?
A. Red B. Black
C. Blue D. Green
1730. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical indication
of the beginning of Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 B. Number 3:17
C. Number 17:13 D. Number 17:3
1731. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of illicit
drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was deployed to live in
the area for a considerable amount of time to find out the authenticity
of such reports.
A. Social assignments B. Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments D. Residential assignments
1732. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with defending
the organization against its criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence B. Counter-Intelligence
C. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical Intelligence
1733. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “usually
from a reliable source and improbable information”?
A. C-5 B. B-5
C. B-3 D. C-3
1734. It is a form of investigation in which the operative assumes a
cover in order to obtain information
A. Overt operation B. Undercover assignment
C. Covert operation D. clandestine operation
1735. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting message
from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes and cipher.
A. Cryptographer B. Crypto Analyst
C. Cryptography D. Cryptechnician
1736. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by Agent
Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true information?
A. D-4 B. C-4
C. C-5 D. D-5
1737. The following must be observed during surveillance:
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d B. b, d, e
C. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
1738. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the appearance of
the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
C. Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
1739. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for investigation
or who is expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
A. Stake out C. Rough Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. Surveillance
1740. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes ________

forces.
A. Unwanted B. Friendly
C. Neutral D. Unfriendly
1741. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United Kingdom and
it is also referred as Box 850 because of its old post office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5) B. Secret Intelligence
Service (MI-6)
C.Government Communication
Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
1742. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as minister of police

he studied the use of propaganda and censorship as well as utilizing
statistical intelligence accounting.
A. Herbert Yadley B. Wilhem Steiber
C. Admiral Yamamoto D. Joseph Fouche
1743. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard

as to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
1744. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and
residence of the individual being investigated.
A. CBI B. NAC
C. PBI D. LAC
1745. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary
for more effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Police Intelligence D. Departmental

Intelligence
1746. It is considered as the most secured method of disseminating the

information to the user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing B. Conference
C. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
1747. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical
picture or theory.
A. Integration B. Evaluation
C. Deduction D. Interpretation
1748. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
A. Neutral B. Unwanted
C. Friendly D. Unfriendly
1749. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous

sources and 1% of information is obtained from clandestine sources.
Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible D. Covert
1750. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from completely reliable sources and
Improbable true.
B. The information comes from Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and
doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from Unreliable sources and possibly true.
1751. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is generally
refers to as?
A. Plant B. Stakeout
C. None D. Tailing or Shadowing
1752. The classification “Top secret”, have the folder color of?
A. Red B. Black
C. Blue D. Green
1753. The process of assigning higher category of document or information
according to the degree of security needed.
A. Degrading B. Classification
C. Upgrading D. Advancement
1754. It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured
enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
A. Interview B. Forceful Interrogation
C. Interrogation D. Tactical Interrogation
1755. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:

A. Line Intelligence B. Operational Intelligence
C. Strategic Intelligence D. Counter Intelligence
1756. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where police

undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
1757. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which includes some
or all of the circumstances.
A. National Agency Check B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation D. Personnel Security
Investigation
1758. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time:

A. Frederick the Great B. Alexander the Great
C. Arthur Wellesley D. Joseph Hernandez
1759. What specialist group of CIA that was established to research,
create and manage technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service B. Directorate of Support
C. Directorate of Intelligence D. Directorate of
Science and Technology
1760. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a certain

establishment or building.
A. Access list B. Black List
B. Blue Print D. Silver list
1761. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of equipment, a
public service, as by enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion B. Sabotage
C. Espionage D. None of the choices
1762. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the
information is true and-
A. Reliable B. Accurate
C. Correct D. Probably true
1763. The combination of the elements isolated analysis with other known
information related to the operation.
A. Recording B. Analysis
C. Integration D. Interpretation
1764. It deals with the demographic and psychological aspects of groups
of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence C. Economic Intelligence
B. Biographical Intelligence D. Political Intelligence
1765. Which among the following principles of intelligence deemed to be

the most important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security measures
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
1766. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Casing B. Loose Tail
C. Rough Shadowing D. Stakeout
1767. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the information

to the operation, reliability of the source of or agency and the accuracy
of the information.
A. Evaluation B. Recording
C. Credibility D. Appraisal
1768. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
A. Women B. Double Crosser
C. False D. Anonymous
1769. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.

A. Coding B. Encrypting
C. Decoding D. Reclassify
1770. After the planning on how intelligence is to be collected, the
intelligence officer must have thorough knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the information will be gathered
B. Where they will be collecting the information
C. Available sources of informationD The vulnerabilities of the possessor
of intelligence
1771. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of Rome to gather
first hand information, he is considered as the greatest military
strategist.
A. Alexander the Great B. Hannibal
C. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
1772. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy,
will this information be discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Yes B. True
C. No D. False
1773. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence

which refers to the knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes and
the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence D. Preventive Intelligence
1774. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard

as to whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of
the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation B. Clandestine
C. Surveillance D. Covert Operation
1775. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer
gives information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward B. Popularity
C. Revenge D. As a good citizen

1776. A method of collecting information thru interception of telephone
conversation.
A. Bugging B. Wire Tapping
C. Code name D. NONE
1777. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
consideration that render the criminal groups susceptible to damage,
deception, or defeat by the police organization.
A. Conclusion B. Capabilities
C. Vulnerabilities D. Evaluation
1778. It is the general statement describing the current police internal
defense, internal development, psychological operation and
responsibilities of the organization
A. Area of operation B. Capabilities of organized
crime
C. the crime situation
D. the mission
1779. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning
organized crime and other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence D. Police Investigation

1780. The term appropriate for someone who gives information in exchange
for a reward is:
A. Informer B. Informant
C. Special informer D. Confidential Informant
1781. The intelligence required by department or agencies of the
government to execute its mission and discharge its responsibilities.
A. Counter B. Departmental
C. Line D. National
1782. Is the reduction of information into writing or some other form of

graphical representation and the arranging of this information into
groups related items.
A. Recording B. Integration
C. Analysis D. Demonstration
1783. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly true?

A. C-2 B. E-2
C. E-3 D. C-3
1784. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying
the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and the protection of
information against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
A. Passive Intelligence B. Counter
Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence D. Demographic Intelligence
1785. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and
order.
A. CRIMINT B. SIGINT
C. PUSINT D. INSINT
1786. Who directs the organization conducting the clandestine activity?
A. Manager B. Superior
C. Sponsor D. Agent
1787. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
A. Propagandist B. Support Agent
C. Principal Agent D. Action Agent
1788. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages
to the other Agents.
A. Live Drop B. Safe House
C. Decoy D. Bait
1789. All except one are interrelated to one another.
A. Fixed Surveillance B. Stakeout Surveillance
C. Stationary Surveillance D. Active Surveillance
1790. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different
hang out places of the subject.
A. Social Assignment B. Residential Assignment
C. Work Assignment D. None of these
1791. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other material
gain he is to receive.
A. Gratitude B. Repentance
C. Remuneration D. Vanity
1792. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-

A. Director B. General
C. President D. Director-General
1793. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all government
departments concerning the broad aspect of national policy and national
Security.
A. National Intelligence B. Departmental
Intelligence
C. International Intelligence D. Social
Intelligence
1794. The accomplice of the subject used to elude surveillance.
A. Convoy B. Decoy
C. Escort D. Backup
1795. The process of categorizing a document or information according to
the degree of security needed.
A. Classification B. Upgrading
C. Reclassification D. None of these
1796. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date
of issuance.
A. 2 years B. 5 years
C. 4 years D. 1 year
1797. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
A. Surveillant B. Subject
C. Interrogator D. Interviewee
1798. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan employed more than
4,000 agents for the sole purpose of bringing him the truth that his
throne might rest upon it.
A. Joseph Petrosino B. Edgar Hoover
C. Napoleon Bonaparte D. Akbar
1799. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the
information is true and-
A. Reliable B. Correct
C. Probably true D. Accurate
1800. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block the
enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in espionage, subversion,
and sabotage.
A. Counter Intelligence B. Passive Counter
Intelligence
C. Active Counter Intelligence D. Intelligence
1801. Chronological records of activities that took place in the
establishment under surveillance.
A. Memory B. records
C. Log D. Report
1802. Undercover operation is also known as;
A. Roping B. Bait
C. Clandestine D. Loose
1803. It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.
A. Cryptography B. Cryptanalysis
C. Decipher D. Coding
1804. The protection resulting from the application of various measures
which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in gaining
information through communication.
A. Communication Security B. Physical Security
C. Document Security D. Internal Security
1805. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are considered as:
A. Top Secret B. Secret
C. Restricted D. Confidential
1806. Documents which are classified as Secret should be placed on-
A. Blue Folder B. Black folder
C. Green Folder D. Red Folder
1807. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate
levels.
A. Security Clearance B. Document Clearance
C. Interim Clearance D. Nome of these
1808. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance is necessary.
A. Close tail B. Loose tail
C. Rough Shadowing D. Surveillance
1809. X evaluates the information as usually reliable and probably true.
A. C-4 B. B-3
C. B-2 D. C-5
1810. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of _____________.
A. Russia B. Germany
C. Israel D. Pakistan
1811. Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______ which developed
in both chu and jin kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period.
A. Watch man B. Prefect
C. Gendemarie D. Constabulary
1812. She is the first Filipino commissioned officer in a UN integral
mission.
A. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor B. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas D. None of these
1813. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited jurisdiction on

_______:
A. USA B. New York
C. None of these D. Los Angeles
1814. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
A. RA 5678 B. RA 9165
C. RA 1298 D. RA 8792
1815. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word “Polisoos”
referred to a person who_____?
A. Enforcing Law B. Civil Policy
C. Guarding a City D. Citizenship
1816. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of the kingdom
of France with police responsibilities those are the Marshal of France
and ________:
A. Constable of France B. Queens Royal Guard
C. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
1817. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have
minimal share in their duties or any direct connection with them. This
reflected the:
A. Continental Theory B. Home rule Theory
C. Old Concept D. Modern concept
1819. The typical number of Detectives are roughly ________ of a police
service personnel:
A. 75% B. 5 to 10%
C. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
1820. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or those
with an interstate components. The statement is:
A. Correct B. Partially Correct
C. False D. partly False
1821. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some sense
transgress national borders:
A. International Policing B. Global Policing
C. National Policing D. Transnational Policing

1822. In US, he introduced police reforms to include educational
requirement for police officer:
A. James Q. Wilson B. Sir Henry Peel
C. August Volmer D. O.W. Wilson
1823. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
A. Law and Order B. Safer Communities together
C. Serve and Protect D. We serve with pride and
Care
1824. Where do you can find the so called Police Ombudsman? It’s outside
review organization for police officer whose are changed of committing
any form of misconduct:
A. Northern Ireland B. England
C. China D. Japan
1825. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of police force
is identical up to the rank of?
A. Chief Constable B. Chief Inspector
C. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector
1826. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women and minorities
as police officer.
A. Massachusetts B. California
C. New York D. Washington
1827. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank to inspector
or sub-lieutenant?
A. Police Rank 4 B. Police Supervisor Rank 4
C. Police Officer Rank 1 D. Police Supervisor Rank 1
1826. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest possible rank
of its police personnel?
A. Police Rank 1 B. Police Officer Rank 1
C. Investigator 1 D. Constable
1827. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation and
INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set up the
foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good
reputation as one of the safety cities in the world.
A. Philippine National Police B. Hong Kong Police
Force
C. Japan Police Department D. National Police Agency
1828. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:
A. Commissioner General B. Director General
C. Commissioner D. Director
1829. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
A. Omerta B. Morse
C. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
1830. INTERPOL stands for:
International Police
International Organization of Police
International criminal Organization
International Criminal Police Organization
1831. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:
A. Executive Assembly B. Major Assembly
C. National Assembly D. General Assembly
1832. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by the:

A. Director General B. Supervisor
C. Inspector General D. Secretary General
1834. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and introduced
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and Chicago Police Department:
A. August Volmer B. Margaret Adams
C. William Stewart D. O.W. Wilson
1835. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:

A. Policeman B. Chief Superintendent
C. Superintendent D. Senior Superintendent
1836. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in Japan:
A. Keishi B. Koban
C. Omerta D. Keiban
1837. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest
position in Japan Police Organization:
A. Commissioner Secretariat B. Commissioner
C. Chairman D. Commissioner General
1838. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a Commissioner General
who is appointed by:
A. Japans Emperor B. Prime Minister
C. National Public Safety Commission D. Japan Commission
1839. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
A. Junsa B. Constable
C. Sergeant D. Police Officer
1840. Irish Police are called:
A. Militsiya B. Constable
C. Police Force D. Garda Socha
1841. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission in Timor-
Leste, he is the first Filipino police commissioner of a United Nation
Operation.
A. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas B. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
C. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor D. None of these
1842. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on the
absence of crime.
A. Home rule B. Continental
C. Old police service D. Modern police service
1843. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler B. Ronald K. Noble
C. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen Scotland
1844. The first president of the Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler B. Ronald K. Noble
C. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen Scotland
1845. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts fear and uses
violence to accomplish their objectives with a usual international scope
of activity.
A. Organized Crime B. Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime D. Terrorist
1846. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin Laden in
1980?
A. Al Qaeda B. Jihad
C. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
1847. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by members of the
Islamic religion against the Jews?
A. Al Qaeda B. Jihad
C. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
1848. It is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed in
achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary B. Separalist
C. Ethnocentric D. Political
1849. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes committed via
the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address D. Email Address
1850. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system or network
of an individual, group or business enterprise without the consent of the
party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud B. Hacking
B. Cracking d. Theft
1851. It refers to a Code written with the intention of replicating
itself.
A. Trojan Horse B. Worm
C. Virus D. None of these
1852. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a
shared database among concerned agencies for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and convictions on transnational crime
Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
Philippine National Police (PNP)
1853. An order strengthening the operational, administrative and
information support system of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
exercise general supervision and control over NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
A. EO 100 B. EO 465
C. EO 465 D. EO 789
1854. Considered as the major concerns of the PCTC, except:
Information Exchange
Strategic studies and capacity building
Law enforcement coordination
none of the choices
1856. A decree codifying the law on Illegal/unlawful Possession,
manufacture, Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of firearms,
ammunitions or explosions
A. RA 9165 B. PD 532
C. RA 8294 D. RA 6955
1857. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?

A. KEISHI SOKAN B. KEISHI SO
C. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
1858. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the “Father of
Texas”.
A. Stephen Austin B. Vernon Knell
C. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
1859. This law created the Police Commission which was later renamed as
the NAPOLCOM with Congressman Teodulo Natividad as its 1st Commissioner.
A. R.A. 6040 B. R.A. 4864
C. R.A. 1040 D. R.A. 157
1860. The following have summary dismissal powers over errant police
members.
a. District Director; b. Chief of Police;
c. Regional Director; d. Chief, PNP;
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM.
A. a, b, d, f B. c, d, f
C. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
1861. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then.
What year will Amado will retire?
A. 2016 B. 2023
C. 2012 D. 2031
1862. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP commissioned and non-
commissioned officer may retire and be paid separation benefits
corresponding to a position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
A. Retirement in the next higher grade B. Compulsory retirement
C. Early retirement program D. Optional Retirement
1863. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence from the PNP.
It has an investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP members.
A. Internal Affairs Service B. National Police
Commission
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board D. National Appellate Board
1864. In police operational planning the use of the wedge, squad diagonal
or deployed line would be probable used for:
A. Arm confrontation B. Relief Operation
C. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security

1865. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the regulations of
the Department of State; this was armed and considered as the mounted
police.
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica B. Guadrilleros
C. Guardia Civil D. Metropolitan Police Force
1866. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to SPOI?
A. Officers Senior Executive Course B. Officer Basic
Course
C. Senior Leadership Course D. Junior Leadership Course
1867. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of local chief
executives as representative of the NAPOLCOM:
I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
II. Abuse of authority;
III. Habitual tardiness;
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
A. I, II, III, V B. II, V, IV, I

C. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, V
1868. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known locations.
A. Functional Plan B. Time Specific Plans
C. Tactical Plans D. Operational Plans
1869. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump sum of his
retirement benefits for the period of the first _____.
A. 10 years B. 5 years
1870. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height, Weight and
Education, only when the number of qualified applicants falls below the
minimum annual quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is
________.
A. Temporary B. Probationary
C. Permanent D. Regular
1871. No officer who has retired or is retirable within _______ from his
compulsory retirement age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
A. Three months B. Six months
C. One year D. Two years
1872. __________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of
conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the
call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion D. On-the-Spot Promotion
1873. Which among the following has no promotional authority over the
members of the PNP?
A. Deputy Director General B. Director General
C. President of the Philippines D. Regional Director
1874. The establishment of a formal structure of authority through which
works and divisions are arranged, defined and coordinated refers to:
A. Planning B. Organizing
C. Staffing D. Directing
1875. In regard to the police planning function, it may be said that:
A. Planning is essentially order giving.
B. Planning is essentially decision making in advance of action.
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors.
D. The higher the job in the organization, the shorter the time-lag
between planning and execution.
1876. The National Bureau of Investigation, was patterned by the Federal

Bureau Investigation, it was organized by R.A. 157. What law reorganized
the NBI?
A. R.A 9708 B. R.A 6040
C. R.A. 2678 D. R.A. 9262
1877. The IAS can recommend promotion of the members of the PNP or the
assignment of PNP personnel to any key position. The statement is:
A. Partly True B. Partly False
C. Absolutely True D. Absolutely False
1878. The following are the offenses for which a member of the PNP may be
charged administratively:
I. Oppression;
II. Misconduct;
III. Neglect of Duty;
IV. Violation of law; and
V. Incompetence.
A. I, II, IV, V B. I, II, III, IV

C. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, IV, I, II
1879. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from the service
after due notice and summary hearings if it was proven that he went on
AWOL for a continuous period of:
A. 30 days or more B. 15 days or more
C. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more
1880. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief and other high ranking
PNP officials is known as:
A. Broad external policy planning B. Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning D. Radical planning
1881. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons following a high-
risk stop.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty Checkpoint
B. High-Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop
1882. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be suspended from
service by the Chief PNP:
A. 180 days B. 60 days
C. 90 days D. 30 days
1883. A personnel of the police department who possess the power of
arrest and has an oath of office:
A. Ranking Officer B. Superior Officer
C. Commanding Officer D. Sworn Officer
1884. The maximum number of subordinates at a given position that
superior can supervise effectively is called:
A. Span of Control B. Unity of Command
C. Delegation of Authority D. Command Responsibility
1885. The law that governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for
officials and employees of the Government – National or Local.
A. R.A. 7160 B. R.A. 7610
C. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
1886. How vacancy filled up in the commission, except through expirations
of term?
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only with the
capacity for regular appointment for another full term.
B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only without re
appointment.
C. It shall be filed up by another person with full term
D. None of these.
1887. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field training
Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their
appointment consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual experience
and assignment during this period shall be on:
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence
1888. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the following are the factors
considered in promotion:
a. Educational Attainment;
b. Personality traits;
c. Potential;
d. Service reputation; and
e. Physical Fitness.
A. a, c, d, e B. b, e, c, a
C. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e
1889. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is due to be promoted. Who
has the authority to promote him to his next rank?
A. Chief, PNP B. CSC
C. Secretary, DILG D. President
1890. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December 11, 1964; He opted to join
the Philippine National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to join the
PNP?
A. Yes B. Wholly True
C. No D. Wholly False
1891. In times of war or other national emergency declared by the
Congress the President may extend such term of office
from__________depending on the gravity of the situation.
A. Six months to one year B. One year to two years
C. One to six months D. Five months to one year
1892. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since he was
promoted. After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base
pay after adding his longevity pay?
A. 21, 857.00 B. 19, 970.00
C. 24, 870.00 D. 31, 549.00
1893. If the police plan of Municipality X can carry out the purpose or
goal of the police station then the plan is considered_______.
A. Feasible B. Acceptable
C. Suitable D. Adaptable
1894. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a police officer with
the rank of __________ and a designation as Inspector-General.
A. Deputy Director General B. General
C. Director D. C/Superintendent
1895. The shift that receives most of the call of the public which are
directly related to police function, it is considered as the busiest
among them all.
A. Afternoon shift B. Day shift
C. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift
1896. What is the name of the acclaimed first formally organized modern
police force in the world?
A. Interpol B. Scotland Yard
C. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
1897. The following are the law enforcement principles enunciated by the
Father of Modern Policing System, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the police
B. The police must have full respect of the citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are the police
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by final judgment
E. None of the above
1898. The term referring to personnel of the police department who has
taken oath of office and possesses the power to arrest refers to:
A. Oath officer B. Sworn officer
C. Ranking officer D. Arrest officer
1899. The period of time elapsed since the oath of office was
administered is termed
A. Tour of duty B. Term of office
C. On duty D. Length of service
1900. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or modify personnel disciplinary
actions involving demotion or dismissal from the service imposed upon
members of the PNP by the Chief PNP through the:
A.PLEB B. RAB
B. NAB D. C/PNP
1901. Promotion by virtue of position shall be granted after:
A. 6 months B. 2 years
C. 1 year D. 18 months
1902. Breach of internal discipline committed by any member of the PNP
shall be brought to the office of the Chief of Police or equivalent
supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the period of:
A. Not exceeding 15 days B. Not exceeding 60 days
C. Not exceeding 30 days D. Dismissal
1903. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from the service
after due notice and summary hearings if it was proven that he went on
AWOL for a continuous period of:
A. 30 days or more B. 15 days or more
C. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more
1904. The city or municipal mayor shall develop an integrated community
public safety plan pursuant to:
A. E.O. 309 B. E.O. 903
C. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551
1905. The Statute of Winchester introduced the system known as:
A. Keepers of the peace B. Curfew
C. Watch and ward ` D. Justice of the peace
1906. It refers to those situations or conditions that may induce
incidents for some kind of police action:
A. Police Accident B. Police Brutality
C. Police Hazard D. Police Operation
1907. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot during day time should
walk ____ the curb:
A. Outside B. Inside
C. Near D. Far
1908. The following are the duties and responsibilities of Patrol
officers:
a. Conduct home visitations when a circumstance warrants, dialogues
with the residents in their beat;
b. Report occurrences and conditions which relate to crime, public peace,
order and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders and disperse
unlawful assemblies;
d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit in facilitating the flow
of traffic at busy intersections/roads within his Area of Responsibility
(AOR) and;
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various places of business
establishments and other installation and remove hazards to public
safety.
A. b, c, d B. c, e, a, b
C. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
1909. Which among the following is not included in a Patrol Plan?
A. Organization Detail of Personnel B. Stand-by points
C. Spot Report D. Area Coverage
1910. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:
A. March 10, 1917 B. August 7, 1901
C. July 31, 1901 D. September 7, 1901
1911. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% B. 40%
C. 25% D. 50%
1912. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
A. The Sword Bearer B. The Base
C. Islamic Congregation
D. Ayman Al Zawahiri
1913. What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?

A. Reasonable force B. Logical Force
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force
1914. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a permit for
the holding of the public assembly?
A. Immediate Superior B. Ground Commander
C. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
1915. The following are the things to be done after armed confrontation,
EXCEPT:
A. Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
E. None of these
1916. Which among the following is not included in a Patrol Plan?

A. Organization Detail of Personnel B. Stand-by points
C. Spot Report D. Area Coverage
1917. What is the main purpose why police car or police officers are not
allowed to be sent in the scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have been informed of the
KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR activities inside the
warehouse
1918. Which among the following, is not a applicable legal parameter
during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies, under
the pertinent provisions of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as amended and
other applicable laws.
Exercising Maximum Tolerance
No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant shall be made during
the public assembly, unless he violates any pertinent law as evidence
warrants.
In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
Directly employment of tear gas and water cannons.
1919. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the picket line
(or confrontation line) but should be stationed in such manner that their
presence may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward
incident from either side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line.
A. 50 feet B. 50 meter
C. 100 feet D. 100 meter
1920. Police officers are required to give the suspect Miranda Warning,
during Spot checks and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially B. Correct
C. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
1921. The following are the circumstances which may justify pat-down
search, EXCEPT:
The appearance and demeanor of the suspect
The time of the day and the location where the pat-down search took
Where the police officer handles several suspects
None of these
1922. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted by-
Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise attack.
At least two police officers, one to perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
the aid of civilian to act as a witness during the search.
Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
1923. Which among the following is not a Police intervention operation,

except?
A. Raid B. Civil disturbance
Management
C. Demolition D. Chekpoint
E. None of these F. All of these
1924. During police intervention operations, the duty to issue a warning
is not absolute before he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct B. Partially Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong
1925. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a patrol
jeep, the subject must be-
Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the Right side facing the subject
Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the Right side facing the subject
1926. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only
with necessary restraint and proper escort, preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True B. Wholly True
C. Partially False D. Wholly False
1927. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies,
employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made under the control
and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander B. Incident Commander
C. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
1928. What should be the action of patrol officers, when responding to
Calls for Police Assistance, except?
Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
Determine the crime committed.
None of these
1929. Where should the patrol officer turnover the information and pieces
of evidence gathered at the crime scene?
A. SOCO team B. Immediate Supervisor
C. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
1930. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final
decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of administrative
bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction shall be acted upon by
the appropriate police office. The request is filed at least _____ prior
to the actual implementation.
C. 5 days D. 15 days
1931. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a suspect dies, the Team
Leader of the operating unit shall?
He shall immediately undertake the necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
After the Investigation, He shall immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
He shall submit the incident for inquest before the duty Inquest
Prosecutor prior to the removal of the body from the scene.
He shall report immediately to his superior for the proper undertakings
to be done.
1932. Which among the following should be observed during the patrol
operations?
A. Render after-patrol report B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System D. Render Hourly Report
1933. What may be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and
aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
1934. PNP personnel who will point/profile suspected vehicle subject for
checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team B. Security Sub-Team
C. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-team
1935. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to display high-powered
firearms and are positioned where they can best provide security to the
Checkpoint team including themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team B. Search Sub-Team
C. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
1936. As much as practicable, who shall lead the PNP contingent detailed
to assist the Sheriff during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior B. Ground Commander
C. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
1937. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a complaint or report or
information that a child has been or is being abused, maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or abandoned, or is under imminent
danger of being abused or exploited, shall take immediate action thereon,
but under no circumstance shall be beyond____?
A. 12 hours B. 36 hours
C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
1938. In designating a “safe” assembly area, well away from the

threatened structure, out of line-of-sight of the building and well clear
of windows. A minimum distance of is recommended.
A. 200 meters B. 100 meters
C. 150 meters D. 300 meters
1939. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of
demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and refused to disperse
despite earlier efforts.
1940. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a
vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
determining the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s
suspicion concerning criminal activity.
A. Frisking B. Search
C. Spot Check D. Pat-down Search
1941. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by
the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce
the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone B. Public Place
1942. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was accepted by
the courts, prosecutors’ office and the public in general. What police
office is using this kind of blotter?
A. Makati B. Cebu
C. Baguio D. Davao
1943. It refers to the venue or place established or designated by local
government units within their respective jurisdictions where a public
assembly could be held without securing any permit for such purpose from
the local government unit concerned.
A. Secured Area B. Wide Space
C. Freedom Park D. Clear Zone
1944. The police function in which patrol belong is:
A. Line function B. Administrative function
C. Staff function D. Auxiliary function
1945. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of Josephine
while Insp. Gonzales is standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is
not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful
robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition B. Intention
C. Motive D. Opportunity
1946. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement is

Superintendent shall retire with the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent B. C/Superintendent
C. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
1947. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up without material
interval for the purpose of taking into custody any person wanted by
virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to have committed a recent offense
while fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another that
will normally require prior official inter-unit coordination but which
the pursuing unit cannot, at that moment, comply due to the urgency of
the situation.
A. Hot Pursuit
B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. Dragnet Operation D. High Risk Stop
1948. Which among the following terms is not related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit B. Fresh Pursuit
C. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright Pursuit
1949. What practice should be observed during night patrol regarding
unguarded business establishments?
A. Buddy System B. Shaking Doors
C. Signs of intrusion D. All of these
1950. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police, military
and other peace keeping authorities shall observe during a public
assembly or in the dispersal of the same.
A. Reasonable Force B. Greatest Lenience
C. Maximum Tolerance D. Utmost Patience
1951. General rules on media relations, No information regarding the
incident shall be released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police B. Ground Commander
C. Incident Commander D. Immediate Superior
1952. Refers to the specific or projected spot where the armed and
dangerous person or persons would pass or likely to pass and so
tactically located as to gain calculated advantage against said person or
persons.
A. Clear Zone B. Stopping Zone
1953. Refers to any rally, demonstration, march, parade, procession or
any other form of mass or concerted action held in a public place for the
purpose of presenting a lawful cause; or expressing an opinion to the
general public on any particular issue; or protesting or influencing any
state of affairs whether political, economic or social; or petitioning
the government for redress of grievances.
A. Labor Dispute B. Civil Disturbance

C. Protest D. Public Assembly
1954. Refers to the strategic predetermined area strongly sealed off,
barricaded and occupied by tactical forces in a lawful display of
authority to maintain law and order or in defensive response to an event
of criminal nature or of such gravity that occurred or likely to occur
calling for a high risk stop or arrest.
A. Clear Zone B. Stopping Zone
C. Police Checkpoint D. Public Place
1955. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or eminent threat to the

life, limb, or right of the person claiming self-defense.
A. Imminent Danger B. Unlawful Aggression
C. Just Cause D. None of these
1956. The police officer may stop an individual for the purpose of
conducting a spot check/accosting only when-
A. Probable Cause Exist B. Notion to commit crime
C. Rational Grounds D. Reasonable Suspicion
1957. The following are the basic requirements for police intervention
operations, EXCEPT:
with a marked police vehicle
preferably led by a Police Commissioned Officer
With personnel in prescribed police uniform
With 3 to 5 members as the case may be
1958. The following are the language of communication used by the Gen.
Secretariat:
a. French; b. Mandarin;
c. English; d. Arabic; and
e. Spanish.
A. b, c, d, e B. d, a, c, e
C. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
1959. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately

executory?
A. Dismissal B. Forfeiture of pay
C. Suspension D. Death penalty
1960. The following are the upgraded general qualifications for
appointment in the Philippine National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or over thirty five
(35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably discharged from military
services or civilian position in the government;
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b B. a, c, d, e
C. b, c, e D. c, d, e
1961. The following must be observed during surveillance:
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d B. b, d, e
C. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
A probationer is allowed to do the following except?

a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly to support his family
c. Make periodic office report
d. Go and play in a gambling den
1963. Which of the following are the major goals of correction?
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
1964. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to
remain in the community subject to conditions imposed by the court?
a. Reprieve
b. Probation
c. Commutation
d. Parole
1965. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to
be the best and prison without walls?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
1966. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
1967. Pedro was sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not
more than six years. He applied for probation but his application will
not be considered if:
1. He was previously granted parole
2. He was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense
punished by imprisonment of not less that one month and one day and/or a
fine of not less than 200 pesos
3. He was previously granted probation
4. He was convicted of subversion or any crimes against national
security or public order
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1
d. Any of those listed
1968. Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for treatment of Prisoners,
which of the following are the two basic principles under rules of
general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex,
language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social
origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and moral rule of the
group to which the prisoner belong
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their exclusion from
the community, but their continuing part in it
4. Unconvicted prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated
as such.
a. 2 and 3
b. 4 and 1
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
1969. What does classical theory provides?
a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be controlled by
regulating the reproduction of families
b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the
process of communication
c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and penalty disorders
d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of
penalty is retribution
1970. The theory in criminal causation focuses on the criminal disorders,
chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal brain activity?
a. Biological
b. Psychological
c. Sociological
d. Geological
1971. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6 months or
less?
a. National prison
b. Municipal jail
c. City jail
d. Provincial jail
1972. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. Complex crime
b. Status offense
c. Simple crime
d. Victimless crime
1973. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were granted the
time for their marital sexual obligation. What do you call this affair?
a. Sexual relation
b. Conjugal partnership
c. Conjugal privilege
d. Conjugal visit
1974. What institution conducts the training program for uniformed
personnel of the BJMP?
a. Fire Training Center
b. Philippine National Jail Academy
c. PNP Training Center
d. Jail Management Training Institute
1975. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside
the prison. Why was he photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic
Center?
a. He is a actor and photogenic
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure
1976. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred to as

a. Determinate sentence
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Indeterminate sentence
1977. Which of the following executive clemency needs the concurrence of
the congress?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Probation
d. Parole
1988. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person should
serve part of his sentence?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Amnesty
1989. What should the court do where the accused violated the terms and
conditions of his probation?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his probation
1990. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail?
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail where it is
off- limits to inmates
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official communication,
transaction or investigation
1991. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a type of
offense?
a. Grave offense
b. Less grave offense
c. Not so grave offense
d. Minor offense
1992. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board hear and decide
the case brought before it?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
1993. Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on daily basis?
a. Three times
b. Two times
c. Four times
d. Five times
1994. What is the duration should the probation officer submit his post
sentence investigation to the court?
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. within 60 days
d. 15 days
1995. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S
a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Teodolo Natividad
1996. When does probation started?
a. 1938
b. 1841
c. 1896
d. 1932
1997. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the
rehabilitation or prisoners
a. Recreational program
b. Religious program
c. Educational program
d. Employment of prisoners
1998. Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners
due to their daily contact with inmates?
a. Chaplain
b. Warden
c. Psychologist
d. Prison guards
1999. Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners
due to their daily contact with inmates?
a. Chaplain
b. Warden
c. Psychologist
d. Prison guards
2000. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of

confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
a. Good conduct time allowance
b. Special time allowance
c. Visitation privileges
d. Good treatment allowance
2001. Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of
imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of imprisonment,
an earthquake rocked the prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto
returned the following day, how many years would be deducted from his
sentence?
a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years
2002. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be
classified as what kind of prisoner?
a. Municipal prisoner
b. Insular prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner
d. Detention prisoner
2003. It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional system wherein
they confine the prisoners in single cell at night but allow them to work
during the day.
a. Auburn system
b. Pennsylvania system
c. Elmira reformatory
2004. It is an institution intended to detain or house political
offenders.
a. Iwahig Penal farm
b. Davao Penal Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
d. Sablayan Prison Farm
2005. This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of atavism?
a. Lombroso
b. Becarria
c. Ferri
d. Garofalo
2006. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?
a. Pardon
b. Appeal
c. Commutation
d. Reprieve
2007. It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to the
convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence?
a. Special time allowance
b. Parole
c. Good conduct time allowance
d. Probation
2008. A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal institution.
a. Detention order
b. Commitment order
c. Warrant of arrest
2009. Who grants probation?
a. Probation officer
b. Solicitor general
c. Court
d. All of the above
2010. Where the application for probation should be filed?

a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Office of the Solicitor General
c. Trial court
d. Appellate court
2011. The court shall resolve the application for probation for _.
a. Not later than 60 days
b. Within 10 days
c. Within 5 days
d. Within 15 days
2012. Pending the submission of the investigation report, the defendant
may be allowed on temporary liberty through_.
a. Release on recognizance
b. Bail
c. Manifestation
d. Cash bond
2013. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_.
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation the offender
will commit another crime
d. All of the choices
2014. The probationer and his probation program shall be under the
control and supervision of ___?
a. Probation officer
b. Board of pardons and parole
c. Court
d. All of the above
2015. Is the denial of probation appealable?
a. It depends on the violation
b. Yes
c. No
d. Partially No
2016. Who shall have the control over the probationer once the latter is
permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of another court?
a. Regional Director
b. Executive judge of the municipal court
c. Executive Judge of the first instance
d. Appellate court
2017. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of six months,
how many years would be the duration of his probation?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Shall not exceed two years
d. Shall not be more than six years
2018. In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer, the
latter shall have the right to be informed of the violation charged and
to adduce evidence in his favor. This right is in pursuant to his right
to ___?
a. Equal protection
b. Presumption of innocence
c. Miranda rights
d. Due process of law
2019. What is the effect of the termination of probation?

a. Erase criminal records
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as a result of
conviction
c. Both A and B
2020. Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___?
a. 3 years
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
2021. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly convicted
offenders at the RDC?
a. 45 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 15 days
2022. An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it that he
continually motivates his staff and personnel to perform at their best.
a. Decision making
b. Control of prison operation and activities
c. Personnel program
d. Executive leadership
2023. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a

minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the conduct of medical
examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent physical contamination
a. Reception diagnostic center
b. Medical center
c. Quarantine unit
2024. A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating
the basis of confinement of a prisoner
a. Mittimus
b. Detention order
c. Warrant of arrest
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus
2025. A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth.”
a. Code of Babylon
b. Code of Kalantiaw
c. Hammurabi code
d. Bible
2026. A French word meaning “word of honor”

a. Pardon
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
2027. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities
awaiting verdict in their cases
a. Prisoner
b. Detainees
c. Probationer
d. Offender
2028. It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in modern
penology.
a. Amnesty
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Pardon
2029. He advocated the Irish system which is considered by many as one of
the most famous contributor to the reformatory movement.
a. Z.R. Brockway
b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Ceasar Lombroso
d. Walter Crofton
2030. He is the father of probation in the Philippines
a. Ferdinand Marcos
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Teodulo Natividad
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
2031. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of alcoholic and
youthful offenders and known as the father of probation.
a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Alexander Rice
2032. He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
a. Hans Gross
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Benjamin Franklin
2033. This case paved the way for the abolition of the first probation
law?
a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
2034. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified

applicants.
a. Post Investigation Report
b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
c. Admission report
d. Post Sentence Investigation
2035. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide
whether to grant or deny the application for probation.
a. 5 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
2036. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman of
the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. PNP Chief
b. DILG Secretary
c. DOJ Secretary
d. Chief Executive
2037. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked at
anytime.
a. Search and seizure
b. Confiscation
c. Inspection
d. Operation greyhound
2038. These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails,
usually rowed by criminals.
a. Hulks
b. Ships of criminals
c. Galleys
d. none of the choices
2039. What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable inmate?

