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Module: 05 (Digital Techniques/Electronic
What is a keyaccount? Instrument Systems)
Sub-sections: 01, 02, 03, 04, 05a, 05b, 06b,

What is Platinum m'ship? 07, 08, 09, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16
(9/10)
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Members Area 1. In a basic 'T' configuration

the ASI appears on the left and the Altimeter appears on the
Members Home Your Answer:
right CORRECT
This question has been asked 215 times with a success rate of 80 percent.
My Personal Details Comment/Reference: Mike Tooley- Aircraft Digital Electronic and Computer
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2. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format?
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Your Answer: Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook pg 11-45
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3. The two sets of flight regulations that a pilot may fly by are
Your Answer: VFR and IFR CORRECT
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4. Typical displays on an EHSI are

Your Answer: VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Pages 302 & 304
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An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final
5.
stages of an approach. The aircraft must
Your Answer: fly down CORRECT
Comment/Reference: At 200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move
up the EADI display until, at touch down, it touches the
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move down again it means that the aircraft is climbing and
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During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer deflects below the

6.
glideslope centre mark. This means the aircraft is positioned
Your Answer: above the glideslope CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Consider the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position
and the pointer as the centre of the G/S beam
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7. Engine parameters are displayed on

Your Answer: ECAM CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Engine parameters can be displayed on ECAM by selecting
the Engine Page. See Pallett - Aircraft Instruments and
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8. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?

Your Answer: The aircraft symbol CORRECT
Comment/Reference: The little aeroplane painted in the middle of the instrument
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9. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show

Your Answer: the actual path with respect to the required path INCORRECT
Correct Answer: the required path with respect to the actual path
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronic and computer Systems, Principles,
Operations and Maintenance, Mike Tooley, page 5
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10. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?

Your Answer: EADI CORRECT
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Play Hookey Great theory site for Modules 3, 4 and 5
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Sub-sections: 01, 02, 03, 04, 05a, 05b, 06b,

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Members Area 1. What functions are available on the EHSI?

Your Answer: Full arc, Wx and Map Mode CORRECT
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2. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?
Your Answer: ILS and VOR CORRECT
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3. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured

Your Answer: magenta CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Aircraft instruments and integrated systems,(pallet) page

302 fig 12.5 eadi flight director command bars are magenta
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4. In an EIS (Electronic Instrument System), what does EAD stand for?

Your Answer: Engine and Alert Display CORRECT
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5. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is

one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select
Your Answer:
the source of the information being displayed CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician pg 11-37 fig 11-66
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6. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?

Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude
Your Answer:
and autoland CORRECT
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7. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll
flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude,
Your Answer:
decision height INCORRECT
Correct Answer: decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude
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8. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is

Your Answer: above the glideslope CORRECT
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9. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on

Your Answer: the EHSI CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page
305
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10. EADI displays show

Your Answer: pitch and roll attitudes CORRECT
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Members Area 1. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as
Your Answer: red areas with black surrounds CORRECT
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During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the
2.
lower CRT
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Your Answer: secondary engine parameters CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook pg 11-41
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3. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system

Your Answer: on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator CORRECT
1 of 3 9/29/2009 9:20 PM
Comment/Reference: Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook pg 11-38 and

B737-400 AMM 34-22-00 p11
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4. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll

Your Answer: autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator CORRECT
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5. An electronic flight instrument display consists of;

Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display,
Your Answer:
microprocessor and Data inputs CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control by EHJ Pallett and Shawn Coyle
page 268
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6. The EFIS system consists of

Your Answer: EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI INCORRECT
Correct Answer: EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators
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7. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in

Your Answer: magenta CORRECT
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8. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except

Your Answer: plan CORRECT
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9. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System

the type of information shown on the attitude director
Your Answer:
indicator is displayed on a transparent plate CORRECT
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A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the

10.
following:
Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and
Your Answer:
Magnetic Heading CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ Pallett
Page 303
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Members Area 1. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is
Your Answer: so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum CORRECT
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2. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of
either left (captain) and right (co-pilot), or right (captain) and
Order Modules Your Answer:
left (co-pilot) CORRECT
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On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed

3.
on
Your Answer: ECAM CORRECT
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4. What does EFIS mean?

Your Answer: Electronic Flight Instrument System CORRECT
Page 421
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5. What does EICAS mean?

Your Answer: Engine indicating and Crew alerting system CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAA website ELGD SECTION J appendix A gives useful
common abbreviations and Jepessen Airframe A & P
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6. What does ECAM mean?

Your Answer: Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAA website ELGD section J appendix A gives lots of relevant
abbreviatons
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7. 101012 + 110012 =
Your Answer: 4610 CORRECT
Comment/Reference: 101012 + 110012 = 1011102
= 4610
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8. The Binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number

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9. The Decimal number 37 is equivalent to the BCD number
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10. The decimal number 37 is represented by the octal number

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Members Area 1. The BCD data string of 1001 0011 0100 .0101 represents a DME distance of
Your Answer: 934.5 nautical miles CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Just convert any one of the quadrets (binary to decimal) and
My Personal Details
compare with the similar positioned number in the answers.
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2. Convert 0111012 to octal
Order Modules Your Answer: 35 CORRECT

Tutorial Support Comment/Reference: The OCTAL code has 8 digits, 0 - 7. To convert binary to octal
divide the binary number into groups of three starting from
Report problem with the right. You've got to know your binary, octal, hex and bcd
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3. F80 hexadecimal converts to binary

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4. What is hex 110 in decimal?

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5. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal

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6. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is

Your Answer: digital CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Digital is 1s and 0s, either binary or grey code
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7. Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal

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8. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal.

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9. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal.
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10. Convert decimal 15 into binary.

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Members Area 1. Convert 448 to hex.

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2. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal.
Order Modules Your Answer: F CORRECT

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3. What is 345 in binary?

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4. Convert 1D to binary.
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5. Convert 2C hex to octal.

Comment/Reference: Hex to Octal, not Hex to Decimal
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6. A hexadecimal is a number to base

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7. 1012 converted to decimal is

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The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a decimal

8.
number is
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9. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is
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10. Convert 011101 binary to octal.

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Members Area 1. Binary Number: 110010 is

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2. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is
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3. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is

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4. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is

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5. What is 0111000012 in Octal?

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6. The binary number 10101000111001012 in hexadecimal is

Your Answer: A8E516 CORRECT
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0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this

7.
information can be a representation of
Your Answer: hex, octal and decimal numbers CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Binary IS 'computer language' not a representation.
Therefore any answer with 'binary' in it is wrong.
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8. A computer message 3B4 is

Your Answer: hexadecimal CORRECT
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9. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal?

