Eugene retire if he wants to avail the
mandatory retirement?
FINAL COACHING
LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for
each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. It refers to the field of management which
involves planning, and controlling the efforts
of a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and
minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administration
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
 Organization-a group of persons working
together for a common goal or objectives a
form of human association for the
attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained
personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives.
 Administration- an organizational
process concerned with the
implementation of objectives and plans
and internal operating efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process
involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related
statutes focuses on the policing process.
2. The national headquarters of the PNP is
located in Quezon City. It was named after the
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera
 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of
the Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino
chief of police of the Manila Police
Department in 1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief
of police of the Manila Police Department
after the Philippine Independence from
the United States of America in 1946
3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996.
She was 29 years old then. What year can
Page 1 of 50
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
 Compulsory – upon reaching the age
FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY
(20) YEARS of active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving
the suppression of insurgency and serious
treats to national security?
A. The AFP operating through the area
commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving
insurgency and other serious treats to
national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious
treats to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the
AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be used
in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
and by men in the field operations relative to
reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
 Headquarters Procedures - include the
procedures to be followed in the
headquarters, usually reflected in the duty
manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
- procedures intended for specific
operations to ensure uniformity of action
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be
for a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum
Tenure
Those who have reached the
prescribed maximum tenure corresponding to
their position shall be retired from the service
 Chief 4 years
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services
years
 Regional Directors 6 years
 Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years
7. The law that empowered the police
commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members
refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA
5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of
Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and
later reorganized by R.A. 2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the
Integration Act of 1975, enacted on August
8, 1975; established the Integrated
National Police (INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law
8. The theory of police service which states
those police officers are servants of the people
or the community refers to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental
 Continental - policemen are regarded as
servants of the higher authorities
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain-
countries with a decentralized form of
government
 Old Concept - measurement of police
competence is the increasing number of
arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is
measured by the decreasing number of
crimes
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted
to join the Philippine National Police. What
would be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists,
nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic
sciences, graduates of the PNPA and
licensed criminologists
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains,
members of the bar and doctors of
medicine
10. The following are functions in a police
organization, EXCEPT:
4 A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
 Primary or Line Functions- functions
that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties, and
crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions-
designed to support the line functions and
assist in the performance of the line
functions examples of the staff functions of
the police are Planning, research,
budgeting and legal advice
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving
the logistical operations of the
organization examples are communication,
maintenance, records management,
supplies and equipment management.
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the
suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor.
12. He is known as the father of modern
policing system?
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver
Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare
Lombroso
 August Vollmer - recognized as the
Father of Modern Law Enforcement
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of
Scotland Yard
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern
Criminology.
13. When responding to call for police
assistance due to planted or found explosives,
what immediate actions should the patrol
officer will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive
or not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid
further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for
Explosive Ordinance Disposal
Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for
proper procedure to be followed, after
investigating the item.
Page 2 of 50
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer 20. The word “police” was derived from the
of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is Greek word _______, which means government
his equivalent rank in the PNP? of the city.
A. politia C. politeia
A. Inspector C. Senior B. polis D. Policy
Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent  Polis – Greek word which means “City-
State”.
 Inspector – Captain  Politia – Roman word which means
 Chief Inspector – Major “condition of the state or the
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel Government”.

15. How many Deputy Director General ranks 21. It is defined as the determination in
are there in the PNP? advance of how the objectives of the
A. 1 C. 3 organization will be attained.
B. 2 D. 4 A. planning C.
Advancement
Deputy Director General ranks B. police planning D. Development

 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)  Police Planning - it is an attempt by

 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command) police administration to allocate
 Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in anticipated resources to meet anticipated
Command) service demands.

16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________. 22. It is the premier educational institution for
the training, human resource development
A. Four star general C. Director and continuing education of all personnel of
B. Chief Superintendent D. Director the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
General A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC
 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the
rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD
1184, premier educational institution for
17. What is the minimum police-to-population future officers of the tri-bureaus.
ratio?
23. It is the central receiving entity for any
A. 1:000 C. 1:1500 citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
B. 1:500 D. 1:7 A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-
population ratio)  NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative
control and operational supervision over
o 1:500 – nationwide average the PNP
18. What kind of force is needed during armed
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather
evidence in support of an open
confrontation?
investigation; conduct summary hearings
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force on PNP members facing administrative
charges;
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded
Force 24. The following are the grounds for Patrol
officers to execute spot checks.
19. The largest organic unit within a large
a. Questionable presence of the individual in
department.
the area;
A. Bureau C. Section
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your
B. Division D. Unit
superior;
 Division- The primary subdivision of a c. The individual flees at the sight of a police
bureau. officer;
 Section- Functional units within a d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the
particular division. This is necessary for suspect’s prior criminal record; and
specialization. e. Visual indications suggesting that the
 Units- Functional group within a section suspect is carrying a pyrotechnics.
where further specialization is needed. A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c,
d, e

Page 3 of 50
25. The provincial governor shall choose the
provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s
recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six C. five
B. Three D. four
 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE
eligible’s recommended by the PD.
26. The deployment of officers in a given
community, area or locality to prevent and
deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-
day services to the community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol
27. The head of the IAS shall have a
designation of ____________?
A. Director General C. Solicitor
General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there
should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one
 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for
every five hundred (500) city or municipal
police personnel
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what
would be the immediate things to do when
accident occur?
A. Cordon the area
B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest
hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30. The following are the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the Philippine
National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or
over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral
character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably
discharged from military services or civilian
position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
31. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the
Integrated Bar of the Philippines
Page 4 of 50
C. Any barangay captain of the
city/municipality concerned chosen by
the association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an
organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must
identify the organization’s _________:
A. strategy C. Goal
B. Tactic D. objective
 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a
major plan of action that needs a large
amount of resources to attain a major goal
or objectives.
 Goal- General Statement of intention
normally with time perspective. It is
achievable end state that can be measured
and observed.
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method or
course of action to attain a particular
objective in consonance with strategy.
33. To improve delegation, the following must
be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
34. The number of subordinates that can be
supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. Increase as the physical distance
between supervisor and subordinate as
well as between individual subordinate
increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the
subordinate
C. Increase as the level of supervision
progresses for the first line
supervisory level to the
management level
D. All of the above
35. This means controlling the direction and
flow of decisions through unity of command
from top to bottom of organization:
A. Audit C.
Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
36. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Performance evaluation measures
credibility of the police
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
salary increases or promotion
C. Performance evaluation is done once a
year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is
implemented to determine the
 quality of work performance of 42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
personnel 1200. How many of the annual quota is
allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to
the DILG for _______:  The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT
(10%) of its annual recruitment, training
A. Administrative control and education quota for women
B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision 43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
D. Policy and program coordination may be waived in the following order:

38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the
same supervisor. This is the principle of
__________:
A. delegation of authority
B. span of control
C. unity of command
D. chain of command
 Delegation of Authority- conferring of
certain specified authority by a superior to
a subordinate
 Chain of Command- the arrangement of
officers from top to bottom on the basis of
rank or position and authority
 Span of Control- the maximum number
of subordinates that a superior can
effectively supervise
 Command Responsibility- dictates that
immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision
and control of their personnel and unit
39. Who has the authority to promote Insp
Jhack T. Khole?
A. President C. Chief,
PNP
B.CA D.
Regional Director
Promoting Authorities:
A. age, height, weight & education
B. age, weight, height & education
C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order
 Applicants who possess the least
disqualification shall take precedence over
those who possess more disqualification;
 The requirement shall be waived in the
following order: Age, Height, Weight
and Education. (AHWE)
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on
the basis provided by law.
A. attrition C.
Specialization
B. promotion D. retirement
 Specialization- the assignment of
particular personnel to particular tasks
which are highly technical and require
special skills and training
 Retirement - The separation of the police
personnel from the service by reason of
reaching the age of retirement provided by
law, or upon completion of certain number
of years in active service.
 Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks
and/or advancement to a position of
leadership

Grade/Rank Promoting 45. The age requirement for new PNP

Authorities applicants must not be less than twenty-one
(21) years of age. The Maximum age
 Director General President requirement for PNP applicants using the
 Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President lateral entry program is ____.
 Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
 PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
PNP

40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
A. Standard operation procedures
B. Special operation procedures
C. Standard operating procedures
D. Special operating procedures
46. A Field training Program for all PNP
uniformed members is required for
permanency of their appointment. Who among
the following is exempted to undergo the Field
Training Program and issued a permanent
appointment?

41. The following are the characteristics of a A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr.
good plan, EXCEPT: Inspector via Lateral entry.
A. flexibility C. specific B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
B. clear D. expensive Inspector via Lateral entry.

