1.

A vault is opened by applying a force of 300 N perpendicular to the

plane of the door, 0.80 m

from the hinges. Find the torque due to this force about an axis through the

hinges.

a. 120 N⋅ m

b. 240 N⋅ m

c. 300 N⋅ m

d. 360 N⋅ m

2. A 3.0-m rod is pivoted about its left end. A force of 6.0 N is applied

perpendicular to the rod

at a distance of 1.2 m from the pivot causing a ccw torque, and a force of

5.2 N is applied at

the end of the rod 3.0 m from the pivot. The 5.2 N is at an angle of 30o

to the rod and causes a

cw torque. What is the net torque about the pivot?

a. 15 N·m

b. 0 N·m

c. -6.3 N·m

d. -0.6 N·m

A rod of length L is pivoted about its left end and has a force F applied

perpendicular to the

other end. The force F is now removed and another force F' is applied at

the midpoint of the

rod. If F' is at an angle of 30°

with respect to the rod, what is its magnitude if the resulting

torque is the same as when F was applied?

a. F

b. 2F

c. 3F

d. 4F

4. Two children seat themselves on a seesaw. The one on the left has a

weight of 400 N while

the one on the right weighs 300 N. The fulcrum is at the midpoint of the

seesaw. If the child

on the left is not at the end but is 1.50 m from the fulcrum and the seesaw

is balanced, what is

the torque provided by the weight of the child on the right?

a. 600 N·m

b. 450 N·m

c. -600 N·m

d. -450 N·m

5. A bucket filled with water has a mass of 23 kg and is attached to a rope,

which in turn, is

wound around a 0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. What torque

does the weight of

water and bucket produce on the cylinder if the cylinder is not permitted
to rotate? (g = 9.8

m/s2

a. 34 N⋅ m

b. 17 N⋅ m

c. 11 N⋅ m

d. 23 N⋅ m

6. A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope, which in

turn, is wound around

a 0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. A crank with a turning

radius of 0.25 m is

attached to the end of the cylinder. What minimum force directed

perpendicular to the crank

handle is required to just raise the bucket? (Assume the rope's mass is

negligible, that

cylinder turns on frictionless bearings, and that g = 9.8 m/s2

.)

a. 45 N

b. 68 N

c. 90 N

d. 135 N

7. A uniform bridge span weighs 50.0 × 103

N and is 40.0 m long. An automobile weighing

15.0 × 103

N is parked with its center of gravity located 12.0 m from the right pier.

What

upward support force does the left pier provide?

a. 29.5 × 103 N

b. 35.5 × 103

c. 65.0 × 103 N

d. 32.5 × 103

Masses are distributed in the x,y-plane as follows: 6.0 kg at (0.0, 0.0) m,

4.0 kg at (2.0, 0.0)

m, and 5.0 kg at (2.0, 3.0) m. What is the x-coordinate of the center of

gravity of this system

of masses?

a. 18 m

b. 2.0 m

c. 1.2 m

d. 1.0 m

9. Masses are distributed in the xy-plane as follows: 10 kg at (2.0, 6.0) m,

4.0 kg at (2.0, 0.0) m,

and 6.0 kg at (0.0, 3.0) m. Where would a 20-kg mass need to be

positioned so that the center

of gravity of the resulting four mass system would be at the origin?

a. (1.4, 3.9) m

b. (3.9, 1.4) m

c. (-1.4, -3.9) m

d. (-3.9, -1.4) m

A hoop of radius 1.0 m is placed in the first quadrant of an xy-coordinate

system with its rim

touching both the x-axis and the y-axis. What are the coordinates of its

center of gravity?

a. (1.0, 1.0) m

b. (0.7, 0.7) m

c. (0.5, 0.5) m

d. Since there is nothing at the center of the hoop, it has no center of

gravity.

. Tasha has mass 20 kg and wants to use a 4.0-m board of mass 10 kg as

a seesaw. Her friends

are busy, so Tasha seesaws by herself by putting the support at the system's

center of gravity

when she sits on one end of the board. How far is she from the support

point?

a. 2.0 m

b. 1.0 m
c. 0.67 m

d. 0.33 m

An 80-kg man is one fourth of the way up a 10-m ladder that is resting

against a smooth,

frictionless wall. If the ladder has a mass of 20 kg and it makes an angle of

60° with the

ground, find the force of friction of the ground on the foot of the ladder.

a. 7.8 x 102

b. 2.0 x 102

c. 50 N

d. 1.7 x 102

A 100-N uniform ladder, 8.0 m long, rests against a smooth vertical wall.

The coefficient of

static friction between ladder and floor is 0.40. What minimum angle can

the ladder make

with the floor before it slips?

a. 22°

b. 51°

c. 18°

d. 42°
B

4. A meter stick is supported by a knife-edge at the 50-cm mark. Doug

hangs masses of 0.40

and 0.60 kg from the 20-cm and 80-cm marks, respectively. Where

should Doug hang a third

mass of 0.30 kg to keep the stick balanced?

a. 20 cm

b. 70 cm

c. 30 cm

d. 25 cm

An 800-N billboard worker stands on a 4.0-m scaffold supported by

vertical ropes at each

end. If the scaffold weighs 500 N and the worker stands 1.0 m from one

end, what is the

tension in the rope nearest the worker?

a. 450 N

b. 500 N

c. 800 N

d. 850 N

16. An 800-N billboard worker stands on a 4.0-m scaffold weighing 500

N and supported by

vertical ropes at each end. How far would the worker stand from one of the
supporting ropes

to produce a tension of 550 N in that rope?

a. 1.4 m

b. 2.0 m

c. 2.5 m

d. 2.7 m

. A woman who weighs 500 N stands on an 8.0-m-long board that weighs

100 N. The board is

supported at each end. The support force at the right end is 3 times the

support force at the

left end. How far from the right end is the woman standing?

a. 4.0 m

b. 2.0 m

c. 2.7 m

d. 1.6 m

8. A uniform, horizontal beam of length 6.0 m and weight 120 N is

attached at one end to a wall

by a pin connection (so that it may rotate). A cable attached to the wall

above the pin

supports the opposite end. The cable makes an angle of 60° with the

horizontal. What is the

tension in the cable needed to maintain the beam in equilibrium?

a. 35 N
b. 69 N

c. 60 N

d. 120 N

19. A uniform 1.0-N meter stick is suspended horizontally by vertical

strings attached at each

end. A 2.0-N weight is suspended from the 10-cm position on the stick,

another 2.0-N weight

is suspended from the 50 cm position, and a 3.0-N weight is suspended

from the 60 cm

position. What is the tension in the string attached at the 100-cm end of

the stick?

a. 1.9 N

b. 3.0 N

c. 3.5 N

d. 4.0 N

0. The quantity "moment of inertia" (in terms of the fundamental quantities

of mass, length, and

time) is equivalent to:

a. ML2

T−2

b. ML.

c. ML2
.

d. ML−1

T−2

21. A 4.2-kg mass is placed at (3.0, 4.0) m. Where can an 8.4-kg mass be

placed so that the

moment of inertia about the z-axis is zero?

a. (-3.0, -4.0) m

b. (-6.0, -8.0) m

c. (-1.5, -2.0) m

d. There is no position giving this result.

A 4.0-kg mass is placed at (3.0, 4.0) m, and a 6.0-kg mass is placed at

(3.0, -4.0) m. What is

the moment of inertia of this system of masses about the x-axis?

a. 160 kg·m2

b. 90 kg·m2

c. 250 kg·m2

d. 32 kg·m2

A 4.0-kg mass is placed at (3.0, 4.0) m, and a 6.0-kg mass is placed at

(3.0, -4.0) m. What is

the moment of inertia of this system of masses about the y-axis?

a. 160 kg·m2

b. 90 kg·m2

c. 250 kg·m2

d. 180 kg·m2

24. A 4.0-kg mass is placed at (3.0, 4.0) m, and a 6.0-kg mass is placed

at (3.0, -4.0) m. What is

the moment of inertia of this system of masses about the z-axis?

a. 160 kg·m2

b. 90 kg·m2

c. 250kg·m2

d. 180 kg·m2

5. If a net torque is applied to an object, that object will experience:

a. a constant angular speed.

b. an angular acceleration.

c. a constant moment of inertia.

d. an increasing moment of inertia.

6. According to Newton's second law, the angular acceleration experienced

by an object is

directly proportional to:

a. its moment of inertia.

b. the net applied torque.

c. the object's size.

d. choices a and b above are both valid.

27. A ventilation fan with a moment of inertia of 0.034 kg⋅ m2

has a net torque of 0.11 N⋅ m

applied to it. What angular acceleration does it experience?

a. 5.3 rad/s2

b. 4.0 rad/s2

c. 3.2 rad/s2

d. 0.31 rad/s2

8. A disk has a moment of inertia of 3.0 × 10−4

kg⋅ m2

and rotates with an angular speed of 3.5

rad/sec. What net torque must be applied to bring it to rest within 3 s?

a. 4.5 × 10−3

N⋅ m

b. 7.5 × 10−4

N⋅ m

c. 3.5 × 10−4

N⋅ m

d. 5.0 × 10−4

N⋅ m

C
29. The Earth moves about the Sun in an elliptical orbit. As the Earth

moves closer to the Sun,

which of the following best describes the Earth-Sun system's moment of

inertia?