Your Answer: 2C CORRECT
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10. 2D in decimal is
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page
132
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Members Area 1. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is

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132
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2. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to
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3. Decimal 10 converted to binary is

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128
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4. What systems uses base 10?

Your Answer: Decimal CORRECT
128
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5. What systems use base 16?

Your Answer: Hexadecimal CORRECT
132
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6. Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a minimum of

Your Answer: four CORRECT
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7. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary?

Comment/Reference: Convert it to Decimal first (15 x 256 + 8 x 16 + 6 x 1) =
3974. Since it is an even number, it must be the answer with
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8. What is 11000012 - 1011002?

129
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9. What is used for the base of 10?
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Your Answer: Decimal CORRECT

Comment/Reference: A+P Technician General Textbook page 1-2
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10. What is 44 in hexadecimal?

Your Answer: 2c CORRECT
Comment/Reference: (2 x 16) + (12 x 1) = 44 (c = 12)
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Members Area 1. What is octal 33 in hexadecimal?

Your Answer: 1b CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Octal 33 = (3 x 8) + (3 x 1) = 27 decimal. 27 = (1 x 16) +
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(11 x 1) = 1b (b = 11)
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2. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be
Your Answer: 111 111 CORRECT
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3. What is f86 hex when converted to binary?

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Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 132
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4. In a computer, the address 3B8 is

Your Answer: hexadecimal CORRECT
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5. What is a Grays converter?

Your Answer: Digital to Analogue INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Analogue to Digital
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6. What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in octal form?

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7. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?

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8. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is

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9. What is the binary notation for 29?

Your Answer: 0010 1001 INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 0001 1101
Comment/Reference: Despite the deliberate gap between the blocks of 4 digits,
this is not a BCD question.
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In a successive approximation ADC, the time interval between the SC and

10.
EOC signals is:
Your Answer: The conversion time CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronic and Computer Systems, Mike
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Members Area The counter (or ramp) analog to digital converter uses a counter in
1.
conjunction with a D/A converter to determine what?
Members Home Digital output equivalent to the unknown digital input voltage
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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Order Modules 2. In A/D conversion, a signals bandwidth represents

Your Answer: the maximum frequency range occupied by a signal CORRECT
Tutorial Support This question has been asked 176 times with a success rate of 85 percent.
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3. The advantage of digital sound over analogue sound is

Your Answer: minimal error and noise CORRECT
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4. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is

Your Answer: analogue CORRECT
Comment/Reference: This is the definition of an analogue signal
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Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is converted

5.
from
Your Answer: analogue to digital CORRECT
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6. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called?

Your Answer: Multiplex/Demultiplex CORRECT
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7. A thyristor is a device which has

Your Answer: a negative temperature coefficient CORRECT
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Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or angular

8.
rotation of a shaft are
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A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to -10V.

9.
This can be achieved by
an inverting op amp connected in series with output
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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10. A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to

Your Answer: ensure that the output voltages remain accurate CORRECT
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Members Area A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true heading.
1.
This voltage can be converted to 'bits' by using a
Members Home Your Answer: analogue to digital converter CORRECT
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The sampling frequency of an A/D converter is precisely the frequency of
Order Modules 2. the AC analogue signal being measured, the output of the A/D converter
will be a series of digital values corresponding to
Tutorial Support Your Answer: a DC signal CORRECT
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3. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to

Your Answer: increase accuracy INCORRECT
Correct Answer: increase speed
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4. An R-2R D to A converter uses

two values of resistors whose precision is not important
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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5. The function of a commutator is to

provide a sampling in sequence of a number of parameters
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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6. An encoder using Grey code

Your Answer: changes digital to analogue INCORRECT
Correct Answer: changes analogue to digital
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7. An analogue to digital converter is as accurate as

Your Answer: the sampling rate CORRECT
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A digital to analogue converter that requires the output to range between

8.
0v and -10v would have
Your Answer: an inverting amplifier in series with the output line CORRECT
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9. In an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage

Your Answer: stays on constantly CORRECT
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10. An R-2R Converter has values of resistance

Your Answer: whose precision are not accurate CORRECT
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Your Answer: Switches closed, magnetised CORRECT
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Your Answer: are superior quality and greater bandwidth CORRECT
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An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal

3.
to the analogue input and then back down when this is reached is a
Your Answer: a ramp type converter CORRECT
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4. Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to

Your Answer: change the state of the inputs CORRECT
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5. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally

Your Answer: high input impedance, low output impedance CORRECT
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6. Analogue logic 1 is
Your Answer: closed circuit, Logic Q=1 CORRECT
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7. An ADC uses successive approximation to

Your Answer: increase speed CORRECT
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8. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to

Your Answer: ensure the output voltages remain accurate CORRECT
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9. A precision op-amp is used in a DAC to
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10. In an R-2R ladder converter the values of resistors

Your Answer: do not need to be of precise values CORRECT
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Your Answer: Flash converter CORRECT
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3. Sample and hold is a technique used in

Your Answer: A to D conversion CORRECT
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4. An analogue to digital converter (ADC) requires the following:

a reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a
Your Answer:
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Number of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit
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Number of discrete values that can be represented by the
Your Answer:
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7. Digital signals can be represented

Your Answer: by a series of integers CORRECT
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it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken
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A Digital to Analogue Converter has a resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will be

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the analogue output when the digital input is 10110
Your Answer: 6.6 Volts DC CORRECT
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A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or speed of

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Members Area 1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed

Your Answer: to transmit one at a time CORRECT
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The maximum number of terminals connecting to a MIL-STD-1553B
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Correct Answer: 31
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3. How is the data transmitted on an ARINC 429 bus?

Your Answer: Asynchronous and serial CORRECT
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4. What is a parity bit used for on an ARINC429 bus?

Your Answer: Fault/self check CORRECT
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A bus which supports the transfer of data in both directions is referred to

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as
Your Answer: Bidirectional CORRECT
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6. The maximum data rate supported MIL-STD-1553 is

Your Answer: 1 Mbps CORRECT
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7. Manchester II encodes logic 1 with a voltage transition from

Your Answer: a high to low state CORRECT
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8. The maximum data rate supported by the FDDI bus is

Your Answer: 100 Mbps CORRECT
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9. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with
2 of 3 9/30/2009 12:39 AM
Your Answer: ARINC 636 standard CORRECT

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10. The ARINC 429 data word is

Your Answer: 32 bits long CORRECT
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Your Answer: one cable, bi-directional INCORRECT
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Correct Answer: two cables, bi directional
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Your Answer: odd parity checking CORRECT
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3. ARINC 629 runs at a baud rate of

Your Answer: 2000 kBaud CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: 2 Mega bits per second, or 2000 kbaud
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4. An ARINC 573 data bus is used

Your Answer: to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder CORRECT
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5. An ARINC 429 bus uses

Your Answer: a twisted shielded pair of wires CORRECT
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6. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use

Your Answer: binary coded decimal CORRECT
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7. ARINC 573 is related to what system?