a. One is to one security officer
b. One is to three security officers
c. One is to two plus one security officers
d. One is to one plus one security officer
2040. Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in order to
serve their sentence after final conviction of a competent court is known
as
a. Detention prisoner
b. Sentenced prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner
d. National prisoner
2041. Penology came from the latin word “poena” which means
a. Conviction
b. Pain and suffering
c. Punishment
d. Deterrence
2042. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an offending

member of the society for the transgression of the law
a. Penalty
b. Punishment
c. Suffering
d. Any of the above
2043. When different crimes should be punished with different penalties,
punishment should therefore be
a. Correctional
b. Legal
c. Productive of suffering
d. Commensurate with the offense
2044. An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted of major
offenses refers to
a. Jail
b. Prison
c. Penitentiary
d. All of the above
2045. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years
a. Prision correccional
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Prision mayor
2046. A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to avoid punishment
in a period of ninety days. This refers to
a. Refuge
b. Securing sanctuary
c. Hidden church
d. Claiming penitentiary
2047. This were the former warships used to house prisoners in the 18th
century and 19th century as means of relieving congestion of prisones
refers to
a. Galleys
b. Hulks
c. Gaols
d. Warships
2048. In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected to harsh
punishments?
a. Middle class
b. Black people
c. Slaves
d. Any of the above.
2049. Offenders who were convicted should be kept away from the society
for its protection. This is frequently called as
a. Incapacitation
b. Deterrence
c. Penalization
d. Rehabilitation
2050. What code specified punishment according to the social class of

the offenders?
a. Greek Code of Draco
b. Justinian Code
c. Burgundian Code
d. Akadian Code
2051. The establishment of the usefulness and responsibility of the
offender as a productive individual is a punishment justified by
a. Expiation
b. Rehabilitation
c. Atonement
d. Retribution
2052. The penalty of banishing a person from the place where he committed
a crime refers to what contemporary forms of punishment
a. Atonement
b. Destierro
c. Exile
d. Incapacitation
2053. The early Roman place of confinement which was built under the
main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
a. Town Gates
b. Wulnut Street Jail
c. Bridewell Workhouse
d. Mamertime Prison
2054. What was the most popular workhouse in London which was built for
the employment of English prisoners?
a. Borstal prison
b. Panoptican prison
c. Elmira reformatory
d. None of the choices
2056. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,
prepares and cooks food and serve to inmates?
a. General Service Branch
b. Mess Service Branch
c. Budget and Finance Brach
d. Property and Supply Branch
2057. The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical examination
including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and immunity for the purpose
of insuring that the prisoner is not suffering from contagious disease?
a. Rehabilitation Unit
b. Quarantine Cell
c. Medical and Health Center
d. RDC
2058. Who provides the security system of sound custody, security and
control of inamtes and their movements and also responsible to enforce
jail or prison discipline
a. Administrative Group
b. Security Group
c. Rehabilitation Group
d. Medical Group
2059. What law was passed during the Aquino administration that renamed
the Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections?
a. E.O. 292
b. E.O. 229
c. A.O 262
d. E.O. 292
2060. Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the Head of the
Bureau?
a. Chief BJMP
b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive
d. Sec. of DOJ
2062. What agency has supervision and control over all the national
prisons or penitentiaries?
a. Bureau of Prisons
b. Bureau of Correction
c. Bureau of Jail
2063. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the jurisdiction of the
DOJ
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the provincial
government
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and supervision of all
jails nationwide
d. The BJMP is under the DILG
2064. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?

a. Chief Executive
b. DILG Sec
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BUCOR
2065. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden?
a. DILG sec
b. Chief Executive
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BuCor
Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering insulting words or

languages on the part of prison staff to the prisoners to degrade or
break the confidence of prisoners.
A. Degradation
B. Corporal Punishment
C. Monotony
D. Mass Movement
2067. The public will be protected if the offender has being held in
conditions where he cannot harm others especially the public.
Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society
will be ensured from further criminal depredations of criminals.
A. Deterrence
B. Incapacitation & Protection
C. Retribution
D. Atonement
2068. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional

treatment for major offenders also responsible for the abolition of death
penalty and torture as a form of punishment.
A. John Howard
B.Charles Montesquieu
C. William Penn
D. Jeremy Bentham
2069. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided prisoners
into companies and appointed prisoners as petty officer in charge.
A. Domets of France
C. Manuel Montesimos
B. Zebulon Brockway
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
2070. What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the beliefs,
customs and practices, it is also reflects the level of uprightness and
morality of the people?
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 B. Law of the Talion
C. Kalantiaw Code
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779
2071. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves where they
were attached to workbenches and forced to do hard labor in the period of
their imprisonment.
A. Underground Cistern
B. Ergastalum
C. Sing-Sing Prison
D. Alcatraz Prison
2072. It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of Enlightment”
A. 1870 – 1880 C. 18th century
B. 19th century D. 21st century
2073. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are confined in

their own cells during the night and congregate work in shops during the
day also known as “Congregate System”.
A. Auburn Prison System
B. Custody Oriented Prison
C. Pennsylvania Prison System D. Treatment Oriented Prison
2074. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in January 1825
and located in New York City.
A. Borstal Institution
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. New York House of Refuge
D. Panoptican Prison
2075. One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The consequence must

be in accordance with the law it is a result of a judgment rendered by a
court of justice.
A. Equal C. Legal
B. Commensurate w/ the offense
D. Personal
2076. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion Temporal who
has the jurisdiction to detain him?
A. BuCor C. BJMP
B. PNP D. AFP
2077 . Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional. What is the
duration of his penalty?
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
B. 6M1D to 6 Y D. 1M&1D – 6 M
2078. it is then known as Carcel y Presidio.

A. Old Bilibid Prison C. Manila City Jail
B. NBP D. May Halique Estate
2079. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement.
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
B. San Ramon Prison
C. Sablayan Prison
D. New Bilibid Prison
2080. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and Photograph
B. Examination for Contraband
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk
D. All of These
2081. ____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in BJMP.

A. Assistant Warden
B. Medical Officer
C. Chief, Security Officer
D. Jail Chaplain
2082. A general agreed principle that women prisoners should be placed
in a special building on the same site with the men prison.
A. Diversification by Sex
B. Segregation
C. Diversification by Age
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
2083. What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Camp Sampaguita
C. Main building
D. Chapel
2084. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum Security
Prisoners?
A. Blue C. Brown
B. Tangerine D.Gray
2085. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General Paulino
Santos led the first contingent which opened the colony.
A. Davao Penal Colony C. Tagum
B. Panabo D. Kapalong
E. Tanglaw
2086. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the construction of
this penal institution and it was established on 1904 through the orders
of Gov. Forbes. It is considered a one of the most open penal
institutions in the world.
A. Iwahig C. Tagumpay
B. Sta. Lucia D. Inagawan
2087. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal
Farm.
I. Central III. Pusog
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
IX. Montible X. Central
A. I, II, III, IV B. V and VI
C. VII, VIII, IX & X D. Either of these
2088. Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for a total period
of ____ for classification and determination of appropriate program.
C. 5 days D. NONE
2089. One of the components of RDC which is responsible in the

examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional make-up.
A. Medical Center B. Sociologist
C. Psychologist D.Psychiatrist
2090. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was created thru ____ as
one of the Tri Bureau under the Department of Interior and Local
Government .
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
B. Section 53, RA 6975
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
2091. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion Temporal who
has the jurisdiction to detain him?
A. BuCor C. BJMP
B. PNP D. AFP
2092. All except one is included in the command group of BJMP
A. Chief of Staff
B. Deputy C/BJMP
C. Chief of BJMP
D. Chief of Directorial staff
2093. One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible for

preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the food and serve it to
inmates.
A. Mess Service Branch
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
2094. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for every
offender shall be observed.
A. 1:1+1 C. 1:2
B. 1:7 D. 1:500
2095. When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that demands extra
precaution additional guards shall be employed
A. High Profile offender
B. Female Offender
C. High-risk offender
D. Either of these
2096. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary rules
imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked to, manifest his ___
in writing.
A. Certification C. Agreement
B. Manifestation D. Affidavit
2097. John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what classification of
sentenced prisoner is John classified?
A. Municipal Prisoner C. City Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner D. Insular Prisoner
2098. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time.
He classified as a ____ among the classification of inmates according to
privileges.
A. 1st class inmate
B. 3rd class inmate
C. 2nd class inmate
D. Colonist
2100. What classification of Prisoners according to Degree of

Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose
lesser danger than maximum-security prisoners in case they escape.
A. Minimum Security Prisoners
B. Medium Security Prisoners
C. Maximum Security Prisoners
D. Any of the Above
2101. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment imposable to
inmates?
A. Close Confinement
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
C. Reprimand
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
2102. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between ___ in any
calendar month provided that this punishment shall be imposed only in the
case of an incorrigible prisoner when other disciplinary measured had
been proven ineffective.
A. 30-60 days C. 1-7 Days
B. 1 day D. NONE
2103. All except one are instruments of restraints.
A. Handcuffs C. Whipping Rod
B. Leg iron D. Strait Jackets
2104. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.
A. 60 years old C. 56 years old
B. 50 years old D. 21 years old
2105. The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good behavior with no
record of disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules and
regulation.
A. Director of BJMP
B. Warden
C. President
D. Director of Corrections
2106. Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
A. ½ of his earnings C. ¼ if his earnings
B. ¾ of his earnings D. Discretion of Warden
2107. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the prisoner
breaks the rules and only after due process is observed.
A. right C. Privileges
B. Discretion D. liberty
2108. A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of
Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua will have benefit
from an automatic reduction from maximum term of forty years to ___.
A. 20 Years C. 25 Years
B. 30 Years D. 35 Years
2109. Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative is limited

to ___ hours.
A. 3 C. 9
B. 6 D. 12
2110. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to see the
remains of a dead immediate family member?
A. Minimum Security
B. Medium Security
C.Maximum Security
D. None of these
2111. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period not
exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
A. 30 C. 90
B. 60 D. 120
2112. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not less than
____ paces from his charge.
A. 10 C. 30
B. 15 D. 45
2113. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution, the
prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made of:
A. Wood C. Paper
B. Plastic D. Carton
2115. It is a continuing state of good order.
A. Discipline C. Communication
B. Morale D. Loyalty
2116. Unload as method in searching the prisoner for possession of
contraband’s inside the prison cell and compound.
A. Frisking C. Shakedown
B. Operation GreyhoundD. Body Frisking
2117. It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine
Correctional Institution.
A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
C. Davao Penal Colony
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
2118. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
A. Excessive number of inmates
B. Lack of funds
C. Sex problems
D. Discipline
2119. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable
sentence for the offense he is charged with?
A. B.P 85 C. RA 4200
B. B.P. 22 D. PD 968
2120. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change

his religious beliefs sect or the like to another while under confinement
is referred to as
A. Proselytizing C. Initiation
B. Fraternization D. Inducement
2121. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of

firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in
danger on orders of the Officer in Command.
A. 1st group Anti-Riot C. 4th Group Anti-Riot
B. 3rd Group Anti-Riot D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot
2122. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility and the
actual stay of the inmates to view the remains.
A. 20 kilometer C. 40 Kilometer
B. 30 Kilometer D. 50 Kilometer
2123. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a Child in Conflict
with the law after conviction of a trial Court?
A. His sentence serve
B. His sentence is suspended
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family
D. His sentence is NOT suspended
2124. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall be deducted
from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate abandoned prison due to
disorder arising
A. STA C. GCTA
B. Commutation D.Visitation Privilege
2125. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even individuals
people conflicts:
A. Bodong C. Capic
B. Korte Supremo D. Hito
2126. The following are the aims of diversification in prison or jail,
except:
A. more effective execution of treatment programs
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or another
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
D. none of the above
2127. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.
A. Maternal Visit C. Sodomy
B. Masturbation D. Conjugal Visit
2128. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity
immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the passing away of
calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
2129. Which of these is known as the Release on Recognizance Law
providers for the release of offender charged with an offense whose
penalty is not more than six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or
both, to the custody of a responsible person in the community, instead of
a bail bond-
A. RA 6036 C. PD 603
B. Act 2489 D. RA 9262
2130. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in command or the
___ officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran C. most senior
B. assistant D. custodian
2131. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial force shall
be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. protect the other inmates
C. to shoot the escape
D. give warning shots
2132. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has just been
perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall
immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. notify the nearest police precinct
C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
D. call the warden or the director
2133. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison,
except:
A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
2134. It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
A. Religion C. Education
B. Discipline D. Recreational
2135. Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
A. Social degradation C. Exile
B. Physical torture D. Death Penalty
2136. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in
excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to security or has
become causative in making the place unsanitary.
A. Contraband
B. Prohibited items
C. Paraphernalia
D.Nuisance Contraband
2137. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate to a jail

by competent court or authority for investigation, trial and/or service
of sentence
A. Commitment C. Safekeeping
B. Entrustment D. Imprisonment
2137. This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the middle ages
particularly in England.
A. Inquisition C. Incapacitation
B. Benefit of Clergy D. Retribution
2138. The inmates may request a review of the findings of the
Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to the ____.
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
B. BJMP
B. Central office/BJMP
D. Warden
2139. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it has
been posted, the mail should be delivered to him.
A. 48 hours C. 24 hours
B. 30 days D. 60 days
2140. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s stamp at the
____ of each page and on the envelope. The letter should be placed back
in the same envelope and resealed.
A. Back C. Conspicuous Area
B. Side D. Top
2141. In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the alarm?

A. Desk Officer C. Armorer
B. Control Center D.Officer-in-Charge
2142. It is designed to improve their communication and computation
skills, such as the ability to read and write in order to enhance their
individual educational level.
A. Skills Training
B. Adult Education
C. Secondary Education
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
2143. Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and cigarettes,
except in prohibited cases. The statement is –
A. Partially true C. Partially false
B. Absolute False D. Absolutely True
2144. All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be entitled
to bail as a matter of ____
A. Right C. preference
B. Privilege D. Discretion
2145. The visiting room officer shall be responsible for compiling the
regular visiting list for each inmate.
A. Special Visitor C. Strange Visitor
B. Regular Visitor D. Unusual visitor
2146. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s quarter and the
keys shall be available all the time.
A. Key Matron C.Resident Matron
B. Matron D. Any of these
2147. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years and one day to 12
years. What correctional facility he should be incarcerated?
A. Bureau of Correction
B. Prision Correctional
C. Prision Mayor
D. BJMP
2148. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime murder. After 12
days from the promulgation of the sentence he escaped from his place of
confinement. Abdul Salsalani is:
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
C. considered as an escaped prisoner
D. Either of C
2149. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will exempt prison
authorities from any liability arising from death or injury sustained
while in prison:
A. Waiver of LiabilityC. Waiver of Responsibility
B. Waiver of Acceptance D. Waiver of Agreement
2150. Before the actual date of interview the media shall file request
within ____
A. 1 day C. 3 days
B. 2 days D. 8 days
2151. Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance of the
necessary anti-riot equipment and firearms?
A. The Warden C. Director for operation
B. Director D. Desk Officer
2152. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of Director,
and assisted by Deputy Chief with the rank of Senior Superintendent. This
sentence is
A. partially true C. true
B. partially false D. false
2153. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders
prescribes that penal facilities should not exceed _____ inmates.
A. 1000 C. 1500
B. 1200 D. 2000
2154. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to see the
remains of a dead immediate family members?
A. Minimum security C. Maximum security
B. Medium security D. None of these
2155. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.
A. Two C. Four
B. Three D. Five
2156. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine
unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. 55 days C. 5 days
2157. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment by claiming
refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the end of which time he has
compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him.
2158. In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop movements will
emanate from him.
A. Assistant team leader C. Team Leader
B. Ground Commander D. Security Teams
2159. Who among the following shall be responsible in the custody of all
the properties seized from the detainee prior to his detention?
A. Custodial Officer
B. Chief of Detention Center
C. Evidence Custodian Officer
D. Court
2160. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only
with necessary restraint and proper escort preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is
A. Yes C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
2161. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is already overstaying
in jail because her jail guard, Benny B. Rotcha, who happens to be a law
student advised her that there is no more legal ground for his continued
imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms. Malou Wang got out
of jail and went home. Was there any crime committed?
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
2162. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Malou
Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed is:
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
2163. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison.
A. Director C. Warden
B. Superintendent D. Wardress
2164. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting

investigation?
A. BUCOR C. Jail
B. Penitentiary D. Prison
2165. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail.
A. DILG C. Governor
B. DOJ D. LGU
2166. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal severity of

punishment through a compromise with the church.
A. Benefit of Clergy C. None
B. Rehabilitation D. Retribution
2167. Benny B. Rotcha was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 years
imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority due to his frequent
introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would be his classification
under PD 29?
A. Detention prisoner
B. Municipal prisoner
C.Provincial prisoner
D. Insular prisoner
2168. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned in
interaction with other persons in the process of communication.
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Social Disorganization Theory
C. Classical Theory
D. Strain Theory
2169. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a?
A. Minor offense C. Moral Turpitude
B. Grave Offense D. Less grave offense
2170. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into
deep sleep in lethal injection.
A. Potassium Chloride
B. Hydrogen Peroxide
C. Sodium Thiopenthotal
D. Sodium chloride
2171. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X which is a
Death Convict should have___.
A. 2 Shifting Guards
B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. 4 Shifting Guards
D. 5. Shifting Guards
2172. How do inmates know that they have letters?
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office
2173. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison?
A. Reporting illegal activities
B. Doing prison assignment
C. Using prohibited drugs
D. Selling illegal commodities
2174. ____ program employs prisoner in various product or good-producing
tasks.
A. Agricultural (farm) C. Industrial
B. Operational D. Administrative
2175. The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except on orders of
the –
A. Desk Officer C. Armorer
B. Control Center D. Officer-in-Charge
2176. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a Conjugal Visit. The
statement is –
A. True C. Maybe True
B. Maybe False D. False
2177. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a monthly
salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in 2018?
A. 9000 pesos C. 1900 pesos
B. 9500 pesos D. NONE
2178. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for

adjustment process from life in prison to life is free community within –
A. 60 days prior to release
B. 30 days prior to release
C. 90 days before release
D. 15 days prior to release
2179. How many days are given to the disciplinary board of BJMP to
resolve issue?
A. 5 working days C. 2 days
B. 30 working days D. 24 hours
2180. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside the jail is
allowed to be with his child?
A. 6 months C. 1 year
2181. A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of
Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua will have benefit
from an automatic reduction from a maximum term of forty years to ____.
2182. Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed –
A. 45 days C. 30 to 60 days
2183. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On
March 25, 2013 the judge who promulgated the decision died. What is the
effect of the judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence?
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentence will be reduced
2184. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.
A. Mittimus C. Carpeta
B. Commitment Order D. Prison Record
2185. How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from
going out?
A. 30 days C. 90 Days
B. 60 Days D. 120 Days
2186. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never been
involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If you were the prison
director, how many days for each month would you approve as Maya’s good
conduct time allowance?
A. 5 days C. 8 days
2187. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where W,X,Y & Z are
inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W surrendered after 24 hours, X b.
surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered
after 3 days. Who among them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance
for Loyalty under Art. 98.
A. X C. W
B. Y D. Z
2188. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way House

