AEHelp IELTS Test Book 2

AE Help and World ESL Tutors 2005-2012© are copyrighted products of 2Think1 Solutions Inc.
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Deborah Rogers
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Renata Benedek
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3
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Preface 3
Academic IELTS Test One 5
Academic IELTS Test Two 39
Academic IELTS Test Three 75
Transcripts and Keys 113
Audio Recordings
Test One Listening Parts 1-4 CD 1 Tracks 1-4
Test One Reading Passages 1-3 CD 1 Tracks 5-7
Test One Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 1 Tracks 8-10
Test Two Listening Parts 1-4 CD 2 Tracks 1-4
Test Two Reading Passages 1-3 CD 2 Tracks 5-7
Test Two Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 2 Tracks 8-10
Test Three Listening Parts 1-4 CD 3 Tracks 1-4
Test Three Reading Passages 1-3 CD 3 Tracks 5-7
Test Three Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 3 Tracks 8-10
British Accent – Numbers, Days, etc. CD 4 Tracks 1-7
4
PREFACE
The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is taken by well over one million
people each year, in over 130 countries. In order to gain entrance to university in many
countries around the world, the IELTS must be taken. The purpose of the test is to provide a
standardized base upon which candidates can show their ability to communicate using the
English language.
The IELTS is composed of four sections – Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. Each of these
sections tests a different set of the a didate s E glish la guage a ilities. Masteri g ea h of
these sections is an integral step in achieving a top score on the IELTS.
The accents heard on the recordings will be chiefly British. However, you may hear Australian,
Canadian or New Zealander accents occasionally. The differing accents should not be an
obstacle for any test-taker. This book comes with an audio CD containing British accent
recordings of common words, such as days of the week, months of the year, measurements,
currency, and other useful terms.
The test s four se tio s together take 2 hours a d i utes to o plete. The first three
sections are done together, while the speaking section is completed within a week of the testing
date. The listening section is composed of four parts, and contains dialogues, monologues,
lectures and conversations from everyday situations. Students are asked 40 questions based on
the four recordings. The reading section is composed of three passages which are taken from
newspapers, magazines or journals. Students are asked 40 questions based on the three reading
passages. The writing section is composed of two parts, one of which is a short report based on
given data, which can be presented as a table, chart, diagram, or other form. The second part
asks the candidate to write a short essay in response to a given question or statement.
Candidates are given 60 minutes to complete the writing section. The speaking section is
composed of three parts, two of which take the form of a conversation, and one which involves
the candidate giving a one to two minute response to a given question. The speaking section
takes between ten and fifteen minutes.
This book is a great tool for students to practise their IELTS skills. The book is composed of a
curriculum test, a review test, and two full-length practice tests, complete answer keys and
complete audio transcripts. The two practice tests contain all of the question types you are likely
to see on the IELTS. The audio transcripts contain highlighted sections showing where each
answer in the test is taken from. The reading section answers have also been highlighted in a
similar fashion. For the writing and speaking sections, sample responses have been provided.
For the speaking section, audio samples have been provided as well. The curriculum test
contains all the possible question types altogether in a single test. It is not in the same form as a
standard IELTS test. Rather, it is meant to be used in combination with the IELTS online flash
course. It can also be taken apart section-by-section, part-by-part and used to study specific
question types and strategies. The review test is in the form of a standard IELTS test, and serves
as a test of what you have learned whilst studying the IELTS online course and the curriculum
test. This book contains everything you need to do well on the IELTS. If you are looking to
improve your IELTS score, you are in the right place!
5
Practice Test One Candidate Name _________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
LISTENING SECTION
TIME: 30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write your
name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all questions. All
recordings will be played only once. Write all your answers on the test paper itself. After the
section is over, you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to the given answer
sheet. You are not permitted to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into four parts as follows:
Section 1 Questions 1-10

Test 1 7
Test 1
LISTENING
SECTION 1 - Questions 1-10 (CD1 Track 1)
Questions 1 and 2
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Example:
Where would the man like to play football?
A Liverpool
B Chester
C London
1 How many football matches has the man played in the league?
A 10
B0
C 40-50
2 What position does the man play?
A Midfield
B Goalkeeper
C Striker
8
Questions 3-4
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
Name: Steven 3…………..
Address: 452 King George Avenue
Post Code: 4…………..
Birthday: 8 September, 1986
Contact Number: 329 63 32 70
Question 5
5 Match the time with the event.
Choose the correct letter, A-D.
A 30 September 5 Steven’s first match

B 28 September
C 3 October
D 1 October
Questions 6-7
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
League Game Length Players on Roster Minimum Playing Time
Autumn 80 minutes 6…………… 7…………….
Question 8
8 Why does the man say he’s lucky?
A He was able to find a team to play on.

B There is a minimum playing time requirement
C The playing field is close to where he lives
Test 1 9
Questions 9-10
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
9 What is the cost of the football league?
___________________________
10 How does the man pay for the registration fee?
___________________________
10
SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20 (CD1 Track 2)
Questions 11 and 12
Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.
11 What was the overall capacity of the Titanic?
A 800
B 3500
C 4300
12 What was the cost of a third class ticket?
A Between 30 and 870 pounds

B Between 1 and 2 pounds
C Between 3 and 8 pounds
Questions 13-15
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
What were three benefits of a first class ticket?
A Water tight doors

B Luxurious rooms
C Great entertainment
D High quality meals
E Access to casino
F Lower deck rooms
Question 16
16 Which of the following is the best representation of the Titanic?
A B C
Test 1 11
Questions 17-20
Complete the flow chart of events leading to the sinking of the Titanic. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Extremely calm night - no 17………. crashed against icebergs.
↓
The Titanic hit the iceberg.
↓
The water tight 18…….… failed.
↓
Many 19………… left the ship half-full.
↓
1523 people die. Most from the freezing cold temperatures of the 20………
12
SECTION 3 – Questions 21-30 (CD1 Track 3)
Question 21
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
21 What day of the week does the discussion take place?
______________________
Questions 22-23
Complete the chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
The group’s task When the task is completed
22__________ the project Today
Doing the project Tonight
Putting together the project 23___________
Question 24
24 Who paid the cost of the poster board?
A One of the women

B One of the women’s father
C The man’s father
Test 1 13
Question 25-26
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
25 The topic must be an event that occurred some time between the years _________ and
__________
26 What topic would the male student like to write on, but cannot due to assignment
restrictions?
___________________
Questions 27-30
Where do the students decide to put each historical figure?
A On the sides of the poster

B In the middle of the poster
C They do not include this historical figure.
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
27 Robespierre ………………..
28 Rousseau ………………..
29 Louis XVI ………………..
30 Napoleon Bonaparte ………………..
14
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 (CD1 Track 4)
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Climate Change
Background Information
Humanity, as well as other species may have to drastically alter their
31…………………….. and ……….……………
Earth’s surface temperature has risen an estimated one degree Centigrade in the past
century.
Businesses and environmentalists have been at odds with one another, but the emergence
of 32……….…………… may change this.
Causes and Implications
Climate change is cause by greenhouse gases, specifically 33……….……………
Warmer weather can cause extreme weather patterns. Ice caps could melt, and famine
could occur.
Northern Canada may become a beneficiary. As far as food production is concerned, it
could become a more productive place for 34……….……………
A big negative is that the melting permafrost contains a lot of carbon which will be
released if the icecaps melt.
Who is going to change?
People who think each person is responsible for themselves believe that small steps such
as using energy efficient 35……….…………… or riding a bike can help.

Test 1 15
Governments from developing nations want developed countries to pay them for causing
such environmental damage.
Economics
The 36……….…………… of supply and demand has been in charge of economics for a
long time.
Economists wonder when consumer demand for environmental products will surpass
products that pollute.
One solution to this problem is to institute a 37…………………….. tax on each purchase
which is deemed to be environmentally unfriendly.
This would provide an economic 38…………………………….. to buy environmentally
friendly products.
Conclusion
Climate change is going to change our way of life. Who will pay for the necessary
changes in our consumption patterns? With the growing demand for environmentally
friendly goods, it is arguably 39………………. which can best answer this question.
It is apparent, however, that 40……………….. have a responsibility to look after the
environment.
16
Practice Test 1 Candidate Name __________________
READING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES
name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all questions. Write
all your answers on the answer sheet provided. You are not permitted to take this exam booklet
out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into three parts as follows:
Reading Passage 1 Questions 1-12

Test 1 17
READING
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 5)
Mountains of Ice
The word ‘iceberg’ derives from the Dutch word ‘ijsberg’, meaning ‘ice
mountain’. Icebergs are sections of glaciers that have broken off during the
warmer summer months and float freely in open water. Icebergs are typically
found in open water, predominantly around Greenland and Antarctica. The
characteristics of icebergs, their historical impact, and the methods we
employ today to monitor them are important topics.
The reason icebergs exist is because of the difference between the density of
ice and the density of salt water. The density of ice is approximately 920
kilograms per cubic metre, while the density of salt water is approximately
1025 kilograms per cubic metre. Because ice is less dense than water, it
floats. However, because the difference in densities is so small, only about
10% of the iceberg is visible above the ocean’s surface. The rest of the
iceberg hides below the water. This is the origin of the familiar expression ‘tip
of the iceberg’ used to describe a situation where only part of the problem is
noticeable.
Icebergs range in height from one metre all the way up to over 75 metres
above sea level - the height measures the visible portion of the iceberg. The
tallest icebergs may have a total height of over 650 metres including their
underwater portion. The largest ever recorded was 168 metres above the
18
water, meaning the entire height of this floater was likely greater than 1500
metres. For reference, that is twice the height of most skyscrapers.
Different sized icebergs have different name classifications. The smallest

icebergs are called ‘brash ice’, the next category up in size is called ‘growlers’
and the ones after that are called ‘bergy bits’. For whatever reason, after
those three classes, the people in charge of naming the icebergs got a little
less creative. The next classes simply range from ‘small’ to ‘very large’.
Icebergs can be massive objects. Very large icebergs can weigh more than
200,000 tonnes. The largest iceberg ever recorded was over 30,000 square
kilometers in area. Again, for reference, that is the approximate size of the
country of Belgium.
The most famous iceberg in history is undoubtedly the one which eventually
sunk the English ship Titanic off the coast of Newfoundland in 1912. At that
point in time, there was no central group which monitored iceberg activity.
Ships relied on lookouts to spot the icebergs. For the Titanic, the unfortunate
attitude was that any iceberg big enough to do damage to the ship would be
seen in time. This attitude was, of course, catastrophically wrong. The main
reason it failed was the remarkable calmness of the water that ill-fated night.
The easiest way to spot an iceberg from afar is to see waves crashing up
against it, but on the night the Titanic sank, there were no such helpful
waves. For all intents and purposes, the iceberg was invisible until it was too
late. The captain swerved at the last minute, but as the side of the ship
scraped across the iceberg, the hull of the ocean liner tore open. Things still
may have been fine, had it not been for the poorly designed ‘water-tight’
compartments. It turns out that when too many compartments were
affected, the water was simply able to spill over to all the other
compartments. This was an engineering defect that contributed to the
Titanic’s sinking.
After the disaster of the Titanic, maritime authorities realized that a system
needed to be put into place to monitor icebergs, so that such a catastrophe
would not be repeated. By 1914, the International Ice Patrol (IIP) was
formed. Their purpose was to track all of the relevant meteorological and
oceanographical data, and to chart the movement of all major icebergs.
Today, technology is used to track iceberg data. The Canadian Space Agency
has multiple radar satellites which send microwaves off the ocean surface
and record the reflection to track the movement of the icebergs. Maritime
vessels have access to this information in real time which allows them to
know exactly where any local icebergs are at any moment, meaning that a
repeat of the Titanic disaster is virtually impossible.
Test 1 19
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1 Icebergs are sections of glaciers that have broken off in the winter months.
2 Icebergs exists because of the different densities of ice and salt water.
3 90% of the iceberg is hidden below the water.
4 The name classifications of icebergs derive from the Dutch language.
5 Some icebergs can be the size of a country.
20
Questions 6-9
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.
The Sinking of the Titanic
Because there was no international group which monitored icebergs in 1912, it was the
sole responsibility of the 6……………… to make sure there were no icebergs in the
ship’s path. The chief reason the iceberg wasn’t detected was the 7…………. of the sea
that night. Because of this there were no waves crashing against the iceberg, making it
difficult to spot. The captain swerved, but the iceberg scraped the side of the ship, ripping
the 8………….. of the ship. Things should have been fine nevertheless, but the water
tight compartments were poorly designed, and once the water was in a few
compartments, it was able to 9…………. into all the others. This was a major
engineering defect which resulted in the eventual sinking.
Questions 10-13
Complete the sentences below.
Choose no more than TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
10 To avoid a Titanic-like disaster in the future, …………………………… formed the

International Ice Patrol (IIP).
11 The IIP’s goal is to track the relevant data and …………………….. of icebergs.
12 The Canadian Space Agency bounces ……………………………… off the water to

measure iceberg movement.
13 This data renders large scale maritime disasters …………………………..

Test 1 21
READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A, C, and D-G, from the list of headings
below.
Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Violent eruptions - magma, lava and new islands

ii The destruction of Pompeii
iii Two continents become many
iv Fossil evidence
v Adjacent continents
vi An intuitive notion
vii The Ring of Fire
viii The invisible threat
ix Gondwana comes together
x A hypothesis of unity and disunity
xi A mechanism to match the theory is found
14 Paragraph A
Example Answer
Paragraph B x
15 Paragraph C
16 Paragraph D
17 Paragraph E
18 Paragraph F
19 Paragraph G
22
SEISMIC SHIFTS, SILENT DRIFTS

A When looking at a map of the world, it is natural to notice that Africa and South
A ‘ ’, .
this insight which led Flemish cartographer Abraham Ortelius in 1596 to put forward for
the first time the idea that at one period the continents were in different places than they
are today. It would take over 300 years for the theory to be fully developed, and fifty years
after that for the mechanism of the phenomenon to be discovered.
B It was not until 1915 that German geologist Alfred Wegener proposed the
, E ’
that float slowly over the molten mantle and core of the Earth. Wegener argued that in the
. ‘ ’,
‘ E ’. W 200 ,
this supercontinent began to break up, and the pieces began to move away from each
other.
C Initially, Pangaea divided into two parts, named Laurasia and Gondwana. Laurasia
consisted of what is today North America, Asia and Europe, whilst Gondwana comprised
modern-day South America, Africa and Australia. These supercontinents eventually split
, ’ .
’ – E ’
cont . , E ’
masses will return to a Pangaea-like unified state.
D The evidence for continental drift is plentiful. The most common evidence is the
discovery of the same type of dinosaurs in extremely different locations. The same type of
dinosaur fossil will be found in northeastern parts of South America as well as
northwestern parts of Africa. The logical explanation for phenomena such as this is that at
one time, these parts of the world were not only connected, but adjacent.
E The evidence for continental drift was discovered long before an explanation for it
was found. It was during the 1960s that the theory of plate tectonics was developed. This
new theory explained full E ’ - that it was broken up into many
pieces that tended to smack into each other and pull apart from each other. In extreme
, , ’
massive mountains to be formed when the plate hits another. This is precisely what has
happened over the past millions of years with the Indian Plate colliding with the Eurasian
Plate, in the process creating the Himalayas, which include the tallest mountain on Earth,
Mount Everest.
F Plate Tectonics are not only responsible for mountains and the movement of the
continents, they are also responsible for volcanoes. Volcanoes usually result from one of
two plate configurations: they form in places where the plates are colliding, or where the
plates are pulling apart. In the first case, the plates come together, pushing against each
Test 1 23
other causing friction and heat, which allows some of the crust material to melt, resulting
in liquid magma. Because magma is less dense than the surrounding rock, it ends up rising
to the surface, where it becomes a volcano. An example of this type of volcano is the
famous Mount Vesuvius, which destroyed the city of Pompeii in 79 C.E. The second type of
volcano comes from divergent plates. These types tend to be underwater, as in the mid-
oceanic ridges. Volcanic islands, such as Iceland and Hawaii, were formed by underwater
volcanic activity eventually spewing off enough matter to form land above the water.
G Of course, there is one final important result of plate tectonics – earthquakes.

Earthquakes are perhaps the most terrifying of all natural disasters – they are practically
. E ’ .E
happen along fault lines, places where two plates are colliding, diverging, or slipping past
each other. In the case where the two plates are attempting to slip past each other, the
most devastating earthquakes can occur. This is because friction does not allow the plates
to pass each other until sufficient energy to counteract the resistance has been built up. So
the two plates rub against each other for centuries or millennia until one day they finally
. “ ” . s slip occurs in the
E ’ ,
tsunami. If this slip occurs directly beneath a major city, massive destruction will result.
There are many such cities at risk of these earthquakes, many of them along what is known
“ ” . ,
Francisco, Vancouver and Santiago. Understanding plate tectonics reveals that it is not a
‘ ’ y an earthquake, it is only a question of
‘ ?’.
24
Questions 20-23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
20 It took over 350 years for the theory and mechanism of continental drift to be fully
developed.
21 The earth’s crusty shell is made up of plates which float slowly across the ocean
22 There is significant evidence that India was once attached to Antarctica.
23 Mount Everest is a result of a collision between the Eurasian and Himalayan plates.
Questions 24-26
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.
24 Plate tectonics result in mountains, volcanoes and
25 Volcanoes result from the difference in
26 A tsunami can result from a slip in
A the density of common rock and magma
B the combination of high temperature and low density
C the temperature of the crust and mantle
D the changing climate of today's earth
E the part of the crust lying beneath open water
F the motion of the continents

Test 1 25
READING PASSAGE 3
Causes of the American Economic Crisis

When discussing the causes of the late 2000s American subprime mortgage crisis, it is
easy to lay all the blame on the banks, but it is incorrect to claim innocent the individual
homebuyers involved, as well as the American government as a whole. There are many
instances in the years leading up to the crisis where moral obligations failed to be met.
For the home-buyers, it is a case of ignoring a scenario which was, upon deeper
inspection, too good to be true. For the bankers, it was falling prey to their own laissez-
faire loaning policies, lending without giving much interest to the mandates required of
the borrower. For the government, it was instituting such a laissez-faire system in the
first place, free of regulatory checks and balances.
If a person falls prey to an email scam, the blame is deservedly placed on the hapless
person. Society feels pity for them, but nobody feels the government should reimburse
the individual for their lack of caution: the person in this scenario has affected no one
but the self. If a perso falls pre to a too good to e true su pri e ortgage a d
ends up bankrupt, he or she is not just hurting themselves, they are also hurting society
because that debt inevitably rests with the populace. Thus, while a person has no social
responsibility to act a certain way in the case of the email scam, a person does have a
social obligation when it comes to actions that can hurt society, such as taking on a
subprime mortgage. The counterargument here is that people perceive banks as
possessing a certain level of trustworthiness, and that it is unreasonable to expect
people to ha e their too good to e true radar a ti e he deali g ith a ks.
Nevertheless people do have an ethical obligation to be aware of pitfalls, and being told
it s oka trust orth i stitutio s is si pl ot a suffi ie t e use.
Banks have a responsibility to protect their customers, and to look out for the general
economic health of not just their company, but of the entire industry. The American
banks failed in these considerations in each of these regards. First, they offered
mortgages to millions of ill-qualified buyers who were clearly not going to be able to
fulfill the requirements of the mortgage to make the loans viable. Individual lenders
26
acted selfishly, exploiting very relaxed lending policies to benefit their own finances.
Second, banks failed to look after the health of their own companies. This is not a failure
of individual bankers, but a failure of those in management positions. Many U.S.
companies that need a multi-billion dollar bailout are an unmitigated disaster. Although
this failure falls more in line with the email scam, that is to say a failure which is not a
social failure but a business failure, the social failure lies in the banks o ligatio to the
entire industry, and the economy as a whole. Each bank is responsible for a small piece
of the economic pie. If one bank fails, it appears as a blip on the radar. However, with
each individual failure the threshold for failure for the remaining companies is lowered.
It is in this sense that companies have a moral obligation to do good business – because
if they do not, they raise the chances of bankruptcy for each of their competitors and
the economy as a whole. Eventually the threshold of failure is so low that almost all
lending has to cease, and a recession is ignited.
In this investigation of blame placing, arguably the body who holds the most
responsibility is the American government. The truth is that if people are not protected
from themselves by the government, society cannot function well. The wholly free
arket is aki to a e o o i ersio of Ho es state of ature – people acting like
tigers a d ears tr i g to get ea h other s o e . So iet does ot ork opti all he
it pays overwhelming dividends for people to act selfishly. It takes regulation in
e o o i poli to for e people i to a ti g i so iet s est i terests. O e of the duties
of a government is to protect its citizens from each other, and in this case the American
government has failed catastrophically. Defenders of the free market will claim that this
recession is simply a temporary bump in the road for what is arguably the greatest
economic power in world history. They will claim that the free market is in the best
interest of everyone, despite its rather unsightly undercarriage. In response, it can be
argued that the u ps i the road are s pto ati of a s ste i eed of heali g,
means of regulation. Unfortunately, American culture is such that any regulation is seen
as government interference in private affairs, and such intervention conflicts with
American ideals. Economics is not the only arena where this belief system is played out.
Americans continue to allow their poorest citizens to live without proper health care,
and they put the burden of the cost of higher education directly on students (many
European countries fully subsidize higher education). Until this distaste for government
intervention is cast aside, events like the subprime mortgage crisis will continue to
occur. Whether they are merely bumps on the economic road, or signs of forthcoming
systemic collapse, in both cases the government has failed to fulfill their role to save the
citizens from themselves. In regard to subprime mortgages, regulation of banking is like
an insurance policy for the economy. It may lower profits - insurance policies cost
money - ut it s oothes out the u ps i the road . As lo g as the A eri a
government continues to turn a blind eye to these insurance policies, they will continue
to put the social well-being of its citizens at risk.
Test 1 27
Questions 27-30

27 Those that fall for common scams deserve to be compensated by society.
28 Many homeowners are too young and irresponsible.
29 Society trusts the banking system.
30 Homebuyers have an ethical obligation to beware of “trustworthy” institutions.
Questions 31-33
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.
31 Banks have a responsibility to
32 Each bank is responsible for
33 A recession is started when
A the breathing room for failure is so low that lending has to stop
B reassure the people that it is okay to borrow money
C instructing their employees to lend to ill-qualified buyers
D their small part of the big economic picture
E protect the industry they are a part of
F the banks have to receive a “bail out” from the government
28
Questions 34-39
Complete the summary using the list of words, A- H below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 34-39 on your answer sheet.
The American Government’s Role
It is the American government which is arguably most responsible for the economic
crisis. In order to 34………………..properly, people must be sheltered from possible
problems created by 35……………… Regulation is required in any society in order to
coerce people into acting for the benefit of 36……………. Government is in place to
serve its citizens, and in this case it has failed. Apologists will say that the recession is
just a 37………………on the radar of American supremacy, while others say that such
bumps on the road are 38……………….of serious problems. Regulation is the solution
to the problem, but the American 39…………..of independence and small government
will be very difficult to crack.
A everyone B borrow
C popularity D themselves
E blip F culture
G desires H function
I signs J government
Question 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.
40 Which of the following phrases best describes the main aim of Reading Passage 3?
A to suggest that the recession is the fault of the American government alone
B to suggest that people need to stop trusting banks
C to suggest that every person and company needs to be responsible to each other
D to suggest that the American government needs to “bail out” companies when they
need the money
Test 1 29
Practice Test One Candidate Name __________________
WRITING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES
your responses in the answer booklet provided. You are not permitted to take this exam booklet
There are 2 tasks in this section. You must do both. If you do not meet the minimum length
requirements provided, you will be penalized.
30
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The chart below shows the sales at a café which is located next to a very large high
school. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
Sales: Period from April to August, 2010
April May June July August
Breakfast 21,250 22,130 17,890 11,250 10,880
Lunch 28,050 27,970 24,110 18,500 19,320
Dinner 15,450 15,400 15,800 16,250 16,050
You should write at least 150 words.

