Oral Surgery MCQs collection, by Rasha

1. Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures

A. Le Fort 1
B. Zigomatic arch facture
C. Le Fort 3
D. Nasoethmoidal fracture
C. Symphysis fracture

2. Which of the following complication may result from injury of auriculotemporal nerve
during removal of parotid tumour is
A. Facial palsy
B. Gustatory sweating
C. Orolingual paraestesia
D. Anorexia
E. Deafness

3. Which of the following method of sterilisation is ineffective

A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. Gamma radiation
C. UV radiation
D. Autoclaving
E. Hot air oven

4. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment

A. Comminuted fracture
B. Compound fracture
C. Green stick fracture
D. Simple fracture
E. Transverse fracture

5. Le Fort 3 fracture is also called

A. Horisontal fracture
B. Pyramidal fracture
C. Transverse fracture
D. Simple fracture
E. Green stick fracture

6. Which of the following muscles open(s) the mouth?

A Masseter muscle
B Temporalis muscle
C Lateral pterygoid muscle
D Digastric muscle
E Medial pterygoid muscle

7. Deviation of the mandible on opening could be due to:

A A unilateral anteriorly displaced disc
B Ankylosis of one condyle
C An occlusal interference between the retruded contact position (RCP) and intercuspal
position (ICP)
D Internal derangement of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
E A fractured condyle

8. Which suture would you use when you want a resorbable suture?
A Black silk suture 3–0
B Prolene 4–0
C Vicryl 3–0
D Vicryl Rapide 4–0
E Monocryl

9. Which of the following could occur following a fracture of the zygoma?

A Anosmia
B Bruising in the ipsilateral upper buccal sulcus
C Anaesthesia of the ipsilateral cheek
D Epistaxis
E Diplopia

10. Which forcep is best described as handle and beak at 180 degrees to each other, with
identical beaks that are closed straight flat
A. maxillary anterior forcep
B. maxillary molar forcep
C. mandibular anterior forcep
D. mandibular molar forcep

11. Which fracture describes Guerin fractures?

A. lefort 1
B. lefort 2
C. lefort 3
D. zygomatic fracture
12. What is the crictical period after an attack of myocardial infarction during which no
procedures can be carried out?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

13. Man comes to the surgery after two weeks of extraction, he has an artificial mitral
valve, on examination has fever, fast heart rate, feels lethargic . What is the condition?
A. angina
B. myocardial infarction
C. infective endocarditis
D. none of the above.

14. You have advised a patient not to eat for one hour after an inferior alveolar block,
what is the most likely thing to happen if he does not follow the instruction?
A. mucosal burn
B. lip trauma
C. lip and cheek trauma
D. ulcer

15. As far as alveolar osteitis is concerned, which of the following is false?

A. incidence is more in mandible than maxilla
B. the prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence
C. excessive finbrinloysis is the etiology
D. zinc oxide eugenol dressing and alvogyl dressing promotes healing

16. Distance of maxillary sinus from premolars and molars, which is the closeest?
A. 1st premolar
B. 2nd premolar
C. 1st molar
D. 2nd molar

17. Which approach is the most preferred for zygomatic fracture?

A. cadwell luc approach
B. gillies approach
C. both a & b
D. none of the above

18. Wharf's assessment is used in?

A. maxillary fracture
B. mandibular fracture
C. 3rd molar assessment
D. none of above

19. What is the danger area of the face?

A. extends from corner of mouth to bridge of nose, including nose and maxilla
B. extends from corner of mouth to chin, including maxilla and mandible
C. extends from chin to bridge of nose, includes maxilla mandible and bridge of nose
D. all of the above

20. Match the following, one option can be used once or more than once or not at all:
a. destruction of pathogens
b. removal of all forms of life
c. inhibits growth by inhibiting their activity
1. antisepsis
2. disinfection
3. Sterlization
3B 2A 1C

21. Upper and lower molar forceps which engage the bifurcation of molar teeth allowing a
buccally directed extraction force.
A. Universal forceps
B. Eagle beak forceps
C. Cowhorns

22. A straight-bladed Upper or lower forceps which used to grip the roots of teeth
allowing a controlled extraction force.
A. Universal forceps
B. Eagle beak forceps
C. Cowhorns

23. Forceps designed to penetrate the molar bifurcation either to be used in a figure-of-
eight loosening pattern or to split the roots.
A. Universal forceps
B. Eagle beak forceps
C. Cowhorns