Your Answer: INS INCORRECT
Correct Answer: FDR
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8. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are

Your Answer: inductive CORRECT
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Your Answer: one bus, bi-directional data flow CORRECT
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Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode is in

10.
order of
Your Answer: power up CORRECT
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Your Answer: monitored parameter CORRECT
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2. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for
Your Answer: Digital Information Transfer System CORRECT
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3. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for

Your Answer: normal operation CORRECT
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4. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus?

Your Answer: By an inductive pickup CORRECT
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5. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus?

Your Answer: SSIFU (sub-system interface unit) INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Through the bus controller
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6. The parity bit in digital information is used

Your Answer: to check the validity of data information CORRECT
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7. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits

Your Answer: 9 - 10 CORRECT
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8. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus?

To check for corruption during transmission of a word
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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9. An ARINC 429 word label format is

Your Answer: octal CORRECT
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10. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus?
Tooley, Section 4.2.1, pg 38
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Your Answer: common to each terminal CORRECT
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Your Answer: binary coded decimal CORRECT
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3. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits

Your Answer: 11 - 28 INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 11 - 29
1 of 3 9/30/2009 12:48 AM
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4. An ARINC 429 system uses a

Your Answer: 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires CORRECT
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5. An ARINC 629 characteristic is

data can transmit in both directions down the data bus
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eisman page 148 Right side
last paragraph
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6. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus?

Your Answer: The parallel input impedance CORRECT
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7. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by

Your Answer: Manchester bi-phase CORRECT
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8. How are engine indications sent to the FDR?

Your Answer: Via ARINC 573 CORRECT
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9. What system uses base 8?
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Your Answer: ARINC 429, in dataword labels only CORRECT

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On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-mode

10.
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Comment/Reference: 120 LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46)
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a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal
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Your Answer: couple the signal to the data bus CORRECT
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3. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is

Your Answer: 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second CORRECT
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4. What is the highest speed in ARINC 429?

Your Answer: 100 kbps CORRECT
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5. What is the slowest speed for ARINC 429?

Your Answer: 12.5 kbps CORRECT
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6. Where is the pass and fail of an ARINC 429 code indicated?

Your Answer: SSM field CORRECT
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7. What is the encoding method used in ARINC 429?

Your Answer: Bipolar RZ CORRECT
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8. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair of wires with

Your Answer: a 130 ohm resistor at both ends CORRECT
Eismin, Page 91.
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9. How many voltage levels does ARINC 429 have?
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10. An ARINC 629 stub cable

connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current
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Members Home Your Answer: corrosion of the conductor CORRECT

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2. An aircraft databus system
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Your Answer:
card files and signal gateways CORRECT
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3. ARINC 629 is used for

Your Answer: normal flight CORRECT
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Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a message it will wait how long
4.
before transmitting again?
Your Answer: Until the end of the transmit interval CORRECT
Eismin, Page 95.
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5. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?

Your Answer: Octal 01100001 CORRECT
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6. What is ARINC 561 used for?

Your Answer: Inertial Navigation Systems CORRECT
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An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits 11-18 are patched which of the
7.
following would be the LSB bit?
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8. Fibreoptic databus links are

Your Answer: simplex INCORRECT
Correct Answer: bi-directional
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9. ARINC 429 is
Your Answer: simplex CORRECT
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10. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses

Your Answer: a pair of wires per transmitter unit INCORRECT
Correct Answer: a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics
148
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Your Answer: time division multiplexing CORRECT
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will transmit only once during each transmit interval
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The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent

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upon
Your Answer: parallel input impedance CORRECT
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Eismin, Page 78.
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4. One of the ARINC 429 formats is

Your Answer: octal INCORRECT
Correct Answer: BCD
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5. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is

Your Answer: parallel data CORRECT
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The ARINC 429 system uses which of the following system to transfer
6.
data?
Your Answer: Bi-polar return to zero CORRECT
Eismin, Page 77.
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7. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using

Your Answer: Manchester bi-phase CORRECT
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8. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes

Your Answer: databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable CORRECT
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9. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated using

Your Answer: 130 ohms resistor CORRECT
Eismin, Page 91.
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In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits,
10.
the L.S.B. Of the data would be
Your Answer: bit 19 CORRECT
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Your Answer: 11- 29 CORRECT
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2. ARINC 629 is transmitted using
Your Answer: fibre optics or twisted pair of wires CORRECT
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3. A simplex system has

Your Answer: 1 transmitter and multiple receivers CORRECT
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To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429

4.
system
Your Answer: two databuses are required CORRECT
Tooley, Section 4.2.1, pg 38
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5. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series?

Your Answer: Saves weight CORRECT
146
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6. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus?
Your Answer: Yes CORRECT
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7. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit

Your Answer: when terminal gap is sensed CORRECT
149
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An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with
8.
padders then the LSB of the word will be
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Your Answer: one transmitter, many receivers CORRECT
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In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is

10.
represented in bits 1- 8 as
Your Answer: 01101000 INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 00001011
Comment/Reference: Octal 320 converted to binary, and reversed.
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Your Answer: shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap CORRECT
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Your Answer: for database loads CORRECT
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operation. Aperiodic mode is for non-normal operation and
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3. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved?

Your Answer: Via a current mode coupler INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Using two data buses
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4. The data format used to transmit a signal to the flight data recorder
Your Answer: Harvard bi-phase 12 bit CORRECT
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5. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal is

Your Answer: +10v to -10v CORRECT
Eismin, Page 78.
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6. An ARINC 629 label word is

Your Answer: 8 bits INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 12 bits
Comment/Reference: 12-bit label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit
time hi-lo synch pulse. 20 bit in total
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7. The TX/RX of ARINC 629 is

Your Answer: switching INCORRECT
Correct Answer: multiplex/demultiplex
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8. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is

Your Answer: can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Ed, pg149
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9. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and receive information?

Your Answer: Inductive coupling CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronicw, Eisman 5th ed page 149
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10. What is ARINC 561 used for?

