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1. In altimeter current static pressure is fed to

a. AI capsule

b. Instrument case.

c. Pressure setting knob

2. If the static vent is blocked during descent, the altimeter will

a. Over read

b. Under read.

c. Read correct.

3. What is pressure altitude?

a. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.

b. The indicated altitude corrected for non standard temperature and pressure.

c. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92".

4. PA is the altitude indicated on altimeter set to

a. 1013.25 mb

b. QFE.

c. QNH.

5. Static ports [vents] are located on both sides of fuselage to reduce/ eliminate.

a. Errors due to yaw.

b. Errors due to pitching.

c. Errors due to tow atmospheric pressure at higher altitude,

d. Errors due to compressibility.

6. While departing from an aerodrome if altimeter setting is not available due to any a c should

a. Set altimeter to zero feet.

b. Take off on 1013.2 Mbs setting

c. Set altimeter to aerodrome- elevation ft r take off

7. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude.'

a. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.

b. When at sea level under standard conditions.

c. When at 18,000 reel MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

8. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15" to 29 85", what change occurs?

a. 700-feet increase in density altitude.

b. 700 -feet decrease in indicated altitude.

c. 700-feet increase in indicated altitude.

9. lf OAT (Outside Air Temp) increases during a flight at constant power and Indicated altitude ,
the TAS and True Altitude will -

a. Both decreases

b. TAS -increases True Altitude decreases

c. Both increases

10. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher
than true altitude.

b. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower
then true altitude.

c. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower
than true altitude.

11. What is density altitude?

a. The height above the standard datum plane.

b. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

c. PA corrected for instrument error

12. What is true altitude?

a. The height above the standard datum plane.

b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

c. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

13. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at 3 given altitude is warmer than standard, the density
altitude is

a. Higher than pressure altitude.

b. Tower than pressure altitude.

c. Equal to pressure altitude.

14. If the pitot rube is blocked the VSI will

a. Under-read.

b. Over read.

c. Read normally.

15. During a climb when static is blocked, the ASI will

a. Under - read.

b. Over read.

c. Read normally.

16. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

a. Vertical speed.

b. Altimeter.

c. Airspeed.

17. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

a. Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

b. Altimeter only.

c. Airspeed only

18. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for

a. Installation and instrument

b. Instrument error.

c. Non-standard temperature.

19. If static vent is blocked during climb Altimeter, ASI and mach will

a. Under read

b. Over read

c. Read same

20. At constant TAS highest IAS will be obtained when outside air is.

a. Warm and moist

b. Cold and dry

c. Cold and moist

d. Warm and dry,

21. True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for

a. Installation or instrument error.

b. Non-standard temperature.

c. Altitude and non-standard temperature.

22. If pitot head is blocked during climb at constant speed, the ASI will

a. Over read

b. Read same

c. Under read

23. It" the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be

a. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

b. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn -and-slip indicator.

c. The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

24. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

a. Airspeed indicator.

b. Altimeter.

c. Vertical-speed indicator.

25. An a/c is maintaining constant power setting an a indicated alt. If OAT decreases the TAS will.

a. Decrease and true alt increase.

b. Decrease and true alt decrease.

c. Increase and true alt increase.

d. Increase and true alt decrease.

26. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particula
configuration will r

a. Decrease as the true airspeed decreases.

b. Decrease as the true airspeed increases.

c. Remain the same regardless of altitude.

27. What does the red diagonal line on an airspeed indicator represent?

a. Never-exceed speed.

b. Maneuvering speed.

c. Turbulent or rough-air speed.

28. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicator?

a. Never-exceed speed

b. Maximum structural cruising speed.

c. Maneuvering speed.

29. On a VSI.

a. Automatically compensates changes in temperature,

b. Rough control results in unreliable readings.

c. Level flight altitude is determined if instrument reads zero.

d. All above are correct.

30. The mach meter measures the ration of

a. Dynamics to static.

b. Pitot press to static press.

c. Dynamics to pitot.

31. A decrese to 0.1 mach results in decrease of TAS by 62 kts the LSS is

a. 280 k

b. 620 k

c. 632 k

32. Maintaining a const Mach No. The temp is increasing, the TAS will

a. Increase

b. Decrease

c. Remain same.

33. On LRC (Long range cruise), at constant power the mach No.

a. Remains constant

b. Increases with decreases of weight.

c. Decreases with decreases of weight.

34. Aircraft is at pressure altitude 20,000 feet and density altitude is also same, the OAT is

a. +15oC

b. +5oC

c. -25oC

Q33. Indicated airspeed?

Q34. Calibrated airspeed?

Q35. True airspeed?

Q36. Ground speed?

Q37. Equivalent airspeed?

35. If a weight is attached to the rotor of the horizontal axis gyro, the effect will be.

a. Tilt.

b. Drift.

c. Rigidity is reduced.

36. If a weight is suspended from the axis of horizontal axis gyro, the gyro will.

a. Topple.

b. Tilt.

c. Drift.

37. An a/c is turning to right & is skidding out of turn, the ball will go to ……as insufficient bank is

a. It-ft & right

b. right & left

c. left & left

d. right & right

38. Precession in Turn and Slip indicator are called

a. Primary and neutral

b. Primary and secondary.

c. Neutral and secondary.

39. Force experienced by turn and slip indicator while establishing rate of turn is known

a. Rigidity.

b. Precession.

c. Gravity.

40. The limitations of a typical air driven gyro are

a. 55° in pitch and roll.

b. 90° in pitch and roil

c. 90" in pitch and 180° in roll.

41. Gimballing error of a Dl is caused due to.

a. Unbalance of gyro system

b. Geometry of gimbal system

c. Excessive gyroscope precession.