Test 1 31
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend no more than 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:
In a public-funded healthcare system, people who are willing to pay for the best and
fastest treatment should be able to do so.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your
answer, and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
32
SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
PART 1 (Sample Response – CD1 Track 8)
Let’s talk about sports.

What kind of sports do you enjoy playing?
What are some sports you have never played? Why?
Do you prefer team sports or individual sports? Why?
Why do you think people play sports?
What is the most popular sport in your country? Why do people like this sport?
Describe a role model you have had in your life.
You should say:
-Who the person is.

-His or her relation to you.
-What impact this person has had on your life.
-What makes them a role model.
You will have one to two minutes to talk about this topic.
You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say.
You can make notes if you wish.
What attributes should a good role model have?

Why are role models important?
Have you been a role model to anyone?
What responsibilities does a role model have?
Can having role models be a bad thing? Why?
Test 1 33
IELTS Listening Answer Sheet
Listening Listening Listening Listening Listening

Marker use Marker use
only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening Total
34
IELTS Reading Answer Sheet
Reading Reading Reading Reading Reading

only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
Test 1 35
WRITING ANSWER SHEET
TASK 1
36
Test 1 37
TASK 2
38
Test 1 39
Test 1 40
Practice Test Two Candidate Name _________________
LISTENING SECTION
TIME: 30 MINUTES

Test 2 41
Test 2
LISTENING
Questions 1-4
Complete the form below.
Example Answer
Length of Membership Three Months
Gym Membership Application Form
Name William 1………….
Address 1653 2…………Street
City Liverpool
Postal Code 3………..
Date of Birth April 9, 1980
Residential Number 4………..
Mobile Number 312 77 83 91
Medical Issues None
42
Question 5
What does the lounge look like?
A. B.
C. D.
Question 6
Match the membership option with its benefit. Write the correct number next to the letter.
A. 3 Basic 1. Access to the lounge

B. __ Premium 2. Access to facilities around England
C. __ Premium-Plus 3. Access to the main floor.
Test 2 43
Questions 7-10
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
7 How many gyms does the company operate in England? ……………….
8 What is the cost of the premium membership? ………… pounds
9 Who is Bill going to ask to join him at the gym? ……………….
10 What time is Bill meeting Mike the following day? ……………….
44
Questions 11-12
What are the two provinces directly west and directly east of the province of Alberta?
Match the diagram with the choices given below.
A Vancouver
B Saskatchewan
C Calgary
D British Columbia
E Regina
Questions 13-14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
“One million people” is the number used to describe two groups in the recording. Which
two of these groups does it describe?
A The population of Alberta

B The population of British Columbia
C The population of Calgary
D The number of visitors to the Calgary Stampede each year
E The number of visitors to Calgary each year
Test 2 45
Questions 15 and 16
15 Which industry is Calgary well known for?
A Wheat
B Oil
C Natural gas
16 Which of these events did Calgary host?
A The Stanley Cup

B Winter Olympics
C Expo ‘88
Question 17
17 Average summer highs in Calgary reach how many degrees Celsius?
___________________________
Questions 18-20
Complete the information sheet below.
Average winter highs in Calgary reach 18………….. two degrees. Chinook winds can
raise the temperature by up to fifteen degrees Celsius, and can last anywhere from a few
hours to a few 19…………….. Calgary is also one of the driest cities in Canada, as well
as one of the 20………………
46
Question 21
21 Why does the student go to see the professor?
A She has been in the hospital

B She has been ill
C She registered late
Questions 22-28
Fill out the details of the class syllabus.
Class times 22…………. and Thursday, 10:00 - 11:30
Location 23………….. building, room A313
24…………… Monday and Wednesday, 2:30 - 4:00
Required Books Book one, available at the bookshop. Cost: £25…………
Book two, available at 26………. Books. Cost: £15
Course Work First essay - 15%
Second essay – 27…………%
Midterm exam - 20%
28………….. - 40%
Test 2 47
Question 29
29 How long should the first assignment be, approximately?
_____________________
Question 30
The student’s class ends at 11:30 AM on the day the paper is due. Decide whether a paper
handed in is on time or late.
Write the correct letter, A or B, next to question 30.
A The student receives a late penalty

B The essay is on time - no penalty
30 The paper is handed in at 5:00 PM the same day, dropped off at the department office,
with no time stamp received.
______________________
48
Questions 31-33
31 Which of these events happened 65 million years ago?
I The dinosaurs became extinct.

II Tyrannosaurus Rex came into existence
III Tyrannosaurus Rex died out
IV A large asteroid hit the earth
A I, III
B I, II, III, IV
C I, III, IV
32 Tyrannosaurus Rex lived during which time?
A Jurassic
B Late Cretaceous
C Late Triassic
33 How tall was Tyrannosaurus Rex?
A 12 metres
B 6 metres
C 7 metres
Question 34
34 The theory which explains why fossils are found in very different regions of the world
is called __________________
Test 2 49
Questions 35-40
Complete the table below.
Tyrannosaurus Rex – Predator or Scavenger?
Evidence Implication Conclusion
Extremely 35………. arms Arms are important for hunting 36………..
Able to detect carcasses from long

Strong sense of smell 37………… Scavenger
Able to tear through tough

Large, serrated teeth 38……….. 39………….
40………… teeth Did not have to be careful with teeth Predator
50
Practice Test Two Candidate Name __________________
READING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES

Test 2 51
READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Lotteries
Positive Good or Unnecessary Wrong?
A A lottery is a form of gambling where contestants purchase tickets, with one or more
tickets being drawn as winners at the end of the competition period. Often, there is a jackpot
winner who wins most or all of the prize pool. Today, national lottery jackpots can range from
millions to hundreds of millions of dollars. It wasn’t long ago that lotteries were outlawed almost
everywhere in the world. Today, lotteries are legal in North America, Australia, and much of Europe
and Asia. A question is raised over what has changed to make something previously seen as
negative for society, become common across the globe. If gambling is bad, why are lotteries so
popular, and why do governments support them?
B People buy lottery tickets for one chief reason - they want to win the jackpot. In the long
run, lotteries are a “bad bet”. The odds of winning are always stacked against the player - that is to
say the long-term expected return on the player’s money is significantly less than the money paid
for the tickets. This is how the lottery corporations make money on the lottery – the payout is far
less than the revenue of the ticket sales, and the government takes the difference. If one million
tickets are sold at five dollars a piece, and the jackpot is three million dollars, then the government
has made two million dollars of profit in the process. We are forced to question why lotteries are so
popular given their poor value for players. It’s because of the thrill of possibly winning the jackpot -
the anticipation of a life-changing win for the ticket purchaser is worth the money. It’s the same
reason why people gamble at casinos. Many people know they are not going to win in the long run
at a casino, but the short term thrill makes up for the long term losses.
C The main argument against lotteries is that it acts as a tax on the poor, and such a tax is
unfair. This is because statistics show that poor people are by far the most common purchasers of
lottery tickets. There are two reasons why this could be the case. First, poor people have the most
to gain by winning the lottery; second, poor people are arguably less likely to have a statistical
understanding of the lottery – they are less likely to realize that it is a ‘bad bet’.
D The main argument in favour of lotteries is that it is harmless fun which results in tax
income that often goes straight to community programs such as sports or the arts. Many
community programs rely solely on lottery finances to operate, so in this sense the lottery is a
positive good. However, there are many people, often poor people, who become obsessed with
52
gambling and the lottery, and it starts to take over their lives. For these people, the lottery is
detrimental.
E One interesting way to look at the lottery, and why people participate in it, is to imagine it
as a kind of ‘reverse insurance’. People buy insurance for their home or car so that if something
bad happens to it, they do not have to pay the entire cost of the damage. In other words, they pay
a little bit each month so that they don’t have to pay a large amount at one time. They pay these
smaller amounts to insurance companies, and those insurance companies make money in the long
run. So paying insurance is not a ‘good bet’ either, just like the lottery. With the lottery, we pay “little
amounts” every once in a while so that maybe we will hit the jackpot. With insurance, we pay a little
to save a lot, and with the lottery, we pay a little to win a lot. When looked at in this way, the
popularity of the lottery is more easily understood.
F When it comes down to it, lotteries are a choice. Yes, they amount to a ‘tax’, but so do the
monthly fees we pay to insurance companies. If people want to pay a few dollars here and there for
a little fun, excitement and a small chance to win a monstrous amount of money, then what’s the
harm? Additionally, lottery monies fund many valuable community programs which otherwise would
have trouble operating. Playing the lottery responsibly is fun, exciting and maybe, just maybe,
extremely profitable.
Test 2 53
Questions 1-5
Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A-F.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
1 The problem of gambling addiction.
2 Those less fortunate are more likely to play the lottery.
3 The legality of lotteries.
4 The financial incentive for governments to run lotteries.
5 Community initiatives are funded by lottery proceeds.
Questions 6-9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
6 Lotteries are outlawed almost everywhere.
7 In the long run, a person who plays the lottery should expect to lose money.
8 Lotteries are popular because they serve as a pleasurable diversion from everyday life.
9 Many people play the lottery without an understanding of its statistical background.
54
Questions 10-13
Complete the summary using the list of words, A- H below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
Lotteries as “Reverse Insurance”
The reason why people play the lottery can be viewed in terms of what is called “reverse
insurance”. People buy insurance in order to prevent an accident from making them
bankrupt. They pay small amounts each month so they don’t have to pay the whole price
of the 10……………. done. Like the lottery corporations, insurance companies turn a
11………………… in the long run. With insurance, we pay small amounts to avoid
paying a massive amount. With the lottery, we pay small amounts so we might win the
12……………….. From this perspective, the lottery’s 13……………….. makes a lot of
sense.
A damage B insurance
C popularity D benefit
E good bet F profit
G jackpot H amount
Test 2 55
READING PASSAGE 2
The Siberian and Bengal tigers are two tigers live in a warmer, more southern
of the most well-known types of tigers. climate. They reside mostly in India, but
These tigers are very similar, in fact they also in Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.
come from the same species, but they Bengal tigers are the most numerous of
do have some important differences. all tigers, with approximately 1800 living
These similarities and differences, while in the wild worldwide. Siberian tigers,
interesting to note, are vital pieces of conversely, number only about 200-300
information for the people in charge of in their natural habitats.
the conservation of endangered species
of tigers. Wildlife conservationists have Both tigers are extremely popular zoo
to tell the difference between the two in exhibits, which further contributes to the
order to keep accurate counts of the low numbers of both, especially the
respective populations. Siberian tiger. There have been efforts to
breed Siberian tigers in captivity, and
The first main difference between the many of these efforts have been
two tigers is the location of their successful; however, the offspring are
habitats. The Siberian tiger today lives unfit to live in the wild. At the very least,
only in the far northeast part of Russia these efforts allow zoos to maintain their
called Siberia, although it used to live as exhibits without taking even more tigers
far west as western Asia and as far east out of the wild population.
as parts of Alaska. One of the main
reasons Siberian tigers do not live in Siberian tigers, on average, are larger
China anymore is due to widespread than Bengals. The average weight of a
illegal hunting there in the past. Bengal Bengal male is about 220 kilograms,
56
while the weight of a Siberian averages Bengals eat animals such as wild boar,
slightly heavier. Amazingly, Siberian water buffalo and chital, while Siberian
tigers can be as large as 320 kilograms! tigers eat primarily wild boar, deer and
The lengths of these animals are also moose. Bengals and Siberians have very
different. On average, male Siberian similar reproduction cycles. Both tigers
tigers have a nose-to-tail length of three reach maturity around four years of age,
metres, while the Bengal’s length is at which time they begin their mating
slightly shorter. Their tail lengths, rituals. The females are pregnant for
interestingly, are the same, averaging about 15 weeks and give birth to
about one metre. One notable between one and four cubs. Each of
observation is that the farther north in these cubs weighs about a kilogram, and
the Bengal tigers’ habitat, the larger the will be entirely dependant on their
animals get. The average weight of a mother for the first six months of life.
tiger in northern India is about 15kg After that time, they begin their learning
more than ones in southern India, where process, where they develop the skills
the average recorded weight is 220kg. they need to hunt and kill for survival.
After two or three years, the cubs are
Another clear difference between the ready to leave their mother and hunt
two tigers is the seasonal growth of a independently, and at the age of four or
‘winter coat’ for the Siberian tiger. Since five, they reach sexual maturity and so
they live in northern Russia, which is an the cycle continues.
unforgiving climate in the winter, the
ability to endure temperatures well One last difference between the two
below freezing is essential for survival. tigers is a significant one, especially for
Unlike the Bengal tiger, which lives in humans. Neither tiger hunts humans as
more equatorial climates around India, part of their normal diet, but one of the
where the temperatures are more or less two tigers is known to be a man-eater.
the same year-round, the Siberian lives The Bengal tiger, under the right
in a climate where the temperature can circumstances, will eat humans. Bengals
vary more than fifty degrees Celsius. will attack humans in two cases. First,
Because of this, Siberians grow longer they will attack humans who interfere
fur in the winter. For example, the fur on with the Bengal’s hunting or feeding,
the Siberian’s back in the summer Bengal mothers do not take kindly to
measures about 16mm, while in winter people when they are feeding their cubs.
this length almost triples. The Bengal Also, older Bengals will kill humans for
tiger has no need for such a long winter food, because humans are easy to eat,
coat. unlike wild boar for example. Human
skin is soft and fleshy, perfect for an old
The two tigers share many similarities, tiger with weak muscles and worn down
including diet and reproduction. Being teeth. Siberians, however, will generally
carnivorous, other animals are the food not attack humans, unless they feel
supply for both. The types of animals threatened. As such, records show that
hunted are various due to the different Bengal attacks are far more common
regions that are home to these tigers. than Siberian attacks.
Test 2 57
Questions 14-18
Classify the following facts as applying to
A Bengal Tigers
B Siberian Tigers
Write the correct letter, A or B, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
14 Lives further from the equator
15 Has a significantly higher population
16 Exhibits large size fluctuations depending on geography
17 Grows no additional fur during different seasons
18 Lives in a climate with large temperature fluctuations
Questions 19-23

19 Both animals are primarily meat eaters.
20 The gestation period for females is about four years.
21 Young tigers need their mother for survival during their first half year.
22 Killing is a rite of passage which shows a cub is ready to leave its mother.
23 If a mother gives birth to 1-4 cubs, it is common for one not to live past six months.
58
Questions 24-26
Complete each sentence with information from the passage.
Write the answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.
24 Humans are not a part of the tigers’ regular …………………….
25 While not common, the Bengal tiger will resort to ……………………….. humans,
especially if they are unable to process the flesh of other animals.
26 Attacks by Bengals are often committed in defense of the tigers’ ……………………

Test 2 59
READING PASSAGE 3
EXPLOSIONS IN SPACE:
SUPERNOVAE
A Supernovae are among the most spectacular events in the universe. They are
incredibly powerful: in just a few weeks they can release the same amount of energy
as our sun will release in its entire lifetime. Supernovae are also the origin of many of
the elements that make up the universe. Most of the elements of the Periodic Table
require enormous amounts of energy to produce, and supernovae are the only source
of this energy. Due to their consistent brightness, supernovae are used to measure
large distances across the universe.
B There are two major types of supernovae, type Ia and type II. There are a
number of differences between the two, but the main difference is the process by
which they come into being. Type II supernovae originate from a dying star. A star
begins to die when it runs out of fuel. Fuel for stars is the element hydrogen. For their
entire lives, stars fuse hydrogen into helium, producing energy in the process. This
energy comes from the difference in mass between a helium molecule and the four
constituent hydrogen atoms. Four hydrogen atoms have a mass of approximately
4.0318 atomic mass units, while a helium atom’s mass is approximately 4.0026 atomic
mass units. The difference between these two values is the amount of mass which is
converted into pure energy. In a dying star, there is no more hydrogen - all that is left
60
is helium. At that point, the star begins to fuse helium molecules together to form
carbon molecules. Once all the carbon is gone, the star moves on to even heavier
elements, and the star consumes these heavier elements at faster and faster rates. A
star may take ten million years to consume its hydrogen, then take a million years to
consume its helium, a thousand years for the carbon, three years to consume the
neon, three months for the oxygen and only five days to convert all of the silicon into
iron. There is a stopping point, however. Once the core of the star is entirely iron,
there can be no more fusion. This is because the small difference in mass that is
converted into energy is not present in the case of iron. The star is then left with an
inactive iron core. Once the iron core reaches a certain mass called the
‘Chandrasekhar Limit’, the star can no longer exist under its own weight and it
collapses in on itself. The result is a cataclysmic type II supernova.
C The other type of supernova is the type Ia. Type Ia supernovae are formed
most commonly in binary star systems, where there are two stars which rotate around
a common point. For a supernova type Ia to occur, one of the stars has to be a white
dwarf. A white dwarf is the remnant of a low mass star that has come to the end of its
stellar life. Our sun will one day be a white dwarf because it lacks the mass needed to
blow up in a supernova type II explosion. In a binary system, the white dwarf star
gravitationally attracts matter from its companion star, with the matter taken from
the companion star becoming part of the white dwarf. Eventually the white dwarf
will have added so much mass that it begins to approach the Chandrasekhar Limit.
Once it hits this limit, just like in type II explosions, the white dwarf can no longer
sustain itself, and the core of the star collapses. The star blows itself up in an even
more spectacular event than the type II explosion.
D Type Ia supernovae are extremely bright - if the sun were to be replaced by a

type Ia supernova, it would appear five billion times brighter. This brightness is also
very consistent from one supernova type Ia to another supernova type Ia. This
consistency has led astronomers to use supernovae type Ia as what are called ‘standard
candles’. A standard candle is used to determine how far away an object is. For
example, if we observe a supernova type Ia in a nearby galaxy, we can tell very
accurately how far away it is by comparing the apparent brightness of the supernova
observed with its absolute brightness. Respectively, if the supernova is very bright,
the galaxy is quite close, if the supernova is very dim, the galaxy is very far away.
E Supernovae are responsible for every element in the universe that is heavier
than iron. Every atom of gold, silver, tin and lead, as well as eighty other elements in
the universe was born in a supernova. Supernovae are also the origin of most newly
born stars in the universe. Our sun, for example, was born from a cloud of dust and
Test 2 61
gas that was left over from a supernova. The Earth likewise was born from a
supernova. It is not too imaginative therefore to regard the plants, animals and
humans on this planet as a development of this supernova. Every atom of our bodies
was once scattered in a supernova explosion. Therefore many scientists believe
supernovae are the crucibles of existence itself.
62
Questions 27-32
Reading Passage 1 has five paragraphs, A-E.
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
27 Mass-energy conversion
28 The requirements for a type Ia supernova
29 Supernovae as intergalactic measuring sticks
30 Heavy elements come from supernovae
31 The fuel used for stars
32 Supernovae are the progenitors of much of existence
Questions 33-36
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
33 Type II supernovae originate from a star which is …………………………
34 The energy producing process in a star converts …………………… into
…………………….
35 The death process starts when all of the hydrogen is used up. The star then begins to
process ………………….. elements.
36 The first element that can no longer be fused into another element is
…………………….
Test 2 63
Question 37-40
Write the correct letter in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.
37 The sun will not become a type Ia supernova. Why not?
A It is not a white dwarf

B It will never reach the Chandrasekhar Limit
C It does not have a companion star
D It is going to be a type II supernova
38 The Chandrasekhar Limit is
A the mass at which a star will blow up in a supernova

B the distance between two stars at which a white dwarf will blow up in a supernova
C the time between fusing helium and fusing carbon
D the distance between two stars at which the giant star will blow up in a supernova
39 If two type Ia supernovae are observed and one is brighter than the other, what can be
concluded about the dimmer one?
A It gives off less light

B It is farther away
C It is closer
D It gives off more light and is farther away
40 Supernovae can be compared to
A the universe’s factory

B the universe’s graveyard
C the universe’s hospital
D the universe’s recycling center
64
Practice Test Two Candidate Name __________________
WRITING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES
Test 2 65
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
The chart below shows the hierarchical structure of a marketing company. Summarize the
information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
Mr. Dobbs
President & CEO
Ms. Fields - Mr. Gartner –

Mr. Tremblay -
Vice President of Advertising
Sales Executive
Marketing Executive
Ms. Clark –
Mr. Robbins – Mr. Smith – Sales Mr. Namath –
Advertising
Summer Intern Manager Sales Manager
Manager
66
WRITING TASK 2
Are higher taxes or lower taxes better for society?
Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.

