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January, 2015

1) Which of the following is one of the ankle bones?

a) Carpals
b) Tarsus
c) Patella

2) Intaraarticular injection is in :
a) Bone
b) Joint
c) Spine
d) heart
e) artery

3) Which of the following organs found in the left side of the human body?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Appendix
d) Bladder

4) Milk allergy is an adverse immune reaction to :

a) Calcium
b) Lactose
c) Protein
d) Vitamin D
e) Amino Acid

5) When a vagal stimulation occurs, which of these substances will be released?

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Insulin
d) Vasopressin
e) Acetylcholine

6) Famciclovir is used in :
a) Herpes simplex
b) west Nile virus
c) Bacterial infection
d) Fungal infection

7) All of the following are a sexual-transmitted disease Except :

a) Trichomoniasis
b) Herpes simplex
c) Herpes Zoster
d) Gonorrhea

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8) The most common GIT disorder is :
a) Zolinger-Ellison syndrome
b) Peptic Ulcer
c) GastroEsophogeal Reflux Disease
d) Acid Hyper secretion
e) Ulcerative Colitis

9) For a patient taking Acetylsalicylic Acid 350 mg, which of these patients is the least to cause
gastric bleeding? ( CHECK )
a) Take it with food
b) Patient over 70 years old
c) Taken Naproxen at the same time

10) All of the following can be taken with or after food Except :
a) Sucralfate
b) Predinsolone
c) Losartan
d) Carbamazipine

11) Which of the following medication for treatment of glaucoma is taken orally?
a) Acetazolamide
b) Dorzalomide
c) pilocarpine
d) latanoprost

12) Which of these medications cause iris pigmentation?

a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
b) Prostaglandins F2 α analog
c) Adrenergic antagonist
d) Cholinergic agonist

13) Linoleic acid & Linolenic acid are structurally differ in :

a) Number of double bond
b) Stereochemistry
(N.B: The position of the double bond was not one of the choices)

14) Which of the following is not a symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis :

a) Muscle pain
b) Fatigue
c) morning stiffness
d) swelling

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January, 2015
15) H.Pylori treatment include all the following Except :
a) Metronidazole
b) Clarithromycin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Tetracycline
e) Vancomycin

16) All are used in treatment of acute gout Except :

a) Acetaminophen
b) Prednisone
c) Celecoxib
d) Colchicines
e) Indomethacin

17) Lysosomes are responsible for cellular:

a) Protein formation
b) Energy production
c) Enzyme digestion
d) Transport of DNA
e) Permeability

18) Mitochondria is an organelle that responsible for :

a) Formation of protein
b) Production of ATP
c) Digestion of enzymes
d) Transportation of DNA

19) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for phosphorylation of amino acids?
a) Kinase
b) Lyase
c) Esterase
d) Synthetase

20) How many cis double bond can be found in that structure?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2

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January, 2015
d) 3
e) 4

21) Metformin is found in 2 chemical structure which are :

& , what is the relationship in between these 2

a) Tautomers
b) Conjugate acid/base
c) Polymorphism
d) Structural isomers

22) This structure is?

a) Phenothiazine
b) Tricyclic Antidepressant
c) Benzodiazepines
d) Antihistaminic

23) During the metabolism of purine bases which of these compound is formed?
a) Hypoxanthine
b) Azathioprine
c) Mercaptopurine

24) A patient with high urinary Urobilinogen , that indicate a disease in:
a) Bladder
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Heart
e) Pancreas

25) Oral Vancomycin is used in case of :

b) Pseudomembraneous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile

26) Which of these vaccines is advised to prevent traveller diarrhea?

a) Cholera vaccine
b) Hepatitis A Vaccine
c) Hepatitis B Vaccine

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January, 2015
d) Rota Vaccine
e) Gardasil Vaccine
27) The most common cause of Cervix epithelia cancer is?
a) Human papilloma virus
b) Polyps
c) Having no children
d) Multiple birth

28) Pneumonia-causing bacteria pathogens include all of the below Except :

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Moraxella catarrhalis
c) Bacteroides fragilis
d) Haemophilus influenzae

29) Which of the following is a symptom of chronic bronchitis?

a) Productive sputum cough
b) Dyspenia
c) Non productive cough

30) What is the treatment of chronic sinusitis?

a) Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
b) Levofloxacin
c) Azithromycin

31) A 30 year old man has gonorrhea, what is the appropriate treatment?
a) Cefixime followed by azithromycin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Ampicillin

32) A 60 years old woman with gout , which of the following antihypertensive agent must not be
used :
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) ACE-I
c) ARBs
d) B-Blockers

33) what antihypertensive agent used for mild to moderate hypertensive patient with congestive
heart failure :
a) Nifedipine
b) Verapamil
c) Labetolol
d) Hydrochlorothiazide

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January, 2015
34) Which of the following cause pneumonia :
I. Streptococcus Pneumonaie
II. Haemophilus Influenzae
III. Staph. aureus
a) I Only
b) III Only
c) I, II Only
d) II , III Only
e) All answers

35) Lipase elevation indicates a disease in :

a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Kidney

36) Patient with a problem in valve of the heart can be diagnosed by :

a) Echocardiogram
b) Electrocardiogram
c) Blood pressure measure
d) Exercise Electrocardiogram

37) The deoxygenated blood go to the right atrium of the heart from all the body through :
a) Pulmonary vein
b) Carotid artery
c) Aorta
d) Superior Vena Cava

38) Dehydration can cause all Except :

a) Thirst
b) Dizziness
c) Headache
d) Hypertension
e) Dry skin

39) Pre-eclampsia is characterised by :

a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hypoglycemia

40) Regarding high blood pressure, what is a true statement?

