Set No.

82
1. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be
less than what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the
AASHTO method?
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 98%
d) 100%

2. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the
range of:
a) 0.2 – 0.5 1/m2
b) 0.2 – 0.7 1/m2
c) 0.15 – 0.7 1/m2
d) 0.15 – 0.5 1/m2

3. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:

a) Establish a smooth riding surface.
b) Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway.
c) Provide boundary line for the two lanes.
d) Plant grass for sodding.

4. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:

a) over saturation with water
b) optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c) dry soil
d) cold weather

5. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular

base, what liquid asphalt is applied?
a) seal coat
b) tack coat
c) prime coat
d) epoxy coat

6. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength
of all sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength
and when no individual strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550psi

7. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favorable temperature in concrete

is called:
a) consolidation
b) shrinkage
c) curing
d) evaporation
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Set No. 82

8. A supplemental agreement may be entered into when the aggregate amount of the
variation order:
a) exceeds 25 % but less than 100 % of the escalated original contract price
b) does not exceed 25 % of the escalated original contract price
c) exceeds 100 % of the escalated original contract price
d) is limited to 25 % of the escalated original contract price

9. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a

project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

10. How often can progress payment be requested by a contractor?

a) once a month
b) twice a month
c) as soon as an item of work is completed
d) as often as he desires

11. The Atterberg Limit Tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.
a) 4 (4.75 mm)
b) 16 (1.18 mm)
c) 40 (0.425 mm)
d) 200 (0.075 mm)

12. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:

a) Sieve Analysis Test
b) Hydrometer Test
c) Plastic Limit Test
d) Liquid Limit Test

13. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects
should be referred to?
a) Mean Sea Level
b) 10.47 m below mean Sea Level
c) 10.00 below mean Lower Low Water
d) Mean Lower Low Water

14. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road
that will pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made
on the proposed alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m

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Set No. 82

15. How many core samples should be taken for thickness determination of a 2-
kilometer, 2-lane concrete road pavement?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

16. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a
minimum thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

17. What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural Concrete
b) Prestressed Concrete
c) Riprap and Grouted Riprap
d) Stone Masonry

18. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:

a) blacklisted by the agency
b) required to pay liquidated damages
c) allowed to submit bids
d) disallowed to submit bids

19. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for tie bars of a PCCP?
a) plain square bars
b) plain round bars
c) deformed square bars
d) deformed round bars

20. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly
set concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

21. Proper storage of cement especially for big quantities stored at the jobsite must
satisfy the following requirement with the exception of:
a) flooring of warehouse should be well above the ground
b) cement sacks should be stacked close together
c) warehouse doors and windows should be closed except when cement is taken
out for use
d) warehouse should be located in an elevated place
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Set No. 82

22. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent
to P4.8 million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before the onset
of rainy months, which may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new
Project Engineer, what will you do?
a) risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b) suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize gap as
diversion channel
d) introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

23. What is the method of measurement for determining the depth of a river channel?
a) pacing
b) sounding
c) leveling
d) traversing

24. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?

a) channel improvement
b) dikes
c) spillways
d) reclamation

25. Which of the following is not a function of a groin?

a) it decreases the flow velocity
b) it regulates the flow direction
c) it stabilizes the mountain grade
d) it decreases the scouring effect

26. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m., that is built across or
spanning a river or waterway?
a) bridge (any type)
b) culvert (pipe or box)
c) viaduct
d) chute

27. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?

a) drainage ditch
b) retaining wall
c) lateral Works
d) pier resting on piles

28. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a) river protection works
b) coastal protection works
c) slope protection works
d) erosion control works
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Set No. 82

29. In a CPM diagram, these are points in time representing the start or completion of
particular activities:
a) activities
b) connectors
c) events
d) dummies

30. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point in time that any event can
occur, and still be on schedule for the scheduled completion of a project?
a) early start
b) early finish
c) late start
d) late finish

31. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an

accomplishment of 95 % or more, which of the following is issued?
a) final inspection certificate
b) acceptance certificate
c) punch list
d) turnover certificate