42. The horizontal axis gyro rotor is rotating in clockwise direction if a force is applied the
precession will take place

a. At the point of application of the force.

b. 90o ahead in the clockwise direction

c. 90o in anti-clockwise direction.

43. Purpose of Latitude Nut in DG1 is to compensate.

a. Topple in vertical plane.

b. Apparent wander in horizontal plane.

c. Real wander in horizontal plain.

44. Advantage of electrically driven artificial horizon over air driven is.

a. Higher rigidity and higher accuracy thus greater operational limits.

b. Lesser rigidity and higher accuracy

c. Greater rigidity and lesser accuracy

d. No turning & acceleration error.

45. A turn is made through 360°, the error indication jf artificial horizon

a. Reaches max at first 180° & then reduces.

b. There is no error at first 180° but increases after 180°

c. The indications are correct at any time of turn)

46. In a climbing turn to the left the horizon bar will appear.

a. Below dummy a/c tilted to the left.

b. Above dummy a/c tilted to the left.

c. Below dummy a/c tilted to the right.

d. Above dummy a/c tilted to the right.

47. Instrument with least lag error is

a. ASI.

b. Altimeter.

c. VSI.

d. Attitude indicator [AH].

48. AH during acceleration shows

a. False climb and starboard bank.

b. False climb and port bank.

c. Correct attitude.

49. At low rotor speeds turn and Slip indicator will indicate

a. Same ROT

b. Higher ROT

c. Lesser ROT

50. The bank angle for rate 1 turn is equal to

a. TAS/100 + 7 deg

b. TAS/10 + 7 deg

c. GS/100 + 7 deg

d. TAS/10 - 7 deg

51. Errors of DGI are,

a. Acceleration error, turning error, attitude error, transport wander, rotor speed
error .

b. Gimbal error, random/real wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error,

transport wander

c. Gimbal error, loop error, roll error, rotor speed, transport wander.

d. Transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration


52. In gyroscopic theory drift is defined as

a. Angle between track required and track made good.

b. Wander real or apparent in vertical plane.

c. Apparent wander only in horizontal plane

d. Wander real or apparent in horizontal plane


53. Dip is the angle between.

a. Direction of true and magnetic north.

b. Freely suspended magnetic needle and vertical component of earth's magnetism.

c. Freely suspended magnetic needle and horizontal at that place.

d. Angle between magnetic and compass north.

54. Isoclinal line is line joining places of equal

a. Variation

b. Dip

c. Deviation

55. Lines joining places of zero dip/ zero variation are called

a. Isoclinal / Isogonal.

b. Aclinal/ Agonal.

c. AgonsI / Isogonal

56. Magnetic equator is.

a. Isoclinal.

b. Aclinal, line joining places of zero dip.

c. Agonal, line joining places of zero variation.

d. Line joining places of equal variation.

57. A freely suspended magnetic needle aligns itself with.

a. True north / south direction.

b. Horizontal.

c. Magnetic meridian.

d. Great circle.

58. North magnetic pole

a. Is stationary.

b. Moves slowly around true north in clockwise direction.

c. Moves around true north in anticlockwise direction.

d. Is stationery and Geographic pole moves around it.

59. Due to liquid swirl m compass the turning error will increase when the turn is made through
………….. heading

a. Northerly
b. Southerly

c. Remain same on all headings.

60. In Northern hemisphere if ac is accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compos will indicate

a. A turn momentarily when accelerated in any direction.

b. Correctly on North and South headings during acceleration and


c. A turn towards South while accelerating on Westerly heading.

d. A turn towards North when decelerating on Easterly heading

61. Northerly turning error in a direct reading magnetic compass[ Conventional magnetic
compass ] occurs due to

a. Vertical component of Earth's magnetic field

b. Centrifugal force created during turn

c. Centrifugal force created during turn.

62. An a/c while tuning left for finals for K/VV 33 from heading 060 will roll out tin heading (If
lead / lag angle is 10 degrees]

a. 340

b. 330

c. 350

d. 320

63. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

a. Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.

b. Difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.

c. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

64. In the Northern Hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward
the west if

a. A left turn is entered from a north heading.

b. An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

c. A right turn is entered from a north heading.

65. Purpose of liquid in magnetic compass is to achieve

a. Horizontality and sensitivity

b. Sensitivity and aperiodicity’s.

c. Horizontally and aperiodicity’s.

d. Sensitivity and aperiodicity’s.

66. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the
north if

a. A right turn is entered from an east heading.

b. A left turn is entered from a west heading.

c. An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

67. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a (urn toward the
south when

a. A left turn is entered from an east heading.

b. The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

c. A right turn is entered from a west heading.

68. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

a. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18o.

b. Only in straight -and-level un-accelerated flight.

c. As long as the airspeed is constant.

69. What should be the indication on magnetic compass when a/c rolls to right from heading
South in northern hemisphere

a. Compass will indicate turn la right at a rate higher than actual rate.

b. Compass will initially indicate turn to left.

c. Compass will initially remain in heading south and later catch up with actual

d. Indication will be corrected with correct "VOA and backward pressure on control

70. Advantages of gyrosyn compass over direct reading magnetic compass are

a. It Joes not have any deviations at all.

b. lt is dead beat and does not suffer from acceleration and turning errors.

c. It aligns it self with true north.

71. Fluxgate compass gyro axis is.

a. Vertical.

b. Horizontal.

c. Inclined.
72. When flying in Polar Regions, rely on.

a. DIC.

b. RIC.

c. DGI.

73. If a steady dot appears in anunciater window of gyrosyn compass.

a. Press synchronizing knob and press it in the direction of alternatively to dot and

b. Press synchronizing knob and press it in the direction of cross.

c. Press synchronizing knob and press it in the direction of dot.