Page 5 of 50
 C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is
appointed Inspector after
graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed
members of the PNP shall undergo a Field
Training Program for twelve (12) months
involving actual experience and
assignment in patrol, traffic, and
investigation as a requirement for
permanency of their appointment.
47. Planning as a management function is to
be done in the various levels of PNP
organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the
responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
 Director – Major General
 Director General - General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit
300 new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22,
1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10,
1991
 For a new applicant, must not be less than
twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30)
years of age
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine
National Police on October 5, 1988.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of
the gratifying PNP which he served with
extreme commitment and loyalty. When does
Bruno can retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6,
1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September
5, 2008
Page 6 of 50
51. Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
A. Dismissal C.
Forfeiture of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to SPOIV?
A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII
 JLC – POIII to SPOI
 PSBRC – POI to POII
53. The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D.
C/Inspector
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
Superintendent
 Provincial Director -with the rank of
Senior Superintendent
 NCR District Director -with the rank of
Chief Superintendent
 Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief
Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the
following PNP applicants is the least priority
for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in
college
B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and
Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the
Local Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies
that compose the Philippine National Police
(Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command;
and
 e. National Action Committee on Anti-
Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00
base pay since he was promoted. After five
years from promotion, what would be his
monthly base pay after adding his longevity
pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37,
690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31,
549.00
58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS
shall be appealed to the__________:
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
 National Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered
by the PNP Chief and the IAS.
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered
by the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal
mayor and the PLEB except decision on
suspension.
NOTE:
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is
final and cannot be appealed.
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or
Regional Director is final and executory but
subject to appeal to RAB.
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable
within 10 days to Provincial Director, upon
receipt of decision.
 Decision of Provincial Director is
appealable within 10 days to Regional
Director, upon receipt of decision.
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable
within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon receipt
of decision.
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from
those cases concerning internal discipline.
 Cases involving internal discipline filed
with the Chief, PNP originally, the
decision is appealable to NAB which
decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed
ONCE.
59. Who shall administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for police officers on
the basis of the standards set by the
Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D.
NAPOLCOM
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by
applicants of the PNP
 Police Promotional Examinations –
taken by in-service police officers as part
of the mandatory requirements for
promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed
Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the
eligibility requirement.
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted,
if he is promoted who has the appointing
authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP
for the national headquarters personnel
attested by the Civil Service
Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by
immediate superiors and attested
by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of
Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil
Service and subject to
confirmation by the Commission of
Appointment.
D. President from among the senior
officers down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the
Regional Director for regional personnel or
by the Chief, PNP for the national
headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief,
PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the
President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by the
Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the
President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of C/Supt, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of
1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act
255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for
the Organization and Government of an
Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18,
1901
Page 7 of 50
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31, 1901
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the
Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901
62.________ is given to any PNP member who
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
 Regular – promotion granted to police
officers meeting the mandatory
requirements for promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any
PNP personnel designated to any key
position whose rank is lower than what is
required for such position shall, after 6
months occupying the same, be entitled to
rank adjustment corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program
but is dismissed for failure to comply with
the requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program
but is dismissed for failure to comply with
the requirements can RE-APPLY provided
he now have the minimum requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in
court as a witness has to be in complete
uniform is to show his respect to the court and
to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D.
Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities
over officers to the lower rank, whether
temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior
officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to
personnel of the police department who
has taken oath of office and possesses the
power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers
having the highest rank or grade according
to their date of appointment to that grade
66. Law that created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
Page 8 of 50
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966,
enacted on September 8, 1966; created
the Police Commission (POLCOM); later
POLCOM was renamed in Act No 255 -
The act that renamed the Insular
Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3,
1901 to National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing
for the Organization and Government
of an Insular Constabulary”, enacted
on July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is
conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6
months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of January of the
succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent
physical disability in the performance of his
duty and unable to further perform his duty
shall be entitled to a lifetime pension
equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical
Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are
permanently and totally disabled as a result of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
performance of his duty shall be entitled to
ONE YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME
PENSION equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT
(80%) of his last salary, in addition to other
benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within
FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement due to
physical disability, his legal spouse or
legitimate children shall be entitled to receive
the pension for the remainder of the five year-
period.
69. How many successive annual rating
periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
 B.3 D. 1
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years
of active service shall be separated based on
any of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor
performance during the last two (2)
successive annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor
performance for three (3)
cumulative annual rating periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to
perform police functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance
examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for
justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported
in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint
and proper escort, preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes
employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental
and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity
whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being
experimentally measured simply in
response to the fact that they are being
studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will
avoid work if they can and that they
inherently dislike work.
72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation
created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
 Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York
City Police officer, who pioneer fighting
Organized Crime.
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the
word Hawthorne Effect
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation; he was
instrumental in founding the FBI in 1935.
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to Senior
Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief
Superintendent - up.
 OAC – Chief Inspector
 OBC – Senior Inspector
 BSPS - Inspector
74. Who among the following have summary
dismissal powers?
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of
these
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional
Directors have summary dismissal powers in
any of the following cases:
 when the charge is serious and the
evidence of guilt is strong
 when the respondent is a recidivist or
has been repeatedly charged and there
are reasonable grounds to believe that
he is guilty of the charges; and
 when the respondent is guilty of a
serious offense involving conduct
unbecoming of a police officer
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring
PNP member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
 Chief of Police - for a period not
exceeding FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be
___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY
PERCENT (50%) of the base pay in case
of twenty years of active service,
increasing by TWO AND ONE-HALF
PERCENT (2.5%) for every year of active
service rendered beyond twenty years.
Page 9 of 50
77. This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up
campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
 Functional Plan- includes the framework
for the operation of the major functional
unit in the organization Such as patrol and
investigation.
 Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which
are strategic or long range in application, it
determine the organization’s original goals
and strategy.
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
members on routine and field operations and
some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which
require actions or assistance from persons
or agencies outside of the department
 Operational Plan - often called work
plan; the work program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of
action to be taken at a designated location
and under specific circumstances
79. What kind of appointment when the
applicant is under the waiver program due to
weight requirements pending satisfaction of
the requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
 Permanent – when an applicant
possesses the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the PNP
 Probationary- All PNP members upon
entry level, before appointed to permanent
status shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year
probationary period.
80. The institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
 Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the
institution of a criminal action or complaint
against a police officer shall not be a bar
to promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement
Page 10 of 50
of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment C.
Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D.
Employment
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of
employment
82. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan
83. It identify the role of police in the
community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to
meet the long-range, overall goals of the
organization.
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational
comprehensive approach) – is the
dominant tradition in planning. It is also
the point of departure for most other
planning approaches. It is base on “pure”
or “objective” rationality and attempts to
assure optimal achievement of desired
goals from a given situation. It relies
heavily on the problem identification and
analysis phase of planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this
approach disfavors the exclusive use of
planners who have not direct interest in
the problems at hand and favors a sort of
decentralized political bargaining that
involves interested parties.
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is
__________.
A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and
staff
 Line – oldest and simplest kind; few
departments
 Functional – according to functions of the
organization
85. It is the process of developing methods or
procedure or an arrangement of parts
intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a
definite objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning
86. Refers to any offense committed by a the heirs is for a maximum of how many
member of the PNP involving and affecting months?
order and discipline within the police A. 1 year C. 2 months
organization. B. 30 Days D. 12 months
A. Breech of Internal Discipline  Absence Without Official Leave
B. Citizens Complaint (AWOL) - Failure to report for duty without
C. Minor Offense official notice for a period of THIRTY (30)
D. Any of these DAYS

 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or 92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of

omission not involving moral turpitude _____ number of hours of classroom training
but affecting the internal discipline of the should be required for newly promoted
PNP supervisory personnel
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any A. 72 hours C. 80
complaint initiated by a private citizen or hours
his duly authorized representative on B. 75 hours D. 85
account of an injury, damage or hours
disturbance sustained due to an irregular 93. It should be proactive, people oriented,
or illegal act committed by a member of based on individual need, and delivered in
the PNP. such a way as to motivate the experienced
officer to a higher degree of
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of professionalism/professionalization
police personnel unit? A. Recruit Training
A. Preparing policy statements and B. Specialized training
standard operating Procedures relating to C. In Service
all areas of the administration of human D. Field Training
resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and 94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade
other line officials regarding personnel possessing the entire mandatory and other
matters consideration in promotion, is what kind of
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning promotion?
officers to identify, and subsequently A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
correct, unsatisfactory working B. Regular Promotion
conditions C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to D. Promotion
the exclusive ranks
95. It involves assistance and action by non
88. It refers to the process of screening out or police agencies such as Local Safety Council
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile
meet the organization’s selection criteria Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans
A. Promotion C. Recruitment and Civil defense plans
B. Transfer D. Selection A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
 Recruitment – it is the process of C. Tactical Plans
attracting candidates who have the D. Extra departmental plan
maximum qualifications to be eligible for
the selection procedure. 96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of
metal and ribbon, which constitute the
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing tangible evidence of an award:
A. Pigeon Hole A. Medal C. Awards
B. Retrieval operation B. Decorations D. Ribbons
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody  Award — anything tangible granted to an
individual in recognition of acts of
90. It is considered to be the heart of any gallantry or heroism, meritorious service
identification system; it provides positive or skill and proficiency.
identification of the criminal  Decoration — a piece of metal/material
A. Arrest and booking report representing an award.
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records 97. For every _______ letters of commendation,
D. Fingerprint Records a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay
PNP member:
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed A. Six C. Four
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for B. Five D. Three
Page 11 of 50
 103. An act or condition, which results in a
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, situation conducive to a breach of the
unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive protection system, or that, could result to loss.
use of authority: A. Hazards C. Human
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty Hazards
B. Incompetency D. Oppression B. Natural Hazards D. Security
Hazards
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful, Kinds of Security Hazard
improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated
by premeditated, obstinate or intentional  Human Hazard – is the act or
purpose. It usually refers to transgressions condition affecting the safe operation
or some established and definite rule of of the facility caused by human action.
action  Natural Hazard – is the act or
 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of situation caused by natural
adequate ability and fitness for the phenomenon, like floods, typhoons,
satisfactory performance, of police duties. earthquakes, etc.
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or
distortion of the truth in a matter or act 104. An inquiry into the character, reputation,
relevant to one’s office, or connected with discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
the performance of his duties. individual in order to determines person
suitability for appointment or access to
99. The operational support unit of the PNP classified matter.
shall function as a mobile strike force or
reaction unit to augment police forces for civil A. Local Agency check
disturbance control, counter-insurgency, B. Background Investigation
hostage taking, rescue operations and other C. National Agency Check
special operations: D. Personnel Security Investigation
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B. SWAT D. SOCO  National Agency Check- It consists of
LAC supplemented by investigation of the
100. The primary objective of Philippine records and files of the following agencies:
National Police: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace Immigration and Deportation and other
and Order agency.
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime  Local Agency Check- Refers to the
Prevention investigation of the records and files of
agency in the area of principal residence of
101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms the individual being investigated like
are not allowed to possess except when there Mayor, Police, Fiscal, Judge.
is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as  Background Investigation – a check
determined by proper authority, but shall not made on an individual usually seeking
exceed ______ of the total number of security employment through subjects records in
guards. the police files, educational institutions,
A. 50% C. 20% place of residence, and former employers.
B. 30% D. 10%
105. The importance of the firm or installation
102. The vault door should be made of steel at with reference to the national economy
least __________ in thickness? security.
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative
B. 6 inches D. 20 program
feet or more B. Relative criticality D.
Relative security
Specifications of Vault
 Relative Vulnerability – is the
 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of susceptibility of the plant or establishment
steel to damage, loss or disruption of operation
 Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 due to various hazards.
inches thick
 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches 106. Private security agencies have to be
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size registered with the:
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 A. SEC C. DTI
to 6 hours B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD

 Trade name of the Security Agencies must

be registered at the Department of Trade
and Industry

Page 12 of 50
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a
certain facility what must be constructed. Specifications
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple  Standard barbed wire is twisted double
fences strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point barb
spaced on equal distant part.
 Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence  Barbed wire fencing should not be less
that provides visual access through the than 7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
fence.  Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed
to post not more than 6 feet apart.
108. A private security Guard who is escorting  The distance between strands will not
a big amount of money or cash outside his exceed 6 inches and at least one wire will
area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a- be interlock vertical and midway between
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail posts.
Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These 112. Who exercises the power to remove, for
cause, license issued to security guards.
109. What is the duration of the Basic
Security Guard Course? A. Any of these
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours B. Secretary, DILG
B. 72 Hours D. 300 C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
Hours D. C/PNP

Classification and Duration Period of
training
 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-
Licensing Training Course)- 150 Hours
 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300
Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership
staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
Line Leadership Staff
 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
Commander- the field or area
commander of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief
Inspector- responsible for inspecting the
entire area coverage by the detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector-
responsible for the area assigned by the
chief inspector or the detachment
commander.
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is
twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4
point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed
wire fencing should not be less than ___ high
excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
113. What type of alarm is best suited for
doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration
Detection
 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device -
A light beam connected by a wire to
control station and when an intruder
crosses the beam he breaks the contact
with the photoelectric coil which thus
activates the alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a
supersensitive microphone speaker sensor
that is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors
of the protected area, Any sound caused
by attempted forced entry is detected by
file censor.
 Vibration detection device - Any
vibration caused by attempted force entry
is detected by the sensor.
114. Is the process of conducting physical
examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and
procedures?
A. Security Education C.
Security Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security
Survey
Security Planning- Is a corporate and
executive responsibility. It involves knowing
the objectives of the security and the means
and the method to reach those objectives or
goal must then evolve.
 Security Survey- Is the process of
conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of
all operation system and procedures of a
facility
Page 13 of 50
 Security Education - The basic goal is to
acquaint all the employees the
justification behind the security measures
and to insure cooperation at all times.
115. What is the last phase of Security
Education?
A. Initial Interview C.
Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security
promotion
Phases of Security Education
 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
electronic device designed to prevent entry
into a building, room container, or hiding
place, and to prevent the removal of items
without the consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination
Locks
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock
having or sliding hasp which passes
through a staple ring or the like and is then
made fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open
by pressing a series of numbered buttons
in the proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires
manipulation of dials according to a
predetermined combination code of
numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where
the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central
Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is
a local alarm in which a siren or bell is
sounded with no predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system
installation circuits are led into local police
or fire department by lease telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as
the central station system except that it is
owned by, operated and located in the
facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas issued to
an employees who keeps it in the possession
Page 14 of 50
until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange
system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass
System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he
exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his
possession until his authorization or until
he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of
passes are issued to an individual with the
same photograph. The individual exchange
his badge for another color or markings at
the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for
another color acceptable in that area.
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position
that tellers may activate the alarm by placing
the front of their foot to engage the activation
bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh
Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze
Button
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency
Activation, when currency is removed from
the devices, the alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed
inside the deck or teller station so they can
be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires
pressure on both side of the device and
therefore the probability of accidental
alarm is reduced.
120. These are wide beam units, used to
extend the illumination in long, horizontal
strips to protect the approaches to the
perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow,
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the
vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C.
Floodlights
B. Street Lights D. Search
lights
 Floodlights - projects light in a
concentrated beam. Best used in
boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused
incandescent lamps used in pinpointing
potential
 Street Lights - produced diffused light
rather than direction beam.
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be
issued to a private security guard under
normal condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45; 128. A lock which is commonly installed in
III. Cal .38; safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof
IV. Magnum .22; and since it is operated by utilizing combinations
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun. by means of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V Locks
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler
III, IV, V locks