a) BP reading of 160/100 at home requires referral to Emergency Room

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b) BP reading of 160/100 in the pharmacy requires referral to Emergency Room
c) 160/100 is a sufficient for a diagnosis of hypertension
d) Cuffs should be placed at heart level when measuring
e) BP reading at home may be inaccurate due to untrained use

41) Which can reduce cardiac oxygen demand without causing vasodilatation?
a) Atenolol
b) Felodipine
c) Nitroglycerine
d) Minoxidil
e) Hydralazine

42) Which of the following cause venous pooling?

a) Nitrates
b) Nifedipine
c) Digoxin

43) NADP is needed for :

a) Biotin
b) Niacin
c) Riboflavin
d) Thiamine
e) Cyanocobalamin

44) Which vitamin may cause flushing?

a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B3
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin B9

45) Which is true about Niacin Except :

a) Niacin dose as lipid lowering agent is so small
b) Hepatic Enzyme elevation cause by niacin in tablet form

46) All of the following are an appropriate advices for a lady suffers from hot flash Except :
a) Light Exercise
b) Take 0.5 mg Aspirin
c) Light cloths
d) Use fan

47) All are appropriate advices for haemorrhoid patient Except :

a) Avoid taking acid fruit juice

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January, 2015
b) Avoid heavy lifting
c) Avoid straining
d) Avoid sitting for long periods

48) Smoking in pregnancy may affects fetus by :

a) Neuro disorder
b) Lung not formed well
c) Interrupt Oxygen transfer through the placenta

49) what is the property of the drug that can be found in breast tissue with high concentration
a) Low Molecular Weight
b) Low Lipid Solubility
c) High Protein Binding
d) High Acidic product

50) When a drug circulating in blood & highly perfuse organs, we name it :
a) Central Compartment
b) Peripheral Compartment
c) 2- Compartment
d) Multi Compartment

51) In end stage renal failure Calcium is given to :

a) Reduce hyperphosphatemia
b) Reduce hyperalbuminuria
c) Adjust Calcium level in the blood

52) Interleukins & TNF are considered :

a) Cytokines
b) Enzymes
c) Prostaglandins
d) Leukotrienes

53) OATP & OCT are considered :

a) Cytokines
b) Transporters
c) Enzymes

54) The test to detect pyrogen in the parenteral preparations is called :

a) Limulus test
b) Coombs test
c) Schilling test

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January, 2015
55) Demyelination is a characteristic for :
a) Multiple Sclerosis
b) Diabetic foot
c) Rheumatoid Arthritis
d) Polycystitis
e) Multiple Myeloma

56) What is true about the Sciatic nerve? ( CHECK )

a) innervate the whole foot
b) innervate the Hips
c) innervate the Buttocks large muscle
d) innervate the Quadriceps

57) Destruction of the radial nerve may cause :

a) Difficulty straightening the elbow
b) Difficulty moving the shoulders

58) Glutathione is made up of Glutamate , Glycine and :

a) Cysteine
b) Lysine
c) Alanaine
d) Tryptophan
e) Phenylalanine

59) In the ECG , Ventricular depolarization is indicated by :

a) P Wave
b) PR Interval
c) QRS Complex
d) ST Segments
e) QT Interval

60) Angiogenesis means :

a) Formation of new blood vessels
b) Formation of new bone
c) Formation of new Red Blood Cells

61) ACTH is secreted from :

a. Anterior Pituitary Gland
b. Posterior Pituitary Gland
c. Thymus Gland
d. Adrenal Cortex
b) Pineal Gland

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January, 2015
62) All of the following used in treatment of breast cancer Except :
a) Anstrazole
b) Letrazole
c) Tamoxifen
d) Bluctamide
e) Exemestane

63) Levothyroxine is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism by :

a) Act as a replace hormone
b) Increase conversion of T4 to T3
c) Increase synthesis of Thyroxin

64) Which is true about Diabetes?

a) Glucagon & Insulin have opposite effect on glucose metabolism
b) Metformin causes hypoglycemia
c) Repiglinide increase the secretion of insulin from B-cells in response to glucose

65) What is true about Regular Insulin?

a) Its onset of action is less than 1 hour
b) It's to be taken after food

66) Rx for weekly compliance package

Furosemide 40 mg 2 Tabs q am
Enalapril 10 mg 1 Tab With lunch
Lipitor 20 mg 1 Tab hs
Glyburide 2 Tabs bid
Which should trigger the attention of the pharmacist?
a) 1 Lipitor Tab. in the bed time slot
b) 2 Glyburide Tabs. in the morning and Supper slot
c) only 1 Tab. in lunch slot
d) 4 Tabs. in the morning slot
e) 1 Furosemide Tab. with breakfast and 1 Tab. with the Supper

67) The relation between B-Lymphocyte & Bone marrow is :

a) B-Lymphocyte produce antibody in the bone morrow
b) B-Lymphocyte formed from the bone marrow

68) A patient is on glargine insulin daily at bed time & takes Lispro three times daily with meals,
what is the best way to protect this patient from hypoglycemia during sleep?
a) Take a snack at bed time with no change in doses of insulin
b) Decrease the dose of lispro
c) Increase the calories in his dinner
d) Skip the dose of lispro at night

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January, 2015
69) What is the mechanism of action of PropylThiouracil in the treatment of hyperthyroid?
a) Inhibit the synthesis of TSH
b) Inhibit the synthesis of thyroxin
c) Increase the conversion of T3 to T4

70) Which of the following is a symptom of hypothyroidism?