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains constant

d. none of the above choices are valid

A bowling ball has a mass of 7.0 kg, a moment of inertia of 2.8 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

and a radius of

0.10 m. If it rolls down the lane without slipping at a linear speed of 4.0

m/s, what is its

angular speed?

a. 0.80 rad/s

b. 10 rad/s

c. 0.050 rad/s

d. 40 rad/s

A baseball pitcher, loosening up his arm before a game, tosses a 0.15-kg

ball using only the

rotation of his forearm, 0.32 m in length, to accelerate the ball. If the ball

starts at rest and is

released with a speed of 12 m/s in a time of 0.40 s, what is the average

angular acceleration of

the arm and ball?

a. 0.067 rad/s2

b. 94 rad/s2

c. 15 rad/s2

d. 37 rad/s2

A baseball pitcher loosens up his pitching arm. He tosses a 0.15-kg ball

using only the

rotation of his forearm, 0.32 m in length, to accelerate the ball. What is

the moment of inertia

of the ball alone as it moves in a circular arc with a radius of 0.32 m?

a. 1.5 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

b. 16 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

c. 4.0 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

d. 7.6 × 10−2 kg⋅ m2

33. A baseball pitcher loosens up his pitching arm. He tosses a 0.15-kg ball

using only the

rotation of his forearm, 0.32 m in length, to accelerate the ball. If the ball

starts at rest and is

released with a speed of 12 m/s in a time of 0.40 s, what torque is applied

to the ball while

being held by the pitcher's hand to produce the angular acceleration?

a. 1.1 N⋅ m

b. 11 N⋅ m

c. 7.2 N⋅ m

d. 1.4 N⋅ m

A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope, which in

turn is wound around

a 0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. A crank with a turning

radius of 0.25 m is

attached to the end of the cylinder and the moment of inertia of cylinder

and crank is 0.12

kg⋅ m2

. If the bucket is raised to the top of the well and released, what is the

acceleration of

the bucket as it falls toward the bottom of the well? (Assume rope's mass is

negligible, that

cylinder turns on frictionless bearings and that g = 9.8 m/s2

.)

a. 3.2 m/s2

b. 6.3 m/s2

c. 7.4 m/s2

d. 9.8 m/s2

A
5. A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope, which in

turn is wound around

a 0.050-m radius cylinder at the top of a well. The bucket is raised to the

top of the well and

released. The bucket is moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s upon hitting the

water surface in the

well. What is the angular speed of the cylinder at this instant?

a. 39 rad/s

b. 79 rad/s

c. 120 rad/s

d. 160 rad/s

A majorette takes two batons and fastens them together in the middle at

right angles to make

an "x" shape. Each baton was 0.80 m long and each ball on the end is 0.20

kg. (Ignore the

mass of the rods.) What is the moment of inertia if the arrangement is spun

around an axis

formed by one of the batons?

a. 0.048 kg⋅ m2

b. 0.064 kg⋅ m2

c. 0.19 kg⋅ m2

d. 0.32 kg⋅ m2

B
A majorette takes two batons and fastens them together in the middle at

right angles to make

an "x" shape. Each baton was 0.80 m long and each ball on the end is 0.20

kg. (Ignore the

mass of the rods.) What is the moment of inertia if the arrangement is spun

around an axis

through the center perpendicular to both rods?

a. 0.064 kg⋅ m2

b. 0.096 kg⋅ m2

c. 0.13 kg⋅ m2

d. 0.32 kg⋅ m

A solid cylinder (I = MR2

/2) has a string wrapped around it many times. When I release the

cylinder, holding on to the string, the cylinder falls and spins as the string

unwinds. What is

the downward acceleration of the cylinder as it falls?

a. 0

b. 4.9 m/s2

c. 6.5 m/s2

d. 9.8 m/s2

A 40-kg boy is standing on the edge of a stationary 30-kg platform that is

free to rotate. The

boy tries to walk around the platform in a counterclockwise direction. As he

does:

a. the platform doesn't rotate.

b. the platform rotates in a clockwise direction just fast enough so that the

boy remains

stationary relative to the ground.

c. the platform rotates in a clockwise direction while the boy goes around in

counterclockwise direction relative to the ground.

d. both go around with equal angular velocities but in opposite directions.

A rod of length L is hinged at one end. The moment of inertia as the rod

rotates around that

hinge is ML2

/3. Suppose a 2.00-m rod with a mass of 3.00 kg is hinged at one end and

is held

in a horizontal position. The rod is released as the free end is allowed to fall.

What is the

angular acceleration as it is released?

a. 3.70 rad/s2

b. 7.35 rad/s2

c. 2.45 rad/s2

d. 4.90 rad/s2

B
Two hoops or rings (I = MR2

) are centered, lying on a turntable. The smaller ring has radius =

0.050 m; the larger has radius = 0.10 m. Both have a mass of 3.0 kg.

What is the total

moment of inertia as the turntable spins? Ignore the mass of the turntable.

a. 0.030 kg⋅ m2

b. 0.007 5 kg⋅ m2

c. 0.038 kg⋅ m2

d. 0.075 kg⋅ m2

An automobile accelerates from zero to 30 m/s in 6.0 s. The wheels have a

diameter of 0.40

m. What is the average angular acceleration of each wheel?

a. 5.0 rad/s2

b. 15 rad/s2

c. 25 rad/s2

d. 35 rad/s2

43. An object consists of a rod (of length 3.0 m and negligible moment of

inertia) to which four

small 2.0-kg masses are attached, one at each end and one at each point

on the rod 1.0 m from

each end. (The masses are one meter apart.) The moment of inertia of this

object about an

axis perpendicular to the rod and through one of the inner masses:
a. is 72 kg⋅ m2

b. is 12 kg⋅ m2

c. is 4 kg⋅ m2

d. cannot be uniquely determined until it is stated which inner mass the

axis

goes through.

44. A ventilation fan with a moment of inertia of 0.034 kg⋅ m2

has a net torque of 0.11 N⋅ m

applied to it. If it starts from rest, what kinetic energy will it have 8.0 s

later?

a. 31 J

b. 17 J

c. 11 J

d. 6.6 J

45. The total kinetic energy of a baseball thrown with a spinning motion is

a function of:

a. its linear speed but not rotational speed.

b. its rotational speed but not linear speed.

c. both linear and rotational speeds.

d. neither linear nor rotational speed.

C

A bowling ball has a mass of 7.0 kg, a moment of inertia of 2.8 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

and a radius of

0.10 m. If it rolls down the lane without slipping at a linear speed of 4.0

m/s, what is its total

kinetic energy?

a. 45 J

b. 32 J

c. 11 J

d. 78 J

47. A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope, which

in turn is wound around

a 0.050-m radius cylinder, with crank, at the top of a well. The moment

of inertia of the

cylinder and crank is 0.12 kg⋅ m2

. The bucket is raised to the top of the well and released to

fall back into the well. What is the kinetic energy of the cylinder and crank

at the instant the

bucket is moving with a speed of 8.0 m/s?

a. 2.1 × 103 J

b. 1.5 × 103 J

c. 0.70 × 103 J

d. 0.40 × 103 J
B

A solid sphere of mass 4.0 kg and radius 0.12 m is at rest at the top of a

ramp inclined 15°. It

rolls to the bottom without slipping. The upper end of the ramp is 1.2 m

higher than the lower

end. Find the sphere's total kinetic energy when it reaches the bottom.

a. 70 J

b. 47 J

c. 18 J

d. 8.8 J

A solid sphere of mass 4.0 kg and radius 0.12 m starts from rest at the

top of a ramp inclined

15°, and rolls to the bottom. The upper end of the ramp is 1.2 m higher

than the lower end.

What is the linear speed of the sphere when it reaches the bottom of the

ramp? (Note: I =

0.4MR2

for a solid sphere and g = 9.8 m/s2

a. 4.7 m/s

b. 4.1 m/s

c. 3.4 m/s

d. 2.4 m/s

B
. A solid cylinder of mass 3.0 kg and radius 0.2 m starts from rest at the

top of a ramp, inclined

15°, and rolls to the bottom without slipping. (For a cylinder I = 0.5MR2

) The upper end of

the ramp is 1.2 m higher than the lower end. Find the linear speed of the

cylinder when it

reaches the bottom of the ramp. (g = 9.8 m/s2

a. 4.7 m/s

b. 4.3 m/s

c. 4.0 m/s

d. 2.4 m/s

A gyroscope has a moment of inertia of 0.14 kg⋅ m2

and an initial angular speed of 15 rad/s.

Friction in the bearings causes its speed to reduce to zero in 30 s. What is

the value of the

average frictional torque?

a. 3.3 × 10−2

N⋅ m

b. 8.1 × 10−2

N⋅ m

c. 14 × 10−2

N⋅ m

d. 7.0 × 10−2 N⋅ m
D

A gyroscope has a moment of inertia of 0.140 kg⋅ m2 and has an initial

angular speed of 15.0

rad/s. If a lubricant is applied to the bearings of the gyroscope so that

frictional torque is

reduced to 2.00 × 10−2

N⋅ m, then in what time interval will the gyroscope coast from 15.0

rad/s to zero?

a. 150 s

b. 105 s

c. 90.0 s

d. 180 s

. A cylinder with its mass concentrated toward the center has a moment of

inertia of 0.1 MR2

If this cylinder is rolling without slipping along a level surface with a linear

speed v, what is

the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to its linear kinetic energy?

a. 1/l0

b. 1/5

c. 1/2

d. 1/1

A
A solid sphere with mass, M, and radius, R, rolls along a level surface

without slipping with a

linear speed, v. What is the ratio of rotational to linear kinetic energy? (For

a solid sphere, I =

0.4 MR2

).

a. 1/4

b. 1/2

c. 1/1

d. 2/5

A rotating flywheel can be used as a method to store energy. If it is

required that such a

device be able to store up to a maximum of 1.00 × 106

J when rotating at 400 rad/s, what

moment of inertia is required?

a. 50 kg⋅ m2

b. 25 kg⋅ m2

c. 12.5 kg⋅ m2

d. 6.3 kg⋅ m2

56. A rotating flywheel can be used as a method to store energy. If it has

1.0 × 106

J of kinetic

energy when rotating at 400 rad/s, and if a frictional torque of 4.0 N⋅ m

acts on the system, in

what interval of time would the flywheel come to rest?

a. 3.5 min

b. 7.0 min

c. 14 min

d. 21 min

An initially installed flywheel can store 106

J of kinetic energy when rotating at 300 rad/s. It

is replaced by another flywheel of the same size but made of a lighter and

stronger material.

If its mass is half that of the original and it is now capable of achieving a

rotational speed of

600 rad/s, what maximum energy can be stored?

a. 40 × 105

b. 20 × 105

c. 10 × 105 J

d. 5.0 × 105

58. A cylinder (I = MR2

/2) is rolling along the ground at 7.0 m/s. It comes to a hill and starts

going up. Assuming no losses to friction, how high does it get before it stops?
a. 1.2 m

b. 3.7 m

c. 4.2 m

d. 5.9 m

59. A meter stick is hinged at its lower end and allowed to fall from a

vertical position. If its

moment of inertia is ML2

/3, with what angular speed does it hit the table?

a. 5.42 rad/s

b. 2.71 rad/s

c. 1.22 rad/s

d. 7.67 rad/s

60. A bus is designed to draw its power from a rotating flywheel that is

brought up to its

maximum speed (3 000 rpm) by an electric motor. The flywheel is a solid

cylinder of mass

500 kg and radius 0.500 m (Icylinder = MR2

/2). If the bus requires an average power of 10.0

kW, how long will the flywheel rotate?

a. 154 s

b. 308 s

c. 463 s

d. 617 s
B

1. An object of radius R and moment of inertia I rolls down an incline of

height H after starting

from rest. Its total kinetic energy at the bottom of the incline:

a. is gR/I.

b. is I/gH.

c. is 0.5 Ig/H.

d. cannot be found from the given information alone.