32. The catch-up schedule reflects:

a) financial expenditures
b) accomplishment-duration relationship
c) the advance accomplishment
d) preliminary engineering activities

33. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a) volume
b) weight
c) quantity
d) density

34. The amount withheld by the agency equivalent to 10 % of the amount due to a
contractor is referred to as:
a) seed money
b) withholding tax
c) retention money
d) contractor tax

35. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the
design will generally require:
a) spread foundations
b) raft foundations
c) pile foundations
d) caisson foundations

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Set No. 82

36. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and
compacted in ______ layer (s).
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) uniform

37. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and
history in the implementation of a project from start to completion?
a) Blue Book
b) History Book
c) Log Book
d) Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

38. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair
work starts, with the exception of:
a) earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

39. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non plastic, what Atterberg Limit test can be
performed?
a) Plastic Limit
b) Liquid Limit
c) Shrinkage Limit
d) Both a and b

40. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following
criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) drainage facilities is well-maintained
b) location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) existing base course is stable
d) flood-prone road section

41. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:

a) a deductive distance
b) an additive (plus) distance
c) no increase in distance
d) the road length

42. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in
the quantities provided for in the original contract?
a) extra work order
b) change order
c) resume order
d) suspension order
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Set No. 82

43. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

44. The following reasons may cause the granting of contract time extension with the
exception of one:
a) exceptionally adverse climate conditions
b) excusable failure of contractor to provide equipment and manpower
c) causes beyond the control of contractor
d) causes of which government is not directly responsible

45. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

46. Which of the following documents is not necessary at the project site?
a) Bill of Quantities
b) Plans
c) General Specifications
d) Feasibility Study

47. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) pneumatic foundation
b) box caisson
c) open caisson
d) hydraulic caisson

48. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of
8 meters?
a) reinforced concrete slab
b) concrete plank deck
c) girder and slab superstructure
d) beam or plank bridge

49. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended
from the centerline of the bridge at least:
a) 100 to 200 m upstream only
b) 100 to 200 m downstream only
c) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d) 300 m upstream and downstream

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Set No. 82

50. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
c) service flow
d) highest 15 minute volume

51. Bearing s for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of the
following is not used to allow such movement?
a) expansion joints
b) rockers
c) sliding plates
d) rollers

52. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a) 15.24 / (L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum
b) 50 / (L+125)
c) 30 %
d) 50 %

53. Gravity loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not
included in this classification?
a) weight of all permanent components
b) architectural components
c) occupants, furnitures, etc.
d) wind load

54. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods
given below with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method

55. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure?

a) reduction of peak flow by reservoirs
b) confinement of the flow by levees, floodwalls
c) flood plain management
d) highway drainage

56. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall
height must be at least 0.30 m above the super-elevated water surface for velocities
of 10 meter/second or less. This means that if the super-elevated water level is at
elevation 44.30 m., the top of the channel wall will be at least at elevation:
a) 44.0 m
b) 44.3 m
c) 44.6 m
d) 44.9 m
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Set No. 82

57. Since highways cross many natural drainage channels, provision of cross drainage
as given below is necessary. The one not falling under cross drainage is:
a) culverts
b) bridges
c) dips
d) ditches

58. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist
condition and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

59. What is the most appropriate filling material if you encounter unsuitable roadway
foundation?
a) fine aggregates
b) coarse aggregates
c) broken concrete
d) granular materials

60. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported
by a truck mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not
exceed:
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes

61. Concrete mix not in place within _____ minutes from the time ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a) 90
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15

62. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement
by providing additional and adequate thickness over it?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

63. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment,
etc. Which of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure
reliever on the structure?
a) cut-off wall
b) berm
c) weephole
d) gravel filter
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Set No. 82

64. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside
to make them denser and grow straight?
a) pruning
b) grafting
c) felling
d) budding

65. In patching works using cold mix (Emulsified Asphalt SS-1 Aggregate Mix), what
color of the mix indicates that it is ready for application?
a) dark brown
b) grayish
c) black
d) blue-white