a) Heat intolerance
b) Dry Skin
c) Tachycardia
d) Diarrhea
e) Weight loss

71) Decrease in ADH may cause :

a) Ploy urea
b) Oligurea
c) PolyPhagia
d) Protein in urine

72) All of the following are a symptoms of Septic shock Except :

a) Fever
b) Tachycardia
c) Increase Urine Volume
d) Hypotension

73) Which of the following products acts as 5- α reductase inhibitor?

a) Finasteride
b) Tamsulosin
c) Prazosin

74) Which of the following products used to shrink the size of the prostate in BPH?
a) Finasteride
b) Tamsulosin
c) Prazosin

75) All of the following are factors that affect the creatinine clearance Except :
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Weight
d) serum creatinine
e) Urine volume

76) What is true about amino glycoside?

a) Used in the treatment of pneumonia caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa

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77) What is true about Post Antibiotic Effect?
a) The drug still has the power to prevent the growth of microorganisms after duration of
b) Amino glycosides are an example against anaerobic microorganisms

78) Which of the following products is suitable for a patient suffer from depression and
neuropathic pain?
a) Amitriptyline
b) Bupropion
c) Selegiline
d) Paroxetine
e) Mirtazapine

79) What is the duration of treatment needed for a patient with a first episode of major
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 2 years
e) No time limit

80) Drug X has a clearance of 300 ml/min while the normal clearance rate is 120ml/mint his
indicate : ( Check )
a) Increase GFR and active excretion
b) Increase GFR and reabsorption
c) Increase active excretion
d) Increase GFR

81) What is the appropriate advice for a patient will use oral corticosteroid for a month?
a) Rinse with water after taking the dose
b) Take the dose on an empty stomach
c) He may experience a drowsiness
d) Don't stop the medication suddenly

82) The western blot is used to detect :

a) Protein
b) RNA
c) DNA
d) Polysaccharides

83) What is true about the blot :

a) Northern blot detects the DNA
b) Southern blot detects the RNA

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c) Eastern blot detects the protein
d) Western blot detects the protein

84) A lady comes into your pharmacy and is taking Captopril, Digoxin, hydrochlorothiazide, and
Furosemide. What should she monitor?
a) K levels and Mg levels
b) K levels and serum Creatinine
c) Serum TG
d) Glucose levels
e) Serum Phosphates

85) Morphine cause respiratory depression due to its action on which receptor : ( Check )
a) Mu
b) Kappa
c) Delta
d) Mu & Kappa
e) Mu & Delta

86) All of the following cause hyperkalemia Except :

a) Vomiting
b) Spiranolactone
c) ARBs
d) ACE-I
e) Renal insufficiency

87) What is the mechanism of action of Spiranolactone?

a) Aldosteron antagonist

88) Respiratory acidosis caused by :

a) Decrease in HCO3
b) Increase in CO2 pressure
c) Decrease ventilation

89) Naturally occurring programmed cell death is known as:

a) Necrosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Atrophy
d) Mitosis
e) Cytosis

90) The process by which the neutrophils kill the strange cells in the serum by engulfing is called
a) Phagocytosis

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91) What are the most abundant white blood cells in the blood?
a) Monocytes
b) Basophiles
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets
e) Macrophages

92) Which is responsible for the metabolism of mercaptopuric acid?

a) CYP3A4
b) Glucuronic acid
c) Glutathione S Transferase
e) Bilirubin

93) Which of the following glucournide metabolite is active :

a) Codeine
b) Digoxin
c) Beta Blocker

94) Jaundice in newborns is caused from a deficiency of:

a) Glucose
b) UDP glucose
c) Glucuronate
d) UDP glucuronate
e) UDP glucuronyl transferase

95) All of the following agents used to treat the nausea and vomiting caused after chemotherapy
Except :
a) Metochlopramide
b) Dexamethazone
c) Ondansetrone
d) Perchloperazine
e) Doxylamine

96) Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents acts by inhibit the synthesis and formation of
a) Cisplatin
b) 5-Flurouracil
c) Vincristine
d) L-Aspraginase
e) Etopsoide

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97) Patient with chronic COPD and had pneumonia , before he had pneumonia and took
amoxicillin Clavulonate since 2 months , what is the empirical treatment : ( Check )
a) Amoxicillin Clavulonate
b) Clarithromycin
c) Doxycycline
d) Levofloxacin

98) In Candida we can use all the following agents Except :

a) Fluconazole
b) Metronidazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Nystatin
e) Amphotericin B

99) The drug of choice for treatment of athletes food is :

a) Clotrimazole
b) Polymixin B
c) Germicidin
d) Bacteriocin

100) Treatment of impetigo in a 10 years patient :

a) Oral erythromycin
b) Oral amoxicillin
c) Topical mupricine

101) Patient with severe ulcerative colitis , what will be used to reduce remission :
a) Infliximab
b) Prednisone
c) Azathioprine

102) This structure is found in :

a) Cephalosporins
b) Quinolone
c) Tetracycline
d) Macrolides

103) Which antibiotic works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Cephalosporins
c) Macrolides

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d) Lincosamines
e) Tetracyclines

104) Which drug causes dry mouth?

a) Tiotropium
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Physostigmine
e) Neostigmine

105) Which of the following give Parkinsonism effect:

a) Paroxetine
b) Haloperidol
c) Lithium
d) Clozapine

106) Acute Dystonia caused by antipsychotics treated by :

a) Benzotropine

107) A pharmacist plans a strategic plan so he develops a SWOT analysis, what does the O
stand for in this case?
a) Opportunity
b) Outcome
c) Objectives

108) Which is not a symptom of rhinitis

a) Runny nose
b) Hives
c) Sneezing
d) Watery eye
e) Fever

109) What is the difference between Urinary Tract Infection & Uncomplicated Urinary Tract
Infection :(? Check )
a) Pain sensation during urination
b) Frequency of urination
c) Urgency of urination
d) Turbidity of urine
e) Fever