Your Answer: To specify Inertial Nav data bus CORRECT
Comment/Reference: See ARINC Tutorial. Download from the Tutorial Support
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Your Answer: To indicate to the receiver that the data is valid CORRECT
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Your Answer: Single Source Multiple Sink System CORRECT
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What is the purpose of intermediate production breaks in ARINC 429 or

3.
629 Data cables?
To allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left
Your Answer: system buses into two parts for easy removal and installation
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RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of __________

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Eismin, Page 76; 'Digital 1, Digital 0 and Null Signal'.
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6. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may travel in:
Your Answer: one direction only CORRECT
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Your Answer: has only 20 bits CORRECT
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Your Answer: checking parity CORRECT
Eismin, Page 79.
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9. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler in an ARINC 629 Data Bus?
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Eismin, Page 91, Fig 2-40 and Page 92.
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Your Answer: X = (A.B)NOT INCORRECT

Correct Answer: X = (NOT-A + NOT-B)
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The most appropriate logic family for use in a portable item of test
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A CMOS logic gate is operated from a 12V supply. If a voltage of 3V is

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Correct Answer: logic 0
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Your Answer: connecting the inputs CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity & Electronics Eisman 5th ed , page 133
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4. What sort of gate is this?
Your Answer: NOR gate CORRECT

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When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the voltage
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The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The two
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The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The two
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Your Answer: A = 0, B = 0 CORRECT
134, Fig 7-13 (b).
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9. What is this symbol?
Your Answer: Exclusive OR gate CORRECT

136, Fig 7-23 (a).
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10. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit indicate?
Your Answer: OR gate CORRECT

134, Fig 7-14 (a).
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142, Fig 7-41 (b).
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133
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3. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have

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Your Answer: an OR gate CORRECT
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Your Answer: diodes INCORRECT
Correct Answer: transistors
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A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q is an

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Your Answer: A and B = 0 CORRECT
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133, Fig 7-11 (a).
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ABS
000
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9. 1 0 1
110
What type of gate is this?

Your Answer: E-OR CORRECT
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10. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to operate?
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The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and X =0110 indicates that the logic
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Your Answer: an EXCLUSIVE OR gate CORRECT
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4. What input is required to activate the relay shown?
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A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was zero,
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135, Fig 7-21 (b).
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When A=1, B=0, Cin=1, then the outputs of the following logical network
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Your Answer: number of inputs to a gate CORRECT
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Your Answer: Full Adder Circuit CORRECT

142, Fig 7-41 (b).
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9. What would be the outputs of this circuit, if A=0 B=0 C=1
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Study Notes 142, Fig 7-41.
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144, and Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett
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Correct Answer: semiconductor material
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A high level language statement is usually equivalent to several

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Your Answer: ALU, timing and control section, register CORRECT
153 Basic CPU,. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th
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In a computer, the code that fetches correct data and feeds it to the ALU is
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The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a central processor unit (CPU) carries
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If three binary counters are connected in cascade method to form a

9. frequency divider, what is the division factor which will be applied to the
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When 4 binary serial counters are connected in cascade for frequency

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Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI) means the number of gates in a single
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Members Area 1. Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are
smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security
and higher bandwidth CORRECT

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2. A fibre optic cable consists of
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a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive
Your Answer:
index CORRECT
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3. Fibre optic cables

Your Answer: are immune to EMI CORRECT
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Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite touching.
4.
This is called
Your Answer: end to end coupling CORRECT
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5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is

end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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6. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?

Your Answer: Infrared CORRECT
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7. Fibreoptic data is sent by

Your Answer: a strobe light CORRECT
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light.
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8. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by

Your Answer: using an opto-isolator coupling CORRECT
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it can still transmit HIRF which has been picked up by the
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9. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is checked by

Your Answer: a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter CORRECT
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10. A fibreoptic data bus used on an aircraft

Your Answer: can transmit on several channels at the same time CORRECT
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Your Answer: reflection CORRECT
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2. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?
Your Answer: Expensive to install CORRECT
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3. A typical fibre optic connector is

Your Answer: coupling type, with lens fitted CORRECT
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4. Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?

Your Answer: Laser Diode CORRECT
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5. What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary wire?

Your Answer: Large bandwidth CORRECT
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6. A fibreoptic light source is normally

Your Answer: a laser or LED CORRECT
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The fibreoptic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket colour which
7.
is
Your Answer: purple CORRECT
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For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected you
8.
would use the
Your Answer: butt type CORRECT
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9. What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics?

Your Answer: Kinking and contamination of connectors CORRECT
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10. A fibreoptic data bus

Your Answer: can transmit several messages simultaneously CORRECT
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Members Area 1. Star couplers are used in fibre optic systems for
Your Answer: equally distributing signals to equipments CORRECT
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2. A fibreoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected
very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss
CORRECT
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3. In a single mode fibreoptic cable

the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of
Your Answer:
the light used CORRECT
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A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when

4.
stimulated by photons is called
Your Answer: a laser diode CORRECT
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5. What does a fibreoptic star connection do?

Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated
Your Answer:
lines emanating from the central hub CORRECT
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A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED compared to an
6.
end-fire coupling is
Your Answer: more efficient CORRECT
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7. Passive sensors in fibreoptics

Your Answer: process the signal but do not require power CORRECT
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8. Optical fibre losses are due to

Your Answer: absorption, scattering and reflection CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 50
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9. The cone of acceptance is measured between

Your Answer: longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 29
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10. Fibreoptic cables use

Your Answer: refractive outer shell CORRECT
Comment/Reference: The outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so
than the core). Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection
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Members Area 1. In fibreoptic cable, signals are separated by

Your Answer: active optic filter CORRECT
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2. Most fibreoptic connectors are designed so
Your Answer: the connectors can not be over tightened CORRECT
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3. The light source used in fibreoptics is

Your Answer: higher bandwidth than visible light INCORRECT
Correct Answer: lower bandwidth than visible light
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4. Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable is due to

Your Answer: repeated internal reflection CORRECT
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The name given to the joining of two fibreoptic cables by aligning them
5.
carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is
Your Answer: End to end CORRECT
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6. In a fibreoptic cable
multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 189
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7. Fibreoptics relies on
Your Answer: light reflecting off cladding CORRECT
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The 'light' emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a
8.
wavelength
Your Answer: slightly longer then that of visible light CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Infrared from 850nm. Visible light is 400 - 800 nm
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9. Sensors in a fibreoptic flight control system

Your Answer: require power for processors CORRECT
Comment/Reference: The sensor is usually a photo-diode
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10. Fibreoptic systems can transmit data in

Your Answer: both directions at the same time CORRECT
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Members Area For high bandwidth high-speed fibreoptic transmission what sort of cable
1.
would you use?
Members Home Your Answer: Step index INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Single mode
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Your Answer: more than visible light CORRECT
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What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source
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in fibre optics?
Your Answer: Lower frequency range CORRECT
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4. Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre

is never greater then the speed of light in free space
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Fiber Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 15
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5. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibreoptic cable will be

Your Answer: approximately half that of the cone of acceptance CORRECT
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6. In an optical fibre, the angle of acceptance is

Your Answer: 1/2 the cone of acceptance CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 29
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7. When using a TDR (time delay reflectometer) the loss value of the cable is
Your Answer: shown by the curve on the screen CORRECT
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8. Common aircraft fibreoptics use

Your Answer: modulating intensity on direct read CORRECT
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9. What is the main cause of attenuation in fibreoptics?
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Your Answer: Poor termination CORRECT

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10. What is the advantage of a laser diode over an LED?