inside the compound of the Bureau of Corrections?
A. Office of the President
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
C. United Nations Security Council
D. Asia Crime Foundation
2189. Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented within ____
before the execution.
B. 48 hours D. NONE
2190. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment program best
suited to the needs of the individual prisoner, based on the findings.
A. treatment planning C. reclassification
B. Execution of treatment Plan D. Diagnosis
2191. An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of confinement

for emergency reasons.
A. Furlough C. Prisonization
B. Diversification D. Counseling
2192. A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters and major
problems, his responsibility is centered on:
A. Decision Making
B. Personnel Program
C. Public Relations
D. Executive Leadership
2193. For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing the
surrounding is:
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the
institution.
B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding.
2194. It is the primary objective of custodial and security division?
A. To prevent riots
B. To implement discipline
C. To prevent escapes
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
2195. When the death penalty was still enforced by means of lethal
injection, four guards keep a death watch, the convict is confined in an
individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled time of execution which
is usually 3:00 in the afternoon.
A. 6 C. 24
B. 12 D. 36
2196. What is the population of a type A Jail?
A. More than 100 C. 20 or less
B. 21 to 99 D. 101 to 150
2197. This theory assumes that people are law abiding but under great
pressure they will resort to crime and that disparity between goals and
means provides that pressure.
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Strain Theory
2198. This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being maintained by
Bucor where youth offenders may serve their sentence in lieu of
confinement in a prison.
A. AFP Stockade
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
C. Social Camps
D. A or C
2199. It was established in 1910 under the American Regime.
A. Philippine Prison System
B. Provincial Jail System
C. Probation
D. Parole
2200. The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment Order EXCEPT:
A. Signature of the Judge
B. Seal of the Court
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
D. Signature of the Clerk
2201. A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency to evade

custody against the will of the custodian or from the place where he is
held in lawful custody or confinement.
A. Escape Prone Prisoner
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
D. Alien Prisoner
2202. Where a person commits FELONY before beginning to serve or while
serving his sentence on a previous conviction
A. Quasi-recidivism
B. Reiteration
C. Habitual Delinquency
D. Recidivism
2203. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in possession of

dangerous drugs can be considered a quasi-recidivist?
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while serving his
sentence
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in prison
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
D. A and B
2204. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction
from the official records?
A. Mitigation C. Expungement
B. Exoneration D. Restriction
2205. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social actions
must be the utilitarian conception of the greatest happiness for the
greatest number?
A. John Howard C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Becaria D. George Void
2206. Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners.
A. After recreational activities
B. At early morning hours
C. Before sleeping hours
D. During middle hours of the day
2207. Forced is used only by correctional to,
A. Exact respect
B. Enforce discipline
C. Show physical strength and power
D. Perform assignments
2208. One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an unforgiving
society against criminals is ____.
A. Worked out good relationship with the community
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
C. Difficulties in securing employment
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
2209. With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of
Prisoners, which of the following should NOT be done to the prisoners?
A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from convicted
prisoners.
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult prisoners.
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away from male
prisoners.
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children stay with
her.
2210. Which of the following unusual offender should be under the close
supervision of the jail physician?
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
2. Sex deviates 4.Escape-prone prisoners
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
2211. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
A. Deputy for Administration
B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
D. Any of these
2212. All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau shall
commence with the rank of ___
A. JO1 C. Jail Inspector
B. JO11 D. Jail Senior Inspector
2213. What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as Chief Bureau
of Jail Management and Penology?
A. Superintendent
B. C/Superintendent
C. Senior Superintendent
D. Director
2214. It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to an
institution where he can be treated well until he becomes fully
recovered and accepted by the community.
A. Institutional Corrections B. Non Institutional
Correction
C. BJMP
D. Parole
2215. This is the basic needs of a convicted person under custody.
a. Shelter c. Food e. cigarettes
b. Food d. Slippers f. Drinks
A. a,b,c,d B. a,c,d,e
C. c,d,e,f D. a,c,d,f
2216. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction is
final and executory and has already served the minimum period of the
sentence imposed to him.
A. Parole C. Word of Hohor
B. Parole d’ Honeur D.Probare
2217. He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, a penal colony
in the East of Australia and initiated the famous “Mark System”.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Edward Savage
C. Walter Crofton
D. Edward Savage
2218. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and Parole.

A. Administrator C. Sec. of DOJ
B. Sociologist D. Clergyman
2219. It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that creates the
board of Indeterminate Sentence which took effect on December 5, 1933.
A. EO 83 S. 1937 C. EO 94
B. Act 4103 D. EO 292
2220. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for review of a
Parole cases.
A. Final conviction
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one (1) year
C. served the minimum period of said sentence
D. None of the above
2221. All except one are objectives of the Parole System.

A. It standardize the penalty
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic
usefulness
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and protecting social order
2222. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the document

to the board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s minimum sentence.
2223. The board shall assess and determine whether the petitioner is
qualified for Parole, the decision or action must be suspended by ____ of
the members of the board.
A. 4 votes C. Majority
B. 5 members of the Board D. at least four (4) votes
2224. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or
specifically known as discharge on parole.
A. Release Document
B. Final Release & Discharge
C. Discharge on Parole
D. Summary Report
2225. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the parolee is to
report at least once a month for those residing outside Metro Manila/to
report at least twice a month for those who are residing in Metro Manila.
A. True C. Partially True
B. False D. Partially False
2226. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee commits any
violation of the terms and conditions stated in the release document.
A. Violation Report C. Progress Report
B. Infraction Report D. Summary Report
2227. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an ____ against the
parolee.
A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Order of Arrest
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment
2228. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?

A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
2229. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence stated in
the release document except if the petition for transfer of residence is
approved by ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration
2230. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize outside travel
his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than ___.
2231. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved by
the ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration
2232. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO pending criminal
case in any court. Application for travel and work abroad shall be
approved by the Administration and confirmed by the ____.
A. Regional Director C. BOARD
B. Probation and Parole Officer
D. Administration
2234. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it
as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This is statement is:
A. Partially true C. True
B. Partially false D. False
2235. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted.
a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
b. those who have pending criminal case;
c. habitual delinquencies;
d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
e. conviction is on appeal
A. a,b,c, and e C. a,b,c, and d

B. b,c,d, and e D. a,b,c,d, and e
2236. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of the
President for the objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice or
correcting manifests injustice.
A. Parole C. Pardon
B. Executive D. Reprieve
2237. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his exercise
of the power to grant executive clemency?
A. DOJ C. BOARD
B. Administration D. Administrator
2238. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual within

certain limits or conditions from the punishment that the law inflicts
for the offense he has committed resulting from the partial extinction of
his criminal liability.
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Reprieve
C. Commutation of Sentence
D. Conditional Pardon
2239. Pardon by the President shall be extended ____.

A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information
D. Upon the discretion of the President
2240. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for imprisonment
of “prision correctional”.
A. Article 95 of RPC C. Article 59 of RPC
B. Article 159 of RPC D. A and C
2241. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner should be

addressed to ____.
A. Board C. Administrator
B. Chairman of BPP D. President
2242. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for absolute or
conditional pardon if the crime committed is against the national
security?
A. DFA Secretary
B. COMELEC
C. DOJ Secretary
d. DND Secretary
2243. Any wilful or malicious concealing material information made by the

client either or after the grant of Conditional Pardon or Parole is a
ground for the BOARD to –
A. Extend the period of Supervision
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional Pardon
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior has
shown by the client
2244. All except one are the instances wherein supervision of parole and
conditional pardon case deemed to archive/close.
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board against the
client
B. Certificate of transfer of resident
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and discharge of
the client
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the deceased
client
2245. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of
any election law may be granted without favourable recommendation of the
Commission of Elections
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the Court
2246. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT:

A. Carnapping C. Impeachment
B. Estafa D. Parricide
2247. Father of Philippine Probation.
A. John Augustus
B. Edward Savage
C. Matthew Davenport Hill
D. Teodulo Natividad
2248. First juvenile court established in 1899

A. Chicago C. Massachusetts
B. England D. Philippines
2249. Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin Coolidge became a
Law on _____.
A. April 26, 1878 C. 1899
B. 1887 D. March 4, 1925
2250. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue of ___ also
known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935
A. HB 393 C. PD 968
B. Act 4221 D. RA 4221
2251. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring unconstitutional
of the first probation law of November 16, 1937
A. People vs. Vera C. People vs. De Vera
B. People vs. De Vega D. People vs. Vega
2252. How long is the period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a
term of imprisonment of not more than one (1) year?
A. Not to exceed 6 years
B. Not to exceed 8 years
C. Not to exceed 10 years
D. Not to exceed 2 years
2253. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Pardon is administered by the court
B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of
any election law may granted without favourable recommendation of the
Commission of Elections.
D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
2254. What court will you apply for Probation?
A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
C. Same court, where you had been convicted
D. Any of the CHOICES
2255. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for
probation, the offender applying for probation –
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
D. all of these
2256. When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?
A. Petitioner is a foreigner
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
C. Petitioner violates the condition
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
2257. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of Prision
Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
2258. Violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify an
offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968.
A. Omnibus Election Code
B. Robbery
C. Wage Rationalization Act
D. Videogram Law
2259. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of

2002 is disqualify to apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
A. Section 12 C. Section 14
B. Section 13 D. Section 17
E. Section 70
2260. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s
application for probation if an appeal is perfected.
A. PD 1357 C. BP 76
B. PD 968 D.PD 1257
2261. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has
been given due course by the court but fails to report to the probation
officer or cannot be located within a reasonable period of time.
A. Absconding Petitioner
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Uncooperative Petitioner
2262. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
A. After the submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When his probation is approved
2263. When shall probation order take effect?
A. Three days after issuance
B. Three days prior to issuance
C. Upon its issuance
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
2264. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply for
probation?
A. Infanticide C. Simple Theft
B. Malicious Mischief D.Unjust Vexation
2265 Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional Probation Officers
and Assistant Probation Officers?
A. DILG Secretary C. President
B. DOJ Secretary D. Administrator
2266. How many days are given to the court to act on application for
probation?
2267. Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a _____.
A. Associate Plan
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
C. Treatment Program
D. Orientation Plan
2268. One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to present
himself to the probation officer designated to undertake his supervision
within ___ from receipt of said order.
B. 48 hours D. 150 hours
2269. When shall probation order take effect?
A. Three days after issuance
B. Upon its issuance
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
2270. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed ___.
A. 15 days after granting it
B. At any time during supervision
C. Upon the application of the community
D. Any of these
2271. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if the
reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the court will issue a
____.
A. termination order C. Warrant of Arrest
B. OAR D. Revocation Order
2272. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Probationer?
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
2273. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum
number of minor violations that would result in the revocation of the
probation order?
A. 5 Violations C. 3 Violations
B. 4 Violations D. 2 Violations
2274. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation
aide
A. 3 C. 7
B. 5 D. 9
2275. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
A. After submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When the probation is approved
2276. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
A. Criminal C. Society
B. Family D. Governor
2277. It refers to those that handle the investigation of petitioners for
probation, and the supervision of probationers, parolees and conditional
pardonees.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Department of Justice
2278. Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted by the
probation officer to the court within
2279. Those that have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
2280. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board
of Pardon and Parole.
2281. When will you close a probation case?
A. When the probationer absconds the place
B. When he incurred violations
C. When there is recommendation for revocation
D. When the termination order is approved
2282. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among the citizen’s
of ____
A. Good religious background
B. High Educational Level
C. Good Repute and Probity
D. High Social Standing
It refers to the manner or practice of managing or controlling places of
confinement as in jails or prisons.
A. Penology C. Penal Management
B. Correctional Administration
D. Correction
It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails,
usually rowed by criminals. A. type of ship used for transportation of
criminals in the 16th century.
Gaols C. Galleys
Hulks D. Mamertine Prison
Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law incorporated into the
Justinian Code. It is also collection of legal principles engraved on
metal tablets and set up on .
Twelve Tablets
Burgundian Code
Hammurabic Code
Greek code of Draco
2286. The most popular workhouse in London which was built for the
employment and housing of English prisoners.
A. Bridewell
B. Hospicio de San Michelle
C. Saint Bridget” Well
D. Walnut Street Jail
2287. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional Probation

Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
A. DILG Secretary C. President
B. DOJ Secretary D. Administrator
It is the branch of criminology which deals with the management and

administration of inmates:
Criminal justice c. Penology
Victimology d. Jail Management
Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail rules

is called:
Instrument of restraint c. contraband
Handcuff d. leg iron
It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, city and
municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and sanitary and adequately
equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping of city, municipal
prisoners, any fugitive from justice or persons detained awaiting for
investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary:
Bureau of Corrections
Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development
Jail Bureau
Department of Justice
Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day or as often as
necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for:
Two (2) c. Four (4)
Three (3) d. Five (5)
The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the frequency of
requests for interviews reach a volume that warrants limitations:
Media group c. news team
Press pool d. public affairs
An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in CIW may be allowed
to stay with the mother for a period not exceeding:
1 month c. 1 year
6 months d. 6 years
BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for Administration and
Rehabilitation and one for:
Health and Care services
Prisons and Security
Correction and Rehabilitation
Custody and Security
A representative of the news media may file a written request with the
head of prison for a personal interview of an inmate that he/she shall
file a written request at least:
One day c. two days
Three days d. four days
This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert inmates and
be affiliated into their religion:
Conversions c. agitation
Proselytizing d. Captivation
Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a confinement in a

disciplinary cell from _ to _ months depending upon the gravity of the
offense committed:
One to two c. one to three
One to four d. one to five
During the 11th and successive years of following years of prisoners

imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of __ days for each
month of good behaviour:
Five c. eight
Ten d. fifteen
During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive, of inmate’s
imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of:
Five c. eight
Ten d. fifteen
During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he shall be allowed
a deduction of:
Five days c. ten days
Seven days d. twelve days
GCTA means:
Good conduct turning allowance
. good conduct time allowance
Good conduct training allotment
d. none of the foregoing
It is a form of bails that the court may release a person in custody of a