74. Purpose of synchronizing knob in gyrosyn compass is.

a. To synchronizing compass initially with magnetic north.

b. To synchronizing compass with compass north

c. To synchronizing compass with E/W direction.

75. In a gyrosyn compass heading indicator is maintained in alignment with magnetic m by.

a. Magnetic compass.

b. Turn and slip indicator.

c. DGI.

d. Detector unit.

76. Before commencing compass swing ensure that

a. All electrical circuits are switched off.

b. Micro adjuster magnets have been removed.

c. All electrical circuits are switched on

77. Micro adjuster is used to correct.

a. Coeff A , B and C.

b. Coeff B and C only.

c. Coeff A only

78. Coeff A is corrected by

a. Micro adjuster

b. Aligning the lubber line with longitudinal axis

c. Changing the compass

d. Aligning the lubber line with magnetic meridian

79. Coefficient 'C is derived from

a. P+c

b. Q+f

c. P+f

d. Q+c

80. Deviation on heading θ =

a. Co-eff A + Co-eff B x Cos θ + Co-eff C x cos θ

b. Co-eff A + Co-eff B x Sin θ + Co-eff C x Cos θ

c. Co-eff A + Co-eff B x Sin θ + Co -eff C x Sin θ

d. Co-eff A + Co-eff B x Cos θ + Co - eff C x Sin θ

81. Residual deviations are.

a. Deviations due to vertical component of hard iron magnetism.

b. Deviations remaining after correcting deviations due to co-eff A, B and


c. Deviations due to soft iron component.


82. Ground attenuation of electro magnetic waves increases when.

a. Frequency decreases.

b. Waves length decreases.

c. Wave length increases

d. Transmission power increases.

83. Skip distance is generally.

a. Higher than skip zone [dead zone]

b. Equal to skip zone.

c. Less than skip zone.

84. Radio ducting is most significant in freq bands

a. VLF to MF

b. MF and HF

c. Upper MF and lower HF

d. VHF and above

85. Sky waves during day or night are not expected to occur in freq band

a. HF

b. VHF and above

c. MF and HF

86. Duct propagation/ super refraction occurs when a duct forms due to

a. Increase of permittivity with increase of height

b. Increase of temp/humidity with increase of height

c. Decrease of temp/humidity with increase of height

d. Both A and B are correct

87. In amplitude modulation

a. Amplitude of modulating signal is varied to the amplitude of carrier, and freq of

carrier remains constant.

b. Amplitude of carrier is varied in accordance with amplitude of module

ting signal keeping frequency of carrier constant
c. Amplitude of both carrier and modulating signal ire varied keeping freq of carrier

88. Duct propagation occurs usually in

a. Polar regions

b. Tropical and sub-tropical region

c. Arctic region

89. As freq increases amount of refraction through ionosphere

a. Decrease

b. Remain same

c. Increase

90. Night effect is expected to be greater at.

a. Short range from NDB.

b. Over head NDB.

c. Max pick up range from NDB

91. Night effect is more noticeable.

a. In hilly regions.

b. Oversea than over land.

c. Over land than over sea

d. Same over sea or land.

92. A horizontally polarized signal is best received by an aerial which is

a. Vertical

b. Horizontal

c. Circular

93. Static interference is maximum in

a. VHF

b. LF

c. UHF and above

94. Dead spate occurs prominently in freq band

a. UHF and above

b. UHF
c. HF

d. LF

95. Duct propagation occurs in _ band

a. HF

b. LF & HF at night

c. VHF & UHF

96. Phase comparison is possible between twosignals if they are of same

a. Frequency

b. Amplitude

c. Amplitude and freq

97. The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/ Facility Directory [AIP AERADlO) for a certain
airport indicate that

a. This airport is designated as an airport of entry.

b. This airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station.

c. The aerodrome has equipment with which to determine your direction

from the station.

98. When Radio waves travel from Sea to land at coast they are deflected-

a. Away from normal

b. Towards Radio station

c. Toward the normal.

99. VDF [VHF DF] bearing accuracy is classified as category 'B' when bearing is out within.

a. Plus or Minus 5°

b. Plus or Minus 2o

c. Plus or Minus 10o

d. Plus or Minus more than 10°

100. The ionospheres density is maximum in.

a. D layer

b. E layer

c. F layer

101. R-Nav stands for

a. Area navigation
b. Radio- navigation.

c. Radar navigation.

102. While navigating on R - nav the a/c.

a. Can fly from over-head one beacon to the next.

b. Can maintain track without having to fly over nav aid.

c. Can have direct route and reduce time distance and fuel.

d. Both B and C are correct.

103. Advantage of FM compared to AM is.

a. Less susceptible to static interference.

b. Easier to demodulate

c. More suitable to use at lower frequencies

d. Similar bandwidth

104. At a fixed frequency if level of ionization increases.

a. Dead space will increase because critical angle will increase.

b. Dead space will decrease because critical angle will decrease.

c. Dead space will increase because critical angle will decrease.

d. Dead space will decrease because critical angle will increase.


105. While tracking in on a constant heading of 055° the ADF needle on RM1 reads 060° and
after some time it reads057°,thea/c drift is

a. Port

b. Starboard

c. Nil

106. What timing procedure is followed during holding pattern on ADF

a. Begin timing when overhead NDB

b. Begin timing legs when abeam NDB

c. Begin timing on completion of inbound turn When using ADF ,the bearings
obtained are.

107. When using ADF ,the bearings obtained are

a. True
b. Relative

c. QDMs

d. QDRs.