24. Post-op bleeding occurs when true haemostasis has not been achieved at completion
of surgery
A. Immediate bleeding
B. Reactionary bleeding
C. Secondary bleeding

25. Post-op bleeding occurs within 48hrs of surgery

A. Immediate bleeding
B. Secondary bleeding
C. Reactionary bleeding

26. Post op bleeding occurs 7 days after the surgery

A. Immediate bleeding
B. Secondary bleeding
C. Reactionary bleeding

27. Resorbable suture material

A. Dexon
B. Vicryl
C. Nylon
D. Novafil
E. Silk

28. Most common fractures of the mandible occurs on which site

A. angle of the mandible
B. body of the mandible
C. condylar neck #
D. coronoid fracture
E. symphyseal #

29. Le fort I # involves

A. separation of hard palate from the upper maxilla
B. transverse fracture running through the maxilla and pterygoid plates at a level below the floor
of the nose
C. Nasal bleeding
D. bilateral black eyes
E. Mobility of the upper jaw
30. Le Fort Il fractures
A. results in craniofacial disjunction
B. transverse separation of the nasofrontal sutures, medial & lateral orbital wall, zygomatic arch
and pterygoid plates.
C. transect the nasal bones, medial-anterior orbital walls, orbital floor, inferior orbital rims, then
transversely fracture the posterior maxilla and pterygoid plates
D. bilateral black eyes
E. bruising of upper sulcus, long face and midline tear of the palate

31. After doing mesio-angular impaction of lower third molar, which suture material is
best used to close mucoperiosteal flap (SBA)
A. 3-0 Silk cutting needle
B. 3-0 Vicryl cutting needle
C. Catgut

32. Patient has TIA (Transient ischemic attack three months ago, you have planned
extraction and patient is on aspirin. What is the best way to proceed? (SBA)
A. Delay the extraction for three months
B. Go ahead with extraction, following appropriate local measures
C. Refer to Oral surgery
D. Stop aspirin
Answer: C or B

33. Autoclave temperatures (at what temperature the sterilization is achieved) (SBA)
A. 121 degrees centigrade for 15 minutes
B. 121 degrees centigrade for 3 minutes
C. 131 degrees centigrade for 15 minutes

34. While removing an impacted wisdom tooth, if we have to do the apicoectomy of 2nd
molar also, which type of incision should be given?
a) Semiluner.
b) Ward’s.
c) Extended ward’s.
d) Envelop.
e) Sub marginal.

35. Most common complication after tooth extraction is:

a) Bleeding.
b) Alveolar osteitis.
c) Condensing osteitis.
d) Infection.
e) Swelling.
36. In case of multiple extractions, teeth that should be removed last are:
a) 1st molar& canine.
b) 2nd molar & canine.
c) 1st & 2nd molar.
d) 2nd molar & 1st premolar.
e) 1st molar & 1st premolar.

37. In WINTER’S classification, white line tells us:

a) Depth of the impacted tooth.
b) Angulation of the impacted tooth.
c) Point of application for elevator.
d) Used to classify fracture of the tooth.
e) No such classification exists.

38. Enucleation means:

a) Creation of surgical window.
b) Removal of entire lesion without rupture.
c) Composite resection.
d) Marginal resection.
e) Curettage.

39. Long term effect of radiotherapy to oral mucosa is characterized by:

a) Epithelium becomes more keratinized.
b) Sub mucosa becomes highly vascular.
c) Break down & delayed healing, sub mucosa less vascular.
d) No sub mucosal fibrosis.
e) Epithelium becomes thin & there is rapid healing.

40. Common sequela after cancer chemotherapy is

myelosuppression, which is characterized by:
a) Anemia& thrombocytopenia.
b) Thrombocytosis.
c) Leukocytosis.
d) Lymphocytosis.
e) Purpura.

41. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by:
a) Aerobic bacteria.
b) Anaerobic bacteria.
c) Fungal.
d) Viral.
e) Spirochetes.
42. Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures:
a) Le fort 1.
b) Zygomatic arch fracture.
c) Le fort 3.
d) Nasoethmiodal fracture.
e) Symphysis fracture.

43. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment, it is called:

a) Comminuted fracture.
b) Compound fracture.
c) Green stick fracture.
d) Simple fracture.
e) Transverse fracture.

44. Le fort 3 fracture is also called:

a) Horizontal fracture.
b) Pyramidal fracture.
c) Transverse fracture.
d) Simple fracture.
e) Green stick fracture.