responsible person.
Property bond c. Recognizance
Corporate surety d. Cash deposit
Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
a. Department of Justice c. Chief Executive
b. Judiciary d. Legislative
2304. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend
the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal
liability.
a. Parole c. Pardon
b. Executive clemency d. none of the above
The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
a. DILG
b. BUCor
c. PNP
d. DOJ
It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less
serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty c. Reprieve
b. Commutation d. none of the foregoing
The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
a. Retribution c. Punishment
b. Deterrence d. Rehabilitation
The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
a. Reprieve c. Amnesty
b. Pardon d. Communication
Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused before a court or
competent authority and is temporarily confined in jail while undergoing
or awaiting investigation, trial or final judgment.
Prisoner c. Bail
Detainee d. Arrest
Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a
complaint filed by whom?
Parents c.Offended Spouse
Guardians d. Godfather
He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
Matthew Davenport Hill c. John Augustus
Father Cook d. Edward Savage
Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the
concurrence of congress?
a. probation c. Amnesty
b. pardon d. Parole
Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the probation
officer to the court within
a. 20 days c. 60 days
b. 30 days d. none of the above
Parole is a matter of ___.
a. privilege
b. right
c. grace
d. requirement
For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
a. punishment
b. treatment
c. enjoyment
d. incarceration
PPA is headed by:
Director
Administrator
Secretary
Superior
Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal upon a person
convicted of crime or misdemeanor.
Remission
Forfeiture
Fine
All of the above
Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good behavior and no
record of violation of prisons rules and regulations
President
Director of Prisons
Warden
None of the above
A person who is placed under probation.
Petitioner
Probationer
Probationee
None of the above
It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the
individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
Special pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
General pardon
Which is not a form of bail?
Cash deposit
Corporate surety
Recognizance
Title bond
An offender who surrenders from escaping because of
calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence
He is considered as the father of probation in the Philippines.
Ferdinand Marcos
Teodulo Natividad
Fidel Ramos
Antonio Torres
The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
a. Commutation
b. Reform model
c. Amnesty
d. Pardon
An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody
and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those sentenced to
serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years
a. BJMP
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration
Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what government agency
Parole and Probation Administration
Board of Pardons and Parole
Probation and Parole Administration
Board of Parole and Pardons
It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
R.A. 7610
P.D. 603
R.A. 9262
R.A. 9344
The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
a. Director
b. Secretary of the dnd
c. Chief of executive
d. Prison inspector
A term means a friend of a court
Amicos curae
Amigos curae
Amicus curiae
None of the above
The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not
commit another crime in the future.
a. Retribution
b. Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation
He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
Matthew Davenport Hill
Father Cook
John Augustus
Edward Savage
An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less
costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond
to individualized community based treatment programs.
a. BJMP
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration
Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an ordinary
crime.
General pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
Special pardon
Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of money as
the consequence of violating the provisions of some statute or refusal to
comply with some requirement of law.
Remission
Forfeiture
Fine
All of the above
The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to
the following, except:
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of
any election law may be granted without favorable recommendation of the
Commission of Elections.
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
d. Pardon is administered by the court
It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of
penalty imposed for another previous offense.
a. Recidivism
b. Delinquency
c. Quasi-recidivism
d. City prisoner
It refers to leniency or mercy.
Power
Clemency
Grace
Damages
A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a certain
category.
Special pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
General pardon
During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of an inmate, He
shall allow a deduction of how many days for each month for displaying
good behavior?
10 days
15 days
8 days
5 days
The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which
exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or
prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru the
recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called:
Amnesty
Parole
Probation
Pardon
It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
Reprieve
Amnesty
Probation
Commutation
Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a correctional
institution after he has served the minimum of his prison sentences.
Parole
Pardon
Probation
None of the above
The who investigates for the court a referral for probation
or supervises a probationer or both
a. police officer
b. probationer officer
c. intelligence officer
d. law enforcer
When does probation revocable before the final discharge of the
probationer by the court for the violation of any of the conditions of
probation.
a. any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
c. after 1 year under probation
2344. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been
subsequently convicted of another crime;
a. progress report
b. violation report
c. infraction report
d. arrest report
2345. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one:
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
c. those who are habitual delinquents
380. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of an
inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days for each month for
displaying good behavior?
10 days
15 days
8 days
5 days
2346. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for a
time after conviction and sentence.
Reprieve
Amnesty
Probation
Commutation
2347. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
a. Administrator
b. Warden
c. Director
d. Commander
2348. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
a. President
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Director of Prison
d. Court
2349. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. Department of Justice
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Department of Health
2350. is the redress that the state takes against an offending member of
society that usually involves pain and suffering:
incarceration
floggings
ordeal
punishment
This code introduced the concept of restitution. But punishments were
meted according to the social class of the offender:
Justinian code
The Greeks
Burgundian code
Code of Hammurabi
According to this ancient law that was practice in the areas of Babylon,
The killer is answerable not to the family but to the king:
Code of Hammurabi
Roman twelve tables
Pharaoh’s law
Burgundian code
This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the detection and
punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
Inquisition
Lateran council
Ecclesiastical court
Tortio millenio adviniente
borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners so that their
profitability can be maximized not out of humanitarian reasons as the
government and the merchants want to make it appear:
UN convention for profitability of prisoners
US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
UN convention for treatment of prisoners
US convention for treatment of prisoners
In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal lords
instituted official methods by which God could indicate who was innocent
and who was guilty. One such method was called:
Trial by fighting
Trial by ordeal
Trial by combat
Dei indicum
Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was tied to the crime
committed:
Banishment
Death
Torture
Mutilation
Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the public and at
the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo
institutional treatment program:
Solitary confinement
Punishment
Floggings
Imprisonment
It is conditional release after the prisoner has served part of his
sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re-introducing them to
free life:
Probation
Parole
Pardon
Executive clemency
This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot calculate
pleasure and pain they should not be prepared as criminals and as such
that they should not be punished:
Classical school
Neo classical school
Positivist school
Hedonism
This approached of penology assessed at the time of French Revolution:
Classical school
Positivist school
Hedonism
According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man who needs not to
be punished but treated in a hospital so that his illness which has
something to do with the commission of crime may be cured”:
Corrections
Penology
Classical
Positivist
This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
Classical school
Positivist school
Sociology
It is the study and practice of a systematic management in jails or
prisons and other institutions concerned with the custody, treatment and
rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
Penology
Corrections
Correctional administration
Penal management
a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
Penology
Poena
Peona
All of the abovementioned
It is the field of criminal justice administration which utilizes the
body of knowledge and practices of the government and the society in
handling individuals who have been convicted of an offense:
Penology
Corrections
Criminal justice
All of the above
The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
Code of drakon
Code of Hammurabi
Justinian code
Burgundian code
existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before Christ was born,
the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient Sumeria:
king Ur Nammu
king Herodes
Emperor Justin
None of the above
Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder, assaults on noble or
middle class women, sexual relations with noble or middle class women and
giving aid or comfort to escape offender:
Burgundian code
Drakonian code
Law of Talion
The Greeks
This people love to philosophize that their brand of justice was not
vengeful and retributive. They maintain that justice should reform the
offender but must also serve as deterrence to others from committing
offense:
The Romans
The Greeks
The Jews
The Americans
Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete reversal of the
past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John Paul II who reversed this so
called:
Eclessiastical court
Inquisition
Ordeal
Culture of death
punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also practice of the
Israelites in Jesus time:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a board made of wood and
then had their bones systematically broken:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once practiced by Romans. The
Roman Catholic Church has also been known to resort to this form of
punishment during the time of inquisition for non believers, witches and
heretics:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land started to
intensify in 17th Century.
Absolutely true
Probably true
Absolutely false
Probably false
Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for release on the basis
of individual response and progress within the correctional institution
and a service by which they are provided with necessary control of
guidance as they served the remainder of their sentence with in the free
community:
Probation
Parole
Imprisonment
Reprieve
The indeterminate sentence law was approved on:
December 5, 1933
December 25, 1933
December 5, 1955
December 25, 1955
The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
Granted by the court
He was once on Probation
Must not have committed any crime against national security
Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
The following are the unanticipated consequence of punishment; EXCEPT:
It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing crime during
night time
Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the law)
Punishment elevates the criminal
Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
It assumes that every individual has free will and knows the penal laws:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding punishment
attached to it:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
This school maintains that criminals must be rehabilitated to
institutions provided by the government and should not be punished
contrary to other schools ideology:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
BJMP stands for:
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
The government
The jail bureau
None of the abovementioned
STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered and controlled by
the Provincial Government (Governor).
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision of the
Department of the Interior and Local Government.
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
Both statement is true
Both statement is false
The following institutions are controlled and supervised by our
government EXCEPT:
New Bilibid Prisons
Manila City Jail
Iwahig Penal Colony
Elmira Reformatory
The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an AFP stockade
provided the inmate is certified as minimum security risk and is __ years
of old who can no longer perform manual work:
More than 60 c. more than 50
More than 70 d. more than 80
As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased relative of an
inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased relative is in a place within
a radius of ___ kilometres by road from prison:
10 c. 30
20 d. 40
An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from mandatory labor:
50 c. 60
55 d. 65
The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine c. Blue
Brown d. Yellow
The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine c. Blue
Brown d. Yellow
The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine c. Blue
Brown d. Yellow
The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or custody by an
inmate:
Detention c. emancipation
Release of prisoner d. escape
The following are considered instruments of restraint; EXCEPT:
Leg irons c. whipping rod
Straight jacket d. handcuffs
Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
100 or more c. 21- 99
150 or more d. 20 or less
Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
21 – 99 c. 120
20 or less d. 150
Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders:
21 – 99 c. 120
20 or less d. 150
This correctional facility introduced individuals housing in cellblocks,
with congregate work in shops during the day:
Elmira reformatory
Borstal institution
Auburn prison system
Pennsylvania prison system
His progressive move was noted when the convicts after good behavior were
given marks and after accumulating the required number, a ticket to leave
was issued to deserving convicts:
Sir Walter Crofton
Alexander Macanochie
Zebulon Brockway
Manuel Montesinos
opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel its philosophy
away from punitive and retributive practices and veered towards
reformation and treatment educational and vocational are imparted to the
prisoner as a way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according
to the rules of the outside society:
Elmira reformatory
Sing-sing prisons
Alcatraz
Walnut street jail
This is considered as the “institution of silent system” due to the
imposition of strict code of silence:
Auburn
Pennsylvania
Walnut street
Irish prisons
He established an agricultural colony for male youth:
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Sir Walter Crofton
Manuel Montesinos
Domer of france
assigned as superintendent of the English Penal Colony located at Norfolk
Island in Australia:
Domer of France
8Sir Walter Crofton
Zebulon Brockway
He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also referred to as
the Irish System:
Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Manuel Montesinos
Sir Walter Crofton
He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in New York. He
introduced a system of grades for prisoners:
Zebulon Brockway
Manuel Montesinos
Domer of France
The progressive development of the prison system came to the middle of
the __ century:
18th
19th
20th
21st
This law brought about extensive reforms in the prison and authorized o
penitentiary house with 16 cells to be built in the yard of the jail to
carry out solitary confinement with labor for ``hardened atrocious
offenders’’:
ACT of 1890
ACT of 1790
ACT of 1690
ACT of 1590
The new prison had the traditional lay out of large rooms for the
inmates:
Auburn Prison
Pennsylvania
Walnut Street
Irish Prisons
On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is founded:
1875
1876
1877
1888
He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain which organized
prisoners into companies and appointed petty officer in charge:
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Manuel Montesinos
Alexander Maconochie
Sir Walter Crofton
This state prison contained cells in the pits similar to the underground
cistern of long ago rome:
St Michael System
Sing-Sing prisons
Maine State prisons
Wal nut street
An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established by Domer of
France. The boys were confined in cottages with an appointed ___ to
supervise them:
Penal guards
Immediate supervisors
House fathers
Big brothers
Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to lessen their period of
imprisonment should be confined in a singular cell (Solitary confinement)
for a period of ___ months with a reduce diet:
6 months
7 months
8 months
9 months
This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an equivalent to a modern
day parole:
Progressive stage system
Spanish system
Criminal justice system
It features consisted solitary confinement of prisoners in their own
cell day and night:
Auburn system
Pennsylvania system
St Michael System
Irish system
He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as the father of prison
reform in the United States of America:
Alexander Maconochie
Zebulon Reed Brockway
Sir Walter Crofton
Domer of France
It is considered the best reform institution for young offenders:
Borstal Institution
St. Michael Institution
Auburn System
Pennsylvania
This is the discipline being implemented in Louisiana state penitentiary.
Under this discipline, every inmate is responsible for the actuations of
all the others:
a. Rough Rider Industries
b. I am my Brother’s keeper
c. Conditional setting
d. collective responsibility
2417. Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with community service and
render service to the community for ___ to ____ hours depending on the
seriousness of the crime committed:
a. 50 – 250
b. 40- 280
c. 40 – 240
d. 50 - 260
2418. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at
any time. His bedding's, lockers and personal belongings may also be
opened at anytime, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice is
known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound 2419. It
refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of
penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City
prisoner 2420 A person who
is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not been
convicted is a -
A. Detention Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
D. City
2421. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. Commutation
B. Reform model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
2422. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal
Justice System charged with the responsibility for the
custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. conviction
B. corrections
C. penalty
D. punishment
2423. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his
normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his sentence
during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
C. probation
D. delayed
sentence 2424. The following are
the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Redress
D. Expiration or atonement
2425. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.
A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
D. serve the sentence
2426. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by
showing to others what would happen to them if they have
committed the heinous crime.
A. Protection
B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
D.Stoning
2427. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Incarceration
2428. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.
A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
C. Application from C.H.R
D. Concurrence of the congress
2429. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the
A. Director
B. Secretary of the DND
C. Chief of Executive
D. Prison Inspector
2430. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and
spiritual regeneration of the prisoner?
A. None of these
B.Work programs
C.Education programs
D.Religious programs
2431. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted
to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the
radius therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less
than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. None of these
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
2432. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to
others is the theory of
A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality
2433. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent
offender
B. prevent the commission of offenses
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by
providing him with individualized treatment
D. All of
these 2434. In the
Philippines, the most common problem of the
National Prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes
B. Overcrowding
C. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding
2435. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume
the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain
The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to

divulge information?
A. interview C. interrogation
B. information D. instrumentation
2437. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown in

order to obtain conviction?
A. intent C) desire
B. motive D. opportunity
2438. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from

informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
A. Grapevine Sources C. Cultivated Sources
B. Regular Sources D.Cognitive interview
2439. What interrogation techniques when the investigator indicates he

does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a grave offense.
A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff
B. Extenuation D. Emotional Appeal
2440. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short

of an acknowledgment of guilt.
A. Confession
B. Extra-Judicial Confession
C. Admission
D. Judicial Confession
2441. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals, their

Modus Operandi, hiding places and names of associate criminals.
A. Physical Line-up C. Physical Show-up
B. Geographic Sketch D. Rogues Gallery
2442. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime scene/
traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda doctrine
A. Custodial Investigation C. Interview
B. Field Inquiry D. Interrogation
2443. Facts and circumstances observed and testified to by witnesses that
an inference of the identity of the perpetrators may be established.
Evidence that merely tends to incriminate a person, such as a suspect’s
footprints found near the crime scene.
A. Associative Evidence C. Tracing Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence D. Corpus Delicti
2444. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and is

established by a series of crimes under one classification.
A. Modus Operandi C. Modes of Operation
B. Methods of Operation D. Pattern of Operation
2445. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a criminal

case about the activities of the criminals voluntarily to the
investigator and who may even be willing to be a witness.
A. Informant C. Informer
B. Mercenary D. Women
2446. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will proceed at the same
place along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle.
A. Wheel search method C. Quadrant Search
B. Spiral search method D. Strip Search
2447. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; it

should be taken from ____.
A. General View C. Close-up view
B. Mid-range D. General to Specific
2448. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing actual

measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in their
location at the scene.
A. Sketch C. Rough Sketch
B. Final Sketch D. Finish Sketch
2449. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime and its
environs, including neighboring buildings, roads, etc.?
A. Sketch of Locality C. Sketch of Environs
B. Sketch of the Ground D. Sketch in Details
2450. Elements of the Sketch
A. Measurement and compass direction
B. Essential items and scale of proportion
C. Legend and title
D. All of the above
2451. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was subjected to physical

harm by continuously kicking and punching him in the stomach so that the
same may confess.
A. Coercion C. Physical torture
B. Duress D. Verbal threats
2452. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the benefits of
Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall suffer the penalty of:
A. Reclusion perpetua C. Death
B. Reclusion temporal D. Destierro
2453. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation and technical
investigation at the crime scene is:
A. PNP Crime Laboratory
B. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
C. Scene of the Crime Operation
D. Crime Scene Investigation
2454. POII Santino is the first officer to arrive at the scene of a
shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on the pavement sustaining
multiple gun shot wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course of
action he should take?
A. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO
Team to arrive.
B. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the crime scene and assist
him with the situation.
C. Call the investigator and inquire about his decision concerning
the victim.
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest hospital.
2455. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
A. the property taken
B. the fact that the crime was committed
C. anything of value
D. Intent of the suspect
2456. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation
must indicate the ____ direction for proper orientation of the scene.
A. North C. West
B. East D. South
2457. The following are the rules to be observed when intervening a
witness, EXCEPT:
A. allow implied answer
B. saving faces
C. one question at a time
D. avoid leading questions
2458. In case there is no other available means of establishing the age
of the offender, what should be done if he claims that he is still a
minor?
A. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is already of majority
age.
B. Wait for the court to determine the age of the offender
C. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant
D. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the offender
2459. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident shall have the
following duties, EXCEPT:
a. Record the date and time the report was made
B. Immediately respond to the crime scene
C. Made a synopsis of the incident
D. Inform his superior officer or duty officer regarding the report
2460. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene where the
briefing is to be conducted and also the place where the evidence
custodian receives the evidence collected during crime scene
investigation?
A. crime scene C. fixed post
B. command post D. reception area
2461. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team leader performs
the following duties, EXCEPT:
A. Takes down note to document important factors
B. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
C. Photograph the crime scene before walking through the crime scene
D. Defines the extent of search area
2462. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the crime scene?
A. To determine whether or not the processing has been completed.
B. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
C. To check all evidence gathered from the crime scene.
D. To determine whether there is a need to request for additional
personnel
2463. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to whom will
the crime scene be turned over?
A. Chief of Police C. PCP Commander
B. Investigator-on-case D. owner of the place
2464. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the crime scene to
be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
A. Yes, because they were collected for examination
B. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to take custody of
evidence
C. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to bring the evidence to
the Crime Laboratory if the investigator did not request
D. No, only those which require further laboratory examination will be
transported.
2465. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations
of evidence was noted, the collection process begins and will usually
start with –
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
2466. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
A. Chief Investigator C. Team Leader
B. Chief of Police D. Investigator-on-case
2467. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged
instrument like bolos, knives, and broken glasses:
A. Incised wound C. Punctured wound
B. Stab wound D. Lacerated wound
2468. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in which the
investigator inscribe initial date and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. none of these
2469. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a evidence should be
marked where ____.
A. At the tip of the blade C. At the frame
B. At the base D. At the handle
2470. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
A. Sodium Chloride C. Sodium Fluoride
B. Sodium Dioxide D. NONE
2471. What is the most important part of the hair?
A. Follicle C. Medulla
B. Root D. All of these
2472. What is the minimum number of hair strands is needed?
A. 10 strands C. 30 to 60 strands
B. 120 strands D. unlimited
2473. Mummification is a condition of arrested decomposition due to the
absence of moisture. It is common in hot dry conditions, usually takes
___ to form.
A. 3 months C. 1 month
B. 6 months D. 1 year
2474. A dead body was found and there is already presence of maggots, it
indicates that the dead body was at least ___.
A. 2 days C. 5 days
B. 3 days D. 1 week
2475. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for the
conduct of medical examination:
A. Inhumation C. Exhumation
B. Autopsy D. Interment
2476. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following
A. The actual cause of death of the victim
B. The actual killer of the victim
C. The modus operandi involved
D. The motive behind killing
2477. The method used to support a likely sequence of events by the

observation and evaluation of physical evidence, as well as statement
made by those involved with the incident:
A. Crime Scene Reconstruction
B. Physical reconstruction
C. Mental reconstruction
D. Any of the above
2478. The purposes of a crime scene search are the following, EXCEPT:
A. To identify the method of operation
B. To analyze physical evidence
C. To reduce the number of suspects
D. To obtain physical evidence
2479. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took
place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front door, since the
unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their
identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will the
police collect the stains?
A. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently.
B. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
2480. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is
for
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D.courtroom presentation
2481. What is the court process requiring a person to bring documents in

his possession to the courts?
A. summon
B. subpoena ducestecum
C.subpoena testificandum
D. bill of particulars
2482. What is the best method of collection evidence like footprints and
tire prints?
A. Casting C. Dental Stone
B. Plaster of Paris D. Photograph
2483. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the information,
interview/interrogation and instrumentation. Among of them information
is deemed to be the most important because
A. Information involves the elements of the crime
B. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime
C. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to the suspect
D. None of these
2484. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-and-run may
be particularly useful in the investigation process because the year and
make of the car involved may be determinable. The paint chips evidence
collected should be ideally placed on?
A. Clear plastic envelope
B. Clear plastic container
C. Small plastic bag
D. Cotton
2485. Which of the following is the primary source of evidence?
A. victim C. crime scene
B. suspect D. all of these
2486. Which among the following is an essential element of parricide?
A. by means of treachery
B. relationship of the offender with the victim
C. relationship of the offender with the witness
D. age of the victim
2487. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/exit?
A. the prober C. SOCO
B. COP D. First responded
2488. After developing the latent print found at the crime scene, it is
best to lift it first then take photographs as a back record, is it a
correct practice and do you agree with the prober?
A. yes C. no
B. maybe D. It depends
2489. What would be the best camera position in taking photographs
showing a view of what a witness might have seen?
A. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
B. parallel to the subject witness
C. overhead
D. at the eye level
2490. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or engraved the
initial on a collected hard object is called?
A. Collection C. Scratcher
B. Luminous D. Stylus
2491. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose of
interrogation?
A. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
B. To extract the information he possesses
C. To extract a confession of admission
D. All of the above
2492. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
A. Names of the suspect
B. Names of the witness
C. Number of the cases
D. Facts of the cases
2493. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober must keep in
mind that before placing the specimen in a paper packet it must be
allowed first to ____?
A. Refrigerate C. Air dried
B. Moist D. Freeze
2495. Why is it important for a perishable material to be preserved by
the way or the methods of preservation?
A. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
B. In order that this evidence will reach the court in the same physical
condition as when they were collected
C. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the acquittal of the accused
D. All of the above
2496. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand has how many
legs or vertical support?
A. two C. four
B. one D. three
2497. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and empty shell for
A. proper and lasting mark C. preservation
B. marking it D. labeling
2498. Which of the following is not the function of criminal
investigation?
A. Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits crime
B. Prosecute and convict the criminal
C. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
D. Bring the offender to justice
2499. Below are serious crimes which leave physical evidence, EXCEPT:
A. Homicide
B. Carnapping and arson
C. Sexual assault and robbery
D. Libel
2500. There are two robbers who broke into a house and carried away some
valuables. After they left such house these two robbers decided to cut
or divide the loot already so that they can go of them . So while they
are dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one doing the
division is trying to cheat him and so he immediately boxed him. Now
this robber who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the other
one killing the latter. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery and Murde
B. Murder
C. Robbery w/ Homicide
D. Homicide
2501. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after killing him, saw
that he had a beautiful ring and took this, the crime would be?
A. Robbery and Murder
B. Robbery and Theft
C. Robbery w/ Homicide
D. Murder
2502. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B a beautiful
woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A, and they get married. What
crime is committed?
A. Robbery C. Robbery w/ Rape
B. Robbery and Rape D. NONE
2503 On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The wall collapsed.
There was a small opening there. At night, a man entered through that
opening without breaking the same and gets items there. What crime is
committed?
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Robbery w/ force upon things D. None
2504. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
A. RA 8484 C. RA 7877
B. RA 7080 D. RA 8353
2505. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are found in your
house by the police, then it is ____.
A. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
B. Prima facie evidence of theft
C. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
D. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
2506. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful warrantless
arrest EXCEPT:
A. Seized in “Plain view” C. Customs search
B. Search of a moving vehicle D. NONE
2507. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately the things or
property seized to the ____ together with an inventory duly verified
under oath.
A. Judge who issued the warrant
B. Prosecution Counsel
C. Requesting Party
D. Any of these
2508. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
A. 10 days C. No time Limit
B. 15 days D. NONE
2509. The taking of a person into custody in the manner authorized by law
for the purpose of presenting that person before the court to answer for
the commission of a crime.
A. Search C. Arrest
B. Initial Contact D. Warrant of Arrest
2510. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
A. Judge C. Executive Branch
B. Investigator on Case D. Prober
2511. All but one are the instances you can execute a lawful warrantless
arrest.
A. Flagrante Delicto C. Escaped prisoner
B. Hot pursuit Principle D. None of these
2512. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because-
A. it speaks for itself
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the foregoing
2513. Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in
court because –
A. it will determine the quality of your testimony
B. it will determine the quantity of your testimony
C. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
D. it will reduce the chances of the defense
2514. What does DNA stand for?
A. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
B. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
D. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
2515. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by
Allan Pinkerton
A. Every contact leaves a Mark
B. modus operandi
C. shadowing
D. casing
2516 The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the
crime will most likely mean that –
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for
evidence.
2517. During an interview, planning is important and must follow the