108. If ADF reads 290° the a/c should turn — to home on to the NDB.

a. 70° to port.

b. 290° to port.

c. (290° - 180°) to starboard.

109. Fading of ADF signal with hunting needle is indication of

a. Coastal refraction

b. Night Effect

c. Thunderstorm activity in vicinity

d. Mountain effect

110. Night effect in ADF is most pronounced during.

a. Midnight

b. At low altitude

c. Dawn and dusk periods.

111. The combined polar diagram of loop and sense antenna signals is.

a. Limacon.

b. Circle.

c. Heart shaped cardioid.

d. Figure of Eight.

112. While tracking on a NDB in crosswind conditions using ADF

a. While maintaining desired track inbound with proper drift correction, the ADF
pointers deflected to windward side of nose position.

b. While maintaining desired track out-bound with proper drift correction,

the ADF pointer deflected to windward side of tail position.

c. While tracking in or out the heading correction is made away from ADF pointer.

d. Only when tracking out-bound heading correction is made away from ADF pointer.

113. An a/c is crossing a NDB Station to its star-board, the ADF readings will continue to.

a. Remain same

b. Increase
c. Decrease

114. NDBs transmit.

a. Horizontally polarized waves in HF band

b. Horizontally polarized waves in upper LF/ lower MF band.

c. Vertically polarized waves in upper LF/ lower MF band

115. When using ADF minimum signal is received.

a. When loop antenna is parallel to in-coming signal

b. When station is abeam the a/c position.

c. At null position when loop antenna is perpendicular to incoming signal.

116. We use upper LF and lower MF for ADF operation because.

a. This band has least night effect.

b. This freq band has mainly ground waves

c. This freq band has mainly sky waves, hence it gives long range.

117. An a/c NDB pointer indicates 000° on RMI when a/c heading is 225" The
quadarantal error if any expected to be.

a. Nil

b. Minimum

c. Maximum

118. An a/c on outbound track from a NDB is flying a heading compensating 10" S drift the
ADF should read.

a. 010°

b. 190°

c. 350°

d. 170°

119. An a/c maintaining constant heading on inbound track to a NDB, continues drifting,
port the relative bearing will.

a. Remain 180°

b. Continue increasing

c. Continue decreasing.

d. Remain 000.

120. Most accurate radio bearings are obtained.

a. When Tx is over sea and Rx over land.

b. When Tx and Rx are both over sea or both over land.

c. When Tx is over land and Rx over sea.

121. When a/c is on heading 360 QEC is most when ADF reads.

a. 090

b. 225

c. 000

122. When a/c is on heading 045 QEC is most when ADF on KMI reads.

a. 090

b. 225

c. 225

123. ADF quadrantal error is caused due to.

a. Static build up and St Elmos fire.

b. Aircraft major electrical axis and fuselage reflecting and reradiating in

coming NDB transmission Station interference or night effect.

c. Station interference or night effect.

d. NDB signal bending after crossing the coast.

124. An aero plane is flying over sea parallel to coast, which of the following will give
max coastal refraction error.

a. NDB located on coast RBI reading 330.

b. NDB located on coast RBI reading 090.

c. NDB 30 nms inland RBI routing 270


125. When checking sensitivity of a VOR Rx the number of degrees in course change as
the OBS is rotated to move the GDI from centre to last dot on either side should be

a. 2° and 5°

b. 5° and 6°
c. 8° and 10°

d. 10° and12°

126. In VOR, the reference and variable signals are in phase.

a. In true north direction of transmitter.

b. In magnetic north / south direction of transmitter.

c. Only in magnetic north direction of transmitter

d. In all 360° around transmitter.

127. The polar diagram of VOR transmitter is

a. Limacon - Rotating cardioid.

b. Heart shaped cardioid.

c. Circle

d. Figure of Fight.

128. Aggregate error occurs in

a. ADF

b. VOR

c. DME

129. VOR aggregate error consists of

a. Site error propagation error, air-borne equipment error.

b. Site error, propagation error, static effect.

c. Static effect, airborne equipment error, propagation error.

130. Main advantage of Doppler VOR is that

a. It gives increased range.

b. It has more power output.

c. It error is considerably reduced and freq instability is .minimum.

131. VOR monitor may remove the ident or switch off transmitter ii the transmitted bearing is
out by more than.

a. 2°

b. 4°

c. 1°

d. 10°
132. While tracking in to a VOR radial, the GDI continues indicating 1/4 deflection to
right, the a/c distance off-track is

a. Increasing.

b. Remains same.

c. Decreasing.

133. When checking a VOR on ground using VOT, the omni-bearing selector (OBS) and the
TO/FROM indicator should read

a. 180° FROM, only if the a/c is due north of the VOT.

b. O" TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the a/c position from the VOT.

c. Oo FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the a/c position from the VOT.

134. When using VOT to check accuracy of VOR Rx the RMI should read

a. 240°

b. 180°

c. 090°

135. VOR working principle is bearing by

a. Phase comparison.

b. Phase difference.

c. Echo principle.

136. Reverse sensing in VOR occurs when the a/c;

a. Selects OBS bearing at 90" to a/c bearing from VOR.

b. Fails to select reciprocal bearing on OBS after crossing VOR ground station.

c. Files a heading reciprocal to OBS selected.

137. To track out on radial 140 on VOR, correct procedure is to set the OBS to;

a. 320" and make hdg corrections away from CDI needle.

b. 320° and make hdg corrections towards CDI needle.

c. 140° and make hdg corrections away from CDI needle.

d. 140oand make hdg corrections towards CDI needle.

138. While tracking inbound, to the VOR station you should fly towards the needle to
center it.

a. OBS selection and magnetic heading are within 70° to 80" of each other.

b. TO/ FROM indicator reads from.

c. TO/FROM indicator reads to ir - respective of heading

d. All are correct.