122. What is the required capital investment  Card-Operated Locks - Coded card
for organization of private security agency? notched, embossed or containing an
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000 embedded pattern of copper flocks.
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000  Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as
wafer tumbler type, has flat metal
New applicants to operate shall be required to tumblers with open center fitted into lock
obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE case, commonly used for Automobile
MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos with a Industry which affords delay up to 7 to 10
minimum bank deposit of FIVE minutes.
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00)
pesos in order to start its business 129. The maximum number of firearms
operations. allowed to possess by a PSA should not
123. One who steals with preconceived plans exceed by___ units.
and takes away any or all types of items or A. 30 C. 500
supplies for economic gain? B. 70 D. 1000
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic Use of Firearms
pilferer
 Number of firearms shall not exceed one
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to (1) for every two (2) Security Guard.
his inability to resist the unexpected (1:2)
opportunity and has little fear of detection.  For Temporary licensed, one hundred
(100) guards, an initial of at least 30
124. The metallic container used for securing licensed firearms.
documents or small items in an office or  For regular licensed two hundred guards
installation refers to: (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed
A. Safe C. File room firearms.
B. Vault D. None of these
130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp
125. Chain link fences must be constructed emits a blue- green color?
in______ material excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet A. Sodium vapor lamp
B. Six feet D. Five feet B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure) D. Quartz lamp
Specifications  Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of
Gaseous Discharge lamp that emit
 Must be constructed in 7 feet material Yellow Light.
excluding the top guard  Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier bright white light and instant on almost
 Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 as rapidly as the incandescent lamp.
inches  Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very
economical to use but for industrial
126. The following things are used as barrier, security it is not acceptable due to long
which serves as a deterrent to the possible time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: minutes to light.
A. Human C. Doors  Incandescent Lamps- These are
B. Fences D. NONE common light bulbs that are found in
every home. They have the advantage
127. Vaults are storage devices which are of providing instant illumination
usually designed to be at least _______fire
resistant. 131. What type of security deals with the
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours industrial plants and business enterprises
B. 24 hours D. 12 where personnel, processes, properties and
hours operations are safeguarded?

Page 15 of 50
 A. Personal security C.
Operational security
B. industrial security D. bank
security
 Personal Security- Involves the
protection of top-ranking officials of the
government, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign
dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves
the protection of processes, formulas,
and patents, industrial and
manufacturing activities from
espionage, infiltration, loss,
compromise or photocopying.
 School Security- Security involving
not only facilities but also the students
or pupils.
132. The following are principles of Physical
Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously
entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous
security measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the
registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo
Php
Payment of fees and licenses
 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P
2,000.00) as national license fee
payable to the National Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as
payment for registration fee for each
security guard employed.
 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per
year for Security Consultant,Security
Officer and Private Detectives
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for
Security Guard payable at the Chief
Finance Office, HQ PNP.
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify
matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of____
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
Page 16 of 50
135. The term used in England for lock pickers,
safecrackers and penetrators of restricted
areas or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service
contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an
advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the
installation which aids the intruder in
planning
B. It allows the intruder to become
familiar with the movements of persons
in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could
prevent concealment of the
intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to
give surety bond which shall answer for any
valid and legal claims against such agency
filed by aggrieved party. How much is the
Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P
50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards –
P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards –
P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards –
P200,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal
claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
party.
139. What type of investigation involves all
aspect and details about the circumstances of
a person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation -
investigation of the background of the
individual but limited only to some of the
circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of agency, company guard force and
employees on security and its relevance to government security forces?
their work is: A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
A. Security Inspection C. B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487
Security Education
B. Security Orientation D. 146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain
Security Survey link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.

141. It is under physical security which A. Solid structure

provides sufficient illumination to areas during B. Permanent structure
hours of darkness. C. Least permanent structure
A. Protective Lighting C. D. Semi- permanent structure
Standby Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable  Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Lighting  Concertina Wire Fences (Least
Permanent)
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar
to continuous lighting but it is turn on 147. It is more comprehensive investigation
manually or by special device or other than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough
automatic means. and complete investigation of all or some of
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life
stationary or portable, manually operated is conducted?
searchlights. The searchlights may be
lighted continuously during the hours of A. Personnel Security Investigation
darkness nor only as needed, it is just a B. Background Investigation
supplementary to other protective or
security Lighting. C. Partial Background Investigation
 Emergency Lighting- This standby D. Complete Background Investigation
lighting may be utilized in the event of
electric failure, either due to local 148. The unobstructed area maintained on
equipment or commercial failure. both sides of a perimeter barrier on the
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common exterior and interior parallel area to afford
type consisting of series of fixed luminous better observation of the installation refers to:
flood a given area continuously with A. Clear zone C .Complimentary
overlap zone
B. Open zone D. Free zone
142. In order to be qualified as a Security
Consultant, you must have ____ year/s
experience in the operation and management
of security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10
years 149. The extension period for a license to
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the
years required minimum number of guards is:
A. 1 month C. 6
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to months
their licensed firearm is needed after B. 2 years D. 1 year
operating for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2 150. Which of the following types of lock is
B. 1:5 D. 1:1 generally used in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is B. Disc tumbler lock D.
useful in areas where insects predominate? Combination lock

A. Mercury vapor lamp 151. Which among the following aspects of

B. Sodium vapor Lamp Security is the weakest of them all?
C. Quartz lamp A. Physical security
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
 Amber color does not attract insects at D. Document and information security
night.
152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The
145. What is an act governing the organization statement is-
and management of private security A. Partially Correct C. Partially
Wrong

Page 17 of 50
 B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely 158. When are security guards deputized by
Wrong the PNP Chief or local mayor to have police
authority within their assigned area of
153. It refers to any structure or physical responsibility?
device capable of restriction, deterring or
delaying illegal access to an installation. A. When there is an employee’s strike
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter B. When the company is in retrenchment
Barrier C. During times of emergency
B. Barrier D. Energy D. When there is a crime committed inside the
Barrier establishment

 Perimeter Barrier- A medium or 159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable;

structure which defines the physical limits reproduction of this record does not have the
of an installation or area to restrict or same value as the original.
impeded access thereto
 Animal Barrier – Animals are used in A. Vital Documents
partially providing a guarding system like B. Important Documents
dogs and geese. C. Useful Documents
 Energy Barrier – It is the employment of D. Non- Essential Documents
mechanical, electrical, electronic energy
imposes a deterrent to entry by the Types of Documents
potential intruder.
 Class II – Important Documents- This
154. It is normally provided at main perimeter includes records, the reproduction of which
entrances to secure areas located out of will close considerable expense and labor,
doors, and manned by guards on a full time or considerable delay.
basis.  Class III – Useful Document- This
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower include records whose loss might cause
B. Tower Guard D. Control inconvenience but could b readily replaced
Stations and which would not in the meantime
present an insurmountable obstacle
 Tower/Guard Tower – house-like  Class IV – Non-essential Documents-
structures above the perimeter These records are daily files, routine in
barriers. It gives a psychological effect nature even if lost or destroyed, will not
to violators. affect operation or administration. This
class represents the bulk of the records
155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or which should not be attempted to protect.
uniform member of the PNP honorably
discharged/separated or retired from the 160. It is the importance of firm with reference
service are exempted from the requirements to the national economy and security.
of a private detective. The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely A. Relative Operation
True B. Relative Security
B. Partially True D. Maybe False C. Relative Vulnerability
D. Relative Criticality of Operation
156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
a. Parking Areas; 161. A new Private security agency that has
b. Thoroughfare; been issued a temporary license to operate is
c. Pedestrian Gates; good for how many years?
d. Vehicular Gates; and A. One C. Two
e. Susceptible Areas. B. Three D. Four

A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d  PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular

B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, license to operate good for two (2) years
d, e
162. The removal of the security classification
157. An additional overhead of barbed wire from the classified matter.
placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing A. Segregation C. Declassify
upwards and outward with a 45* angle with B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6”
apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these 163. The form of security that employs
cryptography to protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security

Page 18 of 50
 B. Operational security  Key control- is the management of keys
C. Communication security in a plant or business organization to
D. Industrial security prevent unauthorized individual access to
the keys.
164. The following are exempted from Pre-  Change key - A key to single lock within a
licensing training. master keyed system.
1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws  Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science the locks within a particular area or
in Criminology; grouping in a given facility.
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or  Master Key - A special key capable of
any PNP training school; opening a series of locks.
4. Veterans and retired military/police  Grand Master Key - A key that will open
personnel; and everything involving two or more master
5. Honorably discharged military/police key groups.
personnel.
171. PADPAO stands for:
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5 A. Philippine Association of Detective
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
and 5 B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
165. The minimum age requirement for C. Philippine Association of Detective and
Security Manager or Operator of a security Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
agency is: D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
172. It refers to a protection against any type
 18 years Old- minimum age of crime to safeguard life and assets by
qualification for SG. various methods and device.
 50 years Old – Maximum age A. Physical Security C. Perimeter
qualification for SG. Security
B. Operational Security D. Security
166. The following are the categories of
automatic alarm system, EXCEPT: 173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye security officer.
Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps A. Has graduated from a Security Officer
Training Course.
167. Which of the following is NOT a false key? B. Holder of Masters Degree.
A. picklock or similar tool . C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
B. A duplicate key of the owner. D. Physically or mentally fit.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by
the owner. 174. These provides access within the
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: perimeter barrier and should be locked and
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs. guarded.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600
lbs. A. Gates and Doors
B. Side-Walk Elevator
169. The minimum number of guards required C. Utilities Opening
for a company security force is: D. Clear Zones
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200 175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of
 For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred security, with the corresponding
(200) and maximum of one thousand recommendation is:
(1,000). A. security inspection C. security
education
170. It refers to a system use in big B. security training D. security
installation whereby keys can open a group of survey
locks.
A. Key Control C. Master 176. What unit of PNP handles the processing
Keying and issuances of license for private security
B. Change Key D. Grand Master personnel?
Key A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED

Page 19 of 50
 B. PADPAO D. PNP  Controlled Lighting Type- The
SAGSD lighting is focused on the pile of items,
rather than the back ground.
177. What is the most common type of human
hazard? 183. What is the system of natural or man-
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage made barriers placed between the
B. Theft D. Subversion potential intruder and the object, person
and matter being protected?
178. What is the security force maintained and
operated by any private company/ corporation A. Communication security
for its own security requirements? B. Document security
A. GSU C. CSF C. Physical security
B. PSA D. PD D. Barrier

Types of Security Guard 184. The following are the purposes of

Security Survey, EXCEPT:
 Private Security- A security guard hired A. To ascertain the present economic
by client belonging to private security status
agency. B. To determine the protection needed
 Government Security- A security guard C. To make recommendations to improve the
recruited and employed by the overall security
government D. None of these

185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License

179. What type of controlled area requires
highest degree of security?
A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive
 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in
which personnel or vehicles are controlled
for reasons of security.
 Limited Area - It is a restricted area in
which lesser degree of control is required
than in an exclusion area but which the
security interest would be compromised
by uncontrolled movement.
180. File room is a cubicle in a building
constructed a little lighter than a vault but
bigger size. One of the specifications of file
room should be ___feet high.
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48
Specifications of File Room
 Should be 12 feet high
 Interior cubage should not be more than
10,000 cubic feet
 Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet
long and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
182. What type of security lighting is focused
to the intruder while the guard remains in
the comparative darkness?
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
B. Emergency lighting D. Glare-
projection
Certificate document which is issued by
____________ authorizing a person to engage in
employing security guard or detective, or a
juridical person to establish, engage, direct,
manage or operate a private detective agency.
A. Secretary of DILG
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
D. President
186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire
fence is that the distances between strands
will not exceed _______and at least one wire
will be interlock vertical and midway between
posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6
inches
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established
between the perimeter barrier and structure
within the protected areas.
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet
or more
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet
or more
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier
and exterior structure. (Outside)
188. Which among the following statements is
FALSE?
A. Protective Lighting diminish
visibility so that intruders can be
seen, identified or apprehend.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for
guards to identify employees during
night time.
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological
fear, which serves as a deterrent.