66. The presence of excessive amount of sulfuric and alkalic materials in water used in
reinforced concrete construction will result to?
a) increase in volume of mix
b) early hardening of concrete
c) corrosion of steel reinforcement
d) whitening of finished surface of concrete

67. What can be done on corners of concrete hollow block walls where no reinforced
concrete column or wall stiffener is required/specified to join them?
a) chipping
b) interlocking
c) epoxy binding
d) bracing

68. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?

a) embankment
b) approach
c) abutment
d) apron

69. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles
that should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

70. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a) spread footing
b) caisson
c) piles
d) bearing shelf

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Set No. 82

71. Which of the following is not categorized as a type of steel deck used on bridges?
a) steel jack arches
b) open panel
c) stiffened steel
d) close through panel

72. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction
from its location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm

73. Driving heads of piles are provided to:

a) ensure lateral support to the pile
b) provide a driving surface normal to the pile
c) avoid swaying
d) splice piles

74. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?

a) impervious fill
b) random fill
c) outlet protection works
d) distribution canal

75. Which of the following is not a component of an economic evaluation of flood control
projects?
a) determination of flood discharges
b) determination of estimated amount of damage
c) subsurface investigation
d) economic impact evaluation

76. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:

a) sieve analysis
b) hydrometer analysis
c) shaking test
d) stripping test

77. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a) 0.5 meter long
b) 1.0 meter long
c) 1.5 meter long
d) 2.0 meter long
78. Under Item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry
aggregate should be between:
a) 4% to 8%
b) 5% to 8%
c) 3% to 5%
d) 5% to 7%
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Set No. 82

79. The Item No. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard
Specification is;
a) 200
b) 201
c) 310
d) 311

80. The depth of weakened plane joints should not be less than:
a) 45 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 75 mm

81. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be
composed of one part Portland Cement and:
a) 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b) 1” part fine aggregates by volume
c) 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d) 2” parts fine aggregates by volume

82. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut
to a depth of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

83. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the resident
engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

84. Who assists the Project Engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field
operations?
a) Contractor’s Engineer
b) Project Inspector
c) Materials Engineer
d) Resident Engineer

85. The bar chart is also called a:

a) Precedence diagram
b) Gantt chart
c) CPM diagram
d) PERT chart

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Set No. 82

86. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

87. Which of the following is not a construction safety procedure?

a) The sides of deep excavations must be properly shored
b) All openings above ground level must be guarded
c) Operators and mechanics must be required to log-in when operating equipment
d) Workers engaged in clearing must be protected from hazardous plants

88. How much percentage is withheld on the general items until the final acceptance of
the project?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

89. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by
the resident engineer thru:
a) logbook entry
b) progress billing deduction
c) inspection report
d) site instruction

90. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a

project with the exception of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

91. Settlement of right-of-way problems should be done

a) during the construction work
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization

92. When will the Certificate of Final Inspection be issued?

a) after the supervision team has conducted final inspection
b) after the inter-bureau committee has conducted inspection
c) after the contractor has submitted the final completion request
d) after the one-year warranty period

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Set No. 82

93. If after fifty percent (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on
schedule no additional retention should be made otherwise the progress payment
should be imposed a retention rate of:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

94. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a) Density test
b) Core Boring test
c) California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test
d) Dynamic Cone Penetromenter test

95. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m.
How many Grading and Plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum
testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

96. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum
requirement) can still be used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the
following are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied during construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for a barangay road project
d) the foundation contains unsuitable materials

97. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by

an extra work is equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved
original contract. Up to what level of progress billing would you allow?
a) up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) up to the documented value not more than 65%

98. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment

oriented), which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

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Set No. 82

99. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for sides of
concrete beams and girders, the minimum time before forms and supports are
removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

100. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the
cross-sectional area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a) Velocity-Area Method
b) Float Velocity Method
c) Direct Volumetric Method
d) Indirect Method

15