139. VOR operates between.

a. 104 and 110 mhz

b. 108 and 111.95 mhz

c. 108 and 117.95 mhz.

140. When using VOR which of the following confirms station passage.

a. Full scale deflection of CDI needle.

b. Positive change-over of To/From indicator

c. Appearance of OFF flag

141. What timing procedure is followed when entering a VOR holding pattern.

a. Timing should be adjusted by varying rate of turn

b. Timing for outbound log begins when over or abeam VOR whichever
occurs later.

c. Timing for inbound leg begins when at completes inbound turn

142. To convert QDMs indicated on RMI by NOB and VOR needles apply variation for finding
true bearings as follows

NDB (Variation at) VOR (Variation at)

a. Beacon position Aircraft position

b. Beacon position Beacon position

c. Aircraft position Beacon position

d. Aircraft position Aircraft position

143. ATC may assign the MOCA under certain special conditions and a/c is within

a. 44 NMs of VOR.

b. 22 NMs of VOR.

c. 100 NMs of VOR.

144. Maximum variation permitted between indicated bearings of two VORs fitted in an ac is

a. ± 4° when set to same radial on VOR.

b. 4° between two indicated bearings.

c. 6° between two indicated bearings

d. ± 6° between two indicated bearings when set to identical radial on VOR.


145. Missed approach must be initiated at.

a. The Pilot's discretion.

b. Controller's discretion

c. At MAP.

d. At 50 feet agl.

146. In ILS approach if ROD is reduced the G/S should be

a. Decreased.

b. Maintained.

c. Increased.

147. The visual indications while crossing OM, MM and IM are

a. Blue, Amber, White

b. Amber, Blue, White

c. White, Blue, Amber

148. The marker beacons operate on……… mhz and are modulated with………..

a. 118.0 mhz and OM=400mhz, MM=1300 mhz/IM= 3000 mhz

b. 75 Mhz and OM -400 hz /MM - 1300 hz/ IM 3000hz

c. 75 Mhz and OM=400mhz,/MM= 1300 mhz/ IM= 3000 mhz

149. ILS.GP needle is deflected fully above centre line the a/c is

a. 2.5 left of centre line.

b. Less than 0.7 above GP

c. At below 0.7 below GP

150. In a typical ILS height of a/c over middle marker is approximately.

a. 500 feet

b. 100 feet

c. 200 feet

151. During an ILS approach the a/c is below GP and left of R/ VV centre line. The VOR/ ILS
meter indications are

a. Below and left

b. Below and right

c. Above and right

152. During ILS approach the localizer needle is deflected right and horizontal needle
below The a/c is

a. Above and right of GP

b. Above and left of GP.

c. Below and left of GP

d. Below and right of GP.

153. The giidescope and localizer are centered but airspeed is high, what should be adjusted

a. Pitch and power

b. Pitch only

c. Power only

154. In ILS false GP occurs at

a. 6o or above

b. 3 or above

c. At 3o

155. ILS CAT1 provides coverage to…………feet above ILS reference datum

a. 50

b. 200

c. Upto touch clown

156. If horizontal needle during ILS approach is deflected '6 full scale fly up it is

a. Minimum safe deflection desirable.

b. Maximum safe deflection permitted.

c. Extremely unsaid.

157. An a/c while taking off using ILS ,GP, the vertical needle has deflected to right the a/c
is in which sector and modulation and it should turn which side to regain GP

a. Blue 150, hertz, right

b. YeIlow.90 hz, left

c. Yellow , 90 hz, right

158. DA/DH in ILS approach is the.

a. Lowest alt/height to which a/c can descend below which missed
approach is initiated unless R/W has been sighted.

b. Lowest alt/height to which a/c can descend below which missed approach is
initiated unless aerodrome has been sighted.

c. Lowest alt/height to which a/c can descend below which missed approach is
initiated unless ILS GP transmitter has been sighted.

159. When approaching on ILS, GP, the head-wind changes to tail-wind The following is

a. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease, a/c has tendency to go below GP

b. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase, a/c has tendency to go above GP.

c. Airspeed and pitch altitude decrease a/c has tendency to go above GP.

d. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase a/c has tendency to go below GP.

160. The ILS GP operates between

a. 108 and 112 khz in VHP band.

b. 329.3 and 335 mhz in VHP band.

c. 329.3 and 335 mhz in UHF band.

161. When a/c is approaching along centre-line the DDM difference m depth modulation is

a. Maximum

b. Zero

c. 1/4

162. For 3° GP the ILS coverage above the surface is between.

a. 3o to 6o.

b. 1.35o to 5.25o.

c. 1o to 3o.

163. The rate of descend to remain on ILS glide path.

a. Will be determined by true air airspeed.

b. Must be increased if GS is decreased.

c. Will remain constant if IAS remains constant.

d. Must be decreased if GS is decreased.

164. Which substitution is permitted when ILS component is in-operative.

a. Compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for ILS, OM or

b. VOR or ADF bearings intersecting at OM/MM.

c. DMF,

d. Published circling minima.

165. Fan markers are

a. Omnidirectional.

b. Unidirectional.

166. The freq difference between adjacent Locators! LOM,LMM and LIM] should not be

a. Less than 25 khz,

b. More than 25 khz and less than 15 khz

c. Less than 25 khz and more than 15 khz

167. MLS guidance is

a. 20° either side of R/ W in azimuth and 20° in vertical at 20 NMS at 30,000 feet.

b. 40o either side of R/W in azimuth and 1 to 20° in vertical at 20 NMS at

20,000 feet

c. 40° either side of R/W in azimuth and 20° in vertical at 40 NMS at 20,000 feet.