110) Which of the following herbal remedy can be used in treatment of migraine?
a) Licorice
b) Chrysanthemum

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c) St. John's wart
d) Guava
e) Ginkgo

111) Sumatriptan is used in treatment of migraine due to its effect as

a) Dopamine antagonist
b) 5HT1b/1d agonist
c) Acetylcholine antagonist
d) 5HT1b/1d antagonist
e) Dopamine agonist

112) Rods in the eye are responsible for:

a) Peripheral vision
b) color vision
c) Night vision
d) Acuity of vision
e) Rapid eye movement

113) Which of the following factors affect on the passage of a drug through the stratum corneum?
a) Solubility
b) Dissolution
c) PKa
d) Partition Coefficient
e) Particle size

114) Too much pressure n tablet during manufacture causes :

a) Capping
b) Lamination
c) Picking
d) Sticking
e) Mottling

115) Which of the following is a water soluble ointment base?

a) Lanoline
b) Yellow wax
c) Sodium Monostearate
d) PEG 3000 & PEG 6000 Mixture

116) Salbutamol is :
a) B1 Agonist
b) B2 Agonist
c) B Non Selective agonist
d) B1 Antagonist

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e) B2 Antagonist

117) Filgrastim used in patients receiving strong chemotherapy to :

a) Protect them from Alopecia
b) Reduce the risk of Cardio toxicity
c) Reduce the risk of infection
d) Reduce the risk of pulmonary toxicity
e) Protect them from stomatitis

118) Cytochrome oxidase & Oxygen transport contain:

a) Myosin
b) Myoglobin
c) Heme
d) Albumin
e) Transferrin

119) Which of the following blood component which are important in drug binding?
a) Albumin & VLDL
b) Albumin & Glycoprotein
c) RBCs& WBCs

120) High Extraction ratio is present in :( Check )

a) High first pass effect
b) Zero Order
c) Second Order
(N.B: No first order among the choices)

121) The Kaplan-Meier equation is applied for new therapies (such as dialysis or antineoplastics)
to measure patients’:
a) Preferences
b) Adverse reaction rate
c) Mortality rate
d) Morbidity rate
e) Survival rate

122) What is true about the chemical structure of Immunoglobulin? ( Check )

a) Contains heavy and light chain connected by disulfide bond
b) Consists of four subunits connected together by hydrogen bond

123) Which of the following drugs may require monitoring the eye of the patient?
a) Phenytoin
b) Hydroxychloroquine
c) Carabamazepine

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d) Haloperidol

124) All of the following products cause pulmonary fibrosis Except :

a) Amiodarone
b) Digoxin
c) Bleomycin
d) Bromocriptine

125) What is the best treatment of ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder):
a) Methylphenidate
b) Amphetamines
c) Rivastigmine
d) Cocaine

126) Venlafaxine acts on which receptors :

a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Serotonin & Dopamine
e) Serotonin & Nor epinephrine

127) Which of these medications not to be taken with Levothyroxine ?( Check )

a) Ferrous gluconate
b) Omeprazole
c) Phenytoin
d) Carbamazepine

128) Vitamin E after Oxidation in lipid bi layer, returns to its reduced form by the action of :
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin K
e) Vitamin D

129) Vitamins are :

a) Organic substances that.....
b) Inorganic substances that must be taken daily to act in biological functions
c) Inorganic substances that act as a cofactor in the enzymatic reactions

130) Dysphasia is impaired in:

a) Speech
b) Taste
c) Dyspepsia

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d) Smell

131) A patient taking Warfarin, u should monitor :

a) Appt
b) INR
c) Bp
d) Heart rate
e) Vitamin K Conc.

132) What is true about Troponin?

a) Used to diagnose Cardiac infarction diseases
b) Found in Cardiac and smooth muscles
c) Used to detect hepatic diseases
d) Used to evaluate the renal function

133) What is true about Nicotine Replacement Therapy?

a) It should be used for 8-12 weeks
b) Attending behavioural courses may help the patient
c) If the Nicotine dose increased the patient will suffer from headache
d) If there is an itching happened during usage of patches patient can't use gum

134) While using Isotretonin , we should monitor :

a) Haemoglobin & Lipid level
b) Lipid & Liver
c) Kidney

135) A Rx contains Sodium Bisulfite which is used as :

a) Anti-Oxidant
b) Lubricant
c) Humectants
d) Solubilising Agent
e) Preservative

136) To increase the solubility of organic salt and protein by increasing the ion strength this is
called :
a) Salting In
b) Salting Out
c) Co Solvency

137) Which of the following can be used to prevent DVT in a pregnant woman?
a) Vitamin K antagonist therapy
b) Dalteparin
c) Heparin then Warfarin

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d) Warfarin
e) Fondaparinux

138) What is meant by Functional food ?( Check )

a) Cereals contain multivitamins
b) Jelly contain mineral oil
c) Tabs or caps for vitamins and mineral oil

139) Which of the following can be used in treatment of B. fargilis Infection?

a) Metronidazole
b) Clarithromycin
c) Tetracycline
d) Ketoconazole

140) Staph. Aureus can be found in colonies in chronic infection of :( Check )

a) Ear
b) Eye
c) Nose
d) Fingernail
e) Sore

141) Rhabdomyolysis is accompanied by :

a) Liver Failure
b) Kidney Failure
c) Heart Failure
d) Pulmonary Failure

142) A mother of a 3 years old baby came to the pharmacy with a prescription of Amoxicillin to
treat otitis media for her baby but you notice that the date of the prescription was 3 days later,
what is the appropriate action you have to follow?
a) Refuse to dispense the prescription as it's useless to treat the baby
b) Call the Physician and discus with him the case
c) Fill the prescription as the 3 days period was watching period for the case