62. A uniform solid sphere rolls down an incline of height 3 m after

starting from rest. In order

to calculate its speed at the bottom of the incline, one needs to know:

a. the mass of the sphere.

b. the radius of the sphere.

c. the mass and the radius of the sphere.

d. no more than is given in the problem.

63. Consider the use of the terms "rotation" and "revolution". In physics:

a. the words are used interchangeably.

b. the words are used interchangeably but "rotation" is the preferred word.

c. the words have different meaning.

d. "rotation" is the correct word and "revolution" should not be used.

C
64. A solid disk of radius R rolls down an incline in time T. The center of

the disk is removed up

to a radius of R/2. The remaining portion of the disk with its center gone is

again rolled

down the same incline. The time it takes is:

a. T.

b. more than T.

c. less than T.

d. requires more information than given in the problem to figure out.

65. The quantity "angular momentum" (in terms of the fundamental

quantities of mass, length,

and time) is equivalent to:

a. MLT−2

b. ML2

T−1

c. ML2

T−3

d. ML3

T.

B
6. A ventilation fan with a moment of inertia of 0.034 kg⋅ m2

has a net torque of 0.11 N⋅ m

applied to it. If it starts from rest, what angular momentum will it have

8.0 s later?

a. 0.88 kg⋅ m2

/s

b. 0.97 kg⋅ m2

/s

c. 2.0 kg⋅ m2

/s

d. 3.25 kg⋅ m2

/s

67. A figure skater with arms initially extended starts spinning on the ice

at 3 rad/s. She then

pulls her arms in close to her body. Which of the following results?

a. a smaller rotational rate

b. a greater rotational rate

c. a greater angular momentum

d. a smaller angular momentum

68. An ice skater spins at 2.5 rev/s when his arms are extended. He draws

his arms in and spins at

6.0 rev/s. By what factor does his moment of inertia change in the process?

a. 2.4
b. 1.0

c. 0.42

d. 0.12

69. A figure skater on ice with arms extended, spins at a rate of 2.5 rev/s.

After he draws his arms

in, he spins at 6.0 rev/s. By what factor does the skater's kinetic energy

change when he

draws his arms in?

a. 2.4

b. 1.0

c. 0.42

d. 0.12

70. A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.00 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

and spins freely on a frictionless

bearing at 25.0 rev/min. A 0.300-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically

onto the turntable and

sticks at a point 0.100 m from the center. What is the new rate of rotation

of the system?

a. 40.8 rev/min

b. 22.7 rev/min

c. 33.3 rev/min

d. 27.2 rev/min
B

A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.00 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

and spins freely on a frictionless

bearing at 25.0 rev/min. A 0.300-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically on

the turntable and

sticks at a point 0.100 m from the center. By what factor does the angular

momentum of the

system change after the putty is dropped onto the turntable?

a. 1.22

b. 1.00 (no change)

c. 0.820

d. 1.50

72. A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.0 × 10−2

kg⋅ m2

and spins freely on a frictionless

bearing at 25 rev/min. A 0.30-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically on the

turntable and sticks

at a point 0.10 m from the center. By what factor does the kinetic energy

of the system

change after the putty is dropped onto the turntable?

a. 0.91

b. 1.0
c. 0.82

d. 1.5

73. The Earth's gravity exerts no torque on a satellite orbiting the Earth in

an elliptical orbit.

Compare the motion of the satellite at the point nearest the Earth (perigee)

to the motion at

the point farthest from the Earth (apogee). At these two points:

a. the tangential velocities are the same.

b. the angular velocities are the same.

c. the angular momenta are the same.

d. the kinetic energies are the same.

74. The Earth's gravity exerts no torque on a satellite orbiting the Earth in

an elliptical orbit.

Compare the motion at the point nearest the Earth (perigee) to the motion

at the point farthest

from the Earth (apogee). At the point closest to the Earth:

a. the angular speed will be greatest although the linear speed will be the

same.

b. the speed will be greatest although the angular speed will be the same.

c. the kinetic energy and angular momentum will both be greater.

d. None of the above.

D
75. A tetherball is attached to a pole with a 2.0-m rope. It is circling at

0.20 rev/s. As the rope

wraps around the pole it shortens. How long is the rope when the ball is

moving at 5.0 m/s?

a. 1.8 m

b. 1.5 m

c. 1.2 m

d. 1.0 m

76. An astronaut is on a 100-m lifeline outside a spaceship, circling the

ship with an angular

speed of 0.100 rad/s. How far inward can she be pulled before the

centripetal acceleration

reaches 5g = 49 m/s2

a. 10.1 m

b. 50.0 m

c. 72.7 m

d. 89.9 m

77. An object with mass m and moment of inertia I is spinning with an

angular momentum L. Its

kinetic energy is:

a. 0.5 I2

/L.
b. 0.5 L2

/I.

c. 0.5 L2

/m.

d. 0.5 I2

/m.

78. An object of mass m and moment of inertia I has rotational kinetic

energy KR. Its angular

momentum is:

a. 0.5 I/m.

b. (2 IKR)

1/2.

c. (2 mKR)

1/2.

d. not given above

1. Arrange from smallest to largest: the BTU, the joule, and the calorie.

a. BTU, J, cal

b. J, cal, BTU

c. cal, BTU, J

d. J, BTU, cal

B
2. Of the following systems, which contains the most heat?

a. 100 kg of water at 80°C

b. 250 kg of water at 40°C

c. 600 kg of ice at 0°C

d. Systems do not contain heat.

Heat flow occurs between two bodies in thermal contact when they differ in

what property?

a. mass

b. specific heat

c. density

d. temperature

4. Calories of the food type are equal to which of the following?

a. 4.186 J

b. 4 186 J

c. 1 BTU

d. 1054 J

5. Who demonstrated that when heat is gained or lost by a system during

some process, the gain

or loss can be accounted for by an equivalent quantity of mechanical work

done on the

system?
a. Joule

b. Boltzmann

c. Thompson, Count Rumford

d. Kelvin

6. The first experiment, which systematically demonstrated the equivalence

of mechanical

energy and heat, was performed by:

a. Joule.

b. Boltzmann.

c. Thompson, Count Rumford.

d. Kelvin.

7. If heat is flowing from a table to a block of ice moving across the table,

which of the

following must be true?

a. The table is rough and there is friction between the table and ice.

b. The ice is cooler than the table.

c. The ice is changing phase.

d. All three are possible, but none is absolutely necessary.

8. How many calories are equal to one BTU? (One calorie = 4.186 J, one

BTU = 1 054 J.)

a. 0.252
b. 3.97

c. 252

d. 397

9. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A hot object contains a lot of heat.

b. A cold object contains only a little heat.

c. Objects do not contain heat.

d. Statements a and b are true.

10. A 10-kg piece of aluminum (which has a specific heat of 900 J/kg⋅ °C)

is warmed so that its

temperature increases by 5.0 C°. How much heat was transferred into it?

a. 4.5 × 104

b. 9.0 × 104

c. 1.4 × 105

d. 2.0 × 105

11. Sea breezes that occur near the shore are attributed to a difference

between land and water

with respect to what property?

a. mass density

b. coefficient of volume expansion

c. specific heat

d. emissivity

12. On a sunny day at the beach, the reason the sand gets so hot and the

water stays relatively

cool is attributed to the difference in which property between water and

sand?

a. mass density

b. specific heat

c. temperature

d. thermal conductivity

13. Marc attaches a falling 500-kg object with a rope through a pulley to a

paddle wheel shaft. He

places the system in a well-insulated tank holding 25 kg of water. When

the object falls, it

causes the paddle wheel to rotate and churn the water. If the object falls a

vertical distance of

100 m at constant speed, what is the temperature change of the water? (1

kcal = 4 186 J, the

specific heat of water is 4 186 J/kg⋅ °C, and g = 9.8 m/s2

)
a. 19 600 C°

b. 4 700 C°

c. 4.7 C°

d. 0.8 C°

14. An inventor develops a stationary cycling device by which an individual,

while pedaling, can

convert all of the energy expended into heat for warming water. How much

mechanical

energy is required to increase the temperature of 300 g of water (enough

for 1 cup of coffee)

from 20°C to 95°C? (1 cal = 4.186 J, the specific heat of water is 4 186

J/kg⋅ °C)

a. 94 000 J

b. 22 000 J

c. 5 400 J

d. 14 J

15. An inventor develops a stationary cycling device by which an individual,

while pedaling, can

convert all of the energy expended into heat for warming water. What

minimum power must

be generated if 300 g water (enough for 1 cup of coffee) is to be heated in

10 min from 20°C

to 95°C? (1 cal = 4.186 J, the specific heat of water is 4 186 J/kg⋅ °C)
a. 9 400 W

b. 590 W

c. 160 W

d. 31 W

16. A 3.00-g lead bullet is traveling at a speed of 240 m/s when it embeds

in a wood post. If we

assume that half of the resultant heat energy generated remains with the

bullet, what is the

increase in temperature of the embedded bullet? (specific heat of lead =

0.030 5 kcal/kg⋅ °C, 1

kcal = 4 186 J)

a. 113°C

b. 137°C

c. 226°C

d. 259°C

17. A swimming pool heater has to be able to raise the temperature of the

40 000 gallons of water

in the pool by 10.0 C°. How many kilowatt-hours of energy are required?