168. MLS approach is.

a. Straight in only.

b. Circling approach only.

c. May be straight or curved circling.

169. Frequency band of MLS is

a. UHF in azimuth and elevation

b. U HF for azimuth and elevation

c. UHF for azimuth SHF for elevation

d. SHF for azimuth UHF for elevation

170. Principle of operation of MLS is.

a. Comparing strength of signals in two planes.

b. Comparing phase of two signals in each plane.

c. Comparing rime between two signals in each piano.

d. Comparing frequency of two signals in each plane.

171. Which of the following is an error of the MLS?

a. Interference from a/c or vehicles close to Tx.

b. False GP at approx twice the correct one.

c. Sitting error.

d. Scalloping

172. Range in MLS is given by.

a. Distance from aerodrome normal DME.

b. By marker beacons.

c. From touchdown by precision DME.

IAP (Instrument Approach Procedure)

173. A typical holding pattern is

a. Race horse pattern

b. Race course pattern

c. Circular pattern

d. Rectangular pattern

174. A holding pattern of

a. Two mins duration

b. Three mins duration

c. Four / five mins duration depending upon height

175. An a/c will initiate missed approach

a. At ATC controllers discretions

b. At pilots discretion

c. On visibility contact with R/W.

d. At MAP

176. An ac heading 060 [M] is tracking with ADF reading 030[R]. the ac is asked to intercept
and approach on radial 250 for standard holding pattern inbound leg. The pilot should
alter hading to ……..[M]and entry to holding pattern is ……..

a. 030 /direct

b. 250 / parallel

c. 070 / teardrop

d. 130 /direct
177. An ac tracking in to NDB on in bound track of 040 [M] is asked to intercept and
proceed direct on to outbound track of 330 {M} by intercepting the same at 40 o. The
ac should alter heading to

a. 290 [M]

b. 010 [M]

c. 080 [M]

d. 030 [M]


178. One Nano second is equal to …………… of a second

a. 0000001

b. 0001

c. 0000000001

d. 000000001

179. The maximum and minimum range of radar are governed by

a. PRF and PRP respectively.

b. Pulse width (Length] and PRP (PRI] respectively,

c. PRP and PW respectively.

180. The freq band and rate of scan of airfield surface movement radar are.

a. SHF, 60RPM.

b. SHF, 200RPM.

c. EHF, 100 RPM.

d. EHF, 10 RPM.

181. In precision radar approach talk down normally ceases …………. At nm from

a. 0.5 nm

b. 2 nm

c. 3 nm

d. 5 nm

182. On AWR heaviest rain area is shown in

a. Yellow colour

b. Red colour

c. Orange colour
183. In AWR in 'weather’ mode strongest signals are received from.

a. Areas of concentration of large water droplets in a CB.

b. Area of maximum turbulence.

c. Area of wind shear.

184. Iso-echo circuit is used in

a. SSR

b. AWR

c. GPS

185. 'Hold' position is used in AWR for

a. Assessing movement of Cbs.

b. Temporarily switching off AWR.

c. To increase strength of incoming signal.

186. To give sharpness [focus], Potential. Is changed / varied of

a. Grid

b. Second anode

c. Cathode.

d. x & y plates.

187. If there is potential difference between Y – plates but no potential X – plates the

a. Blip will not move

b. Blip moves in horizontal direction

c. Blip moves in vertical direction

188. List main components of CRT in proper sequence

a. Cathode, grid, 1st, 2nd and 3rd anodes, Y and X plates, screen.

b. Grid, Cathodes, 1st, 2nd and 3rd anodes, Y and X plates, screen.

c. Cathode, grid, Y and X plates, 1st, 2nd and 3rd anodes, screen.

d. Cathode, 1st, 2nd and 3rd anodes, Y and X plates, screen.

189. Match the following components of CRT with respective functions.

I. Grid 1. Focusing

II. X and Y plates 2. Brilliance

III. Anodes 3. Time Base

a. [Grid – time base] [X and Y plates – brilliance], [Anodes – focusing]

b. [Grid – brilliance] [X and Y plates – brilliance], [Anodes – focusing]

c. [Grid – focusing] [X and Y plates – brilliance], [Anodes – brilliance]

d. [Grid – brilliance] [X and Y plates – brilliance], [Anodes – time base]

190. When making routing transponder code change, pilots should avoid inadvertent
selection of which codes?

a. 7500, 7600, 7700.

b. 0700, 1700, 7000.

c. 1200, 1500, 7000.

191. SSR code for entering FIR from adjacent region SSR is not required or assigned is.

a. 2000

b. 7600

c. 7722

192. When radar controller provides range and azimuth the approach is called.

a. GCA

b. ILS

c. Radar beam app.

d. Surveillance (ASR) approach.

193. What information in addition to heading does radar controller provide to pilot in ASR
[surveillance radar] approach?

a. Recommended altitude every NM from R/W.

b. When to commence descent to MDA, a/c position each NM from R/W and
arrival at MAP

c. Distance every Vx NMs from threshold.

194. In SSR the identification and altitude encoding modes are respectively.

a. Modes A/B and Mode C.

b. Modes B/C and Mode A respectively.

c. Modes A/B/C and mode D respectively.

195. Max range of SSR is normally.

a. 300 NMs

b. 200 NMs

c. 100 NMs
196. In SSR at mode C operation a/c, height information transmitted is.

a. In relation to QNH setting.

b. In relation to QFE setting.

c. Referenced to 1013.25 hpa ir-respective of altimeter setting.