order of time and bring out facts orderly as they happened, this
technique is called –
A. chronological questioning
B. psychological questioning
C. physical questioning
D. None of these
2518. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign territory” such
as the investigator room at the police station because the place –
A. Is comfortable to the suspect
B. Is familiar to the suspect
C. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
D. Intimidates the suspect
2519. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should
first of all –
A. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
B. wait until the crime scene has been sketched, photographed and
measurements taken before he collects the evidence
C. immediately collects it and always sends it to the Crime
Laboratory for specific examination
D. Compare the following edge of the took with impression to
determine if this was the tool used in crime
2520. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that
should be followed by police officer first arriving at the crime scene of
a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
A. Try to keep witnesses separated
B. Record the time of discovery of the crime
C. Discus the crime with persons who witness the incident
D. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not
leave the scene unguarded while doing so
2521. The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is to
–
A. Obtain obvious physical evidence
B. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
C. Undercover hidden evidence
D. Determine the criminals method of operation
2522. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the
item itself upon collection, in a place least likely to affect the
appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity C. Evidentiary
B. Legal Integrity D. Integrity and Identity
2523. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not
possible, what should you not do?
A. Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
B. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are formerly doing
C. Inform the dispatched of the unit
D. Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other
police units
2524. This situation takes place when a police officer induced a person
to commit a crime and arrest him after the commission of the crime.
A. Instigation C. Search
B. Recidivism D. Entrapment
2525. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to
the laboratory by himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should
obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence.
This statement is applicable to –
A. Chain of custody of evidence
B. Cardinal rules in investigation
C. Three tools in investigation
D. To establish the guilt of the accused
2526. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the crime scene.
A. Locate and apprehend the accused
B. Protection of the crime scene
C. Collect evidence
D. Present evidence of guilt
2526. These are some of the investigative activities in a homicide case,
EXCEPT:
A. record the crime scene through notes, photographs, and sketches
B. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical evidences and
clue materials
C. establish the cause and the manner of death of the victim
D. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the investigators
2527. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide case, are
A. determine the categories and modes of death
B. seek additional information by interviewing witness
C. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
D. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
2528. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to prevent and
when detected or reported, they pose many ____.
A. investigative difficulties
B. investigative tasks
C. investigative problems
D. investigative burden
2529. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the investigator
must develop ___, eh must also remember that the victim may suddenly lose
interest in aiding prosecution.
A. every phase of the case
B. contingency of case
C. friendly atmosphere
D. rapport with victim
2530. The following are characteristics of organized crime, EXCEPT:
A. close-knit nature of its membership
B. their elaborate planning and lack of impulsiveness
C. violence and intimidation are common tools
D. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2531. The following statements, answers the questions “when” and “how”
rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
A. sexual assault by inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. inserting any instrument or object into the genital or anal
orifice or another person
C. committed under all the elements enumerated by Art. 324 of the
Revised Penal Code
D. rape case is a crime against chastity
2532. Rape is committed under any of the following circumstance, EXCEPT:
A. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
B. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise
unconscious
C. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority
D. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a woman
2533. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is divided into two
different classifications, one is robbery by the use of force upon
things, and the other is:
A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
B. taking of personal property belonging to another
C. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
D. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
2534. The following are the elements of the crime robbery, EXCEPT:
A. personal property belonging to another
B. the taking must be with intent to gain
C. there is violence or intimidation of any person
D. it engender fear and quality of life
2535. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an
automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is on –
A. Door handles C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror D. Dashboard
2536. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying then

collecting information and evidences, the next logical step to do is
A. presents them in court
B. preserves their legal integrity
C. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
D. recognize their importance in the case
2537. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one man, stabs

another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving at the scene a short time
later finds the victim unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the
crowd to leave. His action was
A. bad; there may have been witnesses to the assault among the
crowd
B. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an injured person
room and air
C. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
D. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
E. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to order people
about needlessly.
2538. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
A. sketch, search, photograph
B. search, sketch, photograph
C. photograph, search, sketch
D. photograph, sketch, search
2539. It is often important to know the time of death. The reasons
offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. to question individual who last talk with the victim
B. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of incident
D. protect the innocent from malicious allegations
D. to know what was occur and how did it occur
2540. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a privilege, 2nd
Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has all the qualification as
provided by law, 3rd Driver’s License is a public document
A. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
B. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
D. All statements are correct
2541. Which of the following is not a function of warning symbol?

A. To call the decrease of speed
B. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the approaching
danger
C. To direct motorist along the establish direction
D. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous circumstance
either on or adjacent to road
2542. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:

A. To guide motorist along established routes
B. To inform proper routes
C. To help him along his way to the most simple and direct method
D. To call the diminution of speed
2543. A number of traffic regulations revolve around questions of right
of way, for practically purposes, one of the following is the best
definition of “Right of Way”.
A. The personal right to move from one place to another
B. The privilege of immediate use of particular section of highway
C. The way or place open to the motorist and pedestrian
D. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at the time is
occupied by another vehicle
2544. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation,

instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs C. Informative Signs
B. Regulatory Signs D. Danger/warning signs
2545 A kind of road according to political subdivision within town proper

Right of Way not less than 10 meters.
A. National Road C. Municipal Road
B. Barangay Road D. City Road
2546. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
A. Private C. For Hire
B. Government D. Diplomatic
2547. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is valid for ___
from the date of issuance and renewable every birth month.
A. 18 Months C.36 Months
B. 24 Months D.12 Months
2547. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way involving
persons using vehicle or transportation, but not involving a motor
vehicle in motion:
A. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
B. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
C. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
D. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
2548. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan Manila
Development Authority (MMDA)?
A. RA 8750 C. RA 7924
B. RA 8749 D. PD 96
2549. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best
measured by which of the following:
A. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption
B. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
C. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to enforcement manner
D. None of these
2550. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace officers,
pedestrian have the right of way the moment he starts to cross.
A. Absolutely true C. Partly true
B. Absolutely false D. Partly false
2551. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above street level

for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway C. Subway
B. Skyway D. Tunnel road
2552. City roads inter-link between municipalities and within the city
with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the minimum width of sidewalk?
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters C. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
B. 1.2 to 1.5 meters D. 2.0 meters
2553. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of taking a person
into custody for the purpose of holding or detaining him to answer a
charge of law violation before a court.
A. Arrest C. Traffic Arrest
B. Traffic Citation D. Traffic Warning
2554. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not less than
___ can apply for non-professional driver’s license
A. 150 Days C. 180 Days
B. 60 Days D. 30 Days
2555. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other than
serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage C. Less Serious Injury
B. Fatal Accident D. Non-fatal Accident
2556. When two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the
same time, which shall give the right of way:
A. The vehicle coming from the right
B. Vehicle from the center
C. The vehicle coming from the left
D. The vehicle that arrives first
2557. Which of the following consideration does not act as a deterrent to
motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B. Loss of driving privileged
C. Possibility involve in an accident
D. Increase of insurance premium
2558. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best
characterized by, EXCEPT:
A. Poor legislation activities
B. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C. Effective and efficient traffic officers
D. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
2559. The following are NOT functions of Land Transportation Office,
EXCEPT:
A. Reparation of vehicles
B. Registration and licensing
C. Rental and license
D. Licensing operating
2560. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the
following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
2561. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to
traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be affected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
2562. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be affected even without a warrant
D. impose probable penalty that might be imposed
2563. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
2564. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen

automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to;
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use of any of
these plates
2565. Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of

traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual C. Perceptual
B. Decision D. Attitudinal
2566. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public
utility vehicular accidents.
A. Not observing the proper distance and following too close
B. Unnecessary
C. Recklessness
D. Discussion regarding fare
2567. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in
the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. Safety First
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
2568. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches
displaying legally authorized red light and sounding a siren?
A. pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B. continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging
C. yield at the right of way and wait for the passage of the
vehicle
D. disregard the red light and siren
2569. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light came into
being before the automobile was in use?
A. No C. It depends
B. Sometimes D. Yes
2570. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the following
is NOT a factor to consider
A. model of cars and vehicles
B. existing road /highway system
C. incidence of traffic accidents
D. traffic congestion hazards
2571. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what is the
primary consideration to be taken by the police investigator.
A. Conduct each interview separately
B. Listen only to witnesses because they are not biased
C. Listen to both sides
D. Conduct the interview jointly
2572. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same
time who shall yield the right of way as a general rule
A. The driver on the left C. The faster vehicle
B. The driver on the right D. The slower vehicle
2573. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow moving vehicles

should use the:
A. lanes 2 and 3
B. outer lanes
C. inner lanes
D. either the inner or outer lanes
2574. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side, except
when-
A. the oncoming traffic is free from an obstruction
B. the opposite traffic is free from oncoming motor vehicles
C. traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
D. cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way
2575. The double solid white line:
A. doesn’t allow lane changing
B. allows overtaking
C. allows lane changing
D. allows parking
2576. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for
defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, vehicles and
roadway condition.
A. Apprehension C. Adjudication
B. Defection D. Prosecution
2577. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are present, EXCEPT:
A to avoid continues violation
B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
D. involved in vehicular accident
2578. The following are the good ways of searching the scene of hit-and-
run accident, EXCEPT:
A. look over the grounds at what seems to be the point of collision
B. follow the path that the vehicle took in leaving the scene
C. study the objects the vehicle has struck
D. established the identity of the vehicles
2579. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-investigation, EXCEPT
A. goes to scene as quickly as possible
B. assesses the situation and call for assistance
C. care to the injured and protect their property
D. inter-agency coordination linkages
2580. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to:
A. Look for the key event that causes the accident
B. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the
accident, as a cause
C. Consider violations as primary causes and any factors as
secondary causes
D. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather as causes
2581. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed
value of a building.
A. single family dwellings C. department store
B. hospitals D. schools
2582. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is for right
turn only:
A. Two headed arrow
B. Arrow pointing to left
C. Straight arrow on the pavement
D. The arrow is pointing to the right
2583. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the flow of
traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by keeping in full
view of traffic:
A. Stationary C. Visible
B. Conspicuous D. Inconspicuous
2584. Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers, freight or
cargo in public utility truck or buses
A. Operator C. Driver
B. Conductor D. Pedestrian
2585. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object
with which it has collided; the force between the object ceases at this
time.
A. Stopping C. Disengagement
B. Maximum Engagement D. Initial Contact
2586. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is sliding
without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to braking to collision
damage, or rarely, to other circumstances.
A. Skid Mark C. Scuff Marks
B. Skip skid D. Gas Skid
2587. The place and time after or beyond which accident cannot be
prevented by a particular traffic unit.
A. point of no escape
B. point of Possible Perception
C. Perception Delay
D. Any of the above
2588. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you approach an
intersection with the traffic light with a “green color” on but a traffic
policeman is standing at the center of intersection conducting the flow
normally. As a driver you will ignore the traffic man and follow the
automatic traffic light-
A. True C. False
B. Sometimes D. It depends
2589. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes another
vehicle, object or person and left the scene without stopping to identify
himself or render aid
A. hit and run C. third party liability
B. reckless driving D. side sweeper
2590. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to conditions,

actions and physical features associated with motor collision or accident
–
A. traffic engineering
B. traffic accident investigation
C. reckless driving
D. hit and run
2591. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody who are not
a member of the organization who can helps the organization
A. Enforcer C. Capo
B. Corrupter D. Corruptee
2592. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized individual with

the end view of attaining psychological gratification such as adolescent
gangs.
A. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B. Political Graft
C. Predatory Organized Crime
D. Syndicated Organized Crime
2593. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is primarily
concerned with the generation of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.
A. Transnational Organized Crime
B. Transnational Crime
C. Organized Criminal Group
D. NONE
2594. What category of terrorist group which is What category of
terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or social structure?
A. Ethnocentric C. Revolutionary
C. Separalist D. Political
2595. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?
A. Information Connection Technology
B. Information Communication Technology
C. Internet Communication Technology
D. Internet Connection Technology
2596. Economic crime is known as:
A. Blue Collar Crime
B. Wildlife Smuggling
C. While Collar Crime
D. Wildlife trafficking
2597. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme C. Terrere
B. Rapere D. Vestigarre
2598. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of silence that
forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to the authorities:
A. Capo C. Omerta
B. Jihad D. Ideology
2599 It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in Mindanao and
for the establishment of Moro National Liberation Front (MNLF):
A. Rizal Day Bombing
B. Ninoy assassination
C. Black September
D.Jabbidah Massacre
2600. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted terrorist in the
world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all Muslims around the world to
slay Americans and their allies.
A. Abu-Abbas C. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
B. Ahmed Yassin D. Osama bin-Laden
2601. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their

memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal record, or
similar considerations:
A. No Political Goals
B. Hierarchical
C. Constitutes a Unique Subculture
D. Limited or Exclusive Membership
2602. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of their:
A. membership C. motivation
B. leadership D. networking
2603. This theory refers to those processes by which the community
influences its members towards conformity with established norms and
behavior.
A. differential association C. social control
B. anomie D. strain
2604. It is a form of modern day slavery.
A. Human Trafficking C. Prostitution
B. Drug Trafficking D. Sex tourism
2605. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
A. the person trafficked is an elderly
B. the person trafficked is a special child
C. the person trafficked is a woman
D. the person trafficked is a child
2606. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides that an
organized criminal group must have a membership of at least ___:
A. 3 or More C. 2 or More
B. 4 or More D. 5 or More
2607. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly included.
A. Al Qaeda C. MILF
B. MNLF D. JI
2608. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
A. Swords bearer
B. Islamic Congregation
C. Father of the Swordsman
D. The Base
2609. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting for as much
as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
A. Bombings C. Assassinations
B. Kidnapping D. Prostitution
2610. This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:
A. RA 9372 C. RA 9160
B. RA 9165 D. RA 8294
2611 This is the country which believed to be the origin of Mafia and
Cosa Nostra:
A. United States of America C. Italy
B. Japan D. China
2612 An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form
of an equilateral triangle representing the heaven, earth and man:
A. Yakuza C. Triad
B. Tongs D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
2613. Chain of custody should be observed by the investigating team of

cybercrimes:
A. The Statement is wrong
B. The statement is true
C. None of these
D. All of these
2614. Internet pornography is punishable under E-Commerce Act of 2000:
A. The Statement is correct
B. Statement is wrong
C. either of the above
D. neither of the above
2615. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and cyber cafes, where
majority of cybercrimes are perpetuated, are legally required to have
permanent logs and records of their clients:
A. The statement is true
B. The statement is false
C. Neither of the above
D. Either of the above
2616. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that telecommunication
companies are legally bound to cooperate with the law enforcement
agencies in the course of their investigation:
A. The statement is absolutely correct
B. The statement is absolutely wrong
C. The statement is partially correct
D. The statement is partially wrong
2617. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E-Commerce Act of

2000.
2618. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are
transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them appear to have
originated from legitimate sources:
A. Estafa C.Money Laundering
B. Anti-Money Laundering D. Swindling
2619. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or sound in
electronic form, representing the identity of a person and attached to or
logically associated with the electronic data message:
A. electronic key C. originator
B. electronic signature D. electronic date message
2620. Only a computer forensic expert should search for any evidence
contained in a computer hardware.
A. The statement is absolutely correct
B. The statement is absolutely wrong
C. The statement is partially correct
D. The statement is partially wrong
2621. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:

A. RA 8551 C. RA 8484
B. RA 9160 D. RA 9165
2622. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that
killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo
B. Operation Jabbidah
C.Operation Neptune Spear
D. Operation Merdeka
2623. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?

A. The Neopolitan Camera C. Sinilian Mafia
B. Cali Cartel D. Sacra Corona Unita
2624. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a

shared database among concerned agencies for information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and conviction on transnational crime.
A. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
2625. It is known as IP address that changes every time the internet

accesses his ISP:
A. ISP C. Dynamic IP address
B. Static IP Address D. IP Address
2626 It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website pop-ups, to
get victims to divulge sensitive financial information such as credit
card numbers or social security numbers.
A. Phising C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Identity Theft
2627. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself and infect a
computer without permission or knowledge of the user
A. Virus C. Trojan Horse
B. Logic Bomb D. Worm
2628. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer systems with malicious
intent, usually for some criminal purpose.
A. Black Hat Hackers C. Gray Hat Hacker
B. White Hat Hackers D. Any color
2629. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as “Back to
Islam”.
A. Abu Sayyaf C. MILF
B. Je naah Islamiya D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
2630. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to
indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
A. Nuclear
B. Weapon of mass destruction
C. Anthrax
D. Chemical weapons
2631 Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal organization in
the world.
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Chinese Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
2632. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the
liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density C. fire point
B. boiling point D. vapor pressure
2633. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire when it is

in its gas-phased combustion.
A. Flames C. Exothermic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction D. NONE
2634. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the bottom or a

vessel being heated due to incomplete combustion and has a low
temperature.
A. Luminous C. Non-luminous
B. Laminar D. Turbulent
2635 The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.

A. Infection C. shock
B. burns D. asphyxiation
2636. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure
and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas C. liquefied gas
B. compressed gas D. nuclear gas
2637. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is
called ____.
A. radiation C. oxidation
B. convection D. conduction
2638. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of the choices C. burning nipa hut
B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire
2639. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire
B. thick reddish smoke
C. faulty electric wiring
D.unexplained explosion
2640. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?

A. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
B. there is the danger of electrocution
C. burning metals are too hot
D. explosion may occur
2641. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or
street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure will be
available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
2642. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as
___.
A. reducing agent C. oxidizing agent
B. cooling agent D. chemical agent
2643. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a building:
A. It only moves horizontally
B. It has a circular movement
C. It moves sideways while moving vertically
D. It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
2644. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space containing an

oxygen-starved superheated product of incomplete combustion or oxygen-
deficient free radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:
A. Spontaneous ignition C. flashover
B. Backdraft D. Flash fire
2645. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while electric
current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the damage or
destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or
external.
A. Arcing C. Induced Current
B. Over Heating D. sparkling
2646. The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge
2647 Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. inflammable substance found in the premises
B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. building insurance
D. any of these
2648. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the on-
volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the
resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
A. combustion C. evaporation
B. distillation D. condensation
2649. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key C. key board
B. fire hose D. jumper
2650. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are
connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle
2651. What are the cross members between the beam and used in climbing
the ladder called?
A. hangar C. beams
B. rungs D. braces
2652. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst,
which of the following facilities should you check?
A. Gift-wrapped packages
B. Electric switch system
C. Telephones
D. All of these
2653. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the
roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation C. cross ventilation
B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation
2654. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most

probable extinguishing method is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution
2655. The most important element of Fire?
A. Fuel
B. Chemical chain reaction
C. Heat
D. Oxygen
2656. A complete and detailed checked of the structures and material
involved in the fire to make sure that every spark and ember has been
extinguished and to have assurance against
A. Overhaul C. Rescue
B. Salvage D. None
2657. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean
forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this
position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D. The firemen can see better when the stream strikes
2658. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that
you have to file is:
A. murder with arson C. arson with murder
B. murder D. arson
2659. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical powder intended to
fight all classes of fires.
A. H20 C. Liquefied
B. Dry Chemical D. Soda Acid
2660. All except one are aggravating circumstances in Arson.
A. If committed with intent to gain:
B. If committed with the benefit of another:
C. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the
owner or occupant of the property burned:
D. If committed by a syndicate (3 or more persons).
E. None of the Above
2661. What color of smoke is present when the materials burning are
Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
A. Black C. White
B. Yellow D. Blue
2662. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared,
what is the first thing that a fire prober must determine?
A. look for survivors

B. search for debris
C. locate the point of origin
D. established corpus delicti
2663. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) is a:
A. Combustible liquid C. Corrosive liquid
B. Flammable liquid D. Volatile liquid
2664. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination
of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or
dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstance?
A. The person died because of asphyxia
B. The person died because of the burning
C. The person was killed before it was burned
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
2665. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation
involving high-rise building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook
2666.What type of ground ladder which contains only one section, it
ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
A. Straight ladder C. Attic ladder
B. Extension ladder D. Wall ladder
2667. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate flame
propagation.
A. Plant C. Trailer
B. Accelerant D. Gasoline
2668. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
A. Witness C. Society
B. First responder D. Owner
2669. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. RA 9514 C. PD 1185
B. RA 8294 D. RA 8484
2670. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
A. Kind and character of the building burned
B. Location of the building
C. Extent or value of the damage
D. Whether inhabited or not
E. None of the choices
2671. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of symptoms of
poisoning.
A. Minimal Dose C. Abusive Dose
B. Toxic Dose D. Maximal Dose
2672. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost entirely
around the drug experience and securing supplies.
A. Situational C. Hard-core
B. Hippies D. Spree
2673. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly absorbed by
the rich capillary system, it is probably the second most commonly used
route of drug administration,
A. Snorting C. inhalation
B. oral ingestion D. Injection
2674. Among the countries involved in the first important drug traffic
route, which is responsible for preparation for distribution?
A. Middle East C. USA
B. Turkey D. Europe
2675. Which among the following responsible for producing almost 60% of
Opium in the world.
A. Golden triangle C. Golden Crescent
B. Silver Triangle D. White Christmas
2676. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
A. Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
B. Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
C. Burma, Laos, Thailand
D. Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
2678. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
A. Philippines C. Mexico
C. Spain D. Lebanon
2679. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often induce
sleep.
A. Sedatives C. Stimulants
B. Hallucinogen D. Narcotics.
2680. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes about 10% of the
use raw opium.
A. Morphine C. Heroin
B. Codeine D. Opium
2681. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon coca.
A. Cocaine C. Marijuana
B. Papayer Somniferum D. claviceps purpurea
2682. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ specs.
A. Blue C. Orange
B. Violet D. Red
2683. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of ___

A. Assistant Secretary C. Secretary
B. Chairman D. Undersecretary
2684. What is the minimum age required to be able to become a PDEA agent?
A. 16 C. 18
B. 21 D. s25
2685. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the rank of Director.
He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Chairman/President C. Secretary/PDEA DG
B. CSUPT/President D. SUPT/PDEA DG
2686. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and
formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control
A. PDES C. DDB
B. PNP Narcotics D. NBI Narcotics
2687. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. NBI Director and PNP Director General
B. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C. PNP Director and PDEA Director
D. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
2688. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the following
circumstances such will serve as Aggravating Circumstances:
A. Conducted in the presence or with the help of minor/s
B. Established within one hundred (100) meters of a residential,
business, church or school premises.
C. Secured or protected with booby traps
D. Concealed with legitimate business operations
E. Employment of a practitioner, chemical engineer, public official
or foreigner
F. all of the choices
2689. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how many Ex-officio
Members?
A. 2 C. 2
B. 12 D. 17
2690. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
B. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
C. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are
serrated in shape.
D. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
2691. What agency of the government supervises drug rehabilitation

centers and drug testing networks and laboratories?
A. Department of Interior and Local Government
B. Department of Health
C. Department of Justice
D. Department of Social Welfare and Development (formulates cost of
treatment and rehabilitation of a drug dependent)
2692. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
B. 4 years D. co-terminus
2693. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia
shall be:
A. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to 200 thousand
pesos.
B. 6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 10 to 50 thousand
pesos.
C. 4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 thousand pesos.
D. 6 months rehabilitation
2694. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of
any person with or without his/her knowledge either by injection
inhalation, ingestion or other means.
A. Administer C. Use
B. Dispense D. Deliver
2695. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes
it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were made by its
operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide-out operation C. Safe house
B. Clandestine Operation D. Drug Syndicate
2696. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
A. June 7, 2002 C. July 4, 2002
B. July 30, 2002 D. June 18, 2003
2697. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according
to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms
outside residence
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law
enforcement agencies
D. All candidates for public office whether appointed or elected
both in national or local government units.
E. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal
offense having an imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and
one (1) day.
2698. Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous
drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs or
laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory
and photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A. To person from whom such items were confiscated or his
representative or counsel.
B. A representative from the media.
C. A representative from the DOJ.
D. Any elected public official.
E. None of them
2699. Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous
drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs or
laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory
and photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A. To person from whom such items were confiscated or his
representative or counsel
B. A representative from the media
C. A representative from the DOJ
D. Any elected public official
E. None of them
2700. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by forensic examiner
of drugs for scientific analysis:
A. Not more than five (5) grams per package/bag
B. Not more than three (3) tablets for capsules or tables
C. Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid solution
D. Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried leaves and not more than
2 plants.
E. All of these
2701. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug Testing
EXCEPT:
A. Students of Secondary and Tertiary Schools
B. Persons apprehended or arrested for violation of the Provision
of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act.
C. Officers and Employee of public and private offices
D. A and C only
2702. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall
be terminated within a period of:
2703. An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or
affirm the result of a preliminary or screening test.
A. Screening test C. Confirmatory rest
B. Physical test D. Chemical Test
2704. The ____ shall designate special courts from among the existing RTC
in each judicial region to exclusively try and hear cases involving
violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ C. Supreme Court
B. DDB D. Sandiganbayan
2705. The law that penalized the use and possession or the unauthorized
sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
A. P.D. 1519 C. P.D. 1916
B. P.D. 1619 D. P.D. 580
2706. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend offender
within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
A. Physical sign of drug abuse
B. Symptoms of Drug abuse
C. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of
drugs
D. All of the above
2707. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic beverage is the
absorption is faster?
A. 20 to 30 minutes C. 30 to 60 minutes
B. 10 to 20 minutes D. 50 to 60 minutes
2708. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the
person is under the influence of the liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 C. 1.5
B. 0.15 D. 0.50
2709. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where the business of
prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp C. prostitute
B. Knocker D. Maintainer
2710. The person is argumentative and overconfident. There is slight
impairment of mental difficulties.
A. Slight inebriation C. Moderate inebriation
B. Drunk D. Very drunk
2711. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 of RA 9165 is
____:
A. Qualified to apply for probation
B. Disqualified to apply for probation
C. Allowed to apply for probation
D. Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more than 6 years and 1
day
2712. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”.
A. Marijuana C. Ecstacy
B. Shabu D. None of these
2713. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a cough reliever?
A. morphine C. cocaine
B. opium D. codeine
2714. When drunken person does not know the intoxicating strength of the
beverage he has taken.
A. involuntary C. Intentional
B. Habitual D. Coma
2715. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Morality C Vices
B. Prostitutions D. Gambling
2716. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall conduct ocular
inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or surrendered dangerous drugs,
and controlled precursors within:
A. 24 hours C. 30 days
B. 72 hours D. 48 hours
2717. Benny B. Rotcha was arrested in a buy-bust operation conducted by

the PDEA and found in his possession is eight (8) grams of shabu. What is
the penalty provided under RA 9165?
A. 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C. Life imprisonment
D. Death Penalty
2718. That part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A. digestive system and nervous system
B. brain and veins of the body
C. the lungs and heart
D. None of the above
2719. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?
A. yes C. maybe
B. upon circumstances D. no
2720. SPOIV Cuntapay intentionally failed to appear as a prosecution
witness during trial of the case against the alleged drug dealer caught
in buy-bust operation. What will be his penalty?
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C. Life imprisonment
D. Death penalty
2721. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect and PO2
Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their penalty the same?
A. No C. False
B. Yes D. True
2722. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and subpoena duces tecum
relative to the conduct of investigation involving the violations of RA
9165.
A. True C. Partially True
B. False D. Partially False
2723. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary
anesthetic.
A. Ketamine C. Codeine
B. Anesthesia D. Sleeping pills
2724. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd violation.
A. 6 Months Rehabilitation
B. 12 Months Rehabilitation
C. 6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D. 12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
2725. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously and
secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly or indirectly,
through any overt or cover acts:
A. Entrapment C. Planting of Evidence
B. Instigation D. Black mailing
2726. It is the Agency of the government that will take charge and have
custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
A. Maritime Police C. Dangerous Drug Board
B. PDEA D. NBI
E. PNP
2717. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of Shabu at 7:00
P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time and date the arresting officers
have to subject “A” to a drug test as required by the law?
A. 7:00 P.M., October 25
B. 7:00 P.M., October 24
C. 8:00 A.M., October 26
D. 8:00 A.M., October 25
2718. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence
is LEAST essential?
A. date and hour which each photograph was taken
B. identification of the police photographer
C. proof of ownership of the camera
D. focal length of the lens
2719. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is
for _____.
A. scale and proportion
B. future use
C. accuracy and clarity
D. courtroom presentation
2720. All except are object evidence that should be taken photograph
individually, EXCEPT?
A. Knife C. Semen
B. stone D. Gun
2721. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
B. Fire Truck on call D. Physician’s car
2722. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat of any
running motor vehicle:
A. Seven years old
B. six years and old and under
C. under six years old
D. seven years old and under
Refers to criminals whose identities are furnished by eye witnesses.

Known criminals
Convicted criminals
Unknown criminals
Identified criminals
This method of identification depends on the ability of the witness to
describe the person seen committing the crime.
Verbal description
Photographic files
Police line up
General photograph
Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.
Known criminals
Unknown criminals
Convicted criminals
Unidentified criminals
Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
Rouge gallery
General photograph
Police blotter
Modus operandi files
Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.
Loose tail
Rough shadowing
Close tail
The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:
Place it in a pill box and label it
Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
Place it in a plastic bag and label it
Tag it with a label
To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation room must be:
With no windows or views
There should only be one door
It must be sound proof
In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge
of the case and is preferable when the subject is not the talkative type.
Narrative type
Question and answer type
Stern type
Simple interrogation
What should the investigator do to protect while in transport those
collected evidences from the crime scene?
Seal it
Mark it
Pack it properly
Label it
Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
To detect evidences of criminal activities
To establish association of a suspect
To locate wanted persons
“A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the latter, as “A”
pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B” managed to escape. This is an
example of:
Attempted felony
Frustrated felony
Consummated felony
Consummated felony
Kind of recognition whereby the description and characteristics maybe
vague that identification is difficult.
Known fugitives
Professional criminals
Ordinary criminals
Unknown fugitives
The methods of determining and finding the best way to remedy the
specific cause or causes of the complaint or grievance refers to:
Cross examination
Grievance procedures
Investigative procedure
Criminal procedures
A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequence of
stuff produced from thin air.
False informant
Double-crosser informant
Mercenary informant
Frightened informant
Clandestine operation in police parlance.
Covert intelligence
Secret activity
Over intelligence
Surveillance
It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender
and provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceeding.
Information
Interrogation
Instrumentation
Interrogation
Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
Physical evidence
Tracing evidence
Testimonial evidence
Associative evidence
Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information
concerning a past or projected crime and does not wish to be known as a
source of information.
Informants
Witness
Informers
Confidential informants
Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
Interview
Interrogation
Investigation
A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in
investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
Photographic file
201 file
Rogue gallery
Cartographic sketch
This is an element of crime commission wherein one is induced to commit
the crime.
Motive
Intent
Opportunity
Deceit
In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of
suggestion as a factor in identification as a procedure how many persons
is needed in such a line-up?
3 to 5
5 to 7
7 to 10
10 to 15
It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the
crime.
Motive
Intent
Opportunity
Deceit
Motive in giving information wherein the informant delights in giving
information to gain favorable attention from the police.
Competition
Repentance
Vanity
Jealousy
Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habits and associate
are required.
Surveillance
Loose tail shadowing
Rough shadowing
Close tail shadowing
More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less
likely to be recognized.
One man shadow
Two man shadow
Three man shadow
ABC method
In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace
along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of the
rectangle, the searcher turns and proceeds back along new lanes but
parallel to the first movement.
Zone method
Strip method
Spiral method
Wheel method
In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each
searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
Zone method
Strip method
Spiral method
Wheel method
The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the
relative location and distances.
Environmental photograph
Physical reconstruction
Overview
Over-all photograph
Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored
and everything is approximate.
Sketch
Draft
Rough sketch
Finished sketch
Most common reason in discharging informants
Burn out
Too expensive to maintain
Lack of loyalty
Reprehensible behavior
Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
Stylus
Pen
Ink
Chalk
A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and
unofficial identity.
Tailing
Shadowing
Surveillance
Roping
Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
Narrative type
Interrogation type
Question and answer type
Stern type
Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken
into custody.
Protective custody
Detaining for questioning
Police restraint
Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the
objects, what naturally occurred and what were the circumstances of the
crime.
Crime scene
Physical reconstruction
Mental reconstruction
Reconstruction of the crime
Paid informants
Anonymous informants
Rival elimination informants
False informants
Mercenary informants
Most common type of shadowing.
One man shadow
Two man shadow
Three man shadow
Rough shadow
Articles and materials which are found in connection with the
investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or
which, in general assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
Tracing evidence
Corpus delicti
Associative evidence
Physical or material evidence
Instrumental detection of deception
Ballistic test
Fingerprint test
Questioned document test
Polygraph testing
When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be
implemented.
Kneeling search
Standing search
Floor search
Wall search
This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover
weapons or evidences and determine the identity of the suspects.
Preliminary search of a person
Wall search
Standing search
Floor search
Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile,
which has been stolen and abandoned.
Dashboard
Door handles
Steering wheel
Rear view mirror
Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers
in order to get more information from them than he gives.
Double-crosser informants
Mercenary informants
False informants
Self aggrandizing informants
That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition,
identification, individualization and evaluation of physical science by
application of natural sciences in matters of law and science.
Chemist
Scientist
Criminalistics
Toxicologist
Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one
place.
Local crimes
Local action
Transitory crimes
Transitory action
The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime
and between the times of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
Time custody
Time disposition
Time disposal
Chain of custody
A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.
Part of res gestate
Dying Declaration
Confession
admission
Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
Instrumentation
Forensics
Legal medicines
Criminology
Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition
Blood
Semen
Saliva
Hair
The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
Finished sketch
Sketch of details
Sketch of locality
Sketch of grounds
The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a sketch.
Compass direction
Title
Legend
Scale
Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating
the suspect.
Physical evidences
Material evidences
Associative evidences
Tracing evidences
Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
Corpus delicti
Physical evidences
Material evidences
Associative evidences
The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
Markings should be placed
Proper turnover must be observed
Avoid altering contents
Proper packing to protect the evidence while in transit
General rule in handling evidences
MAC rule
Right of way rule
Last clear chance rule
In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually
encircled. What is the primary objective?
To show points of interest
To have proper marking
To avoid contamination
To prevent alterations
If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?
Formaldehyde
Saline solution
Alcohol
Distilled water
It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
Assault
Attack
Raid
Surveillance
Primary requisite for conducting raids.
Search warrant
Raiding team
Firearms
Back-up personnel
A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter
a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is committing:
Legal entry
Violation of domicile
Trespassing
Illegal entry
A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his constitutional
rights namely:
The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
The right to plea guilty and not guilty
The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right to be informed of
such rights.
The right to face his accuser in public trial
A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of
stuff concocted of thin air.
False informant
Mercenary informant
Double crosser informant
Self-aggrandizing informant
Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in many
places.
Local crime
Local action
Transitory crime
Transitory action
The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has
been committed, in order to determine such, he must have knowledge of the
so-called cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal
questions are there?
Three
Four
Five
Six
In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by stealing
the vehicle and providing plate on it.
Drivers
Ripper
Wheelman
Rover
Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper
sketch orientation.
Proper north
True north
Legend
Compass direction
A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of
the coiled beginning from the outside proceeding toward the center.
Zone method
Wheel method
Spiral method
Strip method
Taking into custody property described in the search warrant as a result
of a search, to be utilized as evidence in a case.
Seizure
Detention
Safekeeping
Confiscation
A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses
are key and criminals are identified by depiction.
Verbal description
General photographs
Police line up
Rouge gallery
Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
Sprinkler
Fire pump
Fire hose
Hydrant key
Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its
reaction with other elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the
immediate surrounding.
Dust
Oxidizing material
Pyrolisys
Cryogenic
Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are
evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion.
Ignition temperature
Kindling temperature
Fire point
Flash point
The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that
ignites.
Kindling temperature
Fire point
Flash point
Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in
order to initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without the
addition of heat from outside sources.
Boiling point
Fire point
Flash point
An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with
an oxidizing agent.
Thermal balance
Thermal imbalance
Combustion
Oxidation
Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
Pyrolysis
Combustion
Detonation
A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
Pyrolysis
Combustion
Detonation
Oxidation
Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material
with unit temperature gradient.
Conduction
Thermal conductivity
Radiation
Fission
A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials
as waves.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Fission
It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.