(One gallon of

water has a mass of approximately 3.8 kg and the specific heat of water is

4 186 J/kg⋅ °C.)

a. 1 960 kWh

b. 1 770 kWh
c. 330 kWh

d. 216 kWh

18. A solar heated house loses about 5.4 × 107

cal through its outer surfaces on a typical 24-h

winter day. What mass of storage rock is needed to provide this amount of

heat if it is

brought up to initial temperature of 62°C by the solar collectors and the

house is maintained

at 20°C? (Specific heat of rock is 0.21 cal/g⋅ °C.)

a. 163 kg

b. 1 230 kg

c. 6 100 kg

d. 12 700 kg

19. A 0.2-kg aluminum plate, initially at 20°C, slides down a 15-m-long

surface, inclined at a 30°

angle to the horizontal. The force of kinetic friction exactly balances the

component of

gravity down the plane so that the plate, once started, glides down at

constant velocity. If

90% of the mechanical energy of the system is absorbed by the aluminum,

what is its

temperature increase at the bottom of the incline? (Specific heat for

aluminum is 900
J/kg⋅ °C.)

a. 0.16 C°

b. 0.07 C°

c. 0.04 C°

d. 0.03 C°

20. A waterfall is 145 m high. What is the increase in water temperature

at the bottom of the falls

if all the initial potential energy goes into heating the water? (g = 9.8 m/s2

, cw = 4 186

J/kg⋅ °C)

a. 0.16°C

b. 0.34°C

c. 0.69°C

d. 1.04°C

21. What is the temperature increase of 4.0 kg of water when heated by an

800-W immersion

heater for 10 min? (cw = 4 186 J/kg⋅ °C)

a. 56°C

b. 51°C

c. 29°C

d. 14°C

C
22. A solar heating system has a 25.0% conversion efficiency; the solar

radiation incident on the

panels is 1 000 W/m2

. What is the increase in temperature of 30.0 kg of water in a 1.00-h

period by a 4.00-m2

-area collector? (cw = 4 186 J/kg⋅ °C)

166

a. 14.3°C

b. 22.4°C

c. 28.7°C

d. 44.3°C

23. A machine gear consists of 0.10 kg of iron and 0.16 kg of copper. How

much total heat is

generated in the part if its temperature increases by 35 C°? (Specific heats

of iron and copper

are 450 and 390 J/kg⋅ °C, respectively.)

a. 910 J

b. 3 800 J

c. 4 000 J

d. 4 400 J

24. As I use sandpaper on some rusty metal, the sandpaper gets hot

because:
a. heat is flowing from the sandpaper into the metal.

b. heat is flowing from the metal into the sandpaper.

c. frictional processes increase the internal energy of the sandpaper.

d. heat is flowing from my hand into the sandpaper.

25. If a 1000-kg car was moving at 30 m/s, what would be its kinetic

energy expressed in the

unusual (for kinetic energy) units of calories? (1 cal = 4.186 J)

a. 3.0 × 104

b. 9.0 × 105

c. 3.8 × 106

d. 1.1 × 105

26. A 2.00-kg copper rod is 50.00 cm long at 23°C. If 40 000 J are

transferred to the rod by heat,

what is its change in length? ccopper = 387 J/kg·°C and αcopper = 17 ×

10-6/°C.

a. 0.022 cm

b. 0.044 cm

c. 0.059 cm

d. More information is needed.

27. A piece of copper of mass 100 g is being drilled through with a 1

/2" electric drill. The drill

operates at 40.0 W and takes 30.0 s to bore through the copper. If all the

energy from the

drill heats the copper, find the copper's increase in temperature. ccopper =

387 J/kg⋅ °C.

a. 40.6 C°

b. 34.7 C°

c. 31.0 C°

d. 27.3 C°

28. A slice of bread contains about 100 kcal. If specific heat of a person

were 1.00 kcal/kg·°C, by

how many °C would the temperature of a 70.0-kg person increase if all the

energy in the

bread were converted to heat?

167

a. 2.25°C

b. 1.86°C

c. 1.43°C

d. 1.00°C

29. A hot (70°C) lump of metal has a mass of 250 g and a specific heat of

0.25 cal/g⋅ °C. John

drops the metal into a 500-g calorimeter containing 75 g of water at

20°C. The calorimeter is

constructed of a material that has a specific heat of 0.10 cal/ g⋅ °C. When

equilibrium is

reached, what will be the final temperature? cwater = 1.00 cal/g⋅ °C.

a. 114°C

b. 72°C

c. 64°C

d. 37°C

30. An 80.0-g piece of copper, initially at 295°C, is dropped into 250 g of

water contained in a

300-g aluminum calorimeter; the water and calorimeter are initially at

10.0°C. What is the

final temperature of the system? (Specific heats of copper and aluminum

are 0.092 0 and

0.215 cal/g⋅ °C, respectively. cw = 1.00 cal/g°C)

a. 12.8°C

b. 16.5°C

c. 28.4°C

d. 32.1°C

31. A 120-g block of copper is taken from a kiln and quickly placed into a

beaker of negligible

heat capacity containing 300 g of water. The water temperature rises from

15°C to 35°C.

Given cCu = 0.10 cal/g⋅ °C, and cwater = 1.00 cal/g⋅ °C, what was the
temperature of the kiln?

a. 500°C

b. 360°C

c. 720°C

d. 535°C

32. Find the final equilibrium temperature when 10.0 g of milk at 10.0°C

is added to 160 g of

coffee at 90.0°C. (Assume the specific heats of coffee and milk are the same

as water and

neglect the heat capacity of the container.) cwater = 1.00 cal/g·°C = 4186

J/kg·°C

a. 85.3°C

b. 77.7°C

c. 71.4°C

d. 66.7°C

33. Twenty grams of a solid at 70°C is place in 100 grams of a fluid at

20°C. Thermal

equilibrium is reached at 30°C. The specific heat of the solid:

a. is equal to that of the fluid.

b. is less than that of the fluid.

c. is more than that of the fluid.

168

d. cannot be compared to that of a material in a different phase.

C

34. Which of the following best describes a substance in which the

temperature remains constant

while at the same time it is experiencing an inward heat flow?

a. gas

b. liquid

c. solid

d. substance undergoing a change of state

35. A 0.003 0-kg lead bullet is traveling at a speed of 240 m/s when it

embeds in a block of ice at

0°C. If all the heat generated goes into melting ice, what quantity of ice is

melted? (Lf = 80

kcal/kg, the specific heat of lead = 0.03 kcal/kg⋅ °C, and 1 kcal = 4 186 J)

a. 1.47 × 10−2 kg

b. 5.8 × 10−4

kg

c. 3.2 × 10−3

kg

d. 2.6 × 10−4

kg

36. A puddle holds 150 g of water. If 0.50 g of water evaporates from the

surface, what is the

approximate temperature change of the remaining water? (Lv = 540 cal/g)

a. +1.8 C°

b. -1.8 C°

c. +0.18 C°

d. −0.18 C°

37. Iced tea is made by adding ice to 1.8 kg of hot tea, initially at 80°C.

How many kg of ice,

initially at 0°C, are required to bring the mixture to 10°C? (Lf = 3.33 x

105

J/kg, cw = 4 186

J/kg⋅ °C)

a. 1.8 kg

b. 1.6 kg

c. 1.4 kg

d. 1.2 kg

38. A 50-g cube of ice, initially at 0.0°C, is dropped into 200 g of water in

an 80-g aluminum

container, both initially at 30°C. What is the final equilibrium temperature?

(Specific heat for

aluminum is 900 J/kg⋅ °C, the specific heat of water is 4 186 J/kg⋅ °C, and

Lf = 3.33 × 105

J/kg.)

a. 17.9°C
b. 9.5°C

c. 12.1°C

d. 20.6°C

39. 125 g of dry ice (solid CO2) is dropped into a beaker containing 500 g

of 66°C water. The dry

ice converts directly to gas, leaving the solution. When the dry ice is gone,

the final

temperature of the water is 29°C. What is the heat of vaporization of solid

CO2? (cwater = 1.00

cal/g⋅ °C)

a. 37 cal/g

b. 74 cal/g

c. 111 cal/g

d. 148 cal/g

40. In cloud formation, water vapor turns into water droplets which get

bigger and bigger until it

rains. This will cause the temperature of the air in the clouds to:

a. get warmer.

b. get cooler.

c. will not affect the temperature of the air in the clouds.

d. There is no air in clouds.

A
41. I take 1.0 kg of ice and dump it into 1.0 kg of water and, when

equilibrium is reached, I have

2.0 kg of ice at 0°C. The water was originally at 0°C. The specific heat of

water = 1.00

kcal/kg⋅ °C, the specific heat of ice = 0.50 kcal/kg⋅ °C, and the latent heat

of fusion of water is

80 kcal/kg. The original temperature of the ice was:

a. one or two degrees below 0°C.

b. −80°C.

c. −160°C.

d. The whole experiment is impossible.

42. How much heat energy is required to vaporize a 1.0-g ice cube at 0°C?

The heat of fusion of

ice is 80 cal/g. The heat of vaporization of water is 540 cal/g, and cwater

= 1.00 cal/g⋅ °C.

a. 620 cal

b. 720 cal

c. 820 cal

d. 1 kcal

43. How much heat energy must be removed from 100 g of oxygen at

22°C to liquefy it at

−183°C? (The specific heat of oxygen gas is 0.218 cal/g⋅ °C, and its heat of

vaporization is
50.9 cal/g.)

a. 13 700 cal

b. 9 560 cal

c. 4 320 cal

d. 2 160 cal

44. 100 g of liquid nitrogen at its boiling point of 77 K is stirred into a

beaker containing 500 g of

15°C water. If the nitrogen leaves the solution as soon as it turns to gas,

how much water

freezes? The heat of vaporization of nitrogen is 48 cal/g and that of water

is 80 cal/g.

a. none

b. 29 g

c. 68 g

d. 109 g

45. A 5-g lead bullet traveling in 20°C air at 300 m/s strikes a flat steel

plate and stops. What is

the final temperature of the lead bullet? (Assume the bullet retains all heat.)

The melting

point of lead is 327°C. The specific heat of lead is 0.128 J/g⋅ °C. The heat

of fusion of lead is

24.5 J/g.

a. 227°C
b. 260°C

c. 293°C

d. 327°C

Which of the following involves the greatest heat transfer?

a. One gram of steam at 100°C changing to water at 100°C.

b. One gram of ice at 0°C changing to water at 0°C.

c. One gram of water cooling from 100°C to 0°C.

d. One gram of ice heating from -100°C to 0°C.