Page 20 of 50
 D. Protective Lighting can reduce the A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary
number of stationary guards. Alarm
B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
189. The highest rank in security agency
organizational structure: 194. It is Lighting equipment which produced
diffused light rather than direction beam. They
A. Security Executive Director are widely used in parking areas
B. Chief Security Director A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
C. Security Staff Director B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights

D. Security Staff Director 195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses

Security Management Staff
 Security Director (SD)-Agency
Manager/Chief Security officer-
responsible for the entire operation and
administration/management of the
security agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) -
Assistant agency manager/Assistant
chief security officer- automatically the
security executive director, assists the
agency security director and takes
operational and administrative
management when the manager is absent.
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff
director for operation and
administration- He is also responsible for
the conduct of investigation and training.
shall cease to operate, and with ____ days
after having been duly notified of such cease
operation order, shall immediately deposit all
its firearms with the FEO.
A. 7 days C. 21 days
B. 3 days D. 30 days
196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the
sudden rise in temperature will not cause the
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening
then it has passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
Test for Fire Resistance

190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar  Fire Endurance Test- A safe should
resistance container usually a part of the not have any one time a temperature
building structure use to keep, and protect 350 0F.
cash, documents and valuables materials.  Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is
A. Vault C. Safe to determine the strength of a safe to
B. File Room D. None of resist the collapse of a building during
these fire.

197. Services of any security personnel shall

be terminated on the following grounds:

191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after 1. Expiration of contract;

his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his 2. Revocation of license to exercise
Firearm? profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving moral
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in turpitude;
the company’s Vault. 4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
B. Turnover to the next security 5. Physical and mental disability.
guard on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
responses. B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4,
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer and 5
of the guards table.

192. Any physical structure whether natural or 198. For every security guard the basic load of
man-made capable of restricting, deterring or their Firearm is-
delaying illegal or unauthorized access. A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds
A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited
B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier
 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm
193. A company owned protective alarm with
199. The following are the specifications of a
unit in a nearest police station of fire
Vault:
department.
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches
thick;
Page 21 of 50
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;  Patrol Components - include the air
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile
steel; and patrols and detective repressive
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. patrols.
 Auxiliary Components - include the
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, security guards deployed in area, the
III traffic enforcer, barangay tanods,
B. I, II, IV D. I, II, volunteers and NGO’s.
III, IV
204. Report prepared by the patrol officer
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any upon reaching the end of the line beat, and
activities to test its validity. before returning to the point of origin.
A. Practice C. Dry run A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation
B. Rehearsal D. Trial Report
B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
201. A fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty: Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
A. Post C. Beat
B. Area D. Route 205. The ideal police response time is:
A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
 Route - the length of street or streets, B. 7 minutes D. 10
designated for patrol purposes also minutes
referred to as line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or
purposes, whether foot or motorized. condition possessing a high potential for
 Sector - an area containing two or criminal attack or for the creation of problem
more beats, routes or posts. necessitating a demand for immediate police
 District - a geographical subdivision of service:
a city for patrol purposes, usually with A. Hazard C. Opportunity
its own station. B. Perception of Hazard D. Police
 Area - A section or territorial division of Hazard
a large city.
 Hazard – it refers to any person, place,
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or thing, situation, or condition which, if
distracter to in order to catch criminals is allowed to exist may induce an accident or
known as: cause the commission of a crime.
A. High visibility patrol
C. Target Oriented patrol 207. The most expensive patrol method and
B. Low visibility patrol gives the greatest opportunity to develop
D. Decoy patrol sources of information is:
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter
designed to increase the number of Patrol
apprehension of law violator to engage in
certain types of crimes 208. Walking closed to the building at night is
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen
Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is less visible during the night. The primary
Crime Prevention. purpose is:

 Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol A. To surprise criminals in the act of

strategy which is directed towards committing a crime
specific persons or places. B. To have sufficient cover
C. To attract less attention
203. Barangay Tanod is included in what D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
component of Integrated Patrol System?
209. The following are included in the cause
A. Fixed Component and effect of team policing.
B. Auxiliary Component
C. Secondary Component a. Reduce public fear on crime;
D. Patrol Component b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
 Fixed Components - include the d. Diminish police morale; and
different police station headquarters, e. Improve police community relation.
PCP, police visibility points, and traffic
post. A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e

Page 22 of 50

210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
officers perform specific predetermined
preventive functions on a planned systematic
basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
area can be best penetrated by the police
through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter
patrol
212. Integrated patrol system is the total
system used to accomplish the police visibility
program of the PNP. The Police officers in
Police Community Precincts render 24 hours
duty with prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every
other day shift.
213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or
totally prevent the desire of human being to
commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol
personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in
patrolling wherein officers and units drive
around their area of responsibility
waiting for something to happen or
waiting for a call that they will respond.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined
advantage of ________________ since they can
be operated very quietly and without
attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater area
covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster
response.
D. Mobility and stealth
215. What is the most excellent method of
Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
216. When was the first automobile patrol
initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief
of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police
Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking
suspicious persons, places, buildings/
establishments and vehicles especially during
night-time, be prepared to use your service
firearm and Flashlight should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy
searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to
avoid making you a possible target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to
threaten possible adversary.
D. None of these
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer
when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C.
Securing the area
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
219. The following are the duties of Patrol
Supervisors:
Make a patrol plan;
Designate and select the members of the
patrol team/s;
Inspect the members of the patrol on the
completeness;
Render hourly report of location and
situation; and
Resolve conflicts/differences between
neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be
fired upon, except when its occupants pose
imminent danger of causing death or injury to
the police officer or any other person, and that
the use of firearm does not create a danger to
the public and outweighs the likely benefits of
its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle,
the following parameters should be considered
EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm in certainty the police officer or
other persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
Page 23 of 50
 221. When Patrol officer visually observe a such as business and shopping center,
weapon during pat-down search, a more family dwellings and the like.
secure search position may be: o Line beat patrol – it is used in
securing certain portion of the road.
A. Standing position o Random foot Patrol – It is used in
B. Lying Face down Position checking residential buildings,
C. Hands placed against a stationary business establishments, dark alley,
object, and feet spread apart. and parking lots.
D. All of these
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
222. All except one are the types of A. Arrest of alleged criminals
specialized patrol method: B. Responding to emergency calls
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol C. Inspection services
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot D. Preparation of investigation reports
Patrol
229. This type of patrol maintains better
223. A uniformed patrol officers work in personal contact with the members of the
generally judged by his- community ideal in gaining the trust and
confidence of the people to the police:
i. Knowledge of all problems in the A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle
community Patrol
ii. Residents developed good public relations B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot
iii. Ability Patrol
iv. His capability to solve crimes that
happened in his area  Automobile Patrol - It separates
public from the Police.
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
assemblies? 230. The patrol pattern which is usually done
A. True C. False at the last hour of duty to ascertain that
B. Absolutely Yes D. nothing happened in the area of
Absolutely No responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is B. Zigzag pattern
needed in the police department? C. Counter clockwise pattern

A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds D. Crisscross pattern

B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
 Radio waves- The radio or
electromagnetic waves travel as fast as
the speed of light at 186, 000 miles per
second or 300, 000 kilometers per second.
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short
distances transmission.
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be eliminated
 Clockwise Patrol Pattern -
Rectangular/square size of beat; done in
the start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern -
Done by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but
with definite target location where he
knows his presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol
Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest
to observe the movement of the patrol
officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway
intersection designed to route traffic
without interference, by means of a
system of curving ramps from one level to
another, in the form of a Four (4) leaf
clover

227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance, 231. The following are the advantages of Foot
parades and special events. Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot A. It involves larger number of personnel
Patrol B. It develops greater contact with the public
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat C. It insures familiarization of area
Patrol D. It promotes easier detection of crime

 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when 232. Dogs are of great assistance in search
then there is considerable foot movement and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs

Page 24 of 50
and bombs. What do you call the large dog  Considered as the best way of
with drooping ears and sagging jaws and immersing policemen in various
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used activities of a particular area and to
for tracking purposes? demonstrate to the populace the
A. German shepherd C. commitment of the Police to serve and
Bloodhounds protect the community.
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES  It is response to the requirement of
Police Visibility.
 German Shepherd- the most frequently
used and high scoring dog for police Detective Beat System - enhancing the
work efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and investigation capability
Video Exploration System) – It is the
system of attaching miniature camera 239. Which among the following routine patrol
and transmitter to a search dog which duties, is the least likely to become completely
makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his a function of automobile patrol is the checking
handler. of-
A. Security of business establishment.
233. The best method of patrol to be done in B. Street light outrages.
sector is: C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
A. Foot C. Automobile D. Illegal posting of signs and other
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter advertisement.

234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually 240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post
computed in terms of number of: for patrolmen in areas where police hazards
A. Superiors to whom he reports are serious is that, it usually-
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders A. Encourages laxness on the part of
C. Subordinates directly reporting to Patrolman.
him B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted
D. Any of these charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
officer from becoming _______ with people, mobilization is needed.
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish 241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar belief in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
236. The patrol pattern to be followed after B. Existence of an opportunity to
the clockwise and before the counter- effectively violate the law.
clockwise? C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
A. Straightway C. Crisscross D. Police bureau’s willingness to use
B. Sector D. Zigzag specialized squads.