45 A patient presents with a history of pain in the right pre-auricular region. There is
an intermittent click during opening; when the click is not present the patient can
open to a normal range. On examination the masticatory muscles, including the
lateral pterygoid, on the RHS side are tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bruxism
B.Myofascial pain (or Pain dysfunction syndrome)
C.Disc Displacement with Reduction
D. Osteoarthrosis
E. Disc Displacement without Reduction

46 You take a panoramic radiograph of a patient and discover a well-defined,

corticated radiolucent area below the inferior dental canal just anterior to the
mandibular angle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Radicular cyst
B. Stafne bone cavity
C.Metastatic carcinoma of the breast
D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
E. Complex odontome

47. Which of the following local anaesthetic is indicated in case of the

need to long acting one after a surgical operation,
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

48. Bleeding can occur after tooth extraction from different sources. Name them

Gingival capillaries, vessels in the bone of the socket, large vessels under flap or in bone

49. Radiographic signs of increased risk of nerve damage are :

A. Narrowing of canal
B. Juxta -apical area
C. Interruption of lamina dura
D. All above

50. What type of cyst of jaw is the cyst formed around the tooth crown of an unerupted
permanent tooth?

Dentigerous cyst

51. What is the most important measure to minimized post -operative oedema ?
A. ice packs
B. post-op steroids
C. pre -op steroids
D. gentle efficent surgery

52. Hanging drop sign on x -ray is patognomonic for :

A. Le -Fort II #
B. Orbital floor #
C. Malar #

53. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by:
a) Aerobic bacteria.
b) Anaerobic bacteria.
c) Fungal.
d) Viral.
e) Spirochetes.

54. Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures:

a) Le fort 1.
b) Zygomatic arch fracture.
c) Le fort 3.
d) Nasoethmiodal fracture.
e) Symphysis fracture.

55. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment, it is called:

a) Comminuted fracture.
b) Compound fracture.
c) Green stick fracture.
d) Simple fracture.
e) Transverse fracture.

56. Le fort 3 fracture is also called:

a) Horizontal fracture.
b) Pyramidal fracture.
c) Transverse fracture.
d) Simple fracture.
e) Green stick fracture.

57. During the extraction it is acceptable to leave less than 3 mm piece of deeply buried
apex. Will it interfere with orthodontic treatment?
True
False

58. A patient with a liver disease developed facial cellulitis and need extraction of upper
decayed first molar.He is in pain and fever and you decided to prescribe him an antibiotic
for 3 days before extraction .
1. Analgesic to prescribe
2. Antibiotic name
3. LA to use
Options: paracetamol, aspirin, opioid, codeine.....
Penicillin ampicillin, erythromycin, tetracycline, metronidazole
Lidocaine, prilocaine ,articaine

1) Paracetamol
Nsaids are contraindicated and paracetamol can be given in short term treatment adjusting the
dose. In liver disease liver function is compromised making it unable to metabolise and excrete
common drugs which will aggravate the patient's condition.

2) Metronidazole
3) LA ?
All are metabolites by liver .but prilocaine is partially by lungs.

59. What does Fracture of zygomatic arch cause?

Causes trismus and paresthesia of infraorbital nerve

60. What does Le Fort 1 fracture cause?

Causes maxilla loosening

61. What does Fracture of 2 condyles cause?

Causes class III

62. Case: extraction of 3rd molar with dentigerous cyst in the angle of the mandible,
superior and inferior border of mandible very thin. What can happen during the
extraction?

Fracture of the mandible

63. Least level of platelets that you can do extraction?

50x 10 9
For LA minimum 30 x 10 9
Extraction - 50 x 10 9
Major surgery - 75x 10 9

64. All maxillary teeth moving together?

Le Fort I #

65. Bilateral condylar # causes?

Trismus. And anterior open bite

66. What should you do if you think that tooth is now not in socket?
X-RAY
67. % of temporary altered sensation for conventional surgical removal of Lower wisdom
tooth extraction?
a, 7%
b, 8%
c, 9%

68. What is the most important consideration when raising flap?

a, incision
b, envelop
c, access
d, suture technique

69. " Ground glass bone" is characteristic Feature of which disease?

70. Which of the following retractor is use to retract tongue?

a, kilner
b, minnesota
c, Dyson
d, bowdler
71. Cowhorns are designed to penetrate the molar bifurcation?
True
False

C
B

B
B
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