47. Carly places one end of a steel bar in a Bunsen flame and the other end

in an ice cube. By

what factor is the rate of heat flow changed when the bar's cross-sectional

area is doubled?

a. 2

b. 1/2

c. 4.0

d. 1/4

48. Dmitri places one end of a copper rod in a heat reservoir and the other

end in a heat sink. By

what factor is the rate of heat flow changed when the temperature

difference between the

reservoir and sink is tripled?

a. 0.33

b. 1/9

c. 3.0

d. 9.0

49. If one's hands are being warmed by holding them to one side of a flame,

the predominant

form of heat transfer is what process?

a. conduction

b. radiation

c. convection

d. vaporization

50. When a wool blanket is used to keep warm, what is the primary

insulating material?

a. wool

b. air

c. the trim around the edge of the blanket

d. a thin layer of aluminum foil (usually not apparent) inside the blanket

51. The surfaces of a Dewar flask are silvered for the purpose of minimizing

heat transfer by

what process?

a. conduction
b. radiation

c. convection

d. vaporization

52. The use of fiberglass insulation in the outer walls of a building is

intended to minimize heat

transfer through the wall by what process?

a. conduction

b. radiation

c. convection

d. vaporization

53. How does the heat energy from the sun reach us through the vacuum of

space?

a. conduction

b. radiation

c. convection

d. none of the above choices are valid

54. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the

presence of a fluid?

a. conduction

b. radiation
c. convection

d. none of the above choices are valid

55. If cooking is done using an aluminum pan over an electric burner, which

of the following will

not promote the rate of heat flow from burner to food?

a. increase pan bottom thickness

b. increase pan bottom area

c. increase burner temperature

d. decrease height of pan sides

56. A windowpane is half a centimeter thick and has an area of 1.0 m2

. The temperature

difference between the inside and outside surfaces of the pane is 15° C.

What is the rate of

heat flow through this window? (Thermal conductivity for glass is 0.84

J/s⋅ m⋅ °C.)

a. 50 000 J/s

b. 2 500 J/s

c. 1 300 J/s

d. 630 J/s

57. A 2.0-m2

Thermopane window is constructed, using two layers of glass 4.0 mm thick,

separated by an air space of 5.0 mm. If the temperature difference is 20° C

from the inside of

the house to the outside air, what is the rate of heat flow through this

window? (Thermal

conductivity for glass is 0.84 J/s⋅ m⋅ °C and for air 0.023 4 J/s⋅ m⋅ °C.)

a. 7 700 W

b. 1 900 W

c. 547 W

d. 180 W

58. The filament temperature of a light bulb is 2 000 K when the bulb

delivers 40 W of power. If

its emissivity remains constant, what power is delivered when the filament

temperature is

2 500 K?

a. 105 W

b. 62 W

c. 98 W

d. 50 W

The emissivity of an ideal reflector has which of the following values?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 100

d. infinity
A

60. The thermal conductivity of aluminum is 238 J/s·m·°C and of copper is

397 J/s·m·°C. A rod

of each material is used as a heat conductor. If the rods have the same

geometry and are used

between the same temperature differences for the same time interval, what

is the ratio of the

heat transferred by the aluminum to the heat transferred by the copper?

a. 0.599

b. 1.67

c. 0.359

d. 2.78

61. I place a 500-g ice cube (initially at 0°C) in a Styrofoam box with wall

thickness 1.0 cm and

total surface area 600 cm2

. If the air surrounding the box is at 20°C and after 4 hours the ice is

completely melted, what is the conductivity of the Styrofoam material? (Lf

= 80 cal/g)

a. 9.6 × 10−5

cal/s⋅ cm⋅ °C

b. 2.8 × 10−6

cal/s⋅ cm⋅ °C

c. 1.15 × 10−2

cal/s⋅ cm⋅ °C
d. 2.3 × 10−4

cal/s⋅ cm⋅ °C

62. Consider two different rods. The greatest thermal conductivity will be

in the rod with:

a. electrons that are freer to move from atom to atom.

b. the greater specific heat.

c. the greater cross-sectional area.

d. the greater length.

63. Which type of heating causes sunburn?

a. conduction

b. convection

c. radiation

d. all of the above

...

64. In winter, light-colored clothes will keep you warmer than dark-

colored clothes if:

a. you are warmer than your surroundings.

b. you are at the same temperature as your surroundings.

c. you are cooler than your surroundings.

d. you are standing in sunlight.

A
65. A silver bar of length 30 cm and cross-sectional area 1.0 cm2

is used to transfer heat from a

100°C reservoir to a 0°C block of ice. How much ice is melted per second?

(For silver, k =

427 J/s⋅ m⋅ °C. For ice, Lf = 334 000 J/kg.)

a. 4.2 g/s

b. 2.1 g/s

c. 0.80 g/s

d. 0.043 g/s

66. At high noon, the sun delivers 1 000 W to each square meter of a

blacktop road. What is the

equilibrium temperature of the hot asphalt, assuming its emissivity e = 1?

(σ = 5.67 × 10−8

W/m2

⋅ K4

).

a. 75°C

b. 84°C

c. 91°C

d. 99°C

67. The surface of the Sun has a temperature of about 5 800 K. If the

radius of the Sun is 7 × 108

m, determine the power output of the sun. (Take e = 1, and σ = 5.67 ×

10−8

W/m2

⋅ K4

).

a. 3.95 × 1026 W

b. 5.17 × 1027 W

c. 9.62 × 1028 W

d. 6.96 × 1030 W

68. The tungsten filament of a light bulb has an operating temperature of

about 2 100 K. If the

emitting area of the filament is 1.0 cm2

, and its emissivity is 0.68, what is the power output of

the light bulb? (σ = 5.67 × 10−8

W/m2

⋅ K4

a. 100 W

b. 75 W

c. 60 W

d. 40 W

69. An object at 27°C has its temperature increased to 37°C. The power

then radiated by this

object increases by how many percent?

a. 3.3

b. 14

c. 37

d. 253

70. What temperature increase is necessary to increase the power radiated

from an object by a

factor of 8?

a. 8 K

b. 2 K

c. 100%

d. about 68%

71. A metal bar is used to conduct heat. When the temperature at one end

is 100°C and at the

other is 20°C, heat is transferred at a rate of 16 J/s. If the temperature of

the hotter end is

reduced to 80°C, what will be the rate of heat transfer?

a. 4 J/s

b. 8 J/s

c. 9 J/s

d. 12 J/s

D
72. A metal bar is used to conduct heat. When the temperature at one end

is 100°C and at the

other is 20°C, heat is transferred at a rate of 16 J/s. The bar is then

stretched uniformly to

twice its original length. If again it has ends at 100°C and 20°C, at what

rate will heat be

transferred between it ends?

a. 4 J/s

b. 8 J/s

c. 16 J/s

d. 32 J/s

73. In a greenhouse, electromagnetic energy in the form of visible light

enters the glass panes and

is absorbed and then reradiated. What happens to this reradiated

electromagnetic radiation

from within the greenhouse?

a. 100% returns to the atmosphere.

b. It's partially blocked by glass.

c. It's transformed into ultraviolet upon striking the glass.

d. It's reflected as visible light upon striking the glass.

74. Of the planets with atmospheres, which is the warmest?

a. Venus

b. Earth
c. Mars

d. Jupiter

75. Which of the following produces greenhouse gases?

a. burning fossil fuel

b. digestive processes in cows

c. automobile pollution

d. all of the above

76. Carbon dioxide and water molecules in the atmosphere will absorb:

a. infrared light.

b. visible light.

c. ultraviolet light.

d. radio waves.

1. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

a. temperature
b. velocity
c. acceleration
d. displacement
2. In one-dimensional motion, the average speed of an object that moves from one
place to another and then back to its original place has which of the following
properties?
a. It is positive.
b. It is negative.
c. It is zero.
d. It can be positive, negative, or zero.
3. A cheetah can run at approximately 30 m/s and a gazelle at 25 m/s. If both
animals are running at full speed, with the gazelle 50.0 m ahead, how long
before the cheetah catches its prey?
a. 10 s
b. 25 s
c. 30 s
d. 50 s
4. Jeff throws a ball straight up. For which situation is the vertical velocity zero?
a. on the way up
b. at the top
c. on the way back down
d. none of the above
5. In the case of constant acceleration, the average velocity equals the
instantaneous velocity:
a. at the beginning of the time interval.
b. at the end of the time interval.
c. half-way through the time interval.
d. three-fourths of the way through the time interval.
6. A rock is thrown straight up with an initial velocity of 19.6 m/s. What time
interval elapses between the rock's being thrown and its return to the original
launch point? (Acceleration due to gravity is 9.80 m/s².)
a. 4.00 s
b. 5.00 s
c. 8.00 s
d. 10.0 s
7. Human reaction time is usually about 0.20 s. If your lab partner holds a ruler
between your finger and thumb and releases it without warning, how far can
you expect the ruler to fall before you catch it? The nearest value is:
a. 4.0 cm. c. 16 cm.
b. 9.8 cm. d. 20 cm.
8. Vector A is 3 m long and vector B is 4 m long. The length of the sum of the
vectors must be:
a. 5 m.
b. 7 m.
c. 12 m.
d. some value from 1 m to 7 m.
9. A plane is moving due north, directly towards its destination. Its airspeed is 200
mph. A constant breeze is blowing from west to east at 40 mph. How long will
it take for the plane to travel 200 miles north?
a. one hour
b. more than one hour
c. less than one hour
d. more information is needed
10. A 7.0-kg bowling ball experiences a net force of 7.0 N. What will be its
acceleration?
a. 36 m/s²
b. 7.0 m/s²
c. 5.0 m/s²
d. 1.0 m/s²
11. As I slide a box at constant speed up a frictionless slope, pulling parallel to the
slope, the tension in the rope will be:
a. greater than the tension would be if the box were stationary.
b. greater than the weight of the box.
c. equal to the weight of the box.
d. less than the weight of the box.
12. I use a rope 2.00 m long to swing a 10.0-kg weight around my head with
constant angular velocity, in an exact circle. The tension in the rope is 20.0 N.
In half a revolution how much work is done by the rope on the weight?
a. 40.0 J
b. 126 J
c. 251 J
d. 0
13. When an object is dropped from a tower, what is the effect of the air resistance
as it falls?
a. does positive work
b. increases the object's kinetic energy
c. increases the object's potential energy
d. None of the above choices are valid.
14. Two blocks are released from the top of a building. One falls straight down
while the other slides down a smooth ramp. If all friction is ignored, which one
is moving faster when it reaches the bottom?
a. The block that went straight down.
 b. The block that went down the ramp.
c. They both will have the same speed.
d. Insufficient information to work the problem.
15. A Hooke's law spring is compressed a distance d and is used to launch a mass
m vertically to a height h above its starting position. Under double the
compression, the spring is now used to launch the mass. How high does the
mass now rise above its starting position?
a. 2 h
b. 1.41 h
c. 3 h
d. 4 h
16. A force of 5.0 N is applied to a 20-kg mass on a horizontal frictionless
surface. As the speed of the mass increases at a constant acceleration, the
power delivered to it by the force:
a. remains the same.
b. increases.
c. decreases.
d. doubles every 4.0 seconds.
17.
18. A ball with original momentum +4.0 kg m/s hits a wall and bounces straight
back without losing any kinetic energy. The change in momentum of the ball is:
a. 0.
b. -4.0 kg m/s.
c. 8.0 kg m/s.
d. -8.0 kg m/s.
19. A moderate force will break an egg. However, an egg dropped on the road
usually breaks, while one dropped on the grass usually doesn't break. This is
because for the egg dropped on the grass:
a. the change in momentum is greater.
b. the change in momentum is less.
c. the time interval for stopping is greater.
d. the time interval for stopping is less.
20. A billiard ball collides in an elastic head on collision with a second identical
ball. What is the kinetic energy of the system after the collision compared to
that before collision?
a. the same as
 b. one fourth
c. twice
d. four times
21. Popeye, of mass 70 kg, has just downed a can of spinach. He accelerates
quickly and stops Bluto, of mass 700 kg (Bluto is very dense), who is charging
in at 10 m/s. What was Popeye's speed?
a. 10 m/s
b. 31 m/s
c. 50 m/s
d. 100 m/s
22. Starting from rest, a wheel undergoes constant angular acceleration for a period
of time T. At which of the following times does the average angular
acceleration equal the instantaneous angular acceleration?
a. 0.50 T
b. 0.67 T
c. 0.71 T
d. all of the above
23. A point on the rim of a 0.25-m-radius fan blade has centripetal acceleration of
0.20 m/s². Find the centripetal acceleration of a point 0.05 m from the center of
the same wheel.
a. 0.01 m/s²
b. 0.02 m/s²
c. 0.04 m/s²
d. 0.08 m/s²
24. When a point on the rim of a 0.30-m-radius wheel experiences a centripetal
acceleration of 4.0 m/s², what tangential acceleration does that point
experience?
a. 1.2 m/s²
b. 2.0 m/s²
c. 4.0 m/s²
d. Cannot determine with the information given.
25. Consider a point on a bicycle tire that is momentarily in contact with the
ground as the bicycle rolls across the ground with constant speed. The direction
for the acceleration for this point at that moment is:
a. upward.
b. down toward the ground.
 c. forward.
d. at that moment the acceleration is zero
26. Two children seat themselves on a seesaw. The one on the left has a weight of
400 N while the one on the right weighs 300 N. The fulcrum is at the midpoint
of the seesaw. If the child on the left is not at the end but is 1.50 m from the
fulcrum and the seesaw is balanced, what is the torque provided by the weight
of the child on the right? (positive torque is counterclockwise)
a. 600 N·m c. -600 N·m
b. 450 N·m d. -450 N·m
27. If a net torque is applied to an object, that object will experience:
a. a constant angular speed.
b. an angular acceleration.
c. a constant moment of inertia.
d. an increasing moment of inertia.
28. The Earth moves about the Sun in an elliptical orbit. As the Earth moves closer
to the Sun, which of the following best describes the Earth Sun system's
moment of inertia?
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above choices are valid
29. A uniform solid sphere rolls down an incline of height 3 m after starting from
rest. In order to calculate its speed at the bottom of the incline, one needs to
know:
a. the mass of the sphere.
b. the radius of the sphere.
c. the mass and the radius of the sphere.
d. no more than is given in the problem.
30. A solid disk of radius R rolls down an incline in time T. The center of the disk
is removed up to a radius of R/2. The remaining portion of the disk with its
center gone is again rolled down the same incline. The time it takes is:
a. T.
b. more than T.
c. less than T.
d. requires more information than given in the problem to figure out.
31. The Earth's gravity exerts no torque on a satellite orbiting the Earth in an
elliptical orbit. Compare the motion of the satellite at the point nearest the Earth
(perigee) to the motion at the point farthest from the Earth (apogee). At these
two points:
a. the tangential velocities are the same.
b. the angular velocities are the same.
c. the angular momenta are the same.
d. the kinetic energies are the same.
32. A 15 000-N car on a hydraulic lift rests on a cylinder with a piston of
radius 0.20 m. If a connecting cylinder with a piston of 0.040-m radius is
driven by compressed air, what force must be applied to this smaller
piston in order to lift the car?
a. 600 N
b. 1 500 N
c. 3 000 N
d. 15 000 N
33.
34. As ice floats in water, about 10% of the ice floats above the surface of
the water. If we float some ice in a glass of water, what will happen to
the water level as the ice melts?
a. The water level will rise 10% of the volume of the ice that melts.
b. The water level will rise, but not as much as the 10% indicated in
answer A.
c. The water level will remain unchanged.
d. The water level will become lower.
35.
36. A large stone is resting on the bottom of the swimming pool. The normal
force of the bottom of the pool on the stone is equal to the:
a. weight of the stone.
b. weight of the water displaced.
c. sum of the weight of the stone and the weight of the displaced water.
d. difference between the weight of the stone and the weight of the
displaced water.

37.
38. What is the temperature of a system in thermal equilibrium with another system
made up of ice and water at one atmosphere of pressure?
a. 0°F
b. 273 K
c. 0 K
d. 100°C
39. What happens to a given mass of water as it is cooled from 4°C to zero?
a. expands
b. contracts
c. vaporizes
d. neither expands, contracts, nor vaporizes.
40. A steel plate has a hole drilled through it. The plate is put into a furnace and
heated. What happens to the size of the inside diameter of a hole as its
temperature increases?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. becomes elliptical
41. What happens to a volume of water when its temperature is reduced from 8°C
to 4°C?
a. density increases
b. density decreases
c. density remains constant
d. vaporizes
42. What happens to its moment of inertia when a steel disk is heated?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It stays the same.
d. It increases for half the temperature increase and then decreases for the rest
of the temperature increase.
43. An ideal gas is confined to a container with constant volume and the amount of
gas is constant. By what factor will the pressure change if the absolute
temperature triples?
a. 1/9
b. 1/3
 c. 3.0
d. 9.0
44. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to which of the
following properties, when taken as an average, of the molecules of that gas?
a. speed
b. momentum
c. mass
d. kinetic energy
45. Which of the following statements is true?
a. A hot object contains a lot of heat.
b. A cold object contains only a little heat.
c. Objects do not contain heat.
d. Statements a and b are true.
46.
47. A slice of bread contains about 100 kcal. If specific heat of a person
were 1.00 kcal/kg·°C, by how many °C would the temperature of a
70.0kg person increase if all the energy in the bread were converted to
heat?
a. 2.25°C
b. 1.86°C
c. 1.43°C
d. 1.00°C
48.
49. Iced tea is made by adding ice to 1.0 kg of hot tea, initially at 90°C. How many
kg of ice, initially at 0°C, are required to bring the mixture to 10°C? (L f = 80
cal/g, cw = 1 cal/g×°C)
a. 1.8 kg
b. 1.4 kg
c. 1.0 kg
d. 0.6 kg
50. In cloud formation, water vapor turns into water droplets which get bigger and
bigger until it rains. This will cause the temperature of the air in the clouds to:
a. get warmer.
b. get cooler.
c. will not affect the temperature of the air in the clouds.
d. There is no air in clouds.
51. A system is acted on by its surroundings in such a way that it receives 50 J of
heat while simultaneously doing 20 J of work. What is its net change in internal
energy?
a. 70 J
b. 30 J
c. zero
d. -30 J
52. In an isothermal process for an ideal gas system (where the internal
energy doesn’t change), which of the following choices best corresponds
to the value of the work done on the system?
a. its heat intake
b. twice its heat intake
c. the negative of its heat intake
d. twice the negative of its heat intake
53.
54. The maximum theoretical thermodynamic efficiency of a heat engine
operating between hot and cold reservoirs is a function of which of the
following?
a. hot reservoir temperature only
b. cold reservoir temperature only
c. both hot and cold reservoir temperatures
d. None of the above choices are valid.
55.
56. According to the second law of thermodynamics, which of the following
applies to the heat received from a high temperature reservoir by a heat
engine operating in a complete cycle?
a. must be completely converted to work
b. equals the entropy increase
c. converted completely into internal energy
d. cannot be completely converted to work
57.
58. In which system is heat usually transferred from the cooler part to the
warmer part?
a. a stove as it heats up water
b. a refrigerator that is running
c. an electric fan that is running
 d. none of the above, because it is impossible to transfer heat in this
manner
59.
60. A 2.00-kg block of ice is at 0°C and 1 atm while it melts completely to water.
What is its change in entropy? (For ice, Lf = 3.34 × 105 J/kg)
a. zero
b. 584 J/K
c. 1 220 J/K
d. 2 450 J/K

A large spring requires a force of 150 N to compress it only 0.010 m. What

is the spring constant of the spring?

15,000 N/m

A 0.20-kg object is attached to a spring with spring constant k=10 N/m

and moves with simple harmonic motion over a horizontal frictionless

surface. At the instant that it is displaced from equilibrium by -0.050 m,

what is its acceleration?

2.5 m/s^2

Suppose there is an object for which F=+kx. What will happen if the object is

moved away from equilibrium (x=0) and released?

it will move further away with increasing acceleration

If it takes 4.0 N to stretch a spring 6.0 cm and if the spring is then cut in

half, what force does it take to stretch one of the halves 3.0 cm?

4.0 N

Three identical springs each have the same spring constant k. If these three

springs are attached end to end forming a spring three times the length of

one of the original springs, what will be the spring constant of the

combination?

k/3
A 0.20-kg object is oscillating on a spring with a spring constant of k= 15

N/m. What is the potential energy of the system when the object

displacement is 0.040 m, exactly half the maximum amplitude?

0.012 J

A 0.20-kg object, attached to a spring with spring constant k= 10 N/m, is

moving on a horizontal frictionless surface in simple harmonic motion of

amplitude of 0.080 m. What is its speed at the instant when its

displacement is 0.040 m?