Test 2 67
SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
Let’s talk about school.

Where do you go to school?
What other schools have you attended?
Which was your favourite? Why?
Do you enjoy school? Why or why not?
What is your favourite subject?
Are schools different in your country? How are they different?
Describe a television programme you enjoy.
You should say:

-The name of the programme.
-What kind of programme it is.
-Why you like it.
What makes a good television show?

How much television do you watch?
What television shows are popular in your country?
What impact does the internet have on television programmes?
What do you think the future of television is?
Should parents allow their children to watch television?

Do you think there is too much violence on television?
68

only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening Total
Test 2 69

only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
70
TASK 1
Test 2 71
72
TASK 2
Test 2 73
74
75
76
Practice Test Three Candidate Name _________________
LISTENING SECTION
TIME: 30 MINUTES

Test 3 77
Test 3
LISTENING
Questions 1-2
Example:
What nursery school registration option does the woman choose?
A Half-day
B Full-day
C Full-day plus after school care
1 What is the woman’s husband’s nationality?
A Swiss
B Swedish
C Swazi
2 How is a child’s personal education number normally received?
A By post
B By e-mail
C Picked up from the school
Question 3
3 Why is the husband out of town?
A Vacation
B Work
C Family reasons
78
Question 4
Choose three letters, A-F
4 Which THREE pieces of information are required to retrieve the child’s personal
education number?
A The woman’s Personal Insurance Number

B The husband’s Personal Insurance Number
C The woman’s National Insurance Number
D The husband’s National Insurance Number
E The woman’s name
F The husband’s name
Question 5
5 How is the husband’s name spelt?
A Erick
B Eric
C Erik
Questions 6-7
6 What is Matilda’s Personal Education Number?
A T56340192
B P56340192
C T56P40192
7 Where was the child born?
A Newcastle
B London
C Monterey
Test 3 79
Question 8
Choose two letters, A-F
8 What TWO qualifications do many of the nursery school’s senior staff have?
A One year diploma

B Two year diploma
C Three year diploma
D Master’s degree
E Bachelor’s degree
F Doctorate degree
Questions 9-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
First day of class: 9…………..
Orientation day: 3 September.
Orientation hours: 9:00 to mid-day.
10……and children should attend orientation.
80
Questions 11-13
Complete the table below.
University opened 11………
1745 - 1805 Shut down
1805-1815 12……… buildings constructed
In the past 13…….. years Seven buildings constructed
Question 14
14 The Prescott Building has which layout?
A B C
Question 15
15 How many years ago were the Persian carpets donated?
_______________________________
Test 3 81
Question 16
16 What discount do students receive at the local pub?
A 30%
B 40%
C 3%
Questions 17-20
Complete the summary.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
In front of the library, there is a beautiful 17……… Inside the library, the ground floor
has 18………. books. The upper floors, however, house over 3,000,000 books. The
collection was built by donations, gifts and university purchases. Additionally, there is a
19……….. area, with works dating back to 1588. There are many sporting facilities,
including the rugby field, which is home to the rugby team which has won three of the
past five 20………….
82
Questions 21-23
21 If an Egyptian’s income was 10 000, how much would be given to the pharaoh?
__________________________
22 The first reason mentioned for taxes is __________________
23 The second reason for taxes, known as ____________, takes money from the rich and
gives it to the poor.
Questions 24-26
Complete the flow chart.
Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 24-26.
Product
A Revenue
B Alcohol
C Redistribution
25………………… 24……………….. D Repricing
E General goods
F Production
Subject to Allowed to go
26………. Ta to free market
Questions 27-29
Which THREE of the following are arguments given in favour of lower taxes?
Write the THREE correct letters, A-F, next to questions 27-29 (in any order).
A It is easier to make money when you are already rich.

B Businesses will leave the country if taxed too harshly.
C Inheriting money requires no hard work.
D A country must be able to stay competitive in the global market.
E A worldwide tax structure can be implemented.
F Lower taxes, in the end, end up benefitting everyone, including the poor.
Test 3 83
Question 30
30 What do the speakers believe about taxes in the future?
A They will stay relatively the same.

B They will be lower.
C They will be higher.
84
Questions 31-33
Complete the flow chart below.
Isaac Newton born, 1643.

↓
Studies at the King’s School in Grantham from the age of
31………………… to ……………….
↓
Leaves school, mother attempts to make him a 32………………
↓
1661, on the recommendation of his teachers, admitted to Trinity College in Cambridge.
Six years after beginning, Newton becomes a 33………………………….. there.

Test 3 85
Questions 34-37
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-D next to questions 34-37.
A Galileo
B Newton
C Descartes and Leibniz
D Einstein
34 Believed that planets moved in an ether ……
35 Developed a theory which was thought to “replace” the earlier theory of gravity ……
36 In the “experiment of the mind”, tells us the billiard ball is “smooth” ……
37 Used not mirrors, but lenses in the construction of the telescope ……
Questions 38-39
Telescopes with lenses cannot be built as large as telescopes with mirrors because large
lenses tend to 38………………………………… Telescopes with mirrors take up less
space because of their reduced 39……………………….
86
Question 40
40 Which statement is true?
A Newton and Leibniz discovered calculus together

B Newton and Leibniz discovered calculus separately, during the same time period
C Newton and Leibniz discovered calculus separately while working at the same
university
Test 3 87
Practice Test Three Candidate Name __________________
READING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES

88
READING
READING PASSAGE 1
Tristan da Cunha
An Island of Remote Curiosity
A Tristan da Cunha is an island in the South Pacific Ocean, formed by volcanic
activity, and part of the British Overseas Territory called Saint Helena, Ascension and
Tristan da Cunha. Tristan da Cunha is generally considered to be the most remote
inhabited place on Earth. Because of its extreme isolation, and its small population,
Tristan da Cunha is a fascinating experiment in sociology and genetics.
B The island was first discovered in 1506 by a Portuguese explorer named Tristao
da Cunha, who named the island after himself. The name of the island was later
anglicized by the inhabitants into Tristan da Cunha. In 1816, the United Kingdom
annexed the island, taking control of it. They used it as a marine military base for a
number of decades in the 19th century, before it fell into disuse after the construction of
the Suez Canal. The Second World War, however, brought renewed purpose to the
island. It was used as a top secret British naval station, codenamed HMS Atlantic Isle.
The purpose of the station was to monitor the waters for German U-boats.
C According to a recent census, the island has a population of just 263 people, who
mainly reside in the settlement known as Edinburgh of the Seven Seas . It is thought
that the residents of the island descend from just fifteen ancestors, of which eight were
male and seven were female. Because the reproduction pool is so small, the residents
of the island suffer from a number of medical disorders. There is rampant asthma on
the island, which is thought to be a result of the known fact that three of the original
founders of the island suffered from asthma. Based on the endemic asthma afflicting
inhabitants of the island today, it is thought that there is a genetic underpinning for the
condition. Further evidence comes from islanders commonly suffering from glaucoma,
a degenerative eye condition which, left untreated, can result in blindness.
D There are just eight surnames among the 263 residents of Tristan da Cunha,
corresponding roughly to the eight original male ancestors. Since there is almost no
emigration to the island, the surnames are kept intact for many generations.
Test 3 89
E Education on the island is very limited. Children only attend school until the age
of fifteen, with the option of taking the British standardized test for secondary school
graduates, once they have completed schooling. As a consequence of the low quality of
education, standardized test scores are generally very poor. Another indication of the
island s remoteness and relative lack of contact with the outside world is that the
English spoken among its natives is very different from that spoken in the rest of the
world.
F Arguably, one of the most interesting facts about Tristan da Cunha was that
until the aftermath of the Second World War, the only currency in place was the potato.
For example, the newspaper The Tristan Times, could be purchased for four big
potatoes. Today Tristan da Cunha uses the British pound as its currency, which is odd,
because neighbouring Saint Helena (2,173 km away), of which Tristan da Cunha shares
its status as a British Overseas Territory, uses the Saint Helena pound and not the
British pound. Since Tristan da Cunha was formed by volcanic activity, and the volcano
which formed it is still active, the inhabitants of the island live in constant danger of
volcanic eruption. The last such eruption occurred as recently as 1961, when all of the
islanders had to be evacuated to England. While some communities around the world
participate in fire, earthquake or tornado drills, the residents of Tristan da Cunha
participate in evacuation drills, where they practise the protocol for evacuation of the
island in case of volcanic eruption.
G The Tristan economy is built mainly upon farming. All land is owned by the
community, that is to say there is no individual land ownership. Another significant part
of the economy is the exportation of crayfish and lobster, mainly to Japan and the
United States. A fire that occurred in 2008 greatly affected both the domestic and
export economies. Tristanians are a fiercely proud and independent people; even when
given the choice to stay in England after exile due to the volcanic eruption, almost
every resident returned to the island.
90
Questions 1-5
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
1 The different types of money used on the island
2 Exam results of Tristan students
3 Discussion of the original inhabitants of the island
4 The island as an armed forces outpost
5 Geography of the island
Questions 6-11
Match the following places with facts about them from the passage.
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 6-11 on your answer sheet.
A Saint Helena
B Tristan de Cunha
C United Kingdom
D Portugal
6 Took political control of the island in the 19th century
7 Uses its own currency
8 Home to “Edinburgh of the Seven Seas”
9 Origin of the name “Tristan de Cunha”
10 Islanders had to be evacuated here after a natural disaster
11 Discovered the island

Test 3 91
Questions 12-13
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet.
12 Because the number of people that move permanently to the island is so small,
13 Due to its remoteness, the dialect of Tristanians is
A last names remain the same for generations
B asthma is very rare
C very different from other variations of English
D continually developing
E often confuses to outsiders
92
READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A- C, and E-F from the list of headings
below.
Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Reason as the basis for knowledge

ii The relation between reason and maths
iii The end goals of empirical pursuits
iv Is Socrates a man or a mortal?
v Philosophy as the pursuit of knowledge and truth
vi Maths versus reason: the differences
vii Using the right tool
viii A central debate in education
ix The lack of practicality as philosophy's downfall
x The value of education in practice
xi Purity as beauty
14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
Example Answer
Paragraph D vii
17 Paragraph E
18 Paragraph F
Test 3 93
WHY STUDY
PHILOSOPHY?
A There are two schools of thought when it comes to education. One

side believes that education should give students tools for success in life,
while the other side believes that education itself is an important goal. No
area of study brings this debate to a head more than the study of
philosophy. Philosophy, for those who belong to the practical side of the
debate, is an utter waste of time. Philosophy provides very few tools for
success in life, they say. A common question for someone studying
philosophy is – “what are you going to do with it?” Those on the other side
of the debate – those who value education for knowledge itself – can see
that the study of philosophy has many important benefits.
B The word ‘philosophy’ derives from the Greek for ‘love of wisdom’.
Just as it was in Ancient Greece, it is those people who love wisdom,
knowledge and truth who study philosophy. However, we do not live in
Ancient Greece, where people had slaves to do all of their chores (such
as working in the fields), so what place does philosophy have in today’s
society?
C If philosophy teaches anything, it teaches the ability to reason. With

reason one can construct, analyze and find faults in arguments. For
example, if all men are mortal, and Socrates is mortal, is Socrates a man?
What if we change the question to: if all men are mortal, and Socrates is a
man, is Socrates mortal? Once a student is schooled in the ability to
reason, he will see right away that these two questions are very different.
As it turns out, the first is an invalid argument, while the second is very
much valid. Perhaps the next question of the skeptic is ‘what is the value
of reason’? This is a very important question – surely if philosophy is all
about learning to reason, then an ability to reason must be a valuable
trait. Arguably the ability to reason forms the foundation for all knowledge.
D If an individual holds an opinion which is believed wrong or

incorrect, it could be important to convince them of the right opinion.
There are a number of ways to attempt this. They can be intimidated,
94
belittled or bullied into accepting the opposite opinion. However, having

a strong opinion does not mean the opinion is any more correct. Many
people have strong opinions on all manner of subjects but, of course,
strength of feeling does not correspond to validity, and it follows that
someone who belittles another’s opinion is not necessarily the one in the
right. When two men engage in a fistfight over whose opinion is correct,
the winner of the fight may not have the correct opinion, but merely the
correct fighting technique. In any disagreement, the right tools must be
employed. In a battle of brawn, the tool is strength. In a battle of wills, the
tool is perseverance. In a battle of words, the tool is reason. When arguing
with reason, facts of the matter are stated and conclusions are drawn
from those facts accordingly.
E Reason is fundamental to almost every intellectual endeavour one

can imagine, just as mathematics is fundamental to almost every scientific
endeavour. Maths is the language of science just as reason is the
language of discourse and debate. Accordingly, just as society needs
experts in mathematics, so society needs experts in reason. The argument
should follow that as we all learn mathematics as children and young
adults, so we should learn the precepts of reason.
F Above all, philosophy is pure. Certainly reason is useful in all areas of

life, but that does not mean that philosophy’s value lies only in its
usefulness in the day-to-day. Philosophy is the pursuit of knowledge for the
sake of knowledge. There is a beautiful human quality expressed in this.
Every other academic discipline is knowledge for some empirical pursuit.
For example, engineering is knowledge so that we can construct
buildings, chemistry is knowledge so that we can make drugs, and biology
is knowledge so that we can stay healthy. Philosophy has no tangible
outcome outside of the pure pursuit of knowledge. The only other
discipline which comes close in this regard is mathematics. One is purity in
numbers, and the other is purity in words.
Test 3 95
Questions 19-24
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-K, below.
Write the correct letters, A-K, in boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet.
Philosophy teaches us how to reason, which in turn can help us deconstruct
19…………….. Students schooled in the precepts of reason are able to differentiate
between an argument which follows from the given premises and one that does not and is
20…………….. Force of opinion has no impact on the 21………… of the opinion. This
is because forcefulness is the wrong 22……………. for the job of convincing someone of
a viewpoint. In physical battles, the correct implement is 23………………. In discursive
arguments, it is 24………….. alone which leads to the truth.
A invalid F opinions K philosophy

B correct G strength L tool
C thoughts H arguments M valid
D truth I knowledge
E perseverance J reason
Questions 25-26
25 Mathematics and reason are:
A Opposites
B Analogues
C Complementary disciplines
D Unrelated but both important
26 What differentiates philosophy from the sciences is that
A philosophy isn’t concerned with truth

B philosophy is done by the heart, while science is done by the mind
C philosophy has no definite aim
D philosophy is practical
96
READING PASSAGE 3
Physalia physalis
Physalia physalis (common name: Portuguese man-of-war) is a unique species of

the class Hydrozoa. Several characteristics distinguish this species. The Physalia
physalis is a free floating communal polyp. Its powerful poison serves as defense
and attack for the species. One type of fish however has developed a high level
of immunity to this toxin. The Nomeus gronvii is capable of withstanding
injections of Physalia venom ten times the normal strength of that which kills
other fishes. Due to this resistance to the venom, and exceptional swimming, the
two organisms have evolved to form a commensal relationship with one another.
Even though we apply the term commensalism to the symbiosis between these
two animals, the nature of interaction is not exactly fitting of the term. As
defined by Campbell and Reece: commensalism is when one organism receives
benefits while neither harming nor helping the other in any significant way
(Campbell and Reece, 2002). By looking closely at the behavior, physiology and
symbiosis between Physalia physalis and Nomeus Gronvii, we find out the reason
for this misleading terminology.
The physiology of Physalis physalis is unique. At first glance they appear to be

jellyfish, but the Portuguese man-of-war is actually a polyp (or community of
polyps) belonging to the order Siphonophora, which gets its common name from
its resemblance to an old Portuguese war ship. The man-of-war floats with a gas-
filled, blue to pink, translucent body called a pneumatophore (a part of a single
Test 3 97
polyp). This crest-like pneumatophore, which may attain a length of 20 cm, acts
as a sail and is aligned so that the colony sails at 45° to the wind direction. Polyps
connect tentacles which are located on the ventral surface of the float. There are 3
types of specialized polyps: dactylozooid (that find and catch prey with
poisonous stingers called nematocysts), gonozooid (that reproduce), and
gastrozooid (that digest the food, like a stomach). These fishing tentacles,
sometimes as long as 50m, hang down like a drift net, combing the water for
prey.
Nomeus gronvii are tropical fish belonging to the ray-finned fishes of the class
osteichthyes. The fins, supported by long flexible rays, are modified for
maneuvering, defense and other functions. The length of this fish at maturity is
about 8 cm. The nature of the ability of Nomeus to live among the venomous
tentacles of Physalia has been likened to that of the relationship between sea
anemones and anemone-fishes. This immunity is not yet fully understood.
The relationship between Physalia and Nomeus is arguably harmful to both

organisms. They mutually benefit from one another but at the same time the
symbiosis can be quite damaging to both creatures. In this sense the relationship
could be better defined as one of mutualism and parasitism. In mutualism, both
organisms benefit. In parasitism, one organism benefits at the expense of the
host.
When the Nomeus is weak it may no longer be able to withstand the venom of the
nematocysts. In one study, a freshly expired Nomeus was offered to the Physalia.
The carcass was immediately stung, taken hold of by a dactylozooid and brought
up to the gastrozooids. The Nomeus, although resilient to the toxin, is not 100%
immune. In the same study, the live Nomeus began to swim more erratically and
moved towards the carcass as the gastrozooids formed their characteristic bag
and began to digest the fish. The live Nomeus was then caught on the left side by
one of the largest dactylozooids. This behaviour clearly indicates how the
symbiosis may deviate from the definition provided by commensalism.
On the other hand the Nomeus has two distinct gains from its innate behavior
with Physalia. As an experiment demonstrated, upon introduction, the Nomeus
initially swam near the surface and around the Physalia in a large circular pattern
in both clockwise and counterclockwise directions. This action protects the fish
from attack. Most predatory fishes of Nomeus therefore avoid the man-of-war or
sustain serious injury and often death. Second, the Physalia provides a food
98
source for the Nomeus. In the mentioned experiment, about 15 minutes after the
release, the Nomeus swam closer to the Physalia, paused as if inspecting it, and
then began to nip the edges of the gonozooids. Physalia is able to regenerate the
tentacles and so this ingestion is rarely fatal to the organism.
Nomeus’s capacity to survive near the poison tentacles of the man-of-war is only
partly due to the resilience of the toxin. The main reason for this skill is certain
swimming behaviors. Instead of developing protective mucus, the fish depends
on its swimming abilities as its main mechanism of defense while living in the
venomous discharge of the Physalia. The Nomeus fish can maneuver with
precision to avoid stinging nematocysts. This is the case whether the Physalia is
stationary or in motion. Ray-finned fishes have a physiology which enables
maneuverability. The fish displays relative ease in maintaining a safe distance
from the dactylozooids even with absurd, sharp changes in direction. Nomeus
specimens use the pectoral fins for propulsion while the pelvic fins are spread
like a fan. The caudal fin is apparently used for only short fast darts. This
swimming behavior appears to be well suited for existence with Physalia. It is
therefore apparent that, rather than developing an ability to inhibit the discharge
of Physalia nematocysts or prevent them from stinging, Nomeus uses its
swimming abilities as its primary means of defense while living in the venomous
drift net of Physalia.
Taking into consideration all of the interactions involved in the symbiotic

relationship of these two organisms, the appropriate term to assign is difficult.
The facts state that the commensalism of these two aquatic creatures is one which
incorporates beneficial as well as harmful factors depending on the circumstance.
It is this alternation of prey-predator roles of Physalia and Nomeus that creates a
definitive difficulty. Perhaps the best term we can apply for the moment is that of
commensalism given that both animals receive some benefit at varying times
during the relationship.
Test 3 99
Questions 27-32
Choose no more than TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
27 The Portuguese man-of-war’s …………………… acts as both as a defense and an

attack mechanism.
28 Nomeus has a ………………………. to the man-of-war’s attack.
29 Nomeus is also a very competent ………………….., which helps keep it safe from
the man-of-war.
30 Although they initially look like a jellyfish, the man-of-war is really a ………………
31 The role of the ……………………… is as a sexual organ.
32 Nomeus’s ability to live around the poisonous ………………… of the man-of-war is

not fully understood.
100
Questions 33-36
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-I, below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.
33 The relationship between the two creatures is best described as
34 While the Nomeus is resistant to the venom, it
35 The Nomeus’ swimming patterns
36 For the Nomeus, man-of-war also serves as
A protect the fish from attack

B sexual mate
C peaceful and friendly
D a source of food
E is not totally immune
F very prone
G mutualistic and parasitistic
H endanger the man-of-war
I is seemingly immune
Test 3 101
Questions 37-38
37 The Nomeus’ main mechanism of defence is
A its venom
B protective mucus
C swimming behaviours
D being able to subsist on parts of the man-of-war
38 What does Nomeus generally use to propel itself?
A dorsal fins
B caudal fins
C pelvic fins
D pectoral fins
Questions 39-40

39 Nomeus and Physalia’s relationship is known to be destructive.
40 The chief reason why Nomeus exists is to act in commensalism with Physalia.
102
Practice Test Three Candidate Name __________________
WRITING SECTION
TIME: 60 MINUTES
Test 3 103
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
The charts below show the percentages of types of vehicles sold in the United States in
the selected year. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant.
1980 1990
5%
6%
15% Cars
Cars
Trucks
Trucks
SUVs
79%
95%
2000 2010
30% Cars 28% Cars

Trucks Trucks
54% 58%
SUVs 14% SUVs
16%
104
WRITING TASK 2
Banks should receive billions of dollars in assistance from their governments during
a financial crisis that was in large part their fault.

