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Assessment of Learning

1. The sum of all scores in a distribution always equals____________.

A. the mean times the interval size.


B. the mean divided by the interval size.
C. the mean times the N.
D. the mean divided by N.
Answer. Option C because the sum of all the scores is equal to the product of the mean and
the number of scores(N). Formula: Mean= Summation of Scores/N.

2. The teacher gives an achievement test to his 25 students. The test consists of the 50 items. He
wants to classify his students’ performance based on the test result.

What is the appropriate measure for the position?


A. z-scores C. Stanine
B. Percentile rank D. Percentage
Answer. Option A, because using z score, you can compare the performance of the students.
It tells the number of standard deviations equivalent to a raw score. The higher the value of z
score, the better the performance of acertain student is.

3. What measure of position is appropriate when the distribution is skewed?

A. Mean C. Z-value
B. Stanine D. Percentile Rank
Answer. Option A, because among the option mean is the only measure of position.

4. The analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is the appropriate significance test to run between
____________.

A. frequencies C. median
B. two means only D. three or more means
Answer. Option D, because Analysis of variance using F test is a statistical tool that is used
to test the significance difference of three or more means .

5. You give a 100-point test. The students make scores of 95,92, and 91, respectively, while the
other 22 students in the class got scores ranging from 33 to 67. The measure of central
tendency which is apt to best describe for this group of 25 students is ____________.

A. the mean C. an average of the median and mode


B. the mode D. the median
Answer. Option A because using the mean, you are going to utilize all the scores of the
studens. Thus, using mean, you can describe best their group performance.
6. Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT?

A. The lower the standard deviation the more spread the scores are.
B. The higher the standard deviation the less spread the scores are.
C. The higher the standard deviation the more spread the scores are.
D. It is a measure of central tendency.

Answer. Option C because in standard deviation, it can be said that, the higher the value of
standard deviation on the average, the scores are far from the mean value. Thus, scores are
more scattered. On the other hand, the smaller the value of the standard deviation on the
average, the scores are closer to the mean value. Thus, the scores are closer to each other.

7. The index of difficulty of a particulat test item is 0.10. What does this mean? My students
____________.

A. gained mastery over than item


B. performed very well against expectation
C. found that test item was either easy nor difficult
D. were hard up in that item
Answer. Option D because an item with a difficulty index of 0.10 has a difficulty level of
very difficult. Hence, students were hard up in that item.

8. The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that ____________.

A. Twenty-five is the score that occurs least.


B. Twenty-five is the score that occurs most.
C. Twenty-five is the average of the score distribution.
D. There is no score of 25
Answer. Option B. The definition of the mode is the score/s that occurred most in the
distribution. If 25 is the mode value, then 25 occurred most in the distribution.

9. After teaching lessons, Ms. Cho gave a quiz to her class. Which does she give?

A. Diagnostic test C. Performance test


B. Summative test D. Formative test
Answer. Option D because formative evaluation is given during or after instruction.

10. The variance, standard deviation, and range are all measures of ____________.

A. variability C. grouping
B. central tendency D. partition values
Answer. Option A because the types of mesures of central variability are range, interquartile
range, mean deviation, variance, and standard deviation.
11. If teacher gets the difference between the highest score and the lowest score, he obtains the
____________.

A. range C. mean
B. standard deviation D. index of difficulty
Answer. Option A because if you are going to solve the difference between the highest score
and the lowest score then you are solving for the value of range. Using the formula:
Range=Highest Score-Lowest Score.

12. Which applies when the score distribution is concentrated on the left side of the curve?

A. Bell curve C. Bimodal


B. Positively skewed D. Negatively skewed
Answer. Option B because when the scores are concentrated at the left part of the curve, it is
called positively skewed.

13. In a normal curve distribution, about how many percent of the cases fall between -1SD to
+1SD?

A. 34.13% C. 15.73%
B. 68.26% D. 49.86%
Answer. Option B because the area of -1SD to +1SD of a normal distribution is 68.26%.
That is, from -1SD to mean is 34.13% and from mean to +1SD is also 34.13%. Thus, the
sum is 68.26%.

14. The scores of the students in a tutorial class are as follows: 82, 82, 85, 86, 87, 94, 98. The
score 86 is the ___________.

A. Mean C. Mean and Median


B. Mode D. Median
Answer. Option D because 86 is the middle most score in the distribution, which is the
median value.

15. Teacher Ruiz Glenn gave a chapter test. In which compentency did has students find the
greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ___________.
A. 0.15 C. 0.93
B. 1.0 D. 0.51
Answer. Option A because an item is very difficult when the difficulty index range 0-0.20.

16. The discrimination index of a test item is -0.46. What does this imply?
A. More students from the upper group answered the item incorrectly.
B. More students from the upper group answered the item correctly.
C. More students from the lower group answered the item correctly.
D. The number of students from the lower group and upper group who answered the item
correctly are equal.
Answer. Option C because the discrimination index is negative, which means that more
students from the lower group answered the item correctly.