197. The true altitude is shown in a/c by.

a. Pressure altimeter.

b. Radio altimeter when flying over plain land.

c. Radio/ Radar altimeter when flying over sea.

198. Radio altimeter measures height by

a. Phase comparison of incoming and outgoing signals.

b. Echo principal by timing difference between incoming and outgoing .signals.

c. Comparing freq difference with time difference of incoming and outgoing


199. The measuring error occurs in.

a. DME

b. Radio Altimeter

c. GPS

200. Primary radar principle is used in


b. Radio Altimeter

c. Radar Altimeter

d. DME


201. The DME is saturated when.

a. Combined power of all pulses is more than power of DME receiver.

b. More than 100 a/c are interrogating ground stn and combined replies by ground
station saturate transmitter.

c. If 100 a/c are interrogating and receiving replies from ground station. If more a/c
sends in the interrogations the closest 100 a/c receive replies.
d. If 100 a/c are interrogating and receiving replies from ground station. If
more a/c sends in the interrogations the strongest '100 signals receive

202. The DME operates between frequencies.

a. 960 and 1213 khz in VHF band.

b. 960 and 1213 Mhz in UHF band.

c. 960 and 1173 Mhz in UHF band.

203. The DME is

a. Primary radar in SHF band and uses CW signals.

b. Secondary radar in UHF band and utilizes a pair of pulses transmissions.

c. Primary radar in UHF band and utilizes a pair of pulses transmissions.

204. The a/c ground distance from DME and DME reading are out by maximum value when.

a. Aircraft is at high altitude at maximum distance from DME.

b. The a/c is at low altitude at maximum distance from DME.

c. The a/c is closest to DME at high altitude.

205. VORTAC is a ground station where

a. ADF and VOR are co-located.

b. VOR and DME are co-located.

c. ADF and DME are co-located.

206. The DME position lines are.

a. Linear bearing position lines.

b. Linear range position lines.

c. Circular range position lines.

207. If a Pilot records readings of a DME as 27, 22,18,21,22.23 NMs. The a/c was abeam
DME at.

a. 22 NMs

b. 18 NMs

c. 27 NMs


208. GPWS warning envelope is.

a. Ground level to 2500 feet.

b. 50 feet to 2450 feet

c. 50 feet to 2500 feet

d. Ground level to 50 feet.

209. In GPWS-with mode 2b [ landing configuration] selected the warning envelope is

a. 220 to 790 feet.

b. 50 feet to 790 feet

c. 220 feet to 2450 feet.

210. BITE function in GPWS is meant to.

a. To check GPWS serviceability' in the air.

b. To check GPWS serviceability in the air and on the ground.

c. To check GPWS serviceability on the ground.

211. When using GPWS approach of a cliff or mountain will.

a. Generate visual warning.

b. Generate audio warning.

c. Generate audio, visual warning.3

d. Generate no warning.


212. GPS system consists of.

a. Eight stations transmitting on VLF for worldwide coverage.

b. Twenty four satellites orbiting around the earth. [ 21+3 ]

c. An independent gyro stabilized system in a/c for obtaining instantaneous fix

213. Position fixing by no. Of satellites is done by

a. Range position lines

b. Bearing

c. Both range & bearing.

214. In obtaining fix GPS uses position lines similar to that of.

a. DME

b. ADF

c. VOR
215. In GPS the satellites complete one orbit in.

a. 24 hrs.

b. 12 hrs.

c. 30 days.

216. For obtaining 3-d fix by GPS an a/c Rx must obtain range position lines from at least

a. Two satellites.

b. Three satellites.

c. Four satellites.


217. The aural warning on TCAS accompanying a TA is

a. Threat threat.

b. Traffic traffic

c. Whoop whoop pull up,

d. Climb climb or descend descend.

218. The distance to proximate traffic is within plus/minus

a. 1200’ & 6 nm

b. 600’ & 12 nm

c. 600’ & 30 nm

219. In TCAS, RA stands for.

a. Radio Active.

b. Resolution Advisory.

c. Radar Advisory.

220. In TCAS, TA stands for.

a. Traffic Advisory.

b. Transition Altitude,

c. True Altitude.

221. If mode S transponder is on board two a/c TCAS computer will.

a. Co-ordinate their RAs and provide vertical avoidance maneuver to both


b. Co-ordinate their RAs and provide vertical avoidance maneuver to one a/c.
c. Co-ordinate their RAs and provide information to ground radar.

222. TCAS is

a. Primary radar.

b. Secondary radar with interrogator and transponder

c. SSR


223. All parallels of latitude are.

a. great circles

b. Small circles

c. Small circles except 0o and 90o parallel

224. Meridians and parallels of latitude

a. Are great circles

b. small circles except 0° and 90°

c. Meridians are great circles, and parallels of latitude are rhumb lines.

d. Parallels of latitude are great circles and meridians are rhumb lines.

225. Only one great circle can be drawn through any two points on die surface of the

a. Correct

b. Not correct

c. Correct except two antipodal [diametrically opposite] points.

d. Correct only when these points are on different latitudes.

226. When airspeed is decreasing in a turn, the angle of attack must be ……….and angle of
bank must be………

a. increased & increased

b. decreased & decreased

c. Increased & decreased

d. decreased & increased

227. In half standard turn a/c requires …….seconds to turn 135°.

a. 45 secs

b. 90 secs
c. 180 secs

228. In southern hemisphere if destination pressure is lesser than departure aerodrome, the
a/c heading will be

a. Port of track.

b. Starboard or track.

c. Along the isobar.

229. When wind direction is 90° to track the TAS will be, theoretically.

a. More than G/S

b. Same as G/S.

c. Less than G/S.

230. The drift is maximum when winds are perpendicular to

a. Hdg

b. Track

c. None of die above.