Test 3 105
SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
Let’s talk about the internet.

How often do you use the internet?
What are some of the sites you visit frequently?
Do you use the internet at school or at work?
Is internet access commonly available in your country?
Why do you think people use the internet?
Describe your best friend.
You should say:

-Who the person is.
-How the two of you met.
-What it is that makes this person your best friend.
What qualities should a friend have?

Why are friends important?
Is it important to have a best friend? Why?
What types of activities do you do with your friends?
Are most of your friends from your childhood? Or did you meet them more recently?
What are the best places to meet new friends?
Do you enjoy making new friends, or do you prefer to spend more time with your current
friends?
106

only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening Total
Test 3 107

only only
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
108
TASK 1
Test 3 109
110
TASK 2
Test 3 111
112
Test 3 113
Test 1 Key 114
Test 1 Key 115
Test One Transcripts

(CD1 Track 1)
Narrator: This recording is copyrighted by 2Think1 Solutions Inc. and World ESL
Tutors. You will hear several different recordings, and you will answer questions on what
you hear. There will be time given to read the instructions and questions, and you will be
given a chance to check your work. The recordings will be played only once.
The test is made up of four sections. At the end of the test you will have ten minutes to
transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Now turn to section 1.
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two men as one of the men
registers for a football league. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this
question will be played.
Example
Steve: Hello there, I’d like to register for the autumn men’s football league.
Joe: Alright, in what town will you be playing?
Steve: I’d like to play in Chester, though I’d be willing to travel to Liverpool if I had to.
Narrator: The man says he wants to play in Chester, so B has been indicated for you.
Now we shall begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, because you will not
hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and answer questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Steve: Hello there, I’d like to register for the autumn men’s football league.
Joe: Alright, in what town will you be playing?
Steve: I’d like to play in Chester, though I’d be willing to travel to Liverpool if I had to.
Joe: Well, we have two spots left open on the team in Chester, and five spots open on the
team in Liverpool. There is a very good chance you would have to try out for the team in
Chester. Are you a good player?
Steve: I consider myself a good player, yes. I have been to a number of the autumn
men’s league games in the past, just as a spectator (1), and I am sure I would have no
trouble fitting in.
116
Joe: Okay good, so we will register you for Chester then. I just need to get some
information from you, starting with your position. Where on the field do you prefer to
play?
Steve: I’m a midfielder (2), although really I can play anywhere aside from goalkeeper.
Joe: Oh, I forgot to ask your name.
Steve: Right, I guess that’s important. My name is Steve Trammell.
Joe: Would you mind spelling Trammell for me?
Steve: Certainly. Trammell is spelt T-R-A-double M-e-double L (3).
Joe: Right. Now I need your home address, including your postcode.
Steve: I live in Chester, of course, at 452 King George Avenue. The postcode is MS86
8P4 (4).
Joe: MS86 8P4?
Steve: Yes that’s right.
Joe: And your date of birth sir?
Steve: The eighth of September, 1986.
Joe: Okay. Now I need your phone number, just a mobile number will do.
Steve: I don’t have a mobile phone right now unfortunately. I can give you my
girlfriend’s number instead?
Joe: That would be alright, I suppose.
Steve: Good. Her number is 329 63 32 70
Joe: Fine. I think that’s all the information I need to gather from you, do you have any
questions?
Steve: Yes, I do have a couple. First, when does the season start?
Joe: The season starts on the 28th of September, although your first game is later I
think, let me check the schedule….yes your first game is October 1st (5) in Liverpool.
Let me make a copy of the schedule for you.
Steve: Thank you. Could you also tell me how long each game is?
Test 1 Key 117
Joe: Each game has two halves, 40 minutes each half. So the game is 80 minutes long.
Steve: That’s a little shorter than in other leagues I’ve played in. Games are usually 90
minutes.
Joe: Yes, our spring and summer leagues are 90 minute games, but our autumn league
has only 80 minute games. I think it has something to do with the poor weather.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 6 to 10.
Questions 6-10
Steve: Okay. Can you tell me how many players are on each team? And I mean on the
whole team, not just the players on the pitch.
Joe: Usually there are five additional players to the 11 on the pitch so there are 16
players on each roster (6). We generally find that to be the perfect number. It allows for
a few players to miss a game, but still allows lots of playing time for each player.
Steve: Yes, playing time is what I was worried about. I don’t want to pay my money and
then sit on the sidelines the whole season. Are there minimum playing time
requirements?
Joe: Yes. Each player has to play a minimum of half a game. So you are guaranteed at
least 40 minutes of playing time per game. (7)
Steve: Wonderful, that puts my mind at ease. Could you tell me what facility we play at
in Chester?
Joe: That information is on the schedule, along with the addresses of all the other
facilities in the league. Here’s your schedule.
Steve: Thank you. Oh good it states we play two streets from my flat (8). How
convenient!
Joe: That is very lucky. Do you have any more questions?
Steve: No I think that’s it. Oh wait, how much does it cost to register?
Joe: It’s going to be 125 pounds for the season (9), including all fees. How would you
like to pay?
Steve: I’ll be paying cash. (10)
118
Joe: Right. Would you like a receipt?... (trails off)
Narrator: That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD1 Track 2)
Now turn to section 2. Take some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Listening Section 2: You will hear a radio presenter interviewing a woman about the
infamous ship “Titanic”. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Now listen carefully to the interview and answer questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
Peter: Good afternoon to all our listeners, and welcome back to “History Now”, a weekly
programme that reflects on subjects of historical influence. Today we are going to speak
with Dr. Andrea Smithson, an historian at the University of Glasgow. Good afternoon
Andrea.
Andrea: Good afternoon Peter.
P: What are you going to talk about today Andrea?
A: I will be talking about one of the most catastrophic events in maritime history – the
sinking of the Titanic.
P: I can’t wait for you to begin.
A: Thanks Peter. The Titanic was an enormous ship – the makers called it “unsinkable”.
From end to end, it measured approximately the length of three football pitches. It had
the capacity to carry over 3,500 passengers as well as the over 800 people on the crew
of the ship (11). Despite its massive size and impressive capacity, the Titanic was able to
cruise at a speed of 40 knots. This was in large part due to the 59,000 horsepower engine.
Just how much is 59,000hp? Well, in literal terms it’s like being pulled by 59,000 horses!
More realistically, it’s the equivalent power of 500 cars.
On the maiden voyage that left Southampton, England on the tenth of April, 1912, there
were 1343 passengers and 885 crew members. There were three different classes of
tickets for those aboard the Titanic. A third class ticket was the lowest level ticket – at
the time it cost between 3 and 8 pounds (12). A second class ticket cost about twelve
pounds. A first class ticket cost anywhere from 30 pounds all the way up to 870 pounds.
In today’s money, 870 pounds is over 20,000 pounds! You may be wondering what the
people in first class were paying for? They had luxurious rooms on the highest decks,
Test 1 Key 119
delicious meals for breakfast, lunch and dinner, as well as the finest entertainment
money could buy (13, 14, 15). On the other hand, those in third class slept in cramped
rooms which were quite plain and small, and did not have access to the fine restaurants
and entertainment on the upper decks of the ship.
Now I’d like to tell you about a few lesser known facts about the Titanic. Although there
were four large funnels or “smoke-stacks” on the Titanic (16), only three of them were
functional. One of the funnels was put there just to make the ship look even bigger and
more impressive! The ship carried over 70 tonnes of food for the passengers, including
over 40,000 eggs!
Questions 17-20
On the night of the 14th of April 1912, on her maiden voyage, the Titanic hit an iceberg.
About three hours later, early morning the next day, the ship sank. The reasons for the
sinking are numerous. First, the water-tight doors which were supposed to keep water
out didn’t work properly (18). Second, the night of the 14th of April was incredibly calm
on the water. Icebergs are easily spotted when there are waves crashing against them.
On this night, there were no waves (17). The strength of the metal in the Titanic was not
as it should have been. The metal became brittle in the freezing cold and was easily
broken by the iceberg. Another big factor was the inability of the Titanic to turn quickly.
Once the lookouts had spotted the iceberg, the captain ordered the ship turned, but it was
too late. If the ship had been able to turn faster, it would have missed the iceberg.
One of the biggest tragedies about the sinking was that there were not enough life boats
for everyone on the ship. In addition to this, many of the life boats left the sinking
vessel with less than half of the people they were designed to carry (19). For example,
the first life boat off the Titanic left with only 27 of the allotted 65 passengers. This
unfortunate occurrence can be attributed to panic on the part of the passengers and crew.
One can only imagine the sheer terror on board the ship that early morning.
1523 out of the 2228 passengers and crew perished that morning. Most died from the
near-freezing temperature of the Atlantic Ocean (20), others drowned after being
trapped in the lower decks. 705 people lived to tell their story, most of them woman and
children, who were put on the life boats before the grown men were. Because of this, 94
percent of the first-class passenger women and children were saved, while only 14% of
the third class passenger men survived. Overall, 60% of the first class occupants
survived, while only 25% of third class ticket holders lived in the aftermath of this
tragedy.
answers.
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(CD1 Track 3)
Listening Section 3: You will hear three students organizing a class project.
Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 26.
Questions 21-26
Megan: I just got an email from the professor saying the due date for our European
History group project has been pushed back to Monday.
Anna: Great! That means we’ll have the weekend to work on it.
Evan: I suppose that’s good news, but I don’t really want to be doing homework on my
weekend. I had planned to go away with my girlfriend for some relaxation this weekend.
Megan: I suppose that’s understandable. Maybe we should just have it done by Friday,
the original due date. That gives us today and Thursday to finish it (21).
Anna: We can do that I think. I’m available tomorrow. How about we spend today
planning it, assign tasks to take home with us and do tonight, and then meet tomorrow
and put it all together (22, 23). Does that sound right?
Megan: That works for me.
Evan: That doesn’t work too well for me, my afternoon is very busy. I guess I’ll just
have to burn the midnight oil tonight.
Megan: What has you so tied up Evan?
Evan: I have a basketball game after school today, and then my favourite football team
plays this evening at 7:00. It’s okay though, I’ll get the work done. Let’s get started on
the planning.
Anna: Alright, so we have to come up with a three paneled poster about a topic in
European History. I already bought the material for the poster so we don’t have to worry
about that.
Megan: How much was it?
Anna: It was three pounds.
Megan: Okay we’ll each give you one pound for the poster board.
Test 1 Key 121
Anna: No don’t worry about it, my dad paid for it anyway (24).
Evan: Sounds good to me!
Anna: Right then. Since there’s three of us, my idea was that two of us could take care of
the writing part of the project, while one of us could look after the artwork – making the
poster look smart.
Megan: I’ll do the artwork. I think I’m a pretty good artist.
Evan: I’ll be happy to do half the writing. What topics are we going to choose?
Anna: Well, the professor said the topic has to be an event that took place somewhere
between 1400 and 1800 (25). So we can’t do either of the world wars.
Evan: That’s too bad. My dad is an expert on the Second World War and he could have
helped me with my part (26). What are we going to do instead?
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 27 to 30.
Questions 27-30
Megan: I was reading my textbook the other day, and I read some really interesting
information on the French Revolution.
Evan: That’s a really good idea.
Anna: I know, how about instead of doing a summary of the French Revolution, we write
about some of the people involved instead?
Evan: I like that idea. So who are some of the important people?
Megan: Well, there’s the king, Louis XVI (29) (the sixteenth).
Anna: Robespierre (27) was important, I think.
Evan: Yes he was. And of course Napoleon Bonaparte.
Megan: We should have four people, so you can each write about two people.
Evan: How about Marie Antoinette?
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Megan: Okay. So we have four historical figures, each of you are going to write about
two, now we have to decide how much you are going to write. Remember, we have to fill
up a three board poster.
Anna: That’s a good point about the three board poster. Maybe we should do a fifth
person, then we can have two figures on each side with one in the middle.
Evan: Good idea. We can make the middle one really important – we’ll make that one
Napoleon (30). As for a fifth person, how about Voltaire? (28)
Anna. Good. So how about I do the important one on Napoleon and a smaller one on
Robespierre.
Evan: Okay, and I’ll do the other three.
Megan: How long should each topic be?
Anna: I’d say 200 words each for the small ones, and 450 for the big one on Napoleon.
Evan: I think that sounds about right. What do you think about….(trails off).
answers.
(CD1 Track 4)
Listening Section 4: You will hear a professor discussing climate change.
Questions 31-40
M1: Hello class. Hope you all had a good weekend. Today we will be talking about
climate change. Life on earth is going to have some adapting to do if climate scientists
are correct with regard to their predictions of the earth’s rising atmospheric temperature.
Humans and animals alike may have to change both their habits and habitats (31). The
average temperature on the Earth’s surface has risen by an estimated one degree
Centigrade in the last 100 years and this trend is continuing at an ever increasing speed.
Until now it seems that business and the environment have met as adversaries, but with
the growing profitability of green products (32) perhaps business can play a positive role
in the fight to save the environment.
There is an ever growing consensus that the cause of climate change can be linked to
human action. To be more specific, environmental change is caused by the emission of
Test 1 Key 123
greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide is chief among these (33). So what’s so bad about
things getting a little warmer you may wonder? Weather patterns could become more
extreme, the polar icecaps could melt, sea levels could rise and incidences of famine due
to drought could also increase. On the other hand, places such as Northern Canada will
likely become more productive for farming (34) and mineral and crude oil extraction.
What isn’t positive about the permafrost melting is that the ice is a carbon sink and when
it melts it releases even more carbon into the atmosphere.
It is clear that humans will have to change their relationship with the earth and its
resources, but the debate remains over who should be leading that change. Advocates of
personal responsibility claim that small personal measures such as changing light bulbs
(35), or riding a bike, can make a significant difference. On the other hand, governments
from developing countries are calling for economic reparations to be paid by developed
nations because, after all, it is the rich who caused most of the environmental damage and
made money from it. The other major group that has profited from our increasing
environmental degradation are corporations.
Business has always been about production and consumption. The invisible hand of
supply and demand (36) has long run our economic system and now there is an ever
growing demand for conservation. The question is, when will consumer demand be
commensurate with green technological advances that allow for environmentally friendly
products to actually be more profitable than those that pollute? One option to speed up
this process is to have governments impose “true cost” taxes (37) on every product that
is sold. This would force prices to include an economic pressure (38) to purchase or use
products that will not cause further environmental degradation or carbon emissions.
There is little doubt that climate change is going to cause a drastic difference to our
environment and way of life. The questions that remain to be asked revolve around how
to solve the climate crisis, and who will pay for the restructuring of our patterns of
consumption that have led to these problems. With the ever growing desire for green
consumer goods, perhaps business can answer some of these questions (39) by
producing environmentally sound products. Even if business has a role to play in saving
the environment, it is clear that we all need to do our part (40).
answers.
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Test 1 Reading Transcript Key

The following transcripts show where each answer in the reading section is found within
each passage. The question number for each answer is given in parentheses ( ). The
answers themselves are found in the reading section answer key, found on page 137.
Test One – Reading Passage One - Mountains of Ice
(Reading Audio – CD1 Track 5)
The word ‘iceberg’ derives from the Dutch word ‘ijsberg’, meaning ‘ice mountain’.
Icebergs are sections of glaciers that have broken off during the warmer summer
months (1) and float freely in open water. Icebergs are typically found in open water,
predominantly around Greenland and Antarctica. The characteristics of icebergs, their
historical impact, and the methods we employ today to monitor them are important
topics.
The reason icebergs exist is because of the difference between the density of ice and
the density of salt water (2). The density of ice is approximately 920 kilograms per
cubic metre, while the density of salt water is approximately 1025 kilograms per cubic
metre. Because ice is less dense than water, it floats. However, because the difference in
densities is so small, only about 10% of the iceberg is visible above the ocean’s
surface (3). The rest of the iceberg hides below the water. This is the origin of the
familiar expression ‘tip of the iceberg’ used to describe a situation where only part of the
problem is noticeable.
Icebergs range in height from one metre all the way up to over 75 metres above sea level
- the height measures the visible portion of the iceberg. The tallest icebergs may have a
total height of over 650 metres including their underwater portion. The largest ever
recorded was 168 metres above the water, meaning the entire height of this floater was
likely greater than 1500 metres. For reference, that is twice the height of most
skyscrapers.
Different sized icebergs have different name classifications. The smallest icebergs
are called ‘brash ice’, the next category up in size is called ‘growlers’ and the ones
after that are called ‘bergy bits’. For whatever reason, after those three classes, the
people in charge of naming the icebergs got a little less creative. The next classes
simply range from ‘small’ to ‘very large’ (4). Icebergs can be massive objects. Very
large icebergs can weigh more than 200,000 tonnes. The largest iceberg ever recorded
was over 30,000 square kilometers in area. Again, for reference, that is the
approximate size of the country of Belgium. (5)
Test 1 Key 125
The most famous iceberg in history is undoubtedly the one which eventually sunk the
English ship Titanic off the coast of Newfoundland in 1912. At that point in time, there
was no central group which monitored iceberg activity. Ships relied on lookouts to spot
the icebergs (6). For the Titanic, the unfortunate attitude was that any iceberg big enough
to do damage to the ship would be seen in time. This attitude was, of course,
catastrophically wrong. The main reason it failed was the remarkable calmness of the
water that ill-fated night (7). The easiest way to spot an iceberg from afar is to see
waves crashing up against it, but on the night the Titanic sank, there were no such helpful
waves. For all intents and purposes, the iceberg was invisible until it was too late. The
captain swerved at the last minute, but as the side of the ship scraped across the iceberg,
the hull of the ocean liner tore open (8). Things still may have been fine, had it not
been for the poorly designed ‘water-tight’ compartments. It turns out that when too many
compartments were affected, the water was simply able to spill over to all the other
compartments (9). This was an engineering defect that contributed to the Titanic’s
sinking.
After the disaster of the Titanic, maritime authorities realized that a system needed to
be put into place to monitor icebergs, so that such a catastrophe would not be
repeated. By 1914, the International Ice Patrol (IIP) was formed (10). Their purpose
was to track all of the relevant meteorological and oceanographical data, and to chart
the movement of all major icebergs (11). Today, technology is used to track iceberg
data. The Canadian Space Agency has multiple radar satellites which send
microwaves off the ocean surface and record the reflection to track the movement of
the icebergs (12). Maritime vessels have access to this information in real time which
allows them to know exactly where any local icebergs are at any moment, meaning
that a repeat of the Titanic disaster is virtually impossible (13).
Test One – Reading Passage Two – Seismic Shifts, Silent Drifts
A When looking at a map of the world, it is natural to notice that Africa and
South America seem to be able to ‘fit together’ (14), as if they are two parts of a
former whole. It was this insight which led Flemish cartographer Abraham Ortelius in
1596 to put forward for the first time the idea that at one period the continents were in
different places than they are today. It would take over 300 years for the theory to be
fully developed, and fifty years after that for the mechanism of the phenomenon to
be discovered (20).
B It was not until 1915 that German geologist Alfred Wegener proposed the
continental drift theory, which states that the Earth’s crust is made up of many sections
that float slowly over the molten mantle and core of the Earth (21). Wegener argued
that in the past the continents were all stuck together. He called this supercontinent
‘Pangaea’, which is Greek for ‘all Earth’. Wegener hypothesized that approximately 200
126
million years ago, this supercontinent began to break up, and the pieces began to move
away from each other.
C Initially, Pangaea divided into two parts, named Laurasia and Gondwana.
Laurasia consisted of what is today North America, Asia and Europe, whilst Gondwana
comprised modern-day South America, Africa and Australia. These supercontinents
eventually split apart further, resulting in today’s continental configuration (15). It
is interesting to note that today’s continental alignment is just that – millions of years in
the future the Earth’s continents will appear very different. Given enough time, it is
possible that the Earth’s land masses will return to a Pangaea-like unified state.
D The evidence for continental drift is plentiful. The most common evidence is the
discovery of the same type of dinosaurs in extremely different locations. The same type
of dinosaur fossil (16) will be found in northeastern parts of South America as well as
northwestern parts of Africa. The logical explanation for phenomena such as this is that
at one time, these parts of the world were not only connected, but adjacent.
E The evidence for continental drift was discovered long before an explanation
for it was found. It was during the 1960s that the theory of plate tectonics was
developed (17). This new theory explained fully the nature of the Earth’s crust - that it
was broken up into many pieces that tended to smack into each other and pull apart from
each other. In extreme cases, such as the Indian subcontinent, a plate’s movement
can be so severe that it causes massive mountains to be formed when the plate hits
another (22). This is precisely what has happened over the past millions of years with
the Indian Plate colliding with the Eurasian Plate, in the process creating the
Himalayas, which include the tallest mountain on Earth, Mount Everest (23).
F Plate Tectonics are not only responsible for mountains and the movement of
the continents, they are also responsible for volcanoes (24). Volcanoes usually result
from one of two plate configurations: they form in places where the plates are colliding,
or where the plates are pulling apart. In the first case, the plates come together, pushing
against each other causing friction and heat, which allows some of the crust material to
melt, resulting in liquid magma. Because magma is less dense than the surrounding
rock, it ends up rising to the surface, where it becomes a volcano (25). An example of
this type of volcano is the famous Mount Vesuvius, which destroyed the city of Pompeii
in 79 C.E. The second type of volcano comes from divergent plates. These types tend to
be underwater, as in the mid-oceanic ridges. Volcanic islands, such as Iceland and
Hawaii, were formed by underwater volcanic activity eventually spewing off enough
matter to form land above the water (18).
G Of course, there is one final important result of plate tectonics – earthquakes.