49 cm/s

A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an amplitude of 4.0 cm. If a timer is started when its

displacement is a maximum (hence x= 4 cm, when t= 0), what is the speed

of the mass when t= 3 s?

zero

A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an amplitude of 4.0 cm. If a timer is started when its

displacement is a maximum (hence x= 4 cm, when t= 0), what is the

acceleration magnitude when t = 3 s?

25.3 m/s^2

A mass on spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of 4.0

Hz and an amplitude of 8.0 cm. If a timer is started when its displacement

is a maximum (hence x = 8cm when t=0), what is the displacement of the

mass when t= 3.7 s?

0.025 m

If one could transport a simple pendulum of constant length from the

Earth's surface to the Moon's, where the acceleration due to gravity is

1/6th that on the Earth, by what factor would the pendulum frequency be

changed?

about 0.41

An earthquake emits both P-waves and S-waves that travel at different

speeds through the Earth. A P-wave travels at 8,000 m/s and an S-wave

at 4,000 m/s. If P-waves are received at a seismic station 30.0 s before an

S-wave arrives, how far is the station from the earthquake center?

240 km

At 2.0-m long piano string of mass 10 g is under a tension of 338 N. Find

the speed with which a wave travels on this string?

260 m/s

Transverse waves travel with a speed of 200 m/s along a taut copper wire

that has a diameter of 1.50 mm. What is the tension in the wire? (The

density of copper is 8.93 g/cm^3).

631 N

Equal wavelength waves of amplitude 0.25 m and 0.15 m interfere with

one another. What is the resulting minimum amplitude that can result?

0.10 m
1. The SI base units for spring constant are which of the following?
a. kg·s2
b. kg/m2
c. kg/s2
d. kg·m2

2. A large spring requires a force of 150 N to compress it only 0.010 m. What

is the spring
constant of the spring?
a. 125 000 N/m
b. 15 000 N/m
c. 15 N/m
d. 1.5 N/m

3. A 0.20-kg object is attached to a spring with spring constant k = 10 N/m

and moves with
simple harmonic motion over a horizontal frictionless surface. At the instant
that it is
displaced from equilibrium by −0.050 m, what is its acceleration?
a. 1 000 m/s2
b. −40 m/s2
c. 0.1 m/s2
d. 2.5 m/s2

4. Tripling the weight suspended vertically from a coil spring will result in
a change in the
displacement of the spring's lower end by what factor?
a. 0.33
b. 1.0
c. 3.0
d. 9.0

5. Tripling the displacement from equilibrium of an object in simple harmonic

motion will bring
about a change in the magnitude of the object's acceleration by what factor?
a. 0.33
b. 1.0
c. 3.0
d. 9.0

C
6. A tiny spring, with a spring constant of 1.20 N/m, will be stretched to
what displacement by a
0.005 0-N force?
a. 4.2 mm
b. 6.0 mm
c. 7.2 mm
d. 9.4 mm

7. A mass of 0.40 kg, attached to a spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m,

is set into simple
harmonic motion. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the mass when at
its
maximum displacement of 0.10 m from the equilibrium position?
a. zero
b. 5 m/s2
c. 10 m/s2
d. 20 m/s

8. A mass of 4.0 kg, resting on a horizontal frictionless surface, is attached

on the right to a
horizontal spring with spring constant 20 N/m and on the left to a horizontal
spring with
spring constant 50 N/m. If this system is moved from equilibrium, what is the
effective
spring constant?
a. 30 N/m
b. -30 N/m
c. 70 N/m
d. 14 N/m

9. Suppose there is an object for which F = +kx. What will happen if the
object is moved away
from equilibrium (x = 0) and released?
a. It will return to the equilibrium position.
b. It will move further away with constant velocity.
c. It will move further away with constant acceleration.
d. It will move further away with increasing acceleration.

10. Which is not an example of approximate simple harmonic motion?

a. A ball bouncing on the floor.
b. A child swinging on a swing.
c. A piano string that has been struck.
d. A car's radio antenna as it waves back and forth.

11. If it takes 4.0 N to stretch a spring 6.0 cm and if the spring is then cut
in half, what force does
it take to stretch one of the halves 3.0 cm?
a. 2.0 N
b. 4.0 N
c. 8.0 N
d. 16 N

12. Three identical springs each have the same spring constant k. If these
three springs are
attached end to end forming a spring three times the length of one of the
original springs,
what will be the spring constant of the combination?
a. k
b. 3 k
c. k/3
d. 1.73 k

C
13. A 0.20-kg object is oscillating on a spring with a spring constant of k =
15 N/m. What is the
potential energy of the system when the object displacement is 0.040 m,
exactly half the
maximum amplitude?
a. zero
b. 0.006 0 J
c. 0.012 J
d. 2.5 J

14. A 0.20 kg object, attached to a spring with spring constant k = 10 N/m, is

moving on a
horizontal frictionless surface in simple harmonic motion of amplitude of
0.080 m. What is
its speed at the instant when its displacement is 0.040 m? (Hint: Use
conservation of energy.)
a. 9.8 m/s
b. 4.9 m/s
c. 49 cm/s
d. 24.5 cm/s

15. A mass of 0.40 kg, hanging from a spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m,
is set into an
up-and-down simple harmonic motion. What is the speed of the mass when moving
through
the equilibrium point? The starting displacement from equilibrium is 0.10 m.
a. zero
b. 1.4 m/s
c. 2.0 m/s
d. 3.4 m/s

B
6. A mass of 0.40 kg, hanging from a spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m,
is set into an
up-and-down simple harmonic motion. What is the speed of the mass when moving
through a
point at 0.05 m displacement? The starting displacement of the mass is 0.10 m
from its
equilibrium position.
a. zero
b. 1.4 m/s
c. 1.7 m/s
d. 1.2 m/s

17. A runaway railroad car, with mass 30 × 104

kg, coasts across a level track at 2.0 m/s when it
collides with a spring-loaded bumper at the end of the track. If the spring
constant of the
bumper is 2.0 × 106
N/m, what is the maximum compression of the spring during the
collision? (Assume the collision is elastic.)
a. 0.77 m
b. 0.58 m
c. 0.34 m
d. 1.07 m

18. A 0.20-kg mass is oscillating on a spring over a horizontal frictionless

surface. When it is at a
displacement of 2.6 cm for equilibrium it has a kinetic energy of 1.4 J and a
spring potential
energy of 2.2 J. What is the maximum speed of the mass during its oscillation?
a. 3.7 m/s
b. 4.7 m/s
c. 6.0 m/s
d. 6.3 m/s
C

19. A 0.20-kg block rests on a frictionless level surface and is attached to a

horizontally aligned
spring with a spring constant of 40 N/m. The block is initially displaced 4.0
cm from the
equilibrium point and then released to set up a simple harmonic motion. What
is the speed of
the block when it passes through the equilibrium point?
a. 2.1 m/s
b. 1.6 m/s
c. 1.1 m/s
d. 0.57 m/s

20. A 0.20-kg block rests on a frictionless level surface and is attached to a

horizontally aligned
spring with a spring constant of 40 N/m. The block is initially displaced 4.0
cm from the
equilibrium point and then released to set up a simple harmonic motion. A
frictional force of
0.3 N exists between the block and surface. What is the speed of the block
when it passes
through the equilibrium point after being released from the 4.0-cm
displacement point?
a. 0.45 m/s
b. 0.63 m/s
c. 0.80 m/s
d. 1.2 m/s

21. The oxygen molecule (O2) may be regarded as two masses connected by a
spring. In
vibrational motion, each oxygen atom alternately approaches, then moves away
from the
center of mass of the system. If each oxygen atom of mass m = 2.67 × 10−26 kg
has a
vibrational energy of 1.6 × 10−21 J and the effective spring constant is 50
N/m, then what is
the amplitude of oscillation of each oxygen atom?
a. 3.2 × 10−11 m
b. 1.6 × 10−11 m
c. 1.1 × 10−11 m
d. 8.0 × 10−12 m

22. Suppose a 0.3-kg mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.10 m has
elastic potential
energy of 1 J. What is the spring constant?
a. 10 N/m
b. 20 N/m
c. 200 N/m
d. 300 N/m

23. Suppose a 0.3-kg mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.10 m has
elastic potential
energy of 1.0 J. How much further must the spring be compressed to triple the
elastic
potential energy?
a. 0.30 m
b. 0.20 m
c. 0.17 m
d. 0.07 m

24. Suppose a 0.30-kg mass on a spring-loaded gun that has been compressed
0.10 m has elastic
potential energy of 1.0 J. How high above the spring's equilibrium point can
the gun fire the
mass if the gun is fired straight up?
a. 0.10 m
b. 0.34 m
c. 0.24 m
d. 10 m

25. An ore car of mass 4 000 kg rolls downhill on tracks from a mine. At the
end of the tracks,
10.0 m lower in elevation, is a spring with k = 400 000 N/m. How much is the
spring
compressed in stopping the ore car? Ignore friction.
a. 0.14 m
b. 0.56 m
c. 1.40 m
d. 1.96 m

26. An object is attached to a spring and its frequency of oscillation is

measured. Then another
object is connected to the first object, and the resulting mass is four times
the original value.
By what factor is the frequency of oscillation changed?
a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 1/16
d. 4

27. By what factor must one change the weight suspended vertically from a
spring coil in order to
triple its period of simple harmonic motion?
a. 1/9
b. 0.33
c. 3.0
d. 9.0
D

28. Which one of the following quantities is at a maximum when an object in

simple harmonic
motion is at its maximum displacement?
a. speed
b. acceleration
c. kinetic energy
d. frequency
29. I attach a 2.0-kg block

29. I attach a 2.0-kg block to a spring that obeys Hooke's Law and supply 16 J
of energy to
stretch the spring. I release the block; it oscillates with period 0.30 s. The
amplitude is:
a. 38 cm.
b. 19 cm.
c. 9.5 cm.
d. 4.3 cm.

30. A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an
amplitude of 8.0 cm. If the mass of the object is 0.20 kg, what is the spring
constant?
a. 40 N/m
b. 87 N/m
c. 126 N/m
d. 160 N/m

31. For a mass suspended on a spring in the vertical direction, the time for
one complete
oscillation will depend on:
a. the value for g (the acceleration due to gravity).
b. the distance the mass was originally pulled down.
c. the maximum speed of the oscillating mass.
d. the time doesn't depend on any of the above.