Your Answer: Narrower bandwidth CORRECT
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would be used for connections not regularly disconnected
CORRECT

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2. A shadow masks CRT works by
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one layer of red, green and blue dot matrix excited by their
Your Answer:
own electrode guns CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems - Pallett, Page
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290.
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3. The inside of a CRT consists of

Your Answer: a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas CORRECT
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4. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a

Your Answer: sawtooth wave CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronic and Computer Systems, Mike
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In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the
5.
direction of the electron beam movement?
Your Answer: Horizontal INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Vertical
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6. Primary colours of a CRT are

Your Answer: red, green and blue CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronics & Computer Systems, section
11.1.4, page 124
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7. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?

Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam
Your Answer:
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8. EADI sky and ground display is provided by

Your Answer: raster scan CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control (Fourth Edition) - Pallett & Coyle,
Page 272.
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9. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?

Your Answer: 400 Hz INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 50/60 Hz
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10. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is

Your Answer: sawtooth INCORRECT
Correct Answer: trapezoidal
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Electromagnetic CRT uses trapezoidal waveform to overcome
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Members Area 1. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by

Your Answer: a trapezoidal waveform CORRECT
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2. The timebase in a CRT consists of
Your Answer: an amplifier and an oscillator CORRECT
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3. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?

Your Answer: Sinusoidal frequency INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Sawtooth frequency
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section 11.1.3, page 122
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The trace of an oscilloscope begins when the input level is approximately

4. 10 volts but the peak values indicate 20 volts. What can be done to cause
the trace to begin at zero volts?
Your Answer: Adjust the volt per division to zero volts/cm INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Adjust the trigger level to zero volts trigger.
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5. How are colours produced on an active matrix LCD (AMLCD)?

By controlling the intensity of the tri-colour emitters in each
Your Answer:
pixel. CORRECT
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6. LCD screens are driven by

Your Answer: AC voltage CORRECT
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7. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that
Your Answer: it requires no cooling CORRECT
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8. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of

Your Answer: an LED CORRECT
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If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the
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Your Answer: Horizontally CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronics & Computer Systems,
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10. An LED display is

Your Answer: monochrome only CORRECT
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Your Answer: Continuous AC CORRECT
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2. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are
Your Answer: electromagnetic CORRECT
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3. The supply to an LCD is

Your Answer: AC CORRECT
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4. An LED will emit light when

Your Answer: it is forward biased CORRECT
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5. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a

Your Answer: large viewing angle CORRECT
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6. To display a circle on a CRT you use

Your Answer: 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase CORRECT
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To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of
7.
the tube
Your Answer: top and bottom CORRECT
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If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel

8.
to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in
Your Answer: vertical axis CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Digital Electronics & Computer Systems by Mike
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9. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is

Your Answer: an electromagnetic system INCORRECT
Correct Answer: a combined system
Comment/Reference: Boeing 757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI),
Section (2)........'It (the CRT) utilizes magnetic deflection and
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10. L.E.D.s can give

Your Answer: monochrome displays only CORRECT
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Your Answer: is slower to update as data changes CORRECT
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2. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is
Your Answer: 84 triads CORRECT
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3. An LCD display
Your Answer: has three colours only CORRECT
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mixing them, it can get different colours, but not an infinite
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4. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data requires

16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and
Your Answer:
numerals CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems - Pallett, Page 13.
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5. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in

Your Answer: weather radar indicators CORRECT
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6. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube?
A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Success in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285
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7. A colour LCD which is back lit has

Your Answer: three colours CORRECT
Comment/Reference: LCDs have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make
other colours (of limited number)
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8. A dot matrix/LED construction is

Your Answer: 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13
- 15 (Although, in the real world, others are available too).
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9. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?

Your Answer: It uses less current CORRECT
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10. A seven segment display is used to

Your Answer: display octal and binary numbers only INCORRECT
Correct Answer: display octal and decimal numbers only
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Your Answer: By Stroke pulse CORRECT
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2. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the
Your Answer: Cathode CORRECT
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3. 'Submarining' is
caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast
Your Answer:
moving images on screen CORRECT
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4. ESDS bags are sealed by

Your Answer: twine (100% cotton) CORRECT
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5. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment?

Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label
6.
indicate?
Your Answer: Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed CORRECT
Comment/Reference: See Pallet's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systems or CAAIPs
9-4 para.7.1.3.
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7. During an EFIS screen fit

Your Answer: do not touch terminals CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems - Pallet. pg 219
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With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what
8.
electrostatic voltage value would you expect to see?
Your Answer: 35,000 volts CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 Page 3
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9. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the

resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1
Your Answer:
megohms CORRECT
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The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions
10.
should be
Your Answer: 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1
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Your Answer: First earth with aircraft then to it INCORRECT
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Correct Answer: Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft
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After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft

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ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured
between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms
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CORRECT
Study Notes
Comment/Reference: Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the
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Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity
3.
voltage?
Your Answer: SCR CORRECT
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4. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices

to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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5. A humid atmosphere
Your Answer: reduces static charge CORRECT
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6. Electrostatic discharge occurs when

materials of different potential are brought in close proximity
Your Answer:
to each other CORRECT
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Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you

7.
must first ensure that there is minimum current flow between
Your Answer: the assembly and the aircraft INCORRECT
Correct Answer: you and the aircraft
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When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current

8.
path between
Your Answer: you and the assembly INCORRECT
Correct Answer: you and the aircraft
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An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause
9.
a significant reduction in safety margins may also cause
Your Answer: injuries to some occupants CORRECT
Comment/Reference: DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (now removed/replaced).
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An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due

10.
to a software error, may cause
Your Answer: injuries to some occupants CORRECT
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Members Area An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a

1.
Software Level of
Members Home Your Answer: B CORRECT

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2.
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Your Answer: D CORRECT
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An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a

3.
software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be
Your Answer: slightly decreased CORRECT
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If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to

4.
some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality category of
Your Answer: major effect CORRECT
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no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of
Your Answer: minor effect CORRECT
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6. Requirements for software control can be found in

Your Answer: AWN 43 CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Old AWN 43 (Field Loadable Software) has been deleted at
issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12
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7. Software can be modified by

using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
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8. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS?