Earthquakes are perhaps the most terrifying of all natural disasters – they are
practically invisible (19). They happen below the Earth’s surface and have devastating
results. Earthquakes happen along fault lines, places where two plates are colliding,
diverging, or slipping past each other. In the case where the two plates are attempting to
slip past each other, the most devastating earthquakes can occur. This is because friction
Test 1 Key 127
does not allow the plates to pass each other until sufficient energy to counteract the
resistance has been built up. So the two plates rub against each other for centuries or
millennia until one day they finally slip. This “slip” is what results in a sudden
catastrophic earthquake. If this slip occurs in the ocean underneath the Earth’s
surface, it can cause a massive tidal wave known as a tsunami (26). If this slip occurs
directly beneath a major city, massive destruction will result. There are many such cities
at risk of these earthquakes, many of them along what is known as the “ring of fire”
surrounding the Pacific Ocean. These cities include Tokyo, San Francisco, Vancouver
and Santiago. Understanding plate tectonics reveals that it is not a question of ‘if’ these
major cities will get hit by an earthquake, it is only a question of ‘when?’.
Test One – Reading Passage Three - Causes of the American Economic Crisis
When discussing the causes of the late 2000s American subprime mortgage crisis, it is
easy to lay all the blame on the banks, but it is incorrect to claim innocent the individual
homebuyers involved, as well as the American government as a whole. There are many
instances in the years leading up to the crisis where moral obligations failed to be met.
For the home-buyers, it is a case of ignoring a scenario which was, upon deeper
inspection, too good to be true. For the bankers, it was falling prey to their own laissez-
faire loaning policies, lending without giving much interest to the mandates required of
the borrower. For the government, it was instituting such a laissez-faire system in the
first place, free of regulatory checks and balances.
If a person falls prey to an email scam, the blame is deservedly placed on the hapless
person. Society feels pity for them, but nobody feels the government should
reimburse the individual for their lack of caution (27): the person in this scenario has
affected no one but themself. If a person falls prey to a ‘too good to be true’ subprime
mortgage and ends up bankrupt, he or she is not just hurting themselves, they are also
hurting society because that debt inevitably rests with the populace. Thus, while a person
has no social responsibility to act a certain way in the case of the email scam, a person
does have a social obligation when it comes to actions that can hurt society, such as
taking on a subprime mortgage. The counterargument here is that people perceive banks
as possessing a certain level of trustworthiness (29), and that it is unreasonable to
expect people to have their ‘too good to be true’ radar active when dealing with banks.
Nevertheless people do have an ethical obligation to be aware of pitfalls, and being
told ‘it’s okay’ by ‘trustworthy’ institutions is simply not a sufficient excuse (30).
Banks have a responsibility to protect their customers, and to look out for the
general economic health of not just their company, but of the entire industry (31).
The American banks failed in these considerations in each of these regards. First, they
offered mortgages to millions of ill-qualified buyers who were clearly not going to be
able to fulfill the requirements of the mortgage to make the loans viable (28).
Individual lenders acted selfishly, exploiting very relaxed lending policies to benefit their
128
own finances. Second, banks failed to look after the health of their own companies. This
is not a failure of individual bankers, but a failure of those in management positions.
Many U.S. companies that need a multi-billion dollar bailout are an unmitigated disaster.
Although this failure falls more in line with the email scam, that is to say a failure which
is not a social failure but a business failure, the social failure lies in the banks’ obligation
to the entire industry, and the economy as a whole. Each bank is responsible for a small
piece of the economic pie (32). If one bank fails, it appears as a blip on the radar.
However, with each individual failure the threshold for failure for the remaining
companies is lowered. It is in this sense that companies have a moral obligation to do
good business – because if they do not, they raise the chances of bankruptcy for each of
their competitors and the economy as a whole. Eventually the threshold of failure is so
low that almost all lending has to cease, and a recession is ignited (33).
In this investigation of blame placing, arguably the body who holds the most
responsibility is the American government. The truth is that if people are not
protected from themselves by the government, society cannot function well (34, 35).
The wholly free market is akin to an economic version of Hobbes’ state of nature –
people acting like tigers and bears trying to get each other’s money. Society does not
work optimally when it pays overwhelming dividends for people to act selfishly. It takes
regulation in economic policy to force people into acting in society’s best interests
(36). One of the duties of a government is to protect its citizens from each other, and in
this case the American government has failed catastrophically. Defenders of the free
market will claim that this recession is simply a temporary bump in the road for
what is arguably the greatest economic power in world history (37). They will claim
that the free market is in the best interest of everyone, despite its rather unsightly
undercarriage. In response, it can be argued that the ‘bumps in the road’ are
symptomatic of a system in need of healing (38), by means of regulation.
Unfortunately, American culture is such that any regulation is seen as government
interference in private affairs, and such intervention conflicts with American ideals
(39). Economics is not the only arena where this belief system is played out. Americans
continue to allow their poorest citizens to live without proper health care, and they put the
burden of the cost of higher education directly on students (many European countries
fully subsidize higher education). Until this distaste for government intervention is cast
aside, events like the subprime mortgage crisis will continue to occur. Whether they are
merely bumps on the economic road, or signs of forthcoming systemic collapse, in both
cases the government has failed to fulfill their role to save the citizens from themselves.
In regard to subprime mortgages, regulation of banking is like an insurance policy for the
economy. It may lower profits - insurance policies cost money - but it smoothes out the
‘bumps in the road’. As long as the American government continues to turn a blind eye to
these insurance policies, they will continue to put the social well-being of its citizens at
risk.
Test 1 Key 129
Test 1 Writing Section: Suggested Responses

WRITING TASK 1
The chart below shows the sales at a café which is located next to a very large high
school. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
Sales: Period from April to August 2010
April May June July August
Breakfast 21,250 22,130 17,890 11,250 10,880
Lunch 28,050 27,970 24,110 18,500 19,320
Dinner 15,450 15,400 15,800 16,250 16,050
The chart compares the sales at a café at breakfast, lunch and dinner for the period
April to August 2010. The chart contains six columns and four rows. The highest sales
period overall is lunch in April, though lunch is May is very close behind. The lowest
period is breakfast in August, which brought in only 10,880. This is less than half of the
largest breakfast sales, 21,250, made in May. Breakfast sales show a consistent decline
from April to August, and lunch sales follow a similar arc though they show a small gain
in August. Dinner sales are notably consistent, with a variation in sales of less than 1000.
Overall, May is the highest earning month, close to April, while July and August both
show similarly poor sales. These sales numbers indicate that the café’s business is heavily
dependent on customers from the nearby high school. The café’s best months are those
that class is in session. The inconsistent sales of breakfast and lunch reinforce the
relationship with school traffic.
130
WRITING TASK 2
In a public-funded healthcare system, people who are willing to pay for the best and
fastest treatment should be able to do so.
It is sometimes argued that if a person is able to afford it, they should be able
purchase better and faster medical treatment. I disagree with this opinion. I believe that in
a publicly-funded healthcare system, every person should have access to the best doctors
and the best care, and that a person’s wealth should not determine the quality of care they
receive.
If money determines the level of care a person receives, the result is a greater
division between classes. The wealthy class receives the best care, further separating
them as the “upper” class. Meanwhile, the poor class receives inferior care, pushing them
further as the “lower” class. This class division, which already exists, is less when all
classes receive equal healthcare. A society needs to take care of all its citizens, and
dividing health care into classes goes against this responsibility.
Health care is a right which we all share equally. It is simply not right for a person
to receive better healthcare just because of the size of their bank account or to give
another person inferior care because they cannot afford the best doctors. All citizens
should contribute to society, and for this, health is required. For example, houses cannot
be built if carpenters are not healthy because they cannot afford it. It is the duty of society
to try and aid everyone equally for the benefit of all people, including the wealthy.
In conclusion, I believe health care is a fundamental right of all people, and that
taking the best doctors and giving the best treatments to wealthy people is unfair to the
rest, and overall a bad decision for a society. We need to make sure that all of our citizens
are looked after, and a publicly-funded healthcare system where each person has equal
access to the best treatments and doctors.
Test 1 Key 131
Test 1 Speaking Section: Suggested Responses

Examiner: Hello there, have a seat.
Student: Thank you.
E: What is your name?
S: My name is Slava.
E: Okay Slava, we’re going to start the IELTS speaking section. To begin, I’m going to
ask you a few questions on a general topic. Are you ready to proceed?
S: Yes I am.
E: Okay. Let’s talk about sports. What kind of sports do you enjoy playing?
S: Well, a sport I absolutely love to play is ice hockey. It’s fairly competitive and it keeps
me active and healthy. I also enjoy playing football when the weather is warmer.
E: What are some sports you have never played, and why?
S: One sport I’ve never played is handball. Some of my friends love it, they play it in a
league and watch it on television, but I find it very dull and boring. I prefer faster sports
like ice hockey.
E: Do you prefer team sports or individual sports, and why?
S: I prefer team sports because I enjoy the social part of it. Team sports also help to learn
teamwork, which is a really important skill in life.
E: Why do you think people play sports?
S: That’s an odd question, let me think about that for a second.
E: Sure.
132
S: I believe people play sports for two main reasons. First, and most importantly I think,
sports are lots of fun. Second, many sports are great exercise. Staying in shape by playing
sports is much more enjoyable than going to the gym, for example.
E: What is the most popular sport in your country? Why do people like this sport?
S: In Russia, I think football is the most popular, although ice hockey is very popular as
well. Both sports are very fast-moving with lots of excitement, which makes them
appealing to many Russians.
E: That is the end of part 1. For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will
have one to two minutes to talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare
what you are going to say. You can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Describe
a role model you have had in your life.
S: (Prepares, makes notes).
E: Okay, the one minute is up, please begin speaking.
S: I’ve had a number of role models in my life. Perhaps my greatest role model was my
father. My dad was an absolutely wonderful man, who inspired me to become the person
I am today. He was a very tall man, and was bald from a very young age. His face was
old and friendly. He worked in a factory for almost fifty years, until he died last year. It
was an honest job, and I think he was always happy, but he wanted more for his children.
His leadership, honesty, integrity and honour are what made him a great role model.
When I was eleven, and our family was going through some tough times with money, my
father found a wallet on the road loaded with cash. The wallet contained about two
Test 1 Key 133
months of my dad’s salary. He brought it home, and immediately attempted to get in
contact with the person who it belonged to. Keeping the wallet was never even a
consideration for him. Years later I asked him why. He told me that it was always wrong
to take what does not belong to you, and just because our family could have benefitted
from the money, it was still wrong. This strong morality is what I have learned. My father
is still my inspiration, and that is what makes him my greatest role model.
E: Okay. That is the end of section 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related
to the topic of section 2. We will now begin section 3. What attributes should a role
model have?
S: That is an interesting question, can you give me a moment?
E: Certainly.
S: Hmmm…I believe the attributes a role model should possess are honesty, integrity and
kindness. Young people learn from role models and these are the most important
attributes a role model should be teaching children, because these attributes help children
become good people.
E: Why are role models important in a person’s life?
S: Role models are important because they act as life teachers. Let me explain. For
academics, we have school teachers. For sports, we have coaches. For life in general, we
have role models. They are the instructors of important life skills, such as honesty and
integrity.
E: Have you been a role model to anyone in the past?
134
S: Yes, I have been a role model to my younger brother. He is seven years younger than
me, so I’ve experienced many events which he comes across and I try to teach him these
lessons.
E: What responsibilities does a role model have?
S: The main responsibility a role model has, in my opinion, is to live in a positive way
which reflects their beliefs. For example, a role model who teaches honesty and kindness
must be honest and kind in their everyday life. It is not enough for a role model to say
things, he must do them as well.
E: Can having role models be a bad thing? Why or why not?
S: Hmmmm…that is a very interesting question. I may need a second. Hmmmm….well, I
suppose having role models could be a bad thing, if those role models did not live as they
taught. Additionally, a person who taught bad attributes, such as dishonesty, cheating or
lying, would be a bad role model. Having a person like this in anyone’s life would be
terrible. Having bad role models would be worse than having no role model. However,
having a good role model is the best case.

Test 1 Key 135
Test 1 Answer Key

Listening Section
1B 2:09 – 2:18
2A 2:27 – 2:35
3 Trammell 2:37 – 2:52
4 MS86 8P4. 3:01 – 3:10
5D 3:45 – 3:58
6 16 4:55 – 5:16
7 forty minutes 5:16 – 5:34
8C 5:48 – 5:54
9 125 pounds 5:58 – 6:07
10 Cash 6:07 – 6:11
11 C 1:24 – 1:32
12 C 2:08 – 2:19
13-15 B, C, D (any order) 2:35 – 2:48
16 B 3:03 – 3:15
17 waves 4:13 – 4:27
18 doors 4:06 – 4:13
19 life boats 4:55 – 5:17
20 Atlantic Ocean 5:26 – 5:39
21 Wednesday 1:00 – 1:10
22 Planning 1:10 – 1:21
136
23 Tomorrow 1:10 – 1:21
24 B 2:00 – 2:03
25 1400…1800 2:24 – 2:34
26 Second World War 2:34 – 2:42
27 A 3:32 – 4:31
28 C 3:32 – 4:31
29 A 3:32 – 4:31
30 B 4:14 – 4:19
31 habits, habitat (any order) 0:56 – 1:01
32 green 1:11 – 1:23
33 carbon dioxide 1:31 – 1:39
34 farming 1:55 – 2:01
35 light bulbs 2:25 – 2:33
36 invisible hand 2:55 – 3:05
37 true cost 3:20 – 3:28
38 pressure 3:28 – 3:38
39 business/es 3:56 – 4:06
40 we all 4:07 – 4:14

Test 1 Key 137
Reading Section
1 No 23 F
2 Yes 24 F
3 Yes 25 A
4 NG 26 E
5 Yes 27 No
6 lookout 28 NG
7 calmness 29 Yes
8 hull 30 Yes
9 spill 31 E
10 maritime authorities 32 D
11 movement 33 A
12 microwaves 34 H
13 virtually impossible 35 D
14 vi 36 A
15 iii 37 E
16 iv 38 I
17 xi 39 F
18 i 40 C
19 viii
20 True
21 False
22 NG
Test 2 Key 138
Test 2 Transcripts
(CD2 Track 1)
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two men as one of the men
buys a gym membership. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
Example
Bill: Good afternoon. I’m interested in purchasing a gym membership.
Mike: Of course sir. What length of membership are you looking for – we have options
ranging from one month to two years.
Bill: Can I get one for three months? I don’t want to make too much of a commitment.
Mike: Of course.
Narrator: The man says he wants a three month membership, so this answer has been
indicated for you. Now we shall begin. You should answer the questions as you listen,
because you will not hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and answer
questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Bill: Good afternoon. I’m interested in purchasing a gym membership.
Mike: Of course sir. What length of membership are you looking for – we have options
ranging from one month to two years.
Bill: Can I get one for three months? I don’t want to make too much of a commitment.
Mike: Of course. Before we can get you started on getting into shape, I’m going to need
some personal details from you.
Test 2 Key 139
Bill: Certainly.
Mike: Let’s start with your name.
Bill: William Bacon (1)
Mike: Bacon spelled the same as the breakfast food?
Bill: Yes – B A C O N.
Mike: Okay William, now I need your residential address.
Bill: Oh please, call me Bill. I feel odd being called William.
Mike: Okay Bill, so your address then…
Bill: Right. I live at 1653 Spoonar Street (2), in Liverpool.
Mike: Oh I know that street, my grandmother lived there when I was growing up. The
street name is spelt with an “a” is it not?
Bill: Yes that’s right, Spoonar is spelled S-P-O-O-N-A-R.
Mike: And your postcode here in Liverpool?
Bill: PK38 7YQ (3)
Mike: TK38 7YQ?
Bill: No – PK38 7YQ
Mike: Right. Now we need your date of birth.
Bill: April 9, 1980.
Mike: And your telephone numbers, starting with your home number.
Bill: I don’t have a home number (4), just a mobile number. It is 312 77 83 91.
Mike: Fine then. Now do you have any medical issues we should know about, such as
asthma?
Bill: I have no medical concerns, I am in perfect health as far as I know!
140
Mike: Now I need to ask you a few questions to find out what type of gym membership
fits your lifestyle the best.
Bill: There is more than one type of gym membership?
Mike: Oh yes, there are a number of different options. We have our most basic
membership, which allows you to work out on the machines on the main floor of our
town centre facility. Then there is our premium membership which allows members
usage of the machines on the second floor of our town centre facility, as well as access to
our third floor lounge (6C).
Bill: What is so special about the machines on the second floor?
Mike: Nothing really, but our gym is extremely busy and often the machines on the
second floor are the only ones available. However as I said, they are only open to our
premium members.
Bill: Tell me about the lounge.
Mike: Our lounge is fantastic. The room is big, about 50 feet by 50 feet, and we have
two large televisions and many comfortable chairs. There is also full bar service and a
complimentary snack bar (5).
Questions 6-10
Bill: That sounds great. Are there any other membership options?
Mike: Yes there is one more. We call it the “premium-plus” membership, and it allows
customers to use any of our gym facilities in the country (6C).
Bill: So if I go to London or Kent or Newcastle, can I use your gyms there?
Mike: Well, yes, but we don’t currently operate a gym in Newcastle. We do, however,
operate a total of twenty-two gyms in England, not including this one in Liverpool.
Bill: Twenty-three gyms, that’s impressive (7). What is the price difference between
these memberships?
Mike: Well, at your three month level, the basic membership is 53 pounds, the premium
is 84 pounds (8), and the premium-plus is 95 pounds.
Bill: That’s quite a step up from basic to premium.