237. The two-man patrol became_________ due 242. Team Policing is said to be originated
to increase attack of police officer by militant, in________:
dangerous section to be patrolled and many A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
riots demonstration in the street. B. Vienna, Austria D. London,
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary England
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
243. They are considered as the first to utilize
dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians C. English
B. Chinese D.
238. A police strategy which aims to directly American
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police 244. Psychology of Omniprescense
officers. means______.
A. Integrated Police System A. Low Visibility C. High
C. Detective Beat System Visibility
B. Comparative Police System B . Reactive D. Proactive
D. Community Oriented Policing
System 245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping
in a 13th floor building. Which of the following
Integrated Patrol System should be the first thing to do by the Patrol
officer who first arrived at the scene?
Page 25 of 50
 A. Urge no to jump B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the
B. Call nearest relative suspect.
C. Clear the area C. No further search may be made.
D. Report immediately to Station
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the supervisor.
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
methods? 252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be
A. Low cost C. Visibility utilized when demonstrators become unruly
B. Speed D. Security and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to
their secondary positions?
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol A. Tear Gas C. Water
officers are different from ordinary Police Cannon
Officer. B. Truncheon D. Shield
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes
of Police Organization.  Tear gas - may be utilized to break up
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in formations or groupings of
determining the quality of justice to be served demonstrations who continue to be
in a community. aggressive and refused to disperse
4th Statement- All police function had been despite earlier efforts.
vested to the patrol division.
253. The factors to be considered in
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct determining the number of patrol officers to
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are be deployed in an area are the following:
correct a. Size of the area;
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect. b. Topography;
D. All statements are correct c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most
effectively implemented by police activity A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
which- B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
A. Provides for many types of specialized
patrol, with less emphasis on routine. 254. The patrol strategy which is best on
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker populous areas such as markets, malls, and
aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences ports is:
favorable individual and group attitudes in A. Blending patrol C.
routine daily associations with the Reactive patrol
police. B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s patrol
expectation of apprehension.
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching
249. What is the new concept, police strategy every intersection until reaching the point of
which integrates the police and community origin is following what pattern?
interests into a working relationship so as to A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
produce the desired organizational objectives B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community 256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle
Relation Patrol:
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing A. Can report regularly to the command
center.
250. What is the appropriate patrol method B. Can operate quietly and without
that is most ideally suited to evacuation and attracting attention.
search-and-rescue operations? C. C. It is inexpensive to operate .
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse D. It can cover areas that are not
accessible by patrol cars.
 Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment
by the Patrol Officers 257. The following are advantages of the use
of Radio in Police Work:
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon I. Simple Installation Process;
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is: II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone
down;
A. Conduct a complete search. III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;

Page 26 of 50
IV. Availability of safeguards in the 264. The least desirable of all police shifts due
transmission of classified operational to lack of activities:
information. A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
B. Night Shift D. None of these
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV 265. Time between the call of the Police to
arrival at the scene of an incident:
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing A. Response Time C. Call Time
after patrol is- B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
A. To integrate the police and the community
interest into a working relationship.B. To  Response time - It refers to the running
remind the patrol on the strict observance of time of the dispatched patrol car from his
the PNP Operational Procedures. position where the assignment was
C. To assess its conduct and make received and the arrival at the scene.
necessary corrective measures on
defects noted. 266. The percentage of police officers
D. All of the Above assigned in patrol is:
A. 20% C. 40%
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall B. 25% D. 50%
form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start  Criminal Investigation – 15%
of their shift for accounting-  Traffic Function – 10%
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour  Vice and Juvenile Related Functions –
B. 30 minutes D. 15 10%
minutes  Administrative Function – 10%
 Auxilliary Functions – 5%

267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting

of armed and dangerous person or persons,
aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the
260. The police must make an effort to
power to use all necessary and legal means to
ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding
accomplish such end.
citizens and would be criminals alike that the
police are always existing to respond to any A. Dragnet Operation
situation at a moment’s notice and he will just B. Hasty Checkpoint
around the corner at all times. This statement C. High-Risk Arrest
refers to:
D. High Risk Stop
A. Police Omnipresence
 Dragnet Operation - is a police
operation purposely to seal-off the
B. Police Patrol probable exit points of fleeing suspects
C. Police Discretion from the crime scene to prevent their
D. Integrated Patrol escape.
 High Risk Arrest - is the actual
261. A patrol beat refers to a:
restraint of armed persons following a
A. Number of crimes to be solved high-risk stop.
B. Location of police headquarters  Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate
C. Number of residence to be protected response to block the escape of lawless
elements from a crime scene, and is
D. Geographical area to be protected
also established when nearby
262. Team members of the decoy may dress checkpoints are ignored or during hot
themselves in a manner designed to help pursuit operations.
them blend the neighborhood where they are
268. Which among the following activities
deployed.
during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely
not included?
True
B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No A. Formation & Accounting
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the C. Debriefing/Report Submission
advantage of: D. Briefing
A. One Man Patrol Car 269. It refers to a computer that is installed
B. Two Man Patrol Car inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer
C. Foot Patrol to have an access from the Headquarters files
D. Canine Patrol

Page 27 of 50
and other Law Enforcement Agencies which
are used in order to expedite their operation.
A. Mobile Data Terminal
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
D. CCTV
 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a
Video Camera which is attached and
installed in a patrol car with a high-
resolution and wide angle lens.
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting
Plan – It refers to a heavy duty light that
can provide two (2) million candle power
of light.
270. The first organized patrol for policing
purposes was formed in London. This patrol
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty
to ascertain that nothing happened in the area
of responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross
B. Clockwise D. Counter
clockwise
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the
outer garments of an individual for weapons
only.
A. Frisking C. Search
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down
Search
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. No one should have more than one
boss.
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
effectively supervise.
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates.
276. Which among the following Patrol Method
is appropriate when responding to quick
emergency call?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C.
Automobile Patrol
B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
277. The following are the advantages of
Regular post.
I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly
familiar with the various post
conditions;
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and
interest in improving the conditions
on his post resulting in better public
relations and cooperation from the
residents;
III. Favoritism will be lessened because
of transitory assignments; and
IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced,
since a steady post is an indication
of public acceptance of his work.

 Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief A. I, II and III C. I, II, and

stopping of an individual, whether on foot IV
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose IV
of determining the individual’s identity and
resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning 278. Detective Beat System is one of the
criminal activity. concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing
the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within Chief who introduces this DBS?
the perimeter of the beat not at random but A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo
with definite target location where he knows Pena
his presence is necessary. B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag Sarmiento
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
 Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; Patrol in Manila.
the following are the advantages of Foot
patrol, EXCEPT: 279. The type of Patrol which requires special
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for skills and training:
action taken. A. TV C. Air
B. It enables patrol officers to cover a B. Automobile D. Foot
considerable area
C. Inspire more Public confidence. 280. Traditional foot patrolling in the
D. The officer can actually get to know the Philippines was initiated on:
physical layout of his beat better. A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7,
1901
274. The word Patrol was derived from the B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17,
French word ________which means to go 1901
through paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul
B. Politeia D. Politia 281. In police communication, 10-74 means:

Page 28 of 50
 A. Negative C. Need offense while fleeing from one police
Assistance jurisdictional boundary.
B. Caution D. Unable to  Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or
copy projected spot where the armed and
dangerous person or persons would pass
Some APCO TEN SIGNALS or likely to pass and so tactically located
as to gain calculated advantage against
 10 – 0 Caution said person or persons.
 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
 10 – 50 Accident 287. The advisable cruising speed in
 10 – 70 Fire Alarm automobile patrol ranges from:
 10 – 78 Need Assistance A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph

282. This patrol tactic would result to

improvement of police omnipresence:
288. It is the primary objective of police patrol
A. Target Oriented Patrol operations:

B. High-Visibility Patrol A. Crime Prevention

C. Low-Visibility Patrol B. Preservation of Peace and Order
D. Directed deterrent Patrol C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
283. Police Community Precincts are
mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of  Preservation of peace and order - It
_______ with a minimum of 30 personnel is the fundamental obligation of the
including the commander divided into 3 shifts. Police and it is the most important
function performed by the patrol
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent service
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt. 289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
D. C/Insp. To Supt. patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how Patrol
many times more sensitive than human’s B. Preventive Patrol D.
sense of smell? Proactive Patrol
A. One thousand times C. One hundred
times 290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten crime incident faster but undetected, then the
million times best patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to patrol
another through common medium and B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
channel.
A. Information C. 291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to
Communication the act of a person that enables another to
B. Police Communication D. Radio victimize him:
A. Instrumentality C.
286. Refers to a location where the search, Opportunity
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is B. Motive D. Capability
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other  Motive - It is the basis why the people
legitimate purposes. will commit crime or it is what induces the
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place people to act.
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-  Instrumentality - it is the means used in
Determined Area executing the crime
 Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional 292. The factors to be considered in
Pursuit) - (also termed in the US as fresh determining the number of patrol officers to
pursuit) immediate, recent chase or be deployed in an area are the following,
follow-up without material interval for the except:
purpose of taking into custody any person A. Size of the area
wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one B. Topography
suspected to have committed a recent C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them

Page 29 of 50

293. The patrol strategy which brings the
police and the people together in a
cooperative manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive
patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that
police officers should conduct overt police
operations in order to discourage people from
committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force organization
which states that patrol officers should be
under the command of only one man refers
to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
 Span of Control - refers to the
number of officers or subordinates that
a Superior supervises without regard to
the effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the
assignment of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates while at
the same time giving them the power
or right to control, command, make
decisions, or otherwise act in
performing the delegated
responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the
arrangement of officers from top to
bottom on the basis of rank or position
and authority
 Command Responsibility - dictates
that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective
supervision and control of their
personnel and unit.
296. The elimination of the opportunity of
people to commit crime as a result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate
when mobility is needed in small alleys?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
Page 30 of 50
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the
primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the
community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
299. The following are benevolent services
performed by the Patrol officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for
police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
301. What law provides for the creation of the
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine
Constabulary be one of the four services of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines,
enacted on December 23, 1940
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and
municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units
assigned within their locality; issued on
July 10, 1985
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative
control and supervision of the INP from the
Ministry of National Defense to the
National Police Commission
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art
and science of codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person
who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible
forms by use of codes and cipher.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot
war situation.
A. Guerilla C.
Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent
  Espionage Agent- Agent who
clandestinely procure or collect
information.
 Propagandist- Agents who molds the
attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
 Saboteur- Agents who undertakes
positive actions against an unfriendly
power, resulting in the loss of use
temporarily or permanently of an article
or others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to
provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine
operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an
opponent to act to his own detriment
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the
background that will correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual
 Multiple- Includes different cover
 Natural- Actual or True Background.
305. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his
information report any time since it is to
processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected
by clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in
a medium size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect
intelligence information by initiating
good public relations.
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is
strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
commander’s discretion since it tends to
collect intelligence information.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
307. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B. No D. Maybe No
308. In selection and recruitment of informers
the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B. Educational AttainmentD. Body built
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping
in our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA
4200
B. RA 7610
D. CA 616
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
 CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and
other Offenses against National
Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children Against Abuse, Exploitation
and Discrimination Act
310. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify
matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of____
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. 4
years
 Final Clearance – 5 years
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence
report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation
rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true
information
B. Unreliable source – probably true
information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true
information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
312. It is a process or method of obtaining
information from a captured enemy who is
reluctant to divulge information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B. Elicitation D. Tactical
Interrogation
 Elicitation - The process of extracting
information from a person believes to be in
possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool
to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting
information thru interception of telephone
conversation.
313. The term of office of the members of the
PLEB is _______
A. 6 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
314. He directs the organization in conducting
the clandestine activity.
A. Target C. Sponsor
Page 31 of 50
 B. Agent D. Support Agent
 Target- Person, place or things against
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and
Support Agents.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject
who follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subjct D.
Surveillant
 Decoy- A person or object used by the
subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make the
observation.
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It
can be a person, place, property, and
vehicle, group of people, organization or
object.
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting
information who leaks false information to the
enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable
Agent
B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration
Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of
Information
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses
authority to gain information
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive
target
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have
reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back
without being caught.
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who
has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT)
– refers to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
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 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) –
refers to the knowledge essential to ensure
the protection of lives and properties
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting
from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available
information. What is considered as the core of
intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B. Mission D. Planning
319. He is regarded as the "Father of
Organized Military Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great
B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister
D. Arthur Wellesley
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the
"Greatest Military Spymaster at All
Time".
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as
"Napoleon's Eye". He was credited for
establishing counter intelligence
conducted against spies.
 Alexander the great - He was able to
identify those disloyal ones by ordering
the communication letters opened and
was successful in curtailing the decline
of esprit de corps and morale of his
men.
320. There are four categories of classified
matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
restricted. To distinguish one against the
other, their folder consists of different colors.
What will be the color of the document which
requires the highest degree of protection?
A. Red C. Black
B. Blue D. Green
 Secret (RED)
 Confidential (BLUE)
 Restricted (BLACK)
321. What verse of the Holy Bible that
includes the biblical indication of the
beginning of Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 C. Number
3:17
B. Number 17:13 D. Number
17:3
322. A certain locality is identified to be a
major source of illicit drugs, to resolve this
issue intelligence officer was deployed to live
in the area for a considerable amount of time
to find out the authenticity of such reports.
A. Social assignments
B. Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments
D. Residential assignments
 Work Assignment – getting employed
where the investigator can observe the
 activities of the subject at his place of REMINDER: You should LEARN
work. BY HEART this Evaluation Guide
 Social Assignments – Frequent places of
entertainment and amusement habitually 325. It is a form of investigation in which the
being visited by the subject. operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
 Personal Contact Assignment – the information
investigator required to develop the A. Overt operation C. Undercover
friendship and trust of the subject. assignment
 Multiple Assignment – The investigator B. Covert operation D. clandestine
is tasked to cover two (2) or more of the operation
above specific assignments
simultaneously, it can produce extensive 326. What is evaluation of the intelligence
information with minimum expenses but report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto
more prone to compromise. which is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true
information?
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which A. D C. C-4
deals with defending the organization against B. C-5 D. D-5
its criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter- 327. The following must be observed during
Intelligence surveillance:
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
Intelligence b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
the intelligence information which e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
directly contributes to the
accomplishment of specific objectives A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
and immediate in nature. B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
 Strategic Intelligence - This is
intelligence information which is not 328. In surveillance, the following are done to
immediate operational but rather long alter the appearance of the surveillance
range. vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance
324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence vehicle
report which is “usually from a reliable source B. Putting on and removing hats, coats
and improbable information”? and sunglasses
A. C-5 C. B-5 C. Change of seating arrangement within the
B. B-3 D. C-3 surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED
INFORMATION 329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of
waiting for the anticipated arrival of the
Accuracy of
suspect who is either wanted for
Reliability of Information Source of the Information
investigation or who is expected to
Informati CODE: CPPDIT
commit a crime at a certain location.
on
A. Stake out C. Rough
CODE: CUFNUR
Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By T – Direct Observation by a