231. If drift calculated is port.

a. Heading is port of track

b. Track is port of heading

c. Track is starboard of hdg

232. Under nil wind conditions an aircraft in air covering 100 runs air distance will cover.

a. Exactly 100 nms ground distance

b. Slightly higher ground distance.

c. Slightly lesser ground distance.

233. Drift angle of an ac with higher TAS when compared to an ac with lower TAS under
similar wind conditions will be

a. More

b. Less

c. Same


234. Moonrise/ Moonset timings indicated in Air Almanac are

a. Zone times
b. LMT of Greenwich meridian

c. LMT of observer's meridian

235. An a/c files from 170° E to 170° W, eastwards the date will …….. & LMT will……..

a. Increase and Increase

b. Increase and decrease

c. Decrease and decrease

d. Decrease and increase

236. Which of the following is correct statement

a. Mean solar day = apparent solar day

b. Apparent solar day = sidereal day.

c. Mean solar day = sidereal day.

d. Apparent solar day may be longer or shorter than Sidereal day.

237. Nautical twilight is said to exist when centre of sun is ……….. Degrees below the

a. 1 to 6

b. 6 to 12

c. 12 to 18

238. The sun will be over-head Delhi / Bombay.

a. Once / twice every year

b. Never /once every year

c. Once/once every year.

d. Never/twice every year.

239. Position of earth at maximum distance from sun is called.

a. Summer Solstice.

b. First point of aries.

c. Perihelion.

d. Aphelion.

240. To calculate LMT reference is taken from.

a. Meridian of sun to meridian of observer westward.

b. Anti meridian of sun to meridian of observer westward.

c. Meridian of Greenwich to meridian of observer eastward or westward

d. Anti meridian of Greenwich to meridian uf observer eastward or westward.

241. At the lime of sun rise.

a. Centre of sun is on horizon

b. Lower limb is on horizon

c. Upper limb is on horizon

CP and PNR

242. On a flight on constant TAS a/c achieves faster stage timings, compare to plan
timings. The CP position will shift closer to

a. Destination

b. Place of departure

c. Remain same

243. Under any particular wind condition hwc is equal to or.

a. Always equal to two

b. Less than two

c. More than two

244. In head wind condition if TAS is reduced the dCP will.

a. Remain same.

b. Decrease

c. Increase

245. dCP and d PNR are same when

a. Usable fuel is just sufficient for flight.

b. Fuel on board according to rule in nil wind conditions.

c. Ground speed out = ground speed home.

246. In case of engine failure d CP/ t CP are calculated respectively with.

a. Normal TAS

b. Reduced TAS

c. normal/Reduced TAS
d. Reduced/Normal TAS.

247. If hwc changes to two by equal amount on outbound dPSR will and t I^R will

a. increase/increase

b. decrease/decrease

c. Remain same/decrease

d. Increase/remain same

248. Maximum distance to PNR/PSR will be under;

a. Nil wind conditions

b. Strong hwc on outbound leg

c. Two on outbound leg

d. Beam-wind conditions


249. On a mercator meridians are ………… & …………….

a. parallel & unevenly spaced.

b. parallel & spaced at n known rate.

c. Converging and evenly spaced.

250. Away from the equator the dist along parallel between two meridians at 1 degree diff
reduces at a rate

a. Sine of latitude

b. Cos of latitude

c. Sec pf latitude

251. On L.CC the stale is constant at

a. Top & bottom of standard parallels.

b. The 2 selected standard parallels.

c. The parallel of origin.

252. A projection with two standard parallels is called;

a. Lamberts Conical conformal.

b. IMPP.

c. Mercator

d. Polar stereographic
253. The segments of an airway reporting points on a Jeppesen chart are.

a. Rhumb lines

b. Great Circle.

c. Small circles.

254. Transverse mercator projection is best used on routes which extend considerable

a. In North/South direction.

b. In East, West direction.

c. Along Rhumb line.

d. Along great circle.

255. On transverse mercator scale is assumed constant at.

a. 300 NMs from pole

b. 300 NMs from equator.

c. 300 NMs from point of tangency [ central meridian],

256. On transverse mercator Rhumb line is

a. Straight line

b. Curve concave to nearer pole.

c. Curve convex to central meridian.

257. To pilot VOR true bearings on lamberts conformal, following correction is applied

a. Convergency and variation.

b. Conversion angle.

c. Variation only

258. The chart convergency is zero on.

a. Lamberts conformal

b. Polar sereographic

c. Mercator

259. On lamberts chart the track from place A to B is measured,

a. Approximately at meridian which is half way unless track runs N or S.

b. At the point of departure.

c. At meridian passing through destination

260. A projection is orthomorphic /conformal on which:

a. Bearing are correctly represented as on earth.

b. Distances are correctly represented as on earth

c. Ares are correctly represented as on earth

261. Orthomorphism achieved on a projection on which.

a. Meridians and parallels intersect at 90o.

b. Scale is same [may not be correct] in all direction at any point.

c. Shapes of small areas are preserved.

d. All above are correct.

262. In polar stenographic die scale is correct at.

a. At any point in north south direction.

b. At any point in east west direction.

c. At pole.

d. At equator

263. Constant of cone of

a. Mercator - Zero

b. Polar stereographic - 1

c. LCC – Sin POO.

d. All above are correct

264. Convergency [n x d long] in

a. Mercator - Zero

b. LCC – constant of cone x d Long

c. Polar stereographic – d Long

d. All above are correct

265. In LCC great circle is and rhumb line is

a. Both concave to equator

b. Both concave to nearer pole

c. Concave to pole / concave to parallel of origin

d. Concave to POO / concave to nearer pole.