Test 2 Key 141
Mike: Yes, but it’s quite good value for the additional services and location options. .
Bill: I’ll have to think this over a bit before I make a decision.
Mike: Just so you know Bill, we are running a promotion right now – if you sign up
another person along with yourself, we will give both of you premium memberships for
the price of basic memberships.
Bill: Wow, that is a great deal! I wonder who I should ask to join with me. Greg loves to
work out, but he already has a gym membership. I could ask Steve, but he’s so busy with
work all the time. I think I will ask my neighbour Kate (9), she’s been trying to get back
into shape after having her baby last autumn.
Mike: Wonderful. I will see you soon then.
Bill: Yes you will…sorry I didn’t catch your name.
Mike: It’s Mike, and it was a pleasure helping you.
Bill: I will hopefully be in tomorrow with Kate, does 11:00 work?
Mike: No sorry, I’m not in until midday.
Bill: I will see you at midday then (10).
answers.
(CD2 Track 2)
Listening Section 2: You will hear a recording of a travel show about tourism to Calgary,
Canada. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
Deborah: Hello, I’m Deborah Sloan, and welcome to Hotspots, the travel show that
highlights great tourist ‘spots’ around the world. Today we have a representative from
Calgary, Canada, who is going to tell us a little about the city.
Robert: Thanks Deborah. Yes, my name is Robert and I’m going to tell you all about the
wonderful city of Calgary.
142
Deborah: Sorry, I hate to interrupt Robert, but can you tell me exactly where Calgary is?
I’m sure many of our viewers are wondering.
Robert: Sure. Calgary is the largest city in the province of Alberta, which is the second
most western province in Canada. Alberta lies directly east of the province of British
Columbia (11), of which Vancouver is a very well known tourist destination, and
directly west of the province of Saskatchewan (12), of which Regina is the capital.
Canada is a very big place, and that is shown by just how far Calgary is from many of the
other major Canadian cities. Calgary is over 1000 km from Vancouver, and over 3400 km
from Toronto, Canada’s largest city.
Deborah: Canada is definitely a very spacious country!
Robert: Yes indeed. Well, let me tell you a little about Calgary. Calgary is a beautiful
city of approximately one million people (13 or 14) situated next to the Rocky
Mountains. It is known most, perhaps, for the world famous Calgary Stampede.
Deborah: Is that with the cowboys and bull riding?
Robert: Yes, and it is held every July in the city. The stampede attracts more than a
million visitors each year (13 or 14) from all over the world. It is referred to as “The
greatest outdoor show on Earth”.
Another fact that Calgary is well known for is oil (15), which was first discovered in the
area in 1902. With the boom in oil prices over the past forty years, Calgary had seen its
population grow from 400,000 in 1971 to over 1,000,000 in 2007. In that time period
Calgary was by far the fastest growing city in Canada.
Many sports fans will know that Calgary was host to the 1988 Winter Olympics (16),
and to this day Calgary remains a winter activity destination, with several world class
facilities dedicated to many winter sports, from bobsled to curling to speed skating and
everything in between. One of Calgary’s biggest icons is its hockey team, the Calgary
Flames, who play in the National Hockey League, or NHL as it’s better known. They
have been one of the more successful teams in the league during their thirty years in
Calgary, even winning the coveted Stanley Cup in 1989.
Questions 17-20
On the cultural side of things, Calgary boasts a number of festivals during the year,
including a fringe festival, a comedy festival, as well as the Calgary International Film
Test 2 Key 143
Festival. Calgary is also home to numerous theatre companies, as well as the Calgary
Opera, Alberta Ballet and the Calgary Philharmonic Orchestra.
Deborah: Sorry to interrupt again Robert, but this program is called “Hotspots”, so
what’s the weather like in Calgary? I’ve heard it’s cold.
Robert: (laughs) Yes, in the winter it can be quite cold, but in the summer it is also quite
warm, with average summer high temperatures hovering around 23 degrees Celsius
(17). While average winter high temperatures are around minus 2 degrees (18), and
routinely go down to -20. Calgary experiences something quite unique when it comes to
the weather – it has these weather fronts called “Chinook winds”, which can blow
through the city in the winter and temporarily raise the temperature by up to fifteen
degrees Celsius! These Chinook winds can last for anywhere from a few hours to a few
days (19), and they are welcomed with open arms by the people of Calgary. Calgary is
also one of the sunniest cities in Canada (20), as well as one of the driest, which makes
up a lot for the cold weather. Honestly though, if you are looking for a winter getaway to
a “hotspot” as you say, Calgary is not the place to go. But if you are looking for a winter
getaway that includes skiing or snowboarding, or anything else done best in the cold
weather, nobody does it better than Calgary.
Deborah: Thank you Robert, for that fascinating look…. (trails off)
answers.
(CD2 Track 3)
Listening Section 3: You will hear a student and her professor talking about their class.
Questions 21-26
Prof. Gorman: Come in Laura.
Laura: Thanks a lot for making the time to see me Professor Gorman. As I mentioned in
my email, I’ve been very ill this past week (21), and missing the first week of school is
not a good way to start the term.
P: Indeed, it’s not a very good start at all. But I think you can overcome it. You had a
good grade in my course last term, and I’m sure this absence is just a bump in the road as
far as this term goes. Now, what would you like to discuss?
L: Well, I don’t even have a syllabus, so maybe you could give me one and then we
could go over it in some detail?
144
P: Yes that would be sensible Let me grab you a syllabus. (pause) Here you go. As you
see, the class meets each Monday and Thursday (22) from 10:00 to 11:30 in room A313
of the Juliet building (23). Do you know where that is?
L: Yes. The Juliet building is right next to the student union building, correct?
P: Yes that’s right. Okay, so next are my office hours. I hold them each Monday and
Wednesday from 2:30 to 4:00 in the afternoon (24). If these do not work for you, feel
free to send me an email and we can make arrangements to meet at another time. Now
let’s discuss the books you’ll need. As you see on the syllabus, there are two books you’ll
need for this course. You need not purchase either of them however, as there are several
copies of each available in the library.
L: I like keeping my books for future reference, so I would prefer to buy both books. Are
they available in the bookshop?
P: The first one is, but the second one must be purchased from Buster’s Books (26). Do
you know where Buster’s Books is located?
L: Roughly, but do you have an address?
P: Yes. The address is 3419 Young Street, in Brighton.
L: Right, I know where that is. Do you know how much the books cost, approximately?
P: I think the one at the university bookshop is about 20 pounds (25), and the one at
Buster’s is about 15 pounds (26). So that’s a total of 35 pounds for the two of them.
Questions 27-30
L: Great. Can we talk a little about the coursework required?
P: Of course. There are two essays, one midterm exam and one final exam.
L: Wow, that’s a lot of coursework!
P: Yes, but at this level I don’t believe in just having one essay or one final exam
determine your entire mark in a class. I like arranging it so that a student can have a
chance to reflect on their ability and understanding of materials throughout the term.
Test 2 Key 145
L: That makes sense. So what are the percentages associated with each assignment and
exam?
P: The first essay is worth 15%, the second is worth 25% (27); the midterm exam is
worth 20%, and the final exam is worth 40% (28). Would you like to talk about the first
essay? It is due next Friday.
L: Yes, could we?
P: Of course. The essay should be approximately 1500 words (29), and the topic must be
chosen from the list.
L: And can I get a copy of the list?
P: There is one attached to your syllabus.
L. Right, so do we have to tell you what topic we are writing on beforehand?
P: No it’s alright, you only have to notify me if you want to do a topic that is not on the
list.
L: Right. Is the essay due in class, or can we submit it by email?
P: I will accept essays without penalty until midnight after the class it’s due. So yes you
can submit it by email, hand it in during class, or submit it to the department office. If
you submit it to the office, make sure to get a time stamp put on it, so I can be sure the
paper was submitted on time (30). And also, be sure… (trails off)
answers.
(CD2 Track 4)
Listening Section 4: You will hear a lecture about the dinosaur Tyrannosaurus Rex.
Questions 31-40
M: Good evening class, if you are registered for Anthropology 322, you are in the right
place. Today, we will be talking about the most famous of all dinosaurs, Tyrannosaurus
Rex, or “T Rex” as it is commonly referred to. This dinosaur has a fearsome reputation,
mainly due to popular culture films and books. In this class we will be discussing the
facts regarding the Tyrannosaurus Rex, as opposed to its Hollywood depiction.
146
Tyrannosaurus Rex lived from approximately 80 to 65 million years ago. Of course the
reason it died out 65 million years ago is the same reason all of the dinosaurs died out
at that time, a massive asteroid which hit the Earth and destroyed almost all life (31).
The period in which the Tyrannosaurus Rex lived is known as the Late Cretaceous
period (32). This reality is in contrast to fictional portrayals which often cast the T Rex as
living in the Jurassic Period. In fact, T Rex did not come to be until 60 million years after
the end of the Jurassic Period.
Tyrannosaurus Rex was a meat eater, but it is not entirely clear whether it killed its own
prey, or if it merely scavenged the prey of other dinosaurs. In our minds we imagine T
Rex fighting to the death with other dinosaurs, but it is not known for sure whether this is
the truth.
Tyrannosaurus Rex was a large dinosaur. Not nearly the largest, mind you, but still large
by any standards of modern day wildlife. The dinosaur’s length was approximately 12
metres, its height could reach six metres (33) and it weighed anywhere between five and
seven tonnes. That weight is the equivalent of about 80 average sized human beings. If
humans had been around back then, we would have been the perfect size for an afternoon
snack!
The location of T Rex fossils discovered is very interesting. They have been found in
western North America, as far south as Texas, and as far north as Alberta, and they have
also been found in eastern Asian, namely in Mongolia. How is this possible? How can
fossils be found in such different regions of the world? The answer is what geologists
call continental drift (34). The continents have not always been in the same location.
They have shifted, and around the time of T Rex, western North America and eastern
Asia were connected. This explains perfectly the discovery of the fossils in the different
locations.
One of the more well known interesting facts about Tyrannosaurus Rex is that it had
extremely short arms (35). They measured only about one metre long, which is very
short when you consider the size of the dinosaur. To put such small arms in perspective,
it would be as if humans had arms that measured only ten centimeters! What use would
they be? Well, that is one of the questions that has led scientists to believe that T Rex
was a scavenger (36) and not a predator. It is very difficult to believe that it could have
been an effective predator with arms being so important for hunting.
Another fact that leads scientists to believe T Rex was a scavenger was its extremely
strong sense of smell. This enabled T Rex to smell carcasses over long distances (37),
giving it a big advantage as a scavenger. On the other side of the argument, T Rex had
very large, serrated teeth, which would have been perfect for tearing through the tough
skin (38) of other dinosaurs. If T Rex was a pure scavenger, it may not have required
such teeth (39). Another interesting point about their teeth was that they were
replaceable (40) over time. Unlike humans, who grow only two sets in a lifetime,
Test 2 Key 147
T Rex’s teeth could be replaced over and over throughout a lifetime. Again, this is
evidence that they were, at least in part, likely predatory.
answers.
148

Test Two – Reading Passage One - Lotteries - Positive Good or Unnecessary Wrong?
A A lottery is a form of gambling where contestants purchase tickets, with one or

more tickets being drawn as winners at the end of the competition period. Often, there is
a jackpot winner who wins most or all of the prize pool. Today, national lottery jackpots
can range from millions to hundreds of millions of dollars. It wasn’t long ago that
lotteries were outlawed almost everywhere in the world. Today, lotteries are legal in
North America, Australia, and much of Europe and Asia (3, 6). A question is raised
over what has changed to make something previously seen as negative for society,
become common across the globe. If gambling is bad, why are lotteries so popular, and
why do governments support them?
B People buy lottery tickets for one chief reason - they want to win the jackpot. In
the long run, lotteries are a “bad bet”. The odds of winning are always stacked against the
player - that is to say the long-term expected return on the player’s money is
significantly less than the money paid for the tickets (7). This is how the lottery
corporations make money on the lottery – the payout is far less than the revenue of the
ticket sales, and the government takes the difference. If one million tickets are sold at five
dollars apiece, and the jackpot is three million dollars, then the government has made
two million dollars of profit in the process (4). We are forced to question why lotteries
are so popular given their poor value for players. It’s because of the thrill of possibly
winning the jackpot - the anticipation of a life-changing win for the ticket purchaser is
worth the money. It’s the same reason why people gamble at casinos. Many people know
they are not going to win in the long run at a casino, but the short term thrill makes up for
the long term losses.
C The main argument against lotteries is that it acts as a tax on the poor, and such a
tax is unfair. This is because statistics show that poor people are by far the most
common purchasers of lottery tickets (2). There are two reasons why this could be the
case. First, poor people have the most to gain by winning the lottery; second, poor
people are arguably less likely to have a statistical understanding of the lottery –
they are less likely to realize that it is a ‘bad bet’ (9).
Test 2 Key 149
D The main argument in favour of lotteries is that it is harmless fun which results in
tax income that often goes straight to community programs such as sports or the arts.
Many community programs rely solely on lottery finances to operate (5), so in this
sense the lottery is a positive good. However, there are many people, often poor
people, who become obsessed with gambling and the lottery, and it starts to take
over their lives (1). For these people, the lottery is detrimental.
E One interesting way to look at the lottery, and why people participate in it, is to
imagine it as a kind of ‘reverse insurance’. People buy insurance for their home or car
so that if something bad happens to it, they do not have to pay the entire cost of the
damage (10). In other words, they pay a little bit each month so that they don’t have to
pay a large amount at one time. They pay these smaller amounts to insurance companies,
and those insurance companies make money in the long run (11). So paying insurance
is not a ‘good bet’ either, just like the lottery. With the lottery, we pay “little amounts”
every once in a while so that maybe we will hit the jackpot (12). With insurance, we
pay a little to save a lot, and with the lottery, we pay a little to win a lot. When looked at
in this way, the popularity of the lottery is more easily understood (13).
F When it comes down to it, lotteries are a choice. Yes, they amount to a ‘tax’, but
so do the monthly fees we pay to insurance companies. If people want to pay a few
dollars here and there for a little fun, excitement and a small chance to win a monstrous
amount of money, then what’s the harm? Additionally, lottery monies fund many
valuable community programs which otherwise would have trouble operating. Playing
the lottery responsibly is fun, exciting and maybe, just maybe, extremely profitable.
Test Two – Reading Passage Two – Animals of Different Stripes
The Siberian and Bengal tigers are two of the most well-known types of tigers. These
tigers are very similar, in fact they come from the same species, but they do have some
important differences. These similarities and differences, while interesting to note, are
vital pieces of information for the people in charge of the conservation of endangered
species of tigers. Wildlife conservationists have to tell the difference between the two in
order to keep accurate counts of the respective populations.
The first main difference between the two tigers is the location of their habitats. The
Siberian tiger today lives only in the far northeast part of Russia called Siberia (14),
although it used to live as far west as western Asia and as far east as parts of Alaska. One
of the main reasons Siberian tigers do not live in China anymore is due to widespread
illegal hunting there in the past. Bengal tigers live in a warmer, more southern climate.
They reside mostly in India, but also in Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan. Bengal tigers
are the most numerous of all tigers (15), with approximately 1800 living in the wild
150
worldwide. Siberian tigers, conversely, number only about 200-300 in their natural
habitats.
Both tigers are extremely popular zoo exhibits, which further contributes to the low
numbers of both, especially the Siberian tiger. There have been efforts to breed Siberian
tigers in captivity, and many of these efforts have been successful; however, the offspring
are unfit to live in the wild. At the very least, these efforts allow zoos to maintain their
exhibits without taking even more tigers out of the wild population.
Siberian tigers, on average, are larger than Bengals. The average weight of a Bengal male
is about 220 kilograms, while the weight of a Siberian averages slightly heavier.
Amazingly, Siberian tigers can be as large as 320 kilograms! The lengths of these
animals are also different. On average, male Siberian tigers have a nose-to-tail length of
three metres, while the Bengal’s length is slightly shorter. Their tail lengths, interestingly,
are the same, averaging about one metre. One notable observation is that the farther
north in the Bengal tigers’ habitat, the larger the animals get (16). The average
weight of a tiger in northern India is about 15kg more than ones in southern India, where
the average recorded weight is 220kg.
Another clear difference between the two tigers is the seasonal growth of a ‘winter
coat’ for the Siberian tiger (17). Since they live in northern Russia, which is an
unforgiving climate in the winter, the ability to endure temperatures well below freezing
is essential for survival. Unlike the Bengal tiger, which lives in more equatorial climates
around India, where the temperatures are more or less the same year-round, the Siberian
lives in a climate where the temperature can vary more than fifty degrees Celsius
(18). Because of this, Siberians grow longer fur in the winter. For example, the fur on the
Siberian’s back in the summer measures about 16mm, while in winter this length almost
triples. The Bengal tiger has no need for such a long winter coat.
The two tigers share many similarities, including diet and reproduction. Being
carnivorous, other animals are the food supply for both (19). The types of animals
hunted are various due to the different regions that are home to these tigers. Bengals eat
animals such as wild boar, water buffalo and chital, while Siberian tigers eat primarily
wild boar, deer and moose. Bengals and Siberians have very similar reproduction cycles.
Both tigers reach maturity around four years of age, at which time they begin their mating
rituals. The females are pregnant for about 15 weeks (20) and give birth to between
one and four cubs. Each of these cubs weighs about a kilogram, and will be entirely
dependent on their mother for the first six months of life (21). After that time, they
begin their learning process, where they develop the skills they need to hunt and kill
for survival. After two or three years, the cubs are ready to leave their mother and
hunt independently (22, 23), and at the age of four or five, they reach sexual maturity
and so the cycle continues.
One last difference between the two tigers is a significant one, especially for humans.
Neither tiger hunts humans as part of their normal diet (24), but one of the two tigers
is known to be a man-eater. The Bengal tiger, under the right circumstances, will eat
Test 2 Key 151
humans (25). Bengals will attack humans in two cases. First, they will attack humans
who interfere with the Bengal’s hunting or feeding, Bengal mothers do not take
kindly to people when they are feeding their cubs (26). Also, older Bengals will kill
humans for food, because humans are easy to eat, unlike wild boar for example. Human
skin is soft and fleshy, perfect for an old tiger with weak muscles and worn down teeth.
Siberians, however, will generally not attack humans, unless they feel threatened. As
such, records show that Bengal attacks are far more common than Siberian attacks.
Test Two – Reading Passage Three – Explosions in Space: Supernovae
A Supernovae are among the most spectacular events in the universe. They are
incredibly powerful: in just a few weeks they can release the same amount of energy as
our sun will release in its entire lifetime. Supernovae are also the origin of many of the
elements that make up the universe. Most of the elements of the Periodic Table require
enormous amounts of energy to produce, and supernovae are the only source of this
energy. Due to their consistent brightness, supernovae are used to measure large distances
across the universe.
B There are two major types of supernovae, type Ia and type II. There are a number
of differences between the two, but the main difference is the process by which they
come into being. Type II supernovae originate from a dying star (33). A star begins to
die when it runs out of fuel. Fuel for stars is the element hydrogen (31). For their
entire lives, stars fuse hydrogen into helium, producing energy in the process (34).
This energy comes from the difference in mass between a helium molecule and the four
constituent hydrogen atoms. Four hydrogen atoms have a mass of approximately 4.0318
atomic mass units, while a helium atom’s mass is approximately 4.0026 atomic mass
units. The difference between these two values is the amount of mass which is
converted into pure energy (27). In a dying star, there is no more hydrogen - all that
is left is helium. At that point, the star begins to fuse helium molecules together to
form carbon molecules. Once all the carbon is gone, the star moves on to even
heavier elements (35), and the star consumes these heavier elements at faster and faster
rates. A star may take ten million years to consume its hydrogen, then take a million
years to consume its helium, a thousand years for the carbon, three years to consume the
neon, three months for the oxygen and only five days to convert all of the silicon into
iron. There is a stopping point, however. Once the core of the star is entirely iron,
there can be no more fusion (36). This is because the small difference in mass that is
converted into energy is not present in the case of iron. The star is then left with an
inactive iron core. Once the iron core reaches a certain mass called the ‘Chandrasekhar
Limit’, the star can no longer exist under its own weight and it collapses in on itself. The
result is a cataclysmic type II supernova.
C The other type of supernova is the type Ia. Type Ia supernovae are formed most
commonly in binary star systems, where there are two stars which rotate around a
152
common point. For a supernova type Ia to occur, one of the stars has to be a white
dwarf (28, 37). A white dwarf is the remnant of a low mass star that has come to the end
of its stellar life. Our sun will one day be a white dwarf because it lacks the mass needed
to blow up in a supernova type II explosion. In a binary system, the white dwarf star
gravitationally attracts matter from its companion star, with the matter taken from the
companion star becoming part of the white dwarf. Eventually the white dwarf will have
added so much mass that it begins to approach the Chandrasekhar Limit. Once it
hits this limit, just like in type II explosions, the white dwarf can no longer sustain
itself, and the core of the star collapses. The star blows itself up in an even more
spectacular event than the type II explosion (38).
D Type Ia supernovae are extremely bright - if the sun were to be replaced by a type
Ia supernova, it would appear five billion times brighter. This brightness is also very
consistent from one supernova type Ia to another supernova type Ia. This consistency
has led astronomers to use supernovae type Ia as what are called ‘standard candles’.
A standard candle is used to determine how far away an object is (29). For example,
if we observe a supernova type Ia in a nearby galaxy, we can tell very accurately how far
away it is by comparing the apparent brightness of the supernova observed with its
absolute brightness. Respectively, if the supernova is very bright, the galaxy is quite
close, if the supernova is very dim, the galaxy is very far away (39).
E Supernovae are responsible for every element in the universe that is heavier
than iron (30). Every atom of gold, silver, tin and lead, as well as eighty other elements
in the universe was born in a supernova. Supernovae are also the origin of most newly
born stars in the universe. Our sun, for example, was born from a cloud of dust and gas
that was left over from a supernova. The Earth likewise was born from a supernova. It is
not too imaginative therefore to regard the plants, animals and humans on this
planet as a development of this supernova. Every atom of our bodies was once
scattered in a supernova explosion (40). Therefore many scientists believe
supernovae are the crucibles of existence itself (32).
Test 2 Key 153

WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
The chart below shows the hierarchical structure of a marketing company. Summarize the
information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
Mr. Dobbs
President & CEO
Ms. Fields - Mr. Gartner –

Mr. Tremblay -
Vice President of Advertising
Sales Executive
Marketing Executive
Ms. Clark –
Mr. Robbins – Mr. Smith – Sales Mr. Namath –
Advertising
Summer Intern Manager Sales Manager
Manager
The chart shows the structure and positions of a marketing company. The
company has eight employees on three different levels. The chart is broken into three
levels. The top level consists of the President and CEO. The middle level consists of the
executives, while the bottom level consists of managers and the summer intern. In total
control is the President and CEO of the company. Under him, there is the Vice President
of Marketing, the Sales Executive and the Advertising Executive who each answer to
him. These three “second-level” employees each have people who report to them. The
summer intern reports to the Vice President of Marketing; the two Sales Managers report
to the Sales Executive, while the Advertising Manager reports to the Advertising
Executive. The way the chart is organized indicates that the hierarchy applies only to the
employees on the same “line”. That is, the Sales Manager is responsible to the Sales
Executive and the President, but not the Vice President of Marketing. From this chart it is
154
obvious that the marketing company has a clear structure in place which informs
employees who they are responsible to and who is responsible to them.
WRITING TASK 2
Are higher taxes or lower taxes better for society?
Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Taxes are an unfortunate but necessary part of every society. They have been
around since the days of Ancient Egypt, and certainly they are a part of society today.
While common people do not have a choice of whether to use or not use taxes, they may
choose to vote for lower or higher tax structure. Even though there are certainly benefits
to a higher tax structure, I believe a lower tax structure results in greater benefits for a
society.
A person who earns money should receive that money. That is the core belief
behind lower taxes. Individuals who earn money should be able to spend that money the
way they want, not how the government feels they should spend it. By giving money to
the government, people who actually earn money are paying to support those that do not
earn money. Obviously hard-working individuals often find this unfair. Taxes are
necessary in order to pay for roads and the army, for example, but taxes should not go
towards subsidizing the people who are too lazy to get jobs.
Lower taxes provide a large incentive for businesses to operate and be successful.
Prosperous businesses provide jobs and result in more people who are able to make
money and not depend on the government. If higher taxes are implemented, businesses
seek out places to operate where the tax structure is more favourable. When this happens,
jobs are lost and more people are left to take money from the government, and
consequently, from the people who actually make money.
In conclusion, I believe that lower taxes are better for all of society. They provide
an incentive for people to get jobs, and those jobs are created by the positive business
climate provided by implementing a lower tax structure. Taxes are inevitable, but they
should be kept low so people can keep as much of their hard-earned money as possible.
Test 2 Key 155