Other Sources commander or Unit

 Surveillance – is the covert,
discreet observation of people and
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or
places for the purpose of obtaining
resident agent information concerning the identities
or activities of subjects.
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or
 Moving Surveillance or
PNP personnel in operation Shadowing or tailing – simply the
act of following a person.
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured
 Rough Shadowing – employed
enemy or agent without special precautions, the
subject maybe aware of the
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a government surveillance; employed also when
or civilian employee or official the subject is a material witness and
must be protected from harm or
F – Reliability Cannot Be 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member of other undesirable influences.
Judged Judged populace

Z - Documentary Page 33 of 50
330. In the Intelligence function, the black list
includes ________ forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
331. They are responsible for foreign
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post
office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5)
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication
Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
UK Intelligence Agency
•Security Service (MI-5 or Military
Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter-
Intelligence and Security agency also
responsible for internal Security of United
Kingdom.
• Government Communications
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
information assurance to the UK government
and armed forces.
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a
collector of intelligence through its Intelligence
Collection Group (ICG)
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied
the use of propaganda and censorship as well
as utilizing statistical intelligence accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C.
Wilhem Steiber
B. AKBAR D. Delilah
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the
right place is worth 20,000 men in the
field". He organized two Bureau of
Interest.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise
master of Hindustan employed more than
4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was
able to gain information by using her
beauty and charm.
333. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
 Covert Operation – Information are
procured clandestinely
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334. Investigation of the records and files of
agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
 National Agency Check- It consists of
LAC supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other
agency.
 Background Investigation – a check
made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subjects records in
the police files, educational institutions,
place of residence, and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it
is a type of BI which is more
comprehensive, that consist of detailed
information regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration,
and interpretation of all available information
regarding the activities of criminals and other
law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling
plan to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated
product of intelligence developed by all
government departments concerning the
broad aspect of national policy and
national security.
 Department of Intelligence – the
intelligence required by department or
agencies of the government to execute its
mission and discharge its responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the
knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution
of military plans, policies and programs.
336. It is considered as the most secured
method of disseminating the information to
the user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all
analyzed data to form a logical picture or
theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
 Recording – is the reduction of
information into writing or some other
form of graphical representation and
the arranging of this information into
groups related items.
  Evaluation – is the determination of
the pertinence of the information to the
operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the
information.
 Analysis- This is the stage in which
the collected information is subjected
to review in order to satisfy significant
facts and derive conclusion there from.
 Interpretation- Process of
determining the significance of new
information in the possible alternatives.
338. It refers to the person who conducts the
clandestine Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D.
Principal Agent
 Principal Agent- Leader or
management Agent in clandestine
operation usually undertaken by the
case officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is
engaged in activities which supports
the clandestine operations and or the
action agent in his operations
339. It is claimed that 99% of information is
obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of
information is obtained from clandestine
sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible
D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from
completely reliable sources and Improbable
true.
B. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly
Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance
Detection, EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings and
concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window
Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher category
of document or information according to the
degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B. Upgrading
D. Declassify
 Classify – Assigning of Information or
material to one of the four security
classification after determining that
such information requires security as
prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing the
assigned classification of a document
or material.
 Declassify – The removal of the
security classification from classified
document or material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of
access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified
information is required in the
performance of their official duties, and
restricting it to specific physical
confines when feasible.
345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
to determine if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C.
Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed
area where police undercover men meet for
debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
 Log – chronological records of activities
that took place in the establishment under
surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents
or informants leave their messages to the
other Agents.
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or
LAC, which includes some or all of the
circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is
encouraged. The statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was
established to research, create and manage
technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support
D. Directorate of Science and
Technology
 National clandestine Service
(Formerly known as Directorate of
Operations)- responsible for collecting
intelligence mainly from clandestine
sources and covert action.
Page 35 of 50
  Directorate of Intelligence (DI)-
Responsible for providing timely and
accurate all source of intelligence
analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides
everything that the CIA needs to
accomplish its mission.
351. The persons listed in________ are allowed
to enter a certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C.
Black List
B. Blue Print D.
Silver list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or
damage of equipment, a public service, as by
enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C.
Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None of
these
 Subversion - acts designed to
destabilize or overthrow the authority of
a ruling power.
 Espionage - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that the
source of such information wishes to
protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the
surveillance Operation center, the stationary
surveillance must _________ before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and
psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with
Domestic and Foreign affairs and relation
of government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the
extent and utilization of Natural and
Human resources to the industrial
potential of the Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with
individual personalities who have actual
possession of power
 Geographical Intelligence – deals with
the natural as well as manmade features
of the physical environment of man
considered from the point in view of
military operations
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the
progress of the research and
Page 36 of 50
development as it affects the economic
and military potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of
intelligence deemed to be the most
important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures
B. Intelligence and operation are
interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to
determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
A. Casing C.
Loose Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a
general impression of the subject’s
habits and associates is required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance
is necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means
that –
A. Termination of Surveillance
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of
informant.
A. Women C. Double
Crosser
B. False D. Anonymous
 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown
informants
 False Informant- reveals information
of no consequences, value or stuff
connected within thin air.
 Frightened Informants- weakest link
in criminal chain, motivated by anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the
center of criminals delight in surprising
the police about bits of information.
 Mercenary- Information for sale
needed something for exchange of
information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get
more information from the police more
than he gives.
 Legitimate- operators of business
desire to give information for legitimate
reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded message
into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify
  Coding-It is the changing of message
from plain clear text to unintelligible
form also known as “Encrypting”.
360. After the planning on how intelligence is
to be collected, the intelligence officer must
have thorough knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the
information will be gathered
B. Where they will be collecting the
information
C. Available sources of information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of
intelligence
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to
the street of Rome to gather first hand
information, he is considered as the greatest
military strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
364. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C.
Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert
Operation
365. Which of the following is the most
common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B. Revenge D. As a good
citizen
366. A method of collecting information thru
interception of telephone conversation.
A. Bugging C. Wire
Tapping
B. Code name D. NONE
367. Is the condition, situation, and
circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat
by the police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
B. Vulnerabilities D.
Evaluation
368. It is the general statement describing the
current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and
responsibilities of the organization
A. Area of operation
B. Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
D. the mission
369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
information concerning organized crime and
other major police problems.
A. Military Intelligence C. Military
Information
B. Police Intelligence D. Police
Investigation
370. The term appropriate for someone who
gives information in exchange for a reward is:
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential
Informant
 Informants- Any person who hand over
information to the agents which is
relevant to the subject. The informant
may openly give the information
clandestinely and choose to remain
anonymous.
371 Developing security consciousness among
policemen forms part of enhancing _______.
A. Line intelligence C. strategic
intelligence
B. counter intelligence D. artificial
intelligence
372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains
money when needed for operational use.
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house
Keeper
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons
and places of operations of interest.
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who
manages and maintains a safe house for
clandestine operations like meetings, safe
heavens, training, briefing, and
debriefing.
 Communication Agent- Agent who is
detailed as securing of clandestine
communications.
Page 37 of 50
373. What is the evaluation rating of C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and
Unreliable and Possibly true? Escape Routes
A. C-2 C. E-2 D. Operational Technical Requirements
B. E-3 D. C-3

374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity 386. Which of the following statement is
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of FALSE?
hostile foreign activities and the protection of A. Classified information must not be
information against espionage, subversion and discussed with friends and members of
sabotage. the family.
A. Passive Intelligence B. Classified information should be
B. Counter Intelligence known only by one person.
C. Line Intelligence C. Cabinets with classified documents
D. Demographic Intelligence must be secured with padlocks and
security measures at all times.
379 All except one are interrelated to one D. All classified documents must be
another. safeguarded.
A. Fixed Surveillance
B. Stakeout Surveillance 387. It refers to the person who conducts the
C. Stationary Surveillance surveillance.
D. Active Surveillance A. Surveillant C.
Subject
380. The agent will gain access to the subject B. Interrogator D. Interviewee
by going to the different hang out places of
the subject.  Interrogator- person who conduct
A. Social Assignment Interrogation
B. Residential Assignment
388. The following are objectives of Casing
C. Work Assignment
D. None of these EXCEPT:
A. Security of an Agent
381. A person who informs solely for the B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation
of Search
pecuniary or other material gain he is to
receive. C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
D. Verification
A. Gratitude C. Repentance
B. Remuneration D.
389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
Vanity
to determine if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C.
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency
is led by a- Correct
B. Probably true D. Accurate
A. Director C. General
B. President D.
390. It refers to those measures, which seek
Director-General
actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
information or engage in espionage,
383. Integrated product of intelligence
developed by all government departments subversion, and sabotage.
A. Counter Intelligence
concerning the broad aspect of national policy
and national Security. B. Passive Counter Intelligence
C. Active Counter Intelligence
A. National Intelligence
B. Departmental Intelligence D. Intelligence
C. International Intelligence  Passive CI Measures – protection of
D. Social Intelligence
classified and sensitive information to the
unauthorized through secrecy,
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means:
communication security, and other various
A. Actual Surveillance safeguards.
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of
Significant Observation 391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in
C. Preparation of reports and its submission conducting stationary surveillance.
D. Observe time A. Preparation
B. Financial Requirement
385. Factors to be considered in choosing a C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and
“Safe House” EXCEPT: Security
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability D. Coverage of Operation
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and
location of Police Outpost 392. Undercover operation is also known as;
A. Roping C. Bait