17. Which statement is true when the value of standard deviation is small?

A. The scores are found at the extremes of the distribution.


B. The scores are spread out from the mean value.
C. The scores are concentrated around the mean value.
D. The shape of the distribution is a bell curve.
Answer. Option C because the smaller the value of the standard deviation, the scores are
concentrated or more closer from the mean value.
18. Which of the following statement is one of the characteristics of a normal curve distribution?

A. There are more high scores than low scores.


B. The scores are normally distributed.
C. Most of the scores are low.
D. There are more low scores than high scores.
Answer. Option B because a normal curve distribution is a kind of distribution where scores
are normally distributed below and above the mean value.
19. The score distribution is 50, 49, 49, 49, 48, 48, 40, 39, 39, 39, 35, 30, 30, 30, 26, 26, 25,
24, 24, 20, 20, 20, 19, 15, 14, 13, 10, 10. Which is the best way to describe the given score
distribution?

A. There are more high scores than low scores.


B. The scores are normally distributed.
C. Most of the scores are low.
D. There are more low scores than high scores.
Answer. Option D, multimodal is a score distribution that consists of more than two modes.

20. Which of the following measure/s of central tendency is most appropriate when the
distribution is skewed?

A. mean and median


B. median only
C. mean only
D. mode
Answer. Option B. Median is the most appropriate measure of central tendency to used when
the distribution is skewed.
21. Teacher Gerald gave a 50- item test where the mean performance of the class is 35 with a
standard deviation of 7. Ace got a score of 41. What description rating should Teacher
Gerald give to Ace?

E. Poor G. Average
F. Outstanding H. Above average
Answer. Option D because the score of Ace is within above the average scale.

22. Which of the following statements best describes negatively skewed distribution mean?

E. Most of the scores of the test-takers above the mean.


F. Most of the scores of the test-takers are low.
G. Most of the scores of the test-takers are normally distributed.
H. The mean and the median of the test-takers are equal.
Answer. Option A because the graphical representation of the scores where most of the
scores above the mean is negatively skewed.
23. What does positively skewed distribution mean?

A. The mean is less than the median.


B. The mean is greater than the median.
C. The mean is equal to the median.
D. The scores are normally distributed.
Answer. Option B. A positively skewed distribution implies that the mean is greater than the
median.
24. In the parlance of the test construction, what does TOS mean?

A. Test of Specifics
B. Term of Specifications
C. Table of Specifications
D. Table of Specific Item Test
Answer. Option C. TOS means Table of Specifications
25. Ritz Glenn obtained a NSAT percentile rank of 98. This implies that___________.

A. Ritz Glenn answered 98 items correctly.


B. Ritz Glenn got score of 98.
C. Ritz Glenn performed better than 2% of his fellow examinees.
D. Ritz Glenn performed better than 98% of his fellow examinees.

Answer. Option D. A percentile rank of 98% of the examinees got a score below the score of
Ritz Glenn. Hence, Ritz Glenn performed better than 98% of his fellow examinees.
26. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against a set mastery level. This mean that NSAT
and NEAT fall under ___________.

A. intelligence test C. criterion-referenced test


B. aptitude test D. norm-referenced test

Answer. Option C, because a criterion-referenced test describes the student’s mastery of the
objectives.

27. Forty students took an examination in Mathematics. Below are their scores.
Scores Number of students
10-14 1
15-19 5
20-24 10
25-29 15
30-34 9
In which interval does the median value lie?

A. 10-14 C. 25-29
B. 20-24 D. Between 20-24 and 25-29

Answer. Option C because 50% or 20 of the students who took the examination lies ont he
interval 25-29.

28. Using question No. 78, how many percent of the students got a score below 20?

A. 2.5% C. 25%
B. 12.5% D. 15%
Answer. Option D.

29. Which of the following measures of variation is easily affected by the extreme scores?

A. range C. variance
B. inter-quartile D. standard deviation
Answer. Option A. Range is easily affected by the extreme scores, if there is a change in
either the highest score or lowest score, the value of the range easily changes.

30. Which of the following measures of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores?

A. mean C. mode
B. median D. quartile
Answer. Option A, mean easily affected by the extreme scores. If there is a change in the
highest score, the mean value is pulled up, while if the lowest score becomes smaller, the
mean value is pulled down.
31. Teacher James Vincent gave a test in Science. The facility index of item No.6 is 96%. The
best way to describe No.6 is ___________.

A. difficult item C. very difficult item


B. very easy item D. average item
Answer. Option B because 96% of the students got the item number correctly.

32. The computed r for the scores in Mathematics and English is 0.95. What does this imply?

A. The English score is not related to the Mathematics score.


B. The Mathematics score is not related to the English score.
C. The Mathematics score is positively related to the English score.
D. The lower the score in English, the higher the score in Mathematics.
Answer. Option C because the computed value of r= 0.95, which shows a highly positive
correlation.

33. Teacher Marcy gave a test in English. Item No.18 has a difficulty index of 0.85 and
discrimination index of -0.10. What should teacher Marcy do?

A. retain the item C. reject the item


B. make the item bonus D. reject it and make the item bonus

Answer. Option C because the item is very easy and is questionable item. Hence, she should
reject the item.

34. Which of the following measure(s) of central tendency can be determined by mere inspection
discrimination index of -0.10. What should teacher Marcy do?

A. Median C. Mean
B. Mode D. Mode and Median
Answer. Option B because mode can be identified by just counting the score/s that occurred
most in the distribution.
35. The table below shows an item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of
distracters based on the results of a try-out test in Mathematics. The letter mark with an
asterisk is the correct answer.
Item No.6 A* B C D
Upper 27% 16 3 1 10
Below 27% 10 9 2 8
Based on the given table, which the most effective distracter?

A. Option E C. Option B
B. Option A D. Option C

Answer. Letter C, because more students from lower group chose the incorrect option.
36. Based from the given table, which group got more correct answers?

A. Both groups were tied. C. Upper group


B. Lower group D. It can not be determined
Answer. Letter C, because more students from upper group got the correct answer.
37. The table shows that the test item analyzed is ___________.

A. moderately difficult
B. has a positive discrimination index
C. has a negative discrimination index
D. very easy
Answer. Option B, because positive discrimination means that more students from the upper
group got the item correctly more than the lower group.
38. The criteon success in Teacher Luis Adrian’s objectives is that “the students must be able to
solve 75% of the worded problem correctly”. Ritz and 29 others in the class answered only
18 out 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Luis Adrian ___________.

A. attained his lesson objective because of his effective problem solving skills
B. did not attain his lesson objective because his students lack of attention
C. attained his lesson objective
D. did not attain his lesson objective as far as the 30 students are concerned.
Answer. Option D, becauseonly 72% of the given items answered by the students correctly.
39. Which of the following considerations is/ are important in developing a score rubric?
I. Description of each criteria to serve as standard
II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level
III. Rating scale
IV. Mastery levels of achievement

A. I only C. I and II
B. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV
Answer. Option D, because all the given statements are essential in constructing scoring
rubrics.
40. Which of the given statement is true about rubrics

A. It is analytical C. It is developmental
B. It is holistic D. It is both analytical and holistic
Answer. Option C because a rubric is developmental.
41. Which is the most reliable tool for seeing the development in your pupils’ ability to write?

A. Interview of pupils B. Self-assessment


C. Scoring rubric D. Portfolio assessment

Answer. Option D, through portfolio assessment, you can measure the students’ growth and
development.
42. Which statement about perfoemance-based assessment is FALSE?
A. They merely emphasize process.
B. They also stress on doing, noy only knowing.
C. Essay tests are example of performance-based assessments.
D. They accentuate on process as well as product.

Answer. Option A, because performance-based assessment emphasizes both process and


product.
43. Which of the following can measure awareness of values?
A. Rating scales C. Role playing
B. Projective technique D. Moral dilemma

Answer. Option D, because moral dilemma was used by Kohlberg and other researchers to
test the awareness of values.
44. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we are talking about projective
personality test?

A. Sentence completion test C. Interview


B. Word association test D. Thematic Apperception test

Answer. Option C, because Sentence Completion test, Word association test, and Thematic
Apperception test are all projective personality tests, while interview can not be considered a
test per se.

45. What type of validity is needed for a test on course objectives and scopes?
A. Content C. Criterion
B. Concurrent D. Construct

Answer. Option A, because in content validity, it is a validation that refers to the relationship
between a test and the instructional objectives. It establishes the content so that the test
measures what it is supposed to measure.

46. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J and his classmates at once
remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this mean?

A. Reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior.


B. The parents of student J must be the deliquent type.
C. Student J is a “problem” student
D. Guidance counselors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient.”

Answer. Option A because usually, the students are confused between Guidance Counselor
and Perfect of Discipline.
47. Which of the following statements talks about one of the strengths of an autobiography as a
technique for personality appraisal?

A. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering techniques.


B. It may be read by unauthorized people.
C. It gives complete data about the author.
D. It makes the presentation of intimate experiences possible.
Answer. Option D because it allows the author to share intimate details about his life.
48. Carl Roger is considered the main proponent of ___________ counseling.
A. Non-Directive C. Rational Emotive
B. Directive D. Psychotherapy
Answer. Option B because confidentiality states that whatever transpires in the Guidance
Room will remain there.
49. Counselor Oliver shares the secrets of his counselee with other members of the faculty. The
counselor violates the principle of?

A. secrecy C. ethics
B. confidentiality D. promise

Answer. Option B because confidentiality states that whatever transpires in the Guidance
Room will remain there.

50. He is considered the father of counseling in the Philippines.


A. Father Bulatao
B. Sinforoso Padilla
C. Dean Rose Clemenia
D. Sigmund Freud

Answer. Option A, because the counselor break confidentiality rule in cases of planned
suicide or planned hurting/ killing of somebody.
.

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