Student: Thank you.
S: My name is Maria Angelique.
E: Okay Maria, we’re going to start the IELTS speaking section. I will record this
speaking part of the test for marking purposes. To begin, I’m going to ask you a few
questions on a general topic. Are you ready to proceed?
S: Yes I am.
E: Okay. Let’s talk about school. Where do you go to school?
S: I just finished high school in my hometown of Rouen, in France. Right now I am
travelling and preparing for university.
E: What other schools have you attended?
S: Well, I moved from Paris when I was 15, so I had high school there. Additionally, I
have attended a nursery school and elementary school in Paris. I have gone to four
schools in total.
E: Which was your favourite? Why?
S: That’s a tough question. I enjoyed all of the schools I went to. If I had to pick one, I
would choose the elementary school in Paris. I met some of my best friends there, and the
school had some of my favourite teachers.
E: Do you enjoy school? Why or why not?
156
S: Yes, I do enjoy school. I like seeing my friends and learning new things. I look
forward to the weekends though.
E: What is your favourite subject?
S: My favourite subject is physics. I like learning about how the world works.
E: Are schools different in your country? How are they different?
S: The schools in France are very similar to those here. The one big difference is that
children in France go to school for one year less.
E: That is the end of part 1.
E: For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will have one to two minutes to
talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say. You
can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Here is a card with the questions.
(One minute break)
S: I don’t watch much television, but one program I make sure to watch every week is a
show called “Nightwatch”. It is a news show which talks about important issues going on
in France. For example, a recent episode warned us about the dangers of skin cancer.
Especially in the south of France, the number of cases of the condition is exploding.
Shows like “Nightwatch” are valuable because they raise awareness for issues like this.
The show is also very enjoyable because it is so balanced – it presents both sides of the
issue without bias. Another recent episode covered a big court case in Paris. While the
Test 2 Key 157
newspapers had clearly already decided if the defendant was guilty or innocent,
“Nightwatch” presented both sides of the story while leaving the verdict to the jury and
the court. “Nightwatch” has also won many television awards in France, as well as some
international awards. Additionally, the show comes on each Sunday night at 9:00 PM,
and it makes for a perfect way to end my weekend. I learn a lot from the show, and I feel
better knowing that I’m up to date on the local and world issues going into the coming
week. That’s why I enjoy this program.
E: Okay. That is the end of part 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related to
the topic of part 2. We will now begin part 3. What makes a good television show?
S: I think a good television programme should be interesting, exciting, and should keep
the viewer’s interest. Nobody wants to watch a boring show. A good show should also
keep the viewer guessing.
E: How much television do you watch?
S: I don’t watch very much television, but I will watch a show once in a while. I
watch….perhaps ten hours a week. That is far less than a lot of people I know, including
my friends.
E: What television shows are popular in your country?
S: There are a lot of “game shows” in my country, where regular people come on tv and
try to win prizes. My mother was on a game show and she won a trip to Australia. They
are definitely very popular.
E: What impact has the internet had on television programmes?
158
S: Just to be clear, you are asking me how the internet has influenced television?
E: Yes, exactly.
S: Ummm…well I believe the internet has had two different influences on television
programmes. In one sense, it gives television programmes more viewers because the
internet makes it easy to watch shows whenever a viewer wants to. However in another
sense, fewer people watch the shows on television, which reduces advertising revenue for
the television companies.
E: What do you think the future of television is?
S: That is a tough question. I think the future of television is tied to the technology of the
television itself. If televisions continue to get better and more desirable, then people will
want to watch programmes on their television. However, if television technology stays
the same, people may turn more and more to computers and the internet for their
television programme needs.

Test 2 Key 159
Test 2 Answer Key

Listening Section
1 Bacon 2:16 – 2:24
2 Spoonar 2:32 – 2:53
3 PK38 7YQ 2:54 – 3:10
4 None 3:17 – 3:23
5 B1, C2 4:27 – 4:42
6A 3:54 – 5:24
7 23 5:32 – 5:41
8 84 5:49 – 5:51
9 Kate 6:20 – 6:37
10 Noon 6:50 – 6:55
11 D 1:20 – 1:31
12 B 1:20 – 1:31
13-14 C, D (any order) 1:55 – 2:13
15 B 2:17 – 2:23
16 B 2:41 – 2:46
17 23 4:21 – 4:25
18 minus 4:25 – 4:29
19 days 4:45 – 4:53
20 sunniest 4:54 – 4:58
21 B 0:47 – 0:51
160
22 Monday 1:20 – 1:25
23 Juliet/Juliette 1:25 – 1:33
24 Office Hours 1:37 – 1:43
25 20 2:11 – 2:39
26 Buster’s/Busters 2:12 – 2:20
27 25 3:50 – 3:53
28 Final Exam 3:56 – 3:59
29 1500 words 4:05 – 4:09
30 A 4:32 – 4:50
31 C 1:11 – 1:27
32 B 1:29 – 1:34
33 B 2:21 – 2:23
34 Continental Drift 3:00 – 3:04
35 short 3:21 – 3:27
36 Scavenger 3:43 – 3:55
37 distances 4:04 – 4:08
38 skin 4:16 – 4:20
39 Predator 4:12 – 4:26
40 Replaceable 4:26 – 4:44

Test 2 Key 161
Reading Section
1D 23 NG
2C 24 diet
3A 25 eating
4B 26 cubs
5D 27 B
6 False 28 C
7 True 29 D
8 NG 30 E
9 True 31 B
10 A 32 E
11 F 33 dying
12 G 34 hydrogen….helium
13 C 35 heavier
14 B 36 iron
15 A 37 C
16 A 38 A
17 A 39 B
18 B 40 D
19 Yes
20 No
21 Yes
22 NG
Test 3 Key 162
Test 3 Transcripts
(CD3 Track 1)
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two women as one of the
woman registers her daughter for nursery school. First you have some time to look at
questions 1 – 5.
Example
Jane: Good afternoon, Monterey Primary, Jane speaking.
Diane: Hello, my name is Diane Jonsson, and I was hoping to register my daughter for
nursery school at Monterey Primary.
Jane: Of course, Ms. Jonsson. Would you like to register your daughter for full-day
nursery school, half-day, or full-day plus after-school care?
Diane: Oh just the half day, I don’t think Matilda could handle a full day away from
home just yet.
Narrator: The woman says she would like to register her daughter for half day nursery
school, so A has been indicated for you. Now we begin. You should answer the questions
as you listen, because you will not hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and
answer questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Jane: Good afternoon, Monterey Primary, Jane speaking.
Diane: Hello, my name is Diane Jonsson, and I was hoping to register my daughter for
nursery school at Monterey Primary.
Test 3 Key 163
Jane: Of course, Ms. Jonsson. Would you like to register your daughter for full-day
nursery school, or half-day, or full-day plus after-school care?
Diane: Oh just the half day, I don’t think Matilda could handle a full day away from
home just yet.
Jane: So your daughter’s name is Matilda Jonsson?
Diane: Yes, let me spell it for you. The first name is Matilda – M-A-T-I-L-D-A. And the
last name is Jonsson, but it is not the common spelling. It is spelt J-O-N-(double S)-O-N.
My husband is Swedish (1), which explains the different spelling.
Jane: Right. And what is Matilda’s date of birth.
Diane: She was born December 25, 2006.
Jane: So she was born at Christmas, that is incredible!
Diane: Yes, she was an incredible present to get for Christmas. It certainly was the most
memorable Christmas I’ve had.
Jane: Yes I would imagine. Okay, so now I need Matilda’s personal education number,
which you should have received in the post (2) recently.
Diane: I don’t remember receiving such a letter in the post
Jane: It would have come from the Department of Education, and they always post
things in yellow envelopes. You don’t remember seeing a yellow envelope in the post?
Diane: In fact I do, but I didn’t open it, my husband did. He didn’t mention anything
about a personal education number. Now he’s away with work (3) and I won’t be able to
reach him.
Jane: Well, we can retrieve the number. I’m going to need your National Insurance
Number as well as your husband’s. I’m going to need your husband’s name as well (4).
Diane: My husband’s name is Erik, with a “k” instead of a “c” on the end (5). His last
name is Jonsson of course. His National Insurance Number is DF 98 77 45 W and mine is
KL 40 91 15 N.
Questions 6-10
164
Jane: Right. Okay let me see here….alright here is her personal education number. I will
give it to you now so that you can write it down for future reference. It is T56340192 (6).
Diane: Just to make sure, the first character is “T” as in Thomas?
Jane: Yes, and this letter in front of the number shows what region the child is originally
from. The T in this case refers to Tyne and Wear.
Diane: That would be correct I’d imagine. Matilda was born in Newcastle (7), which of
course is in Tyne and Wear.
Jane: Okay, so we have all the information about Matilda that we need. She is now
registered for half-day nursery school in September. Do you have any questions?
Diane: Yes I do. I was wondering what sort of training your nursery school teachers
have?
Jane: That is a very good question. Each of our teachers has, at a minimum, a two-year
diploma in early childhood education. Many of our senior staff have bachelor’s
degrees (8) in education in addition to the two-year diploma, and our department head,
Ms. Janet Roth, has a post graduate certificate, bachelor’s degree and diploma. Do not
worry, Ms. Jonsson, your daughter Matilda is in very good hands.
Diane: That makes me feel a lot better. Can you tell me when the first day of school is,
and also, will there be an orientation day for new students and parents?
Jane: The first day of class is the fifth of September (9), and yes we do have an
orientation day, it takes place on the third of September, from 9:00 to midday. Parents
and children are strongly encouraged to attend (10).
answers.
(CD3 Track 2)
Listening Section 2: You will hear a recording of a university campus tour. First you have
some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
M1: Good afternoon everyone. If you are here for the university campus tour, you are in
the correct place. There are two purposes for this tour. For prospective students, you get
Test 3 Key 165
to see the campus where you may be studying in a few months, and you get to learn some
interesting information which may convince you to look favourably on our university.
For parents, you get to learn what life is like at this university, so you know where you
are sending your kids off to this autumn.
Before we start the tour, I’d like to give you some background information. This
university was originally opened in 1686 (11), although from 1745-1805 it was shut
down due to a lack of funding. The university is composed of 23 buildings which were
built in one of three periods. There were four original buildings in 1686. A dozen more
buildings were constructed in the period from 1805-1815 (12), and the final seven
buildings have been added in the past ten years (13). So there is a fascinating mix of
seventeenth century, nineteenth century, and quite modern architecture. The first building
we are going to look at is called the Prescott Building, named after the university’s first
chancellor, William Chester Prescott. As you can probably tell, this is one of the
university’s original buildings, completed in 1686. The building is actually quite unique
in shape. It is approximately forty metres long, while only eight metres wide. It also has
these interesting circular areas attached to each corner, four of them in all (14). These
four circular areas each house a large bell. None of the bells work today, however.
As we walk in the door, I’d like to point out all of the beautiful Persian carpets on the
floor. These carpets were donated to the university by a former student almost 150 years
ago (15). It is very common for former students who have done well in life to give back
to the university. Some give money, some give land, some give gifts, such as Persian
carpets. One former student even gave the university his pub after he died! By the way,
that pub, which is located at the intersection of Third Street and Pine Avenue, gives
students of the university a 30 percent discount (16). Now if that’s not a selling point for
this university, I don’t know what is! On a serious note, it is our outstanding education
which makes our university a top competitor on the global front.
Questions 17-20
Before we go any further, are there any questions? No? Right then.
Next we’re going to visit the university library. As you see, in front of the library there is
a beautiful fountain (17) which shoots water high up in the air. Once again, the funding
for the fountain came from a former student, in this case a well known artist. It was
constructed just fifteen years ago, at the cost of 50,000 pounds. As we step into the
library, I think what you’ll notice at first is the fact there are no books! (18) Indeed, there
are no books at all on the entire ground floor. On the five upper floors, however, there are
over three million books! The library’s collection has been built over time through
private donations, gifts from former students, as well as university purchases. There is
166
also a special collections area, where there are original works dating back to the year
1588 (19).
Next on our itinerary is a visit to the sporting facilities. Here at the university we have
over a dozen different facilities for almost any sport you can imagine, ranging from
football and rugby to tennis and squash, to archery and cricket. Our rugby team has won
the national championship three out of the last five years! (20) As you’ll see on your
left…(trails off)
answers.
(CD3 Track 3)
Listening Section 3: You will hear a public forum discussion between the moderator and
two contributors, Dr. Philip McPhee and Dr. Ron Tatum, both political scientists at the
local university, talking about the nature of taxes in society.
Questions 21-26
Moderator: First of all, I would like to thank Dr. McPhee and Dr. Tatum for taking time
out of their busy lives to spend this evening with us.
Dr. McPhee: Thank you for having us.
Moderator: Dr. McPhee, could you give us a little bit of the history of taxation
Dr. McPhee: Certainly. Taxes have been around almost as long as civilization itself.
There are records of taxes being collected by Egyptian pharaohs approximately 5000
years ago. It was customary to give 20 percent of your production to the pharaoh (21),
and those who evaded taxes were severely punished.
Moderator: Dr. Tatum, what are the reasons for taxes?
Dr. Tatum: Well, there are essentially three major reasons for taxes. The first, and most
obvious reason is revenue (22). Governments need money, and taxes fulfill this need.
The government then spends this tax revenue on investments that are good for society,
such as health care, schools and roads. Funding the army would fall under this category
as well. The second reason for taxation is for redistribution of wealth (23). In simpler
terms, this means taking money from the rich and giving it to the poor. Many societies do
this out of a belief that it is the responsibility of the government to look after the poorer
Test 3 Key 167
people in society. I’ll let Dr. McPhee talk about the final reason for taxation, called
“repricing”.
Dr. McPhee: Thank you Dr. Tatum. Yes, the third main reason for taxation is called
repricing, and by this we mean changing the price of a product to a different, generally
higher price. This may sound quite strange, but if you bear with me, you’ll see it makes
perfect sense. In general, products are allowed to be priced in a free market (24), that is
to say, whoever can provide goods for the lowest price is the most successful. However,
there are certain types of goods that we don’t allow to go to the free market. In many
countries, these are goods like tobacco and alcohol (25). These goods are subject to a
repricing tax, which is used to discourage people from using the product (26). Also,
these repricing taxes help offset the future medical costs associated with the people who
use tobacco and alcohol excessively.
Questions 27-30
Moderator: Very well. Do you favour higher or lower taxes?
Dr. Tatum: I am a strong proponent of higher taxes. The reason for this is simply that it
is easier to make money when you already have money. This gives a massive advantage
to those people who may have inherited money or come from rich families. Because
money is so much easier to gain for these people, if used wisely, taxing them seems only
fair and for the greater good. This compensates the poorer sections of society who really
have little or no hope to gain financial success.
Dr. McPhee: I understand Dr. Tatum’s position, but one has to be wary of the fact that
if taxes are too high for businesses, then those businesses will leave the country in
favour of countries with lower taxes (27, 28 or 29). Of course, it would be nice if we
could legislate a worldwide tax structure, but this is simply not attainable. And I’m sure
by the time it becomes attainable, companies will likely have opportunities to leave for
another planet with a more favourable tax structure.(Laughs)
Dr. Tatum: Yes you’re right Dr. McPhee, we must always be mindful of staying
competitive (27, 28 or 29. It is like a tight rope we must walk between compensating
those less fortunate, and being able to stay competitive in the market. Because if we fail
to be competitive, then tax revenue will dry up, resulting in no money at all for the
lower economic classes (27, 28 or 29). So it is an extremely difficult balancing act.
Moderator: Which leads to my next question. What is the future of taxation?
Dr. Tatum: I believe you will see higher taxes in 50 years than there are today (30),
just as we have higher taxes today than 50 years ago. We will need even more money for
168
projects like high speed transit, new roads, new technologies. Also, with an aging
population, medical costs could soar in the near future, resulting in higher taxes to
support this health care system.
Dr. McPhee: I think the future will be a lot like the present. Walking the tight rope, as
Dr. Tatum mentioned. Where that takes us I’m not sure. If I had to guess, I’d say higher
taxes (30), for the reasons Dr. Tatum outlined. However another important variable to
consider…(trails off)
answers.
(CD3 Track 4)
Listening Section 4: You will hear a lecture about English scientist Isaac Newton.
Questions 31-40
M1: Today we are going to discuss the life and achievements of the famous English
scientist Sir Isaac Newton. Many consider Newton to be the most brilliant man to have
ever lived, and many consider his achievements the greatest ever achieved by one man.
Newton himself was not so sure, as he famously told his followers: “If I have seen
further, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants”. While it may be true that he built
upon the foundation of scientists before him, he still managed to see further than anyone
else had, and to this day his accomplishments stand the test of time.
Isaac Newton was born in England in 1643. He studied at The King’s School in
Grantham from age 12 to 17 (31). After leaving school, his mother tried to make him
into a farmer (32), but that was not going to be sufficient for young Isaac. A year later in
1661, on the recommendation of one his teachers at The King’s School in Grantham,
Newton was admitted to Trinity College in Cambridge, where he eventually became a
teacher (33) six years later.
Newton is perhaps most famous for his work on gravity. A well-known story says that
Newton realized the nature of gravity while he was sitting under a tree and an apple fell
on his head. This story may or may not be true, but the underlying principle is valuable.
Newton made the astonishing discovery that the same force that makes an apple fall to
the earth also makes the earth revolve around the sun and the moon revolve around the
earth. Until this time, scientists such as Rene Descartes and Gottfried Leibniz had
believed that the planets moved in some sort of matter – something they called an
“ether” (34). Newton demonstrated that no such ether was required. Descartes and
Test 3 Key 169
Leibniz also had little explanation for why apples fall to the earth. Newton’s theory
accounted for this almost perfectly.
During the 20th century, Newton’s theory came under attack by the German physicist
Albert Einstein, whose theory of relativity was said to replace Newton’s theory of
gravitation (35). This is simply not true. Einstein’s theory is a landmark achievement in
science, but it did not replace Newton’s theory, it merely improved it. To picture this,
think of a smooth ball, perhaps a billiard ball. In this experiment of the mind, Newton
tells us the ball is smooth (36). However, Einstein says the ball has small imperfections –
dents, cuts and scrapes. Who is right? The answer is, both of them. Newton is correct on
a macroscopic scale. When we look at the ball from a distance, the ball is smooth.
However, Einstein is correct as well – the ball does have imperfections. He is correct on a
macroscopic and microscopic scale.
Another of Newton’s important achievements is the reflecting telescope. Previously,

Galileo had used lenses to construct his telescope (37), but Newton was the first to use
mirrors in a telescope. Today’s telescopes are almost all made of mirrors as opposed to
lenses, which again speaks to Newton’s brilliance. There are a number of reasons the
mirror is an improvement over the lens in telescopes. First, mirrors do not warp as easily
as lenses do, and by that I mean that lenses can lose their shape in hot or cold weather
quite easily (38). Second, telescopes with mirrors take up less space, because of their
shorter focal distance (39). Third, telescopes with mirrors can be built far larger, because
the mirrors themselves can be built larger.
An achievement of Newton’s that must not be overlooked is Newton’s discovery of

calculus. Although the discovery was not without controversy – Gottfried Leibniz also
claims to have invented calculus at approximately the same time! Nobody really knows
the truth, but it is accepted that they discovered it separately (40). In any case, it was a
brilliant achievement by both scientists.
Newton died in March 1727 and his body was laid to rest at Westminster Abbey in
London in a famous above-ground tomb. He was 84.
answers.
170

Test Three – Reading Passage One – Tristan da Cunha – An Island of Remote Curiosity
A Tristan da Cunha is an island in the South Pacific Ocean, formed by volcanic

activity, and part of the British Overseas Territory called Saint Helena, Ascension
and Tristan da Cunha. Tristan da Cunha is generally considered to be the most
remote inhabited place on Earth (5). Because of its extreme isolation, and its small
population, Tristan da Cunha is a fascinating ‘experiment’ in sociology and genetics.
B The island was first discovered in 1506 by a Portuguese explorer named