Page 38 of 50
 B. Clandestine D. Loose 402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer
in a UN integral mission.
393. It is defined as an art and science of A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa
codes and ciphers. I. Mitra
A. Cryptography C. B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
Cryptanalysis D. None of these
B. Decipher D. Coding
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-
394. The protection resulting from the Commissioned officer in a UN integral
application of various measures which prevent Mission
or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in  P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First
gaining information through communication. Commissioned officer in UN Integral
A. Communication Security Mission
B. Physical Security
C. Document Security 403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have
D. Internal Security limited jurisdiction on _______:
A. USA C. New York
397. It is a certification by a responsible B. None of these D. Los
authority that the person described is cleared Angeles
to access and classify matters at appropriate
levels. 405. In the etymology of the word police the
A. Security Clearance ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person
B. Document Clearance who_____?
C. Interim Clearance A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
D. Nome of these B. Guarding a City D.
Citizenship
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual
or eminent threat to the life, limb, or right of 406. During the middle ages, there were two
the person claiming self-defense. guard officer of the kingdom of France with
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful police responsibilities those are the Marshal of
Aggression France and ________:
B. Just Cause D. None of these A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal
Guard
399. The police officer may stop an individual B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
for the purpose of conducting a spot
check/accosting only when- 408. The typical number of Detectives roughly
A. Probable Cause Exist ________ of police service personnel:
B . Notion to commit crime A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
C. Rational Grounds B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
D. Reasonable Suspicion
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over
399. X evaluates the information as usually federal crimes or those with an interstate
reliable and probably true. components. The statement is:
A. C-4 C. B-3 A. Correct C. Partially
B. B-2 D. C-5 Correct
B. False D. partly False
400. Mossad is the National Intelligence
agency of _____________. 410. This pertains to all those forms of policing
A. Russia C. Philippines that, in some sense transgress national
B. Israel D. Pakistan borders:
A. International Policing
 Russia - Federal Security Service of B. Global Policing
Russian Federation C. National Policing
 Philippines- National Intelligence D. Transnational Policing
Coordinating Agency
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence 411. In US, he introduced police reforms to
include educational requirement for police
officer:
401. Law enforcement in China was carried A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir
out by _______ which developed in both chu Robert Peel
and jin kingdom of the Spring and Autumn B. August Volmer D. O.W.
period. Wilson
A. Watch man C. Prefect
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary  Robert Peel – Father of Modern
policing System

Page 39 of 50
  O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing  Director General – Philippine National
corruption and introduced Police
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas  Director – BJMP and BFP
and Chicago Police Department  Commissioner General - highest
position in Japan Police Organization
412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
A. Law and Order 420. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
B. Knowledge is Safety A. Omerta C. Morse
C. Serve and Protect B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
D. We serve with pride and Care
421. INTERPOL stands for:
413. Where do you can find the so called
Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review A. International Police
organization for police officer whose are B. International Organization of Police
changed of committing any form of C. International criminal Organization
misconduct: D. International Criminal Police
A. Northern Ireland C. England Organization
B. China D. Japan
422. The supreme governing body of the
414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank INTERPOL is the:
structured of police force is identical up to the A. Executive Assembly C. Major
rank of? Assembly
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector B. National Assembly D. General
B. Chief Superintendent D. Assembly
Inspector
423. The general Secretariat office of the
415. In USA, what state are among the first to INTERPOL is run by the:
hire women and minorities as police officer. A. Director General C. Supervisor
A. Massachusetts C. California B. Inspector General D. Secretary
B. New York D. General
Washington
425. The police rank in Japan that is called
416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the Keishi:
comparable rank to inspector or sub- A. Policeman C. Chief
lieutenant? Superintendent
A. Police Rank 4 B. Superintendent D. Senior
B. Police Supervisor Rank 4 Superintendent
C. Police Officer Rank 1
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1 426. It is the counterpart of Police Community
Precinct in Japan:
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is A. Keishi C. Koban
the lowest possible rank of its police B. Omerta D.
personnel? Keiban
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer
Rank 1 427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but
B. Investigator 1 D. Constable it is the highest position in Japan Police
Organization:
418. It is being acknowledge by Federal A. Commissioner Secretariat
Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the B. Commissioner
“Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set C. Chairman
up the foundation for the social stability of D. Commissioner General
Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as
one of the safety cities in the world. 428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed
A. Philippine National Police by a Commissioner General who is appointed
B. Hong Kong Police Force by:
C. Japan Police Department A. Japans Emperor
D. National Police Agency B. Prime Minister
C. National Public Safety Commission
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia D. Japan Commission
Police Force:
A. Commissioner General C. Director 429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police
General Force:
B. Commissioner D. Director A. Junsa C. Constable
B. Sergeant D.
Police Officer

Page 40 of 50
430. Irish Police are called:
A. Militsiya C.
Constable
B. Police Force D. Garda
Socha
431. The following are the language of
communication used by the Gen. Secretariat:
a. French;
b. Mandarin;
c. English;
d. Arabic; and
e. Spanish.
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
432. It States that the yardstick of police
proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
A. Home rule C. Continental
B. Old police service D. Modern police
service
433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K.
Noble
B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen
Scotland
Johann Schober - The first president of the
Interpol
435. Group of highly specialized armed men
who inflict fear and uses violence to
accomplish their objectives with a usual
international scope of activity.
A. Organized Crime
B. Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime
D. Terrorist
 Organized Crime - Group activities of
three or more persons, with
hierarchical links or personal
relationships, which permits their
leaders to earn profits or control
territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence,
intimidation or corruption, both in
furtherance of criminal activity and to
infiltrate the legitimate economy.
 Transnational Crime - a continuing
illegal activity of group of person which
is primarily concerned with the
generation of profits, irrespective of
national boundaries as a result of
globalization.
 Transnational Organized crime - is a
crime perpetuated by organized
criminal group which the aim of
committing one or more serious crimes
or offenses in order to obtain directly or
indirectly, a financial or other material
benefits committed through crossing of
borders or jurisdictions
436 Is the terrorist group which was founded
by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a
number of criminal organizations
around the world.
 Jihad - refers to the holy war by
members of the Islamic religion against
the Jews
438. It is the category of terrorist organization
which is aimed in achieving political autonomy
or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
B. Ethnocentric D. Political
 Ethnocentric - is the category of
terrorist organization which is aimed at
establishing a dominant or superior
race that will be looked upon by the
entire populace in the world.
 Revolutionary - is the category of
terrorist group which is dedicated to
overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or
social structure.
 Political - is the category of terrorist
group which aims in restructuring the
society.
 Nationalistic - those who commit acts
of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all
crimes committed via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
 ISP – stands for Internet Service
Provider. It provides internet service to
internet users.
 IP Address – series of numbers
assigned by an Internet Service
Provider to an internet user when it
connects to the Internet
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP
Address that changes every time the
internet user accesses his Internet
Service Provider. It is usually assigned
to dial-up or base speed broadband
service subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP
Address that is constant regardless of
the time or number of attempts the
internet user accesses the internet. It is
usually assigned to High-Speed Internet
Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person /
organization / entity / company which is
Page 41 of 50
 posted on the Internet for accessibility 444. Considered as the major concerns of the
worldwide. PCTC, EXCEPT:

440. It is the act of illegally accessing the A. Information Exchange

computer system or network of an individual,
group or business enterprise without the B. Strategic studies and capacity building
consent of the party’s system: C. Law enforcement coordination
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking D. none of these
B. Cracking D. Theft
445. A decree codifying the law on
 Hacking - is the act of illegally Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture,
accessing the computer Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of
system/network of an individual, group firearms, ammunitions or explosions
or business enterprise without the A. RA 9165 C. RA
consent or approval of the owner of the 9372
system. B. RA 8294 D. RA
 Cracking - is a higher form of hacking 8792
in which the unauthorized access
culminates with the process of
defeating the security system for the  RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act
purpose of acquiring money or  R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive
information and/or availing of free Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
services  RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 -
441. It refers to a Code written with the Illegal Possession of Firearms and
intention of replicating itself. Explosive
A. Trojan Horse  RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
C. Worm  RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video
B. Logic Bomb Voyeurism Act of 2009
D. Computer Virus  RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act
of 2009
 Worm spread itself to other computers  RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of
without needing to be transferred as 2010
part of a host.
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears 446. What is the highest rank of police officer
harmless until executed. Trojan horses in Japan?
do not insert their code into other A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI
computer files SO
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO
secretly inserted into a program that is
designed to execute if a particular 447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
program is satisfied. known to be the “Father of Texas”.
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon
442. It is a center created by Executive Order Knell
No. 62 to establish a shared database among B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
concerned agencies for information on 449. The following have summary dismissal
criminals, methodologies, arrests and powers over errant police members.
convictions on transnational crime a. District Director;
b. Chief of Police;
A. Philippine Center on Transnational c. Regional Director;
Crimes (PCTC) d. Chief, PNP;
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking e. PLEB; and
(NACAH) f. NAPOLCOM.
C. International Criminal Police
Organization (ICPO) A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f
D. Philippine National Police (PNP) B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f
443. An order strengthening the operational,
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She
administrative and information support system
was 29 years old then. What year will Amado
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
will retire?
exercise general supervision and control over
A. 2016 C. 2023
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
B. 2012 D. 2031
A. EO 100 C. EO 465
B. EO 465 D. EO 789
451. It refers to a kind of retirement where
PNP commissioned and non-commissioned

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officer may retire and be paid separation B. 6 years D. 2 years
benefits corresponding to a position two ranks
higher than his/her rank: 458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like
A. Retirement in the next higher grade Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when
B. Compulsory retirement the number of qualified applicants falls below
C. Early retirement program the minimum annual quota. Appointment
D. Optional Retirement status under a waiver program is ________.
A. Temporary C. Probationary
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an B. Permanent D. Regular
independence from the PNP. It has an
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP 459. No officer who has retired or is retirable
members. within _______ from his compulsory retirement
A. Internal Affairs Service age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
B. National Police Commission A. Three months C. Six months
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board B. One year D. Two
D. National Appellate Board years