143) Drug of choice for the treatment of meningitis in adult is :

a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefixime
c) Cephalexin
d) Cefuroxime

144) The first line treatment for Pain in Osteoarthritis is:

a) Morphine
b) Ibuprofen

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c) Acetaminophen
d) Indomethacin
e) Celecoxib

145) What is true about Codon :

a) Present in tRNA
b) Consists of 3 nucleotide bases that express 1 amino acid
c) It's a segment of DNA express genes

146) SNP Means :

a) Single Non-Polymorphism
b) Change in one base in DNA

147) RT-PCR is differs from PCR in :

a) It needs high temperature
b) It needs low temperature
c) Restricted in RNA
d) Reverse Transcriptase in cDNA

148) The process in which DNA is converted to mRNA is called

a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Reverse Transcription
d) Denaturation

149) The following is contraindicated with celecoxib:

a) dyspepsia
b) sulfa allergy
c) prostatic hyperplasia
d) renal impairment
e) acetaminophen concurrent use

150) In the Northern Hemisphere the most suitable period to take flu vaccine is :
a) Mid September till Mid December
b) Mid September till Mid October
c) Mid October till Mid December
d) Mid November till Mid January
e) Mid November till Mid April

151) In case of Heparin overdose, what is the correct antidote?

a) Protamine Sulfate
b) Vitamin K
c) Warfarin

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d) Na bicarbonate
e) Atropine

152) Tadalafil is different from Sildenafil because:

a) sildenafil is longer acting
b) Tadalafil is shorter acting
c) Tadalafil can be used safely with nitroglycerin
d) Tadalafil and Sildenafil are both equally active and have the same duration
e) Tadalifil is much longer acting than Sildenafil

153) The Steady-State Concentration is a factor of :

a) AUC
b) Half life
c) Plasma Protein binding
d) Dose

154) By dividing the amount of the drug in the body by the concentration of the drug in the
plasma , we will get :
a) Volume of Distribution
b) Clearance Rate
c) Rate of Infusion
d) Steady-State Concentration

155) What is the clearance rate for a product with T1/2 = 3 hours & volume of distribution is 9 L?
a) 2 L / Hr
b) 2 ml / Hr
c) 2 L / Min
d) 2 ml / min

156) What does ISMP Stand for?

a) Institute of Safe Medication Practice

157) What the most symbol take the pharmacist attention in RX:
a) I.U
b) PRN
c) mg
d) Kg

158) Rx
Substance X
Hydrocortisone 1 % AA 25 mg
Mitte 50 mg
What does AA refer to?

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a) Equal amount of each
b) Acceptable amount up to
c) Appropriate amount up to

159) 250 mg of Substance X 50 % needed to be diluted to be 10 %, how many mg diluents

should be added?
a) 1000 mg
b) 1250 mg
c) 750 mg

160) Which of the following preparation must be completely sterilized?

a) Total Parenteral Nutrition
b) Oral Suspension
c) Nasal preparation
d) Rectal Suppository

161) How many mill equivalent of CaCl2 is found in 1000 mg (Ca atomic weight 40)?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100

162) A product with T1/2 = 2 hr. was given as 250 mg every 12 hr. , we notice that that product is
not accumulated in the body because of :
a) Rapid Excretion
b) High Volume of distribution
c) Low plasma protein binding
d) Short T1/2 in compared to dose interval

163) Lung thrombus is mainly due to:

a) Fibrin
b) Platelets
c) C protein
d) RBCs
e) WBCs

164) Thalidomide used to treat :

a) Multiple hereditary exostosis
b) Multiple endocrine neoplasia
c) Multiple system atrophy
d) Multiple sclerosis
e) Multiple myeloma

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165) Mycophenolate mofetil is an :
a) Antifungal
b) Antihelminthics
c) Anti Arrhythmia
d) Immunosuppressant

166) If Product A is shown to has AUC of 50 When given as a dose of 50 mg orally , While
Product B has AUC of 90 when given as a dose of 100 mg orally , what is the relative
bioavailability of product B to Product A ?
a) 0.9
b) 1.1
c) 1

167) If Product A is given as a dose of 150 mg shows AUC of 50 with C max 50 mg & T max 1hr.
& Product B is given as a dose of 300 mg shows AUC of 50 with C max 50 mg & T max 6hr.
What is true about Product B?
a) Sustained Release
b) Has high extensive pass metabolism
c) Has high clearance rate

168) It was found that when we increase the dose of a product , the rate of elimination doesn't
affect ,So that product obey :
a) Zero Order
b) First Order
c) Second Order

169) In a clinical trial the absolute risk reduction was 5 % Then what will number needed to treat :
a) 2
b) 20
c) 200
d) 10
e) 100

170) All of the following are enzyme inducer Except :

a) Valproic Acid
b) Rifampin
c) Phenobarbital
d) Phenytoin
e) Carbamazepine

171) What is the relation of Codeine to Morphine?

a) Codeine is a pro-drug of Morphine
b) They are functional isomers

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c) They are structural isomers

172) All the following drugs decrease the effects of oral contraceptives, Except :
a) Rifampicin
b) Carbamazepine
c) Tetracycline
d) Phenytoin
e) Ibuprofen

173) Warfarin acts in :

a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Blood

174) Which of the following medication may cause erectile dysfunction?

a) Corticosteroid
b) α Adrenergic Blocker
c) Opioid
d) ACE Inhibitors

175) Which of the following medication is used in Congestive Heart Failure and increase the
survival rate?
a) Enalapril
b) Digoxin
c) Dobutamine
(N.B: No Beta Blockers among the choices)

176) Class I ant arrhythmic products act by blocking :

a) Na Channels
b) Ca Channels
c) Potassium Channels
d) Beta Receptors

177) What is true about Clopidogrel?

a) It acts by inhibition of Cox-II
b) It acts by inhibition of TXA2
c) It acts by antagonise ADP on its receptors

178) Patient takes aged cheese and was treated with MAO-I , he had a hypertensive crisis
because of :
a) Tyramine
b) Serotonin

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c) Histamine

179) Which of the following medication may cause serotonergic syndrome if taken with MAO-I :
a) Dextromethorphan
b) Pseudoephedrine
c) phenylephrine

180) Typical antipsychotics act on :

a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Norepinephrine

181) Which structure can be formed from ephedrine and pseudoephedrine?

a) Amphetamine
b) Codeine
c) Morphine
d) Niacin

182) Acetyl Salicylic acid gets metabolized into salicylic acid by:
a) Salicylase
b) Esterase
c) Amidase
d) Acetyltransferase
e) Carboxylase

183) Which is used as local anesthetic for hemorrhoids?

a) Lanolin
b) Witch Hazel
c) Zinc Oxide
d) Hydrocortisone
e) Pramoxine

184) You take Fluticasone inhaler and also take Salbutamol inhaler. What instructions must your
pharmacist tell you regarding these two medications?
a) Take Fluticasone, then Salbutamol then rinse.
b) Take Salbutamol, then Fluticasone then rinse.
c) Take Salbutamol, rinse, and then Fluticasone.
d) Take Fluticasone, then rinse then take Salbutamol
e) Take Salbutamol, then Fluticasone.

185) Why do we take protein at IV Injection? ( Check )

a) Cause it binds faster with the plasma protein

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b) To avoid first pass effect
c) To get a controlled serum concentration

186) Methylation occurs by the aid of:

a) S-adenosine methionine
b) Glutamyl Transferase
c) Monoamine Oxidase
d) Esterase

187) Which vitamin is found only in animal-derived foods?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin K

188) Which enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of sildenafil?

a) CYP1A2
b) CYP2C9
c) CYP2D6
d) CYP3A4
e) CYP3A5

189) Process which works by removing the small impurities from plasma across a semi-
permeable membrane is termed:
a) Dialysis
b) Osmoses
c) Concentration Gradient
d) Dispersion
e) Diffusion

190) Photo toxicity of a medication appears in the form of :

a) Urticaria
b) Allergy
c) The skin response resembles an exaggerated sunburn

191) Amorphous form differs from crystalline form as it is :

a) Crystalline Is generally less soluble than amorphous
b) Amorphous is more soluble than Crystalline
c) Amorphous is more susceptible to polymorphism
d) Amorphous differs in the chemical composition

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192) What is true about the critical micelle concentration in emulsion
a) Is defined as surfactant concentration that cause assembly
b) It needs high amount of surfactant when increase lipophilicity

193) Which drugs cause hemorrhagic cystitis:

a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Vincristine
c) 5-Flurouracil
d) Bleomycin
e) Methotrexate

194) When we add a salt to a solvent , which is true :

a) Increase freezing point
b) Increase vapor pressure
c) Increase boiling point
d) Decrease osmotic pressure

195) What is true about aerosol? ( Check )

a) It can be prepared for internal and external usage
b) It contains preservatives
c) The same Concentration will give the same effect as oral form

196) What is meant by lavigation?

197) All of the following instruments need caution during handling Except :
a) Spatula
b) Syringe
c) Needle

198) What is true about Coated Tablets?

I. To protect from gastric PH
II. To mask the taste
III. To Protect it from moisture in the atmosphere
a) I Only
b) III Only
c) I & II Only
d) II & III Only
e) All answers

199) To test for a pharmaceutical’s ability to withstand abrasion we do :

a) Friability Test
b) Thickness Test
c) Hardness Test
d) Dissolution Test

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e) Disintegration Test

200) Chromatography for heat labile substances, all Except :

a) Thin Layer Chromatography
b) High Performance Liquid Chromatography
c) Reverse Phase Chromatography
d) Gas Chromatography
e) Paper Chromatography

201) Polysorbate 80 acts as :

a) Surfactant
b) Preservative
c) Humectants
d) Suspending agent
e) Lubricant

202) What is true about eutectic mixture?

a) Degrade at room temperature
b) Segregates upon storing
c) Liquefies at room temperature
d) Cause Effervescent
e) Absorb moisture from the atmosphere

203) What is the role of surfactant in suppositories? ( Check )

a) Increase water content
b) Increase contact of suppository with the surround
c) Enhance the melting of the suppository

204) Sedimentation rate is determined by:

a) Stoke's Law
b) Fick's Law
c) Noyes Whitney Law

205) Which of the following medication is used to treat non-complicated diaper rash?
a) Zinc Oxide Cream
b) Hydrocortisone 1 %
c) Acetyl Salicylic acid
d) Nystatin

206) What is true about Elixirs?

a) It's a sweated hydro alcoholic solution
b) It's for external use only

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207) What ethics means "prevent harm"?
a) Beneficence
b) Non-malfeasance
c) Justice
d) Autonomy
e) Veracity

208) If you waive the co payment for one of your client because he is a regular customer to you
and you didn't do that with other customers , So you violate :
a) Beneficence
b) Non-malfeasance
c) Justice
d) Autonomy
e) Veracity

209) Canada's health act includes all the following except:

a) Universality
b) Portability
c) Public Admission
d) Accessibility
e) Speciality

210) If you would like to search for more information regarding Fentanyl regulation , you'll find it
in :
a) Schedule H in FDA
b) Schedule I in NAPRA
c) CDSA Schedules

211) Where can you find information's about medication outside Canada?
a) Martindale
b) CPS
d) Therapeutic Choices
e) Patient Self Care

212) Where can you find the monograph of a drug in Canada?

a) Compendium of patient self care products
b) Therapeutic choice for Minor Aliments
c) Canada drug database
(N.B: No CPS among the choices)

213) Who publish CARN (Canadian Adverse Reaction Newsletter)?

a) Med effect ( Health Canada )

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214) Which of the following drugs you cannot advertise by a banner on the counter:
a) A new herbal drug
b) A new supplement
c) A new OTC
d) A new anti arrhythmic prescription drug

215) The most expensive Burden on Canada’s health insurance:

a) Dental
b) Outpatient medication
c) Physician fees
d) Hospitalization

216) A pharmacist want to increase his pharmacy sales , he can do all Except :
a) Make discount for prescription came from local physician
b) Make arrangement with nurse to make regular blood glucose monitor

217) A pharmacist want to make an offer for patients who don't cover with province insurance ,
So he makes it under the name of discount , he did 10 cases during a month , when he
calculate it he found that :
a) Increase net profit
b) Decrease net profit

218) The key symptom of nephrosis:

a) glucose in urine
b) protein in urine
c) Stone in kidney
d) Increase in urination frequency
e) minerals in urine

219) Increase the risk of bleeding may occur when combining clarithromycin with :
a) Aspirin
b) Clopidogrel
c) Dipyridamole
d) Warfarin
e) Heparin

220) Carbohydrates stored in the animal cells in the form of :

a) Glycogen
b) Glucose
c) Lactose

221) Specificity means :

a) To have negative results with people who don't have the disease

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b) To have positive results with people who have the disease

222) Sensitivity means :

a) To have reproducible results

223) The simplest form of modern community pharmacy is :( Check )

a) Sole proprietorship
b) Partnership
c) Incorporations
d) Franchise

224) In an experiment want to know the number of newly prescribed Oxycodone and refill
prescription was undergo under 4 physicians what is the name of the used test?
a) Chi-Square
b) Wilcoxon

225) A prescription for codeine Give 60, I tab bid 30 days, R = 1. Is this prescription accepted?
a) No, because refills are not allowed
b) No, because part fill are not allowed
c) Yes, because the total amount is clear
d) Yes, because the amount is easily identifiable

226) Which of the following statement is of the responsibilities of a regular authorized pharmacy
a) Give a counsel for an OTC medication
b) Give a counsel for a new prescription
c) Receive and document a verbal order from a physician about a refill prescription
d) Dispense a narcotic prescription

227) Which of the following antibiotic must not refrigerated after reconstitution?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Clarithromycin
c) Ciprofloxacin

228) A pregnant woman has penicillin allergy and suffers from urinary tract infection , the most
appropriate medication for her case is :
a) Cephalexin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Nitrofurantoin
d) Sulfamethoxazole

229) Phenytoin cause :

a) Gingival Hyperplasia

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b) Alopecia
c) Kidney stones
d) Dyskinesia

230) The main screening test for colorectal cancers is :

a) Blood tests
b) Ultrasound scans
c) PPD test
d) Pap smear
e) Fecal occult blood

231) In order to protect protein when freeze drying which should be add:
a) Humectant
b) Protectant
c) Lyoprotectant

232) Polyvinyl alcohol is used in ophthalmic preparations as :

a) Viscosity Enhancer
b) Solubilising agent
c) Preservative
d) Lubricant

233) A person came to the pharmacy asking for Marihuana to treat his insomnia, what is the most
appropriate action?
a) Advise him to make application in special access program in health Canada
b) Tell him it's not allowed to use Marihuana in Canada
c) Tell him that Marihuana is not indicated to treat insomnia and advise him for a suitable

234) What is meant by profitability?

a) To cover the costs with a little revenue for the owner

235) What is true about phase II trials?

a) Done on animals
b) Done on small healthy human population to test the safety
c) Done on small disease human population to test the efficacy
d) Done on large disease human population to test the efficacy and safety
e) Done while the medication in the real world

236) What is true about phase III trials?

a) Done on animals
b) Done on small healthy human population to test the safety
c) Done on small disease human population to test the efficacy

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d) Done on large disease human population to test the efficacy and safety
e) Done while the medication in the real world

237) Which is not a component of pharmacy-economics?

a) International
b) Payer
c) Hospital
d) Society

238) OU means :
a) Right Eye
b) Left Eye
c) Both Eyes
d) Both Ears
e) Left Ear

239) What is true about Parallax error?

a) Position of eye at all volumetric vessels must be at the same level as the meniscus

240) Which of the following medications cause QT prolongation?

a) Flouroquinolones
b) Amoxicillin
c) Digoxin
d) Nitrates

241) Dysphonia is an impairment in :

a) Taste
b) Voice
c) Smell

242) When a drug circulating in blood & highly perfuse organs, we name it
a) Central Compartment
b) Peripheral Compartment
c) 2- Compartment
d) Multi Compartment

243) the presence of alternating residues of β-(1, 4) linked N-acetyl glucosamine and N-
acetylmuramic acid is found in:
a) Plasma membrane
b) Cell wall
c) Cytoplasm
d) Mitochondria

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244) When you take the Weight, age and diseased state of patients, this is comparing?
a) Statistical variable
b) Biological variable
c) Collective variable

245) In your pharmacy a technician made a mistake and gave a wrong medication to the patient,
when you notice that mistake you called the patient and you knew that he didn't take his dose,
what is the next step?
a) Report the case
b) Exchange the medication

246) In an ointment preparation containing water-removable bases, polyethylene glycol is often

added as a (n):
a) Humectant
b) Stabilizer
c) Antioxidant
d) Preservative
e) Surfactant

247) The cost of a product is 2.00 $ and you sell it for a price of 2.50 $. Which is true?
a) Margin percent is 20%
b) Mark up of cost is 20%

248) A pharmacist decreased the expenses of his pharmacy by $ 36,000 in compared to the last
year , while achieving the same sales, what will be the percent of increasing his net profit if
you know that :
Sales = $ 3,000,000
Costs = $ 2,400,000
Net profit this year = $ 150,000
a) 6%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 20%
e) 25%

249) Bisphosphonate mechanism of action:

a) Inhibit osteoclast resorption
b) Inhibit osteoblast resorption
c) Decrease Ca execration
d) Increase Ca absorption

250) Which of the following is a humanistic outcome:

a) decrease patient visits to physician

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b) Patient satisfaction
c) Decrease in the Blood pressure of the patient
d) Decrease in Blood Glucose level of the patient

251) What is the minimum quantity that can be weight on a balance with sensitivity requirements
of 15 mg of a 5 % error is permissible?
a) 300 mg
b) 600 mg
c) 900 mg

252) In a hospital pharmacy, a patient suffers from side effects of a medication and you found
that the nurse gave him a wrong dose of his medication, what is the most appropriate action?
a) Try to cover her mistake
b) Report the mistake to the physician
c) Call one of patient care to report the mistake
d) Don't deal with this nurse again

253) In research cost $ 100,000 cause increase in patient life by 0.5 year, so what is the true to
express the Cost-Effectiveness analysis of that research? ( Check )
a) $ 100,000 / QALY
b) $ 200,000 / LGY (Life Gained per Year )
c) $ 50,000 / QALY
d) $50,000 / LGY

254) Counselling for patient taking VIMOVO (naproxen + esomeprazol)

a) Drink a lot fluids
b) Don’t take antacid while take vimovo
c) Take vimovo at least 30 minutes after meal
d) Take vimovo at least 30 minutes before meal
e) Vimono should be taken with milk

255) All can be done to an ankle injury except?

a) Rest
b) Heat
d) Compress
e) Elevate

256) Which of these treat Alzheimer’s disease?

a) Bromocriptine
b) Benztropine
c) Rivastigmine
d) Nitrosamine

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257) Structure of acetylcholine and acts indirectly by inhibiting?
a) Acetyl cholinesterase

258) Structure of NAPQI and it's a metabolite of :

a) Acetaminophen

259) This is:

a) Sulfacetamide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochlorothiazide
e) Spironolactone

260) What is the mechanism of action of Orlistat?

a) Inhibit gastric Lipase

261) What is the use of egg-yolk?

a) Emulsifying agent
b) Humectant
c) Suspending agent
d) Lubricant

262) What is the enzyme name that found in viruses that enables them to be released from the
host cell?
a) Neuraminidase

263) Two drugs with equivalent therapeutic effects are best compared by:
a) Cost-Benefit Analysis
b) Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
c) Cost-Minimization Analysis
d) Cost-Utility Analysis
e) Willingness To Pay

264) What is the mechanism of action of Senna as Laxative?

a) Stimulate the bowel wall to contract
b) Allow the stool to pass easier through the bowel
c) Increase the bulk of the stool which stimulate peristalsis

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265) Misoprostol is an example of :
a) Eicosanoids

266) What is the most appropriate advice to a patient will start Levothyroxin? ( Check )
a) Talk it in the morning to avoid insomnia
b) Feeling palpitation is an indicator of overdose

267) The process by which the virus transfer DNA from one bacteria to another is called :
a) Transduction
b) Translation
c) Transformation
d) Transportation

268) When a pharmaceutical company starts a research for a new medication, it has to protect
her rights by making registration for :
a) Logo
b) Copy Right
c) Trade Name
d) Patency
e) Brand Name

269) What is true about Crohn's disease?

a) inflammatory bowel disease that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from
mouth to anus

270) A taxi driver came to you with a prescription of sumatriptan for his migraine and you know
that it may cause dizziness, what is the most appropriate action to be done?
a) Call the physician to explain to him your fears from side effect of the medication
b) Refuse to dispense the prescription
c) Dispense the medication and give the patient a verbal counsel about the side effect of the
d) Dispense the medication and give the patient a printed copy of the side effect of the

271) Rx for a medication as follow :

Start 7.5 mg then 2.5mg BID for 14 days
Calculate the dispensed amount?
a) 77.5 mg
b) 72.5 mg
c) 75 mg

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272) A product with T1/2 One year, Concentration 400 mg what will be the concentration after 3
a) 50 mg
b) 100 mg
c) 150 mg

273) A patient who is 3 years old experiencing sore throat. His Dr. prescribed for him :
Zithromax 200 mg
1QD for 5 Days
In your pharmacy you have 2 bottles of azithromycin suspension 600 mg (200mg/5ml) &
900 mg (200mg/5ml). What is the best bottle to be dispensed to fill this prescription?
a) One Bottle of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
b) One Bottle of azithromycin 900 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
c) Two Bottles of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
d) Two Bottles of azithromycin 900 mg ( 200mg/5ml )
e) One Bottle of azithromycin 600 mg ( 200mg/5ml ) & One Bottle of azithromycin 900 mg (
200mg/5ml )

274) Differential diagnosis of Rosacea from Acne vulgarise is

a) Erythema
b) Telangiectasia
c) Papules
d) Comedones
e) Seborrhea.

275) Buccal Route is characterized by:

a) No membrane barrier
b) Less metabolic activity
c) For high dose drugs

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