Tristao da Cunha, who named the island after himself (9, 11). The name of the island
was later anglicized by the inhabitants into Tristan da Cunha. In 1816, the United
Kingdom annexed the island, taking control of it (6). They used it as a marine military
base for a number of decades in the 19th century, before it fell into disuse after the
construction of the Suez Canal. The Second World War, however, brought renewed
purpose to the island. It was used as a top secret British naval station, codenamed
HMS Atlantic Isle (4). The purpose of the station was to monitor the waters for German
U-boats.
C According to a recent census, the island has a population of just 263 people,
who mainly reside in the settlement known as ‘Edinburgh of the Seven Seas’ (8). It
is thought that the residents of the island descend from just fifteen ancestors, of
which eight were male and seven were female (3). Because the reproduction pool is so
small, the residents of the island suffer from a number of medical disorders. There is
rampant asthma on the island, which is thought to be a result of the known fact that three
of the original founders of the island suffered from asthma. Based on the endemic asthma
afflicting inhabitants of the island today, it is thought that there is a genetic underpinning
for the condition. Further evidence comes from islanders commonly suffering from
glaucoma, a degenerative eye condition which, left untreated, can result in blindness.
D There are just eight surnames among the 263 residents of Tristan da Cunha,
corresponding roughly to the eight original male ancestors. Since there is almost no
emigration to the island, the surnames are kept intact for many generations (12).
Test 3 Key 171
E Education on the island is very limited. Children only attend school until the age
of fifteen, with the option of taking the British standardized test for secondary school
graduates, once they have completed schooling. As a consequence of the low quality of
education, standardized test scores are generally very poor (2). Another indication
of the island’s remoteness and relative lack of contact with the outside world is that
the English spoken among its natives is very different from that spoken in the rest of
the world (13).
F Arguably, one of the most interesting facts about Tristan da Cunha was that until
the aftermath of the Second World War, the only currency in place was the potato. For
example, the newspaper The Tristan Times, could be purchased for four big
potatoes. Today Tristan da Cunha uses the British pound as its currency (1), which
is odd, because neighbouring Saint Helena (2,173 km away), of which Tristan da
Cunha shares its status as a British Overseas Territory, uses the Saint Helena pound
and not the British pound (7). Since Tristan da Cunha was formed by volcanic activity,
and the volcano which formed it is still active, the inhabitants of the island live in
constant danger of volcanic eruption. The last such eruption occurred as recently as
1961, when all of the islanders had to be evacuated to England (10). While some
communities around the world participate in fire, earthquake or tornado drills, the
residents of Tristan da Cunha participate in evacuation drills, where they practise the
protocol for evacuation of the island in case of volcanic eruption.
G The Tristan economy is built mainly upon farming. All land is owned by the
community, that is to say there is no individual land ownership. Another significant part
of the economy is the exportation of crayfish and lobster, mainly to Japan and the United
States. A fire that occurred in 2008 greatly affected both the domestic and export
economies. Tristanians are a fiercely proud and independent people; even when given the
choice to stay in England after exile due to the volcanic eruption, almost every resident
returned to the island.
Test Three – Reading Passage Two – Why Study Philosophy?
A There are two schools of thought when it comes to education. One side
believes that education should give students tools for success in life, while the other
side believes that education itself is an important goal (14). No area of study brings
this debate to a head more than the study of philosophy. Philosophy, for those who
belong to the practical side of the debate, is an utter waste of time. Philosophy provides
very few tools for success in life, they say. A common question for someone studying
philosophy is – “what are you going to do with it?” Those on the other side of the debate
– those who value education for knowledge itself – can see that the study of philosophy
has many important benefits.
172
B The word ‘philosophy’ derives from the Greek for ‘love of wisdom’. Just as it
was in Ancient Greece, it is those people who love wisdom, knowledge and truth who
study philosophy (15). However, we do not live in Ancient Greece, where people had
slaves to do all of their chores (such as working in the fields), so what place does
philosophy have in today’s society?
C If philosophy teaches anything, it teaches the ability to reason. With reason one
can construct, analyze and find faults in arguments (19). For example, if all men are
mortal, and Socrates is mortal, is Socrates a man? What if we change the question to: if
all men are mortal, and Socrates is a man, is Socrates mortal? Once a student is
schooled in the ability to reason, he will see right away that these two questions are
very different. As it turns out, the first is an invalid argument, while the second is
very much valid (20). Perhaps the next question of the skeptic is ‘what is the value of
reason’? This is a very important question – surely if philosophy is all about learning to
reason, then an ability to reason must be a valuable trait. Arguably the ability to reason
forms the foundation for all knowledge (16).
D If an individual holds an opinion which is believed wrong or incorrect, it could be

important to convince them of the right opinion. There are a number of ways to attempt
this. They can be intimidated, belittled or bullied into accepting the opposite opinion.
However, having a strong opinion does not mean the opinion is any more correct. Many
people have strong opinions on all manner of subjects but, of course, strength of feeling
does not correspond to validity (21), and it follows that someone who belittles another’s
opinion is not necessarily the one in the right. When two men engage in a fistfight over
whose opinion is correct, the winner of the fight may not have the correct opinion, but
merely the correct fighting technique. In any disagreement, the right tools must be
employed (22). In a battle of brawn, the tool is strength (23). In a battle of wills, the
tool is perseverance. In a battle of words, the tool is reason (24). When arguing with
reason, facts of the matter are stated and conclusions are drawn from those facts
accordingly.
E Reason is fundamental to almost every intellectual endeavour one can imagine,

just as mathematics is fundamental to almost every scientific endeavour. Maths is the
language of science just as reason is the language of discourse and debate.
Accordingly, just as society needs experts in mathematics, so society needs experts in
reason. The argument should follow that as we all learn mathematics as children
and young adults, so we should learn the precepts of reason (25).
F Above all, philosophy is pure. Certainly reason is useful in all areas of life, but
that does not mean that philosophy’s value lies only in its usefulness in the day-to-day.
Philosophy is the pursuit of knowledge for the sake of knowledge. There is a
beautiful human quality expressed in this (18). Every other academic discipline is
knowledge for some empirical pursuit. For example, engineering is knowledge so that we
can construct buildings, chemistry is knowledge so that we can make drugs, and biology
is knowledge so that we can stay healthy. Philosophy has no tangible outcome outside
Test 3 Key 173
of the pure pursuit of knowledge (26). The only other discipline which comes close in
this regard is mathematics. One is purity in numbers, and the other is purity in words.
Test Three – Reading Passage Three – Physalia Physalis
Physalia physalis (common name: Portuguese man-of-war) is a unique species of the

class Hydrozoa. Several characteristics distinguish this species. The Physalia physalis is
a free floating communal polyp. Its powerful poison serves as defense and attack for
the species (27). One type of fish however has developed a high level of immunity to this
toxin. The Nomeus gronvii is capable of withstanding injections of Physalia venom
ten times the normal strength of that which kills other fishes. Due to this resistance
to the venom (28), and exceptional swimming (29), the two organisms have evolved to
form a commensal relationship with one another. Even though we apply the term
commensalism to the symbiosis between these two animals, the nature of interaction is
not exactly fitting of the term. As defined by Campbell and Reece: commensalism is
when one organism receives benefits while neither harming nor helping the other in any
significant way (Campbell and Reece, 2002). By looking closely at the behavior,
physiology and symbiosis between Physalia physalis and Nomeus Gronvii, we find out
the reason for this misleading terminology.
The physiology of Physalis physalis is unique. At first glance they appear to be

jellyfish, but the Portuguese man-of-war is actually a polyp (30) (or community of
polyps) belonging to the order Siphonophora, which gets its common name from its
resemblance to an old Portuguese war ship. The man-of-war floats with a gas-filled, blue
to pink, translucent body called a pneumatophore (a part of a single polyp). This crest-
like pneumatophore, which may attain a length of 20 cm, acts as a sail and is aligned so
that the colony sails at 45° to the wind direction. Polyps connect tentacles which are
located on the ventral surface of the float. There are 3 types of specialized polyps:
dactylozooid (that find and catch prey with poisonous stingers called nematocysts),
gonozooid (that reproduce) (31), and gastrozooid (that digest the food, like a stomach).
These fishing tentacles, sometimes as long as 50m, hang down like a drift net, combing
the water for prey.
Nomeus gronvii are tropical fish belonging to the ray-finned fishes of the class
osteichthyes. The fins, supported by long flexible rays, are modified for maneuvering,
defense and other functions. The length of this fish at maturity is about 8 cm. The nature
of the ability of Nomeus to live among the venomous tentacles of Physalia has been
likened to that of the relationship between sea anemones and anemone-fishes. This
immunity is not yet fully understood (32).
The relationship between Physalia and Nomeus is arguably harmful to both

organisms. They mutually benefit from one another but at the same time the
symbiosis can be quite damaging to both creatures. In this sense the relationship
174
could be better defined as one of mutualism and parasitism (33). In mutualism, both
organisms benefit. In parasitism, one organism benefits at the expense of the host.
When the Nomeus is weak it may no longer be able to withstand the venom of the
nematocysts. In one study, a freshly expired Nomeus was offered to the Physalia. The
carcass was immediately stung, taken hold of by a dactylozooid and brought up to the
gastrozooids. The Nomeus, although resilient to the toxin, is not 100% immune (34).
In the same study, the live Nomeus began to swim more erratically and moved towards
the carcass as the gastrozooids formed their characteristic ‘bag’ and began to digest the
fish. The live Nomeus was then caught on the left side by one of the largest
dactylozooids. This behaviour clearly indicates how the symbiosis may deviate from the
definition provided by commensalism.
On the other hand the Nomeus has two distinct gains from its innate behavior with
Physalia. As an experiment demonstrated, upon introduction, the Nomeus initially
swam near the surface and around the Physalia in a large circular pattern in both
clockwise and counterclockwise directions. This action protects the fish from attack
(35). Most predatory fishes of Nomeus therefore avoid the man-of-war or sustain serious
injury and often death. Second, the Physalia provides a food source for the Nomeus
(36). In the mentioned experiment, about 15 minutes after the release, the Nomeus swam
closer to the Physalia, paused as if inspecting it, and then began to nip the edges of the
gonozooids. Physalia is able to regenerate the tentacles and so this ingestion is rarely
fatal to the organism.
Nomeus’s capacity to survive near the poison tentacles of the man-of-war is only
partly due to the resilience of the toxin. The main reason for this skill is certain
swimming behaviors. Instead of developing protective mucus, the fish depends on its
swimming abilities as its main mechanism of defense while living in the venomous
discharge of the Physalia (37). The Nomeus fish can maneuver with precision to avoid
stinging nematocysts. This is the case whether the Physalia is stationary or in motion.
Ray-finned fishes have a physiology which enables maneuverability. The fish displays
relative ease in maintaining a safe distance from the dactylozooids even with absurd,
sharp changes in direction. Nomeus specimens use the pectoral fins for propulsion
(38) while the pelvic fins are spread like a fan. The caudal fin is apparently used for only
short fast darts. This swimming behavior appears to be well suited for existence with
Physalia. It is therefore apparent that, rather than developing an ability to inhibit the
discharge of Physalia nematocysts or prevent then from stinging, Nomeus uses its
swimming abilities as its primary means of defense while living in the venomous drift net
of Physalia.
Taking into consideration all of the interactions involved in the symbiotic relationship of
these two organisms, the appropriate term to assign is difficult. The facts state that the
commensalism of these two aquatic creatures is one which incorporates beneficial as
well as harmful factors depending on the circumstance. It is this alternation of prey-
predator roles of Physalia and Nomeus that creates a definitive difficulty. Perhaps
Test 3 Key 175
the best term we can apply for the moment is that of commensalism given that both
animals receive some benefit at varying times during the relationship (39, 40).
176

WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
The charts below show the percentages of types of vehicles sold in the United States in
the selected year. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant.
1980 1990
5%
6%
15%
Cars
Cars
Trucks
Trucks
SUVs
95% 79%
2000 2010
30% Cars 28% Cars

Trucks Trucks
54% 58%
SUVs 14% SUVs
16%
There are four pie charts which give the distribution of automobiles used in the
years 1980, 1990, 2000 and 2010. The three types of vehicles listed are cars, trucks and
Test 3 Key 177
SUVs. In 1980, cars dominated the market, making up 95% of sales. Trucks accounted
for a small share, and SUVs were not counted. In 1990, the popularity of trucks
increased, and SUVs entered the market, making up 6% of sales, and the share of car
sales declined from 95% to 79%. By 2000, SUVs became very popular, accounting for
30% of sales. Truck sales remained approximately constant; however, car sales fell once
again, to 54%. In 2010, percentages were very similar to 2000, though cars had made a
slight comeback with a gain of 4%. The popularity of SUVs and trucks showed a slight
decline of 2% each. The invention of the SUV is one part of sales that can be noticed
from these graphs. SUVs came into existence sometime between 1980 and 1990, and
became very popular between 1990 and 2000, and then continued to be popular. Cars are
the most consistent choice among consumers, dominating the market in every graph.
WRITING TASK 2
Banks should receive billions of dollars in assistance from their governments during
a financial crisis that was in large part their fault.
In the period following the recent financial crisis, banks received billions of
dollars in financial help from the American government. It is my belief that such
government expenditure was an unfortunate, but necessary measure.
It is too simple to look at the financial crisis and point the finger at the banks and
argue about money given to such irresponsible organizations. What must be looked at,
however, are the consequences of such actions. If the banks do not receive the
government money, the whole banking system may collapse, and the fortunes of
countless individuals could be further depleted. This is what the American government
has hoped to avoid. Giving billions of dollars to banks is not a desirable option, but it is a
necessary task in comparison to the opposite.
Given that the government bails out the banks to prevent greater issues, steps
must be taken to prevent financial disaster from occurring in the future. If banks are
178
allowed to continue abusing the system and are allowed financial support from the
government, the unfortunate cycle will never end and the country’s economic situation
worsens. Stronger regulation must be put into place, forcing banks to act in the best
interests of all society. Any money received from the government should have terms and
rules attached to it. For instance, such money should not go towards multi-million dollar
bonuses to corporate executives. Penalties should be handed out to the worst offenders
among the banking industry, perhaps even jail terms. This did not happen in the U.S.
In conclusion, I believe that financially assisting banks with billions of dollars is a

positive choice because the alternate option of collapsing economies is far worse.
Additionally, the government and the banks must implement far stronger regulation
policies, which will insure that such a financial disaster does not happen as in America.
Test 3 Key 179

Student: Thank you.
S: My name is Emma Gunderson.
E: Okay Emma, we’re going to start the IELTS speaking section. I will record this
speaking part of the test for marking purposes. To begin, I’m going to ask you a few
questions on a general topic. Are you ready to proceed?
S: Yes I am.
E: Okay. Let’s talk about the internet. How often do you use the internet?
S: I use the internet very often - every day, at least a few times a day. I couldn’t live
without it.
E: What are some of the sites you use regularly?
S: I mostly use the internet for social networking. I also like to buy clothes online, so I
use a lot of online shopping websites.
E: Do you use the internet at school or at work?
S: I use it at both school and work. However I mostly use it at home. I also have internet
on my mobile phone so I can use the internet almost anywhere.
E: Is internet access commonly available in your country?
S: (Laughs) Yes it certainly is. I’m from Oslo, in Norway, and internet is practically part
of the culture.
180
E: Why do you think people use the internet?
S: Hmmm…that’s an interesting question…(pause)…I think people use the internet to
stay in touch with each other, to meet new people, to buy new things and to learn about
the world. The internet makes the world “smaller”, and makes it easier for everybody to
connect.
E: That is the end of part 1.
E: For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will have one to two minutes to
talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say. You
can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Here is a card with the questions.
(One minute break)
S: My best friend growing up was Lana. We met on the first day of kindergarten, and we
have been best friends ever since. She is a kind and loyal person who would do
absolutely anything for someone she cared about. One funny thing about her is that she
looks exactly like me! She is tall with blond hair, blue eyes and lots of freckles. We both
played football growing up, and usually we were on the same team. We would practise
on our own, and she would try to make me a better player. During high school, we got
into a big fight over a boy, but we ended up realizing that our friendship was not worth
risking over a silly relationship issue. She truly is a wonderful friend. Now that we are
done high school, we are still best friends. We live in different cities, but we talk on the
Test 3 Key 181
phone or on the computer every day. I go to visit her and she comes to visit me, and we
have a great time together. I know that we will stay best friends for a very long time,
wherever our lives take us.
E: Okay stop. That is the end of part 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related
to the topic of part 2. We will now begin part 3. What qualities should a friend have?
S: The most important quality I think a friend should have is honesty. If a friend is not
honest, they aren’t really a friend. Other important qualities a friend should have are
kindness, generosity, and loyalty.
E: Why are friends important?
S: That is an unusual question. Can you give me a second?
E: Of course.
S: Hmmm…in my opinion friends are important because they are people to rely on, talk
to and spend time with. A person without friends is a very lonely person. Friends are
people to do activities with, have fun with and tell stories to. Friends are extremely
important and I can’t imagine a life without mine.
E: Is it important to have a best friend? Why?
S: It definitely is important to have a best friend. A group of friends is nice, but there
needs to be that one person above the others. That friend is the closest, most trustworthy
person in the group. That person can be relied on for anything.
E: What types of activities do you do with your friends?
182
S: There are a number of things I like to do with my friends. I like to go to movies,
parties and concerts with them. But mostly, I just like to hang out and spend time with
them. It doesn’t really matter what we do as long as we’re spending time together.
E: Are most of your friends from your childhood? Or did you meet them more recently?
S: I have an interesting mix of friends. I met my best friend when I was very young. I met
some of my good friends in elementary school, some in high school and some in
university. I also met a number of friends through different jobs I’ve had. Overall I’d say
I met most of my friends more recently.
E: Do you enjoy making new friends, or do you prefer to spend more time with your
current friends?
S: I enjoy making new friends, but I do prefer spending time with the friends I have now.
If I get a new job, or move somewhere new, I do enjoy meeting people in those settings,
but meeting new friends is not something that I actively try to do.
Test 3 Key 183
Test 3 Answer Key

Listening Section
1B 2:47 – 2:50
2A 3:08 – 3:14
3B 3:30 – 3:34
4 C, D, F (any order) 3:36 – 3:42
5C 3:43 – 3:48
6A 4:36 – 4:54
7A 5:00 – 5:04
8 B, E (any order) 5:20 – 5:31
9 5 September 5:43 – 5:52
10 Parents 5:57 – 6:00
11 1686 1:24 – 1:27
12 A dozen (12) 1:44 – 1:49
13 10 1:49 – 1:53
14 B 2:16 – 2:30
15 150 2:42 – 2:47
16 A 3:03 – 3:15
17 fountain 4:07 – 4:12
18 zero 4:26 – 4:35
19 special collections 4:48 – 4:54
20 national championships 5:11 – 5:17
184
21 2000 1:14 – 1:24
22 revenue 1:34 – 1:37
23 redistribution 1:51 – 2:00
24 E 2:31 – 2:40
25 B 2:40 – 2:55
26 D 2:40 – 2:55
27 – 29 B, D, F (any order) 4:12 – 4:24; 4:41 – 4:52; 4:53 – 5:02
30 C 5:10 – 5:47
31 12, 17 1:23 – 1:27
32 farmer 1:28 – 1:32
33 teacher 1:41 – 1:47
34 C 2:16 – 2:26
35 D 2:42 – 2:52
36 B 3:07 – 3:12
37 A 3:47 – 3:55
38 warp (easily) 4:07 – 4:15
39 focal length 4:16 – 4:21
40 B 4:40 – 4:51
Test 3 Key 185
Reading Section
1F 21 D
2E 22 L
3C 23 G
4B 24 J
5A 25 B
6C 26 C
7A 27 Poison (venom)
8B 28 resistance
9D 29 swimmer
10 C 30 polyp
11 D 31 gonozooids
12 A 32 tentacles
13 C 33 G
14 viii 34 E
15 v 35 A
16 i 36 D
17 ii 37 C
18 xi 38 D
19 H 39 No
20 A 40 NG
Test 3 Key 186

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PUBLISHING, RIGHTS, ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS

The following people have made these course materials possible:

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Written & Composed Adrian Benedek

Edited Deborah Rogers

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Voices Peter Petley

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Academic IELTS Test One 5

Academic IELTS Test Two 39

Academic IELTS Test Three 75

Transcripts and Keys 113

Test One Listening Parts 1-4 CD 1 Tracks 1-4

Test One Reading Passages 1-3 CD 1 Tracks 5-7

Test One Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 1 Tracks 8-10

Test Two Listening Parts 1-4 CD 2 Tracks 1-4

Test Two Reading Passages 1-3 CD 2 Tracks 5-7

Test Two Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 2 Tracks 8-10

Test Three Listening Parts 1-4 CD 3 Tracks 1-4

Test Three Reading Passages 1-3 CD 3 Tracks 5-7

Test Three Speaking Parts 1-3 CD 3 Tracks 8-10

British Accent – Numbers, Days, etc. CD 4 Tracks 1-7

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

Section 1 Questions 1-10

SECTION 1 - Questions 1-10 (CD1 Track 1)

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

Where would the man like to play football?

2 What position does the man play?

Name: Steven 3…………..

Address: 452 King George Avenue

Post Code: 4…………..

Birthday: 8 September, 1986

Contact Number: 329 63 32 70

5 Match the time with the event.

Choose the correct letter, A-D.

A 30 September 5 Steven’s first match

League Game Length Players on Roster Minimum Playing Time

Autumn 80 minutes 6…………… 7…………….

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

8 Why does the man say he’s lucky?

A He was able to find a team to play on.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

9 What is the cost of the football league?

10 How does the man pay for the registration fee?

SECTION 2 – Questions 11-20 (CD1 Track 2)

Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.

11 What was the overall capacity of the Titanic?

12 What was the cost of a third class ticket?

A Between 30 and 870 pounds

Choose THREE letters, A-F.

What were three benefits of a first class ticket?

A Water tight doors

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

16 Which of the following is the best representation of the Titanic?

Extremely calm night - no 17………. crashed against icebergs.

SECTION 3 – Questions 21-30 (CD1 Track 3)

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

21 What day of the week does the discussion take place?

Complete the chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.