453. In police operational planning the use of 460. __________ is given to any PNP member
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line who has exhibited act of conspicuous and
would be probable used for: gallantry at the risk of his life above and
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief beyond the call of duty.
Operation A. Meritorious Promotion
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of D. On-the-Spot Promotion
carrying the regulations of the Department of
State; this was armed and considered as the 461. Which among the following has no
mounted police. promotional authority over the members of
A. Carabineros De Seguridad the PNP?
Publica B. Guadrilleros A. Deputy Director General
C. Guardia Civil B. Director General
D. Metropolitan Police Force C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director
454. What is the appropriate training course
for POIII to SPOI? 462. The establishment of a formal structure
A. Officers Senior Executive Course of authority through which works and divisions
B. Officer Basic Course are arranged, defined and coordinated refers
C. Senior Leadership Course to:
D. Junior Leadership Course A. Planning C.
Organizing
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of B. Staffing D. Directing
deputation of local chief executives as
representative of the NAPOLCOM: 463. In regard to the police planning function,
I. Repeated unauthorized absences; it may be said that:
II. Abuse of authority; A. Planning is essentially order giving.
III. Habitual tardiness; B. Planning is essentially decision
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and making in advance of action.
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national C. Policemen must plan carefully than their
security. supervisors.
D. The higher the job in the organization, the
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I shorter the time-lag between planning
B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, and execution.
IV, V
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was
456. Planning for emergencies of a specific patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation,
nature at known locations. it was organized by R.A. 157. What law
A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific reorganized the NBI?
Plans A. R.A 9708 C. R.A
B. Tactical Plans D. 6040
Operational Plans B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A.
9262
457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can
get the lump sum of his retirement benefits for 465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
the period of the first _____. members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
A. 10 years C. 5 years
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personnel to any key position. The statement
is: Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of
A. Partly True C. Partly False Internal Discipline
B. Absolutely True D.
Absolutely False  Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING
FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
466. The following are the offenses for which a  Provincial Directors- NOT
member of the PNP may be charged EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
administratively:  Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING
I. Oppression; SIXTY (60) DAYS
II. Misconduct;
III. Neglect of Duty; 471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
IV. Violation of law; and members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
V. Incompetence. personnel to any key position. The statement
is-
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, A. YES C. NO
IV B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly
B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, False
IV, I, II
472. Who has the disciplinary authority in
467. The police function in which patrol citizen’s complaint when the penalty imposed
belong is: is not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
A. Line function C. Administrative A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of
function Police
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
function
 City/Municipality Mayors- not less
than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
468. The planning responsibility of the PNP
chief and other high ranking PNP officials is THIRTY (30) DAYS
 People’s Law Enforcement Board
known as:
A. Broad external policy planning (PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
B. Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning
473. The law that governs the Code of
D. Radical planning Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials and
employees of the Government – National or
469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed Local.
persons following a high-risk stop.
A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
Checkpoint
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High  RA 7160 – Local Government Code
Risk Stop  RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children against Abuse, Exploitation
and Discrimination
 Dragnet Operation - police operation
 RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP
intentionally to seal-off the probable Professionalization Act of 2004
exit points of fleeing suspects from the
crime scene to prevent their escape. 474. How vacancy filled up in the commission,
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate except through expirations of term?
response to block the escape of lawless A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term
elements from a crime scene, and is only with the capacity for regular
also established when nearby appointment for another full term.
checkpoints are ignored or during hot B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired
pursuit operations. term only without re appointment.
 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of C. It shall be filed up by another person with
armed and dangerous persons, aboard full term
a vehicle or on foot, including the D. None of these
power to use all necessary and legal
means to accomplish such end.

470. Maximum period wherein a police officer 475. Under the police reform and
may be suspended from service by the Chief
reorganization law, a Field training Program for
PNP: all PNP uniformed members is required for
A. 180 days C. 60 days
permanency of their appointment consisting of
B. 90 days D. 30 12 months. Basic areas of actual experience
days
and assignment during this period shall be on:

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A. Patrol, traffic and investigation 483. The shift that receives most of the call of
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence the public which are directly related to police
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary function, it is considered as the busiest among
services them all.
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence A. Afternoon shift C.
Day shift
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the B. Midnight shifts D. Night
following are the factors considered in Shift
promotion:
a. Educational Attainment;  Night Shift – Least Desirable shift
b. Personality traits;
c. Potential; 484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted
d. Service reputation; and person with a view to extradition.
e. Physical Fitness. A. Blue Notice
C. Red Notice
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a B. Black Notice
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e D. Purple Notice

477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is Types of Notice by INTERPOL

due to be promoted. Who has the authority to  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing
promote him to his next rank? persons, often minors, or to help
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC identify persons who are unable to
B. Secretary, DILG D. President identify themselves.
 Blue Notice- To locate, identify or
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December obtain information on a person of
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine interest in a criminal investigation.
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified  Black Notice- To seek information on
to join the PNP? unidentified bodies.
A. Yes C. Wholly True  Green Notice- To warn about a
B. No D. Wholly False person's criminal activities if that
person is considered to be a possible
479. In times of war or other national threat to public safety.
emergency declared by the Congress the  Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a
President may extend such term of office from person, an object or a process
__________________depending on the gravity of representing an imminent threat and
the situation. danger to persons or property.
A. Six months to one year  Purple Notice- To provide information
B. One year to two years on modi operandi, objects, devices and
C. One to six months concealment methods used by
D. Five months to one year criminals.

480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, 484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After formally organized modern police force in the
five years from promotion, what would be his world?
monthly base pay after adding his longevity A. Interpol C. Scotland
pay? Yard
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, B. New York Police District D. Texas
970.00 rangers
B. 24, 870.00 D. 31,
549.00 485. The following are the law enforcement
principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can Policing System, except:
carry out the purpose or goal of the police A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of
station then the plan is considered_______. the police
A. Feasible C. Acceptable B. The police must have full respect of the
B. Suitable D. Adaptable citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed the police
by a police officer with the rank of __________ D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by
and a designation as Inspector-General. final judgment
A. Deputy Director General C. E. None of the above
General
B. Director D. 487. The period of time elapsed since the oath
C/Superintendent of office was administered is termed
A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
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 B. On duty D. Length of b. Report occurrences and conditions which
service relate to crime, public peace, order and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings,
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or prevent disorders and disperse unlawful
modify personnel disciplinary actions involving assemblies;
demotion or dismissal from the service d. Assist personnel of responsible
imposed upon members of the PNP by the agencies/unit in facilitating the flow of traffic
Chief PNP through the: at busy intersections/roads within his Area of
A.PLEB C. RAB Responsibility (AOR) and;
B. NAB D. C/PNP e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in
various places of business establishments and
489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be other installation and remove hazards to
granted after: public safety.
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. 1 year D. 18 months A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b
B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
490. Breach of internal discipline committed
497. Which among the following is not
by any member of the PNP shall be brought to
included in a Patrol Plan?
the office of the Chief of Police or equivalent
A. Organization Detail of Personnel
supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the
C. Stand-by points
period of:
B. Spot Report
A. Not exceeding 15 days
D. Area Coverage
B. Not exceeding 60 days
C. Not exceeding 30 days
D. Dismissal 498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly
included in what terrorist group?
491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed A. MILF C. MNLF
immediately from the service after due notice B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
and summary hearings if it was proven that he
went on AWOL for a continuous period of: 499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days A. Japan C. Malaysia
or more B. Korea D. Thailand
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or
more 500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally
means-
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
an integrated community public safety plan B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
pursuant to:
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903  Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551 Congregation
 Al Qaeda – The Base
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the  Hezbollah – Party of God
system known as:  Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew commander of Al Qaeda
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of
the peace 501. PNP in-service training programs are
under the responsibility of the;
494. Which of the following is a characteristic A. PNP Directorate for Plans
of effective plan? B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource
A. give police department a clear direction and Doctrine Development
B. increase personnel involvement C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
C. clearly define objectives and goals Management
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
unforeseen It is the total number of police officers
assigned in patrol duties.
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot
during day time should walk ____ the curb: 502. Who is responsible in determining
A. Outside C. Inside whether there is a permit for the holding of the
B. Near D. Far public assembly?
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
496. The following are the duties and Commander
responsibilities of Patrol officers: B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
a. Conduct home visitations when a
circumstance warrants, dialogues with the 503. The following are the things to be done
residents in their beat; after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:

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A. Check whether the situation still poses
imminent danger
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP
operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest
hospital
E. None of these
504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio
of the following cases:
I. incidents where a police personnel
discharges a firearm;
II. incidents where death, serious physical
injury, or any violation of human rights
occurred in the conduct of a police
operation;
III. incidents where evidence was
compromised, tampered with,
obliterated, or lost while in the custody
of police personnel;
IV. incidents where a suspect in the
custody of the police was seriously
injured; and
V. Incidents where the established rules of
engagement have been violated.
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV,
and V
B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV
and V
497. The nature of which, the police officer is
free from specific routine duty is the definition
of
A. “on duty” C. “Active
Service”
B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”
 Length of Service- The period of time
elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.
 Active Service- shall refer to services
rendered as an officer and non-officer,
cadet, trainee or draftee in the PNP
498. The first step a dispatcher must take
when a felony-in-progress call has been
received through telephone or by direct alarm
signal is to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the
witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime
scene
D. sends augmentation force
499. How many years of non-promotion
before a PNP Member can be attrited?
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 10 years D. 18 Months
 Attrition by Relief - Those who have
been relieved for just cause and have not
been given an assignment within TWO
(2) YEARS after such relief shall be
retired or separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or
Rank - who shall not be assigned to a
position commensurate to his or her
grade within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS
after such demotion shall be retired or
separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car
or police officers are not allowed to be sent in
the scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the
kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police
have been informed of the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR
activities inside the warehouse
501.Which among the following, is not a
applicable legal parameter during rallies,
strikes, demonstrations or other public
assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of
the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the
Philippines, as amended and other applicable
laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or
participant shall be made during the
public assembly, unless he violates any
pertinent law as evidence warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only
reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas
and water cannons.
502. Which of the following is considered as
the most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police
station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
line) but should be stationed in such manner
that their presence may deter the commission
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from
either side. The members of the peace-
keeping detail shall stay outside a _______
radius from the picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the
suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
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505. The following are the circumstances
which may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the
suspect
B. The time of the day and the location
where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles
several suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
should be conducted by-
A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise
attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to
perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507. Which of the following is not included in
the patrol function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this is
reported to the investigation
section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the
duty to issue a warning is not absolute before
he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially
Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially
Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if
transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must
be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right
side facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the left side
facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right
side facing the subject
510. Which among the following should be
observed during the patrol operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
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511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under
the control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident
Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior
Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol
officers, when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from
the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover
the information and pieces of evidence
gathered at the crime scene?
A. SOCO team C. Immediate
Supervisor
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the
implementation of final decisions or orders of
the court in civil cases and of administrative
bodies on controversies within their
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the
appropriate police office. The request is filed
at least _____ prior to the actual
implementation.
A. 3 days C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein
a suspect dies, the Team Leader of the
operating unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the
necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall
immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for
inquest before the duty Inquest
Prosecutor prior to the removal of
the body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his
superior for the proper undertakings to
be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile
suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-
team
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
preferably an officer with the rank of at
least Police Inspector;
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is
solely in charge of communicating with
the motorists subject for checkpoint;
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of
investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to
include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket
(TCT) or Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team -
designated to conduct search, seizure and
arrest, if necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide
security in the checkpoint area; and
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team
tasked to block/pursue fleeing
suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to
display high-powered firearms and are
positioned where they can best provide
security to the Checkpoint team including
themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search
Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
518. As much as practicable, who shall lead
the PNP contingent detailed to assist the
Sheriff during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a
complaint or report or information that a child
has been or is being abused, maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
abandoned, or is under imminent danger of
being abused or exploited, shall take
immediate action thereon, but under no
circumstance shall be beyond____?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B. 24 hours D. 48
hours
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area,
well away from the threatened structure, out
of line-of-sight of the building and well clear of
windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a
criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star
Chamber
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) -
The room set-up is formed in a shape of a
star and judges were given great powers
such as the power to force testimony
from a defendant leading to a great abuse
of power or brutality on the part of the
judges.
 Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the
beginning of the curfew hours, which
demanded the closing of the gates of
London during sundown.
 Tun Policing System - A system of
policing emerged during the Anglo-Saxon
period whereby all male residents were
required to guard the town
522. Refers to a location where the search,
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-
Determined Area
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized
system, which was accepted by the courts,
prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
What police office is using this kind of blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao
524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the
earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is
not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but
the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity
525. Police personnel whose rank at the time
of his retirement is Superintendent shall retire
with the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent C.
C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
526. Which among the following terms is not
related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright
Pursuit
527. General rules on media relations, No
information regarding the incident shall be
released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground
Commander
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate
Superior
528. Which of the following is not true about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police
department
B. It is the essence of police operation
Page 49 of 50
 C. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police
department
E. It is the operational heart of the police
department
529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading
false information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None

530. Refers to utilization of units or elements

of the PNP for purpose of protection of lives
and properties, enforcement of laws,
maintenance of peace and order, prevention
of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D.
Employment

Deployment- shall mean the orderly and

organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province,
city or municipality for purposes of
employment

-END-

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