Your Answer: The manufacturer CORRECT
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9. Software documentation procedures are laid down in

Your Answer: AWN (45) CORRECT
Comment/Reference: AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12
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10. Control of software is carried out by

Your Answer: the National Aviation Authority CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Old AWN 45
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Members Area 1. What is the definition of level one software?

Your Answer: Critical CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12
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2. Who can sign for a software update?
Your Answer: Engineer CORRECT
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3. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?

Your Answer: Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities CORRECT
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4. Software changes come under the responsibility of

Your Answer: the aircraft constructor CORRECT
Comment/Reference: AWN 45. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12
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5. Who can design new software?

Your Answer: BCAR section A8 approved company CORRECT
Comment/Reference: AWN45a para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8). Now
see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12
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6. As far as a software product is concerned

the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a
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programmed EPROM CORRECT
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7. AWN 43 requires that

the aircraft constructors be responsible for software
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assessment CORRECT
AWN 43 is now reproduced in CAP 562 Leaflet 9-14
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8. Level 1 software failure

Your Answer: is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft CORRECT
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Members Area In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe
1. and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or
DC or main earth return should not exceed
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Comment/Reference: EEL/1-6 Table 1
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Order Modules Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage
2.
should be protected by
Tutorial Support Your Answer: connecting all conductors to a common earth INCORRECT
Correct Answer: earthing each alternative conductor to separate point
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3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must

Your Answer: use an opto-isolator CORRECT
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4. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?

Your Answer: Unserviceable radio filters CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller
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5. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection

by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against
Your Answer:
HIRF CORRECT
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6. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by

Your Answer: built in filters and overvoltage circuits CORRECT
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7. To stop earth loops forming, you would

Your Answer: earth only one end of the cable screen CORRECT
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8. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

Your Answer: A static wick check is required CORRECT
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9. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done

at and during production and testing (initial certification)
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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10. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film
the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good
Your Answer:
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Members Area 1. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables

avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric
constant CORRECT

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2. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be
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Your Answer: positioned separately from the loom CORRECT
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When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a programme of

3.
HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less than
Your Answer: 50 milliohms CORRECT
1 of 3 9/30/2009 3:19 AM
Comment/Reference: CAAIP Leaflet 9-1
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4. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by

shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters
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CORRECT
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5. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment

Your Answer: ensure all static wicks are in place CORRECT
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6. For braided cables, the amount of braiding

keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away
Your Answer:
from the susceptible circuit CORRECT
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7. HIRF is acronym for

Your Answer: High Intensity Radiated Field CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAAIPs Leaflet 9-11 page 1
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8. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by

Your Answer: spark gap CORRECT
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An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also

9.
provides
Your Answer: dedicated status and warnings CORRECT
Comment/Reference: The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS
warnings come from the GPWS Computer
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10. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by

Your Answer: ICAO CORRECT
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Members Area 1. Testing of a CADC can be carried out

Your Answer: on the ground only CORRECT
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2. EADI sky and ground display is provided by
Your Answer: raster scan CORRECT
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Tutorial Support Comment/Reference: Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 302 Fig. 12.5
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3. What has the highest priority on an ECAM display?

Your Answer: Failure CORRECT
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4. SIDs data stored in the FMC performance database is

Your Answer: Standard Instrument Departures CORRECT
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5. A modern EHSI will display the following in MAP mode:

waypoints, ILS frequency, ETA, magnetic heading, WXR
Your Answer:
display, distance to go CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. EHJ Pallett fig
12.6
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6. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is

Your Answer: out of view CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only
coloured flag used is RED, indicating failure
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7. MFD is the abbreviation for

Your Answer: Multi function display CORRECT
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8. A level 'B' alert message in EICAS requires

Your Answer: Timely Action CORRECT
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9. The FMS can reset the error that builds up in the IRS by using
2 of 3 9/30/2009 3:23 AM
Your Answer: VOR, DME, GPS, LOC CORRECT

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10. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is
Your Answer: 12.36 microsecond CORRECT
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Members Area 1. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of

Your Answer: 21 active and 3 spare CORRECT
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2. An IRS is only certifed for alignment up to
Your Answer: +78.25 and -78.25 degrees CORRECT
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3. The command bars on an ADI relate to

Your Answer: path required CORRECT
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4. ECAM has at its heart

Your Answer: a central maintenance computer INCORRECT
Correct Answer: a multi function symbol generator
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5. The glideslope in an ILS provides

Your Answer: vertical references CORRECT
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6. The recording medium in an FDR is

Your Answer: magnetic tape coated with ferrite CORRECT
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7. An FMS databank memory is updated

Your Answer: every 28 days CORRECT
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8. The frequency of glideslope transmitter is

Your Answer: 328.6 to 335.4 MHz CORRECT
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9. A strapdown INS has

Your Answer: a solid state accelerometer system CORRECT
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10. What does the CADC feed?

cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12
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Members Area 1. Marker beacon receivers have

no control unit as the unit typically turns on when the avionics
master switch is activated CORRECT
My Personal Details Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 312

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In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the
2.
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Your Answer: Control and Display Unit CORRECT
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3. The polled mode in an ACARS

operates only when interrogated by the ground facility
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to

4.
achieve a 3 dimensional fix is
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5. ACARS system operates in the frequency range of

Your Answer: 131.550 MHz CORRECT
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In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies

6.
the satellite using a
Your Answer: pseudo random code CORRECT
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7. In a MCDU, the flight deck effect is

any EICAS display or discrete annunciator to inform the flight
Your Answer:
crew of an in-flight fault CORRECT
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In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are
8.
ignored as these may cause
Your Answer: range errors CORRECT
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9. In an EICAS level C messages are

Your Answer: advisories and displayed in amber or light blue CORRECT
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Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function

10.
correctly is indicated on the display by
Your Answer: boxes CORRECT
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Members Area 1. The compact mode in a EICAS is used

to show maintenance pages and when one display is inactive
CORRECT
My Personal Details Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 360

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2. The four display modes used by the ECAM system are
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Your Answer: flight phase, advisory, failure-related, manual CORRECT
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3. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments

Your Answer: provided there is adequate isolation CORRECT
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4. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are

Your Answer: pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out CORRECT
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5. EICAS provides the following:

Your Answer: Engine parameters and system warnings only CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12
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6. A central maintenance computer provides

ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board
Your Answer:
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7. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from

Your Answer: radio altimeter CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757
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8. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?
Your Answer: There are no outputs CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Information recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the
shop
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9. FMS failure and warnings are
2 of 3 9/30/2009 3:32 AM
Your Answer: displayed on EICAS CORRECT

Comment/Reference: FMS warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the
answers given are 'EICAS' or 'EFIS only' so for the purposes
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10. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by
Your Answer: position feedback CORRECT
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Members Area What information is required before completion of the alignment of an

1.
Inertial Navigation System?
Members Home Your Answer: Aircraft present position CORRECT
My Personal Details Comment/Reference: Aircraft Communications and Navigation Systems, Principles,
Maintenance and Operation, Mike Tooley and David Wyatt,
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2. IRS accelerometers are mounted
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3. An FMS navigation database is updated

Your Answer: every 28 days CORRECT
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4. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system

Your Answer: has no effect on aircraft operation CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Redundant FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft
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5. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in

ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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6. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by

Your Answer: spoilers and ailerons CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Automatic Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296
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7. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are

Your Answer: electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated CORRECT
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If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol
8.
generator?
Your Answer: Standby CORRECT
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9. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording

Your Answer: on engine start-up CORRECT
Comment/Reference: See ANO Art 53 para.1
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10. The FMS databases consist of

Your Answer: one navigation and one performance database INCORRECT
Correct Answer: one performance and two navigation databases
Comment/Reference: Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1
navigational and 1 performance). (Jeppesen Avionics
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Members Area The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from
1.
either
Members Home Your Answer: GPS, DME, LOC and VOR CORRECT

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2. The accepted error from INS/IRS is
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Your Answer: 3 miles / hour + 3 miles CORRECT
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3. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence

Your Answer: the current present position must be entered CORRECT
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4. What warnings can an FMS provide?

Your Answer: Spurious faults INCORRECT
Correct Answer: Discrete warnings
Comment/Reference: This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not
when equipment is providing incorrect data
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5. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System

give red warnings and amber cautions to display system
Your Answer:
status CORRECT
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The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars
6.
move can be controlled by
Your Answer: rate or velocity feedback CORRECT
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The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of

7.
operation
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page
359
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8. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated

Your Answer: as a standby to the No1 and No2 system CORRECT
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EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by
9.
comparators in the
Your Answer: Symbol Generators CORRECT
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10. What is the approximate earth rate?

Your Answer: 15°/hour CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page
102
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Your Answer: three accelerometers CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137
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2. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide
Your Answer: rate of movement about an axis CORRECT
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3. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?

Your Answer: TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: Both Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a

digital ADC
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4. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will
Your Answer: one in active mode, one in damping mode INCORRECT
Correct Answer: both be active
Comment/Reference: Ref to B777 and A330 manuals, the term active mode will
always be associated with fully operational of redundancy of
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revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to remaining
active actuators.
5. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?

Your Answer: ELAC and SEC CORRECT
Comment/Reference: ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator
Computer and FAC = Flight Augmentation Computers
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The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating

6.
is
Your Answer: on engine start-up CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR Ops states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is
capable of moving under its own power.
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7. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to

Your Answer: download aircraft status reports CORRECT
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8. B-RNAV system must be capable of

Your Answer: displaying distance and bearing to waypoint CORRECT
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9. The basic principle of radar is based upon

the time delay between outward and returning pulse
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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10. What systems does the ADC feed?

Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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Members Area 1. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?
Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems
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2. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?
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Your Answer: EADI CORRECT
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3. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?

1 of 3 9/30/2009 3:44 AM
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4. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is

Your Answer: from engine start CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I
Para 53
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5. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is

Your Answer: prior to beginning of take off roll CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c)
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The difference between the right ADC (air data computer) and the left ADC
6.
is encoded in the
Your Answer: SDI field CORRECT
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7. In a typical EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System)

three symbol generators are used to supply the four displays
Your Answer:
with the correct signals CORRECT
Page 297
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If colour distortion appears around the edges of an EFIS (Electronic Flight

8.
Instrument System) display, the
CRT's degaussing circuits are operating continuously
Your Answer:
INCORRECT
Correct Answer: CRT (Cathode Ray Tube) has become magnetised
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An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from

9.
acceleration by
Your Answer: two successive integrations CORRECT
Page 191 and 192, Fig 6.11
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10. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS
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Your Answer: accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe CORRECT
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2. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from
Your Answer: central Air Data Computer CORRECT
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The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is
3.
to
update the FMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight
Your Answer:
plan INCORRECT
update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of
Correct Answer:
latitude and longitude
1 of 3 9/30/2009 3:47 AM
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4. The FMS is updated

by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a
Your Answer:
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5. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by

Your Answer: stabilizer and elevator CORRECT
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In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side
6.
stick controller:
there is no control surface feedback to the side stick
Your Answer:
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7. A basic IRS platform has

Your Answer: 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros CORRECT
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8. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?
Your Answer: Present position CORRECT
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9. The FMS Operational Database is

Your Answer: updated once a month INCORRECT
is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and
Correct Answer:
cost index before take off
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10. Control surface feedback is fed back to

Your Answer: the Flight Control Computer only CORRECT
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2. Control surface feedback is fed back to
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3. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is

Your Answer: integrated twice to give distance CORRECT
1 of 3 9/30/2009 4:03 AM

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4. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides

Your Answer: standby power when airborne and on the ground CORRECT
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247 & 248
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5. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will
remain in the failure position but may move due to
Your Answer:
aerodynamic pressure CORRECT
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6. IRS alignment
takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered
Your Answer:
before alignment. INCORRECT
takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be
Correct Answer:
entered at any time during alignment
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A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment
7.
sequence. The correct action is
select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU),
Your Answer: observe the action code in the right alpha/numeric display
CORRECT
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8. A FMS has a total of how many Databases

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9. Fly by wire High Speed protection is

Your Answer: to prevent tuck under CORRECT
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10. An IRS Laser gyro provides

detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis
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will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when
all other symbol generators have failed CORRECT

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2. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will
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Your Answer: not have any operational effect on the system CORRECT
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3. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?

Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and
Your Answer:
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A full operation system BITE check will carry out an internal system test
4.
that ensures the system meets design requirements and is operational
as well as checking full system but will not move the controls
Your Answer:
to their stops CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report
604 guidance for design and use of built in test equipment
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If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of
5.
information. This is most likely to be
Your Answer: the input sensor bus and display controller CORRECT
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SG, a fault with one SG would affect only one display.
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6. A centralised monitoring computer system is used

to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on
Your Answer:
the ground using a carry on control unit INCORRECT
to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised
Correct Answer:
on board control unit
270
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In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated
7.
by
Your Answer: stroke pulse CORRECT
Comment/Reference: 757 MM 34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page
47, 4(b)
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The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc.
8.
on an EADI is by
Your Answer: stroke pulse CORRECT
2 of 4 9/30/2009 4:06 AM
Comment/Reference: MM 737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757

34-22-00 page 40 (p). 'The special symbols, characters,
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9. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used

to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start

10.
recording?
Your Answer: On first engine start CORRECT
Comment/Reference: CAP 393 Section I Para 53, OR answer a by JAR OPS Para
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Your Answer: by the pilot INCORRECT
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162.
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3. If one EICAS CRT fails

Your Answer: the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data CORRECT
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4. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by

An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight
Your Answer: deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett
pages 297 (fig 12.1) & 299
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A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an

5.
engineering and monitoring ground station is
Your Answer: ACARS CORRECT
299
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6. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested

Your Answer: on the ground only INCORRECT
Correct Answer: in the air and on the ground
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7. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system

Your Answer: can be displayed on each individual display CORRECT
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8. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during

Your Answer: take-off CORRECT
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Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on

9.
airframe and engine on which system?
Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
Your Answer:
CORRECT
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10. The Flight data recorder starts recording

Your Answer: after the first engine has started CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR OPS Subpart K 1.715 e
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Members Area 1. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if
Your Answer: source isolation has been considered CORRECT
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2. A central fault display system should be available through
an easily accessible multifunction control display unit
CORRECT
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3. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording

Your Answer: the last 25 hours of operation CORRECT
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Comment/Reference: JAR OPS 1.715
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4. BITE for ground use only is switched off

Your Answer: on take-off CORRECT
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During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on

5.
the Engine/Warning display comes from the
Your Answer: ECAM channel of DMC3 INCORRECT
Correct Answer: ECAM channel of DMC1
Comment/Reference: A330-200 31-50-00 pg4. DMC 1 supplies data to the
Captain's PFD and ND and the upper ECAM DU. DMC 3
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ECAM DU. DMC 2 is standby.
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6. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

Your Answer: great circle route CORRECT
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7. Aircraft heading (HDG) is

the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the
Your Answer:
aircraft CORRECT
254
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8. For an IRS System to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the
the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude
Your Answer:
computed by IRU CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages
279-280
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9. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays
difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of
Your Answer:
the desired track CORRECT
256
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10. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?

Your Answer: Lower screen only - only available on the ground CORRECT
Comment/Reference: B747 Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and
Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 380
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Your Answer: Continuously when system is in use CORRECT
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152 and 268
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2. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
CORRECT
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3. An IN system requires data from the

Your Answer: air data computer CORRECT
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4. XTK (cross track) is the

Your Answer: perpendicular distance from the desired track CORRECT
256
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5. The output of an INS can be fed to the

Your Answer: attitude indicators CORRECT
247 fig 10.1. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137 &
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6. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted

Your Answer: 90° to each other CORRECT
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7. Gyro-compassing is the term used for

use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the
Your Answer:
platform INCORRECT
Correct Answer: self-alignment in azimuth
280
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8. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to

give red warnings and amber cautions to display system
Your Answer:
status CORRECT
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The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of

9.
operation
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10. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to

Your Answer: an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor CORRECT
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Members Area 1. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM
Your Answer: during power up INCORRECT
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Correct Answer: during flight
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2. How does the symbol generator detect a program error?

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Your Answer: By looking at the odd parity without error CORRECT
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3. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as

CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents
Your Answer:
data. CORRECT
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4. An IRU interface test is carried out

Your Answer: only on the ground CORRECT
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5. FMS system gives warning indications for

Your Answer: any flight phase INCORRECT
Correct Answer: cruise
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6. FMS CDU warnings are

Your Answer: MSG, fail and OFST CORRECT
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7. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to

perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e.
Your Answer:
BITE CORRECT
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8. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs

Your Answer: a performance test of the system CORRECT
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A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out
9.
when?
Your Answer: Power-up self test CORRECT
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In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a

10.
maneouvre?
Your Answer: RA CORRECT
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Your Answer: White diamonds, red squares and amber circles CORRECT
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My Personal Details
tooley and david wyatt, page 277
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2. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to
Your Answer: Symbol Generator failure CORRECT
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3. ACARS is an acronym for

Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
Your Answer:
CORRECT
1 of 3 9/30/2009 4:23 AM
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4. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?

Your Answer: When the first engine starts CORRECT
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5. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has

Your Answer: a master warning light CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Avotek A/C Systems maintenance pg 5-73
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6. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system
SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word
Your Answer:
TEST appears on the screen CORRECT
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Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment

7.
sequence comes from
Your Answer: Earths Rotation CORRECT
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8. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane?

Your Answer: Only IRS CORRECT
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9. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?

Your Answer: Pilot input CORRECT
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10. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System

Your Answer: Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view CORRECT
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1. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS
Members Area RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on
Your Answer:
the EHSI INCORRECT
RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on
Members Home Correct Answer:
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2. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates

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Your Answer: power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault CORRECT
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3. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following:

Your Answer: engine parameters and system warnings only CORRECT
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4. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to operate?

Your Answer: BEFORE take-off CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Minimum requirement is AT first engine start (according to
JAR OPS) which is BEFORE take-of
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5. ECAM system was adopted for

Your Answer: Airbus A310 CORRECT
Comment/Reference: Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd edition EHJ Pallet chap 8
page133
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A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could

6.
use:
Your Answer: a plastic tape coated in ferrite CORRECT
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7. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR to start recording?

When aircraft is capable of moving under its own power
Your Answer:
CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR Ops 1.700 para c
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As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start

8.
recording?
Your Answer: Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power CORRECT
Comment/Reference: JAR Ops 1.700 para c
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1. ARINC 429 NULL state is represented by a voltage of
Members Area Your Answer: 0V CORRECT

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2. When testing a diode with a test set, what voltage drop would be typical?
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3. What is the data stored on within bubble memory?
Your Answer: Magnetic loops CORRECT
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4. The aircraft clocks send signals to aircraft systems to

Your Answer: display/record Greenwich Mean Time CORRECT
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In an ARINC 429 digital data word, the source/destination identifier is

5.
made up of two bits positioned at
Your Answer: bits 9-10 CORRECT
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The Flight Management Computer System is updated periodically during

6.
flight by
Your Answer: the pilot CORRECT
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7. 26 octal, represented in decimal, is

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8. ARINC 429 slow speed transmission is

Your Answer: 10 microseconds INCORRECT
Correct Answer: 80 microseconds
This question has been asked 19 times with a success rate of only 42 percent.
Comment/Reference: 12.5 kbits/s = 80 µs per bit
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