Providential fire
Accidental fire
Intentional fire
Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong
Chat Lay 60 P 788.
Arson
Providential fire
Accidental fire
First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and

odorless gas which supports life and fire.
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Neon
Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.
Fuel
Oxygen
Heat
Refers to gases liberated by heat.
Free radicals
Flash point
Thermal balance
Thermal imbalance
Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases
within a building or structure under natural conditions.
Free radicals
Pyrolysis
Thermal balance
Thermal imbalance
In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities is developed.
Initial phase
Incipient phase
Free burning phase
Smoldering phase
A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
The fire triangle
The fingerprint of the fire
Flashover
Incipient phase of the fire
An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus-tible portion of the
ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a sudden
burst or shooting forth light and flames.
Flashover
Backdraft
Thermal balance
Thermal imbalance
An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of
a sudden introduction of oxygen.
Flashover
Backdraft
Thermal balance
Thermal imbalance
Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating

fires?
To determine its cause
To prevent recurrence
To determine liable persons
Reason why fire investigation is unique.
It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
Unavailability of witnesses
Fire destroys evidence
They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
Providential
Accidental
Intentional
Incendiarism
A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
Fire
Origin of fire
Fire triangle
Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
Fuel
Heat
Oxygen
Gas
A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas
or a liquid.
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Fission
The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
Specific heat
Latent heat
Heat of Combustion
Heat of fusion
Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of
hydrogen in the absence of air.
Carbon black
Lamp black
Soot
Black bone
Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of
combustion.
Fire
Flame
Heat
Smoke
Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.

Fire
Flame
Heat
Smoke
The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
Backdraft
Flashover
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Falling debris
Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of
what material?
Rubber
Nitrogen products
Asphalt singles
Chlorine
Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
Asbestos
Diamond
Asphalt
Cotton
A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing tremendous
amperage and voltage, it is the most common cause of providential fires.
Rays of the sun
Spontaneous heating
Arcing
Lighting
Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
Smoking
Arcing
Sparkling
Overloading
A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
Accelerant
Plants
Trailer
Wick
Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to
hasten the start of fire.
Accelerant
Plants
Trailer
Wick
Most common reason of arson cases.
Revenge
Profit
Competition
Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
Spontaneous heating
Combustible gases
Combustible dust
Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.
Plants c. Trailers
Accelerants d. Wick
Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
Abatement
Combustion
Allotment
Distillation
The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with
sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
Black bone
Used petroleum
Soot
Black iron
The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
Overloading
Jumper
Wire tapping
Arcing
One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value
of the building:
Schools
Department stores
Hospitals
Single family dwellings
Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as
from the base to top of the building.
Standpipe system
Sprinkler system
Vertical shaft
Flash point
Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating
of not less than four hours with structural stability to remain standing
even if the adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
Post wall
Fire trap
Fire wall
Firewood
A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any
particular establishment.
Fire service
Fire safety inspection
Fire drill
Fire protection assembly
Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
Radiation
Convection
Conduction
Fission
The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of
combustion.
Oxidation
Flash point
Smoldering
Fire
Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
Endothermic reactions
Exothermic reactions
Oxidation
Combustion
Product of an incomplete combustion.
Soot c. Ashes
Charring d. All of foregoing
Color of a luminous flame.
Orange-blue
Blue
Yellow
Red
Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby
the organic fuel is converted to water and carbon dioxide.
Heat of combustion
Calorific value
Fuel value
Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes
state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
Calorie
Latent heat
Thermal heat
Specific heat
Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled to
normal temperature.
Fire gases
Combustion gases
Oxidation gases
Flame
Fires caused by human error and negligence.
Providential fires
Intentional fires
Accidental fires
Incendiarism
Primary component of wood

Fiber
Cellulose
Carbon
Pulp
During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of
fire is developed.
Incipient phase
Initial phase
Free burning phase
Smoldering phase
Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon
monoxide builds up in volume.
Incipient
Initial phase
Free burning phase
Smoldering phase
Most effective way of regulating vices.
Continued police action by relentless drives in vice control
Sincere and honest law enforcement
Both a and b
Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake of alcoholic
beverages develops physical and psychological changes and dependence to
alcohol.
Alcoholics
Liquor addicts
Drunkard
Chronic alcoholics
A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains alcohol.
Liquor
Wine
Booze
Vodka
Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-refute whereby the
business of prostitution is conducted.
Operator c. Mama
Banker d. Pimp
Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for
hire.
Prostitute
Whores
Knockers
The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for
immoral purposes.
White slavery
Prostitution
Organized crimes
This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or professional
prostitutes under the control of an organized crime ring.
Disorderly houses
Furnished room houses
Call houses
Massage clinics
Refers to prostitutes who works in regular homes or prostitution or
brothels, she accepts all customers and has nothing to do with selecting
or soliciting them.
Door knocker
Call girl
Hustler
Factory girls
Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to
carry on the gambling game.
Maintainer
Conductor
Banker
Operator
Anti gambling law
PD 1869
PD 1612
PD 1602
PD 1866
Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
Broken families
Poverty
Anonymity of city life
Refers to a person having no apparent means of subsistence.
Gambler
Prostitute
Vagrants
Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
Prision correctional
Prison mayor
Reclusion temporal
Reclusion perpetua
A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
Maintainer
Conductor
Banker
Operator
Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
Tolerance
Physical dependence
Poly drug abuse
Drug experimenter
A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis
Sativa.
Marijuana c. Opium
Hashish d. Morphine
Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, what is the
other term given to narcotics?
Opium c. Morphine
Opiates d. Heroin
It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
Tetrahydrocannabinol
Cannabis sativa
Papaver somniferum
Methamphetamine
Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as:
Pain killer
Cough reliever
Stimulant
Depressant
Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
Secretary of Justice
Secretary of National Defense
Secretary of Education
Secretary of Health
Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to
the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
Marijuana
Cocaine
Shabu
Opium
The most potent derivative from opium.
Codeine
Cocaine
Morphine
Heroin
Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first
used by the Incas of Peru.
Tetrahydrocannabinol
Papaver somniferum
Amphetamine
Erythroxylon coca
The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy
Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
Chomper
Ecstacy
Shabu
Heroin
Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal

restrictions.
Designer drugs
Hallucinogens
Amphetamines
Methamphetamines
A law which prohibits government officials to enter and gamble in
Philippine casinos.
PD 1602
PD 1869
PD 510
PD 483
Office that controls and regulates gambling.
PAGCOR
PCGG
PACC
PNP
A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who have paid
or agreed to pay a valuable consideration for the chance to obtain a
prize.
Gambling
Sport
Lottery
A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
Wage
Wager
Prize
Banker
Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% of the
substance:
Hashish
Codeine
Morphine
Heroin
Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants known as:
Crank
Pep pills
Knock-out drops
Stick
Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on prohibited and
regulated drugs.
DDB
NBI
PACC
PNP
Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of
the mind with delusions.
Narcotics
Stimulants
Depressants
Hallucinogens
Chemical substance which effects a person in such a way as to bring out
physiological, behavioral or emotional change.
Alcohol
Coca leaf
Drug
Marijuana
Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotions, thought
disruption and ego distortion.
Depressants
Tranquilizers
Hallucinogens
Stimulants
An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
Abuse
Vice
Addiction
Gambling
A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other bettors.
Promoter
“Cristo”
Banker
Gambler
Most common problem encountered by the police in vice control measures:
Unwillingness of government officials to work against vices
Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
Public apathy
Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which
later becomes sour or alcoholic.
Distillation
Fermentation
Ionization
Purification
A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and
over confident.
Slight inebration
Moderate inebration
Drunk
Coma
This degree of intoxication causes reddening of the face, but no sign of
incoordination and difficulty of speech.
Slight inebration
Moderate inebriation
Drunk
Coma
This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on conversion and
fellowship.
Aversion treatment
Psychotherapy method
Withdrawal method
Program of alcoholic anonymous
Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indulgement in
sexual intercourse for money or profit.
Gambling
Prostitution
Addiction
Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to supplement their
income.
Call girls
Factory girls
Hustler
Door knocker
Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate roomers to
maintain an appearance of responsibility.
Disorderly houses
Furnished room houses
Call houses
Massage clinics
The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated is
located specifically in:
Thailand-Burma-China border
Laos-Thailand-China border
Thailand-Burma-Laos border
Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from Cannabis Sativa a plant
that contains meal altering ingredient. Which among the following is not
an immediate effect of weed?
Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of losing control
Altered sense of time/disorientation
A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a
central nervous system stimulant.
Marijuana
Shabu
Cocaine
Opiates
A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or
hazard.
Gambling
Sports
Tupada
All of the above
Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is difficult to control is
that:
The big demand
The plant can be easily cultivated
Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
2902. Finely powdered substance when mixed with all in the proper
proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
Dust
Fire lane
Fire trap
Fire alarm
A child in conflict with the law is exempted from _____:

a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
c) criminal liability only
d) civil liability only
If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is imprisonment of
more than six years, diversion will be within the jurisdiction of the
____________:
a) barangay c) DSWD
b) police d) court
Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is over fifteen years
old. The decision as to whether the child acted with or without
discernment is made initially by the _______:
b) CICL d) judge
The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict with the law
lies with the _______:
b) CICL d) judge
The age of full criminal responsibility is:
Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
More than 18 but less than 70 years old
Over 15 but under 18 years old
Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old
It pertains to the document that must be signed by the parents of the
child in conflict with the law as part of the conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation
c) memorandum of agreement
d) contract of diversion
A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years of age shall
be turned over to the ________________ by the police for the
determination of appropriate program:
a) nearest police station b) family
c) local DSWSD d) court
The diversion proceedings must be completed within ____ days:
a) thirty b) forty-five
c) sixty d) twenty
If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is guilty of
the crime he is accused of doing, the ____________ of the sentence shall
automatically be suspended:
a) imposition b) determination
c) execution d) discharge
The ________________ has the right to refuse the diversion program
designed for the child:
a) offended party b) parents of the child
c) victim d) social worker
When the court decides to execute the suspended sentence, the child must
be transferred to a:
a) youth rehabilitation center
b) youth detention home
c) agricultural farm
d) prison
It shall be the duty of the ______________________ to make proper
recommendation to the court regarding the disposition of the child who is
undergoing rehabilitation while under suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor b) social worker
c) lawyer d) judge
All records pertaining to the case of the child in conflict with the law
shall remain _______ and ______:
a) privileged and confidential
b) classified and confidential
c) privileged and restricted
d) secret and confidential
The age of full criminal irresponsibility is:
Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with discernment
18 to 70 years old
15 years old and below
Below 18 even if the act is committed with discernment
It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his environment or the
way human beings act.
Human Beings
Learning
Human Behavior
Stimulus
Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited by people
because of their inherited capabilities or the process of natural
selection.
Inherited Behavior
. Inborn Behavior
Learned Behavior
both a and c
It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form
adjustment and attempt to experience them again in memory.
a. phobia (exaggerated fear) b. anger
b. frustration d. regression
Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from _____.
a. anger b. fear
c. pleasure d. pain
Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation of the ______ from
within the person or from his environment.
a. stimulus b. action
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. inclination
This personality system controls the gateway to action.
a. alter ego b. Id (instinctual
drive)
c. ego (reality principle) d. Superego
(conscience)
What is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways to make it more
acceptable to the self usually with the use of good reasons and alibi to
substitute for real cause?
a. projection b. sublimation
c. rationalization d. Compensation
Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what
particular defense mechanism?
a. repression b. sublimation
c. displacement d. projection
An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania b. pyromania
c. phobia d. Dipsomania
This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or

state of affairs at the same time repulsion towards something associated
with it.
This is the process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or
feeling that causes pain, shame or guilt.
a. identification b. regression
c. repression
d. fixation
This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or
undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
a. rationalization b. sublimation
c. compensation d. projection
Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting an unripe mango
grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. olfactory
b. Auditory
c. cutaneous
d. gustatory
This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation
of withdrawal from reality.
a. Neurosis b. Depression
c. Psychosis
d. Anxiety
This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration
b. conflict
c. anxiety d. Depression
The aggregate observable responses of an organism to internal and

external stimuli.
a. human behavior b. behavior
c. personality d. attribute
The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or
practice.
a. actualization b. learning
c. thinking d. feeling
This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable but mutually
exclusive goals.
This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which
has both pleasant and unpleasant consequences.
This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly
natural situation or object.
a. melancholia
b. phobia
c. exaltation
d. Mania
It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.

a. psychoses b. neuroses
c. abnormality d. Psychopathy
The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his
handwriting.
Questioned Document Examination
Polygraphy
Graphology
Psychology
Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.

Projectile
Ball
Shell
Missile
The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it
leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile
on the target.
Interior ballistics
Exterior ballistics
Terminal ballistics
Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
Trigger
Hammer
Sear
Main spring
Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the
diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound equal to reciprocal gauge
index.
Caliber
Gauge
Shot
Charge
An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
Shotgun
Rifle
Musket
Pistol
A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one
charge.
Shotgun
Rile
Musket
Pistol
Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force
of the charge.
Breechblock
Breechface
Ejector
Extractor
Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the
chamber.
Breechblock
Breechface
Ejector
Extractor
Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
Rifling
Land
Groove
Cannelure
Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
Recoil
Force
Backfire
Shot force
Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding
friction when the bullet passes through it.
Erosion
Rusting
Corrosion
Decomposition
Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete turn.
Pitch of rifling
Choke
Trajectory
Recoil
Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit
Bullet
Primer
Gunpowder
Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base
portion of then fired cartridge.
Firing pin impression
Ejector marks
Extractor marks
Chamber marks
Failure of cartridge to discharge.
Misfire
Hang fire
Ricochet
Key hole shot
Invented the gunpowder.
Chinese
James Forsythe
Van Amberg
Berthold Schwartz
Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.
Cartridge
Primer
Bullet
Shell
The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
Gauge
Mean diameter
Caliber
Riflings
This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the
cartridge.
Hammer
Ejector
Trigger
Firing pin
Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
Breech
Ogive
Rim
Pitch
A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings.
Shotgun
Rifle
Pistol
Revolver
A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
Jacketed bullet
Metal cased bullet
Metal point bullet
Plated bullet
The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target
sideways.
Key hole shot
Ricochet
Hang fire
Misfire
A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
Interior
Exterior
Terminal
Forensic
Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.
4 test bullets
It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side
position.
Drag marks
Positively matched
Juxtaposition
Pseudomatch
Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
Range
Trajectory
Velocity
Yaw
Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is
projected.
Incendiary bullet
Ball bullet
Tracer bullet
Explosive bullet
Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after
striking a resistant surface.
Mushroom
Key hole shot
Ricochet
Misfire
Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular
part?
From land to land
From land to groove
From groove to groove
From groove to land
Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
Frame
Barrel
Slide assembly
Rotating cylinder
The term double action in a firearm means.
Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
Manually cocks the hammer
Autoloads before firing
Double pressing of trigger
The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact.
Mushroom
Keyhole shot
Ricochet
Scorching
Regarded as the father of ballistics,
Albert Osborne
Col. Calvin H. Goddard
Hans Gross
Charles Waite
Raised portion between the groove found inside the barrel.
Land
Caliber
Gauge
Rifling
The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
Yaw
Trajectory
Velocity
Gyroscopic action
A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
Rifle
Revolver
Pistol
Sub-machine gun
It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
Rifling
Breaching
Ogive
Swaging
A primer with two vents or flash holes.
Bordan primer
Berdan primer
Boxer primer
Battery primer
Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
Flare guns
Zip guns
Matchlock
Freakish device
The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired
cartridges are concerned.
Extractor marks
Ejector marks
Chamber marks
Breech face marks
It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to
explode on time.
Misfire
Hang fire
Ricochet
Key hole shot
A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its
lands have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
Slippage marks
Skid marks
Rifling marks
Shearing marks
Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
Caliper
Chronograph
Test bullet
Bullet recovery box
Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of persons so as
to differentiate him from others
a. Dactyloscopy
c. Identification
b. Personal
d. Comparison
Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in person done
by measuring various bony structure of the human body.
a. Portrait-Parle c. Photography
b. Antropometry d. Anthropometry
1351. It is the principle involve in personal Identification, except.
a. Law of individuality
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
b. Law of infallibility d. Law of constancy
Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?

a. Hair b. Speech
c. Dress d. personal pharapernalia
2985. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
Identification.
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Dactyloscopy
c. Fingerprint Identification d. Photography
2986. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or
by____?
a. Exclusion b. Examination
c. Experimentation d. Inclusion
2987. The person credited for the discovery of the two main layers of
the friction skin.
a. Alphonse Bertillion c. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Herman Welcker d. J.C.A. Mayer
2988. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from white jade
containing the name and the thumb print of the owner.
a. Tien Chi c. Tein Chi
b. Tein Shi d. Tien Shi
The most tolerated way of handling frustration.

Defense Mechanism
Direct Approach
Detour
Withdrawal
A type of defense mechanism whereby a person concentrates in area where
he can excel.
Displacement
compensation
Rationalization
fantasy
What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining Garcia when he
joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
Identification
projection
Fantasy
regression
This refers to an action-producing agent:
Motives
Drives
Stimulus
sensation
Human actions in relation to events taking place inside the body such as
the brain and the nervous system is known as:
Neurological
psychological
Cognitive
humanistic
A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating manifests what
particular classification of human behavior?
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards signify one’s academic
achievement. This classification of human behavior is known as:
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
Mathematical ability and English communication skills are examples of
what type of human behavior?
Learned
inborn
Operant
both a and b
Eating when you are hungry is an example of _______ behavior.
Habitual
complex
Instinctive
symbolic
It is the ability to withstand frustration without developing inadequate
modes of response such as being emotionally depressed or irritated,
becoming neurotic, or becoming aggressive.
Frustration Tolerance
Frustration Shield
Frustration Flexibility
all of the above
Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up applying into the
Armed Forces of the Philippines when he failed in the initial height and
weight measurement stage because he was under height. This is an example
of:
Sublimation
repression
Substitution
withdrawal
Which of the following items does not belong to the group?
a. prostitution
b. assassination
c. sabotage
d. bombing

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INSTRUCTION: The following questionnaire consists of six hundred (600)

7. One of the kinds of oxidation which is the same as actual burning; it

9. Refer to the phenomenon when chemical compounds will ignite without

16. As a fire prober, its primary objective is to determine?

Class “A” Fires

37. A graphical representation of the three elements of fire namely the

45. The following are classifications of fire based on cause, except

58. If the materials that is being burned is a petroleum product or

65. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to

67. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the

69. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:

70. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as

74. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by

80. The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure,

82. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without a

105. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

106. The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary

113. In flagrante delicto means _____?

118. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in

121. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:

128. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute

129. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to

130. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court

131. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be

134. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on

138. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not

146. It is the testimony of a witness taken upon oral question or written

150. The discharge of accused to be state witness operates as ____?

151. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused to be

158. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of conviction

159. Which is a ground for new trial?

160. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?

168. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:

170. Prescription of offense commences to run:

170. When an appeal shall be taken?

175. A complaint or information have the same legal content, however,

176. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the

177. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or

180. In preliminary investigation, the respondent may submit the

183. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed

184. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?

185. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be

194. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:

195. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information are

198. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of

199. The modes of making an arrest are:

200. The order of trial is:

12. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

213. As a rule no search of house, room or premise shall be made except

c. coup d’etat (commited against military)

226. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

227. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an

245. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in

248. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who shall

250. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public

253. For what crime Benny can be charged?

267. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is made by

a. grave threat b. light threat

278. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of

285. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an absolutory

286. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and prosecution

300. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the

301. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes,