Juan Zelezae 105Q 31august

1
Juan Zelezae very

expensive feedback
of a failed 400-101
exam after 20 of
th
August 2019
Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

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Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Your network uses an MPLS VPN backbone with OSPF routing between all
PE and CE routers and one the 10Mb backup links between the CE routers.
You notice that data between CE1 and CE3 is flowing over the backup links instead of the
higher bandwidth MPLS VPN backbone even when the backbone is up.
What is the most likely explanation for this behavior?
A. The devices are preferentially using inter-area routing
B. The devices are preferentially using lower-cost routing
C. The MPLS VPN backbone is using external BGP instead of OSPF
D. The devices are preferentially using intra-area routing

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E. The network is using sha m links on the MPLS VPN backbone
Answer: D
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit
The Main 1 and Branch 1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire, and both
run UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure, the pseudowire. However the
Branch 1 switch is unable to reach the Main 1 switch. Which two actions can you take to
restore connectivity and problem from recurring? (Choose two)
A. Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main 1 and Branch I Switchs.
B. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch 1 switch uplink to the B1 router
only.
C. Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the Main I and Branch 1 switches.
D. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on both the Branch 1 switch uplink to the B1
router and the Main 1 switch's uplink to the M1 router

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E. Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.
F. Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.
Answer: B,E
Question 3
Which two statements about 6PE are true? (Choose two.)
A. It does not require MPLS between the PE routers.
B. It requires BGP to exchange labeled IPv6 unicast between PE routers.
C. iBGP peering between the PE routers should be done using an IPv6 address.
D. Uses an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address as the IPv4 next-hop on PE router.
E. It requires a VRF on the IPv6 interface.
Answer: B, D
Question 4
Which tunneling method can transmit IPv6 traffic over an MPLS infrastructure?
A. 6PE
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. 6RD
Answer: A
Question 5

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Which command can you enter to prevent a router from displaying Telnet
connection messages on the terminal? ( hostname / ip variants )
A. service telnet-zeroidle
B. ip telnet hidden hostname
C. ip telnet hidden address
D. no ip domain-lookup
E. ip telnet quiet
Answer: E
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
What conclusion can you draw from the given ping output?
A. The ping operation sent packets ranging from 505 to 1500 bytes in size.
B. The packet life was exceeded in 5 percent of the operations.
C. The Verbose option was set in the IP header.
D. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation.
Answer: D
Question 7

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Which statement about Control Plane Policing is true?
A. It queues egress packets that would otherwise be discarded.
B. It applies to packets that are generated locally.
C. It applies to packets that are punted to the route processor.
D. It queues ingress packets that would otherwise be discarded.
Answer: B [ C corrected ]
Question 8
What are IPv6 addresses of the form FC00::/7 known as?
A. unique local addresses
B. transition addresses for 6to4
C. link-local addresses
D. multicast RP addresses
Answer: A
Question 9
Which two statements about PfR are true? (Choose two.)
A. It manages traffic classes.
B. It provides a narrower scope of route control than OER.
C. It provides intelligent route control on a per-application basis.
D. It supports split tunneling and spoke-to-spoke links.
E. It always prefers the least cost path.
Answer: A E [ A C Corrected ]

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Question 10
Which command sequence will configure an auto IP SLA scheduler that starts at
12:45AM onJanuary 1,ends after 1hour of inactivity, and repeats every 3 hours for
one week?
A. ip sla auto schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 frequency 360 life forever porbe-
interval
43200
B. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 12:45 jan 1 frequency 60 life 10800 porbe-interval
43200
C. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 frequency 360 life 10800 porbe-interval
10800
D. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 12:45 jan 1 ageout 360 life 604800 porbe-interval
43200
E. ip sla auto schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 ageout 360 life 604800 porbe-interval
10800
Answer: E
Question 11
Which statement describes the operation of the Generalized TTL Security
Mechanism
(GTSM), used by routing protocols to prevent some types of attack?
A. An MD5 hash of the received TTL, source IP, destination IP, protocol , and shared key
must match
B. The TTL in a received packet must be a low value (typically 1-2)
C. The TTL in a received packet must be a high value (typically 254-255)

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D. Both end systems compute an MD5 hash based on the TTL and a shared secret. If the
received and
local value differ, the packet is dropped
Answer: C
Question 12
Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Choose two)
A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.
B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.
C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.
D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.
Answer: A,C
Question 13
Which 1Pv6 solution provides network information to clients without providing an 1Pv6
host address?
A. autoconfiguration
B. stateless DHCPv6
C. stateful DHCPv6
D. prefix delegation
Answer: A
Question 14
Question about the difference between RSPAN and SPAN.
A. Monitor port

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B. access port
C. forwarding Port
D. destination port
Answer: A
Question 15
Drag and drop each PHB on the left to the functionality it performs on the right.
Answer
Question 16
Which two statements about CoPP are true? (Choose two)

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A. When a deny rule in an access list is used for MQC is matched, classification continues
on the next class
B. It allows all traffic to be rate limited and discarded
C. Access lists that are used with MQC policies for CoPP should omit the log and log-
input keywords
D. The mls qos command disables hardware acceleration so that CoPP handles all QoS
E. Access lists that use the log keyword can provide information about the device’s CPU
usage
F. The policy-map command defines the traffic class
Answer: A C
Question 17
Which two statements about PIM snooping are true? (Choose two)
A.Auto-RP traffic is not affected by PIM Snooping and is always flooded
B.Prune messages are forwarded to the router listed in the message payload
C.Join messages are flooded on all switch ports
D.Prune messages are flooded on all switch ports
E.Traffic for groups operating in dense mode is forwarded to the downstream routers
Answer: A, B
Question 18
Ping and Traceroute extended options are very useful. What is the difference
between using the Record option with the ping command vs. the traceroute
command?

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A. The record option is not supported with the ping command
B. The record option is not supported with the traceroute command
C. When leveraged with the ping command, the Record option of this command not
only informs you of the hops that the echo request (ping) went through to get the
destination, but is also informs you of the hops it visited on the return path
D. When leveraged with the traceroute command, the Record option of this command
not only informs you of the hops that the echo request (ping) went through to get the
destination, but is also informs you of the hops it visited on the return path
Answer: C
Question 19
Which two statements about a flat single-hub DMVPN with NHRP are
true?(choose two)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration 01the hub router
B. NHRP dynamically provides informatlon about the spoke routers to the hub
C. NHRP disables multicast
D. The hub muter uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes
E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers
Answer: A,B
Question 20
In a DMVPN solution, which component can the GRE tunnel source and
destination generate automatically?
A. policy maps
B. QoS markings

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C. pre-shared keys
D. crypto ACLs
Answer: D
Question 21
Which two statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose two)
A. An isolated VRF routing table is created for each VRF
B. A single customer VRF can support overlapping IP addresses
C. Multiple ISP customers can be supported on one customer edge device.
D. Two or more VRFs can be assigned to a single Layer 3 interface
E. At least one physical interface must be configured to enable a VRF
Answer: A,B
Question 22
If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error,
which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Set mls cef maximum-routes in the global configuration.
B. Add the vrf-lite capability to the OSPF configuration.
C. Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that can support more routes.

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D. Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco
Express Forwarding Information Base.
Question 23
Which routing protocol is not supported with VRF-lite?
A. IS-IS
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Answer: A
Question 24
What are the two requirements for BGP to install a classful network into the BGP
routing table? (Choose two)
A. The AS contains the entire classfull network.
B. A classful network statement with a lower administrative distance is in the routIng

table.
C. Auto-summary is enabled.
D. A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.
E. Synchronization is enabled.
F. Synchronization is disabled.
Answer: C,D
Question 25
Which technology uses MPLS to provide 1Pv6 connectivity o customers in the core
network without the need for dual stack?

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A. 6to4
B. NAT64
C. NAT
D. SPE
Answer: D
Question 26
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
B. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
C. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to
IPv4.
D. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
Answer: D
Question 27
Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in
PVST+? (Choose three.)
A . port cost
B . spanning-tree MAC address
C . port priority
D . max age
E . extended system ID
F . switch priority
Answer: B, E, F

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Question 28
You have been asked to connect a remote network with different DSCP mappings
to the primary network ofyour organization. How can you configure the network
devices so that the two networks worktogether seamlessly?
A. Configure the mls qos trust command on the trunk ports that internetwork two
networks
B. Configure VLAN-based QoS on all switchs on both networks
C. Configure an aggregate policewr on the ingres interfaces of the trunk ports that
interconnect the two networks
D. Configure a mutation map on the devices on the primary network that connect to the
network
Answer: A
Question 29
On a network with multiple VLANs, which three tasks must you perform to
configure IP source guard on VLAN 50 only?(choose three)
A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping vlan 50 command on the interface
B. Configure the ip dhcp snooping vlan 50 command globally
C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping command on the interface
D. Configure the ip verify source command globally
E. Configure the ip dhcp snooping command global
F. Configure the ip verify source command on the interface
Answer: B,E,F [ B C F corrected ]

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Question 30
While troubleshooting the failure of two devices to establish an IPSec tunnel, you
generated the given debug output on R2. What is the most likely reason the
tunnel failed?
A. Main mode processing failed on the peer
B. Main mode processing failed on R2
C. The ACLs are mismatched on the devices
D. R2 was unable to connect to the peer
Answer: C
Question 31
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.

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B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance
Answer: A,B
Question 32
The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the internet. If ADSL-
R1 uses a PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem.
A. Configure a system MTU of 1512 on ADSL-R1
B. Configure OSPF on the connection between PC1 and HomeS1
C. Replace the dialer interface with a virtual template.
D. Configure an MTU of 1492 on the dialer interface on ADSL-R1
E. Configure the same OSPF process on HomeR1 and HomeS1
Answer: D

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Question 33
If R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP neighbor adjacency, which reason for the
problem is most likely true?
A. The auto-summary command under the route process is disabled
B. The hello-interval and hold-time values are invalid
C. The MTU value between R1 and R2 is too small
D. The primary networks are on different subnets
Answer: D
Question 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

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A. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with link-local scope.
B. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that is used for unique local sources only.
C. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that can be used for BIDIR-PIM only.
D. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with embedded RP.
Answer D
Question 35
Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60

B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It prevent the device from falling back to dense mode.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point
Answer: B,E
Question 36
Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. In a BIDIR-PIM network the RPF interface can be the interface that is used reach the
PIM rendezvous or the interface that is used to reach the source.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach
the source.
C. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks
D. In a BIDIR network the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the
PIM rendezvous point.
Answer: D [ C Corrected ]

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Question 37
What is the function of the command ip pim autorp listener?
A. It allows the mapping agents to accept autorp information from the PIM rendezvous
point.
B. It allows a BSR to accept autorp information and translate it into BSR messages.
C. It allows the routers to flood the atuorp information in a sparse-mode-only network.
D. It allows a border PIM spare-mode router to accept autorp information from another
autonomous system.
Answer: C
Question 38
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true? .
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a
route to the ABR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes
a route to ASBR
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a
route to the ASBR
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a
route to the ASBR
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a
route to the ASBR
Answer: E
Question 39
Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks
of /16 through /24?
A. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25

B. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 15 le 25
C. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24
D. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24
Answer: C

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Question 40
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the
right.
Answer

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Question 41
Which values does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a summary address?
A) a default fixed value

B) the average of the component metrics
C) the lowest metric among the component routes
D) the highest metric among the component routes
Answer: C
Question 42
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static
default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. Default-information originate
B. Redistribute static
C. Redistribute static subnets
D. Redistribute static metric 1 subnets
Answer: A
Question 43
Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose
two)
A. MPLS must be enabled.

B. The next-hop routers must be the same.
C. The next-hop routers must be different.
D. Route reflectors must be enabled.
E. All attributes must have the same values.
Answer: C, E

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Question 44
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.

B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. It supports only one address family per instance.
D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.
Answer: A, C
Question 45
Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two)
A. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels

B. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix
C. They rely on GRE encapsulation
D. They are point-to-point tunnels
E. Sites use addresses from the link-local scope
Answer: C, D [ A B Corrected ]
Question 46
Which description correctly describes Git?
A. Git is a version control system for tracking changes in files

B. Git is a command-line utility for creating archives of files
C. Git is a web-based repository for sharing files
D. Git is a configuration management tool that automates provisioning
Answer: A

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Question 47
One of your clients which is in the manufacture area, is after a solution in order to manage all his
fog nodes. Which management tools best suits his needs?
A. Cisco Connected Grid Network Management System

B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
C. Cisco Network Control System
D. Cisco Fog Director
Answer: D [ B Corrected ]
Question 48
Which statement correctly describes Ansible operations and playbooks?
A. Ansible is agent-based and uses playbooks formatted in YAML

B. Ansible is agentless and uses playbooks formatted in YAML
C. Ansible is agentless and uses playbooks formatted in XML
D. Ansible is agent-based and uses playbooks formatted in XML
Answer: B
Question 49
Which three benefits of virtualizing the DMZ are true? (Choose three)
A. Orchestration
B. Usage-based consumption model
C. Service catalog
D. Dynamic and automated service insertion with focus on security
E. Analytics
F. Per-app network functions and operation
Answer: D, E, F

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Question 50
Which three campus fabric nodes is SD-Access architecture are true? (Choose three)
A. Fabric wireless access points

B. Fabric border nodes
C. Control plane nodes
D. Virtual plane nodes
E. Data plane nodes
F. Fabric edge nodes
Answer: B, C, F
Question 51
Which three connectivity models for vEdge Site Architecture are true? (Choose three)
A. Augmentation model
B. Hybrid with FallBack
C. Secure tunnel
D. Secure virtual connectivity
E. Cloud provider
F. Full SD-WAN
Answer: B, C, E
Question 52
Which three basics types of SD-WAN deployment are out on the market? (Choose three)
A. Managed service SD-WAN

B. Policy-Based SD-WAN
C. SD-WAN as-a-Service
D. Internet-Based SD-WAN
E. Secure SD-WAN service
F. MPLS-based
Answer: C, D, E

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Question 53
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF?
(Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data

B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Answer: A, C, F
Question 54
Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two)
A . multiple MAC addresses in the Layer 2 forwarding table

B . recurring TCNs
C . RIB table overflow
D . symmetric routing
E . forwarding table overflow
Answer: B,E
Question 55
Which two statements about root guard and loop guard are true? (Choose two)
A. When loop guard is enabled, the port is transitional to the root-inconsistent state
B. Loop guard uses BPDU keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
C. Root guard should be enabled on an upstream interface
D. Root guard disables an interface only when a superior BPDU is received
E. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to prevent loops by detecting failures
F. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic
Answer: B, D

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Question 56
Drag and drop the BGP attributes on the left to the correct category on the right
Answer

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Question 57
Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation.

B. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity.
C. In IPv6, routers perform fragmentation.
D. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet.
E. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer.
F. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer.
Answer: A, B
Question 58
Which two options are restrictions of BGP Outbound Route Filtering? (Choose two.)
A. It requires access lists to match routes.

B. It can be used only with eBGP.
C. It can be used only with iBGP.
D. It can be used only with IPv4 multicast.
E. Multicast is not supported.
Answer: B, E
Question 59
Which DHCP message type does the DHCP server send to a client to confirm its allocated IP
address?
A. DHCPDISCOVER
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPACK
D. DHCPREQUEST
Answer: C
Question 60
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two)
A. They are used to forward untagged traffic only

B. They are configured under the trunk interface

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C. They are configured in VLAN database mode

D. They are used to forward tagged traffic only
E. They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffic
F. They require VTPv3
Answer: A, B
Question 61
Which tunneling method can transmit IPv6 traffic over an MPLS infrastructure?
A. 6PE
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. 6RD
Answer: A
Question 62
Refer to the exhibit. Provided that routing is configured correctly, what command can a user on
R1 enter to telnet to R2? [ This question is different in the exam , please help update ]
A. Telnet 172.16.193.2.5 /source-interface Loopback0

B. Tenet 172.16.193.2 3005/ source-interface Loopback 0
C. Telnet 172.16.193.2 / source-interface Loopback0
D. Telnet 172.16.193.2 3005 / source-interface fastEthernet 1/0
E. telnet 172.16.193.2 3005

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Answer: B
Question 63
Drag each NTP command on the left to its effect on the right
Answer

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Question 64
Company A has two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site,
Company A is using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you
implement to enable routing between the two sites?
A. communities
B. allowas-in
C. AS path prepending
D. Peer groups
Answer: B
Question 65
Which IPv4 feature can limit indiscriminate flooding of multicast traffic on a VLAN?
A. PIM snooping
B. IGMP snooping
C. IGMP filtering
D. MLD Filtering
Answer: B
Question 66
Which two statements about IGPs are true? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols

B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage
D. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link
E. RIPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link state protocols
Answer: B, E

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Question 67
How are the Cisco express forwarding table and the FIB related each other?
A. Cisco express forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express forwarding tables on ISO devices.
C. The Cisco express forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarding to the route processor
before they are sent to the FIB.
D. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express forwarding table.
Answer: A
Question 68
Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)
A. Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.

B. Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.
C. Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
D. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.10 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors
and permit everything else.
E. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.1 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and
permit everything else.
F. Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
Answer: C, F
Question 69
Which two OSPF network types require the use of a DR and BDR? (Choose two.)
A. non-broadcast networks
B. point-to-point networks
C. point-to-multipoint networks
D. broadcast networks
E. point-to-multipoint non-broadcast networks
Answer: A, D

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Question 70
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied this configuration to R1 and R2, they failed to form an
IS-IS adjacency. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The network statements are mismatched

B. The IP subnets are mismatched
C. The bandwidth is mismatched
D. The MTUs are mismatched
Answer: D
Question 71
Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two)
A. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP, internal and external routes are redistributed
B. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined
C. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is
set automatically
D. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, eBGP and iBGP routes are advertised
E. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into the IGP if the routes are in the routing table

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Answer: B, C
Question 72
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. R1 routes this pseudowire over MPLS TE tunnel 1 with transport label 20.
B. The default route 0.0.0.0/0 is available in the IPv4 routing table.
C. R1 is using an MPLS TE tunnel for this pseudowire, because the IP path is not available.
D. R1 has preferred-path configured for the pseudowire.
Answer: D
Question 73
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2. Which networks
does R2 advertise to R1?

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A. 172.16.0.0/16 only
B. Both 172.16.32.0/20 and 172.16.33.0/24
C. 172.16.32.0/20 only
D. 172.16.33.0/24 only
Answer: A
Question 74
How does MSTP maintain compatibility with RSTP?
A. RSTP encodes region information from an MSTP BPDU into a single instance.
B. MSTP supports five port states in the same way as RSTP.
C. MSTP sends all spanning-tree information in one BPDU.
D. RSTP implements a TTL that is compatible with the MSTP max age timer
Answer: C

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Question 75
Select and Place:
Answer
Question 76
What is the correct multicast destination address for IGMPv2 leave-group messages?
A. 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.1

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C. 239.0.0.1
D. 239.0.0.2
Correct Answer: A
Question 77
Which two statements about NetFlow version 9 are true? (Choose two)
A. Each flow monitor supports up to 10 exporters.
B. It supports both encryption and authentication.
C. It supports export over TCP and UDP.
D. It supports export over UDP only.
E. It supports up to 6 exporters per cache.
F. It supports up to 2 exporters per cache.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 78
Drag each IPv4 host address on the left to the matching networks on the right
Select and Place:

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Question 79
Which GDOI key is responsible for encrypting control plane traffic?
A. the traffic encryption key.
8. the preshared key
C. the key encryption key.
D. the key-chain
Correct Answer: C
Question 80
Which tow factors contribute to traffic starvation when TCP and UDP flows area includes
in a
single traffic class? (Choose two)
A. UDP flows continually lower their transmission rates when congestion is detected.
B. TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates when congestion occurs on a
link.

39
C. TCP flows continually reduce the windows size when congestion occurs on a link
D. UDP flows continually reduce the windows size when congestion occurs on a ink.
E. TCP flows maintain a consistence transmission rate when congestion oceur
link.
F. UDP flows maintain a consistence transmission rate when congesti n occurs on a
link.
Correct Answer: BF
Question 81
What is the reason to send EIGRP SIA reply to a peer?
A. to respond to an SIA query that the router is still waiting on replies from its peers.
B. to respond to a reply reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active.
C. to respond to a query reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
D. to respond to an SIA query with the alternative path requested.
Correct Answer: A
Question 82
Which statement about the bgp soft-recorifig-oac up command is true?

A. It provides soft configuration capabilities fer peers that are unable to support route
refresh.
8 . When the peer is unable o store pdates, the updates are implemented immediately.
C. It overrides soft r onfigu tion for devices that support inbound soft reconfiguration
D. It requires 8GP to stor; a I inbound and outbound updates.
E. It provides o tbound soft reconfiguration for peers.
Correct Answer: A
Question 83
Refer to the exhibit, Each router is a PIM RP in its own domain and all routers are MSDP

40
peers. When the multicast source in PIM Domain A begins sending traffic, which three
messages do the routers send? (Choose three)
A. R2 sends an MSDP SA message.
8. R1 sends an MSDP SA message.
C. R1 sends a PIM (S ,G) join message
D. R1 sends a PIM (*,G) join message
E. R2 sends a PIM (*,G) join message
F. R2 sends a PIM (S,G) join message.
Correct Answer: BCE
Question 84
Which two statements about migrating a network from PVST +to MST are true? (Choose
Two)
A. Switches migrated to MST will continues to interoperate with unmigrated switches.

41
B. Loop guard and BPDU filter are disabled automatically during the migration.
C. While the migration is underway, unmigrated switches treat migrated switches in the
MST region as individual switches.
D. Before migrating to MST, all PVST +switches must first be migrated to Rapid-PVST +
E. Root Guard and BPDU Guard will be unaffected by the migration.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 85
Which two statements about GLBP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Hello, Request and Reply packet types.
B. Each GLBP group supports up to 4 MAC address.
C. It support stateful switchover.
D. It communities to multicast address 244.0.0.18. E. It allows members to elect up to two gateways as

the AVG. Correct
Answer: AB
Question 86
Drag and Drop

Select and Place:

42
Answer

43
Question 87
Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the
device at
10.9.132.254
B. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254
C. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an ARP entry for the device at 10.9.132.254
D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the
device at
10.9.132.254
E. The packet was source-routed
Correct Answer: AB
Question 88
Which two actions can you take to allow the network 172.29.224.0./24 to be reachable from peer
192.168.250.53?
(Choose two)

44
A. Modify the community list to match community 64513:64090 attached to 172.29.224.0/24.

B. Configure soft reconfiguration to peering 192.168.250.53.
C. Modify the outbound route map to permit all additional traffic.
D. Configure additional address families to peering 192.168.250.53.
E. Modify the inbound route map to permit all additional traffic.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 89
Which two statements about HDLC operations in asynchronous balanced mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. Either device can send frames at any time.

B. Each device must negotiate with its neighbor before sending frames.
C. Each device must negotiate with its neighbor to recover from framing errors.
D. Either device can initiate transmission of frames.
E. The initiating device sends a DTE frame.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 90

45
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose Two)
A. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default
B. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces
D. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
E. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing
Correct Answer: BD
Question 91
Which traffic plane supports the TFTP and FTP protocols?

A. service plane
B. control plane
C. management plane
D. data plane
Correct Answer: D
Question 92
Which IS-IS router type can have neighbor in any area?

A. Level 1/Level 2 intermediate System only
B. Both Level 1 intermediate Systems and Level 2 Intermediate System
C. Level 2 Intermediate System only
D. Both Level 1 I Level 2 Intermediate Systems and Level 2 Intermediate Systems.
E. Level 1 Intermediate System only.
Correct Answer: A
Question 93
Which three connectivity models for vEdge Site Architecture are tru
A. hybrid with Fallback
B. augmentation model
C. full Sd-WAN
D. secure virtual connectivity
E. secure tunnel
F. Cloud provider
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 94
Which three statements about bridge assurance are true? (Choose three)
A. Bridge assurance can be enabled on one end of a link or on the both ends.
B. If a bridge assurance ports failed to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into an error disabled
state.
C. If a bridge assurance ports failed to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into a blocking state.

46
D. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP multipoint links only.

E. Bridge assurance must be enabled on both the ends of a link.
F. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP point-to-point links only.
Correct Answer: CEF
Question 95
Which three basic types of SD-WAN deployments are out on the market? (Choose three.)
A. SD-WAN as-a-Service
B. secure SD-WAN service
C. internet-based SD-WAN
D. policy-based SD-WAN
E. managed service SD-WAN
F. MPLS-based
Answer: ABC
Question 96
Which are the three recommended steps to implement your Risk-Based loT Security
Program? (Choose three)
A. Analyze
B. Troubleshoot
C. Implement
D. Formalize
E. Optimize
F. Assess
Correct Answer: ACF
Question 97
What are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose two.)

A. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers
B. Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane
C. The separation of the control plane from the data plane
D. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data
plane
E. OVSDB is an application database management protocol
Correct Answer: BC
Question 98

47
In a GETVPN environment, which protocol is used by the key server and group members to
manage group keys?
A. STP
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. SFTP
E. GDOI
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: E
Question 99
Refer to the exhibit. When you apply this configuration to the router, which effect is true?
A. The router sends hello packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 via unicast

B. The router broadcasts hello packets via interface FO/O
C. The router stops sending hello packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3
D. The router multicasts hello packets via interface FO/O
Correct Answer: C
Question 100
Which two statements about debugging on Cisco routers are true? (Choose two)
A. Using console logging can reduce the performance impact of the debug command
B. The terminal monitor command copies debug output to the terminal
C. The debug command can be run in user exec mode
D. The debug ip packet command can debug IP traffic that is fast-switched on the router
E. By default, the router logs debug command output to vty lines
F. The debug command can be run in privileged exec mode only
Correct Answer: BF
Question 101
What is the default behavior for a manual summary route when a component route of the
summary disappears?
A. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the same summary

48
metric is retained for stability.

8 . If the component route previously did not have the best composite metric, the
summary metric is updated, and updates are sent to peers.
C. Regardless of the metric of the component route, the metric of the summary metric is
updated, and updates are sent to peers.
D. If the component route previously had the best composite metric, the metric of the
summary changes to the next-best composite metric.
Correct Answer: C
Question 102
In the DMVPN topology, which value can be used to authentication spoke routers to the
hub?
A. pre-shared key
8. username
C. IP address
D. hostname
Correct Answer: A
Question 103
Which three campus fabric nodes in SD-Access architecture are true? (Choose three)
A. virtual edge nodes
B. fabric wireless access point
C. data plane nodes
D. fabric boarder nodes
E. control plane nodes
F. fabric edge nodes
Correct Answer: DEF
Question 104
Which neighbor-discovery message type is used to verify con

the link-layer address of the neighbor is known?
A. neighbor solicitation
B. neighbor advertisement
C. router advertisement
D. router solicitation
Correct Answer: A
Question 105
You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.
Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router 2 to established the
tunnel? (Choose two)

49
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router 1

8 . Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router 1
C. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router 1
D. Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router 2
E. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2Tpv3 under the
pseudowire-class R1toR2
Correct Answer: DE

Juan Zelezae 105Q 31august

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Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

What is the most likely explanation for this behavior?

A. The devices are preferentially using inter-area routing

B. The devices are preferentially using lower-cost routing

C. The MPLS VPN backbone is using external BGP instead of OSPF

D. The devices are preferentially using intra-area routing

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

E. The network is using sha m links on the MPLS VPN backbone

A. Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main 1 and Branch I Switchs.

router and the Main 1 switch's uplink to the M1 router

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

E. Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.

F. Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main I and Branch I switches.

A. It does not require MPLS between the PE routers.

B. It requires BGP to exchange labeled IPv6 unicast between PE routers.

D. Uses an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address as the IPv4 next-hop on PE router.

E. It requires a VRF on the IPv6 interface.

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

B. ip telnet hidden hostname

C. ip telnet hidden address

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

Which statement about Control Plane Policing is true?

A. It queues egress packets that would otherwise be discarded.

B. It applies to packets that are generated locally.

C. It applies to packets that are punted to the route processor.

D. It queues ingress packets that would otherwise be discarded.

A. unique local addresses

B. transition addresses for 6to4

A. It manages traffic classes.

B. It provides a narrower scope of route control than OER.

C. It provides intelligent route control on a per-application basis.

D. It supports split tunneling and spoke-to-spoke links.

E. It always prefers the least cost path.

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

(GTSM), used by routing protocols to prevent some types of attack?

B. The TTL in a received packet must be a low value (typically 1-2)

C. The TTL in a received packet must be a high value (typically 254-255)

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

local value differ, the packet is dropped

A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.

B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.

C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.

D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

B. It allows all traffic to be rate limited and discarded

F. The policy-map command defines the traffic class

A.Auto-RP traffic is not affected by PIM Snooping and is always flooded

C.Join messages are flooded on all switch ports

D.Prune messages are flooded on all switch ports

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

A. The record option is not supported with the ping command

B. The record option is not supported with the traceroute command

A. NHRP shortens the configuration 01the hub router

C. NHRP disables multicast

E. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers

Juan Zelezae Dump Ver 1.1 31 August 2019

A. An isolated VRF routing table is created for each VRF

B. A single customer VRF can support overlapping IP addresses

C. Multiple ISP customers can be supported on one customer edge device.

D. Two or more VRFs can be assigned to a single Layer 3 interface