32. A car with bad shocks bounces up and down with a period of 1.50 s after
hitting a bump.
The car has a mass of 1 500 kg and is supported by four springs of force
constant k. What is
k for each spring?
a. 6 580 N/m
b. 5 850 N/m
c. 4 440 N/m
d. 3 630 N/m

33. A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an
amplitude of 4.0 cm. If a timer is started when its displacement is a maximum
(hence x = 4
cm when t = 0), what is the speed of the mass when t = 3 s?
a. zero
b. 0.006 5 m/s
c. 0.015 m/s
d. 0.024 m/s

34. A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an
amplitude of 4.0 cm. If a timer is started when its displacement is a maximum
(hence x = 4
cm when t = 0), what is the acceleration magnitude when t = 3 s?
a. zero
b. 8.13 m/s2
c. 14.3 m/s2
d. 25.3 m/s2

35. A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of

4.0 Hz and an
amplitude of 8.0 cm. If a timer is started when its displacement is a maximum
(hence x = 8
cm when t = 0), what is the displacement of the mass when t = 3.7 s?
a. zero
b. 0.025 m
c. 0.036 m
d. 0.080 m

36. An object moving in simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 0.020 m and
a maximum
acceleration of 40 m/s2
. What is the frequency of the system?
a. 0.60 Hz
b. 51 Hz
c. 7.1 Hz
d. 16 Hz

37. Consider the curve x = A sin(kt), with A >

0. At which point on the graph is it possible
that t = 0?
a. Point t1
b. Point t2
c. Point t3
d. Point t4

C
38. The motion of a piston in an automobile engine is nearly simple harmonic.
If the 1-kg piston
travels back and forth over a total distance of 10.0 cm, what is its maximum
speed when the
engine is running at 3 000 rpm?
a. 31.4 m/s
b. 15.7 m/s
c. 7.85 m/s
d. 3.93 m/s

39. The position of a 0.64-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given
by
x = (0.160 m) cos (πt/16). What is its period of oscillation?
a. 100 s
b. 32 s
c. 16 s
d. 8.0 s

40. The position of a 0.64-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given
by
x = (0.160 m) cos (πt/16). What is the maximum net force on the mass as it
oscillates?
a. 3.9 × 10-3 N
b. 9.9 × 10-3 N
c. 1.3 × 10-3 N
d. 6.3 N

41. The position of a 0.64-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given
by
x = (0.160 m) cos (πt/16). What is its position at t = 5.0 s?
a. 0.160 m
b. 0.159 m
c. 0.113 m
d. 0.089 m

42. The kinetic energy of the bob on a simple pendulum swinging in simple
harmonic motion has
its maximum value when the displacement from equilibrium is at what point in
its swing?
a. zero displacement
b. 1/4 the amplitude
c. 1/2 the amplitude
d. equal the amplitude

43. If one could transport a simple pendulum of constant length from the
Earth's surface to the
Moon's, where the acceleration due to gravity is one-sixth (1/6) that on the
Earth, by what
factor would the pendulum frequency be changed?
a. about 6.0
b. about 2.5
c. about 0.41
d. about 0.17

44. Tripling the mass of the bob on a simple pendulum will cause a change in
the frequency of
the pendulum swing by what factor?
a. 0.33
b. 1.0
c. 3.0
d. 9.0

B
45. By what factor should the length of a simple pendulum be changed if the
period of vibration
were to be tripled?
a. 1/9
b. 0.33
c. 3.0
d. 9.0

46. A simple pendulum has a period of 2.0 s. What is the pendulum length? (g =
9.8 m/s2
)
a. 0.36 m
b. 0.78 m
c. 0.99 m
d. 2.4 m

47. A simple pendulum of length 1.00 m has a mass of 100 g attached. It is

drawn back 30.0° and
then released. What is the maximum speed of the mass?
a. 1.14 m/s
b. 3.13 m/s
c. 2.21 m/s
d. 1.62 m/s

48. A simple pendulum has a mass of 0.25 kg and a length of 1.0 m. It is

displaced through an
angle of 30° and then released. After a time, the maximum angle of swing is
only 10°. How
much energy has been lost to friction?
a. 0.29 J
b. 0.65 J
c. 0.80 J
d. 1.0 J

49. When car shock absorbers wear out and lose their damping ability, what is
the resulting
oscillating behavior?
a. underdamped
b. critically damped
c. overdamped
d. hyperdamped

50. For a wave on the ocean, the amplitude is:

a. the distance between crests.
b. the height difference between a crest and a trough.
c. one half the height difference between a crest and a trough.
d. how far the wave goes up on the beach.

51. As a gust of wind blows across a field of grain, a wave can be seen to
move across the field
as the tops of the plants sway back and forth. This wave is a:
a. transverse wave.
b. longitudinal wave.
c. polarized wave.
d. interference of waves.

52. Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal wave?

a. sound wave in air
b. wave traveling in a string
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

A
53. If the frequency of a traveling wave train is increased by a factor of
three in a medium where
the speed is constant, which of the following is the result?
a. amplitude is one third as big
b. amplitude is tripled
c. wavelength is one third as big
d. wavelength is tripled

54. The wavelength of a traveling wave can be calculated if one knows the:
a. frequency.
b. speed and amplitude.
c. amplitude and frequency.
d. frequency and speed.

55. A traveling wave train has wavelength 0.50 m, speed 20 m/s. Find the wave
frequency.
a. 0.025 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 40 Hz
d. 10 Hz

56. A musical tone, sounded on a piano, has a frequency of 410 Hz and a

wavelength in air of
0.800 m. What is the wave speed?
a. 170 m/s
b. 235 m/s
c. 328 m/s
d. 587 m/s

57. If a radio wave has speed 3.00 × 108

m/s and frequency 94.7 MHz, what is its wavelength?
a. 8.78 m
b. 1.20 m
c. 2.50 m
d. 3.17 m

58. Consider the curve f(x) = A cos(2πx/λ). The

wavelength of the wave will be:
a. the distance 0 to A.
b. twice the distance 0 to A\
c. the distance x2 to x3.
d. twice the distance x2 to x3.

9. Bats can detect small objects such as insects that are of a size
approximately that of one
wavelength. If bats emit a chirp at a frequency of 60 kHz, and the speed of
sound waves in air
is 330 m/s, what is the smallest size insect they can detect?
a. 1.5 mm
b. 3.5 mm
c. 5.5 mm
d. 7.5 mm

60. Waves propagate at 8.0 m/s along a stretched string. The end of the string
is vibrated up and
down once every 1.5 s. What is the wavelength of the waves that travel along
the string?
a. 3.0 m
b. 12 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 5.3 m

B
61. An earthquake emits both P-waves and S-waves that travel at different
speeds through the
Earth. A P-wave travels at 8 000 m/s and an S-wave at 4 000 m/s. If P-waves
are received at a
seismic station 30.0 s before an S-wave arrives, how far is the station from
the earthquake
center?
a. 2 420 km
b. 1 210 km
c. 240 km
d. 120 km

62. A long string is pulled so that the tension in it increases by a factor of

three. If the change in
length is negligible, by what factor does the wave speed change?
a. 3.0
b. 1.7
c. 0.58
d. 0.33

63. What is the phase difference when two waves, traveling in the same medium,
undergo
constructive interference?
a. 270°
b. 180°
c. 90°
d. 0°

64. Tripling both the tension in a guitar string and its mass per unit length
will result in changing
the wave speed in the string by what factor?
a. 0.58
b. 1.00 (i.e., no change)
c. 1.73
d. 3.00

65. Tripling the mass per unit length of a guitar string will result in
changing the wave speed in
the string by what factor?
a. 0.58
b. 1.00 (i.e., no change)
c. 1.73
d. 3.00

66. A 2.0-m long piano string of mass 10 g is under a tension of 338 N. Find
the speed with
which a wave travels on this string.
a. 130 m/s
b. 260 m/s
c. 520 m/s
d. 1 040 m/s

67. Transverse waves travel with a speed of 200 m/s along a taut copper wire
that has a diameter
of 1.50 mm. What is the tension in the wire? (The density of copper is 8.93
g/cm3
.)
a. 1 890 N
b. 1 260 N
c. 631 N
d. 315 N

C
68. For a wave traveling in a string, by what factor would the tension need to
be increased to
double the wave speed?
a. 1.4
b. 2.0
c. 4.0
d. 16

. A wave is traveling in a string at 60 m/s. When the tension is then

increased 20%, what will
be the resulting wave speed?
a. also 60 m/s
b. 66 m/s
c. 72 m/s
d. 55 m/s

70. A wave travels in a string at 60 m/s. A second string of 20% greater

linear density has the
same tension applied as in the first string. What will be the resulting wave
speed in the
second string?
a. also 60 m/s
b. 66 m/s
c. 72 m/s
d. 55 m/s

71. A string is strung horizontally with a fixed tension. A wave of frequency

100 Hz is sent
along the string, and it has a wave speed of 50.0 m/s. Then a second wave, one
of frequency
200 Hz, is sent along the string. What is the wave speed of the second wave?
a. 25.0 m/s
b. 50.0 m/s
c. 70.7 m/s
d. 100 m/s

72. The superposition principle has to do with which of the following?

a. effects of waves at great distances
b. the ability of some waves to move very far
c. how displacements of interacting waves add together
d. relativistic wave behavior

73. Equal wavelength waves of amplitude 0.25 m and 0.15 m interfere with one
another. What is
the resulting minimum amplitude that can result?
a. 0.15 m
b. 0.10 m
c. 0 m
d. -0.40 m

74. If a wave pulse is reflected from a free boundary, which of the following
choices best
describes what happens to the reflected pulse?
a. becomes inverted
b. remains upright
c. halved in amplitude
d. doubled in amplitude

75. Consider two identical and symmetrical wave pulses on a string. Suppose
the first pulse
reaches the fixed end of the string and is reflected back and then meets the
second pulse.
When the two pulses overlap exactly, the superposition principle predicts that
the amplitude
of the resultant pulses, at that moment, will be what factor times the
amplitude of one of the
original pulses?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4

76. Two water waves meet at the same point, one having a displacement

above equilibrium of 60

cm and the other having a displacement above equilibrium of 80 cm. At

this moment, what is

the resulting displacement above equilibrium?

a. 140 cm

b. 100 cm

c. 70 cm

d. Information about the amplitudes needs to be given to find an answer.